QUESTION AND ANSWER IN CRIMINAL PROCEDURE

1. Whenever possible, a complainant or information, should state the designation given to the offense by the
statute, besides the statement of the acts or omissions constituting the same, and if there is no such
designation, reference should be made to the section or subsection of the law or statute violated. The
purpose of this is:
a. To accord the constitutional guaranty that no person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property
without due process of law.
b. To accord a speedy trial of the case.
c. To accord the accused of a good criminal trial lawyer
d. To limit the criminal prosecution to one offense.

2. Which of the following is one purpose of the requirement under Section, Rule 110, that is, “The acts or
omissions complained of as constituting the offense must be stated in ordinary and concise language
without repetition, not necessarily in the terms of the statute and defining the offense, but in such form as is
sufficient to enable a person of common understanding to know what offense is intended to be charged,
and enable the court to pronounce proper judgment.?”
a. To accord a speedy trial of the case.
b. Constitutional guarantees that in all criminal prosecutions the accused shall be entitled
to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation.
c. To enable the court to weigh the sufficiency of the evidence presented.
d. To accord the accused a good criminal trial lawyer.

3. Section 10, Rule 110, itself pointed out the exception to the rule that the information need not specify the
exact place of the commission of the offense. The exception is:
a. When the particular place wherein the offense was committed.
b. When it involves the continuing offense.
c. When it involves a complex crime.
d. All of the foregoing

4. It is not necessary to state in the complaint or information the precise time at which the offense was
committed. However, in one of the following crimes time of the commission is an essential element, and
therefore, must be alleged in the complaint or information.
a. Infanticide b. Abortion c. Malicious Mischief d. Piracy

5. A complaint or information must state the name or surname of the persons against whom or against
whose property the offense was committed, or any appellation or nickname by which such person has
been or is known, and if there is no better way of identifying him, he must be described under what name?
a. His physical description c. His family or surname alone
b. Fictitious name d. All of the foregoing

6. A complaint or information must charge but one offense, except only in those cases in which existing laws
prescribe a single punishment for various offense. Which of the following belong to the exception?
a. Complex crime b. Continuing crime c. Piracy d. Impossible crime

7. Where an offense is committed on a railroad train, in an aircraft, or in other public or private vehicle while in
the course of its trip, the criminal action may be instituted and tried in the court of:
a. The Municipality where such train, aircraft or other vehicle passed during such trip.
b. The Municipality where such train, aircraft or other vehicle has departed during such trip.
c. The Municipality where such train, aircraft or other vehicle has arrived during such trip.
d. All of the foregoing

8. When a criminal action is instituted, the civil action for the recovery of civil liability arising from the offense
charged is impliedly instituted with the criminal action, unless the offended party:
a. Expressly waives the criminal action. c. All of the foregoing
b. Or reserves his right to institute it separately d. None of them

9. After the criminal action has been commenced, the civil action cannot be instituted until:
a. The offended party has put up a bond.
b. Final judgment has been rendered in the criminal action.
c. The offender dies.
d. All of the foregoing

10. The general rule is that every person criminally liable for a felony is also civilly liable. There are, however,
certain crimes, which do not give, rise to civil liability. Among these rules are:
a. Crimes of espionage d. Crimes against popular representation
b. Flight to enemy country e. All of the foregoing
c. Violation of neutrality
11. Extinction of the penal action does not carry with extinction of the civil action, unless:
a. The extinction proceeds from a declaration in a final judgment that the fact from which the
civil might arise did not exist.
b. The extinction did not proceed from a declaration in a final judgment that the fact from which the
civil might arise did not exist.
c. The extinction proceeds from a declaration in a final judgment that the fact from which the civil
might arise did exist.
d. None of the above

12. It is a question of fact or issue in a pending civil case similar or intimately connected to the issue raised in
a pending criminal action whereby the resolution of the civil action is determinative of the guilt or
innocence of the accused in a criminal case.
a. Prejudicial question b. Political question c. Civil question d. All of the foregoing

13. It is defined as an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground
to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has been committed and that the respondent is
probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
a. Preliminary investigation c. Interrogation
b. Criminal investigation d. Criminal prosecution

14. For what offense where a preliminary investigation is required to be conducted?

a. When a person is lawfully arrested without a warrant.
b. For an offense where the penalty prescribed by law is at least four (4) years, two (2) months
and one (1) day without regard to fine.
c. For any offense when an inquest prosecutor is available.
d. All of the above

15. In what instance when a prosecutor without need of a preliminary investigation may file a complaint or
information provided an inquest has been conducted in accordance with existing rules?
a. When a person is lawfully arrested without a warrant involving an offense, which requires a
preliminary investigation.
b. For an offense where the penalty prescribed by law is at least four (4) years, two (2) months and
one (1) day.
c. For any offense when an inquest prosecutor is absent or not available
d. All of the above

16. The required number of days in which the accused may ask for a preliminary investigation with the same
right to adduce evidence in his favor, if the case has been filed in court without preliminary investigation
having been first conducted.
a. Within five (5) days from the time he learns of the filing of the information.
b. Within ten (10) days from the time he learns of the filing of the information.
c. Within fifteen (15) days from the time he learns of the filing of the information.
d. Within thirty (30) days from the time he learns of the filing of the information.

17. Any lawyer or member of the bar, shall, at the request of the person arrested or of another acting in his
behalf, have the right to visit and confer privately with such person, in jail or any other place of custody at:
a. Any hour of the day or, in urgent cases of the night
b. Any hour of the working day only
c. Any hour of Saturdays and Sundays
d. Any hour of designated visiting day only

18. It is defined as the security given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by him or
a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions
specified by law.
a. Pardon b. Bail c. Probation d. Parole

19. Bail is the security given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by him or a bondsman
to guarantee his appearance before any court as required under the conditions hereinafter specified. In
effect, what would be the nature or form of the bail?
a. Corporate surety c. Cash deposit, or recognizance
b. Property bond d. All of the above

20. It is obligation of record, entered into the record of the court or magistrate a person in the community of
good reputation to do some particular act, the most usual condition in criminal cases being the
appearance of the accused for trial.
a. Recognizance b. Bail Bond c. Pardon d. Probation
21. Is the method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of a person who is accused of a crime
and for his punishment, whenever convicted?
a. Civil Procedure b. Criminal Procedure c. Rules of Court d. All of the above

22. The independent civil action may proceed separately and independently with the criminal action, which the
criminal action is based on the same act or omission of the defendant. Said civil actions are those
provided in the Civil Code:
a. Articles 32, 33, 34 c. All of the foregoing
b. Articles 2176 d. None of the foregoing

23. “A” married to “B”. During the existence of his marriage, A (husband) married “C”. B (1 st wife) filed a bigamy
case against “A”. Whereupon A filed a case for annulment of his marriage with C on the ground that he
was forced and intimidated by C to marry her. Here there exists in the civil action a:
a. Criminal question c. Prejudicial question
b. Civil question d. All of the above

24. In which of the following instances is a warrant of arrest not necessary?

a. If the accused is already under detention.
b. If the complaint or information was filed after the accused was lawfully arrested without warrant.
c. If the offense is punishable by fine.
d. All of the above

25. Any amendment before plea, which downgrades the nature of the offense or excludes any accused from
the complaint or information can be made only on condition that:
a. There must be a motion filed by the prosecutor.
b. There must be notice of the motion upon the offended party.
c. The amendment must be done with leave of court
d. All of the above

26. The ______ shall be in writing, in the name of the People of the Philippines against all person who appear
to be responsible for the offense involved, subscribed by the prosecutor and filed in court.
a. Complaint b. Information c. Civil Action d. Criminal Action

27. _____ Is a written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed b the offended party, any
peace officer, or other public office charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
a. Information b. Complaint c. Criminal case d. Civil case

28. It is the authority of the court to hear, try and decide a case.
a. Venue b. Jurisdiction c. All of the above d. None of the above

29. It is the municipality or province wherein the offense was committed or one of its essential elements took
place. It is the place of trial, in a criminal case.
a. Jurisdiction b. Venue c. None of the above d. All of the above

30. The venue in a criminal case may be changed by _____ to avoid a miscarriage of justice.
a. Agreement of parties’ b. Regional Trial Court c. Court of Appeals d. Supreme Court

31. As an exception to the rule that the filing of the criminal action carries with it the filing of the civil action for
the recovery of civil liability.
a. Offended party waives the civil action
b. Reserves the right to file it separately
c. Institutes the civil action prior to the criminal action
d. All of the above

32. A final judgment rendered in a civil action absolving the defendant is no bar to a _____ action.
a. Civil action b. Criminal action c. Special action d. All of the above

33. When a person is lawfully arrested without warrant of arrest involving an offense, which requires a
preliminary investigation, the complaint or information may be filed without need of such investigation,
provided an _____ has been conducted in accordance with existing law.
a. Preliminary Investigation c. Fact Finding Investigation
b. Preliminary Examination d. Inquest

34. A peace officer or a private person may, without a warrant, arrest a person;
a. When, in his presence, the person to be arrested is actually committing an offense.
b. Attempting to commit an offense
c. An offense has in fact just been committed and he has probable cause to believe based on
personal knowledge of fact and circumstance that the person to be arrested has committed it.
 d. When the person to be arrested is a prisoner who escaped from his place of confinement.
e. All of the above

35. Bail is a matter of right:

a. Before or after conviction by the lower court.
b. Before conviction by the Regional Trial Court of an offense not punishable by death, reclusion
perperua, life imprisonment.
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

36. This one right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is intended not to protect the guilty
but to prevent as far as human agencies can, the conviction of an innocent person.
a. The presumption of innocence
b. Right to be present and to defend himself at the trial
c. The right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
d. All of them

37. Under the rules, the defendant is entitled to be present and defend in person by an Attorney at every stage
of the proceedings, that is, from the arraignment to the promulgation of the judgment. This referred to the
Philippine Constitution as...
a. The right to be heard by himself and counsel
b. The right to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation
c. The right to testify as witness in his own behalf
d. The right against self-incrimination
e. All of them

38. It requires that the charges against a person should be stated in such a way as to enable him to know the
meaning and nature of the accusation against him.
a. Right to be present and to defend himself at the trial
b. Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
c. The right to testify as witness in his own behalf
d. The right against self-incrimination
e. All of the foregoing

39. A denial of his right when requested by the defendant himself or his counsel constitutes an error prejudicial
to the substantive right of the accused.
a. Right to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation
b. The right to testify as a witness in his own behalf
c. The right against self-incrimination
d. Right to be exempt from being compelled to be a witness against himself

40. One of the Constitutional rights, which may be defined as one that can be had as soon after indictment as
the prosecution can with reasonable diligent prepare for it, and is conducted according to fixed rules
and proceedings of law, free from vexations, capricious and oppressive delays.
a. Right to testify as a witness in his own behalf
b. Right to speedy trial
c. Right to have compulsory process issued to secure the Attendance of witnesses and
production of other evidence in his behalf
d. Right of appeal in all causes allowed and in the manner prescribed by law.

41. A requirement, which is considered as one of the safeguards, set down by law to secure and protect
the right of the defendant. It is made before the court where the complaint or information has been
filed or assigned for trial.
a. Trial b. Arraignment c. Prosecution d. Judgment

42. The requirement of the rules on arraignment is mandatory and failure to observe them is ground for...
a. Dismissal of the case
b. Reversal of the judgment and the remanding of the case for new trial
c. Appeal of the case
d. All of them

43. If the accused refuses to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty, __________________ shall be
entered for him. The blank space is.
a. A plea of guilty shall be entered for him
b. A plea of not guilty shall be entered for him
c. A combination of the first two
d. None of them
44. An instance when the accused may be allowed by trial court to plead guilty to a lesser offense, provided
the prosecution consents and with the approval of the court:
a. When accused turns himself as a state witness
b. Plea bargaining
c. When the accused has less perversity in the commission of the crime charged
d. All of the above

45. In localities where no such members of the bar are available during the arraignment, who shall be
appointed by the court as Counsel de Officio of the accused?
a. The local Chief of Police
b. The Vice Mayor of the locality
c. Any person, resident of the province and of good repute for probity and ability, to defend the
accused
d. All of the above

46. When shall arraignment be held?

a. Within 30 days from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused, unless a
shorter period is provided by special law or Supreme Court Circular
b. Not later than 30 days from the date court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused,
unless a shorter period is provided by special law or Supreme Court Circular
c. 30 days after the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused, unless provided
by special law or Supreme Court Circular
d. All of the above

47. Something for the accused to move, for him to enable to properly plead and prepare for trial.
This motion shall specify the alleged effects of the complaint or information and the details desired.
a. Demurer of Evidence c. Dismissal of the case
b. Bill of particulars d. Motion for a preliminary investigation

48. Which of the following is the duty of the court when the accused pleads guilty to a capital offense?
a. The court shall conduct a searching inquiry into the voluntariness and full comprehension of
the consequences of his plea and require the prosecution to prove his guilt and the
precise degree of culpability and also allow the accused to present his defense, if any.
b. To order the investigating officer to conduct air tight investigation of the case
c. To redirect the fiscal to personally investigate the case
d. To sentence the accused in accordance with his plea of guilty to the capital offense charged with a
note address to the Supreme Court that the case should be reviewed.

49. The right to counsel is a personal one and therefore may be waived. It is waived when the defendant....
a. Voluntarily submits himself to the jurisdiction of the court and proceeds with the defense
b. Refuses to voluntarily submits himself to the jurisdiction of the court
c. Refuses to hire his counsel
d. All of them

50. Time granted to counsel de officio to consult with the accused as to his plea before proceeding with the
arraignment
a. At least one-hour c. One day
b. Two hours d. Given a reasonable time to consult with the accused as to his plea

51. After a plea of not guilty, the accused is entitled to such number of days to prepare for trial unless the
court for good cause grants him further time.
a. Fifteen days b. Four days c. One day d. Three days

52. If the accused appears to be suffering from an unsound mental condition, which effectively renders him
unable to fully understand the charge against him and to plead intelligently...
a. The arraignment shall be suspended
b. The criminal charged shall be dismissed
c. The trial shall be suspended
d. All of them

53. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information?
a. At any time before his arrest c. At any time before entering his plea
b. Only after entering his plea d. All of them

54. In the case above mentioned, if the defendant does not move to quash the complaint or information at the
appropriate time, he shall be deemed to have waived all objections which are grounds for a motion to
quash. The only exceptions to this rule are...
a. When the information fails to charge an offense
 b. When the court is without jurisdiction over the offenses charged
c. That the criminal action or liability has been extinguished
d. The accused had been previously convicted or acquitted of the offense charged
e. g

55. It means that a person is charged with an offense and the case is terminated either by acquittal or
conviction, or in any other manner without the consent of the accused, the latter cannot be
charged with the same identical offense.
a. Ex post facto law c. Complex crimes
b. Double jeopardy d. Indeterminate Sentence Law

56. The failure of the accused to assert any ground of a motion to quash before he pleads to the
complaint or information, either because he did not file a motion to quash or failed to allege the same
in said motion, shall be deemed a waiver of the grounds of a motion to quash, except...
a. The grounds of no offense charged
b. Lack of jurisdiction
c. Extinction of the offense or penalty
d. Double jeopardy
e. All of the foregoing

57. A warrant which describes the persons to be arrested as mere “John Doe” or “Richard Doe” is void, unless
there is such things as will justify to act under it.
a. Descriptio personae c. Personal identification
b. Physical appearance d. By substitution of the person to be arrested

58. Has no authority to issue a warrant of arrest, and is powerless to validate an illegal detention by merely
filing information or by any other order of his own, either express or implied.

a. Judges of Municipal Trial Courts c. Judges of Municipal Trial Circuit Courts

b. Fiscal/Prosecutor d. Judges of Regional Trial Courts

59. An officer making an arrest has no right to confiscate any object found in the possession of the
party arrested unless…
a. The object found in his possession was used in the commission of the crime
b. Was the fruit of the crime
c. Which might furnish the person arrested with the means of committing violence or escaping
d. All of the foregoing

60. The required number of days where in the head of the office to whom the warrant of arrest has
been delivered for execution shall cause the warrant to be executed.
a. Within five days from the receipt thereof
b. Within ten days from receipt thereof
c. Within fifteen days from receipt thereof
d. Within twenty days from receipt thereof

61. A peace officer by virtue of a warrant of arrest may execute it and make an arrest on….
a. Day time only, from 8am to 5pm
b. Any day and at any time of the day or night
c. Any day and any time of the day
d. Any working day only and at any time

62. The power of a private person to arrest without warrant must be exercised, or else it would be an excuse
for violation of the individual liberties guaranteed in the Constitution.
a. Civic mindedness c. Agent of person in authority
b. Utmost good faith d. All of the foregoing

63. A private person making the arrest may orally summon a private person to aid him in making the arrest
This is:
a. True c. Partly true
b. False d. Not applicable

64. Any lawyer or member of the bar, shall, at the request of the person arrested or of another acting in his
behalf, have the right to visit and confer privately with such person, in jail or any other place of custody at….
a. Any hour of the day or, in urgent cases, of the night
b. Any hour of the working day only
c. Any hour of Saturdays and Sundays
d. Any hour of the designated visiting day only
65. May be defined as the security given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by him or
a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions
specified by law.
a. Pardon b. Bail c. Probation d. Parole

66. Bail is the security given to for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by him or a
bondsman, to guarantee his appearance before any court as required under the conditions
hereinafter specified. In effect, what would be the nature or form of the bail?
a. Corporate surety c. Cash deposit, or recognizance
b. Property bond d. All of the above

67. When may a person in custody be admitted to bail as a matter or right?

a. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan Trial Court, Municipal Trial Court, Municipal Trial
Court in Cities, or Municipal Circuit Trial Court
b. Before conviction by the RTC of an offense not punishable by death, reclusion perpetua, or life
imprisonment
c. All of the above
d. Letter “A” only

68. It is an obligation of record, entered into before some court or magistrate duly authorized to take it, with
the condition to do some particular act, the most usual condition in criminal cases being the
appearance of the accused for trial.
a. Recognizance b. Bail bond c. Pardon d. Probation

69. All person in custody shall be entitled to bail as a matter of right, except those charged with a capital
offense when the evidence of guilt, thereof is strong. In these cases, since bail is a matter of right, the
granting of the same is…
a. Discretionary on the part of the court c. Ministerial in nature
b. Mandatory d. All of the foregoing

70. It being discretionary, the application for a bail will be filed and acted upon by what court despite the filing
of a notice of appeal, provided it has not transmitted the original record to the appellate court?
a. Appellate Court b. Trial court c. Supreme Court d. all of them

71. If the decision of the Trial Court convicting the accused changed the nature of the offense from non-
bailable, what court can the bail be applied with, and who shall resolve it?
a. Appellate Court b. Trial Court c. Supreme Court d. All of them

72. Under Section 12 of the Rules of Summary Procedure, no bail shall be required in cases of violations of
traffic laws, rules and regulations: violations of rental law; violations of Municipal or City Ordinance,
etc…except when a warrant of arrest is issued in accordance with Section 10, or where the accused…
a. Is a recidivist
b. Is fugitive from justice
c. Is charged with physical injuries
d. Does not reside in the place where the violation of the law or ordinance was committed, or has no
known residence
e. All of the foregoing

73. May be defined as undertaking constituted as a lien on the real property given as security for the amount of
the bail….
a. Recognizance b. Collateral property c. Property bond d. All of them

74. An instance when the accused held to answer a criminal charge but who is released without bail on the
filing of complaint or information, may, at any subsequent stage of the proceedings, be required to give bail in
the amount fixed, or in lieu thereof may be committed to the custody.
a. Whenever it appears to the court that evidence of guilt is strong
b. He commits the same or another offense charge
c. He committed a capital offense
d. All of them

75. Upon application filed with the court and after due notice to the fiscal, the bail bond may be cancelled upon
surrender of the accused or proof of his death. On the other hand, the bail bond shall be deemed
automatically cancelled upon…
a. Acquittal of the accused b. Dismissal of the case
b. Execution of the final judgment of conviction d. All of the foregoing

76. One exception to the rule that, no bail shall be allowed after judgment has become final; or when the
accused may be allowed temporary liberty under his bail bond.
 a. In case the accused has applied for probation
b. In case he is pardon by the President
c. When amnesty is granted by the President
d. All of the foregoing

77. Under the rules, the defendant is entitled to be present and defend in person by an Attorney at every stage
of the proceedings. That is, from the arraignment to the promulgation of the judgment. This referred to
the Philippine Constitution as…
a. The right to be heard by himself and counsel
b. The right to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation
c. The right to testify as witness in his own behalf
d. The right against self-incrimination
e. All of them

78. The general rule is that a case shall not be provisionally dismissed. However, one of the following is an
exception to the general rule, and that is....
a. When the accused dies before the final judgment of the case
b. When the accused is expressly pardoned by the offended party
c. With the express consent of the accused and with notice to the offended party
d. All of the above

79. The legal effect if there is a provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 6
years or a fine of any amount, or both.
a. Without the consent of the offender, the provisional dismissal of such offense will be void ab initio
b. Such dismissal shall be valid, either with or without the express consent of the accused
c. Such dismissal shall become permanent 1 year after issuance of the order without the case
having been revived
d. All of the above

80. In this jurisdiction, only one offense must be charged in an information, except:
a. Complex crime
b. When a single act constitute two or more grave or less felonies
c. When an offense is a necessary means in committing the other felonies
d. All of the above

81. It is the process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually
satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval.
a. Pre-trial b. Plea bargaining c. Preliminary investigation d. Arraignment

82. It is a conference conducted by the court where the accused and counsel agree on the matter of plea-
bargaining, stipulation of facts, marking of evidence, waiver of objections to admissibility of evidence, such
other matters as will promote a fair and expeditious trial.
a. Arraignment b. Pre-trial c. Preliminary investigation d. Trial

83. It is defined as the examination before a competent tribunal/court, according to the laws of the land, of the
facts in issue in a cause, for the purpose of determining such issue.
a. Trial b. Pre-trial c. Arraignment d. All of the above

84. When the court is satisfied, upon proof of oath, that a material witness will not testify when required, it may
upon the motion of either party order the witness to:
a. To be discharged
b. To be included in the information
b. To post bail in such sum as ordered by the court
c. All of the above

85. The prosecution is required to present evidence and the sworn statement of each proposed state witness
at the hearing in support of the discharge. Thus, the motion to discharge the accused to be state witness must
be filed:
a. Before the prosecution rests c. Before arraignment
b. Before the presentation of evidence d. None of the above

86. The legal effect if and when all agreements, made during the pre-trial conference, which are reduced in
writing, are not signed by the accused and his counsel.
a. Considered as admission of guilt c. The court shall order for another pre-trial
b. Cannot be used against the accused d. All of the above

87. One instance when the court, may motu propio, excludes the public from the courtroom.
a. If evidence to be produced during the trial is offensive to decency or morality.
 b. If the accused is a woman of good reputation.
b. All of the foregoing
c. None of the above

88. When after the prosecution has rested its case, the accused files a motion to dismiss the case on the
ground of insufficiency of evidence, he waives the right to present evidence. The rule is known as:
a. Summary proceeding b. Bill of particular c. Demurer to evidence d. All of the above

89. The legal effect if there is provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by imprisonment of more than 6
years.
a. The provisional dismissal shall become permanent 2 years after issuance of the order
without the case having been revived
b. Such dismissal shall become permanent 1 year after issuance of the order without the case having
been revived
c. Such dismissal shall be valid, either with or without consent of the accused
d. All of the above

90. The number of days the accused has to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered.
a. Within 30 days b. At least 15 days c. Within 45 days d. All of the above

91. The time when trial shall commence.

a. Within 30 days from the receipt of the pre-trial order
b. Within 15 days from the receipt of the pre-trial order
c. Within 45 days from the receipt of the pre-trial order
d. All of the above

92. The authority of the court when satisfied, upon proof or oath, that a material witness will not testify when
required, upon motion of either party.
a. May proceed to the trial of the case
b. May order the witness to post bail in such sum as may be deemed proper
c. Shall commit him to prison until he complies or is legally discharged after his testimony has been
taken
d. All of the above

93. One instance when the court, may motu propio, excludes the public from the courtroom.
a. If the evidence to be produced during the trial is of such character as to be offensive to
decency or public morals
b. If the accused is a woman of good reputation
c. If the accused is an Ambassador
d. All of the foregoing

94. As used in Rule 120, it means the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the
offense charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
a. Judgment b. Interlocutory c. Acquittal d. Sentence

95. From the provision of Section 1, Rule 120 it would seem that in a judgment of acquittal, the court has...
a. Authority to impose a reprimand d. Authority to call a conference with both
b. No authority to impose a reprimand prosecutor and defense counsel
c. All of the foregoing

96. In case of acquittal, the judgment shall make a finding on the civil liability of the accused in favor of the
offended party, except when...
a. There is a clear showing that the act from which the civil liability might arise
did not exist
b. There is a prejudicial question
c. The offender is pardon by the offended party
d. The guilty party dies before judgment

97. The indemnity, which a person is sentenced to pay, forms an integral part of the penalty, it being expressly
provided by Article 100 of the Revised Penal Code, that every person criminally liable is.
a. Civilly liable b. Not civilly liable c. Presumed to be innocent d. All of them

98. It is said to exist when the complaint or information sets out an offense but the evidence establishes
another crime.
a. Complex crimes b. Variance c. Continuing offense d. False accusation

99. In case of variance between information and proof, the accused can only be convicted of the...
a. Graver offense which is included in the other
 b. Lesser offense which is included in the other
c. Mitigating circumstances
d. Aggravating circumstances

100. Where the offense charged does not include the offense proved, it matters not how conclusive and
convincing the evidence or guilt may be, an accused person cannot be convicted in any court of any offense
unless...
a. The accused is charged of a complex crimes
b. It is charged in the information on which he is tried or necessarily included therein
c. The accused is recidivist
d. All of them

101. This takes place when the Clerk of Court enters final judgment in accordance with the order of the court
and when judgment is thus entered, it is legally promulgated.
a. Rendering of the judgment c. Legal promulgation of the judgment
b. Pronouncing of the judgment d. Entry of Judgment

102. Under Section 6 of the Rule 120 of the Rules of Court, a judgment of acquittal is validly promulgated after
the Clerk of Court has entered it in the criminal docket and the defendant served with a copy thereof. The
presence of the defendant is not necessary where the judgment is one of:
a. Conviction of grave offense c. Conviction of a light offense
b. Acquittal d. All of them

103. A judgment becomes final after the lapse of the period for...
a. Perfecting an appeal
b. Presentation of evidence by the prosecution
c. Presentation of evidence by the defense counsel
d. All of them

104. It portrays a proceeding whereby errors of law or irregularities are expunged from the record, or new
evidence is introduced, or both steps are taken in __________ by the nature of its purpose and what is to be
done, both parties have to intervene. The blank space is known as:
a. New Trial b. Motion for Reconsideration c. Trial d. All of them

105. It contemplates of no new hearing or proceeding of any kind except to seek a change in the judgment
already accomplished but only on the basis of what is already in the record.
a. New Trial b. Motion for Reconsideration c. Trial d. Appeal

106. A motion for new trial should be filed at any time within fifteen days from the promulgation of a judgment
of conviction that is...
a. Before the appeal is perfected c. After the appeal is perfected
b. After the final entry of a judgment of conviction d. All of the above

107. Where the appeal has been perfected, the motion for new trial should be presented to the appellate court,
because once an appeal is perfected, the trial court...
a. Still retains its power to set aside the judgment rendered by it or to grant a new trial
b. Loses its power to set aside the judgment rendered by it to grant a new trial
c. All of the above
d. None of them

108. The prosecution cannot appeal from a judgment of conviction to increase the penalty because:
a. The accused would be placed in double jeopardy
b. The prosecution can ask that the judgment be set aside
c. The prosecution can ask for reopening of the case
d. All of them

109. Appeal by “either party” as used in the law has been interpreted to mean...
a. Only the government and the accused
b. Other persons who may be affected by the judgment rendered in the criminal proceedings
c. B only
d. All of the above

110. The period for appeal from final orders, resolutions, awards judgments or decisions of any court in all
cases shall be...
a. 15 counted from the notice of the final order, resolution, award, judgment or decision appealed from
b. Within 15 days from the notice of the final order, resolution, award, judgment or decision
appealed from
 c. 15 days after the notice of the final order, resolution, award, judgment or decision appealed from
d. 15 days before the notice of the final order, resolution, award, judgment or decision appealed from

111. Corollary to the item above mentioned, when will the period for perfecting an appeal be interrupted?
a. After the time a motion for a new trial or reconsideration is filed until notice of the order
overruling the motion shall have been served upon the accused or his counsel
b. After denial of the motion for new trial or reconsideration
c. Before the time a motion for a new trial or reconsideration is filed until notice of the order overruling
the motion shall have been served upon the accused or his counsel
d. None of them

112. Supposing the judge rendered an oral decision. It may either be for conviction, acquittal or dismissal. The
oral decision will never become final because:
a. It was not in writing; d. A only
b. Not signed by the judge who rendered it; e. B only
c. The judge can still change or modify it; f. All of the above

113. Judgment is valid and binding when:

a. Duly signed by a judge; d. C only
b. Filed with the Clerk of Court e. B only
b. Promulgated during the incumbency of the judge who signed it; f. All of the above

114. X was charged with frustrated homicide. During the arraignment, he pleaded not guilty. Immediately after
he gave his plea of not guilty, the victim died. So X was arraigned again, this time, for homicide. When
arraigned for homicide, X moved to quash the homicide case on the ground of double jeopardy. Is X contention
correct? No because:
a. The second offense did not yet exist at the time of the first prosecution for frustrated
homicide;
b. No possibility for him to be convicted for non-existing crime, which supervened after
being charged for frustrated homicide;
c. B only
d. All of the above

115. X was charged with murder but during the trial, the offense proved was homicide only. What would be the
decision of the judge?
a. Murder because this is the offense charged; c. No decision
b. Homicide for being included in the offense charged; d. All of the above

116. Supposing, the charge is for homicide but the offense proved is murder. The decision of the judge would
be:
a. Convicted for murder because it is the offense proved;
b. Homicide for a person cannot be convicted of a greater offense than that charged;
c. “A” only
d. All of the above

117. Exclusion and separation of witnesses on any trial or hearing, the judge may exclude from the court any
witness not at the time under examination, except:
a. Party in action; e. One who is party in-interest
b. Against expert witness; f. A & B only
c. Rebuttal witness; g. All of the above
d. Agent of the parties;

118. The court shall consider no evidence, which has not been formally offered. The purpose for which the
evidence is offered must be specified. When shall offer of evidence be made? As regards the testimony of
witness, the offer must be made at the time_____a____; as to documentary and object evidence, the offer
shall be made: ___b____.
a. The witness is called to testify;
b. After the presentation of a party’s testimonial evidence;
c. Fill out the blanks with the correct answer

119. Promulgation of judgment in the RTC and inferior courts shall be made as follows:
a. The Clerk of Court rendering the judgment shall give notice to the accused;
b. Reading of the judgment in the presence of the accused and any judge of the court in
which it was rendered; d. C only
c. Service of the decision by mail; e. A & B only

120. Promulgation of the judgment in the Supreme Court and Court of Appeal shall be made:
 a. By filing the judgment with the Clerk of Court of the appellate court;
b. Presence of the accused is required;
c. The Clerk of Court shall make certified true copies of the judgment to be served upon the
parties by registered mail; e. A only
d. B only f. A & C only

120. The rule is, the Constitution bars State intrusions to a person’s body, personal effects or residence except
if conducted by virtue of a valid search warrant issued. However, warrantless searches and seizures is legally
allowed in:
a. Search of moving vehicle; f. Customs searches;
b. Seizure in plain view; g. All of the above
b. Stop and frisk situation (Terry search)
c. Search incidental to a lawful arrest
d. Waiver or consent searches;

121. It is a doctrine usually applied where a police officer is not searching for evidence against the accused,
but nonetheless inadvertently comes across incriminating objects.
a. Waiver or consented search; c. In flagrante delicto
b. Stop and frisk situation; d. Plain view

122. In determining the probable cause, it is required that:

a. The judge must examine the complainant and his witnesses personally;
b. The examination must be under oath;
c. The examination must be in writing in the form of searching questions and answers;
d. A & B only
e. C only
f. All of the above

123. Every search conducted in a house, room, or premises must be made only in the presence of:
a. The lawful occupant thereof or any member of his family;
b. In their absence, in the presence of two witnesses of sufficient age and discretion
residing in the same locality;
b. All of the above

124. A search warrant has a lifetime of ten (10) days. When the search under a warrant on one day was
interrupted, it may be continued under the same warrant the following day:
a. If it is still within the ten-day period; c. “A” only
b. Even after ten days from its date;

125. A warrantless arrest is considered legitimate or valid and it includes a valid warrantless search and
seizure in:
a. Arrest in flagrante delicto; c. Arrests of escape prisoner;
b. Arrest effected in hot pursuit; d. All of the above

126. The police saw 2 suspicious looking persons at dawn; hence, they stopped them. They were carrying
bags. When they were stopped, they ran and when apprehended, an unlicensed revolver was found in the bag.
Is the search without warrant valid or void?
a. Valid as this is stop and frisk situation;
b. Probable cause is present when they acted suspiciously and attempted to run when order to
stop; that they are concealing something illegal;
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

127. The Constitution proscribes/prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures of whatever nature. Without a
judicial warrant, or warrantless search is not allowed except:
a. A search incident to a lawful arrest; e. Consented search;
b. Seizure of evidence in plain view; f. Stop and frisk situations;
b. Search of a moving vehicle; g. All of the above
c. Customs search;

128. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed
to a peace officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before the
court.
a. Subpoena duces tecum; b. Search warrant c. All of the above d. None of the above

129. A search warrant is in the nature of an interlocutory order because there are other things to be done, like:
a. The filing of the corresponding information; d. B only
 b. Determination of the guilt of the accused; e. All of the above
c. A only

130. A search warrant is issued purposely to search and seize personal property which is:
a. Subject of the offense;
b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds, or fruits of the offense;
c. Used or intended to be used as the means of committing an offense;
d. All of the above

131. The rights against warrantless arrest and search and seizure are not absolute. Under the Rules of
Criminal Procedure, an arrest without a warrant may be lawfully made by a peace officer or a private person if:
a. When, in his presence, the person to be arrested has committed, is actually committing,
or is attempting to commit an offense;
b. When an offense has just been committed and he has probable cause to believe based on
personal knowledge of facts and circumstances that the person to be arrested has probably committed
the offense;
c. Escaped prisoner from place of confinement/detention;
d. All of the above

132. It is a method employed by police authorities to malefactors in the act of committing the crime of drug
vending. It is a procedure not prohibited by the RPC.
a. Buy bust operation b. It is a form of entrapment c. All of the above

133. Mayor Sanchez was arrested 46 days after the commission of the alleged rape of Sarmenta and the
killing of Gomez and Sarmenta. He was arrested without warrant of arrest. Was the arrest legal?
a. It is illegal because this is not arrest in flagrante delicto; c. It is not in hot pursuit
b. Mayor Sanchez is not an escaped prisoner; d. All of the above

134. X threw a bag from a truck and marijuana leaves spilled out of the bag. He was arrested and searched
without warrant. Was the search valid?
a. It is legal; d. A only
b. There was no search conducted; e. C only
c. It is a plain view doctrine search; f. All of the above

135. Persons protected by the provisions against unreasonable search and seizure.
a. Citizens of the Philippines only within the jurisdiction of the Philippines
b. To all persons whether citizens or aliens within the jurisdiction of the State
c. To all persons accused of acts and omissions punishable under the Revised Penal Code
d. All of them

136. A search warrant and seizure of personal property, ownership over it is...
a. Not necessary as possession and control is required c. Indispensable
b. Necessary d. B & C only

137. It simply means that sufficient facts must be presented to the judge or magistrate issuing the warrant, to
convince him, not that the particular person has committed the crime, but that there is a cause for believing
that the person whose arrest is sought might have committed the crime charged and that the object sought to
be seized is in the place to be searched.
a. Order for search warrant and seizure c. Writ of execution
b. Probable cause d. Writ of confiscation

138. Of the four requisites for issuing search warrant, one of the following is not included..
a. The warrant issued must particularly described the person who committed the crime
b. It must be issued upon probable cause;
c. The probable cause must be determined by the judge himself and not by the applicant or any other
person;
d. In the determination of probable cause the judge must examine under oath affirmation, the
complainant and such witness as the latter may produce;
e. The warrant issued must particularly describe the place to be searched and the things to be seized;
f. The probable cause must be in connection with one offense only

139. These are outlawed because they place the sanctity of the domicile and the privacy of communication and
correspondence at the mercy of the whims, caprice or passion of peace officers.
a. Unreasonable search and seizure c. Illegally seized documents
b. General search warrant d. All of them

140. The warrant must direct that it be served in the daytime, unless...
 a. The affidavit asserts that the property is on the person or in the place ordered to be
searched, in which case a direction may be inserted that it be served at any time of the day or
night.
b. The affidavit asserts that the property to be searched is worth an amount within the jurisdiction of
the Regional Trial Court
c. The place to be searched is the subject of embezzlement
d. All of them

141. And where the affidavit is insufficient and the warrant issued on the strength of such sworn statement is
illegal, the search...
a. Can also be effected at night
b. Cannot be effected at night
c. Is really a mere continuation of the search begun the previous day
d. None of them

142. Under Section 9 of Rule 126, a search warrant shall be valid for how many days?
a. 15 days from its date c. 10 days after its date
b. 10 days from its date d. 15 days after its date

143. To whom does the officer seizing property under warrant must give a detailed receipt for the same?
a. To lawful occupant of the premises in whose presence the search and seizure were made
b. In the absence of such occupant and the search was made in the presence of at least two
witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the same locality, leave a receipt in the place in
which he found the seized property
c. To the judge who issued it
d. A & B only
e. C only

143. Refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.
a. Venue b. Jurisdiction c. Jurisprudence d. Trial Courts

144. Order of trial is:

a. Prosecution, rebuttal, defense, submission for decision
b. Defense, prosecution, rebuttal, submission for decision
c. Prosecution, defense, rebuttal, submission for decision
d. Defense, rebuttal, prosecution, submission of the case for decision

145. The procedure in the examination of witnesses is:

a. Direct, cross, re-direct, re-cross examination
b. Direct, re-direct, cross, re-cross examination
c. Cross, direct, re-direct, re-cross examination
d. Cross, direct, re-cross, re-direct examination

146. This system of criminal procedure is characterized by secrecy of investigation and it is the option of the
defense and prosecution to appeal.
a. Fixed b. Mixed c. Inquisitorial d. Accusatorial

147. In the Philippines, the system of criminal procedure is:

a. Fixed b. Mixed c. Inquisitorial d. Accusatorial

148. What determines the jurisdiction in criminal cases?

a. Subject matter b. Territory c. Person accused d. A and B only

149. Prescription of the crime commence to run:

a. Upon re-appearance of the accused;
b. Upon escape of the accused;
c. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party, the authorities or their agents;
d. Upon filing of the complaint or information

150. The duty of the party to present evidence to establish his claim is referred to as:
a. Burden of proof c. Bill of particulars
b. Burden of evidence d. Presentation of evidence

151. Which among the following is not covered by the rules on summary procedures?
a. Violation of traffic laws
b. Violation of rental laws
c. Where the penalty does not exceed 6 months imprisonment
d. Where the penalty exceeds six months imprisonment
152. Validity of the warrant of arrest expires:
a. After 10 days b. After 30 days c. After 365 days d. No fixed duration

153. Lifetime of a search warrant:

a. 10 days b. 30 days c. 45 days d. 60 days

154. In criminal cases, the People of the Philippines is the:

a. Plaintiff b. Offended party c. Complainant d. Aggrieved party

155. In civil cases, the person charged is referred to as:

a. Accused b. suspect c. Defendant d. Respondent

156. In administrative cases the person charged is:

a. Accused b. Suspect c. Defendant d. Respondent

157. The part of trial wherein the civil aspect of the case may be amicably settled:
a. Plea bargaining b. Hearing c. Preliminary Investigation d. Pre-trial

158. Referred to as the court of first instance:

a. Metropolitan Trial Court c. Court of Appeals
b. Regional Trial Court d. Supreme Court

159. Taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an
offense.
a. Detention b. Restraint c. Arrest d. Seizure

160. A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

a. Counsel b. Attorney at law c. Attorney on record d. Counsel de officio

161. It refers to the answer given by the accused to a charge or indictment.

a. Reply b. Motion c. Plea d. Confession

162. Generally, after a plea of not guilty is entered, how many days is given by law for the accused to prepare
for his trial.
a. 15 days b. 3 days c. 4 days d. 5 day

163. Refers to the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not guilty of the offense charged, and
the imposition of proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.
a. Conviction b. Judgment c. Acquittal d. Conclusion

164. Arraignment is the stage in a criminal prosecution which consists of:

a. Reading to the accused in open court of the information charging him for an offense
b. Delivering to the accused a copy of the information
b. Asking him whether the accused pleads guilty or not guilty as charged
c. A only
d. B only
e. All of the above

165. This is a plea of guilty made by the accused subject to a condition.

a. Unconditional plea of guilty c. Reverted plea
b. Conditional plea d. Improvident plea

166. This is a plea of guilty without any condition or reservation.

a. Improvident plea c. Conditional plea
b. Indirect plea d. Unconditional plea

167. This is the refusal of the accused to make a plea, whether guilty or not guilty; hence, the court shall enter
a plea of not guilty for him.
a. Negative indirect plea c. Improvident plea
b. Conditional plea d. Reverted plea

168. If the accused enters a plea of guilty but presents exculpatory evidence like self-defense is:
a. Unconditional plea c. Reverted plea
b. Conditional plea d. Improvident plea
169. This is the kind of plea of guilty of the accused but which he did not intent to enter as he was just induced
or forced to enter. It is a plea which may be withdrawn before the judgment of conviction becomes final and to
be substituted with a plea of not guilty.
a. Conditional plea c. Reverted plea
b. Negative indirect plea d. Improvident plea

170. It is the reading of the complaint or information to the accused in the language or dialect known to him,
and asking him whether he pleads guilty or not.
a. Plea b. Arraignment c. Arraignment & plea d. None of the above

171. It is the answer of the accused whether guilty of not guilty in an arraignment for a criminal charge.
a. Arraignment b. Plea c. Defense d. All of the above

172. The presence of the offended party shall be required during the arraignment for the purpose of:
a. Plea bargaining c. B only
b. Determination of civil liability d. All of the above

173. Under the Rule, there are things enjoined upon the trial court when a plea of guilty to a capital offense is
entered by the accused:
a. The court must conduct searching inquiry into the voluntariness of the plea;
b. The prosecution to present evidence to prove the guilt of the accused;
b. The court must ask the accused if he desires to present evidence in his behalf;
c. A only
d. B only
e. All of the above

174. There is no arraignment in absentia. However, trial in absentia is allowed if:

a. The accused has been arraigned;
b. The accused has been notified of the trial;
b. His failure to appear is not justified;
c. All of the above

175. The authority of the court to take cognizance of a case in the first instance is known as:
a. Original jurisdiction c. Appellate jurisdiction
b. General jurisdiction d. Delegated jurisdiction

176. The place of trial for a criminal action is called:

a. Territory b. Jurisdiction c. Venue d. Motion

177. The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial Court, Municipal Trial Courts and Municipal
Circuit Trial Court is known as:
a. RA 7659 b. PD 1866 c. PD 1612 d. RA 7691

178. Under the expanded jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial Court, it shall exercise exclusive original
jurisdiction over the offenses punishable with imprisonment.
b. Not exceeding 4 years and 2 months c. Not exceeding six years;
c. Not exceeding 2 yrs d. Not exceeding six months;

179. The Judiciary Reorganization Act is otherwise known as:

a. PD 1612 b. BP 186 c. RA 7695 d. BP 129

180. In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaints is filed with the:

b. Office of the President c. Office of Clerk of Court
c. Office of the Prosecutor d. Office of the Ombudsman

181. Criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by law for the offense charged does not six months falls
under the rule on:
a. Regular procedure c. Summary procedure
b. Criminal procedure d. Civil Procedure

182. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint are the following, except:
a. It must be in writing
b. It must be in the name of the People of the Philippines
c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
d. It must be filed in court

183. The following are the requisites of an information except:

a. It must be filed by the offended party
 b. It must charged a person with an offense
c. It must be subscribed by the prosecutor
d. It must be in writing

184. The offended spouse should be the one to file the complaint in the crime of:
a. Bigamy b. Rape c. Adultery and concubinage d. Unjust vexation

185. The following offense shall not be prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by the offended party, or her
parents, grandparents, or guardian:
a. Rape c. Seduction and abduction
b. Bigamy and simulation of birth d. Adultery and concubinage

186. The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of incapacitated individuals with no known
parent, grandparent or guardian is known as:
a. Doctrine of parents patria c. Doctrine of non-suability
b. Police power d. Habeas corpus

187. A certain husband dies before he could institute the criminal action for adultery against his wife and the
paramour. The case may:
a. No longer be prosecuted c. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
b. Still be prosecuted d. Be prosecuted by the State

188. The complaint or information should state the following except:

a. Name of the offended party c. Name of the court
b. The designation of the offense by the statute d. Name of the accused

189. Intervention of the offended party in the criminal action is not allowed in the following instances except:
a. When he has waived the civil action
b. When he has expressly reserved the right to institute the civil action separately
c. When he has filed the civil action ahead of the criminal action
d. When he has not waived the civil action

190. The following may conduct preliminary investigation:

a. Provincial or city prosecutors d. All of the above
b. Judges of the lower courts e. A & C only
c. National and Regional state prosecutors

191. When an information is filed, the Regional Trial Court:

a. Cannot issue a warrant of arrest c. Can conduct the preliminary investigation
b. Can issue a warrant of arrest d. Cannot conduct the preliminary investigation

192. The following are the requisites for the issuance of a search warrant except:
a. It must be issued upon probable cause;
b. The probable cause must be personally determined by the judge;
c. After examination under oath of the complainant and his witnesses;
d. Particularly describing the place to be searched;
e. Particularly describing the person to be seized

193. With regard to issuance of warrant of arrest, prosecutors are:

a. Authorized to issue warrants
b. Not authorized to issue warrant of arrest
c. Authorized to conduct examination of the complaint
d. Not authorized to examine the witnesses

194. The modes of making arrest are:

a. By an actual restraint of the person to be arrested;
b. By his submission to the custody of the person making the arrest;
c. By using unreasonable force;
d. A & B only

195. The officer to whom the warrant of arrest was assigned for execution shall make a report to the judge who
issued the warrant within:
a. 10 days from the expiration of the period of execution
b. 5 days from the expiration of the period of execution
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

196. Arrest may be made:

 a. Any day c. At any time of the day or night
b. At any time of the night d. None of the above

197. Bail is:

a. A matter of right in capital offenses
b. A matter of discretion when the evidence of guilt is strong
c. A matter of discretion in capital offenses when the evidence of guilt is not strong
d. A matter of right when the evidence of guilt is strong

198. Capital offense is:

a. An offense which under the law existing at the time of its commission and at the time of the
application to be admitted to bail may be punished with death
b. An offense which is punishable by correctional penalties
c. An offense which is non bail able
d. None of the above

199. At the hearing of an application for admission to bail, the ___ has the burden of showing that the evidence
of guilt is strong.
a. Defenseb. Prosecution c. Court d. Bailiff

200. An undertaking that is constituted as lien on the real property given as security for the amount of the bail
is called:
a. Surety bond b. Cash bond c. Bail bond d. Property bond

201. Bail bond is cancelled in the following instances, except:

a. Surrender of the accused d. Dismissal of the case
b. Acquittal of the accused e. Execution of the final judgment of conviction
c. Death of the prosecutor

202. The following statements are false, except:

a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
b. The accused must personally enter his plea
c. The accused may excuse/waive arraignment
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other than where the case is assigned

203. Before arraignment, if the crime charged is vague to the accused he may move for a:
a. Motion to dismiss c. Bill of particulars
b. Motion to quash d. Bill of lading

204. The existence of a valid prejudicial question may cause the suspension of the:
a. Trial b. Preliminary c. Arraignment d. Judgment

205. The accused may move to quash the complaint or information at any time:
a. Before he enters his plea c. Before he moves to dismiss the case
b. After he enters his plea d. Before judgment

206. The following grounds are not considered waived even if the accused fails to move to quash the compliant
or information, except:
a. Lack of jurisdiction of the offense;
b. Extinction of the offense charged;
c. The information fails to charge an offense;
d. The officer who filed the complaint lacks authority to do so;
e. All of the above

207. The following matters are considered during the pre-trial, except:
a. Plea bargaining d. Marking of evidence
b. Stipulation of facts e. Filing a motion for extension
c. Waiver of objections f. All of the above

208. When an accused is discharged as a state witness, this is equivalent to:

a. Conviction b. Acquittal c. Reprieve d. Commutation

209. When an accused is discharged as a state witness, this is equivalent to:

a. Conviction b. Acquittal c. Reprieve d. Commutation

210. A judgment becomes final after ___ days when no appeal has been taken:
a. 10 days b. 30 days c. 15 days d. 45 days
211. A new trial is granted:
a. After the judgment of conviction becomes final
b. Before the judgment of conviction becomes final
c. After appeal has been taken
d. After entry of judgment