PhysioTEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 7
PhysioTEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 7
PhysioTEST QUESTIONS CHAPTER 7
1. What is the basis for differences in sensory abilities 5. According to the law of specific nerve energies,
across species?
A) electrical stimulation of the auditory nerve is
A) The larger the organism, the more intense the perceived as sound.
stimulus must be to be detected.
B) a single nerve can convey either auditory or visual
B) All organisms detect the same stimuli, but focus information, depending on the frequency of action
attention only on those involved in survival. potentials.
C) Organisms detect a range of stimuli that are C) the brain has ways of inhibiting the activity of neurons
biologically relevant for that species. that convey no useful information.
D) Organisms high on the phylogenetic scale can detect D) if one sensory system becomes inactive, others will
all stimuli; lower organisms can only detect a specific compensate by increasing their activity.
range of stimuli.
D) Neither a bee nor a human. C) The activity of a given sensory neuron contributes to
the perception of both sweet tastes and salty tastes.
D) amplitude, loudness
4. With reference to the sensory systems, "transduction"
means
A) the absorption of physical energy. 8. The average healthy adult can hear pitches ranging
from a low of __________ Hz to a high of almost
B) the changing of one sensory modality to another __________ Hz.
within the brain (eg. converting words you read into
sounds). A) 15, 20,000
B) tympanic membrane.
9. Suppose the highest pitch you can hear is about
20,000 Hz. Under what circumstances will that limit C) basilar membrane.
decrease?
D) malleus, incus, and stapes.
A) It drops naturally as you grow older.
B) Frequency theory.
10. Three small bones connect the tympanic membrane
to the oval window of the inner ear. The function of those C) Place theory.
bones is to
D) Opponent process theory.
A) hold the tympanic membrane in place.
11. The cochlea is part of which sensory system? D) in the eighth cranial nerve.
A) Visual.
C) temporary deafness.
12. The receptor cells of the auditory system are known
as D) hysterical deafness.
A) rods.
A) primitive C) hippocampus.
C) olfactory
A) vitamin B 1 (thiamine).
19. Which two sensory systems are based on the
responses of hair cells? B) substance P.
D) Temperature and pain. 24. In what way do morphine and other opiate drugs
decrease sensitivity to pain?
B) are based on different kinds of receptors, although D) By altering blood flow to various parts of the nervous
they send their information through the same spinal system.
pathway.
B) Capsaicin.
B) Temperature.
26. If a tumor develops in the dorsal somatosensory
C) Movements of the head. cortex of the right half of the brain, this can lead to a loss
of feeling in
D) Displacement of the skin.
A) the right side of the face.
B) in the midbrain, belonging to the auditory system. A) the activity level of an animal that does not have a
biological clock.
C) in the thalamus, belonging to the visual system.
B) the sleep pattern of someone who has just finished a
D) in the midbrain, belonging to the visual system. period of sleep deprivation and who is now permitted to
sleep without restrictions.
29. Various receptor systems which together mediate C) a pattern of activity that varies unpredictably from one
somato sensory information, are present in the skin. day to the next.
Evidence exists that the sensation of pressure is
mediated by D) the time cycle generated by a biological clock that is
not reset.
A) Pacinian corpuscles.
B) hair receptors.
4. A "Zeitgeber" is
C) free nerve endings.
A) a biological clock.
D) Meissner's corpuscles.
B) an animal that does not have a biological clock.
A) The tides.
1. "Endogenous" means
B) Temperature.
A) occurring at regular intervals.
C) Light.
B) learned.
D) Social stimuli.
C) It varies about 2 Celsius degrees from the hottest
point to the coldest, but there is no regularity in the time
6. Under what circumstance is a person's circadian when those extremes occur.
activity cycle most likely to drift out of phase with the
activity of other people? D) It is constant throughout the day.
7. If people live in an environment in which the cycle of D) damage to either hemisphere of the cerebral cortex
light and dark is not 24 hours, abolishes the biological clock.
C) temperature
8. When humans who are cut off from sunlight and
outside contact start sleeping on a schedule other than D) hormones
24 hours, their waking/sleeping cycle generally drifts out
of phase with their __________ cycle.
D) Caudate nucleus.
9. What ordinarily happens to a humans body
temperature over the course of 24 hours? 13. What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in
the biological clock?
A) It is about 1 Celsius degree higher in the afternoon
than in the middle of the night. A) Its neurons generate a 24 hour rhythm themselves.
14. One line of evidence AGAINST the repair and A) non REM sleep.
restoration theory of sleep is that
B) nightmares.
A) people sleep as long after an inactive day as after a
vigorous day. C) relaxed wakefulness.
B) digestion and protein synthesis take place during D) periods of great excitement.
sleep.
C) ACTH.
20. EEG waves are larger when brain activity decreases
D) FSH. because
C) the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the D) blood flow increases to compensate for the
brain. decreased brain activity.
22. The cause for a reduction in sleep among older 26. Stages 2, 3, and 4 differ in their
persons is that there is a:
A) percentage of REM sleep.
A) reduced amount of REM sleep and a reduced amount
of slow wave sleep, especially of stage 4. B) percentage of slow, low amplitude waves.
C) A great many neurons are active, in phase with one D) postural muscles are tense, while heart rate and
another. breathing rate are very low.
C) stage 3
C) stage 3 sleep. D) an EEG pattern with large waves and a high musle
tension.
D) stage 4 sleep.
B) No more than a few seconds. 42. If a cat is awakened every time it starts to enter REM
sleep, the number of attempts to enter REM sleep
C) Much longer than 5 minutes.
A) remains steady over days.
D) We have no way of knowing.
B) gradually decreases to zero.
B) Wake them up during REM sleep and ask them if they 43. Human subjects deprived of REM sleep for several
had been dreaming. consecutive days generally report
C) Wake them up during NREM sleep and ask them if A) no noticeable negative effects.
they had been dreaming.
B) anxiety, irritability, and impaired concentration.
D) Ask them under hypnosis if they had any dreams
recently. C) elation, euphoria, and improved concentration.
B) gets nothing but REM sleep for the next several A) While asleep, people are completely cut off from
nights. external stimuli.
C) gets little or no REM sleep for the next several nights. B) While asleep, external stimuli are processed at the
level of the sense organ, but are inhibited before
D) gets about the same amount of REM sleep as usual. reaching the brain.
D) somatosensory input.
D) hypnagogic hallucinations.
51. In the EEG ______ waves dominate when the
subject is engaged in solving complicated problems,
______ waves dominate when the subject is awake but
47. In contrast to the visual system, the somatosensory in a relaxed state, and ______ waves dominate when
system, or any other single sensory system, the cells of the subject is in deep sleep.
the ascending reticular activating system
A) alpha, beta, theta
A) make fewer connections with one another.
B) alpha, beta, delta
B) project more distinctly to one area of the cerebral
cortex. C) beta, alpha, theta
48. The structure of the ascending reticular activating A) inability to breathe while sleeping.
system makes it highly suitable for
B) involuntary movements of the limbs while sleeping.
A) conveying general arousal.
C) sudden periods of sleepiness during the day.
B) conveying specific sensory information.
D) sleepwalking.
C) localizing sensory information.
1. Ans : D 10. Ans : A 19. Ans : D 28. Ans : D 37. Ans : C 46. Ans : B
2. Ans : A 11. Ans : C 20. Ans : B 29. Ans : D 38. Ans : A 47. Ans : C
3. Ans : D 12. Ans : C 21. Ans : B 30. Ans : A 39. Ans : B 48. Ans : A
4. Ans : C 13. Ans : A 22. Ans : A 31. Ans : C 40. Ans : A 49. Ans : A
5. Ans : C 14. Ans : A 23. Ans : A 32. Ans : D 41. Ans : A 50. Ans : C
6. Ans : C 15. Ans : B 24. Ans : B 33. Ans : B 42. Ans : C 51. Ans : D
7. Ans : C 16. Ans : D 25. Ans : D 34. Ans : C 43. Ans : B 52. Ans : C
8. Ans : C 17. Ans : C 26. Ans : B 35. Ans : A 44. Ans : C 53. Ans : A