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Trending Themes and Topics based on recently conducted UPSC Paper (CISF-AC)

Questions Related UPSC PYQs Learning through PYQs

Ecotone is a Which one of the following terms describes not Ecotone: Ecotone is a transitional zone
(a) diversified ecosystem only the physical space occupied by an organism between two ecosystems. E.g., the
(b) transitional ecosystem but also its functional role in the community of mangrove forests represent an ecotone
(c) transparent ecosystem organisms? (2013) between marine and terrestrial ecosystems.
(d) stagnation ecosystem Other examples are - grassland, estuary,
(a) Ecotone and the riverbank.
(b) Ecological niche
(c) Habitat Edge effect refers to the changes in
(d) Home range population or community structures that occur
at the boundary of two habitats (ecotone).

Ecological Niche refers to the unique

functional role and position of a species in its
habitat or ecosystem. No two species in a
habitat can have the same niche.

Habitat: Habitat is thus the physical

environment in which an organism lives.
Earth has four major habitats: Terrestrial,
Freshwater, Estuarine (where rivers meet the
ocean), and Oceanic.

Consider the following statements about stem ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which
Stem cells are special human cells that are
cells : one of the following? (2023)
able to develop into many different cell types
1. Stem cells have the potential for self-renewal
(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among via mitotic cell division. This can range from
via mitotic cell division.
various species of fauna muscle cells to brain cells. In some cases,
2. In 1908, James Thomas and his colleagues (b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse
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first derived human embryonic stem cells from functional tissues they can also fix damaged tissues.
donated (c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural
blastocysts through in vitro fertilisation. plants Stem cells are present inside different types
(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a of tissue. Scientists have found stem cells in
Which of the statements given above is/ are
series of drug trials in a population. tissues, including the brain, bone marrow,
correct?
(a) 1 only blood, and blood vessels, etc.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 There are two types of stem cells.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 In the context of recent advances in human Embryonic stem cells:
reproductive technology, ‘Pronuclear Transfer” is
(2nd wrong = 1998) used for (2020)
● These stem cells come from embryos
(a) Fertilisation of egg in vitro by the donor sperm that are 3 to 5 days old.
(b) Genetic modification of sperm producing cells
(c) Development of stem cells into functional ● At this stage, an embryo is called a
embryos blastocyst and has about 150 cells.
(d) Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring
● These are pluripotent stem cells,
meaning they can divide into more
stem cells or can become any type of
Consider the following statements: (2020)
cell in the body.
1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells
that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
● This versatility allows embryonic stem
2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at
cells to be used to regenerate or
the early embryonic stage.
repair diseased tissue and organs.
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be
injected into the embryo of a pig.
Which of the statements given above is/are Adult stem cells:
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only ● These stem cells are found in small
(c) 2 only numbers in most adult tissues, such
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(d) 1, 2 and 3 as bone marrow or fat.

● Compared with embryonic stem cells,

With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the adult stem cells have a more limited
news, which of the following statements is/are ability to give rise to various cells of
correct? (2012) the body.
1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
Induced pluripotent stem cells
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: ● These are adult stem cells that have
(a) 1 and 2 only been changed in a lab to be more like
(b) 2 and 3 only embryonic stem cells.
(c) 3 only
● These cells behave in a similar way to
(d) 1, 2 and 3
embryonic stem cells, so they could
be useful for developing a range of
therapies.

Blastocyst - A blastocyst is a cluster of

dividing cells made by a fertilised egg. It’s the
early stage of an embryo.A blastocyst forms
about five to six days after a sperm fertilises
an egg.

Which of the following are the major There is a concern over the increase in harmful An algal bloom or marine bloom or water
contaminants from industries and algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What bloom is a rapid increase in the population of
households that cause cultural could be the causative factors for this algae in an aquatic system. Nutrients
eutrophication? phenomenon? [2011 - I] encourage the growth of blue-green algae.
(a) Chlorine and aldrin 1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries. The process of nutrient enrichment in a
(b) Mercury and nitrates 2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon. waterway is called eutrophication.
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(c) Nitrates and phosphates 3. Upwelling in the seas. Cultural or anthropogenic eutrophication
(d) Phosphates and ammonium Select the correct answer from the codes given is the process that causes eutrophication
below: because of human activity.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 The main nutrients contributing to
eutrophication are phosphorus and
nitrogen.

Lichens represent the symbiotic relationships Lichens, which are capable of initiating Lichen refers to a symbiotic association of
between algae and fungi. The algae ecological succession even on a bare rock, are two components, a fungus, the ‘mycobiont’,
component present in lichen is best known as actually a symbiotic association of (2014) and at least one photosynthetic organism, the
(a) mycobiont ‘photobiont’, consisting of a microalgae
(b) phycobiont (a) algae and bacteria (usually a green alga) or cyanobacterium, or
(c) prion (b) algae and fungi both.
(d) symbiont (c) bacteria and fungi
(d) fungi and mosses Lichens may grow on practically any surface
and are found from the Arctic to Antarctic,
In nature, which of the following is/ are most deserts to tropics, littoral zones to mountain
likely to be found surviving on a surface without peaks.
soil? (2021)
1. Fern Lichens are very useful to people in diverse
2. Lichen cultures, especially as a source of drugs,
3. Moss medicines, perfumery, food stuff, dyes,
4. Mushroom biomonitoring.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. Mosses are a type of bryophyte, which is a
(a) 1 and 4 only group of non-vascular plants. This means
(b) 2 only they lack the vascular tissue, known as the
(c) 2 and 3 xylem and phloem, that most plants have
(d) 1, 3 and 4 for transporting water from roots to leaves
and stems.
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Which of the following have species that can Ferns need indirect sunlight, moist soil,
establish a symbiotic relationship with other and a humid environment to thrive.
organisms? (2021)
1. Cnidarians A mushroom is a fleshy, spore-bearing
2. Fungi fruiting body of a fungus that grows above
3. Protozoa ground, on soil, or its food source.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Which one of the following human cells is RBCs are the cells in the human body that
devoid of a nucleus? lack the nucleus inside them.
(a) Nerve cell
(b) Bone cell RBCs
(c) Red blood cell Also known as erythrocytes, these cells
(d) White blood cell
transport oxygen from the lungs to the body's
tissues and organs. They also carry waste
materials and carbon dioxide to the lungs.
RBCs are smaller and have a concave
shape. They contain haemoglobin. They
contain haemoglobin and have a lifespan of
100–120 days.

WBCs
Also known as leukocytes, these cells come
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in many different shapes and sizes. They

circulate in the blood until they receive a
signal that a part of the body is damaged.
WBCs produce antibodies that fight
pathogens that invade the body. They also
help destroy cancer cells at the inception
stages. WBCs are larger and have an
irregular shape. They have a lifespan of
12–20 days.

Rhizobium is a Q. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing Nitrogen fixation

(a) biopesticide plants? (UPSC 2022)
(b) biofertilizer 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth Atmospheric nitrogen must be processed,
(c) bioherbicide 3. Chick pea 4. Clover or "fixed", into a usable form to be taken up
(d) mycoherbicide 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach by plants.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: Symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria such as
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only Rhizobium usually live in the root nodules of
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only legumes (such as peas, beans, alfalfa, locust
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only trees, red clover, peanut, lentil etc.).
(d) 1, 2, 4,5 and 6
Nitrogen-fixing Biofertilizers: Clostridium,
Azotobacter, Nostoc, Anabaena, Rhizobium,
Which one of the following organisms can serve Azollae, Anabaena and Azospirillum.
as a biofertilizer for rice crops? [2000] Nitrogen fixing plants: Alfalfa, Red clover,
(a) Blue-green algae (b) Rhizobium sp. Pigeon pea; Mung bean, Fava bean, Field
(c) Mycorrhizal fungi (d) Azotobacter sp. pea, White clover, Peanut, Lentil, Common
bean.
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Consider the following organisms: (2013)

1. Agaricus
2. Nostoc
3. Spirogyra
Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/
biofertilizers?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Which one among the following is not a Assertion (A) : West-flowing rivers of Peninsular West Flowing Rivers (North to South):
west-flowing river? India have no deltas. |—» Luni
(a) Mahi Reason (R) : These rivers do not carry any |—» Mahi
(b) Banas alluvial |—» Narmada
(c) Luni sediments. [2004] |—» Tapi
(d) Sabarmati (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the |—» Vaitarna
correct explanation of A |—» Mandovi
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the |—» Zuari
correct explanation of A |—» Kalinadi
(c) A is true but R is false |—» Sharavati
(d) A is false but R is true |—» Ponnani / Bharathapuzha
|—» Periyar
|—» Pamba / Pambiar
Consider the following statements: [2009]
1. There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala.
This exceptional behaviour is because
2. There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya
these rivers didn’t form valleys and
Pradesh.
instead they flow through faults (linear rift,
Which of the statements given above is/are
rift valley, trough) created due to the bending
correct?
of the northern peninsula during the formation
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
process of the Himalayas. These faults run
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 parallel to the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.

Peninsular rivers which fall into the Arabian

Sea do not form deltas, but only estuaries.

Consider the following geographical conditions : Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill
Well-drained, rich friable loams containing good slopes, there is some difference between them
deal of minerals, temperature between 15 °C-28 regarding their cultivation. In this context,
°c and rainfall between 150 cm-250 cm and consider the following statements: [2010]
altitude variations from 600 m-1600m. 1. Coffee plants require a hot and humid climate of
Which one among the following crops is tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both
suitable under the above conditions? tropical and subtropical areas.
(a) Tea 2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is
(b) Coffee propagated by stem cuttings only.
(c) Coconut Which of the statements given above is/ are
(d) Cashew nut correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

"The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is

injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost -free
days and 50 to 100 centimetres of rainfall for its
growth. A light well drained soil capable of
retaining moisture is ideally suited for the
cultivation of the crop." Which one of the
following is that crop? (2020)
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Tea
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The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by a

humid climate with high temperature throughout
the year. Which one among the following pairs of
crops is most suitable for this region? (2011)
(a) Paddy and cotton
(b) Wheat and Jute
(c) Paddy and Jute
(d) Wheat and cotton
A state in India has the following characteristics:
(2011)
1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food
crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the
above characteristics?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu

Match List-I with List-II and select the Consider the following pairs: (2013) Refer My Document on Tribes and PVTGs
known for correct answer using the code Tribe State
given below the Lists : 1. Limboo (Limbu) - Sikkim
List-I List-II 2. Karbi - Himachal Pradesh
(Tribe) (Dominating region) 3. Dongaria Kondh - Odisha
A. Gaddi 1. Rajasthan 4. Bonda - Tamil Nadu
B. Munda 2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands Which of the above pairs are correctly
C. Bhil 3. Jharkhand matched?
D. Jarawa 4. Himachal Pradesh (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
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(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements about

particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in
India: [2019 - I]
1. PVTGs reside in 18 states and one union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the
criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 92 PVTGs officially notified in the
country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the
list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1,3 and 4

Which one among the following statements Which one of the following is not a Harappan
with reference to the Harappan burial ritual is site? (2019) ​Burials in Harappan Civilisation
not correct? (a) Chanhudaro
(a) At these burials, the dead were generally laid (b) Kot Diji At burials in Harappan sites the dead were
in pits. (c) Sohgaura generally laid in pits. Sometimes, there were
(b) The burial pits were made in several different (d) Desalpur differences in the way the burial pit was
ways. made – in some instances, the hollowed-out
(c) Ornaments have sometimes been found spaces were lined with bricks.
placed in these burials. With reference to the difference between the
Some graves contain pottery and
(d) Harappans did not bury mirrors with the dead. culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley
ornaments, perhaps indicating a belief that
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people, which of the following statements is/are these could be used in the afterlife. Jewellery
correct? [2017-I] has been found in burials of both men and
1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet women. In some instances the dead were
in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley buried with copper mirrors.
Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper Important Burial Sites
whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and
iron. ● Lothal - Double burial was found
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse here. Burial of a male & female
whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people person in a single grave is found here.
having been aware of this animal. ● Harappa - A graveyard was found in
Select the correct answer using the code given Harappa. Graveyard had 57 burials in
below: total.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only ● Kalibangan - A different kind of burial
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 was found here. The body was laid
straight with head towards north in a
brick chamber or a simple sand pit.
Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider ● Surkotada - Four pot burials were
the following statements:(2011) found. Pot burials contained bone
1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the ashes.
religious element, though present, did not dominate
the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for
manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Consider the following statements with Which one of the following was a very important
reference to Rudramadevi : seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom? [2017-I] Kakatiya dynasty
1. Rudramadevi is also known as (a) Kakinada
Raya-gaja-kesari. (b) Motupalli The Kakatiya Dynasty flourished in the
2. The inscriptions largely project her as a heroic (c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam) Deccan region from 1163 to 1323 AD.
king not queen. (d) Nelluru
Hanumakonda and Orugallu (Warangal) as
Which of the statements given above
their capitals, the Kakatiyas left an indelible
is/ are correct?
mark on the history of Telangana and Andhra
(a) 1 only
Pradesh.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Prola Raja II is credited as the founder of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the Kakatiya Dynasty, and under his
successors, they ruled over present-day
Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, as well as
parts of eastern Karnataka and southern
Odisha. The earliest known record
describing the Kakatiyas as a sovereign
power is the Anumakonda inscription of
Rudradeva (Prataparudra I).

Famous Rulers and Contributions:

Prataparudra I (1158 – 1195 AD):

■ Declared an end to their status as

feudatory chiefs of the Chalukyas.
■ Oversaw the Palanadu war.
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■ Authored the ‘Nitisara’ in Sanskrit.

Ganapati (1198 – 1262 AD):

■ Adorned the title “Rayagajakesari.”

■ Notably supported the poet Tikkana
Somayaji.
■ Created the man-made Pakhal Lake
in Warangal.
■ Shifted the capital from Hanumakonda
to Warangal.

Rudrama Devi (1262 – 1296):

■ The first woman ruler of the Kakatiya

Dynasty.
■ Raya-Gaja- Kesari (Lion to the
Elephant-like (enemy) Kings)
■ Welcome to Italian traveller Marco
Polo during her reign.

Prataparudra II (1296 – 1323):

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■ Faced Muslim invasions by Allauddin

Khilji and Gayasuddin Tughlaq.
■ The decline of the Kakatiyas ensued
during his reign.

Architecture: Rudreshwar Temple: Built in

Anumakonda by Prataparudra I, dedicated to
Lord Shiva, Vishnu, and Surya.

Ramappa Temple: Constructed by Recherla

Rudra, a general of Kakatiya ruler Ganapati
Deva, now a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Which among the following was not a

member of the Adhisthana-Adhikarana of Adhisthana-adhikarana means Municipal
Kotivarsha in the Gupta period? board or also known as the city office or
(a) Sarthavaha the office of the city administrators during
(b) Mahattara Gupta Period.
(c) Prathama-kayastha
(d) Prathama-kulika

What is Hallisalasya as depicted in Bagh cave There are only two known examples of cave
paintings? paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. In the Bagh Cave paintings, Hallisalasya is
(a) A classical dance form One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves. Where depicted as a folk dance of central India.
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(b) A folk dance form is the other surviving example of Gupta Bagh Caves
(c) A folk form of theatre paintings? [2010]
(d) A percussion music instrument (a) Bagh caves (b) Ellora caves Bagh Caves, in Madhya Pradesh, are a
(c) Lomas Rishi cave (d) Nasik caves complex of nine Buddhist caves (Currently
only 5 are surviving) that were built around
the 6th century A.D. on the bank of the Bagh
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of river. In terms of design, execution, and
the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at decoration, it is architecturally extremely
[2017-I] similar to the Ajanta caves. They contain both
(a) Ajanta (b) Badami Chaitya and Viharas.
(c) Bagh (d) Ellora
Mural Paintings are well-known in Bagh
Caves.

Consider the following statements about the In which of the following relief sculpture James Prinsep deciphered the Brahmi and
historical evidence of inscriptions in India : inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) Kharosthi scripts in 1838, making them the
1. The oldest deciphered inscriptions are in mentioned along with the stone portrait of oldest deciphered inscriptions in ancient
Brahmi and Kharosthi. Ashoka? (2019) India.
2. The earliest inscriptions in the Tamil language (a) Kanganahalli
are copper plate grants. (b) Sanchi The earliest (indisputably dated) and
Which of the statements given above is/ are (c) Shahbazgarhi best-known Brahmi inscriptions are the
correct? (d) Sohgaura rock-cut edicts of Ashoka.
(a) l only
(b) 2 only (Read About Ashokan Edicts from my
(c) Both 1 and 2 Who among the following rulers advised his Notes)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 subjects through this inscription? (2020)

“Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames

other sects out of excessive devotion to his own
sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he
rather injures his own sect very severely.”
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(a) Ashoka
(b) Samudragupta
(c) Harshavardhana
(d) Krishanadeva Raya

The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated

with which one of the following? [2006]
(a) Mahapadma Nanda (b) Chandragupta Maurya
(c) Ashoka (d) Samudragupta

Which one of the following scripts of ancient

India was written from right to left? [1997]
(a) Brahmi (b) Nandnagari
(c) Sharada (d) Kharosthi

The Dakshinamurti (South-facing) form of The Dakshinamurti form of Shiva represents

Shiva represents him as a teacher of yoga, music, and
(a) cosmic dancer wisdom. He is also worshipped as the god of
(b) ferocious warrior wisdom and meditation.
(c) universal teacher
(d) lord of beasts Dakshinamurti sculpture on the southern
entrance of the Meenakshi Temple in
Madurai.

Consider the following statements about the What is the correct sequence of the following In July 1942, the Congress Working
'Quit India' Resolution of 1942 : events? Committee met at Wardha and resolved that
1. Its text was carefully drafted to make it clear 1. The August offer [1998] it would authorise Gandhi to take charge of
that it put India among the countries at war with 2. The I.N.A trial the non-violent mass movement.
the Axis Powers and fully aligned with the Allied 3. The Quit India Movement
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Powers (United Nations). 4. The Royal Indian Naval Ratings' Revolt. The resolution is generally referred to as the
2. It called upon Britain to immediately hand over Select the correct answer using the codes given ‘Quit India’ resolution. It was to be
power to an Indian Provisional Government below: approved by the All India Congress
composed of representatives of all sections of the Codes: Committee meeting in Bombay in August.
population. (a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4
Which of the statements given above is/ are (c) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
correct? On August 8, 1942, the Quit India Resolution
(a) l only was adopted and ratified at the Congress
(b) 2 only Consider the following statements: meeting at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, on
(c) Both 1 and 2 On the eve of launch of Quit India Movement, August 8,1942. Mahatma Gandhi was
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Mahatma Gandhi: (2005) named the leader of the struggle.
1. asked the government servants to resign.
2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts. The movement demanded an end to British
3. asked the Princes of the Princely states to accept rule in India. Since the protest was held in
the sovereignty of their own people. August, it also went on to be known as
Which of the statements given above is/are August Kranti or August Movement.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was

a major woman organiser of underground activity
in:
(a) Civil Disobedience Movement [2009]
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Swadeshi Movement
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Which one of the following began with the Dandi

March?
(a) Home Rule Movement [2009]
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

With which one of the following movements is

the slogan “Do or die” associated? [2009]
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

Which one of the following observations is not

true about the Quit India Movement of 1942 ?
[2011 - I]
(a) It was a nonviolent movement
(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
(c) It was a spontaneous movements
(d) It did not attract the labour class in general

Quit India Movement was launched in response

to (2013)
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) Cripps Proposals
(d) Simon Commission Report
(d) Wavell Plan
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Which one of the following movements has

contributed to a split in the Indian National
Congress resulting in the emergence of
'moderates' and 'extremists'? [2015-I]
(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement

With reference to Indian freedom struggle,

consider the following events : [2017-I]
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit India Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference
What is the correct chronological sequence of
the above events?
(a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3
(c) 3-2-1 (d) 3-1-2

With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra

Pradesh, which one of the following statements
is correct? (2021)
(a) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian
National Flag here.
(b) Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement
of the Andhra region from here.
(c) Rabindranath Tagore translated the National
Anthem from Bengali to English here.
(d) Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up
headquarters of Theosophical Society first here.
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With reference to 8th August 1942 in Indian

history, which one of the following statements is
correct? (2021)
(a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the
AICC.
(b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to
include more Indians.
(c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven
provinces.
(d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with fall
Dominion Status once the Second World War was
over.

In India, on which one of the following The term of the Lok Sabha: [2002] Financial Emergency
grounds can the salaries and allowances of (a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
persons serving in connection with affairs of (b) can be extended by six months at a time Article 360 empowers the President to
the State be reduced? (c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclaim a financial emergency if he/she is
(a) Financial emergency proclamation of emergency satisfied that a situation has arisen due to
(b) Internal disturbance (d) can be extended for two years at a time during which the financial stability or credit of India
(c) Failure of the constitutional machinery in a the proclamation of emergency or any part of its territory is threatened.
State
(d) Degradation of public morality Constitutional processes during a
Consider the following statements: [2006] Financial Emergency
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare
that it would be in national interest for the Parliament ● Approval: Within two months, the
to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List. Parliament must pass a resolution
2. Resolutions approving the proclamation of approving the financial emergency
Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha. with a simple majority.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? ● Duration: The financial emergency
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only lasts indefinitely after being approved
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(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 by the parliament until it is cancelled.
This means that there is no fixed
maximum term for its operation and
Consider the following statements in respect of that parliamentary permission is not
financial emergency under Article 360 of the required repeatedly for it to continue.
Constitution of India: [2007]
1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall ● Withdrawal: By issuing another
cease to operate at the expiration of two months, proclamation to that effect, the
unless before the expiration of that period it has been president may declare the emergency
approved by the resolutions of both Houses of to be over. A revocation of this nature
Parliament. does not need parliamentary
2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in approval.
operation, it is competent for the President of India to
issue directions for the reduction of salaries and Effects of a Financial Emergency
allowances of all or any class of persons serving in
connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding ● Expansion of the Union's executive
the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High power over the States' financial
Courts. affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? ● Reduction in the pay and benefits
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only received by all or certain classes of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 state employees.

● After being approved by the state

legislature, all money bills and other
financial bills are reserved for the
President's approval.

● The Supreme Court and High Court

judges, as well as any other class of
employees who serve the Union, are
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to have their salaries and benefits

reduced, according to a directive from
the President.

Which of the following is/ are exclusive Consider the following statements: Completely Static Topic
power/powers of the Rajya Sabha? An amendment to the Constitution of India can
1. The power to initiate a Money Bill be initiated by the: [1999]
2. To declare a subject in the State List as a 1. Lok Sabha 2. Rajya Sabha
subject of national importance 3. State Legislature 4. President
3. To impeach the President of India Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code [1999]
given below. (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only Consider the following statements: [2013 - I]
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be
initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha
only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in
the federal character of the Constitution, the
amendment also requires to be ratified by the
legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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The Parliament of India acquires the power to

legislate on any item in the State List in the
national interest if a
resolution to that effect is passed by the [2016-I]
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total
membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than
two-thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total
membership
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than
two-thirds of its members present and voting

Which one of the following statements is

correct? [2003]
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can
have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating
two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian
community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated
member to be appointed as a Union minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the
Presidential and Vice Presidential elections

Consider the following statements: [2003]

1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the
Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of
the Constitution
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2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya

Sabha
was held in the year 1961
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of
Indian
Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service
Commission (Repeal) Bill
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially

amended by the Rajya Sabha? [2013 - I]
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill,
accepting or not accepting the recommendations of
the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya
Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing
the Bill

If any question arises as to whether a Member Consider the following statements: [2019-I]
of the Parliament has become subject to any 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Office of Profit
of the disqualifications mentioned in Article Act,1959 exempts several posts from disqualification
102(1}, who among the following is on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'. The concept of "Office of Profit" in India
empowered to take the 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five relates to positions held by Members of
final decision? times. Parliament or Members of the Legislative
(a) The President of India 3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Assembly (MPs or MLAs) that may provide
(b) The Prime Minister of India Constitution of India.
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(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha Which of the following statements given above financial gain or benefit.
(d) The Chief Justice of India is/are
correct? The origin of the term ‘Office of Profit’ can
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only be found in the English Act of Settlement,
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 1701. Hence, the concept of ‘office of
profit’ is borrowed from the UK.

The constitution and Representation of

People’s Act,1951 does not have a clear
definition of what constitutes an office of
profit, but the definition has been developed
through various court judgments.

The test for determining whether a person

holds an office of profit is based on the test of
appointment, as per the Supreme Court's
ruling in Pradyut Bordoloi vs Swapan Roy
(2001). This test involves evaluating multiple
factors, including:

● whether the government is

responsible for appointing the
individual,

● if the government has the authority to

terminate the appointment,

● if the government sets the

remuneration for the position,
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● What is the source of the

remuneration, and the extent of power
or authority associated with the
position.

The Parliament (Prevention of

Disqualification) Act, 1959

The Act has been amended multiple times to

expand the list of offices that are exempt from
disqualification. The certain offices exempted
are:

● Minister of union or state

● Whips in the Parliament

● Leader of opposition in the Parliament

● Officers of the National Cadet Corps

and the Territorial Army.

● Parliamentary Secretary and Under

Secretaries.

● Chairperson of the National Advisory

Council

● Chairman of National Commission on

Minorities; for Scheduled Castes; for
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Scheduled Tribes; for Women, etc.

Which one among the following legal maxims With reference to the writs issued by the Courts
means 'we command'? in India, consider the following statements : Static Topic
(a) Habeas corpus (2022)
(b) Mandamus 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private
(c) Audi alteram partem organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
(d) Non bis in idem 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even
though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to
move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Which one of the following provisions of the Consider the following: (2011) On 10 December 1948, the General
Universal Declaration of Human Rights states, 1. Right to education Assembly of the United Nations announced
"Everyone has the right to life, liberty and 2. Right to equal access to public service the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
security of person"? 3. Right to food (UDHR) - 30 rights and freedoms of all
(a) Article 1 Which of the above is/are Human Right/ Human human beings.
(b) Article 2 Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human
(c) Article 3 Rights”? (Year 2023, marks the 75th anniversary of
(d) Article 4 (a) 1 only the Universal Declaration of Human
(b) 1 and 2 only Rights)
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Article 1: All humans are born free and equal
in dignity and rights.
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Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the Article 2: Everyone is entitled to all the rights
following parts of the Constitution of India and freedoms
reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of
Article 3: Everyone has the right to life,
the Universal Declaration of
liberty, and security of person.
Human Rights (1948)? (2020)
1. Preamble Article 4: Slavery is prohibited.
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties Article 7: All are equal before the law and are
Select the correct answer using the code given entitled to equal protection of the law
below:
Article 8: right to remedy by competent
(a) 1 and 2 only
tribunals
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Article 9: No one shall be subjected to
(d) 1, 2 and 3 arbitrary arrest.

Article 10: Everyone is entitled to a fair and

public hearing by an independent tribunal

Article 11: Presumption of innocence until

proven guilty.

Article 13: Freedom of movement and

residence

Article 14: Right to seek and enjoy asylum

Article 16: Right to marry

Article 17: Right to own property

Article 18: Right to freedom of thought,

conscience, and religion.
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Article 20: Right to freedom of peaceful

assembly and association

Article 21: Right to participate in government,

directly or through freely chosen
representatives.

Article 26: Right to education.

Which one of the following languages is not Multiple PYQs My Notes

included in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
(a) Bodo
(b) Maithili
(c) Santhali
(d) Ladakhi

Which of the following is/are correct about In which one of the following groups are all the G20 Summary
G20? four countries members of G20 ? [2020-I]
1. It has no permanent secretariat. (a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey The G20 (Group of Twenty) was indeed
2. It was founded on a legally binding (b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand initially established as a forum for Finance
international agreement between 20 top (c) Brazil, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Ministers and Central Bank Governors to
industrialised countries. (d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea discuss international economic and financial
3. Each country is led by a Sherpa. matters. It was created in 1999 in response
4. Spain is one of the two 'Permanent Invitees to to the financial crises of the late 1990s and
the G20. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, aimed to enhance cooperation and policy
Select the correct answer using the code:. consider the following statements: (2022) coordination among major economies.
(a) l and 2 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20
(b) 4 only together with the Paris Club. Its decisions are not legally binding, and
(c) 3 and 4 2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries member countries are not required to
implement them.
(d) l and 3 with unsustainable debt.
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Which of the statements given above is/are The members of the G20 are Argentina,
correct? Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France,
(a) 1 only Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan,
Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi
(b) 2 only
Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United
(c) Both 1 and 2 Kingdom, the United States, and the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 European Union.

Spain as a permanent, non-member

invitee, also attends leader summits.

The G20 Presidency rotates annually. The

G20 does not have a permanent
secretariat or Headquarters.

TROIKA: Every year when a new country

takes on the presidency, it works hand in
hand with the previous presidency and the
next presidency and this is collectively known
as TROIKA.

Each G20 country is represented by its

Sherpa.

India G20 Presidency:

● Theme of India’s G20 presidency:

“Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” or
“One Earth - One Family - One
Future”.

● Troika: During the presidency, the

Troika would consist of Indonesia,
India and Brazil.
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● African representation: To make

G20 more inclusive, India has
proposed to include the African Union
as a full-time member.

Which of the following statements about the Sports Related Question Appearing National Sports Day 2023 is observed on 29
National Sports Day is/are correct? August every year to commemorate the
1. It is observed on 28th February. birthday of Indian hockey legend Major
2. It coincides with the birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand.
Dhyan Chand.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) l only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Which among the following was/were 12th-century Hoysala Temples of Karnataka

declared UNESCO's World Heritage Site/Sites (42nd) and Santiniketan(41st), West
in 2023? Bengal, was declared a world heritage site
1. Dholavira, Gujarat by UNESCO.
2. Hoysala Temple of Belur
3. Santiniketan, West Bengal Dholavira, Harappan City in the Rann of
4. Ramappa Temple Kutch, becomes India’s 40th UNESCO World
Heritage Site.(2021)
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Rudreswara Temple (Ramappa Temple) at
(a) 1 and 2 Palampet, Warangal, Telangana IS 39th
(b) 3 only (2021)
(c) 2, 3 and 4 Three Hoysala-era temples in Karnataka
{d) 2 and 3 only [Chennakeshava (Belur), Hoysaleswara
(Halebidu) and Keshava Temple
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(Somanathapura, Mysuru)] recently made

it to UNESCO’s World Heritage List, under
the collective entry of ‘Sacred Ensembles
of the Hoysalas’.

The announcement was made by UNESCO,

during the World Heritage Committee’s 45th
session in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.

● The Chennakeshava temple

(dedicated to Lord Vishnu) was
consecrated around 1117 AD by the
mighty Hoysala king Vishnuvardhana,
to mark his victories against the
Cholas.
● It is thus also called the Vijaya
Narayana temple.
● The Kesava temple (also a
Vaishnava shrine) was built in
Somanathapura in 1268 by
Somanatha, a general of Hoysala
King Narasimha III.
● It is built in the shape of a
16-point star and has 3 shrines
dedicated to Keshava (the
statue is missing now),
Janardhana and Venugopala.
● The Hoysaleswara temple is
believed to be the largest Shiva
temple built by the Hoysalas, and is
dated to the 12th century.
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Santiniketan

Santiniketan translates to "Abode of Peace"

and was founded by Tagore as an experiment
in education and art, which continues to
influence generations of artists, scholars, and
thinkers.

● It was a residential school and centre

for art based on ancient Indian
traditions.
● In 1921, a ‘world university’ was
established at Santiniketan, later
recognised as 'Visva Bharati'.
● Visva-Bharati in Santiniketan is
Bengal’s only central university whose
chancellor is the Prime Minister.

Which of the following is/ are the

measure/measures undertaken by the Asia’s largest Compressed Bio Gas plant
Government of India to promote the in Lehragaga, Sangrur in the state of Punjab.
production of Compressed Biogas (CBG)?
1. Central financial assistance for setting up of Compressed Biogas
plants for generation of Bio-CNG.
Bio-gas is produced naturally (through a
2. Inclusion of CBG projects under Priority Sector
process of anaerobic decomposition) from
Lending
waste / biomass sources like agriculture
3. Concession on customs duty for the import of
residue, cattle dung, municipal solid waste,
machinery required for setting up of projects
etc. After purification, it is compressed and
Select the correct answer using the code
called as Compressed BioGas (CBG).
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
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(b) 2 and 3 only CBG has methane content of more than 90%
(c) 1, 2 and 3 which is similar to commercially available
(d) 1 only natural gas in composition and energy
potential.

It can help reduce carbon emissions and

provide an additional revenue source for
farmers. It can also help reduce import of
natural gas and crude oil, ensuring energy
security.

SATAT Scheme: It will fulfil the objectives of

the Sustainable Alternative Towards
Affordable Transportation (SATAT) scheme
2018 to establish an ecosystem for
production of CBG from various waste/
biomass sources in India.

Which one among the following statements With reference to National Legal Services NALSA and Lok Adalat
with regard to the legal facilities in India is not Authority, consider the following statements:
correct? [2013 - I] The National Legal Services Authority
(a) Tele-Law is a pre-litigation advice mechanism. 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal (NALSA) has been constituted under the
(b) The President of India is Patron-in-Chief of services to the weaker sections of the society on the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA). basis of equal opportunity. provide free Legal Services to the weaker
(c) There are dedicated Commercial Courts at 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services sections of the society and to organise Lok
various places in India to handle commercial Authorities to implement the legal programmes and Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
cases. schemes throughout the country.
(d) Some courts in India are paperless Digital Which of the statements given above is/are In every state, State Legal Services
Commercial Courts. correct? Authority has been constituted to give effect
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only to the policies and directions of the NALSA
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 and to give free legal services to the people
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In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free and conduct Lok Adalats in the State.
legal services to which of the following types of
citizens? (2020) Tele-Law - pre-litigation advice mechanism.
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. It's an e-interface that connects people who
1,00,000 need legal advice with panel lawyers through
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than video conferencing and telephone facilities.
Rs. 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with The Chief Justice of India is patron-in-chief
an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000 of NALSA.
4. All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Consider the following: [2005]
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases
3. Pension cases
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the

following
statements: [2009]
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a
decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against
there
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to any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under
Lok Adalat.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the

following
statements is correct? [2010]
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle matters
at
pre-litigation stage and not those matters pending
before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil
and
not criminal in nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or
retired
judicial officers only and not any other person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct.