00ICOM All

ICOM All
1. An aircraft is on the approach to land. At what point during the approach

would the pilot report FINAL?
A) As soon as visual contact with the aerodrome is established.
B) When established on the extended centreline of the runway.
C) At a distance of 5 NM or greater from touchdown.
D) At a distance of 4 NM or less from the landing runway.
2. “Complete the definition of an instrument approach procedure: Instrument

approach procedure means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by
reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from
the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the…”
A) end of a defined departure route to a point from which a landing can be completed.
B) beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed.
C) beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed and
thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en&route obstacle
clearance criteria apply.
D) end of a defined departure route to a point from which a landing can be completed and
thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en&route obstacle
clearance criteria apply.
3. “What does the term “”significant point”” mean?”

A) A signal indicating the direction of the runway&in&use.
B) A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path
of an aircraft employing area navigation.
C) A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation
system.
D) A term used to define a specified and identifiable location on the manoeuvring area of an
aerodrome.
4. “What does the term “”broadcast”” mean?”

A) Two&way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the
earth.
B) One&way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth.
C) A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged
in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations.
D) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific
station or stations.
5. “What does the term “”air&ground communication”” mean?”

A) One&way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth.
B) One&way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth.
C) Two&way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the
earth.
D) Any communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth
requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network &AFTN&.
6. “What does the term “”Expected Approach Time”” mean?”

A) The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination
aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing.
B) The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated
navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome.
C) The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for
a landing will be initiated.
D) The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the
holding point to complete its approach for a landing.
7. “When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes
the term “”Visual approach””?”
A) A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the
aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than the required VMC minima.
B) An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure
is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain.
C) An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMC.
D) An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for
landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight&in&approach.
8. “What does the term “”clearance limit”” mean?”

A) The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance.
B) The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance.
C) The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled, if the
flight has not been commenced.
D) The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.
9. “An “”Automatic Terminal Information Service”” provides…”

A) current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air
navigation within a FIR.
B) information concerning en&route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of
aircraft operation.
C) routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and
repetitive broadcast.
D) weather reports related to a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight
information region &FIR&.
10. What does the abbreviation STAR stand for?

A) Special terminal arrival route
B) Standard instrument arrival
C) Status report
D) Standard terminal radar
11. What does the abbreviation SID stand for?

A) Standard initial decision height
B) Special inoperative equipment dispatch
C) Standard instrument departure
D) Status information data link
12. What is the meaning of APV?

A) “””Approach performed only in VMC””: the restriction of an approved procedure to land at
an aerodrome only when the aerodrome`s ATS unit reports VFR meteorological conditions.”
B) “””Aerodrome proximity visualisation””: an augmented&reality visualisation through any
computer&based system of the essential elements at or in the close vicinity of an
aerodrome, such as obstacles and signs.”
C) “””Aerodrome probable visibility””: the visibility used in case of failure of
visibility&measuring instruments at an aerodrome, based on estimates by a human observer
with knowledge of the aerodrome environment.”
D) “””Approach procedure with vertical guidance””: an instrument procedure which utilises
lateral and vertical guidance but does not meet the requirements established for precision
approach and landing operations.”
13. “What does the abbreviation “”RVR”” mean?”

A) Runway visibility report
B) Recleared via route
C) Radar vectors requested
D) Runway visual range
14. Which of the following is an ATS unit in charge of controlling traffic?

A) DEPARTURE
B) AFIS
C) ATIS
D) AIS
15. Which of the following is the correct suffix for the ATC unit controlling the
traffic using the movement area?
A) DELIVERY
B) GROUND
C) APPROACH
D) RADAR
16. Which call&sign suffix designates a station issuing pre&flight clearances?

A) DELIVERY
B) DISPATCH
C) INFORMATION
D) DEPARTURE
17. “What does the abbreviation “”IMC”” mean?”

A) International meteorological channel.
B) In most cases.
C) In meteorological conditions.
D) Instrument meteorological conditions.
18. “What does the abbreviation “”AIS”” mean?”
A) Airport information system.
B) Aerodrome identification signal&area.
C) Aeronautical information service.
D) Aerodrome information service.
19. “What does the abbreviation “”H24?” mean?”

A) Sunset to sunrise.
B) Continuous day and night service.
C) No specific working hours.
D) Sunrise to sunset.
20. “What does the abbreviation “”ATIS”” mean?”

A) Airport terminal information service.
B) Air traffic information service.
C) Automatic terminal information system.
D) Automatic terminal information service.
21. “What does the abbreviation “”MLS”” mean?”

A) Mean sea level
B) Microwave landing system
C) Minimum safe level
D) Minimum sector level
22. What is SELCAL?

A) A system provided for direct exchange of information between ATS units.
B) A system in which two&way radiotelephony communication can be established between
two aircraft of the same operator.
C) A system in which two&way radiotelephony communication between more than two
stations can take place simultaneously, when they are in the area of jurisdiction of the same
ATS unit.
D) A system that permits selective calling of individual aircraft over a radiotelephone channel
linking a ground station with the aircraft, which is unmonitored by the aircraft crew.
23. “What does the abbreviation “”SSR”” mean?”

A) Surface strength of runway
B) Secondary surveillance radar
C) Standard snow report
D) Search and surveillance radar
24. “What does the abbreviation “”RNAV”” mean?”

A) Radio navigation
B) Radar aided navigation
C) Route navigation
D) Area navigation
25. Which of the following Q codes are solely used to communicate directions
and bearings in RTF air&ground communications?
A) QDM and QFE.
B) QNH and QDR.
C) QFE and QNH.
D) QDM and QDR.
26. Which Q&code group should a pilot use to ask for the magnetic heading to
a station without wind correction?
A) QDM
B) QFU
C) QFE
D) QDR
27. QFE is the RTF Q&code to indicate the…

A) atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation or at runway threshold.
B) atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an
aerodrome.
C) altimeter sub&scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.
D) atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.
28. QNH is the Q&code to indicate…

A) the atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an
aerodrome.
B) the atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation &or at runway threshold&.
C) the atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point &ARP&.
D) the altimeter sub&scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.
29. According to ICAO Annex 10, Aeronautical Telecommunications, which

air&ground message has the highest priority?
A) Emergency message
B) Urgency message
C) Flight safety message
D) Distress message
30. “What type of message is the following?””Mayday Mayday Mayday, Lille

Tower, Sunny Air 125, engine shut down, passing FL80,making forced landing
in Brussels”””
A) Flight regularity
B) Urgency
C) Flight safety
D) Distress
31. How should this call sign F&GTPO be transmitted in a radio message?
A) Fox Golf Tango Papa Oscar.
B) Fox Golf Tango Papa Oliver.
C) Foxtrot Golf Tango Papa Oliver.
D) Foxtrot Golf Tango Papa Oscar.
32. What is the correct way of spelling out ERL VOR in a radio message?
A) Echo Romeo Lima & VOR
B) Echao Romeo Lima & VOR
C) Echo Romeo Lina & VOR
D) Echo Rome Lima & VOR
33. “How should””FRI&VOR”” be transmitted in a radio message using the

phonetic alphabet?”
A) Foxtrot Romeo India & VOR
B) Foxtrot Romeo Indiana & VOR
C) Fox Romeo Indiana & VOR
D) Fox Romeo India & VOR
34. In radio communication, crew members are mandated to read back items to
air traffic controllers. Excluded from this requirement are items regarding…
A) SSR codes.
B) the runway in use.
C) traffic information.
D) transition levels.
35. Which of the following only lists instructions and information that should
always be read back?
A) QNH, SSR code, and approach aid serviceability.
B) SSR code, QNH, take&off clearance, and speed instructions.
C) QNH, weather information, and runway&in&use.
D) ATC clearance, speed instructions, and runway state information.
36. Select the option that lists only those items in a message sent by ATC to
an aircraft that are required to be read back.
A) Descend to 3000 ft, wind 240°, 15 kt, gusts 30 kt, turn right heading 210°, reduce speed
to 160 kt, squawk 1723 and braking action poor.
B) Descend to 3000 ft, turn right heading 210°, reduce speed to 160 kt and squawk 1723.
C) Descend to 3000 ft, turn right heading 210°, reduce speed to 160 kt, squawk 1723 and
braking action poor.
D) Descend to 3000 ft, wind 240°, 15 kt, gusts 30 kt, turn right heading 210° and squawk
1723.
37. “ATC have given you a clearance as follows:””Foxtrot Alfa Charlie India
Papa is cleared to Bravo November Echo via Lima 5, Alfa 3, at Flight Level 150
to climb to Flight Level 170 after Delta Victor Romeo.””What must you read
back to the controller?”
A) “””Foxtrot Alfa Charlie India Papa is cleared to Bravo November Echo at Flight Level 170
after Delta Victor Romeo.”””
B) “””Foxtrot India Papa to Bravo November Echo at Flight Level 150.”””
C) “””Cleared to Bravo November Echo at Flight Level 150, to climb to Flight Level 170 after
Delta Victor Romeo, Foxtrot India Papa.”””
D) “””Cleared to Bravo November Echo via Lima 5, Alfa 3, at Flight Level 150 to climb to
Flight Level 170 after Delta Victor Romeo, Foxtrot Alfa Charlie India Papa.”””
38. For which of the following messages a read back is NOT needed?
A) Clearance to take off.
B) Wind velocity.
C) Clearance to backtrack on RWY in use.
D) Altimeter setting.
39. “A pilot is flying IFR in class D airspace and receives the following
message on the radio:””Sunny Air 125, unknown traffic 12 o`clock 3 miles
opposite direction600 feet below descending””. The pilot is not in sight of this
traffic. He/she reads back…”
A) “””Unknown traffic 12 o`clock 3 miles 600 feet below descending copied, looking out””,
then files a report on this near collision.”
B) “””Looking out, Sunny Air 125?”, then advises the Air Traffic Services when in sight.”
C) “””Unknown traffic ahead 3 miles 600 feet below descending, not in sight””, then advises
Air Traffic Services when in sight.”
D) “””Unknown traffic ahead 3 miles 600 feet below descending, looking out””, then advises
Air Traffic Services when in sight.”
40. What is the correct phraseology for a temporary suspension of

transponder operation?
A) Squawk ident
B) XPDR off
C) XPDR standby
D) Squawk standby
41. “What is the correct read back to this instruction: “”Loopair 125, turn right
heading 050 for separation””?”
A) Heading 050, Loopair 125.
B) Heading right 050 for separation, Loopair 125.
C) Heading 050 for separation, Loopair 125.
D) Heading right 050, Loopair 125.
42. “An aircraft receives the following message: “”F&PO, identification lost
due to radar failure.””Which of the following proposal is correct?The read
back is:…”
A) “””Identification lost, F&PO”” and the pilot may receive further instructions to establish and
maintain procedural separation.”
B) “””Identification lost, F&PO”” and the pilot shall disconnect the transponder as it may be
the cause of the radar failure.”
C) “””Roger, F&PO”” and the pilot may receive further instructions to establish and maintain
procedural separation.”
D) “””Roger, F&PO”” and the pilot shall disconnect the transponder as it may be the cause of
the radar failure.”
43. Which of the following communications contains the standard indication
that radar vectoring is completed?
A) “””Clear of traffic, direct LESDO.”””
B) “””Radar failure, proceed LESDO.”””
C) “””Set heading to LESDO.”””
D) “””Resume own navigation to LESDO.”””
44. During a radar approach, you are following an ATC instruction and have
started a right turn from 210 degrees onto North. What instruction would you
expect the controller to give you, if the controller now wants you to head 335
degrees instead?
A) “””G&ACZG, LEAVE THREE SIX ZERO DEGREES HEADING THREE THREE FIVE
DEGREES.”””
B) “””G&ACZG, STOP TURN HEADING THREE THREE FIVE DEGREES.”””
C) “””G&ACZG, FOLLOW HEADING THREE THREE FIVE DEGREES.”””
D) “””G&ACZG, MODIFY HEADING THREE THREE FIVE DEGREES.”””
45. “ATC instruct you:””G&ACZG, TURN RIGHT IMMEDIATELY SIXTY

DEGREES TO AVOID TRAFFIC ELEVEN OCLOCK FOUR MILES.””What do you
do?”
A) Look for the traffic, and when you have seen it, acknowledge and turn right onto the new
heading.
B) Acknowledge the instruction then check visually that it is safe to turn before starting a turn
right onto the new heading.
C) Immediately select the maximum angle of bank possible and pull back to make the
60&degree turn as rapidly as possible.
D) Start a standard rate turn right onto the new heading immediately, and acknowledge the
instruction when time permits.
46. “You are making a radar approach to join the ILS, and wish to be vectored
to a position on the localiser 8 miles from the threshold. What should you ask
the radar controller?””G&ACZG, REQUEST…”
A) “STRAIGHT IN APPROACH FROM 8 MILES””.”
B) “VECTORS TO INTERCEPT LOCALISER AT 8 MILES””.”
C) “8 MILE FINAL””.”
D) “VECTORS 8 MILES””. “
47. “The radar controller instructs you: “”ADVISE IF ABLE TO PROCEED

PARALLEL OFFSET””. What does he/she want you to tell him/her?Whether
you can…”
A) return to track under your own navigation if the controller vectors you off track.
B) overtake another aircraft flying in the same direction.
C) join formation with another aircraft travelling on the same track.
D) maintain a track parallel to the one for which you have already been cleared.
48. To assist a radar controller to identify your aircraft, you are asked for your
position. The LUGBERRY VOR station is 5 miles north of you. How do you
report your position in relation to it?
A) “””POSITION FIVE MILES SOUTH OF LUGBERRY VOR, G&ACZG””.”
B) “””LUGBERRY VOR FIVE MILES ONE EIGHT ZERO, G&ACZG””.”
C) “””ONE EIGHT ZERO FIVE FROM LUGBERRY VOR, G&ACZG””.”
D) “””POSITION LUGBERRY VOR FIVE MILES NORTH, G&ACZG””.”
49. “The controller gives you this instruction: “”HOTAIR ALFA GOLF, RESET
SQUAWK CHARLIE 3363?”. What should you do?”
A) “Check visually that 3363 is displayed on your transponder, select “”IDENT”” on your
transponder, and transmit “”RESETTING CHARLIE 3363, HOTAIR ALFA GOLF””.”
B) “Reselect the code of 3363, ensure pressure altitude is being transmitted, and transmit
“”RESETTING CHARLIE 3363, HOTAIR ALFA GOLF””. “
C) “Reselect the code of 3363, and transmit “”WILCO, HOTAIR ALFA GOLF””.”
D) “Check visually that 3363 is displayed on your transponder with altitude also selected,
and transmit “”SQUAWKING CHARLIE 3363, HOTAIR ALFA GOLF””.”
50. “While under radar control, a pilot receives the following traffic
information””LOOPAIR 125,TRAFFIC 11 O`CLOCK,5 MILES, CROSSING LEFT
TO RIGHT,GULFSTREAM G150, DESCENDING.””The pilot does NOT see the
traffic but has a traffic advisory on TCAS. What is the correct answer?”
A) “””LOOKING OUT, LOOPAIR125.”””
B) “””TCAS TA,LOOPAIR 125.”””
C) “””MONITORING TCAS,LOOPAIR 125.”””
D) “””WATCHING OUT, LOOPAIR125.”””
51. How would a controller ask you to reselect both the mode and code he/she
has already instructed you to select on your transponder?
A) “””G&ACZG, RESET SQUAWK ALFA THREE SIX ONE SIX.”””
B) “””G&ACZG, STAND BY ALFA THREE SIX ONE SIX.”””
C) “””G&ACZG, TURN ALFA THREE SIX ONE SIX.”””
D) “””G&ACZG, SQUAWK IDENT THREE SIX ONE SIX.”””
52. “After establishing communication with an ATC radar unit for an approach,
the controller says “”GOLF ALFA CHARLIE BRAVO GOLF, FOR ILS RUNWAY
22, FLY HEADING TWO ONE FIVE””. What does this mean to the pilot?”
A) The ILS track to the runway is 215 degrees.
B) The aeroplane should turn onto a heading of 215 degrees.
C) The heading to maintain the ILS track will be 215 degrees.
D) The heading to maintain the runway track is 215 degrees.
53. “What does the instruction “”Fastair 345 reset 1240?” mean?”
A) Fastair 345 is requested to reselect assigned code 1240.
B) Fastair 345 is informed that radar service is terminated at time 12:40.
C) Fastair 345 is requested to set new code 1240.
D) Fastair 345 is instructed to stop squawk 1240 immediately.
54. “The radar controller transmits the following traffic information to

you:””FOXTROT ALFA GOLF DELTA ZULU, TRAFFIC TWO O’CLOCK EIGHT
MILES, CLOSING,SAME LEVEL.””What would be an appropriate reply?”
A) “””FOXTROT ALFA GOLF DELTA ZULU, REQUEST LEAVE HEADING.”””
B) “””FOXTROT ALFA GOLF DELTA ZULU, NEGATIVE CONTACT, REQUEST
VECTORS.”””
C) “””ACKNOWLEDGED, WE ARE LOOKING, FOXTROT ALFA GOLF DELTA ZULU.”””
D) “””FOXTROT ALFA GOLF DELTA ZULU, REPORT HEADING.”””
55. “You are maintaining a track of 060° direct towards your destination. After
establishing communication with an ATC radar unit, the controller instructs
you: “”FOR IDENTIFICATION TURN RIGHT HEADING ONE FIVE ZERO
DEGREES.”” What should you do?”
A) Turn right onto 150° magnetic and maintain your current transponder setting.
B) Turn right onto 150° magnetic and select IDENT on your transponder.
C) Turn 150° right onto a heading of 210° magnetic and maintain your current transponder
setting.
D) Select IDENT on your transponder and maintain your present track. The SSR will provide
the identification.
56. “After achieving two&way communication, Mudfield Radar gives the

following instruction:””GOLF ALFA CHARLIE ZULU GOLF, TRANSMIT FOR
IDENTIFICATION AND REPORT HEADING””.What should the pilot do?”
A) “Reselect Mode S on the transponder and transmit: “”HEADING TWO SEVEN ZERO,
GOLF ALFA CHARLIE ZULU GOLF.”””
B) “Transmit the following message: “”HEADING TWO SEVEN ZERO, GOLF ALFA
CHARLIE ZULU GOLF.”””
C) “Select SBY on the transponder and transmit: “”HEADING TWO SEVEN ZERO, GOLF
ALFA CHARLIE ZULU GOLF.”””
D) “Select IDENT on the transponder and transmit: “”HEADING TWO SEVEN ZERO, GOLF
ALFA CHARLIE ZULU GOLF.”””
57. When a pilot is being vectored, he/she may occasionally be instructed to

make a complete turn for delaying purposes or to achieve a required spacing
behind preceding traffic. Which of the following communications can be heard
in such a situation?
A) “””F&GO, MAKE A COMPLETE TURN LEFT FOR AVOIDING TRAFFIC.””””COMPLETE
TURN LEFT, F&GO.”””
B) “””F&GO, MAKE A THREE SIXTY TURN LEFT FOR SEQUENCING.””””THREE SIXTY
TURN LEFT, F&GO.”””
C) “””F&GO, THREE HUNDREDSIX ZEROLEFTON DOWNWIND.””””THREE HUNDREDSIX
ZEROLEFT, F&GO.”””
D) “””F&GO,ROTATE LEFT FOR DELAY.””ROTATING LEFT F&GO.”””
58. What radiotelephony transmission should be made when an aircraft starts

a descent?
A) Leaving FL 200, descending to FL 120.
B) Leaving FL 200.
C) Leaving level 200 for level 120.
D) Starting descent.
59. “What should the pilot`s read back be for the instruction “”Climb to FL
280?”?”
A) Climbing to two eighty.
B) Climbing two eight zero.
C) Climbing to flight level two eight zero.
D) Climbing to flight level two eighty.
60. “What is the pilot`s read back for the ATC instruction “”climb to 2500
feet””?”
A) Up to two thousand five hundred.
B) Climbing to two point five.
C) Climbing to two thousand five hundred feet.
D) Climbing to two thousand five hundred.
61. ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80.What is the correct
read back by the pilot?
A) Descending to 80, Fastair 345.
B) Leaving 100 to 80, Fastair 345.
C) Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345.
D) Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345.
62. Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted?

A) Aircraft identification, position, time.
B) Aircraft identification, position, time, level.
C) Aircraft identification, position, next position.
D) Aircraft identification, position, level.
63. “Select the option that states correctly how the following numbers are to
be transmitted in a radio message: Squawk 2400, altitude 2400 ft.”
A) Squawk two thousand four hundred, altitude two four zero zero.
B) Squawk two four zero zero, altitude two four zero zero.
C) Squawk two thousand four hundred, altitude two thousand four hundred.
D) Squawk two four zero zero, altitude two thousand four hundred.
64. What is the correct way of transmitting altitude 4300?

A) Four three zero zero
B) Forty&three hundred
C) Four thousand three hundred
D) Four three hundred
65. The correct way to transmit the VHF channel 128.100 in radiotelephony
communication is…
A) twenty&eight one.
B) one two eight one hundred.
C) twenty&eight decimal one.
D) one two eight decimal one.
66. During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY&ABC to turn on
to heading 360°. What is the correct read back of this instruction?
A) Heading three hundred sixty, X&BC.
B) A read back is not necessary as XY&ABC has been identified.
C) Heading three six zero, X&BC.
D) Heading north, X&BC.
67. How should118.1 be transmitted to indicate a frequency?

A) One one eight point one.
B) One one eight one.
C) One eighteen one.
D) One one eight decimal one.
68. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13500 to indicate an
altitude or cloud height?
A) thirteen thousand five hundred
B) one three five hundred
C) one three five zero zero
D) one three thousand five hundred
69. It is 20:43 UTC. A pilot is fourteen minutes from the next waypoint, CMB,
when he/she is asked to give an estimate for CMB. What is the reply?
A) Estimate Charlie Mike Bravo&VOR zero eight five seven Papa Mike.
B) Estimate Charlie Mike Bravo&VOR two zero five seven.
C) Estimate Charlie Mike Bravo&VOR twenty fifty seven.
D) Estimate Charlie Mike Bravo&VOR fifty seven.
70. The time is11:23 and Radar Control requests an estimate for next reporting
point at AAL VOR/DME. If the estimated elapsed time to AAL is12 minutes,
what is the correct transmission is?
A) Estimate AAL at three&five.
B) Estimate AAL at eleven&thirty&five.
C) Estimate AAL VOR/DME in one&two minutes.
D) Have one&two minutes to go to AAL.
71. The time is 4:15 pm. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if
there is any possibility of confusion about the hour?
A) Sixteen fifteen.
B) Four fifteen in the afternoon.
C) One six one five.
D) Four fifteen P.M.
72. The time is 16:43. If there is no possibility of confusion with the hour, what
is the correct way of transmitting the time?
A) one six four three
B) forty&three
C) four three
D) sixteen forty&three
73. For intelligibility of radio transmissions, crew and ground personnel

should maintain an even rate of speech not exceeding…
A) 170words per minute.
B) 200 words per minute.
C) 100 words per minute.
D) 150 words per minute.
74. What is the likely result of a microphone button stuck in the transmit
position?
A) None.
B) The frequency can not be used by others.
C) “Other stations will need to use the “”words twice”” technique.”
D) Readability will improve for all stations.
75. Before transmitting the pilot should…

A) write the message and read it during the transmission.
B) make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time.
C) make sure that the aircraft is levelled off.
D) listen in on the frequency to be used to ensure no interference will occur with another
station that is already transmitting.
76. How should a pilot inform the control tower that they have to abandon the
take&off manoeuvre?
A) Aborting take&off.
B) Cancelling take&off.
C) Abandoning take&off.
D) Stopping.
77. What phrase should a pilot use to acknowledge that they have received
ATIS Information Golf?
A) Information Golf.
B) Weather Golf received.
C) We have the information.
D) We have the ATIS Golf.
78. Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that they are initiating a
missed approach procedure?
A) Overshooting.
B) Pulling up.
C) Missed approach.
D) Going around.
79. To indicate that the aircraft is no longer occupying the active runway, a
pilot shall report to the controller…
A) “””clear of runway””.”
B) “””runway free””.”
C) “””runway vacated””.”
D) “””runway cleared””.”
80. “When should the term “”take&off”” be used by a pilot?”

A) To acknowledge take&off clearance.
B) Never, it is used only by the control tower.
C) When the aircraft has moved onto the active runway.
D) To inform the control tower that the aircraft is ready for departure.
81. “Which of these phrases is used to communicate that “”Consider that

transmission as not sent””?”
A) Forget it.
B) My last transmission is cancelled.
C) Disregard.
D) Cancel my last message.
82. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”acknowledge””

mean?”
A) Pass me the following information.
B) Let me know that you have received and understood this message.
C) Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.
D) Repeat all of your last transmission.
83. In radiotelephony communication, which word or phrase shall be used to

indicate a separation between portions of a message?
A) I say again.
B) Over.
C) Break.
D) Stop.
84. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”cancel”” mean?”
A) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
B) A change has been made to your last clearance.
C) Wait and I will call you.
D) Consider that transmission as not sent.
85. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”contact””

mean?”
A) Listen out on &frequency&.
B) That is correct.
C) Radar contact established.
D) Establish radio contact with &another given station&.
86. In radiotelephony communication, which word or phrase shall be used in

order to repeat for clarity or emphasis?
A) I say again.
B) Confirm.
C) Verify.
D) Read back.
87. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”correct””

mean?”
A) Permission for proposed action not granted.
B) Negative, the correct version is ___ .
C) That is correct.
D) An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is ___ .
88. In radiotelephony communication, which word shall be used to indicate

that an error has been made in a transmission or message?
A) Correction.
B) Correct.
C) Negative.
D) Disregard.
89. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”disregard””

mean?”
B) Wait and I will call you.
C) Consider that transmission as not sent.
D) An error has been made in this transmission.
90. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”negative””

mean?”
A) Permission not granted.
B) Proposed action granted.
C) Consider that transmission as not sent.
D) Disregard last instruction.
91. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”negative””

mean?”
B) I say again.
C) That is not correct.
92. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”approved””

mean?”
A) That is correct.
B) Permission for proposed action granted.
C) Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.
D) I repeat for clarity or emphasis.
93. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”monitor””
mean?”
A) Establish radio contact with another aircraft.
B) Examine a system or procedure.
C) Wait and I will call you.
D) Listen out on &frequency&.
94. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the term “”break break
“”indicate?”
A) The separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.
B) The separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy
environment.
C) My transmission has ended but I expect a response from you.
D) The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.
95. “In radiotelephony communication, which phrase shall be used if you want
to say: “”Communication is difficult. Please send every word or group of
words twice””?”
A) Repeat twice.
B) Message second time.
C) Say again, say again.
D) Words twice.
96. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”recleared””

mean?”
A) Permission for proposed action granted.
B) A change has been made to your last clearance.
C) An error has been made in my last transmission.
97. In radiotelephony communication, which word or phrase shall be used to

indicate that a change has been made to the last clearance and this new
clearance supersedes the previous clearance or part thereof?
A) Approved.
B) Break break.
C) Recleared.
D) Cleared.
98. “In radiotelephony communication, which word or phrase shall be used if

you want to say: “”Reduce your rate of speech””?”
A) Words twice.
B) Speak slower.
C) Say again.
D) Repeat.
99. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”wilco”” mean?”
A) I read you five.
B) As communication is difficult, I will call you later.
C) I understand your message and will comply with it.
D) I have received all of your last transmission.
100. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the term “”verify”” mean?”
A) Repeat your last transmission.
B) Check and confirm with originator.
C) Read back VDF bearing.
101. Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on

frequency 118.0.How should the aircraft indicate that it will follow this
instruction?
A) Changing over Fastair 345.
B) 118.0 Fastair 345.
C) Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345.
D) Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345.
102. What is the correct suffix to use when establishing radio contact with an
area control centre?
A) CONTROL
B) CONTROL CENTRE
C) RADIO
D) CENTRE
103. After requesting detailed hold instructions, what information should the
pilot expect to receive?
A) Name of navaid and radial, distance of leg &optional&, altitude &optional&, direction of
turn &optional&, expected landing time.
B) Name of fix, level &optional&, outbound heading, direction of turn &optional&, expected
approach clearance time &optional&.
C) Name of fix, inbound heading &optional&, direction of turn &optional&, altitude of hold,
time of leg &optional&, estimated time of arrival, additional instructions.
D) Name of fix, level &optional&,inbound track &optional&,direction of turn &optional&,time
of leg &optional&, expected approach clearance time.
104. “If you are requested to “”Report flight conditions””, what does that
mean?”
A) Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature.
B) Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR.
C) Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing.
D) Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC.
105. “What does the instruction “”Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER””
mean?”
A) Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will initiate further
communications.
B) Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequency.
C) Fastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9, on which aerodrome data are being
broadcast.
D) Fastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9.
106. “Which of the following calls is a “”general call””?”

A) ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROL.
B) YX&EFG, YX&FGH over.
C) YX&ABC, YX&BCD, YX&CDE Stephenville CONTROL.
D) YX&DEF Stephenville CONTROL.
107. “What does the word “”check”” mean?”

A) Confirm your last transmission.
B) I understand your message.
C) Read back my last instruction.
D) Examine a system or procedure.
108. Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed
under specified conditions?
A) Cleared.
B) Go ahead.
C) I say again: proceed.
D) Approved.
109. Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly
received a message, clearance, instruction, etc.?
A) Acknowledge.
B) Verify.
C) Correct.
D) Confirm.
110. “What is the meaning of the phrase “”Radar service terminated””?”

A) ATC wants you to continue VFR.
B) ATC wants you to reset transponder.
C) You will no longer be provided with radar control.
D) You are now leaving the Terminal Area.
111. Which R/T phrase should the pilot use if he/she receives an instruction
from ATCthat he/she cannot carry out?
A) “””Disregard”” with an explanation why.”
B) “””Negative instruction.”””
C) “””Unable”” followed by a reason.”
D) “””Impossible to make it.”””
112. In radiotelephony communication, what phrase shall be used when asking

for the readability of a transmission?
A) Read you loud and clear.
B) Read back.
C) Radio check.
D) Report readability.
113. In general, what is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical
station providing radar service?
A) RADAR&CONTROL
B) RADAR&SERVICE
C) RADAR
D) CONTROL
114. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix which indicates that the
aeronautical station is providing area control without radar?
A) RADAR
B) APPROACH
C) CENTRE
D) CONTROL
115. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the station that signifies
that radar service is provided during the approach phase?
A) ARRIVAL
B) RADAR
C) INFORMATION
D) DIRECTOR
116. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station
indicating clearance delivery?
A) DELIVERY
B) CLEARANCE
C) GROUND
D) RADIO
117. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing
approach control &no radar service&?
A) APPROACH
B) CONTROL
C) ARRIVAL
D) RADAR
118. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating
approach control radar departures?
A) APPROACH
B) CONTROL
C) RADAR
D) DEPARTURE
119. An aircraft call sign can be abbreviated after satisfactory communication
has been established, no confusion is likely to arise, and…
A) after the abbreviated call sign has been used by the ground station.
B) if the aircraft station deems it necessary to call the ground station with its abbreviated call
sign.
C) if there are a lot of other communications on the frequency.
D) after the aircraft station and ground station agree to use the abbreviated call sign.
120. “An Airbus A319 is registered as G&HTBD, and has the call sign “”Sunny
Air HTBD””. What is the abbreviated form of this call sign?”
A) Airbus HT
B) Airbus BD
C) Sunny Air BD
D) Sunny Air HT
121. What is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345?

A) No abbreviated form.
B) Fastair 345
C) Fastair 45
D) 2345
122. “For aircraft in the heavy wake turbulence category the word “”Heavy””
shall be included immediately after the aircraft call sign in…”
A) all radiotelephony contact between such aircraft and the approach control unit.
B) the initial radiotelephony contact between such aircraft and tower units only.
C) the initial radiotelephony contact between such aircraft and ATS units.
D) all radiotelephony contacts between such aircraft and ATS units.
123. What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the
aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a
maximum take&off weight of more than 136 tonnes?
A) Fastair 345 heavy
B) Heavy Fastair 345
C) Fastair 345
D) Fastair 345 wide body
124. Your aircraft registration is G&ACZG and you have been using the
company call sign Skyfall FOUR SEVEN during your flight. When and how may
your call sign be changed to the aircraft registration?
A) You may use either call sign at any time, because both appear on your flight plan.
B) “Any time you wish, and you must inform ATC by saying “”SKYFALL FOUR SEVEN
changing call sign to GOLF ALFA CHARLIE ZULU GOLF””.”
C) “Only for safety reasons and when ATC instruct you to “”Change your call sign to GOLF
ALFA CHARLIE ZULU GOLF””.”
D) “Whenever you think it is convenient, ask ATC and they will instruct you at a convenient
time to “”Change your call sign to GOLF ALFA CHARLIE ZULU GOLF””.”
125. “Your flight plan has been filed with the call sign GOLF ALFA CHARLIE
ZULU GOLF. Air Traffic Control has instructed you to “”CHANGE YOUR
CALLSIGNTO SKYFALL ZULU GOLF”” &Skyfall is your company name&. Why
would they have done so? “
A) Only for safety reasons.
B) ATC would refrain from asking you to do so.
C) If your company has asked them to do so.
D) If you have asked them to do so.
126. “Your flight plan has been filed with the call sign “”GOLF ALFA CHARLIE
ZULU GOLF””. At 15:15, Air Traffic Control instructed you to
“”CHANGEYOURCALLSIGNTO SKYFALL ZULU GOLF”” with no additional
information. When should you change back to using “”GOLF ALFA CHARLIE
ZULU GOLF””?”
A) Automatically on making the next frequency change, or when instructed by ATC to do so.
B) Automatically on passing the next reporting point, or when instructed by ATC to do so.
C) When instructed by ATC to do so, or automatically at 15:45.
D) “Only when instructed to “”REVERTTOFLIGHTPLANCALLSIGN GOLF ALFA CHARLIE
ZULU GOLF.”””
127. “Your flight plan has been filed with the call sign GOLF ALFA CHARLIE
ZULU GOLF. What phraseology would ATC use to instruct you to stop using
that call sign and start using your company call sign “”SKYFALL ZULU
GOLF””?”
A) “””CHANGEYOURCALLSIGNTO SKYFALL ZULU GOLF.”””
B) “””ADOPTCOMPANYCALL SIGN.”””
C) ATC would only abbreviate call signs and revert to the full call sign that is provided in the
flight plan.
D) “””ADOPTCALLSIGN SKYFALL ZULU GOLF.”””
128. “When shall an aircraft in the heavy&wake&turbulence category include

the word “”Heavy”” immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy?”
A) In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit.
B) In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit.
C) It can be avoided because it is visible on the flight plan.
D) In all calls.
129. “An aircraft is allowed to change frequency when so advised by the

appropriate aeronautical station. Under which other condition&s& is the
aircraft allowed to change frequency?1. Without prior notification to the
aeronautical station, to get necessary information to land at the planned
destination on the ATIS frequency2. After notifying the aeronautical station
that a change of frequency is needed3. In case of distress”
A) 3 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 only
D) 1and 3
130. “What does the instruction “”Fastair 345,standbyfor TOWER 118.9?”
mean?”
A) Fastair 345 shall establish radio contact with TOWER on frequency 118.9.
B) Fastair 345 shall squawk standby and then establish radio contact with TOWER on
frequency 118.9.
C) Fastair 345 shall change to frequency 118.9 on which information is being broadcast.
D) Fastair shall change to frequency 118.9 and listen out, but the TOWER will initiate further
communications.
131. How shall a pilot inform the ATS unit that the aircraft does not have 8.33
KHz capability?
A) My aircraft is not equipped with eight point three three.
B) Negative eight point three three frequency equipment.
C) We do not have this frequency.
D) Negative eight point three three.
132. While under Flight Information Service, you wish to use your single radio
to request an ATC clearance from another ground station. What phraseology
should you use?
A) “””G&ACZG, changing to ONE TWO FIVE POINT SEVEN SEVEN FIVE.”””
B) “””G&ACZG, request monitor ONE TWO FIVE DECIMAL SEVEN SEVEN FIVE.”””
C) “””G&ACZG, request change to ONE TWO FIVE DECIMAL SEVEN SEVEN FIVE.”””
D) “””G&ACZG, request contact ONE TWO FIVE POINT SEVEN SEVEN FIVE.”””
133. “Which of the following instructions would you expect to hear if Mudpark
Approach wants you to change frequency to Mudpark radar, establish
communications and continue under its control?””GOLF ALFA BRAVO
BRAVO GOLF,…”
A) “CONTACT MUDPARK RADAR ON 123.750.”””
B) “REPORT MUDPARK RADAR ON 123.750.”””
C) “RECLEARED MUDPARK RADAR ON 123.750.”””
D) “MONITOR MUDPARK RADAR ON 123.750.”””
134. Fastair 345 is instructed to contact Stephenville RADAR on channel

132.010 MHz. How would Fastair 345 advise RADAR that it is not 8.33 KHz
equipped?
A) Negative channel 132.0083.
B) Negative eight point three three.
C) Negative frequency 132.010.
D) Negative on 132.008
135. “During an approach procedure, the radar controller instructs you to

“”STAND BY FOR MUDPARK PRECISION THIS FREQUENCY.”” What does this
mean?You should…”
A) say nothing and wait for a different controller to call you on the frequency you are on now.
B) change frequency to that published for Mudpark Precision and wait for the controller to
call you on that frequency.
C) change frequency to that published for Mudpark Precision and establish communications
on that frequency.
D) acknowledge the call and wait for a different controller to call you on the frequency you
are on now.
136. “Upon reporting runway vacated, the tower controller passes taxi
instructions specifying the route the aircraft should follow to get to its parking
position, which the pilot reads back correctly. The controller then instructs the
pilot to “”MONITOR GROUND 121,7?”. What should the pilot now do?”
A) Follow the correctly acknowledged taxi instructions and listen out on the ground
frequency.
B) Stop when the entire aircraft has crossed the runway&holding position line, having
selected the ground frequency, wait for the ground controller to call.
C) Follow the correctly acknowledged taxi instructions and call the ground controller on the
ground frequency with the aircraft`s call sign only.
D) Stop when the entire aircraft has crossed the runway&holding position line and call the
ground controller on the ground frequency with the aircraft`s call sign only.
137. What is the correct order of a test transmission?

A) “The identification of the station being called, the aircraft identification, the words “”Radio
Check””, the frequency being used.”
B) “The words “”Radio Check””, the frequency being used, the identification of the station
being called, the aircraft identification.”
C) “The aircraft identification, the identification of the station being called, the words “”Radio
Check””.”
D) “The aircraft identification, the words “”Radio Check””, the frequency being used, the
identification of the station being called.”
138. When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one

station, the call starts with…
A) “””general broadcast””.”
B) “””message to all aircraft on this frequency””.”
C) “””all stations””.”
D) “””please listen””.”
139. What is the range of the readability scale?

A) 0 to 10
B) 1 to 10
C) 1 to 5
D) 0 to 5
140. “In radiotelephony communication, what is meant by the phrase

“”Readability 2?”?”
A) Readable.
B) Readable now and then.
C) Readable but with difficulty.
D) Unreadable.
141. “In radiotelephony communication, on the readability scale what does
“”Readability 1?” mean?”
A) Perfectly readable.
B) Readable but with difficulty.
C) Unreadable.
D) Readable.
142. “In radiotelephony communication, what is meant by the phrase

“”Readability 4?”?”
A) Readable.
B) Readable now and then.
C) Perfectly readable.
D) Readable but with difficulty.
143. “Must a “”general call”” be acknowledged?”

A) Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been addressed.
B) Yes, from all stations in a random sequence.
C) No.
D) Yes, but only from the station first called.
144. An aircraft on an IFR flight in IMC conditions, and flying in airspace where
radar service is provided, experiences radio communication failure. The PIC
must set the transponder on 7600, maintain the last assigned speed and…
A) initiate a 300 ft per minute climb until reaching VMC conditions, then divert to the nearest
suitable aerodrome.
B) turn right by 30 degrees if flying odd flight levels, or turn left by 30 degrees if flying even
flight levels.
C) level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 20 minutes. Thereafter he/she
must adjust speed and level in accordance with the flight plan.
D) level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 7 minutes. Thereafter, he/she
must adjust speed and level in accordance with the flight plan.
145. “An aircraft on an IFR flight in IMC conditions, and flying in airspace
where procedural separation is being applied, experiences radio
communication failure. When passing over a compulsory reporting point, what
action should the PIC take?”
A) Maintain last assigned level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, turn right by 30 degrees
and parallel to the flight plan route with a 5 NM offset, until reaching the destination
aerodrome.
B) Maintain last assigned speed and initiate a 300 ft per minute climb until reaching VMC
conditions, then divert to the nearest suitable aerodrome.
C) Maintain last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of
7 minutes. Thereafter adjust speed and level in accordance with the flight plan.
D) Maintain last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of
20 minutes. Thereafter adjust speed and level in accordance with the flight plan.
146. “An IFR flight in IMC conditions is being radar vectored when the aircraft
experiences radio communication failure. Taking into consideration the
applicable minimum flight altitude, the PIC should…”
A) proceed in the most direct manner possible to rejoin the flight plan route no later than the
next significant point.
B) maintain the last assigned heading for a period of 7 minutes, and then adjust in
accordance with the flight plan.
C) maintain the last assigned heading for a period of 20 minutes, and then adjust in
D) climb to the Minimum Sector Altitude and hold for a period of 7 minutes, and then rejoin
the flight plan route.
147. When an aircraft is unable to establish communication due to receiver

failure, it shall transmit reports and the time of its next intended transmission
on the frequency in use. Each transmission has to be preceded by the
phrase…
A) “””UNABLE TO RECEIVE””.”
B) “””PAN PAN””.”
C) “””NO RECEPTION TRANSMISSION””.”
D) “””TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE””.”
148. When an aircraft fails to establish contact on the designated frequency,

on which other frequency should the first attempt to re&establish
communications be made?
A) On the previous frequency used.
B) On 121.5 MHz.
C) On the appropriate UHF emergency frequency.
D) On the FIR Search And Rescue frequency.
149. An aircraft on an IFR flight, after experiencing radio communication

failure in VMC, successfully lands at the nearest suitable aerodrome. What is it
supposed to do next?
A) Report the failure by the most expeditious means to the responsible aerodrome operator.
B) Report its arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.
C) Have the equipment failure repaired within 30 days by an authorised avionics repair
facility.
D) Inform the relevant Civil Aviation Authority and have the radio failure repaired as quickly
as possible.
150. While being radar&vectored in IMC, the pilot loses radio contact with ATC.
Taking into consideration the minimum flight altitude, his/her initial action is to
rejoin the current flight plan…
A) at the initial approach fix.
B) no later than the next significant point.
C) at the designated navigational aid.
D) at the final approach fix.
151. An aircraft experiences an air&ground communication failure while on an

IFR flight. If equipped with an SSR transponder, what Mode A code is it
expected to squawk?
A) 7700
B) 7600
C) 7000
D) 7500
152. An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication

failure. The aircraft is assumed to…
A) continue to fly in visual meteorological conditions, and land at the nearest suitable
aerodrome.
B) continue to fly in visual meteorological conditions to its original destination or, if that is not
possible, the alternate aerodrome.
C) continue to fly in visual meteorological conditions, and land at the original destination.
D) continue to fly to its original destination in instrument or visual meteorological conditions.
153. What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft if unable to establish

radio contact with an aeronautical station?
A) The aircraft shall squawk Code 7600 and proceed to its original destination in accordance
with its filed flight plan.
B) The aircraft shall squawk Code 7500 and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
C) The aircraft shall attempt to establish communication with other aircraft or other
aeronautical stations on frequencies appropriate to the route.
D) The pilot shall ensure that the radio equipment is functioning correctly and then make a
test transmission on the appropriate frequency for the route being flown.
154. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in

IMC has to land, if possible, within…
A) 15 minutes of the ETA as stated in the current IFR flight plan, or hold at a designated
navigation fix.
B) 30 minutes after the ETA or the last acknowledged EAT, whichever is later.
C) 15 minutes after crossing the designated navigation fix from which a normal instrument
approach can be conducted.
D) 30 minutes after noticing the radio communication failure and squawking the appropriate
SSR transponder code.
155. An aircraft experiences radio&communication failure in IMC. When is it

expected to commence the descent from the navigation aid or fix for the
instrument approach?
A) After completing one hold over the designated aerodrome navigation aid or fix.
B) Immediately after reaching the designated aerodrome navigation aid or fix.
C) At the expected approach time last received and acknowledged.
D) When the fuel on board is the final reserve fuel plus sufficient to fly for15 minutes.
156. The lost communication procedure for IFR flights in IMC states that the
pilot must land, if possible, within how many minutes of the estimated time of
arrival of the current flight plan?
A) 45 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 60 minutes
157. An IFR flight encounters radio communication failure in VMC and the PIC
considers that he/she will be able to continue to fly in VMC. He/she will…
A) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, and report his/her arrival by the most expeditious
means to the appropriate air traffic services unit.
B) land at destination aerodrome unless it is not accessible, and report his/her arrival by the
most expeditious means to the appropriate air traffic services unit.
C) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, and report his/her arrival by the most expeditious
means to the appropriate rescue coordination centre.
D) land at destination aerodrome unless it is not accessible, and report his/her arrival by the
most expeditious means to the appropriate rescue coordination centre.
158. When an aircraft flying IFR in IMC encounters radiocommunication failure

as it is being vectored or has been directed by ATC to proceed offset using
RNAV without a specified limit, it shall proceed in the most direct manner
possible to rejoin the current flight plan route no later than the next significant
point. To do this, what has to be taken into consideration?
A) The maximum turn to return to the current flight plan route is 45 degrees.
B) Other aircraft from which separation was provided using vectors, as separation from other
traffic becomes the pilot`s responsibility.
C) The applicable minimum flight altitude.
D) The deviations that may be needed to maintain visual separation from all other aircraft.
159. If an SSR transponder failure occurs after departure of an IFR flight, the
pilot should…
A) continue the flight in VMC.
B) squawk 7600.
C) inform the current ATC unit immediately.
D) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair.
160. “The expression “”transmitting blind due to receiver failure”” implies that
no answer is expected. It is used by…”
A) aground station broadcasting information to all listening stations.
B) an aircraft aware of receiver failure.
C) an aircraft transmitting blind at a non&towered airfield.
D) a radar controller performing a PAR &Precision Approach Radar&or SRE &Surveillance
Radar Equipment&final approach.
161. An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in

VMC should…
A) leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace.
B) continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, and report its arrival.
C) squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome.
D) continue the flight to destination aerodrome.
VMC should…
A) land at the destination aerodrome.
B) return to the aerodrome of departure.
C) land at the alternate aerodrome.
D) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
163. A pilot is flying under the IFR rules in VMC conditions when you
experience communication failure. What actions should the pilot take?
A) Squawk 7700 and continue in accordance with the flight plan.
B) Continue in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report your arrival to the
appropriate air traffic control unit.
C) Continue in VMC to the destination aerodrome and land within 30 min after the estimated
time of arrival in the flight plan.
D) Continue to the destination aerodrome, adding 500 ft to all the altitudes in the flight plan.
164. An aircraft flying under IFRin VMC experiences communication failure.

Can the aircraft complete the IFR flight?
A) Yes, if the PIC considers it inadvisable to continue in VMC.
B) No, the flight must continue in VMC.
C) No, the flight must return to the departure aerodrome in VMC.
D) It is mandatory to continue the flight in IFR.
165. Approaching the Top of Climb &TOC& on an IFR flight, a pilot suffers a
total loss of communications. The aircraft is currently in VMC conditions. What
will be the next course of action?
A) Continue to fly in VMC or IMC, proceed to land at an aerodrome that provides radar
services.
B) Continue to fly in VMC, proceed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the
arrival to the appropriate Air Traffic Services unit as soon as possible.
C) Continue to fly in VMC, proceed to land at the destination aerodrome and report the
arrival to the appropriate Air Traffic Services unit as soon as possible.
D) Continue to fly the flight planned route, hold at the initial approach fix until the estimated
approach time, then proceed to commence an instrument approach at the destination
aerodrome.
166. If the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot
must…
A) obtain prior permission from ATC to conduct the flight.
B) inform FIS for relay to the relevant ATC unit.
C) inform ATC after departure.
D) “insert under item 18 of the flight plan “”transponder unserviceable””.”
167. A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR

flight under radar vectors is to squawk 7600 and…
A) regardless of any limitation previously instructed by ATC, return to the route indicated in
the current flight plan in the most direct manner.
B) maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the
current flight plan on the shortest way.
C) proceed to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the most direct manner.
D) maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to
the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan.

IMC should…
A) proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid serving
the destination aerodrome.
B) proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight
rules.
C) divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight.
D) execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
169. Should an aircraft’s radios fail in IMC whilst conducting an IFR flight,
when must the pilot commence descent in order to perform an instrument
approach?
A) At the current EAT.
B) At the designated navigational aid or fix.
C) At the calculated TOD point.
D) Any time when flying in the ATZ.
170. Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio

communication failure on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and…
A) maintain the level last assigned by ATC for a period of 5 minutes and then continue in
B) land at the departure aerodrome.
C) climb immediately to the cruising level indicated in the flight plan.
D) maintain the level last assigned by ATC for a period of 7 minutes and then climb in

IMC has to hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination
aerodrome…
A) until the expected approach time last received and acknowledged.
B) for 5 minutes in any case.
C) until 10 minutes after the expected approach time last received and acknowledged.
D) for 3 minutes, if an expected approach time has not been acknowledged.
172. A pilot is under radar control, flying in IMC, and has just reached the
cleared altitude. 8 NM before the mandatory reporting point he/she suddenly
suffers a radio failure, and sets the appropriate SSR code. Given the sequence
of events, how long must the pilot maintain the last cleared altitude or
minimum flight altitude &whichever is higher&?
A) 12 minutes from setting the SSR code.
B) 12 minutes from reaching the last cleared altitude.
C) 7 minutes from setting the SSR code.
D) 7 minutes from failing to report at a the compulsory report point.
173. Blind transmission shall be made…

A) during IFR flights only.
B) to all available aeronautical stations.
C) on regional guard frequencies only.
D) on the designated frequency &frequency in use&.

IMC and not expecting any approach delay must start descent over the
designated navigational aid serving the destination aerodrome…
A) at or as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival &ETA& resulting from the
Current Flight Plan &CPL&.
B) at or as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival &ETA& based on the Filed
Flight Plan &FPO&.
C) 4 minutes after reaching the Initial Approach Fix &IAP&.
D) immediately after reaching the navigation aid in any case.
175. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in

IMC has to land, if possible, within…
A) 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer.
B) 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure.
C) 30 minutes after waiting for the EAT.
D) 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later.
176. “According to ICAO,a transmission for a medical transport flight should

start with “”PAN PAN””, preferably spoken three times. What is the preferred
sequence for the other elements of the transmission?1. Total 1, type A3192.
G&MEDC3. UN456 ERY DCT TIRUL4. Flight time, 02:43, ETD 10:00, ETA 12:435.
Current position, 5 NM due south of fix GURAS6. Maintaining Level 290,
squawk 54127. Medical”
A) 7, 2, 5, 1, 3, 4, 6
B) 2, 7, 3, 5, 1, 6, 4
C) 7, 2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5
D) 2, 1, 6, 4, 3, 5, 7
177. “Which type of flight is permitted to use the “”PAN MEDICAL”” prefix in
the call sign?”
A) Medical transport pursuant to the 1949 Geneva Conventions.
B) Medical transport pursuant to the 1944 Chicago Conventions.
C) Any transport flight pursuant to the 1963Tokyo Conventions.
D) Any transport flight pursuant to the 1965 Stockholm Conventions.
178. A message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft

assigned exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded by the
signal…
A) PAN PAN TRANSPORT.
B) PROTECTED TRANSPORT.
C) PAN PAN MEDICAL.
D) MEDICAL TRANSPORT.
179. What does the prefix “PAN PAN MEDICAL“ prior to an aircraft call sign
mean?
A) The phrase is inadmissible in radiotelephony.
B) The aircraft has a sick crew member or passenger on board in urgent need of medical
care upon landing at destination airport.
C) The aircraft has an unruly passenger on board and requests priority to land.
D) The message that follows concerns a flight operated by an aircraft assigned exclusively to
medical transportation.
180. During a routine flight, one of your passengers falls ill and you consider a
diversion is required. How should you inform ATC of your decision and
request priority handling?
A) Set the transponder to 7700 and send a distress message.
B) “Transmit a PAN MEDICAL message &call “”PAN PAN MAY&DE&CALL””&.”
C) Declare a state of urgency and inform ATC of the reason.
D) Request an amended clearance without including any prefix.
181. You have been contracted by the government to carry a cargo consisting
solely of medical supplies and personnel to a conflict area. To ensure priority,
what message should you pass when in contact with an ATS unit?
A) “After your call sign, current position, level, heading, frequencies guarded and secondary
surveillance radar modes and codes, close the transmission with the words “”PAN
MEDICAL””.”
B) “After the prefix PAN PAN three times, followed by the word “”MEDICAL””, state your call
sign, your position, type, intended route, estimated time of arrival at destination, and current
altitude.”
C) After the prefix PAN PAN three times, state your call sign, the fact you are carrying
medical supplies and personnel, the pilot`s intentions, current position, and heading.
D) You are only entitled to priority if you are a registered ambulance aircraft, and as such it is
sufficient to state the appropriate call sign.
182. “You have been contracted by a government agency to transport

passengers who are all medical personnel to an area of conflict. To ensure
priority, what message should you pass when in contact with an ATS unit?
After the urgency signal PAN PAN three times followed by the radiotelephony
signal…”
A) “””Medical””, state your call sign, your position, estimated time of arrival at destination,
and current transponder setting.”
B) “””Special handling””, state your call sign, your position, intended route, estimated time of
arrival at destination, and current altitude.”
C) “””Special handling””, state your call sign, your position, intended route, current altitude,
and transponder capability. “
D) “””Medical””, state your call sign, your position, type, intended route, estimated time of
arrival at destination, and current altitude.”
183. A crew has suffered an inextinguishable engine fire, they are in imminent
danger from the fire spreading further. They also require immediate assistance
to land. What is their condition, and which SSR code must they set?
A) Distress and 7700.
B) Urgency and7700.
C) Distress and 7500.
D) Urgency and7600.
184. “A pilot hears the following transmission on the active frequency:

“”G&AFRD, squawk 7700.”” What does that particular squawk code signify?”
A) An intra&european flight.
B) A distress situation.
C) An urgency situation.
D) A delay situation.
185. “A pilot has just tuned into the frequency for Seville approach and the
first transmission he/she hears is: “”G&AFFD, cancelling distress””. This
indicates that the aircraft is…”
A) no longer declaring a state of urgency.
B) no longer in distress.
C) declaring a distress situation.
D) cancelling an IFR flight plan.
186. Other traffic on your current frequency transmits a distress call to ATC.
You must not transmit on the frequency unless…
A) the other traffic is flying above your altitude.
B) you are requesting to descend to the destination.
C) you can render assistance.
D) you are requesting weather information.
187. “&For this question use annex ECQB&090&001&v2015&08&. A pilot is

flying into Aberdeen Dyce airport and has just been handed over from
approach to tower frequency. A short while later, the instruments indicate that
the aircraft has suffered an engine fire.Which frequency must the pilot transmit
the distress call on?”
A) One one niner decimal zero five zero.
B) One two eight decimal three.
C) One two one decimal seven.
D) One one eight decimal one.
188. When distress communications and silence conditions have been

terminated, which message shall the controlling station transmit?
A) Disregard distress communication, OUT.
B) Distress traffic ended.
C) MAYDAY traffic ended.
D) Emergency communication finished.
189. The distress signal and message to be sent by an aircraft in distress
should be on the…
A) emergency frequency.
B) air&ground frequency in use at the time.
C) regional guard frequency.
D) FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned.
190. “When an aircraft station receives the call “”ALL STATIONS Stephenville
RADAR, distress traffic ended””…”
A) the aircraft station has to call Stephenville RADAR to request frequency change.
B) receipt of this message must be acknowledged.
C) normal communication with Stephenville RADAR may be resumed.
D) the aircraft station has to advice the other stations in the vicinity.
191. Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in the event of…
A) an urgency communication.
B) an overload of the frequency.
C) distress traffic.
D) technical difficulties.
192. “A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the words “”MAYDAY

MAYDAY MAYDAY”” means…”
A) the aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft
or vehicle.
B) the aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its
route.
C) imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required.
D) the aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure.
193. “What are the actions to be taken by the station addressed or first station
acknowledging a distress message?1& Maintain radio silence.2& Immediately
acknowledge the distress message.3& Take immediate action to ensure that all
necessary information is made available, as soon as possible to the ATS unit
concerned.4& Take control of the communications or specifically and clearly
transfer that responsibility.5& Relay the message to other stations on the
international guard frequency.”
A) 2, 4, and 5.
B) 1, 4, and 5.
C) 2, 3, and 4.
D) 1, 2, and 3.
194. “Following a distress call by other traffic to ATC, under what conditions is
a pilot allowed to transmit a message?1. To transmit a flight safety
message.2& The distress is cancelled or the distress traffic is terminated.3&
All distress traffic has been transferred to other frequencies. 4& When
approaching the edge of the area under the ATC unit`s responsibility.5& The
station controlling communications gives permission.”
A) 1, 2, and 4.
B) 3, 4, and 5.
C) 2, 3, and 5.
D) 1, 3, and 4.
195. While monitoring a discrete frequency, you hear another aircraft making a
distress transmission. What is your initial action?
A) Immediately acknowledge the distress message.
B) Relay the message on the international guard frequency.
C) Maintain radio silence until the distress traffic is transferred.
D) Inform a ground station on the company`s designated frequency.
196. What is the frequency 121.5 MHz designated for?

A) An international emergency frequency.
B) An airline operation frequency.
C) A frequency for air&to&air communication.
D) A regional UHF frequency.
197. What does it indicate to the ground station, if an aircraft is squawking

7700?
A) There is a sick passenger on board.
B) The aircraft is being hijacked.
C) The aircraft`s transceiver is unserviceable.
D) The aircraft is in distress.
198. “When an aircraft station receives the call “”ALL STATIONS Stephenville
RADAR, stop transmitting MAYDAY””, what is requested?”
A) Not to interfere with the distress communication.
B) To assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress traffic.
C) To continue normal communication on the frequency in use.
D) To leave the frequency in use.
199. Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use
to impose silence?
A) Stop transmitting, MAYDAY.
B) Stop transmitting, EMERGENCY.
C) All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic.
D) Stop transmitting, DISTRESS.
200. After declaring a state of urgency to ATC,on what frequency must the
pilot normally maintain listening watch?
A) The frequency in use at the time, unless advised by the air traffic controller.
B) Guard frequency.
C) The international distress frequency.
D) Company frequency.
201. “A certain message is preceded by “”PAN PAN””, spoken three times.

What is the preferred sequence for transmitting the message`s content to
ATC?1. Identification of the aircraf2. Intention of the pilot&in&command3.
Name of the station addressed4. Nature of the condition5. Present position,
level, and heading”
A) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2.
B) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5.
C) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4.
D) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5.
202. If a pilot is in a state of urgency, which frequency must he/she use to

transmit such a message to ATC?
A) Any active frequency in the Flight Information Region &FIR&.
B) The pilot&to&pilot frequency.
C) The international guard frequency.
D) His/her current air&ground frequency.
203. Ona pilot’s active VHF frequency, another traffic has declared a state of
urgency. Urgency is defined as a condition…
A) concerning the illegal seizure of an aircraft in transit and forcing it to go to a different
destination, which requires immediate assistance.
B) concerning the immediate safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on
board or within sight, which requires immediate assistance.
C) concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within
sight, but which does not require immediate assistance.
D) of being in serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
204. Which category of message has priority over urgency messages?

A) Direction&finding
B) Distress
C) Flight safety
D) Meteorological
205. Which statement about emergency communication is correct?

A) Distress communications have the same priority as urgency communications.
B) ATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications.
C) Urgency communications have priority over all the other communications, except distress
communications.
D) Urgency communications have priority over all the other communications.
206. “A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the words “”PAN PAN,

PAN PAN, PAN PAN”” means…”
A) an aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure.
B) The aircraft has an urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or
other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required.
C) the aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for
immediate reclearance.
D) imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required.
207. On hearing an urgency message a pilot should…
A) change the frequency because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use.
B) monitor the frequency and offer assistance if required.
C) acknowledge the message immediately.
D) impose radio silence on the frequency in use.
208. The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency

condition should contain at least the following information:
A) aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flight.
B) aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot`s intention, present position, level
and heading.
C) name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required.
D) aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading.
209. Traffic on your current frequency has declared a state of urgency. After
several attempts you notice the controller does not seem to be receiving the
urgency message. What must you do?
A) Reply to the urgency message, advise the ATS unit, and if necessary exercise control of
communications.
B) Maintain radio silence until ATC has acknowledged the call.
C) Confirm receipt of the urgency call with other stations on frequency.
D) Relay the message on the international guard frequency.
210. After the words PAN PAN three times, an ideal urgency message should
contain information on certain elements, preferably given in a specific order.
Which option most accurately describes the ideal urgency message?
A) Last known position, airspeed, pilot’s intentions, altitude.
B) Call sign, last known position, time at that position, altitude, pilot’s intentions.
C) Name of the station addressed, call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot’s
intentions, position, level and heading.
D) Name of the station addressed, nature of urgency condition, call sign, heading, airspeed,
pilot’s intentions, any other useful information.
211. Which option contains the ideal set of information for an urgency
message and provides it in the preferred sequence?
A) “””PAN PAN PAN, WALFORD CENTRE this is DELTA ALFA GOLF GOLF ALFA, 200
miles south&east of Reykjavik at FL330, fuel leak from starboard tanks, heading 085.”””
B) “””PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, WALFORD CENTRE this is DELTA ALFA GOLF
GOLF ALFA, fuel leak from starboard tanks, request diversion to Shannon, 200 miles
south&east of Reykjavik at FL330 heading 085.”””
C) “””PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, DELTA ALFA GOLF GOLF ALFA, at FL330 heading
085,request diversion to Shannon.”””
D) “””PAN PAN PAN, WALFORD CENTRE, DELTA ALFA GOLF GOLF ALFA, 200 miles
south&east of Reykjavik, fuel leak from starboard tanks, request diversion to Shannon, at
FL330 heading 085.”””
212. Which option contains the ideal set of information for an urgency
message and provides it in the preferred sequence?
A) “””PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, this is FOXTROT BRAVO GOLF GOLF ALFA, 5 miles
east of Ushant, crew member unwell, request diversion to Brest, heading 95.”””
B) “””PAN PAN PAN, BREST CENTRE this is FOXTROT BRAVO GOLF GOLF ALFA, 5
miles east of Ushant, crew member unwell, request diversion to Brest, heading 95.”””
C) “””PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, BREST CENTRE this is FOXTROT BRAVO GOLF
GOLF ALFA, crew member unwell, request diversion to Brest, 5 miles east of Ushant at
FL150 heading 95.”””
D) “””PAN PAN PAN, BREST CENTRE this is FOXTROT BRAVO GOLF GOLF ALFA, at
FL150 heading 95, crew member unwell, request diversion to Brest.”””
213. An aerodrome will report an estimate of braking action on a runway, and

may also report the measured friction coefficient. Which of the following could
a pilot expect as a report?
A) Braking action medium, friction coefficient 0.33.
B) Braking action fair, friction coefficient 34 &.
C) Braking action fair, friction coefficient 0.32.
D) Braking action medium, friction coefficient 35 &.
214. Runway Visual Range &RVR& is measured in…

A) kilometres.
B) metres.
C) feet.
D) miles.
215. “A pilot is performing an ILS approach to runway 27 in foggy conditions.

ATC will pass on the latest RVR reading. What does the pilot expect to be
transmitted?””G&ACFG, RVR runway 27?””
A) 500 feet.
B) 500 yards.
C) 0.5 kilometres.
D) 500 metres.
216. Which of the following is correct concerning a METAR?

A) The only cloud type required to be reported is cumulonimbus.
B) Observations are made at intervals of 20 minutes.
C) The reported visibility is the minimum observed around the horizon.
D) Wind direction is reported in degrees true.
217. “On final approach to land in moderate rain, ATC transmits the following
message pertinent to the landing runway:””Runway report at 12:43 UTC,
runway 34, water up to 3 millimetres.””What does the pilot expect to hear
afterwards?”
A) Runway reported slippery.
B) Good braking action.
C) Estimated surface friction medium to good.
D) Braking action 50 &.
218. What phrase should ATC use when transmitting the runway visual range
&RVR& for runway 16?
A) RVR runway 16 __ meters diagonal __ meters diagonal __ meters.
B) RVR at the beginning of runway 16 is __ meters.
C) The values of the transmissometer are __ meters and __meters.
D) RVR runway 16 touchdown __meters, mid&point __meters, stop end __meters.
219. “In a runway report, what does “”friction coefficient 0.45?” mean?”
A) Braking action not measurable.
B) Braking action poor.
C) Braking action good.
D) Braking action medium.
220. “In a runway report, what does “”friction coefficient 0.20?” mean?”
A) Braking action unreliable.
B) Braking action poor.
C) Braking action medium.
D) Braking action good.
221. A continuous VOLMET broadcast contains…

A) recent METAR and SPECI reports from a published selection of aerodromes.
B) recently received routine and special reports from aircraft within the FIR.
C) an area forecast for flights in the FIR below 5000 ft AGL.
D) the latest TAFs and METARs for major international aerodromes.
222. An aircraft that encounters certain meteorological phenomena in flight

must make a special report. Which of the following must be reported?
A) Light icing experienced by the aircraft.
B) Light turbulence experienced by the aircraft.
C) An isolated thunderstorm seen close to track.
D) A heavy sandstorm seen some distance from track.
223. An aircraft in flight encounters an isolated thunderstorm that is obscured

by other cloud. The aircraft does not encounter hail. Must this be reported and
if so, when?
A) Yes, as soon as possible in a special report.
B) Yes, after landing.
C) Yes, in the aircraft`s next routine meteorological report.
D) There is no requirement to report such a thunderstorm.
224. Aircraft in flight may receive weather information from several sources.
Which of the following is correct?
A) ATIS broadcasts the TAF and METAR for the aerodrome which transmits it.
B) An ATSunit cannot provide aerodrome forecasts as part of a Flight Information Service.
C) Any thunderstorms seen by another aircraft in flight will be subject to a special report.
D) VOLMET broadcasts recent METAR and SPECI reports for a group of aerodromes.
225. An aircraft is 300NM from its destination. The pilot is concerned about
possible low cloud affecting the approach. How should he/she be able to
obtain the most accurate forecast now, for an arrival in one hour’s time?
A) Rely on the TAF issued 5 hours ago for the aerodrome.
B) Listen to the reports transmitted on the VOLMET broadcast.
C) Ask Flight Information Service to check if the TAF has been amended.
D) Call on the aerodrome ATIS frequency to request a landing forecast.
226. Information about an aerodrome with an ATIS is also included in the list of
VOLMET reports. The QNH is transmitted in…
A) only the VOLMET report.
B) only the ATIS report.
C) both the ATIS and the VOLMET reports.
D) neither the ATIS nor the VOLMET report.
227. What is ATIS and what should a pilot expect from it?
A) Airborne Traffic Information Service, providing information about the position of other
aircraft in the vicinity.
B) Aerodrome Terminal Instruction Service, providing routing instructions for instrument
approaches.
C) Aerodrome Traffic Indication Service, providing information about the times that other
aircraft are expected to take off and land.
D) Automatic Terminal Information Service, providing information about weather, runway,
and type of approach to be expected.
228. An aircraft that encounters or observes certain meteorological

phenomena in flight must make a special report. Which of the following must
be reported?
A) A volcanic eruption observed in the distance.
B) An isolated thunderstorm observed close to track, unless it has been forecast.
C) An area of dense fog observed close to track.
D) Light icing experienced by the aircraft.
229. You are approaching an ATS reporting point. The controller has
instructed you to make routine meteorological reports, the last of which was
approximately one hour ago. You experience turbulence, which makes
occupants feel strain against the seat belts. As required by the Standardised
European Rules of the Air &SERA&, you should…
A) include the information in the routine report, which should be made in approximately one
hour.
B) make a special air report and omit the routine report.
C) make the routine report at the reporting point but, since the turbulence is only moderate, it
can be excluded from the report.
D) include the information in the routine report due at the reporting point.
230. The route forecast included the chance of isolated thunderstorms. While
flying in nimbostratus cloud, the pilot sees a flash of lightning. What
communication, if any, should the pilot make to Air Traffic Services?
A) A special observation report because the pilot has encountered an embedded
thunderstorm.
B) A PAN call on the frequency in use because the pilot`s message is urgent.
C) The observation report can be omitted because thunderstorms were forecast.
D) The pilot should include the information in the next position report, which is due in 15
minutes.
231. “Air Traffic Control may require an aircraft to make routine meteorological
reports of air temperature, wind direction and speed, and any icing or
turbulence experienced.Aircraft without data link communication equipment
are…”
A) obliged to report every 30 minutes, regardless of the aircraft’s position.
B) required to report at a normal ATS reporting point, approximately every 30 minutes.
C) exempt from the need to make such reports unless specifically required by ATC.
D) expected to report only once, immediately after the request.
232. The pilot of an aircraft during an approach to land reports severe

turbulence between FL100 and FL070. This would be classified as…
A) a pilot aftercast observation.
B) a routine aircraft observation.
C) a special aircraft observation.
D) an other non&routine aircraft observation.
233. Assuming no attenuation factors, which of the following VHF signals is

likely to be received at the greatest range? A transmission from…
A) 500 feet on 135 MHz.
B) 3000 feet on 135 MHz.
C) 500 feet on 120 MHz.
D) 3000 feet on 120 MHz.
234. Transmissions for VHF communications propagate mainly as…

A) amplitude&modulated direct waves.
B) amplitude&modulated surface waves.
C) frequency&modulated direct waves.
D) frequency&modulated surface waves.
235. Where does the VHF band fit within the radio frequency spectrum?
A) Immediately above the HF band and immediately below the UHF band.
B) Immediately above the HF band and immediately below the EHF band.
C) Immediately above the MF band and immediately below the UHF band.
D) Immediately below the SHF band and immediately above the HF band.
236. Which of the following pairs of frequencies are both included in the VHF
band?
A) 45 MHz and 291 MHz.
B) 119 kHz and 134 kHz.
C) 134 kHz and 29 MHz.
D) 119 MHz and 29 MHz.
237. The radio frequency spectrum contains several bands. Which of the
following statements is completely correct about the band normally used for
the Aeronautical Mobile Service voice communications?
A) It is situated two bands below the SHF band and contains frequency 288.0 MHz.
B) It is immediately above the MF band and its frequencies are measured in MHz.
C) It is immediately below the UHF band and its frequencies are measured in kHz.
D) It is called the VLF band and contains frequency 130.450 kHz.
238. Icing prevents you climbing above an altitude of 1000 feet over the sea,
but you need to pass an urgent message to an aeronautical station by VHF.
Assuming fuel is not a problem, there is no wind, and the signal has no
attenuation factors, towards which of these stations should you fly to pass
your message as soon as possible?
A) A station 130NM away whose antenna is at an elevation of 200 feet AMSL.
B) A station 120NM away whose antenna is at an elevation of 30 feet AMSL.
C) A station 150NM away whose antenna is at an elevation of 800 feet AMSL.
D) A station 140NM away whose antenna is at an elevation of 550 feet AMSL.
239. Which of the following pairs of frequencies can both be found in the VHF
band?
A) 132 MHz and 29 MHz.
B) 122 kHz and 112 kHz.
C) 108 GHz and 133 GHz.
D) 49 MHz and 295 MHz.
240. What is the frequency band, and the spacing between allocated
frequencies, used for voice communications by the Aeronautical Mobile
Service?
A) HF, 25 kHz spacing.
B) VHF, 8.33 MHz spacing.
C) HF, 8.33 kHz spacing.
D) VHF, 8.33 kHz spacing.
241. If the transmission power of a weak VHF transmitter is doubled, what will
happen to the effective range of the transmission, assuming no intervening,
solid object?
A) It will increase by a factor of 4.
B) There will be no effect.
C) It will increase by a factor of 2.
D) It will increase by a factor of 1.4.
242. What is the spacing between allocated communication frequencies in the

VHF band?
A) 8.33 MHz
B) 25 kHz
C) 25 MHz
D) 8.33 kHz
243. Flying at 18000 feet over the ocean, you receive distress messages on the
VHF distress frequency from an aircraft as it prepares to ditch. The final
transmission you receive fades as the pilot transmits the aircraft’s altitude to
be 2000 feet. Assuming no attenuation factors, at what range from you would
you expect the distress aircraft to be?
A) 220 NM
B) 179 NM
C) 189 NM
D) 119 NM
244. Atmospheric attenuation of VHF radio transmissions is affected by the

characteristics of the transmission and of the air through which it travels.
Attenuation increases as…
A) air density and wavelength both decrease.
B) wavelength and air density both increase.
C) wavelength increases and air density decreases.
D) air density increases and wavelength decreases.
245. Which of the following can be expected to reduce the range at which an
aircraft can receive VHF transmissions from a ground station?
A) Building&construction work close to the transmitter.
B) A change of frequency to one at the lower end of the VHF band.
C) A forecast temperature inversion above the level at which the aircraft is flying.
D) The receiving aircraft enters a climb.
246. Assuming the signal has no other attenuation factors, compared to the
signal strength received 40 NM from the transmitter, the signal strength
received 80 NM from a VHF transmitter will be…
A) one eighth.
B) the same.
C) one half.
D) one quarter.
247. Assuming the signal has no other attenuation factors, compared to the
signal strength received 40 NM from the transmitter, the signal received 10 NM
from the transmitter will be how many times stronger?
A) 16
B) 2
C) 64
D) 4

Attenuation increases as…
A) air density increases and frequency decreases.
B) air density and frequency both decrease.
C) frequency increases and air density decreases.
D) frequency and air density both increase.
249. In the Aeronautical Mobile Service, which one of the following frequencies
may be allocated in the normal band for voice communications?
A) 124.258 MHz
B) 151.055 MHz
C) 116.300 MHz
D) 142.775 MHz
250. An aircraft in VHF communication with a ground station &elevation 400 ft

AMSL& at a distance of 150 NM is forced to ditch in the ocean. Assuming no
attenuation factors, at what approximate height above the sea will
communication be lost?
A) 15500 ft
B) 4500 ft
C) 17000 ft
D) 10500 ft
251. All aircraft operating above FL195 in the European region shall be
equipped with radio equipment capable operating on a channel spacing of…
A) 50kHz.
B) 25kHz.
C) 8.33 kHz.
D) 12.5kHz.
252. What is the approximate range at which you may expect to receive a
strong VHF signal when flying over flat terrain at FL 140?
A) 40 NM
B) 140 NM
C) 240 NM
D) 300 NM
253. The electromagnetic spectrum is divided into several bands, some of

which are used for aeronautical mobile communications. Which of the
following is true?
A) The VHF band is used for aeronautical mobile communications and contains higher
frequencies than the UHF band.
B) The VHF band is used for aeronautical mobile communications and contains lower
frequencies than the SHF band.
C) The UHF band is used for aeronautical mobile communications and contains lower
frequencies than the VHF band.
D) The HF band is used for aeronautical mobile communications and contains higher
frequencies than the VHF band.
254. “An aircraft`s weak VHF radio is replaced with one producing three times
the original radio`s transmission power. How is this likely to affect the
maximum range at which its transmissions can be received, assuming line of
sight is maintained?Transmissions should be receivable at a distance
approximately…”
A) 3 times the original range.
B) 1.7 times the original range.
C) 1.3 times the original range.
D) 9 times the original range.
255. The range and quality of radio transmissions can be affected by several
factors. Which of these affect the VHF band?
A) Hill effect and ionospheric refraction.
B) Night effect and coastal refraction.
C) Coastal refraction and ionospheric reflection.
D) Transmitter power and air density.
256. VHF is the radio frequency range from…

A) 30 to 300 MHz.
B) 3000 to 30 000 MHz.
C) 3 to 30 MHz.
D) 300 to 3000 MHz.
257. Which of the following would be expected to affect the quality of signals
received in the band normally used for aeronautical mobile service voice
communications?
A) A difference in polarity between the transmitter and receiver aerials.
B) The density of electrons in the lower ionosphere.
C) The strength of the solar wind.
D) The composition and albedo of the surface of the Earth below the signal.

Given a stable, non&changing air pressure, attenuation increases as…
A) air temperature and frequency both decrease.
B) air temperature increases and frequency decreases.
C) frequency and air temperature both increase.
D) frequency increases and air temperature decreases.
259. Which of the following would affect the strength and quality of signals
received in the band normally used for aeronautical mobile service voice
communications?
A) The strength of the solar wind.
B) Obstacles near the transmitter.
C) The electron density in the lower ionosphere.
D) The composition of the surface of the Earth below the signal.
260. Which of the following is most likely to reduce the strength and/or quality
of a signal received by an aircraft in the normal frequency band used by the
Aeronautical Mobile Service for voice communications?
A) Shielding by part of the airframe.
B) Ionospheric refraction.
C) Sky&wave interference.
D) Static interference.

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2. “Complete the definition of an instrument approach procedure: Instrument

3. “What does the term “”significant point”” mean?”

4. “What does the term “”broadcast”” mean?”

5. “What does the term “”air&ground communication”” mean?”

6. “What does the term “”Expected Approach Time”” mean?”

8. “What does the term “”clearance limit”” mean?”

9. “An “”Automatic Terminal Information Service”” provides…”

10. What does the abbreviation STAR stand for?

11. What does the abbreviation SID stand for?

12. What is the meaning of APV?

13. “What does the abbreviation “”RVR”” mean?”

14. Which of the following is an ATS unit in charge of controlling traffic?

16. Which call&sign suffix designates a station issuing pre&flight clearances?

17. “What does the abbreviation “”IMC”” mean?”

19. “What does the abbreviation “”H24?” mean?”

20. “What does the abbreviation “”ATIS”” mean?”

21. “What does the abbreviation “”MLS”” mean?”

22. What is SELCAL?

23. “What does the abbreviation “”SSR”” mean?”

24. “What does the abbreviation “”RNAV”” mean?”

27. QFE is the RTF Q&code to indicate the…

28. QNH is the Q&code to indicate…

29. According to ICAO Annex 10, Aeronautical Telecommunications, which

30. “What type of message is the following?””Mayday Mayday Mayday, Lille

33. “How should””FRI&VOR”” be transmitted in a radio message using the

40. What is the correct phraseology for a temporary suspension of

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47. “The radar controller instructs you: “”ADVISE IF ABLE TO PROCEED

54. “The radar controller transmits the following traffic information to

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57. When a pilot is being vectored, he/she may occasionally be instructed to

58. What radiotelephony transmission should be made when an aircraft starts

62. Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted?

64. What is the correct way of transmitting altitude 4300?

67. How should118.1 be transmitted to indicate a frequency?

73. For intelligibility of radio transmissions, crew and ground personnel

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80. “When should the term “”take&off”” be used by a pilot?”

81. “Which of these phrases is used to communicate that “”Consider that

82. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”acknowledge””

83. In radiotelephony communication, which word or phrase shall be used to

85. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”contact””

86. In radiotelephony communication, which word or phrase shall be used in

87. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”correct””

88. In radiotelephony communication, which word shall be used to indicate

89. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”disregard””

90. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”negative””

91. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”negative””

92. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”approved””

96. “In radiotelephony communication, what does the word “”recleared””

97. In radiotelephony communication, which word or phrase shall be used to

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107. “What does the word “”check”” mean?”

110. “What is the meaning of the phrase “”Radar service terminated””?”

112. In radiotelephony communication, what phrase shall be used when asking