Anatomy Quetion and Answers

Human Anatomy CHAPTER 5
and Physiology
INTRODUCTION
COMPLETION: In the space(s) provided, write the word(s) that correctly

complete(s) each statement.
1. The submicroscopic particles that make up all substances are called
(atoms) .
2. These are arranged in specific patterns and structures called
(molecules) .
3. In the human organism, the basic unit of structure and function is the
(cell) .
4. These are organized into layers or groups called (tissues) .
5. Groups of these form complex structures that perform certain functions.
These structures are called (organs) and are arranged in
(organ systems) .
6. All living matter is composed of a colorless, jellylike substance called
(protoplasm) .
7. The cytoplasm contains a network of various membranes called
(cytoplasmic organelles) , which perform specific functions necessary

for cell survival.
8. Cell reproduction is controlled by the (centrosome) and the (nucleus) .
41
42 9. During the early developmental stages of an organism, the repeated division of the ovum
results in many specialized cells that differ from one another in composition and
Theory & Practice of Therapeutic Massage Workbook
function. This process is called (differentiation) .
10. In the human organism, as a cell matures and is nourished, it grows in size and
eventually divides into two smaller cells. This form of cell division is called (mitosis) .
SHORT ANSWER: In the spaces provided, write short answers to the following questions.
1. Name four ways in which cells differ from one another.
a. (size) c. (structure)
b. (shape) d. (function)
2. Name the four principal parts of a cell.
a. (cytoplasm) c. (nucleus)
b. (centrosome) d. (cell membrane)
MATCHING: Match each term with its associated function. Write the letter of the
appropriate term in the space provided.
A. cell membrane F. Golgi apparatus K. nucleolus

B. centrosome G. lysosome L. nucleus
C. chromatin H. microtubules M. ribosome
D. endoplasmic reticulum I. mitochondria N. vacuole
E. fibrils J. nuclear membrane
(I) 1. converts and releases energy for cell operation
(A) 2. contains cellular material and transports materials between the inside and outside
of the cell
(D) 3. produce lipids or proteins for cell utilization and transport
(L) 4. supervises all cell activity
(F) 5. synthesizes carbohydrates and holds protein for secretion
(N) 6. involved in the rapid introduction or ejection of substances
(B) 7. divides and moves to opposite poles of the cell during mitosis
(J) 8. controls passage of substances between the nucleus and cytoplasm
(M) 9. composed of RNA and protein molecules that synthesize proteins
(C) 10. fibers of protein and DNA that contain the genes
IDENTIFICATION: Identify the structures indicated in Figure 5.1 by writing the letter of 43
the structure next to the appropriate name in the space provided.
Chapter 5 Human Anatomy and Physiology

(C) 1. cell membrane (N) 8. nucleolus
(H) 2. chromatin (M) 9. nucleus
(A) 3. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (F) 10. ribosomes
(J) 4. Golgi apparatus (D) 11. vacuole
(K) 5. lysosome (G) 12. rough endoplasmic reticulum
(L) 6. pinocytic vesicle (E) 13. cytoplasm
(B) 7. mitochondria (I) 14. centrioles
Fig. 5.1 Structure of a typical animal cell.

44 SHORT ANSWER: The five phases of cell division are listed below. Number the phases
from 1 to 5 to indicate the correct order in which they occur.
(3) metaphase (1) interphase (4) anaphase
(5) telophase (2) prophase
MATCHING: Match the term with the best description. Write the letter of the best
description in the space provided.
(D) 1. metaphase A. Chromosomes become larger and can be seen as

two coiled strands called chromatids.
(C) 2. telophase
B. This is the normal state of the cell during growth.
(B) 3. interphase
C. Cytoplasm divides into two cells.
(A) 4. prophase
D. Chromosomes arrange along the equatorial plane.
(E) 5. anaphase
E. The chromatids are separated and are again called
chromosomes.
COMPLETION: In the space(s) provided, write the word(s) that correctly complete(s) each
statement.
1. The chemical reactions within a cell that transform food into nutrients used for cell
growth and operation are broadly termed (cellular metabolism) .
2. Two phases of metabolism are (anabolism) and (catabolism) .
3. The process of building up larger molecules from smaller ones is (anabolism) .
4. The process of breaking down larger substances or molecules into smaller ones is
(catabolism) .
5. Protein substances that act as organic catalysts to initiate, accelerate, or control specific
chemical reactions in the metabolic process are called (enzymes) .
6. Collections of similar cells that carry out specific functions of the body are called
(tissues) .
SHORT ANSWER: In the spaces provided, list the four main categories of tissues. 45
1. (epithelial tissue)

2. (connective tissue)
3. (muscular tissue)
4. (nerve tissue)
IDENTIFICATION: In the space provided, write the name of the tissue type that best fits
the description.
(connective) 1. represented by blood and lymph
(epithelial) 2. functions in the process of absorption, excretion, secretion, and protection
(connective) 3. binds structures together and serves as a framework
(nerve) 4. acts as a channel for the transmission of messages
(epithelial) 5. forms the skin, the covering of the organs, and the inner lining of all the
hollow organs
(connective) 6. carries nutrients to the cells and carries away waste products
(connective) 7. deep fascia, superficial fascia
(nerve) 8. initiates, controls, and coordinates the body’s adaptation to its

surroundings
(muscle) 9. contracts and causes movement
(epithelial) 10. always has a free surface that is exposed to outside influences
(muscle) 11. responsible for the movement of food through the digestive tract, the
constriction of blood vessels, and the emptying of the bladder
(connective) 12. bones, cartilage, and ligaments
(epithelial) 13. cells classified by shape as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
(connective) 15. provides support and protection
(epithelial) 16. covers all the surfaces of the body
(muscle) 17. responsible for pumping blood through the heart into the blood vessels
Theory & Practice of Therapeutic Massage Workbook 46 (nerve) 18. composed of neurons
(epithelial) 20. makes up the major tissue of the glands
(muscle) 21. responsible for facial expression, speaking, and other voluntary
movements
statement.
1. Two categories of membranes are (epithelial) membranes and
(fibrous connective tissue) membranes.
2. (Mucous membranes) produce a thick, sticky substance that acts as a protectant and
lubricant.
3. (Serous membranes) produce a more watery, lubricating substance that lines the body
cavities and sometimes forms the outermost surface of the organs contained in those
cavities.
4. Three major serous membranes are the (pleura) that encases the lungs, the
(pericardium) around the heart, and the (peritoneum) that lines the abdominal cavity.
SHORT ANSWER: In the spaces provided, write short answers to the following questions.
1. List three fascial membranes associated with the muscles.
a. (endomysium)
b. (perimysium)
c. (epimysium)
2. Name three types of skeletal membrane and state where each is found.
a. (periosteum—covering the bones)
b. (perichondrium—covering cartilage)
c. (synovial membrane—in cavities and capsules in and around joints)

47

(C) 1. elastic cartilage A. impregnated with mineral salts, chiefly calcium

phosphate and calcium carbonate
(H) 2. areolar tissue
B. found between the vertebrae and in the pubic
(A) 3. osseous tissue symphysis
(I) 4. adipose tissue C. found in the external ear and the larynx
(E) 5. ligaments D. found on the ends of bones and in movable joints
(B) 6. fibrocartilage E. fibrous bands that connect bones to bones
(F) 7. fibrous connective tissue F. composed of collagen and elastic fibers that are
closely arranged
(G) 8. tendons
G. cords or bands that serve to attach muscle to bone
(D) 9. hyaline cartilage
H. binds the skin to the underlying tissues and fills
the spaces between the muscles
I. has an abundance of fat-containing cells
statement.
1. The three types of muscle tissue are (skeletal) , (smooth) , and (cardiac) .
2. (Skeletal muscles or voluntary muscles) are usually attached to bone or other muscle by
way of tendons, and they can be controlled by conscious effort.
3. Because these muscles have alternating light and dark cross markings, they are called
(striated muscles) .
4. Muscle tissue found in the hollow organs of the stomach, small intestine, colon, bladder,
and the blood vessels does not have the cross markings and is called (nonstriated)
or (smooth) muscle.
5. (Cardiac muscle tissue) is found only in the heart.

48 MULTIPLE CHOICE: Carefully read each statement. Choose the word or phrase that
correctly completes the meaning and write the corresponding letter in the blank provided.
1. All substances are made from subatomic particles that form . (c)
a) molecules c) atoms
b) tissues d) cells
2. The basic structure in human organisms is the . (c)

a) organ c) cell
b) tissue d) molecule
3. Cell division, which produces new identical daughter cells, is called

(b)
.
a) mutation c) amitosis
b) mitosis d) gestation
4. The complex chemical and physical process that nourishes organisms is

(b)
called .
a) mitosis c) homeostasis
b) metabolism d) nutrition
5. Microscopic structures in the cytoplasm of the cell that produce energy

(b)
needed for cellular work are called .
a) lysosomes c) Golgi bodies
b) mitochondria d) endoplasmic reticulum
6. Anabolism and catabolism are closely regulated to maintain . (d)

a) prophase c) amitosis
b) enzymes d) homeostasis
7. Which of the following is not one of the five main human tissue types?
(d)
a) epithelial c) nervous
b) connective d) skeletal
8. A special molecule that stores energy for use in muscular activity is

(a)
.
a) adenosine triphosphate c) glucose
b) fatty acids d) protein
9. Bone, adipose tissue, epimysium, and hyaline cartilage are . (b)

a) areas of fat storage c) skeletal structures
b) kinds of connective tissue d) common sites of
inflammation
10. The thin tissue layer that forms the skin, organ coverings, and inner 49
(a)
lining of all the hollow organs is the .

a) epithelial tissue c) muscular tissue
b) connective tissue d) skin
11. Fibrous tissue between muscle bundles is called . (b)

a) cartilage c) muscular tissue
b) fascia d) perichondrium
12. The membrane lines the inner joint cavities. (a)

a) synovial c) mucous
b) adipose d) serous
13. The bands that attach muscles to bone are . (a)

a) tendons c) cartilage
b) ligaments d) aponeurosa
14. The tough, fibrous bands that connect bones to bones are . (b)
a) tendons c) cartilage
b) ligaments d) fascia
15. Skeletal muscles are also known as . (a)

a) voluntary muscles c) tendonous muscles
b) nonstriated muscles d) smooth muscle
16. Cardiac muscle tissue occurs only in the . (c)

a) liver c) heart
b) blood vessels d) skeletal muscles
WORD REVIEW: The student is encouraged to write down the meaning of each of the
following words. The list can be used as a study guide for this unit.
adipose tissue
(Adipose tissue is areolar tissue with an abundance of fat cells.)
amitosis
(Amitosis is a process of cell division.)

50 anabolism
(Anabolism is the process of building up larger molecules from smaller ones.)

anaphase
(Anaphase is a stage in cell division.)
anatomy
(Anatomy is the study of the gross structure of the body and the interrelationship of its parts.)
areolar tissue
(Areolar tissue is loose connective tissue that binds the skin to the underlying tissues and fills the
spaces between the muscles.)
atoms
(Atoms are subatomic particles of which all substances are composed.)
cardiac muscle tissue
(Cardiac muscle tissue occurs only in the heart and is responsible for pumping blood through the
heart into the blood vessels.)
catabolism
(Catabolism is the metabolic breaking down of larger substances into smaller ones.)
cell
(Cells are basic functional units of all living matter.)

cell membrane 51
(The cell membrane is the outer wall of the cell that permits soluble substances to enter and leave

the protoplasm.)
cellular metabolism
(Cellular metabolism includes all chemical reactions within a cell that transform food for cell
growth and operation.)
centrosome
(Centrosome is an organelle that consists of two rodlike structures that divide during mitosis and
help to distribute the chromosomes during cell division.)
columnar
(Columnar refers to a type of epithelial tissue in which the cells are tall or rectangular.)
connective tissue membranes
(Connective tissue membranes include fascial and skeletal membranes that support and anchor
body structures.)
cuboidal
(Cuboidal refers to a type of epithelial tissue in which the cells are small and cube shaped.)
cytoplasm
(Cytoplasm is the substance contained within the cell wall or membrane that contains the
various cytoplasmic organelles.)
cytoplasmic organelles
(Cytoplasmic organelles are discrete structures within a cell that perform specialized functions
necessary for the cell’s survival.)

52 differentiation
(Differentiation is the repeated division of the ovum during early developmental stages, resulting
in specialized cells that differ from one another.)
fibrocartilage
(Fibrocartilage is found between the vertebrae and in the pubic symphysis.)
fibrous connective tissue
(Fibrous connective tissue is composed of collagen and elastic fibers that are closely arranged to
form tendons and ligaments.)
enzymes
(Enzymes are proteins that act as catalysts for chemical reactions in metabolism while remaining
unchanged themselves.)
epithelial membranes
(Epithelial membranes have their outer surface covered with epithelium and include mucous and
serous membranes.)
epithelial tissue
(Epithelial tissue is a protective layer that functions in the processes of absorption, excretion,
secretion, and protection.)
fascia
(Fascia is the fibrous connective that forms a fibrous network that is continuous from the top of
the skull to the tips of the toes and throughout the body.)
histology
(Histology is a branch of biology concerned with the microscopic structure of tissues of a living
organism.)
hyaline cartilage 53
(Hyaline cartilage is found in the nose, trachea, and on the articulating ends of bones that

contain little fibrous tissue, and it is made up of cells in a translucent matrix.)
interphase
(Interphase is a stage in cell division.)
ligaments
(Ligaments are bands of fibrous tissue that connect bones to bones.)
metaphase
(Metaphase is a stage in cell division.)
mitosis
(Mitosis is the process of cell division where a cell divides into two identical cells.)
molecules
(Molecules are specific arrangements of atoms.)
mucous membranes
(Mucous membranes are epithelial membranes that secrete a thick, sticky substance that acts as a
lubricant and protectant.)
nerve tissue
(Nerve tissue is composed of neurons, and it initiates, controls, and coordinates the body’s
adaptation to its surroundings.)

54 neurons
(Neurons are the structural units of the nervous system.)

nucleus
(The nucleus is a cell organelle that contains the chromosomes that transmit heredity and also
supervises cell activity.)
organ system
(An organ system is several organs working together to perform a bodily function.)
organs
(Organs are structures of the body made up of two or more different tissues that combine to
accomplish a definite function.)
perichondrium
(The perichondrium is the membrane covering cartilage.)
periosteum
(The periosteum is a fibrous membrane that covers bone and that functions to protect the bone
and serves as an attachment of tendons and ligaments.)
physiology
(Physiology is the science and study of the vital processes, mechanisms, and functions of an
organ or system.)
prophase
(Prophase is a stage in cell division.)

protoplasm 55
(Protoplasm is a colorless, jelly-like substance within the cell in which food elements, such as

protein, fats, carbohydrates, mineral salts, and water, are present.)
reticular tissue
(Reticular tissue is composed of fibers that form the framework of the liver and lymphoid
organs.)
serous membranes
(Serous membranes line body cavities and sometimes the outer layer of organs. They produce a
watery substance that acts as a lubricant.)
skeletal muscle
(Skeletal muscles are attached to bone by tendons and are responsible for moving the limbs,
facial expression, speaking, and other voluntary movements.)
smooth muscle
(Smooth muscle lacks striations and cannot be stimulated to contract by conscious effort.)
squamous
(Squamous refers to a type of epithelial tissue in which the cells are rather flat.)
striated muscles
(Striated muscles are muscles that when viewed under magnification have alternating light and
dark cross-markings called striations and include skeletal and cardiac muscles.)
superficial fascia
(Superficial fascia refers to the connecting layer between the skin and those structures underlying
the skin.)
56 synovial membrane
(Synovial membrane is a connective tissue membrane lining cavities and capsules in and around
joints.)
telophase
(Telophase is a stage in cell division.)
tendons
(Tendons are bands of fibrous connective tissue that attach muscle to bone.)
tissues
(Tissues are collections of similar cells that carry out specific bodily functions.)
voluntary muscles
(Voluntary muscles are muscles that can be controlled by conscious effort and include skeletal
muscles.)
THE ANATOMIC POSITION OF THE BODY 57

statement.
1. In the anatomic position, the body (standing upright) with the palms of the hands
facing (forward) .
2. Anatomists divide the body with three imaginary planes called the (sagittal [vertical]) ,
the (coronal [frontal]) , and the (transverse [horizontal]) planes.
3. The (sagittal plane) divides the body into left and right parts by an imaginary line
running vertically down the body.
4. The (coronal plane) is an imaginary line that divides the body into the anterior (front)
or ventral half of the body and the posterior (back) or dorsal half of the body.
5. The (transverse plane) is an imaginary line that divides the body horizontally into an
upper and lower portion.
6. (Midsagittal) refers to the plane that divides the body or an organ into right and left halves.
(G) 1. cranial or superior aspect A. situated in front of
(B) 2. caudal or inferior aspect B. situated farther from the crown of the head
(A) 3. anterior or ventral aspect C. farthest point from the origin of a structure
or point of attachment
(D) 4. posterior or dorsal aspect
D. situated in back of
(K) 5. transverse plane
E. on the side, farther from the midline
(H) 6. sagittal plane
F. nearest the origin of a structure or point of
(I) 7. coronal plane attachment
(J) 8. medial aspect G. situated toward the crown of the head
(E) 9. lateral aspect H. dividing the body into right and left sides
(C) 10. distal aspect I. the frontal plane dividing it into front and
back halves
(F) 11. proximal
J. pertaining to the middle or nearer to the
midline
K. a plane through a body part perpendicular

to the axis
58 IDENTIFICATION: Identify the indicated cavities in Figure 5.2 (a diagram of the various
body cavities) by writing the correct names in the numbered space that corresponds to the
number on the figure.
1. (cranial cavity)
2. (spinal cavity)
3. (thoracic cavity)
4. (abdominal cavity)
5. (pelvic cavity)
3
Posterior 2
(dorsal)
Diaphragm
4 Anterior
(ventral)
Fig. 5.2 Body cavities.

MATCHING: Match the term with the best description. Write the letter of the best 59

(H) 1. hypogastric A. region of the temples
(K) 2. inguinal B. region of the neck
(A) 3. temporal C. region of the shoulder joint and deltoid muscle
(R) 4. scapular D. region of the armpit
(T) 5. frontal E. region between the elbow and shoulder
(E) 6. brachial F. region of the abdomen lateral to the epigastric region
(B) 7. cervical G. region of the navel
(C) 8. deltoid H. region inferior to the umbilical region
(G) 9. umbilical I. region of the kneecap
(M) 10. epigastric J. region of the thigh
(L) 11. lumbar K. region of the groin
(Q) 12. gluteal L. region of the lower back
(I) 13. patellar M. region of the abdomen
(S) 14. popliteal N. region of the breast and chest
(N) 15. pectoral O. region of the head, posterior to the frontal region and
anterior to the occipital region
(O) 16. parietal
P. region of the temporal bone behind the ear
(D) 17. axillary
Q. region of the muscles of the buttocks
(J) 18. femoral
R. region of the back of the shoulder or shoulder blade
(P) 19. mastoid
S. an area behind the knee joint
(F) 20. hypochondrium
T. region of the forehead
60 IDENTIFICATION: Identify the anatomic areas indicated in Figures 5.3 and 5.4 by writing
the letter of the anatomic area next to the appropriate term in the space provided.
(E) 1. axillary (F) 8. hypochondrium (C) 15. pectoral
(D) 2. brachial (I) 9. hypogastric (T) 16. popliteal
(O) 3. cervical (J) 10. inguinal (R) 17. sacral
(G) 4. epigastric (Q) 11. lumbar (P) 18. scapular
(K) 5. femoral (N) 12. occipital (B) 19. temporal
(A) 6. frontal (M) 13. parietal (H) 20. umbilical
(S) 7. gluteal (L) 14. patellar
Fig. 5.3 Regions of the body, Fig. 5.4 Regions of the body,
anterior view. posterior view.
COMPLETION: In the space(s) provided, write the word(s) that correctly complete(s) each 61
statement.

1. The dorsal cavities include the (cranial) cavity and the (vertebral or spinal) cavity.
2. The ventral cavities are the (thoracic) cavity and (abdominal) cavity.
3. The liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, and small and large intestines are located in the
(abdominal) cavity.
4. The (pelvic cavity) contains the bladder, rectum, and some of the reproductive organs.
5. The four main anatomic parts of the body are (the head) , (spine) ,
(trunk) , and (extremities) .
6. Body structures containing two or more different tissues that combine to perform a
definite function are called (organs) .
7. When several organs work together to perform a body function, they constitute an
(organ system).
SHORT ANSWER: In the spaces provided, list ten organ systems.
1. (integumentary system [skin])
2. (skeletal system)
3. (muscular system)
4. (circulatory system [blood vascular/lymph vascular])
5. (nervous system)
6. (endocrine system)
7. (digestive system)
8. (respiratory system)
9. (excretory system [including the urinary system])
10. (reproductive system)

62 IDENTIFICATION: In the spaces provided, write the name of the related major body
system.
(circulatory) 1. carries oxygen and nutrients to all parts of the body
(integumentary) 2. is damaged with a scratch or burn
(skeletal) 3. provides a rigid structure and attachment for muscles
(digestive) 4. breaks down food into absorbable particles
(endocrine) 5. includes the pituitary, thyroid, and ovaries
(muscular) 6. produces heat and movement
(excretory) 7. removes uric acid from the system
(reproductive) 8. provides for continuation of the species
(respiratory) 9. allows for the absorption of oxygen into the body
(excretory) 10. includes the liver, lungs, kidneys, and colon
(nervous) 11. provides information about where the body is in the environment
(endocrine) 12. produces hormones
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Carefully read each statement. Choose the word or phrase that
1. The imaginary line that divides the body into front and back halves is the
(a)
.
a) coronal plane c) midsagittal plane
b) sagittal plane d) transverse plane
2. The liver and stomach are contained in the . (c)

a) dorsal cavity c) abdominal cavity
b) pelvic cavity d) cranial cavity
3. The elbow is to the wrist. (a)

a) proximal c) lateral
b) medial d) distal
4. The ribs are lateral to the . (d)

a) arms c) pelvis
b) scapula d) sternum
5. Lumbar refers to the region of the . 63
(c)
a) temple c) lower back

b) skull d) pelvis
6. The epigastric area is . (b)

a) the location of the bladder c) the region of the tongue
b) inferior to the diaphragm d) anterior to the scapula
7. The human body has important organ systems. (c)

a) two c) ten
b) five d) twenty
8. The axillary region of the body is . (b)

a) at the bend of the elbow c) near the groin
b) the armpit d) on the head
9. The region of the body is behind the knee. (c)

a) patellar c) popliteal
b) parietal d) femoral
10. A sagittal cut through an organ or body divides it into . (a)

a) right and left portions c) dorsal and ventral portions
b) superior and inferior portions d) three or four lateral
portions
11. The bladder is located in the . (d)

a) dorsal cavity c) abdominal cavity
b) crainial cavity d) pelvic cavity
12. A transverse section in the parietal area would show . (c)

a) the inside of the knee c) both sides of the brain
b) one side of the brain d) both lungs
64 WORD REVIEW: The student is encouraged to write down the meaning of each of the
following words. This list can be used as a study guide for this unit.
abdominal cavity
(The abdominal cavity is part of the ventral cavities, situated below the diaphragm, and contains
the liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, small intestine, and part of the large intestine.)
anatomic position
(Anatomic position shows a body in an upright position, with the hands facing palms forward.)
anterior
(Anterior means situated in front of.)
circulatory system
(Circulatory system is the network of vessels through which blood and lymph circulate.)
coronal plane
(The coronal plane divides the body into the front and back.)
cranial cavity
(The cranial cavity is located in the skull and contains the brain.)
digestive system
(The digestive system consists of the mouth, stomach, intestines, salivary, and gastric glands.)
distal 65
(Distal is the point farther from the origin of a structure or attachment.)

dorsal cavities
(Dorsal cavities include the cranial and spinal or vertebral cavities.)
endocrine system
(The endocrine system consists of a group of specialized glands that affect the growth,
development, sexual activity, and health of the entire body.)
excretory system
(The excretory system includes the skin, kidneys, bladder, liver, lungs, and large intestines, all of
which eliminate waste products from the body.)
inferior
(Inferior means situated lower or farther from the head.)
integumentary system
(The integumentary system is composed of the skin, hair, and nails.)
lateral
(Lateral means toward the side, farther from the midline.)
medial
(Medial means toward the center, nearer to the midline.)

66 muscular system
(Muscular system is made up of voluntary and involuntary muscles that are necessary for
movement.)
nervous system
(The nervous system controls and coordinates all the body systems and includes the nerves,
spinal cord, and the brain.)
organ system
(An organ system is several organs working together to perform a bodily function.)
pelvic cavity
(The pelvic cavity is the lower third of the abdominal cavity and contains the bladder, rectum,
and some of the reproductive organs.)
posterior
(Posterior means situated behind or in back of.)
proximal
(Proximal means nearer the origin of a structure or point of attachment.)
respiratory system
(Respiratory system includes the lungs, air passages, nose, mouth, pharynx, trachea, and
bronchial tubes.)
sagittal plane
(Sagittal plane divides the body into left and right parts.)
skeletal system
(Skeletal system is the bony framework of the body, composed of bones, cartilage, and ligaments.)
superior
(Superior is situated higher or nearer the head.)
thoracic cavity
(The thoracic cavity is a ventral cavity located above the diaphragm, containing the heart and
lungs.)
transverse plane
(The transverse plane divides the body horizontally into an upper and lower portion.)
ventral cavities
(Ventral cavities are located in the anterior aspect of the body and include the thoracic and
abdominal cavities.)
vertebral cavity
(Vertebral cavity or the spinal cavity contains the spinal cord.)

Theory & Practice of Therapeutic Massage Workbook 68 SYSTEM ONE: THE INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM—THE SKIN
SHORT ANSWER: In the spaces provided, list six functions of the skin.
1. (protection)
2. (heat regulation)
3. (secretion and excretion)
4. (sensation)
5. (absorption)
6. (respiration)
MATCHING: Match the term with the best description. Write the letter of the appropriate
term in the space provided.
A. papillary layer D. stratum corneum G. dermis as a whole

B. reticular layer E. stratum spinosum H. epidermis as a whole
C. subcutaneous tissue F. stratum germinativum
(F) 1. the deepest layer of the epidermis
(B) 2. contains fat cells, sweat and oil glands, and hair follicles
(A) 3. contains conelike projections made of fine strands of elastic tissue extending
upward into the epidermis
(D) 4. site of keratin formation
(B) 5. contains blood and lymph vessels and nerve endings
(C) 6. serves as a protective cushion for the upper skin layers
(F) 7. contains melanocytes that produce the pigment melanin
(G) 8. contains collagen, reticulum, and elastin fibers
(E) 9. consists of cells containing melanin
IDENTIFICATION: Identify the structures indicated in Figure 5.5 (a cross-section of skin)

by writing the letter of the structure next to the appropriate name in the space provided.
(G) 1. arrector pili muscle (H) 13. sebaceous gland
(S) 2. dermis (A) 14. stratum corneum
(T) 3. epidermis (E) 15. stratum germinativum

69
(I) 4. hair root (C) 16. stratum granulosum

(N) 5. adipose (Q) 17. subcutaneous tissue
(J) 6. papilla of hair (V) 18. dermal papilla
(F) 7. capillaries (L) 19. sudoriferous gland
(M) 8. pacinian corpuscle (B) 20. stratum lucidum
(P) 9. vein (D) 21. stratum spinosum
(X) 10. hair shaft (O) 22. artery
(U) 11. Meissner corpuscle (K) 23. nerve
(R) 12. reticular fibers (W) 24. sweat pore
Fig. 5.5 The integumentary system (showing skin and hair).

70 TRUE OR FALSE: If the following statements are true, write true in the space provided. If
they are false, replace the italicized word with one that makes the statement true.
(subcutaneous layer) 1. There is a fine network of blood and lymph capillaries in the
epidermis.
(true) 2. As people age, the collagen of the skin tends to lose its elasticity.
(dermis) 3. Pliability of the skin depends on the elasticity of the fibers in the
subcutaneous layer.
(true) 4. Healthy skin possesses a slightly acid reaction.
(melanin) 5. The color of the skin depends on the thickness and the blood
supply.
SHORT ANSWER: Circle the term that does not belong in each of the following groups
(groups flow from left to right).
stratum germinativum reticular layer stratum malpighian stratum granulosum

melanin collagen keratin cuticle
pacinian corpuscle ruffini corpuscle arrector pili Meissner corpuscle
scar pustule crust fissure
seborrhea leukoderma lentigines nevus
statement.
1. There are two clearly defined divisions of the skin. The outer layer is the (epidermis)
and the inner layer is the (dermis) .
2. There are two kinds of duct glands in the skin. (Sudoriferous glands) produce sweat
and (sebaceous) glands produce oil.
3. Sweat glands are under the control of the (autonomic) nervous system.
4. Two appendages of the skin are (hair) and (nails) .
5. The appendages of the skin referred to in the previous question are composed
of (hard keratin) .
6. The (arrector pili) muscle is connected to the base of the hair follicle. 71

7. When the muscle referred to in the previous question contracts, it results in a reaction
commonly called (goose bumps) .
8. A structural change in the tissues caused by injury or disease is a (lesion) .
9. A structural change in the tissues that develops in the later stages of disease is called
(secondary lesions) .
10. Small masses of hardened, discolored sebum that appear most frequently on the face,
shoulders, chest, and back are called (blackheads) .
A. an accumulation of epidermal flakes such as excessive
(G) 1. scar
dandruff
(J) 2. macule
B. an itchy, swollen lesion that lasts only a few hours
(H) 3. pustule
C. an open lesion on the skin accompanied by loss of skin
depth
(A) 4. scale
D. a small, elevated pimple in the skin
(I) 5. tumor
E. a crack in the skin such as in chapped hands or lips
(L) 6. vesicle
F. the scab on a sore
(K) 7. bulla
G. likely to form during the healing of an injury
(C) 8. ulcer
H. an elevation of the skin having an inflamed base and
(B) 9. wheal
containing pus
(D) 10. papule

I. an external swelling, varying in size, shape, and color
(F) 11. crust

J. a small, discolored spot or patch such as freckles
(E) 12. fissure

K. a blister similar to but larger than a vesicle
L. a blister with clear fluid in it

72 COMPLETION: In the space(s) provided, write the word(s) that correctly complete(s) each
statement.
1. A skin inflammation caused by outside agents or chemicals is (contact dermatitis) .
2. The most common type of skin cancer is (basal cell carcinoma) .
3. The most dangerous type of skin cancer is (malignant melanoma) .
4. A mass of connected boils is a (carbuncle) .
5. Three types of warts are (common) , (plantar) , and (venereal) .
6. Three kinds of skin cancer are (basal cell carcinoma) , (squamous cell carcinoma) , and
(malignant melanoma) .
7. The A-B-C-D-E signs for skin cancer are:
(Asymmetry of any pigmented lesion)
(Borders that are irregular or notched)
(Color that is widely variable ([black, brown, red, blue, or white])
(Diameter larger than a pencil eraser)
(Elevation above the skin)
8. (Psoriasis) is a chronic, inflammatory skin condition characterized by round, dry

patches covered with coarse, silvery scales.
9. (Impetigo) is a highly contagious, bacterial skin infection that is most common in

children.
10. Another name for furuncle is (boil) .
1. The largest organ of the body is the . (b)

a) muscular system c) liver
b) skin d) stomach
2. Protection, heat regulation, secretion, excretion, and absorption are

(b)
functions of the .
a) endocrine system c) muscles
b) skin d) brain
3. Exposure to ultraviolet light causes the skin to darken by stimulating the 73
(a)
production of .

a) melanin c) fibroblasts
b) carotene d) hemoglobin
4. Collagen, reticulum, and elastin are the fibers in the cells of the . (c)
a) epidermis c) dermis
b) lymph d) blood
5. The skin gets its strength, form, and flexibility from . (a)
a) collagen c) the muscles
b) elastin d) subcutaneous tissue
6. A small discolored spot on the skin is a . (a)

a) macule c) tumor
b) bulla d) vesicle
7. An elevation of the skin having an inflamed base and containing pus is a

(c)
.
a) papule c) pustule
b) pimple d) wheal
8. A crack in the skin penetrating into the dermis is called a . (a)

a) fissure c) scab
b) crust d) cut
9. Skin disorders are an area that massage therapists should be able to

(c)
.
a) treat successfully c) recognize and refer
b) use vibration on d) apply antibiotic creams to
10. A generalized term for a structural change in tissue from disease or injury
(b)
is .
a) fracture c) hematoma
b) lesion d) laceration
11. As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the
(a)
surface .
a) they tend to die c) they divide continually
b) they become dermal cells d) their supply of nutrients
improve
74 12. The subcutaneous layer consists of . (c)
a) epithelial tissue c) loose connective tissue and
b) epithelium and loose adipose tissue

connective tissue d) adipose tissue and skeletal
muscle tissue
13. A thickening in the skin caused by repeated or continued pressure is a

(d)
.
a) macule c) bulla
b) wheal d) callus
14. An itchy swollen lesion that lasts only a few hours is a . (d)
a) tumor c) bulla
b) papule d) wheal
15. Another name for skin is membrane. (b)

a) synovial c) mucous
b) cutaneous d) serous
16. “Goose bumps” are the result of . (b)

a) a nervous irritation c) body heat loss
b) contracting arrector pili muscles d) oxygen depletion
17. The is a semi-solid part of the skin made up of a mixture of (c)

fibers, water and ‘ground substance’.
a) eccrine c) dermis
b) melanin d) epidermis
18. The comprises almost a solid sheet of cells at the outermost (b)
layers of the skin.
a) dermis c) graft
b) epidermis d) subcutaneous tissue
19. When a body lies in one position too long, decreased circulation can
(a)
result in , or ‘’ “bedsores.”
a) decubitus ulcers c) acne rosacea
b) apocrine d) hematomas
Word Review: The student is encouraged to write down the meaning of each of the 75

collagen
(Collagen is a protein consisting of inelastic, white fibers that help to make up connective tissue.)
dermis
(The dermis is the deeper layer of the skin that extends to form the subcutaneous tissue.)
epidermis
(The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin.)
integument
(Integument refers to the outer covering or the skin.)
keratin
(Keratin is a protein in the skin that makes up the hair and nails.)
melanin
(Melanin is the coloring matter of the skin produced in the stratum germinativum and located in
the stratum spinosum that helps to protect sensitive cells from strong light.)
reticular layer
(The reticular layer of the skin contains fat cells, blood and lymph vessels, sweat and oil glands,
hair follicles, and nerve endings.)

76 sebaceous
(Sebaceous refers to the oil glands in the skin.)

stratum germinativum
(The stratum germinativum is the deepest layer of the epidermis, where cells undergo mitosis,
pushing other cells closer to the surface.)
stratum granulosum
(The stratum granulosum is the granular layer of the skin, where nearly dead cells undergo
changes to be the more superficial layers.)
stratum spinosum
(The stratum spinosum, also called the stratum mucosum, contains melanin, the coloring matter
of the skin that helps to protect sensitive cells from strong light.)
subcutaneous tissue
(Subcutaneous tissue is regarded as a continuation of the dermis and is also called the superficial
fascia.)
sudoriferous
(Sudoriferous glands are the sweat glands located in the dermis layer of skin.)
SYSTEM TWO: THE SKELETAL SYSTEM
SHORT ANSWER: In the spaces provided, list the five main functions of the skeletal
system.
1. (to offer a framework that supports body structures and gives shape to the body)
2. (to protect delicate internal organs and tissues)
3. (to provide attachments for muscles and act as levers in conjunction with muscles to
produce movement)
4. (to manufacture blood cells in the red bone marrow)
5. (to store minerals such as calcium phosphate, calcium carbonate, magnesium, and sodium)
KEY CHOICES: Bones are classified in one of four major bone categories. Put the 77
appropriate key letter for each of the following bone classifications in the space provided.

S = Short bones I = Irregular bones
L = Long bones F = Flat bones
(L) 1. tibia (I) 7. axis
(F) 2. ilium (L) 8. femur
(L) 3. phalange (S) 9. talus
(L) 4. ulna (L) 10. metacarpal
(F) 5. occiput (F) 11. scapula
(I) 6. calcaneus (F) 12. rib
statement.
1. The skeletal system is composed of (bones) , (cartilage) , and (ligaments) .
2. The inorganic mineral matter of bone consists mainly of (calcium phosphate) and
(calcium carbonate) .
3. The fibrous membrane covering bone that serves as an attachment for tendons and
ligaments is the (periosteum) .
4. The spongy bone tissue in flat bones and at the ends of long bones is filled with
(red bone marrow) and is the site of production for (blood cells) .
5. The hollow chamber formed in the shaft of long bones that is filled with yellow bone
marrow is the (medullary cavity) .

78 IDENTIFICATION: Identify the structures indicated in Figure 5.6 (a diagram of a typical
long bone) by writing the correct letter in the space provided.
(G) 1. proximal epiphysis
(E) 2. compact bone
(H) 3. diaphysis (shaft of bone)
(B) 4. red marrow
(I) 5. distal epiphysis
(D) 6. medullary cavity (site of yellow bone marrow in adults)
(F) 7. periosteum (covering of bone)
(C) 8. spongy bone
(A) 9. articular cartilage
Fig. 5.6 Structure of long bone.

statement.

1. The two main parts of the skeleton are the (axial skeleton) and the
(appendicular skeleton) .
2. The bones of the skull, thorax, vertebral column, and the hyoid bone make up the
(axial skeleton) .
3. The bones of the shoulder, upper extremities, hips, and lower extremities make up the
(appendicular skeleton) .
4. In the human adult, the skeleton consists of (206) bones.
5. The spine consists of (24) vertebra.
6. There are (7) cervical vertebra.
7. There are (12) thoracic vertebra.
8. There are (5) lumbar vertebra.
9. There are (8) carpals in each wrist.
10. There are (7) tarsals in each ankle.
11. There a re (14) phalanges in each hand.
12. The connection where two bones come together is called a (joint) or an
(articulation) .
13. The cranium is composed of (8) bones.
14. The face is composed of (14) bones.

80 KEY CHOICES: Joints are classified according to their structure and their function. In the
first column of spaces provided, place the appropriate key letter indicating the structural
classification next to the corresponding terms. In the second column, place the appropriate
key letter indicating the functional classification next to the corresponding terms.
F = fibrous joints A = amphiarthrotic joints

C = cartilaginous joints D = diarthrotic joints
N = synovial joints S = synarthrotic joints
Structural Functional
Classification Classification
(C) (A) 1. symphysis pubis
(N) (D) 2. glenohumeral joint
(F) (S) 3. sagittal suture
(N) (D) 4. elbow joint
(F) (A) 5. bones united by

fibrous connective tissue
(N) (D) 6. hip joint
(F) (S) 7. essentially immovable
(F) (A) 8. sacroiliac joint
(N) (D) 9. joint capsule with

synovial fluid
(C,N) (A) 10. intervertebral joints
(C) (D) 11. articular cartilage on bones
(F) (S) 12. joint between sphenoid and

temporal bones
(N) (D) 13. freely movable
(C) (A) 14. allows limited movement

KEY CHOICE: Put the appropriate key letter for each of the following types of joints in the 81
space provided. Movable joints in the body are classified descriptively.

A. pivot joints D. gliding joints F. condyloid ellipsoid
B. ball-and-socket joints E. saddle joints G. symphysis
C. hinge joints
(C) 1. joint between ulna and humerus
(B) 2. hip joint
(C) 3. knee joint
(E) 4. joint between the first metacarpal and the trapezium
(F) 5. joints between radius and carpals
(B) 6. glenohumeral joint
(A) 7. joint between axis and atlas
(A) 8. joint between radius and ulna near elbow
(D) 9. intervertebral joints
(C) 10. interphalangeal joints
(C) 11. joint between the tibia and the talus
(G) 12. between right and left pubis

82 IDENTIFICATION: Identify the bones in Figure 5.7 by writing the correct label in the
numbered space that corresponds to the number on the figure.
1. (mandible) 16. (rib)
2. (sternum) 17. (lumbar vertebrae)
3. (xiphoid process) 18. (ilium)
4. (ulna) 19. (sacrum)
5. (radius) 20. (coccyx)
6. (greater trochanter or femur) 21. (carpals)
7. (phalanges [finger bones]) 22. (metacarpals)
8. (ischium) 23. (femur)
9. (cranium) 24. (patella)
10. (cervical vertebrae) 25. (tibia)
11. (clavicle) 26. (fibula)
12. (acromion process) 27. (tarsals)
13. (coracoid process) 28. (metatarsals)
14. (scapula) 29. (phalanges [toe bones])
15. (humerus)
83
9

10
1
11
12
13
2 14
15
3
16
17
4
18 4
5 19
20 5
6 21
6
Fourth Thumb
7 digit
Third
22 22 digit First
8 Second digit
digit
23
24
25
26
27
28
29 Calcaneus
Fig. 5.7 Skeletal system, anterior view.

84 IDENTIFICATION: Identify the bony landmarks in Figures 5.8a and 5.8b by writing the
correct name in the lettered space that corresponds to the letter in the figures.
A. (ramus of the mandible) N. (acromion process)
B. (sternal notch) O. (crest of the ilium)
C. (coricoid process) P. (greater trochanter of the femur)
D. (bicipial grove or tuberosity of the Q. (medial epicondyle of the femur)
humerus) R. (lateral epicondyle of the femur)
E. (xiphoid process) S. (head of the fibula)
F. (medial epicondyle of the humerus) T. (lateral malleolus)
G. (lateral epicondyle of the humerus) U. (calcaneus)
H. (ASIS; anterior superior iliac spine) V. (mastoid process)
I. (pubic arch) W. (spine of the scapula)
J. (patella) X. (olecranon process)
K. (medial malleolus) Y. (PSIS; posterior superior iliac spine)
L. (supraorbital ridge) Z. (ischial tuberosity)
M. (zygomatic arch)
85
Fig. 5.8a Major bony landmarks on Fig. 5.8b Major bony landmarks on
the body, anterior view. the body, posterior view.
86 IDENTIFICATION: Identify the bones and sutures in Figure 5.9 by writing the number of
the bone next to the appropriate term in the space provided.
(9) A. ethmoid (11) F. nasal (12) K. zygomatic arch
(6) B. frontal (1) G. occipital (5) L. coronal suture
(10) C. lacrimal (3) H. parietal (2) M. lambdoidal suture
(14) D. mandible (8) I. sphenoid (4) N. squamosal suture
(13) E. maxilla (7) J. temporal
MATCHING: Match the bone names listed above with the best descriptions listed below.
Write the letter of the bone name in the space provided. Note that some descriptions apply to
more than one bone.
(K) 1. cheekbone
(E) 2. holds the upper teeth
(G) 3. contains the foramen magnum
(B) 4. forms the supraorbital ridge
(A,B,E,J) 5. four bones containing the paranasal sinuses
(H) 6. forms the sagittal suture
(B,H) 7. forms the coronal suture
(H,J) 8. forms the squamosal suture
(G,H) 9. forms the lambdoidal suture
(J) 10. forms the mastoid process
(D) 11. forms the chin
(I) 12. connects with all other cranial bones
(D) 13. connected to the skull with a diarthrotic joint
(C) 14. contain openings for tear ducts

87
5

6
4
7
3
8
9
2
10
1
11
External auditory
meatus 12
Mastoid process Sphenoid bone Supraorbital foramen

13
Temporal bone
Styloid process Ethmoid bone
Nasal bone 14
Lacrimal bone Perpendicular plate

of the ethmoid bone
Mental foramen
(opening for blood
Infraorbital foramen vessels and nerves)
Maxilla
Vomer bone
Fig. 5.9 Skeletal structures of the cranium, neck, and face.

88 IDENTIFICATION: Identify the parts of the spine in Figure 5.10 by writing the letter of the
part next to the corresponding label in the space provided.
(A) 1. atlas, axis (D) 4. lumbar vertebrae
(B) 2. cervical vertebrae (E) 5. sacrum
(F) 3. coccyx (C) 6. thoracic vertebrae
C-1
C-2
A
C-3
C-4 B
C-5
C-6
C-7
T-1
T-2
T-3
T-4
T-5
T-6
T-7 C
T-8
T-9
T-10
T-11
T-12
L-1
Intervertebral
disk L-2
L-3 D
Vertebral
body
L-4
L-5
Fig. 5.10 Vertebral column.

MATCHING: Match the term with the best description. Write the letter of the best 89

A. a less prominent ridge of a bone than a crest
(F) 1. fossa
B. a rounded articulating process at the end of a bone
(C) 2. trochanter
C. a large process for muscle attachment
(K) 3. foramen
D. a sharp slender projection
(H) 4. sinus
E. a tubelike passage
(M) 5. process
F. a depression or hollow
(I) 6. condyle
G. a ridge
(A) 7. line
H. a cavity within a bone
(L) 8. tuberosity
I. a rounded knuckle-like prominence usually at a point
(E) 9. meatus
of articulation
(J) 10. tubercle

J. a small rounded process
(B) 11. head

K. a hole
(D) 12. spine

L. a large rounded process
(G) 13. crest

M. a bone prominence or projection
tibia patella femur fibula

elbow knee finger hip
axis/atlas sacroiliac intervertebral pubic symphysis
tubercle fossa tuberosity condyle
cranium rib vertebra scapula
90 MATCHING: Match the skeletal disorders with the best description. Write the letter of the
appropriate skeletal disorder in the space provided.
A. dislocation C. osteoarthritis E. fracture G. bursitis

B. sprain D. osteoporosis F. rheumatoid arthritis
(G) 1. an inflammation of the small fluid-filled sacs located near the joints
(E) 2. a break or rupture in a bone
(F) 3. an inflammation causing the articular cartilage to erode and the joints to calcify
and eventually become immovable
(D) 4. increased porosity of the bone that causes a thinning of bone tissue
(A) 5. displacement of a bone within a joint
(F) 6. a chronic inflammatory disease, that first affects the synovial membrane lining the
joints
(B) 7. stretching or tearing of ligaments
(C) 8. a chronic disease that accompanies aging, usually affecting joints that have experi-
enced a great deal of wear and tear or trauma
IDENTIFICATION: Identify each of the spinal curves in Figure 5.11 by writing the correct
label in the space provided.
A. (scoliosis) B. (lordosis) C. (kyphosis)
(A) (B) (C)
Fig. 5.11 Abnormal curvatures of the spine.

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Carefully read each statement. Choose the word or phrase that 91

1. Flat bones are found in the . (b)
a) knee c) leg
b) skull d) spine
2. The number of bones in the human adult skeleton is . (b)

a) 101 c) 310
b) 206 d) 502
3. The bones of the upper and lower extremities form the . (d)
a) axial skeleton c) skull
b) spine d) appendicular skeleton
4. White blood cells are produced by the . (d)

a) yellow bone marrow c) osteoclasts
b) lymphocytes d) red bone marrow
5. A fracture in the shaft of the bone would be a break in the . (c)

a) epiphysis c) diaphysis
b) epiphyseal plate d) articular cartilage
6. Muscle tendon fibers attach to bone by interlacing with . (c)

a) compact bone c) periosteum
b) ligaments d) endosteum
7. Which of following is NOT a bone of the cranium? (c)

a) temporal c) zygomatic
b) sphenoid d) parietal
8. The coracoid process is located . (a)

a) on the scapula c) on the pelvis
b) behind the ear d) at the proximal end of the
ulna
9. Immovable joints are called . (c)

a) amphiarthrotic c) synarthrotic
b) articulations d) synovial
10. The range of motion of amphiarthrotic joints is . (b)

a) 360 degrees c) freely moving
b) limited d) in a single plane
92 11. An example of a diarthrotic joint is . (a)
a) knee c) intervertebral
b) skull d) the teeth
12. The greatest range of movement is found in . (c)

a) pivot joints c) ball-and-socket joints
b) hinge joints d) saddle joints
13. A stretched ligament with some discomfort and minimal loss of function
(c)
is a .
a) Class I strain c) Class I sprain
b) Class II sprain d) Class III sprain
14. The major purpose of the epiphyseal plate is . (d)

a) mending of fractures c) providing strength in long
bones
b) enlarging the epiphyses d) lengthening long bones
15. Lateral curvature of the spine is called . (b)

a) lordosis c) convexity
b) scoliosis d) kyphosis
16. Degenerative joint disease is generally known as . (c)

a) osteoporosis c) osteoarthritis
b) rheumatoid arthritis d) osteomyelitis
17. Which of following is NOT a part of the pelvis? (c)

a) ischium c) zygomatic
b) pubis d) ilium
18. The part of the long bone that is soft and contains the “growth line” is (a)
referred to as the .
a) epiphysis c) bone shaft
b) diaphysis d) bone marrow
19. The “ankle bone” that protrudes on the inside of the leg is the . (a)
a) medial malleolus c) medial epicondyle
b) fibula d) lesser trochanter
20. The knee joint is an example of a . 93
(b)
a) synarthrotic joint c) amphiarthrotic joint

b) hinge joint d) saddle joint
21. Which of the following is NOT found in the axial skeleton?

(b)
a) the cranium c) the sacrum
b) the scapula d) the sternum
22. The medial malleolus is on the . (d)

a) elbow c) knee
b) wrist d) ankle
amphiarthrotic
Amphiarthrotic joints, such as the symphysis pubis, have limited motion.)
appendicular skeleton
(The appendicular skeleton is made up of the bones of the shoulder, upper extremities, hips, and
lower extremities.)
arthritis
(Arthritis is an inflammatory condition of the joints.)
articular cartilage
(Articular cartilage is a layer of hyaline cartilage covering the end surface of the epiphysis.)
articulation
(Articulation is the movable joint between two bones.)

94 axial skeleton
(The axial skeleton is made up of bones of the skull, thorax, vertebral column, and the hyoid
bone.)
bursa
(Bursae are fibrous sacks lined with synovial membrane and lubricated with synovial fluid,
functioning as a cushion in areas of pressure.)
cartilage
(Cartilage, or gristle, is a firm, tough, elastic substance that cushions the bones, prevents jarring
between bones in motion, and gives shape to the nose and ears.)
compact bone tissue
(Compact bone tissue forms the hard bone found in the shafts of long bones and along the
outside of flat bones.)
cranium
(The cranium consists of the eight bones of the skull that contain the brain.)
diaphysis
(The diaphysis is the bone shaft between the epiphyses.)
diarthrotic joint
(Diarthrotic joints are freely movable.)
epiphysis
(The epiphysis is an enlarged area on the ends of long bones that articulates with other bones.)
joint capsule 95
(Joint capsule is the fibrous enclosure around a diarthrotic articulation.)

kyphosis
(Kyphosis is an abnormally exaggerated convex curve of the spine.)
ligament
(Ligaments are bands of fibrous tissue that connect bones to bones.)
lordosis
(Lordosis is concave curvature of the spine.)
marrow
(Marrow is the connective tissue filling in the cavities of bones that forms red and white blood
cells.)
medullary cavity
(The medullary cavity is a hollow chamber formed in the shaft of long bones that is filled with
yellow bone marrow.)
periosteum
(The periosteum is a fibrous membrane that functions to protect the bone and serves as an
attachment of tendons and ligaments.)
osteoporosis
(Osteoporosis is a condition in which increased reabsorption of calcium into the blood causes a
thinning of bone tissue, leaving it prone to fracture.)

96 scoliosis
(Scoliosis is lateral curvature of the spine.)

sprain
(A sprain is an injury to a joint, resulting in stretching or tearing of the ligaments.)
synarthrotic
(Synarthrotic joints, such as those of the skull, are immovable.)
synovial fluid
(Synovial fluid lubricates the surfaces of joints.)
synovial membrane
(The synovial membrane is a connective tissue membrane lining cavities and capsules in and
around joints.)
vertebra
(A vertebra is one of the 24 bones that make up the spine.)

SYSTEM THREE: THE MUSCULAR SYSTEM 97

KEY CHOICES: There are three classifications of muscles. Put the appropriate key
letter(s) for each of the following muscle types in the spaces provided.
A = skeletal B = smooth C = cardiac
(A,C) 1. contains striations
(A) 2. shapes and contours the body
(B,C) 3. forms the hollow organs
(B,C) 4. involved with transport of materials in the body
(C) 5. found only in the heart
(B) 6. spindle shaped
(A) 7. multinucleated
(B) 8. controlled by the autonomic nervous system
(C) 9. quadrangular in shape, joined end to end
(C) 10. contracts without direct nerve action
(A) 11. referred to as the muscular system
(C) 12. coordinates activity to act as a pump
statement.
1. The main organ of the muscle system is (muscle) .
2. Muscle cells have the unique ability to (change their length) .
3. Muscle comprises approximately (40 to 60) percent of a person’s body weight.
4. The characteristics that enable muscles to perform their functions of contraction and
movement are (irritability) , (contractility) , and (elasticity) .
5. The ability to return to its original shape after being stretched is (elasticity) .
6. The capacity of muscles to receive and react to stimuli is (irritability) .
7. The ability to contract or shorten and thereby exert force is (contractility) .

Theory & Practice of Therapeutic Massage Workbook 98 STRUCTURE OF SKELETAL MUSCLES
statement.
1. The functional unit of a muscle is the (muscle cell) or (muscle fiber) .
2. The cell membrane of the muscle cell is the (sarcolemma) .
3. The connective tissue covering of the muscle cell is the (endomysium) .
4. Each muscle cell contains hundreds or even thousands of parallel (myofibrils) .
5. The interaction of (actin) and (myosin) filaments gives muscle its unique
contractile ability.
6. The arrangement of (actin) and (myosin) gives skeletal muscles a striated or

striped appearance.
7. The site where the muscle fiber and nerve fiber meet is called the
(neuromuscular junction) or (myoneural junction) .
8. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it controls constitute a (motor unit) .
9. When a nerve impulse reaches the end of the nerve fiber, a chemical neurotransmitter
called (acetylcholine) is released.
10. The energy for muscle contraction comes from the breakdown of the
(adenose triphosphate [ATP] molecule) .

11. A metabolic process known as the (Krebs cycle) or the (citric acid cycle) takes place, 99
resulting in the synthesis of ATP and the production of carbon dioxide, water, and energy

in the form of heat.
12. When sufficient oxygen is available, ATP is synthesized through (aerobic)

respiration.
13. When the oxygen supply is depleted, ATP is synthesized through (anaerobic)
respiration.
14. During strenuous activity, heavy breathing and accelerated heart rate are indications
of (oxygen debt) .
15. Rapid or prolonged muscle contractions, to the point that oxygen debt becomes extreme
and the muscle ceases to respond, causes (muscle fatigue) .
16. The most stationary attachment of a muscle is the (origin) .
17. The muscle attachment that creates the action of the structure is the (insertion) .
18. A(n) (isometric) contraction occurs when a muscle contracts and the ends of the
muscle do not move.
19. The glistening cord that connects the muscle with its attachment is a (tendon) .
100 IDENTIFICATION: Identify each skeletal muscle part in Figure 5.12 by writing the num-
ber of the part next to the appropriate term in the space provided.
(12) A. actin filament (11) E. myofilament (4) I. perimysium
(6) B. endomysium (9) F. myofibril (7) J. sarcolemma
(2) C. epimysium (10) G. myosin filament (8) K. sarcoplasm
(3) D. fascicle (5) H. muscle fiber (1) L. tendon
1
Skeletal muscle
Fascia
2
3
Nerve
Periosteum
Blood vessels covering
to the bone
7
Muscle cell nuclei
8
Transverse tubule
Mitochondria
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
10 11
9
Striations
Sarcomere 12
Fig. 5.12 Structure of skeletal muscle.

MATCHING: Match the skeletal muscle part listed above with the best description listed 101
below. Write the letter of the skeletal muscle part in the space provided.

(L) 1. connective tissue projecting beyond the end of the muscle
(C) 2. connective tissue covering the entire muscle
(I) 3. separates muscles into bundles of fibers
(B) 4. connective tissue covering of each muscle cell
(D) 5. bundle of muscle fibers
(H) 6. contractile unit of muscle tissue
(E) 7. one of the microscopic threads that can be rendered visible in a muscle fiber
(J) 8. the muscle cell membrane
(F) 9. structure of the muscle cell containing actin and myosin
(K) 10. the muscle cell intercellular fluid
IDENTIFICATION: Identify each part of the muscle cell sarcomere in Figure 5.13 by
writing the appropriate letter next to the correct term in the space provided.
(B) 1. A band (F) 6. myosin filament
(E) 2. actin filament (H) 7. sarcomere
(C) 3. H zone (I) 8. Z line
(A) 4. I band (D) 9. zone of overlap
(G) 5. M line
H
A C
D
Fig. 5.13 Parts of the muscle cell.

102 MATCHING: Match the term with the best description. Write the letter of the appropriate
A. Type I muscle fibers B. Type II muscle fibers
(A) 1. able to sustain low-level muscle contractions
(A) 2. darker red color
(B) 3. depend on anaerobic metabolism
(B) 4. fast twitch fibers
(B) 5. fatigue easily
(B) 6. have fewer mitochondria
(A) 7. high capacity to generate ATP
(A) 8. high resistance to fatigue
(A) 9. high number of mitochondria
(B) 10. larger fibers with more actin and myosin filaments
(B) 11. lighter color
(B) 12. more prominent in phasic muscles
(A) 13. more prominent in postural muscles
(B) 14. produce powerful, fast contractions
(A) 15. rich capillary supply
(A) 16. slow twitch fibers
(A) 17. tend to tighten and shorten when stressed
(A) 18. uses aerobic metabolism
(B) 19. vulnerable to muscle strains and tendonitis
IDENTIFICATION: On the following list of muscles, identify the postural muscles by

placing a “P” in the space provided.
(P) 1. adductor longus and magnus (P) 14. piriformis
2. anterior neck flexors (P) 15. quadratus lumborum
3. deltoid 16. rectus abdominis

4. gluteals (P) 17. rectus femoris 103

(P) 5. iliopsoas 18. rhomboids
(P) 6. latissimus dorsi (P) 19. sacrospinalis
(P) 7. levator scapulae 20. scalenii
8. lower pectorals 21. serratus anterior
(P) 9. lumbar erector spinae (P) 22. sternocleidomastoid
10. middle and lower trapezius (P) 23. tensor fascia lata
(P) 11. oblique abdominals 24. triceps
(P) 12. pectoralis minor (P) 25. upper trapezius
13. peroneals 26. vastus muscles
TRUE OR FALSE: If the following statements are true, write true in the space provided. If
(tendons) 1. Muscle fibers are attached to bone by connective tissue called ligaments.
(many) 2. Each motor nerve attaches to one muscle cell.
(true) 3. The release of calcium ions by the sarcoplasmic reticulum results in a

muscle contraction.
(one end) 4. A skeletal muscle by definition has both ends attached to bone.
(seconds) 5. Only enough ATP is stored in muscle to sustain a muscle contraction for a
few minutes.
(true) 6. ATP is produced by the mitochondria.
(true) 7. An eccentric contraction is an isotonic contraction.
statement.
1. A(n) (eccentric) contraction occurs when a muscle is contracted and the ends of the
muscle move further apart.
2. A(n) (concentric) contraction occurs when a muscle is contracted and the ends of the
muscle move closer together.
3. Eccentric and concentric muscle contractions are both (isotonic) contractions.

104 4. When an action occurs, the muscle that is responsible for that action is the
(prime mover or the agonist) .

5. When an action occurs, the muscle that is responsible for the opposite action is the
(antagonist) .
6. Muscles that assist the primary muscle of an action are called (synergists) .
7. When discussing the dynamics of the movement of the body, the three components
of motion are (flexion/extension) , (abduction/adduction) , and (rotation) .
(H) 1. posterior A. that which presses or draws down
(M) 2. dilator B. behind or in back of
(E) 3. inferior C. pertaining to the middle or center
(J) 4. anguli D. before or in front of
(G) 5. levator E. situated lower
(B) 6. dorsal F. to straighten
(L) 7. superior G. that which lifts
(C) 8. medial H. behind or in back of
(K) 9. distal I. nearer to the center or medial line
(A) 10. depressor J. at an angle
(I) 11. proximal K. farther from the center or medial line
(D) 12. anterior L. situated above
(F) 13. extensor M. that which expands or enlarges

MATCHING: Match the term with the best description. Write the letter of the appropriate 105

(O) 1. raise the shoulders toward the ears A. flexion
(L) 2. action of the neck when looking at the ceiling B. extension
(B) 3. action of the hip when standing up out of a seated C. dorsiflexion

position
D. plantar flexion
(C) 4. action of the toes when standing on tiptoes
E. adduction
(H) 5. turning the hand palm up
F. abduction
(D) 6. action of the foot when pointing toes
G. pronation
(B) 7. action of elbow during eccentric contraction of
bicep H. supination
(E) 8. bringing the knees together I. medial rotation
(A) 9. action of knee during concentric contraction of J. lateral rotation

biceps femoris
K. circumduction
(M) 10. turning the sole of the foot medially
L. hyperextension
(J) 11. action of the femur when turning the feet outward
M. inversion
(A) 12. action of the hip when bringing the knee toward the
chest N. eversion
(G) 13. turning the palm of the hand downward O. elevation
(C) 14. action of the foot when pointing the toes up toward P. depression
the knee
106 IDENTIFICATION: Identify the muscles in Figure 5.14 by writing the correct name in the
numbered space that corresponds to the number in the figure.
The Muscular System—Anterior View
1. (extensor digitorum longus) 15. (external oblique)
2. (tibialis anterior) 16. (internal oblique)
3. (adductors) 17. (transverse abdominis)
4. (flexors of the wrist) 18. (brachioradialis)
5. (pronator) 19. (flexor carpi radialis)
6. (biceps brachii) 20. (tensor fascia latae)
7. (pectoralis major) 21. (sartorius)
8. (platysma) 22. (rectus femoris)
9. (sternocleidomastoid) 23. (vastus lateralis)
10. (temporalis) 24. (vastus medialis)
11. (trapezius) 25. (gastrocnemius)
12. (deltoid) 26. (peroneus longus)
13. (serratus anterior) 27. (soleus)
14. (rectus abdominis)

107
10

9
11
8
12
7 13
14
6
15
16
17
5
18
19
4 20
21
22
3
23
24
25
2
26
1
27
Fig. 5.14 The muscular system, anterior view.

108 IDENTIFICATION: Identify the muscles in Figure 5.15 by writing the correct name in the
numbered space that corresponds to the number in the figure.
The Muscular System—Posterior View
1. (Achilles’ tendon) 13. (infraspinatus)
2. (biceps femoris) 14. (deltoid)
3. (semitendinosus) 15. (teres minor)
4. (semimembranosus) 16. (teres major)
5. (gracilis) 17. (triceps)
6. (external oblique) 18. (erector spinae)
7. (latissimus dorsi) 19. (posterior serratus inferior)
8. (rhomboids) 20. (extensors)
9. (trapezius) 21. (gluteus medius)
10. (splenius capitis) 22. (gluteus maximus)
11. (levator scapuli) 23. (gastrocnemius)
12. (supraspinatus) 24. (soleus)

109
Fig. 5.15 The muscular system, posterior view.

110 MATCHING: In the first answer column, identify the body part the muscle acts on. Write
the correct letter in the answer blank. In the second answer column, indicate the action the
muscle causes when it contracts. Write the correct letter in the answer blank.
Body part Action
(K) (D) 1. gluteus medius A. Flexes
(I) (B) 2. triceps brachii B. Extends
(N) (E) 3. upper trapezius C. Adducts
(Q) (D) 4. deltoid (medial) D. Abducts
(L) (F) 5. gastrocnemius E. Elevates
(K) (B) 6. gluteus maximus F. Plantar flexes
(K) (C) 7. adductor magnus G. Dorsal flexes
(Q) (C) 8. latissimus dorsi H. Big toe
(M) (A) 9. biceps femoris I. Elbow
(L) (G) 10. tibialis anterior J. Thumb
(L) (G) 11. peroneus longus K. Hip
(K) (C) 12. gracilis L. Ankle
(M) (B) 13. rectus femoris M. Knee
(M) (B) 14. vastus lateralis N. Scapula
(I) (A) 15. biceps brachii O. Wrist
(Q) (A) 16. pectoralis major P. Neck
(P) (A) 17. sternocleidomastoid Q. Shoulder
(O) (A) 18. palmaris longus R. Finger
(K) (A) 19. sartorius
(K) (D) 20. tensor fascia lata
(J) (D) 21. abductor pollicis longus
(H) (B) 22. extensor hallucis longus
(I) (A) 23. brachioradialis
(R) (B) 24. extensor indicis
(L) (F) 25. soleus
(K) (A) 26. iliopsoas
(Q) (D) 27. supraspinatus

statement.

1. A sudden involuntary contraction of a muscle or a group of muscles is a (muscle spasm) .
2. An enlargement of the breadth of a muscle as a result of repeated forceful muscle activity
is called (hypertrophy) .
3. When the muscle tissue degenerates and begins to waste away, the process is called
(atrophy) .
4. The process by which muscle tissue is replaced by fibrous connective tissue is
(myofibrosis) .
5. Two inflammatory conditions of the white fibrous tissue that cause pain and stiffness
(especially the fascial tissues of the muscular system) are (fibrositis) and
(myofibrositis) .
6. A group of related diseases that seems to be genetically inherited and that causes a
progressive degeneration of the voluntary muscular system is (muscular dystrophy) .
7. (Fibromyalgia) is characterized by pain, fatigue, and stiffness in the connective tissue of

the muscles, tendons, and ligaments. It is associated with stress and poor sleep habits and
is most prevalent in women.
8. An inflammation of the tendon often occurring at the musculotendinous junction is
(tendinosis) .
9. An inflammation of the tendon sheath that is often accompanied by pain and swelling is
called (tenosynovitis) .
brachioradialis biceps brachii brachialis coracobrachialis

biceps femoris rectus femoris vastus medialis vastus lateralis
supraspinatus subscapularis teres major teres minor
pectineus rectus femoris adductor longus gracilis
teres major pectoralis major subscapularis infraspinatus
112 IDENTIFICATION: On the skeleton diagrams in Figures 5.16a through 5.17b, draw by
shading the indicated muscles. Be as accurate as possible, paying close attention to muscle
attachments. Draw the muscles on the indicated sides to minimize overlap.
Note that the right hand of all of the diagrams is supinated.
Right-hand Side Left-hand Side

A. tibialis anterior J. pectoralis minor
B. gracilis K. coracobrachialis
C. adductor longus L. rectus abdominis
D. pectineus M. flexor digitorum profundus
E. tensor fascia latae N. adductor brevis
F. flexor carpi ulnaris O. adductor magnus
G. external obliques P. extensor digitorum longus
H. biceps brachii
I. serratus anterior
Fig. 5.16a The skeletal system, anterior view.

Right-hand Side Left-hand Side 113
A. peroneus brevis J. deltoid

B. extensor hallucis longus K. brachialis
C. vastus la teralis L. quadratus lumborum
D. vastus medialis M. flexor carpi radialis
E. flexor digitorum superficialis N. rectus femoris
F. iliacus O. peroneus longus
G. psoas
H. pectoralis ma jor
I. sternocleidomastoid
Fig. 5.16b The skeletal system, anterior view.

114 Left-hand Side Right-hand Side
A. flexor digitorum longus I. trapezius
B. biceps femoris J. teres major

C. semimembranosus K. extensor carpi radialis brevis
D. gluteus medius L. extensor carpi ulnaris
E. brachioradialis M. gluteus minimus
F. latissimus dorsi N. piriformis
G. rhomboids O. semitendinosus
H. levator scapulae P. popliteus
Q. posterior tibialis
Fig. 5.17a The skeletal system, posterior view.

Left-hand Side Right-hand Side 115
A. gastrocnemius H. spleneus capitis

B. quadratus f emoris I. teres minor
C. extensor carpi radialis longus J. extensor digitorum
D. triceps K. gluteus maximus
E. infraspinatus L. iliotibial band
F. supraspinatus M. soleus
G. erector spini
Fig. 5.17b The skeletal system, posterior view.

116 MULTIPLE CHOICE: Carefully read each statement. Choose the word or phrase that cor-
rectly completes the meaning and write the corresponding letter in the blank provided.
1. The ability of muscle to return to its original shape after being stretched
(c)
is called .
a) contractility c) elasticity
b) resizing d) shortening
2. The layer of connective tissue that covers an individual muscle is called

(b)
the .
a) fascicle c) periosteum
b) epimysium d) endomysium
3. Each muscle fiber within a fascicle is covered by tissue called . (c)

a) epimysium c) endomysium
b) periosteum d) perimysium
4. Muscle’s contractile ability is a result of the interaction between two

(a)
filaments, myosin and .
a) actin c) adenosine
b) elastin d) reticulin
5. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the heart wall?

(b)
a) nonstriated c) smooth
b) cardiac d) skeletal
6. The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called the . (b)

a) endomysium c) sarcoplasmic reticulum
b) sarcolemma d) fascia
7. The striated appearance of skeletal muscles results from the . (c)

a) sarcoplasmic reticulum network c) sarcomere arrangement
b) transverse tubule pattern d) aerobic conversion
8. The strength of a muscle contraction is varied by changing the . (a)

a) number of motor units c) number of fibers contract-
stimulated ing within each motor unit
b) strength that each individual d) the intensity of the nerve
fiber contracts impulse
9. The transmission of the stimulus of muscle contraction is aided by

(d)
.
a) myosin c) brain waves
b) actin d) transverse tubules
10. Energy for muscle contractions comes from . 117
(d)
a) ATF c) ADP

b) CPA d) ATP
11. is found in the gap between the end of the motor nerve and the (c)
muscle fiber.
a) Mitochondria c) Acetylcholine
b) Adenosine triphosphate d) Creatine phosphate
12. The condition in which muscles cease to respond because of lack of

(a)
oxygen and/or buildup of waste products is called .
a) muscle fatigue c) lactic acid
b) oxygen deficiency d) anaerobic respiration
13. A muscle contraction in which the body part affected by the muscle does
(b)
not move is called .
a) isotonic c) eccentric
b) isometric d) concentric
14. A muscle contraction in which the distance between the ends of the
(a)
muscle changes is called .
a) isotonic c) dynamic
b) resistant d) isometric
15. The muscle that originates on the coracoid process and flexes the elbow is
(c)
the .
a) brachioradialis c) biceps brachii
b) brachialis d) coracobrachialis
16. A muscle that flexes the neck or turns the head to the opposite side is the
(c)
.
a) splenius capitus c) sternocleidomastoid
b) scalenus posterior d) all of the above
17. A muscle strain that involves a partial tear of 10 percent to 50 percent of

(b)
the muscle fibers is classified .
a) Grade I c) Grade III
b) Grade I d) parietal
18. A group of related genetic diseases that cause progressive degeneration of (a)
the voluntary muscular system is called .
a) muscular dystrophy c) fibrosis
b) myofibrosis d) atrophy
118 19. Aerobic cellular respiration to replenish ATP takes place in the . (c)
a) liver c) mitochondria
b) bloodstream d) cell nucleus
abduction
(Abduction is moving a body part away from the midline.)
actin
(Actin is the protein filament that interacts with the myosin filaments that give muscle tissue its
unique ability to contract.)
adduction
(Adduction is bringing the body part toward the midline.)
antagonist
(Antagonist refers to a muscle that acts in direct opposition to the prime mover agonist.)
aponeurosis
(An aponeurosis is a broad, flat tendon sheath.)
cardiac muscle
(Cardiac muscle occurs only in the heart and is responsible for pumping blood through the heart
into the blood vessels.)
contractility
(Contractility is the ability of a muscle to contract or shorten and thereby exert force.)
elasticity 119
(Elasticity refers to the tissue’s ability to return to normal resting length when a stress that has

been placed on it is removed.)
extensibility
(Extensibility is the ability of a muscle to stretch.)
extension
(Extension is straightening or increasing the angle of a joint.)
fascia
(Fascia is the fibrous connective tissue between muscle bundles or between muscle fibers that
support nerves and blood vessels.)
flexion
(Flexion is bending or decreasing the angle of a joint.)
insertion
(Insertion is the more mobile attachment of a muscle to bone.)
motor neuron
(A motor neuron carries nerve impulses from the brain to the effectors.)
motor unit
(A motor unit consists of a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it controls.)
120 muscle belly
(The muscle belly is the main or central part of a muscle.)

muscle fatigue
(Muscle fatigue is a condition in which the muscle ceases to respond because of oxygen debt from
rapid or prolonged muscle contractions.)
myofibril
(Myofibril is a microscopic part of the muscle fiber that contains the actin and myosin filaments.)
myosin
(Myosin is the protein filament that interacts with the actin filaments that give muscle tissue its
unique ability to contract.)
origin
(Origin is the point where the end of a muscle is anchored to an immovable section of the
skeleton.)
oxygen debt
(Oxygen debt occurs when the respiratory system cannot supply adequate oxygen to the
muscular system to carry on strenuous activity, resulting in anaerobic respiration and the
production of lactic and pyruvic acid.)
prime mover
(The prime mover is the agonist or muscle responsible for a movement.)

pronation 121
(Pronation is rotating a body part downward.)

skeletal muscle
(Skeletal muscles are attached to bone by tendons and are responsible for moving the limbs,
facial expression, speaking, and other voluntary movements.)
smooth muscle
(Smooth muscle lacks striations and cannot be stimulated to contract by conscious effort.)
striated
(Striated refers to the light and dark stripes in skeletal and cardiac muscle when viewed under a
microscope.)
supination
(Supination is rotating a body part upward.)
synergist
(Synergist refers to a muscle that assists a prime mover agonis.)
tendon
(Tendons are bands that attach muscle to bone.)

Theory & Practice of Therapeutic Massage Workbook 122 SYSTEM FOUR: THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
statement.
1. The two divisions to the vascular system are the (blood-vascular system or cardiovascular
system) and (the lymph-vascular system) .
2. The double-layered membrane that covers the heart is the (pericardium) .
3. The normal heart rate for an adult is (60-80) beats per minute.
4. The blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are the (arteries) and
(arterioles) .
5. The blood vessels that carry blood back toward the heart are the (veins) and
(venules) .
6. The largest artery in the body is the (aorta) .
7. The smallest, microscopic, thin-walled blood vessels are called (capillaries) .
8. The two circulation systems in the blood-vascular system are (pulmonary circulation)
and (general or systemic circulation) .

IDENTIFICATION: Identify the parts indicated in Figure 5.18 (a cross-section of a portion 123
of the heart wall, including the pericardium) by writing the letter of the part next to the

appropriate term in the space provided.
(C) 1. epicardium (E) 4. parietal pericardium
(B) 2. myocardium (D) 5. pericardial cavity
(A) 3. endocardium (C) 6. visceral pericardium
Fig. 5.18 Cross-section of wall of heart.

124 IDENTIFICATION: Identify the structures of the heart indicated in Figure 5.19 (a diagram
of the frontal structure of the heart) by writing the letter next to the appropriate term in the
space provided.
Fig. 5.19 Frontal section of the heart.
(C) 1. aorta (R) 11. right ventricle
(I) 2. aortic semilunar valve (L) 12. septum
(T) 3. inferior vena cava (B) 13. superior vena cava
(G) 4. left atrium (Q) 14. tricuspid valve
(J) 5. left ventricle (A) 15. right pulmonary artery
(H) 6. mitral (bicuspid) valve (S) 16. endocardium
(E) 7. left pulmonary artery (P) 17. pericardium
(N) 8. pulmonary semilunar valve (D) 18. pulmonary trunk
(F,M) 9. pulmonary veins (K) 19. myocardium
(O) 10. right atrium

TRUE OR FALSE: If the following statements are true, write true in the space provided. If 125

(vasoconstriction) 1. Impulses from the sympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous
system cause vasodilation.
(diffusion) 2. Substances move through the capillary walls mostly by osmosis.
(true) 3. Blood moves through the arterioles to the capillaries and then to the
venules.
(filtration) 4. Diffusion is a process in which substances move from an area of

higher pressure to lower pressure.
(true) 5. In pulmonary circulation, veins contain oxygen-rich blood.
A. arteriosclerosis C. embolus E. atherosclerosis

B. phlebitis D. varicose veins F. edema
(D) 1. protruding, bulbous, distended superficial veins
(B) 2. an inflammation of a vein
(F) 3. a condition of excess fluid in the interstitial spaces
(A) 4. the walls of affected arteries tend to thicken, become fibrous, and lose their
elasticity
(E) 5. an accumulation of fatty deposits on the inner walls of the arteries
(C) 6. a clot that breaks loose and floats in the bloodstream

(five) 1. The cardiovascular system of the average adult male contains about four
liters of blood.
(alkaline) 2. Blood has a slightly acid reaction.
(50 to 60) 3. Plasma accounts for 75 percent of the blood’s volume.
(red blood cells) 4. White blood cells constitute as much as 98 percent of all blood cells.
(true) 5. Red blood cells and white blood cells are produced in the red bone
marrow.
SHORT ANSWER: Five functions of the blood are listed below. In the spaces provided,
briefly describe how the blood performs these functions.
1. Blood provides nutrients to the cells.
(It circulates oxygen, water, food, and secretions to all parts of the body.)
2. Blood removes wastes.
(It collects metabolic waste and other cellular debris and carries it through the blood
vessels to the eliminative organs.)
3. Blood maintains normal body temperature.
(It controls the circulation between the interior and the periphery to protect the body from
extreme heat or cold.)
4. Blood protects against infection.
(White blood cells circulate in the blood to battle invading bacteria and other infectious
agents.)
5. Blood prevents hemorrhaging.
(The coagulating ability of the blood seals wounds and prevents excessive bleeding.)
statement.

1. Red blood cells are also called (erythrocytes) .
2. Red blood cells are colored with an oxygen-carrying substance called (hemoglobin) .
3. The process in which leukocytes actually engulf and digest harmful bacteria is called
(phagocytosis) .
4. The small irregularly shaped particles in the blood that play an important role in clotting
are (blood platelets) or (thrombocytes) .
5. A disease characterized by extremely slow clotting of blood and excessive bleeding from
even very slight cuts is (hemophilia) .
6. A condition in which there is a rapid loss or inadequate production of red blood cells is
(anemia) .
7. A form of cancer in which there is an uncontrolled production of white blood cells is
known as (leukemia) .
Theory & Practice of Therapeutic Massage Workbook 128
Fig. 5.20 Circulatory system.

IDENTIFICATION: Identify the numbered blood vessels in Figure 5.20 (a diagram of the 129
major blood vessels of the body) by writing the correct term in the numbered space that

corresponds to the number on the figure. (The arteries are indicated on the left side of the body
as unshaded vessels. The veins are indicated on the right side of the body as shaded vessels.)
1. (peroneal artery) 12. (common carotid artery)
2. (posterior tibial artery) 13. (int. and ext. jugular veins)
3. (anterior tibial artery) 14. (subclavian vein)
4. (femoral artery) 15. (cephalic vein)
5. (common iliac artery) 16. (brachial vein)
6. (ulnar artery) 17. (aorta)
7. (radial artery) 18. (basilic vein)
8. (inferior vena cava) 19. (common iliac vein)
9. (brachial artery) 20. (superficial vein)
10. (superior vena cava) 21. (great saphenous vein)
11. (subclavian artery)
SHORT ANSWER: Circle the term that does not belong in the following groups (groups
flow from left to right).
spleen liver tonsils thymus

lacteal thoracic duct lymphatic venule
swelling nausea pain redness
lymphocytes monocytes platelets leukocytes
lymph capillaries capillary beds closed system continuous flow
(filtered) 1. Lymph is derived from the interstitial fluid and is

produced by the lymph nodes.
(true) 2. Lymphoid tissue produces a kind of white blood

cell called a lymphocyte.
(true) 3. All lymph eventually flows into the bloodstream.

130 (right half of head and right arm) 4. The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the
right half of the body.
(muscles, breathing, and lymph vessels) 5. Lymph is moved through the lymph system by a
pumping action of the lymph nodes.
statement.
1. Specialized white blood cells called (lymphocytes) play a major role in the immune
response.
2. White blood cells originate in (bone marrow) .
3. White blood cells specialize into T-cells in the (thymus) .
4. The agent that triggers an immune response is a(n) (antigen) .
5. White blood cells are transported throughout the body by (blood) and
(lymph) .
6. The production of antibodies is the responsibility of the (B-cells) .
7. When the immune system mistakenly attacks itself, the result is (autoimmune disease) .
8. (Killer T-cells) attack and destroy antigens directly.
9. The cell that is destroyed by the HIV virus in AIDS is the (helper T-cells) .
10. The process of specialized cells engulfing and digesting neutralized antigens and debris is
(phagocytosis) .
MATCHING: Match the terms with the best description. Write the letter of the appropriate
A. acquired immunity D. memory cells G. innate immunity

B. immunity E. vaccines H. autoimmune diseases
C. allergen F. allergy
(E) 1. stimulate an immune response without causing the accompanying illness
(B) 2. all the physiologic mechanisms used by the body as protection against foreign
substances
(G) 3. is present from before birth
(C) 4. allergy-causing substance
(A) 5. specialized form of immunity that is the result of an encounter with a new
substance
(F) 6. overreaction by the immune system to an otherwise harmless substance 131

(H) 7. when the body makes antibodies and T-cells directed against its own cells
(D) 8. provide immunity for years or even a lifetime
(true) 1. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) disease occurs when the

human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enters a person’s body.
(200) 2. An HIV-infected person is clinically said to have AIDS when their CD4+
T-cell blood count falls below 500 per cubic millimeter of blood.
(true) 3. HIV is spread most commonly by sexual contact with an infected

partner or through contact with infected blood.
(is not) 4. Massage is contraindicated for people infected with HIV or AIDS.
(universal) 5. Health care workers can reduce their risk of becoming HIV infected in
their practice by following safe sex precautions.
1. Supplying the body with nutrients and carrying away waste products is
(b)
the function of the .
a) lungs c) kidneys
b) circulatory system d) muscles
2. The two-way diffusion of substances between the blood and tissue fluids
(c)
surrounding cells is the function of the .
a) arteries c) capillaries
b) veins d) lymph
3. Waste-laden blood returns to the heart through the . (a)

a) veins c) capillaries
b) arteries d) lymphatics
4. Blood platelets are important to proper . (b)

a) nutrition c) immunity
b) clotting d) circulation
5. Macrophages are large cells (WBCs) that destroy foreign bacteria by the
(c)
process of .
a) osmosis c) phagocytosis
b) mitosis d) enzymatic action
132 6. The process in which substances move from an area of higher
(a)
concentration to an area of lower concentration is .
a) diffusion c) filtration
b) osmosis d) saturation
7. Blood is supplied to the small finger side of the hand by the . (a)
a) ulnar artery c) parietal artery
b) popliteal artery d) radial artery
8. The right atrium receives blood directly from . (a)

a) the superior and inferior vena cava c) the pulmonary veins
b) the right ventricle d) the coronary vein
9. The liquid that surrounds tissue cells is called . (b)

a) lymph c) plasma
b) interstitial fluid d) blood
10. Toxic molecules are filtered by the . (a)

a) lymphatic system c) muscular system
b) spleen d) bone marrow
11. Lymph reenters the blood-vascular system through the . (d)

a) lymph capillaries c) spleen
b) lymph nodes d) subclavian vein
12. Approximately how much of the fluid that leaves the blood-vascular
(b)
system is absorbed by the lymph-vascular system?
a) 5 percent c) 20 percent
b) 10 percent d) 40 percent
13. A condition in which there is an inadequate population of erythrocytes is

(b)
.
a) hemophilia c) edema
b) anemia d) leukemia
14. Which of the following is not a branch of the aorta?

(b)
a) right coronary artery c) brachiocephalic artery
b) pulmonary artery d) left subclavian artery
15. Blood from the face and scalp is drained by the . (c)
a) external jugular vein c) inferior vena cava
b) subclavian vein d) cephalic veins
16. The thickest part of the heart muscle is near . 133
(d)
a) the semilunar valve c) the right atrium

b) the right ventricle d) the left ventricle
17. The inside membrane lining the heart and the valves is called . (a)
a) the endocardium c) the pericardium
b) the myocardium d) the epicardium
18. The semilunar valve prevents the backflow of blood into . (c)
a) the lung c) the right ventricle
b) the right atrium d) the left atrium
19. An erythrocyte . (c)

a) manufactures antibodies c) contains hemoglobin
b) releases serotonin d) performs phagocytosis
20. Which of the following are white blood cells?

(d)
a) leukocytes c) lymphocytes
b) monocytes d) all of the above
21. A free-floating blood clot is called . (d)

a) an embolism c) phlebitis
b) thrombosis d) an embolus
anemia
(Anemia refers to several conditions in which there is an inadequate production of red blood
cells.)
aorta
(The aorta is the main artery of the body.)
arteriole
(Arteriole is one of the small vessels between the arteries and the capillaries.)
134 arteriosclerosis
(Arteriosclerosis is a condition in which the walls of the arteries thicken and lose their elasticity.)
artery
(Arteries are thick-walled muscular and elastic vessels that transport oxygenated blood from the
heart.)
atrium
(The atrium is one of the upper chambers of the heart.)
auricle
(The auricle is one of the upper chambers of the heart.)
blood-vascular system
(The blood-vascular system, or cardiovascular system, includes the blood, heart, and blood
vessels.)
capillary
(Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels and connect arterioles with the venules.)
cardiovascular
(The term cardiovascular refers to the heart and blood vessels.)
diffusion
(Diffusion is a process in which substances move from an area of higher concentration to an area
of lower concentration.)
edema 135
(Edema is an excess of fluids in the tissues.)

embolus
(An embolus is a piece of a clot that loosens and floats in the blood.)
endocardium
(The endocardium is the thin, innermost layer of the heart.)
epicardium
(The epicardium is the protective outer layer of the heart.)
erythrocytes
(Erythrocytes are red blood cells.)
filtration
(Filtration is a process in which blood pressure pushes fluids and substances through the
capillary wall and into the tissue spaces.)
hemoglobin
(Hemoglobin is a compound in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the cells and
carbon dioxide from the cells to the lungs.)
interstitial
(Interstitial means to be between cells, as in interstitial fluid.)

136 lacteal
(Lacteals are lymphatic capillaries located in the villi of the small intestine.)
leukemia
(Leukemia is a form of cancer in which there is an uncontrolled production of white blood cells.)
leukocytes
(Leukocytes are white blood cells.)
lymph
(Lymph is a straw-colored fluid derived from interstitial fluid that is absorbed into the lymphatic
system.)
lymph-vascular system
(The lymph-vascular system consists of lymph, lymph nodes, and lymphatics through which the
lymph circulates.)
lymphatic pump
(A lymphatic pump is the action of external forces and smooth muscle in the larger lymphatics
that propels lymph through the lymphatic system.)
lymphatics
(Lymphatics are lymph-collecting vessels.)
mitral valve
(The mitral valve is the heart valve between the left atrium and left ventricle.)
myocardium 137
(The myocardium is the cardiac muscle.)

pericardial cavity
(The pericardial cavity is a space within the pericardium that contains a serous fluid that
cushions the heart.)
pericardium
(The pericardium is a double-layered membrane that encloses the heart.)
phagocytosis
(Phagocytosis is a process in which leukocytes engulf and digest harmful bacteria and other
tissue debris.)
phlebitis
(Phlebitis is an inflammation of a vein accompanied by pain and swelling.)
plasma
(Plasma is the fluid part of the blood.)
platelets
(Platelets, or thrombocytes, are small, irregular bodies found in the blood that play an important
role in the clotting of blood over a wound.)
pulmonary circulation
(Pulmonary circulation is the blood circulation from the heart to the lungs and back again to the
heart.)
138 semilunar valves
(The pulmonary semilunar valve is between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. The
aortic semilunar valve is between the left ventricle and the aorta.)
serotonin
(Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that helps to regulate nerve impulses and influences mood,
behavior, appetite, blood pressure, temperature regulation, memory, and learning ability.)
systemic circulation
(Systemic circulation is the circulation of blood from the left side of the heart, through the body,
and back to the heart.)
thoracic duct
(The thoracic duct is the largest lymph vessel in the body, extending from the cisterna chyli in the
abdomen to where lymph reenters the blood, at the junction of the left subclavian vein and the
left jugular vein.)
thrombocytes
(Thrombocytes are red blood cells.)
tricuspid valve
(The tricuspid valve of the heart allows blood to flow from the right atrium into the right
ventricle.)
vasoconstriction
(Vasoconstriction is the contraction of the arterial walls.)
vasodilation
(Vasodilation is the relaxation and enlargement of the arterial walls.)

vasomotor nerves 139
(Vasomotor nerves are nerves from the sympathetic nervous system that supply the smooth

muscle tissue in the walls of the arteries and arterioles.)
vein
(Veins are thinner-walled blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood and waste-laden blood
from capillaries back to the heart.)
vena cava
(The vena cava is the largest vein that returns blood to the heart.)
ventricle
(A ventricle is one of the lower, more muscular chambers of the heart that pumps blood out of the
heart.)
venule
(Venules are microscopic vessels that continue from the capillaries and merge to form veins.)
Theory & Practice of Therapeutic Massage Workbook 140 SYSTEM FIVE: THE NERVOUS SYSTEM
statement.
1. The major parts of the nervous system are the (brain) , (spinal cord) , and
(peripheral nerves) .
2. The structural unit of the nervous system is the (neuron) or (nerve cell) .
3. There are two types of nerve fibers. (Dentrites) connect with other neurons to receive
information and a single (axon) conducts impulses away from the cell body.
4. Impulses are passed from one neuron to another at a junction called a (synapse) .
5. Two characteristics of a neuron are (irritability) and (conductivity) .
6. Neurons that originate in the periphery and carry information toward the central nervous
system (CNS) are (sensory) or (afferent) neurons.
7. Neurons that carry impulses from the brain to the muscles or glands that they control are
(motor) or (efferent) neurons.
8. Neurons located in the brain and spinal cord that carry impulses from one neuron to
another are (internuncial neurons or interneurons) .
9. The portion of the nervous system that is surrounded by bone is the
(central nervous system) , which consists of the (brain) and the (spinal cord) .
10. The CNS is covered by a special connective tissue membrane called the (meninges) ,
which has three layers: the (dura mater) , the (pia mater) , and the (arachnoid mater) .
11. The fluid that surrounds and supports the brain and spinal cord is (cerebrospinal fluid) .
12. The largest portion making up the front and top of the brain is the (cerebrum) .
13. The smaller part of the brain that helps to maintain the body's balance and coordinates
voluntary muscles is the (cerebellum) .
14. The three parts of the brain stem are the (midbrain) , the (pons) , and the
(medulla oblongata) .
15. The two divisions of the peripheral nervous system are the (autonomic nervous system) ,
which involves the nerves to the visceral organs, glands, and blood vessels, and the
(somatic nervous system) , which involves the nerves to the muscles and skin.
IDENTIFICATION: Identify the structures indicated in Figure 5.21 (a diagram of a nerve 141
cell) by writing the letter of the structure next to the correct term in the space provided.

(D) 1. axon (E) 4. beads of myelin
(C) 2. cell body (B) 5. nucleus
(A) 3. dendrites
Fig. 5.21 Nerve cell.
A. afferent neuron D. efferent neuron G. nerve

B. axon E. ganglion H. stimuli
C. dendrite F. interneuron I. synapse
(B) 1. the conducting portion of a neuron
(I) 2. junction point between neurons
(G) 3. bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system
(E) 4. collection of nerve bodies located outside the CNS
(H) 5. changes that activate the nervous system
(C) 6. receptive structure of the neuron
(A) 7. carries sensory information toward the CNS
(F) 8. transmits information from one neuron to another

(first lumbar vertebra) 1. The spinal cord extends from the medulla oblongata to the sacrum.
(medulla oblongata) 2. Control centers in the pons regulate movements of the heart and
control vasoconstriction of the arteries.
(pons) 3. The midbrain relays impulses from the cerebrum to the cerebellum.
(true) 4. Spinal nerves are numbered according to the level where they exit the
spine.
(true) 5. There are thirty-one pairs of spinal nerves.
(true) 6. All of the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord are considered to
be the peripheral nervous system.
CRANIAL NERVES
IDENTIFICATION AND MATCHING: Number the cranial nerves according to the

order in which they arise from the brain. In the first column of answer blanks, write the
Roman numeral that corresponds to the cranial nerve. Then, select the best description of the
function of the cranial nerve from the list below the table, and write the appropriate letter in
the second column of answer blanks.
Number Function
(IV) (C) 1. trochlear nerve
(II) (K) 2. optic nerve
(XII) (G) 3. hypoglossal nerve
(X) (D) 4. vagus nerve
(XI) (A) 5. accessory nerve
(VI) (I) 6. abducens nerve
(III) (F) 7. oculomotor nerve
(V) (B) 8. trigeminal nerve
(VIII) (L) 9. auditory nerve
(I) (E) 10. olfactory nerve
(IX) (J) 11. glossopharyngeal nerve
(VII) (H) 12. facial nerve
A. speaking, shoulder, and neck muscles

B. sensations of the face and movement of the jaw and tongue
C. moves eyeball down and out
D. sensation and movement related to talking, heart rate, breathing, and digestion 143
E. sense of smell

F. moves eyeball up, down, and in; constricts pupil; raises eyelid
G. tongue movement and swallowing
H. movements of the face and salivary glands
I. moves eyeball outward
J. tongue movement, swallowing, sense of taste
K. sense of sight
L. sense of hearing
SHORT ANSWER: In the spaces provided, write the answers to the following questions.
1. How many pairs of cervical nerves are there? (8)
2. How many pairs of thoracic nerves are there? (12)
3. How many pairs of lumbar nerves are there? (5)
4. How many pairs of sacral nerves are there? (5)
A. mechanoreceptors C. photoreceptors E. nociceptors
B. thermoreceptors D. chemoreceptors
(B) 1. detect heat and cold
(C) 2. detect light
(E) 3. detect pain
(A) 4. proprioceptors
(E) 5. respond to tissue damage and extreme stimuli
(A) 6. Ruffini end organs and Merkel disks
(C) 7. rods and cones in the retina
(A) 8. sense pressure, vibration
(D) 9. sense smell and taste

Fig. 5.22 The nervous system.
IDENTIFICATION: Identify the major parts of the nervous system in Figure 5.22 by writ-
ing the letter of the part next to the appropriate term in the space provided.
(N) 1. autonomic chain of ganglia (H) 10. peroneal nerve
(B) 2. brachial plexus (P) 11. radial nerve
(J) 3. brain (E) 12. sacral plexus

(A) 4. cervical plexus (I) 13. saphenous nerve 145

(Q) 5. femoral nerve (F) 14. sciatic nerve
(M) 6. intercostal nerve (K) 15. spinal cord
(D) 7. lumbar plexus (G) 16. tibial nerve
(O) 8. median nerve (C) 17. ulnar nerve
(R) 9. plantar nerve (L) 18. spinal nerve
MATCHING: Match the term with the best description. Write the letter of the term in the
space provided.
A. central nervous system D. autonomic nervous system

B. peripheral nervous system E. sympathetic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system F. parasympathetic nervous system
(E) 1. Stimulation causes increased respiration, dilated pupils, increased heart rate, and
cardiac output.
(B) 2. Consists of motor nerves, sensory nerves, and mixed nerves.
(A) 3. Is completely housed and protected in a bony covering.
(F) 4. General function is to conserve energy.
(D) 5. Is composed of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.
(B) 6. Includes the autonomic and somatic nervous system.
(F) 7. Nerve fibers arise from the second, third, and fourth sacral spinal nerves and the
III, VII, IX, and X (vagus nerve) cranial nerves.
(B) 8. Is composed of cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and nerve ganglia.
(A) 9. Is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
(E) 10. Prepares the organism for energy-expending, stressful, or emergency situations.
(D) 11. Regulates smooth muscle, the heart, and other involuntary functions.
(A) 12. Interprets incoming information and issues orders.
(B) 13. Carries information to and from all parts of the body.
(C) 14. Carries information to and from the skeletal muscles and skin.
(E) 15. Involves a chain of ganglia located along the spine.

statement.
1. The simplest form of nervous activity that includes a sensory and motor nerve and few,
if any, interneurons is called a (reflex) .
2. The nerve pathway of the simplest form of nervous activity is called a (reflex arc) .
IDENTIFICATION: Identify the structures indicated in Figure 5.23 (a diagram of a simple

reflex arc) by writing the letter of the structure next to the appropriate term in the space
provided. (Note the arrows that indicate the direction of the nerve impulse.)
(A) 1. sensory neuron
(C) 2. dorsal root
(E) 3. motor neuron
(D) 4. connecting neuron
(I) 5. sensory nerve receptor
(G) 6. spinal cord
(B) 7. spinal ganglion
(F) 8. ventral root
(H) 9. muscle (effector)
Fig. 5.23 Simple reflex arc.

statement.

1. Sensory nerves that record conscious sensations such as heat, cold, pain, and pressure are
termed (exteroceptors) .
2. Sensory nerves that respond to the unconscious inner sense of position and movement
of the body are termed (proprioceptors) .
3. The system of sensory and motor nerve activity that provides information as to the
position and rate of movement of different body parts is (proprioception) .
4. (Spindle cells) sense the length and stretch of the muscle as well as how far and fast the
muscle is moving.
5. (Spindle cells) consist of intrafusal muscle fibers, annulospiral, and flower-type nerve
receptors.
6. (Golgi tendon organs) are multibranched sensory nerve endings located in tendons in
the area where muscle fibers attach to tendon tissue.
7. (Golgi tendon organs) measure the amount of tension produced in muscle cells that
occurs as a result of the muscle's stretching and contracting.
A. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis G. nerve compression L. poliomyelitis

B. encephalitis H. nerve entrapment M. quadriplegia
C. epilepsy I. neuritis N. shingles
D. hemiplegia J. paraplegia O. spinal cord injury
E. meningitis K. Parkinson’s disease P. stroke
F. multiple sclerosis
(F) 1. the result of the breakdown of the myelin sheath, which inhibits nerve conduction
(K) 2. characterized by tremors and shaking, especially in the hands
(A) 3. a degenerative neurologic condition affecting the motor nerves of the brain,
causing weakness, spasticity, and atrophy of the voluntary muscles
(N) 4. an acute inflammation of a nerve trunk and the dendrites at the end of the sensory
neurons, caused by the herpes zoster virus
(J) 5. paralysis of the lower part of the body
(M) 6. paralysis affecting the arms and the legs

Theory & Practice of Therapeutic Massage Workbook 148 (D) 7. paralysis affecting one side of the body
(I) 8. the inflammation of a nerve that is usually a symptom of some other condition
(P) 9. the result of a blood clot or ruptured blood vessel in or around the brain
(C) 10. abnormal electrical activity in the CNS characterized by seizures
(H) 11. caused by soft tissue, such as muscle, fascia, tendon, or ligament, that puts pressure
against a nerve
(L) 12. a crippling or even deadly disease that affects the motor neurons of the medulla
oblongata and spinal cord, resulting in paralysis
(O) 13. caused by disease or trauma to the vertebral column, resulting in loss of sensation
and movement to the body below the site of injury
(B) 14. a viral disease causing inflammation of the brain and meninges
(E) 15. an acute inflammation of the pia and arachnoid mater around the brain and spinal
cord
(G) 16. caused by bone or cartilage pressing against the nerve
1. The junction at which impulses are passed from one neuron to another is
(c)
called a/an .
a) axon c) synapse
b) neuromuscular junction d) dendrite
2. The central nervous system consists of the spinal cord and the . (d)
a) motor neurons c) mixed nerves
b) afferent nerves d) brain
3. A motor neuron is also called a/an . (a)

a) efferent neuron c) nerve cell
b) interneuron d) afferent neuron
4. The three types of neurons are . (c)

a) sympathetic, parasympathetic, c) sensory, motor,
peripheral interneuron
b) afferent, efferent, connecting d) receptors, effectors,
conductors
5. Body balance and voluntary muscle movement are controlled by the 149
(a)
.

a) cerebellum c) brain stem
b) cerebrum d) midbrain
6. The spinal cord has pairs of spinal nerves: (b)

a) 25 c) 42
b) 31 d) 36
7. Movement of head, neck, and shoulders is controlled by the . (a)

a) cervical plexus c) brachial plexus
b) somatic system d) cranial nerves
8. All thought, association, and judgment take place in the . (c)

a) cerebellum c) cerebral cortex
b) thalamus d) medulla oblongata
9. The largest and longest nerve in the body is the nerve. (d)
a) brachial c) lumbar
b) vagus d) sciatic
10. Damage to the nerve could cause inability of the diaphragm to (a)
function.
a) phrenic c) hypoglossal
b) axillary d) pneumogastric
11. Nerves from the fifth, sixth, and seventh cervical vertebrae form the
(c)
.
a) radial nerve c) brachial plexus
b) cervical plexus d) ulnar nerve
12. Specialized nerve endings that sense the amount of tension produced in
(b)
muscle cells are called .
a) spindle cells c) exteroceptors
b) Golgi tendon organs d) Ruffini end organs
13. Which of the following are considered peripheral nerves?

(d)
a) cranial nerves c) sympathetic nerves
b) spinal nerves d) all of the above
150 14. The parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems constitute the
(c)
.
a) central nervous system c) autonomic nervous system

b) peripheral nervous system d) none of the above
15. The axon is a nerve fiber . (c)

a) carrying the impulse toward the c) carrying the impulse away
cell body from the cell body
b) that is the body’s communication d) with sensory function
center only
16. Annulospiral receptors and Golgi tendon organs are parts of the . (a)
a) proprioceptors c) exteroceptors
b) autonomic nervous system d) central nervous system
17. The three brain coverings are collectively known as the . (c)
a) thalamus c) meninges
b) motor cortex d) convolutions
18. The pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata form the . (c)
a) cerebral hemispheres c) brain stem
b) cerebellum d) cerebral cortex
19. serves as the insulating sheath covering the axon. (b)

a) cerebrospinal fluid c) pia mater
b) myelin d) meninges
20. A condition in which there is an inflammation of one or more peripheral

(b)
nerves is .
a) meningitis c) neuralgia
b) neuritis d) encephalitis
21. Often a stroke causes a type of paralysis called . (d)

a) cerebrovascular accident c) quadriplegia
b) paraplegia d) hemiplegia
WORD REVIEW: The student is encouraged to write down the meaning of each of the 151

afferent nerve
(An afferent nerve is one or a group of sensory neurons that carry sensory impulses from a
variety of sensory receptors toward the brain or spinal cord.)
afferent neuron
(An afferent neuron is a sensory nerve.)
arachnoid mater
(Arachnoid mater is the middle space of the meninges.)
autonomic nervous system
(The autonomic nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system that regulates the action
of the glands, smooth muscles, and the heart.)
axon
(Axons conduct impulses away from the nerve cell body.)
brachial plexus
(The brachial plexus is composed of four lower cervical nerves and the first pair of thoracic
nerves that control arm movements.)
brain
(The brain is the principal nerve center and the largest, most complex nerve tissue of the body.)
152 brain stem
(The brain stem is at the base of the brain and consists of three parts: the midbrain, the pons, and
the medulla oblongata.)
central nervous system
(The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord.)
cerebellum
(The cerebellum is the small part of the brain that controls muscular movement and balance.)
cerebrospinal fluid
(The cerebrospinal fluid’s main function is to act as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal
cord and to distribute nutrients.)
cerebrovascular accident
(A cerebrovascular accident, or stroke, is caused by a blood clot or ruptured blood vessel in or
around the brain that subsequently destroys nerve tissue.)
cerebrum
(The cerebrum is the front and top of the brain and the center of mental activities, sensation,
communication, memory, emotions, will, and reasoning.)
cervical plexus
(The cervical plexus consists of the four upper cervical nerves that supply the skin and control
the movement of the head, neck, and shoulders.)
cranial nerves
(The cranial nerves connect directly to the brain and pass through openings on the side or bottom
of the cranium.)
dendrite 153
(Dendrites connect with other neurons to receive information.)

dura mater
(The dura mater is the outer layer of the meninges covering the brain and spinal cord.)
efferent nerve
(An efferent nerve is one or a group of motor neurons that carry impulses from the brain or
spinal cord to muscles or glands.)
efferent neuron
(An efferent neuron is a motor nerve.)
epilepsy
(Epilepsy is a neurologic condition in which there is abnormal electrical activity in the CNS
without apparent tissue abnormalities.)
ganglia
(Ganglia are a mass of neurons.)
Golgi tendon organs
(Golgi tendon organs are multibranched sensory nerve endings located in tendons.)
hemiplegia
(Hemiplegia is unilateral paralysis caused by a stroke.)

154 interneuron
(An interneuron carries impulses from one neuron to another.)

kinesthesia
(Kinesthesia is the sense of body movement or position.)
lumbar plexus
(The lumbar plexus is formed from the first four lumbar nerves.)
medulla oblongata
(The medulla oblongata is an enlarged continuation of the spinal cord that connects it to the
brain.)
meninges
(The meninges are a connective tissue membrane that covers the brain and spinal cord, made up
of the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and the pia mater.)
mixed nerve
(Mixed nerves contain both sensory and motor fibers.)
motor nerve
(Motor nerves, or efferent nerves, carry impulses from the brain or spinal cord to the muscles or
glands.)
motor neuron
(A motor neuron carries nerve impulses from the brain to the effectors.)
muscle spindle cells 155
(Muscle spindle cells are proprioceptive sensory organs located in muscles that alert the central

nervous system to the length and stretch of the muscle, as well as how far and fast the muscle is
moving.)
nerve
(Nerves are bundles of signal-carrying fibers held together by connective tissue that originates in
the brain and spinal cord and distributes branches all over the body.)
nerve cell
(A nerve cell is the structural unit of the nervous system.)
nerve fibers
(Nerve fibers are cytoplasmic projections of the nerve cell that conduct impulses toward or away
from the cell.)
neuralgia
(Neuralgia is the pain associated with neuritis.)
neuritis
(Neuritis is an inflammation of a nerve.)
neuron
(A neuron is the structural unit of the nervous system.)
neurotransmitter
(A neurotransmitter is a chemical that allows impulses to move from one neuron to the next or to
the receiving organ.)

156 paraplegia
(Paraplegia is paralysis of the legs, usually caused by spinal cord injury or disease.)
parasympathetic nervous system
(The parasympathetic nervous system functions to conserve energy and reverse the action of the
sympathetic division.)
peripheral nervous system
(The peripheral nervous system consists of all of the nerves that connect the CNS to the rest of the
body.)
pia mater
(The pia mater is the innermost layer of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord.)
pons
(The pons, located between the midbrain and medulla oblongata, relays impulses between the
cerebrum and the medulla or between the cerebrum and the spinal cord.)
proprioception
(Proprioception is a system of sensory and motor nerve activity that provides information on the
position and rate of movement of body parts to the CNS.)
proprioceptors
(Proprioceptors are nerve fibers that sense where the body is and how it moves.)
quadriplegia
(Quadriplegia is paralysis of the arms and legs caused by a stroke, disease or spinal cord injury.)
reflex 157
(A reflex is the simplest form of nervous activity, which includes a sensory and motor nerve.)

reflex arc
(The reflex arc is the nerve pathway of a reflex.)
sacral plexus
(The sacral plexus is formed from the fourth and fifth lumbar nerves, and the first four sacral
nerves.)
sciatic nerve
(The sciatic nerve is the largest and longest nerve in the body.)
sciatica
(Sciatica is neuralgia caused by injury to or pressure on the sciatic nerve.)
sensory nerve
(Sensory nerves, or afferent nerves, carry sensory impulses toward the brain or spinal cord.)
sensory neuron
(A sensory neuron carries impulses from sense organs to the brain.)
somatic nervous system
(The somatic nervous system involves the nerves of the peripheral nervous system that connect
the CNS with the voluntary muscles and skin.)

158 spinal cord
(The spinal cord functions as a conduction pathway for nerve impulses to and from the brain.)
spinal cord injury
(Spinal cord injury results in paralysis of the parts of the body controlled by the spinal nerves
that exit the spinal cord below the injury site.)
stroke
(Stroke, or a cerebrovascular accident, is the result of a blood clot or ruptured blood vessel in or
around the brain and the subsequent destruction of nerve tissue.)
sympathetic nervous system
(The sympathetic nervous system supplies the glands, involuntary muscles of internal organs, and
walls of blood vessels with nerves.)
synapse
(The synapse is the connecting space between one neuron and another.)
SYSTEM SIX: THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM 159

statement.
1. Glands that have tubes or ducts that carry their secretions to a particular part of the body
are (exocrine) or (duct glands) .
2. Glands that depend on the blood and lymph to carry their secretions to various affected
tissues are (endocrine) glands.
3. The chemical substances manufactured by the endocrine glands are known as
(hormones) .
IDENTIFICATION: Identify the hormone-producing organs in Figure 5.24 by writing the

correct term in the numbered space that corresponds to the number on the figure. Also name
the hormone-producing organs described in numbers 10, 11, and 12.
A.
1. (testes) 6. (pituitary)
2. (adrenal gland) 7. (thymus)
3. (parathyroid glands) 8. (pancreas)
4. (thyroid) 9. (ovary)
5. (pineal)
B.
(hypothalamus) 10. The posterior and anterior pituitaries hang from the bottom of this
hormone-producing organ.
(placenta) 11. This is present only in pregnant women.
(parathyroids) 12. These are the four small glands attached to the thyroid.
Fig. 5.24 The endocrine system.

MATCHING: Using the following list of organs, match the organ with the hormone(s) that 161
it produces or releases. Write the letter of the organ(s) in the space provided.

A. adrenal gland (cortex) E. ovaries I. thyroid
B. adrenal gland (medulla) F. testes J. parathyroid
C. pituitary (anterior lobe) G. pancreas K. pineal
D. pituitary (posterior lobe) H. thymus
Hormones
(C) 1. prolactin
(A) 2. aldosterone
(G) 3. insulin
(I) 4. thyroxin
(E) 5. estrogen
(A) 6. cortisol
(I) 7. calcitonin
(J) 8. parathormone
(C) 9. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
(A) 10. hydrocortisone
(C) 11. gonadotropic hormones
(G) 12. glucagon
(I) 13. triiodothyronine
(D) 14. oxytocin
(E) 15. progesterone
(A) 16. mineralocorticoids
(B) 17. epinephrine
(C) 18. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
(F) 19. testosterone
(B) 20. norepinephrine
(C) 21. growth hormone
(A) 22. corticosteroids
(D) 23. antidiuretic hormone

162 MATCHING: Match the term with the best description. Write the letter of the appropriate
A. adrenocorticotropin H. insulin
B. aldosterone I. lactogenic hormone
C. calcitonin J. luteinizing hormone
D. cortisol K. oxytocin
E. estrogens L. parathormone
F. follicle-stimulating hormone M. progesterone
G. glucagon N. TSH
(G) 1. antagonistic to insulin, produced by the same gland
(M) 2. promotes the lining of the uterus to thicken in preparation for fertilization
(F) 3. anterior pituitary hormones that regulate the female cycle
(M) 4. stimulates development of secretory parts of mammary glands
(E) 5. directly regulate the menstrual cycle
(N) 6. stimulates thyroid to produce thyroxin
(C) 7. decreases calcium in the blood
(L) 8. increases calcium level in the blood
(I) 9. stimulates mammary glands to secrete milk
(A) 10. helps protect the body during stress; stimulates the adrenal cortex
(H) 11. necessary for glucose to be taken up by cells
IDENTIFICATION: The following list of conditions are usually the result of hyper- or
hypoactivity of an endrocine gland’s production of a particular hormone. In the first answer
column, indicate whether the condition is caused by to hyper- or hypoactivity. In the second
answer column, write the name of the hormone involved.
Activity Hormone
(hyper) (growth hormone) 1. giantism
(hypo) (cortisol and aldosterone) 2. Addison’s disease
(hyper) (thyroxin) 3. Graves’ disease
(hyper) (testosterone) 4. masculinization; abnormal hairiness
(hypo) (parathormone) 5. tetany

(hypo) (thyroxin) 6. slow heart rate, sluggish physical and mental 163
activity

(hypo) (estrogen/progesterone) 7. spontaneous abortion
(hyper) (growth hormone) 8. acromegaly in an adult
(hyper) (parathormone) 9. decalcification of bones, making them brittle and

prone to fracture
(hypo) (insulin) 10. high blood glucose; glucose in the urine
(hyper) (glucocorticoids) 11. Cushing’s syndrome
(hypo) (thyroxin) 12. dwarfed stature and mental retardation (cretinism)
(hypo) (testosterone/estrogens) 13. failure of the reproductive organs to mature
1. Various skin and intestinal glands belong to the . (b)

a) endocrine group c) dermis
b) exocrine group d) digestive system
2. Glands that depend on blood and lymph to carry their secretions belong
(a)
to the .
a) endocrine group c) neuron group
b) exocrine group d) messenger group
3. Insulin causes . (a)

a) a decrease in the level of blood c) a decrease in the
glucose permeability of cell
b) an increase in the production of membranes to glucose
glucose from glycogen d) none of the above
4. Endocrine glands secrete chemicals called . (c)

a) lymph c) hormones
b) neurotransmitters d) enzymes
5. The gland that has both exocrine and endocrine qualities is the . (b)
a) thyroid c) adrenal gland
b) pancreas d) kidney
164 6. The body’s metabolism is regulated by the gland. (a)
a) thyroid c) thymus
b) pituitary d) adrenal
7. The hormone that represses or resolves conditions of inflammation is

(d)
.
a) estrogen c) adrenaline
b) thyroxin d) cortisol
8. The pituitary gland is called the master gland because it . (d)

a) maintains the blood pressure c) maintains the body’s fluid
balance
b) is situated at the base of the brain d) regulates and coordinates
the functions of all other
glands
9. It is known that the action of the thymus hormone is related to . (b)

a) ovulation c) carbohydrate metabolism
b) antibody production d) distribution of hair over
the body
10. A deficiency in the hormone from the parathyroid gland will produce
(d)
.
a) dwarfism c) decrease of potassium in
the blood
b) cretinism d) imbalance in the calcium
level of the body
11. A person having an increase in the production of thyroxin would be most

(c)
likely to have .
a) an increase in the level of blood c) an increase in metabolic
sugar rate
b) a decrease in blood pressure d) an increase in physical
growth and a decrease in
mental ability
12. The two hormones secreted by the ovaries are important in the . (d)
a) regulation of the metabolic rate c) maintenance of water
b) transmission of sex-linked genetic balance in the body
traits d) development of secondary
sex characteristics and
normal menstruation
13. As a rule, most hormone concentrations in the blood are controlled by 165
(d)
.

a) nerve impulses c) positive feedback
mechanisms
b) cellular demands d) negative feedback
mechanisms
14. There are four small located on the back of the thyroid gland. (c)
a) adrenal glands c) parathyroid glands
b) islets of Langerhans d) follicles
15. The anterior pituitary produces ATCH, which in turn stimulates the
(a)
.
a) adrenal glands c) heart
b) thyroid gland d) sex glands
16. are hormones that are secreted from the outer layer of the (a)
adrenal cortex.
a) Mineralocorticoids c) Sex hormones
b) Glucocorticoids d) Growth hormones
17. The thyroid gland has the ability to remove from the blood, (b)
which is used in the synthesis of thyroxin and triiodothyronine.
a) glucagons c) cortisol
b) iodine d) glucose
18. One category of the steroids, called mineralocorticoids, . (c)

a) constrict the superficial blood c) regulate fluid and
vessels electrolyte balance
b) depress kidney action d) relax the smooth muscles
of the intestines
19. The female counterpart to testosterone is . (c)

a) prolactin c) estrogen
b) progesterone d) luteinizing hormone
20. A person born without a functioning thyroid gland will suffer from
(d)
.
a) giantism c) diabetes
b) dwarfism d) cretinism
166 WORD REVIEW: The student is encouraged to write down the meaning of each of the
adrenal glands
(Adrenal glands, situated on the top of each kidney, produce epinephrine, norepinephrine, and
corticosteroids.)
ACTH
(ACTH is adrenocorticotropin, a hormone from the anterior pituitary that aids in protecting the
body in stressful or painful situations.)
aldosterone
(Aldosterone regulates the sodium/potassium balance in the extracellular fluid and in the blood.)
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
(Antidiuretic hormone stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb more water, which reduces urine
output.)
calcitonin
(Calcitonin is a hormone that controls the level of calcium in the blood.)
cortisol
(Cortisol is a hormone from the adrenal cortex that aids in the metabolism of carbohydrates,
proteins, and fats, and is active during stress.)
diabetes mellitus
(Diabetes mellitus is caused by decreased output of insulin by the pancreas.)
ducts
(Ducts are tubes leading from exocrine glands to a particular part of the body.)
endocrine glands 167

(Endocrine or ductless glands depend on the blood and lymph to carry their secretions to various
affected tissues.)
epinephrine
(Epinephrine is the “fight-or-flight” hormone produced in the adrenal glands that prepares the
body to respond to emergencies.)
estrogen
(Estrogen is a female hormone responsible for development of secondary sexual characteristics.)
exocrine glands
(Exocrine or duct glands possess tubes or ducts leading from the gland to a particular part of the
body.)
glucagon
(Glucagon, produced by the islets of Langerhans, increases the glucose level in the blood.)
glucocorticoids
(Glucocorticoids are hormones produced in the adrenal cortex that affect carbohydrate, protein,
and fat metabolism.)
goiter
(Goiter is an enlargement of the thyroid gland.)
gonadotropic hormones
(Gonadotropic hormones regulate the development and function of the reproductive systems in
women and men.)

168 gonads
(A gonad is a sex gland that produces the reproductive cell.)

growth hormone
(Growth hormone is a hormone from the anterior pituitary that promotes the growth of all
tissues.)
hormones
(Hormones are chemical substances manufactured in the endocrine glands that act as chemical
messengers on specific target tissues or organs or influence certain processes in the body.)
hyperactive
(Hyperactive means overactive.)
hypoactive
(Hypoactive means underactive.)
insulin
(Insulin is a hormone produced in the Islets of Laangerhans in the pancreas that regulates the
movement of glucose across the cell membrane and plays a role in protein and fat transport and
metabolism.)
islets of Langerhans
(Islets of Langerhans, found in the pancreas, produce insulin and glucagon.)
master gland
(The master gland is the pituitary gland.)

mineralocorticoids 169
(Mineralocorticoids are a group of hormones produced in the adrenal cortex.)

norepinephrine
(Norepinephrine is the “fight-or-flight” hormone that prepares the body to respond to
emergencies.)
ovaries
(Ovaries are glandular organs in the pelvis that produce the ovum and female sex hormones.)
oxytocin
(Oxytocin causes the uterus to contract and causes the letdown of breast milk.)
pancreas
(The pancreas is located behind the stomach and produces digestive enzymes and the hormones
insulin and glucagon.)
parathormone
(Parathormone regulates the blood level of calcium.)
parathyroid glands
(Parathyroid glands come in two pairs situated on each lobe of and behind the thyroid and
produce parathormone.)
pituitary gland
(The pituitary gland is a small gland, often called the master gland, because the hormones that it
secretes stimulate or regulate other glands.)

170 prolactin
(Prolactin stimulates the production of milk in a woman’s breast.)

target organs
(Target organs are tissues that receive hormones.)
testes
(The testes are two small, egg-shaped glands that produce the spermatozoa.)
testosterone
(Testosterone is a male hormone responsible for development of secondary sexual characteristics.)
tetany
(Tetany is a sustained muscle contraction usually affecting the hands or feet, often the result of
hypoparathyroidism.)
thyroid gland
(The thyroid gland is situated on either side of the trachea and produces thyroxin,
triiodothyronine, and calcitonin.)
TSH
(TSH is thyroid stimulating hormone, a hormone from the anterior pituitary that stimulates the
thyroid to produce thyroxin.)
thyroxin
(Thyroxin stimulates the metabolic rate of the body.)
triiodothyronine
(Triiodothyronine stimulates the metabolic rate of the body.)

SYSTEM SEVEN: THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM 171

IDENTIFICATION: Identify the structures indicated in Figure 5.25 by writing the letter of
the structure next to the appropriate term in the space provided.
Fig. 5.25 Respiratory organs and structures.
(L) 1. bronchus (K) 6. lung (A) 11. sinuses
(C) 2. roof of mouth (B) 7. nasal passage (I) 12. pharynx
(F) 3. lower jawbone (D) 8. oral cavity (N) 13. pulmonary artery
(G) 4. epiglottis (E) 9. tongue (J) 14. trachea
(H) 5. larynx (M) 10. pulmonary vein

statement.
1. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide that takes place in the body is called
(respiration) .
2. The exchange between the external environment and the blood that takes place in the
lungs is termed (external respiration) .
3. The gaseous exchange between the blood and the cells of the body is termed
(internal respiration) .
4. The oxidation that occurs within the cell is termed (cellular respiration) .
5. Air enters the nasal cavity through the (nose) .
6. The function of the mucosa of the nasal cavity is to (warm) , (moisten) , and
(filter) the air.
7. The passageway common to the digestive system and the respiratory system that is also
referred to as the throat is called the (pharynx) .
8. The air passes through the voice box or the (larynx) .
9. In the chest, the windpipe or (trachea) divides into two (bronchi) .
10. The entire system of multibranched air passages is called the (bronchial tree) .
11. The air passages terminate in clusters of air sacs called (alveoli) .
12. The act of ventilation is accomplished by (breathing) .
(carbon dioxide) 1. The blood in the pulmonary arteries has a high concentration of
oxygen.
(true) 2. Oxygen moves from the lungs to the blood by diffusion.
(cellular respiration) 3. The by-products of internal respiration are water, carbon dioxide,
and energy.
(true) 4. Carbon dioxide is carried by the red blood cells in the blood.
(inhale) 5. When the diaphragm contracts, it causes a person to exhale.

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Carefully read each statement. Choose the word or phrase that 173

1. Exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen is called . (a)
a) respiration c) oxidation
b) relaxation d) ventilation
2. Internal respiration occurs between the blood and the . (a)

a) cells c) lymph
b) air d) lungs
3. Oxygen is carried from the lungs to body cells by linking (chemically

(c)
bonding) with .
a) carbaminohemoglobin c) hemoglobin
b) hydrogen ions d) carbonic acid
4. Normal adult respiration occurs this many times per minute:

(c)
a) 10 to 15 c) 14 to 20
b) 25 to 30 d) 40 to 50
5. The largest respiratory muscle/muscles is/are the . (a)

a) diaphragm c) scalenus
b) intercostals d) posterior serratus
6. The functions of the nose include . (d)

a) assisting in speech c) filtering, warming, and
moistening the incoming
air
b) serving as the organ of smell d) all of the above
7. The walls of the alveoli are composed of . (b)

a) ciliated epithelium cells c) stratified epithelium
b) single epithelium cells d) loose connective tissue
8. When the diaphragm contracts, it . (b)

a) pushes upward against the lungs c) causes the intercostal
and causes them to deflate muscles to relax and
expand the chest wall
b) flattens out, allowing the lungs to d) pushes downward and
expand and fill with air inward, causing the lungs
to deflate and expel air
174 9. Which of the following describes the bronchi?
(d)
a) resemble the trachea in structure c) furnish a passageway by
b) are structured into two primary which air can reach the
air ways lungs
d) all of the above
10. The cartilaginous structure at the base of the tongue that helps to prevent
(c)
food and liquid from entering the trachea is the .
a) pharynx c) epiglottis
b) uvula d) soft palate
11. The layer of serous membrane that is firmly attached to the surface of a
(a)
lung is called .
a) visceral pleura c) parietal pleura
b) mucosa d) cilia
12. A flexible cylindrical tube, the , is supported by C-shaped pieces (b)

of hyaline cartilage arranged one above the other.
a) larynx c) pharynx
b) trachea d) bronchioles
13. The functions of the pharynx include . (d)

a) aiding in phonation c) serving the digestive tracts
b) furnishing open passageway for as a passageway
air going to and from the lungs. d) all of the above
14. The is /are soft, spongy, cone shaped organ(s) located in the (d)
thoracic cavity.
a) pharynx c) the trachea
b) larynx d) lungs
15. Also commonly called the throat, the is located behind the (d)
mouth cavity and between the nasal cavity and the larynx. Part of its
function is to provide a passageway for food traveling from the oral cavity
to the esophagus.
a) glottis c) soft palate
b) mucous membrane d) pharynx
16. A lines the nasal cavity and includes an extensive network of (c)
blood vessels. Heat leaves the blood and warms the incoming air as it
passes over this.
a) bronchial tree c) mucous membrane
b) glottis d) bronchi
17. Although the function(s) mainly to reduce the weight of the 175
(d)
skull, it/they also serve(s) as a resonant chamber that affects the quality

of the voice.
a) nasal cavity c) nose
b) pharynx d) sinuses
18. The is an enlargement in the airway at the top of the trachea (a)
that serves as a passageway for air moving in and out of the trachea, as
well as providing a mechanism for sound production.
a) larynx c) epiglottis
b) pharynx d) bronchi
19. The main way in which gas exchange happens through the respiratory
(c)
membrane is by .
a) infusion c) diffusion
b) evaporation d) radiation
20. A by-product of cellular respiration is . (d)

a) carbon dioxide c) water
b) heat d) all of the above
alveoli
(Alveoli are microscopic air sacs in the lungs.)
cellular respiration
(Cellular respiration, or oxidation, takes place within the cell.)
diaphragm
(The diaphragm is a muscular dome situated below the lungs that contracts to cause inhalation.)
exhalation
(Exhalation is the act of expelling air from the lungs.)

176 external respiration
(External respiration is the exchange that takes place in the lungs between the external
environment and the blood.)
inhalation
(Inhalation is the act of drawing air into the lungs.)
internal respiration
(Internal respiration is the gaseous exchange that takes place between the blood and the cells.)
larynx
(The larynx is part of the airway to the lungs located in the throat that contains the voice box.)
nasal cavity
(The nasal cavity is part of the airway just inside the nose and above the palate.)
pharynx
(The pharynx is the air passage at the back of the throat between the nasal cavity and the
larynx.)
respiration
(Respiration is the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen that takes place in the lungs, between
the blood and cells, and within the cell.)
trachea
(The trachea is the air passage from the larynx to the bronchus of the lung.)
ventilation
(Ventilation is also called external respiration or breathing.)

SYSTEM EIGHT: THE DIGESTIVE SYSTEM 177

statement.
1. The process of converting food into substances capable of nourishing cells is
(digestion) .
2. The process in which the digested nutrients are transferred from the intestines to the
blood or lymph vessels to be transported to the cells is (absorption) .
3. The muscular tube that goes from the lips to the anus is the (alimentary canal) or the
(digestive tract) .
4. Organs that aid digestion but are located outside the digestive tract are known as
(accessory) digestive organs.
5. The physical activity of digestion that takes place in the mouth is called (chewing) .
6. The chemical digestive activity that takes place in the mouth is from secretions by the
(salivary glands) .
7. The physical or mechanical activity in the alimentary canal is from the action of the
(involuntary muscles) .
178 IDENTIFICATION: Identify the structures indicated in Figure 5.26 by writing the correct
terms in the numbered space that corresponds to the number on the figure.
1. (vermiform appendix) 7. (esophagus)
2. (gallbladder) 8. (stomach)
3. (liver) 9. (pancreas)
4. (trachea) 10. (small intestine)
5. (mouth) 11. (large intestine)
6. (parotid gland) 12. (rectum)
Fig. 5.26 The digestive system.

MATCHING: Match the term with the best description. Write the letter of the appropriate 179

A. bolus G. ileocecal valve M. pyloric valve
B. cardiac sphincter H. ileum N. rectum
C. cecum I. lacteals O. saliva
D. chyme J. mucosa P. serous layer
E. colon K. oral cavity Q. submucosa
F. duodenum L. peristalsis R. villa
(C) 1. beginning of the large intestine
(O) 2. contains enzymes that begin to break down carbohydrates
(D) 3. a mixture of digestive juices, mucus, and food material
(A) 4. a soft food ball that is swallowed
(G) 5. prevents movement from the large intestine to the small intestine
(P) 6. outer covering of the intestine that is continuous with the peritoneum lining the
abdominal cavity
(L) 7. rhythmic, wavelike, muscular motion
(B) 8. opening at the top of the stomach
(N) 9. temporary storage of solid waste
(M) 10. opening at the end of the stomach
(J) 11. a membrane made up of epithelial cells that carry on secretion and absorption
(K) 12. where food is masticated
(M) 13. plays an important role in determining how long food is held in the stomach
(F) 14. first section of the small intestine
(E) 15. stores, forms, and excretes waste products; regulates the body’s water balance
(R) 16. finger-like projections that increase the surface area of small intestines
(F) 17. organ that receives bile and pancreatic juices
(I) 18. lymph capillaries in the small intestine
(Q) 19. serves to nourish the surrounding tissues and carry away the absorbed material
(H) 20. last section of the small intestine
(E) 21. organ responsible for water absorption and feces formation
1. The alimentary canal includes (not counting any accessory organs)

(c)
.
a) mouth, teeth, throat, stomach, and c) mouth, pharynx, esophagus,
large intestines stomach, small and large in-
testines
b) mouth, throat, pancreas, d) mouth, pharynx, pancreas,
gallbladder, and large intestines vermiform appendix, small
and large intestines
2. Transfer of nutrients from the intestines to the blood or lymph is called

(a)
.
a) absorption c) nutrition
b) digestion d) osmosis
3. Metabolism is a series of chemical reactions that take place in the tissue

(d)
cells. These reactions are necessary for .
a) building tissue and storing fat c) providing for elimination of
waste products
b) using nutritive elements to d) building and repairing
provide energy tissue and releasing heat and
energy
4. The small intestine consists of three parts that, beginning at the stomach,
(b)
appear in the following order:
a) ileum, duodenum, jejunum c) jejunum, ileum,
duodenum
b) duodenum, jejunum, ileum d) duodenum, ileum,
jejunum
5. The total length of the adult alimentary canal is about . (b)

a) five yards c) 50 feet
b) 25 to 30 feet d) twice as long as a person’s
height
6. The wavelike muscular movement that propels material through the

(c)
alimentary canal is .
a) initiated by swallowing c) called peristalsis
b) a reflexive action caused by the d) all of the above
presence of material in the canal
7. The complete process of digestion changes sugars and starches to . (b)

a) maltose c) glycogen
b) glucose d) glycerol
8. Bile is important in digestion because it . 181
(d)
a) digests simple fats c) dissolves meat fibers and

makes them easiest to digest
b) changes complex sugars to d) breaks down fat globules so
glucose that they can be more easily
digested by enzymes
9. The functions of the gallbladder include . (d)

a) filtering bile from the blood c) beta cells secreting
important enzymes used to
control metabolism
b) the manufacture of bile d) contracting and ejecting bile
into the duodenum while
digestion is going on in the
stomach and intestines
10. The sphincter between the esophagus and the stomach is called the . (b)
a) pyloric sphincter c) ileocecal sphincter
b) cardiac sphincter d) anal sphincter
11. The structure at the junction of the large and small intestines that controls (d)
the passage of feces is the .
a) jejunum c) pylorus sphincter
b) appendix d) ileocecal valve
12. From which part of the intestines does the appendix arise? (a)
a) the cecum c) the sigmoid flexure
b) the jejunum d) the ascending colon
13. The structures in the small intestine that are chiefly responsible for the
(a)
absorption of digested food are called .
a) villi c) caries
b) rugae d) ampullae
14. The walls of the digestive system are composed of . (c)

a) cardiac muscle c) smooth muscle
b) skeletal muscle d) sphincter muscle
15. Food is broken down into its chemical components by the action of
(a)
.
a) enzymes c) peristalsis
b) hormones d) sphincter muscles
16. The organ in which protein digestion begins is the . (b)

a) mouth c) duodeneum
b) stomach d) jejunum
182 17. At each end of the stomach are muscles that relax to form an opening and
(d)
contract to close the opening. These muscles are known as .
a) smooth muscles c) cardiac muscles

b) skeletal muscles d) sphincter muscles
18. Enzymes are secreted by the . (d)

a) villi c) liver and gallbladder
b) epiglottis d) linings of the stomach and
intestines
19. The epiglottis serves to prevent food from . (b)

a) being absorbed too rapidly c) moving along the intestines
too rapidly
b) being aspirated into the trachea d) backing up from the
stomach into the esophagus
20. The colon functions mainly to . (c)

a) digest fats c) absorb water from the waste
materials of digestion
b) secrete enzymes d) absorb digested food materi-
als into the circulating fluids
21. Simple sugar is normally stored in the liver in the form of . (d)
a) lactose c) glucose
b) lactase d) glycogen
22. Salivary glands are found in all the following locations except . (a)
a) in the nasopharynx c) under the back part of
tongue
b) in front of and below the ear d) under the front part of the
tongue
23. The sigmoid colon empties into the . (a)

a) rectum c) anal canal
b) transverse colon d) descending colon
24. The gallbladder functions to . (d)

a) store bile between meals c) release bile when stimulated
b) concentrate bile by reabsorbing by a hormone from the
water small intestine
d) all of the above
25. The parts of the colon in order, from proximal to distal, are . 183
(b)
a) descending, transverse, c) ascending, descending,

ascending, sigmoid transverse, sigmoid
b) ascending, transverse, d) transverse, ascending,
descending, sigmoid descending, sigmoid
absorption
(Absorption is the process in which the digested nutrients are transferred from the intestines to
the blood or lymph vessels.)
accessory digestive organs
(Accessory digestive organs consist of the teeth, tongue, salivary glands, pancreas, liver, and
gallbladder.)
alimentary canal
(The alimentary canal consists of the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, and small and large
intestines.)
anal canal
(The anal canal is the distal part of the large intestine, which ends with the anus.)
ascending colon
(The ascending colon is the first part of the large intestine that travels up the right side of the
body from the cecum to the hepatic flexure.)
bile
(Bile is a bitter, alkaline, yellowish-brown fluid secreted by the liver that aids in fat digestion.)
184 bolus
(A bolus is the soft ball of food created when food is chewed in the mouth, mixed with saliva,
and then swallowed.)
cardiac sphincter
(The cardiac sphincter is the valve at the junction of the esophagus and stomach.)
cecum
(The cecum is the beginning of the large intestine, which receives food waste from the small
intestine.)
chyme
(Chyme is a mixture of digestive juices, mucus, and food material.)
colon
(The colon is the large intestine.)
common bile duct
(The common bile duct is a tube from the gallbladder and pancreas into the duodenum.)
descending colon
(The descending colon is the part of the large intestine from the splenic flexure to the sigmoid
flexure along the left side of the abdomen.)
digestion
(Digestion is the process of converting food into substances capable of being used by the cells for
nourishment.)
duodenum 185
(The duodenum is the first section of the small intestine.)

feces
(Feces are the food waste that is excreted from the colon through the rectum and anus.)
hydrochloric acid
(Hydrochloric acid is gastric juice secreted by the stomach wall.)
ileum
(The ileum is the last part of the small intestine.)
ileocecal valve
(The ileocecal valve is the opening between the small intestine and the large intestine.)
jejunum
(The jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine.)
lacteals
(Lacteals are lymphatic capillaries located in the villi of the small intestine.)
oral cavity
(The oral cavity, or mouth, prepares food for entrance into the stomach.)
186 pancreatic duct
(The pancreatic duct is the tube from the pancreas that joins to form the common bile duct.)
pancreatic fluid
(Pancreatic fluid is digestive juice from the pancreas.)
peristalsis
(Peristalsis is the wavelike muscular action of the alimentary canal.)
pyloric sphincter
(The pyloric sphincter is the valve between the stomach and the small intestine.)
rectum
(The rectum is the distal end of the large intestine, where the waste is stored until it is excreted
from the body.)
saliva
(Saliva is a fluid produced by the salivary glands in the mouth that contains enzymes that begin
to digest carbohydrates.)
salivary glands
(Salivary glands are located in the mouth. They produce fluids and amylase to mix with food
and begin the digestion of starches into simple sugars.)
sigmoid colon
(The sigmoid colon is the distal portion of the large intestine between the descending colon and
the rectum.)
small intestine 187
(The small intestine, the longest part of the alimentary canal, consists of the duodenum, jejunum,

and ileum.)
transverse colon
(The transverse colon is the middle portion of the large intestine as it travels across the upper
abdomen from the hepatic flexure to the splenic flexure.)
villi
(Villi are small, finger-like projections in the walls of the small intestine that contain blood and
lymph vessels that absorb nutrients from the small intestine.)

Theory & Practice of Therapeutic Massage Workbook 188 SYSTEM NINE: THE EXCRETORY SYSTEM
MATCHING: Match the term with the best description. Write the letter or letters of the
appropriate excretory organ next to the term describing what that organ eliminates.
A. kidneys C. liver E. skin

B. large intestine D. lungs
(A) 1. urine
(B) 2. food wastes
(D) 3. expiration
(C) 4. bile
(A) 5. uric acid
(B) 6. feces
(A,C) 7. urea
(E) 8. heat
(D) 9. carbon dioxide
(E) 10. perspiration
(A,D,E) 11. water
statement.
1. The functional unit of the kidney is the (nephron) .
2. The tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder are called (ureters) .
3. A hormone produced in the kidneys that acts to regulate blood pressure is (renin) .
(true) 1. The kidneys normally filter 40 to 50 gallons of blood plasma a day.
(involuntary) 2. When a person urinates, voluntary muscles in the walls of the bladder
contract, forcing the urine out of the body.
IDENTIFICATION: Identify the structures indicated in Figure 5.27 by writing the correct 189
term in the numbered space that corresponds to the number on the figure.

1. (adrenal glands) 6. (aorta)
2. (inferior vena cava) 7. (ureter)
3. (kidney) 8. (bladder)
4. (renal artery) 9. (urethra)
5. (renal vein)
Fig. 5.27 The urinary system.

1. Urine is produced in and eliminated from the organs of the urinary system
(d)
in the following order:
a) cortex, urethra, bladder, ureter c) kidney, pelvis, ureter,
bladder
b) kidney, urethra, bladder, ureter d) kidney, ureter, bladder,
urethra
2. The opening between the bladder and the urethra is controlled by a

(b)
.
a) flaplike valve c) band of cartilage
b) sphincter muscle d) fold of membranous tissue
3. The excretory function of the lungs is the elimination of . (c)

a) oxygen c) carbon dioxide
b) heat d) mucous
4. Materials for the production of urine come from the . (c)

a) kidney c) bloodstream
b) bladder d) lymph system
5. The wall of the bladder is composed of . (b)

a) cartilage c) skeletal muscle
b) smooth muscle d) adipose tissue
6. The excretory function of the colon is the elimination of . (c)

a) water c) digestive wastes
b) heat d) all of the above
7. The basic constituents of normal human urine are . (d)

a) electrolytes, albumin, and c) gases, water, coloring
water materials, and glucose
b) water, salts, sugar, and protein d) salts, water, and organic
substances such as urea
8. Which of the following is not considered an organ of the excretory system?

(d)
a) the lungs c) the colon
b) the kidneys d) the nose
9. Nephrons consist of . 191
(a)
a) glomerulus and tubules c) capillaries and islet cells

b) arterioles and lymph nodes d) mucous membrane and
synapses
10. The glomerulus, encased in a capsule, contains a network of . (b)

a) fascia c) nervous tissue
b) capillaries d) smooth muscles
11. The outer portion of the kidney is the . (d)

a) medulla c) loop of Henle
b) Bowman’s capsule d) cortex
12. The surrounds the glomerulus. (c)

a) renal artery c) Bowman’s capsule
b) proximal tubule d) trigone in the bladder
13. The urge to void usually begins when the normal bladder contains
(d)
approximately how much urine?
a) four to eight drams c) two to four quarts (2000 to
(15 to 30 cc) 4000 cc)
b) one to two quarts d) one-half to two-thirds pint
(1000 to 2000 cc) (250-350 cc)
14. The inner portion of the kidney is the . (a)

a) medulla c) renal pelvis
b) ureter d) cortex
15. The blood supply to the kidney is carried by the . (a)

a) renal artery c) renal vein
b) loop of Henle d) proximal tubule
16. A cluster of capillary loops is the . (d)

a) renal artery c) renal vein
b) proximal tubule d) glomerulus
17. The functional unit of the kidney is the . (b)

a) cell c) glomerulus
b) nephron d) loop of Henle
192 18. The liver produces , which is excreted by the kidneys. (d)
a) bile c) glucose
b) uric acid d) urea
19. Fluid is carried from the kidneys to the bladder by the . (c)
a) renal vein c) ureters
b) renal artery d) urethra
20. Of the amount of plasma that is filtered through the kidneys, approximately
(b)
how much is excreted as urine?
a) 0.1% c) 5%
b) 1% d) 10%
bile
(Bile is a bitter, alkaline, yellowish-brown fluid secreted by the liver that aids in fat digestion.)
bladder
(The bladder is an organ where the urine is stored.)
excretion
(Excretion is the process of excreting or eliminating waste from the body.)
metabolic wastes
(Metabolic wastes are products formed from cell metabolism.)
nephron
(The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney.)

renin 193
(Renin is a hormone produced by the kidneys that acts to regulate blood pressure.)

ureters
(Ureters are the tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder.)
urethra
(The urethra conveys urine from the bladder and carries reproductive cells and secretions out of
the body.)
urinary system
(The urinary system includes two kidneys, two ureters, the bladder, and a urethra.)
SYSTEM TEN: THE HUMAN REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
statement.
1. One-celled organisms that do not need a partner to reproduce do so by nonsexual means
called (asexual) reproduction.
2. The term used to describe a reproductive cell that can unite with another reproductive
cell to form the cell that develops into a new individual is called a (gamete) .
3. In men, the reproductive cells are called (spermatozoa) .
4. In women, the reproductive cells are called (ova) .
5. The cell formed by the union of the male and female reproductive cells is called a
(zygote) .
6. The gland in the female that produces the reproductive cell is the (ovary) .
7. The gland in the male that produces the reproductive cell is the (testes) .
194 SHORT ANSWER: Number the following terms from 1 to 5 in the order that sperm would
travel from the time it is produced until it leaves the body.
(3) vas deferens
(5) urethra
(2) epididymis
(1) seminiferous tubules
(4) ejaculatory ducts
A. Cowper’s glands D. seminal vesicles F. urethra
B. epididymis E. testes G. vas deferens
C. prostate gland
(F) 1. conveys both urine and sperm out of the body
(D) 2. two convoluted, glandular tubes located on each side of the prostate gland
(B) 3. stores the sperm until it becomes fully mature
(E) 4. forms the male hormone testosterone
(A) 5. mucus-producing glands that serve to lubricate the urethra
(E) 6. contains specialized cells that produce the spermatozoa
(C) 7. surrounds the first part of the urethra
(A) 8. two pea-sized glands located beneath the prostate gland
(C) 9. secretes an alkaline fluid that neutralizes the acidic vaginal secretions
(D) 10. secretions contain simple sugars, mucus, and prostaglandin
(E) 11. two small, egg-shaped glands made up of minute convoluted tubules
(G) 12. sperm collects here until it is expelled from the body
(B) 13. located in the scrotum; receives sperm from the testes

(E) 1. bulbourethral gland (L) 11. urinary bladder
(Q) 2. urethra (G,K) 12. vas deferens
(H) 3. epididymis (A) 13. spine
(O) 4. erectile tissue (B) 14. rectum
(R) 5. glans penis (F) 15. anal opening
(S) 6. prepuce (J) 16. ureter
(P) 7. prostate gland (M) 17. symphysis pubis
(T) 8. scrotum (N) 18. spermatic cord
(C) 9. seminal vesicle (D) 19. ejaculatory duct
(I) 10. testis
Fig. 5.28 The male reproductive system.

statement.
1. The external part of the female reproductive system that includes the labia majora
and the labia minora is termed the (vulva) .
2. The muscular tube or canal that is the lower part of the birth canal is called the
(vagina) .
3. The chamber that houses the developing fetus is the (uterus) .
4. The egg-carrying tubes of the female reproductive system are the (fallopian tubes) .
5. The glands that produce estrogen and progesterone are the (ovaries) .
6. The egg cell capable of being fertilized by a spermatozoon is the (ovum) .
A. corpus luteum C. gestation E. menstruation

B. estrogen D. menopause F. ovulation
(B) 1. controls the development of secondary female sexual characteristics
(F) 2. the release of the egg cell from the ovary
(A) 3. ovarian site of estrogen and progesterone production
(C) 4. occurs from the time an ovum is fertilized until childbirth
(E) 5. the cyclic uterine bleeding that normally occurs at approximately 4-week intervals
(A) 6. follicle transformed by luteinizing hormone
(D) 7. the physiologic cessation of the menstrual cycle


(I) 1. anal opening (O) 10. urethra
(F) 2. cervix (R) 11. urinary bladder
(V) 3. fallopian tube (U) 12. uterus
(N) 4. labia minora (L) 13. vagina
(K) 5. labia majora (M) 14. urinary opening
(E) 6. ovary (T) 15. fundus of uterus
(A) 7. spine (B) 16. ureter
(H) 8. rectum (C) 17. sacral promontory
(Q) 9. symphysis pubis (P) 18. clitoris
Fig. 5.29 The female reproductive system.

1. Sperm cells are stored primarily in the . (a)

a) epididymis c) seminal vesicles
b) vas deferens d) ejaculatory ducts
2. The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of male sec-
(c)
ondary sexual characteristics is .
a) ACTH c) testosterone
b) FSH d) gonadotropin-releasing
hormone
3. The upper openings of the uterine cavity join with the . (d)
a) fimbriae c) cervical canal
b) ovaries d) fallopian tubes
4. Which of the following are canals or tubes through which the sperm pass as
(d)
they are transported to the outside of the body?
a) urethra c) vas deferens
b) epididymis d) all of these
5. The number of spermatozoa that penetrate, and thereby fertilize, the ovum is
(a)
.
a) only one c) at least 3
b) about 100 d) about l million
6. Once the sperm enters the female reproductive tract, it is capable of

(b)
fertilizing the ovum for .
a) a month c) less than an hour
b) hours or days d) more than a week
7. The ejaculatory ducts empty into the . (c)

a) vas deferens c) urethra
b) scrotum d) epididymis
8. The penis is composed of what type of tissue?

(c)
a) fatty c) erectile
b) muscular d) cartilaginous
9. The hormone mainly responsible for the development and maintenance of (b)
female secondary sexual characteristics is .
a) androgen c) progesterone
b) estrogen d) luteinizing hormone
10. The labia minora . 199
(c)
a) compose the middle portion of c) are two liplike folds situated

the uterus on either side of external
b) function chiefly as the female opening of the vagina
organs of sexual sensation d) form a membranous fold that
encircles the vaginal
orifice
11. The tubular portion of the uterus that extends downward into the upper part (a)
of the vagina is the .
a) cervix c) endometrium
b) perimetrium d) ostium uteri
12. The inner lining of the uterus is known as the . (d)

a) hymen c) myometrium
b) epididymis d) endometrium
13. The free ends of the fallopian tubes . (b)

a) encircle the uterus c) form a solid mass over each
ovary
b) are closed, finger-like processes d) are open-ended, with finger-
like fimbriae
14. The physiologic cessation of the menstrual cycle is . (b)

a) menarche c) a period
b) menopause d) virginity
15. Fertilization of an ovum usually takes place in the . (c)

a) uterus c) fallopian tubes
b) cervix d) vagina
16. The secretions of the various glandular tissues of the male reproductive
(a)
system combine to form .
a) semen c) mucous
b) testosterone d) sperm
17. The pathway that the sperm travel from the testes out of the body is . (b)
a) urethra, seminiferous tubule, c) epididymis, seminiferous
epididymis, vas deferens tubule, vas deferens, urethra
b) seminiferous tubule, epididymis, d) vas deferens, epididymis,
vas deferens, urethra seminiferous tubule, urethra
18. A cell formed by the unification of a male and female reproductive cell is a
(c)
.
a) gamate c) zygote
b) fetus d) embryo
200 19. The produces an alkaline fluid that is part of the semen. (d)
a) Cowper’s gland c) seminal vesicle
b) testes d) prostate gland
20. Which of the following organs do not contribute to the formation of semen?
(c)
a) seminal vesicles c) vas deferens
b) testes d) prostate gland
asexual reproduction
(Asexual reproduction is a method of reproduction of lower forms of life using nonsexual
means.)
bulbourethral glands
(Bulbourethral glands, or Cowper’s glands, are two pea-sized glands located beneath the prostate
that produce a mucous substance that serves to lubricate the urethra.)
cervix
(The cervix is the opening of the uterus from the vagina.)
corpus luteum
(The corpus luteum is a yellowish endocrine body formed in the ruptured ovarian follicle that
produces estrogen and progesterone.)
ejaculatory ducts
(Ejaculatory ducts enter the prostate gland and empty into the urethra.)
epididymis
(The epididymis is located in the scrotum and receives sperm from the testes, which it stores until
they become mature.)

estrogen 201
(Estrogen is a female hormone responsible for development of secondary sexual characteristics.)

fallopian tubes
(Fallopian tubes, or oviducts, are the egg-carrying tubes of the female reproductive system.)
fertilization
(Fertilization is the union of the female ovum and the male spermatozoon.)
fetus
(A fetus is the developing child from the third month of pregnancy until birth.)
gamete
(A gamete is a reproductive cell that can unite with another gamete to form the cell that develops
into a new individual.)
gestation
(Gestation, or pregnancy, is the physiologic condition that occurs between fertilization and
childbirth.)
gonad
(A gonad is a sex gland that produces the reproductive cell.)
labia majora
(The labia majora are the outer lips of the vulva.)

202 labia minora
(The labia minora are the small, inner lips of the vulva.)
luteinizing hormone
(Luteinizing hormone from the pituitary gland transforms the ovarian follicle into the corpus
luteum.)
menopause
(Menopause is the physiologic cessation of the menstrual cycle.)
menstrual cycle
(The menstrual cycle is the periodically recurring series of changes that take place in the ovaries,
uterus, and related structures in women.)
menstruation
(Menstruation is the cyclic, physiologic uterine bleeding that occurs at about four-week intervals
during the reproductive period of women.)
penis
(The penis is the male organ of copulation.)
pregnancy
(Pregnancy, or gestation, is the physiologic condition that occurs from the time that an ovum is
fertilized until childbirth.)
ovary
(The ovaries are glandular organs in the pelvis that produce the ovum and female sex hormones.)
oviducts
(The oviducts, or fallopian tubes, carry the egg from the ovary to the uterus.)
ovulation 203
(Ovulation is the discharge of a mature ovum from the follicle of the ovary.)

ovum
(An ovum is the egg cell capable of being fertilized by a spermatozoon and developing into a new
life.)
progesterone
(Progesterone is a hormone produced in the ovaries that promotes the lining of the uterus to
thicken in preparation for receiving the fertilized egg.)
prostate gland
(The prostate gland secretes an alkaline fluid that enhances the sperm’s motility.)
scrotum
(The scrotum is the sack that holds the testes.)
semen
(Semen is excreted from the body during ejaculation.)
seminal fluid
(Seminal fluid forms most of the semen when ejaculated.)
seminal vesicles
(The seminal vesicles are two glandular tubes located on each side of the prostate that produce a
nutritious fluid that is excreted into the ejaculatory ducts at the time of emission.)
spermatozoa
(Spermatozoa are tiny detached male reproductive cells, egg-shaped, and equipped with a tail
that enables them to swim.)

204 testes
(The testes are two small, egg-shaped glands that produce the spermatozoa.)
testosterone
(Testosterone is a male hormone responsible for development of secondary sexual characteristics.)
urethra
(The urethra conveys urine from the bladder and carries reproductive cells and secretions out of
the body.)
uterus
(The uterus is a pear-shaped, muscular female organ that expands during pregnancy to
accommodate the fetus.)
vagina
(The vagina is a muscular tube leading from the vulva to the cervix and is the lower part of the
birth canal.)
vas deferens
(The vas deferens is the tube from the testes that carries the sperm to the ejaculatory duct.)
vulva
(The vulva forms the external part of the female reproductive system.)
zygote
(A zygote is a fertilized ovum.)

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Human Anatomy CHAPTER 5

COMPLETION: In the space(s) provided, write the word(s) that correctly

1. The submicroscopic particles that make up all substances are called

2. These are arranged in speciﬁc patterns and structures called

4. These are organized into layers or groups called (tissues) .

5. Groups of these form complex structures that perform certain functions.

These structures are called (organs) and are arranged in

6. All living matter is composed of a colorless, jellylike substance called

7. The cytoplasm contains a network of various membranes called

(cytoplasmic organelles) , which perform speciﬁc functions necessary

8. Cell reproduction is controlled by the (centrosome) and the (nucleus) .

function. This process is called (differentiation) .

2. Name the four principal parts of a cell.

b. (centrosome) d. (cell membrane)

A. cell membrane F. Golgi apparatus K. nucleolus

(I) 1. converts and releases energy for cell operation

(D) 3. produce lipids or proteins for cell utilization and transport

(L) 4. supervises all cell activity

(F) 5. synthesizes carbohydrates and holds protein for secretion

(N) 6. involved in the rapid introduction or ejection of substances

(J) 8. controls passage of substances between the nucleus and cytoplasm

(M) 9. composed of RNA and protein molecules that synthesize proteins

Chapter 5 Human Anatomy and Physiology

(H) 2. chromatin (M) 9. nucleus

(A) 3. smooth endoplasmic reticulum (F) 10. ribosomes

(J) 4. Golgi apparatus (D) 11. vacuole

(K) 5. lysosome (G) 12. rough endoplasmic reticulum

(L) 6. pinocytic vesicle (E) 13. cytoplasm

(B) 7. mitochondria (I) 14. centrioles

Fig. 5.1 Structure of a typical animal cell.

(3) metaphase (1) interphase (4) anaphase

(5) telophase (2) prophase

(D) 1. metaphase A. Chromosomes become larger and can be seen as

growth and operation are broadly termed (cellular metabolism) .

2. Two phases of metabolism are (anabolism) and (catabolism) .

3. The process of building up larger molecules from smaller ones is (anabolism) .

chemical reactions in the metabolic process are called (enzymes) .

Chapter 5 Human Anatomy and Physiology

(connective) 1. represented by blood and lymph

(epithelial) 2. functions in the process of absorption, excretion, secretion, and protection

(connective) 3. binds structures together and serves as a framework

(nerve) 4. acts as a channel for the transmission of messages

(connective) 7. deep fascia, superﬁcial fascia

(nerve) 8. initiates, controls, and coordinates the body’s adaptation to its

(muscle) 9. contracts and causes movement

(connective) 12. bones, cartilage, and ligaments

(epithelial) 13. cells classiﬁed by shape as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar

(connective) 15. provides support and protection

(epithelial) 16. covers all the surfaces of the body

(epithelial) 20. makes up the major tissue of the glands

1. Two categories of membranes are (epithelial) membranes and

(fibrous connective tissue) membranes.

1. List three fascial membranes associated with the muscles.

a. (periosteum—covering the bones)

c. (synovial membrane—in cavities and capsules in and around joints)

Chapter 5 Human Anatomy and Physiology

(C) 1. elastic cartilage A. impregnated with mineral salts, chieﬂy calcium

(E) 5. ligaments D. found on the ends of bones and in movable joints

(B) 6. ﬁbrocartilage E. ﬁbrous bands that connect bones to bones