Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi: VTU-ETR Seat No.: A

VTU-ETR Seat No.
Question Paper Version : A
Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Electronics and Communication Engineering
/ Telecommunication Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
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sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
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question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is
a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey
2. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research
3. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is

a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research
4. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem
5. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review
6. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book
7. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.
8. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.
9. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal
10. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False
11. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census
12. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling
VER-A : EC/TE 1 of 10
13. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement
a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal
14. Absolute zero exists in
a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale
15. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data
16. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data
17. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation
18. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range
19. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above
20. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic
21. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling
22. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random
23. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above
24. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population
25. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased
26. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F
27. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?
a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation
28. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test
29. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false
30. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed
31. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these
32. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F
33. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound
34. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity
35. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above
36. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r
37. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept
38. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
39. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors
40. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations
41. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears
42. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above
43. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4
44. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another
45. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7
46. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation
47. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled
48. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)
49. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2
50. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N
PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electronics and Communication Engineering /
Telecommunication Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. The current I in a circuit shown in figure using superposition theorem is
a) 375 mA b) 350 mA c) 1125 mA d) 625 mA
52. The Thevenin’s equivalent voltage and resistance for the circuit shown in Figure across
terminal ab is
a) 20 V 25  b) 30 V 25  c) 30 V 10  d) 10 V 10 
53. For the circuit shown in figure, if the switch is closed at t = 0 then the current i(0+) and voltage
across capacitor are :
a) 0 A 10 V b) 0 A 0 V c) 1 A 0 V d) 1 A 10 V
54. The resistance between terminals ab for the circuit shown in figure is
a) 30  b) 25  c) 28  d) 45 
55. In a series RLC circuit, resonance condition the expression for resonant frequency fr and
Quality factor Q are :
1 1 L 1 1 R
a) f r  , Q b) f r  , Q
2 LC R C 2 LC L C
1 1
c) f r  , Q L d) f r  2 LC , Q  LCR
2LC R
56. The Fourier transform of a unit step function is given by

j 1 1
a) F( j)  b) F( j)  c) F( j)  d) F( j)  j
 j j  a
57. When the analog signal x(t) = 3 cos100t is sampled at the rate 75 Hz, the resulting discrete
time signal is
  2 
a) 3 cos 200t b) 3 cos n c) 3 cos n d) 3 cos75n
2  3 
58. Compute the convolution x(n)  h(n) given x(n) = [1, 2, 6] and h(n) = [2, 2, 1]
a) {1, 2, 2, 2, 6, 1} b) {1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 6}
c) {3, 4, 7} d) {2, 6, 17, 14, 6}
59. Given the 4-point DFT samples X(0) = 6; X(1) = –2 + j2 and X(2) = (–2) , find the 4-point
sequence x(n) , (can use FFT algorithms to compute faster)
a) {0, 1, 2, 3} b) {1, 2, 3, 4}
c) {0, 2, 1, 3} d) {1, 2, 0, 3}
n n
60. 3  1

The ROC of the ZT of the signal x(n) =    u ( n  1)    u ( n ) is ________
4  3 
a) 3  | z |  1 b) | z |  1 c) 1  | z |  3 d) | z |  1
4 3 3 3 4 3
61. In an extrinsic Silicon, the Fermi levels for p and n type are:
a) at the same level
b) below conduction band for n-type and above valence bond for p-type
c) above conduction band for n-type and below valence band for -type
d) None of these
62. In a pn junction the diffusion current and drift current is constituted by

a) majority carriers and minority carriers respectively
b) majority carriers only
c) minority carriers
d) None of these
63. In a solar cell, the operation is based on:

a) Photovoltaic effect b) Photoelastic effect c) Piezoelectric effect d) Avalanche effect
64. An SCR combines the features of :

a) A rectifier and resistance b) A rectifier and transistor
c) A rectifier and capacitor d) None of these.
65. The diffusion of impurities is done on the _______ layer.
a) substrate layer b) second layer c) SiO2 layer d) All of these
66. A periodic pulse train Vin of 10V amplitude with on-time T ON = 1 ms and off-time TOFF = 1 s
is applied to the circuit shown in the figure.
The difference between the maximum voltage and minimum voltage of the output waveform
V0 is _______ V.
a) 10 b) 5 c) 3 d) 3.5
67. The following symbol represents
a) Tunnel diode b) Varactor diode c) Zener diode d) Photo diode
68. Find the output voltage of the given network if E in = 6V and the zener breakdown voltage of
the zener diode is 10V.
a) 4 V b) 0 V c) 10 V d) 6 V
69. Which of the following BJT configuration has highest power gain?
a) Common collector b) Common Emitter c) Common Base d) All configuration
70. Find the approximate collector current in the given transistor circuit. Assume current gain
 = 100
a) 10 mA b) 1.25 mA c) ≃1 mA d) 11.5 mA
71. In the figure shown, if the number of XOR gates are odd, the final output Y is
a) 0 b) 1 c) X d) X
72. For the Karnaugh map shown in figure, the minimum number of essential prime implicants are
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
73. Choose the correct statement from the following :

a) PAL contains programmable OR array and fixed AND array
b) PLA contains programmable OR array and fixed AND array
c) PROM contains programmable AND array and fixed OR array
d) PAL contains programmable AND array and fixed OR array
74. The figure shows a binary counter with synchronous clear input. With the logic shown the
counter works as a :
a) mod - 3 counter b) mod - 4 counter c) mod - 5 counter d) mod - 6 counter
75. The output Y of the circuit shown in figure is
a) A B  C b) (A+B) C c) ( A  B) C d) AB + C
76. Let Y(s) be unit step response of a casual system having a transfer function
3s G (s)
G(s) = that is Y (s)  . The forced response of the system is
(s  1)(s  3) s
a) U(t) – 2e–t + e–3t U(t) b) 2U(t) – 2e–t + e–3t U(t)
c) 2U(t) d) U(t)
77. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output

a) Lag at all frequencies
b) Lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequency
c) Lag at low frequency and lead at high frequency
d) None of these
78. The characteristic equation of a feedback system is s3 + ks2 + 5s + 10 = 0 , for a stable system
the value of k should not be less than
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4.5
79. Which one of the following statement is corrected?

Nichols chart is useful for detailed study of
a) Closed loop frequency response b) Open loop frequency response
c) Closed & Open loop frequency responses d) None of these
80. In Robotics Denavit-Hartenberg consists of _______ steps and ______ passes in its algorithm.
a) 16, 2 b) 12, 2 c) 12, 4 d) 10, 13
Assuming that m(t) = 10 sinc(104 t), what is the transmission band width of an FM modulated
81. signal with frequency deviation constant kf = 4000.
a) 90 kHz b) 82 kHz c) 72 kHz d) 92 kHz
82. Which of the following is a channelization protocol?

a) CSMA b) ALOHA c) Token passing d) CDMA
83. A pure ALOHA network transmits 200 bit frames on a shared channel of 200 kbps. What is
the throughput in %, if the system produces 1000 frames per second?
a) 36.8 b) 13.5 c) 30.3 d) 18.4
84. Consider the following statements :

1. When the amplitude response |H(f)| of the system is not constant with frequency inside the
frequency band of interest, the frequency component of the input signal are transmitted with
different amounts of gain or attenuation.
2. Constant delay is a requirement for distortionless transmission.
3. Constant phase shift causes signal distortion
Which of the above statements are true?
a) 1 only b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1, 2 only d) 1 and 3
85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using code given below the list.
List I List II
A Entropy coding 1 Mc Milan’s Rule
B Channel capacity 2 Redundancy
C Minimum length code 3 Shannon Fano
D Equivocation 4 Shannon’s law
A B C D A B C D
a) b)
1 2 3 4 3 4 1 2
A B C D A B C D
c) d)
1 4 3 2 3 2 1 4
86. Calculate the emf of a material having a flux linkage of 2t2 at time t = 1 sec
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16
87. In a homogenous isotropic linear and stationary media, a plane electromagnetic wave has the
following characteristics
a) Both E and H are transverse b)  = 0
c) Both a and b d) Neither a or b
88. The transmitter power is 10 W. It is increased by an antenna gain of 30 dB. The effective
radiated power in watts is
a) 100 W b) 30 W c) 10,000 W d) 1000 W
89. What is the skin depth in copper at 10 GHz? Assuming conductivity of copper
 = 5.810 7 mhos/m and permeability equal to that of free space
a) 0.55 m b) 0.33 nm c) 0.44 nm d) 0.66 m
90. Calculate the numerical aperture of an optical fiber whose core and cladding are made of
materials of refractive index 1.6 and 1.5 respectively.
a) 0.55677 b) 55.77 c) 0.2458 d) 0.647852
91. ______ are the multiplier bits in Booth bit pair coding for multiplication of numbers –8  –8
a) –1 –2 1 b) 0 2 0 c) 1 1 0 d) 0 –2 0
92. ______ is the exponent value for representing 571.25 in IEEE single precision floating point
format.
a) 01001011 b) 10110101 c) 10001000 d) 10010001
93. In _______ approach the CPU repeatedly checks the status flag to achieve the required
synchronization between the processor and an input or output device.
a) I/O controlled I/O b) CPU controlled I/O
c) Program – Controlled I/O d) Program – Controlled CPU
94. What is the maximum addressing capacity of a microcomputer which uses 16 bit data bus and
32 bit address bus?
a) 16 MB b) 32 GB c) 8 GB d) 4 GB
95. The ionic feature of the RISC machine among the following is _______
a) Reduced number of addressing modes b) Increased memory size
c) Having a branch delay slot d) All of these
96. The Bus Interface unit of 8086 microprocessor contains instruction queue of how many bytes
size?
a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 16
97. What is the address range of special function registers in 8051 microcontroller?
a) 80H to FFH b) 70H to 7FH c) 80H to 8FH d) 00H to FFH
98. Number of I/O ports in 8051 microcontroller

a) 2 Ports b) 3 Ports
c) 4 Ports with one Port having 5 pins d) 4 Ports
99. In 8086 microprocessor, when overflow flag will set?

a) During only subtraction
b) Sum is more than 10 bits
c) Signed numbers go out of their range after an arithmetic operation
d) Carry and parity flags are set
100. The operation performed by the BIC instruction of ARM Processor is :

a) AND NOT b) Reverse Subtraction
c) Binary Invert d) BIT INVERT CARRY
*****
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B


bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
[50 MARKS]
simultaneously?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7


the mean value is



d) None of these
VER-B : EC/TE 1 of 10


a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
would look at



known as





review :
a) True b) False




c) Guess d) Biased



the test is called
PART – II
[50 MARKS]
a) –1 –2 1 b) 0 2 0 c) 1 1 0 d) 0 –2 0
format.
a) 01001011 b) 10110101 c) 10001000 d) 10010001
32 bit address bus?
a) 16 MB b) 32 GB c) 8 GB d) 4 GB
size?
a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 16
a) 80H to FFH b) 70H to 7FH
c) 80H to 8FH d) 00H to FFH


The operation performed by the BIC instruction of ARM Processor is :

60. a) AND NOT b) Reverse Subtraction
61. Assuming that m(t) = 10 sinc(104 t), what is the transmission band width of an FM modulated
signal with frequency deviation constant kf = 4000.

a) 36.8 b) 13.5 c) 30.3 d) 18.4

List I List II
A B C D A B C D
a) b)
1 2 3 4 3 4 1 2
A B C D A B C D
c) d)
1 4 3 2 3 2 1 4
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16
a) 100 W b) 30 W c) 10,000 W d) 1000 W
a) 0.55 m b) 0.33 nm c) 0.44 nm d) 0.66 m
a) 0.55677 b) 55.77 c) 0.2458 d) 0.647852
d) None of these

d) None of these



a) substrate layer b) second layer
c) SiO2 layer d) All of these
V0 is _______ V.
a) 10 b) 5 c) 3 d) 3.5
a) 4 V b) 0 V c) 10 V d) 6 V
a) Common collector b) Common Emitter
c) Common Base d) All configuration
 = 100
a) 10 mA b) 1.25 mA c) ≃1 mA d) 11.5 mA
a) 375 mA b) 350 mA c) 1125 mA d) 625 mA
terminal ab is
a) 20 V 25  b) 30 V 25  c) 30 V 10  d) 10 V 10 
a) 0 A 10 V b) 0 A 0 V c) 1 A 0 V d) 1 A 10 V
a) 30  b) 25  c) 28  d) 45 
1 1 L 1 1 R
a) f r  , Q b) f r  , Q
1 1
c) f r  , Q L d) f r  2 LC , Q  LCR
2LC R

j 1 1
a) F( j)  b) F( j)  c) F( j)  d) F( j)  j
 j j  a
time signal is
  2 
2  3 
a) {1, 2, 2, 2, 6, 1} b) {1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 6}
c) {3, 4, 7} d) {2, 6, 17, 14, 6}
a) {0, 1, 2, 3} b) {1, 2, 3, 4} c) {0, 2, 1, 3} d) {1, 2, 0, 3}
n n
90. 3  1
The ROC of the ZT of the signal x(n) =    u (  n  1)    u ( n ) is ________
4  3 
a) 3  | z |  1 b) | z |  1 c) 1  | z |  3 d) | z |  1
4 3 3 3 4 3
a) 0 b) 1 c) X d) X
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
3s G (s)
(s  1)(s  3) s
c) 2U(t) d) U(t)

d) None of these
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4.5

a) 16, 2 b) 12, 2 c) 12, 4 d) 10, 13
*****
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C


bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
[50 MARKS]



c) Guess d) Biased



the test is called
simultaneously?
VER-C : EC/TE 1 of 10
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7


the mean value is



d) None of these



a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
would look at




known as




review :

a) True b) False
PART – II
[50 MARKS]
a) 0 b) 1 c) X d) X
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

3s G (s)
(s  1)(s  3) s
c) 2U(t) d) U(t)

d) None of these
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4.5

a) 16, 2 b) 12, 2 c) 12, 4 d) 10, 13
a) –1 –2 1 b) 0 2 0 c) 1 1 0 d) 0 –2 0
format.
a) 01001011 b) 10110101 c) 10001000 d) 10010001
32 bit address bus?
a) 16 MB b) 32 GB c) 8 GB d) 4 GB
size?
a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 16



a) 36.8 b) 13.5 c) 30.3 d) 18.4

List I List II
A B C D A B C D
a) b)
1 2 3 4 3 4 1 2
A B C D A B C D
c) d)
1 4 3 2 3 2 1 4
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16
a) 100 W b) 30 W c) 10,000 W d) 1000 W
a) 0.55 m b) 0.33 nm c) 0.44 nm d) 0.66 m
a) 0.55677 b) 55.77 c) 0.2458 d) 0.647852
d) None of these

d) None of these



V0 is _______ V.
a) 10 b) 5 c) 3 d) 3.5
a) 4 V b) 0 V c) 10 V d) 6 V
 = 100
a) 10 mA b) 1.25 mA c) ≃1 mA d) 11.5 mA
a) 375 mA b) 350 mA c) 1125 mA d) 625 mA
terminal ab is
a) 20 V 25  b) 30 V 25  c) 30 V 10  d) 10 V 10 
a) 0 A 10 V b) 0 A 0 V c) 1 A 0 V d) 1 A 10 V
a) 30  b) 25  c) 28  d) 45 
1 1 L 1 1 R
a) f r  , Q b) f r  , Q
1 1
c) f r  , Q L d) f r  2 LC , Q  LCR
2LC R

j 1 1
a) F( j)  b) F( j)  c) F( j)  d) F( j)  j
 j j  a
time signal is
  2 
2  3 
a) {1, 2, 2, 2, 6, 1} b) {1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 6}
c) {3, 4, 7} d) {2, 6, 17, 14, 6}
a) {0, 1, 2, 3} b) {1, 2, 3, 4} c) {0, 2, 1, 3} d) {1, 2, 0, 3}
n n
100. The ROC of the ZT of the signal x(n) =   3  u ( n  1)    1  u ( n ) is ________
4  3 
a) 3  | z |  1 b) | z |  1 c) 1  | z |  3 d) | z |  1
4 3 3 3 4 3
*****
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D


bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.
PART – I
[50 MARKS]
d) None of these



a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
would look at

VER-D : EC/TE 1 of 10


review :

a) True b) False
simultaneously?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7


the mean value is






c) Guess d) Biased


the test is called




known as

PART – II
[50 MARKS]

a) 36.8 b) 13.5 c) 30.3 d) 18.4

List I List II
A B C D A B C D
a) b)
1 2 3 4 3 4 1 2
A B C D A B C D
c) d)
1 4 3 2 3 2 1 4
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16
a) 100 W b) 30 W c) 10,000 W d) 1000 W
a) 0.55 m b) 0.33 nm c) 0.44 nm d) 0.66 m
a) 0.55677 b) 55.77 c) 0.2458 d) 0.647852
a) 375 mA b) 350 mA c) 1125 mA d) 625 mA
terminal ab is
a) 20 V 25  b) 30 V 25  c) 30 V 10  d) 10 V 10 
a) 0 A 10 V b) 0 A 0 V c) 1 A 0 V d) 1 A 10 V
a) 30  b) 25  c) 28  d) 45 
1 1 L 1 1 R
a) f r  , Q b) f r  , Q
1 1
c) f r  , Q L d) f r  2 LC , Q  LCR
2LC R

j 1 1
a) F( j)  b) F( j)  c) F( j)  d) F( j)  j
 j j  a
time signal is
  2 
2  3 
a) {1, 2, 2, 2, 6, 1} b) {1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 6}
c) {3, 4, 7} d) {2, 6, 17, 14, 6}
a) {0, 1, 2, 3} b) {1, 2, 3, 4}
c) {0, 2, 1, 3} d) {1, 2, 0, 3}
n n
70. 3  1
The ROC of the ZT of the signal x(n) =    u ( n  1)    u ( n ) is ________
4  3 
a) 3  | z |  1 b) | z |  1 c) 1  | z |  3 d) | z |  1
4 3 3 3 4 3
a) –1 –2 1 b) 0 2 0 c) 1 1 0 d) 0 –2 0
format.
a) 01001011 b) 10110101 c) 10001000 d) 10010001
32 bit address bus?
a) 16 MB b) 32 GB c) 8 GB d) 4 GB
size?
a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 16



a) 0 b) 1 c) X d) X
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

3s G (s)
(s  1)(s  3) s
c) 2U(t) d) U(t)

d) None of these
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4.5

a) 16, 2 b) 12, 2 c) 12, 4 d) 10, 13
d) None of these

d) None of these


V0 is _______ V.
a) 10 b) 5 c) 3 d) 3.5
a) 4 V b) 0 V c) 10 V d) 6 V
 = 100
a) 10 mA b) 1.25 mA c) ≃1 mA d) 11.5 mA
*****

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VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

2. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

3. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is

4. The first step of Research process is

5. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

8. Narrative literature review method is also known as

12. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

15. Which data is cheaper to collect?

18. The most repeated value in the series is called as

21. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

22. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

23. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

24. Population under research study is referred as

28. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

29. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

31. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

32. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

33. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

36. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

44. What are Independent Events?

46. The normal distribution

47. The shape of normal distribution curve

49. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

50. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

51. The current I in a circuit shown in figure using superposition theorem is

a) 375 mA b) 350 mA c) 1125 mA d) 625 mA

56. The Fourier transform of a unit step function is given by

60. 3  1

62. In a pn junction the diffusion current and drift current is constituted by

63. In a solar cell, the operation is based on:

64. An SCR combines the features of :

67. The following symbol represents

a) Tunnel diode b) Varactor diode c) Zener diode d) Photo diode

73. Choose the correct statement from the following :

a) mod - 3 counter b) mod - 4 counter c) mod - 5 counter d) mod - 6 counter

75. The output Y of the circuit shown in figure is

77. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output

79. Which one of the following statement is corrected?

82. Which of the following is a channelization protocol?

84. Consider the following statements :

98. Number of I/O ports in 8051 microcontroller

99. In 8086 microprocessor, when overflow flag will set?

100. The operation performed by the BIC instruction of ARM Processor is :

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

4. What are Independent Events?

6. The normal distribution

7. The shape of normal distribution curve

9. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

10. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

11. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

13. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

16. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

22. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

23. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

24. Absolute zero exists in