B1S1 Tutorial 3
B1S1 Tutorial 3
B1S1 Tutorial 3
3. When the operation of an information system is outsourced, which of the following is created in
order to agree on the quality level for the service to be provided between the outsourcing party and the
contractor?
a) ASP b) SLA c) RFP d) ISP
4. In the PDCA cycle of service level management, which of the following is implemented as C
(Check)?
a) Providing services on the basis of the SLA
b) Preparing an improvement plan for services on the basis of the report and review of service
provision results
c) Monitoring and measuring the provided services, and preparing a service report
d) Agreeing upon the desired service quality on the basis of the service requirements and the
service improvement plan, and preparing an SLA
5. A company contracted to develop an accounting system and held meetings with the customer to
clarify the types of required financial statements and the target processing time from accounting data
confirmation to the output of the financial statements. Which of the following is the appropriate process
for this activity?
a) System test b) System requirements definition
c) Software detailed design d) Software architecture design
6. Which of the following is an appropriate test for a user to confirm by himself/herself whether the
delivered software satisfies the requirements?
a) Acceptance test b) Integration test
c) System test d) Unit test
8. Which of the following is a method that organizes all of the activities that need to be performed in
the project in a hierarchical structure, and clarifies the work units to be managed in the project?
a) CRM b) ERP c) PPM d) WBS
10. After the start of a project, the scope is defined by collecting the requirements for the project.
Which of the following is the most appropriate purpose of defining the scope?
a) To clarify the activities to be implemented in the project
b) To create the action plan against the risk that has been realized in the project
c) To create an action plan for the delay of the project
d) To create the objectives of the project
11. Which of the following is an appropriate index or indicator that is used to evaluate the quality of
deliverables in a system development project?
a) External procurement ratio b) Test coverage
c) Total number of staff assigned d) Number of days spent on the project
12. Project management includes project cost management, project scope management, project time
management, and project integration management. Which of the following is an item that is created in
project integration management in a software development project?
a) Development schedule for the entire project
b) List of deliverables for the entire project
c) Budget document for the entire project
d) Planning document for executing, monitoring, and controlling the entire project
13. Which of the following is a framework that describes a collection of best practices of IT service
management?
a) ISO 14001 b) ISO/IEC 27001 c) ITIL d) PMBOK
14. In a system development project, the installation of PCs for development is delayed. However, a
plan was created beforehand to use old PCs as an alternative in the case of a delay, so it is possible to
start the development activities according to the plan. In this case, which of the following is
implemented as project management?
a) Estimate for the critical path
b) Scope definition
c) Identification of stakeholders
d) Execution of a risk response plan
15. Which of the following is implemented between a system user and a developer in order to confirm
if the description in the system design document satisfies the requirements of the user?
a) Joint review b) Integration test c) Simulation d) Progress meeting
16. The activities of a systems audit are divided into the processes of drafting of an audit plan,
acquisition and evaluation of audit evidence, implementation of audit procedures, creation of an audit
report, and follow-up. Which of the following processes gives guidance to auditee on the
implementation of appropriate actions for improvement?
a) Acquisition and evaluation of audit evidence
b) Implementation of audit procedures
c) Creation of an audit report
d) Follow-up
17. Which of the following persons are responsible for building and promoting IT governance in a
company?
a) Shareholders b) Directors
c) Employees d) Information system department members
18. Which of the following is a diagram where bugs detected during the testing of a system are
accumulated by their cause and arranged in the order of higher frequency of cause, and a cumulative
curve is inserted?
a) Scatter diagram b) Cause and effect diagram
c) Pareto chart d) Histogram
19. Which of the following items must be clarified in order to determine the appropriate assignment
of the project members?
a) Cost estimation method
b) Reporting method of activity progress
c) Acceptance standards of deliverables
d) Roles and responsibilities to be allocated
20. In IT service management, which of the following is appropriate as a process for resolving the root
causes of incidents and preventing their recurrence?
a) Incident management b) Change management
c) Problem management d) Release management
21. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of stakeholders in a system development
project?
a) They are individuals and organizations such as users of the developed system and managers
in the development division.
b) They are sponsors who bear the cost of system development.
c) They are events that may negatively affect the project and other events that may positively
affect the project.
d) They are project deliverables and tasks that are performed to create the deliverables.
22. For confidential information that is managed in an information system, which of the following is
an appropriate measure that is taken from the facility management perspective to prevent information
leakage?
a) Installation of antivirus software
b) Entrance and exit control for a building that has a computer room
c) ID and password management for information systems
d) Encryption of electronic documents
23. Which of the following is an appropriate purpose of providing FAQ to users in IT service
management?
a) Providing a framework of IT service management
b) Defining a target value for the service level on the sides of both service provider and users
c) Establishing a single point of contact for users to accept all kinds of inquiries concerning the
service
d) Supporting users so that they can solve problems by themselves
24. Which of the following is a document where an arrangement is made between a system operator
and a user on contents regarding a system, such as “the recovery from a failure shall be 3 hours or
less”?
a) Service level agreement b) Software detailed design document
c) Request for proposal (RFP) d) Project charter
25. At the beginning phase of a new personnel system development project, in order to clarify the
possible risks, the persons in charge of the planning department, personnel department, and
information systems department, who act as the project team members, get together and freely
exchange their opinions on the apparent risks concerning the project. What is such a method called?
a) Walk-through b) Critical path method
c) Simulation d) Brainstorming
26. When the reward for an improvement proposal concerning business operations is determined based
on the decision table below, how much is the reward for an improvement proposal that results in an
improvement of $20,000 and a turnaround time reduction of three days? Here, “Y” in the table means
that each condition holds “true”, and “N” means “not true”. In addition, “” indicates the reward that
applies to each specific combination of these conditions.
28. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of an algorithm that is used on a computer?
a) A generic term for artificial languages used to enable a computer to perform a series of operations
b) A processing procedure for enabling a computer to accomplish a specific purpose
c) Designing buildings or industrial products with the assistance of a computer
d) Software for translating a program into a machine language that can be directly executed by a
computer
30. Which of the following is the method for describing the logical structure of a sentence in XML?
a) Enclosing the sentence, clauses, and other elements by using double quotes (“”)
b) Separating the sentence, clauses, and other elements by using commas
c) Enclosing the sentence, clauses, and other elements by using tags
d) Separating the sentence, clauses, and other elements by using tabs
31. There is a series of numbered boxes stacked as shown in the figure below. The operations described
in the table below are performed in the sequence of operations 1 through 4. When the operation 4 is
completed, which of the following shows the status of the stacked boxes?
32. A sound signal is digitized. Sampling is performed at Time 1 through Time 5 in the figure below,
and four-level quantization is performed; in other words, the levels closest to the sampling point are
selected. After that, two-bit encoding is performed. The result is “11 01 00 10 11”. When digitization
is performed in the same way, which of the following figures represents the sound signal that results
in “01 00 10 11 01”?
33. Which of the following is the binary number that is obtained by adding the binary numbers
01011010 and 01101011? Here, the binary numbers are expressed as positive 8-bit values.
a) 00110001 b) 01111011 c) 10000100 d) 11000101
34. Which of the following describes the relationship that is always true for two (2) sets A and B? Here, (X
∩ Y) represents the part that belongs to both X and Y (intersection set), and (X ∪ Y) represents the part that
belongs to at least one of X or Y (union set).
a) (A ∪ B) is a subset of the complement of (A ∩ B).
b) (A ∪ B) is a subset of A.
c) (A ∩ B) is a subset of (A ∪ B).
d) (A ∩ B) is a subset of the complement of A.
35. Which of the following is the result from the bit-wise logical product of an 8-bit binary data X and
00001111? Here, the left side of the data is the high-order, and the right side is the low-order.
a) All of the low-order four (4) bits are 0, and the high-order four (4) bits are the same as those of X.
b) All of the low-order four (4) bits are 1, and the high-order four (4) bits are the same as those of X.
c) All of the high-order four (4) bits are 0, and the low-order four (4) bits are the same as those of X.
d) All of the high-order four (4) bits are 1, and the low-order four (4) bits are the same as those of X.
36. There are five (5) lamps arranged in line. Each of them can be turned on and off independently.
How many patterns are there where two (2) or more lamps are turned on? Here, the pattern where all
lamps are turned on is counted as one (1) and the pattern where any one of them is turned on is counted
as five (5).
a) 4 b) 10 c) 26 d) 32
37. In a file system that uses the access control methods below, which of the following settings for
access rights to file A satisfy the conditions for access control?
38. The “Sales Details” table and the “Products” table are managed in a relational database. What is
the total number of notebooks sold?
a) 40 b) 80 c) 120 d) 200
39. There are “Sales”, “Customer” and “Product” tables in a relational database. Among lists A through
C, which of the following contains all and only the lists that can be created from the data in these
tables? Here, a solid underlined part represents a primary key, and a dotted underlined part represents
a foreign key.
A The list of customers who bought more than a certain amount of money during a certain period
in the past B The list of products that were out of stock in the previous month C The ranking list
for sales amount by product in the previous month
a) A, B b) A, B, C c) A, C d) B, C
40. Which of the following effect is obtained by normalizing the tables of a relational database?
a) The number of disk accesses for data update is reduced by compiling frequently used data
in the same table.
b) Data inconsistency due to data update is prevented by eliminating data duplication.
c) The usage efficiency of the main memory is improved by making the size of the tables
uniform.
d) Response time for queries is shortened by reducing the number of tables.
41. When the order records shown below are entered in the system where each order number must be
uniquely assigned, which of the following is the appropriate method for searching the order master file
containing all of the past order records, and for checking the uniqueness of the order number?
43. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning a virus check for an email?
a) A virus check does not need to be performed if the e-mail is encrypted.
b) A virus check is not required for the received e-mail if it is inspected by the sender.
c) A virus check is performed even if the attached file has a file extension of “jpg”.
d) A virus check is performed only for the e-mail sent by an unknown sender.
48. When information security measures are grouped into three (3) categories of technical security
measures, human security measures, and physical security measures, which of the following is an
appropriate example of physical security measures?
a) Making a non-disclosure agreement with employees
b) Attaching a digital signature to an e-mail when it is sent
c) Storing a notebook PC in a place that can be locked
d) Recommending password change on a regular basis
49. Among information security measures A through D implemented in the workplace to maintain the
“confidentiality” and “integrity” of information, which of the following is a list of only the appropriate
measures?
A: PCs should remain unlocked to keep them ready for operation from the start to the end of the
business day.
B: Documents and electronic storage media, such as CD-R containing important information,
should be stored in locked cabinets except when they are used.
C: Documents sent or received by facsimile should be picked up immediately without being left
unattended on the tray.
D: Messages or information written on the whiteboard should be erased immediately after use.
a) A, B b) A, B, D c) B, D d) B, C, D
50. Among the descriptions A through C below concerning information security measures, which of
the following is the list that contains all and only the goals that can be achieved by encrypting
communication content? A: Recovering the data that is tampered with during communication B:
Ensuring that the communication content is not disclosed to a third party C: Identifying the person
involved in tapping if tapping has occurred
a) A b) A, B c) A, C d) B
51. Which of the following is an authentication method where a user uses information that differs each
time and is generated with a device called a token or other such device?
a) Digital signature
b) Password cracking
c) Password policy
d) One time password
52. In the description below concerning the ISMS conformity assessment scheme, which of the
following is an appropriate combination of words to be inserted into blanks A and B?
53. In order to promote risk management, the execution plan for introducing the risk management
system was developed as the first step. When the subsequent actions are divided into steps A through
C below, which of the following is the order of the steps in accordance with the PDCA cycle?
A: Implementing the measures against risks according to the execution plan
B: Measuring the effect of the implementation and evaluating the effectiveness of the risk
management system
C: Taking corrective actions and improving the risk management system.
54. All employees are registered in an entry and exit control system with biometric authentication,
and the employees who are allowed to enter each room within the company are specified. The exit
from a room is not controlled. Among the following lists of the descriptions A through D, which is the
list that contains all and only the items that can be achieved by the entry and exit control system?
A: Only authorized employees are allowed to enter a room.
B: The time duration for which each person stayed in the room is recorded.
C: The employees who attempted to enter a room but were denied the entry are recorded.
D: The number of persons in a room is identified.
a) A, B, C b) A, C c) A, D d) B, C, D
55. Which of the following is the most appropriate description concerning SSL/TLS?
a) It generates a one-time password to authenticate a user on a web site.
b) It encrypts communications between a web server and a browser.
c) It prevents (or filters) access to an unauthorized web site.
d) It detects a virus that infects a computer through a network.
56. Among the countermeasures A through D concerning information security, which of the following
is the list that contains all and only the appropriate countermeasures for preventing a virus infection?
A: Installing antivirus software
B: Applying a security patch (i.e., update module)
C: Setting a password for the hard disk D: Encrypting files
a) A, B b) A, B, C c) A, D d) B, C
57. Among the descriptions A through D concerning the operations management of a file server, which
of the following is the list that contains all and only the items that are effective as a security measure?
A: The password of an accessing user is complex and of sufficient length.
B: Access is enabled only from PCs with the permitted IP address.
C: The guest user is also granted permission to access the server.
D: The access log of the server is acquired and audited regularly.
a) A, B, D b) A, D c) B, C d) B, D
58. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of an information security policy for an
organization?
a) The management must implement not only the top-level information security policy, but also
the rules and procedures for information security.
b) It is necessary to publish outside of the company not only the top-level information security
policy, but also the rules and procedures for information security.
c) While the rules and procedures for information security should be tailored to the
organization, the top-level information security policy must be adopted from the industry
standard model.
d) Even when different information security measures are implemented in different
departments of an organization, the top-level information security policy must be unified across
the organization.
59. Which of the following is the correct comparison of the amount of data?
a) 1 KB < 1 MB < 1 GB < 1 TB
b) 1 KB < 1 MB < 1 TB < 1 GB
c) 1 KB < 1 TB < 1 MB < 1 GB
d) 1 TB < 1 KB < 1 MB < 1 GB
61. Which of the following is required for an application program to use the peripheral equipment that
is connected to a PC?
a) Compiler b) Device driver c) Plug and play d) Hot plug
62. Which of the following is a standard for wireless communication between a PC and peripheral
devices?
a) Bluetooth b) IEEE 1394 c) PCI d) USB 3.0
63. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation concerning the cache memory of a PC?
a) It is placed between the CPU core and main memory, and is used to read and write data at
high speed.
b) It is used to store the same data in two locations at the same time in order to improve
reliability.
c) It is equipped with a mechanism that can run even a program whose size exceeds the main
memory capacity.
d) It enables simultaneous access to main memory blocks by dividing main memory into
multiple blocks.
64. When information processing systems are classified by their processing methods as shown in the
figure below, which of the following is an explanation of a horizontal load distribution system?
a) Data is entered and the processing requests and results are displayed at client PCs. The data is
processed at the server side and the results are returned as the responses.
b) A dedicated computer such as a print server or a mail server is provided, in addition to a computer
that runs applications for processing business data.
c) Sales data of a branch office is processed by a computer in each branch office and the results are
collected and processed by a computer at the headquarters.
d) The same application runs on several computers so that processing is not concentrated in one (1)
computer.
65. Among the system configurations shown below, which of the following has the lowest probability
of the entire system stopping on a failure? Here, represents an identical device. For the entire system
to work, at least one device must be running when the devices are connected in parallel, and all devices
must be running when the devices are connected in serial.
66. When MTBF is 600 hours and MTTR is 12 hours, what is the approximate availability?
a) 0.02 b) 0.20 c) 0.88 d) 0.98
69. Which of the following can be considered as a trade secret from a viewpoint of preventing unfair
competition?
70. Which of the following is the form of business organization in which an independent virtual
company organization is established for each business segment within a corporation, in order to make
quick decisions and clarify management responsibilities?
71. Which of the following can be considered as “personal information” from a viewpoint of the
protection of personal information?
a) Corporate name, telephone number, address, and other information that can be used to
identify a specific company
b) A report summarizing only the responses from questionnaires returned in signed forms
c) A master file of customer’s information such as name, date of birth, and address
d) A table showing both the number of customers grouped by age bracket and the sales amount
in each bracket
72. Which of the following is the coding scheme that can encode a large amount of information into a
small area and has an error correction function that enables the code to be read out correctly even when
the code cannot be partially read out?
a) ISBN code
b) ITF code
c) QR code
d) Unicode
73. Which of the following is a case where the use of a Pareto chart is effective?
a) Evaluating the quality of a large number of modules by plotting the number of bugs per unit
step
b) Understanding the progress of a test by plotting both the occurrence of bugs and the
cumulative total of bugs in chronological order
c) Predicting the number of remaining bugs by plotting the cumulative total of bugs in
chronological order
d) Stratifying the bugs by cause and sorting them in descending order to identify significant
problems that result in greater improvement when solved
74. The amount brought forward and purchases and sales in the current period are shown in the table
below. When inventory assets are evaluated using first-in first-out method at the end of the period on
December 31, how much (in dollars) is the base stock?
75. Which of the following is the situation where an improvement can be expected by installing an
MRP (Material Requirements Planning) system?
a) Drawing information is managed on both electronic files and hard copies, so design change
history cannot be accurately known.
b) Information concerning materials necessary for manufacturing and their required quantities
is complicated, so it is easy to miscalculate order quantities, and production is being adversely
affected.
c) There are many design changes, so production efficiency does not improve.
d) High-mix, low-volume production is adopted, so the cost of installing production equipment
is increasing.
76. When 300 pieces of Product A in the component table below are shipped, which of the following
is the net requirement of Part b? Here, the quantity in stock for A, a, b, and c are as shown in the
stock table below. In addition, there are no other items in process, on back order, or already
allocated.
a) A network diagram is created with arrows connecting the individual activities and indicating
their chronological relationships. The control chart is useful for identifying process bottlenecks
and preparing schedules.
b) A center line and a pair of upper and lower boundary lines are drawn, and the characteristic
values of products, etc. are plotted. The control chart is useful for detecting quality problems
and process abnormalities, so that the causes of problems can be eliminated and problem
recurrences prevented.
c) The numbers of product defect instances and the amounts of loss are categorized according
to defect cause, then sorted in descending order and added to the cumulative total. This
makes it possible to identify items whose improvement has a greater impact.
d) Elements considered to be possible causes of a problem are arranged in a shape that looks
like a fishbone. This makes it possible to identify the essential causes of the problem, and is
useful in solving it.
78. Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation of CSR that is becoming increasingly
important for the competitiveness and sustainable success in every size of enterprises?
a) A technique that a company uses to analyze the management styles and business processes
of competitors and to learn and adopt their advantages
b) A concept that a company can enhance its value by taking responsibility for the social and
environmental impact of business activities
c) A system for checking the management of a company to ensure that the power and authority
of a management executive is exercised properly
d) A core competence of a company, such as technology or skill, which provides the company’s
unique value that cannot be imitated by competitors
79. Which of the following is the appropriate rule for “brainstorming” that is a method of resolving
problems?
a) Participants should select and present only high-quality ideas among their own ideas.
b) Participants should criticize another participant’s ideas without hesitation.
c) Participants should avoid presenting better ideas based on another participant’s.
d) Participants should listen to free-wheeling opinions, including unique ideas.
81. Company A manufactures and sells product B. Which of the following is the appropriate expression
for calculating the total cost of product B? Here, the total cost refers to all the costs incurred until
product B is sold.
a) Sales of product B Operating expense of product B
b) Sales of product B Manufacturing cost of product B
c) Manufacturing cost of product B + Operating expense of product B
d) Manufacturing cost of product B + Operating profit of product B
82. Which of the following is the right that belongs to a purchaser of a PC software package rovided
by CD-ROM?
a) Right to use the program stored in the CD-ROM
b) Copyright of the program stored in the CD-ROM
c) Design right of the CD-ROM storing the program
d) Copyright of the CD-ROM storing the program
83. Which of the following is the most appropriate example of e-mail transmission from the viewpoint
of consideration for recipients?
a) A questionnaire on member satisfaction is sent by e-mail to all the addresses of 100 selected
members entered in the “To” (destination) field.
b) A large-size document presenting a company’s products is sent to a customer as an e-mail
attachment without being compressed.
c) A reply to an e-mail query about a product is sent to those customers who should know about
the details, by entering their addresses in the “Cc” (carbon copy) field.
d) An e-mail is sent to the limited customers specified in the “Bcc” (blind carbon copy) field
in order to inform them of the URL of a specially planned homepage.
84. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning the two-dimensional code
symbol?
a) Information is read in the horizontal direction only, in the same way as the one-dimensional
bar code.
b) Errors can be detected in both horizontal and vertical directions, but cannot be corrected.
c) When the area is equivalent in size to the one-dimensional bar code, more information can
be recorded.
d) Since a matrix code has information in both horizontal and vertical directions, its adjustable
reading angle is narrow.
85. A factory is engaged in assembly production of product P that consists of components A and B.
The processing of component A requires component C, and the processing period is one week. The
delivery lead times of purchased components B and C are two weeks and three weeks, respectively.
Product P can be assembled in one week only after components A and B are both delivered. What is
the minimum number of weeks required to produce one unit of product P, including the delivery
periods of the components? Here, there is no stock of any of the components.
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
86. Which of the following is an activity of quality management based on ISO 9001: 2008?
a) Preventive actions for potential problems should be implemented at the field staff level and
are therefore not reported to the management level.
b) Since an audit is performed by a third party on a regular schedule, no internal audit is
performed.
c) Records related to quality are stored in a server in order to share the information among the
interested parties.
d) Although a project consists of the company’s employees and the partner company’s
employees, only the company’s employees are informed of the quality policy.
87. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning the characteristics of video
distribution using streaming?
a) The data to be distributed must be stored on the server beforehand, and videos of events and
sports cannot be distributed while they are being shot.
b) Deterioration in video quality due to partial loss of data in reception can be completely
eliminated.
c) Warm-up time is not required for starting playback of a video, and therefore, the viewer can
immediately start watching the video.
d) Rather than waiting for the entire video data to be downloaded, playback starts as soon as
some data has been received.
88. Which of the following is an appropriate role of a subnet mask?
a) Identifying a MAC address on an Ethernet from an IP address
b) Separating a network address included in an IP address and a host address of the individual
computer that belongs to the network
c) Associating a private IP address with a global IP address when communication is relayed
between an internal network and the Internet
d) Associating a domain name of destination with an IP address
89. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of the POP communications protocol?
a) It is a protocol for the remote control of a computer from a terminal that is in a different
location.
b) It is a protocol for file transfer.
c) It is a protocol for sending e-mails to a mail server.
d) It is a protocol that e-mail software uses in order to receive e-mails from a mail server
92. Which of the following is used for communication in activities such as the gathering of data from
IoT devices, and has long range and power saving characteristics that enable wireless communication
over a distance of tens of kilometers?
a) BLE b) LPWA c) MDM d) MVNO
93. Which of the following is the appropriate description concerning a wireless LAN?
a) Countermeasures against unauthorized use of an access point are required.
b) The standard for encryption is limited to WPA2.
c) Communication between a terminal and an access point is possible over any distance.
d) There are multiple standards for wireless LANs, and communication is possible among them
all.
94. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning communications protocols?
a) There are no communications protocols that are used in analog communication.
b) They are developed only by international organizations, and those developed independently
by manufacturers are not called communications protocols.
c) In communications protocols, only the procedure of actions in a normal case is defined.
d) Devices that are provided by different manufacturers or have different OS can communicate
with each other if they use the same communications protocol.
95. Among the following lists consisting of the information security terms availability, integrity,
confidentiality, and vulnerability, which is a complete list of properties of information that information
security is to preserve?
a) Availability, Integrity b) Availability, Integrity, Confidentiality
c) Integrity, Confidentiality d) Integrity, Confidentiality, Vulnerability
96. A spreadsheet program is used to create a quick reference chart for the compound interest per a
principal of 1,000 dollars. Which of the following is the expression that should be entered in cell B4?
Here, the expression in cell B4 is copied to each of cells B4 through F13.
b) $B$1*((1+B$2) ^ A$4 – 1)
c) $B$1*((1+B$2) ^ $A4 − 1)
97. From April to June total net sales for each store, the overall component ratio will be calculated.
Which of the following is the expression that should be entered in cell F2? Here, the expression entered
in cell F2 will be copied and used in cells F3:F7.
a) $E$2/E7 b) $E$2/$E7 c) E2/E$7 d) E2/B2
98. Company Y has decided to proportionally allocate incentive payments for the term to its
departments, on the basis of the sales of each. Given the table shown below, which of the following is
the expression that should be entered in cell C3? The expression in cell C3 will be copied and used for
Department B through Department D.
a) B3/SUM($B3:$B6)*$B1
b) B$3/SUM(B$3:B$6)*B$1
c) B3/SUM(B$3:B$6)*B$1
d) B3/AVG(B$3:B$6)*$B$1
99. Sales data by month for each branch is evaluated. In the “Evaluation” field for each branch by
month, if the amount of sales at the branch is below the average sales amount of branches A through
C for the month, the symbol “X” is to be displayed, and if the amount is above or equal to the average,
the symbol “O” is to be displayed. Which of the following is an appropriate expression to be entered
in cell C3? Here, the expression that is entered in cell C3 is copied and used in cell D3, cell E3, cells
C5 through E5, and cells C7 through E7.
a) IF($C2 < AVERAGE(C2 : E2) , 'O' , 'X')
100. A survey into the amount of pocket money is conducted at three (3) schools. When the
consolidated results of the survey are used to calculate the average pocket money per student for all
the students of the three (3) schools, which of the following is the expression that is entered into cell
C5?
a) (B2*B3*B4)/(C2*C3*C4)
b) (B2*C2+B3*C3+B4*C4)/SUM(B2:B4)
c) SUM(C2:C4)/SUM(B2:B4)
d) AVERAGE(C2:C4)