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SCHEDULE & CONTENT
TEST NO. DATE OF MOCK TEST SECTIONS COVERED TOPICS COVERED

Test 1 [4283] JUNE 25, 2023 Maths, DI and RC Percentage
Profit, Loss, and Discount
SI, CI
DI - Line Chart
Test 2 [4284] JULY 16, 2023 Maths, DI and RC Ratio, Mixtures & Allegation
Average
Speed and Distance
DI - Bar Graph
Test 3 [4285] AUGUST 6, 2023 Maths, DI and RC Number System, LCM/HCF
Time and Work
Set Theory
DI - Pie Chart
Test 4 [4286] AUGUST 27, 2023 Maths, DI and RC Age
Permutation and Combination, Path
Probability
Geometry
Height and Distance
Mensuration
Progression
Algebra
DI - Data Table
Test 5 [4287] SEPTEMBER 17, 2023 Maths, DI and RC Maths Complete Syllabus
Test 6 [4288] OCTOBER 1, 2023 Reasoning and RC Numerical and Alphabet Series
Coding-Decoding
Cubes
Dice
Puzzles - Order, Ranking and Comparison
Test 7 [4289] OCTOBER 15, 2023 Reasoning and RC Syllogism
Venn diagram
Inequality
Puzzles - Arrangement (Circular, Linear, etc.)
Test 8 [4290] OCTOBER 29, 2023 Reasoning and RC Direction Test
Blood Relation
Counting of figures
Puzzles - Grouping/Scheduling
3
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Test 9 [4291] NOVEMBER 11, 2023 Reasoning and RC Calendar
Clock
Non Verbal Series (Figure Based Questions)
Arithmetical Reasoning
Misc. Puzzles
Test 10 [4292] NOVEMBER 26, 2023 Reasoning and RC Reasoning Complete Syllabus
Test 11 [4293] DECEMBER 10, 2023 FULL LENGTH TEST ALL SECTIONS (Covered all the topics)
Test 12 [4294] DECEMBER 24, 2023 FULL LENGTH TEST ALL SECTIONS (Covered all the topics)
Test 13 [4295] JANUARY 7, 2024 FULL LENGTH TEST ALL SECTIONS (Covered all the topics)
Test 14 [4296] JANUARY 21, 2024 FULL LENGTH TEST ALL SECTIONS (Covered all the topics)
Test 15 [4297] FEBRUARY 4, 2024 FULL LENGTH TEST ALL SECTIONS (Covered all the topics)
Test 16 [4298] FEBRUARY 18, 2024 FULL LENGTH TEST ALL SECTIONS (Covered all the topics)
Test 17 [4299] MARCH 3, 2024 FULL LENGTH TEST ALL SECTIONS (Covered all the topics)
Test 20 [4302] APRIL 14, 2024 FULL LENGTH TEST ALL SECTIONS (Covered all the topics)
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TEST BOOKLET
CSAT APTITUDE TEST– (4283) – 2024

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Passage – 2
Read the following two passages and answer the items The purpose of any social security measure is to give
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items individuals and families the confidence that their level
of living and quality of life will not erode by social or
should be based on the passages only.
economic eventuality. A worker works not only for
Passage – 1
economic motivation but also for the sense of
Tigers live in some of the most important but also most
belongingness and security within his workplace.
highly threatened habitats on the planet, where many of
Hence, the employer must ensure as best as he can that
Asia's most exceptional species thrive. In
his workers have this psychological satisfaction that
Sumatra, dense tropical forests form the only habitat in their as well as their family's lives are socially secure
the world where tigers are found to live alongside and cared for. Indian legislations have gone a long way
orangutans, rhinos and elephants. Protecting tiger in strengthening this cause and because of this and
landscapes not only helps to protect these majestic big many other factors, today in the world of labour and
cats but also thousands of other species. Left with just employment, the employee and employers’ interest is at
5% of the range where they used to roam, tigers are par with each other, and the principal focus is on the
combined interest and satisfaction of both. If these
losing their homes to deforestation, infrastructure, and
conditions are fulfilled with a joint effort and
other human disturbances, forcing them into rapidly
contribution from both the employer and the employee,
diminishing pockets of nature.
then the workplace to a great extent will become a
1. Which one of the following statements best
home of sorts.
reflects the crux of the passage?
2. Based on the above passage, the following
(a) Due to deforestation and other human assumptions have been made:
disturbances, the tiger has become the most 1. Social security measures are the best way
threatened species on the planet. to ensure a decent quality of life of an
(b) Being the keystone species, it is critical to employee and his family.
preserve tiger habitats. 2. More than salary, it is the sense of
(c) Asia holds the highest population of tigers, belongingness towards the workplace
which motivates the employee to work.
and the majority have their habitat in
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Sumatra.
(a) 1 only
(d) Diminishing habitats of tigers can threaten
(b) 2 only
human life due to frequent human-wildlife
(c) Both 1 and 2
encounters.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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3. Which one of the following statements best 6. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below
followed by a question.
S1: x is 40% of y, and y is 60% of z.
(a) Both social security and an employee’s S2: x is 25% more than y, and y is 20% less
commitment at work is critical to ensure than z.
Question: What is the value of x in terms of z?
that work is actually joyful. Which one of the following is correct in respect
(b) More than the government, the employer is of the above Statements and the Question?
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the
responsible for the happiness of the Question
employees. (b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the
Question
(c) When the workplace becomes a sort of a
(c) Either S1 alone or S2 alone is sufficient to
home, the performance of all the employees answer the Question
(d) Both S1 and S2 together are sufficient to
and the management improves manifold.
answer the Question
(d) For India to exploit its demographic
Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
dividend to the fullest, social security
Study the following graph carefully and answer the
measures are a must. questions that follow.
The given line graph shows the earnings and expenses
of Sachin (in thousands) in different years from 2017 to
4. If p% of (p/q) + (p/q) % of p = r% of (p/q), 2022.
then what is the value of r?
Earnings and Expenses of Sachin in
(a) 2p different years
(b) p2/q 700
600
600
(c) p/q
500 450 450
400
In thousands
(d) 2/q 350 500

400
300 Earning
300 350 350 Expense
300
5. 15% of the sum of the ages of Raju and Bittu 200 250
is equal to 25% of the difference of their ages. 100 150
0
What percent of the age of Bittu is equal to the 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022
age of Raju? (Assume that the age of Raju is

greater than that of Bittu) 7. In which of the following years was the
percentage increase or decrease in earnings the
(a) 10% maximum as compared to the previous year?
(b) 60% (a) 2022
(b) 2020
(c) 200%
(c) 2021
(d) 400% (d) 2019

8. What is the ratio of increase in earnings and Directions for the following 5 (five) items:
expenses in the year 2020 as compared to the Read the following four passages and answer the items
previous year? that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
(a) 6 : 5
Passage – 1
(b) 9 : 7
Traditional food security programs tend to adopt a
(c) 1 : 2
production-focused approach, which seeks to directly
(d) None of these
influence food security by increasing the supply of
food. The focus on food production leads to the neglect
9. A sum of money becomes 16 times in 6 years of other areas in which the root causes of the food
and 81 times in 10 years. What is the rate of system's underperformance, as well as the leverage
compound interest? points to bring about the biggest impacts, can often be
(a) 30% found. Furthermore, the interwoven interactions and

feedbacks in the food system mean that direct
(b) 40%
interventions in one area create risks or exacerbate
(c) 60%
problems in another.
(d) None of these
10. Sanjay invests a certain amount at simple
(a) India’s food security programs do not
interest, on which he gets ₹ 2870 as interest in address the new challenges related to
7 years. Consider the following Statements. hunger.
1. If rate of interest is increased by 2%, he (b) Other ways to deal with food security
will get ₹ 3280 as interest in 7 years. include cash transfers and more focus on
2. If rate of interest is decreased by 3%, he nutritional security.

(c) For dealing with the new challenges in food
will get ₹2430 as interest in 7 years.
security, the structure of food systems
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
related to interactions and feedback needs
(a) 1 only
to change.
(b) 2 only
(d) Ensuring food security by merely
(c) Both 1 and 2 increasing food production is not a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 sustainable solution.

Passage – 2 13. Which one of the following statements best
A new World Bank study finds that the impact of reflects the crux of the passage?
unsafe food costs low and middle-income economies (a) Increasing global burden of foodborne
about US$ 110 billion in lost productivity and medical
disease calls for a proactive role of the
expenses each year. Yet a large proportion of these
World Health Organization.
costs could be avoided by adopting preventative
(b) Low and middle-income countries should
measures that improve how food is handled from farm
to fork. Better managing the safety of food would also adopt the best food safety practices of the
significantly contribute to achieving multiple developed countries.

Sustainable Development Goals, especially those (c) Due to increased food-borne illnesses, there
relating to poverty, hunger, and well-being. Foodborne is a dire need for increased investment in
diseases caused an estimated 600 million illnesses and health infrastructure, especially in low and
420,000 premature deaths in 2010 according to World
middle-income countries.
Health Organization. This global burden of foodborne
(d) Focus on food safety is important not only
disease is unequally distributed. Relative to their
for the health and economy of the nation,
population, low- and middle-income countries in South
Asia, Southeast Asia, and sub-Saharan Africa bear a but also to meet international benchmarks.
proportionately high burden. They account for 41 per Passage – 3

cent of the global population yet 53 per cent of all The environment plays a crucial role in people’s
foodborne illnesses and 75 per cent of related deaths. physical, mental, and social well-being. Despite
Unsafe food threatens young children the most: significant improvements, major differences in
although children under 5 make up only 9 per cent of environmental quality and human health remain
the world’s population, they account for almost 40 per
between and within European countries. The complex
cent of foodborne diseases and 30 per cent of related
relationships between environmental factors and human
deaths.
health, considering multiple pathways and interactions,
assumptions have been made: should be seen in a broader spatial, socio-economic,
1. This global burden of foodborne disease is and cultural context. Much progress has been achieved
unequally distributed across countries, but through dedicated approaches to improving the quality
evenly distributed across age groups. of the environment and reducing burdens on human
2. Agencies working on foodborne illnesses health — but many threats remain. Meanwhile, new
should primarily focus on young children
challenges are emerging with a wide range of potential,
from low and middle-income countries.
highly uncertain, ecological, and human health
implications. In this context, technological
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only advancements may provide new benefits — however,
(c) Both 1 and 2 history also offers many examples of adverse health
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 impacts from new technologies.

14. Which one of the following statements best 15. Which one of the following statements best
(a) Resorting to technology for addressing
rising challenges in ecological and human (a) It is not possible to eradicate
health might not give the desired results.
communicable diseases in the coming
(b) The fluctuations in environmental quality
and human health are limited to European future.
region only.
(b) High life expectancy and declining
(c) Without addressing environmental health,
challenges to human health are impossible mortality rates in children will boost human
to address.
capital, and eventually economic growth.
(d) Before the adoption of any technology for
resolving any ecological or human health (c) Development of natural immunity should
challenge, it is important to evaluate its
be the focus area in dealing with
adverse health impacts via some
government recognized lab. communicable diseases like TB and
Passage – 4
malaria.
In the health sector, India has made enormous strides
over the past decades. The life expectancy has crossed (d) Both (a) and (b)
67 years, and infant and under-five mortality rates are
declining as is the rate of disease incidence. Many
diseases, such as polio, guinea worm disease, yaws, and 16. A shopkeeper sells an item at a certain price. If
tetanus, have been eradicated.
he sells that item at 33.33% of the original
Despite this progress, communicable diseases are
expected to continue to remain a major public health selling price, then he suffers a loss of 33.33 %.
problem in the coming decades posing a threat to both
Find the profit percent, if he sells that item at
national and international health security. Besides
endemic diseases such as human immunodeficiency 60% of the original selling price?
virus infection and acquired immune deficiency
(a) 35%
syndrome (HIV/AIDS), tuberculosis (TB), malaria, and
neglected tropical diseases, communicable disease (b) 20%
outbreaks will continue to challenge public health,
(c) 25%
requiring a high level of readiness in terms of early
detection and rapid response. (d) 37.5%
17. Meenakshi invested ₹ 8000 in a bond where 19. Study the graph given below carefully and
interest rate doubles every year. At the time of answer the question that follows.
The given line graph shows the number of male
investment, the rate of interest was 4% per
and female patients that recovered in different
annum. What amount of money will she receive hospitals P, Q, R, S, T and U.
at the end of the 3rd year?
Patients recovered in different hospitals
(a) ₹ 10800 40 35
35 30
(b) Less than ₹ 10000 30
25
25 22.5
(c) More than ₹ 11000 20 27.5
20 25 25 Male
20 12.5 20 Female
(d) None of these 15
10 15
5
0
18. Study the graph given below carefully and
P Q R S T U
answer the question that follows:

Male patients that recovered in hospital R are
FDI in 2008 and 2009 approximately what percent of the total male
30 27 patients that recovered in all the hospitals?
24
25 (a) 20%
20 17
15 16 (b) 34%
15 12
9 9 9 (c) 24%
10 8 8
4
5 4 4
5 (d) 29%
5
0 0 0 0 0 0
0
Mec Engi
hani neer
Pain Servi
Elect Real
roni Estat Food
Phar
Che
mica
Ferti Othe 20. Raman bought a bicycle costing ₹ 8000 at two
t ces ma lizer r
cal ing cs e l
2008 17 15 8 16 9 9 4 0 0 0 5
successive discounts of 10% and 15%
2009 9 4 0 12 0 5 0 27 4 8 24 respectively. He spent some money on
2008 2009
repairing it and then sold it for ₹ 8000. Which
of the following statements is correct?
For how many sectors was there an increase in
(a) If he earns a profit, then the sum of
FDI in 2009 as compared to 2008? repairing cost and profit is ₹ 1880.
(a) 2 (b) If repairing cost is 30% of the cost price of
(b) 4 the bicycle, then he will make a loss.

(c) Repairing cost is more than 30% of the cost
(c) 1
price.
(d) 5 (d) None of these

21. A shopkeeper sells a book marked ₹ 40 at a 24. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below
discount of 15%, and along with it gives a pen
S1: Number B is 30% less than number C.
of ₹ 2 free with it. If he earns a profit of 60%, S2: Number A is 37% less than number C.
Question: Number A is what percent less than
the cost price of the book must be number B?
(a) ₹ 22 Which one of the following is correct in respect

of the above Statements and the Question?
(b) Approximately 166% of the profit (a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the
Question
(c) 30% of the marked price
(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the
(d) Data not sufficient Question
(c) Either S1 alone or S2 alone is sufficient to
answer the Question
22. In a party, 72% of the people ate roti (chapati) (d) Both S1 and S2 together are sufficient to
answer the Question
and 44% ate rice. If each person ate either roti
25. Two statements are given below followed by a
or rice and 80 people ate both, then how many
question.
people were there in the party? S1: Sales increased by 20% from Year 1 to
Year 2.
(a) 315
S2: Sales increased by 15% from Year 2 to
(b) 500 Year 3.
Question: Is the increase in sales (in absolute
(c) 574
terms) from Year 1 to Year 2 greater than the
(d) Can’t be determined increase in sales from Year 2 to Year 3?
Which one of the following is correct in respect
(a) Both S1 and S2 together are sufficient to
23. Sanjay’s expenditure is 40% of Dinesh’s
answer the question, but neither S1 alone
expenditure, which is 25% of Shikha’s nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the
Question.
expenditure. Sanjay’s expenditure must be
(b) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the
(a) 85% more than Dinesh’s expenditure Question, but S2 alone is not sufficient to
answer the Question.
(b) 10% more than Shikha’s expenditure (c) S1 alone or S2 alone is sufficient to answer
(c) 90% less than Shikha’s expenditure the Question.
(d) Both S2 and S1 together are not sufficient
(d) None of these to answer the Question

26. Study the graph given below carefully and 28. There are three contestants Rohan, Mohan and
answer the question that follows.
Sohan in an election. Rohan secured 30% of the
Number of Bicycles manufactured by two companies A
and B
total votes, Mohan secured 60% of the
450 416 remaining votes and Sohan secured 84000
400
350 307 310 votes. What was the winning margin (i.e.
289
300 270 348
250
250
difference between the winner and runner-up)
260 266
200
218 224 in number of votes?
150
179
100 (a) 46000
50
0 (b) 26000
2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018
(c) 40000
A B
(d) 36000
The average number of bicycles manufactured
by company A is approximately what percent
of the average number of the bicycles 29. Ravi invests ₹ 4000 in a scheme which will
manufactured by company B during 2013 to
amount to ₹ 7840 in some years at compound
2018?
(a) 67% interest.
(b) 78% Consider the following statements.

(c) 83%
1. In half of that time ₹ 4000 will amount to ₹
(d) 81%
5600.
27. Puja and Archana both invested a certain 2. The rate of interest is 12%.
amount separately. Puja got ₹ 820 at simple
interest at the rate of 5% per annum in 2 years,
while Archana got the same interest (a) 1 only
compounded annually in the same time and at (b) 2 only
the same rate of interest.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Consider the following statements:
1. Sum of the principals they invested is ₹ (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8200.
2. Archana invested ₹ 200 more than Puja.
(a) 1 only Read the following two passages and answer the items
(b) 2 only that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage – 1 Passage – 2
The traditional justification for keeping interstate rivers The United Nations (UN) World Water Development
under the Centre’s purview is that since these rivers are Report (WWDR) has provided an update on the present
not confined by any boundaries (political or trends of clean water availability and future
administrative), no state can claim an exclusive right to expectations. Water security, the capacity of a
utilise their waters by depriving another state located
population to safeguard sustainable access to adequate
downstream. Interestingly, however, while the Union
quantities of water of acceptable quality, is already at
List mentions “interstate water,” the State List simply
risk for many, and the situation will become worse in
uses the term “water” to signify what is essential
the next few decades. Clean water scarcity is a major
“surface water” confined within the boundaries of the
issue in today’s world of 7.7 billion people. The strain
state. This has allowed states to legislate on the entire
on the water system will grow by 2050 when the world
extent of surface water available within its borders,
population will reach between 9.4 and 10.2 billion, a 22
regardless of whether the source of the river or its
tributary is located outside its boundary or the river is to 34% increase. The strain will be aggravated by
draining into another state. In this regard, a state only unequal population growth in different areas unrelated
exercises its right to use water for various purposes as to local resources. Most of this population growth is
long as the Union government deems fit. In the event of expected in developing countries, first in Africa, and
indiscriminate use of interstate waters by a state, the then in Asia, where scarcity of clean water is already a
Centre can enact a law to prohibit the state in the larger major issue.
public interest. 31. Which one of the following statements best
30. Which one of the following statements best reflects what is implied by the passage?
reflects what is implied by the passage?
(a) UN WWDR should primarily focus on
(a) All states having interstate rivers are at a
Africa and Asia for ensuring access to
disadvantage as those rivers are under the
clean water.
Centre’s purview.
(b) In addition to the existing causes for water
(b) The conflict between “interstate water” in
scarcity in Africa and Asia, population
Union List and “water” in the state list
growth will be a major contributor to it.
should end with an amendment.
(c) Not only developing countries, but also
(c) Complex nature of interstate river water
distribution requires the adoption of the developed countries face scarcity of clean
‘right of use’ by states and oversight by the water.
Centre. (d) The best mechanism to ensure sustainable
(d) No state should have any kind of power access to clean water is to control
concerning interstate river water utilization. population growth.

32. To pass an examination it is necessary to obtain 35. Study the graph given below carefully and
43% marks. Anshuman secured 86 marks, but answer the question that follows.
failed by 86 marks.
Which of the following statements is/are right?
(i) Total marks are a factor of 7.
(ii) Passing marks are 238 marks less than the
total marks.
(iii) His marks are 52% less than the passing
marks.
(iv) On adding 200 more marks, his score
becomes 66.27% more than the passing
marks.
In which of the given years was the export
Select the correct answer using the codes given
price per quintal the maximum?
below.
(a) 2002
(a) Only (i)
(b) 2003
(b) Only (ii) and (iii)
(c) 1999
(c) Only (iv)
(d) 1997
(d) All of the above
33. Sachita invested a certain amount of money on 36. Study the graph given below carefully and
compound interest, which became 69% more in answer the question that follows.
two years. What must be the rate of interest? Half-yearly percentage increase in the height of a tree
(a) 25% 60%
50%
(b) 30% 50%
40%
(c) 16% 40%
(d) None of these 30% 25%
20%
20%
34. Mihir invested some money at 6% per annum, 10%
10%
which amounted to ₹1430 in 5 years on simple
0%
interest. If the rate of interest is increased to 6 Months 1 year 1.5 Year 2 year 2.5 year
10% per annum now, then what will be the

If initial height of the tree was 2 feet, then what
amount that he will get in two and a half years?
will be its height by the end of 1.5 years?
(a) ₹ 1480
(a) 2.5 feet
(b) ₹ 1100
(b) 3 feet
(c) ₹ 1375
(c) 4 feet
(d) None of these
(d) None of these

37. The value of a machine is depreciating by 16% 40. Shyamlal lends ₹3750 at 12% compound
every year. If in 2022 its value was ₹ 37,044, interest per annum for 2 years. How much extra
then what would have been its value 3 years money will he get as interest at the end of that
time period?
ago?
(a) ₹ 904
(a) ₹ 61500
(b) ₹ 872
(b) ₹ 62500
(c) ₹ 954
(c) ₹ 63500
(d) ₹ 1008
(d) Can’t be determined
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

38. Ramesh and Suresh invested a sum total of ₹ Read the following three passages and answer the items
2100. Ramesh invested at 4.5% simple interest that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
for 3.5 years, while Suresh invested at 5.25% should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
simple interest for 4 years. Both earned equal
Unemployment can have a devastating impact both on a
interest. How much money did Suresh invest?
household and the general economy. The loss of
(a) ₹ 800
income has an immediate effect on the reduction of
(b) ₹ 1200
consumer spending. However, the increase in
(c) ₹ 1500 uncertainty for the household can have a multiplier
(d) ₹ 900 effect on the reduction of consumer spending. A
household that endures unemployment is likely to
39. 6% of the marks obtained by Ram in Maths is significantly cut spending, often more than the loss of
equal to 18% of the marks obtained by Raju in income due to uncertainty, and the resumption of
spending can lag after the return of income. The
Science. 10% of the marks obtained by Raju in
psychological impact of unemployment on a household
Science is equal to 30% of the marks obtained
can have a significant impact on the broader economy.
by Mohan in English. What is the number of
For this reason, economists have long sought better
marks scored by Raju in Maths?
information on the dynamic influences of the re-
(a) 200 employment market. It is in society’s best interest for
(b) 400 the newly unemployed to quickly navigate the re-
(c) 600 employment market and re-emerge with the best wage
(d) Can’t be determined outcome possible.

41. Based on the above passage, the following Passage – 2
assumptions have been made: The relationship between science and philosophy is an
1. Economists are best placed to single- intricate and somewhat problematic subject. On the one
handedly assess the overall impact of hand, some great scientists have been great
unemployment. philosophers—not necessarily in the professional sense,
2. Governments should ensure quick but in the sense of deep thinking: science and
engagement of the newly unemployed philosophy often went together in the work of great
people in the market. figures such as Newton and Leibniz, so that it is
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? sometimes hard—and perhaps unnecessary, and
certainly anachronistic—to say where science ends and

(a) 1 only
where philosophy begins. But on the other hand,
(b) 2 only
philosophy is often regarded as useless, so that a
(c) Both 1 and 2
philosophical outlook is irrelevant for science at best,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
and harmful at worst—as evinced by long pages of
armchair philosophy that is blissfully uninformed by

42. Which of the following is/are the most rational
science.
and logical inference/inferences that can be
made from the passage?
(a) Economists have duly studied all
1. Conciliation between science and
dimensions of the impact of unemployment
philosophy is not possible because of their
on households.
contradictory nature.
(b) Unemployment is the biggest challenge for
2. Newton and Leibniz were the greatest
the growth of any economy.
philosophers cum scientists.
(c) The uncertainty related to unemployment is
Select the correct answer using the code given
no less serious a concern than
below.
unemployment itself.
(a) 1 only
(d) Macro level data-based policy decision is
(b) 2 only
sufficient to address the issue of
(c) Both 1 and 2
unemployment.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage – 3 46. A sold a machine after giving a 30% discount.
Politically sensitive social sector programmes are fluid B sold the same machine after giving three
successive discounts of 10% each. C sold the
and unstandardized. There is a multiplicity of schemes same machine after giving successive discounts
undergoing constant repackaging as governments try to of 15%, 10% and 5%. If marked price of all
appeal to voters. There is also a good deal of confusion three merchants - A, B, and C were the same,
find the descending order of their selling prices.
about how social expenditures are accounted for.
(a) BAC
Moreover, since federal programmes are often (b) ABC
implemented by the states, funds are transferred to the (c) ACB
(d) BCA
states and reallocated to different sub-sectors. Thus,
transparency of the flow of funds to the poor is 47. Ananya sold some toys at a profit of 10%.
impaired. Another chronic feature is that actual Thereafter, she sold another similar batch of
toys at a loss of 10%. What is her overall profit
payments lag allocations. Emergency funds for other
or loss percent?
purposes tend to be supplied from the social sector (a) Loss of 1%
budget. (b) Profit of 1%
(c) No profit, no loss
(d) None of these
assumptions have been made:
1. The effectiveness of the programme gets 48. Study the graph given below carefully and
compromised without timely payments.
The given line graph shows the production of
2. For the welfare of the poor, the social onion (in metric tons) in different years from
sector schemes should be rationalized and 2015 to 2021 in three states P, Q, and R.
depoliticized. Production of onion in different years in
three states P, Q, and R
90
(a) 1 only 80
70
(b) 2 only
In metric tons
60
P
50
(c) Both 1 and 2
40 Q
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 30 R
20
10
0
45. A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) and B = (25% of 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021
P) + (20% of Q). In which of the following

The average production of onion in state P is
cases is A - B positive? approximately what percent of the average
(a) P = 700 and Q = 400 production of onion in state R?
(a) 89%
(b) P = 700 and Q = 300 (b) 82%
(c) P = 700 and Q = 500 (c) 95%
(d) None of the above (d) 77%

49. Study the two graphs A and B given below 50. Satya buys a pair of slippers for ₹500 and sells
carefully and answer the question that follows. them to Sachin at a profit of 20%. Therafter,
The given bar graph shows the Export and
Sachin sells those slippers to Nitin at a profit of
Production of Milk (in million liter) in different
10%.
years from 2017 to 2022, and the line graph
shows Consumption of milk (in liter) per 1000 Consider the following statements.
population in different years from 2017 to (i) Sachin paid ₹100 more than Satya.
2022. (ii) Nitin gave ₹660 to Satya.
A - Export and Production of Milk (in million liter) (iii) Sachin gave ₹600 to Satya.
800 720 700 Which of the statements given above is/are
700 660
600 right?
600 540
480 450
500
400
(a) Only (i)
400 340 Export
288 (b) Only (i) and (iii)
300 Production
180
200 (c) Only (ii) and (iii)
96
100
(d) None of the above
0
2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022
Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

B - Consumption of milk (in liter) per 1000
population Read the following two passages and answer the items
600 that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
500 525
500 should be based on the passages only.
450
400 400
390 410 Passage – 1
300
Governments must exploit the enormous opportunities
200
100
in wastewater. Safely managed wastewater is an
0 affordable and sustainable source of water, energy,
2017 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022
nutrients and other recoverable materials. Wastewater
Based on the above graphs, consider the can help meet growing demand. There are many
following statements.
treatment processes and operational systems that use
Statement – 1: We can find out the average
wastewater in municipal activities, sustainable
quantity of milk consumed during the given
period. agriculture, energy production and industrial
Statement – 2: Year 2022 has the maximum development. The benefits far outweigh the costs of
percentage of exports with respect to better wastewater management. The positive impacts on
production.
water quality and supply by increasing wastewater
recycling and safe reuse will drive progress in public
(a) Only 1 follows
(b) Only 2 follows health, environmental sustainability and economic
(c) Both 1 and 2 follow development by providing new business opportunities
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 follows and creating more ‘green’ jobs.

The nature of conflict and violence has transformed
substantially since the UN was founded 75 years ago.
1. Wastewater recycling is a highly expensive
Conflicts now tend to be less deadly and are often
process compared to its safe discharge. waged between domestic groups rather than states.
2. Wastewater management is becoming an Homicides are becoming more frequent in some parts
of the world, while gender-based attacks are increasing
ever-challenging issue in the field of
globally. The long-term impact on the development of
environmental sustainability.
interpersonal violence, including violence against
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? children, is also more widely recognized. Separately,
(a) 1 only technological advances have raised concerns about

lethal autonomous weapons and cyberattacks, the
(b) 2 only
weaponization of bots and drones, and the live
(c) Both 1 and 2 streaming of extremist attacks. There has also been a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 rise in criminal activity involving data hacks and
ransomware, for example. Meanwhile, international
cooperation is under strain, diminishing global potential
for the prevention and resolution of conflict and
reflects the crux of the passage? violence in all forms.
(a) Wastewater being a finite resource, needs 53. Which one of the following statements best
adequate attention for its recycling.
(a) Technology, being borderless, is the most
(b) Use of wastewater should be a focus area lethal weapon for attacks, and is beyond the
for the private sector. control, even through international
cooperation.
(c) There is a need for an effective policy by
(b) Women and children are the worst sufferers
the government to leverage wastewater
of conflicts and violence through
resource in PPP mode. cyberattacks in the world.
(d) Investment in wastewater recycling (c) Without international cooperation, dealing

with the prevention and resolution of
infrastructure can be regained through
conflicts and violence would be arduous.
development in public health, economic
(d) UN has not been successful in controlling
and environmental sectors. conflicts and violence across the globe.

54. By selling 16 articles, a seller loses the selling 57. In a money wining contest, Monu got 40% of
price of 4 articles. Find his loss percent. the maximum prize money and Golu got 50%
(a) 25% of the maximum prize money.
(b) 75%
Consider the following statements.
(c) 20%
Statement – 1: Golu got 25% more money than
(d) None of these
the money that Monu won.
Statement – 2: Monu got 20% less money than
55. Study the graph given below carefully and
the money that Golu won.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Radha's profit in two different schemes A and B
right?
120
100 105 (a) Only 1 follows

100
90
80 80 80 80
(b) Only 2 follows
70 70 70
60 60 A (c) Both 1 and 2 follow
45 45 45 B
40 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
20
0 58. Animesh purchased a certain number of

2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018
lemons. He sold one-third of the lemons at a
Increase in profit in scheme A in year 2016
profit of 20%.
with respect to the previous year was what
Consider the following statements.
percent of the increase in profit in scheme B in
2018 with respect to the previous year? 1. To gain an overall profit of 25%, he needs
(a) 310% to make a profit of 27.5% on the remaining
(b) 220% lemons.

(c) 170% 2. To gain an overall profit of 25%, he needs
(d) None of above to sell the remaining two-third lemons at
double the selling price of the one-third
56. Subhash earns a profit of 20% by selling a bed
lemons he sold earlier.
sheet for ₹ 840, and makes a loss of 4% by
selling a second bed sheet for ₹ 1248. Calculate
right?
his overall profit or loss percent.
(a) Only 1 follows
(a) Loss of 8.8%
(b) Profit of 4.4% (b) Only 2 follows
(c) Loss of 2.8% (c) Both 1 and 2 follow
(d) Profit of 2.4% (d) Neither 1 nor 2 follows

59. If Sanjeev invests a certain amount of money Passage – 1
at simple interest, it will get doubled in 12.5 Governments, organisations, and individuals
years. In how much time will this money get increasingly generate, collect and process personal data.
tripled? Data protection seeks to balance the benefits and the
(a) In 20 years risks of personal data processing so that individuals
(b) In 25 years have confidence that their data is collected and stored
(c) In 35 years safely and used solely for legitimate purposes. Data
(d) In 32.5 years protection laws typically require personal data

processing to be lawful, limited, transparent, accurate
60. If the price of a commodity is raised by 25%, and secure. They often seek to protect individuals’
then by how much percent a house holder privacy and grant some control over how personal data
about them is processed. They also typically establish
should reduce his consumption of the same
institutions with powers to conduct investigations and
commodity so that his expenditure does not
enforce obligations. A strong data protection
increase?
framework provides certainty which may encourage
(a) 25%
investment, competition and innovation in the digital
(b) 20%
economy and uptake of digital government and private
(c) 33.33%
sector services.
(d) None of these
61. Kavita’s annual salary is ₹ 80000. If her salary
1. India already has in place a robust data
is being cut by 2.5% every year, then how
protection framework which balances the
much money will she get after 2.2 years?
benefits and the risks of personal data
(a) ₹ 75669.75
processing.
(b) ₹ 74750.62
2. Data protection is important not only for
(c) ₹ 72405.50
privacy concerns, but also for the economic
(d) ₹ 76491
growth of a country.
Directions for the following 5 (five) items:
(a) 1 only
Read the following three passages and answer the items
(b) 2 only
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
(c) Both 1 and 2
should be based on the passages only. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. Which one of the following statements best 64. Which of the following are applications/
benefits of AI as implied by the passage?
(a) High incidences of misuse of personal data
call for a strong data protection regime. 1. Performing critical surgeries in healthcare.
(b) Considering the diversity of stakeholders,

2. Skilling fresh workforce.
the development of a strong data protection
regime is a complex process. 3. Boosting economic growth of nations.
(c) A strong data protection framework is Select the correct answer using the code below:
impossible to achieve.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(d) Data protection framework should place the
concerns of the individuals above those of (b) 1 and 2 only
governments and private companies.
(c) 1 and 3 only
Passage – 2
The global race to fund, develop, and acquire artificial (d) 1, 2 and 3
intelligence technologies and start-ups is intensifying,
with commercial uses for AI proliferating in emerging
economies. AI could increase GDP growth in both 65. Which of the following is/are the most rational
advanced countries and emerging markets. In energy, and logical inference/inferences that can be
AI can optimize power transmission. In healthcare,
diagnosis and drug discovery will benefit enormously
from AI. In education, it can improve learning 1. Advanced economies have invested more
environments and learning outcomes and can better
in AI, than emerging markets.
prepare youth for the transition to the workplace. In
manufacturing, AI can help design better products in 2. AI implementation can greatly benefit
terms of functionality, quality, and cost, and improve
emerging markets in various sectors.
predictive maintenance. AI can help extend credit and
financial services to those who lack them. The potential Select the correct answer from the code given
impact of AI on transportation and logistics goes far
below:
beyond automation and road safety to span the entire
logistics chain. Yet with the exceptions of China and (a) 1 only
India, emerging markets have received only a modest (b) 2 only

share of global investment in this advanced technology,
(c) Both 1 and 2
even though they may benefit more from AI
implementation than advanced economies. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage – 3 67. Radha spends 40% of her savings on Char-
The evolution of issues such as climate change, Dham Yatra, 10% of the remaining on charity
and 16.67% of the remaining on food. If in the
technology, and urbanisation raises urgent policy
end she is left with ₹ 22500, then which of the
challenges. For example, climate change is
following must be right?
exacerbating environmental degradation, increasing the (a) She spent 8% of her savings on charity.
frequency and intensity of extreme weather events, and (b) She spent 15% of her savings on charity
by no means impacting people uniformly. If climate and food.
change continues unaddressed it will increase inequality (c) She spent 66% of her total savings.
(d) At the end, she is left with 40% of the
within countries and may even reverse current progress
initial total savings.
in reducing inequality between countries. Meanwhile,
technology can be a great equaliser – by enhancing 68. Weight of a jar alone is 12.5% of the jar filled
connectivity, financial inclusion, access to trade and with water. When some quantity of water is
public services, for instance – but those yet to be removed, weight of the jar and the remaining
connected may experience further marginalisation as a water is 25% of the original total weight. What
fractional part of the water has been removed?
result, especially as progress is slowing, even reversing,
(a) 3/7
among some countries. With a global trend toward
(b) 5/7
urbanisation, cities are becoming a growing site for (c) 6/7
inequalities. They find high levels of wealth and (d) None of these
modern infrastructure coexist with pockets of severe
deprivation, often side by side. This makes gaping and 69. A report consists of 10 sheets each consisting
of 50 lines and each such line consists of 60
increasing levels of inequality even more glaring within
characters. This report is retyped into sheets
cities.
each of 30 lines, each having 25 characters. The
66. Based on the above passage, the following percentage increase in the number of sheets is?
assumptions have been made: (a) 400%
1. There has been no progress to reduce (b) 300%
inequality among countries of the world. (c) 200%
(d) None of these
2. The demand for urbanization will severely
impact the rural population by increasing 70. Raghu borrowed ₹18000 at 12% simple interest
the inequality between rural and urban per annum, and some more money at 15%
people. simple interest per annum. If the overall interest
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? paid by him in 2 years is ₹ 9000, then how
much money did he borrow?
(a) 1 only
(a) ₹ 33800
(b) 2 only
(b) ₹ 32600
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) ₹ 32000
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None of these

71. Anurag gains a profit of 25% by selling an item 74. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20%
and the breadth is increased by 25%. What will
at ₹ 3920. What is the profit earned by him?
be the net percentage increase in the area of the
(a) ₹ 820 rectangle?
(a) 20%
(b) ₹ 900
(b) 25%
(c) ₹ 784 (c) 50%
(d) 40%
(d) None of these
75. Salary of A and B is 30% and 40% more than

the salary of C respectively. If A’s salary is X%
72. Ramesh and Suresh bought mangoes from the
of the salary of B, then X is equal to -
market at the same price. Ramesh made a profit (a)105 (2/13)
(b) 140
of 20% by selling his mangoes. What must be
(c) 105 (5/7)
the profit percentage earned by Suresh if he (d) 92 (6/7)
sold his mangoes at double the selling price of

Ramesh? Read the following passage and answer the items that
follow it. Your answers to these items should be based
(a) 40%
on the passage only.
(b) 120% Passage – 1
There is growing evidence that organic farming is a
(c) 140%
rapidly expanding economic sector in
(d) None of these the U.S. However, an unanswered question is whether
organic farmers are better off than conventional farmers
when it comes to farm household income. Using large
73. A person has invested some money in a policy farm-level data and a matching estimator, one of the
studies explores the relationship between organic
that gives 10% return for the first year and 20%
certification and farm household income with its
return for the subsequent years. What will be various components. Contrary to expectations, certified
organic farmers do not earn significantly higher
the value of the money for the amount a person
household income than conventional farmers. Though
invests after a period of six years? certified organic crop producers earn higher revenue,
they incur higher production expenses as well. In
(a) 1.16 of initial investment
particular, certified organic producers spend
6
(b) 1.2 of the initial investment significantly more on labour, insurance, and marketing
charges than conventional farmers. The results suggest
(c) 1.13 × 1.23 of the initial investment
that the lack of economic incentives can be an
(d) 1.1 × 1.25 of the initial investment important barrier to conversion to organic farming.

76. Which of the following is/are the most rational 78. A shopkeeper sold an article offering a discount
and logical inference/inferences that can be of 5 % and earned a profit of 14 %. What
made from the passage? would have been the percentage of profit
1. Research on farm-level data is required to
earned if no discount was offered?
reduce the cost of organic farming in
(a) 19%
comparison with conventional farming.
(b) 9%
2. The net profit in organic farming is
(c) 20%
significantly higher than conventional
farming due to higher revenues from (d) None of these
certified organic crops.

Select the correct answer from the code given 79. A sum of money is invested at a certain rate of
below: interest per annum. After 2 years, the amount
(a) 1 only becomes 2.25 times the original sum. If the
(b) 2 only interest is compounded annually, what is the
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
rate of interest?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 45%
(b) 62%
(c) 58%
(a) As conventional farming is highly (d) 50%
profitable, the adoption of organic farming

will be challenging. 80. The amount of work in a factory is increased by
(b) Lower profits in organic farming have 50%. By what percent is it necessary to
reduced the growth of organic farming in increase the number of workers to complete the
the U.S.
new work in previously planned time, if
(c) Rationalising the expenses of labour,
productivity of the new workers is 150% more?
insurance, and marketing will make organic
(a) 20%
farming more profitable.
(b) 30%
(d) Despite the low returns of organic farming,
it is important to adopt it for environmental (c) 33.33%
sustainability. (d) None of these
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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

APTITUDE TEST–Test (4283) – 2024
1 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given crux is not correct. Refer to the lines “Left with just 5% of the range
where they used to roam, tigers are losing their homes to deforestation, infrastructure, and other human
disturbances, forcing them into rapidly diminishing pockets of nature.” It is true that tigers are losing their
habitats, however, there is no information about whether this loss of habitat has made tigers ‘the most’
threatened species on the planet. Also, there could be other factors behind their reducing numbers like
poaching. So, as per the passage, this option is not correct.
Option (b) is correct. The lines “Protecting tiger landscapes not only helps to protect these majestic big
cats but also thousands of other species (feature of Keystone species). Left with just 5% of the range
where they used to roam, tigers are losing their homes to deforestation, infrastructure, and other human
disturbances, forcing them into rapidly diminishing pockets of nature.” The given option captures the
essence of the passage that since the tiger is a keystone species, it is critical to protect it and preserve its
habitat. Therefore, this answer option best reflects the crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The author only says that Asia is home to some of the most exceptional species.
In Asia, Sumatra is the only place where tigers and organgutans live together. From these lines, we cannot
conclude that Asia holds the largest population of tigers and that the majority are in Sumatra. Hence, the
given option is not the best crux.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage talks about the shrinking habitats of tigers. There could be multiple
implications of this shrinking habitat. The author chooses to tread the line of its impact on tiger
population, not the impact on human-wildlife encounters. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
2 (d)
Assumption 1 is invalid. Whether or not social security measures are the best way to ensure a decent
quality of life is not discussed in the passage. Therefore, this assumption is not valid.
Assumption 2 is invalid. As per lines “A worker works not only for economic motivation (salary) but
also for the sense of belongingness and security within his workplace”, it is important to understand that
salary and sense of belongingness are both important factors for working for an employee. To say that
sense of belongingness is more important than salary would not be correct. Hence, the given assumption is
not correct.
3 (a)
Option (a) is correct. Refer to the lines “The purpose of any social security measure is to give individuals
and families the confidence that their level of living and quality of life will not erode by social or
economic eventuality.” and “… today in the world of labour and employment, the employee and
employers’ interest is at par with each other, and the principal focus is on the combined interest and
satisfaction of both.” These lines clearly reflect that an employee needs social security, and the employer
needs work commitment from employees. Hence, this answer option aptly captures the intent of the
author.
Option (b) is incorrect. We cannot conclude that the government is less responsible, and the employer is
more. Refer to the lines “…but it is the law which defines such duty for the employer” and “Indian
legislations have gone a long way in strengthening this cause and because of this and many other
factors...” So, both are important. But government, by enacting the required laws, plays a driving role.
Hence, this option is not correct as per the passage.

Option (c) is incorrect. The line “If these conditions are fulfilled with a joint effort and contribution from
both the employer and the employee, then the workplace to a great extent will become a home of sorts”,
show the conditions under which an employee feels at home at the office. It is possible that the
performance of employees improves under such conditions. However, it would be an exaggeration to say
that the performance of all employees, as well as the management, improves. We cannot make such
sweeping generalisations in the context of this passage. Therefore, this option is not correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage does not discuss about demographic dividend of India. It’s out of
context. Also, to say that “social security measures are a must” is kind of an extreme statement.
4 (a)
p% of (p/q) + (p/q)% of p
= (p/100) × (p/q) + [(p/q) /100] × p
= p2/ 100q + p2/100q
= 2p2 / 100q
= p2/50q
Now, r% of p/q = (r/100) (p/q) = rp/100q
As per the question,
p% of (p/q) + (p/q) % of p = r% of (p/q)
or p2/50q = rp/100q
or r = (p2/50q) / (p/100q)
or r = 2p
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
5 (d)
Let the ages of Raju and Bittu be X and Y respectively.
According to the question,
15 (X + Y)/100 = 25 (X - Y)/100
or 15 (X + Y) = 25 (X - Y)
or 10X = 40Y
or X = 4Y
∴ Required percent = (X/Y) ×100 = (4Y/Y) × 100 = 400%
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
6 (c)
Statement 1:
From the first part of statement 1, we can write x = 0.4y.
From the second part of statement 1, we can write y = 0.6z.
Combining these equations, we can express x in terms of z:
x = 0.4y = 0.4(0.6z) = 0.24z.Statement 1 provides a relationship between x and z, allowing us to express x
in terms of z. Therefore, statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement 2:
From the first part of statement 2, we can write x = y + 0.25y = 1.25y.
From the second part of statement 2, we can write y = z - 0.2z = 0.8z.
Combining these equations, we can express x in terms of z:
x = 1.25y = 1.25(0.8z) = z.
Statement 2 provides a direct relationship between x and z, allowing us to express x in terms of z.
Therefore, statement 2 alone is also sufficient to answer the question.
Since both statements individually provide sufficient information to determine the value of x, the answer
is option (c).
7 (d)
Checking option (a):
Percentage increase in earnings in 2022 as compared to 2021 = [(450 - 400)/400] × 100 = 12.5%
Checking option (b):
Percentage increase in earnings in 2020 as compared to 2019 = [(600 - 450)/450] × 100 = 33.33%
Checking option (c):
Percentage decrease in earnings in 2021 as compared to 2020 = [(600 - 400)/600] × 100 = 33.33%

Checking option (d):
Percentage increase in earnings in 2019 as compared to 2018 = [(450 - 300)/300] × 100 = 50%
8 (d)
Increase in earnings in 2020 as compared to 2019 = 600 - 450 = 150 thousand
Increase in expenses in 2020 as compared to 2019 = 500 - 350 = 150 thousand
Required ratio = 150/150 = 1 : 1
9 (d)
A sum of money becomes 16 times in 6 years and 81 times in 10 years.
Amount = Principal × (1 + rate/100)time
Let principal be ₹ P.
So, 16P = P (1 + rate/100)6 ................. (i)
81P = P (1 + rate/100)10 ................ (ii)
On dividing equation (ii) by equation (i), we get:
81/16 = (1 + rate/100)10 – 6
Or 81/16 = (1 + rate/100)4
Or (1 + rate/100) = (81/16)1/4
Or (1 + rate/100) = 3/2
Or Rate = (3/2 – 1) × 100 = 50%
Hence, option (d) is the right answer.
10 (d)
To calculate simple interest, we need principal, rate and time.
However, in this question we don’t know the principal and rate of interest. So, here it is impossible to
calculate the simple interest.
So, option (d) is the correct answer.
11 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given statement mentions the issues with traditional food security programs,
not necessarily in context of India. Moreover, the “new challenges related to hunger” have not been
discussed either. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of cash transfers and nutritional security is not a part of the passage.
Therefore, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The structure of food systems and the need to change them is not covered in the
passage. The line “Furthermore, the interwoven interactions and feedbacks in the food system mean that
direct interventions in one area create risks or exacerbate problems in another” only covers how
interactions and feedbacks affect different areas in the food system. So, this option is not the best crux of
the passage.
Option (d) is correct. The lines “The focus on food production leads to the neglect of other areas in
which the root causes of the food system's underperformance, as well as the leverage points to bring
about the biggest impacts, can often be found”, show that merely increasing the food production would
not be enough for addressing food security because food systems’ underperformance is caused by many
other factors. Hence, this option best reflects the crux of the passage.
12 (b)
Assumption 1 is invalid. As per the passage, children under 5 make up only 9 per cent of the world’s
population, but they account for almost 40 per cent of foodborne diseases and 30 per cent of related
deaths. So, it would not be correct to say that burden of foodborne disease is evenly distributed across age
groups.

Assumption 2 is valid. The given assumption is correct because it validates the information given in lines
“This global burden of foodborne disease is unequally distributed. Relative to their population, low- and
middle-income countries in South Asia, Southeast Asia, and sub-Saharan Africa bear a proportionately
high burden” and “Unsafe food threatens young children the most.” So, the agencies must focus on
children from low and middle-income countries because those are the most vulnerable. Hence, this
assumption is correct as per the passage.
13 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage is not about World Health Organization. The mention of the WHO
in the passage is limited to the line “Foodborne diseases caused an estimated 600 million illnesses and
420,000 premature deaths in 2010 according to World Health Organization.” Though, this option could
be a fair implication, to say that this is the crux would not be correct, because the passage is much broader
in context. Hence, this option is not the crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of adopting best food safety practices from developed countries is
not a part of the passage. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage- There is no information
about food safety standards in developed countries.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given passage is about food, food safety and related illnesses. To say that
there is a need for increased investment in health infrastructure might be correct in general, but not in the
context of the passage. The passage does not discuss the dimension of health infrastructure. Hence, this
option is beyond the scope of the passage and hence not the correct answer.
Option (d) is correct. The given option is correct and best reflects the crux because of the lines, “… low
and middle-income economies about US$ 110 billion in lost productivity (economic) and medical
expenses (health) each year…. Better managing the safety of food would also significantly contribute to
achieving multiple Sustainable Development Goals (international benchmarks), especially those relating
to poverty, hunger, and well-being.” Therefore, this option best reflects the crux of the passage.
14 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The line “In this context, technological advancements may provide new benefits —
however, history also offers many examples of adverse health impacts from new technologies”, shows that
technology has not necessarily benefitted human health as seen in history. Therefore, to say that resorting
to technology might not solve the issues of human and ecological health would be correct as per the
passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage is specific about European countries. It is evident from the line:
“Despite significant improvements, major differences in environmental quality and human health remain
between and within European countries.” The author has quoted the case of Europe. This does not mean
that it is limited to European region only. It could be prevalent in other regions of the world also.
Therefore, this option is not correct.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the statement presents a necessary
relation between environmental health and human health which is not seen in the passage. The line “The
environment plays a crucial role in people’s physical, mental, and social well-being”, only shows that the
environment impacts different aspects of a person's life, but to say that without addressing the
environment it is impossible to address human health would not be correct. May be there are medical
interventions to address such issues. So, this option is not correct as per the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The line “In this context, technological advancements may provide new benefits
— however, history also offers many examples of adverse health impacts from new technologies”, shows
that technology can adversely impact health. Therefore, evaluating such impacts is important. However,
whether this should be done by “government recognized lab” or some other institute has not been
discussed in the passage. So, this option is not correct.
15 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The given option is correct because of the lines, “Despite this progress,
communicable diseases are expected to continue to remain a major public health problem …,
communicable disease outbreaks will continue to challenge public health, requiring a high level of
readiness in terms of early detection and rapid response.” These lines indicate the crux of the passage
that it will be difficult to eradicate communicable diseases in the coming future.
Option (b) is incorrect. The lines “In the health sector, India has made enormous strides over the past
decades. The life expectancy has crossed 67 years, and infant and under-five mortality rates are declining
as is the rate of disease incidence”, reflect that the health indicators have improved. But to extrapolate
and mention that this will boost human capital and then economic growth would not be correct as it is not
based on the information given in the passage. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of natural immunity is not discussed in the passage. Also, the focus,
as per the passage, should be on early detection and rapid response. So, this option is beyond the scope of
the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect because option (b) is incorrect.
16 (b)
Let the original selling price of item be Rs.300x.
New selling price = 300x × 33.33% = 300x × 1/3 = Rs. 100x
He suffers a loss of 33.33% if he sells the item at Rs.100x.
Then, cost price = 100x × (3/2) = Rs.150x
60% of original selling price = 60% of 300x = Rs.180x
Profit % = [(180x – 150x)/ 150x] × 100 = 20%
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
17 (d)
Here, P = ₹ 8000
As interest rate doubles every year, so R1 = 4% ; R2 = 8% ; R3 = 16%
∴ Amount at the end of the third year, A = P (1 + R 1/100) (1 + R2/100) (1 + R3/100)
Or A = 8000 (1 + 4/100) (1 + 8/100) (1 + 16/100)
Or A = 8000 (1 + 1/25) (1 + 2/25) (1 + 4/25)
Or A = 8000 × (26/25) × (27/25) × (29/25)
Or A = 8000 × (26 × 27 × 29) / (25 × 25 × 25)
Or A = 10,423.30
Thus, at the end of the 3 rd year she will receive ₹10,423.30
18 (b)
From the given graph, we get:
Year Different sectors
Mechanical Engineering Paint Services Electronics Real- Food Pharma Chemical Fertilizer Others
Estate
2008 17 15 8 16 9 9 4 0 0 0 5
2009 9 4 0 12 0 5 0 27 4 8 24
As per the above table, there are 4 sectors wherein FDI increased in 2009 as compared to 2008.
19 (c)
Male patients that recovered in hospital R = 35
Total number of male patients that recovered in all the hospitals = 22.5 + 20 + 35 + 30 + 12.5 + 25 = 145
Required percent = (35/145) × 100 = 24% (approximately)
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
20 (a)
Cost price of bicycle = ₹ 8000
Raman got two successive discounts of 10% and 15%.
∴ Resultant cost price = 8000 x (90/100) × (85/100) = 8 x 9 x 85 = ₹ 6120
Finally, he sold the bicycle at ₹ 8000.
∴ 8000 = CP + repairing cost + profit / loss
Or 8000 = 6120 + repairing cost + profit / loss
Checking option (a):
8000 = 6120 + (repairing cost + profit)
Or 1880 = (repairing cost + profit)
So, if he earns a profit, the sum of repairing cost and profit is ₹ 1880.
So, option (a) is right.
Checking option (b):
Repairing cost is 30% of CP.
∴ Repairing cost = (6120 × 30)/100 = ₹1836
8000 = CP + repairing cost + profit / loss
Or 8000 = 6120 + 1836 + profit / loss
Or 8000 = 7956 + profit / loss
Or profit = 44
So, it will be a profit, not loss.
So, option (b) is wrong.
Checking option (c):
Repairing cost is not given. So, option (c) is wrong.
21 (b)
Marked price of book = ₹ 40
Discount percentage = 15%
Price of free pen = ₹2
∴ Effective selling price of the book = 40 – (40 × 15)/100 – 2 = ₹32
We know that, he earns a profit of 60%.
∴ Cost price of book = (32 × 100)/160 = ₹20
So, Profit = 32 – 20 = ₹12
∴ Percent of cost price with respect to the profit = (20 × 100)/12 = 166.67%
22 (b)
Let total number of people in the party be x.
Number of people who ate roti = 72x/100
Number of people who ate rice = 44x/100
Number of people who ate both = {72x/100} + {44x/100} – x
= 1.16x – x = 0.16x
0.16x = 80
Or x = 80/0.16
Or x = 500
So, there were 500 people in the party.
Hence, option (b) is the right answer.
23 (c)
Sanjay’s expenditure is 40% of Dinesh’s expenditure.
Dinesh’s expenditure is 25% of Shikha’s expenditure
Hence, the ratio of their expenditures is,
Sanjay : Dinesh : Shikha = 40 : 100 : 400
= 2 : 5 : 20
So, Sanjay’s expenditure with respect to Shikha’s expenditure (in percent) = (2/20) × 100 = 10%
And, Sanjay’s expenditure with respect to Dinesh’s expenditure (in percent) = (2/5) × 100 = 40%
So, Sanjay’s expenditure is 90% less than Shikha’s expenditure and 60% less than the Dinesh’s
expenditure.
24 (d)
B is 30% less than C, and A is 37% less than C.
So, A : B : C = 63 : 70 : 100
∴ Required percentage = [(70 – 63)/70] × 100
= (7/70) × 100 = 10%
So, it is clear that both statements are required to answer the given question.
25 (a)
To determine if the percentage increase in sales from Year 1 to Year 2 is greater than the percentage
increase from Year 2 to Year 3, we need to compare the two increases.
Statement 1 tells us that sales increased by 20% from Year 1 to Year 2. However, it doesn't provide any
information about the increase from Year 2 to Year 3. Thus, statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
Statement 2 tells us that sales increased by 15% from Year 2 to Year 3. However, it doesn't provide any
information about the increase from Year 1 to Year 2. Hence, statement 2 alone is also not sufficient.
By combining both the statements, we know the percentage increase in sales for both the intervals.
Let sales in Year 1 be Rs. 100.
So, sales in Year 2 = 120% of 100 = Rs. 120 (So, an increase of Rs. 20)
And, sales in Year 3 = 115% of 120 = Rs. 138 (So, an increase of Rs. 18)
26 (d)
Total number of bicycles manufactured by company A during 2013-2018 = 260 + 218 + 224 + 179 + 266
+ 348 = 1495
Average number of bicycles manufactured during 2013-2018 = 1495/6 = 249.16
Total number of bicycles manufactured by company B during 2013-2018 = 307 + 270 + 250 + 289 + 310
+ 416 = 1842
Average number of bicycles manufactured in company B during 2013-2018 = 1842/6 = 307
Required percentage = [249.16/307] × 100 = 81% (approximately)
27 (d)
Let Puja invested ₹ X and Archana invested ₹ Y.
Puja got simple interest of ₹ 820.
Time = 2 years, Rate = 5%
Principal = (Simple interest ×100)/(Time × Rate)
or X = (820 × 100) / (2 × 5)
or X = ₹ 8200
We know that, CI = P [(1 + r/100)n – 1]
or P = CI/[(1 + r/100)n – 1]
So, Principal invested by Archana, Y = 820/[(1 + 5/100)2 – 1] = 820/{(441/400) – 1]} = ₹ 8000
∴ Sum of the principals invested by them = 8200 + 8000 = ₹ 16200
Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.
Also, Archana invested ₹ 200 less than Puja.
Therefore, statement 2 is also not correct.
So, both statements are incorrect.
Therefore, option (d) is the right answer.
28 (d)
Let total votes be 100x.
Votes secured by Rohan = 30% of 100x = 30x
Remaining votes = 100x – 30x = 70x
Votes secured by Mohan = 60% of 70x = 42x
Remaining votes that were secured by Sohan = 100x – (30x + 42x) = 28x
Given that, Sohan secured 84000 votes.
∴ 28x = 84000
or x = 84000/28 = 3000 votes
So, Total votes = 100x = 100 × 3000 = 300000 votes
Votes secured by Rohan = 30x = 30 × 3000 = 90000 votes
Votes secured by Mohan = 42x = 42 × 3000 = 126000 votes
Winning margin or difference of votes between Mohan and Rohan (i.e. winner and runner-up) = 126000 –
90000 = 36000 votes
29 (a)
Let r% be the rate of interest and n years be the time.
Amount = Principal × (1 + rate/100)time
So, 7840 = 4000 (1 + r/100)n
or (1+ r/100)n = 7840 / 4000
or (1+ r /100)n = 1.96
or (1 + r/100)n/2 = √1.96
or (1 + r/100)n/2 = 1.4..................... (i)
Checking statement 1:
∴ In (n/2) years ₹ 4000 will amount to 4000 (1 + r/100)n/2
= 4000 × 1.4 [on putting the value of (1 + r / 100)n/2 from equation (i)]
= ₹ 5600
Thus, in half of that time ₹ 4000 will amount to ₹ 5600.
Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
But we cannot calculate the rate of interest based on the given data.
Hence, option (a) is the right answer
30 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage does not cover aspects of all states. Refer to the line: “In the event of
indiscriminate use of interstate waters by a state, the Centre can enact a law to prohibit the state in the
larger public interest.” In case of indiscriminate use of interstate waters by a state, the centre can
intervene in larger public interest. This does not mean that all states having interstate rivers are at a
disadvantage. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Option (b) is incorrect. The issue of amendment has not been discussed in the passage. So, whether the
amendment should happen or not is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (c) is correct. The given option best reflects the implication of the passage. The lines “In this
regard, a state only exercises its right to use water for various purposes as long as the Union
government deems fit (oversight). In the event of indiscriminate use of interstate waters by a state, the
Centre can enact a law to prohibit the state in the larger public interest.” These show that states have the
‘right to use’ under centre’s oversight. Hence, as per the passage, this option is correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is extreme. The constitution itself has given states the power on
the subject of “water” within its jurisdiction. So, it would not be correct to take away all such powers.
Also, the passage does not mention anything related to amending such powers. Therefore, as per the
passage, this option is not correct.
31 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. As per the lines, “The United Nations (UN) World Water Development Report
(WWDR) has provided an update on the present trends of clean water availability and future
expectations”, UN WWDR is a report which provides the status of clean water access. Also, the
passage does not mention that UNWWDR is responsible for ensuring access to clean water. So, to say that
it should focus primarily on Africa and Asia for ensuring clean water access would not be correct as per
the passage.
Option (b) is correct. Refer to the lines, “The strain will be aggravated by unequal population growth
in different areas unrelated to local resources. Most of this population growth is expected in developing
countries, first in Africa, and then in Asia, where scarcity of clean water is already a major issue”. This
shows that clean water is already a scarcity in Africa and Asia. This would be further strained due to
population growth. Hence, as per the passage, population growth would be a major contributor to water
scarcity in future.

Option (c) is incorrect. The passage specifically mentions the case of African and Asia in the line, “Most
of this population growth is expected in developing countries, first in Africa, and then in Asia, where
scarcity of clean water is already a major issue.” The context of developed countries is not covered in the
passage. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The increasing population will be a challenge with regards to access to clean
water as per the lines “The strain on the water system will grow by 2050 when the world population will
reach between 9.4 and 10.2 billion, a 22 to 34% increase.” Population increase does create a strain on
water resources. So, controlling population could be a solution. However, we do not know about other
available solutions. So, we cannot comment on whether or not population control is the best way to ensure
access to clean water. Also, the focus of the passage seems to be more on describing the problem than on
providing the possible solutions.
32 (c)
Anshuman scored 86 marks, but he still failed by 86 marks.
∴ 43% = 86 + 86 = 172
∴ 100% = (172/43) × 100 = 400
So, Passing marks = 172
And, Total marks = 400
Checking statement (i),
It is clear that total marks are not a factor of 7.
Hence, it is not correct.
Checking statement (ii),
Passing marks are 228 marks less than the total marks.
Checking statement(iii),
Anshuman got 86 marks.
Required percentage = (86 × 100)/172 = 50%
His mark are 50% less than the passing marks.
Checking statement (iv),
If Anshuman got 200 more marks, then his marks would have been 286, which is 114 more than the
passing marks.
∴ Required percentage = (114 / 172) × 100 = 66.27%
Hence, it is correct.
33 (b)
Let principal amount be ₹100.
It becomes 69% more in 2 years.
So, amount after 2 years = 100 + [100 × 69/100] = ₹ 169
Now, Amount = Principal × (1 + rate/100)time
Or 169 = 100 × (1 + rate/100)2
Or (1 + rate/100)2 = 169/100
Or (1 + rate/100) = (169/100)1/2 = 13/10
Or (rate/100) = 13/10 – 1 = 3/10
Or rate = (3/10) × 100 = 30%
So, rate of interest is 30%.
34 (c)
Amount = ₹1430
Let principal be ₹ X.
∴ Simple interest = ₹ (1430 – X)
Rate, R = 6%; Time, t = 5 years
Simple Interest = Principal × Rate × Time/100
So, (1430 – X) = (X × 6 × 5) / 100

⇒ (1430 × 100) – 100X = 30X
⇒ 130X = 143000
⇒ X = 1100
Now, Principal = ₹ 1100, R = 10%, t = 5/2 years
∴ Simple interest = (1100 × 10 × 5)/(2 × 100) = ₹ 275
∴ New amount = 1100 + 275 = ₹ 1375
So, option (c) is the right answer.
35 (b)
Observing the given graph carefully, we get that:
Export price per quintal in 1997 = 40000000/(6000) = ₹ 6666.66
Export price per quintal in 1999 = 40000000/(8000) = ₹ 5000
36 (d)
Height by the end of 6 months = 150% of 2 feet = 3 feet
Height by the end of 1 year = 125% of 3 feet = 15/4 feet
Height by the end of 1.5 years = 120% of 15/4 feet = 9/2 = 4.5 feet
37 (b)
The value of a machine is depreciating by 16% every year.
We know that, A = P [1 – (R/100)]t
Where, A is amount; P is principle; R is rate of interest and t is time interval.
Price in 2022 was ₹ 37044.
∴ 37044 = P (1 - 16/100)3
or 37044 = P (21/25)3
or P = 37044 × 15625 / 9261
or P = ₹ 62,500
So, price of the machine 3 years ago was ₹ 62,500.
38 (d)
When money is invested in two parts in such a way that the simple interest on the first part at X 1 rate and
in T1 time is equal to the simple interest on the second part at X2 rate and in T2 time, the ratio of the
money is:
X2T2 : X1 T1
In our case,
X1 = 4.5%, T1 = 3.5 years
X2 = 5.25%, T2 = 4 years
So, Ratio of money invested by Ramesh and Suresh = X2T2 : X1 T1 = 5.25 × 4 : 4.5 × 3.5 = 4 : 3
∴ Suresh’s investment = 2100 × 3/(3 + 4) = 2100 × 3/7 = ₹ 900
39 (d)
6% of Ram’s Maths marks = 18% of Raju’s Science marks
So, Marks scored by Ram in Maths = 3 × Marks scored by Raju in Science ........................ (i)
Also, 10% of Raju’s Science marks = 30% of Mohan’s English marks
So, Marks scored by Raju in Science = 3 × Marks scored by Mohan in English............................ (ii)
Even on using both the equations (i) and (ii), we could not find the answer.

40 (c)
We know that, Compound interest (CI) = P {(1 + R/100)t – 1}
Here, Principle (P) = ₹ 3750, Rate (R) = 12%, time (t) = 2 years
∴ C.I. = 3750 {(1 + 12/100)2 – 1}
= 3750 {(28/25)2 – 1}
= 3750 {784/625 – 1}
= 3750 × 159/625
= ₹ 954
Thus, Shyamlal will get ₹ 954 as interest at the end of 2 years.
Hence, option (c) is the right answer.
41 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect. Refer to the lines “The psychological impact of unemployment on a
household can have a significant impact on the broader economy.” Unemployment does not only have
economic impacts; the psychological impacts are also intense. For example, even after re-employment it
takes time to resume the same level of expenditure that was there before being unemployed. So, we
cannot say that economists are best placed – other experts like sociologists or psychologists might also be
required. Furthermore, it is grossly incorrect to say that economists can single-handedly asses the overall
impact. They would need other experts also. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The given assumption is not correct because making the government
accountable for giving jobs to the unemployed is not a part of the passage. The line “It is in society’s best
interest for the newly unemployed to quickly navigate the re-employment market and re-emerge with the
best wage outcome possible”, specifies that it is in the interest of society to give jobs to the unemployed.
42 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. Unemployment can have a devastating impact both on a household and the
general economy. There is no mention about whether or not the household impact has been duly studied.
The passage only says that economists have long sought better information on the dynamic influences of
the re-employment market. So, this answer option is beyond the scope of this passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage nowhere mentions that unemployment is the biggest challenge
for the growth of the economy. There could be other challenges that are not discussed in the passage. So,
this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is correct. The author says that unemployment can have devastating impact on households.
The increase in uncertainty for the household can have a multiplier effect on the reduction of consumer
spending. The psychological impact of unemployment on a household can have a significant impact on
the broader economy. From these arguments we can safely infer that the uncertainly around
unemployment cannot be underestimated as compared to the issue of unemployment per se.
Option (d) is incorrect. The author talks about the impact on households, the psychological dimensions
of unemployment, and the qualitative aspects. These subtle aspects might not be adequately addressed by
data alone. We might need micro level information on individual experiences. Therefore, we cannot say
that macro level data-based policy decision is sufficient to address the issue of unemployment.
43 (d)
Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage nowhere mentions that science and philosophy are contradictory to
each other. The author clearly quotes examples wherein science and philosophy often went together in the
work of great figures such as Newton and Leibniz. So, we cannot say that conciliation between science
and philosophy is not possible because of their contradictory nature.
Statement 2 is also incorrect. The author only quotes the examples of Newton and Leibniz to highlight
that science and philosophy are not completely contradictory. Both Newton and Leibniz were great
figures. However, it is nowhere indicated that both were the greatest philosophers and scientists. In fact,
the author says that they were not philosophers in professional sense. The passage nowhere mentions that
Newton and Leibniz were the greatest philosophers. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
44 (c)
Assumption 1 is valid. The lines “Another chronic feature is that actual payments lag allocations”,
reflect that there are cases of lag payments which certainly would cause delay in execution and the overall
effectiveness of the programme would get affected. So, this assumption is correct as per the passage.

Assumption 2 is valid. There is a multiplicity of schemes undergoing constant repackaging as
governments try to appeal to voters. These schemes are fluid and unstandardized. Funds are transferred to
the states and reallocated to different sub-sectors. All these issues clearly indicate towards rationalisation
and de-politicization of social sector schemes. Therefore, this answer option is correct.
45 (b)
We will check by substituting the values for each option.
For option (a):
A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 × 700 – 0.15 × 400 = 255
B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q) = 0.25 × 700 + 0.20 × 400 = 255
Clearly, A = B, hence option (a) is wrong.
For option (b):
A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 × 700 – 0.15 × 300 = 315 – 45 = 270
B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q) = 0.25 × 700 + 0.20 × 300 = 175 + 60 = 235
Clearly, A-B > 0
46 (d)
Let marked price of each merchant be ₹100.
A sold the machine after giving a 30% discount.
Discount offered by A = 100 × 30/100 = ₹ 30
Selling price of A = 100 – 30 = ₹ 70
B sold the same machine after giving three successive discounts of 10% each.
First discount offered by B = 100 × 10/100 = ₹ 10
Price after first discount = 100 – 10 = ₹ 90
Second discount offered by B = 90 × 10/100 = ₹ 9
Price after 2nd discount = 90 – 9 = ₹ 81
Third discount offered by B = 81 × 10/100 = ₹ 8.10
Selling price of B after giving three successive discounts of 10% each = 81 – 8.10 = ₹ 72.90
C sold the same machine after giving successive discounts of 15%, 10% and 5%.
First discount offered by C = 100 × 15/100 = ₹ 15
Price after discount = 100 – 15 = ₹85
Second discount offered by C = 85 × 10/100 = ₹ 8.5
Price after discount = 85 – 8.5 = ₹ 76.5
Third discount offered by C = 76.5 × 5/100 = ₹ 3.825
Price after third discount = 76.5 – 3.825 = ₹72.675
Selling price of C after giving successive discounts of 15%, 10% and 5% = ₹72.675
∴ Descending order of their selling prices is BCA.
47 (c)
Let price of all toys = ₹ 100
Selling price at 10% profit = 100 + 100 × 10/100 = 100 + 10 = ₹ 110
Selling price at 10% loss = 100 – 10 = ₹ 90
∴ Overall profit or loss percent = 0%
48 (a)
Average production of onion in state P = (35 + 50 + 40 + 60 + 55 + 65 + 60)/7 = (365/7) metric tonn
Average production of onion in state R = (50 + 55 + 45 + 70 + 50 + 60 + 80)/7 = (410/7) metric tonn
Required percent= [(365/7)/(410/7)] × 100 = 89% approximately
49 (c)
Using graph ‘B’, we can find out the average quantity of milk consumed during the given period.
Required average = (390 + 410 + 400 + 450 + 500 + 525)/6 = 2675/6 = 445 liters per 1000 population.
According to graph ‘A’,

In 2017, percentage of exports with respect to production = (96 × 100)/480 = 20%
In 2018, percentage of exports with respect to production = (180 × 100)/540 = 33.33%
In 2019, percentage of exports with respect to production = (288 × 100)/720 = 40%
Year 2022 shows the maximum percentage of exports with respect to production.
Thus, both Statements 1 and 2 follow.
50 (b)
Satya buys a pair of slippers for ₹500 and sells them to Sachin at a profit of 20%.
∴ Cost price for Sachin = 120% of 500 = (500 x 120)/100 = ₹ 600
Sachin sells the slippers to Nitin at a profit of 10%.
Cost price for Nitin = 110% of 600 = (600 × 110)/100 = ₹ 660
Checking each statement.

Statement (i):
Sachin paid ₹ 600, which is ₹ 100 more than what Satya paid.
Statement (ii):
Nitin gave ₹ 660 to Sachin, not Satya.
Statement (iii):
Sachin gave ₹600 to Satya
So, statements (i) and (iii) are correct.
51 (d)
Assumption 1 is invalid. The line, “The benefits far outweigh the costs of better wastewater
management” only shows that the benefits are more than the cost. However, the assumption is that
recycling is highly expensive compared to its safe discharge. We do not have any information about the
process of safe discharge. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Assumption 2 is invalid. The second assumption is not directly addressed in the passage. The passage
discusses the potential of wastewater as a resource if it's properly managed and recycled, contributing to
environmental sustainability. However, it does not mean that wastewater is becoming an ever-challenging
issue in the field of environmental sustainability. Therefore, neither of these assumptions is valid.
52 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. Whether wastewater is a finite or infinite resource is not discussed in the passage.
We cannot assume it to be finite. Hence, this is not the correct option.
Option (b) is incorrect. The author has not commented on the participation of private sector. Therefore,
we can rule this option out.
Option (c) is incorrect. The line “Governments must exploit the enormous opportunities in wastewater”,
only shows that the government must do something related to wastewater. The finer details and modalities
of implementation (e.g. PPP mode) is not discussed in the passage. Therefore, we can rule this option out.
Option (d) is correct. The lines “The benefits far outweigh the costs of better wastewater
management. The positive impacts on water quality and supply by increasing wastewater recycling and
safe reuse will drive progress in public health, environmental sustainability and economic development
by providing new business opportunities and creating more ‘green’ jobs”, show that wastewater
recycling will need investment in operations. This investment will also give returns through its benefits
like green jobs, improved public health, new business opportunities etc. So, as per the passage, this option
is correct.
53 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. Technology is borderless, but to say that it cannot be controlled even with
international cooperation is not correct as per the passage. The lines “Meanwhile, international
cooperation is under strain, diminishing global potential for the prevention and resolution of conflict and
violence in all forms.”, show that all forms of conflict and violence need international cooperation. So,
this statement is not the best crux as per the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The author says that gender-based attacks are increasing globally. Furthermore,
the long term impact of violence against children, is also more widely recognized. From these
information, we cannot infer that women and children are the worst sufferers of conflicts and violence
through cyberattacks. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Option (c) is correct. The given option is correct or the best crux because of the following lines
“Meanwhile, international cooperation is under strain, diminishing global potential for the prevention
and resolution of conflict and violence in all forms.” Clearly, the stain on international cooperation has
affected the global efforts for conflict resolution. These lines reflect that without global cooperation,
overcoming conflicts and violence would be a challenge. So, this answer option is correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage only says that the nature of conflict and violence has transformed
substantially since the UN was founded 75 years ago. Whether or not the UN has been successful in
controlling conflicts and violence across the globe is nowhere indicated in the passage. Therefore, this
answer option is incorrect.
54 (c)
Let the selling price of 1 article= Rs. 1.
So the selling price of 16 articles= Rs. 16.
And loss = Rs. 4
So the cost price = 16 + 4 = Rs. 20.
Hence the percentage of loss = 4/20×100 = 20%
55 (b)
Increase in profit in scheme A in 2016 = 100 - 45 = 55
Increase in profit in scheme B in 2018 = 70 - 45 = 25
Required percent = (55 × 100)/25 = 55 × 4 = 220%
56 (b)
Cost price of first bed sheet = (100 / 120) × 840 = 100 x 7 = ₹700
Cost price of second bed sheet = (100 / 96) x 1248 = ₹ 1300
Total cost price = 700 + 1300 = ₹ 2000
Total selling price = 840 + 1248 = ₹ 2088
Profit = 2088 – 2000 = ₹ 88
∴ Profit percent = (88/2000) x 100= 4.4%
57 (c)
Let ₹100 be the maximum prize money.
Monu won ₹40, and Golu won ₹50. That is, Monu won ₹10 less than Golu.
Statement 1:
Required percent = (10/40) × 100 = 25%
Thus, Golu got 25% more money than the money that Monu won.
Hence, statement -1 is right.
Statement 2:
Required percent = (10/50) × 100 = 20%
Thus, Monu got 20% less money than the money that Golu won.
So, statement 2 is also right.
58 (a)
Let total cost price of lemons be ₹ 300.
Statement 1:
According to statement 1, overall profit should be 25%.
∴ Total selling price = 300 + 300 × 25/100 = 300 +75 = ₹ 375
Now, C.P. of 1/3rd lemons, CP1 = ₹100
and C.P. of 2/3rd lemons, CP2 = ₹200

Selling price of 1/3rd lemons, SP1 = 100 × 20/100 = ₹ 120
∴ Selling price of 2/3rd lemons, SP2 = Total selling price – Selling price of 1/3rd lemons = 375 – 120 =
₹255
So, Required percentage = {(255 – 200) / 200} × 100 % = 27.5%
So, statement 1 is right.
Statement 2:
SP2 = 255 and SP1 = 120
So, SP2 is more than double of SP1.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
59 (b)
Let principal be ₹ P.
Amount = ₹ 2P, Time = 12.5 = 25/2 years, Rate = R%
Simple interest = 2P – P = ₹P
Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100
Or P = (P × R × 25)/(2 × 100)
Or R = 8%
New Amount = ₹ 3P, Principal = ₹ P, R = 8%
Simple interest = 3P – P = ₹ 2P
So, Time = (Simple interest × 100)/(Principal × Rate) = (2P × 100)/(P × 8) = 25 years
60 (b)
Here the expenditure is constant.
Since, Rate × Consumption = Expenditure
So, Initially - 1×1 = 1 (assume it on your own)
After change - 1.25× c = 1
(c = new consumption)
So, c = 4/5
Hence, decrease in value = 1-(4/5) = 1/5
And percentage decrease = [(1/5)/1] ×100 = 20%
So, option (b) is the right answer.
61 (a)
Here, Principal = P = ₹ 80000
Rate, R = - 2.5 % = (-5/2)%
T = 2.2 years = 11/5 = 2(1/5) years
∴ Salary after 2.2 years = 80000 {(1 - 5/(2 × 100)}2 × { 1 – 5/(2 × 100 × 5)}
= 80000 × (39 /40)2 × (199/200)
= 80000 × 39 × 39 × 199 / (40 × 40 × 200)
= ₹ 75669.75
So, Kavita will get ₹ 75669.75 salary after 2.2 years.
Hence, option (a) is the right answer.
62 (b)
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage talks about data protection in general, and the need to balance
the benefits and the risks of personal data processing. There is no mention about whether or not India has
a robust data processing framework. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Assumption 2 is correct. The given assumption is correct as it validates the line “A strong data
protection framework provides certainty which may encourage investment, competition and innovation
in the digital economy and uptake of digital government and private sector services.” Therefore, it is
correct to say that data protection is important both for privacy concerns and economic growth of the
country.

63 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given statement is not correct because the passage does not mention the
context of “high incidences” of the misuse of personal data. The author only says that data processing
frameworks should ensure that individuals have confidence that their data is collected and stored safely
and used solely for legitimate purposes. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Option (b) is correct. Refer to the line: “Governments, organisations, and individuals increasingly
generate, collect and process personal data.” There are diverse stakeholders. Furthermore, data
protection laws typically require personal data processing to be lawful, limited, transparent, accurate and
secure. On top of it individuals’ need some control over how personal data about them is processed. All
this makes the development of a strong data protection regime is a complex process. This answer option is
correct.
Option (c) is incorrect. As discussed above, framing a strong data protection regime is a complex task.
Despite this complexity, the author is optimistic about the formulation of this regime. The author says that
a strong data protection framework provides certainty which may encourage investment, competition and
innovation. Had it been impossible to achieve, the author would not talk about the benefits of having a
data protection regime. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that a strong data protection framework is
impossible to achieve.
Option (d) is incorrect. The author mentions that governments, organisations, and individuals
increasingly generate, collect and process personal data. So, they are important stakeholders in data
processing framework. The passage also mentions the concerns of individuals – privacy concerns, some
control over how personal data about them is processed, etc. However, we cannot say that the concerns of
the individuals should be ranked higher than that of governments and private sector.
64 (a)
Statement 1 is not correct. The following line “In healthcare, diagnosis and drug discovery will benefit
enormously from AI” talks about diagnosis and drug discovery, not about surgeries, that too critical in
nature. So, as per the passage, this statement is not correct.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The lines “AI could increase GDP growth in both advanced countries
and emerging markets (statement 3)” and “In education, it can improve learning environments and
learning outcomes and can better prepare youth for the transition to the workplace (statement 2)”, show
that option (a) is correct.
65 (c)
Inference 1 is correct. The passage mentions, “Yet with the exceptions of China and India, emerging
markets have received only a modest share of global investment”. If global investment in AI is
considered, the emerging markets have received a smaller pie. Therefore, we can say that advanced
economies have invested more in AI, than emerging markets.
Inference 2 is correct. The passage states, “…they may benefit more from AI implementation than
advanced economies”. AI has the potential to bring significant improvements in sectors such as energy,
healthcare, education, manufacturing, finance, and transportation in emerging markets.
66 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The following lines from the passage “If climate change continues
unaddressed it will increase inequality within countries and may even reverse current progress in
reducing inequality between countries”, clearly show that there has been some progress in reducing
inequality. However, the assumption states that there has been no progress which is not correct as per the
passage.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. Whether urbanization will increase the inequality between rural and urban
people has not been discussed in the passage. The lines “They find high levels of wealth and modern
infrastructure coexist with pockets of severe deprivation, often side by side”, only show that there is
inequality within the urban centres. Rural-urban inequality pattern is not touched upon. So, this
assumption is beyond the scope of the passage.

67 (b)
Let total savings be100%.
Savings spent on Char-Dham Yatra = 40%
So, remaining savings = 60%
Now, 10% of the remaining savings is spent on charity, i.e. 6% on charity ……… (i)
So, remaining savings = 60% - 6% = 54%
Now, 16.67% of the remaining savings is spent on food, i.e. 54% × (50/3) / 100 = 9% ................ (ii)
So, remaining savings = 54% - 9% = 45%
It means she spent 55% of her total savings.
From equation (i) and (ii),
Savings spent on charity and food = 6% + 9% = 15%
68 (c)
Let the original total weight be x.
Weight of the jar = (12.5/100)x = x/8.
Original weight of the water = x-(x/8) = 7x/8.
New weight of jar and water (jar + water) = (25/100)x = x/4.
New weight of water = new weight of jar and water – weight of jar = (x/4) – (x/8) = x/8.
Weight of water removed = original weight of water – new weight of water = (7x/8) – (x/8) = 6x/8
Fraction of water removed = weight of water removed/original weight of water = (6x/8)/(7x/8) = 6/7
69 (b)
The total number of characters = 10×50×60.
Let the number of sheets in the new format be p.
Since the total number of characters remains the same, therefore:
10×50×60 = p×30×25
So, p=40
So, increase in the number of sheets = 40-10 = 30
So, percentage increase = (30/10)×100 = 300%
70 (d)
SI = Prn/100
Let the money borrowed at 15% simple interest per annum be ₹ X.
[(18000 × 12 × 2)/100] + [(X × 15 × 2)/100] = 9000
⇒ [(36000 × 12) / 100] + [30X / 100] = 9000
⇒ 30X / 100 = 9000 – 4320 = 4680
⇒ X = 4680 × 100 / 30
⇒ X = ₹ 15600
So, total borrowed amount = 18000 + 15600 = ₹ 33600
71 (c)
Profit = 25%
Selling price = ₹ 3920
∴ Cost price = ₹ {(3920/125) × 100} = ₹ 3136
Profit = Selling price – Cost price = 3920 - 3136 = ₹ 784
72 (c)
Let cost price of mangoes be ₹ x
Ramesh’s profit is 20%.
∴ Selling price = 120% of x = 6x/5
Suresh sells the mangoes at double the price.

So, selling price of Suresh = 12x/5
Profit = SP – CP = (12x/5) – x = ₹ 7x/5
∴ Profit percent = (Profit / CP) × 100 = (7x/5) × (1/x) × 100 = 140%
73 (d)
Let the initial amount invested be A.
Return on investment for the first year is 10% and for subsequent years is 20%.
Amount after 1 year = (110/100) × A = 1.1A
Amount after second year = (120/100) × 1.1A = 1.1A × 1.2
Similarly, amount after six years = 1.1 × (1.2)5 A
74 (c)
Let the initial length and breadth of a rectangle be l and b respectively.
Initial area of rectangle = l × b = lb
New Length after it got increased by 20% = 120/100 × l = 1.2l
New Breadth after it got increased by 25%= 125/100 × b = 1.25b
New Area = 1.2l × 1.25 b = 1.5lb
Net change in area = New Area – Initial area = 1.5lb – lb = 0.5lb
Percentage increase in area = Net increase in area / original area × 100 = 0.5lb/lb × 100 = 50%
75 (d)
Let salary of C = ₹ 100
Salary of A = ₹ 130
Salary of B = ₹ 140
(130/140) × 100 = X
Or X = 650 / 7
Or X = 92 (6/7)
76 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect. The line “Though certified organic crop producers earn higher revenue, they
incur higher production expenses as well”, shows that the production cost of organic farming is high.
However, nowhere has it been mentioned in the passage that research on farm level data will help in
reducing the cost of organic farming. Therefore, this inference is not correct.
Inference 2 is incorrect. Refer to the line: “Though certified organic crop producers earn higher
revenue, they incur higher production expenses as well” and “Contrary to expectations, certified organic
farmers do not earn significantly higher household income than conventional farmers.” The revenue
might be high in organic farming sector, but the input cost is also high. So, the net profit (revenue – input
cost) might not be significantly higher in organic farming. Therefore, this inference is not correct.
77 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. As per the passage “Contrary to expectations, certified organic farmers do not
earn significantly higher household income than conventional farmers.” Conventional farming is not
more profitable than organic farming but is mildly less profitable. So, to say that conventional farming is
highly profitable is not correct.
Option (b) is incorrect. Refer to the lines “There is growing evidence that organic farming is a rapidly
expanding economic sector in the U.S.” Clearly, organic farming is expanding rapidly in the U.S. It is
incorrect to say that organic farming is witnessing reduced growth in the U.S.
Option (c) is correct. The lines “Though certified organic crop producers earn higher revenue; they
incur higher production expenses as well. In particular, certified organic producers spend significantly
more on labour, insurance, and marketing charges than conventional farmers”, reflect that organic
farming involves higher input costs which reduces the net profits. Therefore, as per the passage, it would
be correct to say that rationalising these expenses will help in making organic farming more profitable.

Option (d) is incorrect. The passage deals mostly with the economic aspects of organic farming vis-à-vis
conventional farming. The environmental aspects are not touched upon in the passage. Therefore, this
78 (c)
Let the cost price be Rs. 100.
Then the selling price= Rs. 114.
Now, let the marked price be Rs. x, then
95x/100 = 114
or x = Rs. 120.
If no discount was offered, the selling price = Rs. 120
The cost price = Rs. 100.
So, the percentage of profit = 20%
79 (d)
Let the original sum of money be P, and the rate of interest per annum be R%
After 2 years, the amount becomes 2.25 times the original sum. So, the amount after 2 years is 2.25P.
The formula for compound interest:
Amount = Principal × (1 + Rate/100)Time
So, 2.25P = P x (1 + R/100)2
or 2.25 = (1 + R/100)2
or √2.25 = 1 + R/100
or √2.25 - 1 = R/100
or 1.5 - 1 = R/100
or 0.5 = R/100
or R = 50
Therefore, the rate of interest is 50%.
80 (a)
Men×Time = Work
Let the work be 100 units and time be 1 unit
100×1= 100 units
Now work is 150 units (after 50% increase), but time remains the same.
Let m be the total number of workers (with same efficiency) required now.
So, m×1 = 150
So, m = 150
So extra workers required = 50
But since the new workers are 5/2 times (i.e. 150% more) efficient than the existing workers.
So, actual number of new workers required = 50/(5/2) = 20
Hence, the required percentage = 20/100×100 = 20%

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VISION IAS
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TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

the Test Booklet.
sheet.
be deducted.
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

1
1. If the average of 5k and 3l is equal to 50% of Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
6l, what is the value of k/l ? Study the following graph carefully and answer the
(a) 3/5 questions that follow.
(b) 5/9 Graph given below shows the number of actual and
(c) 9/5 expected production of cars in the given years.
(d) 5/3
Car Production
2. For the fall semester, five tests were taken - 20000
three quizzes, a mid-term exam, and a final 15000
exam. Each quiz had the same maximum 10000
marks. To determine the final grade and score, 9000

7000
5000
the mid-term exam was worth four times as
2006 2008 2010
much as a quiz, and the final exam was worth Actual production
six times as much as a quiz. If Manish scored
94, 78 and 92 in the quizzes, 92 in the mid-term 4. The cost of production of one car was
exam and 94 in the final exam, then what was Rs.10,000 in 2006, and Rs.15,000 in 2010.
his average score in the semester? What was the percent increase in gross
(a) 95 production cost from 2006 to 2010?
(b) 92 (a) 190%
(c) 82 (b) 250%
(d) 85 (c) 280%

(d) 170%
3. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are integers such that

5. The capacity of the company is to produce
A < B < C < D < E < F < G< H. If B is the
15 thousand cars per year. If the trend of
average of A, C and F, and D is the average of
linear growth continued for the production,
C, E, G and H, then what is the average of B
in which year would the actual production
and D?
equal the capacity?
(a) (4A + 4C + 4F + 2C + 2E + 3G + 3H)/24
(a) 2020
(b) (2A + 2C + 2F + 3C + 3E + 3G + 3H)/24
(b) 2018
(c) (4A + 4C + 4F + 3C + 3E + 3G + 3H)/24
(c) 2016
(d) (4A + 4C + 4F + 3C + 3E + 3G + 3H)/12
(d) 2012

Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Passage – 2
Read the following two passages and answer the items To young people living in democracies,
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items authoritarianism may seem like a long-forgotten part of
their country’s history. For as long as they can
remember, their fellow citizens have had the right to
Passage – 1
voice their opinion and to organize freely, political
Climate change could mean big trouble for farmers in parties have competed in meaningful elections, and the
India, as it threatens to upset the monsoon season. legislature and courts have checked their governments’
Changing weather patterns might even lead to famine, actions. But these experiences are far from universal.
due to dangerous impacts on agriculture. The wet Many countries are not democracies, and most
summer monsoon season is vital for India and other countries that are democratic are younger than a
lifetime. This means that for most people, life under
South-Asian countries because it brings most of the
authoritarianism is either their current experience, or
annual rainfall that is critical for agriculture. Large
they remember a time when it was.
areas of western and central India receive more than 90
per cent of their total annual rainfall during the summer reflects the crux of the passage?
monsoon season. Indian farmers rely on the timing and (a) For young people, democracy is a better
predictability of the monsoon season to grow crops. For political model than dictatorship.
thousands of years, farming has been carefully timed to (b) At the core, democracy is only a mask to
coincide planting with the onset of monsoon rains to practice an authoritarian model of
governance.
maximize crop production. Because India’s economy is
(c) With mechanisms like the freedom to voice
heavily based on agriculture, the importance of
opinion and executive accountability, no
accurately predicting the timing and severity of country should be under an authoritarian
monsoons is extremely important. regime in today’s world.
6. Based on the above passage, the following (d) Most people in the world, by experience,
assumptions have been made: know the difference between democracy
1. Considering the changing monsoon and dictatorship.
patterns, western and central India should

explore alternate ways of irrigation. 8. Three wild animals X, Y and Z are roaming in
2. Any conflict between the onset of monsoon a forest in such a way that when X takes 5
and plantation could significantly reduce steps, Y takes 6 steps and Z takes 7 steps. But
the 4 steps of X are equal to the 5 steps of Y
crop yield.
and 6 steps of Z. What is the respective ratio of
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? their speeds?
(a) 1 only (a) 173:170:168
(b) 75:72:70
(b) 2 only
(c) 11:20:30
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 168:175:180
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Consider the following information and the 12. The ratio of the ages of a man and his wife is
Statements and Question that follow: 6:5. After 6 years, this ratio will be 7:6. If at the
Three numbers are given in increasing time of the marriage this ratio was 4:3, then
order. The arithmetic mean of the first two is 7 how many years ago did they marry?
less than the arithmetic mean of all the three. (a) 13 years
The sum of the first two numbers is equal to the (b) 12 years
arithmetic mean of the last two. (c) 10 years
Statement-1: The second number is given. (d) 8 years
Statement-2: The arithmetic mean of the first
and third numbers is given. 13. Two alloys contain gold and copper in the
Question: What is the first number? ratios of 5:3 and 3:4. If the two alloys are
Which one of the following is correct in respect mixed in the proportion 8:11 respectively by
of the above Question and the Statements? weight, then the ratio of gold and copper in the
(a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the newly formed alloy is:
question. (a) 65:68
(b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the (b) 68:65
question. (c) 19:27
(c) Either Statement 1 alone or Statement 2 (d) 27:19
alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Both the Statements are needed together to 14. In a job interview process, the ratio of selected
answer the question. to rejected candidates was 3:11. If 90 less
candidates had applied and 34 less were
selected, then the ratio of selected to rejected
10. A man can row 22 km/hr in still water. It takes
candidates would have been 1:4. How many
him thrice as long to row up than to row down.
candidates applied for the job interview
Find the rate of flow of the stream.
originally?
(a) 8 km/hr
(a) 960
(b) 9 km/hr
(b) 880
(c) 10 km/hr
(c) 1120
(d) 11 km/hr
(d) 660
11. P and Q started simultaneously towards each

15. The average of the marks obtained by 296
other from X and Y respectively. The distance
candidates was 77. If the average of passed
between X and Y is 680 km, and the ratio of the
candidates was 89 and that of failed candidates
speeds of P and Q is 7:10. How much more
was 57, then find the number of those
distance would Q cover as compared to P by
candidates that passed the examination.
the time they meet?
(a) 185
(a) 110 km
(b) 165
(b) 105 km
(c) 190
(c) 130 km
(d) 200
(d) 120 km

16. The average of the ages of P and Q is 31 years. Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
If R were to replace P, the average would Read the following two passages and answer the items
become 38 years and if R were to replace Q, that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
the average would become 42 years. The age of should be based on the passages only.
R is how much more than that of P?
Passage – 1
(a) 15 years
Gender equality remains unfinished business in every
(b) 16 years
country of the world. Women and girls have less access
(c) 14 years
to education and healthcare, too often lack economic
(d) 18 years
autonomy and are under-represented in decision-
making at all levels. The progress that has been made

17. The average of any 9 consecutive odd natural
towards gender equality over the past quarter of a
numbers is 'm'. What would be the new average
century, though slow and incremental, does however
if 4 more such numbers, just next to the
previous 9 numbers, are also considered? show that change is possible.
(a) 3m – 10 19. Which one of the following statements best
(b) 2m – 6 reflects the crux of the passage?
(c) m + 4 (a) The situation of women around the world
(d) m + 2 could improve further.
(b) The patriarchal mindset around the world

18. A batsman scored 2014 runs in a certain needs to change for improving gender
number of innings. In the next ten innings, he
equality.
was out of form and hence could only manage
(c) A country’s progress is meaningless
to make 132 runs. As a result, his average got
without the contribution of the female
reduced by 32 runs. How many innings did he
gender.
play in total?
(d) Every country needs to bring adequate laws
(a) 19
and policies to improve the situation of
(b) 24
women and help them become financially
(c) 29
(d) 36 independent.

23. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below 25. Distance travelled by a boat along the stream is
followed by a question. two times of the distance travelled by it against

the stream. Whereas, the time taken to cover
S1: Train A usually goes 720 km in 10 hours.
the given distance along the stream is 40% less
S2: When it’s raining, it typically takes train A than the time taken to cover the given distance
thrice the usual time. against the stream. If a boat covers a distance of
Question: Train A slows down when it rains. How 35 km in 1 hour 45 minutes along the stream,
then find the rate of stream current.
long does it take train A to reach a town which
(a) 7 km/hr
is 576 km away, knowing that it rained the (b) 14 km/hr
entire time? (c) 13 km/hr
Which one of the following is correct in respect (d) 11 km/hr
of the above Statements and Question?

26. A student was given two different kinds of
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question. mixtures. In the first mixture, the ratio of
(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question. alcohol and water is 7:5, and in the second
(c) Either S1 alone or S2 alone is sufficient to mixture it is 3:4. Using these two mixtures, he
makes a third mixture of 169 litres, in which
answer the question.
the ratio of alcohol and water is 7:6. What
(d) Both the statements are needed together to
quantity of first mixture is required to make
answer the question. 169 litres of the resultant third kind of mixture?
(a) 120 litres
24. The average score of students in sections A, B
(b) 90 litres
and C of class X is 92, 84 and 70 respectively. (c) 69 litres
The average score of students in sections A and (d) 136 litres
B together is 90. The average score of students

27. The average of five numbers is 12. If one of the
in sections B and C together is 78. What is the
numbers (say x) is multiplied by 2, and another
approximate average score for all the students number (say y) is multiplied by 3, the new
of class X? average becomes 18. What is the average of

these two numbers x and y?
(a) 92.6
(a) 15
(b) 86.8
(b) 12
(c) 80.6 (c) 18
(d) 84.8 (d) Can’t be determined

28. In a 100 m race, Usha gives Dutee a start of 5.5 29. Which of the following statements best reflects
m and still beats her by 2 s (seconds). If Usha the most logical and rational message
runs at 4 m/s, what is the speed of Dutee? conveyed by the author?
(a) 2.5 m/s (a) Global policymaking can be influenced by
(b) 3 m/s large corporations.
(c) 3.5 m/s (b) Lobbyists are more influential than policy
(d) 4 m/s makers.
(c) Corporate lobbying causes the greatest
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: harm to developing nations.
Read the following passage and answer the items that (d) Top five oil firms are responsible for the
follow. Your answers to these items should be based on highest carbon emissions.
the passage only.
Passage 30. With reference to the above passage, which of
Oil giants Shell, ExxonMobil and Chevron have the statements given below are correct?
lobbyists registered at the ongoing Bonn Climate 1. The danger from global warming is the
Change Conference, organisations advocating against most acute for the least developed
corporate lobbying have found. Their presence could countries.
unduly influence the outcome of the United Nations 2. The only goal of lobbyists is to make profit
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC) at the cost of the poor.
meeting of the Subsidiary Bodies (SB58) aimed at
discussing climate finance, adaptation, operationalising
below.
the loss and damage fund and the global stocktake. The
(a) 1 only
data was collated by Corporate Europe Observatory, a
(b) 2 only
non-profit research and advocacy group working to
(c) Both 1 and 2
expose corporate lobbying, and Corporate
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Accountability Research, a non-profit group that
analyses business ethics. After the Paris Agreement, the
31. The number of female employees in an
international treaty on climate change adopted in 2015,
organization P is 20% more than the number of
lobbyists from oil companies have always been in
male employees in the same company. The
attendance at the UN climate talks. The top five oil and
number of female employees in Q is 62.5% of
gas majors in the European Union (EU) and the United the number of male employees in the same
States, namely Shell, BP, ExxonMobil, Chevron and company. If the total number of employees in P
Total Energies, had 403 lobbyists registered from the is 15000 more than the total number of
21st Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC employees in Q, then what is the ratio of the
(COP21) to COP27. Of the 403 registered delegates, total number of employees in P to the total
Shell alone had 177 delegates registered since the Paris number of employees in Q?
Agreement (2016-2023). The aforementioned (a) 5:3
organisations believe that lobbyists are there at Bonn to (b) 7:4
push the agenda of fossil fuel expansion forward to (c) 3:5
continue to rake in profits. (d) Can’t be determined

32. Raman is riding upstream on a boat, from point 35. Amar walks around a circular field at the rate
P to Q, at a constant speed. The distance from P of two rounds per hour while Deepak walks
to Q is 80 km. Two minutes after Raman leaves
around it at the rate of five rounds per hour.
from point P, a speedboat starts from point P to
They start in the same direction from the same
go to point Q. It crosses Raman’s boat after 5
point at 6:00 PM. They shall first cross each
minutes. The speed of the speedboat in still
water is 40 km/hour. Raman takes four hours to other at:
reach point Q from point P. If the speed of the (a) 6:30 PM
speedboat is constant from P to Q, then what is (b) 6:12 PM
Raman’s speed in still water?
(c) 6:20 PM
(a) 32 km/hr
(d) 6:09 PM
(b) 28 km/hr
(c) 12 km/hr
(d) 22 km/hr 36. Study the following graph carefully and answer
the question that follows.
33. Two tanks of 120 litres and 135 litres are filled Graph given below shows the results seen on
with mixture of milk and water; the proportions
rolling 2 dice - one white and one red.
in the two tanks being 7:5 and 4:5 respectively.
10
If the contents of the two tanks are mixed, and 8
8 7
15 litres of water is added to it, then what will
Frequency
6
be the proportion of milk and water in the 4
4 3 3 3 3 3
resulting mixture? 2
2 1 1 1
(a) 17:16
0
(b) 13:15 1 2 3 4 5 6
(c) 18:13 Value Rolled
(d) 13:14
White Red
34. The stream of the Bay of Bengal is running at a What is the average value rolled by the
speed of 4 km/h. A cargo ship goes 6 km
white die? (Note: Die is the singular of
upstream and back again to the starting point in
dice.)
2 hours. Find the speed of the cargo ship in still
water. (a) 2.50
(a) 9 km/h (b) 3.85

(b) 1 km/h (c) 3.47
(c) 7 km/h (d) 4.50
(d) 8 km/h
37. A man covers 60 km distance via route 1 on his Passage – 1
scooty at a certain speed. When he covers the On May 26, 2023, three countries — Cameroon, Chad
same distance via route 2, his speed increases and Niger — kicked off Africa’s largest polio
by 10 km/hr, and he takes 3 hours less time.
vaccination campaign since 2020, according to World
Consider the following Statements.
Health Organization (WHO). Through this exercise,
Statement 1: When he covers the same distance
the three West and Central African countries intend to
via route 3, his speed decreases by 5 km/hr as
compared to route 1, and he takes double the immunise 21 million children under the age of five. The
time as compared to the time taken to cover the vaccination drive started in response to 19 detections of
same distance via route 2. type-2 Polioviruses; two cases in Niger, 10 in Chad,
Statement 2: Ratio of the speeds via route 1 and four in the Central African Republic and three in
route 2 is 1:3.
Cameroon. The multi-country initiative is supported by
WHO through the Global Polio Eradication Initiative
(a) 1 only
(GPEI). It comprises synchronised vaccinations and
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 joint plans in border communities to stop polio
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 transmission. “This is a crucial undertaking to close
vaccination gaps in the wake of the COVID-19

38. An express train can travel 40% faster than a pandemic and will provide millions of children with
local train. Both start from point A at the same
vital protection from the risk of irreversible polio
time and reach point B, 84 kms away from A,
paralysis,”. All polio cases in West and Central Africa
at the same time. On the way, however, the
are due to circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus — the
express train lost about 30 minutes due to some
final strain of polio remaining on the African continent;
technical glitch. The speed of the express train
is: these outbreaks are rare. Lake Chad basin, where the
(a) 48 km/hr campaign is underway, is among the areas with the

(b) 67.2 km/hr highest percentage of unvaccinated or under-vaccinated
(c) 77.2 km/hr children in the world, WHO noted. Polio is a highly
(d) 57.2 km/hr
infectious viral disease that primarily affects children
under five years and causes permanent paralysis or

death. There is no cure, but safe and effective vaccines
Read the following two passages and answer the items
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items can protect children. Eradicating polio requires
should be based on the passages only. immunising every child until transmission stops.

39. Which of the following statements best reflects Passage – 2
the crucial message conveyed by the author of The UNEP Emissions Gap Report 2022 posits clearly
that as growing climate change impacts are experienced

the passage?
across the globe, the message that greenhouse gas
(a) Polio must be eradicated by immunising all
emissions must fall is unambiguous. The link between
children up until transmission ceases. global net zero carbon emissions and addressing
(b) Polio is currently in its last stage, before climate change is evident and it is also certain that the
link itself must be even-handed, objective and

being completely eradicated.
ambitious. To achieve global net zero goals and garner
(c) Eradication of polio is a top priority of
the public support required for this, it is imperative in
governments across the world. the long-term to view emissions within the larger
(d) A pandemic can cause a temporary break in context of global consumption and production patterns.
Consumption and production patterns vary greatly

vaccination programs.
based on the cultural, social, and economic factors. But
both consumption and production ethics also vary due
to beliefs, values and traditions. Some of these

40. Which of the following statements is/are
differences are marked by a complex interplay of
correct?
factors. In the formerly established trade flows and
1. Largest ever polio eradication campaign global economic chains, it is charged that dominant
started in Africa. economic powers exploit smaller, less developed
economies — often by extracting raw materials at low

2. Polio affects only kids under 5 years of age.
prices and exporting finished products back at higher
3. Polio is an incurable disease.
prices. This may lead to the undermining of local
Select the correct answer using the codes given economies and often leads to social and environmental
degradation. To avoid this, local producers need to have

below.
access to fair markets and fair prices so that they can
(a) 1 and 2 only
invest in alternative, environmentally friendly
(b) 3 only production methods. Across developed markets, the
(c) 2 and 3 only average individual consumer is often more aware of the
impacts of their choice on the environment.

(d) 1 and 3 only
41. Which of the following statements can be 44. The average weight of a group of 11 players is
inferred from the above passage? 160 pounds. If the heaviest player is removed
1. Examining worldwide consumption and from the group, the average weight of the
production is necessary to attain net zero remaining 10 players becomes 158 pounds.
What is the weight of the heaviest player?
carbon emission goals.
(a) 190 pounds
2. Production and consumption are influenced
(b) 200 pounds
by culture.
(c) 180 pounds
3. Access to fair markets can diminish the
(d) 210 pounds
economic exploitation of poorer countries
by rich countries. 45. Consider the following information and the
Statements and Question that follow:
The average of a set of 7 positive numbers is
below.
40.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1: The sum of the smallest and
(b) 2 and 3 only largest numbers in the set is 150.
(c) 1 and 3 only Statement 2: The range of the set is 80.
(d) All 1, 2 and 3 Question: Is the median of the set greater than
60?
42. Two people P and Q start running on a circular Which one of the following is correct in respect
track of length 400 m in opposite directions of the above Question and Statements?
with initial speeds of 4 m/sec and 16 m/sec (a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer
the Question.
respectively. Whenever they meet, P's speed
(b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer
gets doubled and Q's speed gets halved. After
the Question.
what time from the start will they meet for the
(c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 together
third time?
are sufficient to answer the Question.
(a) 48 sec (d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 together
(b) 60 sec are not sufficient to answer the Question.
(c) 65 sec
(d) 70 sec 46. In a race of 3.6 km distance, A wins by 400 m
over B. B can give a head start of 900 m to C in
43. The average of 17 numbers is 19. If each such a race. How much head start can A
number is multiplied by 5, then what will be the provide to C so that they complete the race
new average? together?

(a) 600 m
(a) 80
(b) 800 m
(b) 95
(c) 1000 m
(c) 24
(d) 1200 m
(d) 70
47. A boat can move at a speed of 7 km/hr in still Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
water. The speed of the stream of river is 1 Read the following three passages and answer the items
km/hr. A boat takes 84 minutes to go from
point P to point Q and return to the same point.
What is the total distance covered by the boat?
(a) 10.8 km Passage – 1
(b) 9.6 km Violence against healthcare workers in Mali more than
(c) 12.8 km doubled in 2022 as compared to 2021, a new report has
(d) 18.8 km
pointed out. The document identified 46 incidents of
48. Aakash drove his car at a speed 40 km/h. After violence against healthcare workers or obstruction of
30 minutes, Anil started chasing him at a speed healthcare in the country in 2022 — an increase from
of 60 km/h (through the same route). Find how 20 in 2021. Ignoring Red Lines: Violence Against
much distance Anil will have to cover to chase Health Care in Conflict 2022 report was published by
down Aakash.
Safeguarding Health in Conflict Coalition (SHCC), a
(a) 45 km
(b) 50 km group of international non-profits working towards
(c) 40 km protecting health workers, services and infrastructure. It
(d) 60 km documented 1,989 attacks and threats against healthcare
facilities and personnel across 32 countries and
49. The ratio of the number of boys to girls in a
territories which are reeling under armed conflict and
swimming class is 5:8, and the ratio of the
number of boys to girls in a dance class is 2:3. political instability throughout 2022. Among 32
The ratio of the total number of students in countries and territories, 15 countries — Burkina Faso,
swimming class to dance class is 13 : 8, and the Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic
difference between the number of students in Republic of Congo, Ethiopia, Kenya, Libya, Mali,
swimming class and dance class is 25. What is
Morocco, Mozambique, Niger, Nigeria, Somalia, South
the ratio of the number of girls in swimming
class to the number of girls in dance class? Sudan, and Sudan — were from Africa. Over half of the
(a) 5 : 3 total attacks were reported in just two countries,
(b) 2 : 1 Ukraine and Myanmar, the report stated. “Over the last
(c) 3 : 5 year, we identified a 45 percent increase in reported
(d) 1 : 3
incidents of violence against or obstruction of health
50. Ratio of the monthly income of A to that of B care in conflict zones as compared to 2021,” said
is 4:5, and the ratio of the monthly income of B Christina Wille, director of Insecurity Insight. Wille led
to that of C is 9:7. The difference between B’s the data collection and analysis for the report. Reported
monthly income and his savings is Rs.18000, violence against or obstruction of health care decreased
and savings of B are 60% more than his
in the Central African Republic, Ethiopia and Syria in
expenditure. What is the approximate average
of the incomes of A, B and C? 2022 compared to 2021. However, cases in some
(a) Rs. 42,313 countries in West and Central Africa, including Burkina
(b) Rs. 38,213 Faso, Cameroon and Mali, have been increasing, the
(c) Rs. 40,213 report noted.
(d) Rs. 42,613

51. Which of the following statements can be Passage – 2
The persistence of gender inequality is most starkly
inferred from the above passage?
brought home in the phenomenon of "missing women."
1. Attacks on healthcare professionals have The term was coined by Amartya Sen in a now-classic
increased in all of Africa. article in the New York Review of Books to capture the
fact that the proportion of women is lower than what
2. Healthcare workers have been attacked in
would be expected if girls and women throughout the
at least three continents. developing world were born and died at the same rate,
relative to boys and men, as they do in sub-Saharan
Africa. Today, it is estimated that 6 million women are
below. missing every year. Of these, 23 per cent are never
born, 10 per cent are missing in early childhood, 21 per
(a) 1 only
cent are in the reproductive years, and 38 per cent are
(b) 2 only above the age of 60. Stark as the excess mortality is, it
(c) Both 1 and 2 still does not capture the fact that throughout their lives,
even before birth, women in developing countries are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
treated differently than their brothers, lagging behind
men in many domains. For each missing woman, many
more women fail to get an education, a job, or a
52. Consider the following statements.
political responsibility that they would have obtained if
1. The largest number of attacks against they had been men.
healthcare personnel occurred in Myanmar. 53. Which one of the following statements best
2. Attacks against healthcare personnel
(a) Developing nations should improve their
increased by less than 50% in 2022 as criminal justice systems to reduce the high
rate of missing women.
compared to 2021.
(b) To improve the status of women, it is
critical to transform society into a
matriarchal one.
true? (c) Basic human rights are violated when men
are valued more than women in developing
(a) 1 only
nations.
(b) 2 only (d) Women’s status in developing nations
(c) Both 1 and 2 cannot improve without making necessary
changes in laws, politics and education.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 3 55. The fuel cost for operating a bus service is Rs.
Encryption and cryptographic techniques for preserving (Speed)2 per hour. Other charges put together
are Rs. 100 per hour. Which of the following
the security of online communication have become
statements must be true regarding a journey of
increasingly contested in India. Rapid digitalization in
500 kilometres?
the past decade has led to the proliferation of domestic
and foreign online communication services that use (a) The cost of entire journey is Rs. 3000.
encryption and pose challenges to national security (b) At the speed of 40 km per hour, the cost of
bodies and law enforcement agencies (LEAs). To help journey shall be minimum.
(c) The time of journey shall be at least 18
overcome these challenges, the Indian government
hours.
issued controversial new rules in February 2021 that
(d) The cost of journey may be Rs. 10000.
require messaging communication providers to supply
information regarding the originators of messages.
Many providers argue that this requirement 56. A shopkeeper mixes two varieties of tea - one
costing Rs. 260 per kg and the other costing Rs.
significantly weakens the end-to-end (E2E) encryption
400 per kg, to produce a blended variety of tea
they deploy.
worth Rs. 320/kg. What should have been the
quantity of second variety of tea used by him, if
assumptions have been made: he used 132 kg of the first variety?
1. Government of India, too, should enhance (a) 188 kg
its technological capabilities for (b) 64 kg
surveillance to ensure the security of online (c) 78 kg

(d) 99 kg
communications.
2. It is important to end the controversy

57. If Sachin walks at 2 km/h, he will miss the bus
regarding new rules for boosting the
by 25 minutes. If he walks at 4 km/h, he will
business environment. reach 10 minutes before the departure of the
bus. How far Sachin walks to reach the bus
stand?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1.5 km
(b) 2 only (b) 2 km
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 0.5 km
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None of these

58. A fast moving superfast train crosses another 62. Two alloys A and B contain silver and copper
express train in 30 seconds. The speed of faster
in the ratio 5:3 and 9:7 respectively. In what
train is 120 km/hr, and the speed of slower train
is 84 km/hr. Length of the faster train is 180 m. ratio should the two alloys be mixed to get a
Find the length of the slower train, if they are
new alloy having silver and copper in the ratio
moving in opposite directions.
(a) 100 m 3:2?
(b) 120 m (a) 1:2
(c) 90 m
(d) 110 m (b) 2:3
(c) 3:2
59. A bullet train of length 210 m crosses a
platform of length 190 m in 8 seconds. What is (d) 2:1
the speed of the train?
(a) 180 km/hr
(b) 160 km/hr
(c) 150 km/hr Read the following two passages and answer the items
(d) 200 km/hr
60. In a class, the number of boys and girls are in should be based on the passages only.
the ratio of 4:3. If 10 more boys and 15 more
Passage – 1
girls join the class, the ratio of the number of
boys and girls becomes 10:9. How many more The role of culture in moral development is an
boys are there in the class as compared to the
important topic that raises fundamental questions about
number of girls?
(a) 10 what is universal and what is culturally specific
(b) 30 regarding morality and moral development. Many
(c) 40
(d) Cannot be determined research traditions have examined this question, with
social-cognitive and structural-developmental positions

61. Mr. Sharma gives 40% of his salary to his
father, 40% of the remaining salary he invests theorizing that morality has a universal requirement to
in insurance scheme and share market in the it, drawing from moral philosophy. The expectation is
ratio 4:11, and the remaining he keeps in his
bank account. The difference between the that if morality exists, it has to do with those values that
amounts he keeps in the bank account and that are generalizable across groups and cultures.
he invests in the share market is Rs. 46000.
Alternatively, relativistic cultural positions have been
How much is Mr. Sharma's salary?
(a) Rs. 3,60,000 put forth mostly by socialization theories that focus on
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
how cultures transmit values rather than what values are
(c) Rs. 2,50,000
(d) Rs. 3,00,000 applied across groups and individuals.

63. Which one of the following statements best 64. Based on the above passage, the following
reflects the crux of the passage? assumptions have been made:
(a) Considering the universal nature of 1. Along with the private sector, governments
morality, culture does not play any should invest in promoting startups in the
significant role in moral development. field of agriculture.
(b) Socialization is the most important tool in 2. Sharing of knowledge and lessons should
the development of universal moral values. be across the globe and not only limited to
(c) Despite the universal nature of morality, it the regions of the global south.
may get impacted by socialization via the

local cultures of a society.
(a) 1 only
(d) Universal moral values are fundamentally
(b) 2 only
stronger than the moral values developed
(c) Both 1 and 2
through socialization.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 2
Agriculture has the potential to drive economic 65. Which one of the following statements best
development, contribute to food security and generate reflects the crux of the passage?
income for millions of rural farmers. Recent years have (a) The only restriction in modernizing and
seen growth in digital innovations that can address the transforming the agriculture sector is the
various agricultural and food industry challenges. lack of knowledge sharing and learning
Startups led by the private sector are tackling issues from countries of the global south.
ranging from access to markets to the provision of (b) Startups in the field of agriculture can solve
financial services. However, despite innovations and the core persisting issues of agriculture.
viable business models, challenges persist. This is due, (c) Countries across the world should invest in
in part, to constraints in sharing knowledge and lessons agricultural technology for ensuring food
learned among countries and regions of the Global security and economic development.
South. As a result, agricultural solutions have failed to (d) Harnessing the potential of agriculture
achieve the wider impact that could modernize and depends on the sharing of knowledge and
transform the continent's agricultural and food industry lessons learned from regions of the global
sectors. south.
66. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below 68. The distance between two stations X and Y is
followed by a question. 1000 km. A train starts at 11 AM from X and
moves towards Y at an average speed of 50
S1: The average of X and Y is 60.
km/h. Another train starts from Y at 10 AM and
S2: The average of the integers between X and moves towards X at an average speed of 100
Y, not including either, is 60. km/h. At what time the two trains will meet?
Question: What is the average of the (a) 3 PM
(b) 4 PM
consecutive integers from X to Y, including
(c) 5 PM
both? (d) None of these
of the above Statements and the Question. 69. The average of 20 numbers is zero. How many
of these numbers may be greater than zero at
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
max?
(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question. (a) 19
(c) Either S1 alone or S2 alone is sufficient to (b) 18
answer the question. (c) 20
(d) 10
(d) Both the statements together are not sufficient
to answer the question. 70. Consider the following information and the
In a hockey team, the average age of 11 players
67. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below is 32 years.
followed by a question. Statement-1: The captain is 16 years older than
S1: The ratio of incomes of Mr. X in the years the youngest player.
Statement-2: The average age of 10 players
2022 and 2023 is 3 : 4.
other than the captain is 31.5 years.
S2: The ratio of his expenditures in the years Statement-3: Leaving aside the captain and the
2022 and 2023 is 5 : 6. youngest player, the average ages of the three
Question: What is the ratio of Mr. X’s savings groups of three players each are 35 years, 33
years and 30 years respectively.
in the year 2022 to that in the year 2023?
Question: What is the age of the captain?
Which one of the following is correct in respect Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above Statements and the Question. of the above Question and Statements.
(a) (а) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the (a) Any two of the given three statements are
sufficient to answer the question.
question.
(b) Either Statement 1 and 3 together or
(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question. Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the
(c) Both the statements together are sufficient to question.
answer the question. (c) Either Statement 1 alone or Statement 2
alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Both the statements together are not sufficient
(d) Statement 2 and 3 together are sufficient to
to answer the question. answer the question.

71. Consider the following information and the Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Statements and Question that follow: Read the following two passages and answer the items
A boat takes a total time of 12 hours to travel
downstream from X to Y and upstream back Passage – 1
from Y to X. As India reaches a tipping point of transitioning from a
Statement-1: The speed of the river current is 2 mostly rural to an urban society, the focus must be on
ensuring the best opportunities for economic growth for
km/hr.
all sections of the society. It is a matter of concern that
Statement-2: The distance between X and Y is
despite huge investments, our cities still face many
70 km. efficiency-and sustainability-related challenges. None
Question: What is the speed of the boat in still of our cities features among the top 50 cities in many
water? global rankings. The need of the hour is incisive,

insightful planning – in the absence of which neither
investments nor actions would be able to yield long-
of the above Question and Statements. term solutions. Unplanned urbanization could result in
(a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the serious downsides. Cities are like living organisms. For
question. them to flourish, their economic and social
infrastructure must be in a sound state. There are
(b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the
enormous possibilities to achieve this through the
question.
adoption of spatial planning tools. We must rethink,
(c) Either Statement 1 alone or Statement 2 reimagine, and re-establish the very purpose and
alone is sufficient to answer the question. approach towards the planning of cities and towns in
India.
(d) Both the Statements are needed together to
72. A train travelled from Delhi to Bangalore
1. Presence or absence of cities in global
covering a distance of 2500 km. The train stops
rankings depends on their efficiency and
for 5 minutes after every 125 km. If for each sustainability.
125 km, it maintains an average speed of 100 2. Poor investments in creating sustainable
km/h, then the time taken by the train to reach cities hamper India’s transition to an urban
society.
its destination is:
Select the correct answer from the code given
(a) 26 h 35 min below:
(b) 26 h 40 min (a) 1 only
(c) 26 h 30 min (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 25 h 30 min
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

74. Which one of the following statements best 75. Which of the following is/are the most rational
reflects the critical message conveyed by the
passage given above? 1. Unclear mechanism of SDGs for
(a) Insightful planning of well-organized and eradicating hunger is the cause of
continued cases of global hunger.
sustainable cities is the key to an inclusive 2. Merely consuming sufficient calories will
urban Indian society. not solve the challenges related to food
security.
(b) Considering the increasing load on Indian
cities, we need to replan each city across Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
the country.
(a) 1 only
(c) India should aim to get its best cities in the (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
top 50 global rankings.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Unplanned urbanization will lead to
poverty, loss of GDP, and poor use of 76. Which one of the following statements best
reflects the message of the author of the
human and economic capital. passage?
(a) Information sharing on available food
Passage – 2 resources across nations can help address
Food security exists when all people have physical and the challenge of food security.
(b) Before ensuring mass production of food
economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food.
using GM crops, the debate around its safe
Unfortunately, food security does not exist for a use should be settled.
(c) With regards to food security, genetically
significant proportion of the world population. Around
modified crops can guarantee the quantity
900 million people are undernourished, meaning that of food, but they have been known to cause
they are undersupplied with calories. Many more suffer serious health related issues.
(d) Rather than depending on GM crops,
from specific nutritional deficiencies, often related to
promoting organic farming can fulfil all the
insufficient intake of micronutrients. Eradicating needs of food security.
hunger is central to the Sustainable Development Goals.
But how to achieve this goal is debated controversially. 77. A class consists of 10 students. The teacher
expects the class to have an average score of at
Genetically modified (GM) crops are sometimes
least 80. The average score of 9 students was
mentioned in this connection. Some see the calculated to be 78. What marks do the last
student need to score for the overall average of
development and use of GM crops as key to reducing
the class to match the teacher's standard?
hunger while others consider this technology as a (a) 88
further risk to food security. Solid empirical evidence to (b) 82
(c) 98
support either of these views is thin. (d) 100

78. The average of (b + 1) and 1 is equal to the
average of (b + 4), 4 and 2. What is the value of
b?
(a) 20
(b) 10
(c) 16
(d) 14
79. 120 employees work in an office. 70 of the

employees are graduates and 80 are fresh out of
college employees. What is the ratio between
the minimum to maximum number of graduates
who are fresh out of college?
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:3
(c) 3:7
(d) 5:7
80. If x is the average of r and 11, y is the average

of 3r and 19, and z is the average of 5r and 20,
what is the average of x, y, and z in terms of r?
(a) 1.5r + 8
(b) 3r
(c) 1.5r
(d) 4.5r + 25

form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of
Vision IAS.

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

1 (a)
Average of 5k and 3l is equal to 50% of 6l.
Or (5k + 3l)/2 = 50% of 6l
Or (5k + 3l)/2 = 3l
Or (5k + 3l) = 6l
Or 5k = 6I – 3l
Or 5k = 3l
Or k/I = 3/5
Hence, option (a) is correct.
2 (b)
The formula for a weighted average is:
Sum of the (weight x values) divided by the sum of the weights.
Mid-term exam was worth four times as much as a quiz, and the final exam was worth six times as much
as a quiz.
So, Weighted Average of marks = (1 x 94 + 1 x 78 + 1 x 92 + 4 x 92 + 6 x 94) / (1 + 1 + 1 + 4 + 6)
= 1196 / 13
= 92
Hence, option (b) is correct.
3 (c)
B is the average of A, C and F.
So, B = (A + C + F)/3
D is the average of C, E, G and H.
So, D = (C + E + G + H)/4
So, Average of B and D = [(A + C + F)/3 + (C + E + G + H)/4] / 2
= [(4A + 4C + 4F + 3C + 3E + 3G + 3H)/12] / 2
= (4A + 4C + 4F + 3C + 3E + 3G + 3H) / 24
Hence, option (c) is correct.
4 (d)
Production costs in 2006 = Rs. 10,000 × 5,000 = Rs. 500 lakhs
Production costs in 2010 = Rs. 15,000 × 9,000 = Rs. 1350 lakhs
The percent increase in gross production cost from 2006 to 2010 = [(1350 – 500)/500] × 100 = 170%
Hence, option (d) is correct.
5 (c)
Each year the gap between actual production and capacity decreased by 1000.
In 2010, the gap is 15000 – 9000 = 6000.
So, in 6 years the gap would disappear, i.e. in 2016.

6 (c)
Assumption 1 is correct. The line “Large areas of western and central India receive more than 90 per
cent of their total annual rainfall during the summer monsoon season”, validates the assumption made in
the statement that if these areas depend 90 per cent on the monsoon rainfall and climate change may upset
the monsoon season, then alternate ways should be explored. Hence, this assumption is correct as per the
passage.
Assumption 2 is correct. As per the line “For thousands of years, farming has been carefully timed to
coincide planting with the onset of monsoon rains to maximize crop production”, if there is any change in
the onset of monsoon or if the plantation is not as per the onset, then it could reduce the crop yield or lead
to crop loss. Hence, this assumption is correct as per the passage.
7 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because it compares which model is better.
However, the passage does not compare which is good. Also, the option specifically talks about young
people and that democracy is good for them, but the passage is not focussed on young people only. Hence,
this option is not the best crux.
Option (b) is incorrect. Democracy being the mask for authoritarianism is not discussed in the passage.
Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not the crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because it talks about an ideal scenario in that no
country should be under authoritarianism due to the benefits offered by democracy. However, whether a
country should be a democracy or under a dictatorship is not discussed in the passage.
Option (d) is correct. The lines “Many countries are not democracies, and most countries that are
democratic are younger than a lifetime. This means that for most people, life under authoritarianism is
either their current experience, or they remember a time when it was”, support the claim given in the
option. The passage, talks about how people are either living in a dictatorship or they know what it looks
like due to their historical experience. Hence, this is the best crux of the passage.
8 (b)
Frequency of steps of X, Y and Z, X1: Y1: Z1 = 5:6:7
Let X1 = 5c, Y1 = 6c and Z1 = 7c (c is a constant)
In terms of size of step, 4X2 = 5Y2 = 6Z2 = k (k is a constant)
So, X2 = k/4; Y2 = k/5 and Z2 = k/6.
Since, Speed = Distance × Frequency = Step size × Frequency
So, the speeds of X, Y and Z are:
X3 = (5/4) ck; Y3 = (6/5) ck and Z3 = (7/6) ck.
So the ratio of speeds of X, Y and Z = (5/4) : (6/5) : (7/6)
= (5/4) ×60 : (6/5) ×60 : (7/6) ×60
(LCM of 4, 5 and 6 = 60)
= 75:72:70
9 (c)
Let the 3 numbers in increasing order be X, Y and Z.
The arithmetic mean of the first two is 7 less than the arithmetic mean of all the three.
[(X + Y + Z)/3] – [(X + Y)/2] = 7
Or 2X + 2Y + 2Z - 3X - 3Y = 42
Or 2Z - X - Y = 42 ........ (i)
The sum of the first two numbers is equal to the arithmetic mean of the last two.
X + Y = (Y + Z)/2
Or 2X + 2Y = Y + Z
Or 2X + Y - Z = 0
Or Z = 2X + Y ........ (ii)
Putting the value of Z in equation (i), we get:
2(2X + Y) - X - Y = 42
Or 3X + Y = 42
From Statement-1:
The second number, i.e. Y is given.

Thus, we can find the first number.
Thus, Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement-2:
The arithmetic mean of the first and third numbers is given. That is, (X + Z)/2 is known.
So, we have 3 equations and 3 unknowns. So, we can solve them for the value of X. Thus, we can find the
first number.
Thus, Statement 2 alone is also sufficient to answer the question.
10 (d)
Let speed of stream be x km/hr.
Speed of boat in still water = 22 km/hr
Downstream speed = 22 + x
Upstream speed = 22 – x
It takes him thrice as long to row up than to row down. As the distance covered by boat downstream is the
same as the distance covered by that boat upstream,
Time taken by boat downstream / Time taken by boat upstream = Upstream speed/Downstream speed
Or 1/3 = (22 – x)/(22 + x)
Or 22 + x = 3(22 – x)
Or 22 + x = 66 – 3x
Or 4x = 44
Or x = 11 km/hr
Thus, the speed of the stream is 11 km/hr.
11 (d)
Distance between X and Y = 680 km
The ratio of the speeds of P and Q = 7:10
Here, time is constant. So, the distance covered by P and Q is directly proportional to the speeds of P and
Q.
So, the ratio of the distance covered by P and Q = 7:10
Required distance = 680 × (10 – 7) / (7 + 10)
= 680 × 3/17 = 120 km
Thus, Q would cover 120 km more than P.
12 (b)
Let man's age be 6x and his wife’s age be 5x.
After 6 years,
Man's age = 6x + 6
Wife’s age = 5x + 6
Or (6x+6)/(5x+6) = 7/6
Or 36x + 36 = 35x + 42
Or x = 42 – 36
Or x = 6
So, Man's age = 6x = 6×6 = 36 years
Wife’s age = 5x = 5×6 = 30 years
Let us assume that they were married 'm' years ago, then:
(36–m)/(30–m) = 4/3
Or 3(36–m) = 4(30–m)
Or 108 – 3m = 120 – 4m
Or m = 120 – 108
Or m = 12 years
Thus, they were married 12 years ago.

13 (b)
Let 8 kg of first alloy and 11 kg of second alloy are mixed together.
In 8 kg of first alloy,
Quantity of gold = 8 × 5/8 = 5 kg
Quantity of copper = 8 × 3/8 = 3 kg
In 11 kg of second alloy,
Quantity of gold = 11 × 3/7 = 33/7 kg
Quantity of copper = 11 × 4/7 = 44/7 kg
Required ratio = (5 + 33/7) ∶ (3 + 44/7)
= 68/7 : 65/7
= 68 : 65
Thus, the ratio of gold and copper in the newly formed alloy is 68:65.
14 (c)
Let the number of selected candidates be 3x and the number of unselected candidates by 11x.
Total number of candidates that applied for the interview process = 3x + 11x = 14x
Number of selected candidates = 3x – 34
Number of candidates that applied = 14x – 90
So, Number of unselected candidates = (14x – 90) – (3x – 34) = 11x – 56
(3x – 34) / (11x – 56) = 1/4
Or 4(3x – 34) = 11x – 56
Or 12x – 136 = 11x – 56
Or 12x – 11x = –56 + 136
Or x = 80
So, Number of candidates that applied for the job interview originally = 14x = 14 × 80 = 1120
15 (a)
Let 'x' number of candidates passed the exam.
Number of failed candidates = 296 – x
89x + (296 – x) × 57 = 296 × 77
Or 89x + (296 × 57) – 57x = 296 × 77
Or 32x = (296 × 77) – (296 × 57)
Or 32x = 296 × 20
Or x = 296 × 20/32 = 185
Thus, 185 candidates passed the exam.
16 (c)
Sum of the ages of P and Q, P + Q = 31 × 2 = 62 years ............(i)
Sum of the ages of R and Q, Q + R = 38 × 2 = 76 years ..........(ii)
Sum of the ages of P and R, P + R = 42 × 2 = 84 years ........(iii)
From equations (i), (ii) and (iii), we get:
2(P + Q + R) = 62 + 76 + 84 = 222
Or P + Q + R = 222/2 = 111 ........(iv)
From equations (i) and (iv), we get:
Age of R = 111 – 62 = 49 years
From equations (ii) and (iv), we get:
Age of P = 111 – 76 = 35
Thus, age of R is more than that of P by (49 – 35), i.e. 14 years.

17 (c)
Let 9 consecutive odd natural numbers, whose average is 'm', be:
m–8, m–6, m–4, m–2, m, m+2, m+4, m+6, m+8
When 4 more such numbers are considered, just next to the previous 9 numbers, the 13 numbers with us
will be:
m–8, m–6, m–4, m–2, m, m+2, m+4, m+6, m+8, m+10, m+12, m+14, m+16
Required average of 13 numbers = [(m–8) + (m–6) + (m–4) + (m- 2) + m + (m+2) + (m+4) + (m+6) +
(m+8) + (m+10) + (m+12) + (m+14) + (m+16)] /13
= (13m + 52) / 13
=m+4
18 (c)
Let's assume that the batsman played 'n' innings before he got out of form, and his average at that time
was 'x' runs.
Total runs scored by the batsman in n innings = 2014
Average score of batsman in 'n' innings, x = 2014/n .......(i)
Average score of batsman in (x+10) innings, x – 32 = (2014 + 132)/(n + 10)
Or x – 32 = 2146/(n + 10)
Or (2014/n) – 32 = 2146/(n + 10) [Since, x = 2014/n]
n = 19 satisfies the above equation.
So, total innings played by the batsman = n + 10 = 19 + 10 = 29
19 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The given option is the best crux because of the lines “Gender equality remains
unfinished business in every country of the world” and “The progress that has been made towards
gender equality over the past quarter of a century, though slow and incremental, does, however, show that
change is possible.” These lines show that situation of women could improve in future. So, the given
option is the best crux.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of patriarchal mindset is not a part of the passage. The passage does
not contain any information on the patriarchal mindset being the cause of gender inequality. So, this
statement is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. Whether a country’s progress is meaningful or meaningless vis-à-vis the
contribution of female gender cannot be concluded from the information given in the passage. This
statement is subjective, and the passage only mentions that gender inequality exists. So, this is not the best
crux.
Option (d) is incorrect. The context of laws and policies for women's empowerment is not a part of the
passage. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and therefore, it cannot be the best crux of the
passage.
20 (d)
Option (a) is not correct. This statement reflects the view of a popular author, rather than that of the
author of the passage. The passage says, “Stock, author of books such as Material Girls: Why Reality
Matters for Feminism (2021), has long been at the receiving end of criticism for her view that biological
sex is more socially significant than gender identity, even though it does not exclude sympathy for the
trans-rights movement”. Hence, this is not the message of the passage.
Option (b) is not correct as it is not the view of the author or message of the passage. The author is just
conveying a viewpoint of “trans-exclusionary radical feminists”, who think that females maybe at a risk of
violence at the hands of trans-women.
Option (c) is not correct. The passage says, “TERF or “trans-exclusionary radical feminist” refers to
feminists whose advocacy for women’s rights do not include the rights of transgender people, especially
trans women”. Hence, TERF activists do not advocate for the rights of transgenders.
Option (d) is correct. The passage revolves around the theme that a category of feminists excludes trans
people when it comes to women rights. The passage says, “TERF or “trans-exclusionary radical
feminist” refers to feminists whose advocacy for women’s rights do not include the rights of transgender
people, especially trans women”.

21 (a)
Statement 1 is correct. The passage clearly says, “At the talk, Stock, 51, who quit her position at the
University of Sussex in 2021 owing to sustained protests and accusations of transphobia against her,
reiterated her views….”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is not correct. The passage clearly says, “Even though the term gained currency in the early
2000s, it was born during the early 1970s feminist movement in the US”. Hence, it is incorrect to say that
it originated in the 21st century.
22 (d)
Arithmetic mean of five different numbers is 65.
So, sum of these five different numbers = 65 × 5 = 325.
From Statement 1:
There can be 1, 2, 3 or 4 numbers greater than 65, even if none of them is greater than 100.
So, Statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement 2:
Three of the five numbers are 36, 44 and 56.
Sum of the given three numbers = 36 + 44 + 56 = 136
So, Sum of the remaining two numbers = 325 – 136 = 189
One or both of these numbers can be greater than 65.
So, Statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement 1 and 2:
Sum of the remaining two numbers is 189, and none of them is greater than 100.
Thus, we can conclude that both of these numbers must be greater than 65, e.g. 90 and 99.
Hence, both the Statements are needed together to answer the question.
23 (d)
From S1:
Train A usually goes 720 km in 10 hours. So, we can find the usual speed of the train. However, we
cannot find the speed of the train when it’s raining.
So, S1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From S2:
When it’s raining, it typically takes train A thrice the usual time. From this information we can’t find the
exact speed of the train when it’s raining.
So, S2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Ratio of the time taken when train A goes at usual speed and when it’s raining = 1 : 3
So, Ratio of the usual speed of the train and when it’s raining = 3 : 1
Usual speed of train = 720/10 = 72 km/hr
So, Speed of train when it’s raining = 72 × 1/3 = 24 k/hr
Time taken by train A to reach a town which is 576 km away when it’s raining = 576/24 = 24 hr
Hence, both the Statements are needed together to answer the question.
24 (b)
Let there be x, y and z number of students in the three sections - A, B and C of class X.
The average score of students in sections A, B and C of class X is 92, 84 and 70 respectively.
So, Total score of all students of section A = 92x
Total score of all students of section B = 84y
Total score of all students of section C = 70z
The average score of students in sections A and B together is 90.
So, Total score of all students in sections A and B together = 90(x + y)
Thus, we get:
92x + 84y = 90(x + y)
Or 2x = 6y
Or x:y = 6:2 = 3:1

The average score of students in sections B and C together is 78.
So, Total score of all students in sections B and C together = 78(y + z)
Thus, we get:
84y + 70z = 78(y + z)
Or 6y = 8z
Or y:z = 8:6 =4:3
So, x:y:z = 12:4:3
Average score for all students of class X = (92x + 84y + 70z)/(x + y + z)
= (92×12 + 84×4 + 70×3)/(12 + 4 + 3)
= 86.8 (approximately)
25 (a)
Let speed of the boat be x km/hr and the stream current be y km/hr.
A person covers a distance of 35 km in 1 hr 45 min along the stream.
1 hr 45 min = 7/4 hr
Time = Distance/Speed
Or 7/4 = 35/(x + y)
Or x + y = 35 × 4/7 = 20 ……. (i)
Distance covered against the stream = (35/2) km
Now, the time taken to cover the distance along the stream is 40% less than the time taken to cover the
distance against the stream.
So, [(35/2)/(x – y)] × (60/100) = (7/4)
Or [35/(x – y)] × (3/10) = (7/4)
Or [7/(x – y)] × (3/2) = (7/4)
Or 3/(x – y) = (1/2)
Or x – y = 6 ……. (ii)
On solving (i) and (ii), we get:
y = 7 km/hr
∴ Rate of river current = 7 km/hr
26 (a)
Quantity of alcohol in 1st mixture = 7/(7+5) =7/12
Quantity of alcohol in 2nd mixture = 3/(3+4) = 3/7
Quantity of alcohol in resultant 3rd mixture = 7/(7+6) = 7/13
Using Alligation method, we get:
Ratio of 1st and 2nd mixture = [10/(7×13)] : [7/(12×13] = 120:49

∴ The quantity of first mixture = 169 × [120/(120+49)] = 120 litres
27 (d)
Let's denote the five numbers as A, B, C, D, and E. We know that the average of these five numbers is 12.
So, we can write the following equation:
(A + B + C + D + E) / 5 = 12
Next, we are told that if one number is multiplied by 2, and another number is multiplied by 3, the new
average becomes 18. But here all the 5 numbers are unknown, and it is not mentioned which number is
multiplied by 2 and which number is multiplied by 3. Thus, the average of the two multiplied numbers
cannot be determined using the given information.
28 (c)
Time taken by Usha to cover 100 m = 100/4 (time = distance/speed)
= 25 s
So, Dutee covers (100 - 5.5) m = 94.5 m in (25 + 2) sec = 27 sec.
∴ Dutee’s speed = distance/speed = 94.5/27 = 3.5 m/s.
29 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The entire passage revolves around the theme of how big oil corporations are
lobbying in international environmental summits, and probably getting decisions in their favour. For
example, the passage says, “Their presence could unduly influence the outcome of the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC) meeting of the Subsidiary Bodies (SB58) aimed at
discussing climate finance, adaptation, operationalising the loss and damage fund and the global
stocktake”. Hence, it is the correct option.
Option (b) is not correct. Though they influence the decision-makers, the passage nowhere mentions that
lobbyists out power policymakers. Hence, it is not a correct option.
Option (c) is not correct. The lobby of large oil corporations may influence international summits and
get things done in their favour, but the passage does not mention that it causes any kind of harm to
developing countries. Hence, it is not a correct option.
Option (d) is not correct. The passage mentions, “The top five oil and gas majors in the European Union
(EU) and the United States, namely Shell, BP, ExxonMobil, Chevron and Total Energies, had 403
lobbyists registered from the 21st Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC (COP21) to COP27.” It
does not mention that they are responsible for most of the carbon emissions. It only mentions their clout
through lobbyists. Hence, it is not a correct option.
30 (d)
Statement 1 is not correct. Though it may be factually correct, the passage nowhere mentions that global
warming is the most harmful for the least developed countries. It does not find mention in the passage.
Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement 2 is not correct. The passage says, “The aforementioned organisations believe that lobbyists
are there at Bonn to push the agenda of fossil fuel expansion forward to continue to rake in profits”.
However, this does not imply that the only objective of these lobbyists is to make profit at the cost of the
poor. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
31 (d)
Let the number of male employees in P be x.
So, Number of female employees in P = 120x/100 = 6x/5
Total number of employees in P = x + 6x/5 = 11x/5
Let the number of male employees in Q be y.
So, Number of female employees in Q = (62.5/100) y = 5y/8
Total number of employees in Q = y + 5y/8 = 13y/8
(11x/5) – (13y/8) = 15000
Or 88x – 65y = 600000
There are two variables and one equation, so we can’t solve it.
32 (a)
Let Raman’s speed in still water be ‘x’ and speed of stream be ‘y’.
Upstream speed of Raman’s boat = x – y = 80/4 = 20 km/hr
Thus, x – y = 20 km/hr
Speed of speedboat in still water = 40 km/hr
Upstream speed of speedboat = 40 – y
Speed boat starts after 2 minutes of Raman's departure and crosses him after 5 minutes.
It implies that the speed boat covered the same distance in 5 minutes that Raman took 7 minutes to cover.
Hence, the ratio of the upstream speeds of Raman and Speedboat = (x – y)/(40 – y) = 5/7

Or 20/(40 − y) = 5/7 [Since, x – y = 20 km/hr]
Or 140 = 200 – 5y
Or 5y = 200 – 140 = 60
Or y = 60/5 = 12 km/hr
Since, x – y = 20 km/hr
Raman’s speed in still water, x = 20 + y = 20 + 12 = 32 km/hr
33 (d)
Quantity of milk in 1st tank = 120 × 7/12 = 70 litres
Quantity of water in 1st tank = 120 × 5/12 = 50 litres
Quantity of milk in 2nd tank = 135 × 4/9 = 60 litres
Quantity of water in 2nd tank = 135 × 5/9 = 75 litres
So, Quantity of milk in final mixture = 70 + 60 = 130 litres
And Quantity of water in the final mixture = 50 + 75 = 125 litres
When 15 litres of water is added to the whole.
New quantity of water in the final mixture = 125 + 15 = 140 litres
Required ratio = 130 : 140 = 13 : 14
34 (d)
Speed downstream = (x+4) km/h.
Speed upstream = (x-4) km/h.
Since, time = distance/speed ,
So, Downstream time = 6(x+4) and
Upstream time = 6(x+4) .
So, 6(x+4) + 6(x-4) = 2
➱ 3(x+4) + 3(x-4) = 1
➱ x2 – 6x – 16 = 0
➱ (x – 8) (x + 2) = 0
➱ x = 8,
or x = -2 (negative value, not acceptable).
Hence, speed of the cargo ship in still water = 8 km/h.
35 (c)
Since Amar and Deepak are moving in the same direction along the circular path, so they will first meet
each other when there is a difference of one round between the two.
Relative speed of Amar and Deepak = 5 – 2
= 3 rounds per hour.
∵ 3 rounds = 1 hour
∵ 1 round = 1/3 hour
= 20 minutes.
So, the time taken to complete one round at this relative speed = 20 minutes.
So, they shall first cross each other at 6:20 PM.
36 (c)
Just look at the white bars. White dice was rolled 19 times.
So, the average = (1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 5 + 5 + 5 + 6 + 6 + 6)/19 = 66/19 =
3.47

37 (d)
Let usual speed of the scooty be 'y' km/hr.
When he covers the same distance via route 2, his speed increases by 10 km/hr, and he takes 3 hours less
time.
So, 60/y - 60/(y + 10) = 3
On solving the above equation, we get:
y = 10 km/hr
Thus, his usual speed is 10 km/hr.
Checking Statement 1:
Time taken to cover 60 km distance via route 1 = 60/10 = 6 hr
Time taken to cover 60 km distance via route 2 = 60/(10 + 10) = 3 hr
Time taken to cover 60 km distance via route 3 = 60/(10 - 5) = 12 hr
Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
Checking Statement 2:
Ratio of the speeds via route 1 and route 2 is 1:2.
Thus, statement 2 is also incorrect.
38 (b)
Let speed of the local train be x km/hr.
Then, the speed of the express train will be 1.4x km/hr.
(84/x) – (84/1.4x) = 30/60
Or x = 48 km
Speed of the express train = 1.4x = 48 × 1.4 = 67.2 km/hr
39 (a)
Option (a) is correct. Eradication of polio is the central theme of the passage. The passage revolves
around the theme of how African countries, with the help of the world bank are implementing the schemes
to eradicate polio. The passage also mentions, “Eradicating polio requires immunising every child until
transmission stops.” Hence, it is the correct option.
Option (b) is not correct. The passage says, “All polio cases in West and Central Africa are due to
circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus — the final strain of polio remaining on the African continent;
these outbreaks are rare”. Though it is a correct statement, it is a part of the main theme and not the
main theme of the passage. The passage revolves around the theme of how African countries, with the
help of the world bank are implementing the schemes to eradicate polio. Hence, it is not a correct
option.
Option (c) is not correct. The passage deals with polio cases in Africa and how governments there are
taking initiatives to eradicate polio. It does not mention about the rest of the world. Hence, it is not a
correct option.
Option (d) is not correct. The passage mentions, “This is a crucial undertaking to close vaccination gaps
in the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic and will provide millions of children with vital protection from
the risk of irreversible polio paralysis”. This implies that a pandemic can cause a temporary pause in the
vaccination programs, but it is not the central theme of the passage. Hence, it is not a correct option.
40 (b)
Statement 1 is not correct. The passage says, “…three countries — Cameroon, Chad and Niger —
kicked off Africa’s largest polio vaccination campaign since 2020, according to World Health
Organization (WHO)”. This implies that it is not the largest ever polio eradication program, but the
largest, post the pandemic of Covid-19. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement 2 is not correct. The passage clearly mentions, “Polio is a highly infectious viral disease that
primarily affects children under five years and causes permanent paralysis or death”. It does not mean
that it affects children only under 5. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement 3 is correct. The last line of the passage clearly mentions, “There is no cure, but safe and
effective vaccines can protect children. Eradicating polio requires immunising every child until
transmission stops”. Hence, it is a correct statement.

41 (d)
Statement 1 is correct. The passage says, “To achieve global net zero goals and garner the public
support required for this, it is imperative in the long-term to view emissions within the larger context of
global consumption and production patterns”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage says, “Consumption and production patterns vary greatly based on
the cultural, social, and economic factors. But both consumption and production ethics also vary due to
beliefs, values and traditions”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 3 is correct. It is mentioned in the passage, “This may lead to the undermining of local
economies and often leads to social and environmental degradation. To avoid this, local producers need
to have access to fair markets and fair prices so that they can invest in alternative, environmentally
friendly production methods”. This implies that when poorer countries get direct access to markets, this
can lessen their exploitation at the hands of developed countries. Hence, it is a correct statement.
42 (c)
P's initial speed = 4 m/sec
Q's initial speed = 16 m/sec
Time taken to meet for the first time = 400/(4 + 16) = 20 sec
After 1st meet,
P's speed = 8 m/sec
Q's speed = 8 m/sec
Time taken to meet for the second time = 400/(8 + 8) = 25 sec
After 2nd meet,
P's speed = 16 m/sec
Q's speed = 4 m/sec
Time taken to meet for the third time = 400/(16 + 4) = 20 sec
Total time taken to meet for the third time = 20 + 25 + 20 = 65 sec
43 (b)
The average of 17 numbers is 19.
So, Sum of 17 numbers = 17 × 19 = 323
Now, if we multiply each number by 5, the sum of the new set of numbers = 323 × 5 = 1615.
Since, there are still 17 numbers in the new set, so new average = 1615/17 = 95
44 (c)
Sum of the weights of 11 players = 160 × 11 = 1760 pounds
If the heaviest player is removed, the average weight of the remaining 10 players becomes 158 pounds.
Sum of the weights of 10 players = 158 × 10 = 1580 pounds
So, Weight of the heaviest player = 1760 – 1580 = 180 pounds
45 (a)
The median of a set of numbers is the middle number in the set (after the numbers have been arranged
from least to greatest) - or, if there are an even number of data, the median is the average of the middle
two numbers. To determine if the median is greater than 60, we need to know the specific values of the
numbers in the set. Let's analyze the statements:
Statement 1: The sum of the smallest and largest numbers in the set is 150.
The average of a set of 7 numbers is 40. So, there sum total = 7 × 40 = 280
So, the sum total of the middle 5 numbers = 280 – 150 = 130
If the middle of these 5 numbers is 60, then two other numbers must also be above 60. This is not
possible. So, it’s clear that the median of the set cannot be greater than 60.
So, Statement 1 alone is sufficient.
Statement 2: The range of the set is 80.
The range is the difference between the largest and smallest numbers in the set. This statement alone
doesn't give any information about the values between the largest and smallest numbers.
So, Statement 2 alone is insufficient.

46 (d)
Since A wins the race over B by 400 m, the distance covered by B = 3600 – 400 = 3200 m
Ratio of the distances covered by A and B = 3600 : 3200
B can give a head start of 900 m to C in such a race.
So, Distance covered by C = 3600 – 900 = 2700 m
Ratio of the distances covered by B and C = 3600 : 2700 = 4 : 3
= (4 : 3) × 800 = 3200 : 2400
Ratio of the distances covered by A, B and C = 3600 : 3200 : 2400
So, to finish the race at the same time, A should give C a head start of 3600 - 2400 = 1200 m
47 (b)
Speed of boat in still water = 7 km/hr.
Speed of the stream = 1 km/hr.
So, Downstream speed of the boat = 7 + 1 = 8 km/hr.
And, Upstream speed of the boat = 7 – 1 = 6 km/hr.
We know that, Upstream speed of the boat/Downstream speed of the boat = Time taken in covering
downstream distance/ Time taken in covering upstream distance
Or 6/8 = Time taken in covering downstream distance/ Time taken in covering upstream distance
Or Time taken in covering downstream distance/ Time taken in covering upstream distance = 3/4 ….. (i)
Now, Time taken in covering downstream distance + Time taken in covering upstream distance = 84
Or 1 + [Time taken in covering upstream distance / Time taken in covering downstream distance] = 84/
Time taken in covering downstream distance
Or 1 + (4/3) = 84 / Time taken in covering downstream distance
Or 7/3 = 84 / Time taken in covering downstream distance
Or Time taken in covering downstream distance = 36 minutes
So, Time taken in covering upstream distance = (4/3) × Time taken in covering downstream distance =
(4/3) × 36 = 48 minutes
Total distance covered by the boat from P to Q and Q to P = [Downstream speed × Time taken in covering
downstream distance] + [Upstream speed × Time taken in covering upstream distance]
= [8 × (36/60)] + [6 × (48/60)]
= [8 × (3/5)] + [6 × (4/5)]
= 48/5
= 9.6 km
48 (d)
Speed of Aakash = 40 km/h.
Speed of Anil = 60 km/h.
Their relative speed = 60 – 40 (they are moving in the same direction)
= 20 km/h.
Distance travelled by Aakash in 30 minutes (1/2 hour)
= 40 × 1/2 (distance = speed × time)
= 20 km.
So, the time taken by Anil to meet Aakash = Distance / Relative speed
= 20 / 20
= 1 h.
Hence, the distance Anil need to cover = speed of Anil × time needed
= 60 × 1
= 60 km.

49 (a)
Let the number of students in swimming class and dance class be 13x an 8x respectively.
13x – 8x = 25
Or 5x = 25
Or x = 25/5 = 5
So, Total number of students in swimming class = 13 × 5 = 65
Total number of students in class dance class = 8 × 5 = 40
Number of girls in swimming class = 65 × 8/(5 + 8) = 40
Number of girls in dance class = 40 × 3/(2 + 3) = 24
So, Required ratio = 40:24 = 5 : 3
50 (c)
Difference between the B’s monthly income and his savings is Rs.18000.
Expenditure = Income – Saving = 18000
Thus, B’s expenditure is Rs. 18000.
Savings of B = 18000 × 160% = Rs. 28800
Thus, B’s monthly income = Savings + Expenditure = 28800 + 18000 = Rs. 46800
So, A’s monthly income = 46800 × 4/5 = 37440
And C’s monthly income = 46800 × 7/9 = 36400
Average of the incomes of A, B and C = (37440 + 46800 + 36400)/3 = Rs. 40,213 (approx)
51 (b)
Statement 1 is not correct. The passage clearly says, “Reported violence against or obstruction of health
care decreased in the Central African Republic, Ethiopia and Syria in 2022 compared to 2021”. In many
countries, the incidence of violence has actually decreased. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct. According to the passage, healthcare workers have faced attacks in Ukraine
(Europe), Myanmar and Syria (Asia) and Africa. Hence, it can be inferred that they faced violent reaction
in at least three continents. Hence, it is a correct statement.
52 (b)
Statement 1 is not correct. The passage says, “Over half of the total attacks were reported in just two
countries, Ukraine and Myanmar, the report stated”. It does not mention that the largest number of
attacks were witnessed in Myanmar. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage clearly mentions, “Over the last year, we identified a 45 percent
increase in reported incidents of violence against or obstruction of health care in conflict zones as
compared to 2021,”. Therefore, it is correct to say that attacks against healthcare personnel have increased
by less than 50% (45%). Hence, it is a correct statement
53 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the context of the criminal justice system
is not a part of the passage. The option states that the cause of missing women is crime. However, the
passage does not explain the cause of missing women in particular. Hence, this is not the best crux.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of matriarchal society and whether it will lead to improvement in the
status of women is not based on the information given in the passage. So, this option is beyond the scope
of the passage and is not the best crux.
Option (c) is correct. The lines “… capture the fact that the proportion of women is lower than what
would be expected if girls and women throughout the developing world were born and died at the same
rate, relative to boys and men, as they do in sub-Saharan Africa” show that this issue exists in developing
world and “Of these, 23 per cent are never born (violation of the right to life), 10 per cent are missing in
early childhood, 21 per cent are in the reproductive years, and 38 per cent are above the age of 60. Stark
as the excess mortality is, it still does not capture the fact that throughout their lives, even before birth,
women in developing countries are treated differently than their brothers, lagging behind men in many
domains”, validate that women are not valued or are at loss as compared to men. The tone of the passage
is descriptive rather than being solution-rendering. So, this option best reflects the crux of the passage.

Option (d) is incorrect. The lines “For each missing woman, many more women fail to get an education,
a job, or a political responsibility that they would have obtained if they had been men”, explain that many
women are not able to participate in education, politics, etc. To state that making changes in laws, and
politics will improve the status of women would not be correct because the passage does not mention so.
Hence, this is not the best crux of the passage.
54 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage only states that “Rapid digitalization in the past decade has led
to the proliferation of domestic and foreign online communication services that use encryption and pose
challenges to national security bodies and law enforcement agencies”, which does not mean that
government should enhance its technological capabilities, and that too for surveillance. Hence, the given
assumption is not correct as it is not based on the information given in the passage.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The lines “To help overcome these challenges, the Indian government issued
controversial new rules in February 2021 that require messaging communication providers to supply
information regarding the originators of messages. Many providers argue that this requirement
significantly weakens the end-to-end (E2E) encryption they deploy”, reflect that due to controversial
rules, companies feel that they will weaken the encryption of communication. However, encryption is a
more technical aspect rather than being directly related to business environment. Hence, this assumption is
not correct based on the given passage.
55 (d)
Fuel Cost per hour = (Speed)2
Other cost per hour = Rs. 100
Let speed for 500 kilometre journey = X.
Time of journey = Distance/Speed = 500/X hours.
Cost of journey = (500/X) × 100 + (500/X) × X2 = 500(100/X + X)
Option (a) Cost of journey may be 3000 when (100/X + X) = 6 (not possible).
Option (b) Cost at 40km/hr = 500 × (100/40 + 40) = 500 × 42.5
Cost of journey at 25 km/hr = 500 × (100/25 + 25) = 500 × 29 which is lower.
Option (c) Time can be anything depending on speed.
Option (d) For X = 10: Cost = 500 × 20 = Rs. 10000
56 (d)
Using Alligation method,
The required ratio of the two varieties of tea = 80:60 = 4:3.

∴ Quantity of the second variety of tea = 132 × 3/4 = 99 kg
57 (d)
Let Sachin walks ‘d’ km to reach the bus stand.
Let usual time taken by him in reaching the bus stand be ‘t’ hours.
Since, time = distance/speed
So, d / 2 = t + 25 / 60 ……………………..(І)
or d / 4 = t - 10 / 60 ……………………..(ІІ)

Subtracting (ІІ) from (І), we get,
d = 35/15 = 7/3 km
58 (b)
Speed of faster train = 120 km/hr
Speed of slower train = 84 km/hr
Length of the faster train = 180 m
Let length of the slower train be 'x' m.
Time taken by the faster train to cross the slower train = Sum of the lengths of the two trains / Difference
in their speeds
Or 30 = 180 + x / (120 - 84) × 5 / 18
Or 30 = 180 + x / 36 × (5 / 18)
Or 180 + x = 36 × 30 × 5 / 18
Or 180 + x = 300
Or x = 300 - 180
Or x = 120 m
So, length of the slower train is 120 m.
59 (a)
Total distance = length of the bullet train + length of platform = 210 + 190 = 400 m
Total distance covered = Speed of the bullet train × Time
Or 400 = Speed of the bullet train × 8
Or Speed of the bullet train = 400/8 = 50 m/sec
= 50 × 18/5 = 180 km/hr
60 (a)
Let the number of boys be 4x and the number of girls be 3x.
(4x + 10)/(3x + 15) = 10/9
Or 9(4x + 10) = 10(3x + 15)
Or 36x + 90 = 30x + 150
Or 36x – 30x = 150 – 90
Or 6x = 60
Or x = 10
So, Number of boys = 4x = 4 × 10 = 40
Number of girls = 3x = 3 × 10 = 30
So, Number of boys - Number of girls = 40 – 30 = 10
61 (c)
Let Mr. Sharma's salary be Rs. x.
Amount given to his father = x × 40/100 = 40x/100
Remaining amount = x – 40x/100 = 60x/100
Amount invested in insurance and share market = (60x/100) × (40/100) = 24x/100
Amount invested in share market = (24x/100) × (11/15) = 88x/500
Remaining amount that he keeps in his bank account = (60x/100) – (24x/100) = 36x/100
(36x/100) – (88x/500) = 46000
Or (180x – 88x)/500 = 46000
Or 92x/500 = 46000
Or x = 46000 × 500/92
Or x = 2,50,000
Thus, Mr. Sharma's salary in Rs. 2,50,000.
62 (c)
Let’s mix x units of alloy A with y units of alloy B.
Quantity of silver in alloy A = 5x/8
Quantity of copper in alloy A = 3x/8
Quantity of silver in alloy B = 9y/16
Quantity of copper in alloy B = 7y/16
(5x/8 + 9y/16) / (3x/8 + 7y/16) = 3/2
Or [(10x + 9y)/16] / [(6x + 7y)/16] = 3/2
Or (10x + 9y)/(6x + 7y) = 3/2
Or 2(10x + 9y) = 3(6x + 7y)
Or 20x + 18y = 18x + 21y
Or 20x – 18x = 21y – 18y
Or 2x = 3y
Or x:y = 3:2
Thus, these two alloys should be mixed together in the ratio of 3:2 to get a new alloy having silver and
copper in the ratio 3:2.
63 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because of the line, “Alternatively, relativistic
cultural positions have been put forth mostly by socialization theories that focus on how cultures transmit
values rather than what values are applied across groups and individuals.” This line shows that culture
too may have a role in moral development. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. Whether socialization is the most important tool in moral development or not
cannot be concluded on the basis of the given passage. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage
and is not correct.
Option (c) is correct. The given option best reflects the crux, as evident in the lines “Many research
traditions have examined this question, with social-cognitive and structural-developmental positions
theorizing that morality has a universal requirement to it, drawing from moral philosophy.” and
“Alternatively, relativistic cultural positions have been put forth mostly by socialization theories that
focus on how cultures transmit values rather than what values are applied across groups and
individuals.” So, this option is the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage does not make any comparison between universal moral values and
moral values developed through socialization. Therefore, to conclude that universal moral values are
stronger would not be correct. Hence, this is not the best crux.
64 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect. Only the private sector’s role is mentioned in the passage; the role of the
government in the context of promoting startups is not discussed in the passage. So, this assumption is not
correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The lines, “This is due, in part, to constraints in sharing knowledge and
lessons learned among countries and regions of the Global South”, show that poor knowledge and lesson
sharing is a major challenge, but only to this specific region of the global south. However, to extrapolate it
across the globe would not be correct. So, this assumption is not correct.
65 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The lines “This is due, in part, to constraints in sharing knowledge and lessons
learned among countries and regions of the Global South. As a result, agricultural solutions have failed
to achieve the wider impact that could modernize and transform the continent's agricultural and food
industry sectors”, verify that lack of knowledge and lesson sharing is only a part, and the only restriction
with modernizing and transforming of the agricultural sector. Hence, this is not the best crux.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of startups is very limited in the passage, as seen in the lines
“Startups led by the private sector are tackling issues ranging from access to markets to the provision of

financial services.” Also, to say that, “Startups in the field of agriculture can solve the core persisting
issues of agriculture” would not be correct, as other issues also persist that maybe beyond the scope of
startups, e.g. knowledge sharing between countries. So, this option cannot be the best crux or the core
theme of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of all countries across the world investing in agricultural technology
is not a part of the passage. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (d) is correct. As per the passage, “This is due, in part, to constraints in sharing knowledge and
lessons learned among countries and regions of the Global South. As a result, agricultural solutions have
failed to achieve the wider impact that could modernize and transform the continent's agricultural and
food industry sectors.” These lines show that sharing knowledge and lessons is important for agricultural
solutions in the global south. So, sharing knowledge and lessons will help harness the potential of
agriculture. Hence, option is the closest to being the crux of the passage.
66 (c)
From S1:
The average of the consecutive integers from X to Y, including both, will always be equal to the average
of the integers X and Y, since the elements in the sum are consecutive.
For example, the average of the numbers 1 to 4 is 2.5, which equals (1 + 4)/2 = 2.5.
Hence, S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From S2:
The average of the consecutive integers between m and n not including either is the same as the average
including them, since the elements in the sum are consecutive.
For example, the average of the numbers 2 and 3 is 2.5, which equals (1 + 2 + 3 + 4)/2 = 2.5.
Hence, S2 alone also answers the question.
So, either S1 alone or S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
67 (d)
S1 gives information only about income. While, S2 gives information only about expenditure.
Hence, neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Using both the statements together:
The ratio of incomes of Mr. X in the years 2022 and 2023 is 3 : 4.
The ratio of his expenditures in the years 2022 and 2023 is 5 : 6.
Even from the above information, we cannot find the ratio of Mr. X’s savings in the year 2022 to that in
the year 2023.
Therefore, even the two statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.
68 (c)
Suppose they meet ‘h’ hours after 11 AM.
Thus, Distance moved by the train from X in ‘h’ hours + Distance moved by the train from Y in (h+1)
hours
= 1000
⇒ 50h + 100(h+1) = 1000 (distance = speed × time)
⇒ 150h = 900
⇒ h = 6 hours
So, they meet 6 hours after 11 AM, i.e. at 5 PM.
69 (a)
Since the average of 20 numbers is zero, it means that their sum must be zero.
To ensure maximum positive numbers, we can have 19 positive numbers and the magnitude of the 20 th
negative number may be equal to the sum of these 19 positive numbers.

70 (b)
The average age of 11 players is 32 years.
Sum of the ages of 11 players = 32 × 11 = 352 years
From Statement-1:
The captain is 16 years older than the youngest player.
Age of the captain = Age of the youngest player + 16
Statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement-2:
The average age of 10 players other than the captain is 31.5 years.
So, Sum of the ages of 10 players other than the captain = 31.5 × 10 = 315 years
So, age of the captain = 352 - 315 = 37 years
Thus, Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement-3:
Leaving aside the captain and the youngest player, the average ages of the three groups of three players
each are 35 years, 33 years and 30 years respectively.
Sum of the ages of 9 players other than the captain and the youngest player = 35×3 + 33×3 + 30×3 = 294
So, Sum of the ages of the captain and the youngest player = 352 - 294 = 58 years
Thus, Statement 3 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From Statements 1 & 3:
Age of the captain = Age of the youngest player + 16
Or Age of the captain - Age of the youngest player = 16 years ............(i)
Sum of the ages of the captain and the youngest player = 58 years ............(ii)
From equation (i) & (ii), we get:
Age of the captain = (58 + 16)/2 = 37 years
Thus, Statements 1 & 3 together are sufficient to answer the question.
71 (d)
We cannot solve the question using either statement alone.
70/(Speed of boat + 2) + 70/(Speed of boat - 2) = 12
or Speed of boat = 12 km/hr
Hence, both the statements are needed together to answer the question.
72 (a)
Time taken to cover 2500 km
= 2500 km / 100 km/h (time = distance / speed )
= 25 h.
Number of stoppages = Total distance / 125 – 1
= 2500 / 125 – 1
= 20 – 1 = 19
Total time of stoppage = 19 × (5 min) = 95 min
Hence, total time taken = 25 h + 95 min
= 25 h + (1 h + 35 min)
= 26 h 35 min.
73 (a)
Inference 1 is correct. The lines “It is a matter of concern that despite huge investments, our cities still
face many efficiency-and sustainability-related challenges. None of our cities features among the top 50
cities in many global rankings”, show that global rankings contain those cities which are efficient and

sustainable. Therefore, it would be correct to infer that the presence or absence of cities in global rankings
reflect their efficiency and sustainability.
Inference 2 is incorrect. As per the passage, there is no issue of poor investment; rather this claim is
contradicted by the line “It is a matter of concern that despite huge investments, our cities still face many
efficiency-and sustainability-related challenges”. Hence, this inference about poor investments is not
correct.
74 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The lines, “As India reaches a tipping point of transitioning from a mostly rural to
an urban society, the focus must be on ensuring the best opportunities for economic growth for all
sections of the society (inclusive growth)” and “The need of the hour is incisive, insightful planning – in
the absence of which neither investments nor actions would be able to yield a long-term solution”, show
that city planning should be insightful. Also, planned urban spaces are a must for the growth of all the
sections ensuring inclusive growth. Hence, this option best reflects the crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. Replanning of each city is not a part of the passage. To conclude that due to the
increasing load on cities, replanning each city is necessary would not be correct.
Option (c) is incorrect. This option is beyond the scope of the passage, because the passage nowhere
mentions that India should aim to get its cities in the top 50 global rankings.
Option (d) is incorrect. The idea that unplanned urbanization would lead to poverty and loss of GDP, etc.
cannot be concluded on the basis of the given passage. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the
passage, and so cannot be the correct crux.
75 (b)
Inference 1 is incorrect. The passage does not mention that the unclear mechanism of SDGs is the cause
of hunger in the world. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Inference 2 is correct. The line “Food security exists when all people have physical and economic access
to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food”, shows that food security is not only about sufficient food, but also
about safe and nutritious food. Therefore, the inference that only consuming sufficient calories will not
solve the challenges related to food security is correct.
76 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not the best crux because it is beyond the scope of the
passage. The passage nowhere mentions that food security issues can be solved by sharing information on
available food resources across nations.
Option (b) is correct. The given option is the best crux because of the lines, “But how to achieve this
goal is debated controversially. Genetically modified (GM) crops are sometimes mentioned in this
connection. Some see the development and use of GM crops as key to reducing hunger while others
consider this technology as a further risk to food security. Solid empirical evidence to support either of
these views is thin”. These lines describe that GM crops can help in food sufficiency; however the safety
issue persists. However, neither of these views can be substantiated due to the lack of empirical studies.
Therefore, to state that before going for mass production the debate around safe use should be concluded
is correct as per the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is based on the lines “Some see the development and use of GM
crops as key to reducing hunger while others consider this technology as a further risk to food security.
Solid empirical evidence to support either of these views is thin.” The passage mentions that there is no
evidence of food sufficiency or safety from GM crops, and to conclude and say that it guarantees quantity
and not safety is not correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The context of organic farming is not covered in the passage. Hence, this option
is beyond the scope of the passage.
77 (c)
The total score of those 9 students = 9 × 78 = 702.
The expected total score of the entire class = 10 × 80 = 800.
Therefore, the last student needs a score of 800 − 702 = 98.

78 (d)
(b + 1 + 1)/2 = (b + 4 + 4 + 2)/3
Or 3b + 6 = 2b + 20
Or b = 14
79 (c)
Maximum possible number of graduates who are fresh out of college = 70 (considering all are fresh
graduates)
Minimum possible number of graduates who are fresh out of college = 30 (considering all 50 non
graduates are fresh from college)
Required ratio = 3:7
80 (d)
x = (r + 11)/2
y = (3r + 19)/2
z = (5r + 20)/2
x + y + z = (r + 11 + 3r + 19 + 5r + 20)/2
or x + y + z = (9r + 50)/2 = 4.5r + 25


VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

the Test Booklet.
sheet.
be deducted.
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
1
1. Which of the following sets is/are infinite? 4. Study the following pie-chart carefully and
(i) {x: x ∈ R and 0<x<1}
Pie-chart given below shows the various loans
(ii) D = {x: x is divisor of 50} taken by Ranjan from different sources to
(iii) C = The set of prime numbers less than 10. construct his house.
(iv) Set of all lines in a given plane.
below.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) Note: The relative sizes of the various sections
shown in the above pie chart may not be in the
(d) (i) and (iv)
same proportion as their value.
What is the central angle made by the loan on
2. Sameer gave 2/5th of his money to Alok. Alok credit card?
(a) 60o
gave 2/5th of what he got from Sameer to
(b) 90o
Yogesh. If Yogesh got Rs. 2100 less than the (c) 70o
(d) None of these
total money that Sameer had at the start, then
how much money did Alok get from Sameer? Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
(a) Rs. 1000 Read the following two passages and answer the items
(b) Rs. 1250
(c) Rs. 1460 Passage – 1
(d) Rs. 1700 The balance of pursuing market opportunities while
maintaining accountability and ethical integrity has
proved a defining challenge for business enterprises
3. A number is made up of 2 digits, out of which since the arrival of the joint-stock company in the early
years of industrialism. The accountability and
the first digit is 2. If the sum of that number and
responsibility of business enterprises are constantly
the number obtained by reversing its digits is 99, subject to question. The manifest failures of corporate
then what is the second digit of that number? governance and business ethics in the global financial
crisis have increased the urgency of the search for a
(a) 6
better ethical framework and governance for business. A
(b) 7 substantial increase in the range, significance, and
(c) 8 impact of corporate social and environmental initiatives
in recent years suggests the growing materiality of a
(d) 9
more ethically informed approach.

Since the Census enumeration can only begin a few
months after administrative boundaries are frozen and as
1. The present processes of corporate general elections are scheduled early next year, the
governance and business ethics are now possibility of a Census in 2023 is ruled out. Also, the
Census enumeration will be preceded by house-listing
outdated.
enumeration where the exercise for National Population
2. Before industrialism, maintaining Register (NPR) is to be held. Earlier, the deadline for
accountability and ethical integrity was not jurisdictional changes was June 30, 2023, and before
that, December 31, 2022. In May, Union Home Minister
a challenge.
Amit Shah said the government is planning to bring a bill
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? in Parliament to link data related to birth and death with
electoral rolls and the overall development process. Shah
(a) 1 only
had said the census is a process that may form the basis
(b) 2 only
of the development agenda. Digital, complete, and
(c) Both 1 and 2 accurate census figures will have multi-dimensional
benefits, he said, adding planning based on the census
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
data ensures development reaches the poorest of the
poor. If the birth and death certificate data are preserved
6. According to the author, in a special way, development works can be planned

properly. A bill to link the death and birth register with
(a) Poor accountability mechanism in corporate
electoral rolls will be introduced in Parliament.
governance erodes the trust of the people. 7. Which of the following statements can be
(b) With time, corporate governance and inferred from the above passage?
1. Census will be held in 2024.
business ethics have grown to be more
2. Fruits of development may reach the most
ethical. impoverished people through the census
exercise.
(c) Without ethics, corporate governance is
devoid of accountability and responsibility. below.
(d) Financial crisis is the real test of any (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
approach to corporate governance or
(c) Both 1 and 2
business ethics. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Ram and Shyam are two workers. Ram takes 8 11. Consider the following information and the
hours more to complete a work alone, than if Statements and Question that follow:
both worked together. Shyam alone takes 4 ½ 810A4B6C is a 8-digit number, wherein A, B, C
hours more to complete the work, than if both represent distinct digits.
worked together. How long will it take for them Statement 1: The number is divisible by 5, 8 and
to complete the work, if they work together?
9.
(a) 4 hours
Statement 2: Both A and B are composite
(b) 5 hours
numbers.
(c) 6 hours
(d) 7 hours Question: Find A + B + C.
(a) 17
9. A container contains a mixture of chocolate and (b) 19
strawberry paste in the ratio of x : y, where x ɛ (c) 12
(1,2,3,4) and y ɛ (5,6,7,8). For how many (d) 14
different sets of values of x and y, the resultant
mixture will have a ratio of chocolate and 12. Ashok, Manoj and Rakesh together can
strawberry paste as 1 : 2? complete a work in 30 minutes. Manoj and
(a) 4
Ashok together can complete that work in 50
(b) 16
minutes. Rakesh alone can finish the same work
(c) 2
in how much time?
(d) 8
(a) 45 minutes
10. Study the following pie-chart and answer the (b) 150 minutes
question that follows. (c) 75 minutes
Following pie-chart represents different modes (d) Data insufficient
of transportation taken by students of a coaching
centre. 13. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below
S1: N divides x and y.
S2: 2N divides x/2 and y/4.
Question: Is N the HCF of the two numbers x
and y?
If the total number of students in the coaching
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
centre is 2160, then what is the total number of
(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
students taking other forms of transportation?
(a) 320 (c) Either S1 alone or S2 alone is sufficient to
(b) 240 answer the question.
(c) 600 (d) Both the statements are needed together to
(d) Can’t be determined answer the question.

Study the following pie-chart carefully and answer the Scientists on Thursday said they have found evidence to
questions that follow. suggest that the universe is replete with low-frequency
Pie-chart given below shows Rajesh’s earnings from gravitational waves – ripples in the fabric of space-time
different sources in two consecutive years. that are created by huge objects moving around,
colliding, and merging with each other, and predicted by
Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity more than
100 years ago. The researchers have also contended that
these waves create a cosmic background hum, which
they could “hear”, that permeates outer space. “It’s really
the first time that we have evidence of just this large-
scale motion of everything in the universe,” said Maura

14. What is the percentage increase in the earnings
McLaughlin, co-director of NANOGrav, one of the
from house rent in 2019 as compared to 2018?
research teams in the international collaboration that
(a) 3.04%
published the results in The Astrophysical Journal
(b) 2%
Letters, the Associated Press reported. Gravitational
(c) 10.4%
waves were first detected in 2015 using an experiment,
(d) There was a percentage decrease
involving Laser Interferometer Gravitational
Observatory (LIGO) detectors. But those waves were of

15. What is the difference between Rajesh’s
high frequency, believed to be produced by the merger
earnings from selling milk in 2018 and 2019?
of two relatively small black holes that took place about
(a) Rs. 5000
1.3 billion years ago. All the subsequent detections after
(b) Rs. 2500
that were also of high-frequency waves. This, however,
(c) Rs. 3500
(d) Rs. 3000 has changed now. In a bid to discover low-frequency
gravitational waves, scientists used an entirely different
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: technology compared to the one used eight years ago, as
Read the following two passages and answer the items per different studies that were carried out by radio
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items astronomers representing five different international
should be based on the passages only. teams including Indian Pulsar Timing Array (InPTA).

inferred from the above passage? Unsafe drinking water, sanitation and hygiene (WASH)
1. More evidences supporting Einstein's were responsible for 395,000 deaths among children
General Theory of Relativity have been under five years of age, according to a new report by the
World Health Organization (WHO). This includes

found now.
273,000 deaths from diarrhoea and 112,000 deaths from
2. Laser Interferometer Gravitational
acute respiratory infections. These diseases are the two
Observatory (LIGO) detectors were earlier
leading infectious causes of death in children under five
probably more useful in detecting high-
years of age in the world. The report, Burden of disease
frequency gravitational waves.
attributable to unsafe drinking water, sanitation and
hygiene: 2019 update, showed that half of the world’s
below.
population still does not have adequate access to
(a) 1 only
drinking water, sanitation and hygiene, which caused the
(b) 2 only
death of at least 1.4 million people and 74 million
(c) Both 1 and 2 disability-adjusted life years (DALY) in 2019. Globally,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 771 million people lack access to safe water and 1.7
billion people don’t have a toilet. The WHO report is
17. Consider the following statements. based on the estimates of the burden of diseases
1. Gravitational waves are produced by the attributable to unsafe WASH — namely diarrhoea, acute
collision of massive objects in space. respiratory infections, undernutrition, and soil-
2. The first gravitational waves detected were transmitted helminthiases (STH). Soil-transmitted
about a billion years old. helminthiases are transmitted by eggs in human faeces,
which in turn contaminate soil in areas where sanitation

is poor. STHs affect an estimated 1.5 billion people or 24
correct?
percent of the world’s population. The WASH-
(a) 1 only
attributable burden of disease from STHs was estimated
(b) 2 only
for 132 low- and lower-middle-income countries
(c) Both 1 and 2
(LMICs) only, as this is where these infections are most
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
prevalent.

18. Which of the following best reflects the most 21. Let x = average of the first five prime numbers
crucial message conveyed by the author of the of the number system, and y = average of the
passage? first five composite numbers of the number
system, then the difference between x and y is:
(a) Lack of safe drinking water and sanitation is
(a) 1.8
a major problem in many countries.
(b) 2.8
(b) Globally, illnesses brought on by
(c) 0.8
contaminated water are on the rise. (d) None of these
(c) Children under 5 are most susceptible to
diseases caused by contaminated water. 22. A worker can pave 16 meters of road in 16
(d) Africa is the most susceptible continent to hours, while another worker can pave the same
waterborne diseases. length of road in 12 hours. If these two work
together along with a third worker, they can pave
the road in 4 hours. The third worker alone can
pave the road in how much time?
Statement – 1: {x: x ∈ Z and x2 = 2} = ∅ (a) 18.7 hours
Statement – 2: {x: x ∈ N, 4 < x <5} = ∅ (b) 9.6 hours
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) 5.2 hours
(a) Only 1 (d) None of these
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 Directions for the following item:
Read the following passage and answer the item that
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
follows. Your answer to this item should be based on the
passage only.
20. Consider the following Statements and the Passage
Question that follows: Expanding financial access for women is proven to have
Statement 1: 4ab > 0 a positive impact not only on the women themselves but,
Statement 2: b < (a + c) consequently, on household incomes. The momentum
Question: Is (a – b + c) > (a + b – c)? created by policy responses to the pandemic and the
consequent shift to digital services offers the opportunity
to address the gender gap in financial inclusion in India.
of the above Question and Statements?
The barriers that women face are gendered: restrictive
(a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the
social norms, mobility constraints, lack of identification,
Question. limited financial literacy, insufficient assets for
(b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the collateral, and low levels of digital literacy. These
Question. challenges must therefore be addressed through a
(c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 together women-centric policy approach to financial inclusion
are sufficient to answer the Question. that prioritises equal access for women to the full range
of financial services available to men. This will allow
(d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 together
them the same opportunities as men to participate fully
are not sufficient to answer the Question.
in economic activity.

23. Which of the following statements best reflects 26. Shubham does half of the work done by Raj in
what the passage implies? one fourth of the time taken by Raj. If both
(a) Along with the financial inclusion of working together can complete the work in 18
women, there is a dire need of changing the days, then in how many days can Raj alone
perception of their financial independence. complete the work?
(b) Financial inclusion is essential for economic (a) 52 days
growth and sustainable development of the (b) 48 days
country. (c) 36 days

(d) None of these
(c) The financial independence of women plays
a significant role in achieving gender
27. M = 72N – 1, where N is a natural number. M is
equality between men and women.
divisible by 6 for
(d) Digital services should be made to make
(a) Any odd value of N
women financially literate.
(b) Any even value of N
(c) Any value of N
24. 60 men, working 9 hours a day can complete a
(d) No value of N
work in 27 days. How many hours a day must 30
men work to complete the same work in 162
28. Find the smallest possible number which when
days?
divided by 6, 13 and 17 leaves a remainder of 3
(a) 3 hours
in each case.
(b) 2 hours (a) 1316
(c) 4 hours (b) 1326
(d) None of these (c) 1329
(d) 1323
25. 9 boys and 12 girls perform a task in 15 days.
The same task is performed by 39 boys and 72 29. Amar can do a piece of work in 20 days. Sanjay
girls in 3 days. Then what will be the time taken is 25% more efficient than Amar. Find the
by 20 boys and 5 girls in performing the same number of days it takes Sanjay to do the same
task ? piece of work.
(a) 12 days (a) 14 days
(b) 8 days (b) 16 days
(c) 9 days (c) 12 days
(d) 10 days (d) 18 days

30. Neha observed that drops of water fall from four 33. Study the following pie-chart and answer the
different taps at intervals of 45 seconds, 60 question that follows.
seconds, 75 seconds and 90 seconds Following pie-chart represents the expenses
respectively. If they fell simultaneously at 11:00
incurred in a marriage ceremony.
am, find the next time when they would fall
simultaneously again.
(a) 11:30 am
(b) 11:15 am
(c) 11:45 am
(d) 12:15 am
31. Ananya and Rudra can together complete a work

in 30 days. But they both work together only for
20 days, after which Rudra stopped working. If
Ananya alone can complete the remaining work
in the next 20 days, then in how many days could Which of the following pie charts is similar to
Ananya have completed the whole work alone? the one given above?
(a) 50 days (a)
(b) 65 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 55 days
32. Study the following pie-chart and answer the

question that follows.
(b)
Following pie-chart represents the relative
marks obtained by Ravina in different subjects
(in degrees).
(c)
If she scored a total of 540 marks out of 720 (d)

marks, then the marks obtained by her in English
is what percent of the total marks scored by her?
(a) 18%
(b) 16.67%
(c) 30%
(d) None of these

Read the following two passages and answer the items Agricultural methods often vary widely around the
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items world, depending on climate, terrain, traditions, and
should be based on the passages only. available technology. Low-technology farming involves
Passage – 1 permanent crops: food grown on land that is not
The commodification of reality and the manufacture of replanted after each harvest. Citrus trees and coffee
plants are examples of permanent crops. Higher-
demand have had serious implications for the
technology farming involves crop rotation, which
construction of human beings in the present day, where,
requires knowledge of farmable land. Scholars and
to quote philosopher Herbert Marcuse, "people recognise
engineers use crop rotation and irrigation to plant crops
themselves in their commodities". The capitalist system,
according to the season, type of soil, and amount of water
dependent on a logic of never-ending growth from its
needed. In coastal West Africa, farmers, usually women,
earliest inception, confronted the plenty it created in its
plant corn soon after the first rains of the growing season.
home states, especially the US, as a threat to its very
They often use an ancient method of clearing called
existence. It would not do if people were content because slash-and-burn. First, the farmer cuts all the brush in her
they felt they had enough. However, over the course of plot. When this vegetation dries, she sets fire to it. The
the 20th Century, capitalism preserved its momentum by heat from the fire makes the soil easy to turn, and the
moulding the ordinary person into a consumer with an burned vegetation fertilizes it. The farmer then sows
unquenchable thirst for its "wonderful stuff". kernels of corn saved from the previous year’s harvest.
34. Which one of the following statements best 35. Which of the following is/are the most rational
reflects the underlying message of the passage? and logical inference/inferences that can be
(a) The unquenchable thirst of humans for the made from the passage?
“wonderful stuff” is a hindrance to their 1. The people of Coastal West Africa are not
happiness. aware of the modern-day agricultural

technologies.
(b) Due to the problem of plenty, consumerism
2. Cultivation of permanent crops is more
should not be a model for the growth of any
beneficial for farmers as compared to
country.
rotational crops.
(c) The disadvantages of consumerism
outweigh its benefits, especially in the case
below.
of the US.
(a) 1 only
(d) Capitalist model of growth is centred on the
(b) 2 only
philosophy of consumerism by transforming
(c) Both 1 and 2
ordinary people into perpetual consumers. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

36. With reference to the passage, which one of the 39. In a high school trip, 60 students are of science
following statements is correct? stream, 36 students are of commerce stream and
(a) Agriculture is the main occupation of 24 students are of arts stream. Find the minimum
number of buses required if in each bus the same
women in Coastal West Africa.
numbers of students are to be seated, and in each
(b) Farming is not highly remunerative for
bus a group of only one stream has to be seated.
farmers and hence it requires the (a) 16
intervention of technology (b) 10
(c) Slash-and-burn is the best agricultural (c) 12
method as per the geography of Coastal (d) 15
West Africa.
40. A town has a population of 8000 people. Out of
(d) It may not be possible for everyone to
these, 4200 people support party A, while 2500
practice high-technology farming. people support party B. If there are 1600 people
who support both A and B, then how many are
37. A can do four times the work that B can do in there who support neither A nor B?
the same amount of time. If both together can (a) 5100
(b) 2900
complete a work in 28 days, then in how much
(c) 1870
time can A alone complete that work?
(d) 2700
(a) 35 days
(b) 45 days 41. In a sports club, 50 persons play cricket, 20
(c) 55 days persons play football and 10 play both cricket
(d) 14 days and football. How many play at least one of
these two games?
(a) 45
38. Shubham has some dresses with him. If he
(b) 55
distributes them equally among 20 or 30 or 50 (c) 60
children, he would be left with 16 dresses in each (d) 65
case. Instead, if he distributes them equally
among 14 children, he would be left with no 42. The HCF of two numbers is 12, and their sum is
588. Among all such pairs of numbers, the
dress. Find the minimum possible number of
maximum possible value of the product of these
dresses he has.
two numbers is:
(a) 316
(a) 51840
(b) 512 (b) 83520
(c) 616 (c) 86400
(d) None of these (d) 87840

43. A man’s age was a perfect cube when his son 45. What is the ratio of the foreign travelers in the
was born. A couple of years later, he had a age group of 5-10 years and that in the age group
of 11-20 years?
daughter. What is the possible sum of the ages
(a) 3:1
of man, his son and his daughter when the man’s (b) 2:1
age becomes a perfect cube again? (c) 1:3
(a) 136 years (d) 2:5
(b) 132 years
46. A and B working on alternate days finish a job
(c) 110 years in 20 days. C working alone finishes the job in
(d) 130 years 30 days. In how many days will the work be
completed if A works on the first day, B works
on the second day, C works on the third day and
so on?
Study the following pie-chart carefully and answer the (a) 21 days
questions that follow. (b) 22.5 days
Pie-chart given below shows the percentage of people of (c) 22 days
(d) Either on 22nd day or on 23rd day.
different age groups, who are taking a foreign trip in
2022.
Study the following graph carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
Pie-chart given below shows the percentage of people
that gave audition in a reality show, and the percentage
of people shortlisted (from different cities).
44. If the number of people who were taking a

foreign trip in 2022 in age group of 21-35 were
24000, then what was the number of people in
age group of 36-60+ that were taking a foreign 47. The total number of people short-listed from
trip? cities E and F is what percent of the total number
of people that participated from cities B and E?
(a) 27600
(a) 80.95%
(b) 28800 (b) 19.05%
(c) 29200 (c) 17.17%
(d) 32400 (d) Can’t be determined

48. Which of the following cities is the most Passage – 2
successful when it comes to shortlisting to When we are discussing governance in particular
participation ratio? institutions, the quality of governance within the
(a) C institutions is often compared to a standard of good
(b) G governance. Good governance in modern democracy
(c) A means the democratization of governance. In
(d) B participatory democracy, people elected their leader to
govern them. But governance is not the monopoly of
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: elected leaders. When governance becomes the privilege
Read the following two passages and answer the items of a select few or when the people who are governed are
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items kept out of the affairs of governance, it degenerates into
misgovernance and becomes a travesty of democracy.
Passage – 1
reflects the most rational and logical inference
India has the smallest police-per-capita ratio of any
of the passage?
major country in the world. Fully one-third of judicial
(a) We cannot imagine governance without
postings lie vacant. The ability of state and local
citizens' participation.
governments to impartially deliver basic welfare
(b) Citizens should be proactive in participating
services is extremely limited. If these infirmities exist, so
in the governance of the local bodies.
will criminal politicians. Because building up the state is
(c) For good governance, elected leaders should
a long, slow task ... there are some short-term measures
involve people by increasing their
reformers can take, such as cleaning up how politics are
participation.
funded. But to fully resolve the challenges of this unique
(d) It is not necessary that democratization of
nexus, one must address both the supply of criminal
governance would lead to good governance.
politicians as well as the demand for them.
49. Based on the above passage, the following 51. Arijit and Brajesh, working together, can
assumptions have been made: complete a task in 10 days, whereas Brajesh and
1. India’s politics is marred by criminal Chandan can finish the same job in 15 days
politicians. working together. If Arijit works for 5 days and
2. To fill the vacancies of police and judiciary, Brajesh works for 8 days, it takes Chandan 9
the state can increase its source of income days to complete the rest of the task. How many
through taxes. days will Chandan take to finish the same job
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? alone?
(a) 1 only (a) 10 days
(b) 2 only (b) 20 days
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 30 days
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None of the above.

52. Earning by a man on Wednesday is three-fourth Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
of the money he earns on Monday and Tuesday Study the following pie-chart and answer the questions
combined. In the next two days his earning is that follow.
half of what he earns in the previous three days Pie-chart given below shows the planned usage area of a
combined. On Saturday he earns Rs. 205, which model urban city.
is Rs. 5 and Rs. 25 more than what he earns on
Monday and Tuesday respectively. How much
money did he earn in the whole week, if Sunday
is a holiday?
(a) Rs. 1220.50
(b) Rs. 1210.50
(c) Rs. 1202.50
(d) None of these
53. In a health survey of 100 families, it was found 55. The area allotted to water reservoir, green area
that 50 families were suffering from diabetes, 75 and industry together is what percent of the total
families were suffering from blood pressure, and area?
25 families were suffering from a rare disease. (a) Less than 40%
Only 10 families have all the three kinds of (b) More than 45%
diseases, and each family suffering from a rare (c) More than 50%
disease is also suffering from blood pressure. (d) Less than 30%
How many families are suffering from blood
pressure only? 56. Land allotted to green area is what percent of the
(a) 20 land allotted to residential area?
(b) 25 (a) 80%
(c) 35 (b) 120%
(d) 45 (c) 70%
(d) 180%
54. P = {x: x∈ N, x is a multiple of 3}; Q = {x: x∈
N, x is a multiple of 7}; R = {x: x∈ N, x is a 57. Find the largest three-digit number which when
multiple of 9}; divided by 8 or 12 leaves a remainder of 2 in
We can also represent (P ∩ Q) ∩ R as
each case.
(a) P ∩ R
(a) 986
(b) Q ∪ P
(b) 882
(c) P - R
(c) 976
(d) None of these
(d) 678

58. Shyam can do only one-fourth of the work in Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
3/5th of the time taken by Ram to complete the Read the following two passages and answer the items
same piece of work. If together they can that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
complete the work in 24 days, then in how many
days can Shyam alone complete the whole
Passage – 1
work?
The internal security environment in India is highly
(a) 83.6
complex and challenging. Yet it is to the credit of India
(b) 80.6
and the Indian people that none of the security challenges
(c) 82.6
(d) None of these has overwhelmed the country. Despite these challenges,
India has become stronger and today is looking towards
59. In a marriage party 82% guests took coffee, and becoming a middle-income country and a major player
54% guests took soft drink. If each guest took in global affairs. The instability created by the partition
either coffee or soft drink and there were 72 would have destabilized India, which is highly diverse
guests who took both, then what is the total
and varied. Many of our problems can be traced to the
number of guests in the party?
partition. Yet, India has retained its unity and emerged
(a) 210
as a strong country. While there is no room for
(b) 240
complacency, the country is confident that despite the
(c) 200
complexity, these challenges can be handled through a
(d) 400
combination of sound policies and institutional capacity.
60. A six digit number is of the form XYXYXY 62. Based on the above passage, the following
(such that 1 ≤ X ≤ 9 & 1 ≤ Y ≤ 9). Which of the assumptions have been made:
following will always divide such type of six 1. The growth and the per capita income of a
digit number? country can increase despite the instability
(a) 101
in the country.
(b) 10101
2. The government of India has been able to
(c) 1010
successfully curb secessionist tendencies
(d) 1011
causing internal security issues.
61. What is the unit digit of 625 + 916 + 540?
(a) 4 (a) 1 only
(b) 3 (b) 2 only

(c) 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. With reference to the passage, which one of the 64. Which one of the following statements best
following statements is correct? reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) Sound policies are more than enough to (a) The major cause of cancer,
handle the complex internal security neurodevelopmental disorders and
challenges. inflammatory bowel disease could be

considered the gut microbiota.
(b) The root cause of all the internal security
(b) Despite extensive research, the mechanisms
challenges lies in the partition of the
of interactions between the gut microbiota
country.
and the host is not clear.
(c) Internal security challenges have not
(c) Human gut microbiota gets disturbed due to
deterred India from moving along a growth
the different diseases caused in humans.
trajectory.
(d) By restoring the gut microbiota, the diseases
(d) The handling of internal security challenges
like cancer, and neurodevelopmental
requires effort not only in the domestic arena
disorders could be treated.
but also in the external environment.
Passage – 2 65. Raju can paint 2/5th of a wall in 6 days. Sandhya
In recent years, there has been a surge of studies can paint 1/3rd of the same wall in 10 days. In
revealing that the trillions of microbes living in and on how many days can both together paint the wall?
our bodies play a vital role in maintaining good health. (a) 8 days
These have largely used next-generation sequencing (b) 10 days
approaches to provide a snapshot of the type and (c) 12 days
abundance of species in these microbial communities, (d) 15 days
drawing relationships between healthy and disease

66. There are four temples in a town, each having
states. The results have uncovered associations between
one bell. If these four bells ring at an interval of
disruptions to the human gut microbiota and many
9, 15, 18 and 25 seconds respectively, then
different diseases – including inflammatory bowel
calculate how many times will they ring together
disease, cancer, and neurodevelopmental disorders. But
in 4 hours?
other experimental approaches are needed to understand
(a) 32 times
the underlying mechanisms for how interactions
(b) 16 times
between the gut microbiota and the host affect human
(c) 18 times
health and disease. (d) 36 times

67. Consider the following sets: Directions for the following 4 (three) items:
P = {x: x is a letter of the word ‘BLOW}’ Read the following four passages and answer the items
Q = {x: x is a letter of the word ‘FLOW’} that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
R = {x: x is a letter of the word ‘SLOW’} should be based on the passages only.
Which of the following is false? Passage – 1
(a) P ⊂ Q An extremely unusual marine heatwave is occurring in
(b) R ⊆ Q the North Atlantic Ocean, especially around the United
(c) Q = R Kingdom (UK) and Ireland. It has lasted for more than
(d) None of these two months and may continue through the rest of the year
as well. The occurrence is part of a worldwide pattern
68. In a school examination 40% failed in science driven by global warming and the development of El
and 60% failed in maths, but 30% passed in both Nino conditions in the equatorial Pacific Ocean. A
the examinatons. If 12000 failed in both the marine heat wave is an extended period of warmer-than-
exams, then how many students appeared in the normal sea surface temperatures (SST). Such warming
school exam? has never been observed in the region before and could
(a) 40000 lead to long-lasting impacts on marine flora and fauna,
(b) 64000 on livelihoods and local weather patterns, and even
(c) 48000 heatwaves on the land. “The current marine heatwave is
(d) 56000 classified as an Extreme Category IV / V Marine
Heatwave — extremely unusual for this time of year,”
69. If M = {m, n}, N = {4, 6, 8, 10} and O = {6, 8, said Craig Donlon, head of the Earth Surfaces and
10, 11, 12}, then find M × (N ∩ O). Interior Section at European Space Agency (ESA), in a
(a) M ∪ O statement. On June 18, temperatures in the North Sea
(b) ∅ were more than five degrees Celsius above normal, while
(c) {(6, m), (8, m), (6, n), (8, n)} they were 8°C above normal in the Baltic Sea, according
(d) {(m, 6), (m, 8), (m, 10), (n, 6), (n, 8), (n, 10)} to the ESA satellite data.
71. Which of the following statements best reflects
70. There are 80 soldiers enrolled in the security of the crux of the passage?
a VIP. 20 percent of these soldiers own a bullet (a) El Nino and La Nina impact the global
proof jacket, while 50 percent of the remaining weather system.
own a helmet only. How many soldiers neither (b) Unusual marine heatwave in North Atlantic
own a bulletproof jacket nor a helmet? Ocean might continue throughout the year.
(a) 22 (c) North Europe is the most affected region due
(b) 32 to marine heat waves.
(c) 42 (d) Increasing marine traffic is causing the
(d) 52 marine heat wave in Europe.

While referring to business activities, Mahatma Gandhi reflects the crux of the passage?
once mentioned that all businesses have a social (a) Drawing lessons from past mistakes and
responsibility which has nothing to do with their applying them in our future to move forward
ordinary economic activity. For instance, if there is a is the aim of connecting the dots.
natural calamity in an area adjoining a business (b) Dots are nothing but life incidents and your
organisation, society would expect the business to reactions to them.
participate in the relief work. Such a social responsibility (c) Connecting the dots help a person become
arises out of ethical considerations and not out of profit- more emotionally intelligent.
making considerations. Therefore, the responsibility (d) To move forward in life, we should always
towards society is a moral obligation arising out of challenge our beliefs, values, and actions.
business ethics, which in turn is steeped in the Passage – 4
philosophy of business. A good leader with a stress-free mind can easily spot any
72. Which of the following statements best reflects signs of trouble in his team, and quickly and effectively
what the passage implies? solve these issues as they arise. Since the techniques used
(a) Businesses which are focused on profit- in managing stress are also very beneficial to creating
making are not considered to be ethical. emotional management, when used now, the mind of the
(b) Philosophy of business should include leader can immediately become clear to handle any
social responsibility. challenges in the workplace. This may also help them to
(c) Not only businesses but every person in objectively handle any bullying and/or unethical
society should be socially responsible. practices that may be occurring in the team with firmer
(d) Without profit making no business could be yet fairer hands, without reacting too harshly or
socially responsible. personally with the concerned team members.
Connecting the dots moving forward, does start with reflects the crux of the passage?
looking backwards. And up, down, and everywhere. But (a) For productivity and efficient management,
it especially involves looking inward. By examining a good leader should manage his stress on
your past (and present) behaviours, beliefs, values, and priority.
actions, you will start to see a pattern – aka dots (b) Understanding of emotions of self and
connecting. Based on this intelligence that you have others is crucial for becoming a good leader
gathered about the things you hold most dear – both in the corporate world.
personally and professionally – you can start to chart (c) Team management is an intrinsic ability of
your dots for future action. Your vision for the future is a good leader.
therefore built on being able to see the connected dots of (d) A good leader does not face any stress in
your past. From here you can either continue to follow managing team members or his own
the pattern of previous dots or start a dot course correct. productivity.

75. In a class, there are 18 boys who are over 160 78. Tina takes a test called CSAT which comprises
of 80 questions. In CSAT, three marks are
cm tall. If these boys constitute three-fourth of
awarded for each correct response, one mark is
the total number of boys, which is two-thirds of deducted for each incorrect response and there
the total number of students in the class, what is are no marks for unattempted questions. If she
scores more than 150 marks in CSAT, then what
the number of girls in the class?
is the maximum possible number of incorrect
(a) 10 responses that she could have marked?
(a) 18
(b) 12
(b) 20
(c) 14 (c) 22
(d) 18 (d) 24

76. All the page numbers in a book are added, Read the following two passages and answer the items
beginning from page 1. However, a page number that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
was added twice by mistake. If the sum obtained Passage – 1
was 850, which page number must have been Today, biomimicry is used in everything from medical
technology to city planning and architecture. By
added twice?
studying nature, scientists have come up with new ways
(a) 25 to fight harmful bacteria and to construct buildings that
(b) 30 can heat and cool themselves. Researchers are studying
how plants store energy, to help design better solar
(c) 35
panels. Biomimicry principles are used to produce more
(d) 40 energy-efficient trains and cars and to help
manufacturing plants create products that use less energy
and produce little or no waste.
77. Laxman and Suresh can complete a piece of 79. Which one of the following statements best
work in 6 days and 12 days respectively, while reflects what is implied by the passage?
(a) The multi-dimensional uses of biomimicry
working alone. If they work together and
are associated with the high cost of
complete it, then what part of the work is done development.
(b) The potential of biomimicry promises future
by Laxman?
living based on the principles of sustainable
(a) 1/4 development.
(b) 2/3 (c) Energy generation using biomimicry would
soon phase out fossil fuels.
(c) 1/3
(d) Despite its promising future, biomimicry
(d) 1/2 still remains unaffordable.

Passage – 2
Whether we like it or not, technology has an increasing
role in our lives. And while many aspects of modern
technology are amazing, access to a 24/7 society can take
its toll. For some people, being constantly connected can
cause psychological issues such as expectation of instant
gratification, distraction, narcissism, sleep issues, stress,
even anxiety and depression. Hands up if you find
yourself worrying over not getting a prompt reply to your
latest WhatsApp or text message. Or are you constantly
checking Facebook, Instagram, or Snapchat to see what
your friends are up to and how many likes your last post
received? If you have raised your hand, you are not
alone. These are issues experienced by an increasing
number of people.
reflects the underlying message of the passage?
(a) There needs to be a balance in work-life
responsibilities and we can achieve this by
limiting the use of social media.
(b) Use of technology gives pleasure, but it also
takes a toll on mental health.
(c) Access to social media should be allowed
only for a few hours for ensuring better
mental health.
(d) Technology in the form of social media is a
bad servant but a good master.

form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Vision
IAS.

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

1 (d)
Let’s check each set one by one.
(i) {x: x ∈ R and 0<x<1}
There can be infinite real numbers in between 0 and 1.
So, it is an infinite set.
(ii) D = {x: x is divisor of 50}
There are limited number of divisors of 50.
So, it’s a finite set.
(iii) C = {The set of prime numbers less than 10} = {2, 3, 5, 7}
So, it is a finite set too.
(iv) Set of all lines in a given plane.
We know that there can be infinite number of lines in a plane. So, it is an infinite set.
Hence, (i) and (iv) are infinite sets.
So, option (d) is the right answer.
2 (a)
Let Sameer had Rs. x.
Money that Alok got = (2/5) x
Money that Yogesh got = (2x/5) × 2/5 = 4x/25
Yogesh got Rs. 2100 less than the total money that Sameer had at the start.
∴ x – (4x/25) = 2100
Or 21x/25 = 2100
Or x = 2100 × 25 /21
Or x = 2500
∴ Money that Alok got = (2/5) x = (2/5) × 2500 = Rs. 1000
3 (b)
Let the number be 10x + y
Number obtained by reversing its digits = 10y +x
Sum of these two numbers = (10x + y) + (10y + x) = 99
Or 11x + 11y = 99
Or x + y = 99/11 = 9
The first digit is 2.
∴ Second digit of the number = 9 – 2 = 7
4 (d)
In any pie chart, the total central angle is 360o.
Loan from all the sources = 32570 + 200000 + 18430 + 500000 + 100000 = Rs. 851000
Loan on credit card = Rs. 100000
So, 851000 = 360o
1 = 360o/ 851000

So, 100000 = (360o/851000) × 100000 = 42.30o
∴ The central angle made by the “loan on credit card” section is 42.30o.
5 (a)
Assumption 1 is correct. The given assumption is correct, as it is based on the following lines from the
passage - “The manifest failures of corporate governance and business ethics in the global financial crisis
have increased the urgency of the search for a better ethical framework and governance for business.”
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage does not mention anything related to accountability before
industrialism. Hence, this assumption is beyond the scope of the passage.
6 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The context of the trust of the people and its link with accountability is not a part
of the passage and is, therefore, not correct. This option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (b) is correct. The central theme of the passage is the increasing need for ethics in business since
the time of industrialism. The lines, “The balance of pursuing market opportunities while maintaining
accountability and ethical integrity has proved a defining challenge for business enterprises since the
arrival of the joint-stock company in the early years of industrialism” and “A substantial increase in the
range, significance, and impact of corporate social and environmental initiatives in recent years suggests
the growing materiality of a more ethically informed approach” reflect the same. Hence, as per the passage,
the given option is correct.
Option (c) is incorrect. This option states a relationship between ethics and accountability and
responsibility in corporate governance. However, the passage does not state so explicitly. So, this option is
not correct as per the information given in the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is not correct, because the fact that financial crisis is the “real
test” of any approach to corporate governance or business ethics has not been stated in the passage.
7 (b)
Statement 1 is not correct. The passage does not mention that Census will be held in 2024. Rather, it just
says that Census will not be conducted in 2023. It does not give any timeline regarding the census. Hence,
it is not a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage says that - “the census is a process that may form the basis of the
development agenda. Digital, complete, and accurate census figures will have multi-dimensional benefits,
he said, adding planning based on the census data ensures development reaches the poorest of the poor”.
It can be inferred from this that census may help in ensuring that fruits of development reach the last mile.
Hence, it is a correct statement.
8 (c)
Let Ram and Shyam together take x hours to complete the work.
∴ Work done by Ram and Shyam in one day = 1/x units
Also, the time in which Ram alone can finish the work = (x + 8) hours
And, the time in which Shyam alone can finish the work = {x + (9/2)} hours
Now, 1/x = {1/(x + 8)} + {1/ (x + (9/2)}
Or 1/x = {1/(x + 8)} + {2/(2x + 9)}
Or x(4x + 25) = (x + 8) (2x + 9)
Or 4x2 + 25x = 2x2 + 9x + 16x + 72
Or 2x2 = 72
Or x2 = 36
Or x = 6 hours
Thus, they together can complete the work in 6 hours.
9 (c)
The various possible ratios are:
(1 : 5, 1 : 6, 1 : 7, 1 : 8)
(2 : 5, 2 : 6, 2 : 7, 2 : 8)
(3 : 5, 3 : 6, 3 : 7, 3 : 8) …(3 : 6 = 1 : 2)
(4 : 5, 4 : 6, 4 : 7, 4 : 8) …(4 : 8 =1 : 2)
We can see that there are only 2 possible cases in which the ratio of chocolate and strawberry paste is 1 : 2.
10 (b)
Section of students taking other modes of transportation = 1 – {(1/4) + (1/6) + (1/3) + (5/36)} = 1/9
Total number of students = 2160
∴ Required number = (1/9) × 2160 = 240
11 (a)
The given number is 810A4B6C.
We need to find A+B+C.
From statement 1:
As the number is a multiple of 5 and 8, so C = 0.
As the number is a multiple of 8, so its last three digits should be divisible by 8. Thus, the value of B can
be 1, 3, 5, 7, or 9.
As the number is a multiple of 9, the sum of its digits must be a multiple of 9 too.
Sum of the digits of 810A4B60 = 8 + 1 + 0 + A + 4 + B + 6 + 0 = 19 + A + B
If B = 1, then A has to be 7, for the number to be divisible by 9.
Similarly, if B = 3, then A has to be 5.
If B = 5, then A has to be 3.
The possible values of A and B have been listed below:
A B C
7 1 0
5 3 0
3 5 0
1 7 0
8 9 0
From Statement II:
Both A and B are non- prime numbers.
Only A = 8 and B = 9 satisfy the above condition.
∴ A + B + C = 8 + 9 + 0 = 17
12 (c)
Ashok, Manoj and Rakesh together can complete a work in 30 minutes.
So, Ashok, Manoj and Rakesh’s work efficiency = 1/30
Ashok and Manoj can complete the work in 50 minutes.
So, Ashok and Manoj’s work efficiency = 1/50
∴ Rakesh’s work efficiency = (1/30) – (1/50) = 2/150 = 1/75
Hence, Rakesh alone can finish the work in 75 minutes.
13 (b)
From S1:
N divides x and y.
So, let x = Nk, and y = Nr
N will be the HCF of x and y only if k and r are co-primes, otherwise not.
∴ S1 alone is not sufficient.
From S2:
2N divides x/2 and y/4.
So, let x/2 = 2Nk1, and y/4 = 2Nr1
∴ 4N divides x and y
So, N is not the HCF of x and y.
∴ S2 alone is sufficient.
14 (c)
Total earnings in 2018 = Rs. 500000
Earning from House Rent in 2018 = 25% of Rs. 500000 = Rs. 125000
Earning from House rent in 2019 = 23% of Rs. 600000 = Rs. 138000
Required percent = [(138000 – 125000)/125000] × 100 = (13000 × 100)/125000 = 10.4%
15 (d)
Earning from selling milk in 2018 = 9% of 500000 = Rs. 45000
Earning from selling milk in 2019 = 8% of 600000 = Rs. 48000
Required difference = 48000 –45000 = Rs. 3000
16 (c)
Statement 1 is correct. The passage clearly states that “low-frequency gravitational waves – ripples in
the fabric of space-time that are created by huge objects moving around, colliding, and merging with
each other, and predicted by Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity more than 100 years
ago.” Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage clearly mentions that “Gravitational waves were first detected in
2015 using an experiment, involving Laser Interferometer Gravitational Observatory (LIGO)
detectors. But those waves were of high frequency”. The passage further says that “In a bid to discover
low-frequency gravitational waves, scientists used an entirely different technology compared to the
one used eight years ago”. Therefore, it can be inferred that LIGO technology was earlier probably more
useful in detecting high-frequency gravitational waves. Hence, it is a correct statement.
17 (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The gravitational waves are produced by the collision of massive objects in space.
The passage says that “ripples in the fabric of space-time that are created by huge objects moving
around, colliding, and merging with each other”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2015, an experiment utilizing LIGO detectors made the first observation of
gravitational waves, thought to have been created around 1.3 billion years ago. The passage mentions that
“Gravitational waves were first detected in 2015 using an experiment, involving Laser Interferometer
Gravitational Observatory (LIGO) detectors. But those waves were of high frequency, believed to be
produced by the merger of two relatively small black holes that took place about 1.3 billion years
ago”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
18 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage in the first line itself mentions the huge number of deaths caused by
unsafe drinking water and lack of sanitation. Further, the passage narrates the diseases caused by
contaminated water, globally. The passage says that “Globally, 771 million people lack access to safe
water and 1.7 billion people don’t have a toilet. The WHO report is based on the estimates of the
burden of diseases attributable to unsafe WASH”. This is the reflection of the central theme of the
passage. Hence, it is the correct option.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage has not compared the data across multiple years. So, we cannot say
for certain if such diseases are on the rise or on the way down. Moreover, it is not a part of the crucial
message that the author wants to convey – it is a supporting argument. The issues of sanitation and hygiene
have also not been covered by this option. Hence, it is not a correct option.

Option (c) is not correct: The passage in the initial lines mentions the death of children under 5, which is
caused by unsafe drinking water. But the passage nowhere mentions that children under 5 are the most
susceptible to waterborne diseases. Anyways, even if true, it cannot be the most crucial message of the
author. Hence, it is not a correct option.
Option (d) is not correct: Nowhere does the passage mentions Africa being the most susceptible continent
to waterborne diseases. Hence, it is not a correct option.
19 (c)
∅ means a null set.
From statement –1:
Z represents integers. An integer can be 0, a positive number to infinity, or a negative number to negative
infinity.
{x: x ∈ Z and x2 = 2} = ∅
It is right, because there is no integer whose square is 2.
Statement– 2:
The letter N is the symbol used to represent natural numbers. Natural numbers are also known as counting
numbers, and they begin with the number 1 and continue to infinity.
{x: x ∈ N, 4 < x <5} = ∅
It is also right, because there can be no natural number between 4 and 5.
20 (d)
We have to determine whether (a – b + c) > (a + b – c).
Or if, -b + c > b – c
Or if, 2c > 2b
Or if, c > b
From Statement 1: 4ab > 0
But c is not mentioned in Statement 1.
Hence, Statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
From Statement 2: b < (a + c)
If a < 0, we can infer that c > b.
But we do not know whether a is positive or negative.
Even by combining both the statements, we cannot answer the question.
21 (a)
The first 5 prime numbers of the number system are 2, 3, 5, 7 and 11.
The first 5 composite numbers of the number system are 4, 6, 8, 9 and 10.
So x = (2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11)/5 = 28/5 and
y = (4 + 6 + 8 + 9 + 10)/5 = 37/5
So, the required difference = y – x = 37/5 - 28/5 = (37 − 28)/5 = 9/5 = 1.8
So, option (a) is the right answer.
22 (b)
Let three workers be x, y and z.
x can complete the work in 16 hours.
y can complete the same work in 12 hours.
x, y and z together can complete the same work in 4 hours.
So, x's one hour’s work = 1/16
y’s one hour’s work = 1/12
(x + y + z)’s one hour’s work = 1/4
∴ z’s one hour’s work = (1/4) – [(1/16) + (1/12)] = (1/4) - (7/48) = 5/48
Hence, z alone can complete the work in 48/5 i.e. 9.6 hours.

23 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The context of changing perceptions, that too about the financial independence of
women, is not the focus of the passage. The passage focuses on the importance of financial independence
of women and its role in gender equality. Therefore, this option does not best reflect what the passage
implies.
Option (b) is incorrect. The given option is too broad in context, and does not even mention women. In
comparison, option (c) perfectly captures the context of the passage in a specific manner. So, this option
does not best reflect what the passage implies.
Option (c) is correct. The passage line, “prioritises equal access for women to the full range of financial
services available to men. This will allow them the same opportunities as men to participate fully in
economic activity” implies that ensuring equal access to financial services for women can help them
overcome gendered challenges and have the same opportunities as men. This implies that achieving gender
equality relies on empowering women financially, allowing them to be independent and on par with men in
terms of economic participation.
Option (d) is incorrect. Though making women financially literate will be a step in the right direction, but
this is too narrow a statement. The context of the passage is much wider, which talks about “… prioritises
equal access for women to the full range of financial services available to men”. Hence, this option does
not best reflect what the passage implies.
24 (a)
W = MDH (formula)
Where, W = work; M = man (number of persons); D = days (number of days); H = hours (hours per day)
So, 60× 9 × 27 = 30 × 162 × 𝑥
(x= hours a day needed by each of the 30 men)
⇒ x = (60 × 9 × 27)/(30 × 162) = 3 hours.
25 (d)
Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and
1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day).
Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І
(9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work)
39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ
(39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work).
Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get,
x = 1/225 .
Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield
y = 1/450 .
So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work
= 20/225 + 5/450 = 1/10.
Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day.
So, 1 part is performed in 1/((1/10)) day, i. e., 10 days.
26 (d)
Let us assume that Raj alone can complete the work in x days.
So, Raj’s one day work = 1/x
Time taken by Shubham to complete half the work = x/4 days
So, Time taken by Shubham to complete the whole work = 2 × (x/4) = x/2 days
So, Shubham’s one day work = 2/x
Given that, Shubham and Raj together can complete the work in 18 days.
So, Shubham and Raj’s one day work = 1/18
So, (1/x) + (2/x) = 1/18
Or, 3/x = 1/18
Or, x = 54 days
Thus, Raj alone can complete the work in 54 days.
27 (c)
Given, M = 72N – 1, where N ε N
M = ((7)2) N – 1 = 49N – 1
aN – bN is always divisible by (a – b) if N is a natural number.
So, 49N – 1 is divisible by (49 – 1), i.e. 48.
Hence, 49N – 1 must also be divisible by 6 for any value of N.
28 (c)
The smallest number that satisfies the given condition is obtained by taking the LCM of the numbers 6, 13
and 17, and adding the remainder 3 to it.
LCM of 6, 13 and 17 = 1326
Hence, the required number = 1326 + 3 = 1329
29 (b)
Let the efficiency of Amar = x = 100%.
Then, the efficiency of Sanjay = y = 125%.
Ratio of efficiencies, 𝑥/𝑦 = (100%)/(125%) = 4/5.
As the time taken to complete a work is inversely proportional to the respective efficiencies, so the time
taken by Amar (let, m) and Sanjay (let, n) to complete the work will be in the ratio of 5:4.
So, 𝑚/𝑛 = 5/4
⇒ 20/𝑛 = 5/4
⇒ n = 16 days
30 (b)
Next time when they would fall simultaneously = 11 am + LCM of time intervals
= 11 am + LCM (45 seconds, 60 seconds, 75 seconds, 90 seconds)
= 11 am + 900 seconds
= 11 am + 15 minutes
= 11:15 am.
31 (c)
Ananya and Rudra can together complete a work in 30 days.
Ananya and Rudra’s 1 day work = 1/30
They actually worked together only for 20 days.
Ananya and Rudra’s 20 days’ work = (1/30) × 20 = 2/3
∴ Remaining work = (1 – 2/3) = 1/3
1/3 part of the work can be completed by Ananya in 20 days.
So, 1 part of the work can be completed by Ananya in 3 × 20 = 60 days.
32 (d)
Total Marks obtained by Ravina = 540
∴ 360o = 540
1o = 540/360
Central angle made by the pie-section representing the marks of English = 360 – (90 + 55 + 70 + 65) = 360
– 280 = 80o
∴ Marks in English = (540/360) × 80 = 120 marks
∴ Required percent = (120/540) × 100 = 22.22%

Note: We can also calculate it as (80/360) × 100 = 22.22%

33 (d)
Let us first calculate the angles made by each part at the centre.
Total expenses incurred in the marriage ceremony = Rs. 990000
So, Rs. 990000 = 360o
or Rs. 1 = 360o/990000 = (1/2750)0
∴ Angle made by Transportation = 55000/2750 = 20o
∴ Angle made by Food = 247500/2750 = 90o
∴ Angle made by Gifts = 330000/2750 = 120o
∴ Angle made by Hall = 165000/2750 = 60o
∴ Angle made by Decoration = 192500/2750 = 70o
It can be written in fraction as:
Transportation = 20o/360o = 1/18
Food = 90o/360o= 1/4
Gifts = 120o/360o = 1/3
Hall = 60o/360o = 1/6
Decoration = 70o/360o = 7/36
34 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage does not link the concepts of unquenchable thirst and human
happiness. Therefore, to conclude that unquenchable thirst is a hindrance to happiness would not be correct.
Option (b) is incorrect. The line “The capitalist system, dependent on a logic of never-ending growth from
its earliest inception, confronted the plenty it created in its home states, especially the US, as a threat to its
very existence” only shows that the US faced the issue of plenty due to the capitalist model of growth.
However, to conclude that consumerism model should not be adopted by any country is an extreme
statement and is not based on the information given in the passage. Therefore, this option is not correct.
Option (c) is incorrect. The passage majorly mentions the disadvantages of consumerism and hardly
mentions any benefits. So, to state that disadvantages outweigh benefits is not correct in the absence of such
a comparison. Hence, this option is not correct.
Option (d) is correct. The passage critically discusses the implications of the “commodification of reality”
and the “manufacture of demand” in the context of the capitalist system. It highlights how capitalism
relies on a logic of never-ending growth and confronts the plenty it creates as a threat to its existence. The
passage emphasizes how capitalism has shaped the “ordinary person into a consumer with an unquenchable
thirst for material possessions”. Therefore, the underlying tone of the passage aligns with statement (d), as
it acknowledges the focus on consumerism within the capitalist model of growth and its impact on
transforming individuals into perpetual consumers.
35 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect. The given inference is not correct because the passage does not confirm whether
they are aware or not. The passage only mentions that, “They often use an ancient method of clearing
called slash-and-burn. First, the farmer cuts all the brush in her plot.” This means that they mostly use
slash-and-burn. But to infer that they are not aware of modern-day technology would not be correct.
Inference 2 is incorrect. The passage does not compare permanent crops and rotational crops in the context
of benefits. So, this inference is not correct as per the information given in the passage.
36 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage nowhere mentions that agriculture is the main occupation of women
in Coastal West Africa. The passage only mentions, “In coastal West Africa, farmers, usually women, plant
corn soon after the first rains of the growing season.” Hence, as per the passage, this option is not correct.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of remuneration of farming is not a part of the passage. Hence this
option is not correct.
Option (c) is incorrect. Whether slash-and-burn is the best method as per the geography of Coastal West
Africa or not has not been mentioned in the passage. The lines, “They often use an ancient method of
clearing called slash-and-burn. First, the farmer cuts all the brush in her plot. When this vegetation dries,
she sets fire to it.” Only show that this method is practiced there. Hence, this option is not correct as per the
passage.

Option (d) is correct. The given option is correct because of the lines, “Agricultural methods often vary
widely around the world, depending on climate, terrain, traditions, and available technology. ….. Higher-
technology farming involves crop rotation, which requires knowledge of farmable land.” Therefore, it
would be correct to say that probably not everybody could practice high-technology farming.
37 (a)
Ratio of the efficiencies of A and B = A : B = 4 : 1
Both together can complete a work in 28 days.
Let, Total work = 28 × (4 + 1) = 140 units
Time taken by A alone to complete the work = 140/4 = 35 days
38 (c)
Let the number of dresses Shubham has be N.
LCM of (20, 30, 50) = 300
Hence, N is of the form 300k + 16.
We have to find out the value of k for which (300k + 16) is divisible by 14.
By hit and try method, we can see that for k = 2, (300k + 16) is divisible by 14.
So, the minimum number of dresses he has = 300 × 2 + 16 = 616
39 (b)
Let the number of students seated in each bus be N.
Number of buses required, R = (60/N) + (36/N) + (24/N)
For R to be minimum, 60/N, 36/N, 24/N must be minimum. For this to happen, N must be maximum.
HCF of 60, 36, 24 = 12
So, Minimum number of buses required = (60/12) + (36/12) + (24/12) = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10
40 (b)
Let A be the set of people who support party A, and B be the set of people who support party B.
So, n(A) = 4200; n(B) = 2500; n (A ∩ B) = 1600
Now, n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) – n (A ∩ B)
= 4200 + 2500 – 1600
= 6700 – 1600
= 5100
∴ The number of people neither supporting A nor B = n(∪) – n (A∪ B) = 8000 – 5100 = 2900
41 (c)
On the basis of the information given in the question, we can draw the following Venn diagram.
Number of persons who play at least one of these two games = 40 + 10 + 10 = 60

42 (c)
Let the two numbers be 12a and 12b, where a and b are co-prime.
Given, 12a + 12b = 588
Or a + b = 588/12 = 49
Product of the two numbers will be the maximum when a and b are as close to each other as possible.
So, a = 24 and b = 25
∴ The largest possible product = 12a × 12b = (12 × 24) × (12 × 25) = 86400
43 (a)
The man’s age can be 27 when the son was born.
Daughter was born when he was 29.
His age will be a perfect cube again when he is 64.
Sum of ages of man, his son and his daughter = 64 + (64 -29) + (64 -27) = 136 years.
Note: The other perfect cubes, 8 and 64 are not appropriate as per the given options.
44 (b)
25% = 24000
Or 1% = 24000/25
The percentage of people of age group 36-60+ that were taking a foreign trip is 30%.
30% = (24000/25) × 30 = 28800
45 (b)
Percentage of foreign travelers in the age group of 5-10 years = 20%
Percentage of foreign travelers in the age group of 11-20 years = 10%
So, Required ratio = 20:10 = 2:1
46 (d)
Work done by A and B in two days when working on alternate days = 1/10.
Work done by C in one day = 1/30.
Work done in 3 days (A works on day 1, B on day 2 and C on day 3) = 1/10 + 1/30 = 4/30 = 2/15.
Work is completed in 15/2 = 7.5 such set of 3 days.
Work done in 7 such set of 3 days = 14/15.
Remaining 1/15 work is completed either by A on 22nd day or by B on 23rd day
47 (c)
The number of people shortlisted from cities E and F = (14 + 20)% of 1400 = (1400 × 34)/100 = 476
The number of people that participated from cities B and E = (22 + 20)% of 6600 = (6600 × 42)/100 = 2772
Required percent = (476 × 100)/2772 = 17.17%
48 (b)
Number of people that participated from city A = (6600 × 10)/100 = 660
Number of people that participated from city B = (6600 × 22)/100 = 1452
Number of people that participated from city C = (6600 × 12)/100 = 792
Number of people that participated from city G = (6600 × 4)/100 = 264
Now,
Number of people shortlisted from city A = (1400 × 22)/100 = 308
Number of people shortlisted from city B = (1400 × 10)/100 = 140
Number of people shortlisted from city C = (1400 × 4)/100 = 56
Number of people shortlisted from city G = (1400 × 12)/100 = 168
Shortlisting to participation percentage for city A = (308/660) × 100 = 46.66%
Shortlisting to participation percentage for city B = (140/1452) × 100 = 9.64%
Shortlisting to participation percentage for city C = (56/792) × 100 = 7.07%
Shortlisting to participation percentage for city G = (168/264) × 100 = 63.63%
Hence, this percentage or ratio is the highest for city G.

49 (a)
Assumption 1 is correct. The given assumption is correct because the assertion in the statement is validated
by the lines - “Fully one-third of judicial postings lie vacant. The ability of state and local governments to
impartially deliver basic welfare services is extremely limited. If these infirmities exist, so will criminal
politicians” from the passage. Hence, as per the passage, this assumption is correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The context of increasing taxes to increase revenue, and thereby fill the
vacancies is not a part of the passage. Hence, this assumption is beyond the scope of the passage.
50 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because it is an extreme statement and not based
on the information in the passage. The lines “Good governance in modern democracy means the
democratization of governance.” show that “good governance” is about the democratization of governance,
but the statement mentions only “governance”. Hence, as per the passage, this is not the best inference.
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage is not restricted to the governance of the local bodies. Hence, this
inference is not correct.
Option (c) is correct. The option reflects the best rational inference as seen in the lines, “Good governance
in modern democracy means the democratization of governance. In participatory democracy, people
elected their leader to govern them. But governance is not the monopoly of elected leaders.”
Option (d) is incorrect. The given statement is not correct as per the lines, “Good governance in modern
democracy means the democratization of governance.” So, good governance and democratization of
governance are linked to each other. Therefore, this inference is not correct as per the passage.
51 (b)
Let us assume that working alone Arijit completes the task in ‘a’ days, Brajesh completes in ‘b’ days and
Chandan completes in ‘c’ days.
1/a + 1/b = 1/10 ...........(1)
1/b + 1/c = 1/15 ............ (2)
It is also given that:
5/a + 8/b + 9/c = 1
Or 5(1/a + 1/b) + 3(1/b + 1/c) + 6/c = 1
Using (1) and (2),
5/10 + 3/15 + 6/c = 1
Or 6/c = 1 - ½ - 1/5 = 3/10
Or c = 20.
Chandan can finish the task alone in 20 days.
52 (c)
On Saturday he earns Rs. 205, which is Rs. 5 and Rs. 25 more than what he earns on Monday and Tuesday
respectively.
So, Earning on Monday = 205 – 5 = Rs. 200
Earning on Tuesday = 205 – 25 = Rs. 180
Earning by a man on Wednesday is three-fourth of the money he earns on Monday and Tuesday combined.
So, Earning on Wednesday = (200 + 180) × (3/4) = 380 × 3/4 = Rs. 285
In the next two days his earning is half of what he earns in the previous three days combined.
So, Earnings on Thursday + Friday = (200 + 180 + 285) / 2 = 665/2 = Rs. 332.5
Total earnings in the whole week = 200 + 180 + 285 + 332.5 + 205 = Rs. 1202.5
53 (c)
Total number of families = 100
Let families suffering from diabetes and blood pressure only be x.
On the basis of the given information, we can draw the following Venn diagram:

Only 10 families have all the three kinds of diseases, and each family suffering from a rare disease is also
suffering from blood pressure.
So, families suffering from rare disease and blood pressure only = 25 – 10 = 15
Now, as per the Venn diagram,
(40 – x) + x + 10 + 15 + (50 – x) = 100
Or 115 – x = 100
Or x = 115 – 100
Or x = 15
∴ Number of families suffering from blood pressure only = 50 – x = 50 – 15 = 35
54 (d)
P = {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, ……}
Q = {7, 14, 21, 28, 35, 42, 49, ………….}
R = {9, 18, 27, 36, 45, 54, 63, ………….}
(P∩Q) = {21, 42, 63, ……………}
(P∩Q) ∩ R = {63, 126, ……………..}
55 (b)
Land allotted to water reservoir, green area and industry = 18 + 108 + 54 = 180o
This is 50% of the total area.
Hence, option (b) is right.
56 (d)
Central angle of land allotted to green area = 108o
Central angle of land allotted to residences = 60 o
∴ Required percent = (108/60) × 100 = 180%
57 (a)
LCM (8, 12) = 24
984 is the largest three-digit number which is divisible by 24.
So, the largest three-digit number which when divided by 24 leaves a remainder of 2 = 984 + 2 = 986
58 (d)
Let Ram can complete the work in x days.
Time taken by Shyam to complete 1/4 of the work = 3x/5 days
Time taken by Shyam to complete the whole work = 4 × 3x/5 = 12x/5 days
∴ Shyam’s 1 day work = 5/12x
Ram and Shyam’s 1 day work = (1/x) + (5/12x)
∴ (1/x) + (5/12x) = 1/24
Or (1/x) + (5/12x) = 1/24
Or 17/12x = 1/24
Or x = 17 × 24 / 12 = 34
So, Time taken by Shyam to complete the whole work alone = 12x/5 = 12 × 34/5 = 408/5 = 81.6 days
59 (c)
Percentage of guests who took coffee, n(c) = 82%
Percentage of guests who took soft drink, n(s) = 54%
Total percentage of guests in the party = n(s ∪ c) = 100%
So, 100 = 82 + 54 – n (c ∩ s)
Or n(c ∩ s) = 136 – 100 = 36%
Thus, 36% guests took both.
Now, we know that the number of guests that took both = 72
So, 36%→72
Or 100% → (72/36) × 100 = 200
Hence, the total number of guests in the party is 200.
60 (b)
The six digit number is of the form XYXYXY. By using place value method, we get:
XY × 10000 + XY × 100 + XY = 10000XY + 100XY + XY = 10101XY
So, the number XYXYXY will always be divisible by 10101.
61 (c)
We know that,
Unit digit of 625 is 6,
Unit digit of 916 is 1, and
Unit digit of 540 is 5.
Hence, unit digit of 625 + 916 + 540 = 6 + 1 + 5 = 2.
62 (a)
Assumption 1 is correct. The passage mentions - “Despite these challenges, India has become stronger
and today is looking towards becoming a middle-income country and a major player in global affairs.”
These lines support the assumption that the growth of a country can happen, despite the internal security
issues. Hence, as per the passage, the given assumption is correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage does not mention the act of successfully curbing secessionist
tendencies by the government of India. Hence, this assumption is beyond the scope of the passage and is
not correct.
63 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “While there is no room for complacency, the country is
confident that despite the complexity, these challenges can be handled through a combination of sound
policies and institutional capacity” which means that policies and institutional capacity together can address
the internal security challenges. So, to say that sound policies are more than enough to handle the complex
internal security challenges would not be correct.
Option (b) is incorrect. The given statement is not correct because the passage mentions – “Many of our
problems can be traced to the partition. Yet, India has retained its unity and emerged as a strong country”,
meaning that many of our problems are due to partition. However, the given statement mentions partition
as the root cause of “all” internal security problems which is not correct.
Option (c) is correct. The given statement is correct as per the following lines from the passage - “Despite
these challenges, India has become stronger and today is looking towards becoming a middle-income
country and a major player in global affairs.” So, the option is correct as per the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage does not mention anything about the external environment within the
context of internal security challenges. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not
correct.

64 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage only mentions, “The results have uncovered associations between
disruptions to the human gut microbiota and many different diseases – including inflammatory bowel
disease, cancer, and neurodevelopmental disorders”. Nowhere does it mention gut microbiota to be the
major cause of cancer or other given diseases. Hence, this option is not correct as per the information given
in the passage.
Option (b) is correct. The following lines from the passage “But other experimental approaches are
needed to understand the underlying mechanisms for how interactions between the gut microbiota and the
host affect human health and disease” validate the given option. Hence, this option is the best crux of the
passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The passage only mentions, “The results have uncovered associations between
disruptions to the human gut microbiota and many different diseases – including inflammatory bowel
disease, cancer, and neurodevelopmental disorders”. Nowhere does it mention that human gut microbiota
gets disturbed due to the different diseases caused in humans. Rather it’s the other way round – scientist
suspect that due to the disturbance in gut microbiota several diseases may be caused. Moreover, the passage
mentions “But other experimental approaches are needed to understand the underlying mechanisms for
how interactions between the gut microbiota and the host affect human health and disease”, which means
that more research is required. Hence, this option is not correct as per the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage mentions “But other experimental approaches are needed to
understand the underlying mechanisms for how interactions between the gut microbiota and the host affect
human health and disease.” There is no linkage, as of now, between restoring gut microbiota and the
treatment of the stated diseases. Hence, this option is not the correct crux.
65 (b)
Raju’s 1 day’s work = (2/5) × (1/6) = 1/15
Sandhya’s 1 day’s work = (1/3) × (1/10) = 1/30
Combined work of Raju and Sandhya in one day = (1/15) + (1/30) = 1/10
∴ Both of them together can complete the work in 10 days.
66 (a)
L.C.M. of 9, 15, 18, 25 = 450 seconds
So, after every 450 seconds, i.e. 7.5 minutes, bells will ring together
∵ In 7.5 minutes they will ring together 1 time
∴ In 1 minute they will ring together 1/7.5 times, i.e. 2/15 times
∴ In 60 minutes or 1 hour they will ring together (2/15) × 60 = 8 times
∴ In 4 hours they will ring together 8 × 4 = 32 times
67 (d)
P = {B, L, O, W}
Q = {F, L, O, W}
R = {S, L, O, W}
Note: The symbol "⊆" means "is a subset of". The symbol "⊂" means "is a proper subset of".
68 (a)
Students passed in science exam n(A) = 60%
Students passed in maths exam n(A) = 40%
Students passed in both exams n(A∩B) = 30%
Now, by set theory n(A∪B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A∩B)
Students who passed in atleast one of the exams, n(A∪B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A∩B) = 60 + 40 – 30 = 70%
So, those who failed in both exams = 30% = 12000
Or 1% = 400
Or 100% = 40000
∴ Total number of students who appeared in exam = 40000
69 (d)
M = {m, n}
N = {4, 6, 8, 10}
O = {6, 8, 10, 11, 12}
(N ∩ O) = {4, 6, 8, 10} ∩ {6, 8, 10, 11, 12} = {6, 8, 10}
Now, M × (N ∩ O) = {m, n} × {6, 8, 10} = {(m, 6), (m, 8), (m, 10), (n, 6), (n, 8), (n, 10)}
70 (b)
Total number of soldiers = 80
Number of soldiers who have bulletproof jacket = (80 × 20)/100 = 16
Number of soldiers who have helmet only = 50% of remaining = 50% of (80 – 16) = 64/2 = 32
Number of soldiers who have neither bulletproof jacket nor helmet = 80 – 16 – 32 = 80 – 48 = 32
71 (b)
Option (a) is not correct. The central theme of the passage revolves around the marine heat wave in the
North Atlantic. The above statement mentions El Nino and its effect on global weather system, which is a
part of the central theme of the passage. Also, La Nina has not even been mentioned in the passage. Hence,
it is not a correct option.
Option (b) is correct. This is the crux of the passage, and the entire passage revolves around this theme.
The passage initially mentions that “An extremely unusual marine heatwave is occurring in the North
Atlantic Ocean, especially around the United Kingdom (UK) and Ireland. It has lasted for more than
two months and may continue through the rest of the year as well”. Further, the passage revolves
around this theme, narrating the cause of marine heatwave and its impact. The passage further says that
“Such warming has never been observed in the region before and could lead to long-lasting impacts
on marine flora and fauna, on livelihoods and local weather patterns, and even heatwaves on the
land”. Hence, it is the correct option.
Option (c) is not correct. The passage mentions the unusual marine heat wave in North Atlantic, but it
does not say that North Europe is the most affected region due to heatwaves. Hence, it is not a correct
option.
Option (d) is not correct. The issue of increasing marine traffic has not been discussed in the passage.
Hence, it is not a correct option.
72 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given statement is extreme because it states that those businesses which make
a profit are not ethical. However, the passage states that “… Mahatma Gandhi once mentioned that all
businesses have a social responsibility which has nothing to do with their ordinary economic activity.”
which means that social responsibility is not related to profit-making, nor is profit-making a bad thing per
se. Therefore, this is not what the passage implies.
Option (b) is correct. The lines, “While referring to business activities, Mahatma Gandhi once mentioned
that all businesses have a social responsibility which has nothing to do with their ordinary economic
activity.” and “Therefore, the responsibility towards society is a moral obligation arising out of business
ethics, which in turn is steeped in the philosophy of business” reflect that social responsibility is a moral
obligation which is a part of the philosophy of business. Hence, this option best reflects what the passage
implies.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is not what the passage implies because the context of every
person being socially responsible is not a part of the passage. The passage is limited to the context of
businesses being socially responsible. Hence, this option is not correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given statement is not correct because of the lines - “While referring to
business activities, Mahatma Gandhi once mentioned that all businesses have a social responsibility which
has nothing to do with their ordinary economic activity.” Though it’s correct that without profit, it would
be hard for a business to contribute to the society. However, such loss-making or non-profit making
businesses have not been discussed in the passage separately.

73 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The given option best captures the essence of the passage as given in lines, “By
examining your past (and present) behaviours, beliefs, values, and actions, you will start to see a pattern –
aka dots connecting. Based on this intelligence that you have gathered about the things you hold most dear
– both personally and professionally – you can start to chart your dots for future action”. Therefore, this
option is the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The given option is merely an explanation of the meaning of dots in the context of
life. However, the passage is focusing on the importance of connecting the dots and using them to move
forward in life.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the focus of the writer is not just on
becoming emotionally intelligent or self-aware, but to use that intelligence to move forward in life. Thus,
the writer is more action-oriented than just being an arm-chair philosopher, which is evident in these lines
– “Based on this intelligence that you have gathered about the things you hold most dear – both personally
and professionally – you can start to chart your dots for future action.” Moreover, the concept of Emotional
Intelligence has not been mentioned or defined in the passage. Therefore, this option is not the best crux of
the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is not correct as it talks about challenging our beliefs, values, and
actions to move forward. However, this is not a part of the passage. The passage focuses on analysing our
beliefs, values, and actions to learn from them and move forward. Hence, the given option is not the best
crux of the passage.
74 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The following lines from the passage, “A good leader with a stress-free mind can
easily spot any signs of trouble in his team, and quickly and effectively solve these issues as they arise. Since
the techniques used in managing stress are also very beneficial to creating emotional management when
used now, the mind of the leader can immediately become clear to handle any challenges in the
workplace.” validate the assertion made in the passage. So, this option is the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage mentions the importance of handling or managing stress by a leader
as given in the lines, “Since the techniques used in managing stress are also very beneficial to creating
emotional management, when used now, the mind of the leader can immediately become clear to handle
any challenges in the workplace.” However, this option mentions the quality of understanding the emotions
of self and others, that too in a corporate setting. Hence, the given option is not correct.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of intrinsic abilities of a good leader is not a part of the passage, and
is beyond its scope. Hence, the given option is not correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because it mentions that a good leader does not
face any stress in managing his team and in maintaining his own productivity. However, the passage is
about managing stress efficiently. Therefore, this crux is not correct, as it is contradictory to the central
theme of the passage.
75 (b)
Let the total number of boys be x.
Then, (¾) x = 18
Or x = 24
If the total number of students is y, then
(2/3) y = 24
Or y = 36
So, Number of girls in the class = y – x = 36 – 24 = 12
Hence option (b) is the right answer.
76 (b)
Let the total number of pages in the book be ‘n’.
Let page number ‘x’ be repeated.
Then, x + ∑ni=1 i = 850
⇒ x + (𝑛(𝑛 + 1))/2 = 850
So, (𝑛(𝑛 + 1))/2 ≤ 850
⇒ n2 + n ≤ 1700
The greatest possible value of n = 40.
Now, for n = 40, 𝑛(𝑛 + 1)/2 = (40 × 41)/2 = 820
So, x = 30.
77 (b)
Laxman’s work efficiency = 1/6
Suresh’s work efficiency = 1/12
So, ratio of the work efficiencies of Laxman and Suresh = 2:1
∴ Part of the work done by Laxman = 2/(2 + 1) = 2/3
78 (c)
To maximize the number of incorrect responses, the number of correct responses should also be maximized.
Let the number of correct responses (maximum) be ‘x’.
So, the number of incorrect responses (maximum) = 80 – x.
So, total marks scored = 3x – (80 – x).
Now, 3x – (80 – x) > 150
⇒ 4x – 80 > 150
⇒ 4x > 230
⇒ x > 57.5
So, the least possible value of x = 58.
Hence, the maximum number of incorrect responses = 80 – 58 = 22.
79 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The context of the cost of development is not a part of the passage. The passage
does not mention the cost being high or low. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is
not correct as per the passage.
Option (b) is correct. The whole passage is about how biomimicry will help in the production of
environment-friendly and sustainable products as seen in the lines, “Researchers are studying how plants
store energy, to help design better solar panels. Biomimicry principles are used to produce more energy-
efficient trains and cars and to help manufacturing plants create products that use less energy and produce
little or no waste”. Hence, this option best reflects what the passage implies.
Option (c) is incorrect. Though the passage lists a lot of the benefits of biomimicry, it would be rather
extreme to say that it can soon phase out fossil fuels. So, this option is not what the passage implies.
Option (d) is incorrect. The issue of biomimicry being unaffordable has not been discussed in the passage.
So, this option is not what the passage implies.
80 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage is just describing the issues with overuse of technology. It’s not
proving any solutions. Also, the issue of work-life balance has not been discussed in the passage as such.
Option (b) is correct. The passage talks about the increasing role of technology in our lives, how it offers
benefits but also brings some drawbacks, particularly in relation to mental health. The author states that
being constantly connected through technology can lead to psychological issues like stress, anxiety, and
depression. This gives an overall sense of a mixed view of technology, which is best reflected in this
statement - "Use of technology gives pleasure, but it also takes a toll on mental health.”
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because it states that we should be restricted to use
social media only for a few hours. It has nowhere been suggested by the author.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given statement is opposite to the truth – “Technology in the form of social
media is a good servant but a bad master”, which metaphorically means that technology is useful when it is
controlled, but can be harmful when it dominates our lives.

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VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

the Test Booklet.
sheet.
be deducted.
1
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: 2. Which of the following statements best reflects
Read the following two passages and answer the items the crux of the passage?
(a) Despite a long history and huge audience,
the impact of Bollywood on society is
should be based on the passages only. miniscule.
Passage – 1 (b) It is critical to ensure the financial viability
of films for Bollywood to survive in the
For the past hundred years, Bollywood has been one of
future.
the most dominant and distinctive features of Indian (c) Bollywood needs quality films, focusing on
culture. Indian cinema is one of the most influential and addressing the most pressing social issues,
through the medium of screenplay.
powerful tools to address various social issues through
(d) In the context of social issues and insights,
the medium of screenplay. It is the world’s largest film cinema can be aptly called a mirror of
industry in terms of the number of films produced, but society.
Passage – 2
not in terms of its financial returns. To satisfy the 14
While we dream, the brain is shifting between the
million Indians who go to the cinema every day, the information it should store and the information it should
Indian film industry produces more than 1,000 films forget. Our mind also generates images and tales to best
organise all this activity to forward the process.
every year. Since its inception in 1913, film has been a
According to a 2019 review of dream ideas in the journal
vital medium for the communication of social insights Brain Science Advances, the evidence does support the
and conditions, while continuing to function as an existence of something termed “sleep-dependent
memory consolidation” and the fact that both REM and
important mode of entertainment for the masses. It’s
non-REM (NREM) sleep are necessary for memory
very intriguing to understand, sometimes, whether the processing. According to the hypothesis, since dreams
movies are shaping society or vice versa. frequently represent events that occurred while a person
was awake; the brain is retrieving, processing, and
learning from that information while it is at rest.
assumptions have been made: 3. Which one of the following statements best
1. Bollywood has been successful in the reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) Dreams are not limited only to the past
propagation of Indian culture abroad.
events in a person’s life, they can be related
2. Despite a huge audience going to the cinema to a future event as well.
every day, Bollywood has not been able to (b) There is a strong relationship between
compete with other film industries. dreams and information which the brain
utilizes for memory consolidation.
(c) The decision of what information to store
(a) 1 only and what to forget, is based on the dreams
(b) 2 only we see while sleeping.
(d) Better memory consolidation is directly
(c) Both 1 and 2
correlated with the quality of dreams one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 sees in sleep.

4. What is the probability of getting 5 exactly twice 8. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below
in seven throws of a die? followed by a question.
(a) (7/12) × (5/6)7 S1: The angle of elevation of the top of a tower
(b) (7/12) × (5/6)4 from a distance of 15 m is 600.
(c) (7/12) × (5/6)5 S2: The angle of elevation of the middle of a tree
3
(d) (7/12) × (5/6) from a distance of 15 m is 450.
Question: Which is taller, the tree or the tower?
5. A bag contains seven red and five green balls. Which one of the following is correct in respect
One ball is drawn randomly from the bag. What of the above Statements and the Question?
is the probability that the ball is not red? (a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(a) 7/12 (b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) 5/12
(c) Both the statements are needed together to
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/4
(d) Even both the statements together are not
6. Ten students are standing in a row. If Rajesh
picked two students randomly from the row,
9. Ten points are plotted in a plane such that no
then what is the probability that the selected
three of them lie on a straight line. If four of
students are standing adjacent to each other?
these points are joined to each of the remaining
(a) 2/3
six points, how many line segments will get
(b) 1/5
formed?
(c) 2/5
(a) 18
(d) None of these
(b) 24
(c) 23
7. From the top of a tower of height 200 m, the
(d) 27
angle of depression of two points on opposite
sides of the tower are observed to be 150 and 750.
Find the distance between the two points on the 10. How many multiples of 4 greater than 40,000
surface in a straight line passing through the foot but less than 70,000 can be formed using the
of the tower. (tan 150 = 2 - √3 and tan 750 = 2 + digits 0, 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, and 8, if repetition of digits
√3) is allowed?
(a) 1200 m (a) 1340
(b) 600 m (b) 1270

(c) 800 m (c) 1470
(d) None of these (d) 1520

11. Ten pens are to be distributed among Ananya, 12. Which one of the following statements best
Bipin and Chotu, such that Ananya receives reflects the crux of the passage?
more pens than Bipin, who in turn receives more (a) Food has been grossly underestimated in the
pen than Chotu. Find the number of ways in context of the indirect effects it can have on
which the distribution can be done, if each of diverse aspects of people’s lives.
them must receive at least one pen. (b) Food not only connects the hearts and heads,
(a) 4 but also continents, states, and their people.
(b) 6 (c) Organic farming, political diplomacy and
(c) 8 ensuring adequate working conditions for
food workers will solve the issues caused by

(d) 12
food production and consumption.
(d) Food is a major cause of issues related to the

environment, trade and human resources
involved in food production.
Passage – 2
Dams are considered to be temples of modern India as
Passage – 1
they serve monumental purposes like water
Food is at the centre of several funding questions for
conservation, drought and flood control, irrigation,
political philosophy. Here are some. One. The challenges
energy requirements, and food security; however, they
that food consumption poses to the environment. For
also have major socioeconomic and environmental
example, did you know that factory farming is
drawbacks. Currently, significant parts of India suffer
responsible for a higher rate of pollution than airfare
from agricultural drought, and we need to combat this by
travel? Two. Food trades raise issues of fairness and
critically analysing our water resource management
equity in the global market. Exotic goods such as coffee,
policies. Our policies are centred on large dams.
tea, and chocolate are chief examples: through the
However, the study shows that large dams are not
history of their commerce, we can reconstruct the
fulfilling the irrigation requirements of different states in
complex relationships between continents, States, and
India. We need to change our path which is majorly large
people over the past three-four centuries. Three. Food
dam-driven and should also implement cost-effective,
production, distribution, and retail is an opportunity to environment-friendly, and socially acceptable measures
talk about the condition of workers across the earth. to conserve water and alleviate water scarcity.

13. Which of the following is/are the most rational 15. Study the following table carefully and answer
and logical inference/inferences that can be the question that follows.
made from the passage? Table given below shows the percentage of
1. The socioeconomic and environmental COVID patients that died in different hospitals
drawbacks of large dams have from July 2020 to December 2020, as compared
overshadowed the benefits they were to all the COVID patients that got admitted in
intended to serve. those hospitals.
2. Considering our present water situation, we Month Percentage of COVID patients
should refrain from investing more in the that died
construction of large dams. A B C D E F
Select the correct answer using the code given July 34 32 54 38 32 34
below. August 32 57 67 42 57 38
(a) 1 only September 36 63 56 52 35 65
(b) 2 only October 42 40 68 57 40 39
(c) Both 1 and 2 November 48 48 41 63 21 30
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 December 53 64 40 36 45 22

If the number of patients that got admitted in
14. With reference to the passage, which one of the hospital A in October and hospital C in
following statements is correct? September is the same, then what is the
(a) Apart from socioeconomic and respective ratio between the number of patients
environmental drawbacks, large dams put a that died in hospital A in October and those that
heavy burden on the state exchequer. died in hospital C in September?

(a) 3:4
(b) Micro-irrigation techniques will not only
(b) 5:6
solve the issues associated with large dams,
(c) 1:2
but also help improve the quality of soil.
(c) Water resource management should focus
on the core objective of ensuring water
16. Let x be a positive integer, such that 11x + 135
availability, and ignore non-core aspects
is divisible by x. How many values of x are
like socioeconomic development and
possible?
environmental protection.
(a) 10
(d) The future of water conservation, irrigation,
(b) 8
energy requirements and food security
(c) 11
should not only be dependent on large dams.
(d) 9

Directions for the following 2 (two) items: 20. Raju bought a lottery ticket via which he can win
Study the following table carefully and answer the one item from amongst car, bike, bicycle and
questions that follow. T.V. The probabilities of winning car, bike,
Table given below shows free ration (in ton) distributed bicycle and T.V. are 0.30, 0.38, 0.22 and 0.10
by different agencies in different years. respectively. What is the probability that Raju
Agencies Years will win a car or a bike?
2004 2005 2006 2007
(a) 0.38
P 180 230 450 300
Q 270 330 180 410 (b) 0.42
R 290 290 220 170 (c) 0.68
S 130 190 280 320 (d) None of these
Total 870 1040 1130 1200
17. What is the percentage increase in total ration
21. The opposite faces of a fair dice are painted red,
distributed in 2007 as compared to 2006?
green and blue. One such painted dice is rolled.
(a) 8.50%
What is the probability that the face that appears
(b) 4.88%
as the top face is green?
(c) 7.25%
(d) None of these (a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
18. Ration distributed by agency Q in 2005, 2006 (c) 1/4
and 2007 is what percent of the ration distributed (d) 1/6
by agency R in 2004, 2005 and 2006?

(a) 60% 22. A contractor decided to distribute a total of Rs.
(b) 168% 5600 amongst seven workers as a cash prize for
(c) 72% their hard work. If each cash prize is Rs. 50 less
(d) None of these than its preceding cash prize, find the value of
the third highest prize.
19. Three friends Ram, Mohan and Sita are (a) Rs. 950
preparing for CSE exam and the probabilities of (b) Rs. 850
their selection are 2/3, 5/8 and 4/7 respectively. (c) Rs. 750
What is the probability that exactly two of them (d) Rs. 600
will get selected in CSE?
(a) 3/8 Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
(b) 13/12 Read the following two passages and answer the items
(c) 15/27 that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
(d) None of these

Cities are disproportionately wealthy, a key reason why The excessive extraction of groundwater for drinking
the world is becoming more urban. Yet, cities are
and irrigation has shifted the Earth’s axis of rotation,
associated with poverty, too. Increases in GDP per capita
according to a new study. Noting that humans pumped
unambiguously lower poverty and narrow rural-urban
gaps. By contrast, levels of urbanization were either out around 2,150 gigatons of groundwater between 1993
unrelated to measures of poverty and rural-urban gaps or and 2010, the study says that the planet’s axis has drifted
had a nonlinear effect where, initially, increases in at the rate of 4.36 cm per year towards the east. The
urbanization likewise led to improvements in those
study, ‘Drift of Earth’s Pole Confirms Groundwater
measures, but at higher levels of urbanization, increases
in urbanization exacerbated urban poverty and rural- Depletion as a Significant Contributor to Global Sea
urban gaps. Thus, many studies have confirmed the Level Rise 1993–2010’, was published in the journal
results of several regions and countries that Geophysical Research Letters, earlier this month. It was
rapid/excessive urbanization can lead to greater poverty
carried out by Ki-Weon Seo, Taewhan Jeon, Jae-Seung
and inequality.
Kim, Kookhyoun Youm of the Seoul National
assumptions have been made: University (South Korea). Although the shift isn’t
1. Policies should be made to distribute the significant enough to have real-life consequences, the
disproportionate wealth of cities in rural study shows that humans have extracted so much water
areas.
from the ground that it has impacted the planet’s axis and
2. Urbanization, up to a limit, can be beneficial
for addressing poverty and rural-urban gaps. contributed to global sea level rise. Earth spins around
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? an imaginary axis that passes through the north pole, its
(a) 1 only center of mass and the south pole — just like a top spins
(b) 2 only around its spindle. Scientists for years have known that
(c) Both 1 and 2
the poles and the axis keep shifting naturally as the mass
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
distribution in and on the planet changes. This
24. According to the author, the most rational phenomenon is known as “polar motion”. There are
inference that we may draw from the passage several other reasons responsible for polar motion like
may be:
ocean currents and even hurricanes. But this
(a) Rapid growth of urban areas will ensure the
phenomenon is also impacted by human activities. In
growth of rural regions as well, through the
phenomenon of trickle-down effect. 2016, a team of researchers demonstrated that climate-
(b) Considering the ill effects of urbanization, driven changes in water mass distribution, led by the
governments should not focus on melting of glaciers and ice in Greenland, can cause
urbanization.
Earth’s axis to drift. Five years later, another study said
(c) Development of rural areas cannot be
ignored for the sake of urbanisation. climate change was causing the rotational axis to shift
(d) Both (b) and (c) more than usual since the 1990s.

25. Which of the following statements can be 28. A small kid is asked to form a three-digit number
inferred from the above passage? using the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 0 without
repetition. What is the probability that the
1. Climate change is the most dominant factor
number he forms is divisible by 5?
for a shift in the earth’s axis of rotation.
(a) 1/5
2. The excessive extraction of groundwater has (b) 9/25
led to drought in some parts of the world. (c) 10/33
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) 1/4
below.
29. How many different combinations of the letters
(a) 1 only
of the word PRIOR can be formed?
(b) 2 only
(a) 60
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 120
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 70
30. The circumference of a circle and the perimeter
what is implied by the passage?
of a rectangle are in the ratio of π : 2. Find the
(a) The climate belts will eventually move in
ratio of their areas if the radius of the circle
the same direction as the planet's axis, which equals one of the sides of the rectangle.
is eastward. (a) π : 1
(b) Polar motion is not an unusual occurrence, (b) π : 2
despite the fact that groundwater (c) π : 3
(d) π : 4
exploitation is partially to blame for it.
(c) Controlling climate change is necessary to
31. In the circle below, chords AB and AC have the
prevent Polar Motion. same length.
(d) Groundwater extraction for irrigation can be
effectively replaced with drip irrigation.
27. The ages of Ram and Shyam are in ratio 7:8.

After 2 years, the ratio of their ages will be 9:10.
What will be the ratio of their ages after 12
years? Find the approximate percentage of the area of
(a) 15/17 the circle that is not shaded.
(a) 28%
(b) 19/20
(b) 39%
(c) 21/23
(c) 48%
(d) None of these (d) 60%

32. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below 35. The table given below showcases the alcohol
followed by a Question. consumption habits of the people of five cities -
S1: One side of the rectangle (in cm) is equal to A, B, C, D and E.
the square of its other side (in cm). Cities I II
S2: The longer side of the rectangle is p cm. A 20% 24000
Question: What is the area of the rectangle? B 40% 36000
Which one of the following is correct in respect C 25% 45000
of the above Statements and the Question? D 60% 12000
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question. E 75% 25000
In the table there are two columns. Column I
(c) Both the statements are needed together to
tabulates the percentage of people who do not
consume alcohol, and Column II tabulates the
(d) Even both the statements together are not
number of people who consume alcohol.
What is the total number of people (including all
cities) who do not consume alcohol?
(a) 1,62,300
Study the following table carefully and answer the
(b) 1,38,000
(c) 1,82,700
Table given below shows the daily earning (in Rs.) of
(d) None of these
seven persons in five different cities.
Persons/Cities A B C D E
36. A painter bought a canvas which is 23 cm long
P 340 350 420 410 390 and 17 cm wide, but he decided to draw a border
line of 1.5 cm along each of its sides. What is the
Q 250 280 220 350 300 area left for painting excluding the border line?
R 280 260 360 400 380 (a) 230 cm²
(b) 250 cm²
S 450 360 280 320 420 (c) 270 cm²
T 380 400 400 420 460 (d) 280 cm²
U 470 420 300 390 280 37. In a multiple-choice examination, there are two
V 400 350 320 280 350 possible answers for each of the 7 questions.
What is the probability that a candidate would
33. What is the difference in earnings between the get 6 or more correct answers just by guessing,
person who earned the highest and the person if he attempts all the questions?
who earned the lowest (considering their income (a) 2/3
from all the cities)? (b) 1/16
(a) Rs. 440 (c) 2/7
(b) Rs. 620 (d) 1/8
(c) Rs. 360
(d) Rs. 660 38. The records of the last innings played by Ambati
shows that out of the 300 balls faced by him, he
played 180 dot balls. What is the probability that
34. What is the ratio of the average earnings of all
a particular ball played by him in that innings
persons in city B and D?
was a dot ball?
(a) 242 : 257
(a) 0.5
(b) 222 : 257
(b) 0.6
(c) 272 : 277
(c) 0.7
(d) 172 : 257
(d) 0.4

Directions for the following 3 (three) items: 39. Which of the following statements can be
should be based on the passages only. 1. No country has been successful in landing
Passage – 1
the spacecraft on the lunar south pole.
According to ISRO officials, the Chandrayaan-3 will
reach the lunar orbit almost a month after its launch, and 2. China succeeded in landing the spacecraft
its lander, Vikram, and rover, Pragyaan, are likely to land
on the moon's far side.
on the Moon on August 23. Notably, the landing site of
the latest mission is more or less the same as the Select the correct answer using the codes given
Chandrayaan-2: near the south pole of the moon at 70
below.
degrees latitude. If everything goes well, the
Chandrayaan-3 will become the world’s first mission to (a) 1 only
soft-land near the lunar south pole. All the previous
(b) 2 only
spacecraft to have landed on the Moon have landed in
the equatorial region, a few degrees latitude north or (c) Both 1 and 2
south of the lunar equator. The furthest that any
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
spacecraft has gone from the equator was Surveyor 7,
launched by NASA, which made a moon landing way
back on January 10, 1968. This spacecraft landed near
40. Which of the following are the reasons why any
40 degrees south latitude. Even China’s Chang’e 4,
which became the first spacecraft to land on the far side spacecraft has not ever landed near the lunar
of the moon — the side that does not face the earth —
south pole?
landed near the 45-degree latitude. It is easier and safer
to land near the equator. The terrain and temperature are 1. Lack of sunlight
more hospitable and conducive for a long and sustained 2. Low temperatures
operation of instruments. The surface here is even and
smooth, very steep slopes are almost absent, and there 3. Craters
are fewer hills or craters. Sunlight is present in 4. Absence of steep slopes
abundance, at least on the side facing the earth, thus
offering a regular supply of energy to solar-powered 5. High gravitational pull
instruments. The polar regions of the Moon, however, Select the correct answer using the codes given
are a very different, and difficult, terrain. Many parts lie
in a completely dark region where sunlight never below.
reaches, and temperatures can go below 230 degrees (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Celsius. Lack of sunlight and extremely low
temperatures create difficulty in the operation of (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
instruments. In addition, there are large craters all over (c) 2, 3 and 5 only
the place, ranging from a few centimetres in size to those
extending to several thousands of kilometres. (d) 3, 4 and 5 only

Passage – 2 42. The sum of ages of Shika and Rudra is 62 years.
Experts say carbon capture and storage — a way to grab 6 years ago, the age of Shikha was 4 times that
of Rudra. Find the difference between the
a planet-heating gas and lock it underground — is sorely
present ages of Shikha and Rudra.
needed to cut pollution in sectors where other clean (a) 27 years
technologies are farther behind. There are cases where (b) 30 years
capturing carbon makes a lot of sense — but we also (c) 16 years
need to push all the options to avoid CO2 in the first (d) None of these
place, said Georg Kobiela, an expert in the cleaning up
43. The sum of the ages of Ram, Shyam and
industry at the environmental nonprofit German watch. Ghanshyam is 185 years. Shyam’s age is twice
“Some applications can be just a fig leaf for keeping that of Ram’s and Ghanshyam’s age is 17 years
fossil fuel business models alive.” Carbon capture and more than Ram’s. The respective ages of Ram,
storage (CCS) is a way to catch carbon and trap it Shyam and Ghanshyam must be:
(a) 40 years, 86 years and 59 years
beneath the earth. It is different to carbon dioxide
(b) 40 years, 80 years and 65 years
removal (CDR) — where carbon is sucked out of the (c) 42 years, 84 years and 59 years
atmosphere — although some of the technologies (d) None of these
overlap. The key difference is that CDR brings down the
level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, cooling the 44. Study the following chart carefully and answer
planet, while CCS in fossil fuel plants and factories
The chart given below gives information about
prevents the gas from getting out in the first place. In its the types of media that people in different age
latest review of scientific research, the groups use to get daily news. A person may use
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) more than one media to get one’s dose of daily
found both options will be needed for emissions that are news.
hard to wipe out. For chemical processes that release
carbon dioxide, there are few alternatives to capturing
CO2 straight away or sucking it out of the air later.
Scientists see a big role for CCS in factories that make
cement and fertiliser, as well as in plants that burn
rubbish. They are split on whether it makes sense to use
it to make steel and hydrogen, which have some greener
alternatives.
the most logical and rational message conveyed
by the author? Which of the following cannot be concluded
(a) Carbon capture and storage (CCS) will from the given graph?
make the lithosphere unstable. (a) Only 7% people of 65+ age group use social
(b) Carbon emissions cannot be controlled by networking to get daily news.
(b) More than 80% people of 20+ age group use
CCS alone.
social networking to get daily news.
(c) Carbon dioxide removal (CDR) technology (c) Only 10% people of 50-64 age group use
is more efficient than CCS. Micro-Blogging to get daily news.
(d) Global warming is an existential threat to (d) 50% people of 15-20 age group use Radio to
humanity. get daily news.

Direction for the following 2 (two) items: 47. Hemendra took an interest free loan of ₹ 25800
Study the following table carefully and answer the with the promise that he would pay back ₹ 500
questions that follow. at the end of the first month and from second
Table given below shows the number of students that month onwards, he would pay ₹ 50 more than
participated in various exams held in seven districts. what he paid in the previous month. What was
Districts NEET JEE CUET MBA OTHER
the last installment paid by him? (in ₹)
(a) ₹1650
A 13500 20700 23600 15500 8400
(b) ₹ 1270
B 10600 16200 18800 13400 14700 (c) ₹ 1500
C 15400 24500 13000 18400 3700 (d) ₹ 1450
D 17500 14800 25500 8600 6600
E 22500 22200 27500 11200 13700 48. Consider the following information and the
F 19400 21600 16500 17800 9900
Three numbers are in a geometric progression,
G 23500 12300 21600 25600 15800
wherein the common ratio is more than 1. The
45. The total number of students that participated in least of them is 1.
NEET in districts A, B and C together is Statement-1: The sum of the numbers is 21.
approximately what percent of the number of Statement-2: The product of the numbers is 64.
students that participated in MBA in districts D, Question: Find the middle number in the
geometric progression.
E and G together?
(a) 87%
(b) 79%
(a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the
(c) 63% question.
(d) 58% (b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
46. Which of the following cannot be concluded (c) Both statements are needed together to
from the given table? answer the question.
(a) The number of students that participated in (d) Either statement-1 alone or statement-2
others in district G is more than the number alone is sufficient to answer the question.
of students that participated in MBA in
district E. 49. In the diagram given below, O is the centre of
(b) The number of students that participated in the circle and OB = 6 cm. The perimeter of
triangle BOC is 18 cm. Find ∠BAC.
MBA in district C is less than the number of
students that participated in JEE in district
F.
(c) The number of students that participated in
NEET in district E is less than the number of
students that participated in CUET in district
B.
(d) The number of students that participated in
(a) 200
JEE in district D is more than the number of
(b) 300
students that participated in NEET in district
(c) 250
B. (d) 350

50. In the diagram given below, ∠PQR = ∠QRS = 54. From a well shuffled pack of 52 cards, 4 cards
∠TUR = 900, PQ = 8 m, SR = 12 m, and UR = 6 are drawn at random with replacement. How
m. Find TU (in meter). many different combinations of cards can be
obtained?
(a) 52C4
(b) 524
(c) 26C4

(a) 4.2 m Read the following three passages and answer the items
(b) 3.6 m that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
(c) 4.8 m should be based on the passages only.
(d) 5.4 m Passage – 1
The government will reportedly introduce a revised
51. If x cm and y cm are the length and breadth of a
rectangle inscribed in an equilateral triangle of version of the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill in the
side 6 cm, then which of the following is the upcoming Monsoon session of Parliament. This is an
value of y? opportune moment for the government to consider
(a) (√3/2) (6 – x) making further improvements to the Bill. One of the
(b) (√3/2) (6 + x) provisions in an earlier version of the Bill concerned data
(c) (√3/2) (3 + x)
portability, which empowers users to “port” or transfer
(d) (√3/2) (3 – x)
their data across different platforms. The government
52. Ramesh distributed 148 t-shirts amongst 4 should bring back such a provision and also introduce an
orphanages in arithmetic progression, such that interoperability provision. Interoperability empowers
the product of the second and the third terms is users to escape the walled garden platforms that the
8 more than the product of the first and the last internet has currently siloed users into. Data portability
terms. What is the number of t-shirts given to the
and interoperability have several advantages. They will
third orphanage?
empower ordinary users or digital nagriks. Right now,
(a) 43
(b) 32 users online are powerless when it comes to the scope
(c) 38 and extent to which their data is collected, stored and
(d) 49 processed by data-hungry platforms. They have little
choice but to sign up for digital platforms that use their
53. Find the sum of the terms of a Geometric data carelessly, as evidenced by the recent spate of
Progression, if the first term is 4, the last term is
breaches in India. This is because they are dependent on
(1/64) and the common ratio is (1/2).
(a) 32 these platforms for essential services — everything from
(b) 51/2 education to employment. These platforms have become
(c) 74/7 chokepoints or gatekeepers that come in between users
(d) None of these and their friends, customers, constituents, etc.

55. Which of the following statements can be 56. What is the primary idea conveyed by the
inferred from the above passage? passage?
1. Data portability allows individuals to (a) Ladakh, typically a cold desert, received an
extreme amount of rainfall due to a unique
transfer their personal data across different interaction of western disturbance with the
services. active monsoon system, highlighting its
2. Online users have no control over the vulnerability to such weather events.
modalities of storage of their data. (b) The heavy rainfall in Ladakh is a regular
Select the correct answer using the code given event and does not cause any serious issues
to the landscape or its inhabitants.
below. (c) The primary concern about the heavy rains
(a) 1 only in Ladakh is the leakage in old houses,
(b) 2 only which are not built to withstand such
(c) Both 1 and 2 weather conditions.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) The rainfall in Ladakh occurs solely due to
the monsoon system.
The cold desert of Ladakh had a deluge of rains on July Halfway to the United Nations-mandated Sustainable
8 and 9, 2023, which has brought to the fore its Development Goals for 2030 agreed upon in 2015, the
vulnerabilities to extreme rainfall, a consequence of world is not on track to achieving the target of universal
global warming. The occurrence was part of the extreme and equitable access to safe and affordable drinking
water for all. Countries are also off-track on the target to
rainfall events all over north and northwest India due to ensure access to adequate and equitable sanitation and
a rare interaction of a western disturbance with the hygiene for all and ending open defecation, stated the
monsoon system, currently in an active mode over the World Health Organization (WHO) and UNICEF in a
country. “It rained here for almost 24 hours and some of new report released, July 6, 2023. Since 2015, the
coverage of safely managed drinking water has increased
the old houses have leakages now. These houses are not
from 69-73 per cent. There has been progress in both
adapted to such rainfall,” Sushant Guleria, a resident of rural and urban areas. But the rate of progress is slow and
Leh, told Down to Earth. “There are also small landslides far from what is needed. As a result, around 38 per cent
around Leh city. These heavy rains are disastrous for of the population in rural areas do not have access to safe
Ladakh’s vulnerable landscape,” Guleria added. The and affordable drinking water. In urban areas, 19 percent
of the population lacks access, according to the report.
Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh had a deficit in rainfall
Globally, 2.2 billion people still lack safely managed
of 21 percent on July 8, according to data from the India drinking water. This includes 1.5 billion with basic
Meteorological Department (IMD). Kargil district had a services, 292 million with limited services, 296 million
deficit of 77 per cent and Leh district had a deficit of 8 with unimproved and 115 million drinking surface
per cent. The region, being a cold desert, receives such water. So, achieving universal coverage to water by 2030
will require a six-fold increase in current rates of
meagre rainfall that the percentages of deficits can
progress for safely managed drinking water, the global
change pretty quickly. Between July 8 and July 9 (8:30 bodies wrote. While none of the eight SDG regions is on
am), the UT received 19.1 mm against the normal of 0.1 track to achieve universal access to clean and affordable
mm. This was more than 10,000 per cent of the normal drinking water and sanitation for all by 2030, sub-
rainfall. Now the absolute rainfall for the period June 1- Saharan Africa (SSA) is behind all. In 2022, just 31 per
cent of the population in SSA had safe drinking water in
July 9 is 24.1 mm as against the normal of 6.5 mm.
comparison to 73 percent globally. When 57 per cent of
Between July 8 and July 9, Kargil district received 21 the global population or 4.5 billion people used safely
mm rainfall against a normal of 0 mm and Leh district managed sanitation services, just 24 percent of the
received 18.5 mm against a normal of 0.1 mm. population in SSA had access, data showed.

57. Which of the following statements can be 61. Six boys and five girls of a class are to be seated
inferred from the above passage? in a row. In how many ways can the students be
1. Many countries are not being able to provide seated such that no two boys are together and no
universal hygiene to their citizens. two girls are seated together and the boys occupy
2. Achieving universal access to potable water the extreme ends?
by 2030 requires more intense effort. (a) 2 × 5! × 6!
Select the correct answer using the codes given (b) 5! × 5!
below. (c) 6! × 6!
(a) 1 only (d) None of the above
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 62. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 followed by a question.
S1: Sum of the interior angles of the polygon is
58. In a pack of 52 cards the Ace of diamond is (2n - 4) × 90°, where n is the number of sides of
replaced with an Ace of spade. From this pack, the polygon.
a card is drawn at random. What is the S2: One of the exterior angles of the regular
probability that the card drawn is from the spade polygon is 60°.
suit? Question: What is the number of sides in the
(a) 1/4 regular polygon?
(b) 1/2 Which one of the following is correct in respect
(c) 7/26 of the above Statements and the Question?
(d) 3/13 (a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
59. In a school, 70% of the students are below 20 (c) Both the statements are needed together to
years of age, in which 85% are girls and rest are answer the question.
boys. If the total number of girls below 20 years (d) Even both the statements together are not
is 5950, then what is the total number of students sufficient to answer the question.
in the school?
(a) 15000 63. In a cricket match each team consists of 11
(b) 12000 players. At the beginning of match, each of the
(c) 1500 players of one team shakes hand with all the
(d) None of these players of the second team and again at the end
of the match, each of the players of the winning
60. If the ratio of the volume of a sphere to the team shakes hand with all the players of the
surface area of the same sphere is 1:1, then what losing team. How many total handshakes were
is its volume? done in the process?
(a) 36 π cubic unit (a) 242
(b) 27 π cubic unit (b) 121
(c) 18 π cubic unit (c) 132
(d) 42 π cubic unit (d) 143

64. Kamlesh bought some pencils for ₹ 180. He sold 67. The students who scored more than 40 are called
all but 2 pencils for ₹ 160, making a profit of ₹ distinction students. Ram is one of the
2 per pencil. Find the number of pencils he distinction students. One of the distinction
bought. students is selected by lottery to represent the
(a) 18 class. What is the probability that Ram is
(b) 12 selected as the representative?
(c) 10
(a) 3/20
(d) 16
(b) 1/12
(c) 1/80
65. In a small game of lottery, 25 tickets are sold.
Out of the 25 tickets, 10 carry prizes and the
remaining are blank. What is the probability that
a person who bought a ticket wins a prize? 68. There are 5 different maths books, 4 different
(a) 1/25 physics books and 3 different chemistry books.
(b) 2/15 The number of ways in which at least one book
(c) 2/5 can be given away is:
(d) None of the above (a) (25 - 1) (24 - 1) (23 - 1)
(b) 212
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: (c) 212 – 1
Read the given table carefully and answer the 2 (two) (d) (25 - 1) (24 - 1) (23 - 1) – 1
items that follow:
The given table gives the marks distribution of the 69. There are 6 letters and corresponding 6
students in a class in a Maths test of 50 marks. Students
addressed envelopes. If the letters are placed into
who scored less than 10 are deemed failed in the test.
the envelops randomly (such that there is only
Marks Number of students
one letter in each envelope), then in how many
<10 12 ways can exactly two letters be placed into their
10-20 15 corresponding envelops?
21-30 20 (a) 125
31-40 21 (b) 145
(c) 135
41-50 12
(d) None of these
66. For a survey, one student of this class is called
at random to answer a few questions. What is the
probability that the summoned student has failed
Read the given information carefully and answer the 2
in the maths test?
(two) items that follow.
(a) 1/5
(b) 1/12 The numbers 1 through 20 are written on small chits, all
(c) 3/20 identical in shape and size and are placed in a bowl. One
(d) Cannot be determined. chit is drawn at random from the bowl.

70. What is the probability that the number written 72. Which one of the following statements best
on the chit is a multiple of 4? reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) 1/2 (a) The real villain behind India’s poor
investment and slow growth was the
(b) 1/4
“license raj”.
(c) 1/5
(b) For faster economic growth, India should
(d) 1/10 have adopted the LPG reforms just after
independence.
71. What is the probability that the number written (c) Without capitalism as a developmental
on the chit is a multiple of either 3 or of 5 but not model, industry-led growth is not possible.
of both? (d) India still faces the issues of inefficiency and
bureaucratic controls which hinder the
(a) 7/20
growth of the country.
(b) 9/20
Passage – 2
(c) 1/5
As professionals grow in their careers, they must be
(d) 2/5 continually developed to perform effectively and help
their organizations to be successful. Training in ethics is
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: an important part of the development of a professional
Read the following three passages and answer the items accountant. The ethical challenges faced by managers
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items will likely differ from those of more junior staff, so to be
effective, ethics training should be tailored for the
appropriate level of staff. Furthermore, since
Passage – 1
professional accountants accept a responsibility to act in
India, after achieving independence from British rule in the public interest, their actions go well beyond
1947, pursued socialist-minded development plans that satisfying the needs of an individual client or employer,
emphasized self-reliance and state-led investment in so relevant ethical training must be sufficiently broad.
heavy capital-intensive industries. The “license raj” was 73. Which one of the following statements best
created in which most imports required government reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) Professional accountants must not only be
approval, most investments required government
trained in ethics, but ethics must play a
permission, and most foreign investments were barred.
critical role in their selection as well.
The government put into place a stringent quantitative
(b) Without ethical values, it will be impossible
restriction (QR) to restrict imports to the amount of for professionals and organizations to grow.
foreign exchange available. Imports of only those goods (c) Uniform training of staff in ethical values
were allowed that were considered essential and were not will not serve the objectives of any
produced at home. Under restricted trade, India organization.
(d) In an organization, ethical values vary from
succeeded in industrializing, but inefficiency and
profession to profession, but ethical training
bureaucratic controls were rampant and economic
is important. This applies to professional
growth was slow.
accountants too.

Passage – 3 76. There are 7 red balls, 6 blue balls and 5 green
Agricultural and climate risk insurance breaks the balls. The number of ways in which one or more
vicious cycle of risks, shocks and poverty traps that balls can be chosen is:
prevent rural people from strengthening their livelihoods (a) 300
and improving their lives. The unique advantage of (b) 288
insurance is that it can transfer otherwise unmanageable (c) 336
risks away from farmers, businesses, and countries. But (d) 335
insurance does more than that; when used with other
tools and techniques as part of a holistic approach, it can
create a virtuous cycle that enables farming families to
produce, earn and invest more, and to build their assets
and their resilience. Access to insurance can increase
Passage – 1
farmers’ willingness to make riskier and potentially Habitat loss and degradation, and their interaction with
more profitable investments, thereby building their other threats, are driving declines in animal populations
businesses. worldwide. One potential approach for mitigating these
74. Which one of the following statements best threats is to create artificial habitat structures as
reflects the underlying message of the passage? substitutes for lost or degraded natural structures. The
(a) Merely offering insurance will not suffice, design of these structures must be well informed by the
India needs effective insurance penetration. drivers of natural habitat selection, and their use should
(b) For the farmer's benefit, along with be part of an experimental framework to enable
providing climate risk insurance, the claims evaluation and refinement. It is important to highlight
must be timely disbursed. possible ecological risks associated with the use of
(c) The vehicle of climate risk insurance can artificial habitat structures and urge that they are not
break the vicious cycle of risks, shocks and exploited as inappropriate biodiversity offsets or for
poverty traps for rural people and make greenwashing. Looking forward, cross-disciplinary
them climate resilient. collaborations will facilitate the development of
sophisticated and effective structures to assist animal
(d) Agriculture in India is risky, so, climate risk
conservation in this era of rapid global change.
insurance gives the required confidence to
the farmer for building their businesses.
1. Artificial habitats can be misused as
75. A bag of coins contain five coins of gold, six
disguises for circumventing real wildlife
coins of silver and seven coins of bronze. All the conservation measures.
coins are of the same shape and size. A person 2. The concept of artificial habitats needs
draws a coin and finds it to be a bronze coin. continuous research for better
What is the probability that the next coin that he implementation.
draws is not of bronze? Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 11/18 (a) 1 only
(b) 6/17 (b) 2 only
(c) 11/18 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 11/17 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. With reference to the passage, which one of the 79. Which of the following statements best reflects
following statements is correct?
the crux of the passage?
(a) Artificial habitats for the conservation of
(a) The faster dissemination of information
wildlife are only a short-term measure and
not long-term. helps in the development of compassion
(b) Creation of artificial habitats will still not after natural disasters.
address the anthropogenic causes of wildlife
(b) Compassion is a necessary value in dealing
losses.
(c) The creation of artificial habitats is the only with disaster trauma in a community.
practical way for the conservation of (c) Natural disasters help one forget the past,
endangered species.
and develop a sense of community among
(d) The successful implementation of artificial
habitats lies in the understanding of factors victims.
of natural habitat selection. (d) Both (a) and (b)
Passage – 2
In the event of a natural disaster, the affected residents
need information from various sources and media so that 80. Two friends are playing a game with two similar
their panic does not last long. The most needed dices. As per the rules, each of the players
information is fast assistance, shelter, and logistics.
throws the dices one by one. The person who
Disasters on the one hand are the cause of damage and
destruction of various facilities, and the occurrence of gets a sum of either 8 or 10 on the single throw
victims in families, but on the other hand, natural of two dices wins the game. What are the total
disasters have caused compassion and have been
possible number of ways in which a player can
recognized by 78.6% of respondents from the total
number of victims interviewed in a study, who before the get a winning score?
disaster were among those who were hostile, did not (a) 4
communicate with each other, even hated each other.
(b) 5
Natural disasters unite their hearts and strengthen the
embrace of disaster through ecological communication (c) 6
among victims. (d) 8

IAS.

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

1 (d)
The passage mostly covers the entertainment, social and financial aspects of Bollywood.
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The context of the propagation of Indian culture abroad is not a part of the
passage. Therefore, this assumption is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The context of the competition of Bollywood with other film industries is not
covered in the passage. Hence, this assumption is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct as per
the passage.
2 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. Indian cinema is one of the most influential and powerful tools to address various
social issues. It is incorrect to say that the impact of Bollywood on society is miniscule. So, this statement
does not quite capture the crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The lines “It is the world’s largest film industry in terms of the number of films
produced, but not in terms of its financial returns” cannot be taken to imply poor or unviable financial
returns. The author only says that Bollywood is not the world leader in terms of financial returns on movies.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of quality films is not a message of this passage. Only the quantity is
mentioned in the line “To satisfy the 14 million Indians who go to the cinema every day, the Indian film
industry produces more than 1,000 films every year.” Furthermore, Bollywood is already one of the most
influential and powerful tools to address various social issues. So, the second part of the statement is also
incorrect. This means that the given option is not correct as per the passage.
Option (d) is correct. The given option is correct because the passage clearly mentions, “Since its inception
in 1913, film has been a vital medium for the communication of social insights and conditions”. Hence,
cinema can be aptly called a mirror of society.
3 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage only focuses on dreams which are related to past events as given in
the line - “According to the hypothesis, since dreams frequently represent events that occurred (past) while
a person was awake”. The context of dreams about the future is not a part of the passage and hence not
correct.
Option (b) is correct. Refer to the lines, “While we dream, the brain is shifting between the information it
should store and the information it should forget. Our mind also generates images and tales to best organise
all this activity to forward the process”. This explains that the brain works on memory while we are
dreaming. Therefore, the given option is closer to the essence of the passage, and hence it is the correct
answer.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because it states that the decision of storing or
forgetting is based on the dreams we see. But, the line “While we dream, the brain is shifting between the
information it should store and the information it should forget” only mentions that such exercise of storing
and forgetting is done while one dreams. It is not ‘based’ on the dreams one sees during sleep. Hence, the
given option is not correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The context of the quality of dreams and their relationship with memory
consolidation is not discussed in the passage. Hence, the given option is not correct as per the passage.

4 (c)
When a die is thrown, the probability of getting a 5 is 1/6.
Probability of not getting 5 is = 1 – 1/6 = 5/6
Probability of getting 5 exactly twice in seven throws = 7C2 (5/6)5 (1/6)2
= [(7 × 6)/2] × (1/36) × (5/6)5 = (7/12) × (5/6)5
5 (b)
The bag contains only red and green balls.
The number of balls that are not red = number of balls that are green = 5
Probability that one ball chosen randomly is green = Number of green balls / Total number of balls = 5/12
6 (b)
The total number of ways of selecting two students out of 10 students = 10C2 = (10 × 9)/2 = 45
The number of ways two adjacent students may get selected is 9, i.e. (1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5), (5, 6), (6,
7), (7, 8), (8, 9) and (9, 10).
So, the required probability = 9/45 = 1/5
7 (c)
Let CD be the height of the tower, and A and B be two points on the ground.
From ΔACD,
tan 750 = 200/x
⇒ 2 + √3 = 200/x
⇒ x = 200/(2 + √3)
⇒ x = 200 × (2 - √3)/[(2 + √3) (2 - √3)]
⇒ x = 200 (2 - √3) m
From Δ BCD,
tan 150 = 200/y
⇒ 2 - √3 = 200/y
⇒ y = 200/(2 - √3)
⇒ y = 200 × (2 + √3) / [(2 - √3) (2 + √3)]
⇒ y = 200 (2 + √3)
Distance AB = x + y = 200(2 - √3) + 200(2 + √3) = 200 (2 - √3 + 2 + √3) = 200 × 4 = 800 m
8 (c)
From S1,
We know the angle of elevation and the distance. So, we can find the height of the tower.
From S2,
We know the angle of elevation of the middle of the tree and the distance. So, we can find the height of
the tree.
∴ Using both the statements together, we can find which one is taller.

9 (b)
The number of line segments that can be drawn by joining 4 points with each of the remaining 6 points =
4 × 6 = 24.
10 (c)
As the numbers lie between 40,000 and 70,000, the first digit could be 4 or 6.
The last two digits of the numbers who are divisible by 4 could be 00, 04, 08, 16, 36, 40, 44, 48, 60, 64,
68, 76, 80, 84, 88.
Thus last 2 digits can be selected in 15 ways.
The second and third digits can be selected in 7 × 7 ways.

∴ The total number of such numbers = 2 × (7)2 × 15 = 1470
11 (a)
The various ways in which we can distribute ten pens are:
Chotu Bipin Ananya
1 2 7
1 3 6
1 4 5
2 3 5
∴ Only 4 such ways exist.

12 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage highlights various non-nutritional dimensions of food –
environmental, economic, workers’ rights related etc. However, the passage does not discuss
underestimation or overestimation with regards to these aspects of food. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option (b) is incorrect. The given option is partially correct due to the second part. However, the first part
about food connecting the heads and hearts is not correct as the passage does not mention anything as such.
The second part (food connects continents, states and people) has been mentioned in the context of fairness
and equity in the global food market. Hence, the given option is not correct as per the passage. Also, as we
will see later, option (d) stands out as a much better crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option presents the solutions to the issues highlighted in the passage.
So, this could be a rational implication of the passage. However, it is not the crux of the passage as the
central theme of the passage deals more with the problems related to food and discussions arising thereof.
Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is correct. The major discussion in the passage is about the issues related to food, as seen in the
line, “Food is at the centre (root cause) of several funding questions for political philosophy”. The questions
framed in the passage represent issues of different dimensions - environment, trade and human resources.
Hence, this option best captures the essence of the passage.
13 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect. Refer to the following lines “like water conservation, drought and flood control,
irrigation, energy requirements, and food security; however, they also have major socioeconomic and
environmental drawbacks” and “However, the study shows that large dams are not fulfilling the irrigation
requirements of different states in India.” These lines highlight not just the peripheral issues (socioeconomic
and environmental problems) of dams, but also their inadequacy in solving the intended objective
(irrigation). However, it would be incorrect to say that environmental drawbacks of large dams have
“overshadowed” the benefits they were intended to serve. The passage does not provide us a comparative
analysis of the benefits and drawbacks of large dams.
Inference 2 is incorrect. The line, “We need to change our path which is majorly large dam-driven and
should also implement cost-effective, environment-friendly, and socially acceptable measures to conserve
water and alleviate water scarcity.” talks about the desired change in policies related to large dams.
However, nowhere does it say that we should refrain from investing more in the construction of large dams.
Just that we should focus on other solutions too.
14 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The context of the burden on the state exchequer is not discussed in the passage.
Therefore, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Option (b) is incorrect. There is no discussion in the passage on how micro irrigation techniques will solve
issues concerning large dams, or on quality of soil. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage
and is not correct.
Option (c) is incorrect. Dams have major socioeconomic and environmental drawbacks. The last line of
the passage also highlights the social aspects. Therefore, it would be incorrect to say that non-core aspects
like socioeconomic development and environmental protection can be ignored.
Option (d) is correct. Refer to the lines, “…however, they also have major socioeconomic and
environmental drawbacks” and “However, the study shows that large dams are not fulfilling the irrigation
requirements of different states in India. We need to change our path which is majorly large dam-driven
and should also implement cost-effective, environment-friendly, and socially acceptable measures to
conserve water and alleviate water scarcity.” The author clearly recommends finding alternatives to large
dams. This confirms that the future of water conservation, irrigation, energy requirements, and food security
should not only be dependent on large dams. So, this option best captures the essence of the passage.
15 (a)
Let the number of patients that got admitted in hospital A in October = Number of patients that got
admitted in hospital C in September = x
So, required ratio = (42x/100) : (56x/100) = 3:4
16 (b)
11x + 135 is divisible by x. It means that 135 is divisible by x, or x is a factor of 135.
Now, 135 = 33 × 5
So, x can be 1, 3, 9, 27, 5, 15, 45 and 135. So, a total of 8 possible values.
17 (d)
Required percentage = [(1200 – 1130)/1130] × 100 = (70/1130) × 100 = 6.19%

18 (d)
Total ration distributed by agency Q in 2005, 2006 and 2007 = 330 + 180 + 410 = 920
Total ration distributed by agency R in 2004, 2005 and 2006 = 290 + 290 + 220 = 800
Required percentage = (920/800) ×100 = 115%
19 (d)
The probability that Ram gets selected in CSE, P(R)] = 2/3
∴ Probability that Ram is not selected in CSE, P(R̅) = (1 – 2/3) = 1/3
The probability that Mohan gets selected in CSE, P(M) = 5/8
∴ Probability that Mohan is not selected in CSE, P(M̅) = (1 – 5/8) = 3/8
The probability that Sita gets selected in CSE, P(S) = 4/7
∴ Probability that Sita is not selected in CSE, P(𝑆̅) = (1 – 4/7) = 3/7
Probability that exactly two friends get selected in CSE = (2/3) × (5/8) × (3/7) + (2/3) × (4/7) × (3/8) +
(1/3) × (5/8) × (4/7) = (5/28) + (1/7) + (5/42) = 37/84
20 (c)
Probability of wining a car = 0.30
Probability of winning a bike = 0.38
So, probability of winning a car or a bike = 0.30 + 0.38 = 0.68
21 (b)
Total number of green faces = 2.
Total number of faces = 6
Probability that green face appears as the top face = 2/6 = 1/3
22 (b)
Let the value of the prices be x, x− 50, x − 100, .....
This is an arithmetic sequence with first term, a = x and common difference, d = −50. Number of terms
are n = 7.
Now, Sum total of cash prizes = Rs. 5600 = (n/2) [2a + (n - 1)d]
⇒ 5600 = (7/2) [2x + (7 – 1) × (- 50)]
⇒ 5600 = (7/2) [2x + 6 × (- 50)]
⇒ 5600 = (7/2) [2x – 300]
⇒ 11200/7 = 2x – 300
⇒ 1600 = 2x – 300
⇒ 2x = 1600 + 300
⇒ x = 1900/2
⇒ x = Rs. 950
Therefore, the highest prize is x = Rs. 950
3rd highest prize = x – 100 = 950 – 100 = Rs. 850
23 (b)
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The author mentions that cities are disproportionately wealthy. The complex
interlinkage of urbanisation and poverty levels is also discussed in the passage. However, the distribution
of urban wealth in rural areas is nowhere indicated in the passage. The author only talks about the rural-
urban gaps in poverty. Therefore, this assumption is not correct as per the information given in the passage.

Assumption 2 is correct. Refer to the lines “By contrast, levels of urbanization were either unrelated to
measures of poverty and rural-urban gaps or had a nonlinear effect where, initially, increases in
urbanization likewise led to improvements in those measures, but at higher levels of urbanization,
increases in urbanization exacerbated urban poverty and rural-urban gaps.” Lower levels of urbanisation
may help reduce the rural-urban gaps in poverty. Hence, this assumption is valid.
24 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The concept of the trickle-down effect is not a part of the passage. Therefore, the
context of the growth of urban areas resulting in the growth of rural regions is not a part of the passage.
Hence, as per the passage, this option is not correct.
Option (b) is incorrect. The line, “… initially, increases in urbanization likewise led to improvements in
those measures, but at higher levels of urbanization, increases in urbanization exacerbated urban poverty
and rural-urban gaps.” talk about the ill effects of urbanization. However, to conclude and state that
governments should not focus on urbanization will be an extreme statement to make. The problem probably
is “rapid urbanization”, as mentioned in the last line, “…. rapid/excessive urbanization can lead to greater
poverty and inequality. ” Therefore, this option is not correct. This makes option (d) incorrect too.
Option (c) is correct. Refer to the lines, “Cities are disproportionately wealthy, a key reason why the world
is becoming more urban. Yet, cities are associated with poverty, too” and “…but at higher levels of
urbanization, increases in urbanization exacerbated urban poverty and rural-urban gaps.” These show that
excessive urbanization can backfire. Rural areas should also get their share of development. Therefore, it is
correct to say that development of rural areas cannot be ignored for the sake of urbanisation.
25 (d)
Statement 1 is not correct. The passage mentions several reasons for the Polar Motion. “The excessive
extraction of groundwater for drinking and irrigation has shifted the Earth’s axis of rotation”. “There are
several other reasons responsible for polar motion like ocean currents and even hurricanes”. “…climate-
driven changes in water mass distribution, led by the melting of glaciers and ice in Greenland, can cause
Earth’s axis to drift”. However, the passage does not mention that climate change is the most dominant
factor for the shift in the earth’s axis of rotation. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement 2 is not correct. Nowhere in the passage is it mentioned that drought has occurred in some
regions of the world due to over-extraction of groundwater. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
26 (b)
Statement (a) is not correct. In the passage, there is no mention of the shifting of climate belts along with
the planet’s axis. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement (b) is correct. The central theme of the passage is that Polar motion is caused due to multiple
factors including groundwater extraction. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement (c) is not correct. Though Polar Motion is also caused by climate change; the passage does not
mention that polar motion can be prevented with control of climate change. Other reasons for Polar Motion
include ocean currents, hurricanes, and groundwater extraction. The passage says that “Scientists for years
have known that the poles and the axis keep shifting naturally as the mass distribution in and on the
planet changes”. This implies that the earth’s axis keeps shifting naturally and even if climate change is
controlled Polar Motion will continue to occur. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement (d) is not correct. The passage revolves around the theme of shift in the earth’s axis of rotation.
It does not even mention irrigation of any kind. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
27 (b)
Let the ages of Ram and Shyam be x and y respectively.
Given, x/y = 7/8
or x = 7y/8 -------(i)
After 2 years,
(x + 2)/(y + 2) = 9/10 ---------(ii)
⇒ 10 (x + 2) = 9(y + 2)
⇒ 10x + 20 = 9y + 18
Putting x = 7y/8 from eqn. (i), we get:
10 × (7y/8) + 20 = 9y + 18
⇒ (70y/8) + 20 = 9y + 18
⇒ 9y – (70y/8) = 2
⇒ 2y/8 = 2
⇒ y=8
And x = 7y/8 = (7 × 8)/8 = 7
Hence, after 12 years their age ratio, (x + 12)/(y + 12) = (7 + 12)/(8 + 12) = 19/20
28 (b)
Total three digit numbers that can be formed using the given digits = 5 × 5 × 4 = 100
The units place can have either 0 or 5 for the number to be divisible by 5.
Total numbers having 0 as units digit = 5 × 4 = 20
Total numbers having 5 as units digit = 4 × 4 = 16
So, total numbers divisible by 5 = 20 + 16 = 36
Hence, required probability = 36/100 = 9/25
29 (a)
There are 5 letters of which ‘R’ is repeated twice.
Number of distinct combinations that can be formed from these letters = 5!/2 = 60
30 (a)
Let the radius of the circle be r cm.
Let the length and the breadth of the rectangle be l cm and b cm respectively.
The circumference of the circle and the perimeter of the rectangle are in the ratio of π : 2.
So, (2 πr)/[2 (l + b)] = π/2
Or (π/2) [2 (l + b)] = 2 πr
Or π (l + b) = 2 πr
Or l + b = 2r
Radius of the circle equals one of the sides of the rectangle.
If l = r, then b = r
If b = r, then l = r
In either case, l = b = r
Required ratio = πr2 : lb = πr2 : r×r = π : 1
31 (b)
Let O be the centre of the circle, and D be the midpoint of BC.
Let us denote the radius of the circle by r.
,
Since, ∠A = 600 and chord AB and AC have the same length.
So, ∠B = ∠C = (1800 - 600)/2 = 600
Thus, ∠A = ∠B = ∠C = 600. So ΔABC is an equilateral triangle.
By symmetry, the center of the equilateral triangle coincides with the center of the circle, and the distance
from the center of the equilateral triangle to any of its vertices is equal to the radius of the circle.
So, OB = OC = r
OD must be a perpendicular to BC.
OB and OC will bisect ∠B and ∠C respectively.
BD = OB cos 300 = r × √3/2
Length of the side of the equilateral triangle, BC = 2 BD = 2(r × √3/2) = r√3
Area of Δ ABC = (√3/4) (r√3)2 = (3√3r2)/4
Combined area of all the three unshaded segments lying outside the shaded triangle = Area of the circle –
Area of the triangle = π r2 – (3 √3 r2)/ 4
All these three unshaded segments must be equal in area.
So, Combined area of any two of these three segments = (2/3) [πr2 – (3√3r2)/4]
Percentage of the area of the circle that is not shaded = (Unshaded area / Area of circle) × 100%
= [(2 r2/3) [π – 3√3/4] / πr2] × 100
= (2/3) (4π – 3√3) / 4π] × 100
= (2/3) [(12.56 – 5.2) / 12.56] × 100 = 39% (approx.)
32 (d)
S1 alone is not sufficient, as it only gives the relationship between the two sides.
S2 alone is also not sufficient as breadth is not known.
Using both the statements together:
As the length is p cm, the breadth will be √p cm (if p>1), or p2 (if p < 1)
∴ The possible area of the rectangle = p3 or p√p.
So, unique area of the rectangle cannot be found.
33 (d)
Total earnings of P = 340 + 350 + 420 + 410 + 390 = Rs. 1910
Total earnings of Q = 250 + 280 + 220 + 350 + 300 = Rs. 1400
Total earnings of R = 280 + 260 + 360 + 400 + 380 = Rs. 1680
Total earnings of S = 450 + 360 + 280 + 320 + 420 = Rs. 1830
Total earnings of T = 380 + 400 + 400 + 420 + 460 = Rs. 2060
Total earnings of U = 470 + 420 + 300 + 390 + 280 = Rs. 1860
total earnings of V = 400 + 350 + 320 + 280 + 350 = Rs. 1700
Required difference = 2060 – 1400 = Rs. 660
34 (a)
Average earning of all persons in city B = (350 + 280 + 260 + 360 + 400 + 420 + 350)/7 = 2420/7
Average earning of all persons in city D = (410 + 350 + 400 + 320 + 420 + 390 + 280)/7 = 2570/7
Required ratio = (2420/7)/(2570/7) = 242/257 = 242 : 257

35 (b)
Total number of people who do not consume alcohol = 24000 × (20/80) + 36000 × (40/60) + 45000 ×
(25/75) + 12000 × (60/40) + 25000 × (75/25)
= 300 × 20 + 600 × 40 + 600 × 25 + 300 × 60 + 1000 × 75
= 6000 + 24000 + 15000 + 18000 + 75000
= 1,38,000
36 (d)
Length of the canvas = 23 cm
Breadth of the canvas = 17 cm
Length of the painting excluding the border line = [23 - (1.5 + 1.5)] cm = 20 cm
Breadth of the painting excluding the border line = 17 - (1.5 + 1.5) = 14 cm
Area of the painting excluding the border line = (20 × 14) cm² = 280 cm²
37 (b)
Probability that the answer is correct, P = 1/2
Probability that the answer is incorrect, Q = (1 - 1/2) = 1/2
Probability that 6 or more answers are correct = (7C6) × Q × P6 + (7C7) × P7
= (7C6) × (1/2) × (1/2)6 + 1 × (1/2)7
= 7 × (1/2) × (1/2)6 + (1/2)7
= (7/2) × (1/64) + 1/128
= (7/128) + (1/128)
= 8/128
= 1/16
38 (b)
Total balls faced by Ambati = 300 balls
Dot balls played by him = 180 balls
Probability that a ball played by Ambati was a dot ball = 180/300 = 18/30 = 3/5 = 0.6
39 (c)
Statement 1 is correct. No country has been able to land a spacecraft on the lunar south pole. Prior
spacecrafts have all made equatorial landings on the Moon, a few degrees either north or south of the lunar
equator. The passage says, “If everything goes well, the Chandrayaan-3 will become the world’s first
mission to soft-land near the lunar south pole”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct. China's Chang'e 4 is the first spacecraft to touch down on the opposite side of the
moon. It is clearly mentioned in the passage that “Even China’s Chang’e 4, which became the first
spacecraft to land on the far side of the moon — the side that does not face the earth — landed near the 45-
degree latitude”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
40 (a)
Statement 1 is correct. The passage says, “Many parts lie in a completely dark region where sunlight never
reaches”. Hence, it is a correct option.
Statement 2 is correct. In the polar regions of the moon, the temperature is extremely low. Hence, it creates
difficulty in operations. The passage says, “…lack of sunlight and extremely low temperatures create
difficulty in the operation of instruments”. Hence, it is a correct option.

Statement 3 is correct. The presence of craters on the lunar poles makes it difficult for any spacecraft to
operate. The passage says “…there are large craters all over the place, ranging from a few centimetres in
size to those extending to several thousands of kilometres”. Hence, it is a correct option.
Statement 4 is not correct. The absence of steep slopes is a feature of the equatorial region of the moon,
which makes it easy for operations of instruments. According to the passage, “The surface here is even and
smooth, very steep slopes are almost absent, and there are fewer hills or craters”. Hence, it is not a correct
option.
Statement 5 is not correct. The passage makes no mention of the fact that the landing of spacecraft is
challenging in polar areas due to gravity. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
41 (b)
Option (a) is not correct. The passage discusses the issues of carbon emissions and how CDR and CCS
will control carbon emissions which in turn will control global warming. It nowhere mentions that CCS will
make the lithosphere unstable. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Option (b) is correct. The passage talks about CCS and CDR with regards to controlling carbon emissions.
According to IPCC, both techniques will be needed for controlling carbon emissions. Hence, it is a correct
statement.
Option (c) is not correct. The passage mentions two techniques (CDR and CSS) for controlling carbon
emissions. Nowhere does it mention that one technique is more efficient than the other. Hence, it is not a
correct statement.
Option (d) is not correct. The passage talks about the control of carbon emission by CDR and CSS, but
does not mention global warming being an existential threat to humanity. Hence, it is not a correct
statement.
42 (b)
Let present ages of Shikha and Rudra be x and y respectively.
So, x + y = 62
Or x = 62 - y
6 years ago, the age of Shikha = x - 6
6 years ago, the age of Rudra = y - 6
6 years ago, the age of Shikha was 4 times that of Rudra.
So, x - 6 = 4(y - 6)
Or x - 6 = 4y - 24
Or 4y - x = 18
Or 4y - (62 - y) = 18 (since, x = 62 - y)
Or 5y - 62 = 18
Or 5y = 80
Or y = 80/5 = 16
Now, x = 62 - y = 62 - 16 = 46
Difference between the present ages of Shikha and Rudra = 46 - 16 = 30 years
43 (c)
Let Ram’s age = x years
Shyam’s age = 2x years
Ghanshyam’s age = (x+17) years
x + 2x + (x + 17) = 185
⇒ 4x = 185 – 17
⇒ x = 168/4
⇒ x = 42
Ram’s age = x = 42 years
Shyam’s age = 2x = 84 years.
Ghanshyam’s age = x + 17 = 42 + 17 = 59 years
44 (c)
By looking at the graph we can say that only 10% people of 50-64 age group use Micro-Blogging to get
daily news.
45 (a)
Total number of students that participated in NEET in districts A, B and C = 13500 + 10600 + 15400 =
39500
Total number of students that participated in MBA in districts D, E and G = 8600 + 11200 + 25600 =
45400
Required percent = (39500/45400) × 100 = 87% (approx..)
46 (c)
The number of students that participated in NEET in district E is not less than the number of students that
participated in CUET in district B. So, option (c) cannot be concluded.
47 (a)
Here, a = 500, d = 50
Let the time in which the entire loan is cleared be n months.
So, (n/2) [2 × 500 + (n – 1) 50] = 25800
⇒ 50n2 + 950n – 51600 = 0
⇒ n2 + 19n – 1032 = 0
Solving the equation, we get:
n = 24
So, Last installment = The amount paid in 24th month = a + 23d = 500 + (23 × 50) = Rs. 1650
48 (d)
Let common ratio be r.
So, the terms are 1, r, r2
Using statement-1:
1 + r + r2 = 21
⇒ r2 + r – 20 = 0
⇒ (r + 5) (r – 4) = 0
⇒ r = -5, or r = 4
If r = 4, the numbers are 1, 4 and 16.
The middle term is 4.
Statement 1 alone is sufficient.
Using statement-2:
1 × r × r2 = 64
⇒ r3 = 64
⇒r=4
The middle term is 4.
∴ Statement 2 alone is sufficient.
Thus, either statement-1 alone or statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
49 (b)
OB = OC = 6 cm (∵ the radii are equal)

The perimeter of the triangle BOC = OB + OC + BC = 18 cm
Or 6 + 6 + BC = 18 cm
Or BC = 6 cm.
So, OB = OC = BC
∴ Triangle BOC is an equilateral triangle.
So, ∠BOC = 600
Now, ∠BOC = 2 ∠BAC
(As the angle subtended by a chord at centre of a circle is always twice the angle it subtends at any point
on the circumference in the same segment as that in which the centre lies)
∴ ∠BAC = ∠BOC/2 = 600/2 = 300
50 (c)
∠PQR = ∠QRS = ∠TUR = 900

PQ = 8 m, SR = 12 m, UR = 6 m
In Δ TUR and ΔPQR, ∠R is common.
Also, ∠TUR = ∠PQR = 900
∴ Δ TUR ~ ΔPQR
∴ TU/PQ = UR/QR
Or TU × QR = UR × PQ ....(1)
Similarly, ΔTUQ~ ΔSRQ
∴ TU/SR = QU/QR
Or TU × QR = QU × SR ....(2)
From equations (1) and (2):
UR × PQ = QU × SR
Or 6 × 8 = QU × 12
Or QU = 6 × 8/12 = 4 m
QR = QU + UR = 4 + 6 = 10 m
Now, TU/SR = QU/QR
⇒ TU/12 = 4/10
⇒ TU = 4.8 m
51 (a)
BC = 6 cm, PS = x cm, RS = y cm
BP = CS = (6 - x)/2 cm
∠C = 600 (equilateral triangle)
In triangle CSR,
tan 600 = RS/CS
⇒ √3 = y/[(6 - x)/2]
⇒ y = (√3/2) (6 – x)
52 (c)
Let the distributed t-shirts be a-3d, a-d, a+d and a+3d
∴ Sum of the number of distributed t-shirts = a – 3d + a – d + a + d + a + 3d = 148
⇒ 4a = 148
⇒ a = 37
(a – d) (a + d) = (a – 3d) (a + 3d) + 8
⇒ a2 – d2 = a2 – 9d2 + 8
⇒ 8d2 = 8
⇒ d2 = 1
⇒d=±1
For d = 1,
T-shirts distributed to the third orphanage = a + d = 37 + 1 = 38
For d = -1
T-shirts distributed to the third orphanage = 37 – 1 = 36
53 (d)
First term = 4, Last term = 1/64, Common ratio, r = 1/2
The sum of the terms of a G.P. = [first term – r × last term]/(1 – r)
= [4 – (1/2) × (1/64)] / (1 – 1/2)
= [4 – (1/128)] / (1/2)
= [(512 – 1)/128)] × 2
= 511/64
54 (b)
As the cards are replaced after every drawing, on every instance, one card is drawn from a pack of 52
cards.
Number of ways of drawing the first card = Number of ways of drawing the second card = Number of
ways of drawing the third card = Number of ways of drawing the fourth card = 52
Total number of ways of drawing 4 cards = 524
55 (c)
Inference 1 is correct. The previous version of the Bill had a clause relating to data portability, which
allows users to transfer their data across platforms. The passage says, “One of the provisions in an earlier
version of the Bill concerned data portability, which empowers users to “port” or transfer their data across
different platforms”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Inference 2 is correct. Internet users do not have any control over where and how much of their data is
saved. The passage says, “…users online are powerless when it comes to the scope and extent to which
their data is collected, stored and processed by data-hungry platforms”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
56 (a)
Option (a) is the correct answer. The passage mainly discusses the occurrence of unusual and extreme
rainfall in Ladakh which is typically known as a cold desert. This rainfall was due to a unique combination
of a western disturbance and the monsoon system. This event has exposed Ladakh's vulnerability to such
extreme weather phenomena. This answer option captures all these arguments. Therefore, it is correct.
Option (b) is incorrect because, as mentioned in the passage, Ladakh, being a cold desert, usually has a
meagre rainfall. The passage points out that the recent extreme rainfall is an anomaly, and it has caused
problems such as leakages in houses and small landslides, indicating its impact on the landscape and
inhabitants.
Option (c) is also incorrect as it is overly focused on one specific problem caused by the heavy rain –
leakages in old houses. While this issue was mentioned in the passage, it's not the central theme. The passage
primarily discusses the unusual occurrence of such extreme rainfall in Ladakh and its implications for the
region.
Option (d) is incorrect as the passage clearly states that the extreme rainfall in Ladakh was due to a "rare
interaction of a western disturbance with the monsoon system" indicating that it was not solely due to the
monsoon system.

57 (c)
Statement 1 is correct. The report claims that countries are falling short of achieving their SDGs. The
passage clearly mentions, “Countries are also off-track on the target to ensure access to adequate and
equitable sanitation and hygiene for all and ending open defecation”. The passage further says, “There has
been progress in both rural and urban areas. But the rate of progress is slow and far from what is needed”.
Hence, it is correct to say that many countries are not able to provide universal hygiene to their citizens.
Statement 2 is correct. Although achieving the objectives of universal access to water is still far off, there
are global efforts to accomplish them. The passage says, “So, achieving universal coverage to water by
2030 will require a six-fold increase in current rates of progress for safely managed drinking water, the
global bodies wrote”. This highlights the scale and intensity of efforts required to ensure universal access
to clean drinking water. Therefore, this answer option is correct.
58 (c)
As the Ace of diamond is replaced with an Ace of spade.
So, total number of spades = 14
Total number of cards = 52
Probability that one card drawn randomly is a spade = 14/52 = 7/26
59 (d)
Let total students in the school be x.
Number of girls below 20 years = 5950
70% of the students are below 20 years of age, in which 85% are girls and rest are boys.
85% of 70% of x = 5950
⇒ x × (70/100) × (85/100) = 5950
⇒ x = 5950 × 10000/(70 × 85)
⇒ x = 10,000
60 (a)
Let the radius of sphere be 'r' unit.
Volume of sphere = (4/3) πr3
Surface area of sphere = 4πr2
Now, (4/3) πr3 / 4 πr2 = 1/1
Or r/3 = 1
Or r = 3
∴ Volume of the sphere = (4/3) π(3)3 = 36 π cubic unit
61 (d)
The boys are seated at the extreme ends and the girls are seated in the five places between the six boys.
The arrangement is something as shown in the arrangement shown below:
B, G, B, G, B, G, B, G, B, G, B
Number of ways of seating 6 boys in 6 places = 6!
Number of ways of seating 5 girls in 5 places = 5!
Total number of ways of seating 11 students = 6! × 5!

62 (b)
From S1:
Sum of interior angles of the polygon is (2n - 4) × 900, where n is the number of sides of the polygon.
It is always true for any regular polygon.
Here, we can't find the number of sides in the regular polygon, because the sum of interior angles of the
polygon is not given.
Thus, S1 alone is not sufficient.
From S2:
One of its exterior angles of the regular polygon = 600
∴ The number of sides = 3600/600 = 6
∴ Thus, S2 alone is sufficient.
63 (a)
In the beginning, all the players shake hands with all the players of the other team.
So, one player shakes hands with 11 players.
All the 11 players shakes hands with all the other 11 players.
Total number of handshakes = 11 × 11 = 121
At the end of the match, the same process is repeated,
Total number of handshakes at the end of the match = 121
So, Total number of handshakes done = 121 + 121 = 242
64 (c)
Let the number of pencils bought by Kamlesh be Rs. x and cost of each pencil be Rs. y.
∴ xy = 180
Also, (x – 2) (y + 2) = 160
⇒ xy – 2y + 2x – 4 = 160
⇒ 180 – 2 (180/x) + 2x – 164 = 0 (since, xy = 180)
⇒ 16 – (360/x) + 2x = 0
⇒ 8 – (180/x) + x = 0
Multiplying both sides by x, we get:
x2 + 8x – 180 = 0
⇒ x2 + 18x – 10x – 180 = 0
⇒ (x - 10) (x + 18) = 0
⇒ x = - 18 or 10
Number of pencils bought can't be negative. Thus, x = 10
So, Kamlesh bought 10 pencils.
65 (c)
Total number of tickets = 25
Total number of prizes =10
Probability of winning = 10/25 = 2/5
66 (c)
The number of students who have failed =12
Total number of students = 80.
Probability that one student chosen randomly has failed = 12/80 = 3/20

67 (b)
The group of students from among whom the representative has to be chosen has 12 students, including
Ram.
Probability that one student chosen randomly from this group is Ram himself = 1/12
68 (c)
Since, books are different, we have 12 different books and we can give one or more of them in 212 – 1
ways.
69 (c)
Out of 6 letters, any two letters can be placed into their corresponding envelopes in 6C2 ways.
Of the remaining 4 letters, no letter can be placed into their corresponding envelope. This can be done in
4! [(1/2!) – (1/3!) + (1/4!)] = 12 – 4 + 1 = 9 ways
So, the total number of ways = 6C2 × 9 = (6 × 5/2) × 9 = 9 × 15 = 135 ways
70 (b)
Total number of chits in the bowl = 20.
Number of multiples of 4 less than or equal to 20 = 5
Required probability = 5/20 = 1/4
71 (d)
Total number of chits in the bowl = 20
Number of multiples of 3 and 5 but not of both = 8 (3, 6, 9, 12, 18, 5, 10, 20)
Required probability = 8/20 = 2/5
72 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The central theme of the passage is the “license raj”. The lines “The “license raj”
was created in which most imports required government approval, most investments required government
permission, and most foreign investments were barred” and “Under restricted trade, India succeeded in
industrializing, but inefficiency and bureaucratic controls were rampant and economic growth was slow”
confirm the multiple issues due to license raj. Hence, as per the passage, it would be correct to call license
raj as the main villain of India’s poor investment and slow economic growth. Therefore, this answer option
best captures the crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. LPG reforms are not mentioned in the passage. So, this option is beyond the scope
of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option presents an extreme scenario of no industry-led growth without
capitalism. This claim is not discussed in the passage and hence, we cannot validate the claim based on the
information given in the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The author does talk about inefficiency and bureaucratic controls in the era of
licence raj. Whether or not these issues are still prevalent is not touched upon in the passage. So, this option
is beyond the scope of the passage and is not the best crux.
73 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is partially correct because of the lines “Training in ethics is an
important part of the development of a professional accountant.” However, the second part which is about
the role of ethics at the selection stage is not discussed in the passage. Hence, this option does not reflect
the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The lines “As professionals grow in their careers, they must be continually
developed to perform effectively and help their organizations to be successful” and “Furthermore, since
professional accountants … so relevant ethical training must be sufficiently broad” reflect that ethical
values are important for the professional accountant. However, to say that without ethical values, it will be
impossible for professional accountants and organizations to grow would be rather extreme. Also, the option
just talks about professional in general, rather than professional accountants.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is very generic and broad in context. It misses the specific context
of professional accountants (the core theme of the passage). So, this does not present the best crux of the
passage.
Option (d) is correct. The lines, “The ethical challenges faced by managers will likely differ from those of
more junior staff, so to be effective, ethics training should be tailored for the appropriate level of staff.”
convey the same meaning as the statement in option (d). So, this is the best crux of the passage.
74 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage does not cover the context of the importance of insurance penetration.
It is only discussing the advantages of insurance – e.g. it can transfer otherwise unmanageable risks away
from farmers, businesses, and countries. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage nowhere discusses the context of claim disbursement. Hence, this
option is also beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (c) is correct. The passage focuses on the importance of climate risk insurance. It explains how
farmers face a vicious cycle and how insurance can help change it to a virtuous cycle. Read the following
lines - “Agricultural and climate risk insurance breaks the vicious cycle of risks, shocks and poverty traps
that prevent rural people from strengthening their livelihoods and improving their lives” and “But
insurance does more than that; when used with other tools and techniques as part of a holistic approach, it
can create a virtuous cycle that enables farming families to produce, earn and invest more, and to build
their assets and their resilience.” So, this option best captures the underlying message of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The option seems to be correct, but the context of India is not a part of the passage.
Hence, this option is not the best underlying message of the passage.
75 (d)
The bag has five coins of gold, six coins of silver and seven coins of bronze.
After one bronze coin has been drawn, the coins left in the bag are: five coins of gold, six coins of silver
and six coins of bronze.
So total coins = 5 + 6 + 6 = 17
Number of coins that are not of bronze = 11
Probability that one coin drawn randomly is not of bronze = 11/17
76 (d)
Red balls can be chosen in 8 ways.
Similarly, blue balls can be chosen in 7 ways.
And green balls can be chosen in 6 ways.
So, the total number of ways in which the balls may be chosen = 8 × 7 × 6 = 336 ways
Total number of ways of choosing at least one ball = 336 – 1 = 335
77 (c)
Assumption 1 is correct. The following line from the passage “It is important to highlight possible
ecological risks associated with the use of artificial habitat structures and urge that they are not exploited
as inappropriate biodiversity offsets or for greenwashing” validates the given assumption. Hence, this
assumption is correct.
Assumption 2 is correct. The given assumption is correct because of the lines “The design of these
structures must be well informed by the drivers of natural habitat selection, and their use should be part of
an experimental framework to enable evaluation and refinement.” These lines confirm the given
assumption.
78 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage nowhere analyses the artificial habitats to be a short-term or a long-
term measure. It only covers the mechanism or the relevance of such habitats. Hence, this option is not a
correct statement as per the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage does not cover the context of anthropogenic causes for wildlife losses
and whether artificial habitats will address these causes. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the
passage and therefore not correct.
Option (c) is incorrect. Refer to the lines, “Habitat loss and degradation, and their interaction with other
threats, are driving declines in animal populations worldwide. One potential approach for mitigating these
threats is to create artificial habitat structures…” These structures have been mentioned as a possible
solution to check the decline of endangered species. However, it would be incorrect to say that these
artificial structures are the only practical way out. So, this option is not the correct statement as per the
passage.
Option (d) is correct. The following lines, “The design of these structures must be well informed by the
drivers of natural habitat selection, and their use should be part of an experimental framework to enable
evaluation and refinement” fall in line with the given option. It states that understanding the drivers of
natural selection is very important for the implementation of artificial habitats. Hence, this option is correct
as per the information given in the passage.
79 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. As per the passage, there is no correlation between faster dissemination of
information and the development of compassion after disasters. After a disaster, people need quick
information to dispel their panic. In another context, one of the positives of a disaster is the development of
feelings of compassion in the community. The author quotes these two aspects in different contexts.
Option (b) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because of the lines “… but on the other hand,
natural disasters have caused compassion and have been recognized by 78.6% of respondents from the
total number of victims interviewed in a study …”. This means that compassion is an outcome of the disaster.
It would be incorrect to say that it will help in disaster trauma. Also, terming it to be the necessary value is
an extreme claim to be made. Hence, as per the passage, this option is not correct.
Since options (a) and (b) are incorrect, option (d) is also incorrect.
Option (c) is correct. Refer to the lines, “… who before the disaster were among those who were hostile,
did not communicate with each other, even hated each other. Natural disasters unite their hearts and
strengthen the embrace of disaster through ecological communication among victims.” The past hostilities
are forgotten and a new sense of compassion germinates. Therefore, this answer option best reflects the
80 (b)
To win, a person needs either a sum of 8 or of 10.
Combinations which give a sum of 8 = {(6,2), (5,3), (4,4)}
Combinations which give a sum of 10 = {(6,4), (5,5)}
Total number of winning combinations = 3 + 2 = 5

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VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

the Test Booklet.
sheet.
be deducted.

1
Read the following three passages and answer the items Changing values in Western society indicate that the
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items context of human experience is changing into a more
should be based on the passages only. spiritual quest for wholeness, meaning, identity, and
Passage – 1 happiness. Hence, we appear to be in the midst of a
Think back to the last mistake that you made at work. transition period to a more spiritual and holistic era. This
Even if it was a minor one, like spilling coffee on a new era is characterised by a calling to find a balance
document seconds before you were due to present it, between - and ultimately an integration of - science and
you'll likely have felt a rush of panic and then had the
spirituality into a greater whole. As a result, there is a
inconvenience of putting things right. No one is immune
need to redefine the purpose of businesses: Profit can no
to making mistakes – we are human, after all! But if we
longer be the only purpose. Future organisations must be
simply apologize and carry on as before, we're in danger
both morally and socially responsible and profitable.
of repeating the same errors. When we don't learn from
This in turn affects the leadership role and tasks. Indeed,
our mistakes, we inflict unnecessary stress on ourselves
the philosophical foundations of 21st-century leadership
and others, and we risk losing people's confidence and
tasks are found in several contemporary spiritual
trust in us.
leadership theories.
the message implied by the passage?
(a) Learning from mistakes is important not
(a) Values in Western society treat science and
only for self-improvement, but also for the
spirituality as the two sides of the same coin.
sake of others.
(b) Materialism is a thing of the past, and it is
(b) Every mistake has an important learning for
time for compassionate capitalism.
self-growth.
(c) In the future, science, spirituality, profits
(c) That humans are a pillar of mistakes is a
myth and demeans the importance of and moral leadership will be integral parts of
introspection. compassionate capitalism.
(d) Apologizing for your mistakes is much more (d) With a rise in spiritual quest by people, the
important than the lessons learnt from that end of consumerism is near, not only for
mistake. people but also businesses.

Passage – 3 4. In a physical examination camp, a kilometre
Generally, vocation and career are used interchangeably. long race was held. In that race, candidate A
Vocational education might be classified as teaching defeated candidate B by 100 metres and
candidate B defeated candidate C by 100 metres.
procedural knowledge. This may be contrasted with
By how many metres did candidate A defeat
declarative knowledge, as used in education in a usually
candidate C?
broader scientific field, which might concentrate on
(a) 200 meters
theory and abstract conceptual knowledge, characteristic
(b) 180 meters
of tertiary education. Vocational education can be at the (c) 190 meters
secondary or post-secondary level and can interact with (d) 210 meters
the apprenticeship system. Increasingly, vocational
education can be recognised in terms of recognition of 5. If p varies inversely as q and p = 4 when q = 6,
prior learning and partial academic credit towards then which of the following is another solution
tertiary education (e.g., at a university) as credit; for p and q ?

(a) p = 8 and q = 12
however, it is rarely considered in its form to fall under
(b) p = 8 and q = 10
the traditional definition of higher education. Up until
(c) p = 12 and q = 1
the end of the twentieth century, vocational education
(d) p = 12 and q = 2
focused on specific trades such as automobile mechanics
or welding and was therefore associated with the 6. A set of n numbers has an average of 3k and a
activities of lower social classes. Therefore, it attracted a sum of 12m, where k and m are both positive
level of stigma. Vocational education is related to the numbers. Which of the following is equivalent
age-old apprenticeship system of learning. to n ?
3. Based on the above passage, the following (a) 4m/k
(b) 4k/m
(c) k/4m
1. Skills developed through vocational training
(d) m/4k
can address the unemployment caused due
to skills mismatch.
7. A hare runs at a constant rate of 'a' miles per
2. Offering vocational education in higher hour, and a tortoise runs at a constant rate of 'b'
education could help address the stigma miles per hour, where 0 < b < a. How many more
attached to it. hours will it take the tortoise to finish a race of
Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid? 'd' miles than the hare?
(a) 1 only (a) (a + b)/2a
(b) 2 only (b) (ad – bd)/ab

(c) (b - a)/d
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) (ab – bd)/ad
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. A pool that holds 20,000 kilo litres is 1/4th full. 12. Find the larger of the two positive numbers,
A pump can deliver 'g' kilo litres of water every whose sum is 24 and twice the square of the
'm' minutes. If the pumping company charges 'r' smaller number is 4 more than the square of the
larger number.
rupees per minute, then how much will it cost to
(a) 17
fill the pool?
(b) 18
(a) Rs. 5,000 mr/g (c) 14
(b) Rs. 5,000 gr/m (d) 12
(c) Rs. 15,000 mr/g
(d) Rs. 15,000 gr/m 13. The present age of Alok is more than that of
Vinay, whose age is more than that of Chandan.
9. If the population of town B is 50% more than the Once Vinay attains Alok’s present age, the ratio
of the ages of Alok and Chandan will be 18:13.
population of town A, and the population of
When Alok was as old as Chandan is now, the
town C is 20% more than the population of town
ratio of the ages of Vinay and Chandan was 7:5.
A, then what percent more is the population of Find the ratio of the present ages of Alok and
town B as compared to the population of town Vinay.
C? (a) 5:4
(a) 20% (b) 4:3
(b) 25% (c) 6:5
(d) 7:6
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
14. Sunny told Lucky, “I am thrice as old as you
were when I was as old as you are”. Lucky told
10. How many two-digit numbers are there which Sunny, “the sum of our ages today is 80 years”.
when divided by 4, leave a remainder of 1 and After listening to them, Raman, a
when divided by 5 leave a remainder of 2? mathematician, said, “Sunny is x years elder to
(a) 5 Lucky”. Find the value of x.
(b) 6 (a) 20 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 7
(c) 16 years
(d) 8
(d) 12 years
11. Shubham has 24 mobiles, 72 tablets and 60 15. To make a certain purple dye, red dye and blue
laptops. He gives them to ‘n’ children in such a dye are mixed in a ratio of 3:4. To make a certain
way that each type of item is distributed equally orange dye, red dye and yellow dye are mixed in
among them. What is the minimum possible a ratio of 3:2. If equal amounts of purple and
number of items that each child can get? orange dye are mixed, then what fraction of the
new mixture is red dye?
(a) 11
(a) 9/20
(b) 13
(b) 1/2
(c) 17 (c) 18/35
(d) 21 (d) 27/40

16. Three positive integers, a, b, c are such that 17. Which of the following is/are the most rational
a > b > c. Also, a and b are divisible by 2, while and logical inference/inferences that can be
c is not. Which of the following is/are always
odd?
I. (a + 2b) (a - 4b + 5c) 1. More than increasing crop production,
II. (2a + b + 5c) (a - b) farmers should focus on the prevention of
soil erosion.
below.
2. Considering the high costs of land
(a) I only
(b) II only restoration, governments should offer loans
(c) Both I and II and subsidies to the farmers.
(d) Neither I nor II
below:
Read the following two passages and answer the items (a) 1 only
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Passage – 1
Although the science of sustainable land management (d) Neither 1 nor 2
has been gaining support, the socio-economic context

often makes implementation difficult. Sustainable land 18. With reference to the passage, which one of the
practices need to be financially viable for farmers. Anti-
following statements is correct?
erosion measures have a median cost of Rs.50000 per
hectare, a considerable investment for a farmer. (a) High cost of prevention of soil erosion calls
Governments and banks must help farmers get access to for more research in this area for cost
credit and support in implementing erosion prevention. reduction sake.
This is not only a good deal for the farmer but for the
(b) Dealing with hunger and climate crisis not
whole community. The cost of erosion prevention is far
lower than the price of land restoration and only needs land conservation, but also
rehabilitation, which one source estimated to be around enhanced crop yields.
Rs.1,20,000–Rs.1,60,000 per hectare. Another source
(c) The government should formulate a
found it could reach Rs.12,00,000 per hectare. The key
insurance policy to support farmers in their
to managing and reducing soil erosion is to rehabilitate
already-damaged land, stop further degradation and put land management.
erosion-preventative measures at the core of land (d) Erosion prevention should be valued over
management policy. In this way, we can help prevent
land restoration for sustainable land
hunger and mitigate the climate crisis.
management.

Passage – 2 21. A rectangle has a constant area of 16 square
One of the main reasons for women’s high attrition rate meters. The lengths of the sides of the rectangle
in the workforce is the burden of simultaneously carrying
are always natural numbers. What is the
out unpaid work at home and paid work in their
professions, especially after starting families. The maximum and the minimum possible parameter
flexibility offered by gig platforms allows workers to of the rectangle?
better manage unpaid care and paid work, by letting
(a) 34 m and 16 m
workers determine their work hours and reducing their
dependence on a static physical space. As the gig (b) 32 m and 16 m
economy gained more ground, it was assumed that more (c) 28 m and 14 m
women would come into the ambit of the workforce in (d) 36 m and 18 m
India, leading to an overall improvement in the
workforce participation rate. Statistically, however, little
improvement has been seen. Not only is the work 22. Consider the following information and the
mandated by socio-cultural norms, but the flexibility Statements and Question that follow:
offered by gig work depends largely on whether it is a
Pipes A, B and C can be used for filling or
primary or supplementary source of income. Gig work
as a primary source of income allows for less flexibility, emptying with the same capacity. Though the
compared to when such work is a source of additional capacities or efficiencies of the three pipes need
earnings. not necessarily be the same. If pipes A and B are
used for filling and C is used for emptying, a
(a) The potential of the gig economy as a tool tank would get filled in 6 hours.
for increasing women’s labour force Statement-1: If all the pipes are used for filling,
participation is huge but it has seen limited
the tank would get filled in 2 hours.
success.
(b) Patriarchal norms restricts women from Statement-2: If pipes B and C are used for filling
participating fully in workspace and place a and pipe A is used for emptying, the tank would
glass ceiling on their professional growth. get filled in 6 hours.
(c) The patriarchal mindset in families post
Question: Find the time taken by pipe C to fill
deliveries arrests the growth of women by
forcing them to engage only in unpaid work the tank.
at home. Which one of the following is correct in respect
(d) Both (a) and (b)
20. A student appeared in an examination, where (a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the
maximum score that can be obtained was ‘a’. question.
The student secured ‘y’ marks in that (b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the
examination and failed by same number of
question.
marks. What must be the percentage of marks
required to pass the examination? (c) Either Statement 1 alone or Statement 2
(a) 2y/a % alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) a/2y %
(d) Both the statements together are not
(c) 200y/a %
(d) None of the above sufficient to answer the question.

23. Ankur takes 42 hours to travel from Tripura to 25. What is the average number of students enrolled
Chennai, while Prachi takes 56 hours to travel in M. Phil course in all the given states?
from Chennai to Tripura. Ankur and Prachi start (a) 1200
from Tripura and Chennai respectively at 7:30 (b) 1150
am and go towards Chennai and Tripura (c) 1125
respectively. If they take the same route, when (d) 1175
will they meet?
(a) 7:48 am next day 26. The total number of students enrolled in M. Phil
(b) 7:51 am next day
in Karnataka and M. Ed in Tamil Nadu, taken
(c) 7:54 am next day
together, is how much percent of the total
(d) None of these
number of students enrolled in B. Ed in Andhra
Pradesh, Maharashtra and West Bengal taken
24. Kaviraj sold an article for Rs. 1680 at some loss.
together?
Pintu sold the same item for Rs. 1896 and earned
(a) 33.33%
a profit, which is 15% less than the loss made by
(b) 66.67%
Kaviraj. What is the cost price of the article?
(c) 200/7%
(a) Rs. 1870
(d) 300/7%
(b) Rs.1430
(c) Rs. 1796
(d) Rs. 1270 27. The following pie-chart shows the expenses
made (in Rs.) in various areas.
Study the following bar graph carefully and answer the
Consider the graph given below in which enrolment
numbers in three courses M. Ed, M. Phil and B. Ed for
different Indian states are shown.
What is the central angle made by the section

representing the expenses on transportation?
(a) 720
The first, second and third bars for each state showcases (b) 800
enrolment numbers for M. Ed, M. Phil and B. Ed (c) 610
respectively. (d) 500

28. If total number of students in a school is a prime 31. Three bells chime at intervals of 18 minutes, 24
number, then which of the following must be minutes and 32 minutes respectively. At a
true? certain time, they chime together. What length
1. There is no factor other than 1 common to of time will elapse before they chime together
the number of boys and the number of girls
again?
studying in the school.
(a) 2 hours 24 minutes
2. Difference between the number of boys and
(b) 4 hours 48 minutes
girls in the school is an even number.
(c) 3 hours 6 minutes
below (d) 1 hour 36 minutes
(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) 2 only Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
(c) 1 only Read the following three passages and answer the items
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
29. p = xyz and q = zyx are 3-digit numbers. If Passage – 1
B = p – q and A = p + q, then which of the When someone is angry, it causes their thoughts to not
following is false?
be very clear, which causes them to miss out on key
I. B is always divisible by 11.
points in what the other person has said. Anger also
II. If P is even, then A and B are also even.
makes it difficult for a person to think clearly and
III. A is always divisible by 9.
Select the correct answer using the codes given correctly understand the situation. Intolerance can also
below. cause one’s thoughts to not be clear because they are too
(a) I only concerned with the anger, they feel towards something
(b) I and II only or someone. They are unable to see the truth or
(c) II and III only correctness in what they are doing and do not consider
(d) I and III only all the facts before deciding. Therefore, tolerance is just
as important as understanding when trying to figure out
30. If a, b are natural numbers such that (a + b)/ab is an issue.
also a natural number, then which of the
following will always be true?
(a) it is not possible
(a) Anger and intolerance are the worst enemies
(b) It is possible, but the pair (a, b) satisfying the
of a peaceful human society.
stated condition is unique.
(c) It is possible, and pair (a, b) can be chosen (b) Anger and intolerance prevent correct
in infinite ways. understanding of the situation.

(d) It is possible, and there are more than one (c) Overcoming anger and intolerance is
but a finite number of ways of choosing the possible with love and caring.
pair (a, b). (d) None of the above

Passage – 2 33. Which of the following statements can be
Migration is a development challenge. About 184 inferred from the above passage?
1. The World Development Report (WDR)
million people—2.3 percent of the world’s population— aims to enhance the development impact on
live outside of their country of nationality. Almost half both legally and illegally admitted
of them are in low- and middle-income countries. But immigrants.
2. For countries of all income levels, migration
what lies ahead? As the world struggles to cope with
will become necessary in the ensuing
global economic imbalances, diverging demographic decades.
trends, and climate change, migration will become a Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
necessity in the decades to come for countries at all
(a) 1 only
levels of income. If managed well, migration can be a (b) 2 only
force for prosperity and can help achieve the United (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals. World
Passage – 3
Development Report (WDR) 2023 proposes an Millions of visitors from across the globe throng the
integrated framework to maximize the development beach town of Puri in Odisha to take part in the annual
impacts of cross-border movements on both destination Rath Yatra (car festival) of Lord Jagannath, which this
year began on June 20. According to Hindu mythology,
and origin countries and on migrants and refugees the Lord along with his siblings — elder brother Lord
themselves. The framework it offers, drawn from labor Balabhadra and sister Devi Subhadra — embarks on a
economics and international law, rests on a “match and nine-day annual sojourn to his birthplace. The idols are
taken to the Gundicha Temple, where they stay till the
motive” matrix that focuses on two factors: how closely
‘Bahuda Yatra’ (returning car festival), scheduled on
migrants’ skills and attributes match the needs of June 28 this time. The Rath Yatra takes place on the
destination countries and what motives underlie their second day of the Odia month of Ashadha Shukla Tithi
(bright fortnight) every year to commemorate the
movements. This approach enables policy makers to
journey of Lord Jagannath and his two siblings from
distinguish between different types of movements and to their abode —the 12th century Jagannath Temple, to the
design migration policies for each. International Gundicha Temple, believed to be their aunt’s home.
Goddess Ardhasini, also known as Mausima, is believed
cooperation will be critical to the effective management
to be the deities’ aunt. The deities board three huge
of migration. The report’s framework, the Match and decorated chariots following the Pahandi ritual
Motive Matrix, draws from labor economics and (ceremonial procession), before marching for around 3
international law to identify priority policies for four km to the Gundicha Temple. Millions of devotees pull
the chariots on the Bada Danda (Grand Road) of Puri
types of movements based on who moves and under town. The three chariots — Taladhwaja Rath for Lord
what circumstances. Where a migrant fits in the Match Balabhadra, the Darpadalan Rath for Goddess Subhadra,
and Motive Matrix depends in part on their human and the Nandighosa Rath for Lord Jagannath, have their
own colours, height, diameter, wooden horses, guardian
capital and personal characteristics and, in part, on the
deities and even charioteers. They are made from the
policies of the destination countries. Over time, the wood of locally available trees. Over 150 carpenters,
challenge is to enhance migration outcomes by labourers, woodcarvers, artists, and painters work for
around 12 hours a day from Akshaya Tritiya onwards,
strengthening the match of all migrants’ skills and
nearly two months before the much-awaited event, to
attributes with their destinations. shape the chariots.

34. With reference to the above passage, consider 37. In a box there are 120 balls - 44 red, 36 yellow,
the following statements. 22 green, 10 blue and 8 pink balls. If a boy picks
1. Jagannath Puri Temple is not a World a ball randomly out of this box, what is the
probability that the chosen ball is neither blue
Heritage Site.
nor pink?
2. The colour and the dimension of the three
(a) 89%
chariots is changed every year.
(b) 97%
(c) 85%
correct? (d) 78%
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 38. Mr. Suresh owns a 5 metre × 4 metre coffee
(c) Both 1 and 2 shop. He plans to tile the rectangular floor of this
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 shop with grey-coloured square tiles. Each side
of the tile measures 20 cm. What must be the
35. Which of the following best captures the total cost of fitting the tiles, if they cost Rs. 40
per piece?
significance of Rath Yatra?
(a) Rs. 12,000
(a) It commemorates the reincarnation of
(b) Rs. 16,000
Vishnu as Lord Jaganath.
(c) Rs. 24,000
(b) It celebrates Lord Jagannath's voyage with
(d) Rs. 20,000
his two siblings.
(c) It cherishes the victory of Lord Ram over 39. w, x, y and z are four largest single digit
Ravana. numbers. What will be value of the square root
(d) It celebrates the victory of Pandavas in of the multiplication of (w + z) and (x + y)?
Mahabharata. (a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 12
36. Distance between Jim and Della is 300 m. Speed
of Jim is 15 kmph and that of Della is 20 kmph.
Both are moving in the same direction in a
40. ABCDEF is a hexagon. How many distinct
straight line. How long will they walk before
quadrilaterals can be drawn using any four of its
meeting each other? vertices?
(a) 206 seconds (a) 16
(b) 216 seconds (b) 18
(c) 184 seconds (c) 15
(d) 222 seconds (d) 12

41. A tyre has 3 punctures. The first puncture alone 44. Six friends Aum, Shubhra, Vivek, Jyoti,
would have made the tyre flat in 10 minutes, the Lavanya and Konika started a business
second alone would have done it in 15 minutes, together. At the end of the year they shared
profit as per their respective contributions.
the third alone would have done it in 20 minutes.
1. Share of Konika is not the least.
If air leaks out at a constant rate, how long (in
2. Share of Aum is one third of Shubhra’s and
minutes) does it take for all the punctures
four times that of Konika’s share.
together to make the tyre flat? 3. Combined profit share of Aum and Vivek
(a) 4.27 minutes is equal to that of the joint profit share of
(b) 4.61 minutes Lavanya and Konika.
(c) 4.16 minutes 4. Profit share of Jyoti is equal to the

difference between the profit shares of
(d) 4.06 minutes
Vivek and Lavanya. Profit of Lavanya is
more than that of Vivek.
42. The ratio of a two-digit natural number to the
If Konika’s profit share was Rs. 5000, then
number formed by reversing its digits is 4:7.
profit share of Jyoti must have been:
What is the difference between the largest (a) Rs. 12500
possible number which satisfies this condition, (b) Rs. 15000
and the reverse of this number? (c) Rs. 9000
(a) 36 (d) Rs. 13000
(b) 27
45. 5 years ago, the average age of a 10-member
(c) 18
family was 30 years. If the ages of grandfather
(d) 9
and his eldest daughter are removed on the
present day, then the present average of the
43. What is the sum of all 4-digit numbers less than family will decrease by 3 years. If the difference
2980 formed by the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, wherein between the ages of grandfather and his eldest
none of the digits is repeated? daughter is 20 years, find the present age of
grandfather.
(a) 21774
(a) 57 years
(b) 22793
(b) 65 years
(c) 18965
(c) 70 years
(d) 21353
(d) 82 years

46. In a 1000 m race, Abhijit beats Bijit by 100 m 49. If the average of a and b is greater than the
and Chandrajit by 200 m. In a subsequent race
average (arithmetic mean) of c and 2b, which of
of the same distance, Chandrajit starts at the
starting point. Bijit starts 100 m behind the following must be true?
Chandrajit and Abhijit starts 100 m further
I. b > 0
behind Bijit. Which of the following options are
correct regarding the outcome of the race? II. a > b
(a) Abhijit wins the race when Chandrajit is 20 III. a > b + c
m from finish line.
(b) All finish the race together.
(c) Abhijit wins the race when Bijit is 20 m below.
from the finish line.
(a) II and III only
(d) Bijit finishes the race when Chandrajit is 20
m from finish line. (b) I and II only
(c) II only
47. How many integers are there between 101 and
200 which have 5 as a digit but only at unit place, (d) III only
and are also divisible by 7?
(a) There are less than 20 but more than 8 such
integers. 50. The population of a colony of bacteria increases
(b) There are less than 5 such integers. by 200% every 6 hours. If the current population
(c) There are only 7 such integers.
(d) There are only 22 such integers of the colony is 20,000, which expression
represents the colony’s population h hours from

48. The annual profit from the sales of an item is
now?
equal to the annual revenue from minus the
annual cost of that item. The revenue from that (a) 20000 × (2)h/6
item is equal to the number of units sold times
(b) 20000 × (3)h/6
the price per unit. If n units of a portable heart
monitor were sold in 2012 at a price of Rs. 65 (c) 20000 × (3)6h
each, and the annual cost to produce n units was
(d) 20000 × (2)6/h
Rs. (20,000 + 10n), then which of the following
statements indicates that the total profit for this
heart monitor in 2012 was greater than Rs. Directions for the following 5 (five) items:
500,000?
(a) 500,000 < 55n - 20,000 Read the following three passages and answer the items
(b) 500,000 > 55n - 20,000 that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
(c) 500,000 < 55n + 20,000
(d) 500,000 < 75n - 20,000

When a police station receives a complaint regarding an On Monday, the government withdrew The DNA
alleged offence that has been committed in the Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill 2019
jurisdiction of another police station, it registers an FIR
from the Lok Sabha, ending a 20-year effort to build a
and then transfers it to the relevant police station for
further investigation. This is called a Zero FIR. No new regulatory framework for the use of DNA
regular FIR number is given. After receiving the Zero fingerprinting technology in the criminal justice system.
FIR, the revenant police station registers a fresh FIR and The Bill, introduced in Parliament multiple times, faced
starts the investigation. The provision of Zero FIR came opposition on grounds of the accuracy of DNA
up after the recommendation in the report of the Justice technology, potential threats to individual privacy, and
Verma Committee, which was constituted to suggest
the possibility of abuse. The Bill had three primary
amendments to the Criminal Law in a bid to provide for
faster trial and enhanced punishment for criminals objectives. First, it sought to set up a DNA profiling
accused of committing sexual assault against women, board as the regulatory body, one of the functions of
according to a 2020 circular released by the Puducherry which would be to provide accreditation to laboratories
government. The committee was set up after the 2012 authorised to carry out DNA sample tests. The Bill also
Nirbhaya gang rape case. Zero FIR ensures that the provided for the creation of databases — DNA Data
victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a
Banks — for storing DNA information collected from
police complaint registered. The provision is meant to
provide speedy redressal to the victim so that timely convicts and accused. This database could be indexed
action can be taken after the filing of the FIR. and searched for matching samples from crime scenes.
51. What is the immediate objective of Zero FIR? And third, it sought to facilitate collection of DNA
(a) Quick and timely delivery of justice. samples from the convicts and accused. The primary
(b) Speedy forensic investigation for the objections were on grounds of privacy, utility and
registered complaints.
possibility of misuse. DNA information can be very
(c) To ensure that the victim's complaint is
intrusive, revealing not just identification traits but also
registered without hassles.
(d) To ensure proper medical help is given to many other features that can be liable for misuse. Critics
the victim. pushed for the inclusion of as many safeguards into the
Bill as was possible. Several rounds of discussions, with
52. Which of the following statements can be Members of Parliament, legal experts, law enforcement
professionals, activists, and civil society were held. A
1. Zero FIR is registered only in non-
number of changes were made in the original draft. But
jurisdictional Police stations.
2. The sole purpose behind creation of Justice it was not acceptable to all. In recent years,
Verma Committee was to give the accused apprehensions were raised about the possibility of this
more severe punishments. law being used for racial profiling. It was even argued
Select the correct answer using the codes given that the police could not be trusted to seek DNA tests in
below.
their investigations. The Parliamentary Standing
(a) 1 only
Committee had objected to the setting up of DNA banks
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 in every state, and suggested that one national DNA bank
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 was sufficient.

53. Which of the following are the objections Passage – 3
against the DNA Technology Bill? The securities market regulator has said it is working on
real-time settlement of transactions in India’s stock
1. Breach of Privacy
exchanges. The announcement by Madhabi Puri Buch,
2. Profiling on the basis of race chairperson of the Securities and Exchange Board of
3. Distrust on police India (SEBI), came after the regulator shortened the
4. Virus attacks on database settlement cycle to trade-plus-one (T+1) from T+2.

‘Settlement’ is a two-way process that involves the
transfer of funds and securities on the settlement date. As
below. of now, there is a lag between trade and settlement — the
(a) 1 and 2 only settlement date is different from the trade date. A trade
settlement is said to be complete once purchased
(b) 1 and 3 only
securities of a listed company are delivered to the buyer,
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
and the seller gets the money. The current cycle of ‘T+1’
(d) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 in India means trade-related settlements happen within a
day, or within 24 hours of the actual transaction. The
migration to the T+1 cycle came into effect in January
54. With reference to the above passage, consider
this year. India became the second country to start the
the following statements.
T+1 settlement cycle in top listed securities after China,
1. The legislation aims to create a regulating bringing operational efficiency, faster fund remittances,
authority. share delivery, and ease for stock market participants.
55. Which of the following statements can be
2. To save the criminals' DNA information, a
database will be made.
1. Currently, the trade date and the settlement
3. DNA information will be linked with the date are different.
Aadhaar card of every individual. 2. Even if the buyer is not given the listed
company's securities, a trade settlement
Which of the statements given above are
might be considered complete.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only below.
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

56. Every athlete in a group of 60 females varsity 59. The data charges of Airtel is Rs. 90 per day. The
athletes at Greenwich High School either runs corresponding charges of Idea are 10% lower
track, plays soccer, or does both. If one-third of
than that of Airtel. A person uses Airtel for the
the athletes in this group who play on the soccer
team also run on the track team, and one-half of first fortnight of a month and Idea for the second
the athletes in this group who run on the track fortnight. Had he used Idea for the whole of the
team also play on the soccer team, which of the month, what percentage of his expenses on data
following statements must be true?
for that month would he had saved
(a) This group contains 40 soccer players.
(approximately)?
(b) This group contains 20 athletes who play
soccer but do not run track. (a) 5 %
(c) This group contains 20 athletes who play (b) 4 %
both track and soccer.
(c) 7 %
(d) The number of soccer players in this group
(d) 6 %
is 15 greater than the number of track team
members in this group.
60. In an examination, 38% of the students passed.
57. There are two vessels A and B. Vessel A If the number of students that passed is 60 less
contains x litres of milk and Vessel B has y litres
than the number of students that failed, find the
of water. Sunil takes z litres from each vessel
and transfers it to the other, so as to ensure that total number of students who appeared in the
the percentage of milk becomes the same in examination.
these two vessels. Which of the following must (a) 210
be true?
(b) 230
(a) yz = x + y
(b) xz = x + y (c) 240
(c) xy = (x + y)z (d) 250
(d) y(x + z) = xz
61. Arjun purchased two sofas whose cost prices

58. The sum of incomes of A and B is more than that
of C and D taken together. The sum of incomes were in the ratio 5:3. He made x% loss on the
of A and C is the same as the incomes of B and first sofa set and 2x% profit on the second one.
D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as If in the entire transaction he made a net profit
much as the sum of incomes of B and D. Which
of 2.5%, find x.
of the following statements is not correct?
(a) 15
(a) A earns more than B.
(b) B earns more than D. (b) 20
(c) C earns more than D. (c) 25
(d) B earns more than C.
(d) 30

62. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below 65. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below
followed by a question. followed by a question.
S1: Its marked price was at most Rs. 30 and S1: The angle of elevation of the head of the
profit made was 25%. statue of Shivaji from a distance of 15 m is 600.
S2: Its cost price was Rs. 20. S2: The angle of elevation of the middle of the
Question: Was the discount percentage offered telephone tower from a distance of 15 m is 450.
on item x less than 16%? Question: Which is taller - the telephone tower
Which one of the following is correct in respect or the statue of Shivaji?
of the above Statements and the Question? Which one of the following is correct in respect
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question. of the above Statements and the Question?
(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question. (a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Either S1 alone or S2 alone is sufficient to (b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
answer the question. (c) Either S1 alone or S2 alone is sufficient to
(d) Both the statements together are not answer the question.
sufficient to answer the question. (d) Both the statements together are sufficient to
63. In the month of June, Rajeev takes up an

66. An old lady spent one twelfth of her life as a
assignment on a daily wage basis. If he
child and one seventh was spent as a teenager.
completes the day’s task, he earns Rs. 50 or else,
One sixth of her life was spent between the time
he earns only Rs. 30 per day. He worked every
she became an adult and the time she married.
day of the month and at the end of the month he
Three years after marriage her daughter was
earned Rs. 1420. On how many day/days did he
born and the daughter died six years before she
not complete the task given to him?
died. She lived to be twice as old as her daughter
(a) 1 day
did. How long did the lady’s daughter live?
(b) 2 days
(a) 52 years
(c) 3 days
(b) 45 years
(d) 4 days
(c) 42 years
64. Kavi borrowed a total of Rs. 72000 from
Kanchan and Krishna. Kanchan charges 12%
67. A conical tent has a base radius of 7 m and a
per annum compound interest and Krishna
height of 24 m. What is the length of the canvas
charges 7% per annum compound interest. At
required to cover the conical portion if it is
the end of one year Kavi paid Rs. 6120 as stitched from a rectangular sheet of breadth
interest. Find the sum borrowed from Krishna. 11 m?
(a) Rs. 50400 (a) 45 m
(b) Rs. 57300 (b) 50 m
(c) Rs. 49200 (c) 63 m
(d) Rs. 48600 (d) 73 m

68. In an experiment, a ball is thrown vertically 69. Why is the US Justice Department opposing the
downwards from an altitude of 3000 m. The installation of floating barriers?
distance through which the ball falls in
1. It creates safety risks for the general public.
successive seconds is 6 m, 16 m, 26 m and so on.
What is the distance through which the ball falls 2. It complicates US Foreign Policy.
in the 20th second? 3. It will create a refugee crisis.
(a) 196 m Select the correct answer using the codes given
(b) 200 m
below.
(c) 220 m
(d) 240 m (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Directions for the following 4 (four) items: (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All 1, 2 and 3
should be based on the passages only. Passage – 2
Passage – 1 The United States has identified five cases of malaria in
The US Justice Department sued the state of Texas and people without any history of international travel in
its Republican Governor Greg Abbott on Monday (July
Florida and Texas over the last two months. This has led
24) for installing floating barriers in the Rio Grande
River to stop migrants crossing from Mexico. The to the US Centres for Disease Control and Prevention
lawsuit, filed in federal court in Austin, is the latest (CDC) issuing an alert asking clinicians to consider
escalation in tensions between the President Joe Biden
malaria as a diagnosis in persons with fever of unknown
administration and Abbott over the issue of immigration.
A 3,051-km-long river, the Rio Grande runs from origin, laboratories and public health experts to aid
Colorado to the Gulf of Mexico and is the effective US- clinicians in identifying and diagnosing malaria cases,
Mexican border through most of Texas. But it is also a and people to take precautions to prevent mosquito bite.
key route for migrants from Mexico to try and enter the
The five cases have raised alert because this is the first
United States. A DW report said hundreds of migrants
everyday attempt to reach the American land through the time in 20 years that there has been local transmission of
river. In a bid to stop this influx, Abbott in June malaria in the United States. The last time the infection
announced his plan to build a barricade in the Rio was transmitted by a mosquito locally in the country was
Grande, near the border city of Eagle Pass in Texas.
in 2003 when eight people in Florida were infected.
According to media reports, the barricade, whose
installation is almost complete now, is essentially a While there hasn’t been local transmission in years,
1,000-foot (305-meter) line of bright orange, wrecking United States has been reporting around 2,000 cases of
ball-sized buoys. According to a Politico report, malaria every year mostly among international travellers
Associate Attorney General Vanita Gupta said in a
from regions where the disease is still in transmission.
statement, “This floating barrier poses threats to
navigation and public safety and presents humanitarian Around 300 of these persons end up developing severe
concerns. Additionally, the presence of the floating disease and between five and ten persons die of the
barrier has prompted diplomatic protests by Mexico and infection each year in the United States, according to the
risks damaging US foreign policy.” The nine-page
CDC. The alert raised by the organisation also said that
lawsuit of the Justice Department seeks the removal of
the barricade by Texas officials at the state’s expense. there could be an uptick in the number of imported
Notably, it has come around a week after the Mexican malaria cases with summer travel increasing to the pre-
government complained to the Biden administration pandemic levels in 2023.
regarding the structure.

70. Why did just five cases in the US prompt such 71. Based on the above passage, the following
an alert? assumptions have been made:

1. SHGs have given a platform to rural people
(a) It is expected that very soon, these five cases
to overcome socio-economic
will cause other variants of malaria to marginalisation.
develop. 2. The social status of women has improved
making them the real beneficiaries of the
(b) The local transmission of malaria may prove
SHG programs.
deadly to elders and children. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(c) Economic cost of immunization will be too (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
high.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) This is the first instance of local malaria (d) Neither 1 nor 2
transmission in the United States in 20
years.
Passage – 3 (a) SHGs are a tool for the social transformation
Since the 1970s, SHGs have been playing an essential of rural people, which also impact their
role in different states of India by contributing mostly to economic and personal lives.
(b) Given the importance of SHGs, they should
democratising many institutions that stand for the
be expanded to other states and not be
deprived sections of society. It tries to create social limited to a few states only.
stability through financial inclusion and play an active (c) There is a need for SHGs to touch the lives
of the urban poor as well and expedite their
role in the social empowerment of the people in rural
social mainstreaming.
areas. The theoretical foundations of the SHGs are (d) SHGs should focus not only on the societal
deeply linked with the framework of sociology. The empowerment of children, but also make
them financially independent.
social impact of SHGs on women’s empowerment is
noticeable. It brings social cohesion among the poor at 73. Ajay, a clerk in a bank, takes a bus to his bank.
the grassroots level. Field evidence shows that SHG On one particular day, he left home 15 minutes
earlier than usual and reached the bus stop at
members can easily become involved in households’
8:40 am. He needs to walk for ten minutes to
decision-making and bring positive changes in their life.
reach to the bus stop. What time does he usually
SHGs provide a sufficient platform for social leave home for the bus stop?
participation and encourage members to better interact (a) 8:30 am
(b) 8:45 am
with society. Such continuous efforts lead to the societal
(c) 8:55 am
transformation of women in rural areas. (d) None of the above

74. There is 10 litres of milk in a container A and 10 78. The odds in favour of a player being selected for
litres of water in container B. One litre of milk the national team with three independent
is transferred from A to B. After that one litre of selectors are 4:3, 2:1 and 1:4 respectively. What
the contents of B are transferred back to A. What
is the probability that out of the three selectors a
is the final amount of milk in container A?
majority will favour the player?
(a) 10/11 litres
(b) 109/121 litres (a) 2/5
(c) 1010/121 litres (b) 10/21
(d) 100/11 litres (c) 6/35
(d) 2/21
75. If 10 ≤ x ≤ 20 and 2y – x = 2, then the maximum
value of x/(x + y) is:
79. Rohan, Sohan and Mohan can do a piece of work
(a) 20/31
(b) 5/6 separately in 5 days, 10 days and 12 days
(c) 5/8 respectively. If they work together, what should
(d) 20/11 be Mohan’s share out of the total wage of Rs.
1380?
76. If f(x) = ax5 + bx3 – cx + 3 and f(4) = 10, then
(a) Rs. 280
f(-4) = ?
(b) Rs. 300
(a) -3
(b) 2 (c) Rs. 430
(c) -4 (d) Rs. 500
(d) -7
80. What is the total time taken by a boat in
77. A monkey is climbing a tall tree. He climbs for
downstream to cover a distance of 12 km from
some time and then rests for some time every
A to B and 18 km from B to C, if it is given that
hour and then starts climbing again. In the
process, every hour, he climbs 30 feet and then its own speed from A to B is 4 kmph and from
slips back 20 feet while resting. If he starts B to C is 7 kmph and the stream is flowing at 2
climbing at 9:00 am, at what time will he first kmph?
touch a flag 120 feet from the ground? (a) 6 hours
(a) Between 5 pm and 6 pm
(b) 5 hours
(b) Between 6 pm and 7 pm
(c) 4 hours
(c) After 7 pm
(d) None of the above (d) None of these

IAS.

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

1 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The given option is correct as it captures the essence of the passage as given in line
- “When we don't learn from our mistakes, we inflict unnecessary stress on ourselves and others, and we
risk losing people's confidence and trust in us.”
Option (b) is incorrect. The given option seems to be correct but it is incomplete as compared to option
(a) which captures the essence of the passage in more detail. The context of “others” is missing in this
option. Hence, this option is not what the passage best implies.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context that human beings are a pillar of mistakes, and whether this demeans
the importance of introspection is not discussed in the passage. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of
the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The context of apologizing is seen in the line - “But if we simply apologize and
carry on as before, we're in danger of repeating the same errors.” This means that a mere apology is not
enough; learning lessons and not repeating the same errors is more important. Hence, this option is not what
the passage best implies.
2 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. Refer to the lines “Changing values in Western society indicate that the context
of human experience is changing into a more spiritual quest for wholeness, … and ultimately an integration
of - science and spirituality into a greater whole.” It means that with changing values, spirituality is getting
more attention now. However, to conclude that values in Western society treat science and spirituality as
part of the same coin is not correct. Also, this answer option does not talk about business side of things.
Option (b) is incorrect. Refer to the line “Future organisations must be both morally and socially
responsible and profitable (materialism).” It shows that materialism and compassion or spirituality need to
go hand in hand in future. It would be incorrect to say that materialism is a thing of the past. So, this option
is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is correct. Refer to the lines “This new era is characterised by a calling to find a balance between
- … science and spirituality into a greater whole. As a result, there is a need to redefine the purpose of
businesses: Profit can no longer be the only purpose. Future organisations must be both morally and
socially responsible and profitable … found in several contemporary spiritual leadership theories.” In the
future compassionate capitalism will include science, spirituality, profits and moral leadership. Hence, this
option best reflects the crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The context of consumerism is not a part of the passage. Also, the line “As a result,
there is a need to redefine the purpose of businesses: Profit can no longer be the only purpose. Future
organisations must be both morally and socially responsible and profitable” validates that spirituality and
profits (consumerism) could go together. Hence, the given option is not correct as per the passage.
3 (c)
Assumption 1 is invalid. The context of unemployment is not discussed in the passage. The passage focuses
mostly on the importance, challenges and timelines of vocation as a discipline. Hence, this assumption is
beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Assumption 2 is also invalid. The given assumption is not correct because the passage merely mentions
the reason for the stigma attached to it, that too in the past tense – “Up until the end of the twentieth century,
vocational education focused on specific trades such as automobile mechanics or welding and was therefore

associated with the activities of lower social classes.” We do not know whether it still holds true or not.
Also, the relevance of vocational education in higher education is suggested to be limited (“…however, it
is rarely considered in its form to fall under the traditional definition of higher education”). The passage
nowhere hints that the inclusion of vocational education in higher education can solve the stigma attached
to it. So, as per the passage, this assumption is not correct.
4 (c)
In a kilometer race, candidate A defeated candidate B by 100 metres and candidate B defeated candidate C
by 100 metres.
It means, while candidate A covered 1000 metres, candidate B covered 900 metres.
While candidate B covered 1000 metres, candidate C covered 900 metres.
It means when candidate B covered 900 metres, distance covered by candidate C = 900 × (900/1000) = 810
metres
Therefore, the Distance By Which Candidate A must have defeated candidate C = 1000 – 810 = 190 metres.
5 (d)
Let, p = (1/q)k, where k is a constant.
Or pq = k
As p = 4 and q = 6.
So, k = 4 × 6 = 24
Product of p and q is a constant, i.e. 24. The only other pair with a product equal to 24 is p = 12 and q = 2.
6 (a)
A set of n numbers has an average of 3k and a sum of 12m, where k and m are both positive numbers.
Average = Sum of terms/Number of terms
Or 3k = 12m/n
Or n = 12m/3k = 4m/k
7 (b)
A hare runs at a constant rate of 'a' miles per hour, and a tortoise runs at a constant rate of 'b' miles per hour.
Distance = d
The tortoise would take d/b hours to complete the race, and the hare would take d/a hours to complete the
race.
Here, 0 < b < a.
Thus, d/a < d/b
So, the tortoise would take (d/b) – (d/a) = (ad – bd)/ab more hours to finish the race.
8 (c)
Total capacity of the pool = 20,000 kilo litres
The pool is 1/4th full. So, it further requires (3/4)(20000) = 15,000 kilo litres of water to get filled.
Rate of water supply = g kilo litres per m minutes = (g/m) kilo litres per minute
Required cost = [15000 / (g/m)] × r = 15000 × (m /g) × r = Rs. 15000 mr/g
9 (b)
Population of town B is 50% more than the population of town A, and the population of town C is 20%
more than the population of town A.
Let population of town A be X.
Population of town B = (150X/100) = 1.5X
Population of town C = (120X/100) = 1.2X
Required percent = [(1.5X - 1.2X)/1.2X] × 100 = 25%

10 (a)
Let the numbers satisfying the given conditions be denoted by N.
10 ≤ N ≤ 99
Remainder (N/4) = 1 and Remainder (N/5) = 2
So, N = 20X – 3 (by LCM)
Or N + 3 = 20 X
∴ N + 3 = 20 or 40 or 60 or 80 or 100
∴ N = 17 or 37 or 57 or 77 or 97
So, N has five possibilities.
11 (b)
Total number of items that each child gets = (24/n) + (72/n) + (60/n) = 156/n
This is minimum when n is maximum.
n = HCF (24, 72, 60) = 12
Therefore, the minimum possible number of items that each child can get = 156/12 = 13
12 (c)
The sum of two positive numbers is 24.
Let the smaller number be x.
Then, the other number will be (24 – x).
2x2 – (24 - x)2 = 4
⇒ x2 + 48x – 580 = 0
⇒ x2 + 58x – 10x – 580 = 0
⇒ x(x + 58) –10(x + 58) = 0
⇒ (x + 58) (x – 10) = 0
⇒ x = 10, – 58
∴ Larger of the two numbers is (24 – 10), i.e. 14
13 (a)
Let the present ages of Alok, Vinay and Chandan be ‘a’ years, ‘b’ years and ‘c’ years, respectively.
Vinay will attain Alok’s present age (a – b) years from now.
The ages of Alok and Chandan at that time will be (2a –b) years and (c + a – b) years respectively.
(2a – b) / (c + a – b) = 18/13
⇒ 26a - 13b = 18c + 18a - 18b
⇒ 18c = 8a + 5b ………. (i)
Alok was as old as Chandan (a – c) years ago.
The ages of Vinay and Chandan then were b – (a – c) and c – (a – c) years respectively.
{b – (a - c)} / {c – (a – c)} = 7/5
⇒ (b + c – a) /(2c – a) = 7/5
⇒ 5b + 5c - 5a = 14c - 7a
⇒ 2a + 5b = 9c …………….. (ii)
From eqn. (i) and (ii), we get:
18c = 8a + 5b = 2(2a + 5b)
⇒ a/b = 5/4
14 (c)
Let ages of Sunny and Lucky be s and l, respectively.
Sunny told Lucky “I am thrice as old as you were when I was as old as you are”.
Sunny was as old as Lucky exactly (s – l) years ago.
(s – l) years ago Lucky would have been [l – (s – l)] = (2l – s) years old.
Given, s = 3(2l - s)
⇒ 4s = 6l
⇒ s = 3l/2 ………………. (i)
Sum of the ages of Sunny and Lucky is 80 years.
s + l = 80 …………………….. (ii)
Solving eqn. (i) and (ii), we get:
s = 48, l = 32
Sunny is x years elder to Lucky.
So, x = s – l = 16
Hence, required value of x is 16 years.
15 (c)
To make a certain purple dye, red dye and blue dye are mixed in a ratio of 3:4.
Purple dye is [3/(3 + 4)] red, i.e. (3/7) red
To make a certain orange dye, red dye and yellow dye are mixed in a ratio of 3:2.
Orange dye is [3/(3 + 2)] red, i.e. (3/5) red
If equal amounts of purple and orange dye are mixed, then
Required fraction of red dye = (1/2)(3/7) + (1/2)(3/5) = (3/14) + (3/10) = 18/35
16 (d)
Let’s assume a, b and c as 4, 2 and 1 and check each statement.
Statement I:
(a + 2b) (a - 4b + 5c) = (4 + 2×2) (4 - 4×2 + 5×1) = 8×1 = 8
Statement II:
(2a + b + 5c) (a - b) = (2×4 + 2 + 5×1) (4 - 2) = 15×2 = 30
So, neither I nor II is always odd.
17 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect. The passage does not cover the context of crop production, and there is no
comparison of crop production made with prevention of soil erosion. The focus of the passage is on
sustainable land management. Hence, this inference is not correct and is beyond the scope of the passage.
Inference 2 is incorrect. The given inference is not correct because the passage in line “Governments and
banks must help farmers get access to credit and support in implementing erosion prevention”, mentions
that governments should support farmers to access credit for erosion prevention and not for restoration as
given in the option statement. Also, the author categorically says that the cost of erosion prevention is far
lower than the cost of land restoration and rehabilitation, So, the emphasis is on prevention.
18 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The context of more research to reduce cost is not a part of the passage. Therefore,
this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of crop production and its importance in dealing with the climate crisis
and hunger is not mentioned in the passage. Hence, this option is not correct.
Option (c) is incorrect. The line “Governments and banks must help farmers get access to credit and
support in implementing erosion prevention” mentions that governments and banks should support farmers.
However, the option mentions insurance policy by the government, which is not correct as per the passage.
Option (d) is correct. It is based on the following line from the passage - “The cost of erosion prevention
is far lower than the price of land restoration and rehabilitation, which one source estimated to be around
Rs.1,20,000–Rs.1,60,000 per hectare.” So, as per the passage, it would be correct to say that erosion
prevention should be valued more than restoration/rehabilitation. Hence, this option is correct, as per the
passage.
19 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The lines “The flexibility offered by gig platforms allows workers to better manage
unpaid care and paid work, by letting workers determine their work hours and reducing their dependence
on a static physical space. As the gig economy gained more ground, it was assumed that more women would
come into the ambit of the workforce in India, leading to an overall improvement in the workforce
participation rate. Statistically, however, little improvement has been seen”, shows how gig work is
suitable for women, and still it has had limited impact. So, this option best reflects the crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. In the lines - “One of the main reasons for women’s high attrition rate in the
workforce … especially after starting families” and “Not only is the work mandated by socio-cultural
norms, but the flexibility offered by gig work depends largely on whether it is a primary or supplementary
source of income.”, the author talks about the socio-cultural norms prevailing in society, not necessarily
patriarchal norms. Also, the passage has nowhere discussed anything regarding the phenomenon of glass
ceiling. So, this option is not correct.
This makes option (d) incorrect too.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of the patriarchal mindset is not discussed in the passage and hence
this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
20 (c)
Maximum score possible in the examination = a
Marks secured by the student = y
Since the student secured ‘y’ marks and failed by the same number of marks, therefore marks required to
pass = y + y = 2y
Percentage of marks required to pass = (Marks required to pass/Maximum score) × 100
= (2y/a) × 100
= 200y/a %
Therefore, percentage of marks required to pass the examination is 200y/a %.
21 (a)
Let x and y be the length of the sides of the rectangle.
If the multiplication of two variables is constant then their sum is the least when they are equal, i.e. if xy =
16, then the minimum possible value of x + y = 4 + 4 = 8.
So, the minimum possible perimeter = 2 (x + y) = 16 m
x + y will be maximum when the difference between x and y is the most, i.e. (x, y) = (1, 16) or (16, 1).
So, the maximum possible perimeter = 2 (1+16) = 34 m
22 (a)
Let the time taken by pipes A, B and C to fill or empty the tank be 'a' minutes, 'b' minutes and 'c' minutes
respectively.
If pipes A and B are used for filling and pipe C is used for emptying, the tank would get filled in 6 hours.
(1/a) + (1/b) – (1/c) = 1/6 ……………. (i)
From Statement 1:
(1/a) + (1/b) + (1/c) = 1/2 ………….. (ii)
Subtracting equation(i) from equation (ii), we get:
⇒ 1/c – (-1/c) = (1/2) – (1/6)
⇒ 2/c = 1/3
⇒c=6
Thus, time taken by pipe C to fill the tank is 6 minutes.
Hence, Statement 1 alone is sufficient.
From Statement 2:
(1/b) + (1/c) – (1/a) = 1/6 …………… (iii)
Subtracting equation(i) from equation (iii), we get:
(2/c) – (2/a) = 0
Or 1/a = 1/c
Or a = c
Adding equation(i) and equation(iii), we get:
2/b = 2/6
Or b = 6
Now, from equation (i), we get:
(1/a) + (1/b) – (1/c) = 1/6
Or (1/a) + (1/6) – (1/c) = 1/6
Or 1/6 = 1/6 (as a = c)
∴ We cannot find c.
23 (d)
Let d be the distance between Tripura and Chennai.
Then, time taken by them to meet = d/{(d/42) + (d/56)}
= 14 [(3 × 4)/(3 + 4)]
= 24 hours
Since they started at 7:30 am, they would meet at 7:30 am the next day.
24 (c)
Let loss be Rs. x.
Then, profit = {(100 – 15)/100} of x = 85x /100
1896 – (85x/100) = 1680 + x
Or x + (85/100) x = 1896 – 1680
Or 37x/20 = 216
Or x = (216 × 20) / 37
Or x = 116.76
So, Cost price of the article = 1680 + 116.76 = Rs. 1796.76
25 (c)
Total number of students enrolled in all the given states in M. Phill = 1500 + 250 + 1000 + 2000 + 500 +
1500 = 6750
Average number of students enrolled in all the given states in M. Phill = 6750/6 = 1125
26 (a)
Total number of students enrolled in B. Ed in Andhra Pradesh, Maharastra and West Bengal = 3250 + 3000
+ 2750 = 9000
Total number of students enrolled in M. Phill in Karnataka and M. Ed in Tamilnadu = 1000 + 2000 = 3000
Required percentage = [3000/9000] × 100 = 100/3% = 33.33%
27 (c)
Total expenses = 72000 + 24500 + 30000 + 32500 + 18600 = Rs. 177600
Expense made on transportation = Rs. 30000
So, 3600 = Rs. 177600
177600 → 3600
1 → 3600 / 177600
30000 → (3600 / 177600) × 30000 = 60.81o
28 (c)
It is given that, total number of students in a school is a prime number.
Let us assume that there are 47 students in that school.
If number of boys is 25, then number of girls will be 22.

There is no factor other than 1 between the number of boys and girls. Infact, any two positive integers are
co-prime if their sum is a prime number. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Difference between number of boys and girls will always be an odd number (or prime number in some cases
or maybe 0 in one particular case). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
29 (c)
p = xyz and q = zyx are 3 digit numbers.
B = p – q = (100x + 10y + z) – (100z + 10y + x) = 99x - 99y
So, statement I is correct.
Assume the numbers p and q to be 524 and 425 respectively.
B = p – q = 524 - 425 = 99, and
A = p + q = 524 + 425 = 949
Hence II and III are false.
30 (d)
a, b are natural numbers such that (a + b)/ab is also a natural number.
The pairs (a, b) satisfying the stated condition are:
(1, 1) and (2, 2)
Thus, there are more than one but a finite number of ways of choosing the pair (a, b).
31 (b)
Three bells chime at intervals of 18 minutes, 24 minutes and 32 minutes respectively.
Required time = LCM (18, 24, 32) = 288 minutes = 4 hours and 48 minutes
The bells will chime together again after a time interval of 4 hours and 48 minutes.
32 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect as it is beyond the scope of the passage. The author does highlight the harms and
demerits of anger and intolerance. However, to claim that anger and intolerance are the “worst” enemies of
human society would not be correct, as there is no such claim made in the passage.
Option (b) is correct. The lines “Intolerance can also cause one’s thoughts to not be clear because they
are too concerned with the anger, they feel towards something or someone. They are unable to see the
truth or correctness in what they are doing and do not consider all the facts before deciding”, from the
passage essentially correspond to the claim made in this option. Hence, the given option is the best crux of
the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of love and caring, as a solution to anger and intolerance is not touched
upon in the passage. Hence, this is not the best crux.
33 (b)
Statement 1 is not correct. To maximize the development effects of cross-border movements on the
migrants and refugees the World Development Report (WDR) 2023 offers an integrated framework. The
passage says, “World Development Report (WDR) 2023 proposes an integrated framework to
maximize the development impacts of cross-border movements on both destination and origin
countries and on migrants and refugees themselves”. It can be clearly inferred that WDR seeks to
enhance the impact of development on both migrants and refugees. However, we cannot infer the stand of
the report on illegal immigrants. It’s a grey area. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct. It is mentioned in the passage, “As the world struggles to cope with global
economic imbalances, diverging demographic trends, and climate change, migration will become a
necessity in the decades to come for countries at all levels of income”. So, irrespective of the income
levels of the countries, migration will become a necessity. Hence, it is a correct statement.

34 (d)
Statement 1 is not correct. The passage nowhere mentions that Jagannath Puri Temple is a World Heritage
Site or not. The passage mostly focuses on the ritual aspects of the temple with special emphasis on Rath
Yatra. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement 2 is not correct. The passage mentions three chariots “Taladhwaja Rath for Lord
Balabhadra, the Darpadalan Rath for Goddess Subhadra, and the Nandighosa Rath for Lord
Jagannath “. It is not mentioned in the passage that the colour and dimension of these chariots is changed
every year. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
35 (b)
Option (a) is not correct. Lord Jagannath is regarded as a manifestation (avatar) of Lord Vishnu. He
actually possesses all of Lord Vishnu's avatars' characteristics. But the passage does not mention that Rath
Yatra celebrates the reincarnation of Vishnu as Lord Jagannath. Hence, it is not a correct option.
Option (b) is correct. The passage clearly mentions, “The Rath Yatra takes place on the second day of the
Odia month of Ashadha Shukla Tithi (bright fortnight) every year to commemorate the journey of Lord
Jagannath and his two siblings from their abode —the 12th century Jagannath Temple, to the Gundicha
Temple, believed to be their aunt’s home”. It implies that the significance of Rath Yatra is in the celebration
of Lord Jagannath's voyage with his two siblings. Hence, it is a correct option.
Option (c) is not correct. The passage does not mention any incident related to Lord Ram. Hence, it is not
a correct option.
Option (d) is not correct. No incident of Mahabharata or Pandavas is mentioned in the passage. Hence, it
is not a correct option.
36 (b)
Both Jim and Della are moving in the same direction.
So, relative speed = 20 - 15 = 5 kmph. = 5 x (5/18) m/sec = 25/18 m/sec
To meet Jim, Della has to gain 300 m over him.
Time taken by Della to cover this extra 300 m with relative speed of 5 kmph = {300 / (25/18)} = 216
seconds.
37 (c)
Total number of balls = 120
It is given that there are 10 blue and 8 pink balls.
Number of other balls = 120 – 18 = 102.
So, probability of choosing a ball that is neither blue nor pink = 102/120 = 85%
38 (d)
Area of coffee shop = 5 metre × 4 metre = 20 square metres
Area of one tile = 0.2 metres × 0.2 metre = 0.04 square metres
Number of tiles required = Area of rectangular region / Area of one square tile = 20 square metres / 0.04
square metres = 500
Therefore, total cost of fitting the tiles = number of tiles × cost of fitting 1 tile = 500 × 40 = Rs. 20,000
39 (d)
Four largest single digit numbers are 6, 7, 8, and 9.
Case 1:
√{(w + z) x (x + y)} = √{(6 + 9) (7 + 8)} = √(15 × 15) = 15
Case 2:
√{(w + z) x (x + y)} = √{(6 + 7) (8 + 9)} = √(13 × 17) = √221
40 (c)
The number of distinct quadrilaterals that we can draw using six points = 6C4 = 6C2 = (6 × 5) / (2 × 1) = 15

41 (b)
LCM of 10, 15 and 20 = 60 units. Let it be the total capacity of tyre.
Efficiency of first puncture = 60/10 = 6 units/minute
Efficiency of second puncture = 60/15 = 4 units/minute
Efficiency of third puncture = 60/20 = 3 units/minute
Now, time taken to flat the tyre if all the punctures start to leak together = 60/(6 + 4 + 3) = 4.61 minutes.
42 (a)
Let the digit at tens place be ‘a’ and the digit at unit’s place be ‘b’.
Then, the two digit number formed will be (10a + b), and reverse of that number will be (10b + a)
The question states that, the ratio of a two-digit natural number to the number formed by reversing its digits
is 4 : 7.
So, (10a + b) /(10b + a) = 4/7
or 70a + 7b = 40b + 4a
or 66a = 33b
Therefore, a/b = 1/2
So, let us list down all possible values for a and b such that their ratio is 1 : 2.
a b Original Number Reversed Number
1 2 12 21
2 4 24 42
3 6 36 63
4 8 48 84
On observing the table carefully, we observe that the largest possible number is 48 and reverse of that
number is 84.
So, required difference = 84 - 48 = 36
43 (a)
4-digit numbers less than 2980 formed by the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, wherein none of the digits is repeated are:
1234, 1243, 1324, 1342, 1423, 1432, 2134, 2143, 2314, 2341, 2413, 2431
Required sum = 21774
44 (b)
Profit share of Aum = (1/3) Shubhra = 4 Konika ……………(i)
Aum + Vivek = Lavanya + Konika ………….(ii)
Lavanya - Vivek = Jyoti
Or Vivek = Lavanya - Jyoti ……….(iii)
On solving equations (i), (ii) and (iii):
Lavanya + Konika = 4 Konika + Lavanya - Jyoti
Or 3 Konika = Jyoti
If Konika’s profit share was 5000, then share of Jyoti = 3 × 5000 = Rs. 15000
45 (a)
5 years ago, average age of the family = 30 years.
Present average age of the family = 30 + 5 = 35 years
Total age of the family at present = 35 × 10 = 350 years
If the ages of grandfather and his eldest daughter are removed on the present day, then the present average
of the family will decrease by 3 years. It means average age of the rest of the 8 members of the family is
(35 - 3), i.e. 32 years.
Total age of 8 members of the family (after removing the ages of grandfather and his eldest daughter) = 32
× 8 = 256 years
So, sum of the ages of grandfather and his eldest daughter = 350 – 256 = 94 years
Grandfather + Eldest daughter = 94 ………..(1)
It is also given that, difference between the ages of grandfather and his eldest daughter is 20 years.
Grandfather - Eldest daughter = 20 ……….. (2)
Adding equations (1) and (2), we get:
Age of grandfather = (94 + 20)/2 = 57 years
46 (c)
In the time Abhijit covers 1000 m, Bijit covers 900 m and Chandrajit covers 800 m.
So, in the second race, when Abhijit covers 1000 m in this race, all of the three participants will be 200 m
away from the finish line.
As per the given speed, in a 200 m race (the distance left), Abhijit would defeat Bijit by 20 m.
47 (b)
Integers having 5 as a digit placed only at the unit place are: 105, 115, 125, 135, 145, 165, 175, 185 and 195
So, there are a total of 9 such integers.
Out of these, the integers which are divisible by 7 are 105 and 175.
48 (a)
Annual revenue = number of units sold × price per unit = n × 65 = 65n
Annual cost = Rs. (20,000 + 10n)
Annual profit from the sale of n items = Annual revenue - Annual cost = 65n - (20,000 + 10n) = 55n -
20,000.
Thus, 500,000 < 55n - 20,000 indicates that the total profit for this heart monitor in 2012 was greater than
Rs. 500,000
49 (d)
The average of a and b is greater than the average (arithmetic mean) of c and 2b.
So, (a + b)/2 > (c + 2b)/2
Or a + b > c + 2b
Or a > c + b
Thus, only statement III is correct.
50 (b)
In 6 hours, the population = current population + 200% of current population = 3 times of current population
Thus, the population after 6 hours will be 20,000 × (3).
After 12 hours, the population will be 20,000 × (3)2.
After 18 hours, the population will be 20,000 × (3)3, and so on.
If h hours have passed, then h/6 of these “tripling periods” have passed. So, the population after h hours =
20000 × (3)h/6
51 (c)
Options (a) and (d) are not correct. The purpose of zero FIR is to get a complaint registered ASAP.
Timely delivery of justice and proper medical help to victim can be related to FIR, but these are not the
main purpose of zero FIR. This makes options (a) and (d) incorrect.
Option (b) is not correct. Forensic investigation is out of context of the passage.
Option (c) is correct. The passage clearly mentions, “Zero FIR ensures that the victim doesn’t have to run
from pillar to post to get a police complaint registered”. Zero FIR ensures that the first step towards
grievance redressal is met as early as possible. Hence, it is a correct statement.

52 (a)
Statement 1 is correct. The passage clearly says, “When a police station receives a complaint regarding
an alleged offence that has been committed in the jurisdiction of another police station, it registers an FIR
and then transfers it to the relevant police station for further investigation. This is called a Zero FIR. No
regular FIR number is given. After receiving the Zero FIR, the revenant police station registers a fresh FIR
and starts the investigation.” It’s obvious that one needs to file Zero FIR only when he/she is reporting the
crime in non-jurisdictional police stations. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is not correct. The passage says, “The provision of Zero FIR came up after the
recommendation in the report of the Justice Verma Committee, which was constituted to suggest
amendments to the Criminal Law in a bid to provide for faster trial and enhanced punishment for criminals
accused of committing sexual assault against women”. It implies that the committee was constituted with
the objective of not only severe punishments for the accused but also to provide a faster trial. Hence, it is
not a correct statement.
53 (c)
Option 1 is correct. The passage clearly mentions, “The primary objections were on grounds of privacy,
utility and possibility of misuse”. This implies that breach of privacy along with possible misuse and
utilization of the DNA Technology bill is among the primary objections against it. Hence, it is a correct
option.
Option 2 is correct. Concerns have been raised regarding the potential for racial profiling in the application
of this law. It is mentioned in the passage - “In recent years, apprehensions were raised about the possibility
of this law being used for racial profiling”. Hence, it is a correct option.
Option 3 is correct. Yet another objection was that the police couldn't be relied upon to request DNA
samples for their investigation. The passage says, “It was even argued that the police could not be trusted
to seek DNA tests in their investigations”. Hence, it is a correct option.
Option 4 is not correct. The passage nowhere mentions anything about virus attack on the DNA database.
Hence, it is not a correct option.
54 (a)
Statement 1 is correct. The passage clearly says, “The Bill had three primary objectives. First, it sought
to set up a DNA profiling board as the regulatory body, one of the functions of which would be to provide
accreditation to laboratories authorized to carry out DNA sample tests”. This implies that the creation of
regulatory authority is proposed. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage clearly says, “The Bill also provided for the creation of databases —
DNA Data Banks — for storing DNA information collected from convicts and accused”. Hence, it is a
correct statement.
Statement 3 is not correct. It is not mentioned in the passage that DNA information will be connected to
each person's Aadhaar card. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
55 (a)
Statement 1 is correct. It is mentioned in the passage, “As of now, there is a lag between trade and
settlement — the settlement date is different from the trade date”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is not correct. The passage mentions, “A trade settlement is said to be complete once
purchased securities of a listed company are delivered to the buyer, and the seller gets the money”. This
implies that only when the buyer gets the purchased securities and seller gets the money, a trade settlement
is considered to have been completed. Hence, it is not a correct statement.

56 (d)
Let s = the total number of athletes in the group who play soccer, and t = the number of athletes in the group
who run track.
We can set up a Venn diagram to show the relationship between these two overlapping sets.
Since one-third of the soccer players also run track, we must put s/3 in the overlapping region between
soccer and track, and therefore the number of players who play only soccer is 2s/3.
Likewise, since one-half of the athletes who run track also play soccer, we must put t/2 in the overlapping
region, and therefore the number of athletes who only run track is t/2.
Since there are 60 athletes in total.
So, (2/3) s + (½)t + ( ½)t = 60
Or (2s/3) + t = 60
Or 2s + 3t = 180
The number of soccer players who run track must be equal to the number of track athletes who play soccer.
So, (1/3)s = (1/2)t
Or 2s = 3t
Substituting 2s = 3t into the previous equation, we get:
3t + 3t = 180
Or 6t = 180
Or t = 30
So, 2s = 3×30 = 90
Or s = 45
Now we can use these values to complete the Venn diagram:
From this diagram, we can see that the number of soccer players in this group is 15 greater than the number
of track team members.
57 (c)
Vessel A contains x litres of milk and vessel B has y litres of water.
After the transfer:
Quantity of milk in vessel A = x – z
Quantity of milk in vessel B = z
Percentage of milk in vessel A = [(x – z)/x] × 100
Percentage of milk in vessel B = (z/y) × 100
Percentage of milk becomes the same in these two vessels after such an operation.
So, [(x – z)/x] × 100 = (z/y) × 100
Or (x - z)/x = z/y
Or xy = xz + yz
Or xy = (x + y)z
58 (a)
As per the question, A + B > C + D ……………..(i)
A + C = B + D …………………(ii)
A = (B + D)/2
Or B + D = 2A …………………….(iii)
Putting value of (B + D) in (ii), we get:
A + C = 2A
Or A = C
Using (i):
A+B>C+D
So, B > D
Using (iii): B > A.
So, statement (a) is wrong.
59 (a)
Charge for Airtel for 15 days = 15 × 90 = Rs 1350
Charge for Idea for 15 days = 1350 – 10% of 1350 = 1350-135 = Rs 1215
Total monthly expense on data = 1350 + 1215 = Rs 2565
Required percentage = (135/2565) × 100 = 5.2 % (approx)
60 (d)
Let the total number of students be x.
Number of students that passed = 38% of x
Number of students that failed = (100 - 38)% of x = 62% of x
(62% of x) – (38% of x) = 60
Or 24% of x = 60
Or x = 250
Thus, the total number of students who appeared in the examination is 250.
61 (b)
Let the cost price of two sofas be Rs. 500 and Rs. 300 respectively.
∴ SP1 = 500 (1 – x/100) = 500 – 5x
SP2 = 300 (1 + 2x/100) = 300 + 6x
SP1 + SP2 = (500 – 5x) + (300 + 6x) = 800 + x
Profit = Total SP – Total CP = (800 + x) – (500 + 300) = Rs. x
In the entire transaction he made a net profit of 2.5%.
So, Profit = 2.5% of (500 + 300) = 2.5% of 800 = Rs. 20
So, x = 20
62 (d)
Either statement alone is not sufficient to find discount percentage offered on item x.
Combining S1 and S2:
S.P. = 20 + {(25/100) × 20)} = Rs. 25
M.P. ≤ Rs. 30

∴ Discount ≤ 5
If MP = Rs. 30, Discount = Rs. 5
Hence, the discount percentage = (5/30) × 100 = 16.67%
If MP = Rs. 26, Discount = Rs. 1
Hence, the discount percentage = (1/26) × 100 = 3.85%
So, Discount percentage may or may not be less than 16%.
Thus, both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.
63 (d)
Let the number of days on which he completed the task be x and the number of day/days on which he did
not complete the task be y. There are 30 days in June month.
If he completed the task on every day of the month, i.e. on all the 30 days, the amount earned by him would
have been 30 × 50 = Rs. 1500
But at the end of the month he earned only Rs. 1430.
It means that he missed out on 1500 – 1420 = Rs. 80.
It means that he must have earned Rs. 50 on 26 days and Rs. 30 on 4 days.
64 (a)
Kavi borrowed Rs. 72000 from Kanchan and Krishna. At the end of one year he paid Rs. 6120 as interest.
Average rate of interest that Kavi paid = (6120 × 100)/(72000 × 1) = 8.5%
Kanchan charges 12% per annum compound interest and Krishna charges 7% per annum compound interest.
By allegation method,
The ratio of sum borrowed = 1.5 : 3.5 = = 3:7

Sum borrowed from Krishna = [7/(7 + 3)] × 72000 = (7/10) × 72000 = Rs. 50400
65 (d)
From S1:
We know the angle of elevation and the distance. So, we can find the height of the statue of Shivaji.
From S2:
We can find the height of telephone tower.
∴ Using both statements, we can find which is taller.
Thus, both the statements together are sufficient to answer the question.
66 (c)
Let the age of the lady at the time of her death be X.
Age spent as child = X/12
Age spent as a teenager = X/7
Age spent between adulthood and marriage = X/6
Age of daughter = X – (X/12 + X/7 + X/6 + 3 + 6) = X - 33X/84 – 9 = 51X/84 – 9
Now, 2(51X/84 – 9) = X
Or 18X/84 = 18
Or X = 84.
Age of daughter = X/2 = 42 years

67 (b)
Given, Radius (r) = 7 m and height (h) = 24 m
∴ Slant height (l)= √r2 + h2 = √{(7)2 + (24)2} = √625 = 25 m
Let the length of the canvas be x m.
Curved surface area of the cone = Area of the canvas
Or (22/7) × 7 × 25 = 11x
Or x = 50 m
68 (a)
The distance that the ball falls in successive seconds is in A.P with a common difference of 10 m.
Let the distance that it falls through in the 20th second (in meters) be Tn.
Tn = a1 + (n - 1)d
Here, n = 20, a1 = 6, d = 10
∴ T20 = 6 + (20 – 1) × 10 = 6 + 19 × 10 = 196 m
Hence, the distance through which the ball falls in the 20th second 196 m.
69 (a)
Statement 1 is correct. The passage says, “This floating barrier poses threats to navigation and public
safety and presents humanitarian concerns”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage says, “…the presence of the floating barrier has prompted diplomatic
protests by Mexico and risks damaging US foreign policy.” Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 3 is not correct. The passage does not say that floating barriers will create any kind of refugee
crisis. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
70 (d)
Statement (a) is not correct. The passage does not mention anything about variants of malaria. Hence, it
is not a correct statement.
Statement (b) is not correct. The passage does not mention that local transmission of malaria may prove
deadly to elders and children. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement (c) is not correct. The passage does not mention anything regarding the immunization costs
with regards to malaria. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement (d) is correct. This is the first instance of local transmission of malaria in 20 years and it is
alarming according to the authorities. The passage says, “The five cases have raised alert because this is
the first time in 20 years that there has been local transmission of malaria in the United States. The last
time the infection was transmitted by a mosquito locally in the country was in 2003 when eight people in
Florida were infected”. Hence, it is a correct statement.
71 (c)
Assumption 1 is correct. This is supported by the passage where it mentions, “It tries to create social
stability through financial inclusion and play an active role in the social empowerment of the people in
rural areas.” The passage also indicates that SHGs create social stability through financial inclusion and
active participation in decision-making. Hence, we can safely say that SHGs have helped in overcoming
socio-economic marginalisation.
Assumption 2 is correct. The lines, “The social impact of SHGs on women’s empowerment is noticeable”
and “Such continuous efforts lead to the societal transformation of women in rural areas” indicate towards
the assumption made in the option statement. So, this assumption is correct as per the passage.
72 (a)
Option (a) is correct. Refer to the lines “It tries to create social stability through financial inclusion and
play an active role in the social empowerment of the people in rural areas.” and “Field evidence shows
that SHG members can easily become involved in households’ decision-making and bring positive changes
in their life.” These lines show that SHGs improve social, economic and personal lives of rural people.
Option (b) is incorrect. The line “Since the 1970s, SHGs have been playing an essential role in different
states of India by contributing mostly to democratising many institutions that stand for the deprived sections
of society”, only states that SHGs are present in different states. It nowhere means that SHGs are limited to
a few states only. Hence, this option is not correct as per the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of the urban poor and its relationship with SHGs is not mentioned in
the passage. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The context of financial independence of children with the help of SHGs is not a
part of the passage. Therefore, this option is not correct.
73 (b)
Time when Ajay reached the bus stop = 8:40 am
He needs to walk for 10 minute to reach the bus stop
Time when he left home = 8:40 am – 10 minutes = 8:30 am
He left the home 15 minutes earlier than usual.
So, usual time when he leaves home = 8:30 + 15 minutes = 8:45 am
74 (d)
The quantities of milk and water in containers A and B at different stages are tabulated below.
A B
Milk Water Milk Water
10 0 0 10
9 0 1 10
9 + (1/11) = 100/11 10/11 10/11 100/11
The final amount of milk in container A is 100/11 litres.
75 (a)
Given, 10 ≤ x ≤ 20 and 2y – x = 2
So, y = (x + 2)/2
Let E = x/(x + y)
E = x / {x + [(x + 2)/2]} [ Since, y = (x + 2)/2]
Or E = 2x / (3x + 2)
Or E = 2/{3 + (2/x)}
Here, E will be the maximum when {3 + (2/x)} is the minimum.
{3 + (2/x)} is minimum when x is maximum, i.e. x = 20.
∴Emax = 2/(3 + 0.1) = 20/31
76 (c)
Given, f(x) = ax5 + bx3 – cx + 3 and f(4) = 10
Putting x = 4 in f(x), we get:
(4)5a + (4)3b – 4c + 3 = 10
Or 45a + 43b – 4c = 7 …… (i)
Putting x = -4 in f(x), we get:
f(-4) = (-4)5a + (-4)3b + 4c + 3
Or f(-4) = –(45a + 43b – 4c) + 3
Or f(-4) = -7 + 3 [from equation (i)]
Or f(-4) = -4
77 (b)
In one hour, the monkey climbs 30 feet and falls back 20 feet. So, effectively he climbs 10 feet every hour.
Starting at 9 am, he will climb 90 feet in 9 hours.
After the 9th hour, when he starts climbing, he will reach 120 feet.
So, the monkey will reach the top first after 9 hours, i.e. between 6 pm and 7 pm.
78 (b)
Given,
P(A) : P(A̅) = 4:3
P(A) = 4/7 and P(A̅) = 3/7
P(B) : P(B̅) = 2:1
P(B) = 2/3 and P(B̅) = 1/3
P(C) : P(C̅) = 1:4
P(C) = 1/5 and P(C̅) = 4/5
Now the majority of the selectors are favorable if any two are favorable and the third is unfavorable, or all
the three are favorable.
Hence, required probability = (4/7) (2/3) (4/5) + (3/7) (2/3) (1/5) + (4/7) (1/5) (1/3) + (4/7) (2/3) (1/5)
= (32/105) + (6/105) + (4/105) + (8/105)
= (32 + 6 + 4 + 8)/105
= 50/105
= 10/21
79 (b)
Rohan, Sohan and Mohan can do a piece of work separately in 5 days, 10 days and 12 days.
Ratio of their wages = 1/5 : 1/10: 1/12 = {(1/5) ×60}:{(1/10)×60}:{(1/12)×60} = 12:6:5
∴ Mohan’s share = [5/(12 + 6 + 5)] × 1380 = {(5/23) × 1380} = Rs. 300
80 (c)
Time taken by the boat to cover the distance from A to B = 12/(4 + 2) = 12/6 = 2 hours
Time taken by the boat to cover the distance from B to C = 18/(7 + 2) = 18/9 = 2 hours
∴ Total time taken by the boat in downstream = 2 + 2 = 4 hours

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VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

the Test Booklet.
sheet.
be deducted.
1
1. If 9×7 = IX; 12×5 = VI; 5×4 = II, then 9×4 =? Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
(a) IX Read the following two passages and answer the items
(b) XII that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
(c) II should be based on the passages only.
(d) VI Passage – 1
Conservation programs in the Himalayan region are
2. Study the following information and answer the mandated by government agencies, but there is little
question that follows. transnational coordination. Cooperation among the
'time is money' is coded as 'tis nim jes' Himalayan nations is vital for designing a robust
'money buy happiness' is coded as 'lop xer nim' conservation strategy and meeting the numerous recent
'save your time' is coded as 'tis hop hix' challenges threatening the Himalayas. The Himalayan
'your happiness is important' is coded as 'xer
region, with its unparalleled ecological significance, is
mop hix jes'
under increasing threat from urbanization, deforestation,
What can be the possible code of ‘save your
tourism, and climate change. Effective implementation
important documents’?
of laws is imperative to curb unchecked development
(a) hix jes kop hop
that could lead to irreversible damage. Preserving the
(b) xer mop hop kop
Himalayas not only safeguards biodiversity but also
(c) hop hix mop kop
ensures the well-being of millions who depend on its
(d) nim hop hix mop
resources. By imposing laws rigorously, we can uphold
the Himalayas' ecological balance, maintain vital water
3. Four persons A, B, C and D consisting of two
sources, and set a global precedent for responsible
married couples are in a group. Both the women
conservation in vulnerable and ecologically significant
are shorter than their respective husbands. A is
regions.
the tallest among the four. B is shorter than C, D
is brother of B. In this context, which one of the
following statements is not correct? assumptions have been made:
(a) All the four people have family ties. 1. Human led development is the sole cause
(b) C is not the shortest among the four. threatening the ecological balance of the
(c) D is shorter than C. Himalayas.

(d) B is the wife of A. 2. Along with exploiting Himalayan resources,
Himalayan nations should focus on their
4. Find the next term in the following series. conservation as well.
W, W, V, U, S, P, ? Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid?
(a) L (a) 1 only
(b) O (b) 2 only
(c) K (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) N (d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Which of the following statements can be the 7. Which of the following statements best reflects
most rational inference drawn from the above the crux of the passage?
passage? (a) The values of corporate governance do not
(a) Conservation of the Himalayas requires not subscribe to the capitalist model of business.
(b) The inclusion of societal and environmental
only programs but also effective financing.
considerations makes profit-making for
(b) Strict enforcement of laws and transnational
corporate people difficult.
coordination may protect Himalayas and
(c) To achieve a more shared and durable
other such ecologically vulnerable regions
prosperity, corporations should work for the
also.
society and consumers, and not for profit.
(c) Exploited Himalayas mean loss of (d) The changed outlook of corporate people
biodiversity and a vulnerable future towards the society is to an extent based on
generation. the demands of the people.
(d) The Himalayas need better laws to protect
itself from irreversible damage. 8. Four positions of a dice are given below.
Passage – 2
Capitalism has provided unprecedented wealth and
prosperity around the world, but a growing community
Identify which letter would be at the bottom
is raising concerns about whether the promise of the
when the letter U is at the top?
capitalist system to achieve a more shared and durable
(a) T
prosperity can be achieved without systemic changes in (b) R
the way for-profit corporations are governed and (c) Q
managed. The change in public opinion has become (d) P
evident among workers, consumers, and investors, as
well as through new policies enacted by elected officials, 9. Four positions of a dice are given below.
more than ever before, the public supports businesses

that demonstrate positive social change and sustainable
How many points will appear on the face
development. These new attitudes have begun to take
opposite to the face containing 4 points?
root in corporations themselves, with a growing
(a) 1 point
community of investors, business leaders, and
(b) 2 points
entrepreneurs expressing a fiduciary duty to create value (c) 6 points
not only for shareholders but for society. (d) 5 points

10. A cube is painted violet on all faces and divided 13. Who is the fastest in the group?
into 729 smaller cubes of equal dimensions. (a) V
How many such cubes have no paint on any of (b) T

(c) S
their faces?
(d) X
(a) 343
(b) 216
14. The faces on a dice are numbered from 1 to 6. If
(c) 125
3 is adjacent to 2, 4 and 6, then which of the
(d) 512
following statements is necessarily true?
(a) 3 must be adjacent to 1.
Direction for the following 3 (three) items: (b) 1 must be opposite to 5.
Study the following information carefully and answer the (c) 2 must be opposite to 6.
questions that follow: (d) 1 must be adjacent to 5.
These are six friends—S, T, U, V, W, X in a group.

Following information is given about their weights and 15. In a certain coding system:
18 & 6 % 5 @ 9 = 48
speeds.
8 @ 15 & 3 * 7 = 33
(i) U is not the heaviest, while X is not the fastest.
Then the value of 9 @ 6 * 36 % 12 = ?
(ii) The lightest of the group is the fastest of the group.
(a) 50
(iii) V is faster than T, who is faster than W.
(b) 40
(iv) U is slower than T, but is heavier than T. (c) 45
(v) V is lighter than W, but heavier than S. (d) 30
(vi) W is faster than U, while T is heavier than W. Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
11. Who is the heaviest person of the group? Study the following information carefully and answer the
(a) T questions that follow.
(b) X Six lectures on different subjects are to be organised in a

college starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of
(c) U
the same week. Physics lecture is not on Tuesday or
(d) V
Saturday. Chemistry lecture is to be held immediately
12. What is the rank of T in the decreasing order of
after Mathematics lecture. Economics lecture is on
weights?
Wednesday and there is one day gap between Economics
(a) Third and Computer Science lectures. Mathematics lecture is
(b) Fourth held before Computer Science lecture. The day before
(c) Second the English lecture is an off day. Monday, Thursday or
(d) First Friday is not that off day.

16. Which of the following is the last scheduled Passage – 1
lecture? The positive spillovers of inclusion are indisputable and

(a) Chemistry well documented: greater workforce participation,
(b) Computer Science higher creativity, and more capital allocated to children’s
(c) Economics needs. However, poorly conceived measures to boost
(d) English inclusion can have unintended negative consequences
that can include distorted product markets, reduced

17. How many lectures are scheduled between
investment, or faster environmental depletion. For
Economics and Chemistry?
example, in developing economies, free or highly
(a) Three
subsidized nonvolumetric pricing of electricity used to
(b) Two
pump water can lead to groundwater depletion. Efforts
(c) One
to achieve equality can also backfire if they become a
(d) None of these
box-ticking exercise, or a quota-driven program, which
may fail to address the root causes of inequality. As a

18. Which day is Physics scheduled on?
result, the goal of achieving a fairer workplace or society
(a) Wednesday
may not be achieved, and outcomes may even worsen for
(b) Friday
certain groups.
(c) Tuesday
(d) Thursday
1. The state of agriculture in developing

19. Which day is the off day?
economies requires free or highly
(a) Saturday
subsidized electricity.
(b) Friday
(c) Tuesday 2. The outcome of inclusion depends on how it
(d) Thursday is envisioned.
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: (a) 1 only
Read the following two passages and answer the items (b) 2 only
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items (c) Both 1 and 2

As India assumed the presidency of the G20 group of inferred from the above passage?
countries for 2022 to 2023, Indian External Affairs
1. The G20 or Group of 20 is an
Minister S Jaishankar said on December 1 that the
country would be the “voice of the Global South, that is intergovernmental forum comprising 19
otherwise under-represented in such forums”. The term countries and the European Union (EU).
has since been used multiple times, such as when 2. During the Cold War countries were
Jaishankar said of ongoing global conflicts, “polarisation
categorized based on political alliance.
may occur elsewhere, the people who suffer most are the
Global South”. ‘Global North’ refers loosely to countries Select the correct answer using the code given
like the US, Canada, Europe, Russia, Australia and New below.
Zealand, while ‘Global South’ includes countries in
(a) 1 only
Asia, Africa and South America. For a long time in the
study of international political systems, the method of (b) 2 only
categorising countries into broad categories for easier (c) Both 1 and 2
analysis has existed. The concepts of ‘East’ and ‘West’ (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is one example of this, with the Western countries
generally signifying greater levels of economic
development and prosperity among their people, and 22. Why was a new system of country classification
Eastern countries considered as being in the process of required in the post-Cold War era?
that transition. Another similar categorisation is of First (a) Geopolitics underwent a drastic change.
World, Second World and Third World countries,
(b) World politics became unipolar.
referring to countries associated with the Cold war-era
alliances of the US, the USSR, and non-aligned (c) Poor countries wanted patronage of
countries, respectively. At the center of these concepts is developed countries.
the World Systems approach introduced by sociologist
(d) To break superpowers hegemony a new
Immanuel Wallerstein in 1974, emphasizing an
classification was required.
interconnected perspective of looking at world politics.
He said there are three major zones of production: core,
peripheral and semi-peripheral. The core zones reap 23. Examine the following statements carefully:
profits, being the owners of cutting-edge technologies –
1. Lady’s finger is costlier than cabbage.
countries like the US or Japan. Peripheral zones, on the
other hand, engage in less sophisticated production that 2. Potato is costlier than lady’s finger.
is more labor-intensive. In the middle are countries like 3. Cabbage is not costlier than peas.
India and Brazil. In the post-Cold War world, the First The conclusion that can be drawn from the
World/Third World classification was no longer feasible,
above statements is that:
because when the Communist USSR disintegrated in
1991, most countries had no choice but to ally at some (a) Peas are as costly as Lady’s finger.
level with the capitalist US – the only remaining global (b) Peas are as costly as potato and lady’s finger
superpower. Other classifiers have also seen criticism. (c) Cabbage is least costly of the four
The East/West binary was seen as often perpetuating
vegetables.
stereotypical thinking about African and Asian
countries. (d) Potato is costlier than cabbage.

24. A carpenter had a large wooden cube with a side Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
length of 5 inches. He wanted to cut it into 125 Read the following two passages and answer the items
smaller cubes with a side length of 1 inch. What
is the least number of cuts required if the
rearrangement of the pieces before/after making should be based on the passages only.
a cut is not allowed? Passage - 1
(a) 12
Gabon on August 15, 2023 announced a $500 million
(b) 9
(c) 15 debt-for-nature swap. In Africa, it is the largest such deal
(d) 10 signed by any country to refinance its debt and conserve
marine resources. Debt-for-nature swaps allow heavily
25. If 15 (4860) 12; 13 (1820) 7; then 17 (?) 12
(a) 4560 indebted developing countries to seek help from
(b) 5480 financial institutions in the developed world with paying
(c) 3768 off their debt if they agree to spend on the conservation
(d) 5916
of natural resources. Usually banks in developed
26. Find the next term in the following series. countries buy the debts of such countries and replace
NM, SRQ, ZYXW, ? them with new loans which mature later. These have
(a) GFEDC
lower interest rates. Gabon’s debt has been restructured
(b) CDEFG
(c) IHGFE under a Blue Bond in the world’s second-largest debt-
(d) EFGHI for-nature swap. In May 2023, the world’s first and
largest debt swap to conserve oceans was signed by
27. Find the next term in the following series.
PVB, IOU, BHN,? Ecuador. The country had exchanged $1.6 billion
(a) LSG denominated bonds for a new $656 million loan. Under
(b) UAG
the debt-for-nature swap, Gabon has agreed to a deal
(c) USG
(d) PMR with the Bank of America, the US International
Development Finance Corporation (USDFC) and The
28. A cube is painted red on two opposite faces, blue Nature Conservancy (TNC), to refinance $500 million in
on other pair of opposite faces and black on the
national debt toward marine conservation efforts in the
remaining opposite faces. It is then cut into
smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the size of country. This is the fourth project under TNC’s “Blue
the edge of smaller cubes is one fourth the size Bonds for Ocean Conservation” strategy. Gabon is the
of the edge of original cube. The number of
fourth country to partner with TNC on a Blue Bonds
smaller cubes which have only one face painted
as red is: project after Seychelles, Belize and Barbados. As part of
(a) 4 the deal with Gabon, USDFC is providing political risk
(b) 8
insurance of up to $500 million for the financing, which
(c) 10
(d) 16 lowers the cost of debt for Gabon.

29. Which of the following statements can be 31. You have been given two similar sequences in
inferred from the above passage? two rows:
1. Only G7 countries can buy debt for nature Sequence-I: 4 13 33 89.5 275.5 971.25
swaps from developing countries. Sequence-II: 8 A B C D E
2. Climate financing holds more importance
What should be the entry in the place of D in
for island countries, as they are more prone
Sequence-II?
to climate change disasters.
(a) 365.5
(b) 102.5
below.
(c) 937.5
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (d) 328.5
(c) Both 1 and 2 32. In the series u _ s u _ s s _s _ _ t u _ t; fill in the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 six blanks (_) using one of the following choices
Passage - 2 such that the series follows a specific order.
Regional climate models, finely tuned to specific (a) uusutt
geographic areas, offer insights into the intricate (b) tustts
interactions between climate patterns and agricultural (c) ttutsu
systems. By simulating localized climate scenarios, they (d) uutstt
empower farmers and policymakers to anticipate shifts
in temperature, precipitation, and other environmental 33. If 16  8  13 = 17, 7  15  18 = 18, 12  28
factors. This knowledge enables the identification of
 7 = 12, what is the value of 14  9  16 ?
suitable crop varieties, irrigation strategies, and planting
(a) 19
schedules that align with changing conditions.
(b) 9
Additionally, regional climate models aid in mitigating
risks associated with extreme weather events, allowing (c) 13
for better resource allocation and adaptive planning. (d) 15
reflects the crux of the passage? 34. Alphabets A, B, C, D, E and F have been printed
(a) It is crucial to fight against climate change on 6 faces of a dice. The dice is rolled two times
not only for regional considerations, but for as shown in the following figure.
global considerations as well.
(b) Farmers must be equipped to understand the
findings of regional climate models to
ensure their better application in agriculture.
(c) The development of regional climate
Find the alphabet opposite to B.
models helps in choosing climate-smart
(a) E
agricultural practices.
(b) A
(d) The agricultural output is completely
(c) D
dependent on the efficiency of robust
(d) C
regional climate models.

35. If a, b, c, d and e are real numbers such that a + Passage – 1
b < c + d, b + c < d + e, c + d < e + a and d + e < Droughts across the world are significantly more
common than the data recorded by Gravity Recovery and
a + b, then Climate Experiment (GRACE) from 2002-2017, a new
(a) the largest number is a and the smallest is b. analysis by scientists from the University of Bonn
showed. Major droughts are also spread across wider
(b) the largest number is a and the smallest is c.
geographies, they found, highlighting limitations of
(c) the largest number is e and the smallest is c. satellite data. The GRACE twin satellites, launched
(d) the largest number is c and the smallest is b. jointly by the space research organisations of the United
States and Germany in 2002, have provided data on all
of Earth’s water reservoirs, over land, ice and oceans.
36. A box has to be made using the sheet shown “The spatial resolution of the data on the gravitational
below. field is relatively inexact at about 300 to 350 kilometers
as a result of the measurement principle applied.” This
means, she added, that reliable statements can only be
made for areas around 100,000 square kilometers in size.
“To give some idea of scale, this minimum area is still
larger than Bavaria, Germany’s largest federal state at
‘only’ 70,000 or so square kilometers.” By contrast,
Which symbol will be on the opposite face of $? global hydrological models permit a resolution of 50
kilometers or even less, the article noted. The researchers
(a) & who made the new analysis combined the GRACE
(b) @ measurements with the hydrological model Water GAP
for the first time to show, more precisely than ever
(c) %
before, how the total distribution of water over the
(d) # Earth’s land surfaces has changed in the last two
decades. “The new method allows us to test out model
calculations on the future effects of climate change,
37. Two positions of a dice are shown below.
particularly how rising temperatures and changes in
precipitation patterns will impact the water balance in
different parts of the world,” Jürgen Kusche from the
Institute of Geodesy and Geoinformation at the
University of Bonn was quoted as saying in the
university blog.
Which digit will appear on the face opposite
to the face having number 6? inferred from the above passage?
(a) 5 1. It is possible that satellites can't deliver
precise data.
(b) 9 2. Climate change will impact the global water
(c) 4 balance.
3. Tropical countries will be the worst affected
(d) 7
by the change in water balance.
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items (c) 1 and 3 only
should be based on the passages only. (d) All 1, 2 and 3

Passage – 2 39. Why is Hurricane Hilary a rarity?
The United States sees its fair share of hurricanes. As per (a) Tropical storms do not occur along the coast
the country’s National Weather Service (NWS), in an of California
average 3-year period, roughly five hurricanes strike the (b) The hurricane will make landfall within
US coastline – but never in the west coast. This is why territorial areas of California and Mexico.
Hurricane Hilary, which is currently racing towards (c) Coastal California usually witnesses
Southern California and Mexico, is so out of the temperate cyclones.
ordinary. Though California, in the past, has felt the (d) California comes under anti-cyclonic zone.
effects of hurricanes, they typically remain well offshore
and subside to become tropical storms by the time they 40. With reference to the above passage, consider
make landfall. And even these tropical storms are rare. the following statements.
Last year’s Hurricane Kay was the first tropical storm to 1. The coast around California does not have
impact California in a quarter of a century, and it lost warm water which is required for tropical
most of its force by the time it hit the coast. Prior to that, cyclone formation.
Hurricane Nora moved over Southern California as a 2. Californians and Mexicans are not
tropical storm in 1997. As per a 2004 report by the accustomed to enduring cyclones.
American Meteorological Society, the only tropical Which of the statements given above is/are
storm with hurricane-force winds believed to have hit correct?
Southern California came in October 1858, with San (a) 1 only
Diego bearing its brunt. “It is rare, indeed nearly (b) 2 only
unprecedented in the modern record, to have a tropical (c) Both 1 and 2
system like this move through Southern California,” (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Greg Postel, a hurricane and storm specialist at the
Weather Channel, told CBS News. Unlike states like Direction for the following 2 (two) items:
Florida, Louisiana and Texas on the Gulf of Mexico, Study the following information carefully and answer the
which have learnt over the years on how to survive questions that follow.
hurricanes, for Californians and Mexicans in the west, it 216 cubes of the same size are arranged in the form of a
is a novel, terrifying, experience. As per latest estimates, bigger cube on a table. Then a column of six cubes is
the hurricane will make landfall in the Baja peninsula in removed from each of the four vertical edges. Thereafter,
Mexico, roughly 330 km south of the port of Ensenada. all the exposed faces of the rest of the solid are colored
It will move north from there, bringing record rainfall yellow (except the face which is on the table).
and extremely strong winds. Tijuana, a sprawling border 41. How many small cubes are there in the solid
metropolis of 1.9 million people in Mexico, is at risk of after the removal of the four columns?
landslides and flooding, because of its hilly terrain, (a) 196
extremely high density of population and poor quality of (b) 192
housing and infrastructure. Mexico has mobilized over (c) 208
18,000 troops in anticipation of the storm. (d) 204

42. How many cubes do not have any coloured face? Which color is on the opposite surface of
(a) 60 yellow color?

(a) Blue
(b) 80
(b) Purple
(c) 70 (c) Violet
(d) 85 (d) Pink
45. The following information is known about the

43. Given below are three folded dice and an
ages of Amit, Binod, Chandan and Divyanshu.
unfolded dice. 1. Either Amit and Binod are of same age or
Amit is older than Binod.
2. Either Chandan and Divyanshu are of same
age, or Divyanshu is older than Chandan.
3. Binod is older than Chandan.
Which of the following conclusions can be
drawn from the above statements?
(a) Amit is older than Binod.
(b) Binod and Divyanshu are of same age.
(c) Divyanshu is older than Chandan
Choose the dice that can be formed from the (d) Amit is older than Chandan
given sheet of paper (i.e. from the unfolded

46. The following table shows the information
dice). related to the performance of a class of 700
(a) Only (i) and (ii) students in three different tests.
Tests I II III
(b) Only (i) and (iii)
Average marks 60 52 68
(c) Only (ii) and (iii)
Range of marks 30 – 85 45 – 74 0 –100
(d) All (i), (ii) and (iii) Shyam scored 74 in all the tests. In which of the
following tests his performance was best
comparatively?
44. Four positions of a dice are given below.
(a) Test I
(b) Test II
(c) Test III
(d) Test II and Test III

47. Consider the following information and answer 48. Which one of the following statements best
the question that follows. reflects the crux of the passage?
(i) The length, breadth and height of a cuboid (a) The quality of leisure in any society depends
shaped wooden block is 4 cm, 3 cm and 6 on the automation level it has achieved.
cm respectively. (b) Use of automation is the only way to create
(ii) Two faces measuring 6 cm×4cm are colored
a large leisured population.
black.
(c) For any society retention of jobs should be
(iii) Two faces measuring 4 cm×3cm are colored
more valuable than leisure or enjoyment.
red.
(d) By eliminating monotony technology
(iv) Two faces measuring 6 cm×3cm are colored
improves the quality of life for humans, but
yellow.
(v) Now the block is divided into small cubes of it should not be at the cost of livelihood.
side 1 cm each. Passage – 2
Food systems have enabled enough food to be grown to
How many small cubes will have at least two
keep pace with the rapidly increasing population while
coloured faces, one with red and other with
reducing devastating famines that caused hundreds of
yellow?
millions of deaths, but with that great acceleration have
(a) 10
come trade-offs and new challenges, particularly with
(b) 12
climate change, ecosystem resilience and deepening
(c) 8
(d) 15 issues of inequity, which hamper progress to ensure that
all people are well nourished. Food systems objectives
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: have therefore progressed from producing enough
Read the following three passages and answer the items nutritious food to feed the world to doing so in an
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items environmentally sustainable way while facilitating fair
should be based on the passages only. and equitable livelihoods, social justice, and respect for
Passage – 1 cultural values.
By embracing automation, societies can liberate human 49. Which of the following statements best reflects
beings from repetitive tasks and create space for leisure
pursuits. This shift could lead to a larger leisured
(a) Food systems are incomplete without social
population, with individuals freed to pursue creative,
justice, religious values and fertilizers.
intellectual, and social activities. However, a balanced
(b) The nutritious food for the rising population
approach is crucial, as unchecked automation might also
comes at a cost of the environment, profits
bring about job displacement and societal inequalities.
By carefully managing the integration of machines into and religious values.
various sectors, we can strive for a harmonious (c) Despite challenges, the objective of food
coexistence where technology uplifts livelihoods, systems is not merely limited to feeding the
allowing more to savour the enriching benefits of leisure rising population.
time. (d) Both (a) and (b)

Passage – 3 51. The dimensions of a cuboid are 3cm×4cm×5cm.
Roughly 2 billion air conditioning units are now in Its opposite faces are painted red, yellow, and
green. Find the number of cubes having only
operation around the world, making space cooling one of
one face painted.
the leading drivers of rising electricity demand in (a) 22
buildings and generation capacity additions to meet peak (b) 21
power demand. Residential units in operation account (c) 12

(d) 24
for nearly 70% of the total. Over the next three decades,
the use of air conditioners is set to soar, becoming one of 52. We have a solid cube of side 15 cm. Its opposite
the top drivers of global electricity demand. As the planet faces are painted red, yellow, and green. If it is
cut into cubical blocks each of side 3 cm, find
warms, ensuring that cooling needs are met equitably is
the number of cubes which have only two
of primary importance. Efficiency standards are a key
painted faces.
measure to reduce emissions, together with passive, (a) 243
nature-based and alternative solutions to air (b) 36
(c) 25
conditioners, and improved design of buildings and
(d) 12
districts.
50. Which of the following statements best reflects 53. Each of the 64, 1-centimeter side cubes have
the crux of the passage? exactly one face painted green. if these 64 cubes
are joined together to form one large cube, what
(a) Alternative solutions to air conditioners and
is the greatest possible fraction of the resultant
reduction of cooling demand in residential surface area that could be green?
units are utopian goals, not at all practical. (a) 21/32
(b) Considering the present reality and the (b) 56/56
(c) 21/28
rising electricity demand for cooling,
(d) 29/35
emission reduction would require a huge
investment. Direction for the following 2 (two) items:
(c) The rising use of air conditioners is not only Study the following information carefully and answer the
harmful to humans, but also devastating for
Eight persons namely J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are
the planet. working in a startup company on different designations.
(d) To meet the rising demand due to global Only two persons are senior to J, who is junior to K. L is
warming, improved building designs, not the junior-most person, and K is not the senior-most
person. M is senior to P. P is junior to J. P is not the
efficiency standards and alternative cooling
senior-most person. N is senior to L, but junior to P. Q is
solutions are required. senior to L, but junior to P.

54. Which of the following statements is true? 56. Which of the following statements best reflects
(a) N is senior to Q. what the passage implies?
(a) The solution to desertification lies in the
(b) Q is senior to N.
adoption of sustainable production
(c) M is the senior-most person.
practices.
(d) O is the senior-most person. (b) Not only humans, but nature too is
responsible for the ill consequences of
55. How many persons are there in the company that accelerating desertification.
are junior to K, but senior to N? (c) For people’s and the environment's well-
being, it is necessary to arrest expanding
(a) 2
desertification.
(b) 3
(d) Unless humans control their unsustainable
(c) 4 consumption, they will destroy the
(d) Can't be determined environment.
Passage – 2
Beyond the surface excitement, gifts can symbolize
thoughtful appreciation or recognition, affirming one's
value in personal and professional relationships.
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items Additionally, presents often tap into a sense of nostalgia,
should be based on the passages only. rekindling the joy associated with surprises from
Passage – 1 childhood. They may also represent opportunities for
self-indulgence, allowing adults to enjoy something they
Desertification is not a recent phenomenon; it was
might not ordinarily prioritize. Ultimately, the pleasure
triggered by human-led alterations of the environment derived from presents is woven from a complex web of
that made it possible to produce food and domesticate the emotions, memories, and desires, illustrating the depth
living space. Yet, in its present shape, it might be more of human nature's capacity for delight in the simplest
gestures.
extreme than in previous times because modern human
activities have a stronger effect on already degraded
the logical inference that can be drawn from the
land. Human activities that can favour desertification are passage given above?
unsustainable farm practices, heavy industry and mining, (a) The act of giving and receiving gifts should
deforestation, overexploitation and contamination of be a regular affair in adult life.
(b) There can be more than one reason why
water and other natural resources, urbanisation and
adults feel thrilled by presents.
increase in artificial surfaces, etc. The loss of soil
(c) For adults, presents offer a limited
properties can produce poverty and force people to mechanism for excitement and self-
abandon their impoverished land. Globally, the United indulgence.
Nations estimates that the livelihoods of more than 1 (d) Gifts and presents are the best way to build
memories, feel emotions and enjoyment in
billion people in some 100 countries are at some level of
human life.
risk linked to the effects of desertification.
Passage – 3 58. With reference to the above passage, consider
As many as 25 countries or a quarter of the world’s the following statements.
population are currently exposed to extremely high water 1. Water stress could lead to political
stress annually, new data from World Resources Institute instability.
(WRI) Aqueduct Water Risk Atlas showed. This means 2. Sub-Saharan Africa is currently among the
they use over 80 per cent of their renewable water supply most water-stressed regions of the world.
for irrigation, livestock, industry and domestic needs. Which of the statements given above is/are true?
Even a short-term drought puts these places in danger of (a) 1 only
running out of water and sometimes prompting (b) 2 only
governments to shut off the taps. Globally, at least 50 (c) Both 1 and 2
per cent of the world’s population — around four billion (d) Neither 1 nor 2
people — live under highly water stressed conditions for
at least one month of the year, the WRI report noted. And 59. If 'TABLE' is written as 8, 'MIND' is written as
by 2050, that number could be closer to 60 per cent. A 10, then how is 'CHOKER' written?
(a) 10
region is said to be under ‘water stress’ when the demand
(b) 11
for water exceeds the available volume or when poor
(c) 9
quality restricts use. The 25 most water-stressed
(d) 12
countries are: Bahrain, Cyprus, Kuwait, Lebanon, Oman,
Qatar, the United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Israel,
60. Find the wrong number in the following series:
Egypt, Libya, Yemen, Botswana, Iran, Jordan, Chile,
40, 42, 56, 90, 150, 250, 392
San Marino, Belgium, Greece, Tunisia, Namibia, South
(a) 42
Africa, Iraq, India and Syria. The most water-stressed
(b) 150
regions are West Asia and North Africa, where 83 per
(c) 56
cent of the population is exposed to extremely high water
(d) 250
stress and South Asia, where 74 per cent is exposed.
Global water demand is projected to increase by 20-25
per cent by 2050, while the number of watersheds facing B25, A26, Z1, Y2, ?
high year-on-year variability, or less predictable water (a) L7
supplies, is expected to increase by 19 per cent. For West (b) A9
Asia and North Africa, this means 100 per cent of the (c) X3
population will live with extremely high water stress by (d) X7
2050. This is an issue of concern not just for consumers
and water-reliant industries, but for political stability, 62. The letters from A to Z are numbered from 1 to
according to the authors of the WRI report. The biggest 26 respectively. If RAM = 5 and TOP = 6, then
change in water demand between now and 2050 will what is WBC equal to ?
occur in sub-Saharan Africa, they added. “While most (a) 1
countries in sub-Saharan Africa are not extremely water- (b) 2
stressed right now, demand is growing faster there than (c) 3
any other region in the world.” (d) 4

63. In a certain code, '307' means 'drink fruit juice', 67. Soumya is at 8th position from the front in a
'963' means 'juice is sour' and '905' means 'apple queue for buying tickets for a circus show. She
is fruit'. The digit in the code that indicates spots Abhinav who is 10th from the end. There
`drink' is are four persons between the two (Soumya and
(a) 1 Abhinav). What is the minimum number of

persons in the queue?
(b) 2
(a) 21
(c) 3
(b) 11
(d) 7
(c) 22
(d) 12
64. If KNOOR is coded as #^%#* and CRACK is
coded as ^%&&@, then CONS is coded as
Direction for the following 2 (two) Questions:
(a) &#*$
Read the information given below carefully and answer
(b) *%^& the 2 (two) items that follow.
(c) @^*& Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U, are friends. P and Q are
(d) #*@^ from France while the rest belong to Germany. S and U
are vegetarian while the others are non – vegetarian. P,
65. Find the next term in the following series. R and S are thin while the others are fat.
Q, W, Y, P, G, I, ?, ? 68. Which two persons, who are fat, are non –
(a) O, D vegetarian?
(b) D, O (a) P and U
(c) B, O (b) R and T
(d) O, B (c) Q and T

(d) T and U
66. A, B, C, D and E are five friends standing in a

69. Which vegetarian person from Germany is fat?
line for prayer, in decreasing order of their (a) Q
heights. Among them A is taller than C and they (b) R
are adjacent to each other. D is taller than E, (c) T
(d) U
while B is shorter than only D. Who is standing
in the middle? 70. If 'BEYOND' is written as 'DHCMKZ', then how
(a) A is 'VERTEX' written?
(a) BTVRXH
(b) C
(b) VRBTXH
(c) E (c) XHWRBT
(d) Either A or E (d) XHVRBT

71. A cube of side 9 cm is painted on all of its faces. Passage – 1
If it is sliced into 1 cubic centimetre cubes, how A recent study has found links between fine particulate
many such 1 cubic centimetre cubes will have matter (PM2.5) air pollution and antibiotic resistance.
exactly one of their faces painted? Africa and Asia could face the largest increase in
(a) 316 antibiotic resistance, the study published in journal
(b) 294 Lancet Planetary Health said. The study presented the
(c) 216 first global estimates of antibiotic resistance and burden
(d) 250 of premature deaths attributable to antibiotic resistance

resulting from PM2.5 pollution. Significant correlations
between PM2.5 and antibiotic resistance were consistent
72. A cube of side 12 cm is painted red, blue and
globally in most antibiotic-resistant bacteria and
yellow on opposite faces and is then cut into
correlations have strengthened over time. Air pollution
cubes of 1 cm side each. How many such cubes
is considered to be the world’s largest environmental
have color on at least one face?
health threat, accounting for seven million deaths around
(a) 1016
the world every year, according to the United Nations.
(b) 728
Globally, a 10 per cent increase in annual PM2.5 could
(c) 816
lead to a 1.1 per cent increase in aggregate antibiotic
(d) 950
resistance and 43,654 premature deaths, the paper found.
Saudi Arabia would have a three per cent increase in
73. There are four boxes Red, Yellow, Blue and
antibiotic resistance if PM 2.5 increases by 10 per cent,
Green which are kept in a stack but not
Niger would see a 2.9 per cent increase, United Arab
necessarily in the same order. There are two
Emirates a 2.6 per cent increase, Pakistan a 2.6 per cent
boxes between Red box and Green box and there
increase, Nigeria a 2.5 per cent increase, India a 2.5 per
is one box between Red and Blue box. Red box cent increase, Cameroon a 2.2 per cent increase, Bahrain
is not above Yellow one. Then the number of a 2.2 per cent increase and China a 2.1 per cent increase.
box(es) above Yellow box is/are China and India could be the countries where changes in
(a) Two PM2.5 have the largest effect on premature deaths
(b) Three attributable to antibiotic resistance due to their large
(c) One populations. It is important to understand all pathways
(d) None adding up to antimicrobial resistance (AMR), said
Rajeshwari Sinha, programme manager, sustainable
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: food systems programme, Delhi-based think tank Centre
Read the following five passages and answer the items for Science and Environment. “This study adds to the
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items growing evidence base and throws more light on a new
should be based on the passages only. route of AMR spread through the air.

74. Which of the following statements best reflects 75. Which of the following statements can be
(a) The largest environmental health issue in the
world, according to UN estimates, is air 1. MoU between ISRO and space tech start-
pollution.
ups will allow the start-ups to use ISRO’s
(b) The relationship between PM2.5 and
antibiotic resistance has become clearer launchpad and testing labs.
over time.
(c) The number of deaths caused by variations 2. Space tech start-ups need funding for
in PM 2.5 directly relates to the efficient functioning.
country's population.
(d) Developing countries need extra funding Select the correct answer using the codes given
from the developed world to fight antibiotic below.
resistance.
Passage – 2 (a) 1 only
Chennai-based space-tech startup Agnikul Cosmos (b) 2 only
announced on Thursday (August 17) that it had taken a
rocket that it has developed to a launchpad in Sriharikota (c) Both 1 and 2
to “commence integration checks” for a proposed (d) Neither 1 nor 2
suborbital space flight. A successful flight will make
Agnikul the second Indian space-tech company to send Passage – 3
a vehicle to space after Hyderabad-based Skyroot
Business as usual in the energy sector has become more
Aerospace. The launch of Skyroot’s 545-kg rocket
named Vikram-S in November 2022 marked the launch challenging in the EU as distributed energy technologies
of India’s private space industry. After the space sector
and supportive policy included in the EU Energy
was opened to private companies in 2020, Skyroot
signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Indian Package have meant that new types of stakeholders,
Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Several dozens of
including citizens, citizen collectives, and
space-tech startups have since entered the fray. Skyroot
and Agnikul are among the companies that are already municipalities, can participate in the energy system in
working on launch vehicles, satellites, and their
innovative ways. Their “new” relationships, behaviours,
applications. Agnikul said its Suborbital Tech
Demonstrator (SorTeD) single-stage launch vehicle, and actions in the context of the energy transition, vis à
called Agnibaan, is driven by the company’s patented
vis the existing system, are often referred to as social
Agnilet engine. “Agnibaan SOrTeD will lift off
vertically & follow a predetermined trajectory,” the innovation in energy systems. Socially innovative
company said in a post on the social media platform X,
formerly known as Twitter. According to Agnikul’s activities may deliver products and services like those of
website, Agnibaan can carry payloads up to 100 kg to a incumbent energy business models e.g., sustainable
low Earth orbit (LEO) up to 700 km. The vehicle is 18 m
in height, 1.3 m in diameter, and has a liftoff mass of energy generation, but also create social value that
14,000 kg. The payload envelope measures 2m x 1.5m traditional energy business models may not.
and can carry one or more satellites.

76. Which one of the following statements best 77. Based on the above passage, the following
reflects the crucial message conveyed by the assumptions have been made:
author of the passage? 1. A society which is intolerant of various
(a) The social innovation in energy systems opinions may become intellectually
stemming from EU Energy Package can stagnant.
make energy generation more sustainable
2. For the development of ideas through
and inclusive.
cooperation, people should express their
(b) India should also learn from the energy
opinions freely in a spontaneous and
policies of the EU by including socially
unfiltered manner.
innovative energy business models.
(c) Sustainable energy generation is not
(a) 1 only
possible without social inclusion and
(b) 2 only
participation of civil societies.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Socially inclusive energy transition across
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the world is a must to ensure sustainable
energy generation.
Promoting a mindset where individuals refrain from both reflects the crucial message conveyed by the
offering and unquestioningly adopting opinions can author of the passage?
foster a culture of critical thinking and open-mindedness. (a) Opinions reflect the culture of conservative
Encouraging people to withhold their opinions thinking, and prevent research, leading to
challenges them to engage in deeper reflection, research, people becoming prone to misinformation.
and empathy before taking a stance. This approach can (b) Substantiation of opinions is a must to avoid
lead to more informed discussions, where ideas are scepticism and promote well-informed
refined and enriched through collaborative exploration.
decision-making.
Simultaneously, resisting the blind acceptance of
(c) Expression of opinions is a part of the right
opinions encourages a healthy scepticism that safeguards
to freedom of expression, and therefore,
against misinformation and groupthink. However, the
should not be restricted.
goal isn't to discourage dialogue but rather to elevate it.
(d) The informed act of giving opinions or
Striking a balance between personal expression and
accepting them helps build an intellectually
receptivity to diverse viewpoints nurtures a well-
resilient society.
rounded and intellectually resilient society.

Passage – 5 80. With reference to the passage, which one of the
Considering the growing realization that complete
mitigation of climate change may be unattainable, following statements is correct?
governments must pivot their focus towards crafting
agile policies for swift responses to its impacts. (a) For addressing climate change, mitigation is
Embracing adaptive strategies becomes paramount to
addressing the imminent challenges posed by changing the past and adaptation is the future.
weather patterns, rising sea levels, and extreme events.
By fostering a culture of preparedness, governments can (b) Effective plans and cross-country
proactively allocate resources for disaster response,
infrastructure reinforcement, and community resilience. cooperation are the way forward to fight the
Collaborative efforts between nations are vital to share
knowledge and best practices, as climate change knows ill consequences of climate change reality.
no borders. While mitigation efforts continue to hold
value, pragmatic policies emphasizing rapid (c) Planning and cooperation between world
implementation will prove pivotal in safeguarding
ecosystems, livelihoods, and vulnerable populations financial institutions is critical for preparing
from the mounting consequences of evolving climate
for disaster response, infrastructure
change reality.
reinforcement and building community
resilience.
1. Adaptation to climate change requires
policies that are implementable.
(d) The fight against climate change not only
2. Climate change consequences do not
discriminate among people of different
needs national governments but also their
nations.
citizens to participate actively.
below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2


VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 4288 (2024)
1 (a)
9×7 = 63; 6 + 3 = 9→IX(in roman numeral format)
12×5 = 60; 6 +0 = 6→VI (in roman numeral format)
5×4 = 20; 2 + 0 = 2 → II (in roman numeral format)
9×4 = 36; 3+6 = 9 → IX (in roman numeral format)
2 (c)
Comparing 1st and 2nd statements,
'money' is coded as 'nim'.
Comparing 1st and 3rd statements,
'time' is coded as 'tis'.
Thus, we can say that, ‘is’ coded as ‘jes’.
Comparing 2nd and 4th statements,
'happiness' is coded as 'xer'.
Comparing 3rd and 4th statements,
'your' is coded as 'hix'.
Thus, we can say that, ‘important’ is coded as ‘mop’ and ‘save’ is coded as ‘hop’.
Hence, ‘save your important documents’ can be coded as ‘hop hix mop kop’.
3 (c)
From the given statements in the question we can deduce the following:
(i) A and D are males (as A is the tallest among the four, he must be a male. D is brother of B, so D must
be a male too);
(ii) B and C are females.
Also, it is given that D is brother of B. Therefore, D is husband of C and A is husband of B.
As per the information given in respect of height it is known that: A > C > B.
As D is husband of C, he has to be taller than C but shorter than the tallest person, i.e. A.
Thus, the order of heights is: A > D > C > B
4 (c)
Given series:
Gap between two successive letters is:

0, 1, 1, 2, 3, ?
This series is the Fibonacci sequence.
Fibonacci sequence: 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, .......
Thus, there will be a gap of 5 letters next.
?=P-5=K
5 (a)
Note: This question is about invalid assumptions (not the valid ones).
Assumption 1 is invalid. The given assumption is based on the line – “The Himalayan region, with its
unparalleled ecological significance, is under increasing threat from urbanization, deforestation, tourism,
and climate change.” This line includes climate change as well, which is not mentioned in the
assumption. To term human development as the sole cause would not be correct as the passage does not
mention so. Hence, the given assumption is not correct.
Assumption 2 is correct. The lines, “Cooperation among the Himalayan nations is vital for designing a
robust conservation strategy and meeting the numerous recent challenges threatening the Himalayas”
and “Preserving the Himalayas not only safeguards biodiversity but also ensures the well-being of
millions who depend on its resources” validate the assumption that nations which use Himalayan
resources should also focus on its conservation. Hence, the given assumption is correct.
6 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The context of effective financingis not a part of the passage. Hence, this option
is beyond the scope of the passage and is not the most rational inference.
Option (b) is correct. The given option is correct because of the lines – “Cooperation among the
Himalayan nations is vital for designing a robust conservation strategy and meeting the numerous recent
challenges threatening the Himalayas.”, “Effective implementation of laws is imperative to curb
unchecked development that could lead to irreversible damage” and “By imposing laws rigorously, we
can uphold the Himalayas' ecological balance, maintain vital water sources, and set a global precedent
for responsible conservation in vulnerable and ecologically significant regions.” These lines show that it
is the effective enforcement of laws and transnational coordination which are important for Himalayan
conservation. Hence, this is the most rational inference of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of vulnerable future generations is not a part of the passage. Hence,
this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not the most rational inference of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The context of the need for better laws is not correct because the passage
mentions strict enforcement of laws and not lack of better laws as the issue with the conservation of the
Himalayas. Hence, the given option is not the most rational inference of the passage.
7 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the relationship between the values of
corporate governance and the capitalist model of business is not explained in the passage. Hence, it would
not be correct to conclude that those values do not subscribe to the capitalist model of business. Therefore,
Option (b) is incorrect. The given lines “The change in public opinion has become evident among
workers, consumers, and investors, as well as through new policies enacted by elected officials, more than
ever before, the public supports businesses that demonstrate positive social change and sustainable
development”, only explain that the public supports business which considers society and environment.
However, to state that because of this, profit-making becomes difficult, would not be correct as the
passage does not indicate anything of this nature. Hence, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the corporations will work for profit. This
is evident in the line - “Capitalism has provided unprecedented wealth and prosperity … way for-profit
corporations are governed and managed.” Hence, the given option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is correct. This option best captures the essence of the passage, especially compared to the
other options. For example, consider the lines, “These new attitudes have begun to take root in
corporations themselves, with a growing community of investors, business leaders, and entrepreneurs
expressing a fiduciary duty to create value not only for shareholders but for society (changed outlook)”
and “The change in public opinion … the public supports businesses that demonstrate positive social
change and sustainable development.” These lines from the passage indicate that this option is the best

8(c)
In the 1st and 2nd dice, there are two common faces, i.e. Q and P. So, the remaining faces will be opposite
to each other. Therefore, R is opposite to S.
In the 2ndand 4thdice, there are two common faces, i.e. Q and S. So, the remaining faces will be opposite
to each other. Therefore, P is opposite to T.
Thus, when letter U is at the top, the letter Q will be at the bottom.
Therefore, option (c) is correct.
9 (b)
In the first two positions of the dice, there is one common face, i.e. the one having 2 points, and it is in the
same position. Hence, 1 point face is opposite to 3 points face, and 5 points face is opposite to 6 points
face. Therefore, the face opposite to 4 points face is the one having 2 points.
Therefore, option (b) is correct.
10 (a)
The dimensions of smaller cubes must be 9×9×9.
So, number of cubes not painted on any side = (9 – 2) ×(9 – 2) ×(9 – 2) = 343
Therefore, option (a) is correct.
Explanation for Questions 11,12 and 13:

T is heavier than W. V is lighter than W, but heavier than S.
So, their order with regards to weight:
T>W>V>S
V is faster than T, who is faster than W. W is faster than U.
So, their order with regards to speed:
V>T>W>U
U is slower than T, but is heavier than T.
Their order with regards to weight:
U>T>W>V>S
Their order with regards to speed:
V>T>W>U
U is not the heaviest, while X is not the fastest. The lightest of the group is the fastest of the group.
Their order with regards to weight:
X>U>T>W>V>S
Their order with regards to speed:
S>X>V>T>W>U
11 (b)
X is the heaviest person of the group.
12 (a)
Rank of T in the decreasing order of weights is third.
13 (c)
S is the fastest in the group.
14 (d)
If 3 is adjacent to 2, 4 and 6, then either 1 or 5 lies opposite to 3. So, the numbers 1 and 5 can't lie
opposite to each other. Clearly 1 must be adjacent to 5.
Therefore, option (d) is correct.

15 (d)
18 & 6 % 5 @ 9 = 48
18 ÷ 6 + 5 × 9 = 3 + 45= 48
8 @ 15 & 3 * 7 = 33
8 × 15 ÷ 3 – 7 = 8 × 5 – 7= 33
So, 9 @ 6 * 36 % 12 = 9 × 6 – 36 + 12
= 54 – 36 + 12= 30
Explanation for Questions 16,17,18 and 19:
Physics lecture is not on Tuesday or Saturday. Economics lecture is on Wednesday. Monday, Thursday or
Friday is not the off day.
The day before the English lecture is an off day.
Day Lecture
Monday Off
Tuesday Physics
Wednesday Economics
Thursday Off
Friday Off
Saturday Off
Sunday English
There is one day gap between Economics and Computer Science lectures. Mathematics lecture is held
before Computer Science lecture. Chemistry lecture is to be held immediately after Mathematics lecture.
Day Lecture
Monday Mathematics
Tuesday Chemistry
Wednesday Economics
Thursday Physics
Friday Computer Science
Saturday Off
Sunday English
16 (d)
17 (d)
No lectures are scheduled between Economics and Chemistry.
18 (d)
Physics is scheduled on Thursday.
19 (a)
Saturday is the off day.
20 (b)
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The assumption that agriculture is the cause of free or highly subsidized
electricity is not correct. There is no mention of agriculture or its “state" in the passage. Hence this
assumption is incorrect.
Assumption 2 is correct. The line “However, poorly conceived (envisioned) measures to boost inclusion
can have unintended negative consequences that can include distorted product markets, reduced
investment, or faster environmental depletion”, validates the given assumption. It means that inclusion
can have positive as well as negative outcomes as it depends upon how it is envisioned. Hence, the given
assumption is correct.

21 (b)
Option 1 is not correct. It is nowhere mentioned in the passage that G20 is an intergovernmental forum
comprising 19 countries and the European Union (EU). Hence, option 1 is not correct.
Option 2 is correct. First World, Second World and Third World countries were classified on the basis of
associations with alliances of US, USSR and Non-aligned countries. Hence, option 2 is correct.
22 (b)
Option (a) is not correct.There was a drastic change in the geopolitics of the world during the post-Cold
War era. There are multiple aspects of geopolitics like strategic alliances, trade talks, etc. Which aspect
lead to the need for new classification of countries is not mentioned in the statement. Hence, option (a) is
not correct.
Option (b) is correct. The passage mentions, “In the post-Cold War world, the First World/Third World
classification was no longer feasible because when the Communist USSR disintegrated in 1991, most
countries had no choice but to ally at some level with the capitalist US – the only remaining global
superpower.” This implies that after the Cold War, the US became the sole superpower (Unipolar),
making the old classification redundant. This put up a need for a new classification of the countries.
Option (c) is not correct. It was not that poor countries wanted patronage of developed countries, but
they were left with no choice. Further the passage talks about US in particular, not about developed
countries in general in this regard. The passage says, “…when the Communist USSR disintegrated in
1991, most countries had no choice but to ally at some level with the capitalist US – the only remaining
global superpower. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct. Post-Cold War, there was only one superpower left, and countries were left
with no choice but to ally with it in some form. The passage does not mention anything about “breaking
the hegemony of the superpowers”. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
23 (d)
From the statement 1 and 2 we can say that Potato is costlier than Lady’s finger and Lady finger is costlier
than cabbage.
Thus, Potato > Lady’s finger > Cabbage
From statement 3: Either peas are as costly as cabbage or peas are costlier than cabbage.
Checking each option one by one we get,
Options (a) and (b) may or may not be true.
Option (c) may be true if peas are costlier than cabbage and false if peas cost equal to cabbage.
Option (d) is definitely true.
24 (a)
We know that making n cuts along one axis divides the cube into (n + 1) parts. To obtain 125 cubes by
making a minimum number of cuts, we should be making the same number of cuts along all the axis.
Assume we make ncuts along each of the three axes.
So, the number of cubes formed = (n + 1) (n + 1) (n + 1) = 125
or (n + 1)3 = 53
or n + 1 = 5
or n = 4
Thus, least number of cuts required if the rearrangement of the pieces before/after making a cut is not
allowed = 4 + 4 + 4 = 12
25 (d)
15 (4860) 12→ (15 + 12)×(15×12) = 27×180 = 4860
13 (1820) 7→ (13 + 7)×(13×7) = 20×91 = 1820
17 (?) 12→ (17 + 12)×(17×12) = 29×204 = 5916

26 (c)
Alphabet Series:A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
First two letters are MN. In reverse order they are written as NM. It is a term of 2 alphabets, so next 2
alphabets O and P are skipped.
Next term is QRS. In reverse order it is written as SRQ. It is a term of 3 alphabets, so next 3 alphabets T,
U and V are skipped.
Next term is WXYZ. In reverse order it is written as ZYXW. It is a term of 4 alphabets, so next 4
alphabets A, B, C and D are skipped.
Next term should be a 5 alphabets term. EFGHI in reverse order would be written as IHGFE.
27(b)
The pattern being followed here is:
28 (b)
Let us assume that a cube of each side 4 cm, has been painted red, blue and black on pairs of the opposite
faces. It is then cut into smaller cubes of each side 1 cm.
The smaller cubes which are painted on one face only are the cubes at the centre of each face of the big
cube.
There are 6 faces in the big cube and in each of the face of the big cube there will be four such smaller
cubes.

So, there will be 8 smaller cubes which have only one face painted with red colour. Four cubes will be on
one face and 4 on the opposite face.
29 (d)
Option 1 is not correct. According to the passage Gabon had a deal with the Bank of America, the US
International Development Finance Corporation (USDFC) and The Nature Conservancy (TNC) for a $500
million debt-for-nature swap. A similar deal was done by Ecuador too. The passage does not mention that
only G7 countries could buy debt for nature swaps from developing countries. Hence, option 1 is not
correct.
Option 2 is not correct. Nowhere does the passage mention that climate financing holds more importance
for island countries. Hence, option 2 is not correct.
30 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The context of fighting climate change to address global climate and regional
climate challenges is not discussed in the passage. The passage is about regional climate models, and not
about the challenges of regional or global climate change. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the
passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. Equipping farmers to understand and apply the findings of regional climate
models is not a part of the passage. The only line about farmers is “By simulating localized climate
scenarios, they empower farmers and policymakers to anticipate shifts in temperature, precipitation, and
other environmental factors.” Hence, the given option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is correct. The given option best captures the essence of the passage, which is how regional
climate models can proactively help in decision-making related to agriculture based on changing climate
patterns. Refer to the lines, “This knowledge enables the identification of suitable crop varieties,
irrigation strategies, and planting schedules that align with changing conditions. Additionally, regional
climate models aid in mitigating risks associated with extreme weather events, allowing for better
resource allocation and adaptive planning.” These linesshow that the given option best reflects the crux
of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option would have been correct if the word completely was not used.
The agricultural output would depend on regional climate models but to state that it is “completely”
dependent would not be correct as per the passage. Hence, this is not the best crux of the passage.
31 (a)
The inherent pattern in the two sequences has been represented below.
Sequence I:
4
4×1.5 + 7 = 13
13×2 + 7 = 33
33×2.5 + 7 = 89.5
89.5×3 + 7 = 275.5
278.5×3.5 + 7 = 971.25
Sequence II:
8
A = 8×1.5 + 7 = 19
B = 19×2 + 7 = 45
C = 45×2.5 + 7 = 119.5
D = 119.5×3 + 7 = 365.5
E = 365.5×3.5 + 7 = 1286.25
Thus, D = 365.5
32 (d)
The given series is: u _ s u _ s s _s _ _ t u _ t
There are 15 characters in the sequence. By using the given options, we can complete this series using
hit and try method, and see if a pattern emerges.
The blanks have been highlighted: u u s u u/ s s t s s/ t t u t t
So, the missing letters are: u, u, t, s, t, t
33 (b)
Here, we are just multiplying up the numbers and then summing up the digits of the resultant number.
16  8  13 = 16 × 8 × 13 = 1664→ 1 + 6 + 6 + 4 = 17
7  15  18 = 7 × 15 × 18 = 1890→ 1 + 8 + 9 + 0 = 18
12  28  7 = 12 × 28 × 7 = 2352→ 2 + 3 + 5 + 2 = 12
So, 14  9  16 = 14 × 9 × 16 = 2016 → 2 + 0 + 1 + 6 = 9
34 (c)
Alphabets adjacent to B are A, C, E and F.
Hence, alphabet D must be opposite to alphabet B.
35 (a)
a + b < c + d ...........(i)
b + c < d + e............(ii)
c + d < e + a ...........(iii)
d + e < a + b............(iv)
From (i) and (iv):
a+b+d+e<c+d+a+b
So, e < c
From (ii) and (iv):
b+c+d+e<d+e+a+b
So, c < a
From (i) and (iii):
a+b+c+d<c+d+e+a
So, b < e
Hence, b < e < c < a
From (ii), it is clear that d > b. From (iii), it is clear that d < a
Thus, it is clear from above, that the largest number is a and the smallest one is b.
36 (a)
In the given figure, * is opposite to %, @ is opposite to #. Therefore, & must be opposite to $.

37 (b)
In the given two positions of dice, there is one common face, i.e. 9, and it is in the same position. Hence,
4 is opposite to 8, and 5 is opposite to 7.
Therefore, 9 must be opposite to 6.
38 (a)
Option 1 is correct. The passage mentions about the Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment
(GRACE), which is used in to deliver data on draught regions of the world. It is clearly mentioned in the
passage, “Major droughts are also spread across wider geographies, they found, highlighting
limitations of satellite data“.Further, to improve data precision, GRACE calculation was mixed with
another scientific model. The passage further says, “The researchers who made the new analysis
combined the GRACE measurements with the hydrological model Water GAP for the first time to
show, more precisely than ever before, how the total distribution of water over the Earth’s land
surfaces has changed in the last two decades”. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is correct. There has been a change in the distribution of groundwater across the globe. The
frequency of draught has also increased as compared to the past decade. The passage says, “The new
method allows us to test out model calculations on the future effects of climate change, particularly how
rising temperatures and changes in precipitation patterns will impact the water balance in different
parts of the world…”It can be implied that climate change is also responsible for the change in water
balance in the world. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Option 3 is not correct. Tropical countries are not specifically mentioned as being affected by the change
in the water balance. The passage says, “…changes in precipitation patterns will impact the water
balance in different parts of the world…” Hence, option 3 is not correct.
39 (b)
Option (a) is not correct. The passage clearly says, “Though California, in the past, has felt the effects of
hurricanes, they typically remain well offshore and subside to become tropical storms by the time they
hit they make landfall”.It can be implied that tropical cyclones have occurred in the past on the coastal
parts of California. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is correct. The hurricane will make a landfall on the lands of California and Mexico. The
passage mentions, “It is rare, indeed nearly unprecedented in the modern record, to have a tropical
system like this move through Southern California…”The passage further mentions, “…the hurricane
will make landfall in the Baja peninsula in Mexico”.It can be implied that previously, cyclones hitting
the coast of California and Mexico lose their strength and Hillary making a landfall in these regions is a
rarity. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct. The passage nowhere mentions whether or not coastal California experiences
temperate cyclones. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.
Option (d) is not correct. The passage says, “Though California, in the past, has felt the effects of
hurricanes, they typically remain well offshore and subside to become tropical storms by the time they
hit they make landfall”. It can be implied that California in the past has experienced cyclones; therefore
they do not come under anti-cyclonic zone. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
40 (b)
Option 1 is not correct. The passage does not mention anything about the type of water around the coast
of California. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
Option 2 is correct. It is mentioned in the passage, “Unlike states like Florida, Louisiana and Texas on
the Gulf of Mexico, which have learned over the years on how to survive hurricanes, for Californians and
Mexicans in the west, it is a novel, terrifying, experience”.It implies that citizens of California and
Mexico are not familiar with experiencing cyclones. Hence, option 2 is correct.
41(b)
Since out of 216 cubes, we removed 4 columns of 6 cubes each, so:
Number of cubes in the solid after the removal of the columns = 216 – (4 x 6) = 216 – 24 = 192

42 (b)
Number of cubes which do not have any coloured face = Inner cubes + Face cubes on the bottom face =
(6 – 2)3 + (6 - 2)2 = 64 + 16 = 80
43 (c)
Given unfolded dice:
In the given figure, A is opposite to B, C is opposite to D, and E is opposite to F.

In figure (i), C and D are adjacent to each other. So, it can't be formed from the given unfolded dice.
Therefore, only dice (ii) and (iii) can be formed.
44 (c)
In 1st and 2nddice, there are two common faces, i.e. brown and blue. So, the remaining faces will be
opposite to each other
Therefore, violet is opposite to yellow.
45 (d)
Amit>= Binod ..................... 1
Divyanshu>= Chandan ........2
Binod>Chandan ..................3
From 1 and 3:
Amit>= Binod>Chandan
46 (b)
In the second test he scored the highest marks. So, his performance was best comparatively in this test.
47 (b)
4 edges common to red and yellow faces have 3 cubes each.
So, number of small cubes that have at least two coloured faces, one with red and other with yellow =
4×3 = 12
48 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The context of automation level and its impact on the quality of leisure is not a
part of the passage. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not the best crux of the
passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The first line of the passage says that automation can liberate human beings from
repetitive tasks and create space for leisure pursuits. This does not mean that automation is the “only” way
to create a large leisured population. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.

Option (c) is incorrect. The preference between job and leisure is not discussed in the passage. The
passage only talks about taking a balanced approach. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the
passage.
Option (d) is correct. The given option is correct as it is based on the following lines: “By embracing
automation, societies can liberate human beings from repetitive tasks and create space for leisure
pursuits.” and“However, a balanced approach is crucial, as unchecked automation might also bring
about job displacement and societal inequalities. By carefully managing the integration of machines into
various sectors, we can strive for a harmonious coexistence where technology uplifts livelihoods,
allowing more to savour the enriching benefits of leisure time.”. Hence, this option is the best crux of the
passage.
49 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because religious values and fertilizersare not a
part of the passage. Hence, this option is not the best crux as per the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the context of religious values and
profitsis not a part of the passage. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is correct. The given option is correct as it is based on the lines “… but with that great
acceleration have come trade-offs and new challenges, particularly with climate change, ecosystem
resilience and deepening issues of inequity, … Food systems objectives have therefore progressed from
producing enough nutritious food to feed the world to doing so in an environmentally
sustainablewaywhile facilitating fair and equitable livelihoods, social justice, and respect for cultural
values.” The essence of these lines is best captured in the given option. Hence, this option is the best crux
of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect as both options (a) and (b) are incorrect.
50 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The last line of the passage has a positive tone about the plausibility of
alternative solutions to air conditioner. Therefore, it would be incorrect to call them utopian goals.
Option (b) is incorrect. Though probably correct, the context of huge investmentor investment per se is
not a part of the passage and so can be ignored.
Option (c) is incorrect. Though it seems correct, the context of air conditioners being devastating for the
planet is not discussed in the passage. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage. Moreover, it
cannot be the crux of the passage anyways as the passage is solution oriented.
Option (d) is correct. The crux of the passage is in the lines, “Efficiency competent standards are a key
measure to reduce emissions, together with passive, nature-based and alternative solutions to air
conditioners, and improved design of buildings and districts.” These lines show that innovative solutions
and competent benchmarks are required to deal with emissions. Hence, this option is the best crux of the
passage.
51 (a)
The number of cubes having only one face painted =2[(l-2)(b-2)+(b-2)(h-2)+(l-2)(h-2)]
=2[(3-2)(4-2)+(4-2)(5-2)+(3-2)(5-2)]
=2[(1×2)+(2×3)+(1×3)]
=2[2+6+3]=2×11=22
52 (b)
n = side of big cube / side of small cube = 15/3 = 5
Number of small cubes which have only two painted faces= (n - 2)×number of edges = (5 - 2)×12 = 36

53 (b)
We can place the small cubes such that all the surface area of the resultant cube is green. So, greatest
possible fraction would be 1, or 56/56.
and K is not the senior-most person.
Explanation for Questions 54 and 55:
N is senior to L, but junior to P. Q is senior to L, but junior to P. L is not the junior-most person. M is
senior to P.
M >P>N/Q>L>_
P is junior to J.
J/M>P>N/Q>L>_
Only two persons are senior to J, who is junior to K. K is not the senior most person.
M >K >J>P>N/Q>L > _
Final arrangement:
M >K >J>P>N/Q>L >O
54 (c)
M is the senior-most person.
55 (d)
Either 2 or 3 persons are junior to K, but senior to N.
56 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option mentions sustainable production practices as the solution to
desertification. However, the passage does not focus on the solutions for desertification. It rather focusses
on the issue, cause and effects of desertification. Hence, this option is not what the passage implies.
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage mentions various human activities leading to desertification; but
how nature causes desertification leading to its ill consequences is not discussed. Hence, this is not what
the passage implies.
Option (c) is correct. The passage discusses the issue of desertification and the problems/risks associated
with it. It is reflected in the lines, “Human activities that can favour desertification are unsustainable
farm practices, heavy industry and mining, deforestation, overexploitation and contamination of water
and … Globally, the United Nations estimates that the livelihoods of more than 1 billion people in some
100 countries are at some level of risk linkedto the effects of desertification.” This essence is best
captured in the given option. Hence, this is the best answer.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is generic as it mentions the environment, rather than
specifying desertification. However, the passage is specific to desertification which is not mentioned in
the option. Hence, this is not what the passage implies.
57 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the passage does not mention that the
exchange of gifts should be a regular affair in adult life. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the
passage and is not the best logical inference.
Option (b) is correct. The whole passage describes various reasons why adults feel thrilled by presents.
Refer to the lines “Additionally, presents often tap into a sense of nostalgia, rekindling the joy associated
with surprises from childhood. They may also represent opportunities for self-indulgence, allowing
adults to enjoy something they might not ordinarily prioritize.” These lines validate the given option as
the best logical inference from the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is not based on the passage because the passage does not
discuss how presents offer limited mechanisms for excitement and self-indulgence. Rather, the essence of

the passage is to signify the importance of presents and gifts in adult life. Hence, this option is not the
most rational inference from the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the passage doesn’t signify that gifts and
presents are the best way to build memories and feel enjoyment in life. Hence, this option is not the most
rational inference.
58 (a)
Option 1 is correct. The passage highlights the key findings of the report published by the World
Resources Institute (WRI) Aqueduct Water Risk Atlas. The passage says, “For West Asia and North
Africa, this means 100 percent of the population will live with extremely high-water stress by 2050. This
is an issue of concern not just for consumers and water-reliant industries, but for political stability,
according to the authors of the WRI report”. This implies that a water deficit regionmight face political
instability. Hence, option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is incorrect. The passage says, “While most countries in sub-Saharan Africa are not
extremely water-stressed right now, demand is growing faster there than any other region in the
world.” It implies that at the moment sub-Saharan Africa is not among the most water-stressed regions of
the world. Although, the increase in demand for water in this region will be the highest in the world, at the
moment it is not the most water-stressed region. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
59 (a)
Here, we are required to decipher or decode the pattern.
TABLE is written as 8.
Logic: Sum of the letter position numbers / Number of letters
Code of TABLE = (20 + 1 + 2 + 12 + 5)/5 = 40/5 = 8
Code of MIND = (13 + 9 + 14 + 4)/4 = 40/4 = 10
Code of CHOKER = (3 + 8 + 15 + 11 + 5 + 18)/6 = 60/6 = 10
60 (b)
The pattern being followed here is:
40 + (22 – 2) = 42
42 + (42 – 2) = 56
56 + (62 – 2) = 90
90 + (82 – 2) = 152≠ 150
152 + (102 – 2) = 250
250 + (122 – 2) = 392
Thus, the wrong term in the series is 150. It should be replaced by 152.
61 (c)
Given series: B25, A26, Z1, Y2, ?
First letters of each term are B, A, Z, Y, ?
Here 1st letter of each term is reduced by 1. So, next letter will be X.
In 1st term:
B has position 2.
So, 27 -2 = 25
In 2nd term:
A has position 1.
So, 27 - 1 = 26
In 3rd term:
Z has position 26.
So, 27 - 26 = 1
In 4th term:
Y has position 25.
So, 27 – 25 = 2
In 5th term:
X has position 24.
So, 27 - 24 = 3
? = X3
62 (a)
RAM = 18 + 1 + 13 = 32 → 3 + 2 = 5
TOP = 20 + 15 + 16 = 51 → 5 + 1 = 6
WBC = 23 + 2 + 3 = 28 → 2 + 8 = 10 → 1 + 0 = 1
63 (d)
In the code:
'307' means 'drink fruit juice' …………..(i)
'963' means 'juice is sour' ……………(ii)
'905' means 'apple is fruit’ …………..(iii)
Comparing (i) and (ii), we get:
Code for ‘juice’ must be 3.
Comparing (i) and (iii), we get:
Code for ‘fruit’ must be 0.
Hence, code for ‘drink’ must be 7.
64 (a)
KNOOR = #^%#*
So, O is coded as #.
CRACK = ^%&&@
So, C is coded as &.
R and K are common in KNOOR and CRACK. So, R and K are % or ^.
Therefore, N is coded as *.
S is a new letter; so it must correspond to a new symbol.
Thus, CONS may be coded as &#*$.
65 (d)
Given series:Q, W, Y, P, G, I, ?, ?
Observing the pattern carefully, we see that this series consists of 2 of two different series:
(Q, Y, G, ?) and ( W, P, I, ?)
1st series:
Q+8=Y
Y+8=G
?=G+8=O
2ndseries:
W–7=P
P–7=I
?=I–7=B
66 (d)
As per the question:
B is shorter than only D. It means D is the tallest and B is second in height.
Now, A is taller than C and they are adjacent to each other. So, two cases are possible:

From case 1 and case 2 it is clear that the middle position is taken by either A or E.
67 (d)
Minimum number of persons = (Sum of the positions of the two persons from the end – Number of in-
between persons) – 2
So, minimum possible number of persons in the queue = (8 + 10 − 4) − 2 = 12.
We may represent the information in a table as shown below:
France Germany Vegetarian Non -vegetarian Thin Fat
P √ √ √
Q √ √ √
R √ √ √
S √ √ √
T √ √ √
U √ √ √
68(c)
69 (d)
70 (d)
BEYOND is written as DHCMKZ.
We can see that the underlying pattern is very simple, as shown below:
B+2=D
E+3=H
Y+4=C
O -2 = M
N-3=K
D-4=Z
We will follow a similar pattern to code VERTEX.
V+2=X
E+3=H
R+4=V
T-2=R
E-3=B
X-4=T
So, the required code is XHVRBT.
71 (b)
n = side of big cube / side of small cube = 9/1 = 1
Number of small cubes havingexactly one face painted = 6(n - 2)2 = 6(9 - 2)2 = 294

72 (b)
The cube of side 12 cm will make 12×12×12 = 1728 small cubes of side 1 cm each.
If the outer most layer is removed, we will have a cube of side 10 cm.
The number of 1 cm side cubes in a 10 cm side cube = 10×10×10 = 1000
Hence, the number of cubes having color on at least one of their faces =1728 – 1000 = 728
73 (a)
There are two boxes between Red box and Green box and there is one box between Red and Blue box.
Hence, two cases are possible:
However, Red box is not above Yellow one. So, Case 2 is correct.
74 (b)
Option (a) is not correct. According to the passage, air pollution is considered to be the world’s largest
environmental health threat. However, it does not reflect the crux of the passage, as the passage revolves
around the central argument of new findings related with PM 2.5. Hence, Option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is correct. This statement best reflects the crux of the passage. A recent study regarding the
relationship between fine particulate matter (PM2.5) air pollution and antibiotic resistancesuggests that
there is a clear correlation between the two. The passage says, “The study presented the first global
estimates of antibiotic resistance and burden of premature deaths attributable to antibiotic resistance
resulting from PM2.5 pollution”. Further, the passage mentions cases of countries and the risk of
antibiotic resistance associated with an increase in air pollution. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct. It is mentioned in the passage, “China and India could be the countries where
changes in PM2.5 have the largest effect on premature deaths attributable to antibiotic resistance due
to their large populations”. It can be implied that the more the population, more the number of deaths.
But it is not the central argument of the passage as it correlates death with population, and does not
mention anything about the relation between antibiotic resistance and PM 2.5. Hence, option (c) is not
correct.
Option (d) is not correct. The passage does not mention anything related with the funding of developing
countries by the developed world. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
75 (d)
Option 1 is not correct. The passage does mention about the details of the MoU between ISRO and
Skyroot - a private space tech start-up of India. Hence, option 1 is not correct.
Option 2 is not correct. The passage does not mention anything about the funding requirements of the
start-ups. Hence, option 2 is not correct.

76 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The given option is based on the lines “Socially innovative activities may deliver
products and services like those of incumbent energy business models e.g., sustainable energy
generation, but also create social value that traditional energy business models may not.” These lines
best reflect the crucial message the author wants to convey.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of India learning from the energy policies of the EU is not correct
because it is not mentioned in the passage. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is
not the crucial message conveyed by the author.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is an extreme statement. The passage nowhere signifies the
dependency of sustainable energy generation on social inclusion and innovation.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option seems to be correct but the context of universalization (across
the world) is not discussed in the passage as it is focused more on the EU energy package. Hence, the
given option is not what the author wants to convey.
77 (a)
Assumption 1 is correct. The given assumption is based on the line “Striking a balance between personal
expression and receptivity to diverse viewpoints nurtures a well-rounded and intellectually resilient
society.” Therefore, it would be correct to say that intolerance of various opinions could make a society
intellectually stagnant. Hence, this assumption is correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The given assumption is not correct. Refer to the lines “Encouraging people
to withhold their opinions challenges them to engage in deeper reflection, research, and empathy
before taking a stance. This approach can lead to more informed discussions, where ideas are refined and
enriched through collaborative exploration.” For the development of ideas through cooperation people
should withhold their opinions and not express them freely in a spontaneous and unfiltered manner.
Hence, this assumption is not correct.
78 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because opinions in themselves do not reflect
anything as per the line, “Promoting a mindset where individuals refrain from both offering and
unquestioningly adopting opinions can foster a culture of critical thinking and open-mindedness.
Encouraging people to withhold their opinions challenges them to engage in deeper reflection, research,
and empathy before taking a stance.” This line means that blind acceptance of opinions and offering
unfiltered opinions limits critical thinking, and not just opinions per se. Hence, this is not the most crucial
message conveyed by the author.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of substantiation of opinions for decision making is not correct as
the passage does not discuss it. Hence, this option is not the most crucial message conveyed by the author.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of the right to freedom of expression is not discussed in the passage.
Therefore, this option is beyond the scope of the passage, and is not the most crucial message conveyed
by the author.
Option (d) is correct. The lines, “Promoting a mindset where individuals refrain from both offering and
unquestioningly adopting opinions can foster a culture of critical thinking and open-mindedness.
Encouraging people to withhold their opinions challenges them to engage in deeper reflection, research,
and empathy before taking a stance” and “Striking a balance between personal expression and
receptivity to diverse viewpoints nurtures a well-rounded and intellectually resilient society” show how
important it is to think about opinions with patience. It could lead to an intellectually resilient society.
Hence, the given option is the most crucial message from the passage.
79 (c)
Inference 1 is correct. The given inference is based on the following line - “While mitigation efforts
continue to hold value, pragmatic policies emphasizing rapid implementation will prove pivotal in
safeguarding ecosystems, livelihoods, and vulnerable populations from the mounting consequences of
evolving climate change reality.” Therefore, as per the passage, the given inference is correct.
Inference 2 is correct. The line “Collaborative efforts between nations are vital to share knowledge and
best practices, as climate change knows no borders”, validates the given inference because climate
change impacts all people across the world and does not discriminate based on nations. Hence, this
inference is correct as per the passage.

80 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because it states that mitigation is in the past,
which is not correct as per the line - “While mitigation efforts continue to hold value…” Hence, this
option is not correct as per the passage.
Option (b) is correct. The given statement is based on the following lines “Considering the growing
realization that … crafting agile policies for swift responses to its impacts. Embracing adaptive
strategies becomes paramount to addressing the imminent challenges posed by changing weather
patterns, rising sea levels, and extreme events. … Collaborative efforts between nations are vital to
share knowledge and best practices, as climate change knows no borders.” These lines show that
effective plans and cooperation among nations are important to deal with climate change consequences.
Hence, this statement is correct as per the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of cooperation between world financial institutions is not a part of
the passage. Hence, this option is not correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The context of the role of citizens in fighting climate change is not a part of the
passage. Only the role of governments in terms of finances and policies is discussed. Hence, the given
statement is not correct as per the passage.


VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

the Test Booklet.
sheet.
be deducted.
1
Read the following two passages and answer the items India has made significant strides in electric vehicle (EV)
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items battery research and more government focus can spur
should be based on the passages only. innovation in cell chemistry. Last week, Hyderabad-
Passage – 1
based Altmin, a Hyderabad-based battery material
Health practitioners and experts attending the inaugural
production and cell engineering company, collaborated
Africa Climate Summit in Nairobi, Kenya, have
with the International Advanced Research Centre for
expressed displeasure with the exclusion of health on the
main agenda despite its inextricable link with climate Powder Metallurgy and New Materials, an institution
change. Speaking at a side event within the summit, the under the Union Ministry of Science and Technology to
specialists from the sector expressed worry that a manufacture cathode active material for lithium-ion
comprehensive health standpoint is likely to miss from batteries (LIB). While the global EV industry has had an
the ‘Nairobi Declaration’, which the meeting is intended innovation trajectory of its own, India is not far behind
to culminate in. The theme of the summit is “Driving when it comes to battery research. Vikram Sarabhai
green growth and climate finance solutions for Africa Space Centre, International Advanced Research Centre
and the World”. The Nairobi Declaration aims to give
for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials and
the African Group of Negotiators (AGN) a common
Nonferrous Materials Technology Development Centre
voice ahead of the 28th Conference of Parties (COP28)
have their own battery know-how and
to the United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change to be held this year in the United Arab capabilities. Additionally, the Union Ministry of
Emirates. The Acting Deputy Director General of Africa Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has set
Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (Africa up its own pilot plants for manufacturing batteries as
CDC) Ahmed Ouma Ogwell expressed regret that health well as cells at the Centre for Materials for Electronics
had been excluded from the conference’s main agenda. Technology, Pune. The Department of Science and
“Agriculture, health and development are suffering. So, Technology has also been proactive in holding dialogues
bringing the health discussion onto the agenda of the with various institutes of higher education like the Indian
climate change platform is essential for Africa,” said Institutes of Technology, Indian Institute of Science and
Ogwell, stressing on the link between climate change
Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research and
and health. Any discussion about financing for climate
encouraging battery technology research and training
change mitigation, building resilience and adaptation
must include financing for the public health sector, programmes in these institutes. However, EV battery
which is equally strained, he said. “We must highlight research is lacking in government sponsorship. Even
the relationship between climate change, environment though the Indian government, through its Advanced
and health. We must have a clear approach on how best Chemistry Cell (ACC) Production-Linked Incentive
we can prevent the health disasters that come about as a (PLI) scheme, has laid out Rs 18,100 crore for
result of the effects of climate change,” said Ogwell. manufacturing of ACC, it doesn’t have a national
1. Which of the following subjects does the writer programme to fund research and development into the
of the passage emphasise mostly? latest technologies like SIB and SSB. The world
(a) Agriculture and health only.
transitioned from nickel cobalt aluminium chemistry to
(b) Health only.
LFP within 15 years and is likely to shift to other latest
(c) Environment, climate change and health
technologies like SIB and SSB very soon. This is an
only.
(d) Green growth, climate finance and health opportunity for India to leapfrog in the battery race and
only. put its money where the mouth is.

2. With reference to the above passage, which of 4. How many persons sit between A and H?
the following can be attributed to the EV (a) More than two persons
Industry in India? (b) Less than two persons
1. Public-Private Partnership. (c) Only one person
2. Indian research facilities have some
(d) Only two persons
expertise in EV batteries.
3. International collaborations.
5. Which of the following is correct with respect to
below. the given arrangement?
(a) 1 only (a) C and J sit at the extreme ends.
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) B and D sit at the extreme ends.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) C and D sit at the extreme ends.
(d) 2 only (d) C and G are not immediate neighbours.

6. If all the persons are rearranged according to
the crucial message conveyed by the author of
alphabetical order, who would sit third to the left
the passage?
of G?
(a) Indian startups are making great strides in
(a) C
EV battery production.
(b) India's EV industry needs direct government (b) B
backing in research for a technological (c) D
transformation. (d) A
(c) Indian Space agencies are working to
produce EV batteries for space missions. 7. In an examination conducted for teachers, 24
(d) PLI scheme will make India a world leader teachers applied for primary level, 26 applied for
in the latest technologies like SIB and SSB.
junior level and 28 applied for Trained Graduate
Teacher (TGT level). Among them 14 teachers
Direction for the following 3 (three) items:
applied for both primary and junior level, 12
Consider the following information and answer the three
items that follow. teachers applied for both TGT and primary level,
Nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J sit in a single 15 teachers applied for both junior and TGT
row. They all face the same direction, but not necessarily level, and 8 teachers applied for all the three
in the same order. categories. How many teachers applied for the
C sits at an extreme end of the row. Two persons sit examination in total?
between C and F. More than two persons sit between F (a) 35
and J. J does not sit at an extreme end of the row. Three
(b) 45
persons sit between B and D. G sits third to the left of B.
(c) 49
E sits to the immediate right of H. B does not sit at
(d) None of these
extreme ends of the row.

8. In a birthday party, 5% of the guests do not like 11. Consider the following.
the food, decoration and music; while 10% like
all the three. 20% like food and decoration, 25% __ > __ < __ ≤ __ > __ ≤ __
like food and music, 25% like music and Which of the following should be placed in the
decoration, 55% like food, 50% like decoration
and 50% like music. The percent of guests who blank spaces (in the same order from left to
like both decoration and music but not food is:
right) in order to complete the given inequality
(a) 25%
(b) 20% in such a manner that makes the expression ‘L >
(c) 15%
(d) 10% M’ definitely false?
(a) L, M, N, O, P, Q
9. In a security selection examination, 53% are
selected in Army, 61% are selected in Navy, (b) N, M, O, Q, P, L
60% are selected in Airforce, 24% in Army and
(c) M, L, N, Q, O, P
Navy, 35% in Navy and Airforce, 27% in Army
and Airforce, while 5% are not selected in any (d) N, P, Q, M, O, L
of these three. If total number of candidates is
300, how many are selected in only one of these?
(a) More than 50 12. Consider the figure given below:
(b) Less than 40
(c) 46
(d) 48
10. Consider the following entities.

Children below the age of 18 years. Persons
enrolled in the voter list. Persons who have
voted.
Select the appropriate diagram from the options
given below, that aptly represents the
The figure represents the relationship between
relationship between these.
(a) which of the following sets correctly?
(a) Tea, beverages, coffee
(b) Authors, teachers, men

(b)
(c) Boys, students, athletes
(d) Sparrows, birds, mice

(c)

(d) that follow each passage. Your answers to these items

Passage – 1 13. Which of the following statements best reflects
Ever since their colonisation of British cities sometime the most logical and rational message conveyed
during the last century, urban red foxes (Vulpes vulpes) by the author of the passage?
(a) Bolder animals easily adjust to the urban
have become somewhat of a cultural phenomenon. Some
culture.
people love them for their striking marmalade coats but (b) Animal habitations have been reduced as
others, including former prime minister Boris Johnson, cities become more populated.
think of them as a menace. In recent times, people seem (c) Animals are not affected by the local culture
to think urban foxes are becoming bolder and more beyond a certain point.
cunning, “wreaking havoc in central London” by (d) Colonisation by the British significantly
reduced forest areas in their colonies.
scavenging in bins for food scraps. But our recent study
Passage – 2
suggests that this popular portrayal may only be partially
European honeybees can be an effective biomonitor for
true for the species. Cities are dynamic places. The determining the spread of antimicrobial resistance
people, traffic, smells, noises and opportunities for food (AMR) in urban neighbourhoods. A recent paper has
are constantly changing. This, in theory, should be ideal found the insects can carry genetic elements of key AMR
for bolder animals who would have the confidence to drivers in their digestive tracts. AMR is the ability of
bacteria and other microbes to resist the drugs used to
exploit resources like outdoor bins, for instance, despite
inhibit or kill them. The paper was published in the
the risk of coming into conflict with humans. Cunning
journal Environmental Science and Technology in July
animals would also be good at learning to push, pull or 2023. The dangerous rise of AMR could lead to up to 10
lift human-made materials such as bin lids and food million deaths annually by 2050, a United Nations
containers to extract discarded food. In our recent study, Environment Programme report released February 2023
we tested whether urban foxes have indeed become found. This would be on par with the 2020 rate of global
deaths from cancer. A World Health Organization report
bolder and more cunning by comparing them to their
in 2022 showed that over 50 per cent of life-threatening
countryside cousins. We gave a series of puzzle feeders
bacterial infections are becoming resistant to treatment.
to foxes in 104 urban and rural locations across a large The numbers were this high even though many countries
area, from London to Edinburgh, and left them in place could not report data for 2020 due to the novel
for two weeks. The food inside each puzzle could be coronavirus COVID-19 pandemic. The global health
released through simple actions such as removing lids or body had called for more research to discover why AMR
had increased and the extent to which infections are
pulling sticks to dislodge food from pipes. Across all of
related to hospitalisations and antibiotic treatments
our study locations, 96 foxes acknowledged the objects,
during the COVID-19 pandemic. European honeybees,
most of which showed an initial avoidance of the or Apis mellifera, can be “crowdsourced” environmental
puzzles. Around a third (31) touched the puzzles, but proxy as they interact with contaminants in soil, dust, air,
only 12 of those foxes persisted long enough to extract water and pollen while they forage, according to the
the food. We found urban foxes were more likely to scientists from Macquarie University, Australia. “Bees
interact with human environments, so they are a really
interact with the puzzles than rural ones, suggesting they
good indicator of pollution that may present risk of harm
were bolder. However, when it came to their willingness
to humans,” said first author Kara Fry from Macquarie
to solve the puzzles, there was no difference between the University, reported news aggregator Phys.org. The
two populations. researchers looked into the gut bacteria of 144 bees.

14. Which of the following statements can be 15. Which of the following statements can be
inferred from the above passage? inferred from the above passage?
1. AMR-related mortality will be equal to 1. The 11 countries mentioned will never be
cancer-related deaths in 2050.
able to reduce their greenhouse gas
2. Covid 19 played an important role in the
spread of AMR, globally. emissions by 100%.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 2. Demands for a green growth align with the
below. Paris Agreement.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 3 (b) 2 only
It could take 11 high-income countries over 200 years to (c) Both 1 and 2
reduce their 2022 greenhouse gas emissions by 95 per (d) Neither 1 nor 2
cent, according to a new analysis. If current trends
continue, these countries would emit 27 times their fair 16. Given below are two statements and four
share of the 1.5 degrees Celsius carbon budget, the study conclusions.
published in journal The Lancet Planetary Health stated.
Statements:
Fair share in carbon budgets is the amount of carbon
dioxide (CO2) that can still be emitted for a 50 percent 1. All automobiles are buses.
chance of warming staying below 1.5°C. These 11 high- 2. All buses are trains.
income countries are: Australia, Austria, Belgium, Conclusions:
Canada, Denmark, France, Germany, Luxembourg, the 1. All automobiles are trains.
Netherlands, Sweden and the United Kingdom. “Green 2. Some buses are automobiles.
growth is, therefore, not occurring and appears out of
3. Some trains are buses.
reach for high-income countries. Our findings suggest
that the continued pursuit of economic growth in high- 4. Some trains are automobiles.
income countries is at odds with the climate and equity Read the Statements and choose which of the
commitments of the Paris Agreement,” researchers from conclusions follow logically from the given two
the University of Leeds and the University of Barcelona statements.
wrote in their paper. The Paris Agreement is a treaty (a) None of the conclusions follow.
signed by 196 countries to limit “the increase in the (b) Only conclusion 1 and 2 follow.
global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-
industrial levels” and pursue efforts “to limit the (c) Only conclusions 2, 3 and 4 follow.
temperature increase to 1.5°C above pre-industrial (d) All the conclusions follow.
levels.” Scientists have warned that green growth can
only occur if decoupling is fast enough to reduce Direction for the following 3 (three) items:
emissions consistent with the Paris Agreement. Consider the given information and answer the three
Decoupling, according to the study, is a decrease in CO2 items that follow.
emissions per unit of gross domestic product (GDP). The
In a kindergarten eight kids J, K, L, M, N, O, P and R
researchers first identified 11 countries that achieved
“absolute decoupling”, which means those that were sitting in a straight line facing the south direction.
decreased their CO2 emissions alongside increasing Two of them were sitting between K and J, and two were
GDP between 2013 and 2019. To do this, they collected sitting between M and O. N was sitting 2nd to the left of
GDP data from the World Bank and CO2 emissions data O. L was sitting 2nd to the right of M. Either L or M were
from the Global Carbon Project. They compared each sitting at one of the extreme ends. J was neither an
country’s ‘business-as-usual’ emission cut rates in the
immediate neighbor of O, nor an immediate neighbor L.
future to the “Paris-compliant” rates needed to comply
with their “fair share” of the respective global carbon Two kids were sitting between P and R. P was not an
budget. immediate neighbor of J.

17. Who was sitting third to the left of L? 21. Three statements followed by three conclusions
(a) No one are given below. You have to take the statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance
(b) J
from the commonly known facts. Read all the
(c) R conclusions and then decide which of the given
(d) M conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the
given statements, disregarding the commonly
known facts.
18. How many kids were sitting between P and K? Statements:
(a) None (i) All clothes are tablets.
(b) More than four (ii) No candy are clothes.
(iii) Some cakes are tablets.
(c) More than five
Conclusions:
(d) Four I. Some tablets are cakes.
II. No clothes are candy.
19. Who among the following were sitting at the III. Some cakes are candy.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
extreme ends of the line? below.
(a) L, M (a) Only I follows
(b) L, N (b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only III follows
(c) M, R
(d) None follows
(d) M, J
22. Three statements followed by three conclusions
20. Consider the following four sets of three are given below. You have to take the statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance
sentences each.
I. Some cats are dogs. Some dogs are rats. conclusions and then decide which of the given
Some cats are rats. conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the
statements, disregarding the commonly known
II. All bikes are cars. Some cars are trains.
facts.
Some bikes are trains. Statements:
III. No book is pen. Only pens have colours . No (i) All Spices are Jams.
book has colours. (ii) All Jams are Breads.
(iii) All Rusks are Breads.
IV. Some monkeys are goats. Some goats are
Conclusions:
white. Some monkeys are white. I. No Spices is a Rusk.
Choose the set(s) in which the third statement is II. Some Rusks are Jams.
III. Some Breads are Spices.
a logical conclusion of the first two.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
(a) Only I and IV below.
(b) Only III (a) Either I or III follows
(c) Only IV (b) Only II and III follow
(d) None of these
(d) All follow

23. Consider the following statements and 26. How many persons are there in the row in total?
conclusions. (a) More than 10 persons.
Statement: (b) Seventeen persons.
(c) Twelve persons.
I. P > M = C > L
(d) Eight persons.
II. X ≥ P > O
III. C ≤ B < Y
27. If 3<x<6 and 8<y<12, then which of the
Conclusion: following statements is correct?
I. O > M (a) Largest integer value of x+y is 17 when
II. M < Y both x and y are integers.
Assuming the given statements to be true, find (b) Largest integer value of x+y is 16 when
which of the conclusions is/are definitely true. both x and y are non-integers.
(a) Only conclusion I follows (c) Either the value of x or the value of y should
be given for calculating the largest integer
(b) Either conclusion I or II follows
value of x+y.
(c) Only conclusion II follows
(d) None of the above.
(d) Both conclusion I and II follow
Direction for the following 3 (three) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items
Consider the given information and answer the three that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
items that follow. should be based on the passages only.
A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing Passage – 1
Throughout history, people and societies have adjusted
the south direction. M sits fourth to the right of O. Only
to and coped with changes in climate and extremes with
two persons sit between M and Q. R sits second to the
varying degrees of success. Climate change (drought in
right of Q. S sits fourth to the left of O. Not more than particular) has been at least partly responsible for the rise
five persons sit between P and Q. P sits adjacent to S, but and fall of civilizations. Earth’s climate has been
towards his right. Only three persons sit to the right of R. relatively stable for the past 10,000 years, and this
24. How many persons sit between P and Q? stability has allowed for the development of our modern
(a) Two civilization and agriculture. Our modern life is tailored
(b) Three to that stable climate, not the much warmer climate of
the next thousand years. As our climate changes, we will
(c) Four
need to adapt. The faster the climate changes, the more
(d) Five
difficult it will be. While climate change is a global issue,
it is felt on a local scale. Local governments are therefore
25. In the arrangement, who is sitting to the at the frontline of adaptation. Cities and local
immediate right of Q? communities around the world have been focusing on
(a) O solving their climate problems. They are working to
(b) R build flood defences, plan for heat waves and higher
temperatures, install better-draining pavements to deal
(c) Cannot be determined
with floods and stormwater, and improve water storage
(d) M
and use.

assumptions have been made: An energy source is a necessary element of socio-

economic development. The increasing economic
1. In the process of climate change adaptation,
growth of developing nations in the last decades has
the role of local governments is more
caused an accelerated increase in energy consumption.
important than national governments. This trend is anticipated to grow. A prediction of future
2. People and societies have had a minimal role power consumption is essential for the investigation of
adequate environmental and economic policies.
in accelerating climate change across the
Likewise, an outlook on future power consumption helps
earth.
to determine future investments in renewable energy.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? Energy supply and security have not only increased the
(a) 1 only essential issues for the development of human society
(b) 2 only but also for their global political and economic patterns.
Hence, international comparisons are helpful to identify
(c) Both 1 and 2
past, present, and future power consumption.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the logical inference from the passage given
29. Which of the following statements best reflects above?
(a) Unlike developed nations, it’s the
developing nations which are more likely to
(a) Considering the possible devastation of
be dependent on renewable energy in future.
climate change, adaptations at the local level (b) Estimation of future energy demands will
can help our modern lives to continue with help in the smooth transition to renewable
stability. sources of energy.

(c) In the context of energy supply across the
(b) Despite being a global issue, climate change
world, the past is fossil and solar energy is
requires interventions at the local level for
the future.
its reversal. (d) For fair future estimation of energy
(c) For a stable modern life, people should not demands, understanding the history of
only focus on local adaptation but also work renewable energy share in different
countries across the globe is important.
towards global mitigation of climate change.
(d) Unless the adaptations at the local level are

Direction for the following 4 (four) items:
done, it would be challenging to tackle Consider the following information and answer the four
climate change at the global level. items that follow.

Twelve persons B, C, E, G, J, L, N, P, Q, S, U and W sit 35. Consider the Question and two Statements given
around a hexagonal table, but not necessarily in the same below.
order. Six persons sitting at the corners are facing
Question: A, B, C, D and E are five persons in
towards the center, while six persons sitting at the middle
a group. How many persons are taller than E?
of the edges are facing away from the center.
Four persons sit between E and N. N sits to the Statement-1: B is shorter than only A and E.
immediate left of S. C sits second to the left of W. B sits Statement-2: C is shorter than A, who is shorter
fourth to the right of J, who faces away from the center. than E.
P sits third to the right of U and is adjacent to S and J.
Only one person sits between B and L. L sits to the
immediate right of Q. Neither E nor W sits adjacent to B. of the above Question and the Statements?
31. Which of the following are sitting facing away (a) The Question can be answered using
from the center? Statement-1 alone.
(a) C, W, U
(b) The Question can be answered using either
(b) B, E, L
of the Statements alone.
(c) G, B, L
(d) U, S, Q (c) The Question can be answered using both
the Statements together, but cannot be
32. Which of the following statements is correct? answered using either Statement alone.
(a) C is sitting adjacent to G.
(d) The Question cannot be answered even by
(b) B is sitting facing towards the center.
using both the Statements together.
(c) B and L are the neighbors of G.
(d) U and Q are not adjacent to each other.
36. Of the 500 patients who were checked for
33. In the given arrangement, who is sitting seventh allergic diseases/symptoms, 40% had allergy
to the left of G?
from pollen, 50% had allergy from fur and 60%
(a) J
had allergy from dust. If all the patients had at
(b) U
(c) N least one of the aforesaid allergies and 20% of
(d) W the patients had exactly two of the aforesaid
allergies, how many of the patients had only one
34. Find out the odd triplet from the options given
of these allergies?
below.
(a) J, W, E (a) 275
(b) U, N, S (b) 300

(c) P, S, N (c) 325
(d) G, L, C
(d) 350

37. Out of 50 applicants for a job, 24 had at least 2 38. Which of the following statements best reflects
years of experience, 30 had MBA degrees, and 5 what the passage implies?
had less than 2 years of experience and did not (a) If one wants to succeed in life, he/she should
have an MBA degree. Find the ratio of the avoid newspapers and not listen to any
number of applicants having an MBA degree but person.
less than 2 years of experience and the number (b) The most important negative impact of
of applicants having at least 2 years of opinions in one’s life is on the financial
experience and an MBA degree. aspect of life.
(a) 9:4 (c) It is not the opinion or gossip which fails a
(b) 7:3 person but a lack of inner conviction and
(c) 8:3 well-reasoned choices.
(d) 5:4 (d) People’s opinion compromises the

independent ability to make informed
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: decisions for success.
Read the following two passages and answer the items Passage – 2
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items When businesses prioritize transparency, accountability,
should be based on the passages only. and ethical practices in their operations, they create a
Passage – 1 foundation of trust with stakeholders, including suppliers
Many who struggle to secure the financial resources they and customers. This trust forms the basis for strong,
require often, find themselves unduly swayed by the mutually beneficial relationships along the supply chain.
perspectives of others. They allow newspapers and Effective governance ensures that companies maintain
gossipy neighbours to mould their beliefs and guide their rigorous standards in areas like risk management,
compliance with regulations, and responsible
thinking. Opinions, however, are abundant and often
environmental and social practices. These factors are
come at little cost. They can be readily imparted to
vital for supply chain stability, as they reduce the
anyone willing to accept them. Relying on the judgments
likelihood of disruptions and costly setbacks.
of others to make decisions can undermine one's success
Furthermore, good governance practices foster
in any pursuit. True success arises from the ability to sift
innovation and adaptability, enabling businesses to
through external influence, cultivating independent,
respond swiftly to changing market conditions and
informed decisions based on a clear understanding of
emerging challenges.
one's goals.

39. Which one of the following statements best 41. Which of the following figures correctly
reflects the crux of the passage? demonstrate the relationship between natural
numbers, even numbers and prime numbers?
(a) People should be the centre point of any
(a)
business to succeed in today's dynamic
business landscape.
(b) With the changing business landscape, it is
important to adopt principles of responsible (b)
environmental and social practices in

business.
(c) Trust, innovation, adaptability, and swift
(c)
response to changing market conditions are
the foundations of good corporate
governance.
(d) Good corporate governance is not just a set (d)
of principles; it's a fundamental driver of
supply chain strength and resilience in
today's dynamic business landscape.
42. In the figure given below, circle represents the

40. Read the two statements given below and choose
urban population, square represents the educated
the most logical conclusion that is true based on population, rectangle represents the working
the statements: population and triangle represents the clever
population.
Statement 1: All A’s are Z.
Statement 2: All B’s are Z.
Conclusion 1: Some A’s are B
Conclusion 2: No B are A.
below. What is the number of urban educated people
who are clever?
(a) Only 1
(a) 12
(b) Only 2 (b) 9
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 7
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 5

43. Consider the following Venn diagram. In a school during lunch break seven friends decided to
sit around a circular table. Only four of them were facing
the center.
C was sitting 3rd to the left of D and both of them were
facing the center. E was neither sitting adjacent to C nor
The above Venn diagram represents the
sitting adjacent to D. The only person sitting between D
relationship among which of the following
entities? and F was not facing the center. G was sitting 3rd to the
(a) Singer, Writer, Musician right of A and was facing the center. One of the
(b) Vegetarian, Cow, Lion immediate neighbors of B was not facing the center. E
(c) Furniture, Table, Chair and F were sitting across the table facing away from each
(d) Punjab, Chandigarh, Haryana other.
47. Who among the following was facing away from
the center?
Consider the following information and answer the three
(a) C
items that follow.
Eight friends F, M, N, O, P, R, S and T are sitting around (b) G
a circular table facing the centre. P is 3rd to the right of (c) B
M and to the immediate right of S. T is 3rd to the left of (d) F
S. O is to the immediate right of N and to the immediate
left of F. 48. Who was sitting 4th to the left of G?
44. Who is sitting fifth to the right of R?
(a) C
(a) O
(b) A
(b) T
(c) F (c) B
(d) S (d) F
45. How many persons are sitting between M and O 49. Ten new magazines were started in January; 5
when counting from the right side of M? by company A, 3 by company B and 2 by
(a) Less than three company C. By April, only seven of the new
(b) More than five
magazines were still being published, five of
(c) Only four
them were by company A.
(d) Only five
Which of following conclusion logically follows
46. Find the odd pair in the options given below. from the information given above?
(a) R, S (a) Only one magazine from Company C is still
(b) P, F being published.
(c) M, T (b) Readers prefer company A over company B.
(d) S, P
(c) At least one discontinued magazine was
from company B.
Direction for the following 2 (two) items:
Consider the following information and answer the two (d) Only one magazine from company B is still
items that follow. being published.

Directions for the following 3 (three) items: 50. Based on the above passage, the following
Read the following three passages and answer the items assumptions have been made:
1. Lack of education in rural youth is one of the
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items causes of their poor participation in sectors
should be based on the passages only. such as technology and entrepreneurship.
2. Rural education could lead to emigration
Passage – 1
from urban centres leading to balanced
Strengthening education in rural India is not merely a regional development.
matter of policy; it's a necessity for fostering inclusive Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid?
(a) 1 only
development and reducing socio-economic disparities.
(b) 2 only
Rural areas often face a multitude of challenges in (c) Both 1 and 2
providing quality education, including inadequate (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 2
infrastructure, a shortage of qualified teachers, and
Hard work has been romanticized since corporations
limited access to educational resources. Investing in rural existed. In the business world, idioms about how sleep is
education holds immense potential for transforming for the weak or how no amount of talent can supersede
hard work were doled out for decades. The underlying
lives and communities. It empowers individuals with
assumption was that if you worked hard enough for long
knowledge and skills, enhancing their employability and enough, you would succeed. However, this advice
income-earning prospects. Furthermore, an educated misses one big point: Most people fail not because of a
lack of effort but because their effort was misdirected or
rural populace is better equipped to make informed
misaligned with their interests. People who make
decisions about health, sanitation, and sustainable informed and intelligent choices about the work they
agricultural practices, leading to improved living choose to focus on have been quicker to reach success.
Hard work has helped them get there, but only because
conditions. Additionally, education can help bridge the
they’ve chosen to focus on tasks, projects, and roles that
urban-rural divide by enabling rural youth to actively align with their long-term growth goals.
participate in emerging sectors, including technology 51. Which one of the following statements best
and entrepreneurship. This can lead to more balanced
(a) Capitalists have used the hard work of their
regional development and reduce migration pressures on employees as a tool for the promotion of
already overcrowded cities. To realize India's full their self-interests.
(b) For success, people should not focus on hard
potential, policymakers must prioritize rural education,
work but value informed and intelligent
allocate resources, and implement comprehensive choices in their lives.
reforms to ensure that quality education is accessible to (c) Without informed and intelligent choices
aligned with long-term growth goals,
every child. In doing so, they can unlock the untapped
achieving success in life would be difficult.
potential of rural India and drive the nation's overall (d) Informed and intelligent life choices, along
progress. with hard work, are equally important for
anyone to be successful.

Passage – 3 53. Examine the following statements:
In the context of GM crops, the precautionary principle 1. Only those who have a telescope can be
demands rigorous scrutiny. While proponents argue that members of astronomy club.
GM crops can enhance yields, reduce pesticide use, and
2. Some members of astronomy club have
alleviate food shortages, there are concerns about long-
cameras.
term environmental impacts, potential allergenicity, and
3. Those members who have cameras can take
the monopolistic control of seed markets by a few
biotechnology companies. The lack of emphasis on the part in photo-contest.
precautionary principle in GM crop discussions can Which of the following conclusions can be
result in hasty approvals and inadequate safety drawn from the above statements?
assessments. Policymakers, scientists, and stakeholders (a) All those who have a telescope are members
must prioritize comprehensive, independent research
of astronomy club.
and transparent risk assessments to ensure the
(b) All members of astronomy club have
responsible development and deployment of GM crops,
telescope.
considering the precautionary principle to safeguard
both our ecosystems and human health. Ignoring this (c) All those who take part in photo contests are
principle could have irreversible consequences for our members of astronomy club.
environment and future generations. (d) No conclusion can be drawn
54. 78 people are surveyed about their preferences
(a) Few biotechnology companies should not be
regarding some mobile phones - Samsung,
allowed to monopolize the GM crop seed
Apple or OnePlus. Of these 36 like Samsung, 48
market.
(b) The precautionary principle may counter the like Apple while 32 like OnePlus. 14 like both
concerns related to the development of GM Samsung and Apple, 20 like both Apple and
crops. OnePlus and 12 like both One Plus and

(c) In the future, despite the precautionary Samsung. Find the ratio of the number of people
principle, GM crops could be a double- who like only Samsung to the number of people
edged sword for society.
who like only OnePlus.
(d) Only focusing on the precautionary
(a) 9:3
principle is not enough to address the
(b) 12:7
possible concerns related to GM crops.
Grassroot participation of farmers is (c) 3:2
essential for this cause. (d) None of these

55. Three subjects – Accounts, Business Studies and 57. For Independence Day celebrations, all students
Commerce are taught by three teachers who participated either in singing or dancing. If 420
wore coats of black, blue and orange colours students participated in singing, 450 students
(not necessarily in that order) and tie of green,
participated in dancing and 120 students
yellow and orange colours (not necessarily in
participated in both, then what is the total
that order). No teacher wore coat and tie of same
number of participants?
color. Further, it is given that
1. Accounts teacher did not wear coat of black (a) 870
colour. (b) 950

2. Business Studies teacher did not wear coat (c) 750
of blue colour. (d) None of these
3. Commerce teacher did not wear coat of
orange colour.
Directions for following 3 (three) items:
4. Accounts teacher did not wear tie of green
Read the information given below and answer the three
colour.
items that follow.
5. Business studies teacher wore tie of orange
A class has 120 students, roll numbers 1 through 120. All
colour.
What are the respective colours of tie and coat the students with even roll numbers opt for Science,
worn by Commerce teacher? students whose numbers are divisible by 5 opt for Arts
(a) Orange and Black and those whose roll numbers are divisible by 7 opt for
(b) Green and Blue Literature. 12 students study Arts and Science, 3 students
(c) Blue and Green study Arts and Literature, 8 students study Science and
(d) Yellow and black.
Literature and 1 student studies all these three subjects.
58. How many opt for neither Science nor Arts?
56. Study the following Venn diagram and answer
(a) 48
(b) 36
(c) 60
(d) 78
59. On a particular day, only Science, Arts and

Literature classes are scheduled. How many
students have no classes on that day?
How many women painters are IAS?
(a) 9 (a) 41
(b) 13 (b) 47
(c) 6 (c) 44
(d) 18 (d) 42

60. How many students opt for exactly 2 subjects 64. Three statements followed by three conclusions
from amongst Arts, Science and Literature? are given below. You have to take the statements
(a) 23 to be true even if they seem to be at variance
(b) 24 from the commonly known facts. Read all the
(c) 21 conclusions and then decide which of the given
(d) 20 conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the
Direction for the following 3 (three) items: facts.
Consider the following information and answer the three Statements:
items that follow. (i) All hens are chairs.
Eight persons are sitting in a straight line facing the (ii) Some hats are chairs.
north. Two people sit between P and R. Neither P nor R (iii) All toys are Hats.
sit at the extreme ends. V and T are immediate neighbors Conclusions:
of each other. S sits at one of the extreme ends. Two I. All toys are chairs.
people sit between S and T. R sits 2nd to the right of V. R II. Some hens are hats.
sits 3rd from one of the ends. U sits to the left of T, but to III. Some toys are hens.
the right of Q. W sits to the right of Q. Select the correct answer using the codes given
61. Find the odd pair among the following. below.
(a) P, Q (a) Only I and II follow
(b) U, V (b) Only I and III follow
(c) T, R (c) Only II and III follow
(d) T, W (d) None follows
62. Who is sitting to the immediate right of W? 65. Rohit is standing north of Rajan and Raman is
(a) Q standing east of Rajan. The distance between
(b) U Rohit and Rajan is 12 m and the distance
(c) R between Raman and Rajan is 16 m. A boy,
(d) S Shyam, wants to walk from where Raman is
standing to where Rohit is standing.
63. How many persons are sitting between U and Which of the following statements may be true?
W? (a) Shyam will have to walk at least 28 m.
(a) Three (b) Shyam will have to walk at max 28 m.
(b) Two (c) Shyam will have to walk less than 20 m.
(c) Four (d) The length of the path travelled by Shyam
(d) One may be 21 m.

66. Five people, Anil, Binny, Chintu, Deepa and Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
Emily are seated around a pentagonal table. Read the following passage and answer the items that
1. Chintu is seated adjacent to Anil.
follow. Your answers to these items should be based on
2. Anil is two seats away from Deepa.
the passage only.
3. Binny is not seated next to Anil.
Which of the following must be true? Passage
I. Deepa is seated next to Binny. Fake news stories use technology and social media to
II. Emily is seated next to Anil. look like proper news sites. Organisations and political
Select the correct answer from the codes given
groups may target you with ads that look like the news.
below:
(a) I only Hackers use bots, and bits of software, to create multiple
(b) II only social media accounts and use those to spread
(c) Both I and II misinformation. This can make a false story seem real,
(d) Neither I nor II
simply because it looks like it has been shared by so
many people. Fake social media posts and accounts help
67. Consider the following statements and
conclusions. make misinformation viral. Sometimes this is then
Statements: reported as fact by real journalists. When it becomes the
I. a > b > c = d < e news, the line between fact and fiction becomes blurred.
II. f ≤ g = h < c g fact. It can also direct these opinions to those most likely
II. f ≤ d to agree to reinforce them. This so-called “echo
Assuming the given statements to be true, find chamber” effect is made worse by algorithms, and clever
which of the conclusions is/are definitely true.
bits of software, which encourage you to read material
(a) Only conclusion I follows
like what you are already sharing. Hackers often hack or
(c) Only conclusion II follows manipulate these algorithms.
(d) Both conclusion I and II follow 69. Based on the above passage, the following
68. There are some coins of denominations Rs 2, Rs
1. There is an urgent need to check and control
5, and Rs 10 on a table. The value of Rs. 10 coins
is twice the value of Rs 5 coins on the table. The the spread of misinformation in India.
number of Rs 2 coins is equal to the total number 2. With increasing fake news, it is becoming
of Rs 5 and Rs 10 coins on the table. The total difficult to trust even the real journalists.
number of coins on the table is Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) twice the number of Rs 5 coins on the table.
(a) 1 only
(b) thrice the number of Rs 5 coins on the table.
(c) four times the number of Rs 5 coins on the (b) 2 only
table. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) cannot be ascertained. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

70. Which of the following statements best reflects Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
the crux of the passage? Read the information carefully and answer the two items
(a) To address the issue of fake news, that follow.
technological regulations and ethics should The plan below shows the location of offices of six
be the first step. colleagues A, B, C, D, E and F in a building.
Office 1 Office 2 Office 3
(b) Social media sites are the prime source of
→
fake news which needs to be regulated by Office 4 Office 5 Office 6
the government. Both A and B occupy offices on the left side of the
(c) There is a lack of ethics among hackers as corridor as one enters in the building as per the direction
they manipulate information for selfish arrow shown in the above plan. E occupies office on the
reasons. right. D and E occupy offices on opposite sides of the
(d) Technology is the prime enabler of the fake corridor but their offices do not face each other. Offices
of A and C face each other. E occupies a corner office
news menace, negatively impacting the lives
and A does not occupy a corner office.
of the people.
72. Who occupies office 6?
(a) E
71. Three statements followed by four conclusions
(b) F
are given below. You have to take the statements (c) Either F or E
to be true even if they seem to be at variance (d) C
73. Whose offices are farthest from each other?
conclusions and then decide which of the given
(a) A and C
conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the
(b) A and D
(c) B and D
facts. (d) B and F
Statements:
(i) Some boys are balls. Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
(ii) No ink is pen. Read the given information carefully and answer the two
(iii) All pens are balls. items that follow.
Conclusions: There are 7 centres of Vision IAS classes in New Delhi.
I. Some balls are boys. All the centres are linked to each other through different
II. Some balls are pens. routes as shown in the figure given below. The number
III. Some balls are Ink. shown near each route represents the distance (in km)
between the two connected centres.
IV. Some inks are boys.
below.
(a) Only II and III follow
(b) Only II and IV follow
(c) Only I and II follow
(d) None follows

74. A student is at centre G and needs to meet his 77. In which of the following expressions 'M > S' as
friend who is at centre A. What is the shortest well as 'K > S' are definitely true?
distance he needs to travel to reach centre A? (a) M > X > E = S < H ≤ K
(a) 34
(b) M ≥ X = E > S ≤ H < K
(b) 35
(c) M = X > E ≥ S < H < K
(c) 33
(d) All of the above
(d) None of these

75. Monica is at centre A and needs to go to centre
G. What are the number of different routes she Read the following two passages and answer the items
can follow, if she cannot pass through any centre that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
twice? should be based on the passages only.

(a) 4 Passage – 1
(b) 3 The population growth in urban areas is accompanied by
(c) 6
an increased demand for water, stretching the capacity of
(d) 5
existing supply systems. This imbalance leads to water
shortages and uneven distribution. Rapid urbanisation

76. Consider the following statements and
has outpaced the development and maintenance of water
conclusions.
Statements: supply systems, leading to shortages and unequal
I. R < S ≤ T < Q ≤ C distribution. Insufficient financial resources and
II. V = H ≠ Q = G ≥ K > L investment in water infrastructure hinder the expansion

III. D ≤ X < Z = P = K and improvement of water supply networks. This results
Conclusions: in inadequate coverage and service disruptions.
I. C > Z
Mismanagement, leakages, and inadequate maintenance
II. R < X
further exacerbate the problem. Ageing pipes and
Assuming the given statements to be true, find
inadequate repair and maintenance programs result in
which of the conclusions is/are definitely true.
significant water losses. Climate change-induced
(a) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
uncertainties, such as erratic rainfall patterns and
(c) Only conclusion II follows prolonged droughts, place additional stress on urban
(d) Both conclusions I and II follow water sources.

78. Which of the following is/are the most rational 79. Based on the above passage, the following
and logical inference/inferences that can be assumptions have been made:
drawn from the passage?
1. Lack of investment is the fundamental
1. The solution to water shortages is not
reason for poor employment opportunities
limited to urban governance, it requires
people’s participation. in the social sector.
2. Continued water shortage in urban areas 2. Investment alone may not be enough for
could lead to the de-urbanization of our growth if the menace of corruption is not
cities. addressed.
Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid?
below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 2
In our contemporary world, where economies are
80. Consider the following statements followed by
continually evolving, the social sector has emerged as a
two conclusions:
crucial avenue for generating large-scale employment
opportunities. This shift towards bolstering sectors such Statements:
as healthcare, education, and public infrastructure holds 1. Some people are rich.
immense potential for several reasons. Firstly, 2. Some people are hard working.
investments in healthcare and education create a demand
Conclusions:
for skilled professionals, ranging from doctors and
1. People are either rich or hardworking.
teachers to support staff and technicians. This not only
provides jobs but also enhances the overall quality of 2. Some people are neither rich nor
human capital. Secondly, improved public hardworking.

infrastructure, like transportation and renewable energy Which one of the following options is correct?
projects, requires a considerable workforce, contributing (a) Only conclusion 1 is valid.
significantly to job creation. However, increased social
(b) Only conclusion 2 is valid.
sector expenditure must be combined with efficient
(c) Both conclusions are valid.
governance, accountability, and measures to combat
corruption to ensure the funds are effectively utilised. (d) Neither of the conclusions is valid.


VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
1 (b)
Option (a) is not correct: The passage mentions ‘agriculture’ only at one place - “Agriculture, health
and development are suffering. So, bringing the health discussion onto the agenda of the climate change
platform is essential for Africa.” Hence, it can be inferred that ‘agriculture’ is not one of the subjects that
has been ‘mostly’ emphasised by the author. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is correct: The first line of the passage itself mentions ‘health’ as an important subject of
discussion - “Health practitioners and experts attending the inaugural Africa Climate Summit in Nairobi,
Kenya, have expressed displeasure with the exclusion of health on the main agenda despite its
inextricable link with climate change”. This implies that during the ongoing summit the exclusion of
health from the main agenda is a disappointment for experts. Further, it is mentioned in the passage that
“bringing the health discussion onto the agenda of the climate change platform is essential for Africa”.
It can be further inferred that health-related issues are important for Africa and need to be incorporated
into the ongoing climate summit in Africa. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The summit mentioned Africa Climate Summit, which is related with climate.
However, health practitioners and experts are disappointed with the non-exclusion of Health in the
agenda. The subject of ‘environment’ is mentioned at one place in the passage - “We must highlight the
relationship between climate change, environment and health”. It can be understood that the subject of
environment, though important, is not the one that is mostly emphasized upon. Hence, option (c) is not
correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The concept of “green growth” finds mention only in the following line of the
passage – The theme of the summit is “Driving green growth and climate finance solutions for Africa and
the World”. The phrase is not mentioned anywhere else in the passage. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
2 (b)
Statement 1 is correct: The passage says that “Hyderabad-based Altmin, a Hyderabad-based battery
material production and cell engineering company, collaborated with the International Advanced
Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials, an institution under the Union Ministry of
Science and Technology”. It implies that it is a collaboration between Private and Government sector
entities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage says, “Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, International Advanced
Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials and Nonferrous Materials Technology
Development Centre have their own battery know-how and capabilities”. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
Statement 3 is not correct: There is no mention of international collaboration for EV, though the passage
mentions the collaboration of the private sector with the government. Hence, statement 5 is not correct.
3 (b)
Option (a) is not correct: The passage indeed mentions the significant strides made by India in the EV
battery sector. However, the passage does not specifically mention Indian startups. It only mentions that a
Hyderabad-based company is collaborating with a Government-supported institution in the manufacturing
of EV batteries. With this limited information, we cannot assume that Indian startups in general are doing
great in the EV sector. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is correct: With all the technical know-how and technical expertise, the EV sector needs to
have government backing. Though various government agencies are involved in this sector, and schemes
like PLI which encourage the manufacturing of ACC batteries have been launched, there is still a lot of
scope for technology upgradation in this sector. The passage says, “EV battery research is lacking in
government sponsorship. Even though the Indian government, through its Advanced Chemistry Cell
(ACC) Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, has laid out Rs 18,100 crore for manufacturing of
ACC, it doesn’t have a national programme to fund research and development into latest
technologies like SIB and SSB”. This implies direct support in the form of a national research program is
required for a technological transformation of this sector in India. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct: There is no mention of the EV batteries with respect to space missions. The
passage only mentions Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre having its own battery know-how and capabilities.
No mention of the use of EV batteries for space missions is found in the passage. Hence, option (c) is not
correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passage says that “Even though the Indian government, through its
Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, has laid out Rs 18,100 crore
for manufacturing of ACC, it doesn’t have a national programme to fund research and development
into latest technologies like SIB and SSB”. It implies that the PLI scheme is for Advanced Chemistry
Cell (ACC). For latest technologies like SIB and SSB there is no government scheme in place yet. Hence,
option (d) is not correct.
Explanation for Questions 4-6:

C sits at an extreme end of the row. Two persons sit between C and F. Two cases are possible.
Case 1:
C - - F - - - - -
Case 2:
- - - - - F - - C
More than two persons sit between F and J. J does not sit at an extreme end of the row.
Case 1:
C - - F - - - J -
Case 2:
- J - - - F - - C
Three persons sit between B and D. G sits third to the left of B. B does not sit at extreme ends of the row.
Case 1a:
C D G F - B - J -
Case 1b:
C G - F B - - J D
Case 2a:
G J - B - F - D C
Case 2b:
- J D G - F B - C
Case 2c:
- J - D G F - B C
E sits to the immediate right of H. This is possible only in Case 1b.
C G - F B H E J D
So, the final arrangement:
C G A F B H E J D
4 (d)
Two persons sit between A and H.
5 (c)
6 (c)
After rearranging all the persons according to alphabetical order, we get:
A B C D E F G H J
D sits 3rd to the left of G.
7 (b)
Number of teachers that applied for only primary and junior level = 14 – 8 = 6
Number of teachers that applied for only primary and TGT = 12 – 8 = 4
Number of teachers that applied for only junior and TGT = 15 – 8 = 7
We can draw the following Venn diagram:
Number of teachers that applied for only primary = 24 – (8 + 6 + 4) = 6

Number of teachers that applied for only junior = 26 – (8 + 6 + 7) = 5
Number of teachers that applied for only TGT = 28 – (8 + 4 + 7) = 9
Hence, total number of teachers that applied for the examination = 6 + 5 + 9 + 6 + 8 + 4 + 7 = 45
8 (c)
Based on the given information, the following Venn diagram can be drawn:
From the above figure it is clear that the percentage of guests who like both decoration and music but not
food is 15%.
9 (a)
Let x% are selected in all the three.
Then, 53 + 61 + 60 – 24 – 35 – 27 + x = 95
Or x = 7
The Venn diagram would be:
Percentage of candidates selected in only one = (9 + 9 + 5)% = 23%

23% of 300 = 69 (more than 50)
10 (c)
The persons who have voted must definitely be enrolled in the voter list. A person below the age of 18
years can neither vote, nor his name can be in the voter list.
11 (c)
Using option (a), we get L > M < N ≤ O > P ≤ Q. Here L > M is not definitely false.
Using option (b), we get N > M < O ≤ Q > P ≤ L. There is no definite relation between L and M, so L > M
is not definitely false.
Using option (c), we get M > L <N ≤ Q > O ≤ P. Here M > L, so L > M is definitely false.
Using option (d), we get N > P < Q ≤ M > O ≤ L. There is no definite relation between L and M, so L > M
is not definitely false.
12 (d)
Option (a): Tea and Coffee both are subset of beverages. Picture does not represent it.
Option (b): Authors and Teachers may be men or women. So, both will have a common part with men.
The picture given does not represent it.
Option (c): Boys, students and athletes will have boys as common. The picture given does not represent it.
Option (d): Sparrows are a subset of birds and mice have nothing in common with birds. The picture
represents the same.
13 (c)
Option (a) is not correct: Refer to the lines of the passage, “In recent times, people seem to think urban
foxes are becoming bolder and more cunning, “wreaking havoc in central London” by scavenging in
bins for food scraps. But our recent study suggests that this popular portrayal may only be partially true
for the species”. These lines imply that urban foxes have adapted to the local culture. However, from this
information it cannot be generalised that bolder animals easily adapt to urban culture, as the passage itself
says that it may not be completely true. Moreover, it cannot be the most logical message conveyed by the
author. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage does not mention that there is a decrease in animal spaces
because of expanding urban areas. Further, the rational message of the passage pertains to the adoption of
local culture by foxes, rather than the change in size of animal habitat. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is correct: The passage compares the behaviour of red foxes staying in urban areas and those
which are found in the countryside. The passage says, “We found urban foxes were more likely to interact
with the puzzles than rural ones, suggesting they were bolder. However, when it came to their
willingness to solve the puzzles, there was no difference between the two populations”. From these
lines, it can be inferred that to some extent, the social environment indeed has a bearing on behavioural
patterns of foxes, but not beyond a point. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passage mentions the word “colonisation”, but it is in the context of the
colonisation of cities by animals and not in the context of British colonialism. Hence, option (d) is not
correct.
14 (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: According to the passage “The dangerous rise of AMR could lead to up to
10 million deaths annually by 2050, a United Nations Environment Programme report released February
2023 found. This would be on par with the 2020 rate of global deaths from cancer”. This implies that
AMR-related mortality in 2050 may be equal to cancer-related deaths in 2020, and even that is not certain.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Statement 2 is not correct: Refer to the lines, “The numbers (cases of AMR) were this high even though
many countries could not report data for 2020 due to the novel coronavirus COVID-19 pandemic. The
global health body had called for more research to discover why AMR had increased and the extent to
which infections are related to hospitalisations and antibiotic treatments during the COVID-19
pandemic.” This means that there is a possibility that the rise in number of hospitalisations and treatment
during the COVID-19 pandemic had contributed to the increased AMR, but it’s a matter of further

research. Moreover, we cannot say that the pandemic resulted in the spread of AMR “globally”. Thus
statement 2 is not correct.
15 (b)
Inference 1 is not correct: The passage does not mention that 11 countries cannot reduce their
greenhouse gas emissions by 100%. Instead, it says that “It could take 11 high-income countries over
200 years to reduce their 2022 greenhouse gas emissions by 95 per cent, according to a new
analysis.” However, it does not mean that the countries will never be able to reduce emissions by 100%.
This statement is illogical because it makes an extreme claim. Hence, inference 1 is not correct.
Inference 2 is correct: The passage says that “Our findings suggest that the continued pursuit of
economic growth in high-income countries is at odds with the climate and equity commitments of
the Paris Agreement,”. It suggests that “green growth is, therefore, not occurring and appears out of
reach for high-income countries”. Further, the passage says that “Scientists have warned that green
growth can only occur if decoupling is fast enough to reduce emissions consistent with the Paris
Agreement”. This implies that green growth can occur only with emission reductions, which is in turn
consistent with the Paris Agreement. Hence, inference 2 is correct.
16 (d)
The diagram representing the statements given in the problem is shown below:
From this diagram, it is evident that:

1. All automobiles are trains.
2. Some buses are automobiles.
3. Some trains are buses.
4. Some trains are automobiles.
Either L or M were sitting at one of the extreme ends. L was sitting 2nd to the right of M. Two kids were
sitting between M and O. N was sitting 2nd to the left of O. So, there are 2 possible cases:
Two of them were sitting between K and J. J was neither an immediate neighbor of O, nor an immediate
neighbor L.
Two kids were sitting between P and R. P was not an immediate neighbor of J. P and R cannot be placed
in such a way in case2. So, case2 can be eliminated.

Hence, the final arrangement will be:
17 (b)
J was sitting third to the left of L.
18 (d)
4 kids were sitting between P and K.
19 (b)
L and N were sitting at the extreme ends of the line.
20 (b)
Let’s draw Venn diagrams in each case.
I. Some cats are dogs. Some dogs are rats. Some cats are rats.
“Some cats are rats” is not definitely true.

II. All bikes are cars. Some cars are trains. Some bikes are trains.
“Some bikes are trains” is not definitely true.

III. No book is pen. Only pens have colours . No book has colours.
“No book has colours” is definitely true.

IV. Some monkeys are goats. Some goats are white. Some monkey are white.
“Some monkeys are white” is not definitely true.

21 (b)
Case 1:
Case 2:
Observing these two cases, we can say that only conclusions l and II are definitely true.
22 (c)
Case 1:

Case 2:
Observing these two cases, we can say that only conclusion lll is definitely true.
23 (c)
On combining the given inequalities, we get:
OM=C≤B<Y
Therefore, we can conclude that M < Y.

In this arrangement all persons are sitting facing the south direction.
M sits fourth to the right of O. S sits fourth to the left of O. Only two persons sit between M and Q. R sits
second to the right of Q. So, there are 2 possibilities.
Case 1: M R - Q O - - - S
Case 2: R - Q - - M - - - O - - - S
Only three persons sit to the right of R. Also P sits to the immediate right of S.
Case 1: - - M R - Q O - - P S
Case 2:
- - - R - Q - - M - - - O - - P S
Now, since not more than five persons sit between P and Q, so case2 can be eliminated. The final
arrangement will be:
- - M R - Q O - - P S
24 (b)
25 (c)
26 (a)
27 (d)
Given that, 3<x<6…………………………. І
and 8<y<12…………………………. ІІ
So, on adding І and ІІ, we get,
11<x+y<18
Now there may be two cases possible.
Case 1: When x and y both are integers, then the largest integer value of x+y is 5+11 = 16 (when x=5 and
y=11).
Case 2: When x and y need not necessarily be integers (i.e. x and y individually may or may not be
integers).
Let if x = 5.9 and y = 11.1 OR if x = 5.8 and y = 11.2 etc.
In this case the largest integer value of x + y is 17.
Individual value of x or y need not be given for the calculation of the largest integer value of x + y.
However, we must know their nature (integer/non-integer).
28 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given assumption is not correct because the passage does not compare
the role of local and national governments in the process of climate adaptation. It only mentions that local
governments need to play a pioneering role in adapting to climate change as per the lines “Local
governments are therefore at the frontline of adaptation.”
Assumption 2 is incorrect: Refer to the lines, “throughout history, people and societies have adjusted to
and coped with changes in climate and extremes with varying degrees of success.”. Here, it talks about
how people and societies have adjusted and coped with changes in climate. There is however, no mention
of their role in accelerating climate change. Hence, this assumption is not correct.
29 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The given option is based on the following lines “Our modern life is tailored to
that stable climate, not the much warmer climate of the next thousand years. As our climate changes,
we will need to adapt” and “Climate change (drought in particular) has been at least partly responsible
for the rise and fall of civilizations”. These lines show that climate change causes devastation, but if we
need to live our modern lives then we need to adapt to the changing climate. Further the lines, “Local
governments are therefore at the frontline of adaptation. Cities and local communities around the
world have been focusing on solving their climate problems.” emphasise the role of local-level adaptation
measures.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option is not correct because it mentions ‘reversal’ of climate change
with intervention at local levels. However, the passage focuses on adaptation to and not reversal of
climate change at the local level as is clear from the lines, “Local governments are therefore at the
frontline of adaptation. Cities and local communities around the world have been focusing on solving
their climate problems.” Hence, as per the passage, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The option adds a new context of ‘climate change mitigation’, which is not a part
of the passage. The passage only focuses on the adaptation to climate change as per the lines “Local
governments are therefore at the frontline of adaptation. Cities and local communities around the world
have been focusing on solving their climate problems.” So, this option does not reflect the crux of the
passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option establishes a necessary relationship between adaptation
measures at the local level to solving climate change at the global level. This statement is logically
correct; however, such a relationship is not reflected in the passage. The passage states that since climate
change is felt on a local level, local governments are at the forefront of adaptation as per the line “The
faster the climate changes, the more difficult it will be. While climate change is a global issue, it is felt
on a local scale. Local governments are therefore at the frontline of adaptation.” However, to state that
unless changes are done at the local level, climate change cannot be addressed at the global level would
not be correct.
30 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: There is no mention of the likely relative dependence of developed and
developing countries on renewable energy in future. Hence, this option is not the crux of the passage.
Option (b) is correct: The lines, “This trend is anticipated to grow. A prediction of future power
consumption is essential for the investigation of adequate environmental and economic policies. Likewise,
an outlook on future power consumption helps to determine future investments in renewable
energy” show that estimation of future energy demands will help allocate proper resources and ensure a
smooth transition towards renewable energy. Therefore, this option is the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given option is not the best crux because it states that fossils are a thing of
the past and renewables like solar energy are the future, which is an extreme-sounding and unrealistic
judgement. Though the passage mentions increasing investments in renewable energy in future, it does not
talk about giving up on fossil fuel-based energy. Moreover, the passage does not mention anything

regarding the use of fossil fuel, nor does it talk about solar energy per se. Hence, this option is beyond the
scope of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option seems to be based on the following lines “Hence, international
comparisons are helpful to identify past, present, and future power consumption.” But these lines do not
talk about the history of renewable energy but rather a general understanding of the trend of energy
consumption over the years. Therefore, the given option is not the best crux of the passage.
Explanation for Questions 31 – 34:

B sits fourth to the right of J, who faces away from the center. Also, only one person sits between B and
L. L sits to the immediate right of Q. Neither E nor W sits adjacent to B. Two cases are possible:
Case-1
Case-2
Now, P sits third to the right of U and is adjacent to S and J. N sits to the immediate left of S. Four
persons sit between E and N. So, we can eliminate Case 2. Now, we get:
Case-1

Now, C sits second to the left of W. Hence, the final arrangement will be:
31 (b)
32 (c)
33 (a)
J is sitting seventh to the left of G.
34 (d)
Except G, L and C, all others are adjacent to each other.
35 (c)
From statement-1:
A/E > B > ─ > ─
From statement-2:
E>A>C
From statement -1 and 2 together, we get:
E > A > B > C/D
Therefore, we can conclude that all are shorter than E.
36 (c)
Let a = number of patients having allergy from only one of the things, b = number of patients having
allergy from exactly two of the things and c = number of patients having allergy from all three of the
things.
Then, a + b + c = 500 (since each of the 500 patients had allergy from at least one of the things).
Given that b = 20% of 500 = 100,
So, a + 100 + c = 500
or, a + c = 400……………… І
Also, if the number of patients who have allergy from pollen (40% of 500, i.e. 200) is added to the
number of patients who have allergy from fur (50% of 500, i.e. 250), and this sum is added to the number
of patients who have allergy from dust (60% of 500, i.e. 300), then each patient who has allergy from only
one of the given things is counted exactly once, each patient who has allergy from exactly two of the
given things is counted exactly twice and each patient who has allergy from all of the three given things is
counted exactly 3 times.
Therefore, a + 2b + 3c = 200 + 250 + 300 = 750.
Using b = 100, we get:
a + 2(100) + 3c = 750
or, a + 3c = 550……………………. ІІ
Solving equations І and ІІ, we get,
a = 325.
37 (b)
The problem classified the job applicants into two categories:
Whether they had more or less than 2 years of experience, and whether they had an MBA degree.
The given information can be summarised in the following table:
At least 2 years of Less than 2 years of Total
experience experience
MBA degree 30
No MBA degree 5
Total 24 50
Thus, according to the given information, 50 – 24 = 26 applicants had less than 2 years of experience.
Then of those applicants with less than 2 years of experience, it is given that 5 applicants did not have an
MBA degree, so 26 – 5 = 21 applicants had less than 2 years of experience and had an MBA degree.
Therefore, out of the given 30 applicants that had MBA degrees, 21 applicants had less than 2 years of
experience, so 30 – 21 = 9 applicants had at least 2 years of experience with an MBA degree.
These results are shown in the following table:
At least 2 years of Less than 2 years of Total
experience experience
MBA degree 9 21 30
No MBA degree 5
Total 24 26 50
Hence the required ratio = 21/9 = 7/3 = 7:3.
38 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option seems to be based on the following lines “Many who struggle
to secure the financial resources they require often, find themselves unduly swayed by the perspectives of
others. They allow newspapers and gossipy neighbours to mould their beliefs and guide their thinking.”
However, to state that for achieving success one should desist from reading newspapers and listening to
any person is not correct. The author of the passage tries to say that one should not blindly rely on word of
mouth or newspaper reports for financial decision-making but also apply his/her reason.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option is not correct as the passage does not specifically mention that
decisions on financial matters are ones the most influenced by popular opinion, there could be other
matters as well. The impact of others’ opinions on other domains are not discussed in the passage and so a
comparison cannot be made. The passage only implies that securing financial resources solely based on
others' perspectives is not recommended. Refer to the line “Many who struggle to secure the financial
resources they require often, find themselves unduly swayed by the perspectives of others.
Option (c) is correct: The given option best reflects what the passage implies. The lines “They can be
readily imparted to anyone willing to accept them. Relying on the judgments of others to make
decisions can undermine one's success in any pursuit. True success arises from the ability to sift through
external influence, cultivating independent, informed decisions based on a clear understanding of
one's goals”, show that it is very important to make informed decisions that are based on a clear
understanding of one’s goals and by an objective and cautious consideration of external influence. Also,
those decisions that are taken solely on the basis of gossip and opinions may fail. Therefore, it is
important to listen to others’ opinions and gather information about the matter but the ultimate decision
should emerge from one’s own subjective analysis and reasoning.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is not correct as the passage does not say that people’s opinion
compromises one’s independent ability to reason and make informed decisions. The lines “They can be
readily imparted to anyone willing to accept them. Relying on the judgments of others to make
decisions can undermine one's success in any pursuit”, mean that one should not blindly trust others’
judgement and opinions on any issue. It does not mean that opinions compromise the ability to think. It
only means that others’ opinions have the power to influence one’s attitude towards various matters if one
lets themselves be influenced. One has the autonomy to filter external influence and take independent
decisions.
39 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option is not correct because it does not reflect the essence of the
passage. This option focuses on people being the centre of any business, but the crux of the passage is the
importance of good corporate governance as seen in lines “Effective governance ensures that companies
maintain rigorous standards in areas like risk management, compliance with regulations, and responsible
environmental and social practices.” Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option is very limited in context as it covers only one of the aspects of
effective governance i.e., environmental and social practices. It is based on the lines “Effective
governance ensures that companies maintain rigorous standards in areas like risk management,
compliance with regulations, and responsible environmental and social practices.” However, the
passage is about the importance of good corporate governance which includes an efficient supply chain as
well. Hence, this option is not better as compared to option (d).
Option (c) is incorrect: The given features in the option are not the foundational concepts of good
corporate governance, but reflect its outcome, as per the lines “Furthermore, good governance practices
foster innovation and adaptability, enabling businesses to respond swiftly to changing market
conditions and emerging challenges.” Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is correct: The given option best captures the essence of the passage. The lines “This trust
forms the basis for strong, mutually beneficial relationships along the supply chain …. These factors
are vital for supply chain stability, as they reduce the likelihood of disruptions and costly setbacks.
Furthermore, good governance practices foster innovation and adaptability, enabling businesses to
respond swiftly to changing market conditions and emerging challenges”, show that good governance
is much more than a set of principles. Hence, this option is the best crux of the passage.
40 (d)
The following Venn diagrams may represent the statements given in the question:
Clearly, none of the Conclusions can be true for sure.

41 (b)
2 is both even as well as prime. Both Prime numbers and Even numbers are subsets of Natural numbers.
42 (c)
Given Venn Diagram:

On observing above Venn diagram, it is clear that:
Number of urban educated people who are clever = 7
43 (d)
Venn diagram of all options are as follows;
Option (a):
Option (b):
Option (c):
Option (d):

P is 3rd to the right of M and to the immediate right of S. T is 3rd to the left of S.
Now, O is to the immediate right of N and to the immediate left of F.
44 (c)
45 (c)
4 persons are sitting between M and O when counting from the right side of the M.
46 (b)
Except P and F, all others are sitting adjacent to each other.

C was sitting 3rd to the left of D and both of them were facing the center. E was neither sitting adjacent to
C nor sitting adjacent to D. The only person sitting between D and F was not facing the center.
E and F were sitting across the table facing away from each other. G was sitting 3rd to the right of A and
was facing the center. Hence the final arrangement will be:

47 (d)
F was facing away from the center.
48 (b)
A was sitting 4th to the left of G.
49 (c)
Three magazines have been discontinued. None of the discontinued magazines are from Company A. So,
the options- (a), (b) and (d) may or may not be true. Option (c) is certainly true.
50 (b)
Assumption 1 is correct: The given assumption is based on the line “Additionally, education can help
bridge the urban-rural divide by enabling rural youth to actively participate in emerging sectors,
including technology and entrepreneurship.” This implies that lack of education is a reason for rural
youth not participating in emerging sectors. Hence, this assumption is correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The given assumption is not correct because the passage mentions that rural
education will reduce immigration in already overcrowded cities as seen in the line “This can lead to more
balanced regional development and reduce migration pressures on already overcrowded cities.” This
does not necessarily mean that rural education will make people leave or emigrate from those cities.
Hence, this assumption is not correct.
51 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option is not correct as it does not capture the central theme of the
passage. The option focuses on the intention of capitalists. However, the central theme of the passage is
the relevance of hard work and making informed and intelligent life choices in achieving success as seen
in the lines “Hard work has helped them get there, but only because they’ve chosen to focus on tasks,
projects, and roles that align with their long-term growth goals.” So, this option is not the best crux of the
passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option suggests prioritizing intelligent life choices over hard work,
which is contradictory to the information given in the passage. The passage mentions the importance of
both hard work and quality life choices in achieving success. This is reflected in the following line, “Hard
work has helped them get there, but only because they’ve chosen to focus on tasks, projects, and roles
that align with their long-term growth goals.” So, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does emphasize the importance of informed and intelligent choices.
It says, "Most people fail not because of a lack of effort but because their effort was misdirected or
misaligned with their interests" and "People who make informed and intelligent choices about the
work they choose to focus on have been quicker to reach success." However, the passage does not
entirely negate the value of hard work. It adds, Hard work has helped them get there, but only because
they’ve chosen to focus on tasks, projects, and roles that align with their long-term growth goals.
“While option (c) is not entirely incorrect, it omits the continued importance of hard work when it is
directed correctly.
Option (d) is correct: The given option is correct because it gives equal importance to informed and
intelligent life choices and hard work on the road to success. Though hard work is an important
contributing factor of success, the passage equally emphasises the role of taking informed and intelligent
choices. It is reflected in the following lines, “Hard work has helped them get there, but only because

they’ve chosen to focus on tasks, projects, and roles that align with their long-term growth goals.”
Hence, this is the best crux of the passage.
52 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option is based on the following lines “While proponents argue that
GM crops can enhance yields … potential allergenicity, and the monopolistic control of seed markets
by a few biotechnology companies.” These lines highlight the issues with monopoly, but this option does
not reflect the central theme of the passage which is the importance of the precautionary principle in
developing GM crops. Hence, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is correct: The given option is the best crux and is reflected in the following lines
“Policymakers, scientists, and stakeholders must prioritize comprehensive, independent research and
transparent risk assessments to ensure the responsible development and deployment of GM crops,
considering the precautionary principle to safeguard both our ecosystems and human health. Ignoring
this principle could have irreversible consequences for our environment and future generations.”
Hence, we can conclude that precautionary principle may counter the concerns related to development of
the GM crops.
Option (c) is incorrect: The option uses the phrase, “despite the precautionary principle”. This means
that even after adopting this principle, GM crops will be a double-edged sword. Now, this is an
assumption which is not reflected in any line of the passage. The main theme of the passage is the need
for the application of precautionary principles in GM crops as seen in the line “The lack of emphasis on
the precautionary principle in GM crop discussions can result in hasty approvals and inadequate safety
assessments.” Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The main theme of the passage is the need for the application of precautionary
principles in GM crops which is not reflected in the option. The option mentions that things other than this
principle are required to address the concerns associated with GM crops, which may be correct in general
but not as per the passage. The passage focuses on the lack of emphasis on this principle as seen in the
line “The lack of emphasis on the precautionary principle in GM crop discussions can result in hasty
approvals and inadequate safety assessments.” Moreover, “Grassroot participation of farmers” has not
been discussed in the passage. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
53 (b)
The two of the possible cases are:
Clearly, option (b) is correct in both the cases.
54 (d)
n(A U B U C) = n(A) + n(B) + n(C) - n(A ∩ B) - n(B ∩ C) - n(A ∩ C) + n(A ∩ B ∩ C)
⇒ 78 = 36 + 48 + 32 – 14 – 20 – 12 + n(A ∩ B ∩ C)
⇒ n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 8
Following Venn diagram can be drawn based on this data:
Required ratio = 18 : 8 = 9 : 4
55 (b)
From Statement 5:
Coat Tie
Accounts Teacher
Business Studies Teacher Orange
Commerce Teacher
From Statement 2, Business Studies teacher’s coat is not blue. So, it is must be black.
Coat Tie
Accounts Teacher
Business Studies Teacher Black Orange
Commerce Teacher
From statement 3, Commerce teacher’s coat is not orange. So it must be blue. And from statement 4,
green tie belongs to Commerce teacher. The final table is depicted below:
Coat Tie
Accounts Teacher Orange Yellow
Business Studies Teacher Black Orange
Commerce Teacher Blue Green
56 (c)
On observing the above Venn diagram, we can see that there are 6 women painters who are IAS.
57 (c)
Based on the given information, following Venn diagram can be drawn:

v
Total number of participants = 300 + 120 + 330 = 750
Explanation for Questions 58 to 60:

We can represent the information in form of a Venn diagram, as shown below:
58 (a)
Students who opt neither for Arts nor for Science = 41 + 7 =48.
59 (a)
Students who do not attend classes for Arts, Science and Literature = 41
60 (d)
Students who study exactly two subjects = 11 + 7 + 2 = 20.
R sits 3rd from one of the ends, and 2nd to the right of V. V and T are immediate neighbors of each other.
Two people sit between P and R. Two cases are possible:
Case 1:
- - P V T R - -
Case 2:
V T R - - P - -
S sits at one of the extreme ends. Two people sit between S and T. So, case2 can be eliminated.
Case 1:
- - P V T R - S
U sits to the left of T, but to the right of Q. W sits to the right of Q. Hence, the final arrangement will be:
Q U P V T R W S
61 (c)
Except T and R, people in all other pairs have one person between them.

62 (d)
S is sitting to the immediate right of W.
63 (c)
4 persons are sitting between U and W.
64 (d)
Some of the possible cases have been depicted below:
Case 1:
Case 2:
Case 3:
From above, we can conclude that none of the given conclusions is definitely true.
Hence, option (d) is right.
65 (d)

Length of hypotenuse in the above triangle, i.e. shortest possible path from Raman to Rohit = (12 2 +
162)1/2 = 4001/2 = 20 m
So, Shyam needs to walk at least 20 m. However, deviating from the shortest path, he may walk for more
than 20 m too, say 21 m etc.
66 (c)
Anil and Chintu are next to each other. Neither Deepa nor Binny are next to Anil. So, Emily has to be next
to Anil.
Deepa and Emily can be on any of the vacant chairs.
So, both the given statements are correct. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
67 (a)
Given Statements:
I. a > b > c = d < e
II. f ≤ g = h < c b>c=d>h=g≥f
Therefore, conclusion I is true but conclusion II is false.
68 (c)
Value of Rs. 10 coins is twice the value of Rs 5 coins
It means that, Number of Rs 5 coins = Number of Rs 10 coins. = X (Assume)
Number of Rs 2 coins = 2 (Number of Rs 5 coins) = 2 (Number of Rs 10 coins) = 2X
Total number of coins = 2X (Rs 2 coins) + X (Rs 5 coins) + X (Rs 10 coins) = 4X = 4 times the number of
Rs 5 coins
69 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given statement is based on the following lines “Fake news presents
strong, often prejudiced opinions, as fact. It can also direct these opinions to those most likely to
agree to reinforce them.” However, the issues of India in this regard have not been discussed in the
passage. So, it’s out of context. Also, this statement is more of an implication than an assumption.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The given statement is based on the line “Sometimes this is then reported as
fact by real journalists.”. This line shows that sometimes even real journalists get misled by fake news and
present them as real news. However, this does not mean that those journalists are not trustworthy. It
simply means that journalists need to be stringent with the verification of news before reporting.
70 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given statement is not based on the information in the passage. It could be a
rational implication as to what should be done to check fake news. However, it is not the crux because the
central theme of the passage is how technology enables the faster transmission of fake news.

Option (b) is incorrect: The given statement is based on the lines “Fake social media posts and
accounts help make misinformation viral.” However, it is not the crux because the central theme of the
passage is how technology enables the faster transmission of fake news and social media sites are only a
part of it. So, the context covered in this option is narrow as compared to the information given in the
passage. Also, the passage is rather descriptive than focussing on providing solutions. Hence, this option
is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given option is not correct because it mentions ethics as the issue. Though
this could be a rational inference but not the crux because the central theme of the passage is how
technology enables the faster transmission of fake news. The context of ethics is not covered in the
passage. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is correct: The given option best reflects the crux of the passage because it is reflected in the
following lines “Fake news stories use technology and social media to look like proper news sites”
and “Fake news presents strong, often prejudiced opinions, as fact. It can also direct these opinions to
those most likely to agree to reinforce them.” These lines show that it is the technology which makes it
easier to transmit fake news and consequently that news impacts the lives of the people negatively. Hence,
this is the best crux of the passage.
71 (c)
Case 1:
Case 2:
From above cases, we can say that only conclusions l and II follow.

Both A and B occupy offices on the left of the corridor as one enters in the direction given in the plan. E
occupies office on the right.
Left → A, B,
Right → E
D and E occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other.
So, D occupies the office on the left
Left → A, B, D
Right → E
The other two – C and F must occupy offices on the right
Left → A, B, D
Right → E, C, F
E occupies a corner office and A does not occupy a corner office.
So, E can occupy any of the corner offices on the right and A has to occupy the middle office on the left.

Office 1 Office 2 (A) Office 3
→
Office 4 (E) Office 5 Office 6
OR
Office 1 Office 2 (A) Office 3
→
Office 4 Office 5 Office 6 (E)
Now, offices of D and E do not face each other and offices of A and C face each other.
The arrangement of offices can be as per either of the two cases given below:
Office 1 (B) Office 2 (A) Office 3 (D)
→
Office 4 (E) Office 5 (C) Office 6 (F)
OR
Office 1 (D) Office 2 (A) Office 3 (B)
→
Office 4 (F) Office 5 (C) Office 6 (E)
72 (c)
As shown in the diagram above, office 6 may belong to either E or F.
73 (d)
Offices of B and F are farthest from each other in both the cases.
74 (d)
Shortest distance from G to A is: G-D-C-A
Distance = 9 + 18 + 5 = 32 km
75 (a)
Different routes from A to G are:
1. A – B – F – G
2. A – E – G
3. A – D – G
4. A – C – D – G
76 (a)
Using all the 3 statements, we get:
D≤X<Z=P=K≤G=Q≤C
And, D ≤ X < Z = P = K ≤ G= Q > T ≥ S > R
Therefore, we can say that relation between R and X is inconclusive, while C ≥ Z.
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II follows.
77 (d)
Option (a):
M>X>E=S<H≤K
'M > S' and ' K > S' are definitely true.
Option (b):
M≥X=E>S≤H<K
Option (c):
M=X>E≥S<H<K
78 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The given statement is not a rational inference because of the mention of
“people’s participation”. The passage completely focuses on the misgovernance by the urban local bodies
as seen in the lines “Mismanagement, leakages, and inadequate maintenance further exacerbate the
problem. Ageing pipes and inadequate repair and maintenance programs result in significant water
losses.” All these issues are not people’s issues but governance issues. Hence, this option is not correct.
Inference 2 is incorrect: The given option is not correct as supporting evidence cannot be gathered from
the information given in the passage. The option states an extreme consequence of continued water
shortage resulting from unchecked mis-governance of water-related infrastructure. This has not been
discussed in the passage. The passage focuses on the governance issues leading to water shortages in
urban areas. Hence, from the information given in the passage, we cannot infer that continued water
shortage in urban areas could lead to the de-urbanization of our cities.
79 (a)
Assumption 1 is invalid: The given assumption is not correct because the passage mentions what
investments can do in the context of employment in the social sector as seen in lines “Firstly, investments
in healthcare and education create a demand for skilled professionals, … This not only provides jobs
but also enhances the overall quality of human capital.” We cannot say that lack of investment is the
fundamental reason for poor employment. The reasons for this could be poor skills, etc. So, to assume that
lack of investment is the fundamental reason for poor employment is not correct. Moreover, the passage
hints towards increased investment in the social sector in the line – “However, increased social sector
expenditure must be combined with efficient governance …”
Assumption 2 is valid: The given assumption is based on the lines “However, increased social sector
expenditure must be combined with efficient governance, accountability, and measures to combat
corruption to ensure the funds are effectively utilised.” These lines mean that though social sector
investments need to increase, it must be complemented by governance reforms and measures to reduce
corruption. If corruption is not controlled, the funds invested will be diverted from their intended use and
therefore will not be properly used for growth. Hence, this assumption is correct as per the passage.
80 (d)
Based on the given statement, there may be many possible cases, two of which are shown in the diagram
below:
In each of the two cases, there may be or may not be some people outside the sets of Rich and Hard-
working. Therefore, none of the conclusions given is definitely true.


VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

the Test Booklet.
sheet.
be deducted.
1
1. Arjun and Arnav start from the same point in the 2. Based on the above passage, the following
same direction at the same time. After travelling
for an hour, Arjun turns to the left and at the
same time Arnav turns to the right. After turning, 1. As per Plato, democracy is the worst form of
they travel for a distance of 2 km each to reach government.
their respective destinations. Which of the
2. Democracy, because of its inherent nature,
following statements are correct?
(a) Arjun and Arnav are at a distance of 4 km is prone to authoritarianism.
from each other. 3. The distinct characteristics of democracy
(b) Arjun and Arnav reach their destinations at
are freedom and equality.
the same time.
(c) The exact distance between Arjun and Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid?
Arnav cannot be determined. (a) 1 only
(d) More than one of the above statements is
correct. (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Directions for the following 5 (Five) items:
(d) 3 only
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items Passage – 2
should be based on the passages only. India is shifting toward greater renewable energy
Passage – 1
generation while striving to improve energy access,
It is generally believed today that democracy,
“government of the people, by the people and for the affordability, and security. It’s also poised to be one of
people,” is the best and only fully justifiable political the fastest-growing economies in coming years, which
system. Why does Plato not consider democracy the best
will in turn sharply boost energy demand. Whether it
form of government? In the Republic, he criticizes the
direct and unchecked democracy of his time precisely meets those needs with fossil fuels or green alternatives
because of its leading features. Firstly, although freedom
has the potential to shift the trajectory of its greenhouse
is for Plato a true value, democracy involves the danger
of excessive freedom, of doing as one likes, which leads gas emissions for many more years to come. India has
to anarchy. Secondly, equality, related to the belief that made significant progress towards meeting its emissions
everyone has the right and equal capacity to rule, brings
reductions targets under the Paris Agreement, but with
to politics all kinds of power-seeking individuals,
motivated by personal gain rather than the public good. current policies total GHG emissions would nonetheless
Democracy is thus highly corruptible. It opens gates to increase by more than 40 per cent by 2030. While a
demagogues, and potential dictators, and can thus lead to
modest increase in short-term emissions may be
tyranny. Hence, although it may not apply to modern
liberal democracies, Plato’s main charge against the necessary to meet poverty reduction and energy security
democracy he knows from the ancient Greek political goals, a more rapid scaling up of current policies could
practice is that it is unstable, leading from anarchy to
tyranny and that it lacks leaders with proper skill and help lower emissions considerably over the medium term
morals. and bring India closer to a path to net zero by 2070.

3. With reference to the passage, which one of the 5. Which of the following statements best reflects
following statements is correct? the practical implication of the passage?
(a) In the short term, it is not possible to fulfil (a) Without treating AMR, it would be difficult
energy demands from fossil fuels. to increase farmer's income, especially those
(b) Achieving poverty reduction, energy who are dependent on animals.
security goals and GHG reduction together (b) Rising cases of diseases in animals can
is not possible in the short term. result in premature death affecting livestock
(c) Current policies are adequate to fulfil the productivity.
international GHG commitments of India.
(c) To address AMR among animals, the
(d) Energy generation from green sources is
government need to raise awareness about
crucial for India to become the fastest-
AMR and develop antimicrobial
growing economy.
stewardship.
Passage – 3
(d) Lack of adequate administrative laws is
Animal disease surveillance is less developed and the
fundamental to the issue of rising viral
infrastructure to support the delivery of services is
diseases among animals.
inadequate. Several groups are known to offer animal
health services. The untrained “animal health workers”
and para-veterinarians are more popular with farmers as 6. Five friends M, N, O, P, and Q went for a picnic.
they charge less for consultations (compared to Each of them had Rs 100 in their pockets. P
veterinarians who are few and charge more). Over-the- borrowed Rs 30 from M and gave Rs 70 to Q,
counter access to antibiotics, without prescription, and who in turn gave Rs 100 to O. Thereon O gave
direct marketing of drugs to farmers are common. Rs 115 to N, who gave Rs 75 to M. Find the total
Because of this, farmers can treat their animals and only amount left with M, N and O, if they spent Rs
consult when cases become non-responsive to treatment. 270 altogether.
Drug withdrawal periods are rarely observed, and the (a) 150
occurrence of antibiotic-contaminated milk has been (b) 100
reported. Awareness of antimicrobial resistance (AMR) (c) 110
is low and antimicrobial stewardship in livestock is yet (d) 120
to be developed.
4. Based on the above passage, the following 7. Study the figure given below.
1. Unregulated access to antibiotics is one of
the reasons for rising AMR cases among
animals.
2. Antimicrobial resistance is not only seen in
livestock but also in birds. If a person reaches point B from point A, in how
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? many different directions will he have to walk?
(a) 1 only (a) 8
(b) 2 only (b) 5
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 7
8. There are five people in a temple whose shoes 11. Find the number of squares in the following
are kept outside the temple. All the shoes are of figure.
different colours. Person 5 owns black shoes.
Pair 1 does not belong to either person 1 or
person 2. Pair 2 must belong to person 3. Pair 3
is black. Person 4’s shoes are which pair?
(a) Pair 1 (a) 18
(b) Pair 3 (b) 13
(c) Pair 4 (c) 16
(d) Pair 5 (d) 15
9. Suresh is the brother of Ramesh. Shalu is the 12. Find the number of triangles in the following
sister of Suresh. Rahul is the brother of Aastha figure.
and Aastha is the daughter of Ramesh. Then who
is the uncle of Rahul?
(a) Ramesh
(b) Suresh
(c) None of these (a) 28
(d) Data not sufficient (b) 23
(c) More than 28
10. In a plane, lines X and Y are perpendicular to (d) None of these
each other while lines X and Z are parallel. Line
U is perpendicular to line V which is parallel to 13. Rudra is the brother of Ishan, and Ananya is the
line W. Line X is perpendicular to line V. mother of Ishaan. Sanjeev is the father of
Which one of the following statements is Ananya. Shikha is the mother of Sanjeev. How
correct? is Rudra related to Shikha?
(a) Lines Z, U and W are parallel. (a) Son
(b) Lines X, V and Y are parallel. (b) Grandson
(c) Lines Z, V and U are parallel. (c) Great grandson
(d) Lines Y, V and W are parallel. (d) Brother
14. Consider the following. 17. A coin collector has 1000 rare coins. For an
A * B means A is mother of B. exhibition, he wants to arrange all the coins into
A Ø B means A is brother of B. a grid such that the number of rows and the
A # B means A is father of B. number of columns in the grid is the same.
A @ B means A is sister of B. Which of the following options might enable
Which of the following means that E is the him to do so?
maternal uncle of R? (a) He cannot have more than 30 rows in the
(a) R Ø M * O @ E
grid.
(b) E * C @ M Ø R
(b) He may arrange the coins into 33 rows and
(c) E Ø O * M @ R
some coins may be left with him.
(d) R Ø C # E
(c) He may arrange the coins into at max 31
rows.
15. Gargi, Binod, Chandani, Dinesh, Ajay, Aarti and
(d) He may arrange the coins into at max 32
Firoz are seven members of a family. There are
rows.
two married couples. Gargi is a housewife and
her husband is an artist. Chandani is the wife of
18. Prem, who is a child of Subh, is married to Daya.
Binod. Aarti is a teacher and grand-daughter of
Bala is a daughter of Subh, who has only 2
Gargi. Dinesh is the father- in- law of Chandani,
children. Subh is paternal grandfather of Geet.
a dentist and father of Ajay, a scientist. Firoz is
Aarti’s brother and Binod’s son. How is Firoz Rathi is the only son of Daya. Prem has two
related to Chandani? children & one of them is married to Nupur.
(a) Son Nupur is married to Geet’s brother. There are
(b) Brother only 7 persons in the family. What is the
(c) Daughter relationship between Geet and Bala?

(d) Data inadequate (a) Aunt
(b) Son
16. Introducing a man Radha said, “He is my (c) Daughter
mother’s father’s wife’s son’s wife’s son.” How (d) Niece
is the man related to Radha?
(a) Cousin Directions for the following 4 (Four) items:
(b) Brother Read the following four passages and answer the items
(c) Brother-in-law that follow each passage. Your answers to these items

The world is urbanizing more rapidly than ever before, the crux of the passage?
and cities in developing countries are growing at an even
(a) Moving out of home should be an informed
higher pace. While cities contribute to global economic
growth, they are also drivers of environmental decision for young adults.
degradation. Cities consume 80% of global energy, are (b) Emotional intelligence is needed in young
responsible for 70% of greenhouse gas emissions, adults.
generate huge amounts of waste and pollution, and are
(c) Despite several challenges, moving out of
rapidly encroaching into natural habitats. Urban sprawl
is leading to poor living conditions, making cities highly home makes young adults more responsible.
vulnerable to climate change, and threatening the (d) Moving out of home is stressful, however,
biodiversity of surrounding cities. young adults can handle it with conscious
efforts.
1. Cities contribute more to economic growth Passage – 3
than rural areas. Current thinking about deception holds that people
2. Some urban areas may represent a less typically tell the truth more easily than they tell a lie and
sustainable model of living.
that lying requires far more cognitive resources. First, we
(a) 1 only must become aware of the truth; then we must invent a
(b) 2 only plausible scenario that is consistent and does not
(c) Both 1 and 2
contradict the observable facts. At the same time, we
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
must suppress the truth so that we do not spill the beans
Passage – 2
The transition of moving out of home and moving to a that is, we must engage in response inhibition. What is
completely new place is a drastic one, it could easily take more, we must be able to assess accurately the reactions
a toll on the emotional well-being of young adults. The
of the listener so that, if necessary, we can deftly produce
fear of going far away from one’s family and friends
adaptations to our original storyline. And there is the
could be emotionally taxing and can induce severe
separation anxiety. On top of that, having to look after ethical dimension, whereby we must make a conscious
oneself and accepting responsibility can also be very decision to transgress a social norm.
distressing. Not only that but, academic failure and
21. Which one of the following options best reflects
problems with fitting in the newer crowd can be a major
stressor and induce panic, in severe cases, it could also
put a student in a depressive state. Some tips for students (a) Lying is not as hard as it seems.
include keeping in touch with old friends while trying to (b) Lying is just like any other art, complex yet
mingle with new peers. Taking care of your mental and
beautiful.
physical health, eating well, and expressing yourself well
for clarity of thought also helps you to keep in check with (c) Lying is a complex psychological process.
your emotions. (d) Lying is neither ethical nor moral.

Passage – 4 23. Consider the following information.
As people grow from being children to adults, they start 1. X # Y means Y is 15 metres to the Right of
X.
to have more complex demands and desires and a
2. X $ Y means Y is 15 metres to the North of
growing economy is no different. If we fed a teenager the X.
same foods they ate when they were a baby, their bodies 3. X * Y means Y is 15 metres to the Left of
X.
would not grow as well as they would if they ate
4. X @ Y means Y is 15 metres to the South of
teenager-appropriate meals, and they would not develop
X.
as quickly as their peers. For economies of the past, 5. The direction convention is as shown below:
having land to farm, workers, and basic technology was
sufficient to meet society's expectations. However, there
is only so much growth an economy can have on a "baby
food" diet before it becomes stagnant, and its people
become dissatisfied. For modern economic growth,
people need to be willing to change their behaviour, be If we are given P @ Q * R, then what is the
direction of R with respect to P?
progressive with their ideologies, and invest in new
(a) North
technology. If people are stuck in the past and unwilling (b) South
to change course, they are hampering growth. (c) North-East
(d) South-West

24. A, B, C, D, and E went for a dinner. C is son of
1. Past economies were stagnant and did not D, who is brother of A. A is son of B, but B is
grow as per society’s needs. not the father of A. E is wife of D. How is C
related to A?
2. The attitude of people is significant in
(a) Father
ensuring modern economic growth.
(b) Brother
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? (c) Nephew
(a) 1 only (d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Study the following information carefully and answer the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 questions that follow.

Seven girls A, N, S, M, P, R and F are supposed to go for 28. Find the number of squares in the following
shopping to different markets of Bhopal – Piplani, figure.
Barkheda, New-Market, MP-Nagar, JK-Road, Board-
office and Paharganj, on different days of the same week,
starting from Monday.
N goes to JK-Road but not on Friday. S goes on Monday
but does not go to Board-office. P goes to MP-Nagar on
(a) 15
Saturday. The one who goes on Tuesday, goes to
(b) 38
Paharganj. M goes to Piplani. F goes on Sunday. A does
(c) 49
not go to Paharganj. The one who goes on Thursday goes
(d) None of these
to Barkheda.
25. Who goes on Thursday?
29. Find the number of cuboidal boxes in the
(a) N
following figure.
(b) A
(c) S
(d) M
26. Where does F go to?

(a) Board-office (a) 15
(b) MP-Nagar (b) 14
(c) Barkheda (c) 11
(d) Piplani (d) 6
27. Mother, father, daughter and son all four 30. For an upcoming debate competition Shashank
members of a family decided to play lawn wants to select four students from his school.
tennis. A game of mixed doubles is about to There are three boys P, Z and C and four girls R,
begin and the following is known: T, K and M among the seven shortlisted
1. Siblings are not on the same side. students. All students must be able to debate
2. Neither daughter nor mother is diagonally with each other. But Z cannot debate with R. R
across the net from father. cannot debate with K. C cannot debate with M.
Which of the following pairs can be on the same If all the three boys are selected, then what can
side of the net? be the possible team?
(a) Mother – father
(a) C, Z, M, R
(b) Son – daughter
(b) C, P, M, Z
(c) Son – mother
(c) C, Z, T, P
(d) Mother – daughter
(d) P, Z, C, R

31. How many triangles are there in the following 34. In the figure shown below there are 21 cubes
figure? numbered from 1 to 21.
(a) 18
(b) 20 Find the number of cubes which have maximum
(c) 14
number of faces touching the other cubes.
(d) 10
(a) 2
(b) 1
32. Shikha started from her office to go to a New
Year party and drove 25 km westwards. Then, (c) 3
she took a left turn and drove 15 km, and then a (d) 4
right turn and drove 15 km in that direction.
Then she turned to her left and drove 15 km to Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
reach the party venue. What is the shortest
possible distance to the party venue from her
office?
(a) 60 km
(b) 40 km Passage – 1
(c) 50 km Light is the most important external factor affecting

(d) 30 km sleep. While most people intuitively know that it’s easier
to sleep when it’s dark, the link between light and sleep
33. A thief was running away from police. He ran 10 goes much deeper. Light plays a central role in regulating
km towards west and then turned to his left and
circadian rhythm, the body’s internal clock that signals
ran 5 km. Thereafter, he turned to his left again
when to be alert and when to rest. Light also affects the
and ran 4.5 km and then turned right and ran 5
production of melatonin, an essential sleep-promoting
km. Then he took a right turn again and ran 6 km
before getting caught. Find out in which hormone. Daily light exposure, including the type of
direction he was running when he finally got light we see as well as when and how long we’re exposed
caught. to it, has a critical effect on sleep. Learning about the
(a) South complex links between light and sleep allows you to set
(b) East
up your bedroom to be more conducive to consistent,
(c) North
high-quality sleep.
(d) West
35. Which of the following statements best reflects 36. Which one of the following statements best
the crux of the passage? reflects the crux of the passage?

(a) An experienced designer creates interactive
(a) People should sync their sleep cycle with the
systems based on user's experience, not
sun’s daily cycle for better regulation of
functional requirements.
circadian rhythm.
(b) Interactions based on user experience could
(b) Melatonin is crucial for the regulation of the minimise human error.
circadian rhythm of a person. (c) Multi-tasking people can generate the best
(c) People’s sleep quality is heavily dependent user experience as compared to other
on light as it regulates some sleep-inducing people.

(d) A good interactive system is not only
hormones and the circadian rhythm.
technically sound, but is also designed
(d) Nightlife culture exposing people to dark
keeping in mind the eclectic needs and skills
light is detrimental to the circadian rhythm
of the end users.
of a person. Passage – 3
Passage – 2 Good hygiene is critical for preventing the spread of
Interactive systems are more than just functional. If we infectious diseases and helping children lead long
hope to engage more effectively with our users, user healthy lives. It also prevents them from missing school,
resulting in better learning outcomes. In some contexts,
experience is crucial. To create successful user
it can also secure a family’s social status and help
experiences, we need to know how humans think and
individuals maintain self-confidence. Yet, important
feel. But there is more to thought than just rational,
hygiene behaviours are difficult to practise without the
conscious deliberation. Many of our decisions and right knowledge and skills, adequate community support
feelings are based on complex subconscious processes. and the belief that one’s behaviour can make a
And not everyone thinks in precisely the same way. difference. Many children around the world live in
conditions that make it difficult to maintain good
There are differences in the levels of multi-tasking
hygiene. Where homes, schools and health centres have
people might be comfortable with, or for example, the
dirt floors; where water for handwashing is unavailable;
extent to which their learning styles are visual versus
and even where families share spaces with domestic
aural, kinesthetics and so on. As designers, it will also animals; maintaining hygiene can be a challenge. What’s
help to understand human error and how emotion affects more, practising good hygiene is often perceived as a
our interactions. woman’s responsibility, adding to her burden of care.

37. Based on the above passage, the following 40. Anshuman starts walking straight in the south
assumptions have been made: direction and walks 10 meters. Then he turns to
1. Maintaining good hygiene is not an
individual’s responsibility but society's. his right and walks 5 meters. Then he turns to his
2. Poor hygiene has social as well as economic right again and walks 5 meters. Then again he
implications. turns to his right and walks 9 meters. Finally, he
3. Lack of adequate investment in rural
turns to his left and walks 2 meters. How far is
infrastructure results in poor living
conditions for those children. he now from his starting point?
Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid? (a) 6 m
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 5 m
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (c) 8 m
(d) 2 only (d) None of these
38. Ambuj walks 10 meters, turns to the right and

walks for 40 meters. Then he turns left, walks 5 41. If the positions corresponding to the multiples of
meters, turns left again and walks 10 meters, 4 in the English alphabet are replaced by $ and
turns left again and walks 15 meters. If initially
that of multiples of 7 by #, then which
he started moving in the north direction, then
what is the direction and distance of his final letter/symbol will be the fourteenth letter to the
position from his initial position? right of seventh letter from the left end?
(a) 35 m, West
(a) s
(b) 30 m, East
(c) 15 m, North-East (b) t
(d) 20 m, South-East (c) #
(d) $
39. Two bike riders start moving towards each other
from the two opposite ends of a straight road,
100 km apart. First rider rides for 20 km. He then 42. Find the number of triangles in the following
takes a detour on to a service lane by taking a
figure.
right-turn and moving for 15 km. It then turns
left, moves for another 25 km and then takes a
left turn again to reach back on to the main road.
In the mean time, due to a minor breakdown, the
other rider moved only 35 km on the main road.
What would be the distance between the two
riders at this point? (a) 31
(a) 20 km (b) 24
(b) 45 km
(c) 34
(c) 30 km
(d) 10 km (d) 28

43. Find the number of rectangles in the following At an Indian art and craft exhibition, five districts of
figure. Uttar Pradesh are selected under One District One

Product (ODOP) scheme. In 6 days exhibition, 5 days are
allotted to U.P. from Monday to Saturday. One day
between Monday and Saturday is a rest day. Five
selected districts are Aligarh, Mirzapur, Pratapgarh,
Gorakhpur and Gazipur. Only one district is allowed to
represent its work per day.
(a) 9
Aligarh and Gazipur are allotted Tuesday and Thursday,
(b) 10
not necessarily in that order, with the rest day falling
(c) 11 between their presentations. Pratapgarh will present its
(d) 12 work just before Gorakhpur. There is a gap of 2 days
between Gazipur’s and Pratapgarh’s presentation.
Gazipur will present its art before Pratapgarh.
44. Chandan is father of Umakant. Mayank is
46. Which district will present its work on
brother of Umakant. Sonu is father of Chandan. Thursday?
Pavitra is father of Sonu. What is the relation of (a) Gazipur
(b) Aligarh
Pavitra with Mayank?
(c) Gorakhpur
(a) Maternal grand father
(d) Pratapgarh
(b) Father
(c) Grand father 47. Which day is the rest day?
(d) None (a) Wednesday

(b) Tuesday
(c) Friday
45. A is son of P. R is brother of P. E is daughter of (d) Monday
N. N is sister of R. How is A related to E?
(a) Son 48. From his home Vikas walks 100 m towards
North to reach temple. And from there he walks
(b) Brother
70 m towards South-West, and finally he turns
(c) Cousin 225 degree in anti-clockwise direction and
(d) Nephew walks 30 m to reach his shop. In which direction
is temple from his shop?
(a) North- East
(b) North-West
(c) South-West
questions that follow. (d) South-East

Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Passage – 2
Read the following three passages and answer the items The notions of civil society and the rule of law are
relatively new. In previous eras, farmers armed
themselves to protect their lands; robbery seemed a
logical solution to the misery of poverty. English
Passage – 1 philosopher Thomas Hobbes took a hard look at his
It is no longer possible to look at food, livelihoods, seventeenth-century world and found to his dismay that
health, and the management of natural resources suffering was the rule of the day and that something
needed to change. To bring order to societal chaos,
separately. Embracing systems - thinking through
Hobbes created his “leviathan,” the model for a strong,
holistic approaches is needed to address these complex centralized power that based on the support of the
and interdependent challenges. The fundamental people, could create a society in which peace could
connection between people and the planet, with flourish. Hobbes’s ideas then revolutionised political
sustainable agriculture and food systems, is at the heart philosophy and are today still quite relevant, as we
continue to debate which type of government can best
of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, which
guide nations away from a permanent state of war.
stresses the urgent need to take concerted action and 50. Based on the above passage, the following
pursue policies directed at transformational change. assumptions have been made:
Ending poverty and achieving zero hunger, while 1. The principles of peace and stability was the
ensuring inclusive growth and sustainably managing the motivation behind “Leviathan”.
2. The concepts of police, justice, government
planet’s natural resources, all in the context of climate
and law were completely missing in the
change and biodiversity loss will only be possible seventeenth century.
through holistic and integrated approaches that respect Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid?
human rights. (a) 1 only
49. Which of the following is/are the most rational (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Achieving SDGs without giving due 51. Which of the following is the most rational and
consideration to adequate investments logical inference that can be drawn from the
passage?
would be difficult.
(a) A strong, centralised power is the lynchpin
2. There is a need to break silos in
for keeping nations away from fighting each
policymaking for bringing transformational other.
change. (b) The theory of Thomas Hobbes contributed
Select the correct answer from the code given in bringing transformational change in
political governance.
below.
(c) The philosophers should evolve political
(a) 1 only
philosophies with time to address the
(b) 2 only challenges in society.
(c) Both 1 and 2 only (d) Democracy is the best type of government
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 as it is based on Hobbes's idea of
“Leviathan”.
Tanks today are a ubiquitous presence in modern warfare inferred from the above passage?
1. Tanks were designed and developed to
and a mainstay for ground armies. As the war in Ukraine
provide protection and break the stalemate
has shown, capable tanks and their efficacious use can
during the World War I.
go a long way in increasing an army’s effectiveness. To
2. Germans were the first to build tanks in the
understand exactly why tanks were developed, one must world.
first look at the conditions which they were prepared for. 3. Tanks were strictly a part of defensive
World War I began on July 28, 1914, precisely a month strategy and made only for the protection of
troops.
after a Serbian nationalist assassinated Archduke Franz
Ferdinand, heir to the Austro-Hungarian throne. As
below.
Austria-Hungary declared war on Serbia, Russia came to
(a) 1 only
its aid, further drawing Germany (on Austria-Hungary’s (b) 1 and 3 only
side), France and Great Britain (on Russia’s side) to the (c) 2 only
war. The Ottomans would join Germany’s side in a few (d) All 1, 2 and 3
months. The now mythic Western Front was one of the

main theatres of the Great War, stretching from Alsace-
A € B means A is sister of B.
Lorraine in the south, across France and Belgium, all the
A β B means A is brother of B.
way to the North Sea. Along both sides of the Front lay A ¥ B means A is daughter of B.
systems of highly fortified trenches, making it near A µ B means A is mother of B.
impossible for either side to advance. What this resulted How many females does the following
relationship string has?
in was highly static warfare where defence always held
a€bβc€dβe¥f
the advantage. Thus, through the War, German and
(a) 2
Franco-British forces lost millions of lives for very little
(b) 3
territorial gains on the Western Front. It was the (c) 4
stalemate of the Western Front that led to the (d) Can’t be determined
development of tanks — vehicles which could provide
54. Study the following information carefully and
mobile protection and firepower for troops in order to
take down trenches. “It was a weapon designed for one
X is sister of B. B and R are brothers. Z is brother
simple task: crossing the killing zone between trench
of Y. Y is daughter of R. Who is the uncle of Z?
lines and breaking into enemy [defenses],” military (a) X
historian Williamson Murray wrote in ‘Armored (b) B
Warfare: The British, French, and German Experiences’ (c) Y
(1996). (d) R

Direction for the following 3 (three) items: 56. The department of Electronics Engineering is
Consider the information given below and answer the headed by:
three items that follow. (a) Dr. Mehra
In a college building there are five floors. Ground floor (b)Dr. Sharma
is considered as floor number 1 (i.e. first floor), the one (c) Either Dr. Mehra or Dr. Sharma
(d) Dr. Tiwari
above it is numbered 2 (i.e. second floor) and so on till
the topmost floor. Every floor has different engineering
57. Which of the following combination is correct?
departments, i.e. Electrical Engineering, Computer
(a) Electrical Engineering – Dr. Mishra – Fifth
Science, Mechanical Engineering, Civil Engineering and
floor.
Electronics Engineering. Each department is headed by
(b) Civil Engineering – Dr. Mehra – First floor.
five professors named Dr. Batra, Dr. Mehra, Dr. Sharma,
(c) Computer Engineering – Dr. Tiwari – Third
Dr. Mishra and Dr. Tiwari (but not necessarily in the
floor.
same order). (d) Mechanical Engineering – Dr. Tiwari –
The department of Electronics Engineering is at third Second floor.
floor. Dr. Mehra is not heading Electrical Engineering,
Mechanical Engineering or Civil Engineering 58. Consider the following:
department. The department of Computer Science is at A * B means A is the sister of B.
an even-numbered floor. There are 2 floors between A + B means A is the brother of B.
Computer Science and Civil Engineering department. A – B means A is the son of B.
Dr. Mishra is the head of the department which is at first A ÷ B means A is the daughter of B.
A × B means A is the mother of B.
floor. Dr. Batra is the head of Electrical Engineering
A = B means A is the father of B.
department. Dr. Tiwari is neither the head of Electronics
Now consider the following expressions:
Engineering nor the head of Computer Science
(1) Y × Z– X
department. Electrical Engineering department is neither
(2) Y– X ÷ Z
just above nor just below the department of Electronics
(3) Y * Z × X
Engineering.
(4) Y ÷ X × Z
55. The department of Mechanical Engineering is at
Which of the above expression(s) mean X is the
which floor? mother of Y and Z?
(a) First (a) 1 only
(b) Third (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Fifth (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Second (d) 4 only

59. Find the number of rectangles in the following 61. How many employees went for holidays in the
figure. time-gap between holidays of E and H?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(a) 24
(d) Five
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 21 62. D went on holidays on which of the following
month and day?
60. Find the number of triangles in the following
(a) 10th – December
figure.
(b) 10th – October
(c) 15th – October
(d) 15th – December
(a) 17 63. Who among the following employees went

(b) 15
immediately before G?
(c) 13
(d) 9 (a) H
(b) E
Directions for following 3 (three) items: (c) C
Consider the information given below and answer the
(d) A
items that follow.
Eight employees A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H of a
multinational company went on holidays in September, 64. Ishaan has to go to his school from his house.
October, November and December, on two different First, he moves towards north for 4 km, and then
dates of these months, i.e. 10th and 15th (but not
turns towards west. After walking for 2 km he
necessarily in the same order).
(i) A went on holiday in November. moves towards south. He moves for 5 km and
(ii) C and F chose the same month having 31 days, but then takes a left turn. After walking 2 km, he
C did not go on an odd-numbered date.
takes a turn to his right to reach the front gate of
(iii) Two employees went on holiday in the time-gap
between holidays of A and B. his school. In which direction is his house from
(iv) The number of employees who went on holiday in the school?
the time-gap between holidays of F & D is same as (a) East
the number of employees who went on holidays in
(b) West
the time-gap between A & B.
(v) G went on holiday just before C, and D went on (c) North
holiday just after H. (d) South

65. I am standing facing north. Which of the 68. How much does U earn?
following series of turns will make me face the (a) $179
opposite direction? (b) $172
(a) left, left, right, right, right ,right (c) $182
(b) right, right, right, right, left, left, left (d) $169
(c) right, right, left, right, left, left
(d) right, left, left, right, right, left
69. Two friends Amit and Sunita, who are
neighbours, were planning to go for a trip to
Aligarh. However, they were not sure about the
distance to Aligarh. Amit was sure that Aligarh
is more than 10 km but less than 15 km from the
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W live in eight
linearly placed rooms A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H and earn starting point. Sunita was aware that Aligarh was
$164, $167, $169, $172, $174, $177, $179 and $182 more than 13 km but less than 16 km. If both of
everyday, but not necessarily in the same order. them were correct, which of the following could
The persons who live in room A and H, have the be the distance of Aligarh from the residence of
maximum difference in daily earnings. Only one person the friends?
lives between S and the one who earns the minimum. (a) 11 km
One person lives between S and the one who earns $179. (b) 12 km
V’s earning is $177 and he lives in room G. One person (c) 13 km
lives between T and P and not more than three persons (d) 14 km
earn less than T. T doesn’t earn $167 and does not live
in room B. One person lives between U and the one who
70. Find the number of squares in the following
earns $169. U does not earn $182. One person lives
figure.
between S and R. R’s earning is not $179. Not more than
two persons earn more than Q. S earns more than P but
less than W. P lives in room D.
66. Which of the following combinations is
incorrect?
(a) B W 174
(a) 12
(b) D P 167
(b) 13
(c) G V 177
(c) 14 or more
(d) None
(d) None of these
67. Who earns the most?

(a) S Directions for the following 5 (five) items:
(b) T Read the following three passages and answer the items
(c) Q that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
(d) W should be based on the passages only.

Negotiations for a free trade agreement between India The Indian Air Force (IAF) on Wednesday (September
and Canada will resume after the resolution of political
issues between the two countries, a senior official said 13) received the first of the 56 C295 aircraft, which are
on Friday. “There were certain political developments in set to replace its aging Avro-748 fleet, at the Airbus
Canada on which India has raised its objections. India
production site in Seville, Spain. According to Airbus,
has shown a strong resentment against certain political
developments in Canada, and therefore, for the time the C295 is a versatile tactical transport that can perform
being, till these political issues are settled, we have a variety of missions, such as carrying troops and cargo,
paused the negotiations,” the official said. “But the
maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and
moment these political issues are sorted out, the talks
will resume. So, it is only a pause,” the official added. reconnaissance, armed close air support, medical
On September 10, Prime Minister Narendra Modi evacuation, VIP transport, and airborne firefighting. The
conveyed to his Canadian counterpart Justin Trudeau
aircraft can carry up to nine tonnes of payload or up to
India’s strong concerns about the continuing anti-India
activities of extremist elements in Canada that were 71 personnel at a maximum cruise speed of 260 knots. It
promoting secessionism, inciting violence against its is also equipped for air-to-air refueling of fixed-wing
diplomats and threatening the Indian community there.
Over half a dozen rounds of talks have been held aircraft and helicopters. It will replace the legacy Avro
between the countries on the trade pact so far. In March fleet of the IAF, which was acquired in the 1960s, and
last year, the two countries re-launched negotiations for
thus provide a fillip to the IAF’s air transport duties in
an interim agreement, officially dubbed as Early
Progress Trade Agreement (EPTA). In such agreements, carrying troops and material to different parts of the
two countries significantly reduce or eliminate customs country. The acquisition sets into motion India’s first-
duties on the maximum number of goods traded between
ever ‘Make in India’ Aerospace program in the private
them. They also liberalise norms for promoting trade in
services and attracting investments. Indian industry was sector, under which the aircraft will be manufactured. So
looking at duty-free access for products like textiles and far, the state-owned Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
leather besides easy visa norms for the movement of
(HAL) has had a monopoly over the manufacture of
professionals. Canada has interests in areas like dairy
and agricultural products. military aircraft in India. This will boost India’s
71. With reference to the above passage, consider aerospace sector with 15,000 high-skilled jobs and
the following statements.
10,000 indirect jobs in the next 10 years. Barring major
1. Both nations have drastically lowered the
customs duties they charge on goods. components such as the engine and avionics – which
2. Temporary suspension of EPTA will have been sourced from the US-based Pratt & Whitney
adversely affect the bilateral relations of
both countries in the long term. and Collins Aerospace – there will be a transfer of
Which one of the statements given above is/are manufacturing technology to Tata Advanced Systems
true?
Limited (TASL) by Airbus on most other components so
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only that 95 percent of the aircraft could be made in India
(c) Both 1 and 2 within the next few years.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Critical Raw Materials Act was voted on in the
European Parliament during the September 11-14, 2023,
1. The acquisition of C-295 aircraft will give a plenary session in Strasbourg, France. It was approved
strategic edge to India vis-à-vis China. with a large majority of 515 Members of the European
Parliament (MEP) backing it. While 34 MEPs did not
2. Military aircraft manufacturing in India has
vote in favour, 28 withheld their votes. The European
been the monopoly of the government. Union, the world’s largest trading bloc, aims to reduce
its dependence on China and increase its domestic
capacity for critical minerals through this legislation.
below. Metals and critical minerals are crucial for the green
(a) 1 only transition as they are used to manufacture solar panels,

windmills, and electric car batteries. German MEP
(b) 2 only
Nicola Beer, the driving force behind the law, said in the
(c) Both 1 and 2 parliament that the EU was 99 percent dependent on
China for rare earth metals. “We cannot allow that to be
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the case.” Such dependencies create a high risk of supply
disruptions and increase the Union’s vulnerability and
73. Which among the following is the most security risks. To increase economic resilience and
reduce the risks involved, the EU’s parliament on
important aspect of the above-mentioned
September 14 adopted a text that sets the framework for
acquisition of aircrafts? ensuring a secure and sustainable supply of critical raw
materials. The regulation aims to “diversify the Union’s
(a) It will provide employment.
imports of strategic raw materials with a view to ensure
(b) Technology transfer and involvement of that, by 2030, the Union’s annual consumption of each
private players would give a boost to the strategic raw material at any relevant stage of processing
can rely on imports from several third countries, none of
aerospace industry in the country.
which provide more than 65 percent of the Union’s
(c) It will boost the operational capability of the annual consumption”. According to the legislation, by
2030, the Union's extraction capacity should be such that
Indian Armed forces.
the ores, minerals, or concentrates needed to produce at
(d) It will break the monopoly of PSU least 10 percent of its annual consumption of strategic
manufacturing in India. raw materials can be extracted.

74. With reference to the above passage, consider 76. Number of balls between Red ball and Black ball
the following statements. is?
1. Critical minerals can help in reducing (a) 3
greenhouse gas emissions. (b) 2
2. The dependency on one country for raw (c) 1
materials may be a security threat. (d) 4
Which of the statements given above are
77. How many balls are above the Orange ball?
correct?
(a) 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 5
(b) 2 only
(c) 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 6
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
78. Which ball is placed 4th from the bottom?
75. Which of the following statements best reflects (a) Red
the crucial message conveyed by the author of (b) Black
the passage? (c) White
(a) Mineral companies are crucial for reducing (d) Yellow
greenhouse gas emissions.
(b) Import dependency on one source is a Direction for the following 2 (two) items:
security risk. Study the following information carefully and answer the
(c) The European Union is leading the world in questions that follow.
green energy transition. Six people Ajay, Bali, Chandan, Durgesh, Ekta and
(d) The EU will diversify its means to generate Govind went for "Bharat Bhraman Yatra". They visited
energy. six different cities P, Q, R, S, T, U on the same latitude
(listed latitude wise from left to right).
Ajay did not visit the place which is immediately to the
left or immediately to the right of the place visited by
Bali. Chandan visited the city immediately to the left of
Durgesh's city. Govind didn't visit city U.
Rama asked his son Bhasker to place 8 different colored
79. If Durgesh visited city T, then which city was
balls – Red, Blue, Yellow, Green, White, Orange, Black
visited by Chandan?
and Pink, one above the other, but not necessarily in the (a) R
same order. (b) P
4 balls are placed between Green and Black balls. 2 balls (c) S
are placed between Blue and Black colored balls. (d) Can’t be determined
Number of balls between Red and Black colored balls is
the same as that between Pink and Blue colored balls. 80. Which city did Ajay visit?
Red ball is placed just above Yellow ball. 2 balls are (a) P
placed between Red and Pink colored balls. Yellow ball (b) S
is placed just above Black ball. White ball is above the (c) U
Blue colored ball. (d) Can’t be determined

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
1 (c)
The speed at with Arjun and Arnav travel is not mentioned in the question. Hence, it must be wrong to
assume that they travel at the same speed.
The following picture represents the possible course of motion of Arjun and Arnav.
The exact distance between the destination of Arjun and Arnav cannot be known without knowing their
respective speeds.
2 (a)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: It would not be correct to state that democracy is the worst form of
government. The line “Why does Plato not consider democracy the best form of government?” only
shows that Plato believed that democracy is not the best form of government, but it does not mean that it
is the worst form of government. Hence, this assumption is not correct.
Assumption 2 is correct: The given assumption is based on the following lines - “Secondly, equality
(inherent in democracy), … motivated by personal gain rather than the public good. Democracy is thus
highly corruptible. It opens gates to demagogues, and potential dictators, and can thus lead to tyranny.”
These lines show that as a result of democracy, people with personal interests can become leaders, making
democracy prone to tyranny or authoritarianism. Hence, this assumption is correct as per the passage.
Assumption 3 is correct: The lines “In the Republic, he criticizes the direct and unchecked democracy
of his time precisely because of its leading features. Firstly, although freedom is for Plato a true value,
democracy involves the danger of excessive freedom … Secondly, equality, … motivated by personal gain
rather than the public good” show that freedom and equality are leading features of democracy. Hence,
this assumption is correct.
3 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: Fulfilling energy demands from fossil fuels is possible (doable) in the short term
as seen in the lines “Whether it meets those needs with fossil fuels or green alternatives has the potential
to shift the trajectory of its greenhouse gas emissions for many more years to come. … but with current
policies total GHG emissions would nonetheless increase (possibly via fossil fuels) by more than 40 per
cent by 2030.” However, in the long term, it is unsustainable as seen in the line “more rapid scaling up of
current policies could help lower emissions considerably over the medium term and bring India closer to
a path to net zero (not possible with fossil fuels) by 2070.” So, the given statement is not correct as per
the passage.
Option (b) is correct: The given option is based on the following lines from the passage “India has made
significant progress towards meeting its emissions reductions targets under the Paris Agreement, but with
current policies total GHG emissions would nonetheless increase by more than 40 per cent by 2030.
While a modest increase in short-term emissions may be necessary to meet poverty reduction and
energy security goals …” These lines show that if poverty reduction and energy security are to be
achieved then it would lead to increased GHG emissions. Hence, achieving the triple goals of poverty
reduction and GHG reduction in tandem with boosting energy security is not possible in the short term.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given statement is contradictory to the lines “India has made significant
progress towards meeting its emissions reduction targets under the Paris Agreement, but with current
policies total GHG emissions would nonetheless increase by more than 40 per cent by 2030.” This
shows that instead of reducing GHG emissions for meeting international obligations, these might increase
due to domestic reasons. Hence, it would not be correct to say that current policies are sufficient to fulfil
the international commitments.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given statement is not correct because of the following lines “It’s also
poised to be one of the fastest-growing economies in coming years, which will in turn sharply boost
energy demand. Whether it meets those needs with fossil fuels or green alternatives has the potential to
shift the trajectory of its greenhouse gas emissions for many more years to come.” These lines show that
it is not clear whether green energy or fossil fuels will be used to meet the energy demands of the fast-
growing economy. Hence, it would not be correct to say that energy from green sources is crucial for
becoming the fastest-growing economy, as such a relationship is not mentioned in the passage.
4 (a)
Assumption 1 is correct: The given assumption is correct as it is based on the following lines “Over-the-
counter access to antibiotics, without prescription, and direct marketing of drugs to farmers are
common.” These lines show that the availability of drugs to farmers is not regulated which results in
inappropriate and unregulated use of drugs leading to cases of AMR.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The context of AMR in birds is not discussed in the passage. The passage
only mentions how animals in general are impacted by AMR. Hence, this assumption is beyond the scope
of the passage.
5 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The context of increasing farmer's income and its relationship with the
treatment of AMR in animals is not covered in the passage. The passage mainly focuses on the reasons for
the development of AMR in animals.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option could be a rational inference. However, it is not the best
implication of the passage, because the central theme of the passage is the diverse reasons for rising cases
of AMR among animals and what can be done about it, not its repercussions related to livestock
productivity.
Option (c) is correct: The given option is correct as highlighted in the lines “Awareness of antimicrobial
resistance (AMR) is low and antimicrobial stewardship in livestock is yet to be developed”.
Option (d) is incorrect: The context of adequate administrative laws and viral diseases has not been
covered in the passage.
6 (b)
P = 100 + 30 – 70 = 60
Q = 100 + 70 - 100 = 70
M = 100 – 30 + 75 = 145
N = 100 + 115 – 75 = 140
O = 100 + 100 - 115 = 85
Total of M + N + O = 145 + 140 + 85 = Rs 370
Since M, N and O together spent Rs 270, therefore amount left with M, N & O = 370 – 270 = Rs 100
7 (a)
Given figure:
In the given figure, the person has travelled in all the four basic directions and all the four sub-directions.
So that person has walked in 8 directions.
8 (a)
Person 5 owns black shoes and pair 3 is black. So, Person 5→ Pair 3
Pair 2 must belong to person 3. So, Person 3→ Pair 2
Pair 1 does not belong to either person 1 or person 2. So, Person 4→ Pair 1
Thus, it is known that
Person 1→ ?
Person 2→ ?
Person 3→ Pair 2
Person 4→ Pair 1
Person 5→ Pair 3
9 (b)
Based on the given information, the following diagram can be drawn:
Hence, Suresh is the uncle of Rahul.

So, option (b) is correct.
10 (d)

Now, we can examine all the options:
Option (a): Z and U are parallel but W is perpendicular. Not correct.
Option (b): X and V are not parallel. Not correct.
Option (c): Z and V are not parallel. Not correct.
Option (d): Y, V and W are parallel. Correct.
So, option (d) is correct.
11 (a)
Given figure:
The squares are: ABEF, BFCG, CGDH, EFIJ, FJGK, GKHL, IMJN, JKNO, KOLP, EBJG, JGOL, QJRN,
KROS, ACKI, BDLJ, EGOM, FHPN, ADPM.
So, there are a total of 18 squares.
12 (c)
First, let’s consider the overall figure:

AEB, CED, AEC, BED, BCD, ACB, ADB, ACD
Number of triangles = 8
Now, let’s consider part P1 :
AHL, HLI, LIM, HFI, AFM, FMG, FEG, MJN, JNK, NKB, JGK, MGB
Part P1 and P2 have same structure. So, the number of triangles in part P2 will also be 12.
∴ Total number of triangles = 8 + 12 + 12 = 32
13 (c)
We can draw the following family tree diagram based on the given information:
Hence, Rudra is the great grandson of Shikha.

14 (c)
Let’s check each option one by one.
Option (a): R Ø M * O @ E
Family tree:
So, R is the maternal uncle of E. This is exactly opposite of what we wanted.

Hence, it is not the correct option.
Option (b): E * C @ M Ø R
Family tree:
Thus, E is the mother of R.

Hence, it is not the correct option.
Option (c): E Ø O * M @ R
Family tree:
Hence, E is the maternal uncle of R.

Option (d): R Ø C # E

Family tree:
Thus, R is the uncle of E.

Hence, option (d) is also not correct.
15 (a)
We can draw the following blood relation graph with the help of the given information.
Hence, Firoz is the son of Chandani.

16 (a)
Based on the given information, the following relation map can be drawn.
From above, it is clear that the concerned man is the cousin of Radha.
17 (c)
He can arrange 961 coins into a 31 × 31 grid and have 39 coins still left with him.
Option (a): He can have 31 rows. → Not correct.
Option (b): He will be short of coins if he arranges in grid with 33 coins. → Not Correct.
Option (c): He will be left with some coins if he arranges them in a grid of 31 rows. It’s the maximum
possible number of coins he can place in a row. → Correct.
Option (d): Same as option (b) → Not correct.
18 (d)
Family tree diagram has been shown below:
By looking at the above family tree diagram, we can conclude that Geet is the niece of Bala.
19 (b)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The passage nowhere compares the contribution of cities and rural areas to
economic growth. The line, “While cities contribute to global economic growth, they are also drivers of
environmental degradation” indicate that cities do contribute to economic growth, but how much do they
contribute or whether it is more than rural areas cannot be assumed. So, this assumption is not correct as
per the passage.
Assumption 2 is correct: The lines “Cities consume 80% of global energy, are responsible for 70% of
greenhouse gas emissions, generate huge amounts of waste and pollution, and are rapidly encroaching
into natural habitats. Urban sprawl is leading to poor living conditions, making cities highly vulnerable
to climate change, and threatening the biodiversity of surrounding cities.” from the passage show that
urban areas consume way more energy, emit a lot of GHGs, etc. Therefore, as per the passage, it would be
correct to assume that urban areas present a less (if not the least) sustainable model of living.
20 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given statement could be a rational inference, but it is not the crux. The crux
is about how stressful it is for young adults to move out of home and what ways can be adopted to cope
with it. Also, by using the term, “informed decision”, the option reflects that moving out is not for
everyone and people who can adjust to stress should move out which is not the crux. So, this is not the
best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: This option reflects a rational inference of the passage. The stress arising from
moving out has been described in the lines “Not only that but, academic failure and problems with fitting
in the newer crowd can be a major stressor and induce panic, in severe cases, it could also put a student
in a depressive state”. However, this statement is very general in nature and cannot be the crux of the
passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given statement is not the best crux of the passage. The lines “On top of that,
having to look after oneself and accepting responsibility can also be very distressing”, show that there
are challenges related to moving out of home. The transition from the comfort zone of home to the world
outside home is a cause of stress. The passage is focused more on how to cope with this stress than on
inducing a sense of responsibility in youth.
Option (d) is correct: The given statement best reflects the crux as it encompasses the central idea of the
passage. The lines “Not only that but, academic failure and problems with fitting in the newer crowd can
be a major stressor and induce panic, in severe cases, it could also put a student in a depressive state. …
Taking care of your mental and physical health, eating well, and expressing yourself well for clarity of
thought also helps you to keep in check with your emotions”, show that moving out is stressful, but young
adults can be more aware about their emotions and handle them by consciously focusing on health, food,
etc. So, this option is the best crux of the passage.

21 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage revolves around the complex psychological processes involved in
deception or lying- How easy lying seems is not covered in the passage. Only the complex processes are
discussed, as seen in lines “lying requires far more cognitive resources. First, we must become aware of
the truth; then we must invent a plausible scenario that is consistent and does not contradict the
observable facts. At the same time, we must suppress the truth so that we do not spill the beans that is, we
must engage in response inhibition.”
Option (b) is incorrect: The context of other arts is not covered in the passage. Also, lying has not been
described as a beautiful process or been compared to a thing of beauty. Hence this option is not the crux
of the passage.
Option (c) is correct: The given option correctly captures the essence of the passage. It reflects the
meaning covered in the lines - “First, we must become aware of the truth; then we must invent a plausible
scenario that is consistent and does not contradict the observable facts. At the same time, we must
suppress the truth so that we do not spill the beans that is, we must engage in response inhibition. What
is more, we must be able to assess accurately the reactions of the listener so that, if necessary, we can
deftly produce adaptations to our original storyline.” All these lines show how complex the
psychological process of lying is. Hence, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is not correct because the context of morality associated with
lying has not been delved into in the passage, though mentioned as a sliding remark, “And there is the
ethical dimension, whereby we must make a conscious decision to transgress a social norm.” Hence, this
option does not reflect the crux of the passage. The main theme of the passage deals with how lying is a
complex psychological process.
22 (b)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given assumption is not correct because the lines “For economies of the
past, having land to farm, workers, and basic technology was sufficient to meet society's expectations”
reflect the opposite. Therefore, it would not be correct to assume that past economies were stagnant and
did not grow as per society’s needs.
Assumption 2 is correct: The following lines from the passage “For modern economic growth, people
need to be willing to change their behaviour, be progressive with their ideologies, and invest in new
technology. If people are stuck in the past and unwilling to change course, they are hampering growth”,
show that the people’s approach is significant in economic growth. If people do not move forward with
their thought process, then it becomes difficult to grow. So, the given assumption is correct.
23 (d)
We can represent the given expression, P @ Q * R, in the form of a diagram:
Hence, R is in South-West of P.

24 (c)
We can draw the following relation graph with the help of the given information.
From the above figure, it is clear that C is the nephew of A.

S goes on Monday but does not go to Board-office. P goes to MP-Nagar on Saturday. The one who goes
on Tuesday, goes to Paharganj. F goes on Sunday. A does not go to Paharganj. The one who goes on
Thursday goes to Barkheda.
Days Girls Places
Monday S Board-office
Tuesday A Paharganj
Wednesday
Thursday Barkheda
Friday
Saturday P MP-Nagar
Sunday F
N goes to JK-Road but not on Friday. M goes to Piplani. So, we get:
Days Girls Places
Monday S Board-office
Tuesday A Paharganj
Wednesday N JK-Road
Thursday Barkheda
Friday M Piplani
Saturday P MP-Nagar
Sunday F
The final arrangement will be:
Days Girls Places
Monday S New-Market
Tuesday R Paharganj
Wednesday N JK-Road
Thursday A Barkheda
Friday M Piplani
Saturday P MP-Nagar
Sunday F Board-office

25 (b)
A goes on Thursday.
26 (a)
F goes to the Board-office.
27 (c)
Mixed doubles means one male and one female player will be on the same side.
Since, siblings are not on the same side it means son and daughter are on the opposite side. Son must have
teamed up with mother and daughter with father.
Since neither daughter nor mother is diagonally across the net from father. Hence, son is diagonally across
the net from father.
Thus, arrangement will be as follows –
Son Mother
Daughter Father
28 (d)
Given figure:
,
Squares: ABCD, AFYE, FYGB, ECHY, YHDG, IJKL, IMYO, OJYN, MYKP, YNPL, VWUX, VQRY,
RYWS, QYUT, YSTX, EFGH, MONP.
Number of squares = 17
29 (c)
Given figure:
The number of cuboidal boxes in each row is:

R1 = 3, R2 = 4, R3 = 4
So, the total number of cuboidal boxes = 3 + 4 + 4 = 11

30 (c)
Three boys selected means P, Z, and C are selected.
Now, R and M cannot be selected due to the selection of Z and C.
Hence, possible teams are P, Z, C, T and P, Z, C, K
So, among the given options, option (c) is the right answer.
31 (b)
Given figure:
Let’s consider the triangles at the tips.

Part I:
Triangles are XYP, XPZ, XYZ.

Similarly, considering all parts (II, III, IV), there are a total of 12 triangles.
In the central part, the triangles are OBC, OBA, AOC, OED, OEF, OFD, OGI, and OJH.
So, there are a total of 20 triangles in the given figure.
32 (c)
We can draw the following path diagram based on the question:
In the above figure,

BC = 15 + 15 = 30 km
AB = 25 + 15 = 40 km
Using Pythagoras theorem,
(AC)2 = (AB)2 + (BC)2
Or (AC)2 = (40)2 + (30)2
Or (AC)2 = 1600 + 900 = 2500
Or AC = 50 km
Thus, the shortest distance to the party venue from her office is 50 km.
So, option (c) is correct.

33 (d)
Based on the given information, the following diagram can be drawn:
From above figure, it is clear that he was running in the west direction.
34 (a)
Cubes having the maximum number of faces touching other cubes are those cubes touching five other
cubes. These cubes are cube number 9 and cube number 10, i.e. there are two such cubes.
So, option (a) is correct.
35 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option is not correct because what people should do for better
regulation of circadian rhythm is not the main theme of the passage. This could be a rational inference but
not the crux, because the passage focuses on light and its importance for sleep and circadian rhythm as
seen in the lines “Light plays a central role in regulating circadian rhythm, the body’s internal clock that
signals when to be alert and when to rest.”.
Option (b) is incorrect: The line “Light also affects the production of melatonin, an essential sleep-
promoting hormone”, shows that melatonin helps in sleep. The connection of melatonin with circadian
rhythm is not a part of the passage. Moreover, the passage focuses more on light and its importance for
sleep and circadian rhythm. Hence, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is correct: The given option best captures the essence as it mentions the central theme of the
passage which is the importance of light. The lines “Light plays a central role in regulating circadian
rhythm, the body’s internal clock that signals when to be alert and when to rest. Light also affects the
production of melatonin, an essential sleep-promoting hormone. …. Learning about the complex links
between light and sleep allows you to set up your bedroom to be more conducive to consistent, high-
quality sleep.”, show that light regulates sleep and circadian rhythm. Hence, this is the best crux of the
passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The context of nightlife culture and dark light is not a part of the passage. The
main theme of the passage is how light affects sleep and circadian rhythm. Therefore, this option is
beyond the scope of the passage and is not the correct crux.

36 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: As per the passage, “Interactive systems are more than just functional.” So, we
need to keep in mind some other things too, not just the functional requirements. It does not mean that
functional requirements can be ignored. So, the given option is not the correct crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The statement, though true, covers only a minor aspect of the topic that the
passage is discussing. So, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The context of multi-tasking is used in a limited context in the passage in
describing the various types of users. Hence, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is correct: The lines from the passage “To create successful user experiences, we need to
know how humans think and feel. But there is more to thought than just rational, conscious
deliberation” and “As designers, it will also help to understand human error and how emotion affects
our interactions”, support the given statement. So, this option best captures the essence of the passage
and is the best crux.
37 (a)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given assumption is not correct as per the lines “Yet, important hygiene
behaviours are difficult to practise without the right knowledge and skills, adequate community support
and the belief that one’s behaviour can make a difference.” These lines show that one’s behaviour can
make a difference which is negated in the assumption. Hence, this assumption is not correct.
Assumption 2 is correct: The passage mentions that hygiene "can also secure a family’s social status"
and talks about children missing school (which can have economic implications in the long run). This
supports the assumption that poor hygiene has both social and economic implications. Therefore, this
assumption is valid based on the passage
Assumption 3 is incorrect: The given assumption is not correct because it is not well established in the
passage. The line “Many children around the world live in conditions that make it difficult to maintain
good hygiene”, shows that the living conditions for children are poor but the cause for the same cannot
necessarily be a lack of investment in rural infrastructure. The reasons could be varied ranging from poor
culture of cleanliness, poor accountability, etc. Also, this issue need not necessarily be a rural one. Even
many urban areas may suffer from this issue. Therefore, this assumption is not correct as per the passage.
38 (b)
We can draw the following movement map based on the information provided:
From above figure, it is clear that he is in east direction and 30 meters away from his initial position.
39 (a)
Let the two riders be R1 and R2.
Following movement graph can be made based on the information provided:

From the above figure it is clear that R1 moved 45 km along the main road, while R2 moved only 35 km
along the same road. So, the distance between the two riders at this time would be 20 km.
40 (b)
As per the information given in the question, following movement map can be made:
Let’s consider triangle ACB.

Here, AC = 3 m, BC = 4 m (from figure)
(AB)2 = (AC)2 + (BC)2
Or (AB)2 = (3)2 + (4)2 = 9 + 16 = 25
Or AB = 5 m
41 (c)
Clearly, the letters at 4th, 8th, 12th, 16th, 20th and 24th are replaced by $ and letters at 7th, 14th and 21st
positions are replaced by #. Therefore, we get following arrangement:
a, b, c, $, e, f, #, $, i, j, k, $, m, #, o, $, q, r, s, $, #, v, w, $, y, z
The position of fourteenth letter to the right of seventh letter from left end = 21st letter from left = #
42 (c)
Given figure:
Let’s, divide the figure in 3 segments.
Let’s consider S1.

The triangles are: ABC, ACD, CDE, DEF, DFG, FGH, GHI, GIJ, JIK, DCF, FGI
Let’s consider S2.
The triangles are: BCF, ADE, ABD, ABC, DEF, CFE, ABG, BGD, AGC, CHE, DHF, EHF
Segment 1 and 3 are similar.
So, total number of triangles = 11 + 12 + 11 = 34
43 (a)
Given figure:
The rectangles are: BECF, CFDG, BEDG, EFHI, FIGJ, EHGJ, BCHI, CIDJ, BDHJ
So, there are 9 rectangles in the given figure.
44 (d)
So, Pavitra is the great grand-father of Mayank.

45 (c)
From the above figure, it is clear that A is cousin of E.


Pratapgarh will present its work just before Gorakhpur. There is a gap of 2 days between Gazipur’s and
Pratapgarh’s presentation. Gazipur will present its art before Pratapgarh.
Districts
Gazipur
Pratapgarh
Gorakhpur
Aligarh and Gazipur are allotted Tuesday and Thursday, not necessarily in that order, with the rest day
falling between their presentations.
Days Districts
Monday
Tuesday Gazipur
Wednesday Rest day
Thursday Aligarh
Friday Pratapgarh
Saturday Gorakhpur
So, the final arrangement will be:
Days Districts
Monday Mirzapur
Tuesday Gazipur
Wednesday Rest day
Thursday Aligarh
Friday Pratapgarh
Saturday Gorakhpur
46 (b)
Aligarh will present its work on Thursday.
47 (a)
Wednesday is the rest day.
48 (a)
From the above diagram, we can say that temple is towards North-East from his shop.
49 (b)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The given inference is not correct because the passage does not mention that
achieving SDGs would be difficult on account of lack of investment. Context of SDGs is covered in lines
“The fundamental connection between people and the planet, with sustainable agriculture and food
systems, is at the heart of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, which stresses the urgent need
to take concerted action and pursue policies directed at transformational change.” So, this inference is
not based on the passage.
Inference 2 is correct: The passage revolves around the importance of holistic and integrated approaches.
When the passage speaks about not looking at food, livelihoods, health, and natural resource management
separately, it is essentially emphasising breaking the isolated or 'siloed' ways of thinking. The term "silo"
in the context of organizations or policy-making generally refers to a system, process, or department that
operates in isolation from others. The passage's emphasis on the need for holistic and integrated
approaches suggests that current methods might be siloed and that there is indeed a need for breaking
these silos to bring about transformational change. This option is supported by the passage.
50 (b)
Assumption 1 is correct: The lines in the passage “To bring order to societal chaos, Hobbes created his
“leviathan,” the model for a strong, centralised power that based on the support of the people, could
create a society in which peace could flourish”, mention that Thomas Hobbes wanted to create a society
based on peace and bring order in place of social chaos. So, it is correct to assume that the motivation
behind “Leviathan” is peace and stability.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The given assumption is probably based on the lines “The notions of civil
society and the rule of law are relatively new. In previous eras, farmers armed themselves to protect
their lands; robbery seemed a logical solution to the misery of poverty.” However, based on these lines
we cannot assume that the concepts of police, justice, government and law were “completely” missing in
the seventeenth century. Probably what was missing was “a strong, centralized power based on the
support of the people”. Moreover, this is a very general and extreme statement.
51 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given statement is not a rational inference because “leviathan,” the model
for a strong, centralized power was created for peace in society within the state. The context of nations
being kept away from fighting each other has not been covered in the passage. Moreover, the best type of
government is still being debated as indicated in the line - “Hobbes’s ideas then revolutionized political
philosophy and are today still quite relevant, as we continue to debate which type of government can best
guide nations away from a permanent state of war.” So, this statement is not correct.
Option (b) is correct: The main idea in the passage is how Hobbes's idea of “Leviathan” changed the
social order towards peace and stability via transforming the political governance landscape. Have a look
at these lines - “To bring order to societal chaos, Hobbes created his “leviathan,” the model for a strong,
centralised power that is based on the support of the people, could create a society in which peace could
flourish. Hobbes’s ideas then revolutionised political philosophy and are today still quite relevant ….”
Option (c) is incorrect: The given statement is generic and not specific to the information contained in
the passage. The passage is about Hobbes's “Leviathan” and how it was important in bringing change in
society. Hence, this statement is not the most rational inference.
Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about the concept of democracy or its
theoretical foundations. Hence this statement is beyond the scope of the passage and is not the most
rational inference.
52 (a)
Statement 1 is correct: According to the passage, tanks were developed as a response to the situations
that developed during World War I. The passage says that “The now mythic Western Front was one of
the main theatres of the Great War. It was the stalemate of the Western Front that led to the
development of tanks. It was a weapon designed for one simple task: crossing the killing zone
between trench lines and breaking into enemy [defenses]”.
Statement 2 is not correct: The passage only mentions the situation that led to the development of tanks
as weapons. The passage does not specify the country that built tanks first.
Statement 3 is not correct: From the lines, “It was the stalemate of the Western Front that led to the
development of tanks — vehicles which could provide mobile protection and firepower for troops in
order to take down trenches” and “It was a weapon designed for one simple task: crossing the
killing zone between trench lines and breaking into enemy [defenses]”, it can be inferred that tanks
not only provided protection to troops against enemies but also provided firepower that could break
enemy defenses.
53 (d)
a € b β c € d β e ¥ f can be read as ‘a’ is sister of ‘b’, ‘b’ is brother of ‘c’, ‘c’ is sister of ‘d’, ‘d’ is brother
of ‘e’ and ‘e’ is daughter of ‘f’.
Thus, a, c, e are females, while b and d are males. We do not know about f’s sex.
Hence, we cannot be sure about the number of females in this relationship string.
54 (b)
Based on the given information, following relation map can be drawn:
Hence, B is the uncle of Z.

Electronics Engineering department is at third floor. Dr. Mishra is the head of the department which is at
the first floor. Hence, we get:
Floor Department Professor
5
4
3 Electronics Engineering
2
1 Dr. Mishra
Electrical Engineering department is neither just above nor just below the department of Electronics
Engineering. Dr. Batra is the head of Electrical Engineering department. Hence, Electrical Engineering
department cannot be at second or fourth floor. Hence, Electrical Engineering department can be either at
first floor or fifth floor. But, first floor is headed by Dr. Mishra. Hence, Electrical Engineering department
cannot be at first floor. Therefore, Electrical Engineering department is at fifth floor and it is headed by
Dr. Batra.
5 Electrical Engineering Dr. Batra
4
2
1 Dr. Mishra
The department of Computer Science is at an even-numbered floor. Hence, Computer Science can be
either at fourth floor or second floor. Now, we also know that there are 2 floors between Computer
Science and Civil Engineering department.
Case 1: If Computer Science is at fourth floor, then Civil Engineering department will be at first floor.
Therefore, Mechanical Engineering department will be at second floor.

4 Computer Science
2 Mechanical Engineering
1 Civil Engineering Dr. Mishra
Case 2: If Computer Science is at second floor.
2 Computer Science
1 Dr. Mishra
Case 2 is not possible because 2 floors between Computer Science and Civil Engineering department are
not possible here. Hence, case 2 can be neglected.
Dr. Tiwari is neither the head of Electronics Engineering nor the head of Computer Science department.
Hence, Dr. Tiwari must be the head of Mechanical Engineering.
Dr. Mehra is not heading Electrical Engineering, Mechanical Engineering or Civil Engineering
department. Hence, Dr. Mehra is heading either Computer Science or Electronics Engineering. Hence, the
final arrangement will be as follows:
4 Computer Science Dr. Mehra / Dr. Sharma
3 Electronics Engineering Dr. Mehra / Dr. Sharma
2 Mechanical Engineering Dr. Tiwari
1 Civil Engineering Dr. Mishra
55 (d)
We can see that the department of Mechanical Engineering is at second floor.
56 (c)
The department of Electronics Engineering is headed by either Dr. Mehra or Dr. Sharma.
57 (d)
Mechanical Engineering – Dr. Tiwari – Second floor is the correct combination.
58 (d)
Checking the statements one by one:
(1) Y × Z– X: means Y is the mother of Z; and Z is the son of X.
(2) Y– X ÷ Z: means Y is the son of X; and X is the daughter of Z.
(3) Y * Z × X: means Y is the sister of Z; and Z is the mother of X.
(4) Y ÷ X × Z: means Y is the daughter of X; and X is the mother of Z. Therefore, X is the mother of Y
and Z.
Only from statement (4) we can deduce that X is the mother of Y and Z.

59 (d)
Given figure:
The rectangles are: AGOH, GCHQ, AOCQ, OIQJ, IJBD, OBQD, CEKL, KLQP, CQEP, QMDN, MNPF,
QDPF, ABCD, CDEF, AOEP, OBPF, OBMN, GHEP, KLDF, ACIJ, ABEF
Hence, there are 21 rectangles in the given figure.
60 (a)
Given figure:
The triangles are: ABI, AIC, BFI, CIF, ABC, BCF, ABF, ACF, DGF, DGB, DBF, FEH, HCE, CFE, ADF,
AFE, ADE
Hence, there are 17 triangles in the given figure.
C and F went on holiday in the same month having 31 days, i.e. either in October or in December, and C
did not go on an odd-numbered date. It means C went on an even-numbered date, i.e. on 10th. Therefore,
C went before F. G went on holiday just before C. So there will be two possibilities:
Now, A went on holiday in November. Therefore, A may go either on 10th or 15th November.
Two employees went on holiday in the time-gap between holidays of A and B. Therefore, in both the
above cases only one place is suitable, i.e. A went on 10th November.

Number of employees who went on holiday in the time-gap between holidays of F & D is same as the
number of employees who went on holidays in the time-gap between A & B. Therefore, 2 employees
went on holiday in the time-gap between holidays of F & D. It is not possible in Case 2. Hence, it can be
eliminated.
D went on holiday just after H. Therefore, D goes on 10th December and H on 15th November. Hence, the
remaining unoccupied place will be filled by E on 10th September.
Hence the final arrangement will be as follows:
61 (c)
It can be seen from above that four employees went on holidays in the time-gap between holidays of E
and H.
62 (a)
D went on holidays on 10th December.
63 (b)
E went immediately before G.
64 (c)
Following figure can be drawn with the help of the information provided in the question:
From above figure it is clear that the house is in the north direction from his school.
65 (a)
Checking all the options:
The persons who live in room A and H, have the maximum difference in daily earnings. P lives in room
D. V’s earning is $177 and he lives in room G.
Room Person Earning
A $164 / $182
B
C
D P
E
F
G V $177
H $164 / $182
Only one person lives between S and the one who earns the minimum. One person lives between S and
the one who earns $179. One person lives between S and R. R’s earning is not $179. So, two cases are
possible:
Case 1:
Room Person Earning
A R $164
B
C S
D P
E $179
F
G V $177
H $182
Case 2:
Room Person Earning
A $182
B
C
D P $179
E
F S
G V $177
H R $164
One person lives between T and P. T doesn’t earn $167 and does not live in room B. So, we can eliminate
Case 2.
Room Person Earning
A R $164
B
C S
D P
E $179
F T $167
G V $177
H $182
One person lives between U and the one who earns $169. U does not earn $182. So, we get:
Room Person Earning
A R $164
B Q/W
C S $169
D P
E U $179
F T $167
G V $177
H Q/W $182
S earns more than P. So, P must be earning $167.
Room Person Earning
A R $164
B Q/W
C S $169
D P $167
E U $179
F T
G V $177
H Q/W $182
Not more than two persons earn more than Q. So, Q must be earning $182.
Room Person Earning
A R $164
B W
C S $169
D P $167
E U $179
F T
G V $177
H Q $182
Not more than three persons earn less than T. So, T must be earning $172.
Room Person Earning
A R $164
B W $174
C S $169
D P $167
E U $179
F T $172
G V $177
H Q $182

66 (d)
None of the combinations is incorrect.
67 (c)
Q earns the most.
68 (a)
U earns $179.
69 (d)
As per the information of Amit
10 < Distance of Aligarh < 15
As per the information of Sunita
13 < Distance of Aligarh < 16
So, definitely 14 km is the distance of Aligarh.
70 (c)
Given figure:
The squares are: ABIJ, HIGK, JCLD, KLFE, IJKL, HAKJ, KJED, MKOI, IOJP, KOLQ, OJNL, BCIL,
GFIL, MQNP
There are 14 or more squares.
71 (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: Both countries are in the process of negotiating an agreement called Early
Progress Trade Agreement (EPTA). Once the two countries sign such an agreement, they can lower their
customs duties. However, custom duties are lowered only when the agreement is signed. The passage says
that In March last year, the two countries re-launched negotiations for an interim agreement, officially
dubbed as Early Progress Trade Agreement (EPTA). It further says that “In such agreements, two
countries significantly reduce or eliminate customs duties on the maximum number of goods traded
between them”. This implies that lowering the customs duty is a part of EPTA, which is yet to be signed.
Hence, option 1 is not correct.
Statement 2 is not correct: The passage mentions that India’s resentment towards the political
development in Canada has temporarily paused the negotiations of EPTA. However, it is not mentioned in
the passage that it will have any effect on the bilateral relations between the two countries. Moreover, as
of now the suspension of EPTA negotiations is more of an outcome of adverse bilateral relations than
vice-versa. Hence, option 2 is not correct.

72 (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: The acquisition of C-295 aircraft will help IAF in multiple areas. The
passage says that “C295 is a versatile tactical transport that can perform a variety of missions, such as
carrying troops and cargo, maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and reconnaissance,
armed close air support, medical evacuation, VIP transport, and airborne firefighting”. The
advantages of acquiring C-295 aircraft are not mentioned in the context of China.
Statement 2 is correct: This statement is clearly supported by the line, “So far, the state-owned
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) has had a monopoly over the manufacture of military
aircraft in India”.
73 (b)
Option (a) is not correct: Employment will be generated as a result of local manufacturing of aircraft in
India. It implies that local manufacturing is the most significant aspect and employment generation is
merely a by-product of local manufacturing. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is correct: The lines “– there will be a transfer of manufacturing technology to Tata
Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) by Airbus” and “The acquisition sets into motion India’s first-ever
‘Make in India’ Aerospace program in the private sector,” highlight the role of private sector and a boost
to the aerospace industry in our country. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct: It is true that C-295 will replace the existing fleet of aircraft and significantly
boost the operational capabilities of IAF. But, as mentioned above, the most important aspect of this deal
is that it will involve private players and boost local manufacturing. Moreover, usage of the term “Indian
Armed forces” instead of “Indian Air Force” makes this statement more general in nature. Hence, option
(c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: Breaking the monopoly is one aspect of the mentioned deal. Now the military
aircraft manufacturing sector will be open to private players too and will no longer be a monopoly of the
government. However, to say that it will “break the monopoly of PSU manufacturing in India” will be a
very broad statement and rather extreme. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
74 (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The passage says, “Metals and critical minerals are crucial for the green
transition as they are used to manufacture solar panels, windmills, and electric car batteries”. This
line implies that if more of the above-mentioned equipment is made, more will be the reduction in
greenhouse gas emissions.
Statement 2 is correct: The EU depends on China for 99% of its requirement of rare earth metals. This
extreme dependency on a single country is considered a threat. The passage says that “German MEP
Nicola Beer, the driving force behind the law, said in the parliament that the EU was 99 percent dependent
on China for rare earth metals. We cannot allow that to be the case. Such dependencies create a high
risk of supply disruptions and increase the Union’s vulnerability and security risks”.
75 (b)
Option (a) is not correct: According to the passage metals and critical minerals are crucial for the green
transition as they are used in the manufacturing of electric batteries and solar panels. However, there is no
discussion on mineral companies.
Option (b) is correct: Too much dependency on a single source for procurement of raw material is a
security threat. The EU passed legislation that mandates diversifying of sources of procurement of critical
minerals. The passage says that “The European Union, the world’s largest trading bloc, aims to
reduce its dependence on China and increase its domestic capacity for critical minerals through this
legislation”. It is further mentioned in the passage - “Such dependencies create a high risk of supply
disruptions and increase the Union’s vulnerability and security risks”. Additionally, the passage says,
“The regulation aims to “diversify the Union’s imports of strategic raw materials”. From these lines,
it can be assumed that this option statement best reflects the crucial message conveyed by the author.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage mentions the legislation of the EU which is related to the
transition towards green energy. However, it is not mentioned that the EU is leading the world in this
transition.
Option (d) is not correct: This option states one of the means by which dependence on a single source
can be avoided. The legislation mentioned mandates to diversify the rare earth metals and critical mineral
sources which in turn address a security threat. It is different from “means of energy generation”.

4 balls are placed between Green and Black balls. 2 balls are placed between Blue and Black colored
balls. Also, Yellow ball is placed just above Black ball. Red ball is placed just above Yellow ball. So,
there are 2 possible cases:
Case 1:
Green
Blue
Red
Yellow
Black
Case 2:
Red
Yellow
Black
Blue
Green
2 balls are placed between Red and Pink colored balls.
Case 1:
Green
Blue
Red
Yellow
Black
Pink
Case 2:
Red
Yellow
Black
Pink
Blue
Green
Number of balls between Red and Black colored balls is the same as that between Pink and Blue colored
balls. So, we can eliminate Case 1.
Red
Yellow
Black
Pink
Blue
Green

White ball is above the Blue colored ball. So, the final arrangement will be:
Red
Yellow
Black
Pink
White
Blue
Orange
Green
76 (c)
There is 1 ball between Red ball and Black ball.
77 (d)
There are 6 balls above the Orange ball.
78 (c)
White colored ball is placed 4th from the bottom.
The arrangement of cities is as follows:

P Q R S T U
79 (c)
If Durgesh visited city T, then Chandan must have visited city S, because he visited the city immediately
to the left of Durgesh's city.
80 (d)
It can’t be determined since data is not sufficient.


VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
1 (a)
Total time from 6:00 a.m. on Friday to 9:00 p.m. on Saturday = 24 + 12 + 3 = 39 hours
In first hour, it gains 3 sec in 5 min. So, in first hour it gains (3/5)×60 = 36 sec.
In second hour, it loses 6 sec in 5 min. So, in second hour it loses (6/5)×60 = 72 sec.
So, in 2 hours it loses 72 – 36 = 36 sec.
So, in 38 hours it loses (36/2) × 38 = 684 sec.
In 39th hour, it will gain 36 + (39 - 1)36 = 36×39 = 1404 sec.
So, total gain in time = 1404 - 684 = 720 sec = 12 mins.
So, the time displayed by the clock at 9 p.m. on Saturday = 9:00 p.m. + 12 minutes = 9:12 p.m.
2 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The main theme of the passage is awareness and perception of commercial
nuclear energy. However, the given option mentions safe development of new reactors which is not the
core theme of the passage. Hence, this option is not the most rational inference of the passage.
Option (b) is correct. The lines “This perception is often based on three global nuclear accidents, its
false association with nuclear weapons, and how it is portrayed on popular television shows and films”
and “DOE also works to provide accurate, fact-based information about nuclear energy through its
social media and STEM outreach efforts to educate the public on the benefits of nuclear energy”, show
that DOE has taken various steps to address the perception issues of commercial nuclear power.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is not a rational inference because it does not include the
context of changing perceptions about nuclear power. Hence, as per the passage, this is not correct.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the role of the people in busting false
perception of nuclear energy is not discussed in the passage. Hence, this is not the most logical inference
of the passage.
3 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The context of the role of the global organizations in preventing the spread of
invasive species is not a part of the passage. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is correct. The given option is the best crux of the passage as can be seen in the lines “The
global economy, with increased transport of goods and travel, has facilitated the movement of live species
over long distances and beyond natural boundaries” and “… tremendous impact on the health of plants,
animals and even humans—threatening lives and affecting food security and ecosystem health. Their
negative impact on the economy costs countries billions of dollars…”
Option (c) is incorrect. The option could be a rational implication which explains what should be done to
prevent the spread of invasive species causing dire socio-economic consequences, but it is not the crux as
it does not present the summary of the passage. Also, eradication of species at their origin or source
sounds a bit extreme. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The context of proper regulations for the prevention of the spread of invasive
species is not a part of the passage. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
4 (d)
Option (a) is not correct. The statement mentioned is correct, but it is not the most rational message
conveyed by the author. The passage revolves around the central idea of how women could be involved in
cities as equal participants. Hence, it is not a correct option.

Option (b) is not correct. The passage revolves around the central idea of how women can be made to
feel safe and involved in cities. Improvement in social infrastructure is among the many steps that can be
taken for the inclusion of women in cities. The passage does not mention that it’s the most important
factor. Hence, it is not a correct option.
Option (c) is not correct. “Men devoting more time to household work” is not mentioned in the passage
and therefore is beyond the scope of the passage. Hence, it is not a correct option.
Option (d) is correct. To make women feel safe, secure and inclusive in cities several steps in terms of
governance, urban planning need to be taken. The passage says that “Change is needed in many arenas
including physical and social infrastructure, safe spaces, services such as transport and response to
gender-based violence”. It further says that “The public domain needs to be made more gender
friendly and inclusive of all people of diverse ages, socio-economic statuses, genders, abilities, and
ethnicities”. Hence, it is a correct option.
5 (c)
337 days = 48 weeks + 1 day
The yearly calendar will repeat after 7 years when the 7 odd days add up to make a week.
6 (b)
At 10 o’clock, the hour hand is at 10 and the minute hand is at 12, i.e., they are 50 minutes spaces apart.
To be together, the minute hand must gain 50 minutes over the hour hand.
Now, 55 minutes spaces will be gained in 60 minutes.
So, 50 minutes spaces will be gained in ((60/55)×50) = 600/11 = 54(6/11) minutes.
The hands will coincide at 54(6/11) minutes past 10.
7 (b)
Given sequence: 5 e c 7 2 9 8 y 7 5 6 # 1 k 8 6 g 8 7 2 f 4 5 4 * 6
Digits preceded by a consonant and followed by a prime number are: (c 7 2); (y 7 5); (g 8 7) and (f 4 5)
So, required value = 4
8 (a)
Clearly, we have:
A = B - 300 ...(i)
D = E - 500 ...(ii)
A + C = 2E ...(iii)
B + D = A + C = 2E ...(iv)
A + B + C + D + E = 4500 ...(v)
Or 2E + 2E + E = 4500 (Since, B + D = A + C = 2E)
Or 5E = 4500
Or E = Rs. 900
D = E - 500 = 900 - 500 = Rs. 400
B + D = 2E
Or B = 2E - D = 2×900 - 400 = Rs. 1400
A = B - 300 = 1400 - 300 = Rs. 1100
A + C = 2E
Or C = 2E - A = 2×900 - 1100 = Rs. 700
9 (d)
Except , all are punctuation marks. So, it is different from the rest.

10 (d)
P – Q = (0.2 X + 0.32 Y) – (0.25 X + 0.25 Y)
= 0.07 Y – 0.05 X
P – Q may be positive or negative depending on values of X and Y. So, nothing can be concluded.
11 (c)
L = 50
C = 100
D = 500
M = 1000
Clearly, D + D = M
12 (b)
Let the fixed amount be Rs. x and varying amount be Rs. y per unit.
We are given,
x + 350y = 3040 ...............(1)
x + 436y = 3728 ...............(2)
On solving equation (1) and (2), we get:
x = 240 and y = 8
∴ Amount of bill for 523 units = 240 + 523×8 = Rs. 4424
One of them is a volleyball player and studies English and History. M is a boxer. The boxer studies
Mathematics and Accounts.
Person Sports Subjects
Volleyball English, History
M Boxing Mathematics, Accounts
Both badminton players study Mathematics. One badminton player also studies Physics.
Volleyball English, History
Badminton Mathematics, Physics
Badminton Mathematics
J and K play badminton. J studies Science.
So, Final arrangement:
L Volleyball English, History
K Badminton Mathematics, Physics
J Badminton Mathematics, Science
13 (a)
14 (a)
15 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The passage is not about the type of leadership in the workplace but about certain
differences in the approach of young generations and past generations towards their professional lives.
Further, the passage only says that the “command and control leadership is questioned” and not that
command and control leadership is NOT successful.

Option (b) is correct. This statement captures the crux of the passage which is how the approach of
young generation towards their professional lives differs from that of past generations. Passage says that
younger generation “expedite their progress up the ladder” and “gladly jump the ship” unlike past
generations who used to see their jobs as a “surety in a world of uncertainty”. This confirms risk taking
ability of young generations.
Option (c) is incorrect as the passage does not compare professional successes of young and old
generations. It only indicates that young generation does not bother much about job security. Faster career
progression is more important for them. Moreover the author has given us no clue regarding what ‘being
successful’ means to him. The given statement is beyond the scope of this passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage only talks about how past generations preferred sticking to a single
job throughout their career, whereas young generations are more likely to switch their jobs to meet their
career ambitions. There is no ethical analysis involved here. Hence, the given statement is incorrect.
16 (c)
Statement 1 is correct. The passage clearly says, “Zhengzhou in Henan province was one of the most
enthusiastic pioneers of sponge city construction, allocating nearly 60 billion yuan to the
programme from 2016 to 2021”. These lines imply that heavy investment is needed for the development
of Sponge cities. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is correct. A number of activities are associated with sponge cities. The passage says
“Those solutions included the use of permeable asphalt, the construction of new canals and ponds
and also the restoration of wetlands”. From these lines, it is clear that sponge cities initiative includes
wetland restoration, which is an environmentally sustainable initiative. Hence, it is a correct statement.
17 (b)
Statement (a) is not correct. China has recently been hit by floods, causing heavy damage in urban areas.
However, the central theme of the passage revolves around the initiative of “sponge city” and its
effectiveness in controlling floods. Therefore, this statement cannot be said to reflect the crux of the
passage. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement (b) is correct. The passage revolves around the efficiency of sponge cities in controlling urban
floods. The passage mentions the launch of the sponge city initiative, its working, and how effective it is
in regulating floods and drought. The passage says, “The sponge city initiative was designed to make
greater use of lower-impact “nature-based solutions”. It further says, “Even if sponge city measures
had been implemented in full, they would have been unable to prevent this year’s disasters”.
Therefore, it can be considered as the crux of the passage.
Statement (c) is not correct. According to the passage, Chinese cities are vulnerable to drought and
floods. However, nowhere is it mentioned that drought and floods occur simultaneously. Hence, it is not
a correct statement.
Statement (d) is not correct. It is not mentioned in the passage that sponge city initiative is aligned with
the climate goals of China. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
18 (a)
Total hours from 5 a.m. on Friday to 11 a.m. on next day = 30 hours
The time gained by the hand watch in this duration = (8 + 12) = 20 minutes
So, the hand watch gains 20 minutes in 30 hours
So, the hand watch gains 8 minutes in (30/20)×8 = 12 hours
Required time = 5 a.m. on Friday + 12 hours = 5 p.m. on Friday
Thus, the watch shows the correct time at 5 p.m. on Friday.
19 (a)
Difference in minutes between the two clocks in one hour = 5 – 3 = 2 minutes
Total number of hours from 6 a.m. today to 10 p.m. on next day = 24 + 12 + 4 = 40 hours
Difference in minutes between the two clocks in 40 hours = 2 × 40 = 80 minutes
20 (d)
The time shown by the mirror image of the clock = 12 hours – 4 hours 35 minutes = 7 hours 25 minutes

21 (b)
It is given that birthday of X = 8th June, 1996 = Monday
First birthday of X = 8th June, 1997 = Tuesday {since in non-leap year there is 1 odd day, hence Monday
+ 1 = Tuesday}
Second birthday of X = 8th June, 1998 = Wednesday
Third birthday of X = 8th June, 1999 = Thursday
Fourth birthday of X = 8th June, 2000 = Saturday {since in leap year there are 2 odd days, hence Thursday
+ 2 = Saturday}
Fifth birthday of X = 8th June, 2001 = Sunday
Sixth birthday of X = 8th June, 2002 = Monday
Seventh birthday of X = 8th June, 2003 = Tuesday
Eight birthday of X = 8th June, 2004 = Thursday {since in leap year there are 2 odd days, hence Tuesday +
2 = Thursday}
Number of times his birthday fell on Saturdays or Wednesdays from 1997 to 2004 = 2
Therefore, he goes to temple = 8 - 2 = 6 times
22 (a)
Let the present ages of P, P's son and P's father be x years, y years and z years respectively.
At present, the sum of the ages of P's father and P is 120 years.
So, x + z = 120
Or x = 120 - z
When P will be as old as P's father is now, P will be six times as old as P's son is now.
So, z = 6y
But at that time P's son will be seven years older than what P is now.
So, y + (z - x) = x + 7
Or y + z = 2x + 7
Or y + z = 2(120 - z) + 7 (since, x = 120 -z)
Or y + 3z = 247
Or y + 3×6y = 247 (since, z = 6y)
Or 19y = 247
Or y = 13
So, z = 6y = 6×13 = 78 years
And x = 120 - z = 120 - 78 = 42 years
After 10 years, P's age = x + 10 = 42 + 10 = 52 years.
23 (c)
Income on the 1st day of his business = x
Income on the 2nd day of his business = 3x
Income on the 3rd day of his business = 3 × (3x) = (3)2 x
Income on the 4th day of his business = 3 × (3)2 x = (3)3 x
So, Income on the pth day of his business = (3)p – 1 x
The one who likes Dehradun works in the field of Information Technology only with T. Thus, only 2
people work in the field of Information Technology.
V neither works with T nor in the field of Finance. So, V works in the field of Healthcare. V does not like
Mukteshwar.
Z works with V. So, Z also works in the field of Healthcare.
W likes Ranikhet.

Person Field Hill station
Information Dehradun
Technology
T Information
Technology
V Healthcare Mukteshwar
Z Healthcare
W Ranikhet
X works with only one person. X does not like Dehradun and does not work in Healthcare. So, X works in
the field of Finance with only one another person. Thus, it is clear that three persons work in the field of
Healthcare.
U/Y Information Dehradun
Technology
T Information
Technology
Z Healthcare
W Healthcare/Finance Ranikhet
X Finance
U/Y Healthcare/Finance
Y likes Badrinath.
U Information Dehradun
Technology
T Information
Technology
Z Healthcare
W Healthcare/Finance Ranikhet
X Finance
Y Healthcare/Finance Badrinath
The one who likes Mukteshwar works with the one who likes Rishikesh. So, they work in field of
Healthcare because three persons work in the field of Healthcare.
Y works with the one who likes Nainital. W does not work with Y.
Final arrangement:
U Information Dehradun
Technology
T Information Mussoorie
Technology
V Healthcare Rishikesh
Z Healthcare Mukteshwar
W Healthcare Ranikhet
X Finance Nainital
Y Finance Badrinath
24 (b)
Y works in Finance field and likes Badrinath hill station.
25 (c)
V works in Healthcare sector and likes Rishikesh hill station.

26 (c)
Except (X, Y) all others work in different fields.
27 (d)
Minimum number of matches that must be played = 45 - 1 = 44
28 (d)
Let the husband’s age be x.
Let the wife’s age be y.
Let the son’s age be z.
x + 2y + 3z = 85 ...............(1)
3x + 6y + 9z = 255
x + 2y + 3z = 85 ............(2)
4x + 8y + 12z = 340
x + 2y + 3z = 85 ..........(3)
All the three equations are essentially the same. Hence, the above system of equations will give no unique
solution.
Thus, the son's age can't be determined.
29 (a)
Statement 1 is correct. Lampedusa, a Sicilian island, is situated nearer to Africa than mainland Italy. It is
a popular destination for migrant traffickers as well. These facts indicate towards its accessibility to
African migrants. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is not correct. The Italian government has urged the European Union to join efforts in
seeking Tunisia’s cooperation in controlling smuggling operations. However, the passage does not
mention that the number of migrants coming to Italy has decreased as a result of this. Hence, it is not a
correct statement.
30 (b)
Option (a) is not correct. People migrate to other countries and regions for multiple reasons. However,
the passage does not mention any reason as to why people migrate. Hence, it is not a correct option.
Option (b) is correct. According to the passage, 41 people recently died in a boat accident. Despite these
accidents, the migrants continue to emigrate to Italy. The passage says that “there have been numerous
shipwrecks of smugglers' boats leaving from Tunisia bound for Italy”. The passage further says that
“more than 93,000 migrants have arrived in Italy so far this year, more than twice the 45,000 who
arrived during the same period in 2022”. This implies that even after the danger of accidents, people
continue to migrate. Hence, it is a correct option.
Option (c) is not correct. Even though the reasons for migration can be divided into two factors of push
and pull, the passage does not mention or indicate such a classification. The answer statement should be
within the scope of the information given in the passage. Therefore, it does not reflect the crux of the
passage. Hence, it is not a correct option.
Option (d) is not correct. The process of migration might have led to changes in the demography of host
countries, but the passage does not mention these. Hence, it is not a correct option.
31 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is incomplete in the sense that it only talks about the positive
impact of cell phones and ignores the other side of the story. But the passage also includes the negative
side of cell phones. Hence, this option is not correct.
Option (b) is correct. Consider the lines “While this change has done wonders for so many reasons,
research shows that excessive cell phone usage may have negative impacts on mental health.” It captures
the essence of the passage which is that cell phones are a good servant but a bad master. Hence, this is the
Option (c) is incorrect. Giving up on cell phones as a solution to the problem of excessive use of phones
is not discussed in the passage. Thus, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is incorrect.

Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the context of analysing the users’
psychology behind the use of phones and working on the same to regulate the use of phones is not
discussed in the passage.
32 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the passage is specific to democracies
and does not talk about other political models. Hence this option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (b) is correct. Refer to the lines “… current climate of widespread mistrust in the
institutionalized and representative mediation of politics” and “… has led to greater familiarity with a
protest-based repertoire of opinions and/or actions, and an enhanced tendency towards extremism and
radicalization, particularly among younger generations.” These lines show that protest-based culture
arises due to the mistrust in the mediation of politics and eventually promotes extremism and
radicalisation in youth. Hence, to end extremism and radicalisation, it is important to build trust.
Option (c) is incorrect. The lines “In contemporary democracies, protest feeds on the difficulties
currently facing political representation and is expressed within the framework of direct rather than
representative democracy.” This shows that protest is expressed in the framework of direct democracy,
but this does not mean that it’s better than representative democracy, as the passage does not compare
them.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage does not mention extremist and radicalized youth contributing to
politics as a desired trait. Hence, this option is not correct.
33 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The polar bears being the worst sufferers of climate change is not mentioned in
the passage. The example of polar bears is chosen to highlight the impact of sea ice loss, but it has not
been compared to any other species to conclude that it is the worst sufferer. Hence, this is not the best
Option (b) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because it states that minimizing conflicts with
humans will conserve polar bears’ habitat, food, and reproduction. However, these issues of polar bears
are not majorly due to conflicts, but rather due to the loss of sea ice. Hence, this is not the best crux of the
passage.
Option (c) is correct. The lines “The plight of polar bears, for example, has become a symbol of global
warming in the Arctic due to the cascading impacts of sea ice loss. Polar bears that do survive are less
likely to produce healthy offspring, reducing the population over generations.” validate the given
statement. Hence, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option seems to be correct, but it is not. It could be a rational
implication and not the crux of the passage. It highlights what should be done to protect polar bears, while
the passage is more descriptive in nature.
34 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the passage does not talk about
Information Technology education in schools.
Option (b) is incorrect. The line “Increasing connectivity alone will not help in the goal of granting
universal access to higher quality and inclusive education”, highlights the potential of connectivity to
bridge the gaps in accessing education. However, the given option says that increasing connectivity has
caused a wide gap in digital education, which is incorrect. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the
passage.
Option (c) is correct. The lines “Granting universal access implies making sure that the benefits of
education and technology are accessible to everyone; this means, also to girls and to children and youth
belonging to minorities, indigenous and marginalized groups, refugees, and displaced learners, as well as
children with disabilities.” These lines capture the essence of the passage. Hence, this is the best crux of
the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is framed like an assumption and not like a crux. The passage
does not mention anything about right to education. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.
35 (b)
Figures (1, 8, 9) → Bisected by a straight line
Figures (2, 3, 5) → Intersected by a straight line
Figures (4, 6, 7) → Extended arm
36 (d)
From one figure to the next, only one component moves and the rest stay at the same position.
Components move in the following order:
First × moves, then the circle, and after that the triangle.
In the fifth figure × moves one step forward. So, in the sixth figure, circle will move one step forward.
So, the next figure formed will be:
37 (c)
Frequency: In statistics the frequency (or absolute frequency) of an event is the number of times the event
occurred in an experiment or study.
In the given question the number of students who have obtained a certain number of marks will be called
as the frequency of that marks.
The count of number of students who have scored 40 marks in the above data is 4. Therefore, the
frequency of 40 marks is 4.
38 (a)
Let weight limit of free luggage allowance be x kg.
A and B have a combined 90 kg of luggage with them, and are charged Rs. 1600 and Rs. 3200
respectively for excess luggage. So, if A has y kg extra luggage, then B must have 2y kg extra luggage.
So, A's luggage weight = (x + y) kg
B's luggage weight = (x + 2y) kg
Extra luggage = y + 2y = 3y kg
Rs. 4800 is the charge for 3y kg extra luggage.
So, Rs. 6000 will be the charge for (3y/4800) × 6000 i.e. (15y/4) kg extra luggage.
So, (x + y) + (x + 2y) = x + 15y/4
Or x + 3y = 15y/4
Or x = 3y/4
(x + y) + (x + 2y) = 90
Or 2x + 3y = 90
Or 2(3y/4) + 3y = 90 (since, x = 3y/4)
Or 9y = 90 × 2
Or y = 20 kg
So, x = 3y/4 = 3 × 20/4 = 15 kg
So, B's luggage weight = x + 2y = 15 + (2×20) = 55 kg
39 (d)
In a correct clock, the hands of a clock coincide every 65(5/11) minutes.
But in this case, they are together again after every 70 minutes. Hence, the clock is slow and losing time.
Time lost in 70 minutes = 70 - 65(5/11) = 4(6/11) = (50/11) minutes
Time lost in one day (24×60 min.) = 24 × 60 × [(50/11)/70] minutes
Time lost in one week = 7 × 24 × 60 × [(50/11)/70] minutes = (7200/11) minutes = (7200/11)/60 hours =
10(10/11) hours
Thus, the clock loses 10(10/11) hours in a week.
40 (b)
At 9 o’clock, the hour is at 9 and the minutes hand is at 12, i.e., the two hands are 15 min. spaces apart.
The minute hand would have to cover extra 15 spaces in order to be opposite to the hour hand.
55 minutes are gained in 60 min.
15 minutes will be gained in ((60/55)×15) = 180/11 minutes = 16(4/11) minutes
The two hands will be in the same straight line but not together at 16(4/11) minutes past 9.
41 (d)
Angle traced by hour hand in 1 hour = 360°/12 = 30°
Angle traced by hour hand in7 hours 45 minutes i.e. (31/4) hours = 30° × (31/4) = 232.5°
Angle traced by minute hand in 1 minute = 360°/60 = 6°
Angle traced by minute hand in 45 minutes = 6°×45 = 270°
Therefore, the required difference in angles = 270° - 232.5° = 37.5°
42 (c)
Statement 1:
In 12 hours, all 3 hands will coincide 11 times. They will coincide only once between 11 p.m. and 1 a.m.
But in all other instances, they will meet once per hour.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2:
The minute hand and second hand of a clock cross each other 1 time every minute after 6:15. Thus, they
will cross each other 26 times.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Thus, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
43 (d)
Statement 1:
Number of odd days from 1st May to 31st October = 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 = 16.
16 is not divisible by 7.
Statement 2:
Here, 2100 is a century year, and so not a leap year.
So, from 2023 to 2123, there are 24 years in which February has 29 days.
Thus, neither 1 nor 2 is correct.
44 (d)
When 10n is divided by 7, the pattern of remainders we get is 3, 2, 6, 4, 5, 1.
Now, we have a power of 100, and remainder [100/6] = 4
So, we will get the 4th remainder on the list of 3, 2, 6, 4, 5, 1, when we divide 100100 by 7, i.e. a remainder
of 4. That is, 4 odd days.
If today is Tuesday, then 100100th day from now will be 4 days after Tuesday, i.e. Saturday.
45 (b)
23rd June 1757 = (1756 years + Period from 1.1.1757 to 23.6.1757)
Odd days in 1600 years = 0
There are 24 leap years and 76 ordinary years in 100 years.
So, Odd days in 100 years = (24×2 + 76)/7 = 124/7 = 5
So, Odd days in 56 years = (14×2 + 42)/7 = 70/7 = 0
Now, Number of odd days from 1.1.1757 to 23.6.1757 = (3 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 1)/7 = 5
So, Total number of odd days = (0 + 5 + 0 + 5)/7 = 3
Thus, 23rd June 1757 must have been a Monday + 3 = Thursday.
46 (b)
No two employees get equal number of holidays and each employee gets at least 4 holidays. Therefore, 39
holidays can be distributed among 6 employees as 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9.
Tony gets more holidays than each of Kate and Robin but less than that of John.
John > Tony > (Kate/ Robin)
Emma gets exactly 7 holidays.
Also, John gets one and half times the number of holidays that Robin gets. Thus, the number of holidays
of John and Robin may be either (6 and 4) OR (9 and 6).
Case 1: If John = 6 and Robin = 4. We know that Emma gets exactly 7 holidays.
From above: Emma (7) > John (6) > Robin (4)
Now we also know that: John > Tony > (Kate/ Robin)
So, Tony and Kate should also get less holidays than John, i.e. less than 6 holidays. But Robin already
have 4 holidays and we can only heave one person (either Tony or Kate) having 5 holidays.
Hence, case 1 is not possible.
Case 2: If John = 9 and Robin = 6. Emma gets exactly 7 holidays.
From above: John (9) > Emma (7) > Robin (6)
Since, John > Tony > (Kate/ Robin), Tony gets more holidays than Robin, who gets 6 holidays, but lesser
holidays than John who gets 9 holidays. Hence, Tony will have 8 holidays.
From above: John (9) > Tony (8) > Emma (7) > Robin (6)
Now, Kate/Jack = 4 or 5.
Hence, the total number of holidays of Emma and Tony is 15, which is equal to the total number of
holidays of John and Robin.
47 (a)
Total number of holidays of Emma, Robin, Kate and Jack = 7 + 6 + 4 + 5 = 22 (since, sum of the number
of holidays of Kate and Jack would be 9 in both possible scenarios)
48 (a)
In 1980, Indian Republic day was celebrated on Saturday. Therefore, 26th January 1980 was Saturday.
Number of odd days from 26th January to 31st January = 5
Number of odd days in:
February (1980 is a leap year, therefore February has 29 days) = 1
March = 3
April = 2
May = 3
June= 2
July = 3
August = 3
September = 5
Number of odd days from 26th January to 5th September = {5 + 1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 5}/7 = 27/7 = 6
Subhash was born on 5th September 1980. Therefore, his birthday fell on (Saturday + 6 days) = Friday
Arvind is 5 days younger to Subhash. Therefore, his birthday fell on (Friday + 5 days) = Wednesday
Arunima is 2 days elder to Arvind. Therefore, her birthday fell on (Wednesday - 2 days) = Monday
Arvind and Arunima were born on Wednesday and Monday respectively.
49 (b)
Assumption 1 is incorrect. Conservation of wildlife has not been discussed in the passage.
Assumption 2 is correct. The problems associated with urbanization are mentioned throughout the
passage. This is because of the neglect of the principles of sustainable urbanization. Hence, this
assumption is correct as per the passage.
50 (a)
Option (a) is correct. Consider the lines “Impervious surfaces (e.g., constructed surfaces, roofs, roads,
parking lots, driveways, sidewalks) alter the natural hydrological conditions …” and “Moreover, other
direct environmental impacts include the degradation of water resources quality when surface runoff
transports …” These lines show that when the natural hydrological cycle gets disturbed, it affects the
quality of water resources. Hence, this is the best crux of the passage.

Option (b) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because deurbanization has not been discussed in
the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option seems to be correct, but this is more of an actionable
implication rather than the crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the use of the phrase “diverse
consequences” makes it a generic statement and therefore not specific to the information covered in the
passage. Hence, this is not the best crux of the passage.
51 (a)
Inference 1 is correct. The given statement is correct because of the line - “From an economic
standpoint, that poses a risk to long-term food security by creating the potential for a single point
failure”. It shows that due to the possibility of single-point failure, too much dependence on GM crops
could be risky for the future. Hence, this inference is correct as per the passage.
Inference 2 is incorrect. The context of high morals is not discussed in the passage. Hence, it is beyond
the scope of the passage.
52 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because of the context of the production of seeds
in bulk to prevent single-point failure in future. This context is not a part of the passage. The author does
mention ‘single point failure’. But, mass production as a solution to this issue is nowhere indicated in the
passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of ensuring nutrition for people with malnutrition is not a part of the
passage. Hence, this is not the correct statement.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of monopoly and need for policy is not a part of the passage.
Therefore, this statement is not correct.
Option (d) is correct. Refer to the lines: “Scientists can also engineer pest-resistant crops, helping local
farmers better withstand environmental challenges that might otherwise wipe out a whole season of
produce. However, GM seeds are produced primarily by only a few large companies that own the
intellectual property for genetic variations.” The various benefits of GM crops will depend on whether
the companies producing the seeds fail or not, and how they utilize these crops. Hence, this is the correct
statement.
53 (c)
Let x and y be the ten's and unit's digits respectively of the numeral denoting the woman's age.
Then, Woman's age = (10x + y) years
And, Husband's age = (10y + x) years
Therefore, (10x + y) - (10y + x) = (1/11) (10y + x + 10x + y)
Or (9x - 9y) = (1/11) (11y + 11x)
Or (9x - 9y) = (x + y)
Or 8x = 10y
Or x = (5/4)y
Clearly, y should be a single-digit multiple of 4, such that x is also a single-digit.
So, y = 4., and x = 5
Hence, woman's age = 10x + y = 10×5 + 4 = 54 years
And, Husband's age = (10y + x) = 45 years
Sum of the ages of woman and her husband = 54 + 45 = 99 years
54 (b)
When the paper is unfolded, it will look as follows:

55 (b)
Method I:
Let the number of people who visited the amusement park be x.
Now, the number of people (i.e. x) must be a natural number. Also, the number of visitors that visited the
pool section (i.e. 20.25% of x) must be a natural number too.
20.25% of x = (20.25/100)x = (81/400)x
(81/400)x must be an integer, so x must be a multiple of 400.
Hence, the minimum value that x may attain = 400.
Method II:
20.25% of x must be a natural number. Hence, 0.25% of x must be a natural number too.
Minimum possible value of x that allows it is x = 400. (then 0.25% of 400 = 1, i.e. the least possible
natural number)
56 (c)
Next figure will be:
57 (d)
It is given that, U has been substituted by 2, i.e. U = 2.
The difference between the numerical substitutes for U and Z is 8, i.e. either U – Z = 8 or Z – U = 8
If U – Z = 8, then Z = U – 8 = 2 – 8 = - 6 (which is not possible)
If Z – U = 8, then Z = U + 8 = 2 + 8 = 10
The difference between Z and A is 4, i.e. either A – Z = 4 or Z – A = 4
If A – Z = 4, then A = Z + 4 = 10 + 4 = 14 (which is not possible)
If Z – A = 4, then A = Z – 4 = 10 – 4 = 6
Hence, the integer that substituted A is 6.
58 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the passage does not mention about the
type of stories or how they are told. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of healing capacity is seen in the line “They are integral to all
psychoanalytic theories of therapeutic action, and their telling is therapeutic.” But, how healing is related
to individuals and society is not discussed in the passage. Let’s put this option on hold and consider the
next options.
Option (c) is correct. The given option is correct because of the line “Finally, they can demonstrate how
shared stories consolidate group identities, uphold, and perpetuate a group's power (positives) over
others, and perpetuate racial and ethnic stereotypes (negatives).” These lines validate that in the context
of social relations, stories can play a role of a double-edged sword. Hence, this is the best crux of the
passage.
59 (c)
Inference 1 is correct. The given inference is correct because of the line “Electric vehicles (not only
cars) are the key technology to decarbonise road transport, a sector that accounts for over 15% of global
energy-related emissions.” It means that electric cars are only a part of a bigger group of electric vehicles,
i.e. only a partial solution. Moreover, the issue of carbon emissions is a very wide one. It would require
efforts in various sectors, not just in transportation. Hence, the given inference is correct as per the
passage.

Inference 2 is correct. The given inference is based on the line “Sales in developing and emerging
economies have been slow due to the relatively high purchase price of an electric vehicle and a lack of
charging infrastructure availability.” These factors clearly validate that presently electric vehicles are
not yet a viable replacement for traditional fuel vehicles in many countries. Hence, this inference is
correct as per the passage.
60 (d)
The virus will turn from 1 to 2, 2 to 4, 4 to 8 and so on. So, the population of the given virus type, at any
given point of time, can be represented as 2n, where n is a whole number. It’s an exponential function
which is aptly represented by the curve D.
61 (d)
Let the time when she left her home be x minutes after 7 p.m.
The speed of the minute hand is 6° per minutes and the speed of the hour hand is 0.5° per minutes.
Initial distance between the hour and the minute hands at 7:00 p.m. is 210°.
So, (6 - 0.5)x = 210° - 100°
or 5.5x = 110°
or x = 110°/5.5 = 20 minutes
Thus, Alisha left home at 07:20 p.m.
Let the time when she came back to her home be y minutes after 7 p.m.
So, (6 - 0.5)y = 210° + 100°
or 5.5y = 310°
or y = 310°/5.5 = 56(4/11) minutes ≈ 56 minutes 22 seconds
Thus, Alisha returns home at 07:56:22 p.m.
Required time = 07:56:22 p.m. - 07:20 p.m. = 36 minutes
62 (d)
Statement 1:
At 7 o’clock, the hour hand is at 7.
Angle traced by hour hand in 7 hours = 30°×7 = 210°
The relative speed of the minute hand with respect to hour hand = 6° – (1/2)° = 5.5° per minute.
210/5.5 = 38 minutes 11 sec
Therefore, the time when the hands of the clock will be together = 7:38:11.
Statement 2:
At 7 o’clock, the hour hand is at 7.
The angle between the two hands will be 65° when the minute hand gains (210° – 65°) = 145° or when it
gains (210° + 65°) = 275° with respect to hour hand.
The relative speed of the minute hand with respect to the hour hand = 6° – (1/2)° = 5.5° per minute.
Thus, the time taken to gain 145° = 145/5.5 = 26 minutes 22 seconds
Thus, the angle between the two hands will be 65° at 7:26:22 o’clock.
Thus, neither 1 nor 2 is correct.
63 (c)
Let the four parts of the number be A, B, C and D.
According to the question, twice the first part, thrice the second part and four times the third part are
equal.
So, 2A = 3B = 4C
Let 2A = 3B = 4C = k
or A = k/2; B = k/3; C = k/4
or A : B : C = 6 : 4 : 3
or A : B : C = 30 : 20 : 15 …. (i)
It is also given that six times the second part, eight times the third part and five times the last part are
equal.
So, 6B = 8C = 5D
Let 6B = 8C = 5D = k
or B = k/6 ; C = k/8 ; D = k/5
or B : C : D = 20 : 15 : 24 …. (ii)
Thus, parts of B and C are same (i.e. 20 and 15) in equations (i) and (ii).
Hence, A : B : C : D = 30 : 20 : 15 : 24
or A = 30x, B = 20x, C = 15x, D = 24x
Now, let us go through the options one by one.
Option (a): The first part is 30x which is divisible by 6. Thus, it is correct.
Option (b): The sum of the third and fourth parts is 39x which is divisible by 13. Thus, it is correct too.
Option (c): The third part is 15x and is divisible by 4 only if the value of x is 4 or multiple of 4. Thus, it is
not always going to be true.
Option (d): The product of the last part and any other part {i.e. (24x × 30x), (24x × 20x), (24x × 15x)} is
divisible by 5. Thus, it is correct.
64 (d)
Let the age of the lady = x years
Age of the husband = x + 3 years
Age of the daughter = (x+3)/4 years
The daughter becomes 15 years old in 3 years. So, the daughter is 12 years old now.
Age of father = 4 times age of the daughter = 12 × 4 = 48 years
Age of the mother = 3 years less than the age of the father = 45 years
Sum of the ages of the husband and wife = 48 + 45 = 93 years
65 (c)
The same day comes after 400 years.
If 22nd October 2023 is Sunday, then 22nd October 1623 must have been a Sunday too.
66 (d)
Starting with 2027, count the number of odd days in successive years till the sum is divisible by 7.
Number of odd days from 2027 to 2037 = 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 14
14 is divisible by 7.
Thus, calendar of 2027 will be similar to that of 2038.
67 (d)
According to question,
# –$ + @ ÷ * = 21
We will try substituting the values of #, $, @ and * by hit and trial method.
By substituting: # = 18; $ = 1; @ = 16; * = 4 in above equation we get,
# –$ + @ ÷ * = 18 – 1 + 16 ÷ 4 = 17 + 4 = 21
Left hand side = Right hand side
Hence, @ = 16
68 (c)
Considering statements 1 and 2 together:
The couple was married before the 13th of February, 1955 on a Sunday.
In the month of February, there was only one Sunday before 13th February, i.e. 6th February 1955.
Hence, both Statement-1 and Statement-2 together are required to answer the Question.

69 (b)
Number of years from 8th September 2005 to 8th September 2094 = 89 years
Odd days in 89 years = (22×2 + 67)/7 = 111/7 = 6
Now, number of odd days from 9th September 2094 to 5th June 2095 = (1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 +
5)/7 = 4
So, Total number of odd days = (6 + 4)/7 = 3
Required day = Monday + 3 = Thursday
Thus, the day on 5th June 2095 will be Thursday.
R is a Bank employee, staying in Ranchi. Q owns a book shop in Dehradun. P's house is in Shimla, and he
is not an Engineer. The teacher, S, lives in Bhubaneswar.
Name Occupation City
S Teacher Bhubaneswar
R Bank employee Ranchi
P Engineer Shimla
Q Shop owner Dehradun
T
Let’s fill in the blanks. The Final arrangement:
Name Occupation City
S Teacher Bhubaneswar
R Bank employee Ranchi
P Doctor Shimla
Q Shop owner Dehradun
T Engineer Patna
70 (c)
Doctor stays in Shimla.
71 (d)
T stays in Patna.
72 (d)
Let present age of Tanya be x years
And present age of her grandfather be y years
(y – 16) = 8(x – 16)
Or 8x – y = 112 ...(i)
Also, (y + 8) = 3(x + 8)
Or 3x – y = -16 ...(ii)
On subtracting eqn. (ii) from eqn. (i), we get:
(8x – y) – (3x – y) = 112 + 16
⇒ 5x = 128
⇒ x = 128/5 = 25.6 years
Now, y = 3x + 16 = 3 × 25.6 + 16 = 92.8 years
8 years ago, ratio of the ages of Tanya and her grandfather = (25.6 – 8) : (92.8 – 8)
= 17.6 : 84.8
= 11 : 53
73 (a)
The original figure is as follows:
Only option (a) completes the figure as shown below:
74 (c)
The original figure is represented below:
On observing the options we can see that the original figure is indeed embedded in the figure given under
option (c). It has been represented below:
75 (b)
The circle moves diagonally upward and downward in each step.
The star moves one step forward in clockwise direction.
The triangle rotates 90 degree clockwise in each step.
So, the missing figure is:
76 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The context of cutting emissions being easy or difficult is not a part of the
passage. Also, the passage does not mention anything related to India. Hence, this is not the most rational
inference of the passage.
Option (b) is correct. The lines “Having a plan helps countries understand and orchestrate the many
different elements required to reduce emissions and adapt to protect lives and livelihoods, as soon as
possible. Every bit of warming matters. With urgent and ambitious action, the world will avoid surpassing
a threshold of 1.5 degrees Celsius, after which climate impacts would become even worse than they
already are” signify that the core aim of every country for emission reduction is limiting the temperature
rise below 1.5 degree Celsius. Hence, this is the most rational inference of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The context of every country coming to the same platform for NDC
implementation is not a part of the passage. Hence, this is not the most rational inference of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The context of poverty alleviation is discussed in the line - “Nationally
Determined Contributions (NDCs) factor in the understanding that countries must balance emissions
reductions with other critical demands like ending poverty.” This is not dependent on controlling
emissions. Hence, this is not the most rational inference of the passage.

77 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The given option is correct because of the line “A behaviour with implications for
society puts an even larger responsibility on the individual to act responsibly. … Any increase in fines
(external intervention) for those unlawful driving behaviours that have potential social consequences
would have surely received applause from people at large.” These lines clearly show that an individual's
welfare can be translated to society's welfare due to external intervention. Hence, this is what the passage
best implies.
Option (b) is incorrect. The given option seems to be correct, but it is very extreme because it cannot be
concluded that penalties can solve the issue of road accidents. The passage does not make any such claim.
Option (c) is incorrect. This statement is very generic, and is not based on the information provided in
the passage. The context of social acceptance is not a part of the passage. Hence, this is not what the
passage implies.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because it is quite vague due to part “any kind”.
Also, the passage does not delve into the issue of social harmony.
78 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the context of “safe and strong
government at the centre” has not been discussed in the passage. Also, the passage is not India specific.
Option (b) is incorrect. The given option seems to be correct, but it is not because it could be a rational
implication but not the crux. Also, the passage does not talk about “communication in governance” as
such, at least not explicitly.
Option (c) is correct. The given option best captures the essence of the passage as seen in the lines
“Likewise, Internal Security cannot be safeguarded if Governance is delivered by an inefficient and
corrupt administration” and “For the attainment of these objectives, … within the parameters of the
Constitution and the Rule of Law.” These lines reflect that internal security is dependent on governance
which is based on the Constitution and the Rule of Law. So, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage is not about the importance of the Constitution per se. The main
theme is the link between internal security and governance. Hence, this is not the best crux of the passage.
79 (a)
Assumption 1 is correct. The following line “Less immigration and high unemployment in destination
economies would hurt origin countries, especially poorer ones, that rely significantly on the remittances
that migrant workers send back home”, validates the assumption in the statement. Both destination and
origin countries would be affected. Hence, as per the passage, this assumption is correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage does not throw much light on labour source countries, especially
not on the corruption prevailing in those countries. Also, the passage talks about migrants in general, and
not just the labour class, which has more of a physical work connotation attached to it. Hence, this
assumption is incorrect.
80 (a)
Option (a) is correct. The given option is correct because of the lines “Less immigration and high
unemployment in destination economies would hurt origin countries, especially poorer ones, that rely
significantly on the remittances that migrant workers send back home” and “World Economic Outlook
looks at the economic impact of migration on recipient countries and finds that migration generally
improves economic growth and productivity in host countries.” These lines reflect that both countries
benefit from migration, and hence they share a symbiotic relationship. Hence, this is the best crux of the
passage.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of the transfer of culture is not covered in the passage. Therefore,
this option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because migration is beneficial for both countries
- destinations as well as origin. The lines “Less immigration and high unemployment in destination
economies would hurt origin countries, especially poorer ones, that rely significantly on the remittances
that migrant workers send back home” and “World Economic Outlook looks at the economic impact of
migration on recipient countries and finds that migration generally improves economic growth and
productivity in host countries”, show that migration is beneficial for both. Hence, this is not the best crux
of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because it mentions that origin countries should
promote migration so as to get remittances. This option statement could be more of an implication or a
fair suggestion, not the crux of the passage.
VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

1 (a)
Note: The question is about invalid assumptions.
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given assumption is not correct because the context of investments or
related costs is not discussed in the passage. How much the security of high-security homes would cost is
not mentioned in the passage. Hence, this assumption is beyond the scope of the passage and not correct.
Assumption 2 is correct: The given statement is correct. The lines “A new home is much more than just
a place of residence, it is increasingly where people are spending much more of their time working,
raising their families, schooling their children, consuming their entertainment and living their lives”
mean that the utility of home is much more than giving shelter to people. Hence, this assumption is
correct.
2 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option is not correct because it compares the present homes with
future homes. The passage does mention future homes; however, it does not compare the homes of these
two eras. Moreover, it completely skips over the security aspect. So, this is not the most rational inference
from the passage.
Option (b) is correct: The given inference is based on the following lines “Design now and well into the
future will need to take these considerations seriously, constantly looking for ways to use environment,
sightlines, light, material, and space to create homes that are inherently set up for security. Modern
home design and designers often speak about the need to “future proof,” which is to say the need to make
sure current design anticipates the needs of the future.” These lines show that designs of the homes
should be based on future demands and the focus must be on security. So, this option is the most rational
inference.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given option is not correct because the aspect of security has not been
compared with other aspects by the author. Also, the passage does not talk about increasing social
anarchy.
Option (d) is incorrect: This option is somewhat correct; however, it is not the best answer as it does not
include the key aspect of security, which is the main point of the passage. So, this option is not the most
rational inference.
3 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The given inference is incorrect because the concept of minimalism is of the
notions of „less is more,‟ while consumerism is about new objects and the feeling of emptiness without
such objects. So, these are contradictory to each other; and therefore, they cannot go hand in hand.
Moreover, the passage does not shed much light on the concept of consumerism. Hence, this inference is
incorrect.
Inference 2 is incorrect: The given statement might be true in general, but it is not a part of the
discussion of the passage. The passage does not specify how the present trend of consumerism will affect
our lives in future; and therefore, this inference is not correct.
4 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not state that minimalism is the best way of living, nor does it
compare it with any other way of living. Hence, this option is incorrect.

Option (b) is incorrect: The passage specifically mentions “Although the wave of minimalism or “less is
more” philosophy seems fascinating to people”. This reflects that people around the world might be
taking minimalism seriously as the quoted statement is about the world, which is further confirmed when
the author goes on to compare the situation with reference to India. Hence, the given statement is not
correct.
Option (c) is incorrect: This option is not correct because the passage mentions, “Humans are lured by
high fashion labels and new gadgets and have been under the impression of feeling empty without such
possessions”. Further, whether people enjoy minimalism over consumerism cannot be conclusively said
based on the passage. The passage does not actually compare the two concepts of living. Hence, this
option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is correct: The given option is the best answer because of the lines “Humans are lured by
high fashion labels and new gadgets and have been under the impression of feeling empty without such
possessions. However, for the past few years, consumers in India have turned their lifestyle to what it
was back in Mahatma Gandhi's era: traditional and sustainable.” These lines best capture the crux -
though consumerism has its temptations, some Indians are adopting minimalism as their way of living.
Hence, this is the correct answer.
5 (d)
4 5 3 = Ram, can, do
9 5 3 = Manoher, can, do
1 9 8 7 3 = Manoher, can, write, a, letter
Since „can‟ is in all three sentences so its code must be 3 and from 1 st and 2nd sentences code of do is 5
because 5 is common in both.
Code for „Manoher‟ is 9 because „9‟ is the other common number in 2 nd and 3rd sentences, apart from 3.
So code for 8 can be either „write‟ or „a‟ or „ letter‟.
6 (d)
Based on the given information, the following Venn diagrams can be drawn.
From the above Venn diagram, we can see that either conclusion I or Conclusion IV, and III follow.
7 (d)
The symbol is common in all the given dices. But we cannot see the 6 th symbol of the dice which
could be opposite to the symbol . Remaining four symbols are beside the symbol in different
positions of the dice. So, none of them can be on the opposite face of the symbol .
8 (b)
Given matrix:
C1 C2 C3
R1 28 42 48
R2 12 14 15
R3 4 ? 6
R4 84 98 120
In C1 :
84 ÷ 12 = 7; 7 × 4 = 28
Similarly, in C3 :
120 ÷ 15 = 8; 8 × 6 = 48
Applying the same pattern in C2 :
98 ÷ 14 = 7; 7 × ? = 42
So, ? = 6
9 (d)
The first permutation will have all the alphabets arranged in ascending order. In this order CCKLO comes
first.
10 (c)
The answer to the question is figure (C) after 180 o clockwise rotation.
11 (c)
Given: j _ m b _ a _ _ u _ b _ a d j _ m _ b _ d
By checking options and substituting accordingly, we get:
(a) j u m b b a m - j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d
(b) j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d - j j m b b a d
(c) j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d . Here, " j u m b b a d" is repeated.
(d) j u m b b a d - j u m b b a d - j u m m b a d
12 (c)
Ram is fifth from both ends. Clearly, there are 9 students in the row.
9 students may be re-arranged into 3 rows of 3 students each.
13 (b)
If all the faces were painted, number of cubes with no painted faces = (n-2)3 = 1, i.e. the innermost smaller
cube (here n = 3)
Let us say the top face of the cube is not painted. So, out of the 9 smaller cubes on the top surface, 8 will
be on the edge and will have at least one face painted. The 9 th innermost cube on the top face will have
none of its face painted.
So, Total number of smaller cubes with no faces painted = 1+1 = 2.
14 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option is not the best crux of the passage because the central theme of
the passage is how we only work for self-preservation as stated in option (d). However, this answer option
states just the opposite. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.

Option (b) is incorrect: The given option states that the highest objective of survival/self-preservation of
ours is achieved only by competition and conflict, which is not correct because the passage does not
mention it to be so. The passage says – “….they are so self-concerned that they will do anything to
survive, even if it means cooperating with the people around them. ” Hence, this option is not the best
Option (c) is incorrect: The context of our species not lasting for long without social cooperation is not
mentioned in the passage. Rather, the lines “Their natural state is a state of war, in which they distrust
one another and try to increase their power so that they can attain superiority over others”, show that
we do not need social cooperation. Men cooperate only when it‟s needed for survival. Hence, this option
is not the best crux of the passage and is not correct.
Option (d) is correct: The given option is correct because of the lines “Men have a right of nature to do
whatever they want to survive, so they compete against each other all the time, and this creates
conflict…because they are so self-concerned that they will do anything to survive, even if it means
cooperating with the people around them”. These lines show that when it comes to self-preservation, we
can do anything. Hence, this is the best crux of the passage.
15 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option inherently assumes that „only‟ India needs politics of love.
However, the passage does not mention the context of India at all. The passage is generic in context and
just reflects the importance of the politics of love in general. Hence, this option is not the most rational
inference as it is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (b) is correct: The given option summarizes the meaning of politics of love as seen in the lines
“Of course, the idea that politics might be loving is not new: it has precedents in our relationships, and in
the everyday acts of kindness we show to one another, as well as in feminist, civil rights, LGBTQIA+,
and animal liberation movements.”. These lines show that the politics of love includes empathy and
compassion towards diverse sections of society. Hence, this option is the most rational inference of the
passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage is descriptive in nature and does not dictate that politics of love
should be the chosen way of governance for nations. Also, all this has nowhere been discussed in the
context of “democratic nations”.
Option (d) is incorrect: The context of the politics of hate is not discussed in the passage. The passage
only sticks to the meaning of the politics of love and its importance. Hence, to infer that the politics of
love overpowers the politics of hate would not be correct, as it is not based on the information given in the
passage.
The position of the villages is like this.
16 (d)
B and C are 2 km apart.
17 (a)
Villages A, D and E are on a straight line north-south. Villages C, F and B are to the east or west of the
line as shown.
18 (b)
It is clear that the + sign means divide.
Hence, (10 + (6 + (3 + (2 + 1)))) = (10 + (6 + (3 + 2))) = (10 + (6 + 1.5)) = (10 + 4) = 2.5
Hence, correct option is (b).
19 (d)
20 (c)
The logic is:
(mno) (nopq) (opqrs) (pqrstu)
Hence, „pqrstu‟ is the correct answer.
21 (d)
In each row, there is one figure with two legs, one with three legs and one with four legs. Hence, the third
figure in the bottom row should have 2 legs. This leaves us with figures 2, 4 and 5.
The other thing you can notice in the first two rows is that of the three figures only one figure has flat
bottom extensions to some or all of their legs. In the third row, the second figure already has flat bottom
extensions to the legs. Thus, the figure, which would replace the question mark would not have flat
bottom extensions. Thus, we need figure 4 or 5 to replace the question mark.
Similarly, the top line has to be straight, as other two figures in third row already have convex and
concave upper lines. Thus, we need figure 5 to replace the question mark.
Thus, option (d) is correct.
22 (d)
Originally direction is:
After accident position of pointer is:
Thus, the man is actually moving in the East direction.

23 (b)
Checking each statement we get,
Z+Q+P–O
Z is brother of Q, who is brother of P, who is sister of O.
Here, gender of O is not known. So, it is not correct.
Z+Q×O–P
Z is brother of Q, who is father of O, who is sister of P.
Hence, O is niece of Z.
P–O×Q+Z

P is sister of O, who is father of Q, who is brother of Z.
Here, O is male. So, it is not correct.
Z×Q+O–P
Z is father of Q, who is brother of O, who is sister of P.
Here, O is the daughter of Z. So, it is not correct.
24 (d)
S, which is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of T.
S T
P and S are placed beside each other. So, two cases are possible.
Case 1:
S P T
Case 2:
P S T
R and Q have as many books between them as V and R have between them.
Case 1 does not satisfy the above condition. So, it can be negated. As far as Case 2 is concerned, two
more possibilities arise.
Case 2 (a):
Q P S R T V
Case 2 (b):
V P S R T Q
So, possible final arrangements are:

Case 2 (a):
Q P S R U T V
Case 2 (b):
V P S R U T Q
Thus, P is to the immediate left of S.

25 (b)
P had borrowed 10% of the cost of 2 tickets, i.e. he borrowed 20% of the cost of 1 ticket.
So, money left with Q = 20% of the cost of one ticket. Statement (b) is correct.
26 (a)
Let the amount with Ananya and Rudra be Rs. A and Rs. R respectively.
Given, A + R = 200
So, if Ananya has more than Rs. 100, then she would have more money than Rudra. If she does not have
more than Rs. 100, then she would not have more money than Rudra.
Using statement 1:
If Ananya gives Rs. 10 to Rudra, then Ananya and Rudra would have Rs. (A – 10) and Rs. (R + 10)
respectively.
There are two possibilities.
Case 1: A – 10 > R + 10
The difference of the amounts with them is Rs. 20.
So, A – 10 – (R + 10) = 20
Or A – R = 40

Case 2: A – 10 < R + 10
R + 10 – (A – 10) = 20
Or R – A = 0
Or A = R
So, we get:
A – R = 40 or A = R
In the first case, Ananya has more money than Rudra. In the second case, she does not have more money
than Rudra.
Thus, Statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
Using statement 2:
If Rudra gives Rs. 5 to Ananya, then Ananya and Rudra would have Rs. (A + 5) and Rs. (R - 5)
respectively.
There are two possibilities.
Case 1: (R – 5) > (A + 5)
(R – 5) – (A + 5) = 10
Or R – A = 20
Case 2: (R – 5) < (A + 5)
(A + 5) – (R – 5) = 10
Or R = A
In both cases, Ananya does not have more money than Rudra.
Thus, Statement 2 alone is sufficient.
27 (c)
28 (c)
The following page numbers (5, 15, 25, 35, 45 and 50) were printed erroneously as (__, 1, 2, 3, 4, 0).
Had there been no error in printing:
Sum of page numbers = (50 × 51)/2 = 1275.
Now, 5 + 15 + 25 + 35 + 45 + 50 = 175.
And 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 0 = 10
So, sum of page numbers printed = 1275 – 175 + 10 = 1110.
29 (b)
Many factors like control of effluents and dumping of construction material, removing the encroachments
from the flood plains, proper monitoring of water quality etc. are needed to improve the quality of the
water of a river. The impact of climate change has not been discussed in the passage. Keeping these things
in the mind, the most appropriate among the given answer options is option (b).
30 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The central theme of the passage is the psychological effects of colours on our
emotions as seen in lines “Different tints of blue evoke a wide spectrum of emotions, from serene to
distant. For example, dark shades of blue can make viewers feel lonely and detached. Light shades of
blue have a calming effect and signal dependability. The colour green has associations with the natural
world, generating tranquil and rejuvenating moods.” However, the option links colour combinations
with productivity. Even though the emotions of calmness and happiness can be linked to productivity, it is
beyond the scope of the information given in the passage. Hence, this option is not the best crux.
Option (b) is incorrect: The claim that blue, green, yellow, and red are the most important colours
affecting our emotions is not correct because in the passage there is no comparison made among any set of
colours. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.

Option (c) is incorrect: The given option is partially correct i.e., the role of colours beyond the visible
appeal. But the aspect of the visible appeal of any object due to the presence of colours (i.e. decoration) is
not discussed in the passage. The passage discusses the psychological effects of colours, which is not
mentioned in this option. Hence, this option is not the best crux as per the passage.
Option (d) is correct: The passage contains information concerning different colours and their related
impacts on life. The lines, “Different tints of blue evoke a wide spectrum of emotions, from serene to
distant. … The colour green has associations with the natural world, generating tranquil and
rejuvenating moods. …The intensity and brightness of yellow catch the eye, producing both positive and
negative effects. The primary colour red evokes some of the most intense moods and emotions.” These
lines show the different impacts of these colours on our lives.
31 (a)
Assumption 1 is correct: The given assumption is based on the following lines “Malnutrition from
overconsumption of calories affects more people than undernutrition, whilst agriculture has come to
threaten the ecosystems on which it depends”. These lines show that now overconsumption is happening.
This means that there has been a great improvement in the availability of food.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The given statement is based on the following lines “Government
interventions to increase agricultural and dietary diversity and include social and environmental costs in
market prices can help enable such a transformation but do not address the configuration of the food
system itself, which is shaped not only by existing policies and institutions but also by incumbent
interests, social norms, and cultural values”. These lines just show that the government is not addressing
the issues related with food system. However, it would be incorrect to assume that government does not
have any role in it. The line “…food system itself, which is shaped not only by existing policies and
institutions but also by…” implicitly accepts that food system is shaped by policies and institutions too,
not only by culture. Hence, this is not a correct assumption as per the passage.
32 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The given option is the broadest in scope. The following lines “Rather, meeting
global goals, whether the SDGs or those of the Paris Agreement, will require a shift in emphasis away
from agricultural efficiency to system efficiency. Government interventions to increase agricultural and
dietary diversity and include social and environmental costs in market prices can help enable such a
transformation but do not address the configuration of the food system itself, which is shaped not only
by existing policies and institutions but also by incumbent interests, social norms, and cultural values”,
show that governments intervene using policies and institutions to address the impact of agriculture on the
environment, as steps towards fulfilling global environmental goals. However, governments alone cannot
do much. Along with the government, society and culture are crucial stakeholders to achieve global
environmental goals.
Option (b) is incorrect: This option only talks about one dimension of the broader issue of ecological
degradation. This option is inspired by the line, “Malnutrition from overconsumption of calories affects
more people than undernutrition, whilst agriculture has come to threaten the ecosystems on which it
depends.” However, the passage talks about other aspects as well, like government interventions, society,
and culture for bringing systemic changes in the food production and consumption process for a better
environment. So, this option does not cover the context of the whole passage and is not the most critical
Option (c) is incorrect: The given option is based on the following lines “The global food system evolved
out of a need to drive consumption on a global basis, at a time when lack of access to food was a real
issue and environmental degradation was not. The situation now has changed.” However, it cannot be
concluded that moving to the old pattern of consumption can solve the current issues because there were
issues with the old pattern as well, which was the of lack of sufficient food production. Moreover, the
author has not advocated such a drastic measure either. Hence, this option is not correct as per the
passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given statement is not correct because it mentions the context of organic
agriculture promotion by the government which is not a part of the passage.
33 (d)
It is a repetition of the string: anebb. The missing alphabets to fill in the blanks are: bnabe.

34 (c)
The number is the square of the difference of the other two numbers in the circle, i.e. (32-17)2 = 225
35 (b)
This question is based on odd numbers, as only with an odd value of x would you keep getting integers if
you halved the value of rice and took out another half a kg from the shop store.
From the options, let us start from the second option.
If x = 7, then (7/2) – (1/2) = 3 kg
(3/2) – (1/2) = 1 kg
(1/2) – (1/2) = 0 kg
Hence, we can conclude that option (b) is correct.
36 (d)
Given statement does not mean that Rahul is a hard worker. Neither does it mean that everyone who
works hard succeeds.
Neither of the two conclusions is definitely true.
37 (c)
50 in section A + 50 in Section B + 41 in Section C + 43 in section D = 184 marks, but no calls as each of
the 6 colleges would reject the student.
38 (b)
To get a call from all the colleges, Bhama should clear all sectional cut-offs & also aggregate cut-offs.
Thus, 45 + 45 + 46 + 45 = 181 satisfies this condition.
39 (d)
A, B, C are siblings and brothers of each other. D is their sister but we cannot say anything about E‟s
gender (whether E is male or female) and hence whether E is brother or sister is unknown.
40 (c)
The pairs of successive numbers having a difference of 2 have been shown below:
41 (d)
The numbers that satisfy the given conditions have been shown below:
Thus, there are four such 8‟s.

Hence, the answer is option (d).
42 (c)
The first Monday is on 3rd.
Last Monday will be on 21 + 3 = 24th.
Remember: September has only 30 days.
Hence, the answer is option (c).
43 (b)
The path taken by her is depicted below:
Total Distance = 12 km.

Total time = 3 hours
Average speed = 12/3 = 4 km/hour
Hence, the answer is option (b).
44 (c)
For Rahul the middle index will be 49 because whatever runs he scores against Pakistan, they could be
maximum 27 or minimum zero. This will not affect the M-index (i.e. middle number) 49.
For Saurav the middle index will be 50 because whatever runs he scores against Pakistan, they could be
maximum 27 or minimum zero. This will not affect the M-index (i.e. middle number) 50.
For Yuvraj, middle index cannot be determined as we don‟t know the exact runs scored by him against
South Africa. Same is the case with Kaif.
In case of Virendra, we only have one data point, i.e. his runs against Pakistan. So, we cannot calculate his
M-index.
So, we can calculate the exact M-Index only for 2 players.
Hence, the answer is option (c).
45 (d)
R-Index → Difference between highest and lowest score.
For Yuvraj the minimum R-index can be 87 – 40 = 47
For Virendra the minimum R-index can be 130 – 48 = 82
For Kaif the minimum R-index can be 51 – 28 = 23
For Sourav the minimum R-index can be 75 – 27 = 48
For Rahul the minimum R-index can be 55 – 27 = 28
So, it's Kaif who can have the minimum R-index.
Hence, the answer is option (d).
46 (a)
In the worst possible scenario, we can assume that Yuvraj scored zero against South Africa. So, we have
to find how many players definitely scored less than 127.
Kaif can score a maximum of 49 runs against Australia. So, maximum possible runs scored by Kaif = 28
+ 51 + 49 = 128
Rahul can score a maximum of 27 runs against Pakistan. So, maximum possible runs scored by Rahul =
27 + 49 + 55 = 131
Saurav can score a maximum of 27 runs against Pakistan. So, maximum possible runs scored by Saurav =
27 + 75 + 50 = 152
Virender can score a maximum of 48 runs against South Africa, and a maximum of 49 runs against
Australia. So, maximum possible runs scored by Virender = 130 + 48 + 49 = 227
So, the number of players who definitely scored less than Yuvraj is 0.
Hence, the answer is option (a).
47 (b)
Maximum possible M-index of Kaif = 49
Minimum possible M-index of Kaif = 28
Maximum possible M-index of Rahul = 49
Minimum possible M-index of Rahul = 49
Maximum possible M-index of Saurav = 50
Minimum possible M-index of Saurav = 50
Maximum possible M-index of Virender = 49
Minimum possible M-index of Virender = 0
Maximum possible M-index of Yuvraj = 48
Minimum possible M-index of Yuvraj = 40
So, Saurav‟s middle index is the best.
48 (b)
It can be inferred from the figure below that H is the farthest south and C is the farthest east.
49 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option is not correct as the passage is centred around market economy
as the cause of economic inequality, not on weak social conscience.
Option (b) is incorrect: This given option may be one of the many rational suggestions. It explains what
should be done to improve the situation of high inequality. However, it is not the crux, i.e., the summary
of the passage. Also, nowhere has the author indicated that social conscience should be given importance
over the economy.
Option (c) is correct: The given option is correct because it is mentioned in the core discussion in the
passage. The lines “…“whether caring society can exist in a market economy” … because without the
periodic intervention of the social conscience, the economy will inevitably serve only the interests of a
small part of society if this has not been the case Gini coefficient would not have shown the highest level
of economic inequality”, show that a caring society is not possible in a market economy due to the lack of
social conscience in the market economy. Hence, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is rather extreme and has not been suggested anywhere in the
passage.
50 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The context of conflict affecting peace of mind is seen in lines “Conflicts feel
unpleasant, and we want to avoid them to maintain peace at home or a workplace.” But that it also
affects the relationship with loved ones is not covered in the passage. So, the statement is partially correct.
Moreover, the main theme of the passage is not just conflicts, but the question of whether to face them or
not. Hence, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is correct: The given option best captures the essence of the passage as seen in lines “…
Avoiding conflict gives good short-term results such as maintaining peace, and avoiding anger or
sadness, and may keep a boss happy … Confronting and sharing our feelings makes us feel exposed and
vulnerable, so we try to avoid it. Pretending as though differences don’t exist, doesn’t help – facing
them, does. It’s okay not to agree with others, and it’s okay to say that you disagree!” These lines show
that facing conflicts might be difficult, but it is better for long-term. Avoiding conflicts could help in the
short term but not in the long term. Hence, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given statement is an extreme one which states that no issue could be solved
without facing conflicts. However, such an extreme proposition is not a part of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does cover the benefits of avoiding conflicts in the lines “CAP is a
Conflict Avoiding Person! Avoiding conflict gives good short-term results such as maintaining peace,
and avoiding anger or sadness, and may keep a boss happy,” but it does not compare it with facing
conflicts to conclude which is better. So, to say that avoiding conflicts outweighs the harms of facing
them would not be correct.
51 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The given statement seems to be based on the following lines “In our highly
competitive society, where success has become synonymous with happiness, the fear of success may
sound like a paradox. With success comes change” However, this inference is not correct because the
passage does not mention that for adapting to change fear is a necessary element. It simply states that the
understanding that success involves changes that moves one from one‟s comfort zone may lead to the fear
of attaining success, and lists down some of the probable reasons behind it. However, it‟s not a certainty.
The necessity of fear in the adaptation to change is not specifically mentioned in the passage. Hence, this
is not the correct inference.
Inference 2 is incorrect: The context of fear of failure is not discussed in the passage. The passage only
mentions fear of success and some general information on fear as seen in lines “For instance, some people
may enjoy riding extreme roller coasters, while others may have a negative reaction and will avoid these
at all costs. In our highly competitive society, where success has become synonymous with happiness, the
fear of success may sound like a paradox. With success comes change.” Therefore, to infer that people
fail in life because they are not able to overcome the fear of failure would not be correct as this is beyond
the scope of the passage.
52 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given statement is not the crux of the passage. The phrase „success due to
fear‟ is itself not correct in the context of the passage because the passage discusses „fear of success‟ and
not „success due to fear‟. It is the fear of success that is a paradox as per the lines “… where success has
become synonymous with happiness, the fear of success may sound like a paradox”. So, this option is
not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is correct: The given option best captures the essence of the passage in the context of fear.
The passage discusses the phenomenon of fear in detail and explains that there exists among people a fear
of success, as success comes with change or responsibility. Have a look at these lines - “In our highly
competitive society, where success has become synonymous with happiness, the fear of success may
sound like a paradox. With success comes change …. When things go wrong, it can be easier to deflect
the responsibility and potential consequences that may come with it.” Hence, this is the best crux of the
passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: This option could be a rational suggestion but not the crux. The line “We hesitate
to enter uncharted waters even if this is our best course of action. Numerous people resisted letting go of
unhealthy habits or toxic partners because they were afraid to change their lives”, shows that fear may
hamper happiness and contentment. Therefore, it would be correct to infer that overcoming fear,
especially the fear of losing the current state of comfort for future good is important for well-being.
However, the statement does not cover the entire scope of the passage, which also includes the rationale
for the fear of success. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is an extreme statement and does not represent the best crux.
The lines “In our highly competitive society … With success comes change. … Many also fear success
because it can come with great responsibility”, only show that people are fearful of success as it might
bring change and responsibility which may be difficult to fulfil. However, it does not mean that without
overcoming one‟s fears one cannot even function properly in society.
53 (b)
Let‟s list the languages spoken by each of the five tourists.
Tourist Languages Spoken
A Hindi, English, Malayalam
B Hindi, English, Gujarati, Punjabi
C English, Gujarati
D Malayalam, Hindi
E Hindi, Punjabi
Hence, B speaks a maximum of 4 languages.
54 (b)
Based on the given information, the following Venn Diagram can be drawn:
It is clear from the figure that the conclusion „All laptops are hills‟ does not hold. Similarly, “Some cakes
are hills” is also not necessarily true.
If we take a look at II & IV, we can conclude that one of them necessarily has to be true.
55 (b)
Ajay‟s result came after 29th June but before 2nd July. Therefore, his result must have come on 30 th June or
1st July.
While his brother‟s result came after 30 th June but before 3rd July. That means his result must have come
on 1st or 2nd July.
Since, their results came on the same day, Ajay‟s result must have come on 1st July.
56 (c)
Here, Culiseta, Psorophona and Mansonia are all mosquitoes, while Midge is a fly.
Hence, option (c) is different from all others.
57 (b)
Given Series: K33E, M33G, N33J, Q33K
K33E → Position number of K + Opposite position number of E = 11 + (27 - 5) = 11 + 22 = 33

M33G → Position number of M + Opposite position number of G = 13 + (27 - 7) = 13 + 20 = 33
N33J → Position number of N + Opposite position number of J = 14 + (27 - 10) = 14 + 17 = 31 ≠ 33
Q33K → Position number of Q + Opposite position number of K = 17 + (27 - 11) = 17 + 16 = 33
Hence, N33J is the wrong term.
58 (b)
Sum of numbers 1,2,3...40 = (40 × 41)/2 = 820.
The page number of the torn page = 820 – 809 = 11, i.e. XI.
It is a prime number.
59 (d)
After walking half the distance, Amar will reach the mid-point of the diagonal. Then he turns right and
faces northwest. After that he would face the southwest direction when he turns left.
(Note that the directions in the figure are different from the usual north, south, east, west directions.)
60 (c)
Their final positions would be:

From the given information we can complete the following table:
Using statements 2, 3, 6 and 7 we get:
Name Specialization Location
Anand
Binod
Chandan Sociology Delhi
Deepak Shillong
Emili
Farhan Computer Srinagar
Garima Statistics Chennai
Using Statements 4 and 5 we get:
Anand Eng. Lit Hyderabad
Binod History, Medicine
Deepak Shillong
Emili
Now, as per statement 1, Lecturer from Kanpur specializes in Geology. Hence, A cannot be either from
Hyderabad or Kanpur. Hence, he must be from Mumbai. So, the person from Hyderabad must be the one
who specializes in either History or Medicine. So, neither Binod nor Deepak can be from Hyderabad.
Emili must be the one from Hyderabad. The final picture that emerges has been depicted below:
Anand Eng. Lit Mumbai
Binod Geology Kanpur
Deepak History/Medicine Shillong
Emili History/Medicine Hyderabad
We have used all the information available and it cannot be decided whether Emili and Deepak are
lecturers in Medicine or in History.
61 (c)
62 (b)
63 (c)
64 (a)
From all the statements, we get:
Animesh – Teacher, Actor and Businessman
Vikash - Teacher, Actor and Farmer
Vishal – Teacher, Businessman and Farmer
Yajunvendra – Businessman, Actor and Farmer
Thus, Animesh is actor, teacher as well as businessman.
65 (a)
Total number of girls in the row = 9 + 18 - 1 = 26
Maya‟s position from the right = (26 – 9) + 1 = 18th
66 (a)
Seven pieces consist of 6 smaller equal pieces and one half of a cake.
Weight of each small piece = 20 gm
So, total weight of cake = 2 (20×6) = 240 gm.
67 (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no explicit mention in the passage that China is the biggest investor in
Pakistan. The passage says that “…investment into one of the initiative’s most important pieces, the
China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), looks to have stalled”. There is mention of CPEC and BRI,
however the quantum or the size of Chinese investment is not mentioned anywhere. Hence, statement 1
is not correct.
Statement 2 is correct: It is mentioned in the passage that “It is safe to assert that the hype surrounding
CPEC was more a product of propaganda than a reflection of reality”. It can be assumed that
propaganda was responsible for the hype regarding the CPEC, and it overshadowed reality. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
68 (c)
Statement 1 is incorrect: Refer to these lines from the passage, “Manufacturing Chromebook laptops
in India will allow Indian students to get easy access to affordable PCs”. It talks of easy accessibility to
cheaper laptops for students. The passage does not mention students getting easy online academic content.
Statement 2 is correct: It is mentioned in the passage, “By further expanding our manufacturing
operations, we continue to support the Make in India initiative of the government”. These lines imply
that laptop manufacturing firms when expanding their operations will also support Make in India, which is
a scheme to encourage local manufacturing in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is not correct: There is no mention of Google competing with Microsoft in the passage.
The passage says, “The move will help Google compete more effectively with Windows computers from
companies such as Dell, Lenovo, and Asus”. So, Google will compete with laptop manufacturers who
use software of Microsoft. Also, this is not something that is significant for India. Linux has not been
mentioned in the passage. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Statement 4 is correct: From these lines of the passage, “While India has a big domestic demand for
laptops and computers, almost all of it is currently being fulfilled by imports from China, something New
Delhi wants to change as soon as possible”, it can be implied that through this policy the Government
wants to fulfil domestic demand via domestic manufacturing. As mentioned previously, through Make in
India, local manufacturing would increase, which would in turn decrease dependency on imports. Hence,
statement 4 is correct.
69 (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: The passage says, “The development is in line with India’s ambition to
establish itself as a “trusted partner” in global supply chains”. It implies that India wants the world to
look at it as a trusted player in global supply chain. There is no mention of India aspiring to becoming a
leader in global supply chain. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is mentioned in the passage, “The development is in line with India’s
ambition to establish itself as a “trusted partner” in global supply chains, especially at a time when
companies, especially from America, are looking to diversify from China – the traditional hub of such
manufacturing for decades”. It just tells us that companies are looking for manufacturing hubs outside
China. However, it is not specifically mentioned that the search for diverse sources are driven by the
country‟s economic policies or political environment. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
70 (c)
Main statement: Anuj either acts as Ravan or he acts as Ram.
This question is based on and either – or premise.
Thus, we can see that III, IV is correct. Since, if he acts like Ravan (statement III), he will not act like
Ram (Statement IV).
Similarly, we can see that I, II is correct. Since, if he acts like Ram (statement-I), he will not act like
Ravan (Statement II).
Thus, statements (III, IV) or (I, II) are correct.
71 (c)
The time by which Ananya‟s watch slows down in 7 days = 80 minutes
∴ The time by which it will be slow down in 1 day = 80/7 minutes
∴ The time by which it will be slow down in 48 hours, i.e. in 2 days = (80/7) × 2 minutes
= 160/7 minutes
= 22(6/7) minutes
72 (b)
Let‟s find the pattern being followed.
G's opposite letter  T
I's opposite letter  R
V's opposite letter  E
E's opposite letter  V
N's opposite letter  M
Reverse order of TREVM is MVERT.
Similarly, in case of MANGO:
M's opposite letter  N
A's opposite letter  Z
N's opposite letter  M
G's opposite letter  T
O's opposite letter  L
Reverse order of NZMTL is LTMZN.
Hence, required analogy is MANGO : LTMZN
73 (d)
As per question, Randhir gets more pocket money than the combined pocket money of Kunal and Debu.
So, pocket money of Kunal and Debu individually must also be less than Randhir.
Randhir > (Kunal + Debu)
Combined pocket money of Kunal and Shankar is more than that of Randhir. So, pocket money of
Shankar can be more than or less than that of Randhir.
Shankar > Randhir or Shankar < Randhir
Sonal gets more pocket money than Shankar, i.e. Sonal > Shankar
Neha gets more pocket money than Randhir, i.e Neha > Randhir
It‟s evident that we cannot tell for sure who (Neha or Sonal) amongst them attained the highest pocket
money.

74 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The central theme of the passage is “the reformation of the Nobel Prize awarding
process”. The passage describes the controversies and allegations related to this process and how it can be
rectified. This is reflected in the following lines, “Being accused of anti-American and anti-Russian
bias in its literary prize, of awarding the peace prize to individuals accused of genocide and massacres,
of ignoring the collaborative effort inherent to science by awarding exactly three individuals each year
– apart from an overall Eurocentric White male bias”. The passage further gives suggestions for
reforming the process of awarding the prize. The suggestions begin with the following line - “The first
and most crucial change the Nobel Foundation must execute is to make that nomination process
public”. The passage further describes steps needed to reform the Nobel Prize awarding process. Hence,
option (a) is correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage mentions, “The first and most crucial change the Nobel
Foundation must execute is to make that nomination process public”. Further, it mentions the need for
transparency in nominations for the Nobel Prize. So, the stress of the author is on the possible solutions.
While this option statement is more descriptive in nature and limited in scope. Hence, option (b) is not
correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage mentions the reforms needed for Nobel Prize nominations and
nominators, but it neither specifically mentions the issue of gender discrimination nor the reforms for
bringing in gender equality in the awarding process. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: This statement is rather general and even absurd, and does not fully convey the
most logical and rational message of the passage. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
75 (a)
Statement 1 is correct: Refer to the lines, “Sartre said that he didn’t want his readers to be influenced
by his association to a global institution: “If I sign myself Jean-Paul Sartre, it is not the same thing as if I
sign myself Jean-Paul Sartre, Nobel Prize winner.” From these lines, it can be inferred that association
with a global institution may change public perception of an individual. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is not correct: Although it is mentioned in the passage that, “The first African-American to
win a Nobel Prize was political scientist Ralph Bunche, in 1950, four decades after the inception of the
prize – only 16 more Black people have followed him since”, it cannot be assumed from the limited
information given in the passage that African-Americans have faced discrimination by the nomination
committee. Also, the passage does not shed any light on Africans in this regard. Hence, Statement 2 is
not correct.
76 (d)
Option (a) is not correct: The passage mentions that Sri Lanka sought the help of India and China amid
financial turmoil. However, there is no mention of improvement of bilateral relations as a result of this
help. The author wants to convey the reason for the economic crisis that Sri Lanka is facing. It can be
assumed that this is not the crucial message that the author wants to convey. Hence, option (a) is not
correct.
Option (b) is not correct: From the following lines of the passage - “Simply, this meant that some of the
debt owed to other countries had to be managed through negotiations (called debt restructuring), for
the IMF to extend its loan to Sri Lanka”, it can be implied that debt restructuring is a facility employed
by IMF in helping developing countries like Sri Lanka tide over balance of trade crisis. However, this
statement is only a peripheral information deduced from the passage, and cannot be considered as the
„crucial message‟ conveyed by the passage. Also, World Bank has not been mentioned in the passage.
Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage mentions the economic crisis in Sri Lanka, its reasons, and the
help Sri Lanka sought from India and China. The passage revolves only around the economic crisis of Sri
Lanka. The passage does not mention the crisis spreading to other countries of South Asia. Hence, option
(c) is not correct.
Option (d) is correct: The passage mentions the multiple reasons behind the economic crisis of Sri Lanka
and how it got help to come out of the crisis. The passage says, “The crisis was years in the making and
many factors were responsible, such as President Gotabaya Rajapaksa’s government pushing through
the largest tax cuts in Sri Lankan history, as part of the 2019 elections campaign, impacting the
government’s revenue sources. Another blow was dealt by the coronavirus pandemic, which hit the
tourism industry. The war in Ukraine further contributed to fuel shortages.” The passage further talks
about the efforts of Sri Lanka to come out of this crisis caused by multiple factors. Thus, this statement
can be considered to be the crucial message conveyed by the author. Hence, option (d) is correct.
77 (b)
Statement 1 is correct: It is mentioned in the passage, “President Gotabaya Rajapaksa’s government
pushing through the largest tax cuts in Sri Lankan history, as part of the 2019 elections campaign,
impacting the government’s revenue sources”. It implies that in Sri Lanka, election processes impacted
the revenue sources of government and contributed to the economic crisis of Sri Lanka. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
Statement 2 is not correct: Even though there is mention of Chinese help to Sri Lanka, there is no
particular mention of the EXIM bank of China. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following map to answer the given questions:
78 (a)
C H path is CEGH by road or CGH by road.
City G needs to be crossed in every route going from CH.
79 (b)
FA by rail path is FDEA.
Thus, two cities, D and E need to be crossed.
80 (d)
When GC is closed, HC path by road is HGEC.
So, D and B need not be crossed.


VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

the Test Booklet.
sheet.
be deducted.
1
Directions for the following 4 (four) items: 2. Which one of the following statements best
Read the following three passages and answer the items reflects the most critical inference that can be
made from the passage given above?
(a) In light of cyber-attacks, IoT manufacturing
should be based on the passages only. and security cannot be taken lightly.
Passage – 1 (b) India is not yet fully ready to adopt IoTs,
given the imminent security challenges.
Due to the unconventional manufacturing of IoT devices
(c) While the IoT is the future, it is unsafe.
and the vast amount of data they handle, there's a
(d) Implementation of IoT is not easy.
constant threat of cyber-attacks. Several high-profile Passage – 2
incidents where a common IoT device was used to Colonialism has never been only about the relentless
exploitation of resources for economic gain. Enmeshed
infiltrate and attack the larger network have drawn
in the project to rob and dominate through violence and
attention to the need for IoT security. The ever-looming force was the project to transform the knowledge and
possibility of vulnerabilities, data breaches and other governability of the territories called "colonies" and
risks associated with IoT device usage underscores the allegedly "civilize" their populations. When Big Tech
and their social divisions deploy datafication to do social
urgent need for strong IoT security. IoT security is vital
good, here, too, economic, and moral ideals feed each
for enterprises, as it includes a wide range of techniques, other but differently. For, helping vulnerable people
strategies, protocols, and actions that aim to mitigate the (something unobjectionable) becomes itself a site of
exploitation. Such harms are an intrinsic part of how
increasing IoT vulnerabilities of modern businesses. For
these companies operate, a natural consequence of
those deploying IoT systems, hardware security and
rationality at heart. A colonial rationality now applied
authentication are critical measures. within both Global North and Global South that
1. Based on the above passage, the following underlies their business model. As such, no ethical
guidelines can ensure that social good will truly be
realized through such projects of datafication.
1. Unsecured IoT devices could have 3. Which of the following is most definitively
economic implications. implied by the above passage?
2. One of the ways to secure IoT devices is to (a) India should be careful to protect its digital
sovereignty against the growing big tech
enhance their data-handling capacities.
companies.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? (b) In the context of the history of colonization,
(a) 1 only only the form has changed, not the nature.
(c) Big Tech uses big data for data colonization
(b) 2 only
of the global south.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Big Tech companies collect data of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 people to help them.
Passage – 3 5. Two inlet pipes can fill a tank in 200 and 240
The last 30 years of liberalisation have changed the face minutes respectively and a leak empties it at a
of the Indian economy. From unending shortages and rate of 3 litres per minute. Two pipes working
subpar quality in telephones, scooters, cars, ration and together can fill the leaky tank in 150 minutes.
pretty much everything, India has come a long way What is the capacity of the tank?
because of liberalisation. The time is now ripe for the (a) 1000 litre
(b) 600 litre
education sector to be liberalized as well. The success of
(c) 450 litre
democracy in India depends upon the education of its
(d) 1200 litre
citizens. Modern education is to an extent a process of
learning from real life and the pulsating, dynamic society
6. For children’s day, Anuj decided to distribute
around us. So, the learning should be at the choice and
some electronic items (24 laptops, 72 tablets and
pace of the learner. So, educational opportunities are to
60 smartphones) among ‘n’ schools to promote
be provided to individuals to fully develop their
digital education. He wants to distribute them in
personalities. Truly speaking despite all attempts in the such a way that each school gets the same
direction of equality of opportunity, the result is not number of electronic items. Also, the number of
satisfactory. Hence to accelerate in the progress of laptops, the number of tablets and the number of
providing it, incentive measures are to be properly smartphones that each school gets is also the
implemented and the administrative structure must be same. What is the smallest possible figure for the
properly streamlined with a strong will and total number of electronic items that each school
determination. would get?
4. Based on the above passage, the following (a) 14
assumptions have been made: (b) 12
1. The theoretical education that happens (c) 8

(d) None of these
inside the four walls of classrooms cannot be
called modern education.
7. A group of students appeared for the exam. Each
2. The present education system in India has
of them attempted 45 questions and each of them
failed to a certain extent to provide
obtained different marks. If none of the students
egalitarian education.
scored negative marks, how many students may
have appeared for the exam?
(a) 1 only
(a) 29
(b) 2 only
(b) 30
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 28
8. Upon observing the water shortage in the 10. There are n ways of going from Aligarh to Balia,
village, the Gram Pradhan, Babu Bhaiya, (n + 3) ways of going from Balia to Patna and
constructed a water tank capable of holding (n + 8) ways of going from Patna to Ranchi. If
enough water for the entire village for 50 days.
the number of ways of going from Aligarh to
It was filled till the brim. However, a sudden
Ranchi (via Balia and Patna) is 336, then find the
discovery was made that there was a leak at the
bottom of the tank, resulting in the drainage of number of ways of going from Aligarh to Patna
20,000 liters of water daily. Due to this leak, the (via Balia).
water supply lasted only 40 days for the entire (a) 28
village. If Ramvilas, a local iron-smith of the (b) 38
village, would have partially plugged the leak (c) 48
the very first day, allowing only 5,000 liters of
(d) 58
water to be drained per day, on which day had
the tank got emptied?
(a) 42th day 11. Average income of Atul for the first 9 months is
(b) 44th day Rs. 10000 per month, and that for the last 3
(c) 48th day months is Rs. 20000 per month. Which one of
(d) Can’t be determined the following is necessarily true regarding
Atul’s average income per month for the entire
9. Consider the following information and the
year?
Question and the Statements that follow.
(a) It is between Rs. 15000 and Rs. 20000
Animesh bought some pencil and pens. A pen
costs Rs. 7 and a pencil costs Rs. 5. (b) It is exactly Rs. 16000
Question: Did he buy equal number of pens and (c) It is more than Rs. 15000 but less than Rs.
pencils? 17000
Statement-1: Animesh paid a total of Rs. 65 for (d) None of these
the pens and the pencils he bought.
Statement-2: Had he bought 4 pens more and 3
12. Two boys, who study in a school, start walking
pencils more, he would have paid a total of Rs.
to their homes from their school at 1 pm. The
108.
Which one of the following is correct in respect first boy, whose home is 5 km away from the
of the above Question and Statements? school walks at a speed of 5 km/hr and the
(a) The Question can be answered by using one second boy whose home is 8 km away from the
of the Statements alone, but cannot be school walks at a speed of 6 km/hr. If their
answered using the other Statement alone. homes are in directly opposite directions, what
(b) The Question can be answered by using
will be the distance between the two boys at 2:10
either Statement alone.
pm?
(c) The Question can be answered by using both
the Statements together, but cannot be (a) 12 km
answered using either Statement alone. (b) 12.8 km
(d) The Question cannot be answered even by (c) 11 km.
using both the Statements together. (d) 10 km.
13. At the end of 2021, two supermarket chains - A 14. Which box contains Noodles?
and B had the same number of customers. In (a) Box A
2022, the supermarket chain 'A' gained 20% of (b) Box D
the existing customers from its competitor 'B’. (c) Box C
However, 'A' also lost 10% of its existing
(d) Cannot be determined.
customers to 'B'. Over the period from 2021 to
2022, the combined customer base of these two
15. How many boxes are there above the box that
supermarkets increased by 40%. In 2022, the
contains Jalebi?
customer base of 'A' constituted 50% of the total
(a) Two
customers for the two competitors. What
percentage of the new customers in 2022 chose (b) Three
to patronize 'B'? (c) None
(a) 42.5% (d) Cannot be determined.

(b) 52.5%
(c) 62.5% 16. Pick the odd one out?
(d) 72.5% (a) Namkeen, A
(b) Jalebi, D
(c) Khakhra, C
Read the information given below and answer the items
(d) Burger, C
that follow.
Five boxes A, B, C, D and F are placed one above the
17. Six friends Pankaj, Kiran, Ramesh, Suresh, Tina
other, but not necessarily in the same order. Each box
and Uday go to a party. Ramesh, Kiran and Tina
contains different food items viz. Noodles, Namkeen,
Jalebi, Khakhra and Burger, but not necessarily in the are wearing black, while others are wearing
same order. white. Suresh and Uday are wearing new
Box F is placed two boxes above the box that contains clothes, while others wear old clothes. Ramesh,
Khakhra (i.e. there is one box between them), but is not Pankaj and Suresh go with gifts, while others
placed at the topmost position. Box F neither contains have not taken any gift. Who are the two people,
Noodles, nor is placed adjacent to the box that contains who have not taken any gift and are wearing
Noodles. Box B is placed below the box that contains black?
Noodles, but not just below it. The number of boxes
(a) Kiran and Tina
placed above box B is the same as the number of boxes
(b) Ramesh and Tina
placed below box C. Box C does not contain Noodles.
(c) Kiran and Uday
The box that contains Burger is placed above the box that
(d) None of these
contains Namkeen, but not just above it.
18. When Ram asked Shyam about the time, Shyam Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
mistook the hour hand for the minute hand and Read the following three passages and answer the items
the minute hand for the hour hand. He
incorrectly stated that it was 6:17 O'clock. What
was the actual time? should be based on the passages only.
(a) 3:30 O'clock Passage – 1
(b) 6:30 O'clock
The G20 expert group cites the climate crisis to argue
(c) 3:45 O'clock
(d) 6:45 O'clock that while stakeholders worldwide know what needs to
be done to mitigate it, they “lack mechanisms to make
19. If Friday is three days after tomorrow, then
this happen on a global scale, especially in emerging
which day was 3 days before yesterday?
(a) Saturday markets and developing economies (EMDEs).”
(b) Thursday According to the expert group, a reformed MDB
(c) Friday
ecosystem can equip stakeholders to better deal with
(d) Sunday
global challenges in effective ways. It has recommended
20. Study the following Venn diagram carefully and that MDBs operate more in sync with the developmental
answer the question that follows. priorities of individual nations. Additionally, the expert
group called for bringing private sector engagement to
the centre of MDB operations by breaking away from the
culture of limited operational interaction between their
private and sovereign financing arms. In the group’s
Which of the following set of options cannot be
represented by the Venn diagram shown above? view, greater coordination between multiple
(a) Human being, Teacher, Graduate. stakeholders is crucial to the success of MDBs. To
(b) Reptile, Snake, Lizard
mitigate coordination failures, the expert group has
(c) Female, Mother, Sister
(d) None of these called for greater involvement of national governments
to develop “a home-grown unified vision of goals,
21. Six different letters are printed on the six
policies, investments and financing.” These
different faces of a dice. It’s known that:
1. T, U and R are adjacent. recommended reforms are to “help address multiple
2. R, Q and U are adjacent. coordination failures among domestic and international
3. R, T and S are adjacent.
stakeholders, public and private.” The expert group also
4. Q, T and S are adjacent.
Which face is opposite to the face with alphabet notes that the existing perception and practices of MDBs
R? have adversely impacted their engagement with the
(a) P private sector. MDBs are often seen as bureaucratic and
(b) Q
risk averse, which deters the private sector from being
(c) S
(d) T more involved in assisting with financing.
Pointing out that tax evasion is enabling billionaires to
enjoy effective tax rates equivalent to 0% to 0.5% of
1. Developed nations should impart their
their wealth, the European Union Tax Observatory in its
climate change mitigation techniques to ‘Global Tax Evasion Report 2024’ has called for a global
minimum tax on billionaires equal to 2% of their wealth.
emerging nations.
This would both address evasion and “generate nearly
2. MDBs are not usually considered as risk
$250 billion from less than 3,000 individuals,” the report
takers. stated. The report justified the proposal by noting that
while the number of taxpayers affected by it would be
miniscule, the tax rate for them (2%) “would still be very
below.
modest” given that the wealth of billionaires has grown
(a) 1 only at 7% a year annually on average since 1995 (net of
inflation). Assessing the impact of international efforts
(b) 2 only
made so far to curb tax evasion, the report highlighted
(c) Both 1 and 2
the success of one measure — the automatic exchange of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 bank information — in reducing offshore tax evasion by
a factor of three over the past 10 years. The report
observed that before this measure came into effect,
23. With reference to the above passage, consider
“households owned the equivalent of 10% of world GDP
the following statements. in financial wealth in tax havens globally, the bulk of
which was undeclared to tax authorities and belonged to
1. Increased involvement of the private sector.
high-net-worth individuals.
2. Increased coordination among
stakeholders. the most logical and rational implication
conveyed by the above passage?
3. Increased financial support to the
(a) A minimal tax on billionaires might raise a
developing countries.
substantial amount of money and aid in the
Which of the above-mentioned statements are fight against tax evasion.
(b) Billionaires have enjoyed lower wealth
among the reforms proposed for MDBs?
taxes due to inadequate policy
(a) 1 and 2 only implementation and corrupt bureaucracy.
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Tax heavens need to be scrutinized by
authorities to check for tax evasion.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Undeclared money of billionaires is the
(d) All 1, 2 and 3 reason why tax heavens thrive.
Passage – 3 26. Five years ago, the average age of a family,
Microalgae, which form the base of the food chain in the which consisted of three members, was 27 years.
ocean and capture carbon dioxide from the atmosphere,
The family now consists of four members as a
appear to rely on a unique strategy to cope with global
baby was born recently. The current average age
warming, according to a new study. The findings are
of the family is 25 years. How many years ago
published in the journal Nature Microbiology. As
climate change reduces the availability of nutrients in the was the baby born?
sea, marine microalgae or eukaryotic phytoplankton fire (a) 1 year ago
up a protein called rhodopsin. It is related to the protein (b) 2 years ago
in the human eye responsible for vision in dim light. This
(c) 3 years ago
light-responsive protein is helping the microalgae
(d) 4 years ago
flourish with the help of sunlight in place of traditional
chlorophyll. Microbial rhodopsins, per the study, are
proposed to be major light capturers in the ocean. 27. A person has three cubes of different sizes. The
Estimates suggested they may absorb as much light as sides of the cubes are of length 6 inch, 8 inch and
chlorophyll-based photosynthesis in the sea, which also 1 inch respectively. The person melts the cubes
captures light to generate energy and food. However,
and forms a new cube from it. What shall be the
their biological role in these organisms was unclear
surface area of the new cube?
before the study. “Global warming is increasing drought
on land and the same thing happens in the ocean: The (a) 486 inch2
warmer the surface water gets, the lower are the nutrients (b) 496 inch2
in these surface water layers,” Thomas Mock, professor (c) 586 inch2
of marine microbiology in University of East Anglia’s (d) 658 inch2
School of Environmental Sciences and the study’s
author, said in a statement.
28. Eklavya is the son of Komal. Bhanu is the
reflects the crux of the passage? brother of Dev. Geeta is Dev’s daughter. Komal
(a) Owing to adaptation, a phenomenon that is married to Dev, who is a man. Maya is
occurs on land can also occur in water. maternal aunt of Eklavya. What is the relation
(b) It is possible to mitigate global warming
between Bhanu and Eklavya?
using biochemicals found in nature.
(a) Uncle and nephew
(c) Adaptability is the key in managing a
(b) Brothers
changing environment.
(d) Adaptability to a changing environment (c) Father and son
reduces productivity. (d) Father-in-law and son-in-law

Direction for the following 2 (two) items: 32. 105 red boxes of pens, 140 blue boxes of pencils
Read the information given below and answer the items and 175 green boxes of erasers are to be
that follow. transported across a river. There is only one boat
Six persons, namely P, Q, R, S, T, and U, are seated that has to transport the boxes. The weird
around a triangular table. Three individuals occupy each boatman insists that he will transport only boxes
corner of the table, and the rest are positioned at the of a single color in one trip. Also, that he will
middle of each side. All of them face inward and have a carry the same number of boxes in each trip.
preference for different colors: Blue, Black, White, What is the maximum number of boxes that the
Violet, Red, and Green, although not necessarily in that boat can accommodate to ensure that the number
order. of trips are minimized?
T is seated 2nd to the left of the person who likes White. (a) 42
The individual who likes White sits opposite to U and is (b) 28
seated at the middle of a side. R has a preference for Red (c) 35
and is not an immediate neighbor of T or the person who (d) 15
likes White. Q is positioned 2nd to the left of P, who
occupies one of the corners of the table. The individual Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
who likes Violet sits immediately to the left of the person
who likes Black, but is not seated opposite to P. Q does
not have a liking for Blue.
Passage – 1
29. Who likes White colour?
Digital technologies are changing the shape of work
(a) Q
before our eyes. Yes, they are enabling firms to automate
(b) S
and this will reduce employment in some old, typically
(c) P
low and medium-skill sectors. But they also help firms
(d) R
to increase productivity, to innovate, and subsequently to
create new products and sectors. Emerging markets like
30. Which one of the following sits at the corner?
India stand to gain—but they need to have the right skills
(a) U
at the ready.
(b) R
33. Which of the following is the most crucial and
(c) T
logical inference that can be made from the
(d) S
above passage?
(a) Effective digital skill oriented policy can
31. Find the missing number in the following help India reap the benefits of emerging
matrix. digital space.
2 8 80 (b) Digital technologies have disrupted only the
4 24 624 low and medium-skill sectors of the
6 48 ? economy.
(a) 1200 (c) With the emergence of digital technology
(b) 2400 widespread job losses are imminent.
(c) 3600 (d) Emerging markets like India have gained
(d) 4800 from digital technologies.

Passage – 2 36. Consider the following information and the
Visa shopping refers to obtaining visas for countries that Question and Statements that follow:
individuals may or may not visit during the granted visa A bag contains a total of 1000 balls of different
period. This is because such visas can provide a gateway colors - red, yellow and orange.
for people to enter their preferred countries, particularly Question: Which coloured-ball is present in the
in Europe, even if they have obtained a visa for another highest quantity in the bag?
European nation. Additionally, people who have no
Statement -1: The number of red balls is two
immediate plans to visit a specific country are also
-third of the total number of yellow and
purchasing visas for such nations. This is to increase the
orange balls.
chances of obtaining visas for countries of their choice
Statement 2: The number of yellow balls is
in the future, given how the application process often
3/7th of the total number of red and orange
takes a long time or has chances of rejection. Also, visas
balls.
usually remain valid for a few years after being issued.
34. Which of the following statements can be Which one of the following is correct in respect
inferred from the above passage? of the above Questions and Statements?
1. Visa shopping is not applicable to countries (a) The Question can be answered by using one
outside the European Union. of the Statements alone, but cannot be
2. Visa shopping is helping job seekers to get a answered using the other Statement alone.
work visa in their country of choice. (b) The Question can be answered by using
Select the correct answer using the codes given either Statement alone.
below. (c) The Question can be answered by using both
(a) 1 only the Statements together, but cannot be
(b) 2 only answered using either Statement alone.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) The Question cannot be answered even by
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
using both the Statements together.

37. Working together, Rudra and Ananya can
complete a piece of work in 24 days. Ananya and
(a) Visa shopping gives people the freedom to
Chetan can complete the same work in 40 days,
go to the countries of their choice.
while Rudra and Chetan can complete it in 30
(b) People purchase visas for countries they do
not plan to visit to increase the chances of days. Find the number of days in which each of
obtaining visas for desired destinations. them can complete the same work while
(c) Visa shopping is becoming an easy way to working alone?
enter the European Union (a) 120, 40, 80
(d) Visa shopping is popular as it makes it easier (b) 120, 60, 80
to get a residence permit in the target (c) 40, 60, 80
country. (d) None of these
38. Rahul takes 42 minutes to travel from T to C and 41. There are four positive numbers. The average of
Prachi takes 56 minutes to travel from C to T. first and last number is equal to the average of
Rahul and Prachi start from T and C respectively second and third number. If the average of all the
at 7:30 a.m. and go towards C and T, numbers is 20, then which of the following is
respectively. If they take the same route, when true?
will they meet? (a) The sum of first and last number is more
(a) 7:48 a.m.
than 40
(b) 7:51 a.m.
(b) The sum of second and third number is less
(c) 7:54 a.m.
than 40
(d) 7:58 a.m.
(c) The average of first and last number is 20
(d) None of these
39. Consider the following Statements and the
Question:
Statement 1: If the rate of interest had been 3 42. A race track is 18 km uphill and 18 km downhill.
percentage points more, an additional compound Anuj and Vishal participate in a race on this
interest of Rs. 1302 would have accrued in two track. Anuj runs uphill at 9 kmph and downhill
years. at 15 kmph. Vishal runs uphill as well as
Statement 2: Rs. 98 is the difference between downhill at 12 kmph. Who will win the race and
simple interest and compound interest at the by how much distance, if both start the race
same rate for two years. simultaneously from the bottom of the hill?
If principal amount is Rs. 20000, what is the (a) Anuj by 4 km
compound interest rate? (b) Vishal by 3 km
(a) 10% (c) Data insufficient
(b) 7%
(d) It will be a tie.
(c) Between 8% and 9%.
(d) Data insufficient to answer the question.
43. In a row of books in a library, Ramcharitmanas’s
position is ninth from the left and position of
40. The students of a primary school are asked to
Ramayan is 9th from the right. Raj accidently
form five digit numbers using the digits 2, 5, 0,
interchanges the positions of these two books,
6, and 8 (repetition of digits is not allowed).
Which of the following cannot be the difference due to which Ramayan becomes 18th from the
between any two numbers formed by the right. What is the new position of
students? Ramcharitmanas from the left?

(a) 900 (a) 16th
(b) 3600 (b) 17th
(c) 66952 (c) 18th
(d) 65952 (d) 15th
Read the following three passages and answer the items Industrial processes were broken down into simple
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items operations that could be precisely timed, organized and
monitored. Mass production demands mass markets.
One of the most significant innovations was the
Passage – 1
construction of a moving assembly line. Modern
Perception (pratyak–a) is the first and the foundational industrial production needed expensive equipment and
method of knowing. It is the direct and immediate mode continuous monitoring of employees through monitoring
of knowing. It gives us knowledge of what is directly or surveillance systems. Over the last decades, there has
present to the sense. It is the basis of the remaining three been a shift to what is often called ‘flexible production’
methods of knowing in as much as all three derive their and ‘decentralization of work’. It is argued that in this
period of globalization, it is the growing competition
starting points from perceptual cognition. It may also be
between firms and countries that makes it essential for
regarded as the final test of the truth of all knowledge in
firms to organize production suiting the changing market
so far as perceptual verification is the most handy and
conditions.
reliable mode of confirmation. The word pratyak–a is 45. Which one of the following statements best
used for both the method of knowing and the resultant reflects what is implied by the passage?
knowledge. It consists of two types, or rather two stages, (a) Innovation in industrial processes is driven
namely indeterminate (nirvikalpaka) and determinate by globalization.
(b) Monitoring systems are prerequisites for
(savikalpaka). Indeterminate perception is pure
modern industrial production.
unverbalized experience. It is a conscious but not a self-
(c) Decentralization of work is a necessary evil
conscious state in the sense that there can be no direct
to adjust to the changing market conditions.
awareness of it. Its existence is known inferentially. In (d) An increase in competition among firms
determinate perception an object is known related to its also increases their productivity.
qualifications. This is possible only if the object and its Passage – 3
qualities are first known separately prior to being related. In many emerging and developing economies, emissions
This indeterminate stage is presupposed as the ground of are heading upwards while clean energy investments are
faltering, creating a dangerous fault line in the global
determinate cognition.
efforts to reach climate and sustainable energy goals.
Countries are not starting on this journey from the same
the most logical and rational message place, many do not have access to the funds they need to
conveyed by the author of the passage? rapidly transition to a healthier and more prosperous
(a) Indeterminate perception is inferred and a energy future and the damaging effects of the COVID-
self-aware state. 19 crisis are lasting longer in many parts of the
(b) The primary means of knowledge and a developing world. There is no shortage of money
worldwide, but it is not finding its way to the countries,
gauge of veracity is perception.
sectors, and projects where it is most needed.
(c) An object's attributes are known in
Governments need to give international public finance
determinate perception. institutions a strong strategic mandate to finance clean
(d) Perception is the final test of knowledge. energy transitions in the developing world.

46. Based on the above passage, the following 50. In Anil's store, there are 20 flashlights, two-
assumptions have been made: fifths of which are defective. For a marriage
1. Probably not all developing countries face
the issue of funding for a successful energy party decoration, his servant Ram randomly
future. chose three flashlights to place them in the hall.
2. COVID-19 have had a lasting negative
What is the probability that the hall will be
impact on green energy programs of both
developed as well as developing countries. lighted?
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? (a) 126/285
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 217/285
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 216/285
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 271/285

the crux of the passage? 51. If f(x) = (6x + 6-x)/2, then find the value of 2f(x
(a) A funding distribution mechanism is
+ y) × f(x - y).
essential to achieve clean energy goals for
the developing world. (a) f(2x) + f(2y)
(b) For clean energy, there is a need for (b) f(2x) × f(2y)
consensus among nations on funding
projects and sectors in developing countries. (c) f(2x)/ f(2y)
(c) Due to rising emissions, achieving (d) f(2x) - f(2y)
sustainable development goals would be
difficult.
(d) Developed countries and international 52. If the cost price is 90% of the selling price, what
public finance institutions should fund the must be the profit percent?
developing countries for clean energy
(a) 9.09%
projects.
(b) 4.75%
48. Avinash lent Rs. 20000 to Shikha at compound (c) 5 %
interest which amounted to Rs. 45000 in 3 years.
If the ratio of interest rates for first, second and (d) 11.11%
third year was 4:5:10, then what was the interest
rate for the third year (the interest was
53. Sanjay, Kumar, Manoj, Amit and Raj are five
compounded annually)?
(a) 50% friends. Sanjay is shorter than Kumar, but taller
(b) 60% than Raj. Manoj is the tallest. Amit is slightly
(c) 45%
(d) Can’t be determined shorter than Kumar, but slightly taller than
Sanjay. Who is the person who is taller than
49. In a regular convex polygon with ‘m’ sides, the exactly two people?
number of diagonals inside the polygon is 54.
The value of m is: (a) Raj
(a) 14 (b) Sanjay
(b) 12
(c) Kumar
(c) 16
(d) Can’t be determined (d) Amit
54. Study the following statements and answer the 57. The year-wise variation in respect of price of a
question that follows. certain commodity is depicted in the graph
Statement I: The time taken by a boat to cover shown below:
a certain distance downstream is half the time
taken by it to cover the same distance upstream.
Statement II: The upstream speed of the boat is
10 m/s.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Speed of the boat in still water is three times
the speed of the water current.
(b) Downstream speed of the boat is 7 m/s.
(c) Speed of the boat in still water is 8 m/s.
(d) None of these
55. How many squares are there in the following

figure?
Which of the following statements regarding the
price of the commodity must be true?
(a) The price of the commodity in the year 2011
was higher than Rs. 50.
(b) The price of the commodity in the year 2011
(a) 17 was higher than the average price of the
(b) More than 20 but less than 24 commodity during the years 2000 to 2010.
(c) More than 24 (c) The price of the commodity in the year 2000
(d) None of these was higher than the average price of the
commodity during the years 1990 to 2000.
56. In the question given below, there are three (d) The price of the commodity in the year 2000
statements followed by four conclusions was less than the average price of the
numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the commodity during the years 1980 to 2000.
given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance with commonly known facts and 58. Examine the following two figures in which the
judge the conclusions on that basis. numbers follow a specific pattern.
Statements:
(i) Some mangoes are oranges.
(ii) Some oranges are bananas.
(iii) All lemons are bananas.
Conclusions:
I. Some mangoes are lemons
II. Some mangoes are bananas
III. No lemon is mango
IV. All bananas are lemons.
Which of the conclusions given above is/are What is the missing number in the second
correct? figure?
(a) Only IV follows (a) 28
(b) Only II and III follow (b) 19
(c) Only either II or III follows (c) 15
(d) Only either I or III follows (d) 23
59. A certain three-digit number has the following 63. Find the missing term.
characteristics: RHA : XCF : : ISZ : ?
1. The hundreds digit leaves a remainder 2 (a) O N E
when divided by 4.
(b) O O E
2. The tens digit is even.
(c) C X U
3. The number is divisible by 3 as well as 5.
(d) O P E
How many such three-digit numbers are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3 64. In a certain code language:
(c) 4 I. ‘sut la nom’ means ‘Allow me food’.
(d) 6
II. ‘la ko tid’ means ‘ Food is good’.
III. ‘rub on sut’ means ‘Give me sword’.
60. A train covers a distance in 100 minutes, if it
runs at a speed of 63 km per hour on an average. IV. ‘ko tin row’ means ‘ Good news come’.
Find the speed at which the train must run to Which of the following code represents ‘is’ in
reduce the time of journey by 20 minutes. this language?
(a) 55 km/hr (a) ko
(b) 70 km/hr
(b) la
(c) 54 km/hr
(c) tin
(d) 78.75 km/hr
(d) tid
61. The average of six numbers is a. The average of

the numbers occurring at even places and odd 65. Arrange the following words in a logical and
places are b and c respectively. Which of the
meaningful order.
following statements is true?
1. Ripening
(a) a = b + c
2. Vegetative
(b) 2a = b + c
(c) a = 2b + 2c 3. Flowering
(d) None of the above 4. Budding
5. Sprout
6. Seeding
ABFE, BDOD, CFIC, ………
(a) 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
(a) DHRB
(b) 6, 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
(b) DHPB
(c) DHOB (c) 5, 6, 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) None of these (d) 5, 2, 6, 4, 1, 3
Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Passage – 2
Read the following four passages and answer the items Holidays are making a comeback after several years of
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items disruption caused by the COVID-19 pandemic. Nearly 4
billion passengers boarded international flights in 2022,
up from fewer than 2 billion in 2020. Recent research
Passage – 1
suggests that people are likely to continue travelling
“What’s the philosophy of life”? This is a question that more in 2023 and beyond. But this resurgence in travel
has been pondered upon by great personalities of the is concerning. The tourism sector alone is responsible for
world, of all ages. Simply speaking, it explains a an estimated 8%–10% of global greenhouse gas
person’s belief as to how one should live life or utilise it. emissions. And conditions at traditional holiday
destinations in high summer are becoming increasingly
To figure it out, you need to understand what you want
unpleasant if not downright hazardous. As the effects of
out of life. Although it seems simple, it can be tricky for
climate change become increasingly severe, there’s
many people to crack it accurately. The first thing you genuine concern that traditional destinations will
need to do, dear folks, is to introspect yourselves. become too hot in summer to remain appealing to
Privacy is essential in this regard, and every individual visitors.
should have access to it. One thing that would help with 67. Based on the above passage, which of the
following can be the most logical
your introspection is meditation. The second important
implication(s)?
point to bear in mind is that your philosophy of life
1. People may have to look for new holiday
should be practical. Life philosophy should be such that destinations on account of climate change.
it works in the real world instead of being some fancy 2. Without addressing climate change,
inapplicable mental gymnastics. enjoying holidays will be difficult.
66. Which of the following statements best reflects Select the correct answer using the codes given
the logical inference from the passage given below.
(a) 1 only
above?
(b) 2 only
(a) Without understanding the philosophy of
(c) Both 1 and 2
life, one is always occupied with (d) Neither 1 nor 2
unnecessary thoughts and faces difficulty in
success. 68. What is the main idea that we can infer from the
(b) Understanding the philosophy of life is not passage?
(a) People should plan their holidays according
easy and is only possible for great
to the climate of the destination.
personalities who meditate and are practical.
(b) More than climate change, events like
(c) The art of understanding personal goals and COVID-19 impact the tourism sector the
living in the world needs introspection and most.
realism. (c) Tourism creates a vicious cycle of negative
(d) Poor introspection and lack of privacy cause consequences when it comes to climate
change.
unawareness regarding the way to live life
(d) In the context of climate change, people
or utilize it.
must promote responsible tourism.
Historical injustices are generally seen as targeting entire
(a) One cannot deny the reality of historical
groups, either disfavoured minorities or foreign
injustices across nations.
populations. While the barriers to reparations are (b) Without settling historical injustices, it is
significant, historical events are the subject of a growing not possible to provide justice today.
(c) Restorative justice is not the responsibility
number of legal and/or political claims by groups
of one but all.
seeking redress. The proliferation of such demands may (d) There is an increasing demand to redress
represent a global tribute to the strength of human rights historical injustices and provide reparations.
Passage – 4
doctrine and its moral claim on the international
Lack of concerted effort to control the growing rates of
community. The notion of reparations is close to the malnutrition globally can cause nearly 194 million
current idea of restorative justice as a potentially children born through 2030 to be stunted, an analysis by
Save the Children, an international non-profit. This
transformative social action. Legislatures may be better
means, at the current rate, nearly one newborn will be
suited to determine reparations: they are not bound by
stunted every second over the next seven years, a United
precedent and legal doctrine but can fashion equitable Nations note on the data found. Save The Children urged
remedies. world leaders gathering next week at the Sustainable

Development Goals (SDG) Summit to “urgently
accelerate progress towards meeting the goals”. Sub-
and logical inference/s that can be made from Saharan Africa will be most affected, with an estimated
the passage? 86 million cases of stunting for children born between
2023 and 2030, the analysis showed. It will be closely
1. Reparations help heal historical injustices
followed by South Asia with 67 million cases, it added.
and will prevent future injustices. “The Eastern Asia and Pacific region is set to witness
2. The nature of present violations of human nearly 22 million stunted children, while the Middle East
and North Africa brace for 9.6 million cases, and Latin
rights is different from the historical ones.
and Central America anticipate 6.7 million children
facing stunted growth,” the UN statement noted, adding:
below. Pakistan and the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC)
(a) 1 only stand among the top four countries expected to face the
highest levels of stunting in the next seven years with
(b) 2 only
over 25% of their populations currently experiencing
(c) Both 1 and 2 crisis levels of hunger. The findings also underlined the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 link between extreme poverty and stunting.
71. Which of the following statements can be 73. Ajay goes to his friend Shyam’s house. While
inferred from the above passage? returning, he becomes tired, causing him to
1. Stunting among children is a problem that is cover a distance of 10 km in the first hour.
worldwide, faced by poor and rich countries Afterward, in each subsequent hour, his speed
alike. reduces to half of the speed in the previous hour.

How much time does it take for him to be 25 km
2. In the future, the list denoting the highest
away from his friend’s house?
levels of stunting will be completely
(a) 10 hours
dominated only by African countries, with
(b) 12 hours
country of no other region in the top 10.
(c) 14 hours
(d) None of these
below.
(a) 1 only 74. Relationship between the ages of seven friends -
(b) 2 only P, Q, R, S, T, U and V is given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q>P≥U>S=V≤T<R
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Based on the above, following conclusions are
made.
72. A car owner wants to keep his monthly petrol I. S<R
bill constant. The following graph shows his II. P > T
monthly petrol consumption and the price per Which of the conclusions given above is/are
litre: correct?
(c) Both conclusions follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II
follows
75. Raju and Mitali planted a papaya tree in their

backyard 2 years ago. Raju went for collage
thereafter. When he came home after 2 years, he
saw that papaya tree’s height was 540 cm. Mitali
told him that this papaya tree increases in height
If the price of petrol goes up to Rs. 80 per litre,
at a rate of 20% per year. What was its height
his consumption (in litres) will be:
when they planted it?
(a) 30
(a) 450 cm
(b) 28
(b) 375 cm
(c) 26
(c) 325 cm
(d) 24 (d) 410 cm
76. Ramesh and Suresh started walking from the 77. Which one of the following is the most logical
same point in opposite directions. After and rational inference that can be made from
travelling 2 km each, Ramesh takes a left turn the above passage?

(a) Digital technologies deployed by private
and Suresh takes a right turn and continue
corporations are in violation of the right to
walking. Based on the information, which one of
privacy of the individual.
the following statements is correct?
(b) Individual privacy must be protected against
(a) After both have travelled 3 km, the distance the misuse of digital technologies.
between them is 6 km (c) Governments must respect individual
(b) They meet after each has travelled 4 km. privacy.
(c) They meet once and then keep going away (d) It is difficult to promote the growth of digital
from each other. technologies and digital economy while

respecting individual privacy.
(d) They go on without meeting each other.
Passage – 2
Climate change and technology are intrinsically linked
in the ongoing battle to address and mitigate the impacts
Read the following three passages and answer the items of global warming. The industrial and technological
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items advancements of the past century have been a significant
should be based on the passages only. driver of greenhouse gas emissions. Energy-intensive
Passage – 1 processes, transportation, and deforestation, often

enabled by technology, have contributed to rising carbon
In recent years, there has been growing concern about
dioxide levels. Conversely, technology offers vital tools
the threat to privacy posed by new technologies, such as
to combat climate change. Renewable energy
big data and artificial intelligence. Corporations can use
technologies, such as solar and wind power, have
these technologies to collect and analyse vast amounts of
become more efficient and cost-effective, reducing our
personal information, which can then be used to target reliance on fossil fuels. Innovations in energy storage,
individuals with advertising or to make decisions about electric vehicles, and sustainable agriculture offer
their employment, housing, or access to credit. Privacy pathways to a lower-carbon future. Furthermore,
is a necessary condition for individuals to be able to fully technology aids in climate monitoring and data
collection, providing valuable insights into climate
participate in society. When individuals have their
patterns and trends. Climate modelling and simulation
privacy respected, they are free to make their own
technologies help scientists predict the impacts of
choices about their lives and to pursue their interests
climate change and formulate strategies for adaptation
without fear of government or corporations.
and mitigation.
78. Which of the following is the most rational and 79. Which of the following is/are the most rational
logical inference that can be drawn from the and logical inference/inferences that can be
passage?
(a) Reliance on technologies for climate change
1. Rural-to-urban migration for innovation and
mitigation is due to their efficiency and cost-
effectiveness. economic growth is visible across nations.
(b) Technology in the context of climate change 2. Migration has the potential to solve the
is a necessary evil. fundamental issues of not only
(c) Without climate monitoring and data
manufacturing and services but also
collection, it is difficult to understand the
agriculture.
pattern & history of climate change.
(d) In the context of climate change, renewable Select the correct answer using the codes given
energy, electric vehicles, and climate below.
modelling are the technologies of the future. (a) 1 only
Passage – 3
(b) 2 only
Migration is a dynamic force that shapes the economic
landscape of nations. It has a profound impact on various (c) Both 1 and 2
sectors. Understanding these effects is essential for (d) Neither 1 nor 2

policymakers and industry leaders. Its dual role in
agriculture can alleviate labour shortages during planting
80. Which one of the following is best implied by
and harvesting seasons, and it can lead to the depletion
the passage?
of rural labour forces. Migrant workers often fill low-
skilled, labour-intensive jobs, propelling production, and (a) Strong policies and strategies are needed to
export industries. However, it can also contribute to counter rural-to-urban migration of skilled
wage disparities and worker exploitation. Skilled labour.
immigrants can contribute to innovation and economic
(b) Migration from rural to urban areas leads to
growth, while the unskilled may face challenges in
job creation in the manufacturing and
access to social services and integration. Migration is a
complex issue with multifaceted impacts. To harness its services sector.
benefits and mitigate its challenges, comprehensive (c) Migration in any economy is a zero-sum
policies and strategies are needed, addressing the unique game in the context of different sectors.
demands of agriculture, manufacturing, and services
(d) Prudent policies are imperative to address
while fostering inclusivity and economic growth.
the ‘double-edged sword’ of migration.


VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English & Hindi. Each item comprises four
sheet.
be deducted.
1
1. Point P lies between A and B, such that the Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
length of BP is four times that of AP. Car 1 starts Read the following three passages and answer the items
from A and moves towards B. Simultaneously, that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
Car 2 starts from B and moves towards A. Car 2 should be based on the passages only.
reaches P two hours after Car 1 had already Passage – 1
reached P. If the speed of Car 2 is 80% that of Habits serve as the silent architects of a streamlined and
efficient life, making the complex tasks of daily living

Car 1, then the time taken by Car 1 to reach P
more manageable. Once ingrained, habits automate
from A is:
decision-making, eliminating the cognitive load
(a) 40 minutes
associated with routine choices. By providing structure
(b) 24 minutes
and predictability, habits instil a sense of control and
(c) 30 minutes
stability, reducing stress and fostering a conducive
(d) 32 minutes
environment for productivity. Whether it's the automatic
sequence of a morning routine or the disciplined

2. In an office of 340 employees, 85 are graduate.
approach to work, habits contribute to time management
Find the probability of selecting an employee
and overall well-being. The simplicity they bring to tasks
who is not a graduate.
allows individuals to conserve mental energy for more
(a) 0.75
critical decision-making, ultimately enhancing the
(b) 0.80
quality of life and more organized existence.
(c) 0.78 4. Based on the above passage, the following
(d) 0.68 assumptions have been made:
1. One thing shared by successful people

3. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour around the world is their common habits.
hand at intervals of 64 minutes of the correct 2. All daily habits have equal impacts on the
time. How much time a day does the clock gain completion of daily tasks and routines.
or lose? Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid?
(a) 338/11 min gain (a) 1 only
(b) 338/11 min lose (b) 2 only
(c) 360/11 min gain (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 360/11 min lose (d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. What is the most rational inference that can be Passage – 3
drawn from the passage? Democracy, a cornerstone of political systems, thrives
(a) Only small habits compound to significant when accompanied by political maturity among citizens.
outcomes over time. A politically mature populace actively engages in
(b) Our habits define our career, so, consciously informed discourse, values the diversity of opinion, and
choose those that align with your understands the nuances of governance. However,
professional goals. challenges arise when political maturity falters, leading
(c) Quality of life is intricately woven into the to conflicts within democratic frameworks.
fabric of our daily habits. Misinformation, polarization, and intolerance can
(d) Shunning bad habits is more important than jeopardize the democratic spirit, fuelling internal strife.
fostering positive ones, to enhance the Striking a balance between individual rights and
quality of life. collective responsibility becomes paramount for the
Passage – 2 sustenance of a robust democracy. Political maturity acts
The Arctic Ocean, a critical component of the Earth's as a stabilizing force, fostering constructive dialogue and
climate system, is witnessing unprecedented change due
conflict resolution, ensuring that democratic ideals
to the accelerated melting of ice. This dramatic shift
withstand internal tensions and external pressures, and
profoundly impacts polar bears, iconic symbols of the
allowing nations to navigate challenges.
region, as their primary habitat, sea ice, diminishes.
7. Which one of the following is best implied by
Melting ice forces polar bears to travel longer distances
the passage?
in search of food, increasing their vulnerability.
(a) Political maturity plays a vital role in
Conservation efforts, sustainable policies, and
deciding the strength of a democratic nation.
international cooperation are imperative to mitigate the
(b) A mature democracy consists of a
melting of Arctic ice, safeguard the unique ecosystem,
biologically mature population.
and ensure the survival of polar bears, emblematic
(c) Democracy is ‘for the people,’ so, individual
creatures of the Arctic facing an uncertain future in the
rights are more important than collective
wake of climate-induced transformations.
responsibility.
6. Which one of the following is the most logical
(d) Democracy is not only about dialogue and
and rational inference that can be made from
diversity, but also about political maturity.
the above passage?
(a) In the wake of climate change, polar bears
can be shifted to other oceans for their 8. Consider the two equations I and II given below.
survival. I. 2a2 – 3a – 44 = 0
(b) Climate change policies for the Arctic II. 3b2 – 20b + 25 = 0
Ocean need to keep polar bears in focus. What is the relationship between a and b?
(c) Reversing climate change is the only way to (a) a > b
protect the polar bears from extinction. (b) a ≥ b
(d) The polar bear is the keystone species of the (c) a ≤ b
Arctic Ocean affected by climate change. (d) Can’t be determined
9. A carton of biscuit has 50 packets in it. Each 13. 512 identical cubes are arranged in the form of a
biscuit packet has 4 biscuit lines, with each line cubical block. How many such cubes are
containing 15 biscuits. It is also known that 5%
completely surrounded by other cubes from each
biscuits are broken in each packet. Find the total
side?
number of broken biscuits in the carton.
(a) 216
(a) 200
(b) 150 (b) 112
(c) 60 (c) 72
(d) 156 (d) 60
10. 1/5th of the sum of the ages of Geeta and Sita is

14. How many 6-digit telephone numbers can be
equal to 40% of the difference of their ages.
constructed using the digits 0 to 9, if each
What percent of the age of Sita is equal to the
number starts with 54 and no digit appears more
age of Geeta? (Assume that the age of Sita is
greater than that of Geeta) than once?
(a) 40% (a) 1892

(b) 30% (b) 1680
(c) 33.33% (c) 1440
(d) 60%
(d) 1260
11. If 1st January 2024 is Monday, then which day

15. Consider the following graph in which causes of
will it be exactly after 9999 days?
(a) Wednesday the death of children (in millions) of a country
(b) Thursday are given and answer the question that follows.
(c) Friday
(d) Saturday
12. The value of a car is depreciating by 12.5%

every year. If in 2021 its value was ₹ 5,40,000,
then what will be its value in the year 2025, i.e.
in 4 years?
(a) ₹ 756703
(b) ₹ 316538
(c) ₹ 435671
(d) ₹ 587890
Which one of the following statements is not 17. How is Jay related to Shan?
correct with reference to the graph given above? (a) Grandson
(a) Death of children due to lack of vaccination (b) Brother
has decreased from 1990 to 2005, while (c) Son
death of children due to diseases has (d) Father
increased from 1990 to 2005.

18. The letters of the word
(b) Total number of deaths of children due to
"ABIOGENETICALLY" are arranged
malnutrition in year 1990 is equal to the total
alphabetically in reverse order. How many
number of deaths of children due to diseases
positions of the letter/letters will remain
in 2005.
unchanged?
(c) Total number of deaths of children due to
(a) None
diseases from 1990 to 2005 is more than (b) One
total number of deaths of children due to (c) Two
malnutrition from 1990 to 2005. (d) Three
(d) The number of deaths of children has halved
from year 1990 to 2005. Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
Read the following information carefully and answer the should be based on the passages only.
items that follow. Passage – 1

Public opinions, shaped by social factors, influence
Tejas, Shan, Vinu, Manya, Nitya, Jay, Ishan, and Laddu
political decisions and policies. The advent of social
are family members. Shan and Vinu are married to each
media has amplified the speed and reach of social
other. Vinu is the mother-in-law of Nitya, who is the
influence, enabling citizens to voice their concerns and
mother of Jay. Laddu is the maternal uncle of Jay, Ishan
mobilize movements. Conversely, governance structures
is the brother-in-law of Laddu. Jay is the maternal
and policies also exert influence on societal norms and
grandson of Tejas and Manya. Laddu and Jay are
values. Effective governance requires responsiveness to
unmarried. Tejas and Jay are males, while Manya is a public sentiment and the ability to positively navigate
female. and channel social influence. Striking a balance between
16. Who among the following is the spouse of governing principles and societal expectations is
Nitya? essential for fostering trust and ensuring the legitimacy
(a) Ishan of governance systems. The interplay between social
(b) Tejas influence and governance underscores the intricate
(c) Laddu relationship that defines contemporary political
(d) Jay landscapes.

19. Which of the following statements best reflects 21. Which of the following statements best reflects
the logical inference from the passage given the crux of the passage?
above? (a) The use of machines and leisure activities
(a) One must have a strong social influence in are two sides of the same coin.
(b) Machine-based leisure is incomplete
the contemporary political and governance
without addressing its challenges.
landscape.
(c) Leisure mechanisms have evolved over time
(b) Governance without social influence would
impacting privacy and environment.
be meaningless for the public. (d) Leisure from machines would prove to be
(c) Social influence plays a pivotal role in detrimental in future.
shaping governance dynamics.
(d) Governance and societal influence mould 22. A certain brand of coffee costing Rs. ‘a’ per kg
each other mutually. is mixed with chicory costing Rs. ‘b’ per kg in
Passage – 2 the ratio of 5:2. If the per kg selling price of the
mixture is kept at Rs. ‘c’ to allow the seller to
Achieving a harmonious integration of machines into
make a gain, then which of the following will
leisure necessitates addressing the multifaceted
represent the profit made?
challenges to ensure a balanced, inclusive, and
(a) 7c + 5a +2b
sustainable leisure landscape for all. Automation has (b) 7c – 5a – 2b
streamlined aspects of leisure, yet concerns over job (c) 7c – 5a + 2b
displacement persist, urging a focus on reskilling. (d) None of the above
Ethical considerations surface with data privacy issues
and the potential for screen addiction, affecting mental 23. Study the given information carefully and
well-being. Environmental sustainability also takes answer the question that follows.
In a literature library, there are seven books on
centre stage, as the production and disposal of leisure-
the table, one each of Tamil, Hindi, English,
related machines contribute to growing e-waste
Bengali, Punjabi, Manipuri, and Bhojpuri. These
concerns. Additionally, the digital divide accentuates
seven books of different literature are stacked
issues of accessibility, limiting some from enjoying the one over the other.
benefits of technological leisure. (i) The Bhojpuri book is immediately below the
20. Based on the above passage, the following Manipuri book, which is immediately below
assumptions have been made: the Bengali book.
1. Leisure from machines is not sustainable as (ii) Punjabi is immediately above Tamil, but not
it is not natural. in the middle of the stack.
(iii) Hindi is immediately below Tamil.
2. Sustained leisure from machines depends
(iv) Bengali is on the top of all the books.
upon the development of technology.
The English book is in between which of the
following books?
(a) 1 only (a) Bhojpuri and Punjabi
(b) 2 only (b) Tamil and Hindi
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Manipuri and Tamil
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Tamil and Bengali
24. There are five employees: Rahul, Bijay, 26. A cloth merchant sells cloth by meter, say Rs. x
Pradeep, Vivek, and Yogesh, seated in a hall. per meter. He marks up the price of a piece of
Information regarding their seating arrangement cloth by 45% and then gives a discount 30% on
is given below: it before selling it to the customer. Due to intense
(i) The distance between Rahul and Bijay is 2 summer, the metal scale which the merchant
less than the square of 4 (in meters). uses for measurement elongates by 5%. What
(ii) Vivek is seated somewhere between Rahul must be his approximate profit/loss percentage?
(a) 3.33% profit
and Bijay. Vivek is to the east of Rahul.
(b) 4.20% loss
(iii) The location of Pradeep is 9 meters north of
(c) 3.33% loss
Rahul.
(d) 4.20% profit
(iv) Yogesh is seated 5 meters north of Bijay.
(v) Vivek is seated 2 meters west of Bijay.

If Pradeep wants to give something to Vivek,
what is the minimum distance he will need to
the 3 (three) items that follow.
move to reach Vivek?
The student of five houses, - A, B, C, D and E of a school
(a) 7 m
have prepared separate invitation cards for their guests.
(b) 17 m
Students of each house have prepared three cards.
(c) 13 m
Envelopes of only three colors, red, yellow and brown
(d) 15 m
are available at the school. Five envelops of each color
are available for the students. The following information
25. How many motor vehicle registration number is also known:
plates can be formed for the state of West 1. Only students of houses B, D and E wish to use the
Bengal with a code like (12W 3457), utilizing red envelopes.
the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 (with no digits being 2. Only students of houses A, B and C wish to use
repeated) and containing a consonant at the yellow envelopes.
alphabetical place? 3. Only students of houses C, D and E wish to use the
(a) 95760 brown envelopes.
(b) 116840 After insertion of the cards in the envelopes, it was found
(c) 105840 that two envelopes of red color were used by the houses
(d) 97560 B and D.

27. Which of the following houses use envelopes of Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
only one color? Read the following two passages and answer the items
(a) House A
(b) House C
(c) House E
Passage – 1
(d) Cannot be determined.
Overexploitation of natural resources, deforestation, and
28. Which of the following statements is correct? pollution contribute to climate change, intensifying its
(a) Yellow envelopes were used by only two adverse effects. Scarce resources fuel conflicts as
houses. communities vie for access, heightening tensions, and
(b) Red envelopes were used by only two
jeopardizing stability. Climate-induced resource
houses.
scarcity, like water shortages and agricultural
(c) Brown envelopes were used by only two
houses. challenges, amplifies vulnerabilities, especially in
(d) Envelopes of all the colors were used by marginalized regions. Sustainable resource
more than two houses. management, renewable energy adoption, and
international cooperation are crucial to mitigate climate
29. Brown envelopes were used by which of the
change and alleviate resource-driven conflicts, fostering
following houses?
a resilient and equitable global response to the complex
(a) House A and B
(b) House B and C interplay between diminishing resources and the
(c) House C, D and E escalating climate crisis.

(d) House A, D and E. 31. Which of the following statements best reflects
30. In a health department, the number of people
(a) The dual dilemma of climate change and
aged 31 years or above is 60 and there are 30
diminishing resources demands urgent
people whose ages are below 31 years. The
global attention and sustainable approaches.
average age of the employees working in the
health department is 26 years. What is the largest (b) Addressing climate change needs a
possible average age of the people working in multipronged approach.

the health department whose ages are below 31 (c) Diminishing resources caused by climate
years?
change has the potential to threaten human
(a) 12 years
survival.
(b) 16 years
(d) As climate change intensifies, it compounds
(c) 14 years
(d) 18 years the challenge of managing resources.
Passage – 2 33. Mr. David, a money lender of the city, gave a
The rapid evolution of technology has enabled the total of Rs. 20000 to his two friends Rocky and
creation and dissemination of misinformation at an
Romy for 5 years at simple interest. He gave
unprecedented scale. Technological ethics grapples with
some money out of 20000 to Rocky at 10% per
the moral implications of advancements in information
dissemination, particularly in the context of the annum and rest to Romy at 15% per annum. If
pervasive issue of fake news. Ethical considerations in after 5 years Mr. David received a total sum of
this realm involve questions of responsibility,
Rs. 32000, then what must have been the money
accountability, and the potential harm caused by the
he lent to Romy?
spread of false information. Fake news, often designed
to manipulate public opinion, can have profound societal (a) Rs.12000
consequences, eroding trust in information sources and (b) Rs.8000

contributing to a polarized discourse. Striking a balance (c) Rs.4000
between freedom of expression and the prevention of
(d) Rs.6000
harm is a complex challenge. Technological ethics
should guide the development and implementation of
tools and policies that promote transparency, fact- 34. Which of the following order of letters (from
checking, and responsible information sharing, fostering left to right) in the blanks makes the expression,
an ethical digital landscape that prioritizes truth and
A ____ ≥ ____ = ____< ___
32. What is the main idea that we can infer from
the passage? (a) C, B, D, A, G
(a) Ethical frameworks have explicitly (b) C, D, A, G, B

recognized and categorized the (c) B, D, G, A, C
responsibilities of technology platforms,
(d) G, D, B, C, A
content creators and consumers.
(b) Technological ethics may provide a
framework to discern fact from fiction in the 35. Choose the group which is different from the
growing digital era. others:

(c) With a robust surveillance system in place, (a) 9 ☺ 37 ☺ 5
dissemination of false information online
(b) 11 ☺ 135 ☺ 13
becomes difficult.
(c) 3 ☺ 15 ☺ 7
(d) The spread of fake news erodes trust in
reliable information sources. (d) 45 ☺ 757 ☺ 17

36. Study the following statements and decide 37. Who among the following lives on the 3rd floor
which of the given conclusions logically
of the vowel building?
follow(s) from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts. (a) B
1. Some Cars are not Cycle. (b) A
2. All Cycles are Truck.
(c) C
3. Only a few Trucks are Bikes.
4. Some Bikes are Buses. (d) I
Conclusions:
I. Some Cycles are Bikes.
38. How many floors are there between C and E?
II. All Buses being Cars is a possibility.
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) Two
below. (b) None
(c) One
(b) Both conclusions I and II follow
(c) Only conclusion II follows (d) Three
(d) Either conclusion I or II follows
39. Who lives between H and B?

Study the following information carefully and answer the (a) G
questions that follow. (b) A
There are two 5-story buildings in a complex, namely O
(c) J
and P, in which 10 persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J
- are living, not necessarily in the same order. The (d) I
topmost floor is marked as five, and the lowermost floor
is marked as one. Building O is to the west of building
40. A and B are two workers. B needs 20% more
P.
A and C live in the same building, and the letter of their time to finish a job than A does. Together they
building is a vowel. A lives on an odd numbered floor can finish a job in 9 days. A works alone till 30%
but below C. A and J are not in the same building.
of the job is done, then A and B work together
Similarly, I and D are not in the same building. The
building letter of I is a vowel and he lives on the fourth for two days, and thereafter B works alone to
floor. The floor number of E is an even number, and its
complete the remaining 33.33% of the job. In
building letter is a vowel. B and C are not in the same
building, and they live either on the topmost floor or on how many days can B alone finish the entire job?
the bottommost floor. G lives to the west of B in the same (a) 12 days
numbered flat, but below the flat of E. The difference
(b) 16 days
between the floor numbers of C and J is 3. J lives to the
southeast of C. H lives below F, with D living between (c) 14 days
them. (d) 18 days
41. In a T – 20 cricket match (having 20 overs each 44. In a 3-digit number, assume that a is at hundred's
for each team), which is being played between place, b is at ten's place, c is at unit's place and
Australia and India, the initial required run rate none of them is zero or nine. How many 3-digit
for India to win was 10.5. If the run rate at the positive integers with digits a, b and c exist, such
end of 14th over is 11.5, then the runs still that a < b and c < b?
required by India to win the match must be
(a) 168
(a) 57
(b) 224
(b) 39
(c) 216
(c) 49
(d) 140
(d) 51
42. 10% of Himanshu’s gross monthly salary is 45. Sandeep got married on the last date of the
deducted for NPS and 10% for TDS. The rest is February month of the year 1896. If he lived
given to him as in-hand salary. Himanshu spends upto 1963, then how many times did he celebrate
25% of his in-hand salary on fooding and his marriage anniversary?
lodging, 20% of the remaining on education and (a) 15
transportation, and 10% of the remaining on (b) 67
entertainment. If after all the transactions he is (c) 16
left with ₹ 15600, then which of the following
(d) 23
must be right?
(a) His gross monthly salary is Rs. 36518.
46. The following question is accompanied by three
(b) The remaining amount left after all the
statements 1, 2, and 3. You have to determine
transactions is approximately 35% of his
total gross monthly salary. which statement(s) is/are necessary to answer
(c) His monthly contribution towards NPS is the question.
Rs. 3,611. Two friends travel from Delhi to Bhopal and
(d) He spends Rs. 1773 on entertainment per back again. How long will it take them to travel
month. bothways by a car?
1. It takes a total of 15 hours to travel from
43. Three traders Sandeep, Pawan and Raghav deal Delhi to Bhopal by train and return by car.
in laptops. Sandeep sold a laptop to a customer 2. A person can save 3 hours if he travels both
after offering a 25% discount. Pawan sold a ways by train as compared to when he
laptop of the same model after applying two
chooses to travel by car while going to
successive discounts of 20% and 10%,
Bhopal from Delhi and then return by train.
respectively. Raghav sold a laptop of the same
3. The distance between Delhi and Bhopal is
model after giving a 56% discount. If the marked
prices of the three merchants - Sandeep, Pawan, 700 km.
and Raghav - were in the ratio of 2:3:4, find the Select the correct answer using the codes given
descending order of their selling prices. below.
(a) Sandeep > Pawan > Raghav (a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Raghav > Pawan > Sandeep (b) 2 and either 1 or 3
(c) Pawan > Sandeep > Raghav (c) Any two of them
(d) Pawan > Raghav > Sandeep (d) All statements are necessary
Read the following three passages and answer the items The election moral code of conduct in India is designed
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items to ensure fair, transparent, and ethical conduct during
should be based on the passages only. elections, covering various aspects such as campaigning,
Passage – 1 speeches, and general behaviour. The commitment of
In an era dominated by technology, the pursuit of a political parties and candidates to adhere to ethical
simple life is both elusive and challenging. While standards plays a pivotal role. Instances of violations,
technology promises convenience, it simultaneously including hate speech, misinformation, and divisive
introduces complexities into our daily existence. The rhetoric, challenge the code's efficacy. The sheer scale
and complexity of Indian elections further pose
relentless influx of information, the rapid pace of
challenges to enforcement. The Election Commission,
innovation, and the demand for constant connectivity
tasked with overseeing elections, plays a crucial role in
contribute to a more intricate and demanding lifestyle.
enforcing the code, but its effectiveness depends on the
Striking a balance between embracing technological
strength of its regulatory mechanisms, the timely
advancements and seeking simplicity requires conscious
adjudication of complaints, and the impartiality of its
choices. Simplicity in the digital age involves mindful
actions. Technological advancements and the changing
tech use, fostering genuine human connections, and
landscape of communication also necessitate regular
prioritizing well-being over the constant pursuit of more
updates to the code.
features. Navigating this delicate equilibrium allows
individuals to harness the benefits of technology without
succumbing to the overwhelming complexities it can
introduce in the quest for a simpler life.
1. The moral code of conduct should be made
legally enforceable to increase its
effectiveness.
1. Because of technology, it is not possible to
2. Regular violations of the moral code of
live a simple life anymore. conduct reflect the declining trend of the
2. Overuse of technology can make human life rule of law in political parties.
complex. Select the correct answer from the code given
Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid? below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
Passage – 3 51. N = 36 × 55 × 26 × 157. How many factors of N
Cuddling is a fundamental aspect of early bonding, are even numbers?
fostering emotional connection and a sense of security. (a) 1456
The tactile experience of physical closeness contributes
(b) 1024
to a child's social and emotional development, impacting
(c) 1020
their ability to form relationships and empathise with
others. The substitution of cuddling with mobile phones (d) 1092
may lead to a potential deficiency in essential

interpersonal skills. Excessive screen time can hinder 52. Following information is known about a six-
face-to-face communication, impairing the development digit number:
of crucial social cues and non-verbal communication i. Fourth digit of the number is the largest and
skills. This shift might contribute to a generation with
it is the sum of fifth and sixth digits.
diminished abilities to connect emotionally, understand
ii. The value of second digit is the sum of first
social nuances, and navigate complex relationships.
49. Based on the above passage, the following and third digits.
assumptions have been made: iii. The sixth digit is the units digit.
1. The busy schedule of today’s parents forces iv. Values of first and third digits are the same.
them to replace cuddling with phones. v. The fifth digit is the sum of third and second
2. Cuddling is crucial not only for emotional digits.
intelligence but also for social intelligence.
vi. Sixth digit is the sum of third and fifth digits.
What is the ratio of the fifth and the fourth digit?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (a) 2 : 5
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 3 : 7
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 7 : 3
(d) 1 : 5
50. A boy is playing in a lawn. There is an odd
number of balls placed in the lawn at intervals of
53. Nine persons have an average (arithmetic mean)
1 m in a straight line. The boy is assembling the
age of 50 years and a median age of 70 years. If
balls around the middle ball, while carrying only
one ball at a time. The boy carried out the job the oldest of the nine persons is 30 years older
starting with the ball in the middle, carrying than 3 times the age of the youngest person, what
balls in succession, thereby covering a distance is the maximum possible age of the oldest
of 364 m. What must be the number of balls in person?
the lawn?
(a) 85 Years
(a) 27
(b) 80 Years
(b) 28
(c) 95 Years
(c) 29
(d) 30 (d) 90 Years
54. There are six sections in a class, and they have 57. Consider the following sequence.
planned to visit a zoo. The number of students in * L& 1 > a % Q * Z 5 * 2 $ U E 7 O & 6 ^ 3 { 9
the sections is 160, 224, 96, 128, 192, and 64, “T ! D # 4 F 6 ^ 3
respectively. They need to be seated in buses If all the letters are dropped, which of the
with equal seating capacity. What is the following would be fifth to the right of the
minimum number of buses required, given that seventeenth element from the right end?
any given bus can have students of only one (a) 6
section? (b) >
(a) 25 (c) “
(b) 27 (d) &
(c) 32
(d) 29 58. On Diwali festival, a company decided to pay
cash bonus to its six best employees named
55. An artist needs to draw a flag with 7 colours Arya, Sharda, Himanshu, Javitri, Luvkush and
(VIBGYOR) of a rainbow, with one colour each Konika. Bonus is decided according to their
in 7 vertical strips. He can use the same colour performance during the year. Konika is not the
multiple times in the flag, but in such a manner least paid. Arya got five times the bonus of
that no two adjacent strips have the same colour. Konika, and one fourth that of Sharda.
What is the number of ways in which this can be Combined bonus of Luvkush and Konika is
done? equal to the combined bonus of Arya and
(a) 326592 Himanshu. The bonus earned by Javitri is equal
(b) 435758 to the difference in bonuses received by
(c) 3658790 Himanshu and Luvkush. Luvkush earns more
(d) 240000 than Himanshu. If Konika got Rs. 7500, then
what is the bonus received by Javitri?
56. Mona, Shubhra and Divyadharsini enter into a (a) 22500
partnership with capitals in the ratio 1/3:1/4:1/5. (b) 30000
After 3 months, Mona withdrew half of her (c) 7500
capital. If at the end of the year, the total profit (d) 15000
earned is Rs 10,000, then find the ratio of shares
of Mona, Shubhra and Divyadharsini in the 59. If 'LAPTOP' is written as 'MWYUKY', then how
profit earned. would 'BEACON' be written?
(a) 24: 25: 30 (a) JCFKWQ
(b) 7: 8: 6 (b) KDWCJA
(c) 25: 30: 24 (c) AWFGDK
(d) 6: 7: 8 (d) CAJDKW
60. The length of the longest pole that can be placed 61. Which of the following is/are the most rational
on the floor of a cuboidal room is 5 m, while the and logical inference/s that can be made from
length of the longest pole that can be fitted in any the passage?
manner in that room is 5√2 m. What is the height 1. It is not possible to overcome the long-
of the room?
lasting impacts of colonial legacy on the
(a) 3√2 m
tribal communities.
(b) 2√2 m
2. Not all tribal revolts may have been armed
(c) 4 m
uprisings against the deliberate cultural
(d) 5 m
impositions of the British rule.

Read the following three passages and answer the items below.
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items (a) 1 only
should be based on the passages only. (b) 2 only

Passage – 1 (c) Both 1 and 2
Colonial rule in India significantly impacted tribal (d) Neither 1 nor 2
communities, disrupting their socio-economic structures
and traditional ways of life. The imposition of British
62. Which of the following is most definitely
land policies, revenue systems, and forest regulations
implied by the above passage?
marginalized tribals, leading to land alienation and loss
(a) Despite failure, tribals were the most
of resources. Forced labour, cultural suppression, and
formidable opposition to British rule in
economic exploitation further exacerbated their plight.
In response to colonial oppression, tribals mounted India.
various forms of resistance. Many engaged in armed (b) Pre-colonial rule did more damage to the
uprisings, such as the Santhal Rebellion and the Birsa culture of the tribal Indian society than the
Munda-led Munda Rebellion, seeking to reclaim their colonial rule.
ancestral lands and resist cultural imposition. (c) British land policies and revenue systems
Additionally, some tribes retreated into remote areas to
continue to shape the socio-economic
preserve their distinct identities. The colonial legacy has
realities of Indian society at large.
left a lasting impact on tribal communities, contributing
(d) Despite opposition by tribals, colonial rule
to issues like displacement, poverty, and cultural
devastated the tribal society to a large extent
marginalization, which continue to shape their socio-
economic realities in post-colonial India. and the hangover is still far from over.
Economic development often prioritized urban and The British colonial administration laid the groundwork,
industrial areas, leaving rural regions with inadequate introducing parliamentary structures that continue to
influence Indian politics. Post-independence, the

access to education, healthcare, and employment
Constituent Assembly crafted a democratic framework,
opportunities. Income inequality widened, with
establishing key political institutions such as the
marginalized groups facing discrimination and limited
Parliament, judiciary, and executive. Over the years,
access to resources. Inefficient implementation of social
India's federal structure has evolved, accommodating
policies, bureaucratic hurdles, and corruption hindered regional diversity through the establishment of State
the effective delivery of welfare programs. Rapid Legislative Assemblies. Constitutional amendments and
population growth strained existing infrastructure, electoral reforms have aimed at enhancing
amplifying challenges in healthcare and education. representation and inclusivity. The evolution of political
institutions in India is an ongoing narrative, navigating

Gender disparities persisted, hindering the full
complexities to strengthen democratic foundations and
participation of women in the workforce. Furthermore,
foster inclusive governance in a diverse and dynamic
economic growth wasn't always inclusive, leading to a
nation.
disconnect between overall prosperity and individual
well-being.
63. Which of the following statements best reflects 1. Parliamentary structure is the only way
the practical implication of the passage? through which British colonialism has
(a) In India, inclusive growth has not happened influenced Indian politics.
at all. 2. Indian society, today, reflects the evolution
of its political institutions.

(b) Economic growth is inherently inclusive in
nature.
(a) 1 only
(c) Governments must ensure that economic
(b) 2 only
growth is inclusive in nature.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. Which of the following statements best reflects 67. Study the following statements and decide
the crux of the passage? which of the given conclusions logically
(a) From the colonial era to the present day, follow(s) from the given statements disregarding
India's political landscape has witnessed a
commonly known facts.
dynamic metamorphosis.
Statements:
(b) The evolution of political institutions comes
1. Only a few Mobiles are Apples.
with its own set of complexities and
limitations. 2. All Apples are Zodiacs.
(c) Political parties in India have transformed to 3. Only a few Zodiacs are Fish.
accommodate coalition partners and 4. No Fish is Tomatoes.
regional demands. Conclusions:
(d) Since independence, political institutions I. Some Apples are Tomatoes.
have evolved, but not Indian politics.
II. All Mobiles can never be Fish.
III. No Tomato is Apple.
66. Two statements I and II are given below
followed by a question. You have to ascertain
whether the information given in the below.
statement(s) is sufficient to answer the question, (a) All conclusions I, II and III follow
or not. (b) Only conclusions I and III follow
Statements: (c) Only conclusion III follows
I. Ragini took leave from her office on Friday. (d) Either conclusion I or III follows
II. Ragini visited her in-laws on Monday, the
day before her visit to Goa.
68. Consider the sequence wx_ivQhw_giVqhWx_
Question:
_vqH , that follows a certain pattern.
On which day of the week did Ragini visit Goa?
Select the correct answer from the code given Which of the following completes the sequence?
below. (a) ivQh
(a) If the information given in statement I is (b) QhXw
sufficient to answer the question, whereas (c) wiVq
the information given in statement II is not (d) GXgI
(b) If the information given in statement II is
69. What should come in place of (?) in the
sufficient to answer the question, whereas
following series?
the information given in statement I is not
sufficient to answer the question. 17, 23, 35, ?, 85, 127
(c) If either the information given in statement I (a) 56
or II is sufficient to answer the question. (b) 49
(d) If both the statements I and II together are (c) 53
not sufficient to answer the question. (d) 55
70. What is the number of straight lines in the 73. When Abhishek and Aishwarya got married 10
following figure? years ago, their ages were in the ratio of 5 : 4.
Today Abhishek’s age is one sixth more than
Aishwarya’s age. After marriage they had six
children, including a triplet and twins. The ages
of triplets, twins and the sixth child are in the
ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. What is the present total age of
(a) 10
the family if the youngest child is 3 years old?
(b) 12
(c) 13 (a) 83 years
(d) 17 (b) 112 years

(c) 74 years
71. In two mixtures, the ratios of water and sugar are (d) 107 years
5:1 and 1:6. 18 liters of mixture 1 and 28 liters
of mixture 2 are mixed with some pure water. A 74. Study the following information carefully and
new mixture is obtained in which the ratio of answer the question that follows.
water to sugar is 8:9. Find the total quantity of
The following table shows the percentage of
water in the new mixture.
students that attended 5 classes of different
(a) 23 litres
subjects in January 2024, and the ratio of boys
(b) 27 litres
and girls among them.
(c) 24 litres
Classes Total Students = 800 Boy : Girl
(d) 25 litres
Hindi 22% 1:3
English 14% 3:4
72. A pole of height 30 m is standing vertically on a
Bengali 16% 9:7
flat ground surface. It has been painted black up
Biology 25% 3:7
to a height of 10 m (from the ground) and the
Geography 23% 3:5
rest of the pole is painted red. If there is a point
on the ground on which both the black and the Find the difference between the total number of
red parts of the pole make equal angles, then find girls who attended classes of Bengali and
the distance of the point from the base of the Geography to that of the total number of boys
pole? who attended classes of Hindi and Biology?
(a) 10√3 m (a) 63
(b) 10√2 m (b) 72
(c) 10 m (c) 71
(d) 7.5 m (d) 67
75. Rukmani starts from a point P and travels 30 m Passage – 1
eastwards to Q and then turns left and travels The ethical hacker, or "white hat," employs the same
thrice that distance to reach R. She again turns techniques as malicious hackers but with the goal of
left and travels five times the distance she identifying and fortifying security weaknesses rather
covered between P and Q and reaches her than exploiting them. This paradoxical role mirrors the
destination S. What is the shortest distance dichotomy within cybersecurity – the battle between
between the starting point and the destination? intrusion and defence, attack, and protection. As
(a) 125 m technology advances, the need for ethical hacking
(b) 120 m becomes increasingly paramount to pre-emptively
(c) 175 m address vulnerabilities before they can be exploited.
(d) 150 m Organizations enlist ethical hackers to conduct
penetration testing and vulnerability assessments,
76. 2 men and 2 women players are to be chosen for ensuring that systems are robust against evolving threats.
the mix doubles team for a tennis tournament. This dichotomy is essential in maintaining the delicate
The selection is to be made from two different balance between innovation and security in an ever-
groups A and B. Group A consists of 3 women evolving digital landscape.
players and 2 men players, while Group B 77. Which of the following is/are the most rational
consists of 3 men players and 2 women players. and logical inference/inferences that can be
In how many maximum number of different made from the passage?
ways the selection can be made so that two 1. The state must support organizations and
players are from Group A and two players are ethical hackers to build infrastructure for
from Group B? cybersecurity, especially in this era of cross
(a) 40 border cyber-attacks.
(b) 46 2. An ethical hacker has the potential to
(c) 52 become a malicious hacker.
(d) 34 Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Directions for the following 4 (four) items: (a) 1 only
Read the following three passages and answer the items (b) 2 only
Passage – 2 79. Based on the above passage, the following
The paradox of morality lies in the intricate tension
between universal principles and cultural relativity,
creating a dynamic interplay that challenges our 1. Both conscience and legal frameworks are
understanding of right and wrong. Morality often
purports to embody universal truths, grounded in ethical not reliable sources of ethical decision-
principles transcending cultural boundaries. Cultural making.
context moulds moral frameworks, giving rise to
situations where actions deemed morally acceptable in 2. Societal culture and values certainly affect
one culture may be condemned in another. Moreover, the
and dictate both conscience and legal
paradox of morality extends to the internal conflict
within individuals. Personal moral convictions may frameworks.
clash with societal norms, creating a complex internal
struggle.
78. Which one of the following is the most logical (a) 1 only
the above passage? (b) 2 only
(a) The paradox of morality pushes individuals (c) Both 1 and 2
to navigate moral dilemmas that challenge
their established beliefs. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) The paradox of morality emanates out of the
clash between universal and personal
principals with social and cultural norms. 80. What is the most rational inference that can be
(c) Morality asserts absolutes while ethical
drawn from the passage?
relativism sees shades in cultural contexts.
(d) To resolve the paradox of morality one (a) Conscience is an internal compass, while
should do a critical examination of the
laws are external guardrails of a civilized
cultural boundaries.
Passage – 3 order.
Conscience, often seen as an inner moral compass, is
subjective and influenced by personal beliefs, values, (b) The reliability of conscience and laws, rules,
and cultural context. While it can provide a sense of and regulations in ethical decision-making
individual integrity, its subjectivity raises concerns about
consistency and potential biases. Laws, rules, and is a nuanced and debated topic.
regulations, on the other hand, offer a structured
(c) Conscience and legal frameworks are
framework for ethical behaviour. They are designed to
promote fairness, justice, and societal well-being. mutually exclusive as they do not
Adherence to legal and regulatory standards may lack the
complement each other.
flexibility to address every moral dilemma and may not
always align with evolving societal values. The ongoing (d) Reliability of conscience or legal
dialogue between personal conscience and legal
frameworks is essential for navigating the complexities frameworks increases with its adaptability
of ethical decision-making in a dynamic and diverse to the moral dilemma at hand.
world.
VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

1 (c)
C1 →  C2
A → 1 → P →→→→ 4 →→→→ B
Let Car C1 took “t” hours to reach at point P. Then Car C2 will take “t+2” hours to reach point P.
If AP = d km, then BP = 4d km
It is given that speed of C2 is 80% (4/5th) that of C1. So, if speed of Car C1 is d/t km/hr, then speed of Car
C2 would be 4d/5t km/hr.
So, d/(d/t) + 2 = 4d/(4d/5t)
Or t + 2 = 5t
Ot t = 2/4 = ½ hour = 30 minutes
So, option (c) is the correct answer.
2 (a)
Total employees (i.e. Sample space), n(S) = 340
Total graduate employees = 85
Now, total employees who are not graduate, n(E) = 340 – 85 = 255
So, probability of selecting an employee who is not a graduate, P(not graduate) = n(E)/n(S) = 255/340 =
0.75
3 (c)
In a correct clock, the minute hand gains 55 minute spaces over the hour hand in 60 minutes.
To be together again, the minute hand must gain 60 minutes over the hour hand.
Since, 55 minutes are gained in 60 minutes.
So, 1 minute is gained in 60/55 minutes.
So, 60 minutes are gained in 60/55 × 60 = 720/11 minutes.
So, in a correct clock, the hands of a clock coincide every 720/11 minutes.
But in this case, they are together again after 64 minutes, hence the clock must be gaining time.
So, the gain in 64 minutes = 720/11 – 64 = 16/11 min.
So, the gain in 1 min. =16/(11×64) min.
∴ The gain in one day (24×60 min.) = 16/(11×64)×24×60 = 360/11 min. = 360/11 min.
4 (c)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given assumption is not correct as it is not based on the passage. The
passage does not discuss the common habits of successful people. The passage only mentions habits and
their importance in daily tasks. Furthermore, it would be incorrect to say that the successful people have
common habits. So, this assumption is not correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The passage nowhere mentions that all daily habits have an equal impact on
the completion of daily tasks. The passage only covers habits and their role in daily life.

5 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option is not correct because the passage does not discuss small or big
habits. It’s just talking about habits in general.
Option (b) is incorrect: This option focuses on choosing the right career habits for achieving
professional goals. But, the passage is about the relevance of daily habits for enhancing quality of life in
general, not confined to career goals only. This answer option significantly narrows down the scope of the
passage. Hence, this is not the most rational inference.
Option (c) is correct: Consider the lines “Habits serve as the silent architects of a streamlined and
efficient life, making the complex tasks of daily living more manageable … Whether it's the automatic
sequence of a morning routine or the disciplined approach to work, habits contribute to time
management and overall well-being.” These lines show that habits improve the quality of life. Hence,
this is the most rational inference.
Option (d) is incorrect: The passage is about the significance of habits in daily life and routines.
However, the option makes a comparative analysis of shunning bad habits and fostering new ones, which
is not indicated in the passage. So, this is not the most rational inference of the passage.
6 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The context of polar bears being shifted to other oceans is not a part of the
passage. The passage is about climate change and its impact on polar bears. So, this option is beyond the
Option (b) is correct: The passage conveys that climate change has impacted polar bears and even
threatened their survival. So, any policy for the Arctic Ocean must keep polar bears in focus. The lines
“Conservation efforts, sustainable policies, and international cooperation are imperative to mitigate the
melting of Arctic ice, safeguard the unique ecosystem, and ensure the survival of polar bears, emblematic
creatures of the Arctic facing an uncertain future in the wake of climate-induced transformations” also
carry the same essence. So, this is the most logical inference from the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not mention reversing climate change as the ‘only’ way to
protect polar bears. It only mentions mitigation of climate change for the survival of polar bears in the
lines “Conservation efforts, sustainable policies, and international cooperation are imperative to mitigate
the melting of Arctic ice, safeguard the unique ecosystem, and ensure the survival of polar bears,
emblematic creatures of the Arctic facing an uncertain future in the wake of climate-induced
transformations.” Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The passage is about polar bears and the impact of climate change on them. The
passage does not mention that polar bears are keystone species. Therefore, this option is not correct.
7 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The option captures the main theme of the passage, which is the role of political
maturity in strengthening democracy. It is visible in the lines “Democracy, a cornerstone of political
systems, thrives when accompanied by political maturity among citizens … Political maturity acts as a
stabilizing force, fostering constructive dialogue and conflict resolution, ensuring that democratic ideals
withstand internal tensions and external pressures, and allowing nations to navigate challenges.” These
lines reflect that political maturity plays an important role in strengthening democracy. Hence, this is the
correct and best answer.
Option (b) is incorrect: The option is not correct because it states that a mature democracy consists of a
“biologically mature population” instead of saying a “politically mature population”. The central theme of
the passage focusses upon the role of political maturity in making democracy stronger. So, this option is
not the correct answer.
Option (c) is incorrect: Refer to the lines “Striking a balance between individual rights and collective
responsibility becomes paramount for the sustenance of a robust democracy.” The author clearly talks
about balancing individual rights and collective responsibility. A democracy might become chaotic if
there is no balance between individual rights and collective responsibility. Hence, this option is not the
correct answer.
Option (d) is incorrect: The central theme of the passage is political maturity and its significance for
strengthening democracy. However, the option talks about the elements of democracy, which is neither
the main idea of the passage, nor is covered in the passage per se. Hence, this answer option is incorrect.
8 (d)
I) 2a2 – 3a – 44 = 0
Or 2a2 + 8a – 11a – 44 = 0
Or 2a (a + 4) – 11 (a + 4) = 0
Or (2a – 11) (a + 4) = 0
Or a = 11/2, -4 = 5.5, -4
II) 3b2 – 20b + 25 = 0
Or 3b2 – 15b – 5b + 25 = 0
Or 3b (b – 5) – 5 (b – 5) = 0
Or (3b – 5) (b – 5) = 0
Or b = 5/3, 5 = 1.66, 5
9 (b)
Total number of biscuits in a packet = 4 x 15 = 60
Total number of broken biscuits in a packet = 5% of 60 = 3
Total number of broken biscuits in the carton = 3 x 50 = 150
10 (c)
Let the ages of Geeta and Sita be G and S respectively.
40% = 2/5
(1/5) (G + S) = (2/5) (S - G)
Or (G + S) = 2 (S - G)
Or S = 3G
∴ Required percentage = (G/S) × 100 = (G/3G) × 100 = 33.33%
11 (b)
Number of odd days in 9999 = Remainder [9999/7] = 3
If 1st January 2024 is Monday, then 9999 days from now will be Monday + 3, i.e. Thursday.
12 (b)
The value of a car is depreciating by 12.5% every year.
We know that, A = P [1 – (R/100)]t
Where, A = Final amount; P = Initial amount = 540000; R = rate of depreciation = 12.5%; time, t = 4
∴ A = P (1 – 125/1000)4
Or A = 540000(7/8)4
Or A = 316538.086
So, the price of the car in the year 2025 will be Rs. 316538.
13 (a)
We have to find the number of internal cubes, i.e. the number of cubes that are not exposed.
There are 512 cubes. Now, 83 = 512. So, n = 8
Number of internal cubes = (n - 2)3 = (8 - 2)3 = 63 = 216
14 (b)
Let MNOPQR be a six-digit telephone number.
Given that the first two digits of each number are 5 and 4.
Therefore, the telephone number is 54OPQR.
As repetition is not allowed and 5 and 4 are already taken, the digits available for place O are 0, 1, 2, 3, 6,
7, 8, 9, i.e. eight possible digits.
Thereafter, the number of digits that can come at place P is 7.

Similarly, at Q, the number of possible digits is 6.
Similarly, at R, the number of possible digits is 5.
Therefore, the number of such 6-digit telephone numbers = 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 = 1680
15 (b)
On observing the graph, we can say that death of children due to lack of vaccination from 1990 to 2005
has decreased from 5 million to 1 million, and the death of children due to diseases from 1990 to 2005 has
increased from 3 million to 4.5 million. Hence, statement in option (a) is correct.
The total number of deaths of children due to malnutrition in year 1990 is 4 million, which is not equal to
the total number of deaths of children due to diseases in 2005 which is 4.5 million. Hence, statement in
option (b) is not correct.
Total number of deaths of children due to diseases from 1990 to 2005 is 15 million (i.e. 3 + 3.5 + 4 + 4.5
= 15), which is more than total number of deaths of children due to malnutrition from 1990 to 2005 which
is 9 million (i.e. 4 + 2.5 + 2 + 0.5 = 9). Hence, statement in option (c) is correct.
The number of deaths of children in year 1990 = 5 + 4 + 3 = 12 million
The number of deaths of children in year 2005 = 1 + 0.5 + 4.5 = 6 million (i.e. half of 12 million)
Hence, statement in option (d) is correct.
16 (a)
Family diagram:
Tejas +  Manya − Shan +  Vinu −

Laddu + Nitya −  Ishan +

Jay +
So, Ishan is the spouse of Nitya.
17 (a)
18 (a)
The given word is ABIOGENETICALLY.
On arranging its letters alphabetically in reverse order, we get: “YTONLLIIGEECBAA”
Now, let's compare the two to identify the letters with unchanged positions.
A B I O G E N E T I C A L L Y
Y TON L L I I G EE C B AA
We find that no letter has stayed in the same position.
19 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The main theme of the passage is how social influence affects governance and
vice versa, not why one must have a strong social influence.
Option (b) is incorrect: Saying that governance without social influence would be meaningless is
hypothetical. Moreover, it only covers one aspect of the passage, which is how social influence affects
governance, and misses the second aspect of governance affecting social influence. Hence, this is not the
best inference.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given option seems to be correct as it partially covers the context of the
passage. “How social influence affects governance” is covered, but it misses how governance impacts
social influence. So, this option is not the most logical inference.
Option (d) is correct: The passage covers the effect of social influence on governance and vice versa. It
can be seen in the lines “The advent of social media has amplified the speed and reach of social
influence, enabling citizens to voice their concerns and mobilize movements.” and “Effective
governance requires responsiveness to public sentiment and the ability to positively navigate and channel
social influence.” Based on these lines we can infer that governance shapes societal influence, and
societal influence also moulds the nature of governance.
20 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The passage nowhere mentions the sustainability of leisure, especially
whether or not it is natural. In fact, the passage mentions that sustained leisure can be achieved after
addressing the challenges in the integration of machines into leisure. So, this assumption is contradictory
to the information contained in the passage and hence is not correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The passage does not discuss “the development of” technology per se.
Sustained leisure will depend not on technology but on addressing the challenges in the integration of
machines into leisure. So, this assumption is not correct because it is beyond the scope of the passage.
21 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: “Two sides of the same coin”, suggests that the two aspects are inseparable or
inherently linked, much like the two sides of an actual coin that cannot exist independently. Here, in the
given passage, leisure and machines are connected, but they can exist independently as well. So, this
option does not best reflect the crux.
Option (b) is correct: The given option is correct because of the lines “Achieving a harmonious
integration of machines into leisure necessitates addressing the multifaceted challenges to ensure a
balanced, inclusive, and sustainable leisure landscape for all.” The whole passage mentions the
multifaceted challenges like “Ethical considerations surface with data privacy issues … affecting mental
well-being. Environmental sustainability … to growing e-waste concerns.” These challenges must be
addressed to fulfil machine-based leisure. So, we can say that machine-based leisure is incomplete without
addressing its challenges.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss the evolution of leisure. Rather, it discusses the
challenges related to the infusion of machines into leisure activities. So, this option can be ruled out as
incorrect.
Option (d) is incorrect: The passage has not touched upon the future of leisure from technology or
machines. So, to infer that the future of leisure from machines would be detrimental would not be correct,
as it is not based on any information contained in the passage. Hence, this option is not correct.
22 (b)
Let 5 kg of coffee be mixed with 2 kg of chicory.
C.P. of the mixture = Rs. (5 × a + 2 × b) = Rs. (5a + 2b)
S.P. of the mixture = (5 + 2) c = Rs. 7c
Since the seller registers a gain, therefore S.P. > C.P.
Gain/Profit = S.P. – C.P. = 7c – (5a + 2b) = Rs. (7c – 5a – 2b)
23 (a)
Based on the information provided in the question, we get:
S. No. Book
1. Bengali
2. Manipuri
3. Bhojpuri
4. English
5. Punjabi
6. Tamil
7. Hindi
So, option (a) is the correct answer.

24 (d)
Distance between Rahul and Bijay is 2 less than the square of 4, i.e. 42 - 2 = 14 m
Based on the information provided in the question, we get:
The minimum distance needed to be covered by Pradeep to reach Vivek = √(12 2 + 92) = √(144 + 81) = 15
m
25 (c)
There are 21 consonants.
Therefore, the possible number of motor vehicle registration number plates that can be formed for the
state of West Bengal = 7 x 6 x 21 (consonants) x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 = 105840.
26 (c)
Let the cost price of one meter cloth be Rs. x.
So, marked price of one meter cloth = Rs. 1.45x.
And, selling price of one meter cloth = 1.45x (70/100) = 1.015x
Now, due to the increase in the length of scale, the cost price of cloth (which the merchant thinks to be
one meter, but is actually 1.05 m) will be Rs. 1.05x.
So, loss = 1.05x – 1.015x = 0.035x
Loss percentage = (0.035x/1.05x) x 100 = 3.33%
After insertion of the cards in the envelopes, it was found that two envelopes of red color were used by
the houses B and D. We can represent it as follows:
House Card 1 Card 2 Card 3
A
B Red Red
C
D Red Red
E
Now, red envelopes were chosen by the houses B, D and E. Therefore, the fifth red envelope has to be
used by house E.
Further, besides red, house B prefers yellow envelope only. So, third card of House B is inserted in yellow
envelope.
Besides red, house D prefers brown envelope. So, the third card of house D has to go in brown envelope.
Filling this information in the table we get:
A
B Red Red Yellow
C
D Red Red Brown
E Red
House E prefers red and brown. Therefore, the remaining 2 cards of house E have to go in brown
envelopes.
House A likes only yellow envelopes. So, all the three cards of House A will go in yellow envelopes.
A Yellow Yellow Yellow
B Red Red Yellow
C
D Red Red Brown
E Red Brown Brown
House C has to use the remaining one yellow and two brown envelopes. Hence, we get:
A Yellow Yellow Yellow
B Red Red Yellow
C Yellow Brown Brown
D Red Red Brown
E Red Brown Brown
27 (a)
As seen in the table above, House A uses all the three envelopes of the same color.
28 (d)
As we can read from the table, envelopes of all the colors were used by exactly three houses.
29 (c)
From the table we can see that brown envelopes were used by houses C, D and E.
30 (b)
The average age of the people whose ages are below 31 years will be maximum if the average age of the
people aged 31 years and above is minimum. So, let’s assume that there are 60 people having the same
age of 31 years.
Let x be the maximum possible average age of the people whose ages are below 31 years.
So, (31×60 + 30x)/(60 + 30) = 26
Or 1860 + 30x = 26×90
Or 30x = 2340 – 1860
Or 30x = 480
Or x = 16
So, option (b) is the correct answer.
31 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The given option best summarizes the whole theme of the passage which is the
crucial issue of diminishing resources caused by climate change and the attention it needs in the form of
international cooperation and sustainable solutions. The lines, “Climate-induced resource scarcity, …
Sustainable resource management, renewable energy adoption, international cooperation are crucial to
mitigate climate change and alleviate resource-driven conflicts, fostering a resilient and equitable
global response to the complex interplay between diminishing resources and the escalating climate
crisis” validate the given option. Hence, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option is vague. The passage talks about diminishing resources and
how it is connected to climate change, but this option only talks about solutions to climate change. So, this
option does not capture the central theme or context of the passage in its entirety.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not cover the context of human survival due to diminishing
resources caused by climate change. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.

Option (d) is incorrect: The given option seems correct. However, it only partially covers the theme of
the passage. It only mentions the issue and misses the solution suggested in the passage regarding
sustainable resource management and global cooperation. So, this option is not the best crux of the
passage.
32 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage nowhere specifies or mentions about the responsibilities of
technology platforms, content creators and consumers separately. Hence, this is not the correct inference.
Option (b) is correct: The given option is based on the lines: “Technological ethics should guide the
development and implementation of tools and policies that promote transparency, fact-checking, and
responsible information sharing, fostering an ethical digital landscape that prioritizes truth and
integrity.” These lines show that technological ethics are critical for handling fake news because ethics
promote transparency, truth and integrity. Hence, this option is correct.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about a surveillance system. Moreover,
this option misses out the main theme of the passage, which is technological ethics. Hence, this is not the
correct inference.
Option (d) is incorrect: Though true, this statement misses out the main theme of the passage, which is
technological ethics. Fake news is an important aspect covered in the passage, but so is technological
ethics.
33 (b)
Total amount lent = 20000
Total interest after 5 years = 32000 – 20000 = Rs. 12000
Simple interest (SI) = (P × R × T)/100
or 12000 = (20000 × R × 5)/100
or R = (12000 × 100)/(20000 × 5)
or R = 12%
Hence, we get:
∴ The ratio of shares of money lent to Rocky and Romy = 3 : 2

Threfore, money lent to Romy = (2/5) × 20000 = Rs. 8000
34 (d)
(a) C > B ≥ D = A < G; here, A D ≥ A = G < B; here A D ≥ G = A < C; here A D ≥ B = C < A; here A < B is definitely false.
35 (c)
The pattern is: I x III - 23 = II
(a) 9 ☺ 37 ☺ 5 = 9 x 5 - 23 = 37
(b) 11 ☺ 135 ☺ 13 = 11 x 13 - 23 = 135
(c) 3 ☺ 15 ☺ 7 = = 3 x 7 - 6 = 15
(d) 45 ☺ 757 ☺ 17 = = 45 x 17 - 23 = 757
36 (c)
Venn diagram:
Hence option (c) is the right answer.

The floor number of E is an even number, and its building letter is a vowel. G lives to the west of B in the
same numbered flat, but below the flat of E. B and C are not in the same building, and they live either on
the topmost floor or on the bottommost floor. On considering these conditions, we get:
Case 1 Case 2
Floors Building O Building P Building O Building P
5 C C
4 E
3
2 E
1 G B G B
The difference between the floor numbers of C and J is 3. A and C live in the same building, and the letter
of their building is a vowel. J lives to the southeast of C. A and J are not in the same building. A lives on
an odd numbered floor but below C. On considering these conditions, we get:
Case 1 Case 2
Floors Building O Building P Building O Building P
5 C C
4 E
3 A A
2 E J J
1 G B G B
Now, I and D are not in the same building. The building letter of I is a vowel and he lives on the fourth
floor. H lives below F, with D living between them. So, Case 2 gets eliminated.
Case 1
Floors Building O Building P
5 C F
4 I D
3 A H
2 E J
1 G B
37 (b)
38 (a)
39 (c)
40 (a)
30% of the work is done by A alone. It means A did 3/10 unit of work alone.
33.33% of the work is done by B alone. It means B did 1/3 unit of work alone.
Portion of work done by A and B together in 2 days = [1 – {(3/10) + (1/3)}
= 1 – (19/30) = 11/30
So, the portion of work done by A and B together in 1 day = 11/60
It is given that B takes 20% more time than A. Let A completes a work in x days. Then B will complete
the same work in 1.2x days.
So, (1/x) + (1/1.2x) = 11/60
Or (1/x) + (5/6x) = 11/60
Or (11/6x) = 11/60
Or x = 10 days
B can complete the work in 1.2x days, i.e. 1.2 × 10 = 12 days
41 (c)
Given: Total overs in 1 inning = 20
Required run rate initially = 10.5/over
∴ Total runs to chase = 20 × 10.5 = 210
Now, Run rate at the end of 14th over = 11.5
∴ Total runs at the end of 14th over = 11.5 × 14 = 161
∴ Runs still required by India to win the match = 210 – 161 = 49 runs
42 (c)
Let gross salary of Himanshu be 100 units.
Net salary (or in-hand salary) = 100 – 20 = 80 units.
Himanshu spends 25% of his in-hand salary on fooding and lodging, 20% of the remaining on education
and transportation, and 10% of the remaining on entertainment.
So, amount left with him = 80 x (75/100) x (80/100) x (90/100) = 43.2 units.
Now, 43.2 units = 15600
Or 100 units = (15600/43.2) x 100 = 36111.11 (approx.)
Monthly contribution toward NPS = 10 units = 361.11 × 10 = Rs. 3,611.11
Amount spent on entertainment = 4.8 units = 4.8 × 361.11 = Rs. 1733.33
43 (d)
Let marked prices of Sandeep, Pawan, and Raghav be ₹ 200, ₹ 300, and ₹ 400 respectively.
Selling price of Sandeep after 25% discount = 200 × (100 – 25)/100 = Rs. 150
Selling price of Pawan after giving two successive discounts of 20% and 10% = 300 × {(80/100) ×
(90/100)} = Rs. 216
Selling price of Raghav after giving 56% discount = 400 × {(100 – 56)/100} = Rs. 176
∴ Descending order of their selling prices is Pawan > Raghav > Sandeep.
44 (d)
a < b and c < b
If we assume value of b to be 8, then a and c can be any digit between 1 and 7.
So, the total number of such numbers = 7 × 7 = 49
If we assume value of b to be 7, then a and c can be any digit between 1 and 6.
So, the total number of such numbers = 6 × 6 = 36
…..and so on.
So, the total number of such numbers = 49 + 36 + 25 + 16 + 9 + 4 + 1 = 140
45 (c)
Last date of the February month of the year 1896 = 29 (1896 is a leap year)
Number of years in his entire married life = 1963 – 1896 = 67
Number of leap years in his entire married life = Quotient [67/4] = 16
So, he will celebrate 16 marriage anniversaries in his entire life.

46 (a)
From statements 1 and 2, time taken by both friends to travel both ways by train = 15 – 3 = 12 hrs.
So, time taken to travel one way by train = 12/2 = 6 hrs
Hence, time taken to travel one way by car = 6 + 3 = 9 hrs
So, time required to travel bothways by a car = 9 × 2 = 18 hrs.
47 (a)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given statement is not correct because it is an extreme one. The passage
does not imply that it is not possible to live a simple life. The line “In an era dominated by technology, the
pursuit of a simple life is both elusive and challenging (but not impossible)”. So, this is an incorrect
assumption.
Assumption 2 is correct: The given assumption is based on the lines “Simplicity in the digital age
involves mindful tech use, fostering genuine human connections, … benefits of technology without
succumbing to the overwhelming complexities it can introduce in the quest for a simpler life.” Hence,
this assumption is correct.
48 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The passage nowhere mentions that issues or violations of the moral code are
happening because of the lack of legal sanctity. The passage is about enforcement and its effectiveness.
Also, whether effectiveness will increase by making it legal has not been discussed in the passage. Hence,
this inference is not correct.
Inference 2 is incorrect: The passage does not state that moral code is regularly violated, or that this
situation is worsening day by day. Moreover, the passage talks about political ethics in the parties and not
the rule of law. Rule of law is different from moral code. So, this inference is not correct.
49 (b)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given assumption is not correct because the passage does not trace the
cause of the replacement of cuddling with phones. Therefore, to assume that parents are busy and that is
why they have replaced cuddling with phones would not be correct.
Assumption 2 is correct: The given assumption is based on the following lines “This shift might
contribute to a generation with diminished abilities to connect emotionally, understand social nuances,
and navigate complex relationships.” This shows that if cuddling does not happen properly, it may affect
a person emotionally as well as socially. Hence, it is crucial for emotional as well as social intelligence.
50 (a)
Let the number of balls be ‘n’.
As the boy covers 364 m, he covers 364/2 = 182 m on the one side and 182 m on the other side.
First consider the distance covered on one side:
As the balls are placed in the lawn at intervals of 1 m in a straight line, so the total distance covered by
him = 2 + (2+2) + (2+2+2) + (2+2+2+2) + ………. = 2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + ………… = n/2[2×2 + (n – 1) 2] =
n(n+1)
[Sum of ‘n’ terms in A.P. (arithmetic progression), Sn = n/2[2a + (n – 1) d],
where, n = number of terms, a = first term and d = common difference].
Here n is the number of balls or number of terms in the A.P.
So, n(n+1) = 182 = 13×14
∴ n = 13.
Hence, the total number of balls = 13 + 13 + 1 = 27.
51 (d)
N = 36 × 55 × 26 × 157 = 36 × 55 × 26 × 37 × 57 = 313 × 512 × 26
So, total number of factors = (13 + 1) × (12 + 1) × (6 + 1) = 14 × 13 × 7
Any odd factor will have to be a combination of 3 and 5.
Total number of odd factors of 313 × 512 = (13 + 1) × (12 + 1) = 14 × 13

Total number of even factors = Total number of factors – Total number of odd factors = (14 × 13 × 7) –
(14 × 13) = 1092
52 (b)
Let the first digit be n.
Third digit is equal to first digit. So, it will also be n.
Second digit = Sum of first and third digits = n + n = 2n
Fifth digit = Sum of third and second digits = n + 2n = 3n
Sixth digit = Sum of third and fifth digits = n + 3n = 4n
Fourth digit = Sum of fifth and sixth digits = 3n + 4n = 7n
Ratio of fifth and fourth digit = 3n : 7n = 3 : 7
53 (d)
Let a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h and i be the ages, in years, of the persons, listed from youngest to oldest. From the
given information it follows that e = 70 and i = 3a + 30.
Therefore, listed from youngest to oldest, the ages are a, b, c, d, 70, f, g, h and 3a + 30.
The maximum value of 3a + 30 will occur when the maximum value of a is used, and this will be the case
only if the youngest 4 persons all have the same age. Therefore, listed from youngest to oldest, the ages
are a, a, a, a, 70, f, g, h and 3a + 30.
The maximum value for a and by extension 3a + 30 will occur when f, g and h are as small as possible.
Since f, g and h are to the right of the median, they must be at least 70 and so 70 is the least possible value
for each of f, g and h. Therefore, listed from youngest to oldest, the ages are a, a, a, a, 70, 70, 70, 70 and
3a + 30. Since the average age is 50, we get:
(a+a+a+a+70+70+70+70+(3a+30))/9 = 50
or, a = 20.
Hence, the maximum possible age of the oldest person = 3a + 30 = 3×20 + 30 = 90 years.
54 (b)
HCF of 160, 224, 96, 128, 192 and 64 = 32
So, minimum number of buses required = (160 + 224 + 96 + 128 + 192 + 64)/32 = 864/32 = 27
55 (a)
For the first strip, we have 7 colour options - say VIBGYOR.
For the second strip, we need to choose a colour different from the first strip. So, we have 6 colour
options. - say IBGYOR.
For the third strip, we need to choose a colour different from the second strip. So, we have 6 colour
options. - say VBGYOR.
….and so on.
So, the total number of possible ways to design the flag = 7 x 6 x 6 x 6 x 6 x 6 x 6 = 326592
56 (c)
Mona Shubhra Divyadharsini
Ratio of capitals = 1/3 : 1/4 : 1/5
= 1/3 ×60 : 1/4 ×60 : 1/5 ×60 [LCM (3,4,5) = 60]
= 20 : 15 : 12
Ratio of profits = 20×3 + 10×9 : 15×12 : 12×12
= 150 : 15×12 : 12×12
= 25 : 30 : 24

57 (a)
Given series : * L& 1 > a % Q * Z 5 * 2 $ U E 7 O & 6 ^ 3 { 9 “T ! D # 4 F 6 ^ 3
After dropping the letters, we get: * & 1 > % * 5 * 2 $ 7 & 6 ^ 3 { 9 “ ! # 4 6 ^ 3
Seventeenth element from the right end: *
Fifth to the right of the seventeenth element: 6
58 (b)
Arya = (1/4) Sharda
Arya = 5 Konika
Arya + Himanshu = Luvkush + Konika ………….(i)
Luvkush - Himanshu = Javitri
Or Luvkush = Himanshu + Javitri ………….(ii)
Now, on putting Arya = 5 Konika and Luvkush = Himanshu - Javitri in equation (i):
Arya + Himanshu = Luvkush + Konika
Or 5 Konika + Himanshu = Himanshu + Javitri + Konika
Or 4 Konika = Javitri
Or Javitri = 4 × 7500 = 30000.
59 (d)
Here, we are required to decipher or decode the pattern.
LAPTOP is written as MWYUKY. We can see that the underlying pattern is very simple, as shown
below:
L + 12 = M
A - 22 = W
P + 32 = Y
T + 12 = U
O - 22 = K
P + 32 = Y
We will follow a similar pattern to code BEACON.
B + 12 = C
E - 22 = A
A + 32 = J
C + 12 = D
O - 22 = K
N + 32 = W
So, the required code is CAJDKW.
60 (d)
Let the length, breadth and height of the cuboidal room be l, b and h respectively.
The length of the longest pole that can be placed on the floor of the cuboidal room is equal to the length of
the diagonal of the floor (a rectangle) with its sides as the length and breadth of the room.
So, l2 + b2 = 52…………………. І
The length of the longest pole that can be placed in the room in any manner is equal to the space diagonal
of the cuboidal room.
So, l2 + b2 + h2 = (5√2)2 ………… II
Using I and II, we get:
52 + h2 = 50
⇒ h2 = 50 – 25
⇒ h2 = 25
∴ h = 5 m.

61 (b)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The given inference is not correct because of the phrase ‘not possible’. The
passage is about how colonial rule impacted tribal societies and how it continues to do so. However, this
option states that it is not possible to overcome those impacts. Whether it is possible or not is not
discussed in the passage. Hence, this option is not correct because the passage does not state so.
Inference 2 is correct: The given inference is correct because of the line - “Many engaged in armed
uprisings, such as the Santhal Rebellion and the Birsa Munda-led Munda Rebellion, seeking to reclaim
their ancestral lands and resist cultural imposition.” This line shows that many (probably not all) adopted
violent or armed means to resist cultural change. So, this inference is correct.
62 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option is not correct because the passage does not mention tribals to
be the ‘most’ formidable opposition. The passage does not compare tribals with any other section in the
context of opposing the British. So, this option is not correct.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage is specific to tribals and mentions the opposition that tribals
presented to the British (colonial rule). However, the passage does not cover the aspects of pre-colonial
rule. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage is specific to tribals and not generic to Indian society. However, the
option is about Indian society in general. So, this option is not correct.
Option (d) is correct: This option is based on the following line - “In response to colonial oppression,
tribals mounted various forms of resistance.” It reflects the opposition aspect. Now, consider the line -
“The colonial legacy has left a lasting impact on tribal communities, contributing to issues like
displacement, poverty, and cultural marginalization, which continue to shape their socio-economic
realities in post-colonial India.” So, the colonial legacy affects the tribals even today with issues like
poverty, marginalization etc. Hence, this option is correct.
63 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: Refer to the line: “Furthermore, economic growth wasn't always inclusive…”
The author clearly says that inclusive growth has happened, though not always. Therefore, it would be
incorrect to say that inclusive growth has not happened at all. Furthermore, the context is not specific to
any country. Therefore, this answer option is not correct as per the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The entire passage talks about how in many cases economic growth is not
inclusive. The author lists the various factors that prevent the inclusive nature of economic growth.
Therefore, it would be incorrect to say that economic growth is inherently inclusive in nature.
Option (c) is correct: The lines “Inefficient implementation of social policies, bureaucratic hurdles,
and corruption hindered the effective delivery of welfare programs” show that the government also
grapples with issues related to inclusive growth. Also, the lines “Economic development often prioritized
urban and industrial areas, leaving rural regions with inadequate access to education, healthcare, and
employment opportunities” show that economic growth is not always inclusive in nature. Hence, the
government should focus on making economic growth inclusive.
Option (d) is incorrect as option (a) is incorrect.
64 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The passage does mention the influence of British colonialism on Indian
political institutions as reflected in the lines “The British colonial administration laid the groundwork,
introducing parliamentary structures that continue to influence Indian politics.” ‘Parliamentary
structures’ is one such example. However, there could be many other channels of influence. Therefore, it
would be incorrect to say that Parliamentary structure is the ‘only’ way through which British colonialism
has influenced Indian politics.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The evolution as mentioned in the passage is because of the changing
demands of the society as seen in the line “Over the years, India's federal structure has evolved,
accommodating regional diversity through the establishment of State Legislative Assemblies.” Therefore,
evolution of political institutions reflects changing societal demands and not vice versa as mentioned in
the option. So, this assumption is not correct.
65 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The given option is based on the following lines “The British colonial
administration … continue to influence Indian politics. … Over the years, India's federal structure has
evolved, accommodating regional diversity through the establishment of State Legislative Assemblies.
Constitutional amendments and electoral reforms have aimed at enhancing representation and
inclusivity.” These lines depict the essence of the passage - transformation has happened in the political
institutions and political landscape of the country from the colonial era to the present day. So, this best
reflects the crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given statement is generic and not as per the information provided in the
passage. The passage mentions about evolution of political institutions, but the associated complexities
and limitations, if any, are not covered in the passage. Also, the main theme of the passage is to showcase
the evolution of political institutions. Therefore, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given passage is not about political parties and coalition partners, but the
overall political landscape of the country at large. Therefore, this option is not the best crux.
Option (d) is incorrect: The passage is primarily about the evolution of Indian political institutions. Also,
there is nothing related to the evolution of Indian politics except the influence of the British administration
over it. We cannot conclusively say that Indian politics has not evolved since independence. So, this is not
66 (b)
From II, Ragini visited her in-laws on Monday. Thus, Ragini visited Goa on Tuesday.
67 (d)
Venn diagram:
Either conclusion I or III follows.

68 (d)
The given sequence: wx_ivQhw_giVqhWx_ _vqH
We can break this sequence in three sets of 7 elements each. We can see that every third letter is a capital
letter.
The complete sequence is: wxGivQh/wXgiVqh/WxgIvqH.
69 (d)
17 + (2 * 3) = 23
23 + (3 * 4) = 35
35 + (4 * 5) = 55
55 + (5 * 6) = 85
85 + (6 * 7) = 127
70 (b)
The figure:
There are 3 horizontal lines, namely AG, BF, and CE.

There are 3 vertical lines, namely AC, HD, and GE.
There are 6 slant lines, namely AD, AE, GC, GD, CD, and ED.
Thus, there are 3 + 3 + 6 = 12 straight lines in all.
71 (c)
Ratio of water and sugar in mixture 1 = 5 : 1
Quantity of water in mixture 1 = {5/(5+1)} x 18 = 15 litres
Quantity of sugar in mixture 1 = {1/(5+1)} x 18 = 3 litres
Ratio of water and sugar in mixture 2 = 1 : 6
Quantity of water in mixture 2 = {1/(1+6)} x 28 = 4 litres
Quantity of sugar in mixture 2 = {6/(1+6)} x 28 = 24 litres
In new mixture, there is some extra water. Let it be x.
So, total quantity of water in the new mixture = 15 + 4 + x = 19 + x
Total quantity of sugar in the new mixture = 3 + 24 = 27 litres
(19 + x)/27 = 8/9
Or 19 + x = 24
Or x = 5
Total quantity of water in the new mixture = 19 + x = 19 + 5 = 24 litres
72 (a)
Let AC be the pole. Given, AC = 30 m, BC = 10 m.

So, AB = 30 – 10 = 20 m.
Let DC = ‘x’ m. So, in right angled ∆DBC,
tanθ = BC/DC
or, tanθ = 10/x …………………. І
Also, in right angled ∆ADC,
tan (θ+θ) = AC/DC
⇒ tan2 θ = 30/x
⇒ 2tanθ/(1-tan2θ) = 30/x
⇒ [2(10/x)]/(1-(10/x)2 ) = 30/x [From І]
∴ x = 10√3 m.
So, the distance of the point from the base of the pole = 10√3 m.
73 (d)
Let 10 years ago the ages of Abhishek and Aishwarya were 5x and 4x.
So, the present ages of Abhishek and Aishwarya would be (5x + 10) and (4x + 10) respectively.
5x + 10 = 4x + 10 + (1/6) × (4x + 10)
Or 5x = 4x + (1/6) × (4x + 10)
Or x = (1/6) × (4x + 10)
Or 6x = (4x + 10)
Or 2x = 10
Or x = 5
So, Present age of Abhishek = 5x + 10 = 5×5 + 10 = 25 + 10 = 35 years
Present age of Aishwarya = 4x + 10 = 4×5 + 10 = 20 + 10 = 30 years
The total present age of the family = 35 + 30 + (9×3) + (6×2) + 3 = 107 years
74 (d)
The total number of girls who attended Bengali and Geography = {800 × (16/100) × (7/16)} + {800 ×
(23/100) × (5/8)} = 56 + 115 = 171
The total number of boys who attended Hindi and Biology = {800 × (22/100) × (1/4)} + {800 × (25/100)
× (3/10)} = 44 + 60 = 104
Required difference = 171 – 104 = 67
75 (d)
The path taken by the person is represented below:
PQ = 30 m; QR = 3PQ = 90 m; RS = 5PQ = 150 m

SW = RS – RW = 150 – 30 = 120 m.
In ∆PWS, PS2 = PW2 + SW2 = 902 + 1202 = 22500
Hence, the shortest distance, PS = 150 m.
76 (b)
The selection of the players can be done in the following ways:
Group A (Number of ways) Group B (Number of ways)
Case I 2 Men ( 2𝐶 2) 2 Women ( 2𝐶 2)
Case II 1 Man + 1 Woman 1 Man + 1 Woman
( 2𝐶 1) × ( 3𝐶 1) ( 3𝐶 1) × ( 2𝐶 1)
Case III 2 Women ( 3𝐶 2) 2 Men ( 3𝐶 2 )
Hence, the required number of ways = ( 2𝐶 2 × 2𝐶 2) + ( 2𝐶 1 × 3𝐶 1 × 3𝐶 1 × 2𝐶 1 ) + ( 3𝐶 2 × 3𝐶 2) =
(1 × 1) + (2× 3× 3× 2) + (3× 3) = 1 + 36 + 9 = 46 ways.
77 (b)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The context of the state and what it should do for cybersecurity is not covered in
the passage. Therefore, this inference is beyond the scope of the passage.
Inference 2 is correct: The given inference is based on the lines “The ethical hacker, or "white hat,"
employs the same techniques as malicious hackers but with the goal of identifying and fortifying
security weaknesses rather than exploiting them.” These lines show that ethical hackers know everything
that malicious hackers know, but they use it for noble objectives. So, essentially, they have the potential to
become malicious hackers. Hence, this inference is correct.
78 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage talks about the paradox of morality and the various reasons behind
it. However, this option focuses only on the individual and his established beliefs. So, this option does not
reflect the most rational inference.
Option (b) is correct: The given option captures the essence of the passage, which is the paradox of
morality and the reasons behind it. This is seen in the lines “The paradox of morality lies in the intricate
tension between universal principles and cultural relativity, … Cultural context moulds moral
frameworks, giving rise to situations where actions deemed morally acceptable in one culture may be
condemned in another.” And “…..the paradox of morality extends to the internal conflict within
individuals. Personal moral convictions may clash with societal norms, creating a complex internal
struggle.” So, this option is the most rational inference.
Option (c) is incorrect: This option differentiates between morality and ethical relativism. However, the
central theme of the passage is the paradox of morality and various reasons leading to it. So, this option is
not the most rational inference.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is quite vague and is not based on the passage, because the
context of critical examination of cultural boundaries is not covered in the passage. So, this option is
beyond the scope of the passage.
79 (c)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given assumption is extreme and is not based on the information
provided in the passage. Conscience and legal frameworks are tools of decision-making. Though
sometimes they might be wrong, but to state that they are not reliable would not be correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The given assumption is not correct because of the lines “Adherence to legal
and regulatory standards may lack the flexibility to address every moral dilemma and may not always
align with evolving societal values”. This line shows that societal values may or may not impact the legal
frameworks.
80 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option is quite generic in nature and does not cover the specific
context of the passage, which is about the reliability of conscience compared to laws. The passage
compares the approach of conscience and laws towards ethical decision-making. So, this option is not the
most rational inference.
Option (b) is correct: The passage is about conscience, laws and how they help in ethical decision-
making. The lines from the passage “While it can provide a sense of individual integrity, its subjectivity
raises concerns about consistency and potential biases. Laws, rules, and regulations, on the other hand,
offer a structured framework for ethical behaviour … may lack the flexibility to address every moral
dilemma and may not always align with evolving societal values.” show that both conscience and laws,
etc. are used in decision-making, but there is some complexity involved in their reliability. This is because
of the inconsistency in conscience and lack of flexibility in laws. So, there is uncertainty about their
reliability and it’s a debatable topic, as highlighted in the line – “The ongoing dialogue between personal
conscience and legal frameworks is essential …”.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given option is not covered in the passage, because whether conscience and
law complement each other, or whether they are mutually exclusive or not is not discussed in the passage.
The passage only mentions their features and differences. So, this option is not correct as per the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The context of adaptability and its impact on the reliability of conscience or legal
frameworks is not discussed in the passage. Hence, this option is not correct.


VISION IAS
1. www.visionias.in
TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

the Test Booklet.
sheet.
be deducted.

1
1. Consider the following statement and Directions for the following 5 (five) items:
conclusions. Read the following three passages and answer the items
Statement: If p is divided by 9, it leaves a
remainder of 1
Conclusions: should be based on the passages only.
I. p could only be even. Passage – 1
II. p could only be odd. In the relationship between religion and political
Which of the above conclusions must be true? development, there is a wide variety of patterns of
(a) I only
interaction ranging from mutual exclusion to total
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II compatibility. Religion has assumed not only positive
(d) Neither I nor II but also neutral and negative roles in shaping a political
system. Religion has also reacted to or counteracted
2. Consider the following table.
political changes either as a full supporter or a partial
None 1 to 4 5 or more Total
partner or at other times as a chief rival or an avowed
Group X 15 28 57 100
foe. Consequently, a systematic assessment of this
Group Y 21 11 68 100
Total 36 39 125 200 positively supplementing role and negatively
The data in the table above were produced by a undermining the role of religion in politics is an
sleep researcher, studying the number of dreams extremely difficult one, if not an impossible one. Since
people can recall. Group X consisted of 100 the effects of religion are deeply embedded in the
people with early bedtimes, while Group Y
patterns of specific societies, the impact of religion on
consisted of 100 people with later bedtimes. If a
person is chosen at random, what is the the development of the political system varies from one
probability that the person belonged to Group Y nation to another. Nevertheless, there are in the nature
who recalled at least 1 dream? and functions of religion and of the political system
(a) 67/100
certain inherent differences and common concerns
(b) 79/100
(c) 163/200 which enable us to make some permissible
(d) 79/200 generalizations.
3. Ramesh has three different samples of spirit:
Samples Quantity (in litre)
1. Religion and politics can never function
A 261
B 377 independent of each other.
C 435 2. The impact of religion on politics is not
Find the least possible number of bottles of equal consistent across societies.
size in which different spirit samples can be Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid?
filled without mixing.
(a) 1 only
(a) 35
(b) 38 (b) 2 only
(c) 36 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 37 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. According to the author, the most rational Passage – 3
inference is: India is projected to have the largest working population
in the world between 2022 and 2034, with 10 million
(a) The interplay of religion and politics shapes
youth entering the workforce every year. Unleashing the
the moral compass of a nation.
true potential of such a strong workforce demands the
(b) Mixing religion and politics should not be employment capacity of the industry. Therefore,
allowed because politics is a secular activity. rigidities and administrative burdens in the labour
(c) Religion-politics interplay can boost regime were required to be addressed through
substantive reforms. The passage of three labour codes
divisive tendencies in the society and may
in Parliament marked a milestone in this process.
even cause public unrest and anarchy.
Successful emerging economies on a development path
(d) The role of religion in politics is debatable have leveraged their labour supply for accelerating
and full of complexities. growth; however, India’s labour laws applied to around
Passage – 2 80 million workers in the formal sector, leaving the rest
of the 500 million-strong workforce out of these benefits.
Humans started by using fire to cook food and make
pots. Now we have machines that help us think, mine
metals, and explore other worlds. Despite all the drawn from the passage?
machines and technology, people feel busier than ever. 1. India can learn from developed countries on
What went wrong? At some point, we feel the urge to get how to reform its labour laws.
2. Without labour reforms, harnessing the
busy, and we know we need to act on it. Work may not
potential of our labour may be difficult.
make us free, however, it is an integral part of who we
are. If we are unproductive for an extended period, it’s below:
hard to shake off a feeling of worthlessness. Even when (a) 1 only
we do have free time, or when indeed we retire, we find (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
hobbies to keep us busy.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
and rational inference that can be made from 8. Which one of the following is best implied in the
the above passage? passage?
(a) Technologies have made humans lazy by (a) Labour reforms in emerging countries have
not met the expectations of the workers.
eliminating manual work.
(b) Successful labour reforms would help India
(b) It has become essential for many human
provide labour to other emerging
beings to work or engage in some activity economies.
continuously. (c) The increasing size of labour force in India
(c) Continuous work has helped in the evolution complicates the implementation of labour
reforms.
and wellbeing of human beings.
(d) Labour reforms are essential for the growth
(d) Due to huge workload, human beings are
of the country and benefit of workers in
unable to take time for leisure. India.

9. Five friends received different percentages of 12. Which city is connected by means of Car?
marks in an examination. Anika scored more (a) Q
than Alka but less than Anjali, who scored 70% (b) R
marks. Anamika scored fewer marks than only (c) S
Anshika. The one who scored the minimum
(d) T
marks secured 65%, and the one who scored the
highest achieved 87%. Who scored the second-
13. Four cubes each of volume 64 cm3 are joined end
lowest marks?
to end. What is the surface area of the resulting
(a) Alka
(b) Anshika figure?
(c) Anamika (a) 356 cm2

(d) Anika (b) 256 cm2
(c) 384 cm2
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: (d) 288 cm2
the 3 (three) items that follow.
14. Consider the following statement:
Five friends A, B, C, D and E travelled to five different
x>y>0
cities P, Q, R, S and T using five different modes of
Both x and y are positive integers.
transport – Bus, Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from a
Which of the following must be true?
city where they live.
1. The person who travelled to P did not travel by boat. I. (x+1)/(y+1) > x/y
2. A went to Q by car and B went to R by aeroplane. II. (x+1)/(y+1) = x/y

3. C travelled by boat, whereas D travelled by train. III. (x+1)/(y+1) > 1
4. The city from which the friends started is not (a) I only
connected by bus to S and T. (b) II only
10. Who travelled by Bus? (c) III only
(a) P (d) I and III only
(b) Q
(c) R
15. If 2 is the greatest number that can divide both x
(d) S
and y, what is the greatest number that can
divide both 5x and 5y?
11. C travelled to which city?
(a) S (a) 2
(b) T (b) 10
(c) Either S or T (c) 8
(d) Neither S nor T (d) 6
16. In a certain game, a large bag is filled with blue, 17. Which of the following is/are the correct
green, purple, and red chips worth 1, 5, x, and 11 inference(s) that can be made from the passage?
1. The concept of natural rights was invented
points each, respectively. The purple chips are
due to extreme abuses of individual rights
worth more than the green chips but less than the
during the Second World War.
red chips. A certain number of chips are then 2. Post-World War world order believes that
selected from the bag. If the product of the point citizens are bearers of human rights merely
by virtue of being human.
values of the selected chips is 88000, how many
purple chips were selected?
below.
(a) 1 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 4
Passage – 2
The post-liberal economy has fuelled aspirations and
Directions for the following 5 (five) items: urbanization. Also, it has witnessed heightened
Read the following five passages and answer the items competition for resources, exacerbating pre-existing
ethnic tensions. The impact is palpable in the rise of
communalism, where economic disparities intersect with
ethnic fault lines, leading to social fragmentation.
Passage—1 Understanding the delicate balance between
After the Second World War and the extreme abuses of acknowledging the positive aspects of economic growth
individual rights under the Third Reich, the idea of and addressing the socio-cultural challenges, fosters the
society's use of the economy for uniform and integrated
natural rights was reinvigorated and transformed into the
growth.
notions of human rights. The founding of the UN and the
adoption of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the crux of the passage?
by United Nations, point to the central role that human (a) Society and the economy have always been
interconnected.
rights played in the establishment of a post-war world
(b) The post-liberal economy has left an
order. This order was premised on the individual’s
indelible mark on ethnic identity and
primacy over that of the state. The consequence of this communal dynamics.
principle is that state action must be justified in the light (c) Economic reforms are not the solution to the
of human rights, while citizens do not need to justify or social tensions and ethnic fault lines.
(d) Growth in the post-liberal economic reforms
persuade the state that their human rights, which humans
has transformed society into an integrated
have, need to be respected.
one.
Microorganisms present a promising avenue for Discipline is an internal force that comes from within. It
is not a thing that can be imposed on you by anyone else.
addressing the current fuel shortage through various
People want to get freedom in a shortcut way, or they
innovative approaches. Microbial biofuels, such as
hack it. It has been observed that in the quest for
biodiesel and bioethanol, leverage the metabolic freedom, people shun discipline. They perceive that
capabilities of microorganisms to convert organic matter discipline is a hurdle in the way of freedom. They opine
into energy-rich compounds. Additionally, microbial it as a negative element in the way of freedom in their
fuel cells harness the electron transfer abilities of lives and others too. Having discipline is a way to handle
the situation positively. It enriches the life of every day
bacteria to generate electricity from organic substrates.
even in the hardest situation.
The production of biohydrogen through microbial
processes represents another avenue with the potential to and rational inference that can be made from
alleviate the fuel crisis. Furthermore, microorganisms the above passage?
can play a crucial role in breaking down organic waste (a) Discipline and freedom are incompatible
materials into biofuels, contributing to waste-to-energy with each other.

(b) Only discipline can bring freedom in the life
solutions. These diverse applications underscore the
of an individual.
versatility of microorganisms in providing sustainable
(c) It may be easier to be free than to be
alternatives to conventional fuels, presenting a disciplined, in short term.
promising frontier for addressing energy needs while (d) Both (a) and (b)
mitigating environmental impacts. Passage – 5
The story of economic growth is one of many narratives.
19. Based on the above passage, what are the several
Over the last 70 years, growth has occurred in all regions
ways of meeting the current fuel shortage?
of the world, many low-income countries have
1. Biohydrogen through microbial processes.
developed rapidly, and millions of people have been
2. Conversion of organic matter into energy- lifted out of poverty. Standard growth theory predicts
rich compounds. that poorer countries will tend to grow faster and “catch
3. Increasing species richness and hotspots of up” to rich countries. However, relatively few countries
have reached high-income status, and income growth
microorganisms.
across many countries has been variable and volatile. In
recent years, policymakers in slower-growing middle-
below. income countries have become preoccupied with the
(a) 1 and 3 only notion that they are stuck in a “middle-income trap.”
(b) 3 only Much has been debated about this so-called trap—from
(c) 1 and 2 only how it occurs to the types of policies that might help
countries escape it.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Which of the following statements best reflects 24. For every positive integer n, the function h(n) is
the crux of the passage? defined to be the product of all the even integers
(a) Effective policy making to address the from 2 to n (inclusive). If p is the smallest
(prime) factor of h(100)+1, then p is
reasons behind middle-income trap can only
(a) Between 2 and 10
be done after a country has witnessed such a
(b) Between 11 and 20
trap.
(c) Between 21 and 30
(b) Not all countries face the middle-income (d) Greater than 40
trap, but robust policies can help them
escape it and become developed. 25. If the sum of five consecutive positive integers
(c) Before becoming developed, every poor is A, then the sum of the next five consecutive
country faces the ‘middle-income’ trap. integers must be

(a) A + 1
(d) Escaping the middle-income trap is crucial
(b) A + 5
to address issues like poverty in low-income
(c) A + 25
countries.
(d) 2A
22. The digits of a 3-digit number are reversed to 26. A rectangular tank is 60 m long and 40 m broad.
form another number. The difference between Water is being flown into it through a square
this number and the original number is always pipe of side 10 cm. What is the speed of water if
divisible by the level of water in the tank rises by 1 metre in

12 hours?
(a) 2
(a) 20 km/h
(b) 11
(b) 10 km/h
(c) 6
(c) 25 km/h
(d) 8 (d) 15 km/h
23. If X = 2891 × 2892 × 2893 × ........... × 2898 × 27. If Dennis is one third the age of his father Keith
2899×2900, then what is the remainder when x now, and was one fourth the age of his father 5
is divided by 17? years ago, then how old will his father Keith be
5 years from now?
(a) 0
(a) 20 years
(b) 4
(b) 45 years
(c) 7
(c) 40 years
(d) 14
(d) 50 years
28. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below 31. If some license plates are to be produced that all
in the question figures. From the given answer
have the same pattern of three letters followed
figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?
Question Figures: by three numbers, roughly how many such
distinct plates can be made?
(a) 18 thousand
(b) 18 million
(a)
(c) 11 million
(d) 180 million
(b)
(c) that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
Passage – 1
(d) While national income provides useful information on
the structure and performance of the economy, people
mistakenly use it as a proxy for human welfare and
29. In a certain code ‘EASIER’ is written as sustainability. Economic performance and improved
TGKUCG. How would CUTTER be written in well-being depend on more than growth in income and
that code?
GDP. Inclusive wealth includes a holistic assessment of
(a) TWVVGE
(b) TGWWVE produced capital (manufacturing output or GDP), human
(c) TGVVWE
capital and natural capital within a country. It is a
(d) TVGVWE
multipurpose indicator capable of measuring not only
30. If in the English alphabet, every alternate letter traditional stocks of wealth but also those less tangible
from B onwards is written in small letters while
others are written in capitals (i.e. A b C d E f and unseen—such as educational levels, skill sets, health
..…), then how would the 3rd day from Tuesday care, as well as environmental assets and the functioning
be written?
of key ecosystem services that form the backbone of
(a) f r i D A Y
(b) W E d n E S d A Y human well-being and ultimately set the parameters for
(c) T H U R S d A Y
sustainable development.
(d) f r I d A Y

32. Which of the following statements best reflects 33. Based on the above passage, consider the
following inferences:
above?
1. There is a need to build the required
(a) GDP represents the quantitative aspect of
growth, while the human and natural capital infrastructure for the eradication of open
reflects the qualitative aspect. defecation.

(b) Governments should not consider GDP as a
2. Open defecation is absent in developed
parameter for growth.
(c) Development is meaningless without countries.
improvement in natural capital. Which of the above inferences is/are valid?

(d) Not only the economic, but human and
(a) 1 only
natural capital should also be the parameters
(b) 2 only
of growth and development.
Passage – 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
Open defecation is a serious sanitation issue most
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
developing countries are battling with. Defecation is a
natural urge; subsequently, everyone will respond to it
when needed. There are, however, clear differences in 34. Which of the following statements best reflects
attitudes towards where people defecate. Even when the crux of the passage?
poverty is being reduced and toilet facilities become
(a) Policies for addressing open defecation
available, cultural attitudes, social habits, and economic
factors may impair people from using or avoiding must consider socio-economic realities.
infrastructure considered safe and hygienic by (b) ‘Sanitation for all’ should be a mission to
environmental and health standards. Understanding the
eradicate open defecation.
sociocultural and economic factors underlying open
(c) Policies, even without community
defecation is therefore crucial for any policy aimed at
eradicating the practice. Finally, community-led participation, are sufficient to eradicate open
initiatives that draw on the creativity and capacity of
defecation.
local people to take control of their change processes
(d) Open defecation is considered to be normal
must be integrated into open defecation intervention
programmes. in developing societies.
Passage – 3 36. The average download speed for Max’s
The all-too-familiar triad of historical periodisation — computer’s Internet connection is 30 megabits
ancient, medieval, modern — now universal, has rather per second. Assuming no interruptions in
specific provincial and temporal origins. All societies internet service, what is the best estimate for the
evolved their modes of dividing their history into maximum number of complete video files that
periods: dynastic and regnal was the one prevalent in Max can download to his computer in a six-hour
India, Iran, the Turko-Mongol regions, besides Europe. period if each video file is 4.2 gigabytes in size?
The triad took birth in Europe around the 16th and 17th [1 megabyte = 8 megabits, and 1 gigabyte =
centuries, first in the history of theology and steadily in 1,024 megabytes]
society’s history, finding its largely evolved form in (a) 15
1688 at the hands of Cellarius, a German. This was the (b) 18
era when over the past few centuries, Europe had been (c) 19
creating its new self-image of rationality, science and (d) 21
progress, in short, modernity; to reinforce it, the inverse
image of its immediate past, the medieval, was also 37. After a team of 7 basketball players won a game,
created as one of irrationality, regression, and each of them high-fived the other players once,
superstition which were constituted as the synonym of how many high-fives did take place?
religion/religiosity — in short, the “Dark Age” from (a) 21
which Europe was progressing into Enlightenment. (b) 5040
35. Which of the following is/are the most rational (c) 720
and logical inference/ inferences that can be (d) 540
1. Every society has a religious history filled 38. Find the number that should come in the white
with irrationality, regression and circle in the figure given below:
superstition.
2. Europe gave birth to the triad of ancient,
medieval, modern.
below.
(a) 1 only (a) 10
(b) 2 only (b) 12
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 23
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None of the above

Directions for the following 3 (three) items: 40. If all the students of Maharashtra who were
Read the following bar and pie graphs carefully and selected for the interstate program were girls,
answer the 3 (three) items that follow. what percentage of girls of Maharashtra were
The following bar graph represents the number of not selected for the interstate program?
students from different states in a college. (a) 25%
(b) 20%
60
(c) 80%
50 (d) Cannot be determined
40
30 41. It is known that half of the students who were

Boys selected for the team were girls. It is also known
20
Girls that the girls who were selected were only from
10 two states. Then the girls of which of the
0 following states were definitely not selected in
the team?
(a) Bihar
(b) Punjab
(c) Haryana
A team of 20 students is selected to represent the college
(d) Tamil Nadu
in the interstate cultural program in a different college.
The given pie chart gives the percentage of students of
42. In the question below some statements followed
various states who constituted the team.
by some conclusions are given. You have to take
the given statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance with commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follow(s)
from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Statements:
1. Some cities are villages.
2. Only villages are towns.
3. Some countries are cities.
Conclusions:
I. Some cities being towns is a possibility.
II. Some villages are countries.
39. What percentage of students of Bihar were
below.
selected for the interstate program?
(a) Only conclusion I follows.
(a) 2.5%
(b) Only conclusion II follows.
(b) 20%
(c) Both conclusions I and II follow.
(c) 10%
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II
(d) 1.5%
follows.
Directions for the following 6 (six) items: 44. What is the main idea that we can infer from the
Read the following three passages and answer the items passage?
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items (a) Tourism is linked to every aspect of our
should be based on the passages only. lives, and helps us rejuvenate.
Passage – 1 (b) The purpose of tourism is not the same for
In a world marked by global instability, ‘Reboot everyone, and varies with life situations.
Retreaters’ in 2024 seek journeys dedicated to self- (c) Understanding ourselves can help us better
improvement. 59% of Indian travellers carve out time for enjoy our holiday, and not vice-a-versa.
matchmaking holidays (to find a spark with a new (d) Considering the growth potential,
partner), 53% opt for heartbreak holidays (providing the governments should encourage the tourism
healing space needed to overcome past relationships), industry through higher investments.
and 79% plan to travel solo for personal rejuvenation. Passage – 2
Agrarian and indigenous lifestyles attract over half of Healthy and successful relationships are not built over a
Indian travellers — reflecting a desire for self- day — they require patience, quality time and constant
sufficiency and harmony with nature. Sleep tourism effort. Another major factor for relationships to flourish
emerges as a trend, catering to 68% of Reboot Retreaters is good communication, without which tensions are
seeking undisturbed sleep. The 2024 travel predictions bound to rise. All these together will help a relationship
reflect the idea that travel is not a means to escape life, stand the test of time. Many times, in relationships, we
but instead a catalyst to live our best lives. From thrilling tend to avoid difficult conversations, thinking that it can
adventures in a new destination to feeling the pulse of a lead to either disagreements or fights. But what we forget
new culture and every experience in between, travel is that these unresolved and undiscussed conversations
allows us to become the best version of ourselves. result in misunderstandings and conflicts. This is where
43. Based on the above passage, the following relationship cold plunges come in. While a lack of proper
assumptions have been made: communication can lead to misinterpreting behaviours,
1. Experience, not destination, is the sole open communication helps bring clarity to a relationship
criterion for planning holidays in the new and improve understanding between the couple. It gives
trend. a sense of security in the relationship that both partners
2. According to the recent travel predictions, are comfortable while expressing their emotions. Unlike
tourists abhor visiting the same place again. the traditional cold plunges that involve immersing
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? oneself in freezing waters to improve our health,
(a) 1 only ‘relationship cold plunges’ are the difficult
(b) 2 only conversations and choices we need to make while
(c) Both 1 and 2 coming out of our comfort zone to ensure the health of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 our relationships.
assumptions have been made: Despite the immense potential, the integration of gene
1. Open communication and healthy and cell therapy into mainstream healthcare in India
relationships are the bedrock of a modern comes with its own set of challenges. From infrastructure
society. limitations to ethical considerations, the journey is not
2. A person should know how to discuss the without hurdles. However, these challenges present
difficult aspects of his/her relationship. opportunities for collaborative efforts - bringing together
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? scientific communities, industries, policymakers, and
healthcare providers. Investing in research and

(a) 1 only
development, creating regulatory frameworks that
(b) 2 only
balance innovation with ethical considerations, and
(c) Both 1 and 2
fostering a supportive ecosystem for biotechnology are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
crucial steps. The Biopharmaceutical industry needs a
paradigm shift in its business models and strategy to

develop and market gene and cell therapy.
reflects the most critical inference that can be
and logical inference/ inferences that can be
(a) To deepen bond with one’s partner,
‘relationship cold plunges’ are the way to
1. Inclusive approach increases the challenge
go.
of regulation of gene and cell therapy.
(b) Relationship is not always based on open
2. Following ethical means might compromise
communication, especially in narrow-
innovations in the field of gene and cell
minded societies.
therapy.
(c) In these modern times where patience and
quality time are scarce, building healthy and
below.
successful relationships is difficult. (a) 1 only
(d) The comfort zone is not only good for (b) 2 only
oneself, but also the relationship in the long (c) Both 1 and 2
term. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Which of the following is most definitively 51. A man went on a trip of 120 miles from A to B,
implied by the above passage? traveling at an average of x miles per hour.
(a) Gene and cell therapy are the most Several days later he returned over the same
route (from B to A) at a speed that was 5 miles
promising future course for healthcare.
per hour faster than his previous speed. If the
(b) The future of healthcare is incomplete
time for the return trip was one-third of an hour
without the integration of biotechnology.
less than the time for the outgoing trip, which
(c) Gene and cell therapy have more concerns
equation can be used to find the value of x?
than benefits for the population. (a) 120/(x+5) = 1/3
(d) Without the involvement of different (b) x/120 = [x+(5/120)] – 1/3
stakeholders, gene and cell therapy may not (c) 120/[x + (x+5)] = 1/3
be able to bring improvement in healthcare. (d) 120/x = [120/(x+5)] + 1/3
49. M and T are running for class president. 150 52. A is the brother of B, B is the brother of C, and
D is the father of A. Based on these three
votes have been tallied so far; 88 for M and 62
statements which of the following statements
for T. If 250 students are voting in total, how
cannot be definitely true?
many more votes must M win in order to defeat
(a) B is the brother of A
T and earn exactly 50% more votes than him? (b) B is the son of D
(a) 125 (c) D is the father of C
(b) 62 (d) C is the brother of A
(c) 77
(d) 150 53. M is any point inside a rectangle PQRS, as
shown below:
50. A freight train and a passenger train start

towards each other at the same time from two
towns that are 500 miles apart. After 3 hours, the
trains are still 80 miles apart. If the average
speed of the passenger train is 20 miles per hour
more than the average speed of the freight train,
what is the average speed, in miles per hour, of
If MS = 5 cm, MQ = 6 cm and MR = 7 cm, then
the freight train? MP =?
(a) 40 (a) 3√2 cm
(b) 45 (b) 2√2 cm
(c) 50 (c) 3√3 cm
(d) 60 (d) 2√3 cm

54. Consider the matrix given below: 58. If one-eighth of a pencil is black, half of the
5 35 7 remaining is yellow and the remaining 3.5 cm is
6 48 8 blue, what must be the total length of the pencil?
7 63 ?
(a) 6 cm
Which of the following numbers would come in
(b) 7 cm
place of ‘?’
(c) 8 cm
(a) 7
(b) 8 (d) 11 cm
(c) 9
(d) None of the above 59. x = y + y2, wherein y is a negative integer. If y
decreases in value, then x
55. Select the option that has the letters that, when (a) Increases in value
placed from left to right in the blanks below, will
(b) Fluctuates
complete the letter series.
(c) Decreases in value
A B C _ A_C C A B_C_B_C
(d) Remains the same
(a) A B B C C
(b) C A B B A
(c) C B C A C 60. Susie can buy apples from two stores: a
(d) A C C B A supermarket that sells apples only in bundles of
4 and a convenience store that sells single,
56. The greatest common factor of 16 and the
unbundled apples. If Susie wants to ensure that
positive integer 'n' is 4, and the greatest common
the total number of apples she buys is a multiple
factor of 'n' and 45 is 3. Which of the following
of 5, then what is the minimum number of apples
could be the greatest common factor of 'n' and
210? she must buy from the convenience store?
(a) 3 (a) 0
(b) 14 (b) 1
(c) 30 (c) 2
(d) 42 (d) 3
57. A printer numbers the pages of a book starting

61. What would be the next term in the sequence 16,
with 1 and uses 3189 digits in all. How many
8, 4, 2, 1.... ?
pages does the book have?
(a) 1074 (a) 0
(b) 1075 (b) 1
(c) 1000 (c) 1/2
(d) None of these (d) None of the above
Read the following three passages and answer the items Organic farming yields more nutritious and safe food.
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items The popularity of organic food is growing dramatically
should be based on the passages only. as consumers seek organic foods that are thought to be
Passage – 1 healthier and safer. Thus, organic food perhaps ensures
Socialization impacts both men and women. It starts very food safety from farm to plate. The organic farming
early with the pink or blue blankets we’re often wrapped process is more eco-friendly than conventional farming.
in at birth, to what our parents, teachers, coaches, and
Organic farming keeps soil healthy and maintains
friends teach us, to what we absorb from the cartoons,
environmental integrity thereby, promoting the health of
books, magazines, and movies we watch. In many
consumers. Moreover, the organic produce market is
cultures, women are expected to be responsible for
now the fastest-growing market worldwide, including
things that men are not. It’s generally expected that older
India. Organic agriculture promotes the health of
siblings should take care of younger siblings. However,
consumers of a nation, the ecological health of a nation,
many Asian, Indian, Hispanic, and Latino cultures
and the economic growth of a nation by income
believe that girls (even if the youngest) should take care
generation holistically. India, at present, is the world’s
of the males in the family. It’s often acceptable for boys
largest organic producer and with this vision, we can
to bend the rules whereas girls are expected to follow the
conclude that encouraging organic farming in India can
rules. This double standard in how we treat boys and
build a nutritionally, ecologically, and economically
girls can restrict girls from speaking their minds, trying
healthy nation in the near future.
new things and fighting for what they want. In addition,
an inability to disappoint parents can cause girls to
become people-pleasers and followers. assumptions have been made:
62. Which of the following statements best reflects 1. Only organic farming can solve the present
the crux of the passage? issues of agriculture sector.
(a) Culture and women mould each other in 2. Consumer health is the prime factor behind
every society. the promotion of organic farming.
(b) Values of equality and respect towards girls Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
should be promoted among boys. (a) 1 only

(c) Culture has a deep impact on women as well (b) 2 only
as men. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. Which of the following statements best reflects 65. Which of the following statements best reflects
the crux of the passage? the logical inference from the passage given
(a) Focus on organic farming would benefit above?
India domestically as well as internationally. (a) Considering the food and nutritional
demands in future, GMO crops are the way
(b) Considering the advantages of organic
to go.
farming, the government must invest in its
(b) Food choices in India reflect a total absence
promotion.
of nutritional awareness.
(c) For wider acceptance, farmers should be
(c) Technology must not only address the
made aware of the benefits of organic
changing food demands, but also ensure
farming.
food safety.
(d) The only potential of organic farming is the
(d) Consumer awareness about nutrition, food
revenue from exports to international safety and limited agricultural resources can
markets. help deal with the future food crisis.
Passage – 3
The Indian food consumption landscape is changing 66. If we add a two digit number (A) to another two
significantly. Not only will the quantity of food that digit number (N), the digits of N will get
would be required to feed the growing population reversed. Now, if we add the same number A to
increase, but the changing dietary patterns would this result, we get a three digit number that has
mandate the discovery of foods that are healthy, safe, and the same digits as N, and in the same order, but
with a zero between them. What is the value of
able to meet the nutritional requirements of consumers.
A?
While India has successfully managed to be self-
(a) 27
sufficient when it comes to the production of several
(b) 36
agriculture and horticulture crops, changing demand
(c) 45
patterns will need us to explore intensification
(d) 54
techniques to address limited agriculture resources
sustainably. Significant disruptions would be required at 67. Which of the following expressions has the
the supply end to manage evolving food demands, to largest value?
which technology will serve as a key enabler. (a) 1876452/1876455
Additionally, production systems need to be geared (b) 1883446/1883449
towards addressing food safety and ensuring traceability (c) 1883453/1883456
of the product to meet evolved consumer demands. (d) 1883491/1883494

68. If log10 𝑝 – log10 √𝑝 = 2log 𝑝 10 , then the 72. The three digits of a number add up to 11. The
possible value of ‘p’ is given by number is divisible by 5. The leftmost digit is

(a) 1/10 double the middle digit. What is the product of
(b) 10 the three digits?
(c) 1/100
(a) 40
(d) 25
(b) 72
(c) 78
69. Sum of all the internal angles and all the
corresponding external angles of a regular (d) 88
polygon is 1440°. Find the number of diagonals

of the polygon. 73. One Amoeba splits into ten Amoeba to form the
(a) 20 next generation, but due to the prevailing
(b) 22
ecological conditions, only 50% survive. If the
(c) 16
number of surviving amoebas in the 6th
(d) 18
generation is 3125, what must have been their
70. A group of 1260 children are seated in rows for number in the first generation?
a group photo session. Each row contains four (a) 3
less children than the row in front of it. Which (b) 1

one of the following number of rows is not (c) 2
possible?
(d) 5
(a) 6
(b) 5
74. P is 9 m to the south of K. K is 5 m to the east of
(c) 8
H. H is 4 m to the north of B. L is 3 m west of
(d) 7
B. D is 7 m south of L. G is 8 m east of D. If Z
71. P is to the north of Q and S is to the east of P, is 5 m to the west of point P, then what is the
who is to the south of W. T is to the west of P. distance between B and Z?
W is in which direction with respect to T? (a) 8 m
(a) North
(b) 9 m
(b) Northeast
(c) 5 m
(c) Southwest
(d) 2 m
(d) West
Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Passage – 2
Read the following five passages and answer the items When people speak about intelligence, they usually
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items mean the “hard” type of skills: problem-solving, verbal
should be based on the passages only. skills, use of logic, or cracking numbers. But when it
Passage – 1 comes to the so-called “soft” skills–such as
To young people living in democracies, authoritarianism understanding social roles, reading emotions,
may seem like a long-forgotten part of their country’s comprehending relationships, or effective listening– we
history. For as long as they can remember, their fellow rarely see them as part of an intelligence questionnaire.
citizens have had the right to voice their opinions and to And while the hard skills are very important, it’s the soft
organize freely, political parties have competed in ones that help us maintain friendships, be satisfied at
meaningful elections, and the legislature and courts have work, or simply find happiness in life. Since these skills,
checked their governments’ actions. But these which we also call social intelligence, are so often
experiences are far from universal. Many countries are neglected in schools, despite a huge body of research
not democracies, and most countries that are democratic revealing their undeniable benefits, it is critical to
are younger than a lifetime. This means that for most understand what social intelligence is and how you can
people, life under authoritarianism is either their current reap its benefits.
experience, or they remember a time when it was. 76. Which of the following statements best reflects
75. Which of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
the crux of the passage? (a) Mastery in discharging social roles, reading
(a) Democracy is far better than emotions and effective listening makes a
authoritarianism, and is the best political charismatic leader socially intelligent.
system of governance. (b) Despite their importance, social skills are
(b) To value democracy, people should not valued less in society as compared to hard
forget the experience of authoritarianism. skills.
(c) Presently, some countries are under (c) Schools should not only focus on hard skills,
authoritarian regimes, and some are but also develop social intelligence among
democracies. students.
(d) Authoritarianism must be overthrown to (d) In a connected world, social intelligence is
establish democracy for voicing citizens' the key that unlocks effective
opinions. communication.

Passage – 3 78. Which one of the following is best implied in the
Besides, a boom in the insurance industry and an passage?
(a) Every citizen of the country must have an
ecosystem push towards the use of new-age technology
insurance to face the challenging times in
like AI, big data, etc. is changing the way insurance has
one’s life.
traditionally been provided in India. Beyond technology, (b) Improving digital connectivity will improve
there is a need for insurance companies to work towards insurance penetration in the country.
(c) Higher insurance coverage would reduce the
building greater customer trust in the industry and
health expenditure of the government.
improving access to insurance by rethinking various
(d) Despite huge potential, technology alone
processes and rules, such as the GST rate for insurance cannot solve the issue of poor insurance
products to boost insurance penetration for the next penetration.
billion Indian online users. Insurance customers on Passage – 4
For ages, prophets and theologians have talked about
digital today enjoy better service due to end-to-end
free will and destiny. Some also argue that the two
digital experiences that leverage technological
concepts are incompatible, while others believe they can
applications, which, in turn, is expected to drive growth coexist. Those who argue that free will clashes with
for the industry. The insurance market is expected to destiny typically believe that all events and actions are
predetermined by a higher power or fate, and therefore,
reach nearly $222 billion by fiscal 2026, with new online
human choices are ultimately an illusion. On the other
distribution models such as B2C, B2B, and B2B2C set
hand, those who argue that free will and destiny can
to be key drivers of growth. coexist believe that while some aspects of our lives may
77. Which of the following is/are the most rational be predetermined, such as the circumstances we are born
and logical inference/inferences that can be into, we still can make choices within those
predetermined parameters. They may argue that while
some events may be inevitable, our response to those
1. Digital India programme has improved
events is still a matter of choice.
insurance penetration in India. 79. Which one of the following is the most logical
2. High GST rates, lack of trust and poor and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?
awareness of products are the only reasons
(a) Valuing destiny over free will could breed
for poor insurance penetration.
complacency and laziness.
Select the correct answer from the code given (b) The debate of free will versus destiny is an
below: ongoing one.
(a) 1 only (c) It is better to believe in the coexistence of
free will and destiny, rather than in their
(b) 2 only
clashes.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) People should focus on their work and not
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 get into the debates of free will and destiny.

Passage – 5
Without action to limit and adapt to climate change, its
environmental impact will continue to amplify
inequalities and could undermine development and
poverty eradication. While inequality refers to
differences in income or wealth across the whole range
distribution, poverty concerns individuals below a given
income threshold or lacking access to basic needs. By
hitting the poorest hardest, climate change risks both
increasing existing economic inequalities and causing
people to fall into poverty.
reflects the crucial message conveyed by the
author of the passage?
(a) Limiting climate change can help solve the
issues of inequalities.
(b) Climate change is only one of the factors
behind rising inequalities and poverty.
(c) Rapid economic development is a must for
poverty eradication, reducing inequalities
and limiting climate change.
(d) Dealing with climate change is crucial for
addressing inequalities as well as poverty
and development.


VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

1 (d)
The number is in the form of 9x + 1, where x is the quotient.
If x = 1, p = 10. It’s an even number.
If x = 2, p = 19. It’s an odd number.
2 (d)
The number of people who remembered at least one dream in Group Y = 11 + 68 = 79
Required probability = 79/200
3 (d)
Given:
Samples Quantity (in litre)
A 261
B 377
C 435
Least number of bottles of equal size will be possible, when the size of the bottles is maximum.
Maximum bottle size can be found by finding HCF of 261, 377 and 435.
261 = 9×29; 377 = 13×29; 435 = 15×29
So, the HCF = 29, i.e. size of each bottle should be 29 litres.
So, the total number of bottles required = 9 + 13 + 15 = 37.
Hence 37 bottles of 29 litres each are required.
4 (a)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The passage discusses the relationship between religion and political
development. The line, “Religion has assumed not only positive but also neutral and negative roles in
shaping a political system” clearly mentions that the role of religion can be neutral also. In such
scenarios, it is possible that religion and politics function independent of each other. So, it would be
incorrect to say that religion and politics can never function independent of each other.
Assumption 2 is correct: The given assumption is correct because of the lines “Since the effects of
religion are deeply embedded in the patterns of specific societies, the impact of religion on the
development of the political system varies from one nation to another.” These lines clearly validate the
statement that the impact of religion on politics is not consistent across societies.
5 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The core theme of the passage is how religion impacts the arena of politics.
However, the passage does not mention how they both shape the moral compass of a nation. So, this
option is not the most rational inference.
Option (b) is incorrect: “Politics as a secular activity” is not mentioned in the passage. Also, it is not
clear whether or not this is the reason for not mixing religion with politics. So, this option is not the most
rational inference of the passage.

Option (c) is incorrect: The passage is on the impact of religion on politics and how it varies with
societies. However, the passage does not say that religion in politics can cause divisive tendencies in the
society, or that it may even cause public unrest and anarchy.
Option (d) is correct: The statement is supported by the lines “Religion has assumed not only positive
but also neutral and negative roles in shaping a political system. Religion has also reacted to or
counteracted political changes either as a full supporter or a partial partner or at other times as a chief
rival or an avowed foe. Consequently, a systematic assessment of this positively supplementing role and
negatively undermining the role of religion in politics is an extremely difficult one, if not an impossible
one. Since the effects of religion are deeply embedded in the patterns of specific societies, the impact of
religion on the development of the political system varies from one nation to another..” Therefore, to
state that the role of religion in politics is debatable and full of complexities would be correct.
6 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The context of humans becoming lazy due to technology is not covered in the
passage. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Option (b) is correct: The passage shows that humans have evolved but still, there is an urge to engage
oneself in some work or the other. It can be seen in the lines “At some point, we feel the urge to get busy,
and we know we need to act on it. Work may not make us free, however, it is an integral part of who we
are.” Hence, this is the most rational inference of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage is about how humans engage in some work or the other, making
work essential for humans. However, this option mentions that work helped in human evolution, which is
not correct as per the passage. So, this option is not the correct inference.
Option (d) is incorrect: The context of huge workload has not been discussed in the passage. Also, the
passage mentions that even retired people find it hard not to engage in some activity – “Even when we do
have free time, or when indeed we retire, we find hobbies to keep us busy. ” So, the passage is about work,
not workload.
7 (b)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The passage has not stated or hinted that India can or should learn from
developed countries in this respect. So, this inference is incorrect.
Inference 2 is correct: The given inference is correct as it is based on the lines “Unleashing the true
potential of such a strong workforce demands the employment capacity of the industry. Therefore,
rigidities and administrative burdens in the labour regime were required to be addressed through
substantive reforms.” These lines reflect that labour reforms would help in utilizing the increasing labour
force in the country, without which India may not be able to increase productivity.
8 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not mention the expectations of the workers, that too in respect
of the emerging economies in general. The passage focuses on labour reforms for increasing productivity
and growth. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Option (b) is incorrect: The case of emerging economies is mentioned to show that their labour reforms
have helped them grow. The context of supplying labour to other emerging economies is not mentioned in
the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The impact of the increasing labour force on the complexity of reforms or their
implementation is not discussed in the passage. Rather, increasing force demands labour reforms as seen
in the lines, “India is projected to have the largest working population in the world between 2022 and
2034, with 10 million youth entering the workforce every year. Unleashing the true potential of such a
strong workforce demands the employment capacity of the industry.” Therefore, this answer option is
incorrect.
Option (d) is correct: The passage is about labour reforms and how they would help in employment and
growth. This can be inferred from the lines, “Therefore, rigidities and administrative burdens in the
labour regime were required to be addressed through substantive reforms … Successful emerging
economies on a development path have leveraged their labour supply for accelerating growth; however,
India’s labour laws applied to around 80 million workers in the formal sector, leaving the rest of the 500
million-strong workforce out of these benefits.” Hence, this is the best answer.
9 (d)
As per the question, Anjali (70%) > Anika > Alka
Now, Anamika scored fewer marks than only Anshika.
So, Anshika > Anamika > Anjali (70%) > Anika > Alka
The one who scored the minimum marks secured 65%, and the one who scored the highest achieved 87%.
Anshika (87%) > Anamika > Anjali (70%) > Anika > Alka (65%)
A went to Q by car and B went to R by aeroplane. C travelled by boat, whereas D travelled by train.
Name Destination Mode of transport
A Q Car
B R Aeroplane
C Boat
D Train
E
The modes of transport used by A, B, C and D are already known. So, E must be the one who travelled by
bus. It is also given in the question that the city from which the friends started is not connected by bus to S
and T. So, P must be the city that is connected by bus.
Name Destination Mode of transport
A Q Car
B R Aeroplane
C Boat
D Train
E P Bus
10 (a)
As we have determined above, P travelled by bus.
11 (c)
A, B and E travelled to Q, R and P respectively. C may have travelled to either S or T.
12 (a)
A went to Q in a car. So, Q is connected by means of car.
13 (d)
Volume of the cube = a3
Where, a = side of the cube.
So, a3 = 64 = 43
⇒ a = 4 cm.
So, side of the original cube = 4 cm.
When the four cubes are joined end to end, the length of the resulting figure (a cuboid) will be the sum of
the lengths of all the four cubes, however the width and height will be the same as the original cube.

So, the total surface area = 2(lb + bh + hl),
Where l = length = 4+4+4+4 = 16 cm; b = breadth = 4 cm and h = height = 4 cm.
Hence, the total surface area = 2(16×4 + 4×4 + 4×16) = 2×144 = 288 cm2.
14 (c)
I. (x+1)/(y+1) > x/y
or (x+1)y > x(y+1)
or xy+y > xy+x
or y >x
So, it is not true.
II. (x+1)/(y+1) = x/y
or xy+x = xy+y
or x = y
So, it is not true.
III. (x+1)/(y+1) >1:
or x+1 > y+1
or x >y
It is true.
15 (b)
2 is the greatest common divisor (GCD) of x and y.
Let's find 2 numbers that have a GCD of 2. How about x = 2 and y = 2
If x = 2 and y = 2, then 5x = (5)(2) = 10, and 5y = (5)(2) = 10
The GCD of 10 and 10 is 10.
16 (b)
We're told:
Blue chips = 1 point each
Green chips = 5 points each
Purple chips = x points each (more than Green, less than Red, so x = 6, 7, 8, 9 or 10)
Red chips = 11 points each
Now, 88,000 = (11)(5)(5)(5)(64)
Now, we know that there's a mystery number that is between 6 and 10 (inclusive) and must account for
64.
We know that, 64 = (8)(8)
This gives us 2 purple chips.
17 (b)
Statement 1 is incorrect: In the beginning, the passage says, after the Second World War, due to the
extreme abuses, the idea of natural rights was reinvigorated. That means, the idea was invented before the
world war. The concept (of natural rights) was simply revitalized or it was brought to the center stage.

Statement 2 is correct: The passage reads, post-World War world order believes that individual has
primacy over the state. Further, citizens do not need to justify these rights to the state. Thus, the correct
inference is, citizens are bearers of human rights merely by virtue of being human.
18 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage specifically mentions about post-liberal economy and the social
issues around that period. However, the option states that society and the economy have always been
connected (not mentioned in the passage). But this is not the main theme of the passage, which is rather
how the post-liberal economy has left an indelible mark on ethnic identity and communal dynamics.
Option (b) is correct: The passage is about the post-liberal economy and how it has impacted society as
seen in the lines “Also, it has witnessed heightened competition for resources, exacerbating pre-existing
ethnic tensions. The impact is palpable in the rise of communalism, where economic disparities intersect
with ethnic fault lines, leading to social fragmentation.” These lines show the post-liberal economy has
impacted society gravely in the context of ethnic identity and communal dynamics.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage nowhere states that economic reforms were done as a solution to
social tensions and ethnic fault lines in the society. The main idea in the passage is to show that along
with economic reforms, there were issues in the society related to the reforms' outcomes. So, this is not
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is contradictory to the passage as seen in the lines “The impact
is palpable in the rise of communalism, where economic disparities intersect with ethnic fault lines,
leading to social fragmentation.” This line shows that there was social fragmentation as an impact of
reforms, and not unity. So, this option is not the best crux.
19 (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The given way is correct as per the lines “The production of biohydrogen
through microbial processes represents another avenue with the potential to alleviate the fuel crisis.”
Statement 2 is correct: The given way is correct as per the lines “Microbial biofuels, such as biodiesel
and bioethanol, leverage the metabolic capabilities of microorganisms to convert organic matter into
energy-rich compounds.”
Statement 3 is incorrect: Though this option seems to be correct, the passage does not mention anything
related to increasing species richness or hotspots to solve fuel shortage.
20 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage highlights that in the quest for freedom, people shun discipline. It
nowhere reflects that discipline and freedom are incompatible with each other. So, this option does not
reflect the most logical and rational inference.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage is about discipline and freedom. The lines “They opine it as a
negative element in the way of freedom in their lives and others too. Having discipline is a way to
handle the situation positively. It enriches the life of every day even in the hardest situation”, show that
discipline is not a barrier to freedom. At the same time, we cannot say that only discipline (and nothing
else) brings freedom. So, this is an incorrect answer.
Option (c) is correct: Refer to the line: “People want to get freedom in a shortcut way, or they hack it.”
It might be easier to be free than to be disciplined, if long-term time frame is not considered. Therefore,
this answer option is the most logical inference among all given alternatives.
21 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option focuses on the creation of effective policies, but the core theme
in the passage is not limited to the creation of policies. The passage does not mention that until there is a
middle-income trap, the policies will not be effective. In fact, effective policies might even be put in place
to prevent the very occurrence of such an event. Further, to state that effective policies can be created only
after a country faces it would be an extreme inference, not based on the passage. So, this is not the best
Option (b) is correct: The given option is based on the lines “In recent years, policymakers in slower-
growing middle-income countries (not all) have become preoccupied with the notion that they are stuck
in a “middle-income trap.” Much has been debated about this so-called trap—from how it occurs to the
types of policies that might help countries escape it.” The passage is about policymaking in order to
transition from poor/low-income to developed. This whole essence is reflected in the option. So, this is the
correct answer.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given option reflects a necessary outcome that every country faces the
middle-income trap while growing from a poor to a developed status. This reflection is not correct as it is
not based on the passage. As per the passage, only some countries face this issue. Consider the lines, “In
recent years, policymakers in slower-growing middle-income countries have become preoccupied with
the notion that they are stuck in a “middle-income trap.” So, this option is not the best crux of the
passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The option has linked escaping the middle-income trap with poverty alleviation
in low-income countries, which is not seen in the passage. Also, the middle-income trap is a phenomena
used to describe the experience of slow-growing middle-income countries rather than low-income
countries. So, the given option is not the best crux of the passage.
22 (b)
If abc is the original number, then cba is the other number.
abc = 100a + 10b + c
cba = 100c + 10b + a
Difference = 99 (a ~ c)
This would always be divisible by 9 & 11
23 (d)
2890 is a multiple of 17, and the next 10 numbers will leave remainders of 1, 2, 3 ….. 10.
So, required remainder = 1×2×3×4×5×6×7×8×9×10 = (6×3) × (10×5) × (2×8) × (4×9) × (1×7) = 18 × 50
× 16 × 36 × 7 = 1×(-1)×(-1)×2×7 = 14
24 (d)
Two consecutive integers cannot be divisible by the same integer greater than 1.
So, if we can prove that h(100) is divisible by every number smaller than or equal to 50, it would mean
that h(100)+1 is NOT divisible by any number smaller than 50 (besides 1).
h(100) = 2×4×6×...×98×100 = 2× (1×2×3×...×50) = 2× (50!)
Hence, h(100) is divisible by every number smaller than 51. So, the smallest prime factor of h(100)+1 is
at least 53.
25 (c)
Let the integers be
x, x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4 .... x+9
Thus, A = 5x+10
Sum of last 5 terms = 5x + 35 = 5x + 10 + 25 = A + 25.
26 (a)
Volume of water collected in the rectangular water tank in 12 hours (it will be like a cuboid), V = lbh
where l = length, b = breadth and h = height.
So, V = 60 m × 40 m × 1 m.
So, Volume of water collected in the tank in 1 hour, V1 = (60 × 40 × 1 )/12 = 200 m3.
Water comes through a pipe of cross section = 10 cm × 10 cm = 0.1 m × 0.1 m = 0.01 m2.
So, The speed of water = Distance travelled by the water in the pipe in one hour = 200/0.01 m = 20000 m
= 20 km.
So, The speed of water = 20 km/h.

27 (d)
Let the present ages of Dennis and his father be x and y respectively.
Then, x = y/3
And (x-5) = (y-5)/4
From equations (i) and (ii), we get:
(x-5) = (y-5)/4
Or [(y/3)-5] = (y-5)/4
Or (y-15)/3 = (y-5)/4
Or 4y – 60 = 3y – 15
Or y = 45
y = 45 years, and x = 15 years
So, required age = (y+5) = 50 years
28 (a)
The original folded piece of paper is as follows:
On unfolding its layers it will look as shown below:
29 (c)
Letters are written in reverse order and moved +2 alphabetically.
Reverse of CUTTER is RETTUC.
Now, add 2 to each letter. R+2=T, E+2=G, T+2=V, and so on.
So, code of CUTTER is TGVVWE.
30 (d)
The small letters are b, d, f, h, j, l, n, p, r, t, v, x, z.
The third day from Tuesday would be Friday and it would be written as frIdAY.
31 (b)
For the letters, there are 26 possibilities for each of the 3 slots, and for the numbers, there are 10
possibilities for each of the 3 slots.
The total possible number of combinations = 26 x 26 x 26 x 10 x 10 x 10 = 17,576,000 ≈ 18 million.
32 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: Though true, this is not the main inference of the passage. The passage reflects
how economic capital and natural and human capital are important for growth, and so all of them should
be taken in account to measure and achieve sustainable development.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does not include the context of the role of government per se. It only
mentions that GDP has certain limitations, but that does not mean giving up GDP completely as suggested
in the option. So, this option is not the logical inference from the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: Though true, this statement covers only a part of the argument presented in the
passage.

Option (d) is correct: The following lines in the passage - “It is a multipurpose indicator capable of
measuring not only traditional stocks of wealth but also those less tangible and unseen—such as
educational levels, skill sets, health care, as well as environmental assets and the functioning of key
ecosystem services that form the backbone of human well-being and ultimately set the parameters for
sustainable development”, show that economic capital, human capital and natural capital determine
sustainable growth/development. So, it is correct to infer that economic, human and natural capital should
be the parameters of growth.
33 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The passage specifies that despite infrastructure, people avoid using it and
practice open defecation as seen in the lines, “… and economic factors may impair people from using or
avoiding infrastructure considered safe and hygienic by environmental and health standards.” Also, the
passage does not exclusively mention that there is a lack of infrastructure. So, the inference that there is a
need to build infrastructure is not correct as per the passage.
Inference 2 is incorrect: The passage mentions the issues of open defecation in developing countries as
seen in the lines, “Open defecation is a serious sanitation issue most developing countries are battling
with.” But to extrapolate it and conclusively state that developed countries do not face this issue would
not be based on the information contained in the passage. So, this inference is not valid.
34 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage is about open defecation, how it continues due to the lack of cultural
acceptance in society, and how inclusive policies would be needed to solve this. It is seen in the lines,
“Understanding the sociocultural and economic factors underlying open defecation is therefore crucial
for any policy aimed at eradicating the practice. Finally, community-led initiatives that draw on the
creativity and capacity of local people to take control of their change processes must be integrated into
open defecation intervention programmes.” These lines validate the given option.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option is generic and not specific to the core theme of the passage.
The core theme is to understand the reasons for continued open defecation and suggest measures to
eradicate it as captured in option (a). This option merely states that sanitation is needed for eradication.
So, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage clearly mentions community participation as a tool for the
eradication of open defecation. It is reflected in the last line of the passage, “Finally, community-led
initiatives that draw on the creativity and capacity of local people to take control of their change
processes must be integrated into open defecation intervention programmes.” Therefore, it would be
incorrect to say that policies alone (without community participation) would be sufficient to eradicate
open defecation.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option does not cover the core theme of the passage which is the
reason for open defecation and the solution suggested. This option only mentions that it is a normal act,
which does not signify anything related to the core theme of the passage. So, this is not the best crux of
the passage.
35 (b)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The given inference seems to be based on the lines “All societies evolved their
modes of dividing their history into periods: dynastic and regnal was the one prevalent in India, Iran, the
Turko-Mongol regions, besides Europe.” These lines show that all societies divide history in different
ways, but it does not mean that every society has a religious history. In the context of this passage, the
religious history is specific to European society. So, this inference is not correct.
Inference 2 is correct: It can be inferred from the lines – “The all-too-familiar triad of historical
periodisation — ancient, medieval, modern — now universal, has rather specific provincial and
temporal origins. … The triad took birth in Europe around the 16th and 17th centuries, first in the
history of theology and steadily in society’s history, finding its largely evolved form in 1688 at the hands
of Cellarius, a German.”
36 (b)
30 megabits/sec = 30 x 3600 megabits per hour = 108000 megabits/hour
Now, 108000 megabits/hour = 108000 / (8 x 1024) gigabytes/hour = 13.184 gigabytes/hour
In a 6 hour period, the total number of gigabytes that can be downloaded = 13.184 x 6 = 79.10 gigabytes
Since, 79.104/4.2 ~ 18.8, a maximum of 18 video files can be downloaded.
37 (a)
To start, the first player makes 6 high-fives. The second player needs to make only 5 new high-fives
because he doesn't need to re high-five the first player. The third player needs to only make 4 high-fives
and so on.
This adds up to 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 21
38 (a)
The number in the circles are given by the sum of first n natural numbers. So, Sn = n(n+1)/2
S1 = 1; S2 = 3; S3 = 6; S4 = 10; S5 = 15; S6 = 21; S7 = 28; S8 = 36; S9 = 45
Note: You may also solve it considering it to be a question of series, wherein the difference between the
terms is continuously increasing by 1.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer
39 (a)
Total number of students from Bihar = 50+30 = 80
Total number of students who were selected for the interstate program = 20
Total number of students of Bihar who were selected for the program = 10% of 20 = 2
So, Percentage of students of Bihar who were selected for the program = (2/80) × 100 = 2.5%
40 (c)
Total number of students from Maharashtra = 30 + 20 = 50
Number of students from Maharashtra who were selected for the program = 20% of 20 = 4
All the four students who were selected were girls.
So, Number of girls of Maharashtra who were not selected = 20 -4 =16
Percentage of girls of Maharashtra who were not selected = (16/20) × 100 = 80%
41 (a)
Total number of girls who were selected for the interstate team = 50% of 20 = 10
Total number of selected students who were from Bihar = 10% of 20 = 2
Total number of selected students who were from Punjab = 30% of 20 = 6
Total number of selected students who were from Haryana, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra = 20% of 20 = 4
each
Now, it is given in the question that all the ten girls were only from two states.
This is possible only when the six girls of Punjab are selected and the other 4 girls can befrom any one of
the states – Haryana, Tamil Nadu or Maharashtra
In all these cases, the girls from Bihar are not selected.
42 (a)
Venn diagram:
So, only conclusion I follows.

43 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The passage clearly says that agrarian and indigenous lifestyles attract over
half of Indian travellers. This clearly means that there is a preference for destinations too. The last line of
the passage does talk about experience, however, it would be incorrect to say that it is the sole criterion
for planning holidays. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: Refer to the last line of the passage: “From thrilling adventures in a new
destination to feeling the pulse of a new culture and every experience in between, travel allows us to
become the best version of ourselves.” The author does talk about new destinations and new experiences,
however, it does not mean that tourists hate (abhor) visiting the same place again. It is possible that they
experience something new every time they visit the same place. Hence, this is not the correct assumption
based on the passage.
44 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The given option is very generic and broad, and does not cover the main theme
of the passage. The different purposes of tourists for travel can be seen in the lines “59% of Indian
travellers carve out time for matchmaking holidays (to find a spark with a new partner), 53% opt for
heartbreak holidays (providing the healing space needed to overcome past relationships), …” So, we can
keep this option on hold and consider other options. Also, to say that tourism is linked to “every” aspect
of our lives would be a bit of an exaggeration.
Option (b) is correct: The passage, in various instances, discusses that the purpose for travelling is
different for different people. This is visible in the lines “59% of Indian travellers carve out time for
matchmaking holidays (to find a spark with a new partner), 53% opt for heartbreak holidays (providing
the healing space needed to overcome past relationships), and 79% plan to travel solo for personal
rejuvenation. Agrarian and indigenous lifestyles attract over half of Indian travellers — reflecting a
desire for self-sufficiency and harmony with nature.” So, this answer option better captures the different
dimensions of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: Travel helps us understand ourselves as per the lines “The 2024 travel
predictions reflect the idea that travel is not a means to escape life, but instead, a catalyst to live our best
lives.” However, the option states the contradiction. The passage covers different purposes of travel which
help us in living our best lives. So, this is not the correct inference from the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The context of government role and what they should do as regards the growth
of the tourism industry is not discussed in the passage. Hence, this option is completely beyond the scope
of the passage.
45 (b)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The link between open communication and healthy relationships with
modern society is not explained in the passage. The main theme of the passage is the importance of
difficult conversations for healthy relationships. Hence, this is not the correct assumption as per the
passage.
Assumption 2 is correct: The given assumption is based on the lines “Many times, in relationships, we
tend to avoid difficult conversations, thinking that it can lead to either disagreements or fights. But what
we forget is that these unresolved and undiscussed conversations result in misunderstandings and
conflicts.” These lines show that the non-discussion of unresolved and undiscussed things would lead to
conflicts, hence this assumption that a person should know how to discuss them is correct.
46 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage is about the importance of having difficult conversations for building
healthy relationships, which is perfectly reflected in the given option. The lines “Unlike the traditional
cold plunges that involve immersing oneself in freezing waters to improve our health, ‘relationship cold
plunges’ are the difficult conversations and choices we need to make while coming out of our comfort
zone to ensure the health of our relationships” show the importance of difficult conversations in
building healthy relationships. Therefore, this is the best inference of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage discusses the importance of difficult conversations for building
healthy relationships. However, the context of narrow-minded societies has not been discussed. Hence,
this option is not the correct inference of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not mention about the lack of patience and quality time in
modern times. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not touch upon the nuances of comfort zone. The author
mainly discusses the importance of difficult conversations for building healthy relationships, which is not
a part of this answer option. Moreover, relationship cold plunges can only be achieved once a person
comes out of his/her comfort zone a bit. So, in a way, this statement is contrary to what the passage says.
So, this is not the correct inference as per the passage.
47 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The passage talks about collaborative efforts as a way forward. So, it would be
incorrect to say that inclusive approach increases the challenge of regulation of gene and cell therapy.
Therefore, this is not the correct inference as per the passage.
Inference 2 is incorrect: The given inference seems to be based on the following lines “Investing in
research and development, creating regulatory frameworks that balance innovation with ethical
considerations, and fostering a supportive ecosystem for biotechnology are crucial steps.” However,
these lines mean that the regulatory framework would help balance the innovation and ethical
consideration for gene and cell therapy. This does not mean that ethical considerations compromise
innovations. Hence, this inference is not correct as per the passage.
48 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The main theme of the passage is the challenges faced by gene and cell therapy.
The passage only says that it has immense potential. Whether or not it is the most promising future course
for healthcare is not specifically discussed in the passage. So, this option is not correct as per the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage nowhere mentions that future healthcare would be incomplete
without biotechnology integration. So, this is not the correct answer as per the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not weight the concerns and benefits of gene and cell therapy.
Hence, it would not be correct to conclude that there are more concerns than benefits. So, this is not the
correct option as per the passage.
Option (d) is correct: The central theme of the passage is the concerns related to gene and cell therapy.
The different stakeholders mentioned in the passage need to play a critical role. These are mentioned in
the lines - “Despite the immense potential, the integration of gene and cell therapy into mainstream
healthcare in India comes with its own set of challenges. From infrastructure limitations to ethical
considerations, … collaborative efforts - bringing together scientific communities, industries,
policymakers, and healthcare providers.” For the success of gene and cell therapy, there is a need of
collaborative efforts of different stakeholders.
49 (b)
For M to earn 50% more votes than T, she will need to earn 1.5 times his amount of votes. If we call T's
amount of votes x, and the total number of votes is 250, we can set up the equation:
x + 1.5x = 250
Or 2.5x = 250
Or x = 100
This means that T will get 100 votes. Since there are 250 votes in total, we can figure out that M will end
up with 150 votes.
M already has 88 votes.
So, M needs to earn 150 − 88 = 62 more votes.

50 (d)
Let x be the speed of the freight train.
Speed Time Distance
x 3 hrs 3x
x+20 3 hrs 3(x+20)
The total distance the two trains traveled in 3 hours = 500 - 80 = 420 miles.
Hence, 3x + 3(x+20) = 420
Or 3x+3x+60 = 420
Or 6x = 360
Or x = 360/6 = 60 miles per hour
51 (d)
In the above question, Distance = 120 miles
Let the speed for outgoing trip be x mph
So, Speed for incoming trip = x+5 mph
Time for outgoing trip = 120/x hours
Time for incoming trip = 120/(x+5) hours
Now, as per the question:
(120/x) – (1/3) = 120/(x+5)
Or 120/x = [120/(x+5)] + 1/3
52 (d)
A, B and C are siblings. A and B both are males, but we don’t know about the gender of C. So, we cannot
say that C is the brother of A.
53 (d)
If M is any point inside a rectangle PQRS, then

MP2 + MR2 = MS2 + MQ2 (Formula)
Given, MS = 5 cm, MQ = 6 cm and MR = 7 cm
So, MP2 + 72 = 52 + 62
⇒ MP2 = 25 + 36 – 49
⇒ MP2 = 12
⇒ MP = √12
∴ MP = 2√3 cm.
54 (c)
The term in the middle row is the product of the numbers in the first and the third column.
So, the required number = 63/7 = 9
55 (c)
Using the given options:
1. A B B C C → A B C A / A B C C / A B B C/ C B C C
2. C A B B A → A B C C / A A C C / A B B C/ B B A C
3. C B C A C → A B C C /A B C C/A B C C/ A B C C
4. A C C B A → A B C A/ A C C C/ A B C C/ B B A C
Using option (c), we can see that ABCC is getting repeated.
56 (d)
The prime factorization of 16 → 24
If the GCF (16, n) = 4 (where n is a positive integer), then we know that there are at least two 2's in n's
prime factorization.
If the GCF (45, n) = 3, then we know two additional pieces of information:
1) Given that the prime factorization of 45 is 32 x 5, we know that 5 isn't a factor of n.
2) At least one 3 is in n's prime factorization.
So, now we have at least two 2's and at least one 3 in n's prime factorization.
The question is asking for possible values for GCF (n, 210).
210's prime factorization = 7 x 3 x 2 x 5
n's (partial) prime factorization = 2 x 2 x 3
Since 210 and n at least share one 2 and one 3, we can eliminate (a) as a possible choice. Option (c) can
be eliminated because we know that 5 is not in n's prime factorization. Option (b) can also be eliminated
because we already know that 210 and n share one 2 and one 3 and the prime factorization of 14 (2 x 7)
does not contain a 3.
57 (a)
1- digit numbers: 9 digits (9 numbers)
2- digit numbers: 180 digits (90 numbers)
3-digit numbers: 2700 digits (900 numbers)
4-digit numbers: 3189 – (9 + 180 + 2700) = 300 digits (75 numbers)
Therefore, total number of pages = 9 + 90 + 900 + 75 = 1074
58 (c)
1/8 part of a pencil is black, half of the remaining, i.e. (1/2) x 7/8 = 7/16 is yellow.
Now the part left = 7/16, which is equal to 3.5 cm.
Therefore, the total length of the pencil = 3.5/(7/16) = 8 cm.
59 (a)
We may write the right side as y(y+1).
If y decreases, then both y and y+1 decrease. Since they are both negative, their magnitude (without
negative sign) increases, and this makes the product increase in value. Thus, x increases in value as y
decreases.
60 (a)
Since the supermarket sells apples in bundles of 4, we can represent the number of apples that Susie buys
from the supermarket as 4x, where x can be any integer ≥ 0.
If the number of apples that Susie buys from the convenience store is simply y, the total number of apples
she buys is (4x + y).
We are asked to find the smallest possible value of y such that (4x + y) can be a multiple of 5.
If y = 0, (4x + y) can still be a multiple of 5.
The value of (4×5 + 0) is 20, which is a multiple of 5.

61 (c)
The next term of the sequence is half of the previous term.
So, the term after 1 will be ½
62 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage states the impact of culture on women, but how women affect the
culture is not discussed in the passage. So, the context that culture and women moulding each other is not
a part of the passage. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does talk about the discrimination faced by girls, but the main theme
of the passage is how culture impacts men and women. Inculcating the values of equality and respect for
girls could be a peripheral argument. It is not the best crux of the passage. Therefore, this answer option is
incorrect.
Option (c) is correct: The passage is about the impact of culture on men and women. This is visible in
the lines “However, many Asian, Indian, Hispanic, and Latino cultures believe that girls (even if the
youngest) should take care of the males in the family. It’s often acceptable for boys to bend the rules
whereas girls are expected to follow the rules.” These lines show that it is the culture which shapes the
values of boys and girls, and hence, we can state that culture has a deep impact on men and women in
society. So, this is the best crux of the passage.
63 (b)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The passage does acknowledge the benefits of organic farming, but it
nowhere states that only organic farming can solve the present issues. Also, the passage does not cover
what the present issues of agriculture sector are. So, to assume that only organic farming can solve the
issues would not be correct as per the passage.
Assumption 2 is correct: The passage clearly emphasizes that organic food is thought to be healthier and
safer, indicating that consumer health is a significant concern and a driving factor behind the promotion of
organic farming. It mentions that organic farming promotes the health of consumers, along with
ecological and economic benefits. These arguments make this assumption valid.
64 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage mentions the benefits of organic farming in the context of health
benefits and economic growth through leveraging world markets. This option also captures the essence of
the passage that focuses on how organic farming would benefit India domestically (health) and
internationally (exports). This is visible in the lines “The organic farming process is more eco-friendly
than conventional farming. Organic farming keeps soil healthy and maintains environmental integrity
thereby, promoting the health of consumers. Moreover, the organic produce market is now the fastest-
growing market worldwide, including India.” So, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The context of government investing in promoting organic farming is not
covered in the passage. There is no mention of the role of the government in any context. So, this option is
entirely beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage mainly mentions the benefits of organic farming, and does not
discuss the issue of lack of awareness among farmers. So, the context of this option as well is not
mentioned in the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option overlooks the non-financial aspects of organic farming. The
author also emphasizes other benefits like nutritional, health, ecological etc. So, this is not the best crux of
the passage.
65 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage mainly focuses on how technology would aid in meeting future food
requirements. However, GMO crops are not mentioned or indicated in the passage in any context. The use
of technology could mean other interventions like farm mechanisation and food processing. Therefore,
this option is beyond the scope of the passage, and is therefore incorrect.
Option (b) is incorrect: Refer to the line: “…but the changing dietary patterns would mandate the …
able to meet the nutritional requirements of consumers…” There is an indication towards the changing
nutritional needs. However, this option states that there is a total absence of nutritional awareness, which
is incorrect. So, this option does not quite capture the best rational inference from the passage.

Option (c) is correct: The passage is about the role of technology in addressing the changing food
demands of the consumers, as seen in the lines - “Significant disruptions would be required at the supply
end to manage evolving food demands, to which technology will serve as a key enabler.” The other
context of food safety is also covered in the lines “Additionally, production systems need to be geared
towards addressing food safety and ensuring traceability of the product to meet evolved consumer
demands.” These lines validate that technology would help in addressing the changing food demands as
well as ensure food safety for consumers. So, this is the logical inference from the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The context of food safety and limited agriculture resources is discussed in the
passage, but the context of lack of awareness is not covered in the passage. Consumer awareness is not a
part of the passage and does not reflect the best logical inference of the passage.
66 (c)
Let xy be the number (N)
So, N = xy = 10x + y. ……..(1)
If we add to it a two digit number A, it will become yx = 10y + x = A + N ……..(2)
Again, if we add the same number, we will get x0y = 100x + y = 2A + N ……..(3)
Now, (2) – (1) = (3) – (2) = A
∴ (10y + x) – (10x + y) = (100x + y) – (10y + x)
Or 9y – 9x = 99x – 9y
Or y – x = 11x – y
Or 2y = 12x
Or y = 6x
Since x and y are single digits, only x = 1 and y = 6 will satisfy this.
∴ A = (2) – (1) = 9y – 9x = 45x = 45
67 (d)
Notice that the difference between the numerator and the denominator in each fraction is equal to 3. Since
all of the numbers are positive and less than 1, we know that the larger the denominator, the larger the
fraction.
E.g. 1/4 < 2/5 < 3/6 < 4/7 < 5/8 < 6/9 < 7/10
Using this logic, we can see that the largest fraction is 1883491/1883494
68 (c)
log10 p – log10 √p = 2logp 10
⇒ log10 [p/√p] = logp 102 = logp 100
⇒ log10 √p = log10 100/log10 p
⇒ 1/2 log10 p = 2/log10 p
⇒ (log10 p)2 = 4
⇒ log10 p = ±2
⇒ log10 p = 2 or log10 p = -2
⇒ p = 102 or p = 10-2
∴ p = 100 or p = 1/100 .
69 (a)
Sum of all the internal angles = [(n – 2)×180]°
(where, n = number of sides).
Sum of all the corresponding external angles = 360°.
So, Sum of all the internal angles and all the external angles = (180n – 360) + 360 = (180n)°.
So, 180n = 1440
⇒ n = 8.
Now, Number of diagonals = nC2 – n = n(n-1)/2 – n = n(n-3)/2
[Joining any two points (vertices) will yield a line, but this will include the sides and diagonals both, i.e.
Number of sides + Number of diagonals = nC2
⇒ n + Number of diagonals = nC2
⇒ Number of diagonals = nC2 – n
Hence, the required number of diagonals = (8×5)/2 = 20.
70 (c)
Let there be ‘n’ rows and ‘a’ students in the first row.
So, the number of students in the second row = (a – 4).
The number of students in the third row = (a – 8) and so on.
So, the number of students in each row form an arithmetic progression with common difference, d = -4.
Sum of ‘n’ terms in A.P. (arithmetic progression), Sn = n/2[2a + (n – 1) d],
where, n = number of terms, a = first term and d = common difference.
Now, consider the options.
Option (a): n = 6,
6/2[2a + (6 – 1) (-4)] = 1260
∴ a = 220.
Option (b): n = 5,
5/2[2a + (5 – 1) (-4)] = 1260
∴ a = 260.
Option (c): n = 8,
8/2[2a + (8 – 1) (-4)] = 1260
∴ a = 343/2.
Option (d): n = 7,
7/2[2a + (7 – 1) (-4)] = 1260
So, a = 192.
As ‘a’ is an integer, so ‘n = 8’ is not possible.
71 (b)
W is in the North-East direction with respect to T.

72 (a)
Let xyz be the three-digit number divisible by 5. So, z can only be 0 or 5.
We are also given that x = 2y. This means x+y (i.e. 2y+y) must be a multiple of 3.
CASE 1:
x+y+0 = 11
or x+y = 11
This can't be the case, because 11 is not a multiple of 3.
CASE 2:
x+y+5 = 11
or x+y = 6
On solving we get, x=4 & y=2
So, the 3-digit number is 425.
The product of the digits = 4 x 2 x 5 = 40
73 (b)
Let there be ‘x’ Amoeba in the first generation, i.e. n1 = x.
So, n2 = 10x, but only 50% survive,
So, n2, survived = 10x/2 = 5x.
n3 = 10(5x), but only 50% survive,
So, n3, survived = 10(5x)/2 = 25x = 52x.
Similarly, n6, survived = 56-1 x = 55x
Now, it’s given that: 55x = 3125
⇒ 3125x = 3125
∴ x = 1.
74 (c)
HZ = PK = 9 m
∴ BZ = HZ – BH = 9 – 4 = 5 m
75 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage nowhere compares democracy with authoritarianism. It only states
the situation of various countries presently and historically. However, the option prefers democracy which
is not based on the information given in the passage. So, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option is not correct because it underlines the reason to value
democracy. However, the passage nowhere shows that democracy can only be valued if it’s seen in
context of the experience of authoritarianism. So, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is correct: The passage merely presents the situation of democracy and authoritarianism in the
lines “Many countries are not democracies, and most countries that are democratic are younger than a
lifetime. This means that for most people, life under authoritarianism is either their current experience,
or they remember a time when it was.” These lines show that presently some countries practice
democracy and others practice authoritarianism. So, this option best reflects the crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option seems to be correct in general, but it is not what is implied in
the passage. The passage nowhere reflects that authoritarianism should be overthrown to establish
democracy. It only states the situation of different countries concerning democracy and authoritarianism.
So, this option does not reflect the best crux of the passage.

76 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss anything about charismatic leaders and their
qualities. It only mentions social intelligence and its relevance. So, this option is beyond the scope of the
passage and is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is correct: The passage is about the importance of social skills/intelligence. However, it also
discusses that social intelligence has been neglected and only the hard skills have been focussed upon.
This is visible in the lines “But when it comes to the so-called “soft” skills … we rarely see them as part
of an intelligence questionnaire. And while the hard skills are very important, it’s the soft ones that help
us maintain friendships, be satisfied at work, or simply find happiness in life.” and “these skills, which we
also call social intelligence, are so often neglected in schools” These lines show that social skills are
important, but they are less valued than hard skills. So, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The main theme of the passage is not the role of schools in shaping social
intelligence. The context of the school is used as a passing reference to show that social intelligence has
been ignored in various fields. So, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option states the role of social intelligence in the context of effective
communication which is not the main theme of the passage. The passage is primarily about the
importance of social intelligence. So, this option is not the correct crux of the passage.
77 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect: There is no mention of Digital India programme anywhere and in any context
in the passage. The passage talks about consumer trust, market penetration, future prospects and impact of
technology in insurance sector. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Inference 2 is incorrect: High GST rates and lack of trust are covered in the passage, but awareness of
products is not mentioned as a reason for poor insurance penetration in the country. Furthermore, we
cannot conclusively say that they are the ‘only’ reasons. So, this option is not the correct inference based
on the passage.
78 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage is about the role of digitalization and technologies in improving
insurance penetration. However, this option does not reflect it. The option states the importance of
insurance for every citizen which is not the main theme of the passage. So, this is not the correct option.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage is not about the issue of digital connectivity as the reason for poor
insurance penetration. The passage is on the role of digitalization and technologies in improving insurance
penetration. So, this option does not reflect the core theme of the passage, and hence does not present the
best-implied meaning of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given option would be correct in general, but this is not the main theme of
the passage. It misses the main context of the role of technology in insurance penetration as covered in
option (d). Also, health expenditure of the government has not been discussed in the passage. The passage
is about insurance in general, and not health insurance specifically.
Option (d) is correct: The passage is on the use of technology in promoting insurance coverage. There
are multiple factors at play in insurance market - the trust in the company, and GST rates - as seen in the
lines “Beyond technology, there is a need for insurance companies to work towards building greater
customer trust in the industry and improving access to insurance by rethinking various processes and
rules, such as the GST rate for insurance products to boost insurance penetration for the next billion
Indian online users.” These lines show that only technology (though important) is not sufficient to
improve insurance penetration. So, this is the best-implied meaning of the passage.
79 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage is not about the consequences of valuing destiny over free will. It
discusses the debate around free will and destiny without any bias. So, to state that valuing destiny causes
complacency and laziness is not correct as per the passage.
Option (b) is correct: The passage discusses the views on free will and destiny. It states the two aspects
of the historical debate, one with coexistence and the other with clashes as seen in the lines “Some also
argue that the two concepts are incompatible, while others believe they can coexist.” However, it does
not support any. This option also does not support any one aspect, and states that it is difficult to choose as
this debate is still ongoing. So, this is the most logical inference of the passage.

Option (c) is incorrect: The passage discusses the debate on free will and destiny, but that does not mean
that passage prefers coexistence to clashes between both. The passage simply states the views without any
bias. So, this option does not reflect the core theme of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is not based on the passage. The passage nowhere states what
people should do considering the debate around free will and destiny. Therefore, this option is beyond the
80 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. As per the passage, climate change may amplify inequalities. However, we
cannot deduce from this that limiting climate change will remove inequalities. Hence, this option is not
the best crucial message of the author.
Option (b) is incorrect. The given option seems to be correct as climate change is one of the factors
behind rising inequalities and poverty in general, but the passage does not mention any other factors in
this context. Hence, this option is not the best crucial message of the author.
Option (c) is incorrect. The option mentions how economic development helps in the issues of poverty
eradication, reducing inequalities, etc. which is not correct as per the information provided in the passage.
Hence, this option is not the best crucial message conveyed by the author of the passage.
Option (d) is correct. The given option is the best crucial message of the passage because of the
following lines - “Without action to limit and adapt to climate change, its environmental impact will
continue to amplify inequalities and could undermine development and poverty eradication.” These
lines validate the assertion made in the given option.


VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

4. the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on
5. the Test Booklet.
sheet.
be deducted.

1
1. P, Q, R and S are 4 even consecutive numbers, 2. Which of the following statements best reflects
such that P is smaller than S, S is smaller than Q, the crux of the passage?
(a) In future, robots will cease to compete with
and Q is smaller than R. Which of the following
humans in the domains of employment and
statement(s) is/are correct?
earnings.
(i) (P + S) ≥ (R + Q) (b) Unlike capitalism, the socialist model of
(ii) (R – S) > (Q + P) economy values human life more than
(iii) (P + R) ≤ (Q + S) robots.
(c) In the era of technological changes, high-
income countries need compassionate
below. capitalism.
(a) i, ii and iii (d) Firms in high-income countries should not
(b) ii and iii only introduce robots for work.
Passage – 2
(c) i and iii only
Craving for material things and the rising tendency to
(d) None of these
show off one's belongings are among the many reasons
cited by experts for instances of anti-social behaviour
Directions for the following 5 (five) items: among teenagers. A family system that is
Read the following four passages and answer the items communicative, tolerant, and non-violent has less
chance of nurturing criminal behaviour among children.
Youngsters are lured by temptations that are visible but
should be based on the passages only. not accessible. As a result, those who have a low
Passage – 1 aversion to risk and a high need to seek thrill take to
Technological change is one of the driving forces of crime. Youths have a strong penchant for splurging
money on material things. Their aspirations are often
capitalism. The latest economic research predicts that the
beyond the means of their parents. Youngsters want to
current level of robotic usage or an increased rate of
spend more money than their friends. Thus, the cycle of
robotic usage will have detrimental effects on both crime begins.
employment and earnings in a variety of occupations and 3. Which of the following statements best reflects
industries in high-income countries. While this result is the crux of the passage?
(a) Ethical socialization of children can stop
far from conclusive it relates to other findings about
crimes in society.
workers being fearful of robots replacing them
(b) The obsession of youth with materialistic
completely or replacing aspects of their job. As firms objects may prove to be dangerous for
introduce new-generation robots into the workplace and, society.
more broadly, new technologies associated with I4.0 (c) Parents must focus on socialization to make
their children responsible towards society.
then they need to include current workers who will be
(d) Parents should teach their kids the right
affected by such technologies in this introduction to allay balance between materialistic and spiritual
at least some of the fears that they have. success.

More and more these days, young people are establishing Citizen participation in anti-corruption efforts
and maintaining relationships online. These “cyber” encompasses dynamics and approaches that may differ
relationships often arise because parents, out of fear for from citizen participation in other public processes,
given that the State may not always provide citizens with
their children’s safety, no longer allow them to be “free
the same access to space and information about fighting
range” to congregate in local parks, at malls, and on
corruption. Corruption bypasses democratic mechanisms
street corners. The only place that they have permission
to the extent that Mark Warren has defined corruption as
to “meet up” is in virtual gatherings such as Facebook,
a violation of democratic inclusion. Corruption bypasses
Twitter, and the “textosphere.” Plus, the reality is that
the laws and rules that were democratically established
your children are growing up as natives in this digital
and excludes those who do not participate in corrupt
world, so it is only natural that they spend some of their
exchanges (e.g., services that are meant to be public are
time in cyberspace. There are several questions that you
allocated to those who bribe or based on clientelism). For
must ask as your children immerse themselves in this this reason, the role of citizens is better understood in
connected world. First, are the relationships that they terms of social accountability, where the citizens oppose
build online healthy or harmful? and, do they foster your corruption by keeping it in check, critically assessing the
children’s long-term positive development? conduct and decisions of officeholders, reporting
4. Which one of the following statements best corruption misdoings and crimes, and asking for
reflects the most critical inference that can be appropriate countermeasures.
made from the passage given above? 5. Based on the above passage, the following
(a) Parents should guide children in safely assumptions have been made:
1. The democratic mechanisms deter
navigating relationships online.
officeholders from corruption.
(b) Parents need not adapt to the changing
2. Apart from laws, it is the citizen's
modes of engagement - from physical to
participation which can keep a check on
virtual - of their children.
corruption.
(c) The cyber world offers huge opportunities
for development for young people.
(a) 1 only
(d) Young people need not learn the value of
(b) 2 only
relationships in offline mode of (c) Both 1 and 2
engagement. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. According to the author, the most rational 8. Three boys and two girls are to be seated in a
inference would be: row so that the girls are always seated together
(a) Fighting corruption is a citizen’s duty and and the no girl is seated at either end of the row.
the state shall ensure access to space and How many possible arrangements are there?
information in all public processes. (a) 24
(b) Weaker laws and corrupt officials call for (b) 120
the active participation of the citizens to (c) 12
check corruption. (d) 48
(c) People’s indifference is the best breeding
ground for corruption and bureaucracy- 9. Following information is known about six
criminal nexus. members of a family.
(d) Both (a) and (b) 1. There are three male members and three
female members in the family.
7. Three statements are given below followed by 2. A and E are both females and are children of
four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You F.
have to take the three given statements to be true 3. D is the father of two children - one boy and
even if they seem to be at variance with one girl, B.
commonly known facts. Read the given 4. B, who is a female, is child of A.
conclusions and then decide which of the given 5. There is only one married couple in the
conclusions logically follow(s) from the given family.
statements disregarding commonly known facts. Which of the following statements is correct
Statements: regarding the family mentioned above?

(a) A, B, E are all females.
(i) Some cakes are milk.
(b) D is the husband of A.
(ii) Some milks are curd.
(c) D is the father of E and F.
(iii) No curd is yogurt.
(d) More than one of the above statements are
Conclusions:
correct.
I. No cake is a yogurt.
II. No milk is a yogurt.
10. A bag contains 3 blue pens, 4 green pens and 5
III. Some milk are yogurt.
red pens. Three pens are drawn simultaneously
IV. Some cakes are curd.
at random from it. Find the probability that all
Which of the above conclusions is/are correct?
the three pens are of different colours.
(a) Both I and II follow
(a) 4/11
(b) Both I and IV follow
(b) 8/11
(c) 3/11
(d) Either II or III follows
11. Kamlesh, a local chemist, offers two varieties of Passage – 1
Ayurvedic tablets - A and B, priced at Rs. 10 and Response strategies for climate change will require a
Rs. 12 per strip, respectively. He sells both types central role of education. Education helps people
of tablets for a total of Rs. 25,200, maintaining a understand and address the impact of global warming,
profit margin of 20%. It’s known that he sold encourages change in their attitudes and behaviour and
420 strips of tablets A. What is the quantity of helps them adapt to climate change-related trends.
tablets B in the total tablets he sold? Education and capacity building have also attracted the
(a) 3500 strips attention of policymakers, environmental activists, and
(b) 2800 strips multilateral organizations and stimulated diplomatic
(c) 7000 strips activities across the world. Various stakeholders need
(d) 1400 strips additional capacity, not only to deal with the additional
challenges of climate change but also to enhance
12. On 1st January 1949, 4000 soldiers were posted development efforts and safeguard development gains.
inside a barrack at the L.O.C. In the barrack, Climate change management at the international level
there was sufficient stock of food for 190 days. consists of the 1992 United Nations Framework
At the end of 30th January, due to heavy snow Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the 1997
fall and extreme weather conditions, 800 Kyoto Protocol and the decisions taken by the signatory
soldiers were shifted back from the barrack to countries under these instruments.
the base camp. For how many days shall the 13. Which one of the following statements best
remaining food last for the remaining soldiers? reflects what is implied by the passage?
(a) 200 days (a) Climate change education is crucial for the
(b) 180 days effective management of its impacts.
(c) 210 days (b) Education about climate change will lessen
(d) 195 days the need for technological solutions.
(c) Climate change education will lead to
Directions for the following 5 (five) items: immediate behavioural change.
Read the following three passages and answer the items (d) International bodies are giving more priority
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items to climate change education as compared to
should be based on the passages only. other solutions.

Passage – 2 15. With reference to the passage, which one of the
Originally, public schools were created and funded as a following statements is correct?
part of our democracy. To ensure that all members of the (a) Along with being a great equalizer,
democracy were able to participate in our political education is also a great political polarizer.
system, education was identified as a key tool of (b) School administrators of private schools
democracy, known as the ‘great equalizer’. Although should ensure that political science classes
political polarization is not new it is increasing. are held regularly.
Education provides an opportunity for school (c) Education is the only source of awareness of
administrators to create an environment for education politics at the national and local levels.
which succeeds in creating educated and engaged (d) The less fortunate in society can be
students who are aware of politics at the national and empowered through the tool of education.
local levels and can use the classroom format to develop Passage – 3
their critical thinking and problem-solving skills. This Culture is a term that is highly complex and often
will only enrich their political contribution as adults. If contested with academics recording about 160 variations
we don’t prioritize educational equity, it will be those in meaning. Underpinning the notion of culture is that it
less fortunate in society that will continue to suffer is dynamic and changes over time and in different
disproportionately. contexts resulting in many people today identifying with
14. Which of the following is/are the most rational one or more cultures and many different groups. Culture
and logical inference/inferences that can be is a defining feature of a person’s identity, contributing
made from the passage? to how they see themselves and the groups with which
1. Education is the basis for political they identify. A person’s understanding of their own and
empowerment in adulthood. other’s identities develops from birth and is shaped by
2. For students and public welfare, the the values and attitudes prevalent at home and in the
privatization of schools should be checked. surrounding community. Like culture, the notion of
Select the correct answer from the code given identity is complex with people’s identity or identities
below: becoming more complex over time as they interact with
(a) 1 only different groups. Identity adapts due to many factors
(b) 2 only including mass media, popular culture and increased
(c) Both 1 and 2 opportunities for social interaction facilitated by new
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 technologies.

16. Based on the above passage, the following 19. Aniket took some mango saplings, made groups
assumptions have been made: of five with them, and found that two saplings
1. A strong sense of identity is critical for a were left over. He also tried making groups of
person's survival in a social group. three and groups of seven, and in each case, two
2. Cultural interactions of different groups saplings were left over. What is the smallest
complicate the development of the identity possible number of saplings that Aniket had?
of a person and may give rise to people (a) 103
having confused personalities. (b) 112
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? (c) 105

(d) 107
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
20. A car and a train start from point A at the same
(c) Both 1 and 2
time, and their destination is also the same. The
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
train travels 10% faster than the car, but the train
driver has to stop the train for 10 minutes at a
station. Still, the train reached the destination at
the same time as the car. If the destination is 140
(a) Culture and identity are interrelated despite
km away from point A, then what must be the
being complex and dynamic.
speed of the train?
(b) Despite being a complex process, identity
(a) 64 km/hr
development depends on one’s own specific
(b) 74 km/hr
culture. (c) 84 km/hr
(c) There is a need to simplify the notions of (d) 54 km/hr
culture and identity.
(d) Culture influences not only identities, but 21. Mr. Sharma’s family consists of three people;
also mass media and technologies. his wife, his son and himself. At the time of their
wedding, average age of Mr. Sharma and his
18. A L.I.C. office hired 400 employees, consisting wife was 28 years. After the birth of their son a
of both officers and workers. Their average few years later, average age of the family
monthly salary is Rs. 5000. If a worker receives dropped by 10 years from what it was just before
Rs. 4000 per month and the average salary of his birth. What was the age of Mr. Sharma when
officers is Rs. 20,000 per month, then determine the son was born, if the ages of Mr. and Mrs.
the number of officers in that L.I.C. office. Sharma were in the ratio 8:7 at that time?
(a) 50 (a) 30 years
(b) 35 (b) 28 years
(c) 25 (c) 32 years
(d) 55 (d) Cannot be determined from the given data

22. In an exam 12% students scored less than 30 Passage – 1
marks, 6% students scored more than 200 marks, One of the big things that we usually try to encourage in
22% students scored more than 100 marks, and
relationship therapy, is empathy. Most people agree that
990 students scored between 30 and 100 marks.
they want people to feel empathy for them, their
How many students scored between 100 and 200
marks? struggles, and their feelings. But is this focus on empathy
(a) 250 as a ground zero for ethical and close relationships

(b) 240 misguided? In a new book, The Other Side of Empathy,
(c) 230
author Jade E. Davis argues that we should be sceptical
(d) 225
of the recent cultural focus on empathy and its
23. In a certain code, ‘PUNISHMENT’ is written as accompanying strategies and methods. One of her main
‘NWLKQJKGLV’. In the same code arguments is that empathy often presumes that we can
‘PRECAUTION’ will be written as truly know another person, particularly the specifics of
(a) NTCEYWRKMP
their suffering. This can “flatten” suffering by presuming
(b) NGECWRPKQL
how the other is truly feeling. In worst cases, this can
(c) RSCAYSVGQL
(d) NPGAYSRQKL become patronising, paternalistic, and even dismissive
as it turns the other’s pain into something of your own
24. Rajat likes a pair of shoes that costs Rs 5500. On (the listener). It can make it more about you, the listener,
a particular Thursday, all the items in the shop
than those who are listened to, by relating their
are at 10% discount. Further, on buying items
experience to something that has happened to you.
over Rs. 9500, the shop offers a discount of Rs
100 on the bill. Rajat tells Shyam about the offer 25. Which of the following statements best reflects
who also decides to buy the shoes. What will be the crux of the passage?
the percentage savings if two friends buy the (a) Properly understanding empathy is
same pair of shoes each on Thursday and get it fundamental to solving the issues of the
billed together?
sufferer.
(a) 10.9%
(b) We as a society should be open to different
(b) 10%
(c) 11.11% interpretations of empathy and morality.
(d) Cannot be calculated from the given data. (c) The understanding of empathy is not limited
to only one interpretation.
(d) The value of empathy is not clearly
Read the following four passages and answer the items
understood in the psychological world and
should be based on the passages only. probably will never be.

The present economic system is destroying our natural Literary borders should be porous and the Sahitya
resources and thereby eroding the prosperity of future Akademi awards, which have been honouring writers of
24 Indian languages over the years, should be seen in that
generations. Large-scale logging, depletion of the
light. This year the Akademi has picked nine books of
oceans’ fish stocks and the loss of arable soil are prime
poems, six novels, five short stories, three essays and one
examples of this development. The follow-up costs of
literary study in Dogri, Gujarati, Kashmiri, Manipuri,
climate change and loss of biodiversity alone could run Odia, Punjabi, Rajasthani, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Assamese,
up to one-quarter of the global gross national product by Bodo, Bengali, Telugu, Malayalam, Kannada, Santali
2050. “Business as usual” in the industrialised countries’ and others. It is a prize to be welcomed just for the sheer
resource-intensive economies and the developing and linguistic diversity it acknowledges in a country where
there is a change in dialect every few square kilometres
emerging countries following suit is not a feasible
and no dearth of marginalised communities or languages
course. Environmental protection and economic
facing extinction. The possibilities are immense: in a
development are not a contradiction of terms but depend
country where not everyone can whip up a PR frenzy, a
on each other. Increasing energy and material efficiency Sahitya Akademi award is an encouragement to keep
is set to become the decisive factor for international pursuing the craft; writers can expect to see a rise in sales
competitiveness in the 21st century. This is why a and be taught in schools and universities; and readers can
transformation to a Green Economy is necessary which hope to discover some hidden gems. Writers also have
the opportunity to be translated into other regional
operates within the so-called ecological guard rails and
languages, and into English too.
preserves natural resources.
1. The Sahitya Akademi Award helps in
(a) To ensure sustainability, the present concept country-wide cross-cultural interactions
of economic development needs to change. through books.
(b) Countries focusing on energy and material 2. Awards like Sahitya Akademi do not value
resources would lead the world in the 21st the different languages and dialects of the
country.
century.
(c) The global race for green future markets has
(a) 1 only
picked up considerable momentum in recent
(b) 2 only
years. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage – 4 30. Two bus tickets from Alwar to Baroda and three
Different factors affect the pace of spatial tickets from Alwar to Chitarkoot cost Rs. 77 but
transformations in different ways. In India, people live
three tickets from Alwar to Baroda and two
in the largest cities than in small towns when compared
tickets from Alwar to Chitarkoot cost Rs. 73.
to China. Nearly 6 per cent of the urban population lives
in the largest cities in India, which is double compared What are the fares to Baroda and Chitarkoot
to China. Most modern cities in India are undergoing from Alwar?
haphazard growth, and because of this, the effects of (a) Rs.4, Rs.23
living in huge cities have not been fully anticipated. The (b) Rs.13, Rs.17
social, economic, and psychological consequences of
(c) Rs.15, Rs.14
industrialisation and urbanisation have not been fully
(d) Rs.17, Rs.13
considered and the steps which should have been taken
to bring about an adjustment between man and his new
environment have not been forthcoming in ample 31. Consider the following statements:
measure. This is particularly true in the case of 1. Some capitals are continents.
underdeveloped regions.
2. All continents are countries.
3. Some countries are islands.
and logical inference/s that can be drawn from
the passage? Conclusions:
1. India is more urbanized than China. I. Some islands are continents.
2. There is a lack of systematic policy II. Some countries are continents.
approach to India’s urbanization. III. Some countries are capitals.
IV. Some islands are capitals
below:
Based on the given statements, which of the
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only conclusion(s) is/are true?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) All are true
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only II and III are true
(c) Only III is true
(d) Only IV is true
(a) Urbanization is critical for rapid economic
growth. 32. In a certain code ‘DIGEST’ is written as
(b) India should protect its villages as it does in ‘GKICQW’. In the same code ‘PICNIC’ will be
case of its cities. written as:
(c) India’s urbanization trend demands a relook
(a) FRASRA
at the model of urbanization.
(b) KAGPER
(d) Industrialization and urbanization go hand
in hand, creating multi-dimensional impacts (c) XKELGK
on people’s lives. (d) ARSARF
33. Find the missing number in the following 36. How many triangles are there in the following
matrix. figure?
96 48 6
48 12 12
72 ? 12
(a) 18
(a) More than 24
(b) 6
(b) 21
(c) 4 (c) Less than 20
(d) 16 (d) In between 35 and 40
37. A tap is filling a water tank and the flow of water

34. The sum of the ages of Rati and her mother is 83
through that tap is 6 litres per minute. Once the
years. After 6 years, her mother’s age will be
tank is filled, the tap is closed. However, later
3.75 times her age. What was the ratio of their
due to generation of a leak at the bottom of the
ages 9 years ago? tank, it gets emptied in 8 hours. When the tank
(a) 2 : 13 is full, and the tap and leak both work
(b) 1 : 12 simultaneously, then tank gets emptied in 12

hours. What is the tank’s capacity?
(c) 1 : 10
(a) 5000 litres
(d) 1 : 9
(b) 8640 litres
(c) 3000 litres
35. The average of five numbers is x, and the (d) Can’t be determined
average of three of these numbers is y. Value of
the remaining two numbers is ‘a’ and ‘b’ and 38. If P, Q and R are three angles such that P = Q +
difference between these two numbers is 1. R and P > 180°, then which of the following is
definitely not true for Q and R.
Which of the following relationship(s) between
(a) One is obtuse angle and other one is acute
them is/are true?
angle.
(a) 5x + 3y – b = 1 (b) One is reflex angle and other one acute
(b) 5x – 3y – 2b = 1 angle.
(c) 5x – 3y – 2a = 1 (c) Both are obtuse angles.
(d) Both (b) & (c) (d) Both are right angles.

Read the following two passages and answer the items Irregularity and lack of punctuality are problems which
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items you encounter frequently in any work situation. Look
should be based on the passages only. around yourself and you may come across people who
Passage – 1 get up late in the morning and are unable to send their
Most of our parents would probably say we would be far children to school on time. They may also not be able to
better off if we could use the lessons they learned the provide their family members with proper meals and
hard way – lessons that would have saved them time, have disorganized homes due to their irregular behaviour
effort and maybe even heartbreak had they learnt them and lack of punctuality. Such people are frequently
sooner. But did they live life based on the learnings of absent from work. Others like to come in late and leave
their own parents’ mistakes before us? Do we learn our early as a matter of habit or right. Some workers are
lessons from history as individuals, as nations, as
never found at their seats during working hours. You
mankind? As human beings, we go in cycles from one
may have witnessed the inconvenience caused to the
milestone to the next. Starting over is at the core of our
public wanting to pay bills when counter clerks are either
existence. Even the 50 to 75 trillion cells that make up a
late or not found at their seats in banks, post offices, and
human body are replaced with new cells every seven to
telephone and electricity offices. The irresponsible
10 years. There is no denying that lessons from the past
behaviour of such people spoils the discipline of the
have advanced our species, but it may be the renewed
work environment, sets bad examples, causes
cells talking, a voice inside us responding to a familiar
inconvenience to the public and lowers the image of the
risk with ‘it could be different this time’. It might be the
organization.
optimist in us talking but we can sometimes convince
ourselves that under different circumstances even an
identical situation could have a different outcome.
1. Professionalism and punctuality are crucial
for a well-functioning work environment
reflects the most critical inference that can be
and public service.
2. Personal actions have wider impacts beyond
(a) Committing mistakes is inherent to being
individual consequences.
human.
(b) People should avoid making mistakes at any Choose the correct answer using the codes given
cost. below.
(c) People repeating mistakes reflect the (a) 1 only
ignorance of human beings. (b) 2 only
(d) The optimistic attitude of humans helps (c) Both 1 and 2
prevent repetition of mistakes. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

41. In Gokuldham society, Tapu Sena wants to 44. Study the following graphs carefully and answer
celebrate Ganpati festival. For preparations sake the question that follows.
they need a committee. A committee of 5
Chart -1 shows transportation of 15 million tons
members is to be formed out of 4 men and 5
women. In how many ways can Tapu Sena form of petroleum through different modes over a
a committee consisting of 1 man and 4 women? specific period of time.
(a) 20 ways
Chart- 2 shows the distribution of the cost of
(b) 26 ways
transporting this petroleum. The total cost
(c) 24 ways
(d) 45 ways incurred was Rs. 40 million.
42. While sitting on a park bench, Rahul estimated

that the area of the park must be 160 cm2 and the
length seems to be 16 cm. If area is increased to
1.33 times the original area by increasing only
its length, what must be the new perimeter of the
park (approx.)?
(a) 60 cm
(b) 62.67 cm
If the cost of transport (per ton) by ship, air
(c) 65.5 cm
(d) 54.2 cm flight, rail and road are represented by A, B, C
and D respectively, then which of the following

43. The figure given below shows a field with the is true?
measurements given in meters.
(a) A > B > C > D
(b) A ≥ C > B > D
(c) B > A > D > C
(d) D > B > C > A
45. Study the following table carefully and answer

2
Calculate the total area of the field (in m ).
The following table showcases the number of
(a) 15 + √5
(b) 50 + √5 school students (boys and girls) in different
(c) 50(1 + √5) streams. Some students live in hostels while
(d) 15(1 + √5)
some don’t.

Passage – 1
Corruption, like a corrosive force, poses a profound
threat to the foundations of democracy. At the heart of
democratic ideals is the principle of equal representation
and the empowerment of citizens to shape their
60% of the students of this school passed in the governance. In a democracy, the power vested in elected
annual examination. If the success rate in the officials is meant to reflect the people's desires, guided
science stream was 100%, what must be the by principles of transparency and accountability.
success rate of the other streams combined? Corruption disrupts this delicate balance, as public
(a) 42(2/3)% resources are syphoned away for personal gain,
(b) 48(4/7)% undermining the potential for equitable development.
(c) 45(5/2)% Moreover, corruption perpetuates a cycle of inequality,
(d) None of these as those with access to power manipulate the system to
their advantage, leaving marginalised voices unheard.
46. If 97865A4B is divisible by 6, then what is the To safeguard democracy from the encroachment of
maximum possible value of A + B? corruption requires a multifaceted approach, including
(a) 25 robust legal frameworks, independent oversight, people

participation and a collective commitment to ethical
(b) 12
governance. Only by addressing corruption head-on can
(c) 15
societies hope to preserve the true spirit of democracy—
(d) None of these
a system that empowers individuals and ensures that the
voice of the people remains the driving force behind
47. Examine the following statements:
governance.
I. Shark is faster than Monkey.
II. Rabbit is not faster than Cat.
and logical inference/ inferences that can be
III. Monkey is faster than Rabbit.
The conclusion that can be drawn from the given 1. Fighting corruption is the responsibility of
statements is: not only the government, but also the
(a) Cats are as fast as Shark and Monkey. citizens.
(b) Cats are as fast as Monkey. 2. Weakened democratic principles and
(c) Rabbit is the slowest of all the animals. frameworks breed corruption in governance.
(d) Shark is faster than Cat. Select the correct answer from the code given
below:
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: (a) 1 only
Read the following two passages and answer the items (b) 2 only

Passage – 2 51. A cuboidal water tank is of length 5 meter and
Identities are not inherited but fashioned both by the breadth 2 meter. (7/10) part of water tank is
individual and the group through their relationship with filled with water. When we throw a stone of size
others. For the individual the social roles that s/he plays 3×3×1 m3 in it, the water tank gets completely
imparts identity. Every person in modern society plays full. Determine the height of the cuboidal water
multiple roles. For instance, within the family, s/he may tank.
be a parent or a child but for each of the specific roles, (a) 2 m
there are responsibilities and powers. It is not sufficient (b) 3 m
to enact roles. They also must be recognized and (c) 4 m
acknowledged. This can often be done through the (d) 5 m
recognition of the language that is used among role
players. Students in schools have their way of referring 52. A manager was given the task to make a garden
to their teachers, other students, and class performances. ready before a certain wedding. So, the manager
By creating this language which also serves as a code, appointed 30 men to complete the task in 38
they create their world of meanings and significances. days. But after 25 days he appointed 5 more men
Similarly, women are also known to create their and the work got completed one day earlier. If
language and through it their own private space beyond he had not appointed additional men, then which
the control of men especially when they congregate at of the following would be true?
the pond to bathe in rural areas or across washing lines (a) He would have been 5 days behind the
on rooftops in urban areas. deadline.
49. Based on the above passage, the following (b) He would have been 2 days behind the
assumptions are made: deadline.
1. Human societies are dynamic and relational. (c) He would have been 2 days ahead of the
2. Language plays a crucial role in identity deadline.
formation. (d) He would have been 1 day behind the
Which of the above assumptions is/are correct? deadline.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 53. Satish goes to the market with a speed of 5
(c) Both 1 and 2 km/hour and discovers that the market got
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 closed 30 minutes before. So, the next day he
walks 1 km/hour faster than before, but is still
50. Find the value of X in the series given below late by 5 minutes. What is the distance to the
15, 42, 74, X, 175, 260 market from his home?
(a) 105 (a) 10.5 km
(b) 95 (b) 21 km
(c) 116 (c) 12.5 km
(d) 150 (d) 15 km

54. Some workers were trying to install a light pillar, 56. With reference to the above graph, consider the
but its 4/9th part had sunk into the mud. They following statements taking 1961 as base year:
eventually were able to pull out 3/5th of the 1. There is no time period from 1961 to 2011,
sunken part out of the mud. If 4 m of the pillar is where child sex ratio (0-6 years) and overall
still sunk in the mud, then what is the actual sex ratio of a country are equal.
length of the whole pillar? 2. The percentage change in overall sex ratio is
(a) 23.5 m more than that of child sex ratio (0-6 years)
(b) 24 m in the given 50 years.
(c) 22.5 m 3. The overall sex ratio in 1991 and child sex
(d) 31.5 m ratio in 2001 are equal.
4. The average of child sex ratio (0-6 years)
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: and overall sex ratio in the year 1971 and
Consider the following graph in which Child sex ratio 1981 is same.
(0-6 years) and overall sex ratio of a country during 1961 Which of the above are the most logical and
to 2011 are given, and answer the two items that follow. rational conclusions that can be made from the
980 976
964
given graph?
962
Females per 1000 males
960 941 945 940 (a) 1 and 2 only

930 934 933
940 927
(b) 3 only
914
920
927 (c) 2 and 3 only
900
1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011 (d) 3 and 4 only
Census Year
Child sex ratio ( 0 to 6 years) 57. If 17th March was a Monday, then what day
Overall sex ratio
would it be on 12th July?
55. Looking at the graph, it can be inferred that: (a) Saturday
(a) After 1971, there has been a consistent rise (b) Tuesday
in overall sex ratio of a country. (c) Wednesday
(b) After 1991, there has been a consistent fall (d) Friday
in overall sex ratio of a country.

(c) The fall in child sex ratio has been unabated Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
since 1961. Read the following two passages and answer the items
(d) The rise in child sex ratio has been unabated that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
since 1961. should be based on the passages only.

Allied activities make cultivation more efficient by A knowledge of the history of climate is important for
providing sources of energy and implements. These studying climate change. Climate history is studied by
collecting information about relevant parameters of the
activities are the sources of organic manure, draught, and
different components of the climate system. Most of the
traction power. These are also the source of some
modern national weather services including India's were
traditional implements like leather buckets and ropes.
established between the middle of the 19th century and
Camels, mules, and donkeys are better suited as means the beginning of the 20th century. Therefore,
of transport in certain areas where the use of mechanical instrumental records on global and regional climates are
means of transport (such as tractors) is either not feasible available for nearly 100- 150 years only. They are useful
or is very costly. In view of the increasing energy crisis, in understanding climate variability more precisely.
They also help in diagnosing any slow changes or trends
some countries have started the use of their cattle and
and fluctuations that have taken place on different spatial
buffaloes as a source of energy for the farm sector. The
and temporal scales and keeping vigil on the
allied activities enhance the economic viability and even
anthropogenic (man-made) changes in climate on global,
the technical feasibility of cultivation by providing regional and local scales. International mechanisms have
important inputs at the production stage and making use been established for monitoring the climate system under
of the by-products at the disposal stage. Allied activities the aegis of the World Meteorological Organization
thus open new dimensions of judicious land utilization (WMO) of the United Nations System, and other
scientific agencies.
through mixed or diversified farming.
assumptions are made:
the most logical, rational and crucial message
1. Understanding past climate patterns is
conveyed by the author of the passage? crucial for interpreting and predicting future
(a) Allied activities are necessary for all farmers changes.
worldwide. 2. Along with understanding climate systems,
(b) Allied activities should completely replace international collaborations are crucial to
addressing climate change.
mechanized farming.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are
(c) Involvement in allied activities leads to
correct?
animal exploitation.
(a) 1 only
(d) Engaging in allied activities leads to a more (b) 2 only
efficient, sustainable, and diversified (c) Both 1 and 2
agricultural system. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Milkha completes one round of circular track in 63. Rajeshwari and Kiran decided to meet in
Greenland Park but due to rain Kiran said that
11 seconds. If the diameter of circular track is
she couldn’t make it. To surprise her,
1400 meters which is equal to the side of a Rajeshwari took her car and went 5 meters south
square track, then in how many seconds will first then she opened the Google map which
indicated to turn left and drive 2 meters. After
Milkha complete one round of the square track?
that she again turned left and drove 3 meters and
(a) 30 seconds then she turned right and drove 1 meter and
(b) 50 seconds reached the Santa cruise market where she
bought some sweets for Kiran and then she again
(c) 20 seconds
turned left and drove 2 meters. Thereafter, she
(d) 14 seconds turned left again and drove 2 meters to reach
Kiran’s house. In which direction is Kiran’s
house from Rajeshwari’s?
61. In the following equation, the mathematical
(a) East
operators used have been replaced by symbols. (b) South
16 @ 5 # 31 = ? (c) North
(d) West
Find the answer after putting in the right
operators. 64. If f(2a + 4) = 40a2 + 80a + 60, then f(5a + 4) will

(a) 7 be equal to
(a) 250a2 + 200a + 60
(b) 49
(b) 220a2 + 160a + 80
(c) 73 (c) 120a2 + 400a + 60
(d) None of these
(d) (49)2
65. In a flower shop, a shopkeeper uses 3 varieties
of flowers –lily, rose and jasmine to make
62. Shikha started a business by investing Rs. garlands. The costs of lily, rose and jasmine (in
30,000, and Hemendra joined her after some Rs./kg) are Rs. 22, Rs. 30 and Rs. 32
respectively. The garlands formed were sold for
time with an investment of Rs. 18,000. If
Rs. 30/kg and the shopkeeper earned 25% profit
Shikha's share was two-thirds of the profit by selling them. It is known that the quantity of
earned by them after one year, then determine lily in a garland is 4 kg more than 3 times of the
sum of the quantities of the other two verities of
when Hemendra joined.
flowers. What is the quantity of jasmine (in kg)
(a) 2 months after Shikha used in one garland?
(b) 3 months after Shikha (a) 5 kg
(b) 4 kg
(c) 8 months after Shikha
(c) 2 kg
(d) 10 months after Shikha (d) 3 kg

66. A change disposing machine contains 2 rupee, 3 Passage – 1
rupee and 5 rupee coins. The total number of Philosophy endeavours to explain through speculative
reasoning the possible answers to varieties of questions.
coins is 300 and the amount is Rs.1200. If the
Since each philosopher develops his answer in
number of 2 rupees coins and the number of 3
accordance with his intellectual calibre, we have
rupees coins are interchanged, the total amount variegated philosophical truths. One thinker refutes the
comes down by Rs.60. Find the total number of other and comes forward with his own viewpoints which
are subsequently refuted by successive philosophers.
5 rupee coins in the machine.
This attitude is based on the historical situation of the
(a) 128
philosopher. Metaphorically speaking, a philosopher
(b) 65 inhales much before he exhales, i.e., he studies the
(c) 168 environment in which he lives, the philosophical
(d) 96 predicaments pronounced by his predecessors, the
scriptures or literature available during his times, and
develops dialogue, discussion, argument etc., with his
67. The angles po, qo, ro and (π - so) are indicated in
rival thinkers so that he sharpens his intellect before
the following figure. exhibiting his philosophical doctrines. The method of
refuting the alien view and the presentation of one’s own
view results in the enrichment as well as enhancement of
wisdom to the ardent admirers of philosophy. New vistas
of knowledge open the floodgates of wisdom thereby
eliminating ignorance.
68. With reference to the above passage, which of
the assumptions given below are correct?
Which one of the following is correct? 1. Progress in philosophy does not only depend
(a) p = q + r - s on reproducing what is already known.
(b) p = s - q - r 2. Studying philosophy fosters wisdom.
3. Philosophical reasoning leads to an
(c) p = q + s + r
objective hierarchy of correct and incorrect
(d) p = q – s - r
truths.
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: below.
Read the following three passages and answer the items (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All 1, 2 and 3

The discovery and colonization of America have In July 2023, the Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB) proposed a new draft of classification criteria for
contributed to augment the industry, first, of all the
industries into the red, orange, green and white
countries which trade to it directly, such as Spain,
categories. Delhi-based think tank Centre for Science
Portugal, France, and England; and, secondly, of all
and Environment (CSE) has reviewed the document and
those which, without trading to it directly, send, through
the proposed revisions and methodology for
the medium of other countries, goods to it of their own classification. In CSE’s view, the methodology is not
produce; such as Austrian Flanders, and some provinces full-fledged as it does not consider the impact of
of Germany, which, through the medium of the countries different types of pollution on the health of humans and
before mentioned, send to it a considerable quantity of occupational health impacts. Also, the fugitive emissions
from process operation and material handling have been
linen and other goods. All such countries have evidently
given low weightage, as compared to hazardous air
gained a more extensive market for their surplus produce
pollutants and emissions from the combustion of coal or
and must consequently have been encouraged to increase
liquid fuels. Due to this, the stone crusher units — one
its quantity.
of the most polluting sectors in terms of fugitive
69. Which of the following statements best reflects emissions — have been proposed to be shifted from the
the most logical, rational, and crucial message orange to green category in the CPCB report. Dust
implied by the passage? emissions from the stone crushers should not be given
(a) Colonization of America led to a significant low weightage as it is not less harmful than hazardous air
pollutants.
boost in economic activity and production in
European countries.
the most rational message conveyed by the
(b) The only objective of the European
author of the passage?
countries was to take resources out of (a) Due to the dispute on the criteria, there is a
America. need to reconsider the new draft for
(c) The economic benefits of American classifying industries.
colonization were solely enjoyed by the (b) All fugitive emissions are equally harmful.
(c) Stone crushers concerned with fugitive
ruling elite in European countries.
emissions must be kept under the red
(d) Getting access to the American market saw
category.
an increase in agricultural output in Europe.

71. Rohan starts driving his car from office at a 74. Unit digit of the expression (374)202 + (384)203 is
speed of 50 km/hour. After 30 minutes, her I. An even number
colleague Rohini starts driving her car from the II. A prime number
same office and in the same direction at a speed III. An odd number
IV. Smallest even number
of 60 km/hour. In how many hours will Rohini
overtake Rohan?
below:
(a) 2.5 hours
(a) I and II
(b) 5/6 hours
(b) II and IV
(c) 3.5 hours
(c) I and IV
(d) 5/4 hours
(d) II and III
72. Price of petrol is increased by 30% by an oil 75. According to 2019 census report, the population
company, but then due to pressure from the of New Zealand (which includes only males and
ruling party, it is reduced by 20%. What is the females) is 56000. In a certain period of time,
net effect on the price overall? they witnessed 9% reduction in male population
(a) Does not change and 15% increase in female population. But the
(b) Increased by 4% total population remained unchanged. The
(c) Decreased by 4% population of males and females now must be:
(d) None of these (a) Males-35000, Females-21000

(b) Males-21000, Females-35000
(c) Males-25000, Females-31000
73. A vessel contains mixture of petrol and diesel in
(d) None of these
the ratio 13: 5. 72 litres of the mixture is taken
out of the vessel and replaced with 51 litres of

76. In 2005, Dashrath’s age was 11 times as that of
diesel such that the ratio of the petrol to diesel in
his son. In 2020, his age becomes 14 times as
the vessel becomes 8: 7, respectively, then find
that of his son’s age in 2005. By how many years
the initial quantity of diesel in the vessel?
was Dashrath elder to his son in 2005?
(a) 55 litres (a) 30 years
(b) 60 litres (b) 50 years
(c) 30 litres (c) 25 years
(d) 40 litres (d) 5 years

77. Sundar purchased 12 avocados, 18 kiwis and 5 Directions for the following item:
apples for a certain amount. With 40% less Read the following passage and answer the item that
amount he could purchase 6 avocados, 9 kiwis
passage only.
and 4 apples. What percentage of the total Passage
amount did Sundar spend on the 5 apples? Patients with cardiomyopathy could be suffering from
(a) 33.33% viral infections in their hearts due to COVID-19, a new
study by Japanese scientists demonstrated through an
(b) 25%
experiment. Cardiomyopathy refers to heart disorders
(c) 50%
that impair the heart muscles and its ability to pump
(d) 20% blood. With a surge in COVID-19 cases worldwide
triggered by the variant JN.1, the report raises alarms
78. A teacher asked Shailey to solve the following about COVID-19 triggering a heart failure pandemic of
question on the blackboard: sorts. The study by the Riken Institute recreated human
cardiac microtissues through human-induced pluripotent
[{(10/7) ÷ (2/5 ÷ 3/2) × 25/9} ÷ {(4/18) of 2/3 ÷
stem cells. For the most part, cardiac microtissues were
(3/5 of 4/3 ×3)}] / [6/8 of 10/36 ÷ 2/3]
composed of various heart cells, including
She solved the question and her answer was cardiomyocytes responsible for the heart’s contraction as
75/4. What is the difference between the correct well as vascular endothelial cells and mural cells. After
answer and her answer? the cardiac microtissues were infected with SARS-
CoV-2, they found that a “viral infection can lead to the
(a) 70005/2
reduction of tissue contractility in the acute phase of viral
(b) 21075/28 infection”.
(c) 6150/7 80. Based on the above passage, the following
(d) 7355/4 assumptions have been made:
1. All COVID-19 infections automatically lead
79. Ravi deposited his Rs. 25,000 in his bank in year to viral infection and cardiomyopathy in the
heart in the long run.
1995. He debited Rs.500 at the end of 2005 and
2. The use of human induced pluripotent stem
2015. His total amount doubles in every 10 cells dents the credibility to the study's
years. What amount will he get at the end of the findings.
year 2035? Which of the assumptions given above are not
correct?
(a) Rs.4,95,000
(a) 1 only
(b) Rs.197,000 (b) 2 only
(c) Rs.137,000 (c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None of these (d) Both 1 and 2


VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

1 (d)
R>Q>S>P
Let 4 even consecutive numbers be:
R = 8, Q = 6, S = 4, P = 2
Let’s check each statement one by one.
(i) (P + S) ≥ (R + Q)
or (2 + 4) ≥ (6 + 8)
or 6 ≥ 14
Thus, statement (i) is wrong.
(ii) (R – S) > (Q + P)
or (8 – 4) > (6 + 2)
or 4 > 8
Thus, statement (ii) is also wrong.
(iii) (P + R) ≤ (Q + S)
or (2 + 8) ≤ (6 + 4)
or 10 ≤ 10
However, if R = 80, Q = 6, S = 4, P = 2, then this inequality would not hold.
Thus, statement (iii) is also wrong.
2 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The main theme of the passage is how the introduction of robots by companies
threatens human jobs and earnings. We cannot say whether or not this competition will continue in future.
So, this is not the correct option.
Option (b) is incorrect: The context of the socialist model and its comparison to the capitalist model is
not a part of the passage. Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Option (c) is correct: The core theme of the passage is how the capitalist system works with innovations
like robots, but takes away the jobs of the workers. The following lines “As firms introduce new-
generation robots into the workplace and, more broadly, new technologies associated with I4.0 then they
need to include current workers who will be affected by such technologies in this introduction to allay
at least some of the fears that they have”, show that firms need to consider the concerns of their
employees despite the introduction of robots. This reflects compassionate capitalism. So, this is the best
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option does not reflect the core theme of the passage. Also, this would
be an extreme step. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
3 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The core theme of the passage is the craze of materialistic things among
youngsters as the reason for crime in society. However, this option includes ethical socialization as an
antidote to crime, which is not discussed in the passage. The passage nowhere discusses that crime would
not happen after ethical socialization of children. So, this is not the best crux of the passage.

Option (b) is correct: The whole passage is on how the race for material things among youth could breed
crime in society. The following lines “Their aspirations are often beyond the means of their parents.
Youngsters want to spend more money than their friends. Thus, the cycle of crime begins”, reflect that
if the youth is obsessively inclined towards material things, it can be dangerous for society. So, this is the
Option (c) is incorrect: This option focuses on the role of the parents. However, the passage does not
focus on the role of the parents. It only mentions that children may spend more than the means of their
parents. So, the role of parents is not the central theme of the passage or the crux of the passage. This
makes option (d) incorrect too.
4 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The option is based on the following lines “There are several questions that you
must ask as your children immerse themselves in this connected world. First, are the relationships that
they build online healthy or harmful? and, do they foster your children’s long-term positive
development?”
Option (b) is incorrect: The modes of engagement have changed for children. However, this option
states that parents need not adapt which is not correct as per the passage. Without adapting it would be
difficult to guide the children across digital modes of interactions. So, this is not the correct inference
from the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage talks about relationships in the virtual world, and not about
opportunities offered by it. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The passage, at the end, states that parents should focus on core questions for
their children in the context of building relationships online. However, this does not mean that young
people need not learn the value of relationships in offline mode of engagement. Therefore, this answer
option is incorrect.
5 (a)
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The given assumption is not correct because of the lines “Corruption
bypasses democratic mechanisms to the extent that Mark Warren has defined corruption as a violation of
democratic inclusion.”
Assumption 2 is correct. The lines “Corruption bypasses the laws and rules …For this reason, the role
of citizens is better understood in terms of social accountability, … asking for appropriate
countermeasures”, validate the assumption given. Corruption may bypass law; however, citizens’
participation would help put a check on it. So, this assumption is correct as per the passage.
6 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. Consider the line - “Citizen participation about anti-corruption efforts
encompasses dynamics and approaches that may differ from citizen participation in other public
processes, given that the State may not always provide citizens with the same access to space and
information about fighting corruption.” This context is very limited, so the inference based on this
information is narrow and pales in comparison to the one given in option (b).
Option (b) is correct. The lines “Corruption bypasses the laws and rules that were democratically
established and excludes those who do not participate in corrupt exchanges (e.g., services that are
meant to be public are allocated to those who bribe or based on clientelism). For this reason, the role of
citizens is better understood in terms of social accountability, where the citizens oppose corruption by
keeping it in check, … and asking for appropriate countermeasures.” prove the assertion made in the
option. So, this option is the most rational inference of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect. We cannot infer from the passage that people’s indifference is the “best”
breeding ground for corruption. Also, the context of bureaucracy-criminal nexus has not been discussed in
the passage. Hence, this option is not correct as per the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect because option (a) is incorrect.

7 (d)
On the basis of the given statements, the following Venn diagram can be drawn:
Conclusions II and III form a complementary pair. Hence, either II or III follows.
8 (a)
3 boys can be arranged in a row in 3! = 6 ways.
Boy1 ---- Boy2 ----- Boy3
The two girls can either be seated between Boy1 and Boy2 or between Boy2 and Boy3.
Number of ways of seating the girls = 2 (ways of seating 2 girls) × 2 (ways of selecting the position of
girls) = 4.
Total number of arrangements possible = 6 × 4 = 24
9 (d)
From statements 2 and 3 we get:
From statement 4, it is known that B is daughter of A, and B is also a child of D. So, D and A are a
couple. The picture becomes:
From statement 1, F must be a male.

Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct.
10 (c)
Total number of pens in the bag = 12
Three pens can be drawn from 12 pens in 12C3 ways.
We can draw a blue pen out of 3 blue pens in 3C1 ways.
Similarly, a green pen can be drawn in 4C1 ways.
And a red pen can be drawn in 5C1 ways.
The required probability = (3C1 × 4C1 × 5C1)/ 12C3
= 3/11

11 (d)
The total selling price of the tablets = Rs. 25200
Profit% = 20%
So, the total cost price of the tablets = 25200/1.2 = Rs. 21000
The total cost of tablets A = 420 x 10 = Rs. 4200
∴ The total cost of tablets B = 21000 - 4200 = Rs. 16800
∴ The quantity of tablet B = 16800/12 = 1400 strips
12 (a)
Total soldiers = 4000 ; Shifted soldiers = 800
Remaining soldiers = 4000 – 800 = 3200
Total number of days from 1st January to 30th January = 30 days
So, remaining days = 190 – 30 = 160 days
Let us assume that the remaining food will last for ‘X’ days for the remaining soldiers.
Then, (3200 × X) = (4000 × 160)
Or X = (4000 × 160)/3200
Or X = 200 days
13 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage revolves around the central theme of how education equips people
with the knowledge and understanding to address the complex challenges of climate change. The passage
says, “Response strategies for climate change will require a central role of education. Education helps
people understand and address the impact of global warming, encourage change in their attitudes and
behaviour and help them adapt to climate change-related trends”. The passage further says, “The
education and capacity building has also attracted the attention of policymakers, environmental activists,
multilateral organizations and stimulated diplomatic activities across the world”. It underscores the need
for education for a collective effort to address climate change challenges. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage mentions aspects related to education and capacity development
for climate change mitigation and its effective management. However, it does not mention that educating
about climate change will lessen the need for technological solutions. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage does acknowledge education's ability to encourage change in
attitudes and behaviours, but it doesn't guarantee an immediate or universal shift. The passage says,
“Education helps people understand and address the impact of global warming, encourage change in
their attitudes and behaviour and help them adapt to climate change-related trends”. It does not imply
that change in attitude and behaviour will be immediate. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passage says, “The education and capacity building has also attracted the
attention of policymakers, environmental activists, multilateral organizations and stimulated diplomatic
activities across the world”. It does not imply that education about climate change is a priority over other
solutions related to climate change. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
14 (a)
Inference 1 is correct. Refer to the lines: “Education provides an opportunity for school administrators
to create an environment for education .... This will only enrich their political contribution as adults.”
So, this inference is correct as per the passage.
Inference 2 is incorrect. The context of the privatization of schools is not a part of the passage and is
beyond the scope of the passage. Hence, this inference is not correct.
15 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the passage only mentions education
being a great equalizer. Regarding political polarizer, the line “Although political polarization is not new
it is increasing” only mentions it but no relation has been established with regards to education.
Option (b) is incorrect. The context of political science classes is very narrow and nowhere mentioned in
the passage as such. The role envisioned for school administrators is much wider – “Education provides
an opportunity for school administrators to create an environment for education which succeeds in
creating educated and engaged students who are aware of politics at the national and local levels and can
use the classroom format to develop their critical thinking and problem-solving skills.” Also, private
schools have not been discussed in the passage explicitly. So, this is not the correct statement.
Option (c) is incorrect. The given option is not correct because the passage nowhere mentions that
education is the only source of awareness of politics at the national and local levels. There could be other
sources of generating political awareness. Hence, this option is not correct.
Option (d) is correct. The given option is based on the following line - “If we don’t prioritize educational
equity, it will be those less fortunate in society that will continue to suffer disproportionately.” This line
shows the importance of education for less fortunate people in society.
16 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The context of survival in a social group based on a strong sense of identity is
not discussed anywhere in the passage. So, this assumption is not correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: Culture and identity are complex concepts, but how cultural interactions
across groups complicate the development of identities or how it may give rise to people having confused
personalities has not been discussed in the passage.
17 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage is on culture and identity. They both are complex and interrelated
concepts. It is seen in the lines “Culture is a defining feature of a person’s identity, contributing to how
they see themselves and the groups with which they identify. … Like culture, the notion of identity is
complex with people’s identity or identities becoming more complex over time as they interact with
different groups.” So, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: Identity development is not specific to one culture as per the following lines
“Like culture, the notion of identity is complex with people’s identity or identities becoming more complex
over time as they interact with different groups.” So, this is not the correct crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The given statement is rather absurd. So, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option seems to be based on the line - “Identity adapts due to many
factors including mass media, popular culture and increased opportunities for social interaction
facilitated by new technologies.” However, these lines do not reflect the core theme of the passage. Mass
media and technology are mentioned as factors of identity adaptations, not as something influenced by
culture. So, this is not the correct crux of the passage.
18 (c)
Let the number of officers in the L.I.C. office be x.
Then, number of workers in the L.I.C. office = (400 – x)
So, 20000 × x + 4000 × (400 – x) = 400 × 5000
Or 20000x + 1600000 – 4000x = 2000000
Or 16000x = 2000000 – 1600000
Or 16000x = 400000
Or x = 400000/16000 = 25
Thus, the number of officers in the L.I.C. office is 25.
19 (d)
Let’s take the L.C.M. of 5, 3 and 7.
L.C.M. of 5, 3, 7 = 105
According to the question, every time 2 saplings were left.
Thus, Aniket had 107 saplings at least.
Alternate method:
Let’s see the options.
We see that 107 is the only one, which if divided by 5, 3, 7, leaves a remainder of 2.

20 (c)
Distance = 140 km. Let speed of car be X km/hr
Time taken by car = 140/X hours
Time taken by train = 140/{110X/100}
Stoppage time = Time taken by car - Time taken by train
Or 10 min = (140/X) – [140/(110X/100)]
Or 10/60 hr. = (140/X) – (140/1.1X)
Or 1/6 = 14/1.1X
Or 1.1X = 14 × 6 = 84
Or X = 84/1.1 km/hr
Now, Speed of train = 1.1X = 84 km/hr.
21 (c)
Total age of Mr. and Mrs. Sharma at their wedding = 28 × 2 = 56 years.
Assume that the son was born after x years.
Total age of Mr and Mrs. Sharma when the son was born = (56 + 2x) years.
Average age of Mr. and Mrs. Sharma before the birth of their son = (56+2x)/2.
Average age of the family after the birth of their son = (56+2x)/3.
(56+2x)/2 - (56+2x)/3 = 10
or, 56 +2x = 60
or x = 2.
Son was born 2 years after marriage.
Total age of Mr. and Mrs. Sharma = 28 × 2 + 2 × 2 = 60.
Since the ratio of their ages is given as 8:7
Age of Mr. Sharma = (8 × 60 )/15 = 32 years.
22 (b)
According to the question:
Students who scored more than 100 marks = 22%
And students who scored more than 200 = 6%
Hence, students who scored between 100 and 200 = 22 – 6 = 16%
Now, students who scored less than 30 = 12%
Students who scored between 30 and 100 = 100 – (22 + 12) = 66% = 990
So, Total number of students = 990 × (100/66) = 1500
Students who scored between 100 and 200 = 16% = (16/100) × 1500 = 240
23 (a)
Given that:
Similarly,

24 (a)
Selling Price of each pair of shoes after discount = 5500 – 10% of 5500 = 5500 – 550 = Rs. 4950
Total bill amount = 4950 × 2 = Rs. 9900
Final amount after Rs. 100 discount = Rs. 9800.
So, each friend paid Rs 4900 each for the pair of shoes.
Saving of each friend = MP – Final SP = 5500 – 4900 = Rs. 600
So, percentage saving = 600/5500 × 100 = 10.9%
25 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage is about the evolving interpretations of empathy. However, this
option focuses on solving the issues of the sufferer based on the understanding of empathy which is not
the main theme of the passage. This context of solving issues of the sufferer is not covered in the passage.
So, this does not best reflect the crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option focuses that society must accept different interpretations of
empathy which is not the core theme of the passage. The passage is about the evolving interpretations of
empathy. It is nowhere indicated that society is not open to different interpretations of empathy. Also, the
concept of morality has not been discussed in the passage. Hence, this is not the crux of the passage.
Option (c) is correct: The given option captures the essence of the passage which is the evolving
interpretation of the term empathy. The following lines show that interpretations have evolved and are
varied: “In a new book, The Other Side of Empathy, author Jade E. Davis argues that we should be
sceptical of the recent cultural focus on empathy and its accompanying strategies and methods.” These
lines show that author Jade presents empathy from different perspective. So, its interpretations are not
limited to only one view.
Option (d) is incorrect: The passage is on the evolving interpretations of empathy. To state that the
concept is not understood would not be correct. The passage describes how the author has given a new
interpretation of empathy. Also, to say that the value of empathy will never be understood is rather an
extreme statement. So, this is not the best crux of the passage.
26 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage is about how the current economic growth model is impacting the
environment, which is not sustainable in the long term. This is visible in the lines “The present economic
system is destroying our natural resources and thereby eroding the prosperity of future generations.”
These lines show that if the current exploitation of resources is continued then it will impact the future
generations, and hence there is a need to change the current model of economic development. These
arguments are comprehensively captured in this answer option.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option only focuses on one aspect of the passage which is the energy
and material resources; environmental aspects are not discussed. Therefore, it cannot be the crux of the
passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The stated claim that the race for green future markets has picked up momentum
is not correct because the passage does not state any such momentum. The passage only mentions that a
green economy is the need of the hour. Whether or not it has picked up momentum is not covered in the
passage. So, this is not the best crux of the passage.
27 (a)
Assumption 1 is correct: The given assumption is correct as it is based on the lines: “… a Sahitya
Akademi award is an encouragement to keep pursuing the craft; writers can expect to see a rise in sales
… Writers also have the opportunity to be translated into other regional languages, and into English
too.” These lines clearly prove that this award helps in cross-cultural interactions through books.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The author talks about the nine books of poems, six novels, five short stories,
three essays and one literary study in different languages. This means the language diversity is
acknowledged and rewarded by Sahitya Akademi. Therefore, it would be incorrect to say that awards like
Sahitya Akademi do not value the different languages and dialects of the country. Therefore, this answer
option is incorrect.

28 (b)
Inference 1 is incorrect: That the given inference is correct cannot be concluded from the passage. For
example, the passage says, “In India, people live in the largest cities than in small towns when
compared to China. Nearly 6 per cent of the urban population lives in the largest cities in India, which
is double compared to China.” The author compares the sub-sections of urban population in India and
China. From the given information, we cannot gauge anything about the relative degree of urbanisation.
Therefore, this answer option is beyond the scope of the passage.
Inference 2 is correct: The given inference is correct as it can be inferred from the following lines -
“Most modern cities in India are undergoing haphazard growth, and because of this, the effects of living
in huge cities have not been fully anticipated. The social, economic, and psychological consequences of
industrialisation and urbanisation have not been fully considered ...” These lines clearly imply that it is
the lack of systematic policy approach which is resulting in haphazard urbanization. Therefore, this
answer option is correct.
29 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The central theme of the passage is about the poor urbanization model/policy.
The context of the role of urbanization in rapid economic growth is not covered in the passage. Therefore,
it does not reflect the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage mostly covers the pattern and consequences of urbanisation. The
context of villages has not been discussed in the passage.
Option (c) is correct: The passage covers the lack of structured policy in Indian urbanization. The
following lines “Most modern cities in India are undergoing haphazard growth, and because of this,
the effects of living in huge cities have not been fully anticipated” show that there is a lack of coherent
policy approach. This shows that the current trend of urbanization is not sustainable and needs to be
changed. So, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: To state that industrialization and urbanization go together is not covered in the
passage. Also, it is not the central theme which is about the lack of a systematic approach to urbanization.
30 (b)
Let Rs. x be the fare to Baroda from Alwar and y be the fare to Chitarkoot from Alwar.
Now, according to the question we get:
2x + 3y = 77 ….(i) and
3x + 2y = 73 ….(ii)
Multiplying (i) by 3 and (ii) by 2 and subtracting, we get 5y = 85 or y = 17.
Putting y = 17 in (i), we get, x = 13
31 (b)
We can make the following Venn diagram based on the given statements:
From the diagram we can infer that some Countries are Continents and some Countries are Capitals.
32 (c)

T → G (Opposite letter pair)
I+2→K
G+2→I
E-2→C
S-2→Q
D → W (Opposite letter pair)
Similarly,
C → X (Opposite letter pair)
I+2→K
C+2→E
N-2→L
I-2→G
P → K (Opposite letter pair)
33 (a)
In each row, 2nd element = (1st element/3rd element) × 3
In 1st row,
2nd element = (96÷6) × 3 = 48
In 2nd row,
2nd element = (48÷12) × 3 = 12
In 3rd row,
2nd element = (72÷12) × 3 = 18
34 (b)
Let Rati’s age be x years.
Her mother’s age = (83 - x),
(83 - x) + 6 = (x + 6) × 15/4
Or 83 – x + 6 = (15x/4) + 45/2
Or (15x/4) + x = 89 – 45/2
Or 19x/4 = 133/2
Or x = (4 × 133)/(19 × 2) = 14
Hence, the ratio of their ages 9 years ago = (x – 9) / (83 – x – 9) = (14 – 9)/(83 – 14 – 9) = 1/12, i.e. 1 : 12
35 (d)
We are given that average of five numbers = x
∴ Sum of these five numbers = 5x
Also, it is given that average of three numbers from above mentioned 5 numbers = y
∴ Sum of these three numbers = 3y
Value of remaining two numbers is ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively
Hence, a + b = 5x – 3y ……. (i)
Difference between a and b is 1. Hence, either (a - b) = 1 or (b – a) = 1
Case 1: if (a – b) = 1, then a = 1 + b
Putting this value of a in equation (i), we get
or (1 + b) + b = 5x – 3y
or 5x - 3y - 2b = 1
Case 2: if (b – a) = 1, then b = 1 + a
Putting the value of b in equation (i), we get
a + (1 + a) = 5x – 3y
or 5x – 3y – 2a = 1

36 (a)
The triangles in the given figure are: BGC, BGH, BCH, BKL, BML, DBG, DJG, DJF, FJG, JKG, BJK,
BJG, DIJ, DAJ, AIJ, AJB, AJE, BJE, ABG, ADG, DBC, DBH, ABD, BJL, BJM
Thus, there are 25 triangles in the given figure.
37 (b)
Due to a leak in the bottom of the tank, it gets emptied in 8 hours.
Hence, Part emptied by the leak in 1 hour = 1/8
Suppose tank is filled by tap when there is no leak, in A hours.
Hence, part filled by tap in 1 hour = 1/A
Part emptied by (leak + tap) in 1 hour = 1/12
Hence, (1/8) – (1/A) = 1/12
or 1/A = 1/8 – 1/12 = 1/24
So, Part filled by tap in 1 hour = 1/A = 1/24
Hence, tap fills the tank in 24 hours (if there is no leak).
Rate of flow through tap is 6 litres per minute.
Hence, tank’s capacity = 24 × 60 × 6 = 8640 litres
38 (d)
An acute angle is one that measures less than 90˚. An obtuse angle is one that measures between 90˚ and
180˚. A reflex angle is an angle that measures between 180˚ and 360˚.
P = Q + R and P > 180°
We can get sum of two angles greater than 180°, when one of the angle is obtuse and the other is acute or
both angles are obtuse or one angle is reflex and the other is acute.
However, sum of two right angles = 90° + 90° = 180°, which is equal to 180°, not greater than 180°.
Therefore, both angles (i.e. Q and R) cannot be right angles.
Hence, option (d) is definitely NOT true.
39 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage is about committing mistakes, sometimes repeatedly with optimism.
This shows that humans keep on committing mistakes. The following lines - “As human beings, we go in
cycles from one milestone to the next. Starting over is at the core of our existence. … There is no
denying that lessons from the past have advanced our species, but it may be the renewed cells talking, a
voice inside us responding to a familiar risk with ‘it could be different this time’”, show that even after
making the mistakes we often start over again to make more mistakes. So, this is the best inference of the
passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The central theme of the passage is that irrespective of what we do, we commit
mistakes due to various reasons. Consider the lines – “There is no denying that lessons from the past have
advanced our species, but it may be the renewed cells talking, a voice inside us responding to a familiar
risk with ‘it could be different this time’. It might be the optimist in us talking but we can sometimes
convince ourselves that under different circumstances even an identical situation could have a different
outcome.” So, this is not the correct inference of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The context of reflection of ignorance due to the repetition of mistakes is not the
central theme of the passage. Rather, the very idea of ignorance is not discussed in the passage. Hence,
this is not the main inference of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect: As per the passage, humans are optimistic despite making multiple mistakes.
However, the given option states that an optimistic attitude helps humans prevent the repetition of
mistakes, which is contrary to what is mentioned in the passage. Prevention of the repetition of mistakes is
not a part of the passage. The author primarily talks about how committing mistakes, and even repeating
the same mistake is intrinsic to human beings. So, this option is not the best inference.
40 (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The passage portrays the negative consequences of irregularity and lack of
punctuality. These include disrupted teamwork, reduced efficiency, inconvenienced customers, and a
damaged organizational image. The passage says, “Look around yourself and you may come across
people who get up late in the morning and are unable to send their children to school on time. They may
also not be able to provide their family members with proper meals and have disorganised homes due to
their irregular behaviour and lack of punctuality. Such people are frequently absent from work”. This
suggests that professionalism and adherence to expected work conduct are essential for maintaining a
smooth-running environment at the workplace. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage emphasizes how unprofessional behaviour ripples outward, affecting
colleagues, customers, and the overall reputation of the organization. The passage says, “You may have
witnessed the inconvenience caused to the public wanting to pay bills when counter clerks are either late
or not found at their seats in banks, post offices, and telephone and electricity offices”. The passage
further says, “The irresponsible behaviour of such people spoils the discipline of the work environment,
sets bad examples, causes inconvenience to the public and lowers the image of the organization”. This
implies that individuals hold a degree of responsibility for the collective success and image of their
workplace, and their actions can have far-reaching consequences. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
41 (a)
Number of ways Tapu Sena can form a committee consisting of 1 man and 4 women = 4C1 x 5C4 = {4! / 1!
(4-1)!} × {5!/4! (5-4)!}
=4x5
= 20 ways
42 (b)
Area of a rectangular park = length x breadth
Or 160 = 16 x breadth
Or breadth = 160/16 = 10 cm
New area of the rectangular park = 160 x 4/3 = 640/3 cm2
New length = New area/Original breadth = (640/3) ÷ 10 = 64/3 cm
New perimeter of the rectangular park = 2 (New length + breadth)
= 2{(64/3) + 10} = 2(64 + 30)/3 = 2 x 94/3 = 188/3 = 62.67 cm
43 (c)
Given diagram:
Area of triangle ABC = ½ x h x b = ½ x 5 x 10 = 25 m2

Area of triangle DEF = ½ x h x b = ½ x 5 x 10 = 25 m2
In triangle DCE, we can apply Pythagoras theorem.
(DC)2 = (CE)2 + (DE)2
Or (15)2 = (CE)2 + (10)2
Or (CE)2 = 225 – 100 = 125
Or CE = 5√5 m

Then area of triangle DCE = ½ x h x b = ½ x 10 x 5√5 = 25√5 m2
Similarly, area of triangle BCD = 25√5 m2
Therefore, total area of the field ABDFEC = area of BCD + area of DCE + area of ABC + area of DEF
= 25√5 + 25√5 +25 + 25 = 50√5 + 50 = 50(√5 + 1) m2
44 (a)
Cost of transport by Ship (per ton), A = cost incurred via ship/volume transported by ship = (15% x
40)/(8% x 15) = 5
Cost of transport by Air flight (per ton), B = cost incurred via air flight/volume transported by air flight =
(9% x 40)/(9% x 15) = 8/3 ≈ 2.66
Cost of transport by Rail (per ton), C = cost incurred via rail/volume transported by rail = (10% x
40)/(15% x 15) = 16/9 ≈ 1.7
Cost of transport by Road (per ton), D = cost incurred via road/volume transported by road = (6% x
40)/(23% x 15) = 16/23 ≈ 0.695
So, A > B > C > D
45 (b)
S. No. Stream Boys Girls Total
Hostellers Non- Hostellers Hostellers Non-Hostellers
1. Science 44 48 35 33 160
2. Art 66 72 68 43 249
3. Commerce 40 38 60 23 161
4. Hindi 50 48 30 22 150
Total 200 206 193 121 720
Total students = 720
Number of students that passed = 720 x 60% = 720 x (60/100) = 432
Number of students that passed in science stream = 160
Number of students that passed in other streams (other than science) = 432 – 160 = 272
Number of students in other streams (other than science) = 720 – 160 = 560
Required percent = (272/560) x 100 = 48(4/7)%
46 (c)
If 97865A4B is divisible by 6, then it must be divisible by both 2 and 3.
B must be even number like 0, 2, 4, 6, 8, but A can be any number from 0 to 9.
Sum of the digits of 97865A4B = 9 + 7 + 8 + 6 + 5 + A + 4 + B = 39 + A + B
If we put A’s max value, i.e. 9, then we get 48 + B
So, B should be a number that is divisible by both 3 and 2. So, B = 6.
So, the maximum possible value of A + B = 9 + 6 = 15
47 (c)
According to the information given in the question,
Shark > Monkey ………..(i)
Rabbit ≤ Cat ……………………….(ii)
Monkey > Rabbit ………………………..(iii)
From equations (i) and (iii), we get:
Shark > Monkey > Rabbit ≤ Cat
Thus, Rabbit is the slowest of all the animals.
48 (c)
Inference 1 is correct: The given inference is based on the following lines “To safeguard democracy
from the encroachment of corruption requires a multifaceted approach, including robust legal
frameworks, independent oversight, people participation and a collective commitment to ethical

governance.” These lines clearly prove that it’s the collective responsibility (of both government and
citizens) to counter corruption.
Inference 2 is correct: Various democratic principles like transparency and accountability are
compromised by corruption. Therefore, weakened principles lead to corruption, as seen in the lines “In a
democracy, the power vested in elected officials is meant to reflect the people's desires, guided by
principles of transparency and accountability. Corruption disrupts this delicate balance, as public
resources are syphoned away for personal gain, undermining the potential for equitable development.”
So, this inference is correct.
49 (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The assumption acknowledges that individuals and groups are not static entities
with pre-determined identities. Instead, they are constantly evolving and shaping each other through their
interactions and relationships. The passage says, “Identities are not inherited but fashioned both by the
individual and the group through their relationship with others. For the individual the social roles that
s/he plays imparts identity”. It can be inferred that the passage emphasizes the dynamic interplay
between individual choices and social expectations in constructing roles and identities. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage highlights the significance of shared language in defining and
recognizing roles, as well as in creating separate spaces and meanings for different groups. The passage
says, “This can often be done through the recognition of the particular language that is used among
role players”. The passage further says, “By creating this language which also serves as a code, they
create their world of meanings and significances”. The above-highlighted lines show that language does
play a crucial role in identity formation. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
50 (c)
Required sequence is-
5 = 22+1
10 = 32+1
17 = 42+1
26 = 52+1
X = 74 + 42 = 116
51 (b)
(7/10) part of the water tank is filled with water. It means that (3/10) part of water tank is empty and when
we throw a stone of size 3x3x1 m3 (which is 9m3) in the water tank, it gets completely full.
So, (3/10)th part of tank is equal to 9 m3.
∴ Capacity or total volume of tank = (9x10)/3 = 30 m3
Volume of cuboidal water tank = L x B x H
Or 30 = 5 x 2 x H
Or H = 30/(5x2)
Or H = 3 m
Thus, the height of the cuboidal water tank is 3 m.
52 (d)
After 25 days, 35 men finished the remaining work in (38 – 25 – 1), i.e. 12 days.
∴ 30 men would have finished it in (12 ×35)/30, i.e. 14 days, i.e. 1 day behind the deadline.

53 (c)
Let the required distance be x km.
Then, in 1st case,
Time = distance/speed = x/5 hours
In 2nd case,
Time = distance/speed = x/6 hours
Now, the difference between the two times is 25 min {i.e. 25/60 hours}
So, (x/ 5 – x/6) = 25/60 = 5/12
Or (6x – 5x)/30 = 5/12
Or x/30 = 5/12
Or 12x= 5×30
Or x = 5×30/12 = 12.5 km
Thus, the market is 12.5 km away from his home.
54 (c)
2/5th of the sunken part is still sunk in the mud.
2/5th of 4/9th = (4/9) × (2/5) = 8/45th part
Now, 8/45th part = 4 m (according to the question)
So, 1 part = (4/8) × 45 = 22.5 m
So, 22.5 meter is the actual length of the whole pillar.
55 (c)
This graph clearly brings out the fact that overall sex ratio increased (930 to 934) from 1971 to 1981 but it
fell to 927 in 1991 and there has been a consistent rise in overall sex ratio from 1991 to 2011 (927 in 1991
to 933 in 2001 and 940 in 2011). So, after 1971 overall sex ratio of a country is not consistently rising or
falling. So, options (a) and (b) are not correct.
The fall in child sex ratio has been unabated since 1961. So, option (c) is correct.
We can nowhere see a rise in child sex ratio in the graph. The graph represents consistent fall in child sex
ratio since 1961. Therefore, option (d) is incorrect.
56 (b)
In between 1991 and 2011, the two curves of the graph intersect at the same point. So, at that particular
point of time, child sex ratio (0-6 years) and overall sex ratio of a country are equal. Therefore, statement
1 is incorrect.
It is given that 1961 is base year. So,
Percentage change in overall sex ratio in the given 50 years (1961 to 2011) = {(941-940)/941} × 100 =
0.10%
Percentage change in child sex ratio (0-6 years) in the given 50 years (1961 to 2011) = {(976-914)/976} ×
100 = 6.35%
The percentage change in child sex ratio (0-6 years) is more than that of overall sex ratio in the given 50
years.
So, statement 2 is incorrect.
The overall sex ratio in 1991 is 927 and child sex ratio in 2001 is 927.
Therefore, the overall sex ratio in 1991 and child sex ratio in 2001 are equal.
So, statement 3 is correct.
Average of child sex ratio (0-6 years) and overall sex ratio in the year 1971 = (964+930)/2 = 947
Average of child sex ratio (0-6 years) and overall sex ratio in the year 1981 = (962+934)/2 = 948
The average of child sex ratio (0-6 years) and overall sex ratio in the year 1971 and 1981 is not the same.
So, statement 4 is incorrect.
Therefore, answer is option (b).
57 (a)
Number of days from 17th March to 12th July = 14 (March) + 30 (April) + 31 (May) + 30 (June) + 12
(July)
= 117 days
Dividing 117 by 7, we get 5 as remainder.
5 days after a Monday we get a Saturday.
58 (d)
Option (a) is not correct: The passage does not imply that allied activities are necessary for every farmer
or agricultural environment, even though it does highlight their benefits. It would be extreme to infer that
allied activities are necessary for every farmer globally. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage mentions the advantages of animals and traditional implements in
specific situations. They are suited in certain areas where the use of mechanical means of transport (such
as tractors) is either not feasible or is very costly. But, it nowhere advocates entirely abandoning
mechanized farming. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage focuses on the practical benefits of animal-related activities in
agriculture, but it doesn't endorse animal exploitation or mistreatment. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is correct: The passage emphasizes the advantages of a holistic approach to agriculture that
goes beyond monoculture crop production. By integrating allied activities, farmers can create more
resilient, sustainable, and profitable agricultural systems. Hence, Option (d) is correct.
59 (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The passage emphasizes the importance of studying climate history, and
highlights its relevance in understanding the current phenomenon of climate change. The passage says, “A
knowledge of the history of climate is important for studying climate change.”, “A knowledge of the
history of climate is important for studying climate change” and “They are useful in understanding
climate variability more precisely”. It can be implied that this knowledge serves as a baseline for
comparing and interpreting observed climatic changes occurring today. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is not correct: The passage nowhere signifies that there is a lack of international
collaboration. Also, how it is crucial for addressing climate change is not covered. So, this statement is
not based on the information given in the passage. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
60 (d)
Perimeter of circular track = 𝛑 × d = (22/7) × 1400 = 4400 metres
Perimeter of square track = 4 × side = 4 × 1400 = 5600 meters
We know that, speed of Milkha is same in covering circular track and square track. Let Milkha completes
one round of the square track in t seconds.
So, (4400/11) = (5600)/t
⇒ (44/11) = 56/t
⇒ t = (56 × 11)/44
t = 14 seconds
61 (b)
By hit and trial method:
16 @ 5 # 31
Or 16 × 5 – 31
Or 80 – 31 = 49
62 (a)
Let T be the time period for which Hemendra joined Shikha.
As given, profit part of Shika is = 2/3
So, Profit part of Hemendra = 1 – 2/3 = 1/3
Ratio of the investments by Shikha and Hemendra = Ratio of the profits earned by Shikha and Hemendra
Or (30000 × 12) : (18000 × T) = (2/3) : (1/3)

Or 5 × 12 : 3 × T = 2 : 1
Or 60/3T = 2/1
Or 6T = 60
Or T = 60/6 = 10
So, Hemendra joined Shika after 2 months.
63 (a)
On drawing the diagram according to the question, we get:
Thus, Kiran’s house is in the east direction from Rajeshwari’s house.

64 (a)
f(2a + 4) = 40a2 + 80a + 60
Let, 2a + 4 = x
Or a = (x - 4)/2
So, f(x) = 40 {(x – 4)/2}2 + 80{(x – 4)/2} + 60
or f(x) = 40 {(x2 + 16 - 8x)/4} + 40(x - 4) + 60
or f(x) = 10x2 + 160 – 80x + 40x – 160 + 60
or f(x) = 10x2 - 40x + 60
On putting (5a + 4) in place of x in the above equation, we get:
f(5a + 4) = 10(5a + 4)2 – 40(5a + 4) + 60
or f(5a + 4) = 10(25a2 + 16 + 40a) – 40(5a + 4) + 60
or f(5a + 4) = 250a2 + 160 + 400a – 200a - 160 + 60
or f(5a + 4) = 250a2 + 200a + 60
65 (b)
Let the quantities of lily, rose and jasmine in a garland be x, y and z respectively.
Cost of a garland per kg = (30/125) × 100 = Rs.24 /kg
Total cost of a garland = 22x + 30y + 32z = 24(x + y+ z)
Or 2x – 6y – 8z = 0
Or x – 3y – 4z = 0 ………..(i)
Quantity of lily in the garland is 4 kg more than 3 times of the sum of the quantities of the other two
verities.
So, x - 3(y + z) = 4
Or x – 3y - 3z = 4 …………….(ii)
Subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get:
z=4
So, the quantity of jasmine in a garland, z = 4 kg
66 (c)
Let the number of 2 rupee, 3 rupee and 5 rupee coins be x, y and z respectively.
The total number of coins is 300 and the amount is Rs.1200.
So, x + y + z = 300 ………..(i)
And, 2x + 3y + 5z = 1200 ……………..(ii)

If the number of 2 rupees coins and the number of 3 rupees coins are interchanged, the total amount
comes down by Rs.60.
So, (2x + 3y + 5z) – (3x + 2y + 5z) = 60
Or y – x = 60
Or y = 60 + x ………….(iii)
Equation (i)×5 – Equation (ii):
3x + 2y = 300
Or 3x + 2(60 + x) = 300 (since, y = 60 + x)
Or 3x + 120 + 2x = 300
Or 5x = 300 - 120 = 180
Or x = 180/5 = 36
So, y = 60 + x = 60 + 36 = 96
Putting the value of x and y in equation (i), we get:
x + y + z = 300
Or 36 + 96 + z = 300
Or z = 168
So, the total number of 5 rupee coins is 168.
67 (c)
In triangle PBC,
q + ∠PBC = π - s
or ∠PBC = π - s – q ……..(i)
In triangle ABE,
r + ∠ABE = p
or ∠ABE = p - r ………..(ii)
We know that line ABC is a straight line.
So, ∠ABE + ∠PBC = π
Putting the value of ∠PBC and ∠ABE from equations (i) & (ii), we get:
(p – r) + (π - s – q) = π
Or p – r – s – q = 0
Or p = q + s + r
68 (a)
Statement 1 is correct: The passage emphasizes that philosophers build upon and challenge each other's
ideas, creating a dynamic process of refinement. The passage says, “One thinker refutes the other and
comes forward with his own viewpoints which are subsequently refuted by successive philosophers”. It is
further mentioned, “Metaphorically speaking, a philosopher inhales much before he exhales”. This
implies a cycle of taking in the information that already exists and then interacting with opposing
viewpoints to generate new understandings. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage claims that encountering diverse philosophical perspectives expands
one's understanding and helps overcome ignorance. Refer to the line: “New vistas of knowledge open the
floodgates of wisdom thereby eliminating ignorance”. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is not correct: The passage describes philosophical reasoning as a process of refinement, not
absolute elimination of previous ideas. Each refutation can be seen as a contribution to the overall
understanding, not a complete elimination of what came before. The context of hierarchy in the statement
is not mentioned or symbolized in the passage. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
69 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage revolves around the central idea of a boost in economic activity in
European countries after America was colonized. The passage highlights how countries like Spain and
England, directly trading with America, experienced a surge in industrial activity. The passage also
recognizes the indirect benefits for countries like Austria and some German provinces, which did not
directly trade with America, but still saw increased demand for their goods like linen through intermediary
nations. Overall, the message emphasizes the positive economic impact of American discovery and
colonization on European nations. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Option (b) is not correct: This statement diverts from the passage's main point about economic benefits.
While resource extraction was certainly an aspect of colonization, the passage nowhere mentions that it
was the only purpose. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage focuses on the economic impact on countries as a whole, not on
the distribution of wealth within those countries. The impact on common people is not mentioned in the
passage. Also, the context of the ruling elite is missing in the passage. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passage does not explicitly mention the increased agricultural production
in Europe due to colonization of America. Instead, the passage focuses on industrial activity. Hence,
option (d) is not correct.
70 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage revolves around the theme of the review of the CPCB draft by CSE.
The passage says, “…the methodology is not full-fledged as it does not consider the impact of different
types of pollution on the health of humans and occupational health impacts”. It further says, “…the
fugitive emissions from process operation and material handling have been given low weightage”.
Therefore, CSE seems to favour a revision in the draft, so as to ensure a comprehensive and transparent
classification system. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage does not necessarily suggest that all fugitive emissions are equally
harmful, even while it condemns the downplaying of fugitive emissions in comparison to other kinds of
pollution. Depending on their concentration and makeup, different fugitive emissions (dust, gasses, etc.)
might have different effects on health. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage highlights the categorization of stone crushers as an example, but
it doesn't suggest that other industries with significant fugitive emissions are adequately assessed. Also,
the passage suggests, “Due to this, the stone crusher units — one of the most polluting sectors in terms of
fugitive emissions — have been proposed to be shifted from the orange to green category in the CPCB
report.” It means that originally it was under the orange category. But there is no basis in the passage
which suggests it to be under the red category. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
71 (a)
Distance covered by Rohan in 30 minutes = 50 × (30/60) = 25 km
Time taken by Rohini to overtake Rohan = 25/(60 - 50) = 2.5 hours
72 (b)
Let the original price of petrol be Rs. x.
Increased price of Petrol = 130% of x = (130/100) ×(x) = 13x/10
Decreased price of Petrol = 80% of (13x/10) = (80/100) × (13x/10) = 104x/100
Increase in price of petrol = (104x/100) – x = (4x/100)
Increase% = (4x/100) × (100/x) = 4%
73 (b)
Let the initial quantities of petrol and diesel in the vessel be 13x litres and 5x litres respectively.
Quantity of petrol taken out = (13/18) × 72 = 52 litres
Quantity of diesel taken out = 72 – 52 = 20 litres
(13x – 52)/(5x – 20 + 51) = 8/7
⇒ 91x – 364 = 40x + 248
⇒ 51x = 612
⇒ x = 12
So, the initial quantity of diesel in the vessel = 12x = 12 × 5 = 60 litres
74 (c)
Let’s find the unit digit of the expression (374)202 + (384)203
Required unit digit = Unit digit of (4)202 + Unit digit of (4)203
= Unit digit of (4)2 + Unit digit of (4)1
= Unit digit of (6 + 4)
= Unit digit of (10)
=0
We know that zero is the smallest even number.
75 (a)
Given, total population = 56000
Suppose initially male population = X and female population = Y
Then, according to the question:
X + Y = 56000 …………. (i)
There is 9% reduction in male population.
X – (X × 9%) = X – (9X/100) = 91X/100
And there is 15% increase in female population.
Y + (Y × 15%) = Y + (Y × 15/100) = 115Y/100
(91X/100) + (115Y/100) = 56000
Or (91X + 115Y)/100 = 56000
Or 91X + 115Y = 56000 × 100 ………………(ii)
Equation (ii) – 91 × Equation (i):
24Y = 504000
Or Y = 21000
And, X = 56000 – 21000 = 35000
Thus, the number of males and females in the population is 35000 and 21000 respectively.
76 (b)
Let the age of Dashrath’s son be X years and age of Dashrath be 11X years in 2005.
11X + 15 = 14X
⇒ 3X = 15
∴ X = 5 years
Hence, age of son = 5 years
Dashrath’s age = 11X = 5 × 11 = 55 years
Difference between the ages of Dashrath and his son in 2005 = 55 – 5 = 50 years
77 (a)
Let he spent a total of Rs. 100X on buying 12 avocados, 18 kiwis and 5 apples. Let the price of one
avocado, one kiwi and one apple be A, B and C respectively.
Now, according to question,
12A + 18B + 5C = 100X .... (i)
And 6A + 9B + 4C = 60X .... (ii)
Equation (ii) × 2 - Equation (i):
On solving, we get,
C = 20X/3
Hence, amount spent on 5 apples = 5C = 5 × (20X/3) = 100X/3
Now, required percentage = {(100X/3)/100X} × 100 = 33.33%
78 (b)
[{(10/7) ÷ (2/5 ÷3/2) × 25/9} ÷ {(4/18) of 2/3 ÷ (3/5 of 4/3 ×3)}] / [6/8 of 10/36 ÷ 2/3]
= [{(10/7) ÷ (2/5 × 2/3) × 25/9} ÷ {(4/18) of 2/3 ÷ (3/5 × 4/3 ×3)}] / [6/8 of 10/36 × 3/2]
= [{(10/7) ÷ 4/15 × 25/9} ÷ {4/27 ÷ 12/5}] / [5/24 × 3/2]
= [{(10/7) × 15/4 × 25/9} ÷ {4/27 × 5/12}] / [5/16]
= [{625/42} ÷ {(5/81)}] / (5/16)
= (625/42) × (81/5) × (16/5)
= 25 × 27 × 8 / 7
= 5400/7
So, the difference between the correct answer and her answer = (5400/7) – (75/4) = 21075/28
79 (d)
Original amount (in 1995) = Rs.25,000
It is given that, his total amount doubles in every 10 years.
Amount after 10 years (in 2005) = 2 × Rs.25,000 = Rs.50,000
Amount at the end of 2005 = Rs.50,000 – Rs.500 = Rs.49,500
Amount at the end of 2015 = Rs.99,000 – Rs.500 = Rs.98,500
Therefore, he will get Rs. 394,000 at the end of the year 2035.
Hence, option (d), i.e. none of these is correct.
80 (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: According to the passage the study only tested the effects on lab-grown
cardiac micro tissues, that too for a few virus variants. It doesn't provide information on the long-term
effects or the frequency of such occurrences in actual COVID-19 patients.
Statement 2 is not correct: The passage says, “The study by the Riken Institute recreated human cardiac
microtissues through human-induced pluripotent stem cells”. It is further mentioned in the passage,
“After the cardiac microtissues were infected with SARS-CoV-2, they found that a viral infection can lead
to the reduction of tissue contractility in the acute phase of viral infection”. The use of human induced
pluripotent stem cells may or may not enhance the reliability of the findings. However, to say that it dents
the credibility would be wrong, as nothing of this sort is indicated in the passage.


VISION IAS
www.visionias.in
TEST BOOKLET

C
INSTRUCTIONS
THE ANSWER SHEET.

the Test Booklet.
sheet.
be deducted.

1
1. P = 41Q + 7Q, where Q is an odd natural number. 3. Based on the above passage, the following
Which of the following need not be a factor of assumptions have been made:
P? 1. Balancing innovation with privacy
(a) 24 safeguards is integral to realising the
(b) 12 transformative potential of AI in the
(c) 16 healthcare.
(d) 36 2. Governments need to formulate laws and
policies to address the privacy threats posed
2. Given below are the two positions of a cube. by the use of AI in healthcare.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
What face is opposite to the one having Printer 4. Which of the following statements best reflects
on it? the crux of the passage?
(a) Mobile stand (a) From predictive analytics to robotic
(b) Fast charger surgeries, AI will shape the future of
(c) Mobile healthcare delivery.
(d) Earphone (b) Ensuring transparency and enforcing strict
privacy standards is fundamental to
Directions for the following 5 (five) items: innovations in AI in healthcare.
Read the following three passages and answer the items (c) Without addressing privacy concerns, the
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items use of AI in healthcare could be dangerous.
should be based on the passages only. (d) None of the above
As AI applications become more integrated into In modern India, the traditional perception of marriage
healthcare systems, questions about consent, data as a sacrament is transforming, reflecting the evolving
ownership, and transparency arise. Patients must have social fabric. The once deeply ingrained societal norms
control over how their health data is used and shared. surrounding matrimony are encountering challenges as
Robust cybersecurity measures are essential to prevent individuals increasingly prioritize personal autonomy
unauthorized access and protect against potential and career aspirations. The rise in inter-cultural and
breaches. AI algorithms often rely on vast datasets, inter-faith marriages, as well as an increase in instances
including sensitive health information, to train and of late or chosen marriages, indicates a departure from
improve their performance. The handling of such data conventional views. The prevalence of diverse
demands stringent privacy measures to safeguard relationship models, cohabitation before marriage, and a
individuals' confidentiality. Regulatory frameworks with growing acceptance of alternative family structures
penalty provisions must evolve to address the unique contribute to the changing landscape of marital values.
challenges posed by AI in healthcare. Establishing clear Economic independence and educational empowerment,
guidelines for data usage, ensuring transparency in particularly for women, have contributed to this
algorithmic decision-making, and enforcing strict paradigm shift. The discourse on the value of marriage
privacy standards are pivotal to fostering trust in AI- as a sacrament in modern India reflects a clear transition
driven healthcare solutions. from traditional to modern perspectives.
5. Which of the following is/are the most rational Passage – 3
The fear of making the wrong decision immobilizes any
person, fostering a state of inertia that hinders personal
drawn from the passage? growth and achievement. This perpetual hesitancy
1. The notion of marriage as a sacrament is extends beyond the immediate choices; it corrodes his
confidence and self-esteem, creating a cycle of self-
subjective, and can differ among different
doubt. Relationships, career opportunities, and personal
segments of society and individuals. development become casualties of this chronic
2. The institution of marriage is heavily indecision. The person finds himself in a static existence,
witnessing the passage of time without actively engaging
influenced by the Western constructs
in the meaningful pursuits that could shape his life.
worldwide. Breaking free from this cycle demands a courageous
Select the correct answer from the code given embrace of uncertainty, for it is only through decisive
action that he can unlock the doors to progress and self-
below:
discovery.
(a) 1 only 7. Based on the above passage, the following
(b) 2 only assumptions have been made:
1. Uncertain choices may lead to a life marked
(c) Both 1 and 2
by missed opportunities and unfulfilled
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 potential.
2. An achievement-oriented person makes
decisive decisions for growth in life.
6. Which of the following is most definitively
implied by the above passage? (a) 1 only
(a) The transition of marriage from a traditional (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
to a modern construct reflects the loss of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
culture and values in society.
(b) There is a need to reverse the 8. An electronic equipment can be produced by

three machines X, Y and Z. Machine X takes 30
transformations in the institution of
hours to produce 1 lakh units. Machine Y is
marriage to preserve the culture. thrice as fast as machine X. Machine Z takes the
same amount of time to produce 1 lakh units as
(c) Marriage, as an institution, undergoes
X and Y running together. How much time will
metamorphosis, only due to redefined be required to produce 1 lakh units if all the three
gender roles. machines are used simultaneously?
(a) 6.5 hours
(d) Societal changes, fostering an environment
(b) 7.5 hours
of choice and flexibility, impact the (c) 3.75 hours
institution of marriage. (d) 8 hours
9. Consider the following Question and the 11. Anuj takes 42 minutes to travel from Pratapgarh
Statements: to Prayagraj, while Pradeep takes 56 minutes to
Statement 1: The ratio of the sales of A and B is
travel from Prayagraj to Pratapgarh. Anuj and
4:5
Pradeep start from Pratapgarh and Prayagraj
Statement 2: The ratio of the expenditures of A
respectively at 7: 30 am towards Prayagraj and
and B is 3:4.
Question: Companies A and B earned profit in Pratapgarh respectively. If they take the same
2022. Is the profit of company A less than that route, when will they meet?
of company B in 2022? (a) 7:48 am
(b) 7:51 am
of the above Question and the Statements?
(c) 7:54 am
(a) The Question can be answered by using one
(d) 7:58 am
of the Statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other Statement
alone. 12. Raghu borrows Rs. 36000 from Hari at 10%
(b) The Question can be answered by using simple interest per annum. He lent the sum
borrowed to Kunal at 20% p.a. compound
(c) The Question can be answered by using both
interest. Kunal repaid the loan at the end of two
the Statements together, but cannot be
years. Had Kunal repaid the loan at the end of
answered by using either Statement alone.
(d) The Question cannot be answered even by three years, the additional profit for Raghu
using both the Statements together. would have been:
(a) Rs. 6148

10. Sachita can finish a work in 48 days by working
(b) Rs. 7244
9 hours a day. Shikha can finish the same work
(c) Rs. 6588
in 36 days by working 16 hours a day. In how
(d) Rs. 6768
any days can they finish the work by working
together 7(5/7) hours a day?
(a) 32 days Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
(b) 34 days Read the following two passages and answer the items
(c) 36 days that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
(d) 38 days
The Digital India initiative has made significant strides Over the decades, educating people about health has
been an important strategy for preventing illness and
in enhancing digital infrastructure, promoting e-
injury. This approach has drawn heavily from the fields
governance, and fostering technology adoption, there are
of public health, social science, communications, and
critical aspects that warrant analysis. One aspect is the
education. Early experiments with education relied
digital divide, which persists across urban-rural and heavily on the delivery of information and facts.
socio-economic lines. Despite increased internet Gradually, educational approaches have turned more to
penetration, disparities in access to digital resources and skill development and addressing all health aspects,
including physical, social, emotional, and mental well-
skills hinder the full realization of Digital India's
being. Educating children and adolescents can instil
potential. Bridging this gap is crucial for ensuring
positive health behaviours in the early years and prevent
inclusive growth. Privacy and data security concerns also
risk and premature death. It can also produce informed
emerge with the increasing digitization of services.
citizens who can seek services and advocate for policies
Effective utilization of digital tools requires not only and environments that affect their health. Education for
access but also the ability to navigate and leverage them. health is an essential component of an effective school
Initiatives to enhance digital education and skills training health programme, and it is likely to be the most
effective.
are essential to empower citizens fully.
1. Health education may be a tool for
1. Digital literacy remains a challenge in the promoting citizen participation in healthcare
country. governance.
2. Due to the inherent challenges, Digital India 2. Health education should be prioritized in
schools for the healthy development of
initiative has not been successful.
children.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

15. A certain code is prepared such that two letters 18. The sum of infinite geometric series is 27 and
are skipped in between any two adjacent letters. the sum of the squares of the terms is 243. Find
Which of the following series may be an output the common ratio.
of this coding technique? (a) 1/2
(a) MPSVYBE (b) 1/3
(b) QSVYZCF (c) 1/4
(c) EIMQV (d) 2/3
(d) ZCGKMPR
19. If = stands for ÷; + stands for -; - stands for +; ×
16. From a point O on the ground, the angles of stands for =; ÷ stands for ×; which of the
elevations of the tops of two buildings (B and A) following is true?
are 15o and 75o, respectively. Each building is (a) 3 ÷ 3 + 1 × 9 + 1 =1
300 m high. Find the distance between the tops (b) 3 ÷ 3 + 1 × 3 + 1 =1
of both the buildings. (tan15o = 2 - √3 and tan75o (c) 3 ÷ 3 + 1 × 13 + 1 =1
= 2 + √3) (d) 3 ÷ 3 + 1 × 3 + 1 =1
(a) 1000 m
(b) 1100 m Direction for the following 3 (three) items:
(c) 800 m Read the information given below carefully and answer
(d) None of these the questions that follow.

Rohan arranged seven water bottles (having different
17. In the figure given below, AB is parallel to QR weights), labeled as M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S, in a straight
and the ratio of the areas of triangles PAB and line.
PQR is 1:4. If the perimeter of PQR is 24 cm, The weight of bottle O is greater than that of bottle Q,
then what is the perimeter of PAB (in cm)? which is just heavier than bottle S. Two bottles have
weights between bottle Q and bottle M. Bottle S is lighter
than bottle M, which is heavier than bottle O. The weight
of bottle P is 15 kg more than that of bottle N, while the
weight of bottle N is 22 kg. The weight of bottle P is not
the maximum. Two bottles are heavier than M.
20. Which bottle has the maximum weight?
(a) 10 cm (a) M
(b) 12 cm (b) R
(c) 14 cm (c) O
(d) None of these (d) P
21. How many water bottles are heavier than bottle Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
S? Read the following two passages and answer the items
(a) Less than three bottles that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
(b) Only four bottles
(c) Only two bottles
Passage – 1
(d) More than five bottles
Child-rearing involves nurturing and guiding a child
through various stages of development. Parents navigate
22. Which of the following cannot be concluded?
(a) Weight of bottle R can be 50 kg. a dynamic journey, adapting to the changing needs and
(b) Weight of bottle Q can be 12 kg. personalities of their children. Understanding and
(c) Weight of bottle O can be 29 kg. meeting a child's needs requires a multifaceted approach.
(d) None of the above. Effective communication, setting boundaries, and
providing a supportive environment contribute to a
23. Consider the following Question and the child's emotional well-being. Balancing discipline with
Statements:
love and fostering independence while ensuring safety
Statement 1: Arun and Banwari together get a
present intricate challenges. Parents often find joy in the
sum of Rs. 80.
process of imparting values, skills, and knowledge.
Statement 2: Banwari and Chandan together get
Providing a secure foundation for a child's exploration of
a sum of Rs. 100.
Question: A sum of Rs. 160 is shared among the world contributes to the fulfilling nature of parenting.
Arun, Banwari and Chandan. How much of it 24. Which of the following is/are the most rational
does Banwari get? and logical inference/inferences that can be
Which one of the following is correct in respect made from the passage?
of the above Question and the Statements? 1. Only parents can contribute to the emotional
(a) The Question can be answered by using one
well-being of their children.
2. A supportive environment and good
answered by using the other Statement
communication are ingredients of a good
alone.
child-rearing practice.
(b) The Question can be answered by using
(c) The Question can be answered by using both below:
the Statements together, but cannot be (a) 1 only

answered by using either Statement alone. (b) 2 only
(d) The Question cannot be answered even by (c) Both 1 and 2
using both the Statements together. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. Which one of the following is best implied by 27. The L.C.M and the H.C.F of two 3-digit
the passage? numbers p12 and 7q4 are 25088 and 16
(a) Child-rearing is the art of nurturing young respectively. Find p and q.
minds to bloom into responsible and (a) 6, 7
compassionate model citizens. (b) 5, 8
(b) Child rearing depends on societal values. (c) 7, 8
(c) If one wants their child to succeed in life, he (d) 6, 8
should focus on the process of child-rearing.
(d) Child-rearing is a complex yet profoundly 28. Anuj wants to buy some stationary. He buys
rewarding process. pencil, pens and notebooks spending a total of
Passage – 2 Rs. 50. If each pen costs Rs. 6, each pencil costs
Multinational corporations, international media, and the Rs. 5, each notebook costs Rs. 3 and Anuj wants
internet play influential roles in disseminating a shared to buy at least 3 items of each kind, then in how
set of cultural references and norms. As a result, local many ways can he purchase these items?
traditions and practices face the risk of erosion or (a) 4
assimilation into a globalized culture. This phenomenon (b) 1
is often associated with the spread of Western values, (c) 2
consumerism, and media, which can overshadow and (d) 3
replace local traditions, languages, and customs. While
it promotes interconnectedness and shared experiences, 29. A village in the country side can be reached by
it also raises concerns about the loss of cultural diversity. six roads viz – X, Y, Z, 1, 2 and 3. The road Y
Indigenous languages, traditional knowledge, and gets blocked in storm and floods affect the roads
unique customs face the threat of extinction as globalized X, 1 and 3. When road 1 is blocked, road Z also
trends become dominant. gets blocked. In a particular season when the
26. Which one of the following is the most logical village was flooded due to a storm, which of the
and rational inference that can be made from following roads can be used?
the above passage? (a) Only Y
(a) Globalization intertwines cultures, creating (b) Only 2
a vibrant tapestry of shared experiences and (c) Only 3
values. (d) Z and 2
(b) Globalization threatens local culture
through cultural homogenization. 30. If ‘BDZBKMLN’ is the code of ‘CALM’, then
(c) In the backdrop of the loss of local culture, what will be the code for ‘TABLE’?
there is a need for de-globalization. (a) USABCBLMEE
(d) The promotion of Western culture should be (b) SUBABCNMDF
countered by the promotion of local culture (c) SUZBACKMDF
globally. (d) USZCAAKRFE
31. Find the next term of the following series. 34. Six persons are standing around a circular table
15, 21, 34, 54, 81, ? facing the center. Balram is between Kamal and
(a) 112 Kishan. Manoj is between Sanjay and Vishal.
Kamal is on the left of Sanjay. Who is on the left
(b) 106
of Kishan?
(c) 105
(a) Balram
(d) 115 (b) Vishal
(c) Kamal
32. Three statements followed by three conclusions (d) Sanjay
I, II and III are given below. You have to
consider the statements to be true, even if they 35. P = (40% of A) + (60% of B) and Q = (75% of
A) - (25% of B), where Q is greater than P.
seem to be at variance from commonly known
In this context, which of the following
facts. You have to decide which of the given
statements is correct?
conclusion(s) follow from the given statements. (a) A is greater than B
Statements: (b) B is greater than A
Some cars are bikes. (c) A is equal to B
All buses are bikes. (d) None of the above can be concluded with
No bike is train. certainty.
Conclusions:
Directions for the following item:
I. Some cars are buses.
Read the following passage and answer the item that
II. All trains being buses is a possibility.
III. No car is a bus. passage only.
Select your answer using the codes given below. Passage
(a) Only l follows Cooking, an essential daily activity, has deep
(b) Either l or III follows connections to energy sources like biomass and coal,
often used in traditional methods. However, reliance on
(c) All follow
these fuels contributes to indoor air pollution, leading to
(d) None of these
alarming health impacts. According to data, millions of
deaths annually are attributed to household air pollution
33. In a row of children, Manoj is tenth from the left from biomass and coal combustion. The toxic fumes
and Kamal is thirteenth from the right. Vimal is released during cooking create respiratory problems,
20th from the right end and third to the right of especially affecting women and children. The impact is
Manoj. How many children are there between disproportionately severe on the poor. Rising usage of
cleaner cooking gas is crucial for health, alleviating
Manoj and Kamal?
poverty by reducing medical costs, and mitigating
(a) 9
environmental degradation. Efforts to transition away
(b) 10
from traditional cooking methods play a vital role in
(c) 8 breaking the cycle of poverty and fostering a more
(d) 6 sustainable and equitable future.
36. According to the author, the most rational 39. The area of an equilateral triangle and a square
inference would be: are equal. Which of the following can be
concluded?
(a) Poor households are giving up polluting
(a) The triangle and the square have the same
fuels due to increased awareness about perimeter.
health hazards. (b) The perimeter of the square exceeds that of
the equilateral triangle.
(b) Access to clean cooking gas, can reduce
(c) The perimeter of the square is less than that
deaths due to air pollution in poor of the equilateral triangle.
households. (d) None of these
(c) Subsidising cleaner fuels will decrease the
40. At present, the ratio of Ajay’s age to Sachin’s
issue of poverty and deaths in poor
age is 4:5. Ten years ago, the ratio was 19:25. If
households. Suresh is 12 years older than Ajay, then what is
(d) Both (a) and (b) the present average age of Ajay, Sachin, and
Suresh?
(a) 52 years
37. In a certain code, 478 means ‘big rose tree’, 701 (b) 48 years
means ‘small rose garden’, 476 means ‘red rose (c) 56 years
tree’. The digit in the code that indicates red is (d) None of these
(a) 7 41. Anuj and Basant had a total of 50 chocolates

with them. The sum of the squares of the number
(b) 6
of chocolates with them is 1300. Anuj sells each
(c) 4 chocolate at Rs. 5 and Basant sells each
(d) 1 chocolate at Rs. 6. Find the total amount they
get.
(a) Rs. 270
38. A water tank has three taps X, Y and Z. X fills 3
(b) Rs. 280
buckets in 4 minutes, Y fills 5 buckets in 6 (c) Rs. 210
minutes and Z fills 8 buckets in 10 minutes. If (d) Either (a) or (b)
all the taps are opened together a full tank is 42. The password of a secured lock changes every
day as per the pattern described below:
filled in 1 hour. If a bucket can hold 2 gallons of
Password for day 1: TREWQ
water, what is the capacity of the tank (in
Password for day 2: REWQT
gallons)? Password for day 3: EWQTR
(a) 287 What would be the password for day 4?
(a) WQTRE
(b) 284
(b) WQERT
(c) 285 (c) WERTQ
(d) 286 (d) WQTER
43. Twice the difference between a two-digit 45. A vessel contains 10 liters of honey. 1 liter of
number and the number formed by reversing its honey is taken out and replaced by an equal
digits is two less than the sum of the number and amount of sugar syrup. Then 1 liter of mixture is
the number formed by reversing the digits of the taken out and replaced by an equal amount of
number. If the original number is greater than sugar syrup. Find the ratio of honey and sugar
the number formed by reversing the digits, then syrup in the final mixture.
what is the original number? (a) 81:100
(a) 62 (b) 81:19
(b) 72 (c) 19:81
(c) 82
(d) 19:100
(d) 92
46. In 2020, Anuj’s salary was Rs. 24000 but due to

44. Consider the following Question and the
a pandemic in 2021, his salary was reduced by
Statements:
20% which is equal to that of Ajay’s salary in
Statement 1: The marked price of the article was
2021. Ajay’s salary in 2022 was 20% more than
30% more than the cost price.
his salary in 2021. Anuj’s salary in 2022 was the
Statement 2: Had the article been sold at a
same as his salary in 2020. By what percentage
discount of 40%, there would have been a loss
is the sum of the salaries of Ajay in 2021 and
of Rs. 50.
2022 more/less than that of Anuj in both these
Question: Is the selling price of an article more
years combined?
than the cost price given that the article is sold at
(a) (22/9)%
a discount of 20%?
(b) (18/7)%
of the above Question and the Statements? (c) (20/9)%
(a) The Question can be answered by using one (d) None of these

answered by using the other Statement 47. The average monthly income of Ananya for the
alone. first 9 months of a year was Rs. 12000, while her

(b) The Question can be answered by using average monthly income for the last 3 months of
either Statement alone. that year was Rs. 16000. Find her average
(c) The Question can be answered by using both monthly income (in Rs.) for that year.
the Statements together, but cannot be (a) Greater than Rs. 15000
answered by using either Statement alone. (b) Less than Rs. 13800
(d) The Question cannot be answered even by (c) Greater than Rs. 16000
using both the Statements together. (d) Less than Rs. 13000
Direction for the following 2 (two) items: 51. In how many ways can 12 students, consisting
Read the information carefully and answer the 2 (two) of 8 boys and 4 girls, be selected from 15 boys
items that follow. and 10 girls, if a particular boy A and a particular
The table below shows the literacy rate of some Indian girl B can never be together?
States/ Union Territories as per two different Censuses 14
(a) C8 × 9C4
(2011 and 2001):
(b) C8 × 10C4 – 14C7 × 9C3
15
State/Union Literacy Rate Literacy Rate
(c) C8 × 10C4 – 14C8 × 9C4
15
territory (%)- 2011 (%) – 2001
14
census census (d) C7 ×9C3
Kerala 94 91
Lakshawdeep 92 87 Direction for the following 2 (two) items:
Mizoram 92 89 The chart given below represents the number of
Goa 87 82 accidents that happened, the number of people that got
Puducherry 87 81 injured during those accidents, and also the number of
Chandigarh 86 82 people that died in those accidents in different cities:
Delhi 86 82
48. How many States/Union Territories are there
whose Decadal Difference of Literacy (in terms
of percentage point) is more than Puducherry?
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 3
(d) 2
49. The average of the Decadal Difference of

Literacies (in terms of percentage point) of the 52. Which among the following can be concluded
above mentioned States/Union Territories is: from the given chart?
(a) 3.28 (a) In three cities - E, F and G, the total count of
(b) 5.28 deaths is greater than 3450.
(c) 4.28 (b) The sum of the people injured in cities A and
(d) 2.28 D is less than 15000.
(c) Cities D, E and F had less than 5000
50. Rahul build a water tank of capacity ‘x’ liters.
accidents.
He connected the tank with two inlet pipes A and
(d) All are correct.
B and an outlet pipe C. Pipe A supplies water at
50 liters/hour. Pipe B can fill the tank in 4 hours,
which pipe C can empty it in 12 hours. All the 53. What is the difference between the total number
pipes are simultaneously opened and the tank of accidents that happened and the total number
gets filled in 1 hour. What is the value of ‘x’? of injured people in all the cities combined?
(a) 40 liters (a) Less than 5000
(b) 50 liters (b) More than 10000
(c) 60 liters (c) Less than 8000
(d) 80 liters (d) 7000
54. In the following Venn diagram, circle represents 56. A person can row at 7.5 km/h in still water. It
businessman, square represents lawyer, triangle takes him 3 hours 20 minutes to row from place
represents artist and rectangle represents thief. A A to place B (downstream) and return back from
letter is written on every part. place B to place A (upstream). If the river
current is running at a speed of 1.5 km/h, then
the distance between place A and place B is:
(a) 25 km
(b) 12.5 km
(c) 24 km
(d) 12 km
What part is described by the letter K? 57. All the students of a class are sitting in a row.
(a) Lawyer, artist, businessman Raman is 7th from the left and Rohan is 14th from
(b) Thief, businessman, artist the right. The number of students sitting in
(c) Lawyer, thief, artist, businessman between them is 1/4th of the total of students in
(d) None of these the row. How many students are sitting in the
row?
55. The following graph indicates the expenses on (a) 18
different commodities in percentage terms. (b) 26
(c) 30
(d) 28
58. Ramesh has a triangular plot of land on which

all the sides are equal. He wants to plant some
trees on his plot such that there are equal number
of trees on each side and every consecutive row
has one less tree than the previous row (starting
If total expense on different commodities is 5
crores, then expenses on transportation and from any side of the triangle). If he plants a total
decorative work is what percent of the total of 55 trees, how many trees are there on each
expenses on construction material and labour? side of the plot?

(a) 57.6% (a) 9
(b) 54% (b) 10
(c) 47.2% (c) 11
(d) 52.9% (d) 12
Read the following three passages and answer the items Rising temperatures, shifting rainfall patterns, and
increased frequency of extreme weather events will
Passage – 1 directly impact crop yields, livestock health, and water
As smartphones become an integral part of daily life, availability - essential resources for agriculture. These
many individuals find themselves compulsively reaching impacts will disproportionately affect marginalized
for their phones, even in seemingly inconsequential
communities and small-scale farmers, who often have
moments. The addictive allure of notifications, social
media updates, and constant connectivity can lead to a limited access to technology, financial resources, and
dependency that impacts both mental and physical well- social safety nets. Moreover, climate change-induced
being. The constant exposure to screens may disrupt disruptions in food production can lead to price
sleep patterns, leading to fatigue and a decline in overall
volatility, food insecurity, and even conflicts over scarce
health. Social relationships can suffer as individuals
prioritize virtual connections over face-to-face resources. To address climate justice in agriculture, it is
interactions. The addictive nature of phones is imperative to prioritize sustainable and resilient farming
exacerbated by the fear of missing out (FOMO) and the practices, support innovation in climate-smart
pressure to stay digitally always connected. Fostering a
agriculture, enhance access to climate information and
balanced relationship with technology becomes essential
for maintaining overall well-being and reclaiming financial resources, and promote policies that prioritize
control over one's time and attention. social and environmental equity in food systems.
59. Which of the following is/are the most rational 60. Based on the above passage, the following
1. The dopamine-driven cycle of viral news 1. Conflicts over scarce resources are
makes it impossible to break free from necessarily related to climate change.

phone addiction. 2. Climate justice needs the cooperation of
2. In today’s world, people value full isolation
global organizations and governments.
more than face-to-face interactions.
Select the correct answer from the code given Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
below: (a) 1 only

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2

Passage – 3 62. Who is good in subjects 1, 4 and 5 but not in
Projections suggest a steady increase in the world's subject 3?
(a) P
population, with estimates reaching 9 billion by 2050. In
(b) A
tandem, India has become the world's most populous
(c) M
nation, surpassing China. The future trajectory of global (d) N
population growth and its impact on economic sectors,
particularly in India, is poised to shape the landscape of 63. Who is good in subject 5, 1, 3 and 4?
welfare policies. The services sector, including (a) A
technology and finance, is likely to witness heightened (b) N
(c) P
demand globally, driven by an expanding middle class.
(d) M
In India, with its youth-dominated demographic, this
shift could further amplify the prominence of the 64. Total expenses of a guest house are partly fixed
information technology and services sectors. However, and partly varying linearly with the number of
ensuring job creation and sustained economic growth guests arriving. Average expense per guest is
requires a concurrent focus on manufacturing and Rs. 1000 when there are 50 guests and Rs. 800
agriculture, sectors that often employ a significant when there are 100 guests. What is the average
expense (in Rs) per guest when there are 200
portion of the population.
guests?
(a) 650
assumptions have been made: (b) 600
1. High population growth aids in reaping (c) 500
better demographic dividend. (d) 700
2. The expansion of the middle class in India
depends on the faster growth of the services 65. Consider the following figure.
sector.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which among the following can be concluded
with respect to the total number of triangles and
rectangles in it?
Read the following information carefully and answer the
(a) The total number of triangles and rectangles
2 (two) items that follow: is a prime number.
1. M and S are good in subjects 2 and 3. (b) The product of the total number of triangles
2. A and M are good in subjects 3 and 1. and rectangles is a multiple of 7.
3. A, P and N are good in subjects 1 and 5. (c) The total number of triangles and rectangles
4. N and A are good in subjects 1 and 4. is a multiple of 3.
(d) None of these
5. P and S are good in subjects 5 and 2.
66. Find the missing letter pair in the following 69. A student took five papers in an examination,
where the full marks were the same for each
matrix.
paper. His marks in these papers were in the
LX GT DK proportion of 4:5:6:7:8. In all papers together,
IR TV KP the candidate obtained 60% of the total marks.
Then the number of papers in which he got at
XU ? NM least 70% marks is:
(a) 4
(b) 3
(a) TN
(c) 2
(b) RD (d) None of these
(c) MN
Directions for the following 6 (six) items:
(d) YD
Read the following five passages and answer the items
67. Nine different hamlets namely L, M, N, O, P, Q, should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
R, S and T not necessarily in the same order, lie
Success often emerges from the crucible of setbacks,
on the left bank of a river that passes through a revealing the symbiotic relationship between
jungle. The distance between two adjacent achievement and the lessons learned through failure.
Every triumph bears the silent scars of past challenges,
hamlets is 1 km. P is 4 km east from L and T is
and every setback carries the potential for growth and
4 km east from P. Distance between N and T is resilience. Understanding life allows for a holistic
3 km. What is the distance between L and N? perspective, encouraging an embrace of both light and
shadow. It's a reminder that growth often sprouts from
(a) 1 km
the soil of challenges and that every peak is preceded by
(b) 2 km a valley. In navigating this we find wisdom in accepting
(c) 4 km both sides, forging a path that acknowledges the intricate
beauty of life's dualities.
(d) 5 km
68. To 5 litre of 20% sulphuric acid, 7.5 litre of 80% above?
(a) In the journey to success, patience and
sulphuric acid is added. What is the strength of
perseverance act as compass.
the acid in the mixture now? (b) Without perseverance and wisdom, being
(a) 56% successful in life is challenging.
(c) Life is a coin; success and failure share the
(b) 50%
same currency of experience.
(c) 64% (d) Knowledge through understanding success
(d) 60% and failures is the ultimate objective of life.

The times of war conflict require leaders to make swift, The Public Stockholding (PSH) program, a crucial
strategic decisions under intense pressure. While innate element for India's food security, faces challenges under
WTO rules. India's minimum support prices (MSP) and

traits like resilience and adaptability contribute,
procurement quantities for staples like rice and wheat
structured training cultivates the skills needed to
often exceed permissible limits, triggering concerns.
navigate the complexities of warfare. Military leaders
Data indicates that a significant percentage of India's
undergo rigorous training to hone tactical acumen,
population depends on agriculture for livelihood, making
strategic thinking, and the ability to inspire and lead
food security a paramount concern. However, the clash
troops. The synthesis of inherent leadership qualities and
between India's domestic support programs and WTO
the discipline acquired through training forges norms creates tension. The need to uplift millions from
commanders capable of navigating the turbulent poverty and hunger clashes with the demands of
landscape of war, steering their teams through adversity international trade agreements. Rising population
with courage, precision, and a profound sense of pressure and the unpredictability of climate change
responsibility. underscore the urgency of ensuring food security.
72. Which one of the following is best implied in the

passage?
(a) India needs to adhere to international trade
(a) War experience is essential for acquiring
norms by reforming its agricultural policies.
leadership qualities.
(b) India should not be a member of WTO if it
(b) Leadership in times of war demands a
is not able to fulfil its food security
unique blend of innate qualities and rigorous
commitments.
training. (c) WTO norms are discriminatory, restricting
(c) Leadership for navigating wars cannot be India’s commitment to ensure food security
taught, it can only be self-acquired. for its poor population.
(d) Leaders having war experience are better (d) Balancing food security concerns with
than leaders who have acquired skills international trade agreements is a complex
issue for the Indian government.

through training alone.

Implementing measures to reduce greenhouse gas When a country exports goods and services, it
emissions, transition to renewable energy sources, and contributes to its gross domestic product (GDP),
enhancing climate resilience necessitate financial stimulating economic expansion. The positive
investments. These costs encompass not only the correlation between exports and economic growth is
deployment of clean technologies but also the evident through various channels. Exports boost a
restructuring of industries, the development of nation's income by generating revenue from foreign
sustainable infrastructure, and the adoption of climate- markets. This influx of funds can be utilized for domestic
smart agricultural practices. Moreover, the economic investment, infrastructure development, and social
impact extends beyond direct expenses. Industries programs, all of which contribute to economic
advancement. Additionally, exporting facilitates job
relying on fossil fuels may face restructuring costs, and
creation as industries expand to meet international
regions vulnerable to climate impacts may bear the
demand, reducing unemployment rates and increasing
economic burden of adapting to changing conditions.
consumer spending. Exposure to global markets
However, the cost of inaction far exceeds the investment
encourages innovation and efficiency. To compete
required for climate mitigation and adaptation.
internationally, businesses often invest in research and
Ultimately, viewing the costs of climate action as an
development, adopting advanced technologies and
investment in a sustainable and resilient future
improving production processes. This not only enhances
underscores the importance of proactive measures.
the competitiveness of domestic industries but also
elevates overall productivity, fostering sustained
economic growth.
the above passage?
(a) Compared to developed countries,
developing countries need more funding to
1. In today’s world no country can have a
fight the consequences of changing climate.
closed economy.
(b) Without proper funding and pre-emptive
2. Economic growth is possible only when
action, almost everyone will face the
businesses compete internationally with
consequences of climate change. some tariff protection.
(c) The best approach to tackle the impact of Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
climate change is to implement mitigation (a) 1 only
and adaptation measures. (b) 2 only
(d) Climate change is a real global challenge (c) Both 1 and 2
demanding collective solutions. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Which of the following statements best reflects 77. If Y is selected and B is rejected as venues,
the crux of the passage? which of the following stadium will serve as
(a) Winds of prosperity often blow with the venues?
sails of strategic export endeavours.
(a) A, C, W and Y.
(b) Exports alone cannot ensure economic
(b) A, C, X and Y.
growth and social prosperity in any country.
(c) For economic growth, nations should have (c) A, C, Y and Z.
net-zero imports. (d) A, W, Y and Z.

(d) India must reap the benefits of exports by
focusing on internationally competitive 78. If B is selected and Y is rejected, which of the
products. following four stadiums will serve as venues?
(a) A, B, C and W.
76. Find the missing term in the following matrix.
(b) A, B, C and Z.
28 42 48
(c) A, B, C and X.
12 14 15
4 ? 6 (d) A, W, Y and Z.
84 98 120
(a) 5 79. If all the Tier I cities are selected as venues, then
(b) 6 how many possible combinations of four venues
(c) 7 can be selected?
(d) 8 (a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
Read the following information carefully and answer the
3 (three) items that follow: (d) 4
In a tennis tournament, four matches are to be scheduled
in different cities. Out of the seven possible venues – 80. Rohit walks for 3 km in the north direction, turns
stadiums A, B and C are in Tier I cities and stadiums W, right and walks 5 km, before again turning right
X, Y and Z are in Tier II cities. At least two matches have and walking 9 km. Then, he takes a left turn and
to be held in Tier I cities. Cities B and W are not directly
walks 3 km. How far is he from the starting
connected to each other. C and Z are also not connected
point?
directly and the direct road between W and Y has been
(a) 15 km
damaged due to floods. All the other cities are directly
connected with each other. It is known that the matches (b) 16 km
can be conducted only in those cities which are directly (c) 8 km
connected to each other. (d) 10 km

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

1 (d)
Given, Q is an odd natural number.
∴ 41Q +7Q must be divisible by (41 + 7), i.e. 48.
∴ It will be divisible by any factor of 48.
Among the given options, only 36 is not a factor of 48.
2 (a)
Given positions of the cube:
From above we get,
Hence, Mobile stand is opposite to the Printer.

3 (c)
Assumption 1 is correct: Refer to the line: “Patients must have control over how their health data is used
and shared.” Clearly, there are privacy concerns with the increasing use of AI in healthcare. So,
innovations in AI need to be balanced with addressing these concerns for the effective use of AI in
healthcare. So, this assumption is correct as per the passage.
Assumption 2 is correct: The passage is about privacy concerns with the increasing use of AI in healthcare
and highlights the need for regulations. It is evident from the line: “Regulatory frameworks with penalty
provisions must evolve to address the unique challenges posed by AI in healthcare.” The government is
responsible for regulations through laws and policies. So, this assumption that the government needs to
form laws and policies for privacy threats is correct.
4 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage is about AI in health and the associated privacy concerns. However,
this option misses the context of privacy concerns. So, this option is not the best crux of the passage.

Option (b) is incorrect: As per this answer option a robust transparency framework and strict privacy
standards will foster innovation in AI health. However, the passage does not mention them as precursors for
innovation in AI health. The passage only mentions that privacy and transparency foster trust in AI
healthcare solutions. So, this is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (c) is correct: The passage is about AI in health and the privacy challenges associated with it. The
lines, “Patients must have control over how their health data is used and shared. Robust cybersecurity
measures are essential to prevent unauthorized access and protect against potential breaches. AI
algorithms often rely on vast datasets, including sensitive health information, to train and improve their
performance”, show that without privacy, AI in healthcare can be misused. Hence, it is correct to state that
without privacy safeguards AI in healthcare could be dangerous due to the threat of misuse of data.
5 (a)
Inference 1 is correct: The passage clearly shows that the institution of marriage has transitioned from the
traditional form to the modern construct as seen in the lines “The rise in inter-cultural and inter-faith
marriages, as well as an increase in instances of late or chosen marriages, indicates a departure from
conventional views”. Also, the line “...the traditional perception of marriage as a sacrament is
transforming...” clearly shows the changing notion. So, it would be correct to infer that the value of
marriage as a sacrament is subjective.
Inference 2 is incorrect: The context of the Western constructs has nowhere been discussed, and how they
impact the institution of marriage is also not covered. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and
is not correct.
6 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The transition of marriage from a traditional to a modern construct is a
phenomenon driven by changing social milieu. There is no information in the passage which can prove that
it reflects the loss of culture and values in the society. It just represents the changing values and culture.
Option (b) is incorrect: The context of reversal of transformations in the institution of marriage is not
reflected in the passage directly or indirectly. The author nowhere indicates a disappointment with these
changes. So, there is no question about reversing them.
Option (c) is incorrect: The option seems to be correct, but it is not because of the aspect of redefined
gender roles. Refer to the line: “Economic independence and educational empowerment, particularly for
women, have contributed to this paradigm shift. ” These developments may redefine gender roles, but
saying that they are the ‘only’ factors driving the change in marriages would not be correct. There could
also be other cultural shifts responsible for these changes.
Option (d) is correct: The passage is about the changing nature of the institution of marriage due to
changes in society driven by evolving choices and changes in social environment. This is seen in the lines
“The once deeply ingrained societal norms surrounding matrimony are encountering challenges as
individuals increasingly prioritize personal autonomy and career aspirations. The rise in inter-cultural
and inter-faith marriages, as well as an increase in instances of late or chosen marriages, indicates a
departure from conventional views.” These lines clearly show that societal changes impact the institution
of marriage. So, this is most definitively implied by the passage.
7 (a)
Assumption 1 is correct: The passage is about uncertainty in the context of decision-making, and its
consequences. This assumption refers to the uncertainty that could result from choices which eventually
could cause failure or a pause in growth as per the lines, “The fear of making the wrong decision
immobilizes any person, fostering a state of inertia that hinders personal growth and achievement. This
perpetual hesitancy extends beyond the immediate choices; it corrodes his confidence and self-esteem,
creating a cycle of self-doubt.” So, this assumption is valid as per the passage.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The passage covers the issues of uncertainty in decision-making. However, the
given assumption mentions what kind of person makes decisive decisions in life which is not a part of the
passage. For success, decisive approach might be needed. But to assume that a goal-oriented person is
decisive would not be correct, as it is not based on the information contained in the passage. That would be
an extreme extrapolation of the propositions made in the passage.

8 (c)
Y is thrice as fast as X. So it will take one-third the time of X to produce 1 lakh units.
Time taken by X to produce 1 lakh units = 30 h.
So, time taken by Y to produce 1 lakh units = 30/3 h = 10 h.
Since machine Z takes the same amount of time as machines X and Y running together.
So, if Z takes ‘p’ hours to produce 1 lakh units, then,
1/p = 1/30 + 1/10 …………………І
(1 hour work of each of X, Y and Z considered)
If ‘t’ be the time taken to produce 1 lakh units when all the three machines are used simultaneously, then,
1/t = 1/30 + 1/10 + 1/p
(1 hour work of each of X, Y and Z considered)
⇒ 1/t = 1/30 + 1/10 + 1/30 + 1/10 (from І)
⇒ 1/t = 2(1/30 + 1/10 )
⇒ t = 3.75 h.
9 (d)
Using either of the statement alone, we cannot find the ratio of profit as the data about sales and
expenditures are given in different statements.
Combining both the statements, we get:
Let 4a and 5a be the sales and 3b and 4b be the expenditures of A and B respectively.
∴ Ratio of profits = (4a – 3b)/(5a – 4b)
= [(5a – 4b) – (a –b)]/(5a – 4b)
= 1 – [(a - b)/(5a - 4b)]
(a-b)/(5a-4b) may or may not be positive, depending on whether a>b or a<b.
So, the ratio of profits may or may not be greater than 1 and hence, which company got a higher profit
cannot be determined even using both the statements together.
10 (a)
Number of hours taken by Sachita to finish the work = 48×9 = 432 hours
Number of hours taken by Shikha to finish the work = 36×16 = 576 hours
Together they will do, (432 + 576)/(432 × 576) = (7/1728)th work in 1 hour
Hence, they will take 1728/7 hours to finish the work.
Therefore, working 7(5/7) i.e. (54/7) hours a day, they can complete the work in (1728/7) × (7/54) = 32
days.
11 (c)
Let d be the distance between Pratapgarh and Prayagraj.
Then time taken by them to meet = d/[(d/42) + (d/56)] = (42 × 56)/(42 + 56) = 24 minutes
Since they started at 7:30 am, they would meet at 7:54 am.
12 (d)
Actual gain of Raghu = (Amount repaid by Kunal) – (Amount repaid by Raghu)
= 36000 [1 + (20/100)]2 – 36000 [1 + (2×10/100)]
= 36000 (1.44 – 1.2)
= Rs. 8640
Had Kunal repaid at the end of three years, the gain for Raghu would have been
= 36000 [1 + (20/100)]3– 36000 [1 + (3×10/100)]
= 36000 (1.728 – 1.3)
= Rs. 15408
Extra gain for Raghu = 15408 – 8640 = Rs. 6768

13 (b)
Assumption 1 is correct: The line “Effective utilization of digital tools requires not only access but also
the ability to navigate and leverage them” clearly shows that there is a lack of digital literacy in the
country. Hence, it remains a challenge. So, this assumption is correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: It is incorrect to say that the Digital India initiative is not successful because of
the lines “The Digital India initiative has made significant strides in enhancing digital infrastructure,
promoting e-governance, and fostering technology adoption, there are critical aspects that warrant
analysis. One aspect is the digital divide, which persists across urban-rural and socio-economic lines.”
These lines show that though there are challenges, there are positive results as well.
14 (d)
Assumption 1 is correct. The given assumption is correct as it is based on the following line “Gradually,
educational approaches have turned more to skill development and addressing all health aspects, including
physical, social, emotional, and mental well-being. ... It can also produce informed citizens who can seek
services and advocate for policies and environments that affect their health.” So, health education can
enhance citizen participation in healthcare governance. Therefore, this answer option is correct.
Assumption 2 is correct. The lines “Educating children and adolescents can instil positive health
behaviours in the early years and prevent risk and premature death” and “Education for health is an
important and essential component of an effective school health programme, and it is likely to be the most
effective”, show that health education in school should be prioritized. Hence, the given assumption is
correct as per the passage.
15 (a)
We need to check all the options to see which of the codes follow the given rule.
Option (a): M +2→ P +2 → S +2 →V +2 →Y +2 →B +2 →E (follows the rule)
Option (b): Q +2 → T (does not follow the rule)
Option (c): E +2 →H (does not follow the rule)
Option (d): Z +2 →C +2 → F (does not follow the rule)
16 (d)
The figure:
Distance between the tops of the two buildings, AB = MN = OM + ON

= 300(cot 75o + cot 15o)
= 300(tan15o + tan 75o) [Since, tan15o = cot (90 – 15) o, tan75o = cot (90 – 75) o]
= 300[(2 - √3) + (2 + √3)]
= 300×4
= 1200 m
Thus, the distance between the tops of the two buildings is 1200 m.

17 (b)
In triangles PAB and PQR,

∠PAB = ∠PQR (corresponding angles) and
∠PBA = ∠PRQ (corresponding angles)
And ∠APB is common.
So, ΔPAB ~ ΔPQR
Since, the ratio of the area of PAB and PQR is 1:4, the ratio of the corresponding sides will be (√1) : (√4),
i.e. 1:2.
∴ Perimeter of PAB will be half of the perimeter of the triangle PQR, i.e. 12 cm.
18 (a)
Let the first term be a and the common ratio be r.
Given that,
a/(1 - r) = 27 ………………(i)
And a2/ (1 - r2) = 243 ………………..(ii)
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get:
a/(1 + r) = 9 …………(iii)
Dividing (iii) by (i), we get:
(1 - r)/(1 + r) = 1/3
Or 3 – 3r = 1 + r
Or 4r = 2
Or r = 1/2
19 (a)
Substituting the signs, equation in option (a) becomes: 3 × 3 - 1 = 9 -1 ÷ 1 or 8 = 8, which is correct.
Explanation for Question numbers 20 to 22:

The weight of bottle O is greater than that of bottle Q, which is just heavier than bottle S.
O>Q>S
Two bottles have weights between bottle Q and bottle M. So, we get two cases:
Case 1: O > Q > S > _ > M
Case 2: M > _ > O > Q > S
Bottle S is lighter than bottle M, which is heavier than bottle O. Two bottles are heavier than M.
M > S → So, Case 1 can be eliminated.
_>_>M>_>O>Q>S
The weight of bottle P is 15 kg more than that of bottle N, while the weight of bottle N is 22 kg. The weight
of bottle P is not the maximum.
P(37) > N(22)
So, the required arrangement of bottles will be:
R>P>M>N>O>Q>S
20 (b)
21 (d)

22 (c)
23 (c)
A sum of Rs. 160 is shared among Arun, Banwari and Chandan.
Arun + Banwari + Chandan = Rs. 160 ………(1)
From Statement 1:
Arun + Banwari = Rs. 80 …………(2)
From equation 1 and 2, we get:
Chandan = 80
Thus, Chandan gets Rs. 80.
From Statement 2:
Banwari + Chandan = Rs. 100 ……..(3)
From equation 1 and 3, we get:
Arun = 60
Thus, Arun gets Rs. 60.
Combining both the Statements,
Amount received by Banwari = (100 + 80) – 160 = Rs. 20
Thus, Banwari received Rs. 20.
Hence, the Question can be answered by using both the Statements together.
24 (b)
Inference 1 is incorrect: Refer to the line: “Parents navigate a dynamic journey …communication, setting
boundaries, and providing a supportive environment contribute to a child's emotional well-being.” This
line does underline the role of parents in emotional development of their children. However, it does not
mean that others (like friends and teachers) do not contribute to emotional well-being of children. So, this
inference is not correct.
Inference 2 is correct: The given inference is correct as it is based on the lines “Effective communication,
setting boundaries, and providing a supportive environment contribute to a child's emotional well-being.”
25 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: This option captures only the positive aspect of child-rearing which is a small part
of the passage. Other aspects like the challenges of child-rearing are not captured in this option. Also, the
passage does not mention that the end goal is for them to become “responsible and compassionate model
citizens.” Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage is about the complexity and good things of child-rearing. Child
rearing, as done by parents, includes the transfer of values, skills, and knowledge. However, whether such
rearing depends on societal values or not is not covered in the passage. So, this is not the best-implied
meaning of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The context of child rearing and success is not covered in the passage. The passage
does not link good child rearing with a successful life or vice-a-versa. Hence, this is not the best-implied
meaning of the passage.
Option (d) is correct: The given option is based on the lines “Balancing discipline with love and fostering
independence while ensuring safety present intricate challenges. Parents often find joy in the process of
imparting values, skills, and knowledge.” These lines validate that child rearing is a complex process, but
parents do enjoy it.
26 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: This option only covers one aspect of the passage which shows the benefits of
globalization as seen in the lines “While it promotes interconnectedness and shared experiences, it also
raises concerns about the loss of cultural diversity”. However, it misses the issues caused by it in the
context of the loss of local culture. So, this is not the most rational inference.
Option (b) is correct: The lines “As a result, local traditions and practices face the risk of erosion or
assimilation into a globalized culture (cultural homogenization) … While it promotes interconnectedness
and shared experiences, it also raises concerns about the loss of cultural diversity” validate this answer
option. This option best captures the inference that globalization has threatened local cultures. So, this is the
most rational inference from the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The context of de-globalization is not correct because it is not discussed in the
passage. Also, it is not close to the main theme of the passage which is covered in option (b). This option
presents an extreme view. So, this is not the most rational inference.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is not correct because it focuses only on Western culture whereas
the main theme of the passage is the impact of globalization on local culture. Moreover, even if true, this
does not mean that the promotion of local culture globally is the solution. So, this is not the most rational
inference.
27 (b)
As H.C.F is 16, so the numbers must be multiples of 16.
∴ p12 = 112, or 512, or 912
And, 7q4 = 704, or 784
The product of LCM and HCF of any two numbers is equal to the product of the numbers.
So, LCM = (512 × 784)/HCF = (512 × 784)/16 = 25088. It checks out.
So, p = 5 and q = 8
28 (b)
Suppose Anuj buys ‘a’ pen, ‘b’ pencils and ‘c’ notebooks.
So, 6a + 5b + 3c = 50
As he has to buy at least 3 items of each kind, Rs. 42 would get spent.
With the remaining Rs. 8, it is only possible to buy 1 pencil and 1 notebook. Thus, there is only one unique
combination in which the items can be bought.
29 (b)
Let us check which of the roads can be used.
X → Affected by flood. → Cannot be used.
Y → Blocked by storm → Cannot be used.
Z → Blocked because 1 is blocked. → Cannot be used.
1 → Affected by flood → Cannot be used.
2 → Can be used
3→ Affected by flood → Cannot be used.
30 (c)
‘BDZBKMLN’ is the code of ‘CALM’
Each letter of the given words is represented by the letter preceding it and the letter following it.
(B-C-D), (Z-A-B), (K-L-M), (L-M-N)
Similarly, code for ‘TABLE’ will be:

S-T-U, Z-A-B, A-B-C, K-L-M, D-E-F
Therefore, SUZBACKMDF is the required code.
31 (d)
Given series: 15, 21, 34, 54, 81, ?
Observing above, we get:
Hence, 115 is the next term.


32 (b)
Case1:
Case2:
From the above diagrams, we can conclude that either conclusion l or conclusion III follows.
33 (a)
Thus, there are 6 people in between Kamal and Vimal.

Vimal is third to the right of Manoj. So, there are two people in between Manoj and Vimal.
Hence, there are a total of (6 + 2 + 1) i.e. 9 persons in between Manoj and Kamal.
34 (b)
As per the given information, we can draw the following sitting arrangement:
Hence, it is clear that Vishal is on the left of Kishan.

35 (a)
P = (40% of A) + (60% of B) = 0.4A + 0.6B
Q = (75% of A) - (25% of B) = 0.75A - 0.25B
Q is greater than P means 0.4A + 0.6B < 0.75A – 0.25B
Or 0.85B < 0.35A
Or 0.85/0.35 < A/B
Or A/B > 17/7, i.e. A/B > 1
36 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage is about the issues of traditional cooking methods and the benefits of
cleaner fuels. However, this option mentions that poor households are giving up polluting fuels due to their
increased awareness which is nowhere mentioned in the passage. So, this is not the best inference.
Option (b) is correct: The passage is about issue of polluting cooking fuels that cause deaths as seen in the
lines “According to data, millions of deaths annually are attributed to household air pollution from biomass

and coal combustion.” Therefore, it would be correct to infer that access to clean fuel would save lives in
poor households. Hence, this option is the most rational inference of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The context of subsidy is not a part of the passage. Also, the relationship between
subsidizing cleaner fuels and decreasing poverty is not established in the passage. So, this is not the most
rational inference.
Option (d) is incorrect as option (a) is incorrect.
37 (b)
‘478’ means ‘big rose tree ' ……….....…..(i)
'701’ means ‘small rose garden’ ……………(ii)
‘476' means ‘red rose tree’………….....(iii)
Comparing (i) and (iii), we get:
Code for ‘rose tree’ must be 4/7…….. (iv)
Using (iii) and (iv), we get:
6 means red.
38 (d)
Since in 4 minutes, tap X fills 3 buckets.
So, in 1 minute, tap X fills 3/4 bucket.
Also,
Since in 6 minutes, tap Y fills 5 buckets.
So, in 1 minute, tap Y fills 5/6 bucket.
Again,
Since in 10 minutes, tap Z fills 8 buckets.
So, in 1 minute, tap Z fills 8/10 bucket.
So, buckets filled in 1 minute
= 3/4 + 5/6 + 8/10
= 143/60 .
Since 1 bucket can hold 2 gallons of water.
So, 143/60 bucket can hold 2×143/60 = 286/60 gallons of water.
So, in 1 minute, total water discharge = 286/60 gallons.
Since the full tank fills in 1 hour (60 minutes),
So, the capacity of the tank = 286/60 × 60 = 286 gallons.
39 (c)
Let the sides of the equilateral triangle and the square be s and a respectively.
Area of equilateral triangle = (√3/4) s2
Area of square = a2
As per the question, (√3/4) s2 = a2
Or √3s2 = 4a2 ………(i)
Perimeter of the equilateral triangle = 3s
Perimeter of the square = 4a
(4a)2 = 16a2 = 16(√3/4)s2 = 4√3s2
Now, 4√3s2 < 4(2)s2 < 9s2
Or 4×4a2 < 4(2)s2 < 9s2 (Since, √3s2 = 4a2)
Or (4a)2 < (3s)2
∴ 4a < 3s
Thus, perimeter of the square is less than that of the equilateral triangle.
40 (c)
Let at present Ajay’s age = 4x years
Then, Sachin’s present age = 5x years
10 years ago:

Ajay’s age = 4x – 10 years
Sachin’s age = 5x – 10 years
(4x - 10)/(5x - 10) = 19/25
Or 100x – 250 = 95x – 190
Or 5x = 60
Or x = 12
Ajay’s present age = 4x = 48 years
Sachin’s present age = 5x = 60 years
Suresh’s present age = Ajay’s age + 12 = 48 +12 = 60 years
∴ Required average = (48 + 60 + 60)/3 = 56 years
41 (d)
Let, the number of chocolates with Anuj and Basant be x and y respectively.
Given, x + y = 50 and x2 + y2 = 1300
On solving, we get:
x = 20, y = 30
Or
x = 30, y = 20
The possible number of chocolates with Anuj and Basant, the rate at which they sell their chocolates and the
possible amounts they get are tabulated below.
A B A B
Number 20 30 30 20
Rate 5 6 5 6
Amount 100 180 150 120
Total amount 280 270
42 (a)
The password moves in a cyclic order
First letter becomes the last Letter
Second letter becomes the first letter
Third letter becomes the second letter
Fourth letter becomes the third letter
Fifth letter becomes the fourth letter
So, the correct password is WQTRE
43 (c)
Let x and y be the units and ten’s digits of the two digit number.
Given that; y > x, and
10x + y + 10y + x = 2[9(y - x)] + 2
Or 11x + 11y = 18y – 18x + 2
Or 29x = 7y + 2
We will check the different values of x and y which can satisfy the above equation.
Here, x = 2 and y = 8 is the only solution set that satisfies this equation.
So, Original number = yx = 82
44 (a)
From Statement 1:
The marked price of the article was 30% more than the cost price.
Marked Price (MP) = 130% of CP = 1.3CP
Discount% = 20%
So, Selling Price (SP) = (100 - 20)% of MP = 0.8MP
Or SP = (0.8) (1.3) CP = 1.04 CP
Profit = SP – CP = 1.04 CP – CP = 0.04CP
Thus, the article is sold at a profit.
So, statement 1 alone is sufficient.
From statement 2:
If the article had been sold at a discount of 40%, then there would have been a loss of Rs. 50.
Selling Price (SP) = (100 - 40)% of MP = 0.6MP
Loss = CP – SP
Or CP – 0.6MP = 50
Or CP = 50 + 0.6MP
However, if discount is 20%, then SP = 0.8 MP
Loss = CP – SP = 50 + 0.6MP - 0.8MP = 50 – 0.2MP
Profit = SP – CP = 0.8 MP – (50 + 0.6M) = 0.2MP – 50
Thus, we can’t say whether the selling price of an article is more than the cost price, or not.
So, statement 2 alone is not sufficient.
45 (b)
Ratio of honey and sugar syrup in the vessel after the first replacement = 9:1
When 1 liter of the mixture is taken out, remaining mixture will have 9/10th of 9 liter as honey.
Quantity of honey in the final mixture = 9 × (9/10) = 8.1 liters
Quantity of sugar syrup in the final mixture = 10 – 8.1 = 1.9 liters
Required ratio = 8.1 : 1.9 = 81 : 19
46 (c)
Salary of Ajay in 2021 = Salary of Anuj in 2021 = 24000 [1 - (20/100)] = Rs. 19200
Salary of Ajay in 2022 = 19200 [1 + (20/100)] = Rs. 23040
Total salary of Anuj in both the years = 19200 + 24000 = Rs. 43200
Total salary of Ajay in both the years = 19200 + 23040 = Rs. 42240
Thus, total salary of Ajay is (43200 – 42240) i.e. Rs. 960 less than that of Anuj.
∴ Required percentage = (960/43200) × 100 = (20/9)%
47 (b)
Average monthly income of Ananya for that year = [9(12000) + 3(16000)]/12 = Rs. 13000
48 (b)
Decadal Difference of Literacy (in terms of percentage point) of:
Kerala = 94 - 91 = 3
Lakshadweep = 92 – 87 = 5
Mizoram = 92 – 89 = 3
Goa = 87 – 82 = 5
Puducherry = 87 – 81 = 6
Chandigarh = 86 – 82 = 4
Delhi = 86 – 82 = 4
Puducherry has Decadal Difference of Literacy of 6. So none of the other States/Union Territories has a
Decadal Difference of literacy more than Puducherry.

49 (c)
The average of the Decadal Difference of Literacies (in terms of percentage point) of the above mentioned
States/Union Territories =(3+5+3+5+6+4+4)/7
=30/7
=4.28
50 (c)
Pipe A supplies water at 50 liters/hour.
Pipe B can fill the tank in 4 hours.
Pipe C can empty the tank in 12 hours.
So, portion of tank filled by pipe A in 1 hour = 1 – (1/4) + (1/12) = (5/6)th part
∴ Time taken by pipe A to fill the tank = 6/5 hours
So, Volume of the tank = (6/5) × 50 = 60 liters
51 (b)
Total number of ways of selecting 8 boys and 4 girls from 15 boys and 10 girls = 15C8 × 10C4.
The number of ways A and B are together = 14C7 × 9C3
Hence, they are never together in 15C8 × 10C4 – 14C7 × 9C3 ways
52 (c)
Total count of deaths in cities E, F and G = 1049 + 1055 + 1322 = 3426
Thus, in three cities, the total count of deaths is not greater than 3450.
Hence, option (a) is not correct.
The sum of the people injured in cities A and D = 11756 + 3912 = 15668
Thus, sum of the people injured in city A and D is not less than 15000.
Hence, option (b) is not correct.
By looking at the chart, we can conclude that cities D, E and F had less than 5000 accidents.
53 (c)
Total numbers of accidents = 11303 + 8111 + 6340 + 4390 + 4441 + 4997 + 6315 = 45897
Total number of injured people = 11756 + 3425 + 5383 + 3912 + 4744 + 4092 + 5440 = 38752
Required difference = 45897 – 38752 = 7145
54 (c)
The letter K is inside all the shapes.
Thus, letter K means lawyer, thief, artist and businessman.
55 (d)
Expense on transportation and decoration work = 12 + 15 = 27%
Expense on construction material and labour = 30 + 21 = 51%
∴ Required percentage = (27/51) × 100 = 52.94%
56 (d)
Speed of rowing in still water, x = 7.5 km/h.
Speed of water current, y = 1.5 km/h.
Speed downstream, u = x + y = 7.5 + 1.5 = 9 km/h.
Speed upstream, v = x – y = 7.5 – 1.5 = 6 km/h.
So, the average speed of rowing

sav = 2uv/(u+v)
= (2×9×6)/(9+6)
= (2×9×6)/15 km/h.
Time = 3 hours 20 minutes = 320/60 hours = 31/3 h = 10/3 h.
Distance = Average speed × Time = (2×9×6)/15 × 10/3 = 24 km.
But this distance is for both going from place A to place B and then coming back (from place B to place A).
So, the distance between place A and place B = 24/2 = 12 km.
57 (d)
Let the total number of students = n.
Number of students to the left of Raman = 6.
Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13.
Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4.
Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n
So, 3n/4 = 21
Or n = 28.
58 (b)
The arrangement of trees is somewhat as shown in the picture below:
The first row has n trees; second row has n-1 trees and so on till the last row which will have 1 tree.
So, total number of trees = n + (n-1) +(n-2) .... + 1 = n (n+1)/2
As given in the question, n(n+1)/2 = 55
So, n = 10
59 (d)
Inference 1 is incorrect: The passage is about smartphone addiction and the issues associated with it.
However, this option mentions the dopamine cycle and viral news which is not explicitly mentioned in the
passage. Even if we assume it to be true, it would be an extreme statement to say that they make it
“impossible” to break free from phone addiction.
Inference 2 is incorrect: The given inference seems to be based on the following lines “Social
relationships can suffer as individuals prioritize virtual connections over face-to-face interactions.” Here,
the passage mentions preferring virtual connections whereas the inference is about valuing full isolation
more than face-to-face interactions which is not correct because full isolation includes isolating digitally as
well
60 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The passage clearly states “…climate change-induced disruptions can lead to
conflicts over scarce resources.” The passage does not state that climate change is the only factor causing
conflicts over scarce resources. So, this assumption is incorrect.

Assumption 2 is incorrect: The passage does not contain any context of global organizations and
governments. Hence, this assumption is not based on the information contained in the passage.
61 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given assumption is based on the premise that with high population growth
there will be a large young population. However, to assume that such a young population would help reap
better dividend would not be correct, because the demographic dividend is not only based on a large young
population, it needs adequate skills and employment. So, this assumption is not correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The given assumption is based on the following lines “The services sector,
including technology and finance, is likely to witness heightened demand globally, driven by an expanding
middle class.” However, these lines mean that the service sector expands due to the increasing middle class
and not vice versa, as stated in this assumption statement. So, this assumption is not valid.
Explanation for question 62 and 63:

Let us represent the data in the form of a table.
M and S are good in subjects 2 and 3. A and M are good in subjects 3 and 1.
Student Good in Subject
M 2, 3, 1
S 2, 3
A 3, 1
A, P and N are good in subjects 1 and 5. N and A are good in subjects 1 and 4. P and S are good in subjects
5 and 2.
Student Good in Subject
M 2, 3, 1
S 2, 3, 5
A 3, 1, 5, 4
P 1, 5, 2
N 1, 5, 4
62 (d)
N is good in 1, 4 and 5 but not 3.
63 (a)
A is good in 5, 1, 3 and 4.
64 (d)
Let x (Rs) be the fixed cost and y (Rs/guest), the variable cost.
Then,
x + 50y = 50000 ……………(І) and
x + 100y = 80000 ……………(ІІ).
From (І) and (ІІ), we get,
y = 600 and x = 20000.
Now let the average expense of 200 guests be Rs ‘z’,
Since the variable cost of the guest house is linearly related to the number of guests
Therefore, 200 × z = x + 200y = 20000 + 600×200
or z = Rs 700

65 (d)
Given figure:
The rectangles in the given figure: BCFH, BDFG, DCIJ, IJGH, DCGH
So, there are 5 rectangles.
The triangles in the given figure: BDF, FDG, DIC, ICJ, IJH, IHG, ICH, ABD, ADE, AEC, ABE, ADC,
ABC, ABF, AFH
So, there are 15 triangles.
Their product = 5 × 15 = 75
Their sum = 5 + 15 = 20
66 (c)
Given matrix:
Column C1 C2 C3
Row
R1 LX GT DK
R2 IR TV KP
R3 XU ? NM
Let’s consider R1C1,
In the term ‘LX’, the product of the alphabetical position of L (12) and reverse alphabetical position of X
(3) = 12 × 3 = 36 = (6)2.
Applying a similar pattern in the whole matrix, we get:
LX GT DK
36 49 64
IR TV KP
81 100 121
XU ? NM
144 169 196
R1C2 = GT = alphabetical value of G × reverse alphabetical value of T = 7×7 = 72
R1C3 = DK = alphabetical value of D × reverse alphabetical value of K = 4×16 = 82
R2C1 = IR = alphabetical value of I × reverse alphabetical value of R = 9×9 = 92
R2C2 = TV = alphabetical value of T × reverse alphabetical value of V = 20×5 = 102
R2C3 = KP = alphabetical value of K × reverse alphabetical value of P = 11×11 = 112
R3C1 = XU = alphabetical value of X × reverse alphabetical value of U = 24×6 = 122
R3C2 = 169 = 13×13 = alphabetical position of M × reverse alphabetical position of N = MN
R3C3 = NM = alphabetical value of N × reverse alphabetical value of M = 14×14 = 142
Hence, required term is ‘MN’.

67 (d)
Each of the nine hamlets is along the bank of a river and the distance between two adjacent hamlets is 1 km.
So, it is clear that all the hamlets lie along the same line.
P is 4 km east from L and T is 4 km east from P. Thus, L and T are at the two ends and P is the middle
hamlet.
Thus, the nine hamlets lie on the bank of the river as shown in the picture below:
N is 3 km from T. So, N has to come in the position as shown in the above picture.
Distance between L and N = Distance between L and P + Distance between P and N
= 4km + 1 km = 5 km.
68 (a)
Percentage strength of the acid in the mixture = (Quantity (volume) of the acid in the mixture )/(Total
volume)× 100
= ( (5×20/100+7.5×80/100)/(5+7.5))×100 = (5×20+7.5×80)/(5+7.5) = 56%
69 (c)
Let the marks scored in five subjects be 4x, 5x, 6x, 7x and 8x (on a scale of 100).
Average score = 60% = 60 marks
So, (4x+5x+6x+7x+8x)/5=60
or x = 10.
So, the marks obtained are 40, 50, 60, 70 and 80.
Hence the number of papers in which he got at least 70% marks = 2 (70 & 80).
70 (c)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage is not about the patience for achieving success. It shows two sides of
life in various scenarios like “…every peak is preceded by a valley” and “Every triumph bears the silent
scars of past.” So, this option does not reflect the logical inference from the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: This option is about perseverance and wisdom, but the passage just shows two
different sides in various aspects of life. So, this is not the best inference from the passage.
Option (c) is correct: The given passage discusses the two sides of life in different conditions like “Every
triumph bears the silent scars of past challenges, and every setback carries the potential for growth and
resilience. Understanding life allows for a holistic perspective, encouraging an embrace of both light and
shadow.” These lines show that life is a coin wherein success and failure are two sides of the same coin. So,
this option is the most logical inference.
Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not mention knowledge as the ultimate objective of life.
Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
71 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage shows how leadership is helpful in handling wars. However, this
option states the other way round - war as essential to learn leadership qualities, which is not correct. So,
Option (b) is correct: The given passage is about leadership and how it helps in handling war scenarios.
Leadership can be inherent or learned through training. The idea that such a unique blend of leadership is
helpful in handling wars is visible in the lines “While innate traits like resilience and adaptability
contribute, structured training cultivates the skills needed to navigate the complexities of warfare.”
Hence, this option best reflects the crux of the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage is about learning/ acquiring leadership skills for wars. The line
“…structured training cultivates the skills needed to navigate the complexities of warfare” suggests that
training could be imparted externally. Therefore, it would be incorrect to say that leadership can ‘only’ be
self-acquired; it can also be externally taught. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option compares the two kinds of leaderships which is not discussed in
the passage. The main theme of the passage is not the comparison of war-experienced leadership and the
leadership acquired through training. So, this is not the best crux of the passage.
72 (d)
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage is on the clashes between India’s food security concerns and WTO
norms. The given option means that India does not adhere to international trade norms, which is not
reflected in the passage. Also, reforming agricultural laws and policies is not the core idea of the passage.
Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option is extreme and is not based on the passage. The passage shows
the concerns that India faces in food security by following WTO norms. The author nowhere hints towards
leaving WTO. The main theme of the passage is that it is difficult to balance both aspects. So, this is not the
correct option.
Option (c) is incorrect: Whether WTO norms are discriminatory is not mentioned in the passage. Also,
how those discriminatory norms restrict India’s commitment to food security is not mentioned in the
passage. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is, therefore, incorrect.
Option (d) is correct: The central theme of the passage is the challenges India faces in ensuring food
security in the backdrop of WTO norms. This is reflected in the lines “However, the clash between India's
domestic support programs and WTO norms creates tension. The need to uplift millions from poverty and
hunger clashes with the demands of international trade agreements.” This option captures this theme
comprehensively.
73 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: The context of developed and developing countries is nowhere mentioned in the
passage. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not the most rational inference.
Option (b) is correct: The main issue in fighting climate change as per the passage is funding as seen in the
lines “Implementing measures to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, transition to renewable energy
sources, and enhancing climate resilience necessitate financial investments” and “Ultimately, viewing the
costs of climate action as an investment in a sustainable and resilient future underscores the importance
of proactive measures.” Therefore, we can infer that when cost is central to fighting climate change, then
without funding and proactive measures, almost everyone will face the brunt of climate change. These
arguments are aptly captured in this answer option.
Option (c) is incorrect: The main theme of the passage is the core issue of funding which is essential to
fighting climate change. Mitigation and adaptation measures are only a part of the passage and not the
central theme of the passage. So, this option is not at all the most rational inference.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is quite broad, generic, vague and not quite specific to the
information contained in the passage. The passage primarily discusses the issues of funding in every aspect
of fighting climate change. This is not captured in this answer option. So, this option is not the most rational
74 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect: The passage mainly focuses on exports and their importance for economic
growth. However, it does not mean that every country must necessarily have an open economy. So, the
assumption that no country can have a closed economy is not correct because the passage does not imply
this anywhere.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: It may be possible for an economy grow even when businesses do not compete
internationally. Also, the issue of “tariff protection” has not been discussed in the passage. Therefore, this

75 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The given option is based on the lines “The positive correlation between exports and
economic growth is evident through various channels. Exports boost a nation's income by generating
revenue from foreign markets. This influx of funds can be utilized for domestic investment, infrastructure
development, and social programs, all of which contribute to economic advancement.” These lines explain
that exports are crucial for the economic development of a country and are crucial for overall prosperity.
Hence, this option best captures the crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage is specific to exports and does not mention other ways of economic
growth and social prosperity. So, the conclusion that exports alone are insufficient is not based on the
information provided in the passage. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Option (c) is incorrect: The context of imports is not discussed in the passage. The relative amount of
exports and imports, and their impact on economic growth is not discussed in the passage. So, this is not the
Option (d) is incorrect: The context of India is not discussed in the passage. The author talks about the
role of exports in overall economic growth, without specifically mentioning any particular country.
Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
76 (b)
Given matrix:
C1 C2 C3
R1 28 42 48
R2 12 14 15
R3 4 ? 6
R4 84 98 120
In C1,
84 ÷ 12 = 7: 7 × 4 = 28
Similarly, in C3,
120 ÷ 15 = 8; 8 × 6 = 48
Applying the same pattern in C2,
98 ÷ 14 = 7; 7 × 6 = 42
So, ? = 6
77 (b)
At least two matches have to be held in Tier I cities. It is given that B is rejected. So, A and C have to be
selected as venues.
We know that Y is selected as a venue.
Direct link between W and Y is damaged. So W cannot be selected as venue.
C and Z are not connected directly. So, Z cannot be selected as venue.
So, from Tier II cities, X and Y can be selected as venues.
Thus, the possible selections are A, C, X and Y.
78 (c)
This question can be solved by using the options:
Option (a) → A, B, C and W. → B and W are not connected directly. Thus, this combinations is not
possible.
Option (b) → A, B, C and Z → C and Z are not connected directly. Thus, this combinations is not possible.
Option (c) → A, B, C and X → This combination is possible.
Option (d) → A, W, Y and Z → The direct road between W and Y has been damaged due to floods. Thus,
this combinations is not possible. Also, atleast two tier I cities must be selected.

79 (b)
If A, B and C are selected as venues then W and Z cannot be selected as venues because Cities B & W and
C & Z are not directly connected to each other.
Thus, either city X or Y can be selected as the fourth venue.
So, there are two possible options which are as follows:
1. A, B, C and X
2. A, B, C and Y
80 (d)
Path of Rohit can be represented as follows:
In triangle PQR, PQ can be calculated as follows:

PQ² = 6² + 8²
or PQ = √(6² + 8²) = 10 km

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