MSU-TCTO SASE REVIEWER

MATHEMATICS
ALGEBRA

Direction: Select the correct answer for each item.

−4
1. The additive inverse of is
5
−5 4 5 d. 4 e. 5
a. b. c.
4 5 4
0
2. =
25
a. 0 b. 25 c. undefined d. indeterminate e. All of the above
3. The third term in the expansion of (x + 2y)5 is
a. 10x3y2 b. 4x3y2 c. 40x3y2 d. 14x3y2 e. 35x3y2
4 2 2
4. If x + 3x – 5x + 2 is divided by x – 1, the degree of the reminder is:
a. -1 b. -2 c. 2 d. 0 e. 1
5. The first step in solving for x in the equation 3x – 5 = 4 is to
a. add 5 to both sides of the equation
b. add -5 to both sides of the equation
c. divide both sides of the equation by 3
d. divide both sides of the equation by -
3
4
e. divide both sides of the equation by
5
 2x+1
6. If x = 0 in y = , then y =
x−3
3 −2 2 1 −1
a. b. c. d. e.
2 3 3 3 3
2
7. If ax + bx + c = 0, a,b c ϵIR and ≠ 0, then x =
2 2 √b2 −4ac
b ± √b −4ac –b ± √b −4ac
a. b. c. -b ±
2a 2a 2a
2 2
−b+ √b −4ac −b− √b −4ac
d. e.
2a 2a
8. Find three consecutive even integers whose sum is 138.
a. 44, 46, 48 b. 40, 46, 48 c. 42, 46, 48 d. 43, 46, 49 e. 42, 46, 50
9. Find the value of x and y that make the equations x – 2y = 2 and x + y = 5 both true.
a. x= -4, y = 1 b. x= 4, y = -1 c. x= 3, y = 2 d. x= 4, y = 1 e. x= 1, y = 4
10. [(-5) + (-9)][(-3) + 5]=
a. -7 b. -14 c. 28 d. -27 e. -28
8(−9) −4+34
11. + (−7)+(−3)
7−16
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25
12. If x = -1, y = 4, z = -3, then (x + y)(y - z) =
a. 3 b. -3 c. 10 d. -21 e. 21
13. (5x2 – 4x) + (2x – 9x2) =
a. 7x – 13x2 b. -4x2 – 2x c. -2x2 – 4x d. x – 7x2 e. 4x2 – 2x
3
14. One factor of x – 27 is x – 3, the other factor is
a. x2 – 9 b. x2 + 9 c. x2 + 3x + 9 d. x2 – 3x + 9 e. x2 + 3x – 9
15. -3xy(2x - y)2 equals
a. -6x2y + b. -12x3y + 3xy3 c.-12x3y + 12x2y2 – 3xy3 d.-3x3y – 3xy3 e. 12x3y – 12x2y2 + 3xy3
2
3xy
16. If 2 – 3(x + 1) = x + 7, then x equals
a. -1 b. -2 −1 1 e. 2
c. d.
2 2
17. 24 + (-2)4 equals
a. 0 b. 16 c. 32 d. -32 e. 64
18. √4𝑥 - √16𝑥 =
a. -√12𝑥 b. –√𝑥 c. -2√𝑥 d. -2x e. -12√𝑥
19. If 6a – 2(3 – 8a) = 16, then a =
a. -1 b. 1 c. -11 d. 11 e. 0
2
20. One pair of values of x and y that make both the equations y = x – 3x and y = 2x true is
a. (1,1) b. (0, 5) c. (-1, -1) d. (1, -1) e. (-1, 1)

MATHEMATICS
ARITHMETIC No. 1
1. If a = 4, b = 5, and c = 8, then 3a +2b – c has a value of _____.
a. 11 b. 12 c. 13 d. 14
2. What is the result when the sum of [ 5 + (-7) ] is subtracted from the difference of [ -19 - (-8) ] ?
a. 9 b. -9 c. 13 d. -13

3. (1/3) x (27/8) x (16/9) equals ____.

a. 4 b. 9 c. 2 d. 3

4. 24 is ¾ of what a number?
a. 18 b. 24 ¾ c. 28 d. 32
5. Which fraction has the least value?
a. 8/15 b. ¾ c. 6/13 d. ½

6. ( 9 x 0.9 ) + 0.9 =
a. 0.9 b. 8.1 c. 9.0 d. 9.9
7. If x is an odd integer, which of the following must also be an odd integer?
a. X + 1 b. 2X c. X – 1 d. X + 4
 8 (11−2 )−5 ( 11−2 )
8. =
3
a. 9 b. 11 c. 3 d. 1
9. Simplify: 35 ÷ 7 + 8 x 42
a. 208 b. 69 c. 156 d. 133

( 0.2 )( 0.05 ) (0.25 )

10. ( 0.01 )(0.5)
=
a. 0.005 b. 0.5 c. 5.0 d. 500

11. A bridge is being built to span ¾ km; 3/8 km has been completed so far. What part of the bridge has not yet been
completed?
a. 3/8 b. 1/3 c. ½ d. 2/3

12. A taxi charge P 10.00 for the first 1/5 km and P 2.50 for each additional 1/5 km or part thereof. For P 92.50, what is
the distance you can travel on this taxi?
a. 5 3/5 km b. 6 km c. 6 4/5 km d. 6 1/5 km

13. i6 + i8 – i14 =
a. 1 b. -1 c. i d. 0
14. The product of the gcf and lcm of 18, 45, and 99
a. 9 b. 90 c. 990 d. 8910

15. Alfred wants to invest Php 4,000 at 6% simple interest rate for 5 years. How much interest will he receive?
a. Php1,200 b. Php 480 c. Php 720 d. Php 960
16. Divide 240 into three parts to form a ratio 3 : 4 : 5 .
a. 30 : 40 : 50 b. 60 : 80 : 100 c. 120 : 160 : 200 d. 100 : 80 : 60

17. 10, 000 + (3 x 102 ) =

a. 4, 000 b. 10, 003 c. 10, 030 d. 10, 300
18. Which of the following is the greatest?
a. 0.1 b. 0.11 c. 0.0111 d. 0.098
19. 3/7 in decimal form rounded to the nearest hundredth is
a. 0.04 b. 0.42 c. 0.43 d. 0.44

20. Max’s Company requires him to record the exact time when he starts and ends each repair job. On one job, he
worked from 10:50 AM to 11:26 AM. What fraction of an hour did he spend on the repair?
a. 1/36
b. 1/10
c. 3/5
d. 5/8
 MATHEMATICS
ARITHMETIC No.2
Select the best answer for each and encircle the appropriate letter in the choices.

1. Find the fraction halfway between 5/8 and 5/6.

a.5/7 b.35/48 c.5/8 d.15/22
2. Expressed as a ratio, the scale of a map is 1:2,000. How many centimeters represent 1 km on the map?
a.30 cm b.40 cm c.50 cm d.60 cm
3. Express 3 inches as a percentage of 15 yards.
5 5
a. % b.20 % c.720 % d. %
9 3
4. Given y = 𝑥 2 . If x is decreased by 30 %, what is the corresponding percentage change in y?
a.34 % b.41 % c.51 % d.64 %

1 2 5
𝟓. + is equal to of what number?
4 3 6
11 10 11 12
a. b. c. d.
10 11 12 11
𝑠2
6. If a square has side s and a diagonal of length d, then = ___________.
𝑑2
1 3 1 2
a. b. c. d.
4 2 2 3

7. If xy= x + y, then y cannot be ______________.

a. -2 b. -1 c. 0 d. 1
1 2
8. 6 is to 1 as 20 is____________.
4 3
1 2
a. 5 b. 3 c. 4 d. 4
3 3
9. How many fifths are there in 3 ½?
a. 16 b. 16 ½ c. 17 d. 17 ½
2
10. 22 % in fractional form is
9
a. 2/9 b. ½ c. 11/50 d. 8/9
3
11. 9 is th of what number?
5
a. 35 b. 28 c. 25 d. 15
1 1 1
12. − = . if x=4 and y = 5, what is z?
𝑥 𝑦 𝑧
a. 20 b. 30 c. 60 d. 80
13. Which of the following is not the product of two consecutive even numbers?
a. 8 b. 120 c. 168 d. 400

14. For two positive integers x and y and with x > y, which of the following is not true?
1 1
a. x + y > 0 b. x – y > 0 c. –x < -y d. >
𝑥 𝑦
15. Which of the following is not the sum of three consecutive integers?
a. 21 b. 24 c. 64 d. 18

16. The clock reads 5: 00 pm. How many degrees are the minute hand and hour hand separated?
a. 50 b. 150 c. 25 d.120

3 3 2 1
17. From × subtract ×
4 5 5 4
3 7 9 2
a. b. c. d.
20 20 20 5

18. What is F if H= 1.2 in the formula 2F-15=3H?

a. 1.8 b. 9.3 c. 12.5 d. 6.4

27
19. One-fifth a number, raised to the third power, gives . What is the number?
125
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
1 2
20. Out of 36 employees are male. of male employees are married. How many married male employees are there?
4 3
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 11
 MATHEMATICS
ARITHMETIC No.3
Select the best answer for each and encircle the appropriate letter in the choices.

1. In a class of 30 students, there are 20 boys. What is the ratio of boys to girls?
a. 1:2 b. 2:1 c. 2:3 d. 3:2
2. If 2 inches of snow falls in 5 hours, how many inches will fall in 9 hours, if the snow continues to fall at the same rate?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

3. If eight men can finish a job in 6 hours, how many hours will it take 12 men to finish the same job?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
4. The three angles of a triangle are 4:5:6 find the measure of each angle.
a. 18, 60, 66 b. 28, 16, 96 c. 48, 60, 72 d. 48, 36, 96

5. A book sold for $18.00 after a 10 percent discount was taken off the list price. What was the list price?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40
6. A company pays a salesman a commission of 16 2/3 percent and has $24,000 left in the proceeds. What was the value
of the sales before the commission was deducted?
a. 28, 800 b. 18, 600 c. 24, 400 d. 26, 200

7. A radio sales for $230. If this price represents a profit of 15 percent of the cost for the seller, how much did he buy for it?
a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 400
8. If the temperature rises from 72o to 90o , what is the percent of the increase?
a. 10 % b. 20 % c. 15 % d. 25 %

9. The house rent of Php 20, 000 increased by 15% this year. What is the present rent of the house?
a. Php 23, 000 b. Php 32, 000 c. Php 13, 000 d. Php 31, 000
10. After a 25% increase, the population is 48, 000. What was the population before the increase?
a. 38, 400 b. 83, 400 c. 43, 800 d. 34, 800

11. The average of Mohammad’s five exams is 91. What must he get in the sixth exam to pull his average to 92?
a. 96 b. 97 c. 98 d. 99
12. Two numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 8. If 16 is added to each number, the ratio becomes 7 : 12. What is the larger of
the original numbers?
a. 12 b. 13 c. 32 d. 36
13. The number of production employees this week fell to 1330 people from 1400 people last week. Find the percent of
decrease.
a. 4% b. 5% c. 6% d. 7%
14. The average of 10 boys is 88. The average of the first 7 boys is 85. What is the average of the other three boys?
a. 92 b. 93 c. 94 d. 95
15. Abdulmalik purchased an item which was sold at 20% discount. He paid P180 for the item. How much was the
original price of the item?
a. P200 b. P225 c.P360 d. P900
16. The ratio of two numbers is 7:5, and their difference is 18. Find the smaller number.
a. 35 b. 40 c. 45 d. 55
17. A truck travels 180 km at a speed of 65 kph and makes the return trip along the same route at a speed of 85 kph.
What is the average speed in kph of the truck?
a. 62 b. 64 c. 68 d. 75
18. A refrigerator was sold for P2, 730, yielding a 30% profit on the cost. For how much should it be sold to yield only a
15% percent profit on the cost?
a. P2, 515 b. P2, 415 c.P2, 315 d. P2, 615
19. The net price of a P50 – item after successive discounts of 10% and 20% is
a. P20.00 b. P26.00 c. P36.00 d. P40.00
20. If 21 cans of food are needed to feed seven men for three days, the number of cans for five men for seven days is
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 35
ANSWER KEY ARITHMETIC No.1:
1. D 5. C 9. D 13. A 17. D
2. B 6. C 10. B 14. D 18. B
3. C 7. D 11. C 15. A 19. C
4. D 8. A 12. C 16. B 20. C

ANSWER KEY ARITHMETIC No.2:

1. B 5. A 9. D 13. D 17. B
2. C 6. C 10. A 14. D 18. B
3. A 7. D 11. D 15. C 19. C
4. C 8. A 12. A 16. B 20. A

ANSWER KEY ARITHMETIC No.3:

1. B 5. A 9. D 13. D 17. B
2. C 6. C 10. A 14. D 18. B
3. A 7. D 11. D 15. C 19. C
4. C 8. A 12. A 16. B 20. A

ANSWER KEY ALGEBRA No.1:

1. B 5. A 9. D 13. B 17. C
2. A 6. E 10. E 14. C 18. C
3. C 7. B 11. A 15. C 19. B
4. E 8. A 12. E 16. B 20. D
 MSU SASE REVIEWER

GENERAL SCIENCE

Direction: Choose the correct answer from the given choices.

1. Which of the following may stimulate the growth of the roots in plant cuttings?
a. The use of auxins c. a decrease in soil minerals
b. A decrease in enzymes d. the use of endocrine secretions
2. Which of the following is the function of the cotyledon in a seed?
a. To form the lower portion of the plant c. To protect the seed from drying out
b. To form the upper portion of the plant d. To provide nutrients for the germinating plant
3. An embryo begins to develop from a zygote as a direct result of
a. Fermentation b. budding c. sporulation d. cleavage
4. Enzymes are proteins that catalyze a particular biochemical reaction involving specific substrate molecules.
Enzyme activity is affected by pH, that is
a. pH has no effect on enzyme activity.
b. All enzymes work at any pH
c. Each enzyme works at different optimum level.
d. Enzymes works at a higher pH when the temperature is higher and at a lower pH when the temperature is lower.
5. Two different forms of the same gene and are located on homologous chromosomes.
a. Chromatids b. Genes c. Alleles d. DNA
6. It is considered as the most primitive kingdom.
a. Fungi b. Monera c. Animals d. Plants
7. The reason why gases diffuse faster than liquids is that gas molecules are
a. More free to move than liquid molecules. c. Lighter than liquid molecules.
b. More comprehensible than liquid molecules. d. More elastic than liquid molecules.
8. Smoke particles are examined under a microscope, and were observed to be moving randomly. This movement is due to
a. Air currents blowing on the smoke particles. c. The force of attraction between the smoke particles.
b. Air molecules bumping into smoke particles. d. Smoke particles reacting with oxygen in the air.
9. Solids do not diffuse like gases because the particles of a solid
a. Stationary. c. are too heavy to move.
b. Are too close to move. d. cannot move around each other.
10. A chemical reaction occurs when
a. Salt solution is heated c. Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to magnesium ribbon.
b. Crude oil is distilled d. An electric current passes through an electric wire.
11. It is the separation of a liquid into different substances with different boiling points.
a. Distillation b. Filtration c. Chromatography d. Evaporation
12. Which of the following is a physical property of sugar?
a. Its composition is hydrogen, oxygen and carbon. c. It is a white crystalline solid.
b. It can be decomposed with heat. d. It turns black with concentrated H2SO4.
13. When water changes into steam, the molecules become
a. separate atoms. b. more widely spaced. c. much larger. d. less in mass.
14. When ice changes from a solid to a liquid at its melting point
a. Its temperature increases. c. Its particles gain energy.
b. Heat is given out. d. Its particles become more ordered.
15. Fine pollen grains in the surface of water are examined under a microscope. It is observed that the pollen grains
are in random motion and frequently changing direction. The movement is most likely due to the
a. Movement of air across the water.
b. Chemical reaction between the pollen and the water.
c. Collisions between water molecules and pollen grains.
d. Attraction and repulsion between charged particles.
16. Alleles are genes which
a. Are linked to only one chromosome.
b. Occupy corresponding positions on homologous chromosomes.
c. Are sex-linked and are transmitted from fathers to their daughters.
d. Are always sex-linked and are transmitted from mother to their sons.
17. Phenotype maybe defined as
a. Genetic makeup of an individual. c. Visible expression of genotype.
b. Hidden traits of an individual. d. Unrelated characteristics.
18. Different organisms have different numbers of chromosomes. Kangaroos have 12 chromosomes in each body
cell. This means that the number of chromosomes in each egg cell of a kangaroo is
a. 6 b. 12 c. 18 d. 24
19. Which of the statements following is true?
a. DNA is made up of genes and contains chromosomes.
b. Chromosomes are made of DNA and contain genes.
c. Genes are made of DNA and contain chromosomes.
d. Genes are made of chromosomes and contain DNA.
20. All living things are made up of cells. Different cells and organs are adapted for their different roles in life
processes. All living cells contain a nucleus, cytoplasm, and a cell membrane. In addition to these, plant cells
also have a cell wall, chloroplasts and a vacuole. Which part of a cell contains the mitochondria?
a. Nucleus b. Cytoplasm c. Cell membrane d. Cell wall
21. The part of a plant cell that stores water, sugar and minerals.
a. Nucleus b. Vacuole c. Chloroplast d. Cell wall
22. Photosynthesis is the process of converting light energy and inorganic compounds to chemical energy and
organic compounds. This is the way the plants make their own food. It happens mainly in the palisade cells of
leaves, and is a complex chemical reaction requiring energy from light. Photosynthesis
a. uses up oxygen. c. takes place only in darkness
b. is not important to animals. d. is essential to all life on earth.
23. Plants need carbon dioxide, water, light and chlorophyll in order to make starch by photosynthesis. Carbon
dioxide enters plants through holes in the leaves called
a. Air spaces. b. stomata. c. cuticles. d. chloroplasts.
24. Our diet must include three types of food: energy foods, body-building foods and maintenance foods. The main
energy foods are carbohydrates and
a. Fats b. proteins c. vitamins d. minerals
25. Vitamins help to control chemical reactions in our bodies. Without vitamins certain reactions cannot take place.
We need only tiny amounts of vitamins, but without them we will suffer from deficiency diseases, like the lack
of vitamin D will lead to
a. Beriberi b. rickets c. scurvy d. night blindness
26. The heart pumps blood around the body through a system of tubes called blood vessels. Which blood vessels
carry blood back to the heart?
a. Arteries b. capillaries c. veins d. cartilage
27. What is the function of the white blood cells?
a. To carry nerve impulses to the brain c. To transport oxygen to the cells
b. To produce hormones to clot the blood d. To destroy bacteria in the body
28. What is the function of the excretory system?
a. To get rid of undigested food from the body c. To take in oxygen and transport it to the cells
b. To remove harmful waste produced by the body d. To control all the organs of the body
29. In a species of pea plant, white flowers were completely dominant over red flowers. Pure-breeding, white-
flowered pea plants are crossed with pure breeding, red-flowered pea plants. What proportion of white- and
red-colored plants will be produced in theF1 generation?
a. All white-flowered plants c. A 3:1 ratio of white-flowered plants to red-flowered plants
b. All red-flowered plants d. A 3:1 ratio of red-flowered plants to white-flowered plants
30. Of the following parts of a cell, which one is the smallest in size?
a. Amino acid b. Chromosome c. gene d. nucleu
 ANSWER KEY GENERAL SCIENCE

1. A
2. D
3. D
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. A
19. B
20. B
21. B
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. B
26. C
27. D
28. B
29. A
30. A
 SCIENCE
BIOLOGY
1. The most abundant substance in the protoplasm is _______.
a. Fat b. protein c. carbohydrate d. water

2. The site of the majority of photosynthesis in a leaf is the _____.

a. Spongy layer b. cuticle c. epidermis d. palisade layer

3. Which of the following statements is illustrated by the graph beside?

a. As the temperature is lowered, the rate of activity of enzymes decreases. As the temperature is raised, their
activity increases, until a maximum is reached at about 40 oC.
b. As the temperature is raised, the rate of activity of enzymes decreases. As the temperature is lowered, their
activity increases until a maximum is reached at about 40 oC.
c. As the temperature is lowered, the rate of activity of enzymes increases. As the temperature is raised, their
activity decreases, until a maximum is reached at about 40 oC.s
d. The level of activity of enzymes remains constant even if temperature changes. Likewise, temperature
remains constant even if the level of activity increases.

4. Muscle may be controlled or may work without conscious thought. The muscle type(s) considered involuntary is
(are) ______.
a. Smooth b. skeletal c. skeletal and cardiac d. cardiac and smooth

5. Meiosis differs from mitosis in that ______.

a. Meiosis produces 4 daughter cells, while mitosis produces only 2 daughter cells.
b. The chromosome number remains the same in meiosis, but is halved during mitosis.
c. Meiosis produces identical daughter cells, but mitosis produces daughter cells that are genetically different.
d. Meiosis occurs in somatic cells, while mitosis occurs in sex cells.

6. A root may perform all of the following functions except _______.

a. Anchorage b. absorption of water c. photosynthesis d. storage

7. Which of the following is an example of a biotic factor that will determine which animals or plants inhabit an
environment?
a. The acidity of a lake near a factory.
b. The high daytime temperatures and low night time temperature
c. Berry plants growing in abundance at the edge of a forest
d. The amount of oxygen present in the water or a pond.

8. Which of the following is the best description of the pyramid of energy?

a. The base of the pyramid consists of producers which supply the most energy
b. The base of the pyramid consists of the highest consumers who need the most energy
c. The top of the pyramid consists of the producers which supply the most energy
d. The top of the pyramid consists of the highest consumers who need the most energy

9. The breathing rate is increased by an increase in the content of ________.

a. Oxygen b. nitrogen c. CO2 d. H2O (vapor)
10. That evolution has occurred is now generally accepted as a doctrine rather than a theory because
a. There is ample evidence that species have changed over the year
b. Darwin received a posthumous Nobel Prize for his book on natural selection
c. Uranium-lead studies have traced the history of the horse
d. It is now certain that the earth is at least 4B years old.

11. Of the following terms, which one includes the others?

a. Class b. order c. phylum d. family
12. A protozoan causes the disease malaria in a human host. This relationship illustrates
a. Mutualism b. Commensalism c. Parasitism d. Predation
13. Viruses are not considered free-living because
 a. Their cells lack cytoplasm.
b. Their cells contain DNA.
c. They are too small to be seen by light microscopy.
d. They cannot reproduce outside a living cell

14. Some organisms living in a garden include dragonflies, bugs, roses, grasshoppers, grasses, worms, and spiders.
Collectively, these organisms represent a __________.
a. Biome b. Community c. Habitat d. Population

15. Green algae are able to manufacture their own food because _________.
a. They live in water.
b. They attach themselves to plants.
c. They have chlorophyll.
d. They are the most immediate relatives of green plants.

16. All of the following are examples of a reflex except __________.

a. Sneezing b. Blinking c. Coughing d. Reading

17. Which of the following is a disease caused by bacteria?

a. Polio b. Smallpox c. Rabies d. Tetanus

18. The greenhouse effect is caused by the increase in the _____.

a. Number of green houses c. Amount of CO2 in the air
b. Number of green plants worldwide d. Amount of O2 in the atmosphere

19. In binomial nomenclature scheme, only ______ and ______ are used to name an organism.
a. Genus and Species c. class and order
b. Kingdom and phylum d. family ad genus

20. Any biological agent that causes disease is called _____.

a. Host b. bacteria c. pathogen d. mushroom

21. Which bacteria is globular-shaped?

a. Bacillus b. coccus c. spirochetes d. AOT

22. Water is transported from the roots to the leaves by _____.

a. Phloem b. xylem c. sieve tubes d. bark

23. It refers to the arrangement of the veins in the leaf.

a. Venation b. Coloration c. Separation d. Adaptation

24. Trees that lose all their leaves at the end of a growing season in temperature regions are called _____.
a. Savannah b. Tundra c. Coniferous d. Deciduous
25. The growth of plants toward light is called
a. Hydrotropism b. geotropism c. Phototropism d. Negative tropism

26. Fluke: Class Trematoda :: Tapeworm: Class _____.

a. Cestoda b. Nematoda c. Annelida d. Rotifera

27. The process of shedding exoskeleton is called ______.

a. Melting b. Chitin c. Molting d. Metamorphosis

28. _______ is a term used to describe methods of introducing new genes into an organism.
a. Genetic eng’r b. recombinant DNA c. Hybridization d. Genetics

29. _______ is the process of bone formation.

a. Oogenesis b. ossification c. peristalsis d. Phagoaxtosis

30. An excretory organ that filters the waste from the blood.
a. Kidney b. Liver c. Stomach d. Intestine
ANSWERS FOR BIOLOGY

1. D → in various living things, water makes up from 65% to 90% of the protoplasm.
2. D → The palisade layer has cells that are packed together and serves for most photosynthesis. The spongy layer
is a site for gas exchange. The cuticle and epidermis are for protection.
3. A → Most enzymes function best at body temperature.
4. D → Both smooth and cardiac are not controlled by thought but by autonomic system. Skeletal muscles are
attached to the bones and are controlled by an individual consciously.
5. A → Meiosis produces 4 daughter cells each with half of the original chromosome number. Meiosis occurs only
in sex cells, producing sperm and eggs, and since the chromosome number is half the parent cell, these cells are
genetically different from the original parent cell.
6. C → A root does not contain chlorophyll and so is unable to carry on photosynthesis.
7. C → The only biotic or living factor among the choices is option 3. The others are abiotic factors affecting the
ability of an organism to inhabit the area. Birds and small mammals feeding on berries will most likely thrive in
areas teeming with berry plants.
8. A → The base consists of the producers that supply the most energy. As one moves up the pyramid, energy is
lost. Found at the top are the highest consumers who have lost energy from the pyramid in the form of heat and
unavailable chemical energy.
9. C → An increased in the amount of CO2 in the blood stimulates the cells of the medulla to send impulses to the
diaphragm and the rib muscles, causing them to contract and expand more rapidly. The breathing rate then
increases.
10. A → The doctrine refers to a theory based on carefully worked out principles and taught or advocated by its
adherents. Evolution is now a doctrine because evidence from various fields has convinced its adherents of its
validity. Some of these fields are paleontology, heredity, embryology, and physiology.
11. C → In the system of classification, of the groups (taxons) mentioned the largest is the phylum, followed by class,
order, family. KPCOFGS
12. C → Parasitism is a symbiotic association of two kinds or organisms in which the parasite is benefited while the
host is usually harmed.
13. D → Viruses are not considered free-living since they cannot reproduce outside of a living cell; they have evolved
to transmit their genetic information from one cell to another for the purpose of replication.
14. B → A community refers to the population of different species living in a particular habitat and interacting with
each other.
15. C → The chlorophyll is the green pigment found in the chloroplasts of plant cells. It is essential to the
photosynthetic process.
16. D → Sneezing, blinking, and coughing are reflexes because there is no thought involved in them. Reading, on the
other hand, is a deliberate activity that involves a lot of thinking.
17. D → A tetanus is caused a bacilli. The other diseases mentioned are caused by viruses.
18. C → The greenhouse effect is the warming of the earth and its lower atmosphere caused by trapped solar
radiation. This is brought about by the increasing amount of CO 2 in the atmosphere. Like the glass if a
greenhouse, CO2 allows sunlight to pass through the Earth. As the Earth is warmed by the sunlight, it gives off
infrared rays that are absorbed by the CO2 in the atmosphere, instead of being given off into space.
19. A → ex. Home sapiens (Man)
20. C → mushroom “umbrella-shaped fungus”
21. C → Bacillus “rod-shaped bacteria” Coccus “spherical or nearly spherical”
22. B → Phloem is responsible for the transport of food. Sieve tube is a sap-conducting tube within the phloem tissue
of a plant. Sieve tube cells carry plant nutrients. Bark is the rough outer covering of the stem of woody trees or
bushes.
23. A
24. D
25. C
26. A → Other options are Phylum.
27. C
28. A
29. B
30. A → Other options are organs of the digestive system. (Liver is an accessory organ.)
 SCIENCE
Biology

1. The cells of the heart is nourished by the

a. Carotid artery b. coronary artery c. jugular vein d. renal vein e. pulmonary arteries

2. The liquid that bathes all the cells of the body is called
a. Fibrinogen b. lymph c. plasma d. blood e. fibrin

3. All of the following are found in the plasma EXCEPT

a. Fibrinogen b. antibodies c. hormones d. starch e. amino acid

4. Oxygen is carried in the

a. Phagocytes b. platelets c. white blood cells d. red blood cells e. gamma globulin

5. An inherited disease in which the blood does not clot is

a. Thrombosis b. atherosclerosis c. hemophilia d. heparin e. anemia

6. Urea is removed from the blood by the

a. kidneys b. liver c. Lungs d. spleen e. bladder

7. The dermis of the skin contains all of the following EXCEPT

a. Layer of dead cells b. blood vessels c. nerve endings
d. hair follicles e. oil glands

8. Hormones are distributed throughout the body by

a. ducts b. ductless glands c. blood d. nerves e. connective tissue

9. A gland that is known as the gland of emergency is the

a. Pituitary gland b. adrenal c. thyroid d. parathyroid e. pancreas

10. A bridge between neurons is called

a. Dendrite b. terminal brush c. end brush d. synapse e. axon sheath

11. A uniting cells in sexual reproduction are called

a. Zygotes b. zygospores c. spore d. buds e. gametes

12. A zygote is cell that

a. Results from the union of two gametes
b. Unites with another zygote to form a gamete
c. United with another zygote to form a zygospore
d. Results from the union of two zygospore

13. The transfer of pollen from the stamen to the stigma of the same flower is known as
a. Cross pollination c. self pollination d. fertilization
b. Germination e. seed dispersal

14. The proper sequence of embryonic development is

(1- gastrula; 2- zygote; 3- egg; 4- blastula, 5- two-celled stage)
a. 52341 b. 35241 c.32415 d. 32541 e. 32514

15. The egg-producing structure of an animal is called

a. Oviduct b. ovum c. ovary d. ovule e. ovipositor

16. The development of the egg without being fertilized by the sperm is known
a. Parthenogenesis b. metamorphosis c. regeneration d. differentiation

17. Fraternal twins

a. Are always of the same sex d. through placenta
 b. May be of the opposite sex e. from the mother’s small intestine
c. Through the micropyle

18. The release of an egg from a follicle is called

a. Fertilization c. metamorphosis e. ovulation
b. Cleavage d. osmosis

19. The rod-like structures that appear during nuclear division are known as
a. Spindle fibers c. nucleoli d. chromosome
b. Asters e. centrosome

20. Polar bodies are formed during

a. Phototropism b. spermatogenesis c. oogenesis d. prophase stage

21. Bacteria may be attacked by a virus called

a. Cocci b. bacilli c. spiralli d. bacteriophage e. staphylococcus

22. A class of vascular plants that reproduce by means of spores

a. Ferns b. gymnosperms c. angiosperm d. bryophytes

23. This is a phylum or group of invertebrates best characterized by their flat-bodied. Example are planaria and
tapeworm.
a. Cnidarian b. Platyhelminthes c. annelida d. nematode e. rotifer

24. Photosynthesis : chloroplast :: Respiration: _____________

a. Mitochondria b. lysosome c. golgi d. nucleus e. Endoplasmic reticulum

25. Which of the following is true about red tide?

a. It is caused by a dinoflagellate called Pyrodimium bahamense var. compressum.
b. People should refrain from eating shellfish during red tide occurrences.
c. Sudden increase in the nutrient content of the water may trigger red tide outbreaks.
d. All of the above.

26. Which of the following statements is not true about acid rain?
a. It is caused by increasing amounts of oxides of sulfur and nitrogen in the atmosphere.
b. It contributes to the thinning of the ozone layer.
c. It corrodes marble and metallic structures.
d. It damages crops by increasing soil acidity.

27. Which of the following does NOT describe the Cell Theory?
a. Cells are the units of structure and function.
b. New cells come from the division of pre-existing cells.
c. Most living things are made up of cells.
d. Cells are the building blocks of life.

28. Which of the following is NOT true about Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)?
a. It is single-stranded.
b. Its bases are adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine.
c. It has a 5-C sugar called ribose.
d. It is needed for protein synthesis.

29. Whether a child is a boy or a girl depends on the:

a. Type of sperm cell c. time of ovulation
b. Type of egg cell d. time of fertilization

30. Essential amino acids can be obtained from

a. Plant sources b. animal sources c. both A and B d. Neither A nor B.

Answers:
1. B
2. B
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. D
11. E
12. A
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. A
17. B
18. E
19. A
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. B
24. A
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. B
29. A
30. C
 MSU SASE REVIEWER

ENGLISH
Exam # 1

A. Choose the letter that corresponds to the correct 6. Richard__ to a girl when I saw him.
preposition for the sentence that is given. a) talked b) was talking c) did talk

1. Beware ___the dog! 7. When he__ , will you tell him to meet me in the lobby?
a) for b) to c) of a) arrives b) is going to arrive c) will arrive
2. He is very interested ___old musical instruments.
a) of b) by c) in 8. Which picture___ when you came in?
3. You can depend___ him. a) were they looking at c) are they looking at
a) on b) by c) with b) have they looked at
4. I don't agree ___ you.
a) to b) with c) at 9. Teachers are lucky because they__ work in the summer.
5. She is very good___ explaining things. a) haven't to b) mustn't c) don't have to
a) in b) on c) at
10. There isn't __ at home.
B. Choose the correct alternative. a) no one b) anyone c) any people
1. He is __honest man.
a) a b) an c) any D. Vocabulary
Choose the letter that corresponds to the correct word(s).
2. Helen didn't want to go ______.
a) also b) neither c) either 1. The opposite of sharp is
a) bright b) old c) dull
3. He spends __ time on his homework.
a) much b) many c) often 2. Right away means
a) later b) immediately c) to the right
4. Do you like __ for breakfast?
a) tea b) the tea c) a tea 3. To pick out something is to
a) need it b) want it c) choose it
5. Didn't he tell you___?
a) where was the key c) the key was where 4. We often use the word hard as the opposite of
b) where the key was a) new b) easy c) fine

6. I would like to __ a request. 5. When you are cautious, you are

a) do b) tell c) make a) careful b) brave c) happy

7. We have been here __ three months. 6. Currently means

a) for b) during c) since a) recently b) occasionally c) at present

8. Henry is taller __George. 7. To attempt means

a) from b) as c) than a) to fail b) to try c) to be bad

9. George is coming to the party,___ 8. He visited her daily means

a) does he? b) won't he? c) isn't he? a) all day b) every day c) almost every day

10. I__ not come to this class yesterday. 9. Hence is used to mean
a) can b) could c) should a) however b) meanwhile c) therefore

C. Choose the correct alternative. 10. I'd rather study means that I
a) always study c) prefer to study
1. Did you walk by the sea yesterday? b) like to study
a. Yes, I walked. b) Yes, I did walk. c) Yes, I did.
2. _____ it yet?
a. Have you did b) Have you done c) You have done

3. ___ pass me the salt, please? ----- Ok, here you are.
a) Will you b) Can you c) You can
4. Gerald ___ the tickets.
a. already bought c) has bought already
b) had already buyed
5. What language___ ?
a) speak they b) do they speak c) does they speak
ANSWER KEY FOR ENGLISH EXAM NO. 1
A.
1. C
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. C
B.
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. B

C.
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. C
10. B
D.
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. C
 English
Exam #2

Name: . .

I. VOCABULARY

Direction: Choose the word that means the same, or most nearly the same, as the underlined word or words and write your
answers on the spaces provided.

. . 1. Maria was too obstinate to admit she had been wrong.

a. stubborn c. frightened
b. selfish d. cautious
. . 2. I knew the teacher would discipline me for my actions.
a. reward c. reprove
b. congratulate d. punish
. . 3. Lea’s writing ability has been obscured by her other accomplishments.
a. revealed c. hidden
b. exposed d. popularized
. . 4. Before taking such test, one had better brush up on his or her vocabulary
a. outline c. translate
b. revise d.review
. . 5. To everyone but the expert, the sculptor’s defects were invisible
a. unable to be heard c. unable to be understood
b. unable to be seen d. unable to be touched
. . 6. The boy groped for the light’s switch.
a. reached confidently c. searched blindly
b. stretched up d. listened attentively
. . 7. The client handed the lawyer his fee.
a. medicine c. money
b. bag d. instrument
. . 8. The driver tried to avert the accident by swerving the car to the right.
a. cause c. control
b. minimize d. prevent
. . 9. The warmth of the room made the audience doze.
a. yawn widely c. fall asleep
b. sweat profusely d. faint
. . 10. When they heard the news, they were overcome with grief.
a. sorrow c. terror
b. rage d. emotion

II. READING COMPREHENSION

Directions: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. Encircle the best answer.

Almost unnoticed, scientists are reconstructing the world of plants. A new technique using colchicine, a poisonous drug,
has allowed scientists to remodel many kinds of flowers, fruits, vegetables, and trees, creating new varieties with unexpected
frequency. Even plants native to other countries are used to obtain the desired effects.

1. The title that best fits this passage is

a. Concern for Plant Life c. Dangers in Plant Drugs
b. Reconstructing Plant Life d. Renewing the Earth
2. One can conclude from this passage that
a. the remodelling of plants is the controversial activity
b. the creation of new varieties of plants rarely happens
c. the new strains of plants that are produced are often better in some way

III. AGREEMENT
Directions: Encircle the correct answer.

Pronoun-Antecedent Agreement
Abdul, my cousin’s only son is a student of Mindanao State University. In this school, he is taking a course that may
someday bring 1. (a. he b. him c. his d. them) to other places of the globe. Motivated by 2. (a. its b. him c.their
d. his) father, a local farmer, he is determined to prove to 3. (a. himself b. his self c. itself d. themselves) that in a span
of four years, he can be called a successful young professional.
 One schoolmate close to Abdul is petite, brainy, and brown-complexioned lady named Kristina Camilla. Drawn to
Abdul’s company through 4. (a. theirs b. his c. their d. her) interactive school activities, the young lady has developed
closeness with 5. (a. them b. her c. his d. him).
KC, the name fondly calls her takes pride in relating with his future plans in life. The truth is, it’s not 6.( a. she
b.her c. he d. his) who finds Abdul as a nice person to be with, but also others who have been mingling with him. KC as
well as the other people close to Abdul knows every well that 7. (a. they b. he c.she d. it) has to be real or genuine to
be able to enjoy 8. (a. his b. her c. their d. its) relationship with 9. (a. him b. her c. it d. them)
What is friendship? I often ask 10. (a.it b. them c. these d. this) question to people. For me, friendship is this
loving and respectful relationship between one and another.

(Source: Final departmental Exam of the Department of English, CSSH, MSU-main)

Subject-Verb Agreement

Television shows 1. (a. is b. are. c. have) expensive to produce. The production costs show meticulously 2.(a.are
b. is c. have) extremely high due to many production variables. The television equipment alone 3. (a. are b.have c.is)
very expensive and must be maintained expensively for optimum life service. The sets for the complete high-tech stage 4.
(a. command b. commands c. have commanded) high budgets. The performers 5. (a. are b. have c.is) paid very
large salaries for their talents and mass appeals. A very large budget 6. (a. are b. have c. is) also set aside for directors,
cameramen, musicians, planners, writers, editors, coordinators, agents, talents, scouts, designers, and other technical people
who 7. (a. is b. are c. have) customarily behind the curtain. The stations still 8. (a. pay b. pays c.have paid) large
amounts of money for promotion and rights to broadcast. All these high costs 9. (a. have required b.require c. requires)
the stations to gather as much capital for every single show that they 10. (a. have dreamed b.dreams c. dream) would
be popular enough to gain the most income in the endeavour.

(Source: Agalabia, U.F. et.al. (2004). College freshman English. Espana, Manila: UST Publishing House.)

IV. CORRECT USAGE

Direction: You are given two choices (a,b) for each sentence. Choose the word that correctly completes the following
sentences. Write your answer on the spaces provided.

1. Rotation refers to the turning of the earth (a. and b. in addition to) revolution to the movement of the earth around

the sun.

2. There are several means (a. for b. to) determine latitude and longitude.

3. (a. Likely b. Like) the tiger, the lion is a member of the cat family.

4. Botanists are not sure where the first plant was grown or even what plant (a. was b. it was).

5. The moon is not a planet (a. which b. although it) resembles the planets in many ways.

6. If the star seems to be moving in a wavy line (a. that we suspect b. we suspect it) of being a double star.

7. Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an exacting process (a. for example b. therefore), experts must

perform detailed tests to analyse soil specimens.

8. One of the most obvious characteristics of the moon is the way in which it continuously changes (a. it is appearing

b. its appearance).

9. Natural resources provide the raw material (a. are needed b. needed) to produce finished product.

10. (a. Alike b. Like) Australia, Canada conducts a complete census of its population every ten years.
ANSWER KEY FOR ENGLISH EXAM #2
I. VOCABULARY
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. A
II. READING COMPREHENSION
1. B
2. A
III. AGREEMENT
Pronoun-Antecedent Agreement
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. D
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. D
10. D
Subject-Verb Agreement
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. C
IV. CORRECT USAGE
1. A
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. B
 ENGLISH
Exam No. 3

Identifying Errors (30 questions for 30 minutes)

Direction: Parts of the following sentences are underlined. These parts may be correct or incorrect. If a sentence
has an incorrect part, encircle the letter that corresponds to the incorrect part. If there are no errors, encircle the
letter E. Don’t cheat.
1.If anyone believes in the organization, then they should join. No error
A B C D E
2. Natural gas often occur together with petroleum in the minute pores of rocks such as sandstone and
A B C D
limestone. No error
E
3. The child felt very bad when his teacher criticized him before the entire class. No error
A B C D E
4. No one except he knew of the ice cream parlor around the corner. No error
A B C D E
5. The audible range of frequencies for human beings usually lies among 20 and 20 000 Hz. No error
A B C D E
6. The florist asked three of us, Jalem, Hamid and I, to carry the plants down to the loading dock. No error
A B C D E
7. De La Salle University, along with several other private universities, are going to sponsor the conference.
A B C D
No error
E
8. Encyclopedia book is interesting, informative and it is easy to read. No error
A B C D E
9. He will give the message to whoever opens the door. No error
A B C D E
10. There is no surgeons in the hospital. No error
A BC D E
11. If biennials were planted this year, they will be likely to bloom next year. No error
A B C D E
12. The constant rise of prices and wages bring about inflation. No error
A B C D E
13. “Sorry I cannot written to you for such a long time.” No error
A B C D E
14. Brain waves patterns vary among different people and in different activities. No error
A B C D E
15. Having studied your report carefully, I am convinced that neither of your solutions are correct. No error
A B C D E
16. Amina borrowed a dress from Saliha, who she adores. No error
A B C D E

17. Snails produce a colorless, sticky discharge that forms a protective carpet under them as their travel along.
A B C D
No error
E
18. Everybody was up early on Monday because our local store was having it’s annual sale. No error
A B C D E
19. Shahid’s thumb is as wide as Junaid. No error
AB C D E

20. If I have to make a choice between Ader, Javer and him, I think I’ll select Ader because of his self-control
A B C
 during moments of stress. No error
D E
21. If I was you, I should be carefully of who my friends are. No error
A B C D E
22. Jordan is one of the few athletes who does not eat beef. No error
A B C D E
23. Diligence and honesty as well as being intelligent are qualities which I look for when I evaluate students.
A B C D
No error
E
24. Although his story had aspects of truth about it, I couldn’t hardly believe what he said. No error
A B C D E
25. During the test, I wondered if their was any answer to the problem. No error
A B C D E
26. Badawie claims that, in his opinion, neither the boys nor I are to blame. No error
A B C D E
27. The soprano alleged that the dampness in the concert hall caused her to sing terrible. No error
A B C D E
28. That pile of papers is to be file in the cabinet. No error
A B C D E
29.Wilson, who I never thought was even in the running, not only won handily but also broke a record. No
error
A B C D E
30. The newspaper reported that the cost of gasoline is raising again. No error
A B C D E

Answers to Identifying Errors

1.D 11.B 21.A
2.A 12.C 22.D
3.E 13.B 23.B
4.B 14.A 24.C
5.D 15.D 25.C
6.B 16.C 26.D
7.B 17.D 27.D
8.C 18.D 28.C
9.E 19.D 29.E
10.B 20.B 30.D

ENGLISH
Exam # 4
V. VOCABULARY

A. Directions: Encircle the letter of the word that means the same, or most nearly the same as the
underlined word or words.
c. cooperation
1. The proposed electoral amendment has not
yet been ratified. 3. It is ridiculous to become irritated about
a. debunked such an insignificant matter.
b. skimmed a. sinful
c. approved b. absurd
c. tragic
2. The rivalry between the two softdrink
companies was obvious. 4. The indecisive person was readily
a. competition persuaded to change his mind again.
b. compromise a. easily
 b. subtly b. cruel
c. hardly c. frank

5. The candidate’s victory at the polls was 17. She grants the mall the prerogatives of
overwhelming. royalty.
a. treachery a. customs
b. triumph b. privileges
c. defeat c. duties

6. Punctuality is imperative in every job. 18. Only twenty people attended the conclave.
a. being efficient a. briefing
b. being courteous b. concert
c. being on time c. meeting

7. He is infamous for his dishonesty in 19. My uncle estranged himself from his own
business matters. party by joining party leaders.
a. notorious a. injured
b. loathed b. separated
c. dreaded c. upset

8. An objective report by a committee would be 20. These tactics did not seem preposterous to
a. prejudice her.
b. personal a. absurd
c. fair b. one-sided
c. productive
9. To preserve our liberties means to . . our
liberties.
a. safeguard 21. The former President exchanged
b. enjoy reminiscences with his former allies.
c. change a. comments
b. gifts
10. To resist tyranny c. recollections
a. fight against
b. suffer 22. The director produced, at the movie’s climax
c. worship just about the most gruesome scene ever
shown on film.
11. Identical twins are frequently inseparable. a. colourful
a. not able to be distinguished b. horrifying
b. not able to be parted c. inferior
c. not able to be believed
23. Our guest belongs to the most affluent
12. The gunfire was sporadic. family in our region.
a. intermittent a. amazing
b. frequent b. wealthy
c. continuous c. influential

13. The Chairman’s greatest asset was his

reputation for honesty.
a. advantage
b. liability 24. The doctors performed demonstrations of
c. pride the latest techniques for operating with
miniature instruments deep inside the car.
14. She meddles in the affairs of others. a. expensive
a. participates b. sharp
b. interferes c. small
c. dabbles 25. Business had been liquidating inventories
at the arte of five billion dollars a year.
15. Zenon’s apparel showed him to be a a. comparing
successful man. b. converting into cash
a. clothing c. evaluating
b. confidence
c. manner

16. She was in a candid mood, her words sharp

and merciless.
a. bitter
B. Getting Meaning Through Context
Directions: Encircle the letter of the word or expression that comes closest in the
meaning to each of the underlined words in the following.

1. to ascertain the facts

a. cover up
b. review
c. find out
2. a king known for his avarice
a. wisdom
b. vanity
c. deceitfulness
3. a biennial event
a. twice yearly
b. every 2 weeks
c. every 2 years
4. a blithe mood
a. bitter
b. carefree
c. proud
5. an offer to capitulate
a. confer
b. mediate
c. compromise
d. surrender
6. a suspicion of collusion
a. robbery
b. foolishness
c. agreement to deceive
7. to act under duress
a. compulsion
b. misunderstanding
c. difficulties
8. a great man’s foible
a. weakness
b. habit
c. example

9. an interminable show
a. worthless
b. endless
c. tedious
10. to intimidate a witness
a. to make happy
b. to make fearful
c. bribe
11. to nurture a child
a. neglect
b. give medicine
c. feed and bring up
12. a sign of opulence
a. poverty
b. health
c. wealth
13. a prosaic sight
a. common place
b. solemn
c. stirring
14. a prudent action
a. unexpected
b. ill-mannered
c. sensible
15. a volatile temperament
a. changeable
b. disagreeable
c. sluggish
ANSWER KEY FOR ENGLISH EXAM NO. 4
A. VOCABULARY
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. A
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. C
17. B
18. C
19. B
20. A
21. C
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. B
B. GETTING MEANING THROUGH CONTEXT
1. C
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. C
13. A
14. C
15. A

ENGLISH
Exam # 5
READING COMPREHENSION TEST
DIRECTION: Read carefully each of the following passages. Then answer the questions asked and/or complete the statements given
under each by choosing one of the five possible answers. Blacken the circle that corresponds to the letter of your answer aft er the
appropriate item number on your answer sheet.

READING PASSAGE NO.1

Researchers suggest that there are creatures that do not know what light means at the bottom of the sea. They don't have
either eyes or ears; they can only feel. There is no day or night for them. There are no winters, no summers, no sun, no moon, and no
stars. It is as if a child spent its life in darkness in bed, with nothing to see or hear. How different our own life is! Sight shows us the
ground beneath our feet and the heavens above us - the sun, moon, and stars, shooting stars, lightning, and the sunset. It shows us
day and night. We are able to hear voices, the sound of the sea, and music. We feel, we taste, and we smell. How fortunate we are!
1. Judging from the passage, we can say that this story is mainly about ............ .
a) life of sea creatures at the bottom of the sea
b) how changes in the seasons are perceived by the deep-sea creatures
c) how wonderful our lives were and will be
d) the differences among creatures of the earth and those of the sea
e) the superiority of human beings over some creatures in terms of senses
2. We discover that the sea creatures in the story ................ .

a) have the same senses that we do d) live in darkness because no light reaches to the bottom
b) have no sense of hearing as well as sight e) do not hear the sound of sea as they are accustomed
c) hear the sounds of the ocean to it

3. In the passage a child in darkness is likened to ................ .

a) someone who lives where there are no seasons d) a deaf child unaffected by the environment
b) an animal without the sense of touch e) a perfect sleeper, for there is no sound around to hear
c) a sea creature with no seeing or hearing ability

READING PASSAGE NO. 2

Official records state that the Pueblo Indians lived in New Mexico and Arizona . The word "Pueblo" comes from the Spanish
word "pueblo," meaning town or village. The Spaniards found these Indians living in apartment houses, some of them on the side of
a cliff in order that they could be reached only by ladders. Whenever they were attacked by Apaches, the Pueblos would pull up the
ladders. They grew corn, which they watered with water flowing down in ditches. They wove cloth, made wonderful baskets, and
created jars and pots out of clay proving how skillful they were at hand-craft.

4. From the passage we understand that the Pueblo Indians were afraid of ............. .

a) Cliff Dwelling d) Water Flowing Down In Ditches

b) Apache Indians e) Solitary Life
c) Apartment Houses
5. Why the Spaniards called these Indians "Pueblos" is because they ................ .
a) were close to the Apaches d) pulled up their ladders when attacked
b) lived together in a town or village e) achieved fame thanks to their hand-craft
c) farmed and brought down water in ditches
6. The Pueblo Indians lived on the side of a cliff ................ .

a) although they had apartment houses d) and, the didn't have a lake, a stream, or a pond
b) to observe the stars in the sky for rain season e) as long as they were all together
c) so that they could provide themselves with shelters

READING PASSAGE NO. 3

It was a man who lived before the time of Christopher Columbus that was the world's first great traveler. His name was Marco
Polo. With his father and his uncle, he traveled from Italy to China, crossing mountains and deserts to get there. In China a king called
Kublai Khan was pleased to see the Polos and had them live near to him. They stayed for twenty-three years. Kublai Khan sent Marco
to other countries to do business for him. When Marco finally returned to Italy, he wrote all about his adventures in a book, which
was read by Columbus and many other people, who also became interested in traveling to strange countries.

7. This story is mainly about ............. .

a) the world's first great traveler d) Marco Polo and Kublai Khan
b) traveling from Italy to China e) in what ways Columbus affected Polo
c) why Polo went to the far east

8. The reason that Marco Polo is called great is not that ................ .
a) he traveled very far to reach China for a new world c) he was so well liked by the king of China
b) he wrote about his adventures in a book, which many d) he crossed mountains and deserts to reach China
people read e) he achieved fame thanks to his good reasoning
9. We know from the story that after he turned back, ................ .
a) Marco brought out a book inspiring new voyages
b) Marco stayed in Italy for twenty-three years
c) Kublai Khan knew that Marco had crossed mountains and deserts
d) Kublai Khan sent Columbus to other countries for business
e) Marco set out for a new adventure

READING PASSAGE NO. 4

Have you ever wondered whether fishes drink or not? All living things must drink, and they require a fresh supply of water
often. A person can go without food for many days, but he or she cannot go for long without water. Fishes drink, and fishes that live
in salt water must drink salt water. However, when we watch them in an aquarium and see them opening and closing their mouths,
we must not assume that they are drinking. Fishes need water for its oxygen. The water that they seem to be gulping gives them
oxygen, which is in the water. On the other hand, when a fish drinks, it swallows water, just in the way we do.

10. It is stated in the passage that a fish opens and closes its mouth .............. .
A. in order to get oxygen C. to drink to stay alive E. so that it can suffice salt
B. so as to gulp D. to swim in an aquarium.
11. We are informed by the passage that a person ................... .
A. can live for a long time without water B. can live for a long time without food
C. has no need for food and water E. does need water to get oxygen
D. has no need for a fresh supply of water

12. When a fish drinks water, ............................ .

A. it requires fresh water D. it drinks water for its oxygen
B. it swallows water just like us E. it stays motionless for a while to swallow
C. it requires salt water

READING PASSAGE NO. 5

The poetic expressiveness and creativity of Japanese women poets of the Manyoshu era is generally regarded as a
manifestation of the freedom and relatively high political and economic status women of that era enjoyed. During the Heian period
(A.D. 794-1185) which followed, Japanese women became increasingly relegated to domestic roles under the influence of Buddhism
and Confucianism, which excluded women from the political and economic arenas. Yet, since poetry of the period came to be defined
solely as short lyrical poetry, known as waka, and became the prevailing means of expressing love, women continued to excel in and
play a central role in the development of classical Japanese poetry. Moreover, while official Japanese documents were written in
Chinese, the phoenetic alphabet kana was used for poetry. Also referred to as onna moji ("women's letters"), kana was not deemed
sufficiently sophisticated for use by Japanese men, who continued to write Chinese poetry, increasingly for expressing religious ideas
and as an intellectual pastime. Chinese poetry ultimately yielded, then, to waka as the mainstream of Japanese poetry.
13. Based on the passage, mainstream Japanese poetry of the Heian period can best be described as ............ .
A. philosophical in its concern D. sentimental in nature and lyrical in style
B. more refined than the poetry of the Manyoshu era E. written primarily for a female audience
C. an outgowth of Buddhism and Confucianism

14. Which of the following statements about kana finds the LEAST support in the passage?
A. It was based on the sound of the Japanese language D. It was used in Japan after A.D. 793
B. It was used primarily by Japanese women E. It was considered inappropriate for austere subject matter
C. It was used for Japanese poetry but not for Japanese prose
15. The author's primary purpose in the passage is to ............................ .
A. refute a common explanation for the role of women in the development of Japanese poetry
B. identify the reasons for the popularity of a distinct form of literary expression in Japan
C. distinguish between the Japanese poetry of one historical period with that of another
D. trace the influence of religion on the development of Japanese poetry
E. provide an explanation for the role of women in the development of Japanese poetry

READING PASSAGE No. 6

Erosion is regarded not merely as the physical removal of soil by water and wind, but rather as the deterioration of all the
component parts of the habitat in which man and his crops and livestock have to exist. Since there is no conclusive evidence for any
major climatic change in historic times to explain this deterioration, we must conclude that the eroding of the total environment has
been due primarily to thoughtless destruction of the vegetative cover. This has led to deterioration of the microclimate above and
below the surface, generally in the direction of a general drying out of the soil which has exposed it to erosive action of wind and
rainfall of high intensity or frequency, and to the loss of organic matter in the soil, thus reducing its capacity to resist erosion by
conserving the water that falls on the surface. If everything possible is done within the total environment to conserve the naturally
planted or cultivated vegetation, this will also ensure optimal conservation of soil and water.

16. It is argued in the passage that the impoverishment of the world's habitat .......... .
A) is first and foremost due to man's irresponsible abuse of the vegetable cover of the earth
B) is largely due to gradual changes in climate over long years
C) became inevitable as soon as agricultural and animal husbandry developed
D) cannot be remedied
E) has been needlessly exaggerated
17. The definition of erosion given in this passage ............ .
A) is a strictly regional one D) assumes that the process is inevitable
B) disregards man's role in it E) is a broad one
C) concentrates on flooding
18. It is pointed out in the passage that the loss of organic matter in the soil ............ .
A) led to the destruction of the world's vegetative cover
B) is a direct result of insufficient rain
C) is an irreversible process
D) has made the soil more susceptible to erosion
e) came about through over planting which robbed the soil of nutrients

READING PASSAGE NO. 7

Genetics is the study of mechanisms of the hereditary process. Modern genetics began with the experiments of Gregor
Mendel in 1865. He studied the inheritance of different factors in peas, and found that some traits were "dominant" and some
"recessive", the "dominant" appearing in a ratio of very nearly three to one. Mendels results were ignored for many years until their
discovery at the beginning of the twentieth century .

19. According to the passage .......................... .

a) the results of Mendel's experiments were immediately put into practice
b) the purpose of Mendel's experiments was primarily agricultural
c) genetics is essentially concerned with heredity
d) modern genetics owes very little to Mendel's experiments
e) the mechanisms of heredity were known prior to Mendel

20. Clearly, in the field of genetics, ............................ .

a) certain traits have been given too much importance d) Mendel is the pioneer
b) the 20th century has contributed very little e) new dominant and recessive traits are constantly being
c) Mendel's experiments have received and used attention discovered

21. Mendel discovered that ......................... .

a) recessive traits exceeded the dominant ones

b) in peas, dominant traits appear in a ratio of three to one
c) in peas, nearly one-third of the traits were dominant
d) by 1865 the theory of heredity had been convincingly formulated
e) genetics was becoming a popular science
READING PASSAGE NO. 8

Any criminal justice system is an apparatus that society uses to enforce the standards of conduct necessary to protect
individuals and the community. It operates by apprehending, prosecuting , convicting, sentencing these members of the community
who violate the basic rules of group existence. The action taken against lawbreakers is designed to serve three purposes beyond the
immediately punitive one. It removes dangerous people from the community; it deters others from criminal behaviour and it gives
society an oppurtunity to attempt to transform lawbreakers into law-abiding citizens.

22. We understand from the passage that the basic aim of criminal justice is .............. .
a) the protection of society and its individuals d) the violation of the law
b) to define socially acceptable behaviour e) to renew, as necessary, the traditions and customs of
c) to educate lawbreakers society

23. According to the passage, prosecution is ...................... .

a) a process which follows conviction c) not to be considered a vital part of the criminal justice
b) concerned with the transformation of criminal justice system
d) actually the removal of lawbreakers from the community
e) one of the stages in the operation of criminal justice
24. It is pointed out in the passage that one of the effects of the criminal justice system is to ............. .
a) give guidelines for group existence d) take immediate action against the community
b) discourage crime e) investigate the reasons behind criminal behavior
c) prevent the enforcement of capital punishment

25. The action taken against lawbreakers is designed to serve how many purposes beyond the immediately punitive one?
a)one b) two c)three d)five e) seven

ANSWER KEY FOR ENGLISH EXAM NO. 5

1. E
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. E
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. B
13. D
14. C
15. E
16. A
17. E
18. D
19. C
20. D
21. B
22. A
23. E
24. B
25. C