JAI GURUDEV

SRI GURUKULAM SECONDARY SCHOOL,HOSUR

CLASS XII SUB- BIOLOGY
MAX.MARKS- 70 TIME -1.30 HRS
REVISION TEST-II

General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 33 questions.
All questions are compulsory
(ii) This question paper is divided into five Sections A, B, C, D and E
(iii) In Section A Questions no. 1 to 16 are multiple choice (MCQ) type questions, carrying 1 mark each.
(iv) In Section B Questions no. 17 to 21 very short answer (VSA) type questions, carrying 2 marks each.
(v) In Section C Questions no. 22 to 28 are short answer (SA) type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
(vi) In Section D Questions no. 29 and 30 are case-based questions carrying 4 marks each. Each question
has subparts with internal choice in one subpart.
(vii) In Section E Questions no. 31 to 33 are long answer (LA) type questions carrying 5 marks each.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in 1 question in Section B, 1
question in Section C, 2 questions in Section D and 3 questions in Section E. A candidate has to attempt only
one of the alternatives in such questions.
(ix) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.
SECTION A
Questions no. 1 to 16 are Multiple Choice (MCQ) type Questions, carrying 1 mark each.2.
1. Identify the region X, factor Y, and enzyme Z a) 5-3-6-4-1-2 b) 3-5-6-4-1-2
involved in the process of transcription in prokaryote c) 5-3-4-6-1-2 d) 5-1-6-4-3-2
as shown in the schematic representation given 4.Match with suitable duration with respect to
below. development of embryo
Region X , Factor Y Enzyme Z 1. embryo's heart p) first month
2. limbs and digits q) second month
3. external genital r) first trimester
organs s) fifth month
4. first movements of t) second
the foetus trimester
5. Fine hair, eye-lids,
and eyelashes

(a) Terminator Sigma RNA polymerase 1) 1-r,2-p,3-q,4-t,5-8 1-p,2-q,3-r,4-s,5-t

(b) Promoter Rho RNA polymerase 2) 1-s,2-p,3-q,4-r,5-t 1-p,2-s,3-q,4-t,5-r
(c) Promoter Sigma RNA polymerase 5.Select the correct statements about MTP from the
(d) Promoter Sigma DNA polymerase following:
I. MTP is also called as induced abortion.
2. Choose the option that gives the correct number II. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a
of pollen grains that will year all over the world which accounts to 1/5th of the
be formed after 325 microspore mother cells total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
undergo microsporogenesis. III. Government of India legalized MTP in 1981.
(a) 325 (b) 650 (c) 1300 (d) 975 IV. MTPs are also essential in cases where
continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or
3. Select the correct sequence of reproductive events even fatal either to the mother or to the foetus or
1. gestation, 2. parturition, 3. Insemination, both.
4. Implantation, 5. Gametogenesis, 6. fertilisation
V. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first 12. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of
trimester, i.e., upto 15 weeks of pregnancy. their evolution and select the correct option.
(a) I, II and V are correct (b) II, III A. Sea weeds B. Invertebrates C. Jawless fish
and IV are correct (a) A-B-C (b) A-C-B (c) B-C-A (d) B-A-C
(c) I, II and IV are correct (d) All
except III are correct (13 to 16). Instruction: Following questions consists
of two statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
6. DNA replication is Answer these questions by selecting the
(1) Semi-conservative, continuous, unidirectional appropriate option given below:
(2) Conservative, continuous
(3) Semi-conservative, semi-discontinuous (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(4) Semi-continuous, conservative the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
7. Heterochromatin not the correct explanation of assertion.
(1) Is transcriptionally active (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(2) Is densely packed (d) Assertion is False but reason is true.
(3) Replicated during early S-phase
(4)Stains lightly 13. Assertion: A secondary oocyte, at the time of
ovulation has 46 chromatids.
8. In the given pedigree, indicate whether the shaded Reason: A secondary oocyte and the first polar body
symbols indicate dominant or recessive allele. are formed when the primary oocyte
completes meiosis I.

14. Assertion: Morgan in his experiments with

Drosophila found that the genes for white eyes and
miniature wings showed 37.2 per cent
recombination, whereas the genes for white eyes
and yellow body showed 1.3 per cent recombination.
(1) Recessive (2) Co-dominant
Reason: The frequency of recombination is directly
(3) Dominant (4) It can be recessive
proportional to the physical distance between the
or dominant both
two genes present on the same chromosome.
9. Progeny with blood group 'O' can not be obtained
15.Assertion: During replication, the DNA strands do
in cross
not separate in the entire length, but replication
(1) AxA (2) A×B (3) OxAB (4) BxB
occurs only within small openings (replication fork).
10.
Reason: DNA is a giant molecule and its opening in
Column I Column II the entire length requires very high
I Mala D P Oral contraceptive pills amounts of energy.
II Lippies Loop Q Cu releasing IUD
III Multi loaded R Hormone releasing IUD 16.Assertion: The examples of evolution by
375 anthropogenic action, tell us that evolution is not a
IV LNG 20 S Non medicated IUD directed process in the sense of determinism.
V Sterilization T Effective means of Birth Reason: Evolution is a stochastic process, based on
control chance events in nature and chance mutation
(a) I-P, II-S, III-R, IV-Q, V-T (b) I-P, II-Q, III- R, IV-S, V-T in the organisms.
(c) I-P, II-S, III-Q, IV-R, V-T (d) I-P, II-R, III-S, IV-Q, V-T

11. The term 'Darwinian fitness' refers to

(a) the ability to survive and reproduce
(b) the physical strength of the individual
(c) high aggressiveness
(d) all of these
 SECTION B
17."Insects do pollinate flowers even when not rewarded with nectar and pollen grains." Explain with the help
of an example.
18. Name the stages in human female, where:
(i) corpus luteum and placenta co-exist.
(ii) corpus luteum temporarily ceases to exist .

19. Name the Scientists and write how they did explain Mendel's laws after the chromosomes were
discovered.

20. State a functional difference between the following codons:

(a) AUG and UAA
(b) Specific and degenerate OR
Explain when genetic code is said to be:
(a) Degenerate (b) Universal
21. Compare the mechanism of evolution as put forth by Darwin and de vries.

SECTION C
22. Majority of angiosperms have hermaphrodite flowers, but self-pollination is discouraged by them. Explain
any three outbreeding devices that they have developed to achieve this.

23.Explain the coordination between gonado- tropins, Leydig cells and Sertoli cells and their role in
spermatogenesis.
24.Explain the cause of chromosomal disorders in humans. Describe the effect of such disorders with the help
of an example each involving (i) autosomes, and (ii) sex chromosomes.
25. The length of DNA in any cell is far greater than the dimension of its nucleus. Explain how this enormous
DNA is packaged in a eukaryotic cell.
OR
25.Explain the process of charging of tRNA. Why is it essential in translation?

26.Explain the following salient features of a DNA molecule: (a) Complementarity of base pairs of its two
chains. (b) Antiparallel polarity of the two chains.
27.Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution. Explain
each concept with the help of a suitable example.
28. (a) Name the two primate ancestors of the present day humans, who existed approximately about 15 million
years ago
(b) According to geological records, when and where did Australopithecines live ?
(c) Give two differences between Homo habilis and Homo erectus
SECTION D
29. Gene expresses itself in a cell system as a protein/enzyme. How does an expression of gene occur in a cell
system and when does it need to occur, and how the gene expression is regulated in a prokaryote cell system
was studied by the combined efforts of Jacque Monod, the biochemist and Francois Jacob, the geneticist. For
their work on lactose metabolism in E. coli and introducing the concept of lac operon they were awarded the
Nobel Prize in 1965.
(a) Why is lac operon said to be a transcriptionally regulated system ? 1
(b) It is said that the lac operon has to be operational at a very low level in the bacterial cell all the time.
Justify.1/2
(c) Why is the regulator gene in lac operon is marked as i gene?1/2
(d) Draw a schematic diagram of lac operon in absence of inducer in the culture medium of the bacteria.2
OR
(d) Draw a schematic diagram of lac operon in the presence of inducer in the culture medium of the bacteria.2

30.Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Intrauterine devices are most widely accepted methods of contraception. These are used by females and are
inserted by doctor or nurses in the uterus through vagina. However these devices are not recommended for
those who eventually intend to conceive.

(i) How does CuT prevent conception?

(a) Cu ions make uterus unsuitable for implantation (b) Cu ions make cervix hostile to the sperms
(c) Cu ions suppress sperms motility (d) Cu ions inhibit ovulation

(ii) Which of the following IUDs makes uterus unsuitable for implantation?
(a) LNG-20 (b) Multiload 375 (c) Cu7 (d) Lippes loop

(iii) Identify the correct statement for IUDs,

(a) They slowly release synthetic (b) They increase phagocytosis of sperms
progesterone in the body. within the uterus
(c) They block entry of sperms through the
(d) Both (b) and (c)
cervix.

(iv) Select the correct matched pair.

(a) Hormone releasing (b) Non-medicated IUD - (c) Copper releasing IUD
(d) None of these
IUD - LNG-20 Progestasert - Lippes loop

(v) Assertion : IUDs can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain.
Reason : IUD s can perforate uterus.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

SECTION E
31. (a) Meselson and Stahl carried out an experiment to prove the nature of
DNA replication. Recall the experiment and answer the following questions.
(i) Which two types of nitrogen were used by them in their experiment and why ?
(ii) Why did they take samples of E. coli at definite time intervals for their observation ?
(iii) State the role of caesium chloride density gradient in their experiment.
(iv) Write the conclusions they arrived at.
OR
(a) Protein synthesis requires the services of all three types of RNAs, namely t-RNA, m-RNA and r-RNA.
Explain the role of each of them during the process of protein synthesis in prokaryotes.

32. Study the figure given below of a human female reproductive tract showing the transport of ovum, its
fertilisation and growing embryo moving through the fallopian tube and answer the questions that follow :
 (i) Identify the embryonic stages 'e' and 'g' and differentiate between them.
(ii) Describe the process of implantation as shown in figure 'H'.
OR
Arrange the terms given below in their order of occurrence, describing their structure and function in the early
development of human embryo:
Implantation , cleavage, inner cell mass, trophoblast, blastomeres, endometrium, morula, blastocyst.
33a).How does palaeontological evidence support evolution of organisms on Earth?
b)Write in what context did Darwin use the terms 'fitness', 'survival' and 'selection', while elaborating on the
mechanism of evolution.
OR
a)Explain Hardy-Weinberg principle.
b)Australian marsupials exhibit adaptive radiation'. Justify the statement.