Student Support Material XII Che

2023-24
STUDENT SUPPORT MATERIAL

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
CLASS-XII
Content Team
1. Sashi Bhusana Mahapatra, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Tarabhatta, Borigumma

(Team Leader)
2. Ashok Kumar Panda, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Machhara, Koraput
3. Abhinash Patra, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Kotpad
4. Sandhyarani Panigrahi, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Jayantigiri, Jeypore
5. Priyanka Das, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Messingput, Lamptaput
6. Aditya Prasad Dalai, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Pottangi
7. Chandan Kumar Das, PGT Chemistry, OAV, Pachingi, Narayanptna
8. Bandana Garnaik, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Gaudoguda, Laxmipur
9. Vivekananda Sahu, PGT Chemistry, OAV Gundal, Kundra
10. Sridhar Panigrahi, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Pungar, Semiliguda

Solutions
Section A: MCQs (Each question carries 1 Mark)
1. Which one of the following statements regarding Henry’s law is not correct?
A. The higher the value 𝐾𝐻 (Henry’s law constant) at a given pressure, the higher the gas
solubility in the liquids.
B. Different gases have different 𝐾𝐻 values at the same temperature.
C. The partial pressure of the gas in the vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the
gas in the solution.
D. The value of 𝐾𝐻 increases with an increase in temperature and 𝐾𝐻 is a function of the nature
of the gas
𝑃𝑔𝑎𝑠
Answer: (A), Explanation: According to Henry’s law 𝑃𝑔𝑎𝑠 = 𝐾𝐻 × 𝑥𝑔𝑎𝑠 , so = 𝐾𝐻
𝑥𝑔𝑎𝑠
So, at constant pressure, 𝐾𝐻 is inversely proportional to the solubility of the gas. So, 𝐾𝐻 if it
increases, the solubility of the gas will decrease in solution.
2. 𝐾𝐻 values for Ar(g), 𝐶𝑂2 (𝑔), 𝐶𝐻4 (𝑔), 𝑎𝑛𝑑𝐻𝐶𝐻𝑂(𝑔) are 4.039, 1.67, 0.143 and 1.83 × 10−5
respectively. Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing order of solubility:
A. 𝐻𝐶𝐻𝑂 < 𝐶𝐻4 < 𝐶𝑂2 < 𝐴𝑟
B. 𝐻𝐶𝐻𝑂 < 𝐶𝑂2 < 𝐶𝐻4 < 𝐴𝑟
C. 𝐴𝑟 < 𝐶𝑂2 < 𝐶𝐻4 < 𝐻𝐶𝐻𝑂
D. 𝐴𝑟 < 𝐶𝐻4 < 𝐶𝑂2 < 𝐻𝐶𝐻𝑂
Answer: (C), Explanation: According to Henry’s law 𝑃𝑔𝑎𝑠 = 𝐾𝐻 × 𝑥𝑔𝑎𝑠 , Where 𝑃𝑔𝑎𝑠 = Partial pressure
of the gas, 𝑥𝑔𝑎𝑠 = Concentration of gas(mole fraction of gas), 𝐾𝐻 = Henry's constant
It implies that as the value 𝐾𝐻 increases, mole fraction of gas solute in solvent decreases. Hence,
the higher the 𝐾𝐻 value, the lower the solubility of the gas. The order of increasing the solubility of
gases in: 𝐴𝑟 < 𝐶𝑂2 < 𝐶𝐻4 < 𝐻𝐶𝐻𝑂
3. The molarity of pure water is:

A. 50.5 B. 18 C. 5.55 D. 55.5
Answer: (D), Explanation: The density of water =1 𝑔𝑐𝑚−3 and its molecular weight = 18 𝑔𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 ,
Considering 1 L of water, Therefore, 1L = 1000 𝑐𝑚3 of water will weigh 1000 g of water.
So, Mass of 1 litre = Density of water × Volume
Mass of 1 litre = 1000 grams
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 1000
No of Moles of 1 kg of water =
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
= = 55.56
18
𝑛𝑜𝑜𝑓𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 55.56
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛(𝑖𝑛𝐿) = 1
= 55.56𝑀
4. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?
A. 1.0 M 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
B. 1.0 M 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4
C. 1.0 M 𝑁𝐻4 𝑁𝑂3
D. 1.0 M 𝐾𝑁𝑂3
Answer: (B), Explanation: As the given compounds are salts and fully ionisable into ions, the maximum
number of ions furnishes the maximum number of van’t Hoff factor, subsequently increasing the
colligative properties' value. Here 1.0 M 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 furnishes the maximum number of ions.
𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 → 2𝑁𝑎+ + 𝑆𝑂42−
pg. 1
5. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids will have a boiling point lower than either of the two liquids
when it:
A. Shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
B. Forms an ideal solution
C. Shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
D. Is saturated.
Answer: (C), Explanation: When the intermolecular forces of solute-solvent are weaker than solute-
solute and solvent-solvent interactions it shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
The vapour pressure of each component is greater than that predicted from Raoult’s law and
the total vapour pressure of the solution is greater than the total vapour pressure of the ideal solution.
So, an azeotropic mixture of two liquids will have a boiling point lower than either of the two liquids
when it shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
6. Relative lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative property because_________.

A. It depends on the number of particles of electrolyte solute in solution and does not
depend on the nature of the solute particles.
B. It depends on the concentration of a non-electrolyte solute in solution as well as on the
nature of the solute molecules.
C. It depends on the concentration of an electrolyte or non-electrolyte solute in the solution
as well as on the nature of solute molecules.
D. None of the above
Answer. (A), Explanation: Colligative property depends on the number of solute particles and not on
the nature of the particles.
7. When 1 mole of benzene is mixed with 1 mole of toluene the vapour will contain: (Given: vapour
of benzene = 12.8 kPa and vapour pressure of toluene= 3.85 kPa).
A. equal amount of benzene and toluene as it forms an ideal solution
B. unequal amount of benzene and toluene as it forms a non-ideal solution
C. higher percentage of benzene
D. the higher percentage of toluene
Answer. (C), Explanation: When 1 mole of benzene is mixed with 1 mole of toluene the vapour will
contain a higher percentage of benzene. As it is an ideal solution, it follows Raoult's law. The vapour
pressure of the solution depends on the mole fraction of the solvent.
Since the mole fraction of both components is the same, but the vapour pressure of benzene is
higher than the toluene, its percentage will be greater in the vapour of the solution.
Section B: Very Short Answer type questions. (Each question carries 2 Marks)
8. Find the molality of 20% urea solution.

Explanation:
As urea solution means Urea (𝑁𝐻2 𝐶𝑂𝑁𝐻2 ) + water (𝐻2 𝑂)
20% of urea solution means 20g of Urea in 100 g of solution, which means 80g of water.
𝑛𝑜𝑜𝑓𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡(𝑖𝑛𝐾𝑔)
𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 20
𝑛𝑜𝑜𝑓𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 = = = 0.33
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 60
0.33
∴𝑚= = 4.17𝑚 (Ans)
80Τ1000
9. What is the negative deviation? Why solution of acetone and chloroform show a negative
deviation from Raoult’s law?
Explanation: Negative deviation- When the vapour pressure of a solution is lower than the predicted
value of Raoult's law, it is called negative deviation.
pg. 2
In the solution of chloroform and acetone, the hydrogen bond is formed with the acetone
molecule by the chloroform molecule. This bond reduces the possibility of molecules of the mixture
escaping which leads to a decrease in vapour pressure. Therefore, the solution indicates a negative
deviation from Raoult’s law.
10. Elevation in the boiling point for 1 molal solution of glucose is 2 K. The depression in the freezing
point for 2 molal solution of glucose in the same solvent is 2 K. What is the relation between 𝐾𝑏
and 𝐾𝑓 .
Solution: The relation between the elevation of the boiling point and the depression of the freezing
point is
𝛥𝑇𝑏 𝑖×𝑚×𝐾𝑏
=
𝛥𝑇𝑓 𝑖×𝑚×𝐾𝑓
where, 𝛥𝑇𝑏 = elevation of boiling point
𝛥𝑇𝑓 = depression in freezing point
𝑖 =Van’t Hoff factor
𝐾𝑏 =Molal Elevation constant
𝐾𝑓 = Molal depression constant
𝛥𝑇𝑏 2 1×1×𝐾𝑏
= =
𝛥𝑇𝑓 2 1×2×𝐾𝑓
𝐾𝑏 = 2𝐾𝑓 (Ans)
Section C: Short Answer type questions. (Each question carries 3 Marks)
11. A solution containing 62 g ethylene glycol (ethane-1,2-diol) in 250 g water is cooled to −10𝑜 𝐶. If
𝐾𝑓 for water is 1.86𝐾𝐾𝑔𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 , what is the amount of water (in g) separated as ice?
Solution:
We know, 𝛥𝑇𝑓 = 𝐾𝑓 𝑚, where 𝛥𝑇𝑓 is depression in the freezing point, 𝐾𝑓 is Molal depression
𝑛𝑜𝑜𝑓𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒
constant and 𝑚 is molality =
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡(𝑖𝑛𝐾𝑔)
𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 62
𝑛𝑜𝑜𝑓𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 = = =1
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 62
1
∴ 𝛥𝑇𝑓 = 10 = 1.86 × 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡(𝑖𝑛𝐾𝑔)
Mass of solvent = 0.186𝐾𝑔 = 186𝑔
Therefore, the amount of water separated as ice is = 250 − 186 = 64𝑔 (Ans)
12.
i. Osmotic pressure is considered to be the best colligative property for determining the
molar masses of biomolecules and polymers. Give reason.
ii. Define isotonic solutions.
Solution:
i. Osmotic pressure measurement is preferred for molar mass determination because :
(a) even in dilute solution the osmotic pressure values are appreciably high and can
be measured accurately.
(b) osmotic pressure can be measured at room temperature.
pg. 3
ii. Two solutions having the same osmotic pressure at a given temperature are called isotonic
solutions. When such solutions are separated by semipermeable membrane no osmosis occurs
between them.
Section D: Case-Based Questions. (Each Question carries 4 Marks = 1+1+1+1 )
13. The air we breathe is composed mostly of the gases oxygen (21%) and nitrogen (78%). The
homogeneous breathing mixture used by scuba divers differs from the air we breathe depending
on the depth of the dive. Nitrox is a mixture of nitrogen and oxygen but with more oxygen gas (up
to 32%) and less nitrogen gas (up to 68%) than air. A breathing mixture with less nitrogen gas
decreases the risk of nitrogen narcosis associated with breathing regular air while diving. Heliox
contains oxygen and helium, which is typically used for diving to more than 200ft. By replacing
nitrogen with helium, nitrogen narcosis does not occur. However, at dive depths over 300ft,
helium is associated with severe shaking and a drop in body temperature.
A breathing mixture used for dives over 400ft is trimix, which contains oxygen, helium and
some nitrogen. The addition of some nitrogen lessens the problem of shaking that comes with
breathing high levels of helium. Heliox and trimix are used only by professionals, military, or
other highly trained divers.
i. State the law associated?

Explanation: Henry's law: The partial pressure of the gas in the vapour phase (𝑝) is
proportional to the mole fraction of the gas (𝑥) in the solution.
𝑃𝑔𝑎𝑠 = 𝐾𝐻 × 𝑥𝑔𝑎𝑠
ii. Why are the tanks used by scuba divers filled with air diluted with helium (11.7% helium,
56.2% nitrogen and 32.1% oxygen)?
Explanation: According to Henry's law, the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to
solubility. The pressure underwater is high, so the solubility of gases in the blood increases.
When the diver comes to the surface the pressure decreases and this releases the dissolved
gases and leads to the formation of bubbles of nitrogen in the blood, to avoid this situation
and maintain the same partial pressure of nitrogen underwater, the dilution is done with that
proportion.
iii. Why in high altitudes cause anoxia to climbers?

Explanation: At high altitudes, the partial pressure of oxygen is less than that at the ground
level because the atmospheric pressure is less and this leads to a low concentration of oxygen
in the blood, which causes climbers to become weak and unable to think clearly, symptoms
of the condition known as anoxia.
iv. Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water than in warm waters. Why?
Explanation: According to Henry’s law, the higher the value of 𝐾𝐻 at a given pressure the
lower the solubility of the gas in the liquid. 𝐾𝐻 value of 𝑂2 increases with increase in
temperature indicating that the solubility of the gas increases with decrease in temperature.
Due to this in cold water solubility of 𝑂2 will be higher and aquatic species will be more
comfortable.
Section E: Long Answer type questions. (Each question carries 5 Marks = 2+3 )
14.
i. Define Raoult’s law. When does Raoult's law become a special case of Henry's law?
ii. Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 60g of glucose (Molar mass 180
g/mol) in 250g of water. (𝐾𝑓 of water is 1.86 K kg/mol).
pg. 4
Solution:
i. Raoult’s law: For a solution of volatile liquids, the partial vapour pressure of each component
in the solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction. 𝑝1 = 𝑝01 𝑥2
Special Case: When the value of Henry's constant (𝐾𝐻 ) becomes equal to the vapour pressure of the
pure state of the liquid (𝑝10 ), Raoult's law becomes a special instance of Henry's law.
ii. As we know, 𝛥𝑇𝑓 = 𝐾𝑓 𝑚 , where 𝛥𝑇𝑓 is depression in the freezing point, 𝐾𝑓 is Molal
depression constant, m is the molality
𝑛𝑜𝑜𝑓𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒 𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
𝑚 = 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡(𝑖𝑛𝐾𝑔), 𝑛𝑜𝑜𝑓𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 = 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
60Τ180 0.33 −1
𝑚= = = 1.33𝑚𝑜𝑙𝐾𝑔
250Τ1000 0.25
So, 𝛥𝑇𝑓 = 1.86𝐾𝐾𝑔𝑚𝑜𝑙 × 1.33𝑚𝑜𝑙𝐾𝑔−1
−1
∴ 𝛥𝑇𝑓 = 2.48𝐾
The freezing point of the solvent (water) is 273.15𝐾.
Therefore, the freezing point of the solution is 273.15 − 2.48 = 270.67𝐾 (Ans)
15.
i. What is Reverse osmosis? What is its use?
ii. The vapour pressure of water at 293𝐾 is 17.536𝑚𝑚𝐻𝑔. Calculate the vapour pressure
of the aqueous solution when 20 g of glucose (Molar mass = 180𝑔𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 ) is dissolved
in 500𝑔 of water.
Solution:
i. The process of movement of solvent through a semipermeable
membrane from the solution to the pure solvent by applying excess
pressure on the solution side is called reverse osmosis.
Use:
Reverse osmosis is most commonly known for its use in drinking water
purification, particularly for removing salt and other effluent materials from
water.
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 20
ii. Number of moles of glucose = = = 0.11
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 180
500
Number of moles of water =
18
= 27.78
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑔𝑙𝑢𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒 0.11
Mole fraction of glucose ( 𝑥𝑔𝑙𝑢𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒 )= = 0.11+27.78 = 0.0039
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑛𝑜𝑜𝑓𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠
We know that lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to the mole fraction
𝑃𝑜−𝑃
𝑃𝑜
= 𝑥𝑔𝑙𝑢𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒 , where 𝑃𝑜 is vapour pressure of pure solvent and 𝑃 is
vapour pressure of solution.
17.536−𝑃
= 0.0039
17.536
∴ 𝑃 = 17.47𝑚𝑚𝐻𝑔 (Ans)
*****
Prepared by- Vivekananda Sahu, PGT Chemistry, OAV Gundal, Kundra
pg. 5
ELECTOCHEMISTRY
MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. The electrochemical cell stops working after sometime because
(a) electrode potential of both the electrodes becomes zero
(b) electrode potential of both the electrodes becomes equal
(c) one of the electrodes is eaten away
(d) the cell reaction gets reversed
Answer: b
2. The quantity of charge required to obtain one mole of aluminium from Al 2O3 is _____.
(a) 1F (b) 6F (c) 3F (d) 2F
Answer: c
3. Which of the statements about solutions of electrolytes is not correct?
(a) Conductivity of solution depends upon size of ions.
(b) Conductivity depends upon viscosity of solution.
(c) Conductivity does not depend upon solvation of ions present in solution.
(d) Conductivity of solution increases with temperature.
Answer: c
4. Which device converts chemical energy of a spontaneous redox reaction into electrical energy?
(a) Galvanic cell (b) Electrolytic cell (c) Daniell cell (d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer: d
5. The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of MnO4– to MnO2 is

(a) 1 F (b) 3 F (c) 5 F (d) 6 F
Answer: b
6. The cell reaction of the galvanic cell.
Answer: d
7. Which of the following reaction is used to make fuel cell?
Answer: c
8. If limiting molar conductivity of Ca2+ and Cl– are 119.0 and 76.3 S cm2 mol-1, then the value of
limiting molar conductivity of CaCl2 will be
(a) 195.3 S cm2 mol-1 (b) 271.6 S cm2 mol-1
2 -1
(c) 43.3 S cm mol (d) 314.3 S cm2 mol-1.
Answer: b
9. NH4NO3 is used in salt bridge because
(a) it forms a jelly like material with agar-agar. (b) it is a weak electrolyte.
(c) it is a good conductor of electricity.
(d) the transport number of NH4+ and NO3– ions are almost equal.
Answer: d
pg. 6
10.
Answer: b
11. The reaction, 3ClO– (aq) → ClO3 (aq) + 2Cl– (aq) is an example of
(a) Oxidation reaction (b) Reduction reaction
(c) Disproportionation reaction (d) Decomposition reaction
Answer: c
12. The emf of the cell:
Ni / Ni2+ (1.0 M) // Au3+ (1.0 M) / Au (E° = -0.25 V for Ni2+/Ni; E° = 1.5 V for Au3+/Au) is
(a) 1.25 V (b) -1.25 V (c) 1.75 V (d) 2.0 V
Answer: c
13. The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n = 2 is formed to be 0.295 V at
25° C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction would be
(a) 1.0 × 1010 (b) 2.0 × 1011 (c) 4.0 × 1012 (d) 1.0 × 102
-1 -1 -1
[Given F = 96500 (mol ); R = 8.314 JK mol ]
Answer: a
14. If E°Fe2+/Fe = -0.441 V and E°Fe2+/Fe2+ = 0.771 V, the standard EMF of the reaction,
Fe + 2Fe3+ → 3Fe2+ will be
(a) 1.212 V (b) 0.111 V (c) 0.330 V (d) 1.653 V
Answer: a
15. Which of the following statements regarding fuel cell is incorrect?
(a) These cells are eco-friendly.
(b) These cells convert energy of combustion of fuels like H2, CH4, CH3OH etc., directly into electrical
energy.
(c) H2 – O2 fuel cell is used in Apollo space programme.
(d) Fuel cells produce electricity with an efficiency of about 100%.
Answer: d
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)
16. From the given cells: Lead storage cell, Mercury cell, Fuel cell and Dry cell
Answer the following:
(i) Which cell is used in hearing aids?
(ii) Which cell was used in Apollo Space Programme?
(iii) Which cell is used in automobiles and inverters?
(iv) Which cell does not have long life?
Answer:
(i) Mercury cell is used in hearing aids.
(ii) Fuel cell was used in the Apollo Space Programme.
(iii) Lead storage cell is used in automobiles and inverters.
(iv) Dry cell does not have a long life.
17.The standard electrode potential (E°) for Daniel cell is +1.1 V. Calculate the ΔG° for the reaction
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
(1 F = 96500 C mol-1)
Answer: We know, ΔG° = -nF E°cell
Given : E°cell = 1.1 volt
∴ ΔG° = -2 × 96500 C mol-1 × 1.1 volt
= -212300 CV mol-1
= -212300 J mol-1 = -212.3 KJ mol-1
pg. 7
18. The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.025 S cm -1.Calculate its molar conductivity.
Answer: Molar conductivity Λm = 1000×κM
Given: K = 0.025 S cm-1, M = 0.20 M
Hence, Λm = 0.025×10000.20 ∴ Λm = 125 S cm2 mol-1
19.What is limiting molar conductivity? Why there is steep rise in the molar conductivity of weak
electrolyte on dilution?
Answer: The molar conductivity of a solution at infinite dilution is called limiting molar conductivity
and is represented by the symbol Λ∘m.
There is steep rise in the molar conductivity of weak electrolyte on dilution because as the
concentration of the weak electrolyte is reduced, more of it ionizes and thus increase in the number
of ions in the solution.
20. (i) Calculate the mass of Ag deposited at cathode when a current of 2 amperes was passed
through a solution of AgNO3 for 15 minutes.
[Given: Molar mass of Ag = 108 g mol-1 1F = 96,500 C mol-1)
Answer: (i) Q = I × t (Charge = Current ∝ Time)
. = 2 × 15 × 60 = 1800 C
∵ 96500 C deposit Ag = 108 g
∴ 1800 C deposit Ag = 10896500 × 1800
= 2.0145 g
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)
21. (i) State Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions.
(ii) Calculate the degree of dissociation (a) of acetic acid if its molar conductivity (Λm) is 39.05 S
cm2 mol-1.
Given: λ°(H+) = 349.6 S cm2 mol-1 and λ°(CH3COO–) = 40.9 S cm2 mol-1
Answer: (i) Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions: The limiting molar conductivity of an
electrolyte (i.e. molar conductivity at infinite dilution) is the sum of the limiting ionic conductivities of
the cation and the anion each multiplied with the number of ions present in one formula unit of the
electrolyte.
Λ°m for AxBy = xλ°+ + yλ°–
For acetic acid Λ° (CH3COOH) = λ°CH3COO– + λ°H+
Λ°(CH3COOH) = Λ° (CH3COOK) + Λ° (HCl) – Λ° (KCl)
(ii) Answer:
Λ°m(HAC) = λ°H+ + λ°AC–
= λ°CH3COOH = λ°H+ + λ°CH3COO–
= 349.6 S cm2 mol-1 + 40.9 S cm2 mol-1
= 390.5 S cm2 mol-1
22.(a) Define the following :

(i) Molar conductivity
(ii) Fuel cell
(b) The molar conductivity of a 1.5 M solution of an electrolyte is found to be 138.9 S cm 2 mol-
Calculate the conductivity of the solution.
Answer: (a) (i) Molar conductivity (Λm): Molar conductivity can be defined as the conductance of the
volume V of electrolytic solution kept between two electrodes of a conducting cell at distance of unit
length but having area of cross section large enough to accommodate sufficient volume of solution
that contains one mole of the electrolyte.
Λm = KV
(ii) Fuel cell : Galvanic cells that are designed to convert the chemical energy of combustion of fuels
like hydrogen, methane etc. into electrical energy are called fuel cells, e.g. H2 – O2 fuel cell
pg. 8
(b) Molar Conductivity, Λm = k × 1000 x C S cm2 mol-1
138.9 = k × 1000 x 1.5
k = 0.208 S cm-1
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

23. (a) What type of a battery is lead storage battery? Write the anode and cathode reactions and
the overall cell reaction occurring in the operation of a lead storage battery.
(b) Calculate the potential for half-cell containing
0.10 M K2Cr2O7 (aq), 0.20 M Cr3+ (aq) and 1.0 × 10-4 M H+ (aq).
The half-cell reaction is
Cr2O72-(aq) + 14 H+ (aq) + 6e– → 2 Cr3+ (aq) + 7 H2O (l)
and the standard electrode potential is given as E0 = 1.33 V.
Answer: (a) The lead storage battery is a secondary cell (rechargeable). During discharging the
electrode reaction occurs as follows:
At anode:
(b) E = ? E0 = 1.33 V
E0cell = 1.33 – 0.059/6 log [Cr+3]2 / {[Cr2O72-][H+]14}
24. (a) How many moles of mercury will be produced by electrolysing 1.0 M Hg(NO3)2 solution with a
current of 2.00 A for 3 hours? [Hg(NO3)2 = 200.6 g mol-1]
(b) A voltaic cell is set up at 25 °C with the following half-cells Al2+ (0.001 M) and Ni2+ (0.50 M). Write
an equation for the reaction that occurs when the cell generates an electric current and determine
the cell potential.
(Given : E0Ni2+/Ni = – 0.25 V, E0Al3+/Al = – 1.66 V)
Answer: (a) Quantity of electricity (Q) = I × t
= 2 × 3 × 60 × 60 = 21600 C
Hg2+ + 2e– → Hg
pg. 9
Thus 2F i.e. 2 × 96500 C deposits Hg = 1 mole
***
Prepared by: Ashok Kumar Panda, PGT Chemistry, OAV, Machhara, Koraput
pg. 10
CHEMICAL KINETICS
SECTION-A
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)
1. Which of the following quantity changes by addition of catalyst in a chemical reaction?
a) Entropy b) Internal energy c) Enthalpy d) Activation energy
Answer - d
2. The rate constant (k’) of one reaction is double of the rate constant (k”) of another reaction.
Then the relationship between the corresponding activation energies of the two reactions (Ea’
and Ea”) will be
a)Ea’ > Ea” b) Ea’ = Ea” c) Ea’ < Ea” d) Ea’ =4Ea”
Answer - c
3. Which of the following statements regarding the molecularity of a reaction are correct?
a) It is the number of molecules of the reactant taking part in the elementary step
b) It is calculated from reaction mechanism
c) It depends upon the rate determining step in the reaction
d) It is always a whole number
Answer – a and d
4. A reaction in which reactants (R) are converted into products (P) follows second order
Kinetics. If [R] is is increased by four times, what will be the increase in the rate of formation
Of P?
a) 9 times b) 4 times c) 16times d) 8 times
Answer - c
5. The unit of rate constant for the zero order reaction is
a) Ls-1 b) L mol-1s-1 c) mol L-1 s-1 d) none of the above
Answer - c
ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS (1 MARK EACH)
In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) followed by a statement of reason
(R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain the A
c) A is correct but R is incorrect
d) A is incorrect but R is correct .
6. Assertion : Order of the reaction can be zero or fractional
Reason : We cannot determine order from a balanced chemical equation .
Answer- b
7. Assertion : Order and molecularity are same.
Reason: Order is determined expermimentaly and molecularity is the sum of the
stoichiometric coefficients of the reactants present in the rate determining step.
Answer – d
8. Assertion : All collisions of reactant molecules lead to product formation .
Reason : Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and sufficient
kinetic energy leads to compound formation .
Answer -d
9. Assertion : Half life period is always independent of intial concentration .
Reason : Half life period is inversely proportional to rate constant
Answer – d
SECTION-B
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS EACH)
10. A first order reaction takes 69.3 minutes for 50% completion. How much time will be needed for
80% completion?
pg. 11
Answer- t1/2=69.3 min=ln 2K
t1/2=69.3 min=ln 2K
K=ln 2/69.3min-1
For 80% conversion, if we assume initial concentration
to be a0, concentration left would be a0/5
t× ln 2/ 69.3=ln(a0/a0/5)
t=69.3 ln 5/ln 2=161 min-1
11. Write two conditions for collisions to be effective collisions.
Answer
a) The reactant molecule must have attained sufficient energy to break bonds.
b) The reactant molecules must collide with proper orientation.
SECTION – C
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (3 MARK EACH)
12. What is activation energy? The rate constant of a first order reaction becomes 5 times when
the temperature is raised from 350K to 400K. Calculate the activation energy of the reaction.
Answer –i) Activation energy is the minimum energy supplied to the reactant to get the effective
collision.
ii) Effective collisions leads to the product formation.
From Arrhenius equation
Logk2/k1 = Ea / 2.303R [ 1/T1 - 1/T2 ]
Log 5 = Ea / (2.303 x 8.314) x [1/350 - 1/400]
Ea = 37.480 kJmol-1
13. The following data were obtained for the reaction:
Experiment [A]/M [B]/M Initial rate of formation of C/M min-1
(a) Find the order of reaction with respect to A and B.

(b) Write the rate law and overall order of reaction.
(c) Calculate the rate constant (k).
Answer – rate = k[A]x[b]y
a) Order with respect to A = 2 , b=1
b) Rate = k[A]2[B]1 overall order = 2+1 = 3
c) Experiment 1 rate = k [A]2[B]1
4.2 x 10-2 = k (0.2)2 (0.3)
So, k = 3.5
(full marks may be awarded for any one correct answer for k)
SECTION – D
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARK EACH)
14. i) Write the rate law for a first order reaction . Justify the statement that half-life for a first order
reaction is independent of the initial concentration of the reactant.
ii) For a first order reaction, show that the time required for 99% completion of a first order
reaction is twice the time required for the completion of 90%.
pg. 12
ii)For a first order reaction t = 2.303/k . log[R]0/[R]
t99% = 2.303/k . log 100/1
= 4.606/k ………………………………(i)
t90% = 2.303/k . log100/10
2.303/k ………………………………..(ii)
Dividing (i) by (ii)
t99% / t90% = 2
15.i) Match the statements given in Column I and Column II\
Column I Column II
(a) Catalyst alters the rate

of reaction (i) cannot be fraction or zero
(b) Molecularity (ii) proper orientation is not there always
(c) Second half life of first

order reaction (iii) By lowering the activation energy
(d) e-Ea/RT (iv) is same as the first
(e) Energetically favorable

reactions are sometimes
slow (v) total probability is one
(f) Area under the

Maxwell Boltzman curve (vi) refers to the fraction of molecules with energy
is constant equal to or greater than activation energy
Answer:
pg. 13
(a) – (iii) ; (b) – (i); (c) – (iv); (d) – (vi); (e) – (ii); (f) – (v)
ii) What happens to the most probable kinetic energy and the energy of activation with increase
in temperature?
Answer-When the temperature is raised, the maximum of the curve moves towards higher energy. At
that time, the fraction of the molecules with most probable kinetic energy decreases at higher
temperatures.
16. Observe the table given showing volume of CO 2 obtained by reaction of CaCO3 and dilute HCl
after every minute. Answer the questions that follow
Time/mmm Volume of CO2/ cm3
0 0
1 24
2 34
3 38
4 40
5 40
6 40
(a) What happens to the rate of reaction with time for the above reaction?
(b) How the rate of reaction is affected when powdered CaCO 3 is used instead of marble chips?
(c) What happens to the rate of reaction when conc. HCl is used instead of dil. HCl?
(d) Express the rate of reaction in terms of reactants and products for the above reaction?
(e) Why does the rate of reaction almost doubles for every 10 0 C rise in temperature
Answer
(a) The rate of reaction first decreases and then becomes constant with time.
(b) The rate of reaction increases as the surface area of the reactants increases.
(c) The rate of reaction increases with increase in concentration of the reactant
(d) Rate = -d/dt [CaCO3] =-1/2 . d/dt[HCl] = d/dt [CaCl2] =d/dt [CO2] = d/dt [H2O]
(e) This happens because on increasing temperature, the kinetic energy of the molecules also
increases.
***
Prepared by-Abhinash Patra, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Kotpad
pg. 14
The d- and f-Block Elements
1. Which of the following ion has maximum number of unpaired electrons?

(a)Fe3+ (b) V3+ (c)Ti3+ (d) Sc3+
2. Gun metal is an alloy of
(a) Cu & Al (b) Cu & Sn (c) Cu, Zn & Sn (d) Cu, Zn & Ni
3. Which of the following are d-block elements but not regarded as transition elements?
(a) Cu, Ag, Au (b) Zn, Cd, Hg (c) Fe, Co, Ni (d) Ru, Rh, Pd
4. The difference between the oxidation number of Cr in chromate and dichromate ion is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
5. KMnO4 is not acidified by HCl instead of H2SO4 because
(a) H2SO4 is stronger acid than HCl (b) HCl is oxidised to Cl2 by KMnO4
(c) H2SO4 is dibasic (d) rate is faster in presence of H2SO4
6. In which of the following pairs both the ions are coloured in aqueous solution?
(a) Sc3+ Ti3+ (b) Sc3+ Co2+ (c) Ni2+ Cu+ (d) Ni2+ Ti3+
2-
7. In dichromate anion (Cr2O7 )
(a) all Cr-O bonds are equivalent (b) six Cr-O bonds are equivalent
(c) three Cr-O bonds are equivalent (d) no bonds are equivalent
8. Which member of lanthanide series is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state?
(a) Cerium (b) Europium (c) Gadolinium (d) Holmium
9. Assertion: In the series Sc to Zn the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest.
Reason: Zinc has all paired electrons, so metal-metal bond is weaker.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
10. Assertion: In transition elements ns orbital is filled up first and (n–1)d afterwards, during
ionization ns electrons are lost prior to (n–1)d electrons.
Reason: The effective nuclear charge felt by (n–1)d electrons is higher as compared to that by ns
electrons.
Assertion.
Ans: 1. (a) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(d) 7.(b) 8. (a) 9.(a) 10.(a)
11. When pyrolusite ore MnO2 is fused of with KOH in presence of air, a green coloured compound
(A) is obtained which undergoes disproportionation reaction in acidic medium to give purple
coloured compound (B). [2M]
(a) Write the formulae of (A) & (B).
(b) What happens when compound (B) is heated?
Ans: (a) A= K2MnO4, B=KMnO4
(b) 2KMnO4  K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
12. Complete and balance the following equations. [2M]
- - +
(a) MnO4 +I + H →
(b) Na2Cr2O7 + KCl →
Ans: (a) 2MnO4-+10I-+16H+ → 2Mn2++8H2O+5I2
(b) Na2Cr2O7+2KCl → K2Cr2O7 + 2NaCl
13.When chromite ore FeCr2O4 is fused with NaOH in presence of air, a yellow coloured compound
(A) obtained which on acidification with dilute sulphuric acid gives a compound (B). Compound (B)
on reaction with KCl forms an orange coloured crystalline compound (C). [2M]
pg. 15
(a) Write the formulae of (A), (B) & (C).
(b) Write one use of compound (C).
Ans: (a) A = Na2CrO4, B= Na2Cr2O7, C= K2Cr2O7
(b) Potassium dichromate is used as a primary standard in volumetric analysis.
14. What is lanthanoid contraction? Give its cause. What are its consequences? [3M]
Ans: The regular decrease in the atomic and ionic radii of lanthanoids with increasing atomic number
is known as lanthanoid contraction.
It is caused due to poor shielding effect of 4f-electrons.
Consequences of lanthanoid contraction:
(i) Difficult to separate the lanthanoids because the change in ionic radii is very small, their chemical
properties are similar.
(ii) Similarity in size of elements belonging to same group of second and third transition series.
e.g., Atomic radii of zirconium (Zr) is same as that of hafnium (Hf).
15. The elements of 3d transition series are given as Sc, Ti, V, Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu, Zn. [3M]
(a) Write the element which shows maximum number of oxidation states. Given reason.
(b) Which element has the highest melting point?
(c) Which element shows only +3 oxidation state?
Ans: (a) Mn shows maximum no. of oxidation states from +2 to +7 because Mn has maximum
number of unpaired electrons in 3d sub-shell.
(b) Cr has maximum melting point, because it has 6 unpaired electrons in the valence shell, hence it
has strong interatomic interaction.
(c) Sc shows only +3 oxidation state because after losing 3 electrons, it has noble gas electronic
configuration.
16. Describe the oxidising actions of potassium dichromate and write the ionic equations for its
reaction with [3M]
(a) iodide
(b) iron(II) solution
(c) H2S
Ans: (a) Cr2O72-+ 14H+ + 6I– → 2Cr3+ + 3I2 + 7H2O
(b) Cr2O72- (aq) + 14H+(aq) + 6Fe2+(aq) → 2Cr3+(aq)+ 6Fe3+(aq) + 7H2O(l)
(c) Cr2O72- (aq) + 3H2S(g) + 8H+(aq) →2Cr3+(aq) + 7H2O(l) + 3S(s)
17. The Following questions are case based questions carries 4 (1+1+2) marks. Read the given
passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Transition elements are elements that have partially filled d-orbitals. The configuration of
these elements corresponds to (n-1)d1-10 ns1-2. It is important to note that the elements mercury,
cadmium and zinc (are not considered transition elements because of their electronic
configurations, which corresponds to (n-1)d1-10 ns2. These elements can form coloured compounds
and ions due to d-d transition. These elements exhibit many oxidation states. A large variety of
legends can bind themselves to these elements, due to this, a wide variety of stable complexes
formed by these ions. The boiling and melting point of these elements are high. These elements
have a large ratio of charge to the radius.
(a) Zn is soft whereas Cr is hard. Why?
(b) Calculate the 'spin only' magnetic moment of M2+(aq) ion. (Z=26).
(c) Give reason:
(i) Zn, Cd and Hg have low melting and boiling point.
(ii) Transition elements exhibit variable oxidation states.
[OR]
(d) Give reason for the following observations.
(i) The enthalpies of atomization of transition elements are high.
(ii) Zn2+ salts are colourless.
pg. 16
Ans: (a) Cr (3d5 4s1) has five unpaired electrons in its d-orbitals whereas Zn (3d10 4s2) has no unpaired
electrons in its d-orbitals. As a result of this, weak metallic bonds exist in Zn whereas strong metallic
bonds exist in Cr. Hence, Zn is soft whereas Cr is hard.
(b) Electronic configuration of the M2+ ion (Z=26) would be M2+(aq): (Ar) 3d6
It would contain four unpaired electrons. The 'spin only' magnetic moment is given by the relation:
µ = µ=√𝑛(𝑛 + 2) BM =√4(4 + 2) BM=4.89 BM
(c) (i) All the electrons in d-subshell are paired. Hence, the metallic bonds present in them are weak.
(ii) Due to less energy gap between ns and (n-1)d orbitals. With same energy (n-1)d electrons also
get ejected with ns electrons.
[OR]
(c) (i) Because of large number of unpaired electrons in their atoms, transition elements have
stronger interatomic interaction and hence stronger bonding between atoms resulting in higher
enthalpies of atomization.
(ii) Zn2+ (3d10) has completely filled d-orbitals. As a result of this, d-d transition cannot occur and
hence Zn2+ salts are colourless.
18. Account for the followings: [5M]
(a) Metallic bonding is more frequent for the 4d & 5d series of transition metals than 3d series.
(b) Most of the transition metals and their compounds possess catalytic properties.
(c) Actinoid contraction is greater than lanthanoid contraction.
(d) Many of the transition elements are known to form interstitial compounds.
(e) Transition metals form alloys.
Ans: (a) 4d and 5d transition elements (2nd and 3rd series) are larger in size than the corresponding
3d elements. Hence the valence electrons are less tightly held and form M-M bond more frequently.
(b) Due to variable oxidation states & large surface area.
(c) Because 5f-electrons are more poorly shielded than 4f-electrons.
(d) Because small atoms of certain non-metallic elements (H, B, C, N, etc.) get trapped in voids or
vacant spaces of lattices of the transition metals.
(e) The transition metals have similar radii and other characteristics. Therefore, these metals can
mutually substitute their position in their crystal lattices and form alloys.
***
Prepared by- Sandhyarani Panigrahi, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Jayantigiri, Jeypore
pg. 17
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION [1 MARK]
1. The compounds [Co(SO4)(NH3)5] Br and [Co(Br)(NH3)5]SO4 represent:
(a) Optical isomerism (b) Linkage isomerism
(c) Ionization isomerism (d) Coordination isomerism
Ans. (c) ionization isomerism
2. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3Br(NO2)Cl]Cl is
(a) triamminechlorodibromidoplatinum (IV) chloride
(b) triamminechloridobromidonitrochloride- platinum (IV) chloride
(c) triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum (IV) chloride
(d) triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV) chloride
Ans. (c) triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum (IV) chloride
3. Which of the following compounds exhibits linkage isomerism?
(a) [Co(en)3]Cl3 (b) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(en)3]
(c) [Co(en)2(NO2)CI]Br (d) [Co(NH3)5CI]Br2
Ans. (c) [Co(en)2(NO2)CI]Br
4. According to Werner’s theory of coordination compounds
(a) Primary valency is ionisable (b) Secondary valency is ionisable
(c) Primary and secondary valencies are lonisable
(d) Neither primary nor secondary valency ¡s ionisable
Ans. (a) Primary valency is ionisable
5. The complex ions [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]2+ and [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]2+ are called
(a) Ionization isomers (b) Linkage isomers
(c) Co-ordination isomers (d) Geometrical isomers
Ans:(b) Linkage isomers
6. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are
(a) Square planar and paramagnetic (b) Tetrahedral and diamagnetic
(c) Square planar and diamagnetic (d) Tetrahedral and paramagnetic
Answer:(b) Tetrahedral and diamagnetic
7. The oxidation state of nickel in [Ni(CO4)] is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
Answer:(a) 0
8. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated
with complexes: COCl3.6NH3, C0Cl3.5NH3, C0Cl3.4NH3 respectively is
(a) 3AgCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl (b) 3AgCl, 2AgCl, 1AgCl
(c) 2AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl (d) 1AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl
Ans. (b) 3AgCl, 2AgCl, 1AgCl
VERY SHORT TYPE [2 MARKS]
9. i) Write down the IUPAC name of the complex [Cr(NH3)2Cl2(en)]Cl.
ii) Write the formula for the complex pentaamminenitrito-O-cobalt(III)
Ans.i) diamminedichlorido(ethane 1,2-diamine)chromium(III) chloride
ii)[Co(NH3)5ONO]2+
10. On the basis of crystal field theory, write the electronic configuration for d4 ion if
i) Δo< P ii) Δo> P
Ans.i) t2g3eg1 ii) t2g4eg0
11. i) [NiCl4]2- is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic, though both are tetrahedral. Why?
ii) Out of [Fe(NH3)6]3+ and [Fe(C2O4)3]3- which complex is more stable and why?
Ans.i) [NiCl4]2-has unpaired electron, whereas [Ni(CO) 4] does not have unpaired electrons.
ii)[Fe(C2O4)3]3- is more stable because oxalate ion form metal chelates.
pg. 18
SHORT ANSWER TYPE [3 MARKS]
12. When a coordination compound NiCl2.6H2O mixed with AgNO3, 2 moles of AgCl are
precipitated per mole of the compound. Write
i) Structural formula of the complex.
ii) Secondary valency of Ni in the complex.
iii) IUPAC name of the complex.
Ans.i)[Ni(H2O)6] Cl2
ii)6
iii) hexaaquanickel(II) chloride
13. Write the hybridization and shape of the following complexes
i)[Co(NH3)6]3+q ii) [CoF6]3- iii) )[Ni(CN)4]2-
Ans.i)d2sp3, octahedral
ii) sp3d2, octahedral
iii) dsp2, square planner
14. i) Why do compounds having similar geometry have different magnetic moments?
ii) CuSO4.5H2O is blue in colour while CuSO4 is colourless. Why?
iii) Why are low spin tetrahedral complexes not formed?
Ans.i) The presence of weak and strong field ligands in complexes is the reason for this.
ii) Water acts as a ligand in CuSO4.5H2O, causing crystal field splitting. As a result, in
CuSO4.5H2O, a d—d transition is possible and coloured. Crystal field splitting is impossible in
anhydrous CuSO4 due to the lack of water (ligand), hence there is no colour.
iii) In a tetrahedral complex, the d-orbital is split too small as compared to octahedral. For the
same metal and same ligand Δt = 4/9Δ o.Hence, the orbital energies are not enough to force
pairing. As a result, low spin configurations are rarely observed in tetrahedral complexes.
CASE BASED QUESTION [4 MARKS]
15. To explain bonding in coordination compounds various theories were proposed. One
important theory was the valence bond theory. According to that, the central metal ion in the
complex makes available a number of empty orbitals for the formation of coordination bonds with
suitable ligands. The appropriate atomic orbitals of the metal hybridize to give a set of equivalent
orbitals of definite geometry.
The d-orbitals involved in the hybridization may be either inner d-orbitals i.e., (n – 1)d, or
outer d-orbitals i.e., nd. For example, Co3+ forms both inner orbital and outer orbital complexes,
with ammonia forms [Co(NH 3)6]3+ and with fluorine it forms [CoF6]3– complex ion.
1.Which of the following is not true for [CoF6]3–?
(a) It is paramagnetic.
(b) It has coordination number of 6.
(c) It is an outer orbital complex.
(d) It involves d2sp3 hybridization.
Ans. (d) It involves d2sp3 hybridization.
2.Which of the following is true for[Co(NH3)6]3+?
(a) It is an octahedral, diamagnetic, and outer orbital complex.
(b) It is an octahedral, paramagnetic, and outer orbital complex.
(c) It is an octahedral, paramagnetic, and inner orbital complex.
(d) It is an octahedral, diamagnetic, and inner orbital complex
Ans. (d) It is an octahedral, diamagnetic, and inner orbital complex
3.The paramagnetism of [CoF6]3– is due to
(a) 3 electrons (b) 4 electrons
(c) 2 electrons (d) 1 electron.
Ans. (b) 4 electrons
pg. 19
4.Which of the following is an inner orbital or low spin complex?
(a) [Ni(H 2O)6]3+ (b) [FeF6]3–
(c) [Co(CN)6]3– (d) [NiCl4]2–
Ans. (c) [Co(CN)6 ]3–
LONG ANSWER TYPE [5 MARKS]
15. For the complex [Fe(en)2Cl2], Cl, (en = ethylene diamine), identify
(i) the oxidation number of iron and name of the complex. (At. no. of Fe = 26)
(ii) the hybrid orbitals and the shape of the complex,
(iii) the magnetic behaviour of the complex,
(iv) the number of geometrical isomers,
(v) whether there is an optical isomer also.
Ans.
(i) [Fe(en)2Cl2] Cl or x + 0 + 2 (-1) + (-1) = 0
x + (- 3) = 0 or x = + 3
∴ Oxidation number of iron, x = + 3
Name of complex: Dichloridobis (ethane-1, 2- diamine) Iron (III) chloride.
(ii) The complex has two bidentate ligands and two monodentate ligands. Therefore, the
coordination number is 6 and hybridization will be d 2sp3 and shape will be octahedral.
(iii) In the complex 26Fe3+ = 3d5 4s0 4p0
Due to presence of one unpaired electrons in d orbitals the complex is paramagnetic.
The number of geometrical isomers are two.

(v) In coordination complex of [Fe(en)2Cl2] Cl, only cis-isomer shows optical isomerism.
***
Prepared by- Priyanka Das, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Messingput, Lamptaput
pg. 20
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
1.Assertion(A) : Nucleophilic substitution of iodoethane is easier than chloroethane.
Reason(R) : Bond enthalpy of C-I bond is less than that of C-Cl bond.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
2. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points:
(i)(CH3)2CH-CH2Br
(ii) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
CH3
|
(iii) CH3 -C -CH3
|
Br
(a) (ii)<(iii)<(i) (b) (iii)<(i)<(ii) (c) (i)<(ii)<(iii) (d) (iii)<(ii)<(i)
3. The position of Br in the compound CH3 = CHC(Br)(CH3)2 can be classified as
(a) Allyl (b) Aryl (c) Vinyl (d) Secondary
4.Which of the alkyl halide is best suited through SN1 mechanism
C6H5CH2NH2 + RX → C6H5CH2NHR
(a) CH3Br (b) C6H5Br (c) C6H5CH2Br (d) CH3CH2Br
5. Which of the following is not correctly matched with its IUPAC name?
(a) CHF2C BrClF : 1-Bromo-1-chIoro-1, 2, 2-trifluoroethane
(b) (CCl3)3CCl : 2-(Trichloromethyl)-1, 1, 2, 3, 3-heptachloropropane
(c) CH3C (p-ClC6H4)2CH (Br) CH3 : 2-Bromo-3, 3-bis (4- chlorophenyl) butane
(d) o-BrC6H4CH (CH3) CH2 CH3 : 2-Bromo-l- methylpropylbenzen
ANS : 1.(a) 2.(b ) 3. (a) 4.(C) 5.(b)
1
6. Which of the following compound go faster in SN reaction: [2M]
a. b.
Ans: 'a' compound is more stable because tertiary group is more reactive than secondary alkyl halide for
SN1 mechanism.
7.In which of the two compounds CH3CH2CH2Cl or C6H5Cl will the C-Cl bond be longer. Why? [2M]
Ans:The C-atom of C-Cl bond in CH3CH2CH2Cl is sp³ hybridised while that in C6H5Cl is sp² hybridised. So the
C-Cl bond in CH3CH2CH2Cl is longer than in C6H5Cl.
8.Give reason for the following: [2M]
(i) Racemic mixture is optically inactive.
(ii)C-Cl bond length in chlorobenzene is shorter than C-Cl bond length in CH3-Cl.
Ans:(i)Racemic mixture contains bothed and I enantiomers in equal proportions. As the rotation due to
one enantiomer is cancelled by equal and opposite rotation of another enantiomer, therefore it is optically
inactive.
ii) In chlorobenzene, C-Cl bond acquires partial double bond due to resonance while in methyl chloride,
C-Cl bond has pure single bond character.
9.Which one of the following compounds is more reactive towards SN2 reaction and why?[2M]
CH3CH(Cl)CH₂CH3 or CH3CH₂CH₂Cl
pg. 21
Ans: Rate of reaction is inversely proportional to steric hindrance. So, CH3CH2CH2Cl is more reactive than
CH3CH(Cl)CH2CH3.
10.Which alkyl halide from the following pairs would you expect to react more rapidly by an SN 2
mechanism? Explain your answer? [3M]
a.CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-Br & CH3-CH2-CH(Br)-CH3
b.CH3-CH2-CH(Br)-CH3 & C(CH3)3Br
c.CH3-CH(CH3) CH2-CH2- Br & CH3-CH2-CH(CH3)-CH2- Br
Ans: a. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-Br primary alkyl halide is more reactive than secondary alkyl halide.
b. CH3-CH2-CH(Br)-CH3Secondary alkyl halide is more reactive than tertiary alkyl halide.
c. CH3-CH(CH3)-CH2-CH2- Br As methyl group is far from Br it will less stabilize the carbocation and facilitate
the SN2 mechanism.
11.(i)Why is boiling point of o-dichlorobenzene higher than p-dichlorobenzene but melting point of para
isomer is higher than ortho-isomer?
(ii)Out of 2-Bromopentane, 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane and 1-Bromopentane. Which compound is most
reactive towards elimination reaction and why? [3M]
Ans:(i) Melting point of p-Dichlorobenzene is higher than o-Dichlorobenzene because of its closed packed
structure which have high intramolecular forces of attraction. That's why high amount of temperature is
required to break down the bonds while boiling point of o-chlorobenzene is high because of high dipole
interaction present at ortho-position. There is great dipole-dipole forces of attraction between carbon
and chlorine atom which results into high.
(ii) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane is more reactive as it gives more substituted alkene on elimination.
12. Give reason for the following: [3M]
(a) Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.
(b) Thionyl chloride method is preferred for preparing alkyl chloride from alcohol.
(c) Draw the structure of major monohalogen product formed in the following reaction:
Ans: (a) Due to partial double bond character in C- X bond because of resonance.
(b) R-OH + SOCl2 → R-Cl + SO2(g) + HCl(g), both side products are gases hence we get almost pure alkyl
chloride.
(c)
13. Nucleophilic substitution reaction of haloalkane can be conducted according to both SN 1 and SN2
mechanisms. SN1 is a two-step reaction while SN2 is a single step reaction. For any haloalkane which
mechanism is followed depends on factors such as structure of haloalkane, properties of leaving group,
nucleophilic reagent and solvent.
Influences of solvent polarity: In SN1 reaction, the polarity of the system increases from the reactant
to the transition state, because a polar solvent has a greater effect on the transition state than the
reactant, thereby reducing activation energy and accelerating the reaction. In SN2 reaction, the polarity
of the system generally does not change from the reactant to the transition state and only charge
dispersion occurs. At this time, polar solvent has a great stabilizing effect on Nu than the transition
state, thereby increasing activation energy and slow down the reaction rate. For example, the
decomposition rate SN1 of tertiary chlorobutane at 25° C in water (dielectric constant 79) is 300000
times faster than in ethanol (dielectric constant 24). The reaction rate (SN 2) of 2-Bromopropane and
NaOH in ethanol containing 40% water is twice slower than in absolute ethanol. Hence the level of
solvent polarity has influence both SN1and SN2 reaction, but with different results. Generally speaking
pg. 22
weak polar solvent is favourable for SN2 reaction, while strong polar solvent is favourable for SN 1
Generally speaking the substitution reaction of tertiary haloalkane is based on SN 1mechanism in
solvents with a strong polarity (for example ethanol containing water).
Answer the following questions: [1M+1M+2M]
1
(a) Why racemisation occurs in SN ?
(b) Why is ethanol less polar than water?
(c) Which one of the following in each pair is more reactive towards SN2 reaction?
(i) CH3-CH2-I or CH3CH2-Cl
(ii) or
[OR]
(c) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their reactivity towards SN1 reactions:
(i) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane
(ii) 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane, 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 2-Bromo-3-methylbutane
Ans: a) In SN1 mechanism, there is intermediate carbocation formed. Due to which racemisation of the
product take place or D and L form formed.
(b) In ethanol alkyl chain is present which is responsible for non-polar nature. Water has high value of
dipole moment than ethanal. Thats why water is more polar than ethanal.
(c) (i) CH3CH₂- I will react faster than CH3- CH₂-Cl because I is bigger in size and more polarized atom. Its
bond dissociation enthalpy is less. So, it easily react with other substances.
(ii) is less reactive when compared to because in chlorocylohexane,

bond length is less and it is closely attached with cyclohexane while 1-methyl 1-chloro cyclohexane is less
stable one extra methyl group is attached which make it more reactive towards SN1 mechanism.
[OR]
(i) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane > 2-Bromopentane > 1-Bromopentane
(ii) 1-Bromo-3-methyl butane > 2-Bromo-3- methyl butane > 2-Bromo-2-methyl butane.
14. (a)The following haloalkanes are hydrolysed in presence of aq. KOH. [2M+1M+2M]
1-Chlorobutane , 2-Chloro-2-methylbutane
Which of the above is most likely to give racemic mixture? Justify your answer.
(b) Arrange the following in increasing order of boiling point:
CH3CH2CH2CH2Br , (CH3)3CBr, CH3CH2CH(CH3)Br
(c)Giver reasons:
(i) R- X reacts with KCN to give cyanides as major product and isocyanides as major product with AgCN.
(ii) Chloroform is preserved in dark coloured bottles.
Ans:(a)Racemic mixture will be given by 2-Chloro- 2-methyl butane as it is an optically active compound.
When 2-Chloro-2-methylbutane undergoes SN1 reaction, both front and rear attack are possible, resulting
in a racemic mixture.
b) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br > CH3CH2CH(CH3)Br > (CH3)3C Br
c)i. KCN is predominantly ionic and provides cyanide ions in solution. The attack takes place mainly
through carbon atom and not through nitrogen atom as C-C bond is more stable than C-N bond. In
contrast, AgCN is mainly covalent in nature and nitrogen is free to donate electron pair forming isocyanide
as the major product.
ii. To avoid the formation of phosgene, chloroform is stored away from light and air. In dark coloured
bottles, no light can enter. Thus, oxidation of chloroform to phosgene can be avoided.
***
Prepared by-Bandana Garnaik, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Gaudoguda, Laxmipur
pg. 23
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS
1. Phenol is less acidic than ______________.
(i) ethanol (ii) o-nitrophenol (iii) o-methyl phenol (iv) o-methoxy phenol.
Ans: (ii) o-nitrophenol.
2. CH3CH2OH can be converted into CH3CHO by ______________.
(i) Catalytic hydrogenation (ii) treatment with LiAlH4
(iii) Treatment with pyridiniumchlorochromate (iv) treatment with KMnO4
Ans: (iii) treatment with pyridiniumchlorochromate
3. Give IUPAC name of the compound given below.
(i) 2-Chloro-5-hydroxyhexane (ii) 2-Hydroxy-5-chlorohexane

(iii) 5-Chlorohexan-2-ol (iv) 2-Chlorohexan-5-ol
Ans: (iii) 5-Chlorohexan-2-ol
4. Mark the correct increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds with HBr/HCl.
(i) a< b < c (ii) b < a < c (iii) b < c < a (iv) c < b < a
Ans: (iii) is the answer.

5. Strength of acidity is in order:
(a) II > I > III > IV(b) III > IV > I > II(c) I > IV > III > II(d) IV > III > I > II
Answer: (b) III > IV > I > II
6. In the reaction of phenol with CHCl3 and aqueous NaOH at 343 K, the electrophile attacking the
ring is:
(a) CHCl3 (b) CHCl2 (c) :CCl2 (d) COCl2
Answer: (c): CCl2
7. Assertion (A): o-Nitrophenol is less soluble in water than the m- and p-isomers.
Reason (R): m-Nitrophenol and p-Nitrophenol exists as associated molecules.
(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct but Reason is wrong.
(c) Assertion is wrong but Reason is correct.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
Ans: (d) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
8.When phenol is treated with bromine water, a white precipitate is obtained. Give the structure
and the name of the compound formed. [2M]
Ans: The name of the compound formed in this reaction is 2,4,6-tribromophenol. The structure of
the compound formed is:
pg. 24
9. Predict the products of the following reactions: [2M]
a)
b)
ANSWER:
A)
b)
10. Explain the following with an example. [3M]

(i) Kolbe’s reaction. (ii) Reimer-Tiemann reaction. (iii) Williamson ether synthesis.
ANS:
(i) Kolbe’s reaction:
When phenol is treated with sodium hydroxide, sodium phenoxide is produced. This sodium
phenoxide when treated with carbon dioxide, followed by acidification, undergoes electrophilic
substitution to give ortho-hydroxybenzoic acid as the main product. This reaction is known as
Kolbe’s reaction.
II) When phenol is treated with chloroform (CHCl3) in the presence of sodium hydroxide, a −CHO
group is introduced at the ortho position of the benzene ring.
iii) Williamson ether synthesis:

Williamson ether synthesis is a laboratory method to prepare symmetrical and unsymmetrical ethers
by allowing alkyl halides to react with sodium alkoxides.
11.Write equations of the following reactions: [3M]

(i) Friedel-Crafts reaction - alkylation of anisole. (ii) Nitration of anisole.
(iii) Friedel-Craft’s acetylation of anisole.
pg. 25
Ans :i)
ii)
iii)
12. Preparation of alcohols from alkenes involves the electrophilic attack on an alkene carbon
atom. Explain its mechanism. [3M]
Ans:
Step (1) Protonation of alkene and formation of a carbocation
Step (2) Nucleophilic attack of water
Step 3: Deprotonation occur to get the alcohol and hydronium ion forms
13. (i) How will you convert: Propene to propan-2-ol? [3M]

.(ii) Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
Propanol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol.
(iii) How will you convert: Phenol to 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol?
Ans: (i)
pg. 26
iii)
14. An organic compound A having molecular formula C6H6O gives a characteristic colour with
aqueous FeCl3. When A is treated with NaOH and CO2 at 400K under pressure, compound B is
obtained. Compound B on acidification gives compound C, which reacts with acetyl chloride to
form D which is a popular pain killer. Deduce the structure of A, B, C and D. What is the common
name of drug D? [5M]
Ans.
A) phenol B) sodium salicylate
C) salicylic acid D) 2-acetoxy benzoic acid, commonly known as aspirin.
***
Prepared by: Aditya Prasad Dalai, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Pottangi.
pg. 27
ALDEHYDES, KETONES & CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
1.Which of the following compound will give butanone on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 solution ?
(a) Butan-1-ol (b) Butan-2-ol (c) Both of these (d) None of these
Ans. Correct option : (b)
2.What kind of compounds undergo Cannizaro reactions ?
(a) Ketones with no α- hydrogen (b) Aldehydes with α- hydrogen
(c) Carboxylic acids with α- hydrogen (d) Aldehydes with no α- hydrogen
Ans. Correct option : (d)
3.In Clemmensen reduction carbonyl compound is treated with _________.
(a) zinc amalgam + HCl (b) sodium amalgam + HCl
(c) zinc amalgam + nitric acid (d) sodium amalgam + HNO3 R
Ans. Correct option : (a)
4.Formaldehyde reacts with methyl magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis to form.
(a) Methanol (b) Ethanol (c) Propanol (d) Butanol
Ans. Correct Option : (b)
5.The carboxylic acid that does not undergo HVZ reaction is
(a) CH3COOH (b) (CH3)2COOH
(c) CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH (d) (CH3)3CCOOH
Ans. Correct Option : (d)
6.Which of the following is the strongest acid?
(a) Acetic acid (b) Phenol (c) Methyl alcohol (d) Water
Ans. Correct Option : (a)
7.The reaction in which the aqueous solution of sodium salt of carboxylic acids on electrolysis give
alkanes :
(a) Soda lime decarboxylation (b) Kolbe’s electrolysis decarboxylation
(c) Dry distillation of calcium formate (d) Reduction of carboxylic acid. R
Ans. Correct Option : (b)
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
8. Assertion (A) : Oxidation of ketones is easier than aldehydes.
Reason (R) : C–C bond of ketones is stronger than C–H bond of aldehydes.
Explanation : Oxidation of aldehydes are easier than ketones.
9. Assertion (A) : Benzaldehyde is less reactive than ethanal towards nucleophilic addition reactions.
Reason (R) : Ethanal is more sterically hindered.
Explanation : The carbon atom of the carbonyl group of benzaldehyde is less electrophilic than
carbon atom of carbonyl group present in ethanal. The polarity of the carbonyl group is reduced in
benzaldehyde due to resonance hence it is less reactive than ethanol towards nucleophilic addition
reaction.
10. Assertion (A) : Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde undergo Cannizzaro reaction.
Reason (R) : Aromatic aldehydes are almost as reactive as formaldehyde. U
Ans. Correct option : (c)
pg. 28
Explanation : Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde do not contain a-hydrogen and thus undergo
Cannizzaro reaction. Formaldehyde is more reactive than aromatic aldehydes.
11. Assertion (A): Aldehydes and ketones, both react with Tollen’s reagent to form silver mirror.
Reason (R): Both aldehydes and ketones contain a carbonyl group.
Explanation : Both aldehydes and ketones have carbonyl group but only aldehydes react with
Tollens' reagent to give silver mirror.
12. Assertion (A) : Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel-craft’s reaction.
Reaction (R) : The carboxyl group is activating and undergo electrophilic substitution reaction.
Ans. Correct Option : (c)
Explanation : The carboxyl group (-COOH) is deactivating group because it is electron with drawing
group. It decreases the electron density at benzene ring, hence deactivates it towards electrophilic
substitution reactions.
13. Assertion (A): Compounds containing —CHO group are easily oxidised to corresponding
carboxylic acids.
Reason (R): Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH4.
Explanation: Compounds containing —CHO group are easily oxidised to corresponding carboxylic
acids.
14. Assertion (A): Aromatic carboxylic groups do not undergo Friedel- Crafts reaction.
Reason (R): Carboxyl group is deactivating and the catalyst aluminium chloride gets bonded to the
carboxyl group.
Ans. Correct option : (a)
Explanation: Aromatic carboxylic groups do not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction because Carboxyl
group is deactivating and the catalyst aluminium chloride gets bonded to the carboxyl group.
15. Assertion (A) : Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols.
Reason (R) : Phenols are ortho and para directing.
Ans. (b)
Explanation: Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols as the carboxylate ion, the conjugate
base of carboxylic acid is stabilized by two equivalent resonance structures. Thus, the negative
charge is delocalized effectively. However, in phenols, negative charge is less effectively delocalized
over oxygen atom and carbon atoms in phenoxide ion.
16. Write the equations involved in the following reactions : [2M]

(i) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(ii) Etard reaction.
Ans- (i)
(ii)
pg. 29
17 Write the reactions involved in the following reaction : [2M]
(i) Clemmensen reduction
(ii) Cannizzaro reaction
Ans. (ii)
18. Illustrate the following reactions giving a suitable example for each. [2M]
(i) Cross aldol condensation (ii) Decarboxylation
Ans-
(i)
(ii) Decarboxylation : Carboxylic acids lose carbon dioxide to form hydrocarbons when their sodium
salts are heated with soda lime. The reaction is known as decarboxylation.
19. Arrange the following in increasing order of the property indicated : [3M]
(i) Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Di-tert. butyl ketone, Methyl tert. butyl ketone (reactivity towards HCN).
(ii) CH3CH2CH(Br)COOH, CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH, (CH3)2CHCOOH, CH3CH2CH2COOH (acid strength)
(iii) Benzoic acid, 4-Nitrobenzoic acid, 3, 5-Dinitrobenzoic acid, 4-Methoxybenzoic acid (acid
strength)
Ans-(i) Cyanohydrin derivatives are formed as a result of the reaction in which the nucleophile (CN –
ion) attacks the carbon atom of the carbonyl group. The order of reactivity
 decreases with increase in +I effect of the alkyl group.
 decreases with increase in steric hindrance due to the size as well as number of the alkyl
groups. In the light of the above information, the decreasing order of reactivity is :
pg. 30
(ii) We know that alkyl group with +I effect decreases the acidic strength. The +I effect of isopropyl
group is more than that of n-propyl group. Similarly, bromine (Br) with -I-effect increases the acidic
strength. Closer its position in the carbon atom chain w.r.t., carboxyl (COOH) group, more will be its -
I-effect and stronger will be the acid. In the light of this, the increasing order of acidic strength is :
(CH3)2CHCOOH< CH3CH2CH2COOH < CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH < CH3CH2CH(Br) COOH
(iii) We have learnt that the electron donating group (OCH3) decreases the acidic strength of the
benzoic acid. At the same time, the electron withdrawing group (N02) increases the same. Keeping
this in mind, the increasing order of acidic strength is:
20.Write structures of compounds A, B and C in each of the following reactions: [3M]
Ans-
A = Ethanal
B = 3-Hydroxybutanal (Aldol)
C = But-2-enal
21. Give names of the reagents to bring about the following transformations: (any five) [5M]
(i) Hexan-1-ol to hexanal (ii) Cyclohexanol to cyclohexanone
(iii) p-Fluorotoluene to p-fluorobenzaldehyde (iv) Ethanenitrile to ethanol
(v) Allyl alcohol to propenal (vi) But-2-ene to ethanal
Ans-
(i) C5H5NH+CrO3Cl- (PCC) (ii) Anhydrous CrO3
(iii) CrO3 in the presence of acetic anhydride/ 1. CrO2Cl2 2. HOH
(iv) (Diisobutyl) aluminium hydride (DIBAL-H) (v) PCC (vi) O3/H2O-Zn dust
22.Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds.
(Attend Any Five) [5M]
(i) PropanalandPropanone
(ii) Acetophenone and Benzophenone
(iii) Phenol and Benzoic acid
(iv) Benzoic acid and Ethyl benzoate
(v) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one
(vi) Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone.
(vii) Ethanal and Propanal
pg. 31
Ans:
23. Complete each synthesis by giving missing starting material, reagent or products. (any five) [5M]
pg. 32
Ans-
***
Prepared by- Sridhar Panigrahi, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Pungar, Semiliguda
pg. 33
AMINES
SYLLABUS→Amines: Nomenclature, classification, structure, methods of preparation, physical and

chemical properties, uses, identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Diazonium salts: Preparation, chemical reactions and importance in synthetic organic chemistry.
MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS (1 MARK EACH)

1. Which one of the following is most basic?
(a) Benzylamine (b) p-Methoxyaniline (c) p-nitroaniline (d) Aniline
2. Aniline on treatment with excess of bromine-water gives
(a) Aniline bromide (b) o-bromoaniline (c) p-bromoaniline (d) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline
3. Primary amines can be distinguished from secondary and tertiary amines by reacting with
(a) Chloroform and alc. KOH (b) Methyl iodide (c) Chloroform alone (d) Zinc dust
4. Which of the following reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to form the product soluble in KOH?
(a) CH3NHCH2CH3 (b) CH3CH2NH2 (c) (CH3)3N (d) CH3NH3+Cl-
5. Which of the following statements concerning methylamine is correct?
(a) Methylamine is stronger base than NH3 (b) Methylamine is less basic than NH3
(c) Methylamine is slightly acidic (d) Methylamine forms salts with alkali
6. What compound is formed when hydrogen gas is passed through nitrobenzene in the presence of
finely divided nickel?
(a) 3-Nitroaniline (b) 2-Nitroaniline (c) Aniline (d) 4-Nitroaniline
7. Assertion: Solubility of amines in water increases with increase in molar mass.
Reason: Intermolecular hydrogen bonding becomes weaker in higher amines due to increase in
hydrophobic effect of carbon.
Assertion.
8. Assertion: Ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not a suitable method for the preparation of pure
primary amines.
Reason: Ammonolysis of alkyl halides yields mainly secondary amines.
Assertion.
Ans: 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4.(b) 5.(a) 6.(c) 7. (d) 8. (c)
SHORT ANSWER TYPE-I QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS (2 MARKS EACH)
9. Give reasons for the following:
(a) þ-methylaniline is more basic than þ-nitroaniline.
(b) Although —NH2 is ortho-para directing group, yet aniline on nitration gives a significant
amount of m-nitroaniline.
Ans: (a) It is because methyl group is electron releasing, whereas nitro group is electron
withdrawing.
(b) Because of nitration in an acidic medium, aniline gets protonated to give anilinium ion which is
m-directing.
10. How will you bring about the following conversions:
(i) Nitrobenzene to Phenol
(ii) Aniline to Chlorobenzene
pg. 34
Ans:
11. Give Reasons for the following:

(a) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(b) Primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines.
Ans: (a) It is because C6H5NH2 is basic, reacts with Lewis acid AlCl3 to form salt.
(b) Due to presence of two H-atoms on N-atom of primary amines, they form intermolecular H-bond
while tertiary amines due to the absence of H-atom on the N-atom, do not form H- bond.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE-II QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS (3 MARKS EACH)
12. How will you convert the following:
(i) Nitrobenzene into aniline
(ii) Ethanoic acid into methanamine
(iii) Aniline into N-phenylethanamide
(Write the chemical equations involved.)
Ans:
13.
Ans:
pg. 35
14. How are the following conversions carried out:
(i) Aniline to Iodobenzene
(ii) Ethyl nitrile to Ethyl amide
(iii) Benzene diazonium chloride to Benzonitrile
Ans:
CASE-BASED QUESTION WITH ANSWER [4 (1 + 1 + 2) MARKS]

15. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Amines are derivatives of ammonia in which one or more of the hydrogens has been replaced by
an alkyl or aryl group. For the naming of amines in the IUPAC system, the “e” ending of the alkane
name for the longest chain is replaced with –amine. The amine group is located by the position
number. Groups that are attached to the nitrogen atom are located using “N” as the position
number. More complex primary amines are named with —NH2 as the amino substituent. Aromatic
amines are named as derivatives of the parent compound aniline. Substituents attached to the
nitrogen are indicated by using “N-” as the location number.
(a) Write the IUPAC name of H2N-(CH2)5-NH2?
(b) Classify the following amines as primary, secondary and tertiary.
C6H5NHCH2CH3, C6H5CH2NH2, (CH3)3N
(c) Write IUPAC name of the followings:
(i) The amide which gives propanamine by Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
(ii) The amine produced by the Hoffmann degradation of benzamide.
[OR]
(c) (i) Write the IUPAC name of secondary amine having lowest molecular mass.
(ii) Give one use of quaternary ammonium salts.
Ans: (a) Pentane-1, 5-diamine
(b) C6H5NHCH2CH3: 2° amine, C6H5CH2NH2: 1° amine, (CH3)3N: 3° amine
(c) (i) Butanamide (ii) Aniline
[OR]
(c) (i) N- Methylmethanamine.
(ii) Quaternary ammonium salts are widely used for manufacture of synthetic detergents.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS (5 MARKS EACH)
16.
pg. 36
Ans:
17.
Ans:
18.
pg. 37
Ans:
(b) (i)
(ii) (CH3)2NH reacts with nitrous acid (HNO2) to form an oily layer of N-nitrosamines, which are
insoluble in aqueous mineral acids.
Whereas (CH3)3N reacts with nitrous acid to form soluble nitrite salts with no ppt.
***
Prepared by- Sashi Bhusana Mahapatra, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Tarabhatta, Borigumma
pg. 38
BIOMOLECULES
MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE QUESTIONS
1.Which of the followings is a disaccharide?
(a) Glucose (b) Starch (c) Sucrose (d) Cellulose
Ans. C
2. Ascorbic acid is the name of-
(a) A vitamin (b) An enzyme (c) An aminoacid (d) A hormone
Ans. a
3. Which of the followings is a monosaccharide
(a) Maltose (b) Fructose (c) Sucrose (d) Lactose
Ans. b
4. Enzymes are
(a) Proteins (b) Minerals (c) Oils (d) Fatty acids
Ans. a
5. Antibodies are –
(a) carbohydrates (b) Proteins (c) Lipids (d) Enzymes
Ans. b
6. The function of enzymes in the living system is to–
(a) Transport oxygen (b) Provide immunity
(c) Catalyze biochemical reactions (d) Provide energy
Ans. c
7. Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This
compound belongs to which of the following categories –
(a) A coenzyme (b) a hormone (c) an enzyme (d) An antibiotic
Ans. b
8. Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?
(a) Uracil (b) Cytosine (c) Guanine (d) Thymine
Ans. a
9. The nucleic acid base having two possible binding sites is –
(a) Thymine (b) cytosine (c) Guanine (d) Adenine
Ans. c
10. The human body does not produce –
(a) Enzymes (b) DNA (c) Vitamins (d) Hormones
Ans. c
11. The Pyrimidine bases present in DNA are –
(a) cytosine and adenine (b) cytosine and guanine
(c) cytosine and thymine (d) cytosine, thiamine and uracil
Ans. d
12. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?
(a) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin K (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin B
Ans. d
13. Cellulose is insoluble in –
(a) Ammoniacal cupric hydroxide solution (b) Organic solvents (c) Water (d) None
Ans. c
14. Proteins are polymers of amino acids. Which of the followings is not a protein?
(a) Wool (b) Nails (c) Hair (d) DNA
Ans. d
pg. 39
15. Sugars have the suffix
(a) –ol (b) –al (c) –ose (d) –one
Ans. c
16. Ribose is an example of
(a) Ketohexose (b) Disaccharide (c) Pentose (d) Polysaccharide
Ans. c
17.The main structural feature of protein is
(a) The ester linkage (b)The ether linkage (c)The peptide linkage (d)All of the these
Ans. c
18. Vitamin A is called –
(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Retinol (c) Calciferol (d) Tocopherol
Ans. b
19.The functional group which is found in amino acid is
(a) – COOH (b) – NH2 (c) – CH3 (d) both (a) and (b)
Ans. d
20. Which carbohydrate is an essential constituent of plant cells?
(a) Starch (b) Cellulose (c) Sucrose (d) Vitamins
Ans. b
ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements each: Assertion (A) and Reason (R), to answer these
questions mark the correct alternative as directed below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) Both A and R are false
1. Assertion (A): D (+) –glucose is dextrorotatory in nature.
Reason (R): ‘D’ represents its dextrorotatory nature.
Ans. c
2. Assertion (A): Vitamin D can be stored in our body.
Reason(R): Vitamin D is fat soluble vitamin.
Ans. a
3. Assertion (A): All naturally occurring α-amino acids except glycine are optically active.
Reason(R): Most naturally occurring amino acids have L-configuration.
Ans. b
4. Assertion (A): Glycine must be taken through diet.
Reason(R): It is a non-essential amino acid.
Ans. d
5. Assertion (A): Proteins are made up of α-amino acids.
Reason(R): During denaturation secondary and tertiary structures of proteins are destroyed.
Ans. c
6. Assertion (A): β-glycosidic linkage is present in maltose.
Reason(R): Maltose is composed of two glucose units in which C-1 of one glucose unit is linked to C-4 of
another glucose unit.
Ans. d
7. Assertion (A):Deoxyribose, C5H10O4 is a carbohydrate.
Reason(R): Carbohydrates are hydrates of carbon so compounds which follow C x(H2O)y formula are
carbohydrates.
Ans. c
pg. 40
8. Assertion(A): In presence of enzyme, substrate can be attacked by the reagent effectively.
Reason(R): Active sites of enzymes hold the substrate molecule in a suitable position.
Ans. a
9. Assertion(A): Reducing sugars undergo mutarotation.
Reason(R): During mutarotation, one pure anomer is converted into an equilibrium mixture of two
anomers.
Ans a
10. Assertion(A): A solution of sucrose in water is dextrorotatory but on hydrolysis in presence of little
hydrochloric acid, it becomes laevorotatory.
Reason(R): Sucrose on hydrolysis gives equal amounts of glucose and fructose as a result of which
change in sign of rotation is observed.
Ans c
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [2 MARK]
1.(a) What type of bonding helps in stabilizing the α-helix structure of proteins?
(b) What is the structural difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?
Ans. (a) Hydrogen bonding
(b) Nucleoside contains heterocyclic base and sugar, e.g. Adenosine. Nucleotide contains heterocyclic
base, sugar and phosphoric acid residue, e.g. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
2. Write the main structural difference between DNA and RNA. Of the two bases, Thymine and Uracil,
which one is present in DNA?
Ans.
DNA RNA
(i) It has double helix structure. (i) It has single helix structure.
(ii) It has deoxyribose sugar. (ii) It has ribose sugar.
(iii) It has A, T, C, G bases. (iii) It has A, U, C, G bases.
Thymine is present in DNA.
3. What are essential and non-essential amino acids in human food? Give one example of each type.
Ans. Essential amino acids: Those amino acids which are nit synthesized by our body are called
essential amino acids. They must be a part of our diet. Valine is an essential amino acids.
Non-essential amino acids: They are synthesized by our body. They are also called dispensable amino
acids, e.g. glycine.
4. Write any two reactions of glucose which cannot be explained by open chain structure.
Ans. (i) Glucose does not respond to Schiff’s reagent test.
(ii) It does not react with sodium bisulphite and ammonia.
5.(i)Which of the following two components of starch is water soluble?
(ii) What are the products of hydrolysis of sucrose?
Ans. (i) Amylose is water soluble component in starch.
(ii) Glucose and Fructose.
6. (i) What are the products of hydrolysis of maltose?
(ii)What type of bonding helps in stabilizing the α-helix structure of proteins?
Ans (i) 2 moles of Glucose.
(ii)H-bonding.
7. (i)Name the deficiency diseases resulting from lack of vitamins A and E in the diet?
(ii) What are biocatalysts? Give an example.
Ans(i) Night blindness, loss of reproduction power.
(ii) Those catalysts which catalyse biochemical reactions are called biochemical catalysts.
e.g. invertasecatalyseshydrolysys of cane sugar to form glucose and fructose.
pg. 41
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS [3 MARKS]
1. (i) which one of the following is disaccharide:
Starch, maltose, fructose, glucose?
(ii) What is the difference between acidic amino acid and basic amino acid?
(iii) Write the name of the linkage joining two nucleotides.
Ans. (i)Maltose
(ii) Acidic amino acid contains 2 carboxylic acid groups and 1 amino group. Basic amino acids
contain 2 amino and one –COOH group.
(iii) Phosphodiester linkage.
2. (i) Which one of the following is an oligosaccharide:
Starch, maltose, fructose, glucose?
(ii) Write the name of the disease caused by the deficiency of vitamin B1.
(iii) Which component of starch is a branched polymer of α-glucose and insoluble in water?
Ans. (i) Maltose
(ii) Beri-Beri
(iii)Amylopectin.
3. (i) What is the difference between fibrous protein and globular protein?
(ii) Write the name of vitamin whose deficiency causes bone deformities in children?
(iii) Write the difference between α-helix and β-pleated sheet structures of protein.
Ans. (i) Fibrous proteins have thread like structure and are insoluble in water.
Globular proteins form α-helix and are insoluble in water.
(ii) Vitamin D
(iii) α-helix structure has intra-molecular H-bonding in polypeptide chains of globular proteins
β-pleated structure has inter-molecular H-bonding between polypeptide chains of fibrous proteins.
4. What is glycogen? How is it different from starch? How is starch structurally different from
cellulose?
Ans. Glycogen is polysaccharide stored in animal body. It is also called animal starch. It is highly
branched.
Starch is also polysaccharide stored in plants. It has amylose (linear) and amylopectin which is highly
branched. Starch is branched chain polymer of α-glucose. Cellulose is a linear polymer of β-glucose. It is
present in cell walls of plants. It is not digested by human beings.
5. Define the following as related to proteins:
(i) Peptide linkage (ii) Primary structure
(iii) Denaturation
Ans. (i)Peptide linkage: Amino acids are joined together by –C –NH bond in proteins and polypeptides. It
is called peptide linkage.
(ii) Primary structure: The sequence of amino acids in proteins and polypeptides is called primary
structure. It involves peptide bonds.
(iii) Denaturation: When proteins areheatedor pH is changed, their tertiary structure is ruptured
and it loses biological activity. This process is called denaturation.
6. What is essentially the difference between α-glucose and β-glucose? What is meant by pyranose
structure of glucose?
Ans.
α-Glucose β-Glucose
(i) It has optical rotation of +111 .̊ (i) It has optical rotation of +19.2 .̊
(ii) Its melting point is 419 K. (ii) Its melting point is 423 K.
The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is called pyranose structure.
pg. 42
7. (i) What are three types of RNA molecules which perform different functions?
(ii) Amino acids show amphoteric behavior. Why?
(iii) Why cannot vitamin C be stored in our body?
Ans. (i)m-RNA (messenger RNA), r-RNA (ribosomal RNA), t-RNA (transfer RNA)
(ii) It is because they have acidic as well as basic group.
(iii) It is because vitamin C is soluble in water.
8. Define the following terms:
(i) Invert sugar (ii) Vitamins (iii) Anomers
Ans. (i) Invert sugar: It is a mixture containing equal amount of glucose and fructose.
(ii) Vitamins: Vitamins are the group of organic compounds which are required in very small amounts
for the healthy growth and functioning of organisms. They cannot be made by organisms and so have to
be part of our diet. The deficiency of a vitamin can cause a specific disease. Vitamin A, D, E and K are fat
soluble whereas vitamin B complex and vitamin C are water soluble.
(iii) Anomers: Those compounds which differ in orientation of –OH group on C-1 carbon atom are
called anomers, e.g. α-glucose and β-glucose.
***
PREPARED BY: CHANDAN KUMAR DAS, PGT CHEMISTRY, OAV PACHINGI, NARAYANPTNA.
pg. 43
EXAMINATION TIPS FOR STUDENTS
1. Self-motivation‐ Honestly write down your aim and all the desires in your life. It will propel you
towards success.
2. Set up a routine‐ Prepare smart and successful studying programme.
3. Find a quiet place, away from distractions and figure out time of the day you can contribute best
and that fits into your schedule.
4. Make a good time table‐A schedule of every subject should be made with different priorities like
tough subjects and the one in which you are week should be given more hours. Study at the same
place & at the same time every day.
5. Sit in an alert posture.
6. Stay healthy mentally and physically get adequate rest, exercise and balanced nutrition.
7. Manage distractions like mobile phones, friends, social media, TV, video games, surfing etc. which
are biggest time drains.
8. Avoid doing “marathon” session (i.e. larger than 1 hour) as it is least productive. Our attention
span ranges from 30‐60 minute.
9. Unwind and relax‐ 10 to 15 minute break after every study session.
10. Study difficult topics first. When mentally fresh, brain can process information more quickly.
Short term planning is more achievable than long term plans.
11. Don't spend more than three days a week in coaching/tuition as self-study is the only real study.
Therefore, ensure at least four days in a week for uninterrupted self-study.
12.Prepare a competitive study group‐ share useful concepts and questions, your knowledge, skills
and resources, clarify doubts, take help of a friend who is an expert in that topic/unit.
13. Give yourself enough time to study. Don’t leave until the last minute. Use flow charts & mind
maps.
14. Test yourself before actual test –practice previous year's examination papers.
15. Review clear doubts revise‐ attempt questions of textbook and previous year CBSE papers.
16. NIGHT BEFORE THE EXAMINATION:
(i) Don't cram.
(ii) Reduce stress and anxiety, avoid stressful friends, relax, eat some brain snacks, sleep, and review
main points.
(iii) Prepare to be prepared: before going to bed before an exam make sure to collect everything
that you will need for exam – stationery, admit card, wrist watch etc.
(iv) Ensure location of exam centre.
17. ON THE EXAMINATION DAY:
Leave home in time and ensure your arrival at examination centre in time, so that you go into your
examination calmly rather than in a frantic rush sweaty.
18. DURING THE EXAMINATION:
(i) Focus on your exam and not on what other students are doing.
(ii) Start strategically, begin your exam by skimming through the question paper quickly and note
down any initial thoughts or related memorised facts beside each question.
(iii) Start with the question you know best. This will boost your confidence and give you a good
start.
(iv) Read the instructions carefully and follow.
(v) Answer as per marking scheme.
(vi) Write neat and present well.
(vii) Attempt the easiest part and the units you are most confident. Manage time so that time can be
allotted to difficult portion.
(viii) Attempt complete question paper.
(ix) Never cheat
(x) Review and make sure you have not left out any question unattempted.
•••Chase Your Goal••• All The Best…

Student Support Material XII Che

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Student Support Material XII Che

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Student Support Material XII Che

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

2023-24

STUDENT SUPPORT MATERIAL

1. Sashi Bhusana Mahapatra, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Tarabhatta, Borigumma

3. Abhinash Patra, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Kotpad

4. Sandhyarani Panigrahi, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Jayantigiri, Jeypore

5. Priyanka Das, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Messingput, Lamptaput

6. Aditya Prasad Dalai, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Pottangi

7. Chandan Kumar Das, PGT Chemistry, OAV, Pachingi, Narayanptna

8. Bandana Garnaik, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Gaudoguda, Laxmipur

9. Vivekananda Sahu, PGT Chemistry, OAV Gundal, Kundra

10. Sridhar Panigrahi, PGT-Chemistry, OAV, Pungar, Semiliguda

3. The molarity of pure water is:

6. Relative lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative property because_________.

8. Find the molality of 20% urea solution.

Section C: Short Answer type questions. (Each question carries 3 Marks)

Section D: Case-Based Questions. (Each Question carries 4 Marks = 1+1+1+1 )

i. State the law associated?

iii. Why in high altitudes cause anoxia to climbers?

5. The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of MnO4– to MnO2 is

22.(a) Define the following :

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

Experiment [A]/M [B]/M Initial rate of formation of C/M min-1

(a) Find the order of reaction with respect to A and B.

(a) Catalyst alters the rate

(b) Molecularity (ii) proper orientation is not there always

(c) Second half life of first

(d) e-Ea/RT (iv) is same as the first

(e) Energetically favorable

(f) Area under the

1. Which of the following ion has maximum number of unpaired electrons?

Due to presence of one unpaired electrons in d orbitals the complex is paramagnetic.

The number of geometrical isomers are two.

(ii) is less reactive when compared to because in chlorocylohexane,

(i) 2-Chloro-5-hydroxyhexane (ii) 2-Hydroxy-5-chlorohexane

Ans: (iii) is the answer.

10. Explain the following with an example. [3M]

iii) Williamson ether synthesis:

11.Write equations of the following reactions: [3M]

Step (2) Nucleophilic attack of water

13. (i) How will you convert: Propene to propan-2-ol? [3M]

16. Write the equations involved in the following reactions : [2M]

20.Write structures of compounds A, B and C in each of the following reactions: [3M]

SYLLABUS→Amines: Nomenclature, classification, structure, methods of preparation, physical and

MULTIPLE CHOICE TYPE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS (1 MARK EACH)

11. Give Reasons for the following:

CASE-BASED QUESTION WITH ANSWER [4 (1 + 1 + 2) MARKS]

•••Chase Your Goal••• All The Best…

You might also like