BUK Post UTME Past Questions For Science

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BUK Post UTME


Past Questions and
Answers for
SCIENCE
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BUK POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS


[FACULTY OF SCIENCES]

2013/2014 POST UTME 5. Beri-Beri is cause by the lack of


SCREENING EXERCISE vitamin____?
A. B1
B. A
ALL PROGRAMMES in: Faculty of C. D
Agriculture; College of Health sciences; D. C
Faculty of Chemistry/Industrial
Chemistry; Education/Chemistry; 6. Which of the following is not a
Biochemistry; Biological Sciences constituent of blood plasma?
(Applied Biology, Botany, Microbiology, A. Proteins

k
Zoology); and Education/Biology. B. Mineral salts

or
C. Water
Time Allowed: 90 Minutes D. Platelets

w
INSTRUCTIONS: 7. Which of the following diseases is not
caused by bacteria?
I. Candidates are required to answer all A. Leprosy

et
questions B. Chicken pox
II. Candidates are to are to shade their C. Tuberculosis
correct options boldly using HB pencil, on D. Typhoid fever
the answer sheet provided.

SECTION I: BIOLOGY 2013 QUESTIONS


N
8. Which of the following characteristic is
not possessed by most plats?
ia
A. Respire
1. Birds which swim in water have_____ B. Move away from stimuli
A. Webbed feet C. Reproduce
er

B. Long beaks D. Adapt to environment


C. Toes with claws
D. Broad claws 9. Plant wilt due to excess of _____
ig

A. Transpiration
2. Which of the following is not a plant B. Photosynthesis
N

hormone? C. Absorption
A. Cytokinin D. None of these
B. Ethylene
C. Gibberellin 10. Normal human adult man has ____
d

D. Insulin. A. 10gram of haemoglobin /100gramof


blood
ea

3. Which of the following cell constituents is B. 14gram of haemoglobin/100gramof


not common in both plants and animals? blood
A. Mitochondria C. 18gram of haemoglobin/100gramof
R

B. Chloroplast blood
C. Ribosomes D. 24gram of haemoglobin/100gramblood
D. Golgi apparatus
11. Plants developing in dry conditions
4. Which of the following is responsible for are____
converting milk into curd? A. Xerophytes
A. Virus B. Mesophytes
B. Yeast C. Lithophytes
C. Fungi D. Hydrophytes
D. Bacteria
12. Fleshy fruits with stony endocarp are
called_____

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A. Berries D. By the excretion of excess oxygen in


B. Pomes plant tissue
C. Drupes
D. Capsules 20. Pollination is best defined as?
A. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
13. A flower which can be divide into two B. Germination of pollen grains
equal halves by only one plane is______ C. Growth pollen tube to ovule
A. Zygomorphic D. Visiting flowers by insects
B. Actinomorphic
C. Regular 21. The possession of breathing roots is a
D. Perfect characteristic of plant growing in____
A. Mangrove swamp
14. Which of the following indicate that B. Costal savannah
euglena is a plant? C. Guinea savannah

k
A. Conspicuous eye spot D. Shrub biome

or
B. Presence of gullet
C. Limited movement 22. Which of the following animals has both
D. Present of starch grains. exoskeletal and endo skeletal structure?

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A. Tortoise
15. Ordinary table salt is sodium chloride B. Frog
what is baking soda? C. Jelly fish

et
A. Potassium chloride D. Fresh water mussel
B. Potassium carbonate
C. Potassium hydroxide 23. Fertilization occurs in _____
D. Sodium bicarbonate

16. Plants receive their nutrients mainly


N
A. Uterus
B. Vagina
C. Ureter
ia
from? D. Fallopian tube
A. Chlorophyll
B. Atmosphere 24. The edible part of mushroom is
er

C. Light called_____
D. Soil A. Basidiocarp
B. Primary mycelium
ig

17. One of the following is not a function of C. Fungal hyphae


bones_____ D. Basidiospores
N

A. Place for muscle attachment


B. Protection of vital organs Section II: Chemistry Questions
C. Secretion of hormones for calcium
regulation in blood and bones 25. The nucleus of an atom consist of_____
d

D. Production of corpuses A. Electrons and neutrons


ea

B. Electrons and protons


18. In which part of plat does C. Protons and neutrons
photosynthesis generally takes place? D. All of the above
A. Leaf and other chlorophyll bearing parts
R

B. Steam and leaf


C. Roots and chlorophyll bearing parts 26. The number of moles of solute present
D. Bark and leaf in 1kg of a solvent is called its____
A. Molality
19. The oxygen release during B. Molarity
photosynthesis is obtained from C. Normality
A. From the catalytic splitting of CO2 in D. Formality
plant tissues
B. From the breaking down of glucose to 27. The most electronegative element
maltose in cells among the following is?
C. During the photolysis of water using A. Sodium
energy trapped in chlorophyll B. Bromine

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C. Fluorine B. Carbon dioxide


D. Oxygen C. Chlorine
D. Sodium chloride
28. The metal used to recover copper from
a solution of copper sulphate is 35. The nucleus of a hydrogen atom consist
A. Na of
B. Ag A. 1 Proton only
C. Hg B. 1 Proton +2 neutron
D. Fe C. 1 Proton only
D. Electron only
29. The oldest rocks in the earth’s crust
were once molten and came from deep 36. The gas giving off when NH4Cl is
inside the earth. The molten rock called heated with an alkali is_____
magma, spewed out in volcanic eruptions A. N2

k
during the earth`s early and solidified into B. Cl2

or
hard rock is called_____ C. H2
A. Granite D. NH3
B. Basalt

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C. Igneous rock 37. The heat required to raise the
D. Sedimentary rocks temperature of body by 1 k is called?
A. Specific heat

et
30. The law which states that the amount B. Thermal capacity
of gas dissolve in a liquid is proportional to C. Water equivalent
its partial pressure is_____ D. None of the above
A. Dalton’s law
B. Gay Lussac’s law
C. Hanry’s law
N
38. The nuclear particles which are
assumed to hold the nucleus together are
ia
D. Raolt’s law A. Electrons
B. Positrons
31. Which of the following compounds is C. Neutrons
er

readily dissolved in water? D. Mesons


A. CuO
B. AgCl 39. The metal that is used as a catalyst in
ig

C. Na2SO4 the hydrogenation of oil is_____


D. CaCO3 A. Ni
N

B. Pb
32. Which of the buffer system of the C. Cu
human blood is D. Pt
A. H2CO3-HCO3
d

B. H2CO3-CO3 40. The Latin word Formica means ant. The


ea

C. CH3COOH-CH3COO- name formic acid is drive from the Latin


D. NH2CONH2- NH2CONH2+ word because_____
A. This acid, in ancient times, was used to
33. The gas present in the stratosphere eliminate anthills
R

which filters out some of the sun’s B. This corrosive acid is secreted by ants to
ultraviolet light and provides an effective drive away their enemies.
shield against radiation damage to living C. This acid was first obtained by the
things is_____ distillation of ants.
A. Helium D. Ant are attracted by the odour of this
B. Ozone acid
C. Oxygen
D. Methane 41. The inherited traits of an organisms
are controlled by
34. The most commonly used bleaching A. RNA molecules
agent is_____ B. Nucleus
A. Alcohol C. DNA molecules

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D. Enzymes
Section III: Physics Questions
42. What is the number of moles of CO2
which contains 16g of oxygen? 50. Light year is a unit of____
A. 0.5 mole A. Time
B. 0.2 mole B. Distance
C. 0.4 mole C. Light
D. 0.25 mole D. Intensity of light

43. The single acid which dissolved gold 51. Mirage is due to____
is______ A. Unequal heating of different parts of the
A. Nitric acid atmosphere
B. Hydrochloric acid B. Magnetic disturbances in the atmosphere
C. Aqua regia C. Depletion of ozone layer in the

k
D. Selenic atmosphere

or
D. equal heating of different parts of the
44. Which of the following is used as atmosphere
laughing gas

w
A. Nitrogen oxide 52. Pa (pascal) is the SI unit of____
B. Nitrogen dioxide A. Thrust
C. Nitrogen trioxide B. Pressure

et
D. Nitrogen tetra oxide C. Frequency
D. Conductivity
45. One of characteristic of transition
metals is____
A. Ability to conduct electricity
B. Formation of coloured ions
N
53. Metals are good conductors of
electricity because
A. They contain free electron
ia
C. Reducing ability B. The atoms are lightly parked
D. Ductility C. They have high melting point
D. All of the above
er

46. An alkene can be converted to alkane


by____ 54. The resistance of a piece of wire of 20m
A. Halogenation length and cross-sectional area
ig

B. Hydrogenation 8x10-6m2 is_____


C. Dehydration A. 1.0Ω
N

D. Hydrolysis B. 10.0Ω
C. 0.5 Ω
47. Which of the following pollutant is D. 5.0 Ω
biodegradable?
d

A. DDT 55. If two bodies of different masses,


ea

B. Plastics initially at rest are acted upon by the same


C. Sewage force for the same time, then both bodies
D. Lead compound acquire the same.
A. Velocity
R

48. Brass in an alloy copper and_____ B. Momentum


A. Zinc C. Acceleration
B. Tin D. Kinetic energy
C. Ion
D. Chromium 56. Which of the following is a scalar
quantity?
49. How many carbon atoms are there in A. Force
benzene ring? B. Pressure
A. 3 C. Velocity
B. 6 D. Acceleration
C. 9
D. 12 57. Rectifiers are used to convert_____

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A. Direct current to alternating current B. 10cm from the focus


B. Alternating current to direct current C. At the radius of curvature
C. High voltage to low voltage D. At the centre of curvature
D. Low voltage to high voltage
65. Which of the following radiation has the
58. A force of 200N acts between two highest frequency?
objects at a certain distance apart. The A. Infra-red rays
value if the force when the distance is B. Radio waves
halved is_____ C. Light waves
A. 100N D. X-rays
B. 200N
C. 400N 66. When a ray of light is incident normally
D. 800N on an air-glass interface, its angle of
refraction is_____

k
59. Inside of an aeroplane, flying at a high A. 60˚

or
altitude_____ B. 30˚
A. The pressure is the same as that outside C. 150˚
B. Normal atmospheric pressure is D. 0˚

w
maintained by the use of air pumps
C. The pressure inside is less than the 67. Which gas is filled in refrigeration?
pressure outside A. Acetylene

et
D. Normal humidity and partial vacuum are B. Chlorofluorocarbon
maintained. C. Methane
D. Carbon monoxide
60. One thousand microns is equal to____
A. 10-3m
B. 10-6m
N
68. The efficiency of air-conditioning
machine is measured in_____
ia
C. 10-9m A. Tonnes
D. 10-12m B. CPO
C. Percentage
er

61. Sound travels at the fastest speed D. Temperature


in_____
A. Vacuum 69. When a bar of magnet is cut into two
ig

B. Air equal halves, the pole strength of each


C. Water piece_____
N

D. Steel A. Becomes zero


B. Becomes half
62. The correct unit of energy density C. Remain the same
is_____ D. Becomes double
d

A. Kgm-3S-2
ea

B. Kgm-1S-2 70. Which of the following object is used to


C. Kgm3S-2 view distance objects?
D. Kgm2S-2 A. Barometer
B. Binoculars
R

63. Superconductors are substances C. Microscope


which_____ D. Stethoscope
A. Conduct electricity at low temperature
B. Offer high resistance to the flow of 72. The sky appears blue due to which
current property of light?
C. Offer no resistance to the flow of current A. Scattering
D. Conduct electricity at high temperature B. Refraction
C. Diffraction
64. An object placed 10cm from a concave D. Reflection
mirror of focal length 5cm would have its
image_____ 73. At what angle to the horizontal must
A. At infinity the nozzle of a machine be kept

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when firing to obtain a maximum horizontal below each sentence should replace the
range for the bullets? phrases printed in bold type to make the
A. 0.00 sentence grammatically correct. If the
B. 22.50 sentence is correct as it is, mark (E) i.e. No
C. 30.00 correction required as the answer.
D. 45.00
79. The meeting is attempted to mend
Section IV: English language the strained relations between the
management and the employees.
In each of questions 74 to 79, choose A. Was attempted for mending
the option that best complete the B. Is an attempt to mend
gap(s) C. Is attempted at mending of
D. Will be attempted by mending
74. You must ensure the correctness of the E. No correction required

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information before _____to conclusion

or
A. Drawing 80. Hafeez arrived at the hotel, which a
B. Enabling reception was held in his honour.
C. Learning A. In which a reception is

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D. Jumping B. While a reception being
E. Examining C. Where a reception was
D. Since a reception going on

et
75. The rocket_____ the target and did not E. No correction required
cause any casualty
A. Sensed 81. Since his college days, Rolihlahla has
B. Reached
C. Missed
D. Exploded
N
been standing up with the rights of weak
and the oppressed
A. Stood up along with
ia
E. Aimed B. Standing in for
C. For standing beside
76. It is desirable to take_____ in any D. Standing up for
er

business if you want to make profile E. No correction required


A. Advice
B. Risk 82. Unless a man with plenty of money
ig

C. Loan can afford a house in this locality


D. Perseverance A. Until a man has
N

E. Recourse B. When a man possesses


C. Except a man of
77. They waste all the money on the D. Only a man with
purchase of some_____ items. E. No correction required
d

A. Excellent
ea

B. Important 83. They lost the vote because they could


C. Significant not express clearly.
D. Quality A. Express themselves clearly
E. Trivial B. Express each other clearly
R

C. Clearly express
78. When he found the wallet his face was D. Be clearly expressed
glowed but soon it faded as wallet E. No correction required
was_____
A. Empty 84. Gambo must be punished for acting in
B. Vacant opposite to my wishes
C. Recovered A. Opposing to
D. Stolen B. In opposite with
E. Expensive C. Opposite against
D. In opposition to
Instructions for Q. 79-Q. 85; which of E. No correction required
the phrases ( A) ( B) ( C) and ( D) given

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85. Nigeria is a diverse and breath- taking B. Land and water areas rest on the mantle
country with many places worthwhile to C. The mantle rest on the earth’s core
see D. Water areas drift onto the mainland
A. Worth sight
B. Worth seeing 88. The mantle is_____
C. Worthwhile scene A. Pliable substance under the crust
D. Worthy seeing B. A solid layer of the earth’s crust
E. No correction required C. A thin layer of earth under the ocean
D. The semi-solid exterior of the earth
Reading passage for questions 86-90
89. The second paragraph states that
The earth’s crust averages 16 miles thick eroded materials creates pressure in ocean
and rests and what is called the mantle. areas, causing the formation of_____
This layer, about 750 miles thick is belief to A. Continental areas

k
be semi-viscous or plastic nature rather B. Dome mountains

or
than solid. Thus, both continental and C. Fault blocks
oceanic areas could be said float on the D. Fissures reefs
mantle, with continental areas pushing

w
deeper into the mantle than do oceanic 90. Folded mountains consist of_____
areas where the crust is thinner. A. Broad fissures
B. Molten rock

et
Constant erosion moves dirt and rock into C. Plastic material
ocean areas where they settle. These areas D. Sedimentary rock
gradually sink deeper into the mantle.
Eventually creating pressure that thrust
new land up forms surrounding areas.
Mountains formed by this process are made
N
In each of the following sentences,
there is one word or group of words
underlined and gap. From the list word
ia
of sedimentary rock and are called folded or group of word lettered A to D
or domes. choose the one that is most nearly
opposite in meaning to the underlined
er

Earthquakes occur where the crust shifts or word or group of words and that will,
creaks apart sharply under pressure; the at the same time, correctly fill the gap
resulting breaks or fissures are called fault in the sentence.
ig

mountains created by these faults fault


blocks. On weak spot on the earth’s crust- 91. My uncle is a prosperous business man;
N

generally near sea coasts-gases and molten my aunt, unfortunately is quite_____


rock under tremendous pressure break A. Unskilful
through to form conical shaped mountains. B. Dishonest
These we know as volcanic. C. Expulsion
d

D. Obstructions
ea

No sooner are new mountains and flat


lands created by pressure than water, ice, 92. The university has a large yearly
and wind begin to wear them away thus intake; very few_____ take place
creating new valleys, river courses and A. Turnouts
R

coastlines. B. Rejection
C. Expulsion
86. The first paragraph is mainly about D. Obstructions
earth’s_____
A. Continents 93. Rather than make derogatory remarks
B. Crust about host, a guest should make______
C. Mantle ones.
D. Oceans A. Polite
B. Complementary
87. The writer uses the word-float to C. Interesting
describe the way____ D. Honest
A. Dirt and rocks erode into the sea

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94. Our mechanized services contrast BIOLOGY ANSWERS:


sharply with the_____ operation we had
before. 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. A
A. Electrical
B. Controlled 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. C
C. Original
D. Manual 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. A 21. D 22. D 23. D

95. After ade had listened to some advice, 24. A


his rigid ideas became more_____
A. Friendly CHEMISTRY ANSWERS:
B. Compromising
C. Flexible 25. C 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. C 30. A 31. C
D. Democratic

k
32. D 33. B 34. D 35. B 36. D 37. D 38. –

or
From the words lettered A to D In each
of the following sentences, choose the 39. A 40. A 41. C 42. A 43. C 44. A 45. D
word or group of words that is nearest

w
in meaning to the underlined word or 46. B 47. C 48. B 49. B
group of words as it is used in the
sentence. PHYSICS ANSWERS:

et
96. The marathon is a gruelling race. 50. B 51. A 52. B 53. A 54. NIL 55. A 56. B
A. Powerful
B. Exhausting
C. Interesting
D. Distant
N
57. B 58. D 59. B 60. A 61. B 62. - 63. A

64. D 65. D 66. D 67. B 68. C 69. C


ia
97. The works of art in this gallery are 70. B 71. White 72. A 73. D
invaluable
er

A. Irreplaceable ENGLISH ANSWERS:


B. Precious
C. Priceless 74. D 75. B 76. B 77. E 78. A 79. E 80. C
ig

D. Durable
81. D 82. D 83. A 84. D 85. B 86. C 87. B
N

98. The detective was confused when the


clues pointed to several suspects. 88. A 89. B 90. D 91. C 92. B 93. A 94. D
A. Excited
B. Worried 95. B 96. B 97. C 98. B 99. B
d

C. Discouraged
ea

D. Perplexed

99. My father was sceptical about the story


I told him.
R

A. Ignorant
B. Doubtful
C. Embraced
D. Lukewarm

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2014/2015 POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

SECTION I: BIOLOGY D. Memory

1. The main difference between gram- 9. Which of the following human cell do not
positive and gram-negative bacteria is contain mitochondria?
_____ A. Nerve cell
A. Cell membrane B. Red blood cell
B. Cell wall C. Liver cell
C. Ribosome D. cell white blood cell
D. Mitochondria
10. A female anopheles can be recognized
2. Lactase hydrolyses lactose to_____ by_____

k
A. Glucose A. Proboscis and palpi long and more or

or
B. Glucose and galactose less of equal length
C. Fructose B. Proboscis long and palpi short
D. Glucose and fructose C. Proboscis short and palpi long

w
D. Both Proboscis and palpi are short
3. When oxygen supply to the tissue is
inadequate, the condition is_____ 11. Pyramid of energy in ecosystem

et
A. Dyspnoea is_____
B. Hypoxia A. Always upright
C. Asphyxia B. Always inverted
D. Apnoea

4. Who wrote the famous book “Origin of


N
C. Mostly upright
D. Mostly inverted
ia
species”? 12. Which of the following is mainly
A. Lamarck responsible for greenhouse effect?
B. Darwin A. SO2
er

C. De Vries B. CO2
D. Mendel C. CO
D. O2
ig

5. A flower which can be divide into two


equal halves by only one plane is_____ 13. Which state of malarial parasite is
N

A. Zygomorphic infective to man?


B. Actinomorphic A. Gametocyte
C. Regular B. Merozoite
D. Perfect C. crypto-Merozoite
d

D. sporozoite
6. Acid rain is caused by_____
ea

A. NO2 14. Plants that grow in saline water are


B. SO2 called_____
C. SO3 A. halophytes
R

D. CO2 B. hydrophytes
C. mesophytes
7. A plant cell become turgid due to_____ D. thallophytes
A. Plasmolysis
B. Exosmosis 15. One of the following is not a function of
C. Endosmosis bones
D. Electrolysis A. Place fore muscle attachment
B. Protection of vital organs
8. Which function will be lost due to C. Secretion of hormone for calcium
damage of occipital lobe? regulation blood and bones
A. Hearing D. Production of blood corpuscles
B. Speech
C. Vision 16. Photosynthesis take place faster in

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A. Yellow light 24. An example of poikilothermic organism


B. White light is_____
C. Red light A. Bird
D. Darkness B. Lizard
C. Cockroach
17. Ordinary table salt is sodium chloride, D. Rabbit
what is baking soda?
A. Potassium chloride 25. The soil with the water retaining
B. Potassium carbonate capacity is_____
C. Potassium hydroxide A. Loamy soil
D. Sodium bicarbonate B. Clay soil
C. Sandy soil
18. Ozone hole refers to_____ D. Stoney soil
A. Decrease in the ozone layer in

k
troposphere SECTION II: CHEMISTRY

or
B. Decrease in thickness of ozone layer in
troposphere 26. The present of an impurity in a
C. Decrease in the thickness of ozone layer substance will cause the melting point

w
in stratosphere to____
D. Increase in the thickness of ozone layer A. Increase
in troposphere B. Be stable

et
C. Be zero
19. Pollination is best defined as_____ D. Reduce
A. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
B. Germination of pollen grains
C. Growth of pollen tube in ovule
D. Visiting flowers by insects
N
27. How many unpaired electrons are there
in orbitals of fluorine acid?
A. 1
ia
B. 2
20. Plants receive their nutrients mainly C. 3
from______ D. 0
er

A. Chlorophyll
B. Atmosphere 28. 10.0 dm3 of water added to 2.0 mol
C. Light dm-3 of HCl, what is the final in mol dm-3?
ig

D. Soil A. 2.0
B. 0.5
N

21. Most of our important crop plants come C. 0.4


from _____family of plant D. 8.0
A. Grass
B. Orchid 29. Which of the following is not a
d

C. Rose
ea

D. Bromeliad 30. In an endothermic reaction, if there is


loss of endothermic reaction, the reaction
22. Which of the following is multicellular? will_____
A. Euglena A. Not be spontaneous
R

B. Amoeba B. Be at equilibrium
C. Spirogyra C. Be indeterminate
D. Chlamydomonas D. Be spontaneous

23. Which of the following is used in 31. Which of the following is employed as
measuring atmospheric pressure? anaesthesia?
A. Barometer A. NH3
B. Hydrometer B. NO
C. Hygrometer C. N2O
D. Thermometer D. NO2

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32. 2-methylbutane-2-ol is an example of A. Ethyne


a_____ B. Ethane
A. Secondary alkanol C. Ethanol
B. Tertiary alkanol D. Ethene
C. Dihydric alkanol
D. Primary alkanol 40. The gasification of coke is used in the
manufacture of_____
33. The compound that will react with A. Producer gas
sodium hydroxide to form salt and water B. Natural gas
only is_____ C. Synthetic gas
A. CH3 CH=CH2 D. Industrial gas
B. CH3 CH2 COOH
C. C6H12O6 41. Polyvinyl chloride is used in the
D. (CH3)3COH production of_____

k
A. Pipes

or
34. The decarboxylation of ethanoic acid B. Glass
will produce carbon (iv) and_____ C. Alloy
A. Propane D. Ceramics

w
B. Butane
C. Methane 42. The rate of reaction usually decrease
D. Ethane with a decrease in a concentration of

et
reactant because_____
35. An example of oxidation reduction A. Kinetic energy decreases
enzyme is_____ B. Temperature increases
A. Amylase
B. Protease
C. Lipase
N
C. Speed increases
D. Reactant collision decreases
ia
D. Dehydrogenase 43. Which of the following is a physical
change?
36. The saponification of an alkanoate to A. Freezing ice cream
er

produce soap and alkanol involves _____ B. Dissolving calcium in water


A. Dehydration C. Burning kerosene
B. Esterification D. Exposing white phosphorus to air
ig

C. Hydrolysis
D. Oxidation 44. Which of the following metals is purified
N

commercially by electrolysis?
37. An isotope has atomic number of 15 A. Zn
and a mass number of 31. The number of B. Fe
proteins it contain is_____ C. Sn
d

A. 31 D. Cu
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B. 15
C. 16 45. The gas that is most useful in
D. 46 protecting humans against solar radiations
is____
R

38. The hardness of water is mainly due to A. Chlorine


the presence of_____ B. Ozone
A. Calcium chloride or sodium chloride C. Carbon (iv) oxide
B. Calcium hydroxide or magnesium D. Hydrogen sulphide
hydroxide
C. Calcium trioxocarbonate (iv) or calcium 46. The type of iron that is best suited for
tetraoxosulphate (v) welding, making nails, chains and iron rods
D. Sodium hydroxide of magnesium is_____
hydroxide A. Pig iron
B. Wrought iron
39. Which of these is used to hasten the C. Cast iron
ripening of fruits? D. Iron pyrites

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A. A magnet is rotated through a coil of


47. Which of the following gases is wire to produce an electric current
commonly found in the atmosphere? B. Electric potential in a rotating coil of wire
A. Argon on permanent magnet.
B. xenon C. An electrical current causes a coil of wire
C. Neon in a magnetic field
D. Helium D. Forces from a permanent magnet allow
a coil wire to rotate
48. Which of the following is alkali?
A. NaOH 54. A neutral balloon is rubbed with a piece
B. NH3 of cloth. As a result, the balloon has a
C. Mg(OH)3 negative charge. Which of the following
D. Ca(OH)2 best explain why the balloon has a negative
charge?

k
49. Which of the following metal is the least A. The balloon is a conductor

or
reactive? B. The balloon is an insulator
A. Pv C. The balloon transfer charges to the cloth
B. Sn D. The balloon receive charges from the

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C. Hb cloth
D. Au
55. What is the magnitude of the

et
50. Which of the following in an example if momentum 0.50kg ball moving in a straight
chemical change? line at 5.0 m/s
A. Dissolution of salt in water A. 0.1kg m/s
B. Rusting of iron
C. Melting of ice
D. Separating mixtures by distillation
N
B. 2.5kg m/s
C. 6.3kg m/s
D. 10kg m/s
ia
SECTION III: PSYSICS 56. The human ear is most sensitive to
sound that has frequency of about
er

51. A rode is attached to block that has a 4000Hz. Assume that the speed of sound in
weight 120N. when the rope exert an air is 350 m/s. what is the wavelength of a
upward force N on the block, what is the sound heard in the air with this frequency?
ig

net force on the block? A. 0.043 m


A. 130 N up B. 0.085 m
N

B. 370 N up C. 12 m
C. 130 N up D. 340 m
D. 370 N up
57. A light bulb with a potential difference
d

52. A satellite in a circular orbit around of 120V across, it carries a current of


ea

earth with constant speed but not a 40.5A. which of the following is the power
constant velocity. Which of the following consumption of the light bulb?
statement best explains why A. 0.013 W
the satellite velocity is not constant? B. 80 W
R

A. The radius of the satellite’s orbit is not C. 120 W


larger D. 180 W
B. The force on the satellite mass is
constantly decreasing 58. An electric fan has power output of
C. The magnitude of the satellite 60W. How much wok has done if the fan
momentum is large operate for 20s?
D. The direction of the satellite`s motion is A. 0.5 J
constantly changing B. 60 J
C. 120 J
53. Which of the following statements D. 72000 J
describe electric generator?

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59. During a thunderstorm, which of the C. 12 s


following travel at a speed closest to 3.00 x D. 34 s
108 m/s
A. Wind from the storm 65. Which of the following always occurs
B. Sound from the thunder when a light ray reflects off a mirror? A.
C. Light from the lightning The speed of the light ray increases
D. Rain from the storm clouds B. The direction of the light ray stays the
same.
60. An athlete is training for a race by C. The frequency of the light ray decreases
performing timed trials of sprints up a as it replace and loses energy to the mirror.
staircase. Which set of varieties most D. The angle which the light ray strikes the
directly affect the athlete’s power? mirror equal the angle at which it reflects.
A. Bode weight, height climbed, width of
steps 66. Two positively charged objects are

k
B. Body weight, time spent climbing, width separated by a large distance. One of the

or
of steps positively charged object is replaced by a
C. height climbed, time spent climbing, negatively charged object, and the two
Bode weight objects are move closer to each other.

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D. height climbed, time spent climbing, Which of the following occurs in this
width of steps situation?
A. The attractive force become a repulsive

et
61. an appliance draws 4Amps of current force, which increases as the objects move
when connected to 120V. what is the closer to each other.
resistance of the appliance? B. The repulsive force become an attractive
A. 0.03V
B. 30V
C. 124V
N
force, which increases as the objects move
closer to each other.
C. The attractive force become a repulsive
ia
D. 480V force, which decreases as the objects move
closer to each other.
62. Which of the following statements best D. The repulsive force become an attractive
er

explains how heat flows by conduction? force, which decreases as the objects move
A. A large mass of air begins to move closer to each other.
faster.
ig

B. Energy is transferred by electromagnetic 67. Which of the following has the greatest
waves momentum?
N

C. Energy is transferred from molecule to A. 0.2kg ball moving at 40m/s


molecule B. 500kg car travelling at 16m/s
D. Large mass of warm air rises, replacing C. 2000kg truck travelling at 9m/s
the cooler above. D. 50kg child skateboarding at 4 m/s
d
ea

63. A person starts driving and travels 3km 68. What method of heat transfer allows
east to a store. The person then turns the sun’s heat energy to reach earth
around and travels 1 km west to another through the vacuum of space?
store. Finally, the person travels 2km west, A. Condensation
R

back to the starting point. What distance B. Conduction


has this person travelled? C. Convection
A. 0 km D. Radiation
B. 3 km
C. 5 km 69. A current of 2A passes through an 8V
D. 6 km load. What is the potential difference
between the load?
64. A 2m long pendulum swings back and A. 0.25 V
front 6 times in 17s. what is the period of B. 4.0 V
the pendulum? C. 10 V
A. 0.5 s D. 19 V
B. 2.5 s

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70. A man standing 300m away from a wall most suitable to fill the numbered gap
sounds a whistle, the echo from the wall in the passage.
reaches him 1.8s later. Calculate the
velocity of sound in air. PASSAGE
A. 540.0 ms-1
B. 333.3 ms-1 Locusts have from time to time been the
C. 270.0 ms-1 cause of terrible __76__ of farms. __77__
D. 166.7 ms-1 of locusts can, in a few hours strip vast
E. 83.3 ms-1 areas of green and fertile country of all
signs of __78__. They are __79__ or
71. Which of the following radiation has the periodic __80__ after a heavy __81__ of an
highest frequency? area, they may not appear for ten years or
A. Radio waves fourteen years. Now that more is known of
B. Light waves the way of life of locusts, these periodic

k
C. X-rays __82__ are better under stood and

or
D. Infra-red rays consequently more __83__ scientist know
the regions in which the gregarious phrases
72. Which of the following is used for of locusts may occur and can even

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controlling the amount of light entering the sometimes __84__ when an __85__ can
eye? take place.
A. Cornea

et
B. Pupil 76. A. Deprivation
C. Iris B. Infection
D. Optic nerve C. Disease

73. Which of the following statement is


correct about cathode rays? They are faster
N
D. Devastation

77. A. Swarms
ia
moving_____ B. Herds
A. Atoms C. Colonies
B. Ions D. Flock
er

C. Neutron
D. Protons 78. A. Pasture
B. Life
ig

74. An image which cannot be formed on a C. Vegetation


screen is to be____ D. Weed
N

A. Inverted
B. Real 79. A. Perennial
C. Virtual B. Casual
D. Erect C. Temporary
d

D. Seasonal
ea

75. Which of the following is usually used


to cause fission in an atomic reaction? A. 80. A. Parasites
Alpha particles B. Pests
B. Beta particles C. Predators
R

C. Electrons D. Vermin
D. Neutrons
81. A. Encounter
SECTION IV: ENGLISH LAGUAGE B. Invasion
C. Adventure
In the following passage, the D. Downpour
numbered gaps indicate missing
words. Against each number in the list 82. A. Attack
below the passage, four choices are B. Ambushes
offered in columns lettered A to D. for C. Escapades
each question, choose the word that is D. Combats

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83. A. Curable 90. He leads a dog’s life really because his


B. Protective freedom is always curtailed.
C. Controllable A. Never knows what to do
D. Preventable B. Never goes out
C. Sometimes does something wrong
84. A. Propose D. Never does what he want
B. Declare
C. Suggest 91. No one ever mentions him because he
D. Predict is regarded as the black sheep of the
family
85. A. Eruption A. The one with a sense of humour
B. Outburst B. The one who is always late
C. Incursion C. The one with a bad reputation
D. Outbreak D. The one who never wishes

k
or
From the word lettered A to D below 92. I shouldn’t go outside without raincoat
each of the following sentences, because it is raining cats and dogs
choose a word or group of words that A. It is just started to rain

w
is nearest in meaning to the underlined B. It raining heavily
expression as it is used in the sentence C. It going to rain
(86-88). D. It is raining a little

et
86. Death is unavoidable for every human 93. It is lovely house and big but, no body
being. uses it so it’s a bit of a white elephant
A. Inevitable
B. Essential
C. Necessary
N
A. Something very beautiful and useful
B. Something very cheap and useless
C. Something very big and useful
ia
D. Immoral D. Something very expensive and useless

87. The suspect was made to walk in front 94. When the business folded, he took the
er

of the curious crowd lion’s share


A. Surprised A. The simplest part
B. Astonish B. The smallest part
ig

C. Engrossed C. The biggest part


D. Anxious D. The only part
N

88. The monk lived an austere life in order 95. Without my glasses I can’t see where
to discipline himself I’m going in fact, I’m as blind as bat
A. Holy A. Very short sighted
d

B. Religious B. Very long sighted


ea

C. An ascetic C. Very far sighted


D. A prayerfully D. Very clear sighted

From the word lettered A to D below Questions 96-100, choose the correct
R

each of the following sentences, option that best complete the


choose the one that best explain the sentence.
underlined as it is used in the sentence
(89-95). 96. Can you hear what he is_____?
A. Saying
89. There are times when you must decide B. Speaking
and take the bull by the horns C. Telling
A. Make the right decision D. Talking
B. Make a bold decision
C. Make the wrong decision 97. She hasn’t come_____
D. Make a final decision A. Still
B. Already

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C. Yet ENGLISH ANSWERS:


D. Till
89. D 90. A 91. C 92. B 93. D 94. C
98. I_____ TV yesterday evening.
95. A 96. B 97. C 98. D 99. B 100. A
A. Views
B. Looked
C. viewed
D. Watched

99. She look _____a famous film star


A. As
B. Like
C. Similar

k
D. Same

or
100. I only_____ one mistake in last
night’s test.

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A. Made
B. Done
C. Did

et
D. Makes

BIOLGY ANSWERS:

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B
N
ia
10. 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. C 15.C 16. B
er

17. B 18. C 19. A 20. D 21. A 22. C

23. C 24. B 25. A


ig

CHEMISTRY ANSWERS:
N

26. D 27. C 28. A 29. - 30. B 31. C 32. A

33. D 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. B 38. B 39. D


d
ea

40. A 41. A 42. B 43. A 44. D 45.B 46. B

47. D 48. B 49. C 50. B


R

PHYSICS ANSWERS:

51. D 52. D 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. B 57. D

58. D 59. C 60. C 61. A 62. C 63. C 63. A

64. B 65. D 66. A 67. C 68. D 69. - 70. B

71. A

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2015/2016 POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

SECTION I: BIOLOGY A. Gill slit


B. Gill bars
1. Amoeba obtain its oxygen C. Gill covers
requirements_____ D. Gill filament
A. From oxidising food substance
B. From air trapped in vacuoles 9. Which of the following is not a product of
C. Through diffuse of air into its body fermentation of glucose?
D. Through an air cavity in the ectoplasm A. Energy
B. Alcohol
2. The hydra has two layers of cell C. Lactic acid
called_____ D. CO2

k
A. Ectodermis
B. Ectodermic endoderm 10. Which of the following process occurs

or
C. Ectodermic and dermis when the body temperature of a mammal
D. Epidermis and dermis rises above normal?
I. The arterioles in the skin dilate

w
3. Which of the following organisms has a II. Sweat production is reduced
largest surface area to volume ratio? III. The erector muscle contract

et
A. Man A. I only
B. Earthworm B. II only
C. Amoeba C. I and III only
D. Grasshopper

4. In which of the following organisms are


N
D. II and III only

11. The following are method of measuring


ia
ammonia excreted as a waste product? plant growth except_____
A. Man A. Determining the fresh and dry weight of
B. Bird plant
er

C. Amoeba B. Counting the number of fruits produced


D. Grasshopper C. Measuring the increase in height of the
shoot
ig

5. Which of the of the following plants parts D. Measuring the length and breadth of a
does not perform supportive function? leaf
A. Parenchyma, xylem, and collenchyma
N

B. Epidermis, xylem, and sclerenchyma 12. The oxygen released during


C. Parenchyma, collenchymas, and photosynthesis is obtained
sclerenchyma A. From the catalytic splitting of CO2 in
d

D. Sclerenchyma, xylem, and collenchymas plant tissues


B. From the breakdown of molecules in
ea

6. Which of the following indicate that cells


euglena is a plant? C. During the photolysis of water using
A. Conspicuous 'eye' spot energy trapped in chlorophyll
B. Presence of gullet D. By the excretion of excess oxygen in
R

C. Limited movement plant tissues


D. Presence of starch grains
13. Which of the following organs in human
7. Which of the is not a constituent of blood organs is responsible for the removal of
plasma? excess water?
A. Proteins A. The spleen
B. Mineral salt B. The kidney
C. Water C. Large intestine
D. Platelets D. Small intestine

8. Which part of the gill of fish is involved


in gaseous exchange?

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14. If the cerebellum of a person is D. Autotroph


damaged, which of the following will be
impaired? 21. A urine sample of a patient, tested with
A. Vision Benedict's/Fehlings's solution, gave an
B. Walking orange colour precipitate, indicating the
C. Breathing presence of_____
D. Digestion A. Glucose
B. Sucrose
15. In flowering plant, fertilization will C. Lactose
occur when_____ D. Maltose
A. The pollen grow downwards penetrating
the style 22. Which of the following structures
B. A pollen grain is transferred to stigma occupies the neural canal of the vertebral
C. One of the nuclei inside the pollen tube column of a vertebra?

k
fuses with the ovum A. Cerebellum

or
D. The nucleus of the pollen tube divides B. Hypothalamus
C. Medullar oblongata
16. The possession of breathing roots is a D. Spinal cord

w
characteristic of plants growing in___
A. Mangrove swamp 23. Which two structures are presence in
B. Coastal savannah palisade cell but not in a liver cell?

et
C. Guinea savannah A. Cell wall and cytoplasm
D. Shrub biome B. Cell wall and chloroplast
C. Cell membrane and cytoplasm
17. Measles in infants can be prevented
by______
A. Sleeping under mosquito net
N
D. Cell membrane and chloroplast

24. Which following characteristic is not


ia
B. Providing clean water supply possessed by most plants? Ability to _____
C. Taking anti-malaria tablets A. Move away from stimuli
D. Vaccinating young children B. Respire
er

C. Produce
18. Wildlife conservation can be enhanced D. Adapt to environment
by _____
ig

A. Enacting laws to encourage poaching 25. How many conjugal are involved in
B. Discouraging elimination of endangered sexual reproduction of paramecium?
N

species A. 1
C. Encouraging creation of satellite hunting B. 2
unit C. 4
D. Suppressing the activities of wildlife D. 8
d

conservation agencies
ea

19. When a food substance give a purple SECTION II: CHEMISTRY


colour on the addition of sodium
hydroxide and a drop of copper sulphate, 26. Which of the following compound is not
R

then the food substance is likely to a raw material for the manufacture of
contain_____ plastic?
A. Carbohydrates A. Ethyne
B. Fat B. Ethane
C. Protein C. Monochloro-ethene
D. Sugar D. Propene
E. butadiene
20. In any food chain, first member must
be a______ 27. which of the following statement is not
A. Carnivore correct about esterification?
B. Herbivore A. It is a slow reaction
C. Zooplankton B. The process is reversible

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C. It similar to hydrolysis D. Florescence


D. It is catalysed by acid E. Deliquescence
E. The product usually have fruity smell
34. Which of the following is alkanol?
28. The phenomenon observed when dust A. CH3(CH2)2OH
particles collide randomly is a beam of sun B. CH3CH=CHCH2OH
light is known as_____ C. CH3(CH2)3OH
A. Tyndale effect D. CH3CH(OH)CH3
B. Diffusion E. C(CH3)3OH
C. Osmosis
D. Brownian movement 35. Which of the following is the relative
E. Dialysis molecular mass of a compound which has
empherical formula CH2O?
29. The mass number of an atom of an (H=1, C=12, O=16).

k
element is sum of its_____ A. 42

or
A. Electron, neutron and proton B. 45
B. Electrons and proton C. 126
C. Protons and neutrons D. 145

w
D. Orbital electrons E. 180
E. Valence electrons
36. Which of the following is used as water

et
30. How many unpaired electrons are there softener?
in an atom of an element with the following A. Na2CO3. 10H2O
electronic configuration 1S22S22P2 B. CuSO4
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
N
C. mgSO4. 7H2O
D. CaCl2. 2H2O
E. Na2SO4. 10H2O
ia
D. 6
E. 8 37. What is the percentage by weight of
calcium by Ca(OCl)2?
er

31. An increase in the pressure of a gas (Ca=40, Cl=35.5, O=16)


results in decrease in its_____ A. 28%
A. Mass B. 31.6%
ig

B. Vapor C. 43.8%
C. Density D. 44.5%
N

D. Temperature E. 90.3%
E. Concentration
38. Which of the following gases is lighter
32. Which of the following is a general than air?
d

method of preparing acid? A. HCL


ea

A. Direct combination of constituent B. CO2


elements C. SO2
B. Double decomposition involving a salt D. NH3
solution E. All of the above
R

C. Reaction between a hydride and water


D. Reaction between a base and an 39. What is the value -14˚C on the kelvin
amphoteric oxide temperature scale?
E. Dissolution of hydroxide followed by A. 295˚K
neutralization B. 278˚K
C. 259˚K
33. The loss of molecules of water D. 278K
crystallization to the atmosphere by some E. 259K
crystalline is known as_____
A. Efflorescence 40. Lead and tin are the components
B. Effervescence of_____
C. Phosphorescence A. Steel

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B. Bronze 47. Which of the following statement is not


C. Brass used to detect radioactivity?
D. Dentists amalgam A. Wilson cloud chamber
E. Soft solder B. Geiger-muller counter
C. Mass spectrometer
41. Which of the following gases is D. Photographic plate
colourless, odourless and soluble in
potassium hydroxide solution. 48. The condensation of several amino
A. NO2 acids molecules gives_____
B. SO2 A. Long chain alkanoic acids
C. NH3 B. Secondary alkanols
D. CO3 C. Alkanoates
E. SO D. Proteins

k
42. If a solution has a pH of 2, it can be 49. What is the mass number of an element

or
concluded that it if its atom contains 10 protons, 10
A. Is a weak electrolyte electrons and 12 neutrons?
B. Has hydrogen ion concentration of 0.2

w
mol dm-3 50. Equilibrium is said to be attained in
C. Is as twice as acidic as a solution of pH 1 reversible reaction when:
D. Will produce effervescence with A. All the reactants have been used up

et
magnesium ribbon B. All the products have been formed
E. Is neutral C. There is no further change in
temperature
43. A finely divvied form of a metal burns
more readily in air than the rod form
because the rod has_____
N
D. The rates of the forward and backward
reactions are equal
E. Rate of information of the product
ia
A. Higher molar mass decreases with time
B. Smaller surface area
C. Protective oxide coating
er

D. Different chemical properties SECTION III: ENGLISH LAGUAGE


E. Same chemical properties
In the following passage, the
ig

44. In which of the following is the numbered gaps indicate missing


oxidation number of sulphur equal to -2? words. Against each number in the list
N

A. S8 below the passage, four choices are


B. H2S offered in columns lettered A to D. for
C. SO2 each question, choose the word that is
D. SO3 most suitable to fill the numbered gap
d

E. SO4 in the passage.


ea

45. How many orbitals associate with the P- PASSAGE


sub energy level?
A. 2 My country is considered to be an
R

B. 3 industrialized nation. Out of 25million


C. 5 __51__ only about a million are employed
D. 6 in__52__. A very large portion of its
E. 1 surface consists of __53__ areas. The rest
of the land is used for the __54__ of food.
46. One of the characteristics of transition In the north there is wide open land to
metal is_____ which owner of __55__ have grazing right.
A. Reducing ability
B. Ductility 51. A. citizens
C. Ability to conduct electricity B. Towns men
D. Formation of coloured ion C. Occupants
D. squatters

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A. Difficulties
52. A. harvesting B. Deficits
B. Agriculture C. Defects
C. gardening D. Defaults
D. Ranching
In each of the following sentences,
53. A. Urban there is one word or group of word
B. City underlined and one gap. From the list
C. Rural of word or group of words lettered A to
D. cultivated D, choose the one that is most nearly
opposite in meaning to the underlined
54. A. manufacture word or group of words and that will,
B. output at the same time, correctly fill the gap
C. production in the sentence.

k
D. Distribution

or
61. My uncle is a prosperous business man;
55. A. Hatcheries my aunt, unfortunately, is quite _____
B. poultry A. Unskilful

w
C. Tractors B. Dishonest
D. Livestock C. Unsuccessful
D. Unqualified

et
Questions 56-60, choose the correct
option that best complete the 62. The university has a large yearly
sentence. intake; very few_____ take place.

56. The celebration were rounded_____


with a novelty match.
N
A. Turnouts
B. Rejections
C. Expulsions
ia
A. Off D. Obstruction
B. Up
C. Down 63. Rather than make derogatory remarks
er

D. Out about the host, a guest should make_____


ones.
57. The earthquake that struck A. Polite
ig

Sacramento_____ the city B. Complementary


A. Confused C. Interesting
N

B. Devastated D. Honest
C. Demarcated
D. Troubled 64. Our mechanized services contrast
sharply with the_____ operation we had
d

58. After his defeat in the war, the before.


ea

general_____ his army and went into A. Electrical


retirement. B. Controlled
A. Fired C. Original
B. Retired D. Manual
R

C. Disbanded
D. Executed 65. After ade had listen to some advice, his
rigid ideas became more_____
59. The officers pledge their _____ loyalty A. Friendly
to the new government. B. Compromising
A. Indefatigable C. Flexible
B. Complete D. Democratic
C. Questionable
D. Unalloyed From the word lettered A to D below
each of the following sentences,
60. Cosmetics are sometimes use to cover choose a word or group of words that
the_____ of nature.

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is nearest in meaning to the underlined C. Owns the last house in the comfort
word as it is used in the sentence. D. Has a house that is not comfortable

66. The marathon is a gruelling race. 73. I was given a standing ovation for my
A. Powerful outstanding performance. This means that
B. Exhausting the senator_____
C. Interesting A. Everyone stood up to clap for me
D. Distant B. Everyone stood to catch a glimpse of me
C. Everyone congratulated me
67. The work of art in this gallery are D. I was asked to stand up
priceless.
A. Irreplaceable 74. We left kano one year ago to the day.
B. Precious This means that we left kano_____
C. Invaluable A. Exactly one year ago

k
D. Durable B. One year minus a day

or
C. One year and a day
68. The detective was perplexed when the D. About a year a go
clues pointed to several suspects.

w
A. Excited 75. I am not going to say yes or no until
B. Worried you come out into the open. This means
C. Confused that I will not give an answer until

et
D. Discouraged A. We go both outside
B. We agree on a position
69. My father was sceptical about the story C. You go outside
I told him.
A. Ignorant
B. Doubtful
N
D. You reveal your own position

SECTION IV: PHYSICS


ia
C. Embarrassed
D. Lukewarm 76. The nucleon number and the proton
number of an element are 23 and 11
er

70. The suspect refused to divulge the respectively, how many neutrons are
source of his information. present in the atom?
A. Confirm A. 11
ig

B. Disclose B. 12
C. Extract C. 23
N

D. Affirm D. 34

After each of the following sentences, 77. Which of the following is a scalar
a list of possible interpretations is quantity?
d

given. Choose the interpretation that A. Momentum


ea

you consider appropriate for each B. Acceleration


sentence. C. Displacement
D. Distance
71. Bala's farther gave him free hand to E. Force
R

run the family business. This means that


his farther_____ 78. Which of the following is not an
A. Assisted him freely example of a force?
B. Allow him to make his own decisions A. Tension
C. Made him sole owner of the decision B. Weight
D. Allowed him freedom of movement in C. Friction
the premises D. Mass
E. Thrust
72. The senator's house is the last word in
comfort. This means that_____ 79. Which of the following is a derived unit?
A. Has the most comfortable house A. Ampere
B. Speaks about the comport of his house B. Kilogram

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C. Second the acceleration of the body toward the


D. Ohm centre of the circle.
E. Kelvin A. 25.0 ms-2
B. 5.4 ms-2
80. The basic difference between the C. 5.0 ms-2
transverse waves and a longitudinal wave D. 1.8 ms-2
traveling in the same direction in a medium E. 0.2 ms-2
is in the_____
A. Amplitude of the wave 86. Which of the following statement is
B. Wavelength of the wave true?
C. Direction of vibration of the particles of A. The loudness of sound is determined by
the medium its frequency
D. Period of vibration of the particles B. Musical notes consists of combination of
sounds and regular frequency

k
81. When a metal ball is heated through C. The combination of overtones produced

or
30˚C its volume becomes 1.00180ms-3 if by musical instrument determine the
the linear expansivity of the material of the quality of sound
ball is 2.0 x 10-5K calculate its original D. The pitch of a note depends on

w
volume. frequency of vibration
A. 1.0000cm3 E. Noise can be produced by a combination
B. 1.0020cm3 of sounds of irregular sounds

et
C. 1.0036cm3
D. 1.0038cm3 87. A boy timed 20 oscillation of a certain
E. 1.0045cm3 pendulum three times and obtained

82. Which of the following radiations has


the highest frequency?
N
44.3s, 45.5s, and 47.7s respectively.
Calculate the mean period of oscillation of
the pendulum
ia
A. Radio waves A. 0.13s
B. Light waves B. 2.22s
C. X-rays C. 2.26s
er

D. Infrared rays D. 44.30s


E. Ultraviolet rays E. 45.17s
ig

83. Which of the following reasons explain 88. Which of the following statement is an
why the walls and ceilings of a standard advantage of nuclear fusion over nuclear
N

concert halls are usually covered with fission?


perforated pads? To_____ A. The resulting chain reaction which
A. Increase the intensity of the sound produces large amount of energy
waves B. No radioactive waste is produced as by-
d

B. Increase the loudness of the sound product


ea

waves C. Very high temperature is required in the


C. Reduce the effects of reverberation of process
sound waves D. The end product is lead
D. Decrease the frequency of sound waves E. Radioactive waste is generated
R

84. Calculate the length of a constant wire 89. A ball bearing is projected vertically
of cross-sectional area 4𝜋 x 10-8 m2 and upward from the ground with a velocity of
22
resistivity 1.1 x 10-6 Ωm (take 𝜋 as 7 ) 15m-1 calculate the time taking by the ball
A. 0.42m to return to the ground
B. 0.90m [g = 10ms-2]
C. 1.00m A. 1.5s
D. 2.25m B. 4.5s
C. 4.0s
85. A body moves along a circular path D. 5.3s
with uniform angular speed of 0.6rad 8-1 E. 3.0s
and a constant speed of 3.0 ms-1. Calculate

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90. An electric motor is a machine that A. 121.67m


converts_____ B. 148.50m
A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy C. 123.45m
B. Electrical energy into electrical energy D. 134.33m
C. High voltage to low voltage E. 149.35m
D. low voltage to High voltage
E. high energy to low energy 96. A body dropped from a certain height
above the ground level falls with
91. what change in the velocity would be uniform_____
produced on a body of mass 4kg if a A. Speed
constant force of 16N acts on it for 2s? B. Velocity
A. 0.5 ms-1 C. Acceleration
B. 8.0 ms-1 D. Retardation
C. 2.0 ms-1 E. Rotation

k
D. 9.0 ms-1

or
E. 10.0 ms-1 97. Which of the following values on the
absolute scale of temperature is the ice
92. In a domestic circuit, electrical point.

w
appliances and lamps are arranged in a A. 0K
parallel across the main so as to enable B. 32K
the_____ C. 100K

et
A. Same current to flow through the D. 273K
electrical appliances and lamps E. 723K
B. Maximum energy to be consumed at
least cost
C. Same fuse to be used for the electrical
appliances and the lamps
N
98. A force acting on a body causes a
change in the momentum of the body from
12kgms-1 to 16kgms-1 in 0.2s. calculate the
ia
D. Voltage across the appliances not to be magnitude of the force.
affected when the lamps are switch on and A. 14.0N
off B. 20.0N
er

E. Heat losses to be minimized C. 4.0N


D. 0.8N
93. A loaded spring perform simple E. 19.0N
ig

harmonic motion with and amplitude of


5cm, if the maximum acceleration of the 99. Which of the following is not a reason
N

load is 20cm-2. Calculate the angular for using soft iron in making core of a
frequency of the motion transformer?
A. 2 rad s-1 A. Retains its magnetism for a long time
B. 4 rad s-1 B. Is easily magnetized
d

C. 6 rad s-1 C. Reduces energy loss due to hysteresis


ea

D. 8 rad s-1 D. Is easily demagnetized


E. 10 rad s-1 E. None of the above

94. When compared with water, mercury is 100. The main function of the mouth piece
R

prepared as a thermometric liquid because of a telephone is that; it converts sound


it_____ energy to_____
A. Has higher density A. Mechanical energy
B. Has lower specific heat capacity B. Electrical energy
C. Exhibit anomalous thermal expansion C. Chemical energy
D. Contains molecules which have very D. Thermal energy
strong adhesive forces
E. Has higher specific heat capacity

95. How far from a cliff should a boy stand


in order to hear the echo of his clap 0.9s
later? (speed in sound air = 330ms-1)

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BIOLOGY ANSWERS:

1. A 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. C

10. C 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. A

17. B 18. A 19. C 20. D 21. A 22. D 23. B

24. A 25. A

CHEMISTRY ANSWERS:

26. E 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. A 31. D 32. E

k
33. 34. D 35. 36. 37. A 38. 39. C 40.A

or
41. B 42. 43. B 44. B 45. B 46. D 47.C

w
48.D 49.B 50.D

ENGLISH ANSWERS:

et
51. A 52. B 53. A 54. C 55. D 56. A

57. C 58. C 59. B 60. C 61. C 62. A

63. A 64. D 65. C 66. A 67. A 68. C


N
ia
69. C 70. B 71. A 72. C 73. D
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74. D 75. D

PHYSICS ANSWERS:
ig

76. 77. 78. 79. 80. A 81. 82. 83. C 84.


N

85. E 86. 87. E 88. A 89. C 90. B 91. B

92. 93. B 94. D 95. B 96. A 97. B 98. B


d
ea

99. D 100. B
R

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2016/2017 POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

INSTRUCTIONS: Today, the traveller is king at the Nigerian


airports as oppose to the air travels used to
I. Candidates should fill in all sections of be under Nigeria airways monopoly. Before,
the answer sheet; it was almost easier for a camel to pass
II. Candidates are required to answer all through the eye of a needle than travellers
questions; to board a plane. Following from this, the
III. Candidates are to shade their correct apostle of deregulation rightly heap all the
options boldly, using HB pencil, on the blames for the problems associated with
answer sheet provided. the petroleum products distribution in this
county squarely on the government. Which
Time allowed: 60 minutes owns all the refineries and which sells

k
petroleum product to its consumers
SECTION I: ENGLISH LANDUAGE through its agency, the Nigerian National

or
Corporation [NNPC]. In the same way, the
Read the passage below carefully and government argues that if the government
answer the questions that follow. NNPC monopoly were broken with the

w
introduction of entrepreneurs to the
Those who have been following the refining and sale of petroleum product in

et
arguments for or against the deregulation the country, the Nigerian population will be
of the oil industry in Nigeria may have got all better for it. It stands to reason that
the impression that deregulation connotes ones the government continuous to fix
or indifference on the part of the
government. But there is nothing so far
from official quarters to suggest that
N
maximum prices for petroleum product in
the country, the deregulation of the oil
sector should bring some relief to the
ia
deregulation will cause the government to people by ensuring that wastage,
relinquish its control of oil industry because corruption and inefficiency are reduced to
the absence of oil industry does not mean it the minimum. Consumers will also have the
er

will surrender all its rights to entrepreneurs last laugh because competition will result
who may want to participate in the prices. This appears to be the sense in the
industry. deregulation.
ig

Yet the opposition express so far against 1. Which of these correctly summarises the
deregulation stems from fear that arguments adduced by the advocates of
N

government may leave Nigerians at the deregulation?


mercy of heartless cartel who will command A. Deregulating the economy will make
height of the oil industry and cause the the NNPC more efficient and less wasteful
d

pump price of oil to rise above the means B. The government should deregulate every
of most Nigerians. As a result of such fears, aspect of the Nigerian economy
ea

many Nigerians have become resentful in C. Competition in the oil industry will be
deregulation and, in fact the Nigerian D. Completion should be allowed in the
labour Congress [NLC] has threatened to production and distribution of petroleum
deregulate the government if it should go products
R

ahead with the deregulation plan. But


Nigerians have not fared any better with 2. Which of the following conclusions can
the economy totally in the government be reached from the passage?
control. Until recently, the most important A. The deregulation of the economy will
sectors of the economy were in hands of solve all the problems of petroleum
the government, Today the deregulation of products and distribution
some of these sectors has broken its B. The government is hell-bent on leaving
monopoly and introduce healthy Nigerians at the mercy of a heartless cartel
competition to make things a little easier C. Nigerians cannot buy fuel at exorbitant
for Nigerians. A good example is the stifling prices
monopoly of the Nigerian airways.

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D. The deregulation of the oil industry does of a variety of situations, and can be used
not preclude the Government from exerting to find the answers to questions are widely
its influence different as possible.

3. An appropriate title for this passage 6. A. experiment


is_____ B. instruments
A. The advantage of a deregulated C. approaches
economy. D. factors
B. Making a case for deregulations.
C. Highlighting the dangers of deregulations 7. A. respondent
D. The problems of the NNPC B. experiment
C. system
4. Which of the following is true according D. data
to the passage?

k
A. The Nigerian labour congress has been 8. A. studies

or
able to prevent the Government from B. procedures
deregulating the economy C. objects
B. The introduction of entrepreneurs to the D. conditions

w
oil industry will make life easy only for a
few Nigerians 9. Constant
C. The opposition to the deregulation of the B. good

et
oil industry is not unanimous C. dark
D. A better life for all Nigerians is D. Natural
conditional upon the deregulation of the
economy.

5. The writer seems to suggest that_____


N
10. A. research
B. method
C. tool
ia
A. Nigerians do not understand the sense in D. rational
deregulations
B. The anxiety cause by the deregulation In each of questions 11 to 15, the word
er

question is groundless in capital letters has the emphatic


C. A deregulated economy will the stress. Choose the option that best fits
Government to be indifferent to the flight of the expression in the sentence.
ig

ordinary Nigerians
D. Only a heartless cartel will benefit by the 11. He travelled ONLY 20 kilometres before
N

deregulation of the oil industry his car stops.


A. Did he travelled only 20 kilometres
The passage has gap numbered 6 to before his car stopped?
10. Choose the most appropriate B. Did he travelled exactly 20 kilometres
d

option for each gap from the options before his car stopped?
ea

provided. C. Did you walk only 20 kilometres before


his car stopped?
It is the business of scientist to accumulate D. Did travel more than20 kilometres
knowledge about the universe and all of before his car stopped?
R

that is in it, and to find, if he is able


common __6__ which underlie and account 12. The king RAN into the palace.
for the facts that he knows. He chooses A. Where did the king ran into?
when he can, the method of the controlled B. Did the king walk to the palace?
__7__ if he wants to find the effect of light C. Did the queen run to the palace?
in growing plants, he takes many plants, as D. Who ran to the palace?
like as possible. Some in the dark and all
the time keeping all other __8__ 13. The university has been TEMPORARILY
(temperature, moisture, nourishment) the closed.
same. In this way, by the light only, the A. Has the campus been permanently
effect of light in plant can be clearly seen. closed?
This __10__ of using 'controls' can be apply

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B. Has the university been permanently SECTION III: BIOLOGY


closed?
C. Has the university been permanently 21. An amoeba and an unlaid chicken egg
closed? are;
D. Has the college been temporarily closed? A. Animal tissues
B. Organelles
14. The man BOUGHT the newspaper. C. Single cells
A. Is this the news which the man bought? D. Organisms
B. Did the man read the newspaper?
C. Who bought the newspaper? 22. In corms, food is usually stored in
D. What did the man buy? the_____
A. Leaves
15. My uncle retired from the police. B. Stems
A. did brother resign from the police? C. Roots

k
B. did sister resign from the police? D. Buds

or
C. did uncle retire from the police?
D. did brother retire from the police? 23. The animals that move by means of
flagella include_____

w
SECTION II: CIVIL EDUCATION A. Chlamydomonas and euglena
B. Planaria and amoeba
16. Which of the following is an acceptable C. Amoeba and hydra

et
societal value? D. Paramecium and planaria
A. Honesty
B. Merriment 24. The structures found only in plant cell
C. Praise singing
D. Family planning
N
are_____
A. Cell membranes and cytoplasm
B. Chromatin nucleolus
ia
17. Which of the following is an effective C. Cell wall and chloroplast
way of resolving inter-communal conflict? D. Cell membranes and lysosome
A. Meditation
er

B. Dialogue 25. A flower that has both stamens and


C. Litigation pistil are said to be_____
D. Avoidance A. Staminate
ig

B. Pistillate
18. When there is dispute in a community, C. Perfect
N

members should_____ D. Imperfect


A. Be indifferent in the issue
B. Cooperate with others 26. When oil is poured into the breeding
C. Leave the community entirely site of mosquitoes, it_____
d

D. Be resolute to their cause A. Deprives the larvae of water


ea

B. Kills the adults


19. Community development project can C. Suffocates the pupae
best be achieved if the people are____ D. Slows down egg development
A. Cooperative
R

B. Religious Use the diagram below to answer


C. Optimistic questions 27 and 28.
D. Knowledgeable

20. Which of the following is the major


problem of the Nigerian Civil service?
A. Neutrality
B. Red tapism
C. Impartiality
D. Anonymity

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k
or
31. If the gas is cooled at what
27. The correct evolutionary sequence of temperature will start to condensate?
the organisms represented is A. 125˚C

w
A. I → III → II → IV B. 150˚C
B. II → III → IV → I C. 175˚C

et
C. III → II → I → IV D. 250˚C
D. IV → II → III → I
32. How long does it takes all the solid to
28. Oviviparity is the type of fertilization
exhibited by the organism labelled
A. I
N
melt?
A. 2.5mins
B. 6.0mins
C. 1.0mins
ia
B. II
C. III D. 3.0mins
D. IV
er

33. Which of the following represent


29. The carnassial teeth of a carnivorous hybridization in ethyne?
animal consists of_____ A. Sp2
ig

A. Last upper premolar and the first lower B. Sp2d


molar C. Sp3
B. Last upper molar and the last molar D. Sp
N

C. First upper premolar and the first lower


molar 34. When chlorine is passed into water and
D. First upper molar and first lower molar the resulting solution ss exposed to
d

sunlight, the product formed are_____


A. Chlorine gas and hydrogen
ea

30. Examples of organisms in which B. Oxygen and oxochlorate [I] acid


extracellular digestion occur are C. Chlorine gas and oxochlorate [I] acid
A. Fungus, loranthus and housefly D. Hydrochloric acid and oxygen
B. Rhizopus, sponges and earthworm
R

C. Roundworm, tapeworm and hydra 35. A burning candle produces water


D. Rhizopus, housefly, hydra and_____
A. Carbon(II) oxide
B. Carbon(IV) oxide
SECTION IV: CHEMISTRY C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Use the graph below to answer
questions 1 to 2. 36. If 0.75 mole of cyclopropane 0.66 mole
of oxygen are mixed in vessel with a total
pressure of 0.1 atmosphere, what is the
partial pressure of oxygen in the mixture?
A. 0.55 atmosphere

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B. 0.44 atmosphere 42. The height at which atmosphere ceases


C. 0.33 atmosphere to exist is about 80km. if the atmospheric
D. 0.22 atmosphere pressure on the ground level is 760mmHg,
the pressure at a
37. The processes which return carbon (IV) height of 20km above the ground level
oxide to the atmosphere include_____ is_____
A. Photosynthesis, decay and respiration A. 380 mmHg
B. Photosynthesis, respiration and B. 190 mmHg
transpiration C. 750 mmHg
C. Respiration, decay and combustion D. 480 mmHg
D. Ozone depletion, combustion and decay
43. A stone of mass 1kg is dropped from a
38. The postulate of Daltons atomic theory height of 10m above the ground and falls
which stills hold is that_____ freely under gravity. Its kinetic energy 5m

k
A. Particles of different elements combine above the ground is the equal to_____

or
in a simple whole number ratio A. Its kinetic energy on the ground.
B. Atom can neither be created nor B. Half its initial potential
destroyed C. initial potential energy

w
C. The particles of the same elements are D. twice its initial potential energy
exactly alike
D. All elements are made of small 44. a plane sound wave of frequency

et
indivisible particles 85.5Hz and velocity 342ms-1 is reflected
from a vertical wall. At what distance from
39. Which of the following gives a the wall does the wave have an antinode?
precipitate when treated with NaOH
solution?
A. Na2CO3
N
A. 1m
B. 0m
C. 2m
ia
B. CH3COONa D. 3m
C. NH4Cl
D. AlC3 45. A ray of light strikes a plain mirror at
er

an angle of incidence of 35˚. If the mirror


40. The compound below is a_____ is rotated through 10˚, through what an
CH3 angle is the reflected ray is rotated?
ig

A. 45˚
CH3CH C H B. 20˚
N

C. 70˚
D. 25˚
OH
A. Tertiary alkanol 46. The driving mirror of a car has a radius
d

B. Primary alkanol of curvature of 1m. A vehicle behind the


C. Glycol
ea

car is 4m from the mirror. Find the image


D. Secondary alkanol distance behind the car
A. 8/7
B. 4/7
R

SECTION V: PHYSICS C. 4/9


D. 9/2
41. The efficiency of a machine is always
less than 100% because the_____ 47. A bread toaster uses a current of 4A
A. Velocity ration is always greater than the when plugged in a 240 volts line. If it takes
mechanical advantage one minute to toast slice of bread, What is
B. Work output is always greater than then the energy consumed by the toaster?
work input A. 3.60 x 103J
C. Effort applied is always greater than the B. 5.76 x 104J
load lifted C. 1.60 x 102J
D. Load lifted is always greater than the D. 1.60 x 104J
effort applied

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48. The diagram below shows two PHYSICS ANSWERS:


capacitors P and Q and capacitances 2𝜇F
and 4𝜇F respectively connected to d.c 41.A 42.C 43.A 44.A 45.B 46.C 47. 48.
source.
49.A 50.B

The ratio of energy stored in P to Q is_____


A. 1 : 2
B. 2 : 1

k
C. 4 : 1

or
D. 1 : 4

49. The force of a current carrying


conductor in a magnetic field is greatest

w
when the___
A. Conductor is at right angles within the

et
field
B. Force is independent of the angle
between the field and the conductor
C. Conductor is parallel with the field
D. Conductor makes an angle of 60˚with
the field
N
ia
50. The eye controlled the amount of light
reaching the retina by adjusting the
er

A. Cornea
B. Iris
C. Retina
ig

D. Optic nerve
N

ENGLISH ANSWERS:

1. D 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. A
d

10.B 11.B 12.B 13.B 14.B 15.C


ea

CIVIC EDUCATION ANSWERS:

16.A 17.B 18. 19.A 20.


R

BIOLOGY ANSWERS:

21.C 22.B 23.A 24.C 25.C 26.C 27. 28.

29.A 30.B

CHEMISTRY ANSWERS:

31.B 32.A 33.D 34.D 35.B 36.C 37.C 38.

39.C 40.

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2017/2018 POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

SECTION I: ENGLISH LANDUAGE C. Harsh voice menacing posture


D. Loud voice and fretting movement
A wolf, seeing a lamb drinking from a river,
wanted to find a pretext for devouring him. 3. Which of the following aptly describe the
He stood higher up the stream and the moral of the story?
lamb of muddying the water so that he A. The sins of the forefather are visited
could not drink. The lamb said that he drink upon the children no matter how long it
only with the tip of his tongue, and that in takes
any case he was standing lower down the B. If you have made up your mind to hang
river, and could not possibly disturb the your dog, any rope will do for the purpose.
water higher up: when this excuse failed C. The law is weak in defence of the poor

k
him , the wolf said: well, last year you against the rich and mighty.

or
insulted my father I was not even born D. No matter how highly placed he is in the
then, replied the lamb. society, the unmindful law breaker will
always meet his nemesis

w
You are good at finding answers, said the
wolf, “but what do you mean by taking up 4. From the way the story ended, it can be
so much of the path where I am walking? " concluded that the_____

et
The lamb, frightened at the wolf 's angry A. Lamb did not survive the encounter.
tone and terrible aspect, told him with all B. Wolf and the lamb parted amicably
die submission, that he could not conceive C. Wolf had encountered the lamb parents.
how his walking on such a wide could
occasion him any convenience. What!
exclaimed the wolf, seemingly in great
N
D. Lamb offended the wolf quite seriously.

5. The charges levelled against lamb


ia
anger and indignation. 'You are as are_____
imprudent as your father who seized me by A. Greed, wandering, insolence, disrespect.
the throat last year, and caused me to be B. Exuberance, pollution, wickedness, and
er

kept in cage for three months'. stubbornness.


If you will believe me, 'said the lamb my C. Garrulity, loquacity, pride and
parents are poor simple creatures who lived arrogance.
ig

entirely by green stuffs, we are none of us D. Pollution, insolence, obstruction and


hunters of your species , ' 'Ah I see its no aggression.
N

use talking to you' said the wolf, drawing


up closed to him. 'it runs in the blood of The passage bellow has gaps
your family to hate us wolf and therefore numbered 6 to 10. Choose the most
we have come conveniently together, I’ll appropriate option for each gap from
d

just pay off a few of your fore fathers' the options provided.
scores before we part.' So, saying, he leapt
ea

at the lamb from behind and garrotted him. Capitalism is an economic system which
found in hr the principle of free enterprise
1. The expression when this excuse failed and the private ownership of the means of
R

him suggest that the production and distribution. The __6__ of


A. Wolf only made up the charges levelled capitalism claim that its initial characteristic
against the lamb. is economic __7__ the producer is free to
B. Lamb was more intelligent than the wolf produce whatever goods he __8__, but
C. Lamb was prepared for the charges the __9__ is equally free to buy what he
levelled against him wants. There is market mechanism under
D. Wolf was uncertain of the charges made this system, which brings the producer and
against him consumer together and tends to equate the
supplies of one to the demands of the
2. The expression angry tone and terrible other, and __10__ the whims and caprice
aspect refers to the wolf`s_____ of both.
A. Sonorous voice and overbearing attitude
B. Towering size and thunderous voice

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6. A. protagonist A. A drunkard driving can be punished


B. antagonist B. Driving while drive is an offence
C. determiners C. Drinking while driving is an offence
D. attorneys D. Drinking and driving is an offence

7. A. exploitations 14. In many countries, is ostensibly being


B. manipulation practice____
C. manoeuvring A. Democracy is indeed being practice in
D. freedom many practice
B. Many countries have effective democracy
8. A. sells C. Many countries have democracy in
B. buys practice .
C. fancies D. Democracy is apparently practiced in
D. manufactures many countries

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or
9. A. Customer 15. The investigators stated clearly that
B. consumer they had reach a dead end in their scrutiny
C. controller of suspects in the murder case

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D. marketer A. The investigators did not know what to
do with the suspects' murder.
10. A. neutralize B. The investigators has evidence to

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B. harmonize sentence the suspect to death in the end.
C. settle C. There was no further progress in the
D. decide investigation of the murder suspects.

In each of questions 11 to 15, select


the option that best explain the
N
D. The end had come for the suspects in
the murder case
ia
information conveyed in the sentence. SECTION II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

11. Everyone was ready to play the devil's 16. What does the eagle in the Nigerian
er

advocate in the impeachment controversy. coat of arm represent?


A. Everyone was willing to speak against A. Peace
the impeachment to encourage discussion B. Terror
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on it. C. Agriculture
B. Everyone was willing to defend an D. Strength
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unpopular point of view concerning the


impeachment 17. The supreme organ of the united nation
C. Everyone was willing to fight for the organization is the_____
defenceless citizens no matter the A. General assembly
d

consequences. B. Secretary general


ea

D. Everyone was willing to be am evil C. World court


genius in the controversy D. World bank

12. Adamu's father was a key figure in that 18. The military government in Nigeria was
R

ministry. headed by
A. The ministry trust Adamu's father as a A. General Murtala Muhammad
central figure B. General Yakubu Gowon
B. Adamu's father was a figurehead in the C. General Agunyi Ironsi
ministry D. General Olusegun Obasanjo
C. Adamu's father position is essential in
the ministry 19. Which of the following is NOT one if the
D. Adamu`s father keeps the key to the data processing function of a computer?
ministry A. Gathering data information
B. Passing data information
13. The government warns that drink- C. Analyzing the data or information
driving is a punishable under the law____ D. Oaring the data or information

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C. Mesophytes
20. The computer system language “DOS” D. Hydrophytes
stand for?
A. Disc Operating System 27. The structural adaptation for desert
B. Disc Operating Session plants for water conservation is_____
C. Digital Operating System A. Spiny leaves
D. Digital Open System B. Prominent stomata in leaves
C. Broad leaves with numerous stomata
SECTION III: BIOLOGY D. Spongy mesophyll

21. The process in which complex 28. Fungi are referred to as heterotrophs
substance are broken down into simpler because they_____
ones is refer to as_____ A. Have mycelium
A. Metabolism B. Lack roots

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B. Tropism C. Are filamentous

or
C. Anabolism D. Lack chlorophyll
D. Catabolism
29. The blood circulatory system of

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22. The organ which is sensitive to light in vertebrates consists of_____
euglena is_____ A. Heart, aorta, arteries and veins
A. Chloroplast B. Heart, vena cava, arteries and veins

et
B. eyespot C. Heart, arteries, capillaries and veins
C. gullet D. Heart, aorta, capillaries and veins
D. flagellum

23. The organelles present in cells that


actively respiring and photosynthesizing
N
30. The blood circulatory system of
vertebrates consists of_____
A. Heart, aorta, arteries and veins
ia
are_____ B. Heart, vena cava, arteries and veins
A. Nucleus and centrioles C. Heart, arteries, capillaries and veins
B. Mitochondria and chloroplast D. Heart, aorta, capillaries and veins
er

C. Lysosomes and ribosomes


D. Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic SECTION IV: CHEMISTRY
reticulum
ig

31. What volume of carbon (II) oxide is


24. Which of the following describes a produce by reacting excess carbon with
N

characteristic of arthropods? 10dm3 of oxygen?


A. The body is not divided by a number of A. 15dm3
segments B. 10dm3
B. The body is covered by chitin C. 5dm3
d

C. The organism find it easy to grow freely D. 20dm3


ea

D. The organism has a pair of jointed


appendages 32. The rate of diffusion of gas Y is twice
that of Z. if the relative molecular mass of
25. Which of the following distinguishes a Y is 64 and the two gases diffuse under the
R

butterfly from a moth? same conditions, find the relative molecular


A. They have similar antennae mass of Z.
B. The abdomen of moth is fatter than that A. 8
of butterfly B. 16
C. The wings of butterfly rest horizontally C. 32
but those of moth rest vertically D. 256
D. Both are active during the day
33. How many unpaired electrons are in the
26. The plants that grow in deserts or very p-orbital of a fluorine atom?
dry areas are refer to as_____ A. 1
A. Epiphytes B. 2
B. Xerophytes C. 3

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D. 0 compound above is

34. Which of the following molecule is held A. 2-methylpent-I-ene


together by hydrogen bond? B. 2-methylpent-II-ene
A. H2SO4 C. 4- methylpent-1-ene
B. HF D. 3- methylpent-2-ene
C. CH4
D. HBr SECTION V: PHYSICS

35. The bond formed between two 41. In order to remove error from parallax
elements with electron configuration when taking measurements with a meter
1s22s22p63s2 and 1s22s22p4 is_____ rule, the eye should be focused___
A. Dative A. Slantingly towards the left on the
B. Ionic markings

k
C. Metallic B. Slantingly toward the right on the

or
D. Covalent markings
C. Vertically downwards on the markings
36. In an electrochemical cell, polarization D. Vertically upwards on the markings

w
is caused by_____
A. Tetraoxosulphate (IV) acid 42. A load is pulled at a uniform speed
B. Hydrogen along horizontal floor by a rope at 450C to

et
C. Chlorine floor. If the force in the rope is 1500N,
D. Oxygen what is the frictional force on the load? A.
1524N
37. The minimum amount of energy
required for a reaction to take place is____
A. Activation energy
N
B. 1350N
C. 1260N
D. 1061N
ia
B. Kinetic energy
C. Lattice energy
D. Ionization energy
er

38. In an endothermic reaction, if there is a


loss in entropy, the reaction will____
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A. Not be spontaneous
B. Be at equilibrium
N

C. Be indeterminate
D. Be spontaneous

39. In the laboratory preparation of


d

ammonia, the flask is placed in a slanting From the velocity-time graph shown above,
ea

position, so as to____ which of the following quantities CANNOT


A. Enhance the speed of reaction be determined?
B. Prevent formation of precipitate A. Deceleration
C. Prevent condensed water from breaking B. Initial velocity
R

the reaction flask C. Total distance travelled


D. Enable the proper mixing of the reactant D. Initial acceleration
in the flask.
44. A rocket is fired from the earth’s
surface to a distance planet. By Newton's
40. law of universal gravitation, the force F,
H will____
A. Increase as a reduces
CH3 – C – CH2 – CH = CH2 B. Increase as G varies
C. Remains constant
CH3 D. Increases as r reduces
The IUPAC nomenclature for the

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45. An object move in a circular path of D. Separate to its component colours


radius 0.5m with a speed of 1ms-1. What is
its angular velocity? 50. A piece of a radioactive material
A. 8 rads-1 contains 100 atoms. If its half-life is 20
B. 4 rads-1 seconds, the time taking for 124 atoms to
C. 2 rads-1 remain is_____
D. 1 rads-1 A. 20 seconds
B. 40 seconds
46. C. 60 seconds
D. 80 seconds

ENGLISH ANSWERS:

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. B

k
or
10. D 11. A 12. C 13.B 14. D 15. C

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ANSWERS:

w
16. D 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. C

et
BIOLOGY ANSWERS:

From the diagram above, calculate the


work done when the particles moves from
N
21. D 22. B 23. B 34. B 25. C 26. B 27. A

28. D 29. C 30. C


ia
x=0m to x=80m.
A. 1200J
B. 2400J
CHEMISTRY ANSWERS:
er

C. 6000J
D. 7000J
31. D 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. B 36. B 37. A
ig

47. A pinhole camera is placed 300m in


38. D 39. C 40. C
front of a building so that the image is
formed on a screen 5cm from the pinhole.
N

If the image is 2.5cm high, the height of


PHYSICS ANSWERS:
the building will be_____
A. 25m
41. C 42. D 43. 44. A 45. 46. 47. D 48. B
d

B. 50m
C. 100m
ea

49. D 50. C
D. 150m

48. After reflection from the concave


mirror, rays of light from the sun
R

converges____
A. At the radius of curvature
B. At the focus
C. Beyond the radius of curvature
D. Between the focus and radius of
curvature

49. Dispersion of white light is the ability of


white light to_____
A. Penetrate air, water and glass
B. Move in a straight light
C. Move around corners

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2018/2019 POST UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

SECTION I: ENGLISH LANDUAGE Bon Ekri won the 1999 booker price with
his work, 'The famished road', and the
Read the following passage carefully world celebrate Nigeria as the giant of
and answer the questions 1 to 5. Africa. It was also gathered that most of
the publishers hurriedly produced books
Recent literary researches reveal that and in the process marred their good
Nigerians hardly have time to read. In contents. Most of the books are not
essence the reading culture in Nigeria is properly edited and eventually become
now at a low ebb. It’s disturbing however, substandard when compared with foreign
the few Nigerians that reads concentrate products the extent to which books
more on foreign books than indigenous publishing standard have fallen in Nigeria is

k
productions. Most Nigerians authors of alarming.
novels, story books , fiction and non-fiction

or
series have decried on different occasions, Often Nigerian publishers have been
their woes. They were bitter as way most blamed for this it instructive that none of
owners of bookshop and publishes treat the books mention have been published in

w
them. It was gathered that most renowned Nigeria. It was discovered that most of the
bookshop’s hardly sells books that was student in tertiary institutions depends on

et
writing by indigenous authors. They prefer dictations from their lecturers or handout. A
to stock foreign books. science lecturer in one of the Nigerian
universities who had been a victim of
When contacted by DAILY INDEPENDECE,
the general manager of popular bookstore
in Lagos island declared that most of the
N
handouts sale scandals, told DAILY
INDEPENDENCE the reality campus
challenges in relation to books: I was
ia
bookshop prefer to store foreign books forced to dictate note to students who hung
because of higher demands for them. The in my every word in the absence of text
question that borders most Nigerian books in a library that had, to all intent and
er

authors is, while their overseas counterpart purpose, stop buying new books when the
are been rewarded with great international local currency is devalued. But what other
honours, why Nigerians are not according alternative do one have?
ig

them such recognition in their country?


1. It can be inferred from the passage
Recently Nigerian novelist Chimamanda that_____
N

Ngozi Adichie, won 2007 orange prize A. Nigerians have access to foreign books
award the literary world’s top award for only
fiction written by women. The award carries B. Nigerians undergraduates do not read
d

a fixed tag of 30,000. It was reported in text books


publishers weekly, half of a yellow sun, the C. Nigerians read foreign and indigenous
ea

book that earned her the award was book alike


profoundly gripping. According to the D. Nigerians read mostly foreign books only
reviewer the book is a 'transcendent novel'
of many descriptive triumphs most notably 2. The reasons for lack of indigenous books
R

its diction of impact of war brutalities on in most renowned bookshops, according to


peasants and intellectuals alike it’s a the passage, is_____
searing history in fictional form, intensely A. Nigerians prefer reading foreign books
evocative and immensely absorbing 'Chinua B. Foreign books attract more buyers
Achebe' father modern African literatures’ C. Indigenous books are sometimes not
also won the second ever man booker of available
the international price of 60,000 with his D. The low quality of indigenous books.
first novel things fall apart published in
1958, when professor Wole Soyinka won 3. The expression….that earned her the
the novel price for literature in 1986, the award was profoundly gripping, as used in
fame confirmed the relevance of Nigerians the passage means that the book_____
in the world of classical excellence when

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A. Is highly interesting and captures C. Hide


attention D. destroy
B. Is of high quality to the writer
C. Attracts many indigenous and foreign In each of question 6 to 10, choose the
readers option nearest in meaning to the
D. Is widely acknowledge by many authors word(s) or phrase in italics.

4. The university lecturer gives his reason 11. The party supporters vilified the
for issuing handouts as _____ chairman for the role he played in the
A. Lack of teaching aids among students crises that rocked the party.
B. Low purchasing power A. Impeached
C. Low quality of books B. Condemned
D. Lack of sufficient time C. Challenged
D. Elect

k
5. A suitable title for this passage is_____

or
A. Nigerian literary readers 12. Publishing as a business venture has
B. Nigerian publishers and international become a hot potato in Nigeria
awards A. Unacceptable

w
C. Poor reading culture in Nigeria B. Unpleasant
D. Why Nigerian lecturers sell handouts. C. Expensive
D. Profitable

et
In each of question 6 to 10, choose the
option opposite in meaning to the 13. The cynics feared that the nation’s
word(s) or phrase in italics. nascent democracy will fail.

6. Gregarious animal can be found in the


zoo.
N
A. Illusionist
B. Pessimists
C. Delinquents
ia
A. Lonely D. Critics
B. Tame
C. Wild 14. The nurse was in favour of voluntary
er

D. Various euthanasia
A. A sleeping pill
7. I am loath to the assignment. B. A major operation
ig

A. Unwilling C. A painless death


B. Waiting D. A simple operation
N

C. Dying
D. Willing 15. There was a glut of oil on the market
A. An abundance of
8. Only these who are gullible fall victim to B. An increase in
d

his trickery C. A variety of


ea

A. Astute D. An accumulation of
B. Courteous
C. Saucy SECTION II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
D. Devastated
R

16. Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit was_____


9. A cool bath in a both weathers can be A. A German physicist
truly invigorating. B. Develop the mercury thermometer in
A. Debilitating 1714
B. Devastating C. Devised temperature scale
C. Disgusting D. All of the above
D. Unpalatable
17. Excessive secretion from the pituitary
10. The witness decided to conceal the gland in the children results in_____
evidence A. Increased height
A. Waive B. Retarded growth
B. Divulge C. Weakening of bones

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D. None of the above


25. Thee eggs of bird contain relatively
18. Free surface of a liquid behave like a larger quantities of yolk than those of
sheet and tends to contract to the smallest amphibians and reptiles because_____
possible area due to the_____ A. Birds are generally bigger in size
A. Force of adhesion B. Embryonic development is longer in
B. Force of friction birds
C. Centrifugal force C. Those of birds are fertilized internally
D. Force of cohesion D. Birds laid shelled eggs.

19. Headquarters of United Nations 26. Epigeal germination of a seed is


Organization is situated at_____ characterized by____
A. New York city, USA A. More rapid elongation of a hypocotyl
B. Hague, Netherland than the epicotyl

k
C. Geneva, Switzerland B. More rapid elongation of an epicotyl

or
D. Paris, France than the hypocotyl
C. Equal growth rate of both the hypocotyl
20. Fathometer is used to measure____ and epicotyl

w
A. Earthquakes D. Lack of growth of the hypocotyls
B. Rainfall
C. Ocean depth 27. Nervous control is different from

et
D. Sound intensity hormonal control in that the former_____
A. Involves only chemical transmission
SECTION III: BIOLOGY B. Is a slower process

21. The breaking down of fats and oils into


simpler absorbable compounds is catalysed
N
C. Product short-term changes
D. Has no specific pathway
ia
by the group of enzymes called____ 28. If a nursing mother is not producing
A. Lipases enough milk, her hormonal system is
B. Hydrolases probably in deficiency in_____
er

C. Amylases A. Prolactin
D. Peptidases. B. Testosterone
C. Thyroxine
ig

22. The surface of an alveolus in a mammal D. Insulin.


is well supplied with tiny blood vessels
N

called_____ 29. The association between termites and


A. Arterioles the cellulose-digesting protozoans in their
B. Venules guts is an example of_____
C. Arteries A. Saprophytism
d

D. Capillaries B. Mutualism
ea

C. Parasitism
23. The anaerobic fermentation of a D. Commensalism
glucose molecules yields_____
A. 38 ATP molecules 30. The progressive loss of energy at each
R

B. 2 ATP molecules level in a food chain leads to_____


C. Pyruvic acid and alcohol A. An increase to biomass at each
D. Water and carbon (IV) oxide successive level
B. A decrease in biomass at each
24. The opening of the stomata is successive level
controlled by the_____ C. An increase in the number of organisms
A. Presence of a pore at each successive level
B. Increase in solute concentration in the D. An increase in the total weight of living
guard cells matter at each successive level
C. Presence of guard cells
D. Decrease in solute concentration in the SECTION IV: CHEMISTRY
guard cells

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31. Which of the following are structural 38. Kerosene is commonly used to remove
isomers? the red colour stain of palm oil from cloth
A. Propanoic acid and propan-1,2- diol because it____
B. Propanol and propanone A. Help to spread the oil over a larger
C. Ethanoic acid propanoic acid surface area
D. Ethan-1,2-diol and ethanoic acid B. Reacts with the oil surface to form an
odourless compound
32. In the purification of impure sample of C. Makes the oil to evaporate easily by
ethyl ethanoate synthesized by dissolving it
esterification, concentrated D. Helps to dilute the oil and reduce its
tetraoxocarbonate (IV) solution is used to colour
remove____
A. Water basic impurities 39. The gas that is the most dangerous
B. basic impurities pollutant to human is_____

k
C. acidic impurities A. Sulphur (IV) oxide

or
D. ethoxyethane B. Carbon (IV) oxide
C. Nitrogen (II) oxide
33. How hydrogen atoms does a single ring D. Hydrogen sulphide

w
cycloalkane have less than the
corresponding open chain-alkane? 40. How many moles of limestone will be
A. Two required to produce 5.6kg of CaO?

et
B. Three A. 0.20mol.
C. Four B. 0.10mol.
D. One C. 1.12mol.

34. Equal moles of ethyne and hydrogen


iodide react to give
N
D. 0.56mol.
[Ca = 4, C = 12, O = 16]
ia
A. CH2 = CH2 SECTION V: PHYSICS
B. CH2 = CH1
C. CH3 = CH3 41. The percentage of the original nuclei of
er

D. CH2 = CH1 a sample of a radioactive


substance left after 5 half-live is____
35. A substance that is used as a ripening A. 8%
ig

agent fruit is_____ B. 5%


A. Ethane C. 3%
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B. Propene D. 1%
C. Methane
D. Butane 42. The particle that is responsible for
nuclear fission in a nuclear reactor is____
d

36. When water boilers are used for a long A. Neutron


ea

period of time, the solid substances left B. Proton


behind as scale are _____ C. Electron
A. Magnesium trioxosilicate (IV) and rust D. Photon
B. Magnesium trioxosilicate (IV) and
R

calcium trioxosulphate (VI) 43. Which of the following statement is true


C. Clay and magnesium trioxosilicate (IV) of the properties of a moving coil
D. Clay and rust galvanometer?
A. The coil has a small area
37. The solubility curve shows the variation B. There are strong heir springs to give a
of solute concentration with____ large control couple.
A. Volume C. There is strong permanent magnet to
B. Temperature give high magnetic flux
C. Vapour density D. It has a small number of turns of coil.
D. Pressure
44. A bead travelling on a straight wire is
brought to rest at 0.2m by friction. If the

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mass of the bead is 0.01kg and the D. 0.4


coefficient of friction between the bead and
the wire is 0.1, determine the work done by 50. Thermal equilibrium between two
the friction objects exist when_____
A. 2 x 10-4J A. The temperatures of both objects are
B. 2 x10-3J equal.
C. 2 x 101J B. The quantity of heat in both objects is
D. 2 x102J the same.
[g = 10 ms-1] C. The heat capacities of both objects are
the same.
45. A hose of cross-sectional area 0.5m2 is D. One object loses heat continuously to
used to discharge water from a water the other.
tanker at a velocity of 60 ms-1
in 20s into a container. If the container is

k
filled completely, the volume of the ENGLISH ANSWERS:

or
container is
A. 240m3 1. D 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. B 10. B
B. 600m3

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C. 2400m3 11. A 12. D 13. A 14. C 15.A
D. 6000m3
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ANSWERS:

et
46. Water does not drop through an open
umbrella of silk material unless the inside if 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. C
the umbrella is touched. This is due
to_____
A. Capillarity
B. Osmotic pressure
N
BIOLOGY ANSWERS:

21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. B 26. A 27.


ia
C. Viscosity
D. Surface tension 28. A 29. B 30. B
er

47. A piece of stone attached to one end of CHEMISTRY ANSWERS:


a string is whirled round in a horizontal
circle and the string suddenly cuts. The 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. A 36. A 37. B
ig

stone will fly off in a direction


A. Perpendicular to the circular path. 38. D 39. D 40. B
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B. Parallel to the circular path.


C. Tangential to the circular path. PHYSICS ANSWERS:
D. Toward the centre of the circle
41. C 42. A 43. C 44. B 45. 46. D 47. C
d

48. A 90cm uniform lever has a load of 30N


ea

suspended at 15cm from one of its ends. If 48. B 49. B 50. A


the fulcrum is at the centre of gravity, the
force that must be applied at its other end
to keep it in horizontal equilibrium is____
R

A. 15N
B. 20N
C. 30N
D. 60N

49. By what factor will the size of an object


placed 10cm from a convex lens be
increased if the image is seen on a screen
placed 25cm from the lens?
A. 15.0
B. 2.5
C. 1.5

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