Forensic Science Final Coaching For Printing

Do your Best in everything, work hard for it and do it not just OTHER METHOD OF IDENTIFICATIONS;
for your sake but for the people who depend on you.. Make Physical Anthropology – based on the physical constitution of
them your inspiration & Put God on Top of it. man.
Physiognomy – facial features.
ACES Technique Crainoscopy later called Phernology – study of the shape of
1. Analysis of the question the skull in relation to human behavior.
2. Comparison between the question and the choices Physiology or somatotype – based on the study of body built in
3. Eliminate or Exclude the detractors . relation to personality.
4. Select the Best Answer 2. Anthopometry – measurement of body structure of the
Don’t leave your commonsense AT HOME!!! human body.
3. Mug-shot photography or Mugging - taking photograph of
FORENSIC Science = any field of study applied to the suspect in various angle.
administration of law. (Synonymously used with the word 4. Dactylography and Dactyloscopy – fingerprint identification
LEGAL). and fingerprint classification.
5. Forensic Odontology – examination of denture.
Criminalistics = branch of Forensic Science which dealt with 6. Forensic Anthropology – skeletal identification.
Physical Evidence. (Application of Fingerprint Identification, 7. Blood Grouping and Blood typing (AB0 system and M-N
Bullet comparison, Examination of Dead body is a kind of __) system)
Physical Evidence = any tangible objects or materials which 8. Handwriting and Signature
has certain value to an issue/case 9. Voice Stress Analysis
1. Corpus Delicti “Body of the Crime” = existence of facts or 10. DNA Fingerprinting.
circumstances to show that a crime was committed. e.g. the 4. Which of the following personal identification is NOT easy to
fact that there was a killing in homicide, the evidence that there be changed?
was a stolen property in a theft. A. Hair C. Dress
2. Associative Evidence= evidence that would link or connect B. Speech D. personal paraphernalia
the subject to the crime e.g. latent prints. CHARACTERISTICS THAT MAY NOT EASILY BE CHANGED;
3. Tracing Evidence = tells about the location or whereabouts 1. Mental Memory
of the criminal e.g. the stolen property. 2. Speech
3. Gait or the manner of walking.
Per-son-al Identification a. Ataxic gait – the foot is raised high, thrown forward
- a system of recognizing and identifying a particular person and brought down suddenly.
based on his/her characteristics as differentiate from others. b. Cerebellar gait – gait associated with staggering
1. What is a system of identification which was used earlier movement.
than the fingerprint system, made by measuring various bony c. Cow’s gait – swaying movement due to knock-
structure of human body? knee.
A. Portrait Parle C. Tattoo d. Paretic gait – steps are short, the feet dragged, the
B. Anthropometry D. Photography legs held more or less widely apart.
st
Anthropometry – 1 scientific method of personal identification e. Spastic – leg are held together and moves in a stiff
developed by Alphonse Bertillion. manner, and the toes to drag and catch. (similar to a robot)
Alphonse Bertillion= Father of personal identification & Mug- f. Waddling – a gait resembling duck.
shot Photography. g. Frog’s – hopping gait in infantile paralysis.
2. Is the distance of recognition in broad daylight of a person Gait line – line connecting heel to heel of a walking person.
who is almost a stranger. 4. Mannerism = unconscious habits.
A. 100 yards C. 25 yards 5. Hands & Feet = conditions of the hands and feet.
B. 16-17 yards D. 10-13 yards 6. Complexion
100 yards = never seen even once 7. Facial Features = shape of the face, eyes, nose and ears
16 – 17 yards = moonlight 10 -13 yards = starlight. etc.
3. What basic principle Identification states that the greater the 8. Body built (somatoform) = Endomorph, Mesomorph &
number of similarity or difference the greater the probability for Ectomorph.
the identity or non identity to be conclusive? 9. Left and Right Handedness. (Ambidextrous = those who are
A. Law of Individuality C. Law of Infallibility capable of using both left and right hand in doing things.)
B. Law of multiplicity of evidence D. Law of Constancy 5. What is considered to be one of the most infallible means of
a, c, and d are principles of fingerprint identification. Identification?
ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

A. DNA fingerprinting C. Dactyloscopy 13. What is the study of fingerprint for purposes of
B. Fingerprint Identification D. Photography identification?
DNA fingerprinting = the most indispensable science. A. Dactyloscopy C. Dactylography
6. Identification of person can be done either by Comparison B. Dactylomancy D. Dactylo-analysis
or by____. Dactyloscopy – (derived from the Latin words Dactyl = finger
A. exclusion C. examination and Skopien – to study or examine) is the practical application
B. experimentation D. inclusion of the science of fingerprints. (Classification & Identification)
COMPARISON - side by side examination of two or more Dactylomancy – is the scientific study of fingerprint for
specimen so as to weigh their identifying details. purposes of personality interpretation. (also known as Dactylo-
7. Which of the following system of Identification is best used analysis)
in case of burned body? 14. The word finger was derived from the Latin word_______
A. Fingerprint C. Forensic Odontology which means finger.
B. Skeletal Identification D. Photography A. dermis B. dactyl C. digitus D. skopien
Forensic Odontology= Examination of Dentures. 15. What is that condition of the hand having more than the
Forensic Anthropology = skeletal identification regular number of finger?
***In dactylography, the production on some smooth surfaces A. Ectodactyl C. Polydactyl
of the design formed by the ridge on the inside of the joint of B. Macrodactyl D. Syndactyl
the finger or thumb is called? – Fingerprint. Polydactyl = born with more than the regular number of fingers
8. What is the first conviction in the Philippine Case which (with extra finger).
gives recognition to the science of fingerprint? Macrodactyl = enlarged finger.
A. People Vs. Medina C. Miranda Vs.Arizona Microdactyl = reduced/small finger.
B. People Vs. Jennings D West Case Ectodactyl = missing finger at birth.
minimum points of similarity: at least 9 points Syndactyl = side fussion of the finger.
People vs. Jennings (U.S. case) (14 points) 16. What principle in fingerprint study states that fingerprint
West case = defeats the Anthropometry System cannot be forged or that fingerprint is a reliable and positive
9. Who is the person known for being the U.S. public enemy means of identification?
number one (a notorious gangster) who attempt to destroy his A. Infallibility C. Individuality
friction by applying a corrosive acid (burning with acids) but B. Permanency D. Constancy
due to the passage of time the ridges were redeveloped in 17. What principle of fingerprint identification states that
their natural feature? fingerprint is from the mother womb up to the tomb?
A. Robert James Pitts C. John Dillenger A. Infallibility C. Individuality
B. Roscoe Pitts D. John Augustus B. Permanency D. Multiplicity
Robert James Pitts = used surgery to destroy his friction Dogmatic Principles of F.P. Identification
ridges. Known as the Man without fingerprint. Also known by 1. Individuality = based on Statistical probability that
the name Roscoe Pitts or “Philips”. NO two persons have the same or identical fingerprint.
10. What is the scientific study of the prints of the soles of the (UNIQUE) (1:64,000,000,000 – Francis Galton).
feet? 2. Infallibility = reliable, positive, and cannot be
A. Poroscopy C. Chiroscopy forged.
B. Podoscopy D. Dactyloscopy 3. Permanency/Constancy = F.P. is unchangeable
Chiroscopy – ( Greek word “ Cheir” – a hand, “Skopien” –to (from the mother’s womb until one is placed on the tomb).
examine) study of the prints of the palms of the hand. Ridges once fully develop their general arrangement will
Podoscopy – ( Greek word “Podo” – the foot, and Skopien – to remain the same throughout life. (Herman Welcker)
the study of the footprints. 18. What is the main layer of the epidermis, which covers the
Poroscopy – (Greek word “poros” – a pare, and “Skopien” – to surface on which ridges are visible?
examine) study of the arrangement of the sweat pores. A. dermis C. stratum mucusom
11. What is the scientific study of the friction ridges/ B. stratum corneoum D. sanguinal stratum
A. Poroscopy C. Edgeoscopy Friction Skin/Papillary skin/ Epidermal skin
B. Ridgeoscopy D. Podoscopy = corrugated or strips of (hairless) skin.
12. What is that principles of identification which states that in 1. Epidermis =outer layer
every crime scene there leaves traces, traces that would lead 2. Dermis =inner layer
to the identity of its author? Epidermis is divided into: stratum corneum and stratum
A. Tool marks identification C. Locard’s Exchange mucosum.
B. Individuality D. Res Ipsa loquitor

Five (5) thin layers of the epidermis: Corneous, 29. What type of pattern in which the looping (slope) or
Transparent, Malphigian, granucar& generating slanting ridges flow (travel) towards the little finger?
19. It is located along the undersides of the fingers, palms, A. Loop C. Radial loop
toes and soles appears as corrugated skin structure known to B. Ulnar loop D. Tented arch
the fingerprint examiner as ________.
A. friction skin C.volar skin
B. handprints D. palmar Radial loop (radius bone) = travel towards the thumb.
Volar skin =term known to the biologist when referring to the
friction skin.
20. What layer of the friction skin if damage may cause
permanent scar?
A. Dermis C. Epidermis
B. Dermal papillae D. Generating layer
21. How deep is the cut in order to produced permanent scar? LH = \ RH = /
A. more than 1 cm C. more than 1mm Ulnar loop (ulna bone) = towards the little finger.
B. 1 m D. 1dm
2nd degree burn = might cause damage.
3rd degree burn = the most painful.
22. What appears as tiny black lines with white dots (called
pores) in an inked finger impression? LH = /
A. Sweat pores B. Furrows C. Ridges D. Sweat duct RH = \
Note: Friction ridges or papillary ridges or epidermal ridges. 30. The diagonal sign / in the right hand is ________.
23. What are the depressed portion or canal like structure of A. radial B. ulnar C. tented D. plain loop
the friction skin which may be compared with the low area in a 31. What type of a pattern consisting of two or more deltas,
tire tread (found between ridges)? one or more ridge forming a complete circuitry and when an
A. Pores B. Indentions C. Furrows D. Duct imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right delta it touches
24. How many standard types of fingerprint patterns are there? or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered as the most common
A. Three B. Two C. Eight D. Nine type of whorl?
Note: There are Three (3) groups or families of fingerprint and A. Plain whorl C. Double loop whorl
the most prevailant is the LOOP with 65％, second is WHORL B. Central pocket loop whorl D. Accidental whorl
with 35％ and the least is ARCH with 5％. 32. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is NOT
Galton and Henry System = 9 types of fingerprint pattern. included in the combination?
25. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side of A. Ulnar loop C. Plain whorl
the pattern and flow to the other side with a rise at the center? B. Tented arch D. Plain arch
A. Loop C. Plain arch
B. Tented arch D. Exceptional arch
26. What type of a pattern possesses an angle and uptrust, or
two fo the three basic characteristics of the loop?
A. Plain arch C. Tented arch
B. Central pocket loop D. Accidental whorl
Plain Whorl Central Pocket loop whorl
27. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should

have _______ridge
Doublecount.
loop Whorl Accidental whorl
A. 1 B. at least 1 C. 2 D. 3 33. The core and delta are also termed as __?
28. What type of a pattern has two deltas in which at least one A. inner terminus C. focal point
ridges makes a turn through one complete circuit. It is B. outer terminus D. pattern area
symbolized by letter W? Fingerprint Terminus/Focal Points
A. Arch C. Accidental whorl
B. Loop D. Whorl

Core – inner terminus (The proximate center of the Enclosure= a single ridge that splits into two ridges and meets
fingerprint pattern usually found on the innermost sufficient to form the original ridge. This is a close resemblance of the
recurve). bifurcation.
Delta – outer terminus (diverging typelines). 36. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the
wide space = between the delta & 1st ridge count imaginary line, how is it counted?
34. What is a point along a ridge formation, which is found in A. One B. Three C. Two D. Six
front or near the center of the diverging typelines. 37. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously
A. Core C. Island ridge running side by side?
B. Delta D. Convergence A. Bifurcation C. Divergence
35. What is the rule where there are two or more possible B. Convergence D. Enclosure
bifurcation deltas which conforms to the definition of deltas?
A. The one nearest the core should be chosen 38. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a
B. The one away from the core should be counted period?
C. The one which does not open towards the core is counted A. Lake C. Island ridge
D. The one towards the core should be counted. B. Ending ridge D. Incipient ridge
Rules on selecting Delta Other term for dot is -- Island
1. Delta must be located midway between the two 39. What ridge/ line divides itself into two or more ridges that
diverging typelines at or just in front or where they diverge. meets (converge at a certain point) to form the original figure?
2. In order for a bifurcation to be selected as delta it A. Bifurcation C. Lake ridge
should open towards the core &not towards the delta; B. Island ridge D. Convergence
3. When there is a bifurcation and other type of Lake/Enclosure/Eyelet (it is misinterpreted as bifurcation
possible delta- the bifurcation is selected. because of its close resemblance)
4. If there are two or more possible deltas none is 40. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the
bifurcation, the one nearest the core should be chosen. direction from which it started?
Basic types of ridges: (REB/S) A. Diverging C. Converging
(1) Ridge dot, (2) Ending ridge (Terminal end or abrupt end), B. Recurving D. Bifurcation
(3) Bifurcation, and (4) Short ridge. 41. What is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge
Convergence = two separate ridges that meets at certain curves inward?
point. (meeting of two separate ridges). A. Sufficient recurve C. Obstruction ridge
Divergence = two ridges that spreads apart. (Spreading B. Appendage D. Shoulder of loop
of two separate ridges) What is considered in locating the core is ---- next loop outside
Bifurcation = single ridge (line) that splits into two or more with no appendage at right angle.
forming a Y-shape. 42. What is a short horizontal ridge found inside the recurve
which has spoiled (blocks) the inner line of flow from the inner
delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found in the
second type of central pocket loop?
A. Bar B. Appendage C Uptrust D. Obstruction
Appendage – is a short ridge found at the top or summit
of a recurve.
Rod or Bar – is a short of long ridge found inside the recurve
and directed towards the core or parallel to the recurve.
Uptrust = a horizontal ridge that makes a sufficient rise at
the center.
43. What is that part of a loop or whorl where the delta, core
and other ridges appear?
A. Pattern area C. Bifurcation
B. Type line D. Furrows
Type lines = the innermost ridges (2 ridges) run parallel and
surround the pattern area.
Pattern Area= Is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by the
type lines where ridge characteristics needed for
interpretation/classification are found.

44. What type of pattern in which when the course is traced A. Fingerprint brush C. Fingerprint roller
the line flow below the right delta and there are three B. Fingerprint lifting tapes D. fingerprint card
intervening ridge? Fingerprint card =where F.P. is recorded (8”X8”)
A. Meeting whorl C. Inner whorl Strip card = used for recording post-mortem fingerprint.
B. Outer whorl D. Central pocket loop whorl Latent Print Transfer card = used for recording and
Meeting whorl = there are two or less intervening ridge/s. (the preserving latent print.
number of intervening ridge is below three) Ink slab = metal/glass plate where ink is spread. If not properly
Inner whorl = with three (3) intervening ridge and the tracing cleaned after its use, it will produced --- blurred fingerprint.
flows above/inside the right delta. Taking ten prints
45. What type of rigde is so thin or fine compare to other (1) Subject --- Relax (2) Hands ---- Dry
regular ridge which is NOT included as a ridge count even if it Both Thumb – prints that goes (rolled) towards the body
has been cross by the imaginary line? All fingers EXCEPT both thumb – rolled away from the body
A. Ending ridge C. Intervening ridge Purpose of rolling – NOT to missed the delta.
B. Incipient ridge D. Enclosure Extra finger – rolled on the other side of the card.
46. What is that ridge (single) that (forks) divides into two Spilt thumb or webbed thumb – rolled together (classify the
ridges and which resembles a fork structure? bigger one, If same size– get the inner one.)
A. Divergence C. Bifurcation 51. What is the process of placing the letter symbols under
B. Convergence D. Enclosure each pattern as the results of the interpretation of all ten
47. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its fingers?
infants stage which usually starts_________. A. Classification formula C. Blocking out
A. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life B. Reference classification D. Fingerprint identification
B. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life Note: the very first thing to do is to check that the rolled
C. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life impressions are properly place on their respective box.
D. 5th to 6th months before birth (CHECKING)
3rd to 4th months of the fetus life or 5th to 6th months before 52. What symbol is used to represent a plain arch.
birth. A. T B. A C. P D. W
Cut of more than 1mm = permanent scar. Plain Arch = A Tented Arch = T
48. What is the process of counting the intervening ridges Radial Loop (LH = \ and RH = / )
touch or cross by the imaginary line between the delta and Ulnar Loop (LH = / and RH = \ )
core of a loop? Plain Whorl = W
A. Ridge tracing C. ridge tracking Central Pocket Loop Whorl = C (no recurving ridge is cut)
B. Ridge counting D. ridge summing Double Loop Whorl = D(two distinct loops)
Ridge count = ridges between delta and core. Accidental Whorl = X (X = is a universal symbol.)
Ridge dot and fragment to be counted – must be as thick FPC = Key Major Primary Secondary Sub Sec. Final
and heavy as other ridges. 1. Primary Division = represented by numerical value
Ridge tracing = between tracing ridge and right delta. assigned to whorl.
(reference : lower side or point of the extreme left delta) 2. Secondary Division = represented by Capital Letters
Intervening ridge = ridges between tracing ridge and right (Index finger) and small letters ( r, a, t)
delta. 3. Sub-Secondary = Index, Middle and Ring Fingers.
49. What fingers (Fingerprints) are rolled towards the body in (Loop = Index (9), Middle (10), Ring (13)
taking a rolled impression? 4. Major Division = Both Thumb (placed on the right side
A. Both little finger C. All finger except thumb of the primary)
B. Both thumb finger D. Both index finger 5. Final Division = derived from both little finger
Types of fingerprint impression on the FP Card (ten prints of 6. Key = ridge count of the 1st Loop Except little finger.
----suspect) Key, Major, Primary, Secondary, Sub-Secondary, Final
Rolled impression = taken individually by rolling the finger from (the order in classification line)
the tip to the end of the first joint. Used for classification 52. What division in the classification formula is always
purposes. represented by numeral value depending upon a whorl pattern
Plain Impression = taken simultaneously by simply pressing appearing in each finger?
the ten fingers. It serves as guide or reference in checking the A. Primary B. Key C. Final D. Major
rolled impression. Primary div. = derived from the sum of the numerator and
50. What instrument is used for the spreading of the denominator plus the pre-established fraction of 1/1.
fingerprint ink to the slab?

54. In assigning a number value to whorl pattern, what finger A. 1 to 11 C. 18 to 22
should be given a value of 4 when a whorl pattern appears B. 1 to 17 D. 12 to 16
therein: Major Div. = derived from both thumb fingers by ridge tracing a
A. left little finger and right thumb whorl and counting of loop just like is sub secondary..
B. right little finger and left thumb Loops = R. C. = S, M, L
C. right thumb and left little finger Whorls = R.T. = M,O,I Arches = Dash (-)
D. left thumb and right 60. In a loop pattern, when the number of the ridges on the left
55. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all the thumb is 17 or more, it constitutes as ________.
fingers of the left hand are loops, what will be the primary A. exceptional C. alteration
division? B. isolation D. Conditional
A. 25/29 C. 29/25 Major division = place just to the left of the primary division in
B. 24/28 D. 28/24 the classification formula. Loops are ridge counted, whorls
P = 1/1 + the sum of N/D = 25/29 appearing on the thumb following the whorl tracing of sub-
secondary classification.
61. In ridge counting a plain whorl or central pocket loop whorl
Whorl 16 8 4 2 1 in the little finger it is derived by __________.
A. getting the ridge count of the top loop
2 4 6 8 10 (fingers) B. treating it as ulnar loop
16 8 0 0 0 = 24 C. getting the least ridge count
16 8 4 0 0= 28 D. getting the delta opposite each hand
1 3 5 7 9 (fingers) 62. What division in the classification formula is derived from
Pair 1= right thumb and right index (1 and 2) = 16 both little finger and is place at the extreme right of the
Pair 2 =right middle and right ring finger (3 & 4) =8 classification formula?
Pair 3 = right little and left thumb (5 and 6) =4 A. Key B. Final C. Major D. Secondary
Pair 4 = left index and left middle (7 and 8) =2 63. The key division is the division in the classification which is
Pair 5 = left ring and left little (9 and 10) = 1. located at the extreme left of the classification formula and it is
If all fingers are whorl what would be the primary? = 32/32 taken by getting the ridge count of _______?
56. What patterns are included in the secondary division in a. loop pattern b. first radial loop
deriving the small letter category? c. first loop d. first whorl
A. Ulnar loop, plain arch and tented arch Key div = derived from the ridge count of the First
B. Radial loop, ulnar and arch Loop, EXCEPT the little finger.
C. Radial loop, plain arch and tented arch = If there were no loops, get the ridge count of
D. Radial loop, ulnar, plain arch the First Whorl.
Secondary div. = combination of Capital Letters (index = Only numerator.
fingers) and small letters (from T, M, R, and L fingers = r,a,t). 64. In case of a missing digits or an amputated finger, what will
57. What would be the secondary divisions if all the right hand be the classification of said missing finger?
fingers are radial loops while all the left hand fingers are tented A. The same as the corresponding digit of the other hand
arches. B. Mutilated finger
A. 3Rr B. rR3r C. R3r D. R4r C. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
3Tt tT3t T3t T4t D. None
58. What is the interpretation for a ridge count on the left index One finger is missing/amputated = interpreted as the
that reaches 8? same as the corresponding digit of the other hand.
A. Eexceptional C. Inner loop Same digits of both hands are missing = plain whorl
B. Radial loop D. Outer loop with meeting tracing.
Sub-secondary = derived by ridge counting loop and ridge If all fingers are missing/amputated the formula:
tracing whorl appearing in the Index, Middle and Ring fingers. FPC = M 32 W MMM
Loops = Inner (I) or Outer (0) M 32 W MMM
Index (9), Middle (10), and Ring (13) 65. All fingerprints left at the scene of the crime or at the crime
Whorls = Meeting (M), Inner (I), and Outer (O) scene refers to a________.(it includes those left
Arches = Dash (-) unconsciously.)
59. In interpreting a loop pattern, what is the numerical value A. suspected prints
of S in the left hand? B. molded prints
C. latent prints

D. prints made by contamination with colored substance. C. don’t print the finger and write in the box wounded
66. What kind of prints is that which were left in the place 74. What kind of prints are made by blood, dust or dirt or other
accidentally or unconsciously? coloring substances?
A. Chance prints C. Smudge prints A. Visible prints C. Chance prints
B. Fragmentary prints D. Latent prints B. Invisible prints D. Fragmentary prints
Presence of fingerprint at the crime scene means --- 75. In filing classified fingerprint card what should be the first
you came from the scene of the crime. attempt to be made through _______.
Latent prints A. primary numerator C. secondary numerator
1. visible (molded prints or made by contamination with B. primary denominator D. secondary denominator
colored substance).
2. Invisible = made from sweat. 76. What division of the classification formula is left blank if all
3. Semi visible print = a kind of fingerprint which is found on fingers are amputated.
soft and sticky objects such as wax and tape. A. Mayor and key C. Key and primary
67. What method of developing latent prints in paper is best to B. Key and final D. Final and major
be used being easy to apply and less destructive to the paper? 77. What term is used when referring to cut finger?
A. Iodine fuming C. Silver nitrate method A. Mutilated finger C. Fragmentary finger
B. Ninhydrin method D. Dusting method B. Amputated finger D. Deformities
Dusting = traditional/simplest method of developing prints 78. Reagents commonly used in liquid method are the
in the crime scene. following, except __________.
Laser Method - modern method of developing prints that may A. silver nitrate C. victoria blue
be utilized in case other methods are ineffective. B. Ninhydrin D. tetra methyl benzidine E. none
68. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve 79. Which is not a process of developing using the ninhydrin
the contrast of a latent fingerprint impression dusted with black method?
powder on a green background? A. Immersion C. Spraying
A. Yellow B. Green C. Red D. Blue B. Dusting D. Brushing
69. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve 80. Once the latent print has been visualized, it must be
the contrast of a latent fingerprint impression dusted with gray preserved by_______.
powder on a yellow background? A. developing the latent print C. photography
A. Yellow b. Green C. Red D. Violet B. lifting the impression D. brushing it
Opposite Colors: For Item 81 – 84 Illustration:
Blue – Orange Green – Red Yellow – Violet M I R = 11 U = 13 U = 12
70. The identification of two impressions can be established
primarily through ___________. Plain Central Radial Ulnar Ulnar
A. formation of different types of pattern Whorl Pocket Loop Loop Loop
Loop
B. formation of the two terminus
Whorl
C. unexplained similarity of ridges
D. similarity of ridge characteristics in their relative R = 17 U=9 M O 5
positions
Note: a and b are for fingerprint classification. Radial Ulnar Double Plain Plain
71. What card is used in recording and preserving developed Loop Loop Loop Whorl Whorl
latent print? Whorl
A. Fingerprint lifting tapes
B. Evidence Identification tags 81. What would be the Primary Division of the above
C. Fingerprint transfer card illustration?
D. Post-mortem fingerprint equipment A. 19/ 17 C. 20/18
72. In case of split thumb, which should be classified? B. 17/19 D. 18/20
A. Get the smaller one C. Get the outer one 82. What would be the Sub- Secondary Division?
B. Get the bigger one D. Get the inner one A. I I I C. I O I
73. In case of wounded finger, how should fingerprint be I MO IMO
taken? B. I O O D. I I O
A. Just take the subject fingerprint. IMO OMO
B. don’t print said finger and left the rolled impression 83. What is the right Major Division?
box empty. A. M C. M

S M Personal Identification = first used of photography in police
B. M D. M work.
L O Mugging = the process of taking photograph of suspect.
84. What would be the Classification formula? 3. In Photographing the scene of the crime, what view should
A. 11 M 19 Cr I I I 12 be used in order to show the best feature of the nature of the
S 17 rU I M O 5 crime scene?
B. 11 M 20 Cr I O I 12 A. Medium C. General
L 18 rU I M O 5 B. Close-up D. Extreme close-up
C. 11 M 19 Cr I I I 12 General View – location of the crime scene (four angles).
L 17 U I M O 5
D. 11 M 20 Cr I O I 12
S 18 rU I M O 5
II. FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY Mid –(view) (range)– 8 or 10 feet from the victim. Show the
= it is the application of the principles of photography to law or nature of the crime. (possible entrance & exit point)
(preparation of photographic evidence) administration of
justice.
Police photography = the application of photography to police
work. Also known in its old usage as black and white
photography.
Photography = art and science of reproducing image by
means of light (electro magnetic rays).
Photography was derived from two (2) Greek words:
Phos or photos = light
Graphia = to draw or Graph = writing Close–up view – five (5) feet or less from the subject/object,
Photograph = the positive result of photography. It shows the show the details of the crime.
appearance of the original as seen by the naked eye.
Negative = exposed film which produces Latent image.
1839= considered as the birth of true photography.
United States(US) = the first country to use photograph of
crime scene for court presentation.
1. The word Photography was coined by _________.
A. John F. W. Herschel
B. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre (Daguerreo type
C. Henry Fox Talbot (Talo or Calo type) (Mouse Trap) Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence in court;
D. Leonardo Da Venci it should be taken from _______(GENERAL TO SPECIFIC
Joseph Nicephore Niepce = he invented the first photographic It should be the faithful reproduction of the original.Purpose of
process called Heliography. crime scene photography: Factual replica of the crime.
Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre = Father of Photography Photographs are valuable in crime investigation for it provides
William Henry Fox Talbot = Father of Modern Photography enforcers an easier work in court -- Testimony.
(having used a negative in his process) 4. What is an electromagnetic energy which travels with the
2. What is considered as the utmost used of photography in speed of 186, 000 miles per second?
police work? A. Energy B. Rays C. Radiation D. Light
A. Identification C. Preservation Rays = characterized the direction of light travel. Usually
B. Record purpose D. Court presentation used interchangeably with light.

Radiation = is the process by which heat is transferred through 11. What kind of light in which their wavelengths are either too
electromagnetic wave. short or too long to excite the retina of the human eye?
5. What theory of light which states that it is produced as A. Visible C. Invisible
energy made by action of some small particles such as B. Natural D. Artificial or man-made
electron and protons? Visible light = (from 400 to 700 millimicron)
A. Wave C. Modified wave Invisible light = (X-ray, ultra-violet light, and Infra-red light
B. Corpuscular D. Quantum etc.)
6. Light travels in a form of a wave according to wave theory of Medium wave U.V. = used in chemical analysis and in curing
Huygens. What is that unit of light wavelength which is express and hardening of different items for Industrial purposes.
in ten (10) millionth part of a millimeter? Fluorescence = it is the ability of the object to convert one
A. Millimicron C. Angstrom wavelength to another as long as the active energy source is
B. Nanometer D. Micron irradiating the object.
Millimicron / Nanometer = one millionth part of mm. 12. What color will be produced by the combination of a red
Micron = equivalent to one thousand part of millimicron. and blue color?
7. What light action is characterized by passing a transparent A. Magenta B. Cyan C. Yellow D. Green
object? Primary colors == Blue, Green and Red
A. Absorbed C. Transmitted Blue + Green = cyan Green + Red = yellow
B. Reflected D. Refracted Blue + Red = magenta
RAT Law Secondary = cyan, yellow and magenta
Reflected = bouncing of light.(Glossy object) Yellow = complementary color of blue.
Absorbed = light that is block by the surface where it falls such White light - the presence of all colors.
as black cloth (opaque) 13. How many photographic rays are there?
Transmitted = light that passed through usually in a A. Three B. Five C. Four D. Nine
transparent object such as plain glass. 14. What photographic rays have the longest wavelength?
8. What light action is characterized as the bending of light? A. Infra-red C. Visible rays
A. Reflection B. Dispersion B. Ultra-violet D. X-rays
B. Refraction D. Diffraction Four (4) Photographic Rays
Diffraction = bending of lights (falls) around the object. X-ray (roentgen rays) = .01 to 30 millimicron.
Dispersion = the spread of light as it bends forming the light Ultra-violet light (black light) =30 to 400 mill.
spectrum. Visible light = 400 to 700 millimicron.
Light Spectrum = the spreading of light beam (white Infra-red (heat rays) = 700 to 1000 millimicron
light) into light of varying wavelength. 15. What type of an artificial light which makes sympathetic
9. What condition of the sunlight is where object in an open inks visible?
space cast a transparent or bluish shadow? A. Ultra-violet C. Infra-red
A. Bright light C. Hazy sunlight B. Transparent light D. Oblique light
B. Dull sunlight D. Bright cloudy sunlight 16. What determine the amount of light a flash unit will yield at
Dull sunlight = thick clouds covers the sun, no shadow will a given distance?
be produced. A. Luminescence C. Wattage
Hazy sunlight = thin clouds covers the sun. B. Guide number D. Light meter
Bright sunlight = clear sky, cast well defined, deep and uniform Light meter = an accessory of a camera which measures
shadow, glossy object. the amount of reflected light.
10. What artificial light source contains in its tube certain Exposure = it is the range of illumination (or the light allowed)
powders capable of illuminating with some support from small to affect the sensitized material at a given time.
amount of electricity. It is commonly used in the house or 17. Laser light is also referred to as ______ light.
commercial establishment? A. ultra-violet C. coherent
A. Incandescent lamp C. Photo flood lamp B. visible D. Heat
B. Fluorescence lamp D. Flash bulb Concurrent = light that is scattered.
Sources of light Light Amplified by stimulating emission of radiation. (LASER)
1. Natural light source such as sunlight, starlight, Hologram (3D) = the image formed by laser light.
lightning etc. 18. Hologram refers to a :
2. Artificial /Man-made light (short duration and long A. 1 dimensional image in a film.
continuous) Flash bulb, Incandescent lamp, B. 2- dimensional image in a film
Fluorescent lamp, spotlight or reflectorized light. C. 3 – dimensional image in a film

d. 4 – dimensional image in a A. Cable release C. Tripod
film B. Stand D. Camera strap
3D –image (length, height Cable release = attached to the shutter release to prevent
and width) accidental movement of the camera during exposure.
19. Sidelight photography is usually done to show ________in Tripod = a three-leg stand designed to fix
a questioned document. the camera focus. (not an essential part of
A. contact writing C. faded writing the camera).
B. watermarks D. erasures B-shutter = manually controlled shutter to
Direct light = support photographing. allow more light to pass through.
Oblique light = from one side at a very low angle.
Side light = from one side. 26. What problem is usually encountered by a photographer in
Transmitted light =from the back/bottom. Used for using a flash unit?
water markings examination. A. Neutral density C Prospective
20. Specifically, the camera is needed in photography B Synchronization D. Parallax
to_________. Synchronization = timing between the shutter and the flash.
A. record the image Parallax = omission of an object. Image viewed in the view
B. exclude all unwanted and unnecessary lights finder is not exactly produce in the photograph.
C. makes the image visible 27. To readily determine the degree of magnification of a
D. makes the image permanent subject in a photograph ________ should be place beside the
21. How many parts does a camera generally has, with all subject.
other parts treated as accessories? A. gray-scale B. rangefinder C. scale bed D. ruler
A. Five B. Four C. Six D. Three 28. Why must the taking of photographs from an unusual
Essential parts of a camera camera position in crime photography be avoided?
1. Light tight box = the main frame or housing of the camera. A. It distorts the focus C. it distorts the perspective
2. Lens= the image forming device. It is used to focus the light B. it distorts the magnification D. it distorts the texture
coming from the object. Focus is the estimating or calculating distance to form
3. Shutter = controls the light reaching the sensitized material. sharp images.
It is used to allow the light at a predetermined time interval. 29. What type of a camera is now most ideal to police
4. Film Holder = photography?
5. View Finder = it provides means for the photographer to A. View finder type C. Single lens reflex (SLR)
view the area coverage or perspective of the camera. B. Twin lens reflex D. Digital Single Lens Reflex
22. What lens system of the camera reflects the light passing SLR = is an interchangeable lens type of camera. This
the lens and mirror making the image possible to be viewed eliminates parallax error.
from the viewfinder?
A. Pentaprism b. Shutter c. Condenser d. Filter
Condenser = is that part of the enlarger that ensures
even illumination of the light to the negative.
Filter = is a piece of plastic or glass used to subtract
or control light passing through it. SLR vs DSLR
23. What is that part of the camera which controls the
passage of light reaching the sensitized material? It compared View finder = simplest /cheapest.
to the eyelid of the human eye. TLR = one lens for focusing/ one for forming.
A. Lens C. Shutter View or Press = biggest and expensive.
B. Lens opening D. Film plane DSLR = Digital Single Lens Reflex Camera
24. What is that part of the camera which provides a means of Pinhole camera = the simplest camera made from a box
determining the extent of the area coverage of a given lens? with a small hole in one of its sides.
A. Lens C. Shutter Polaroid camera= camera with instant photograph.
B. View finder D. Pentaprism Fish Eye lens= special type of camera having 180 degrees
Cavity = is that part of the film holder of the camera that angle of view.
usually houses the film cartridge. Folding camera = a type of camera in which the lens and the
25. What camera accessory is designed to fix the camera shutter mounted to body by means of an accordion-pleated
focus and avoid its unusual movement during the process of bellows, which can be folded into camera foe ease of carrying.
photographing?

Charged-coupled device (CCD) = is that part of the Digital SLR 35. What photo paper according to its chemical content is best
camera that converts light into electrical signal as the start of suited for police photography?
forming digital images. A. Chloride paper C. Bromide paper
30. What type of a film has the longest range of sensitivity in B. Chloro-bromide D. Iodide paper
the electromagnetic spectrum called? Chloride paper = for contact printing.
A. orthochromatic film C. blue-sensitive film Note: in the absence of bromide paper, chlorobromide will do.
B. panchromatic film D. infra-red film 36. A convex lens is capable of _____________.
Film = is a sheet of celluloid or glass coated with an emulsion A. reducing the object
of silver halides suspended in gelatine which retains on B. making the object appear hairy
invisible image when exposed to light. C. enlarging the object
1. Black & White Film =“ortho” or “pan” D. reducing the size of the picture
Ex. Ortholith, Pan X plus, Tri X Pan, Neo Pan Convex = thicker at the center and thinner sides.
2. Colored Film Concave = thinner at the center.
a. Negative Type (COLOR) = Ultra Violet Film, Blue (positive/converging lens)– enlarge the object
Sensitive Film, Infra-Red Film (negative/diverging lens) – reduce the object.
b. Reversal type (CHROME) 37. Zoom lens is composed of _______ (variable focal length)
Ex. Orthochromatic film (Sensitive up to Green except A. positive lens C. A and B
RED) B. negative lens D. none
Panchromatic film (Sensitive to all the colors of the 38. What lens defect makes it unable for the lens to focus both
Visible Light (VBGYOR) horizontal and vertical lines in a plane at the same time?
Color harmony = systematic arrangement of color to A. Coma C. Astigmatism
give a pleasant effect. B. Distortion D. Chromatic aberration
31. What emulsion speed indicator is express in an arithmetic Coma / lateral aberration = straight line becomes blurred.
form? Positive Coma = results in a star images near the outer edges
A. ISO B. ASA C. DIN D. GNP of the viewing field seeming to have comet-style tails
ASA – American Standard Association scattering radially towards its optical axis.
10, 20, 30 , 40 , 50, 100, 200, 400, 800, Negative Coma (scattering radially away from its optical
2x faster axis)
DIN - DeutcheIndustreNormen (Logarithmic) Distortion = a defect not in blurredness but in shape.
3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 33, 36 (barrel/pinchusion)
(3 DEGREES DIFFERENCE) Chromatic aberration = (defects in color) = it is a lens defect in
ISO = International Standard Organization. which light of varying (different wavelength is focused at
32. Assuming all conditions will be the same, which film gives different distances behind the lens.
the finest of grains? Curvature of field = circular “dome-like” image.
A. ASA 1000 C. ASA 100 Spherical aberration = a lens defect that can affect resolution
B. ASA 200 D. ASA 400 and clarity. (it is blurredness due to lens passing the side (off-
Film speed/emulsion speed = the higher the number center) of the lens.)
the more sensitive or faster the film. 39. What type of a lens is used in a simplest and cheapest
Finest grains = the lower the number the finer the type of a camera?
grains. A. Rapid rectillinear lens C. Anastigmat lens
33. In Police Photography, what is the ideal weight for B. Meniscus lens D. Achromatic lens
enlarging paper? Lens According to Correction
A. double weight C. single weight Meniscus = no correction (Simplest lens)
B. medium weight D. light weight Rapid rectillinear = corrected from distortion.
For ordinary photographing = single weight, #2, silver Anastigmat = corrected from astigmatism
bromide, white and glossy. Achromatic = corrected from chromatic aberration.
34. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal exposed Apochromatic lens = corrected from both astigmatism and
film? chromatic aberration
A. # 1 B. # 3 C. # 2 D. # 4 Focusing – controls the degree of sharpness.
# 0 for extremely overexposed and # 1 for Range Finder (Coincidence/ Split Image)
overexposed Ground Glass
# 3, #4 and #5 are for underexposed =(Using microprism, the image on focus will usually
shatter of an out of focus image & when it is exactly in focus

the prism seems to disappear, This microprism is primarily Hyperfocal distance = the nearest distance between the optic
found on Ground glass) center of the lens to the nearest object that would give the
Scale Bed - maximum depth of field.
40. What kind of diaphragm opening should a photographer Focal length (Film plane to the optic center of lens)
used in order to get a wider depth of field? Depth of Field- nearest object to the farthestobject (sharp
A. Wider C. Smaller coverage)
B. Shorter D. Longer 46. When one uses a Photographic filter in taking a
F-Number = focal length/diameter of the whole lens. photograph, he is actually __________light rays or color from
Lens opening (diaphragm) controls definition. the light to reach the film.
f 2.8, f -4, f-5.6, f-8, f-11, f-16 A. adding C. multiplying
The lower the F- number the bigger the lens opening. B. subtracting D. dividing
41. What lens has a variable focal length? 47. A filter used in photographing fingerprints on a shiny or
A. Wide angle lens C. Normal focus lens highly polished surfaced because it reduces or eliminates glare
B. Telephotolens D. Zoom lens is known as ________.
Lens According to Focal Length A. neutral density C. polarizing
B. color D. contrast filter
1. Wide angle/short focus = lens with 48. If the basic exposure for a given film in bright sunlight is
focal length less than the diagonal l/125, f11, the exposure setting at dull sunlight would be?
half of the negative (35mm). a. 1/125 f4 C. 1/125 f5.6
Increase the area coverage but c. 1/125 f8 D. 1/125 f16
reduce the size of the object. BS = 1/125 , f-11 HS=1/125 , f-8 DS = 1/125 , f-5.6
2. Normal/medium focus = based on 49. What shutter speed will freeze a moving object?
human vision. (more than 35mm but A. B-shutter C. Slow shutter
not more than two times the diagonal B. Fast shutter D. moderate shutter
half of the negative) (>35 not Shutter speed = it refers to the effective length of time a
>70mm) camera’s shutter is open.
3. Telephoto/long focus = reduced B-shutter = used when taking photograph at night or when the
the area coverage but enlarged the source of light is low. Used together with cable release and
size of the object. tripod.
50. How much light will the combination of 1/125, f-4 has
42. What type of a lens that would make an object to be compare to 1/250, f-5.6.?
exaggeratedly closes to the photographer? A. Equal C. Four times
A. Wide angle lens C. Normal focus lens B. Two times D. Six times
B. Telephoto lens D. Zoom lens Shutter speed
43. Patrolman Cardo needs to conduct surveillance. What 2, 1, ½, ¼, 1/8, 1/15, 1/30, 1/60, 1/125, 1/250, 1/500
camera lens would best suit this kind of work? 2x
A. Wide angle lens C. Normal focus lens Lens Opening
B. Zoom lens D. Telephoto lens f-2.8 , f-4, f-5.6, f-8, f-11, f-16
44. What is the range of distance from the nearest object to 2x
the farthest object that is sharp when the lens is set or focused 1/125 , f-4 = 1/250, f-5.6
at a particular distance? 2x + 2x = 4x
A. Focal length C. Hyperfocal distance 51. What part of the camera is responsible for transmitting the
B. Depth of field D. Focusing light to form the image (Image forming device)?
45. What characteristics of a lens would determining factor of A. Light tight box C. Shutter
the size of an image as well as the area of coverage of a given B. Lens D. View finder
camera lens is the? 52.What is that process of taking a magnified (enlarged)
A. Focal length C. Hyper-focal distance photograph of small object obtained by attaching an extended
B. Diaphragm opening D. Depth of field tube lens to a camera?
Focal length = is the distance from the optic center of the lens A. Photomicrography C. Photomacrography
to film plane once the lens is focus in an infinite position. B. Microphotography D. Photomacrograph
Focal distance = distance from the camera lens to the 53. What is that magnified photograph of small object obtained
nearest object. by attaching a camera to the ocular of a compound
microscope?

A. Photomicrograph C. Microphotograph A. Elon, Hydroquinone C. Sodium carbonate
B. Photomicrography D. Photomacrograph B. Sodium sulfate D. Potassium bromide
Photomicrography and photo macrography are process. Sodium Carbonate - Accelerator
Photomacrograph = is an enlarged photograph. 62. The need for long and continuous washing in water of a
Microphotograph = is a reduced photograph. It makes big negative or finished print is to remove the presence
object small. of___________ because its presence will result to the early
fading.
A. sodium sulfite B. potassium
alum C. acetic acid D. hypo
Sodium sulfate = preservative
Potasium alum/ Potassium bromide

=hardener.
Sodium thiosulfate (Hypo) = the fixing or dissolving
Photomicrograph Photomacrograph agent. Acetic acid = neutralizer
54. What part of the sensitized is sensitive to light? 63. Error in the processing step like overdevelopment could be
A. Emulsion B. Base C. Anti-halation D. Coating remedied by the use of a __________.
Parts of the Film/Photopaper A. reducer C. intensifier
1. Emulsion = (coated with gelatin or rosin) B. bleacher D. stain remover
2. Anti halation = designed to prevent further reflexes by Underdeveloped = intensifier. Stained = stain remover
absorbing excess light. 64. What is that process of eliminating unwanted portions of a
3. Base = plastic material support the emulsion layer. negative during enlarging process?
55.What substance is present in the emulsion surface of the A. Dodging C. Vignetting
film or photo paper which is sensitive to light? B. Burning-in D. Cropping
A. Silver nitrate C. Silver halides Cropping = omitting an object.
B. Silver chloride D. Silver bromide Burning –in = additional exposure on the desired portion of a
56. Taking photograph in back lighting will produce what negative.
image? Vignetting = gradual fading of the image towards the side.
A. Good image b. Bad image 65. What is the functions of the boric acid and acetic acids in
B. Fare image d. Better image the fixer?
** what is required in front lighting** A. Preservative C. Neutralizer
57. What is meant by total take? B. Hardener D. Dissolving agent
A. Photograph the crime scene in all angles. B. Preservative = sodium sulfate
Photograph the crime scene Neutralizer = acetic acid/boric acid
C. Photograph only important evidence. Hardener = potassium alum/potassium bromide.
D. Photograph the body of the crime. 66. The chemical that will dissolve all the unexposed and
58. The part of enlarger that will assure the even illumination of undeveloped silver halides after development is the ____.
the negative when enlarging is the __________. A. acetic acid C. sodium sulfate
A. lamp house B. bellows C. condenser D. focusing speed B. hypo D. potassium alum
Baseboard = it is the part of the enlarger which supports the 67. What is the chemical used in order to accelerate the
entire unit of the enlarger. (it provides means to hold the easel developer solution?
& photo paper). A. Sodium carbonate C. Sodium oxide
59. What is the recommended size of photographic evidence? B. Sodium nitrate D. Sodium sulfate
A. 5 x 7 inches C. Passport size 68. Digital Photography differs from the traditional photography
B. 2 x 2 inches D. 4 x 8 inches mainly because it uses _____ instead of a film.
60. What is the usual time of fixing of a negative or a A. micro chip C. CCD
photograph? B. pixels D. electronic
A. Five to six minutes C. Ten to fifteen twelve 69. In storing data of digital images, image compression is
B. One to one and half minutes D. Twenty to thirty minutes used in order to reduce the cost of their storage or data
5- 6 minutes = Developing time for D-76 transmission. Which of the following is the most efficient form
1 – 1 ½ minutes = developing time for dektol of image compression in digital photography?
61. What chemicals serevs as the reducers or the developing A. CCD C. CMOS
agents? B. DCT D. JPEG

70. Using DSLR, what mode is best used when the A. Ballistics C. Catapult
photographer desired to control the lens opening of the B. Ballein or ballo D. Ballista
camera? Ballista = is a gigantic catapult (Roman war machine) designed
A. Shutter –priority mode C. Tv to throw stone to the enemy.
B. Aperture –priority Mode D. S 6. What kind of motion of the projectile is produce once it
71. What control mode of the digital camera is best to be used enters a rifled barrel of a gun?
when photographing fast moving object? A. Direct C. Rotatory
A. Shutter –priority mode C. A B. Translational D. Twist
B. Aperture –priority Mode D. Av Direct = forward movement.
Rotatory = twist of the bullet either to the R or L.
III. FORENSIC BALLISTICS Translational motion = motion responsible for the bouncing of
Ballistics = science of the motion or mobility of projectile. the bullet in different direction after hitting a much harder
= Science of firearms and projectile. object known as ricochet (change in the motion of the bullet).
Derived from Greek word “Ballo” & “Ballein”, meaning to throw. 7. What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a shell?
Forensic Ballistics A. Hammer C. Primer
= it is the science of firearms identification by means B. Trigger D. Flash hole
of an ammunition fired from them. Trigger = release the hammer.
Ballistic engineer = people in police laboratory whose concern Hammer = metal rode or plate that strikes the cartridge primer
is weapons and projectile. Usually referred to as Ballistician. to detonate the powder. (firing pin)
1. The word forensic means _______? Firing pin = hits the primer.
A. forum Primer = imparts ignition to the gun powder
B. market place Flash hole = where the primer imparts ignition to the gun
C. public discussion powder.
D. In connection with administration of justice 8. What is the rearward reaction of the firearm in relation to the
The word forensic was derived from the Latin word forward movement of the bullet upon firing?
“forum” meaning a “market place”, a place where people A. Percussion action C. Recoil of the firearm
gathered for public discussion. B. Back fire D. Ricochet
2. Who is the person accredited as successful inventor of gun Percussion action = is the ignition of the priming mixture.
powder? Jump = upward reaction of the gun.
A. Horace smith C. Berthhold Schwartz 9. What is characterized as the stillness or the steadiness
B. Alexander John Forsyth D. Dr. Calvin H.Goddard (stability or parabola) of the bullet in flight? (Straight travel in
Roger Bacon (1242 AD) wrote a literary article which flight)
turns out to be the original formula of black powder. A. Key hole shot C. Ricochet
Col.Calvin H. Goddard = father of modern ballistics. B. Yaw D. Gyroscopic action
Alexander John Forsyth = Father of Percussion ignition Ricochet =bouncing of bullet as a result of not penetrating or
(Priming mixture). hitting a hard object. It refers to the deflection of the bullet from
Le Faucheux= invented the first self- exploding cartridge in its normal path after striking hard object.
1836 (Pin-fire cartridge). Yaw = unstable rotation motion of bullet.
3. What is the science of mobility of the projectile? Key hole shot = tumbling of bullet in flight hitting the target
A. Forensic ballistics C. Ballistics sideways.
B. Applied physics D. Applied science Drift = the manner of curving of the bullet.
4. What branch of ballistics treats of the motion of the projectile 10. What is the pattern or curve path of the bullet in flight?
while it is in its flight? (Parabola like flight).
A. Interior C. Terminal A. Curve C. Trajectory
B. Exterior D. Forensic B. Gyroscopic action D. Drop of bullet
Interior = while still inside the firearm./before leaving 11. What is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time,
the gun muzzle/ Breech-muzzle. expressed in ft/sec?
Exterior = upon leaving the gun muzzle/ before A. Muzzle velocity C. Velocity
reaching the target. B. Muzzle blast D. Trajectory
Terminal = upon reaching/hitting the target. Muzzle blast = noise or sound generated at the muzzle point.
5. What Greek word from which the word “ballistics” was Muzzle velocity = the speed at which the bullet leaves the
derived which means “to throw” muzzle.

Silencer – device attached at the muzzle of the barrel to muffle 17. What type of a firearm which propels a number of lead
the sound of a gunshot. pellets in one charge to a smooth bore barrel?
12. What is the distance at which the gunner has the control of A. Rifle C. Shotgun
shot. Where the bullet travel straight? B. Machine gun D. Musket
A. Maximum range C. Maximum effective range Smooth bore = without rifling
B. Accurate range D. Effective range a. musket =muzzle loading/ancient weapon
Range = imaginary straight distance between muzzle and the b. shotgun = breech loading/a number of lead pellets.
target. Rifled bore = with rifling
Effective range = distance where bullet is lethal. a. rifle
Maximum effective range = farther distance where bullet is b. carbine = short barrel rifle (less than 22”)
still lethal. 18. What type of a firearm is commonly used by cavalry?
Maximum range= farthest possible distance of travel. A. Carbine B. Pistol C. Revolver D. Rifle
13. What do you call the size of the bullet grouping on the Revolver = ideal for horse riding.
target? Rifling = spiral groove (helix) in the bore designed to give a
A. Terminal penetration C. Terminal accuracy spin to the projectile for greater accuracy and carrying power.
B. Terminal trajectory D. Muzzle velocity Pistols = handguns that can be fired several times by means of
Muzzle energy = energy coming from the muzzle point cartride stored in the handle.
(generated at the muzzle point). 19. What type of a hand firearm has a rotating cylinder that
14. What type of a firearm propels a projectile with more than serves as the magazine and which successively places
one inch diameter? cartridge into position for firing?
A. Small arms C. Machine gun A. Pistol C. Revolver
B. Artillery D. Cannon B. Rifle D. Carbine
Artillery =more than one inch 20. Firearm in which pressure upon the trigger will both cock
Small Arms = less than one inch and release the hammer is a _______.
Machine gun = automatic/continuous firing. A. single action C. double action B.
Shoulder arm = carry/fired with the aid of the single shot D. repeating arms
shoulder. (Rifle/carbine/shotgun/musket) Single action =requires manual cocking.
21. What type of a firearm contains rifling (land and grooves)

only a few inches from the muzzle point?
A. Cylinder type C. Choke
Rifle vs. Carbine
B. Rifled bore D. Paradox
Cylinder type = equal diameter B. Lever
Choke type = reducing
type
diameter
22. What type of a firearm is fed by chamber?
A. Single shot F/A C. Slide action
B. Bolt action D. Repeating arms
A. Slid or Pump action C. Bolt action type
Shotgun vs. Muskets
Hand gun = can be fired in one hand.
15. What type of a firearm in which the mechanism is so
arranged that makes it capable of continuous firing in a single
press of a trigger and while the trigger is press?
A. Machine gun C. Grease gun
23. What term generally applied to all home made gun, just as
B. Sub-machine gun D. Shoulder arm
the one used by juvenile delinquent in United States?
Sub-Machine gun (SMG) and grease gun are the
A. Zip gun C. Grease gun
same= uses ammunition for handgun such as pistols.
B. Freakish gun D. Paltik
16. What type of a firearm is designed to propel a projectile by
24. A copper jacketed type of a bullet is usually fired from a:
means of compressed air or strong string?
A. rifle C. pistol
A. Air rifle C. Carbine
B. revolver D. pistol and revolver
B. Springfield armory D. Musket

Freakish gun = a tool in which F/A mechanism is attached. 34. What is a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet,
Paltik = the counter part of zip gun in the Phils. gunpowder, cartridge case and primer or loaded shell for use
Cane guns = devices that are not really designed to become in any firearm?
weapon but because of its mechanism that is the same as A. Ammunition C. Cartridge
those in the firearm. (miscellaneous guns). B. Shotgun cartridge D. Missile
25.What is known as the smallest pistol in the world? Cartridge derived from “Latin word Charta” – meaning paper
A. Colibre B. Senorita C. Cal 22 D. Kolibre French word Cartouche – rolled paper.
Pistols was also taken from Italian word Pistolia meaning “city”. Shotgun cartridge = consists of pellet, gunpowder, primer,
Smooth bore matchlock Arguebus = is an early muzzle loading shell and wads.
firearms used in the 15th to 17thcentiries. It is the forerunner of 35.What type of ammunition which does not have bullet used
the rifle and other long-arm firearms. in film-making?
26. What part of a firearm houses all the other parts?. A. Dummy B. Drill C. Blank D. Live
A. Housing C. Casing Kinds of ammunition
B. Frame D. Chamber 1. Dummy = fake used as model.
27. What mechanism of a firearm withdraws the empty shells 2. Blank = without bullet. Used in film making.
from the chamber? 3. Drill = without gun powder. Used for training purpose such
A. Ejector C. Firing pin as practice loading and unloading.
B. Extractor D. Extractor pin 4. Live = the complete cartridge.
Ejector = causes the empty shell to be thrown out of the There are four (4) classes of cartridge according to type of
firearm. firearms used and these are (a) revolver, (b) pistol cartridge,
28. In case that cartridge case are found at the scene of firing (c) rifle cartridges and (d) shotgun
it only means that_____firearm was used.
A. single shot C. automatic
B. bold action D. double action
29. What is that condition in firing at which the cartridge took
several seconds before it discharged upon firing? (delayed
in the discharged of the cartridge).
A. Mis-fire C. Backfire (a) (b) (c) (d)
B. Hang fire D. Backshot 36. What type of cartridge has a rim diameter which is smaller
Misfire = failure to discharged. than the diameter of the body of the cartridge?
Hangfire= fails to explode on time or delayed (in A. Belted type C. Rebated
firing) in the discharged of firearm. B. Rimless D. Rimmed type
30. What is the steel block that closes the rear of the bore Rimmed type = Rim diameter is greater (larger) than the shell’s
against the force of the charge? body.
A. Breechface C. Hammer Rimless = Rim diameter is equal to the body diameter.
B. Breechblock D. Chamber Belted = with protruding metal around its body. Used in high
Breechface = the flat surface where the base of the power gun such as machine gun.
shell comes in contact when fired. 37. Is the type of cartridge in which is the priming mixture is
Chamber = part of the f/a where cartridge is placed found at the cavity rim of the cartridgase?
when ready to be fired. A. Pin fire C. Rimmed type
31. What type of primer consisting of two flash hole or vent? C. Center fire D. Rim fire
A. Berdan B. Battery C. Boxer D. none
Boxer=one flash hole Battery= shotgun primer. PIN-FIRE
33. Primers are used for igniting the propellant charge by
means of a blow from the firing pin on the primer cup
producing flames that passes through the _______.
A. anvil C. paper disc Pin-fire = with built in pin. (obsolete)
B. vent/ flash hole D. primer cup Rim-fire = priming mixture is located at the cavity rim.
Anvil = solid metallic support. Louis Nicolas Flobert = a Frenchman who invented the first
Paper disc= thin foil/animal skin which protect the priming rim-fire metallic cartridge.
mixture from moist. Center –fire = there is a primer cup located at the center.
Primer cup = gilding metal cup which holds the priming Morse cartridge in 1858 marked the beginning of the
mixture. rapid development of center-fire cartridge.

38. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of _____. 46.What is metallic or non-metallic cylindrical container which
A. .730” B. .726” C. .729” D. .724” serves as the projector for the propellant against moisture?
Gauge 10 = .775 A. Bullet C. Primer
Gauge = measure of the caliber of smooth bore firearm. B. Cartridge case D. Paper disc
Smallest shotgun caliber = .410 cal./gauge. 47. What part of the cartridge case which characterized by a
39. European made firearm are usually referred in millimeter in cylindrical grooves that prevents the bullet from being push
determining calibers, when you talk of 9mm you are referring down to the cartridge?
to ________. A. Crimp C. Neck
A. .40 cal B. .45 cal C. .357 cal D. .30 cal B. Shoulder D. Cannelure
40. What is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical ball propel Crimp = prevent loss/pull out.
from a firearm? 48. What is that cylindrical groove around the body of a bullet
A. Bullet C. Slug which may contains lubricating substances and which can be
B. Projectile D. Missile the basis in determining its manufacturer?
Projectile = metallic and non-metallic ball propel from a A. Body C. Bullet crimp
firearm. B. Ogive D. Bullet cannelure.
Bullet = projectile usually fired from small arms. 49. Black powder basically composed of:
Slug =other term/police term for bullet. A. 75% potassium chlorate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
Shot = also referred to as slug/commonly used in shotgun. (Priming Mixture)
Missile = used for artillery. B. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
41. What type of a bullet is designed to be fired at night which C. 75% potassium chlorate, 10 % charcoal and 15 % sulfur.
emits a bright flame at its base and usually colored red-tip? D. 75% potassium nitrate, 10% charcoal and 15% sulfur.
A. Armor piercing C. Incendiary 50. What form of smokeless powder is made from sticks or
B. Tracer D. Explosive cords?
Ball type = used for personnel. A. Balistite C. Powder B
Armor piercing = used in light metallic target/harden metal B. Cordite D. Nitroglycerine
core. 51. The don’t MAC rule in collection of physical evidence
Incendiary = design to set fire upon impact (blue tip) stands for: mutilate, alter and ____?
Explosive = design to fragment. A. cut C. consume
42. What type of a bullet is made in order to inflict greater B. contaminate D. conserve
damage used by India? 52. What part of the cartridge case holds the primer securely in
A. Dum-Dum B. Baton round a central position and providing a solid support for the primer
C. Expanding bullet D. Explosive E. Mushroom bullet anvil?
Expanding bullet = hallow point & soft point also A. Flash hole C. Primer pocket
called mushroom bullet. B. Extractor groove D. Rim
43. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy to Rim = limits the forward movement of the cartridge to the
prevent leading is known as: cylinder.
A. plated bullet C. jacketed bullet 53. The caliber of a bullet is measured through_____.
B. metal cased bullet D. metal point bullet A. two opposite lands C. using the caliper
In firearms identification, the outer covering of the bullet is? --- B. the base diameter D. using a micrometer
(a) silver (b) jacket (c) ogive (d) copper. F/A caliber = measurement of the bore diameter from land to
44. Shots consisting of a small lead ball or pellets which are land. (two opposite lands)
made by dropping with the exception of the very largest sizes Bullet caliber = base diameter.
which are made by molding are known as ________. Shell caliber = neck/body diameter.
A. soft shots C. coated shots 54. What is the helical groove mark found inside the bore of
B. buck shots D. chilled shots the barrel designed to impart rotation motion of the bullet?
45. What type of a bullet is design as anti-riot, basically made A. Lands C. Grooves
from rubber at a larger caliber? B. Rifling D. Pitch of rifling
A. Discarding sabot C. Flechette 55. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right
B. Baton Round D. Frangible is fired from the barrel of a firearm with identical class
Discarding Sabot = design for greater velocity. characteristics as that of ________.
Flechette = a number of nail type or neddle-like A. Browning (6RG2X) C. Colt (6LG2X)
projectile. B. Smith & Wesson(5RG=L) D. Steyer (4RG=L)

56. The pitch of rifling (rate of twist) in the barrel of a firearm is 63. What is that individual marks found at the anterior portion
called as____? of the bullet due to poor alignment of the cylinder with bore of
A. land C. one complete revolution of bullet the firearm?
B. groove D. range A. Skid marks C. Shaving marks
(one complete turn = 360 degrees) B. Stripping marks D. Slippage marks
57. What instrument is used in measuring the pitch of rifling of 64. The importance of individual marks left on a bullet by a gun
a firearm? barrel is that it is useful in directly identifying the ________.
A. Calipher C. Helixometer A. bullet which caused the fatal wound
B. Tortion balance D. Chronograph B. person who fired the particular firearm
Caliper = measure caliber of a firearms, bullet or shell C. gun from which a bullet was fired
Chronograph = measure velocity. D. possible direction of shot
65. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at the
crime scene?
A. Picking it through the handle
B. Picking it through the barrel
C. Inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the
trigger guard
D. Inserting a rod at the barrel
66. What characteristics of a firearm which are determinable
even before the manufacture of the firearm?
A. Class Characteristics C. Repetitive mark
B. Individual Characteristics D. Accidental mark
Bullet Comparison Microscope / Bullet recovery box Individual characteristics = determinable only after the
manufacture of the firearm.
58. Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark at the ______. Rifling operation = the most important single process in a
A. base C. side or body of the shell barrel manufacture from the standpoint of the identification
B. rim D. any of the above expert .
Shell/Casing – Body or side, Near outside mouth or 67. What Is a condition in which two bullets or shells are
near inside open mouth. examined and compared under the comparison microscope at
59. Fired bullet found at the scene of the crime are usually the same time, level and direction and magnification and same
marked at the ______. image?
A. ogive B. nose C. base D. tip A. Pseudo match C. False match
Bullet – Base, Nose or Ogive. B. Juxtaposition D. Sodo match
60. Fired bullet/fired shell are usually mark with: 68. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the index
A. initial of the investigator finger should?
recovery. A. Touch the outside of the trigger guard
C. letter “t” plus the last two digit of the firearm. B. Grasp the stock
D. letter “t-1, t-2…., plus the last two digit of the firearm C. Be straighten along the barrel (Pistol)
used. (Test Bullet marking) D. Be inside the trigger guard
61. What is the list of the people who have handled the 69. What is the secret of good shooting form?
physical evidence from the time of its discovery until their final A. Relaxed and natural position
disposition in court? B. Keeping the thumb along the hammer
A. Evidence list C. Chain of events C. Proper sighting of the target
B. Chain link D. Chain of custody D. Firing slowly and carefully
62. The basis in shell identification is________. 70. What are small grooves, channels or ridges on the surface
A. firing pin marks of the bullet due to the tool marks or other irregularities in the
B. breech face marks interior surface of the bore?
C. firing pin and/or breech face marks A. Land marks C. Striation
D. extractor and ejector marks B. Groove marks D. Accidental marks
(1) Firing pin mark, (2) Breech face mark, and (3) Extractor 72. What instrument is used in determining the caliber of the
combined with ejector mark. bullet by getting its equivalent weight?
A. Caliper C. Torsion Balance
B. Micrometer D. Flat-form balance

73. What type of a powder used in modern cartridges being a. Firearm which was manufactured at least seventy-five
powerful? (75) years prior to the current date but not including
A. Corrosive C. Black replicas;
B. Non-corrosive D. Smoke less b. Firearm which is certified by the National Museum of
Corrosion = the chemical tearing away of the bore of a firearm the Philippines to be curio or relic of museum interest.
due to rusting. c. Any other firearm which derives a substantial part of
Erosion = the mechanical tearing of the barrel due to its monetary value from the fact that it is novel, rare,
excessive use. bizarre or because of its association with some
0 to 2 inches (contact firing) = singeing (burning of skin), historical figure, period or event.
smudging (blackening of the bullet hole), tattooing (peppering),
presence of nitrates. IV. Questioned Document
2 to 6 inches = there is singeing, smudging, tattooing, 1. A document completely written and signed by one person is
presence of nitrates. known as____________.
6 to 12 inches = smudging, tattooing and presence of nitrates. a. holograpic document b. all of the above
12 to 36 inches = there is tattooing and presence of nitrates. c. questioned document d. disputed document
74. What is an optical instrument used or designed to make Document = any written instrument in which right or obligation
simultaneous comparison of two specimens? is established or extinguished.
A. Comparison microscope C. Micrometer Holograph = Latin word “holo” and “graph” meaning
B. Chronograph D. Shadowgraph “handwriting”.
75. What is an istrument used in obtaining test bullet. It consist 2. What is a document in which some issue have been raised
usually of wooden box 12”x12”X96” with a hinged to cover and or which is under scrutiny. Being questioned because of its
with one end open usually filled with cotton and seperated into origin, its contents etc.
sections by cardboard partitions: A. Questioned document C. Standard document
A. Caliper C. Bullet comparison microscope B. Disputed document D. Evidential document
B. Bullet recovery box D. Water tank Questioned Document
76. What is a pointed instrument use in marking fired It serves as the focal points of all document examination and
bullet/fired shell? it is where the document examiner relies as to the
A. Pointer B. Stylus C. Marker D. Driller determination of the appropriate examination and the extent of
77.Firearms includes muskets, carbine shotgun etc. as the problem involved.
mentioned in _______of the Revised Administrative Code. 3. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a
A. sec.788 C. sec.787 questioned document, its origin is known and can be proven.
B. sec.878 D.sec.877 A. Standard document C. forged document
78. Low power gun are those firearms that uses projectile not B. simulated document D. Compared document
more than 9mm or .38 cal. Except ______. Standard Document is also referred to as Exemplars.
A. magnum .22 C. magnum 40 Standard Document = A condensed and compact set of
B. magnum 357 D. a and c only authentic specimen which is adequate and proper should
79. It is otherwise known as the Comprehensive Firearms and contain a cross section of the material from known sources.
Ammunition Regulation Act __________. Questioned Document Examination / forensic
A. R.A. 10591 C. R.A. 10158 document examination/ handwriting examination
B. P.D. 1866 D. R.A. 8294 /Document analysis.
80. Under the New law on firearms the following shall be 4. What is the modern term of a handwriting specimen
considered firearm, EXCEPT. obtained personally from a known source that can be used by
A. Barrel B. Frame C. Receiver D. Magazine the examiner as the basis for his identity (ID) or non-ID of the
81. What is any handheld or portable weapon, whether a small writings found in a Questioned Document?
arms or light weapon, that expels or is designed to expel a A. Handwriting standard C. Collected standard
bullet, shot, slug, missile or any projectile, which is discharged B. Samples D. Exemplars
by means of expansive force of gases from burning gun Requested Standard = given or made upon request of the
powder or other form of combustion or any similar instrument investigator (examiner) to serve as basis for comparison.
or implement. 5. What are standards given or made at the request of an
A. Firearm C. Antique firearm investigator for the sole purpose of making a comparative
B. Forfeited firearm D. Confiscated firearm examination with the questioned writing?
Antique Firearms: A. Procured standard C. Requested Standard
B. Collected Standard D. All of these

6. What specimen of a person’s handwriting or handprinting Writing movement = refers to the mobility/motion of the pen.
executed from day to day or in the normal course of business, 14. What is the visible record of the written strokes resulting
personal or social activity? from a combination of various factors associated to the motion
A. Physical Evidence C. Collected standard of the pen. Is the overall quality of the strokes?
B. Requested Standard D. Information A. Movement C. Writing habits
7. What kind of an evidence is an autopsy report? B. Line quality D. Significant writing habits
A. Documentary C. Testimonial Line quality is best shown using photomicrography.
B. Experimental D. Object/Real Handwriting = visible effect. Writing = visible result.
8. When document examiner as well as police are dealing with Writing habits = any repeated elements of writing.
documents, the most common problem they encountered are Significant writing habits = sufficiently unique and well-fixed.
those concerning ________. 15. What is the usual or normal deviations found in a repeated
A. origin C. counterfeit specimen of individual’s handwriting?
B. (Proving) authorship D. content (alteration) A. Natural variation C. Permanent damage
Majority of questioned document cases are concerned with B. Transitory change D. Temporary defect
-------. Proving authorship. Transitory change = changes which are only temporary. E.g.
9. What is the study of one’s handwriting in attempting to deterioration due to drunkenness or illness.
determine one’s (characters) personality? 16. In document examination when referring to contemporary
A. Agraphia C. Chromatography documents this refers to__?
B. Graphology D. Handwriting identification A. document which is more than 5 years before and after.
Graphology = Art of determining the character or disposition of B. document which are not more than 5 years before and after
a person by analyzing his handwriting. (also known as grapho- C. document which are more than 30 years
analysis) D. document which are not more than 20 years
Grapho-analysis = art or study of handwriting based on two 17. A specimen of document which is more than 30 years
fundamental strokes, the curve and the straight strokes as found in a place where it is normally to be found if genuine and
referred to by experts. not embellish by any alteration.
Agraphia = a kind of disease in the brain which makes the A. authentic Document C. Standard Document
person unable to write. B. Ancient Document D. Antique Doc.
10. What is the art of beautiful writing? Ancient Document = more than 30 years found in a place
A. Cacography C. Calligraphy where it is normally to be found if genuine and not embellish
B. Ambidextrous D. Bicephalous by any alteration.
Cacography = bad writing. 18. What type of a document which bears the seals of the
Ambidextrous = refers to person who can write either with his office issuing and the authorized signature to such document?
left or right hand. (can effectively use both left and right) A. Public document C. Official document
11. Questioned document examination is known by many B. Private document D. Commercial document
names Except ___________. 19. What kind of document is executed by a person in
A. Forensic document Examination authority and by private parties but notarized by competent
B. Handwriting analysis officials?
C. Handwriting Examination A. Private document C. Commercial Document
D. Document Classification B. Public Document D. Official Document
12. Who is known as the Father of Questioned Document? 20. What kind of a document which is executed by a private
A. Albert S. Osborn C. Dr. Hans Gross person without the intervention of a notary public, or of
B. Dr. Wilson Harrison D. Ordway Hilton competent public official by which some disposition of
Dr. Wilson Harrison = British document examiner who said agreement is proved?
that an intelligent police investigator can detect almost 75% of A. Commercial Document C. Public Document
all forgeries by careful inspection of a document with simple B. Official document D. Private Document
magnifiers and measuring tools. Handwriting standards = should be three or more.
13. What is the combination of the basic designs of letter and 21. What is the first step in the procurement of handwriting
the writing movement involved in the writing? exemplars?
A. Copy book form C. System of writing A. Request for standard specimen
B. Writing movement D. Line quality B. Study of the questioned specimen
Copy book form = the illustration of the basic designs C. Determine the writing instrument and paper used
of letter/fundamental to the writing system. D. Arrange for normal writing condition
Angular &roundhand = basic system of writing.

Slant = refers to the degree of writing inclination. The slope of 28. What is a genuine signature which was used in the
writing. preparation of a simulated or traced forgery?
Baseline = it is an imaginary or straight line in which writing A. Authentic signature C. Model signature
rest. B. Standard signature D. Evidential signature
22. What is a specimen of writing prepared with deliberate 29.What group of muscles is responsible for the formation of
intent of altering the usual writing habits in the hope of hiding the upward strokes?
his identity? A. Flexor C. Cortex
A. Disguised writing C. Cursive B. Lumbrical D. Extensor
B. Hand lettering D. Block capital Flexor = used to make downward strokes.
23. What is that properties or marks, elements or qualities Lumbrical = used to combine with either extensor or
which serve to distinguish? Known as the basis of flexor to make lateral strokes
identification. (also known as Identifying Details) 30. If John Loud is known for ball-point pen, who patented the
A. Characteristics C. Class characteristics first practical fountain pen?
B. Individual characteristics D. Sample a. Lewis Waterman b. John Parker
24. All handwriting contains or exhibits certain identifying c. Laszlo Biro d. Lewis Parker
properties of elements that are being use by the examiners to Ball-point Pen (Ball bearing point)= difficult to examine; easy to
identify the author. These elements are also labeled as _____. forged.
A. individual characteristics C. class Characteristics Fountain Pen (Pen nib point)= easy to examine; difficult to
B. characteristics D. none of these forged.
25. Pedro’s handwriting is admired for some characteristics Fiber Pen (Fibrous tip)= used originally as coloring pen.
that serves as his trademark of penmanship. What is the right 31. What type of writing movement gives a great freedom of
term for Pedro’s trademark of penmanship? movement. Also considered as the most skillful type of
A. Individual characteristics C. Class Characteristics movement?
B. Characteristics D. None of these A. Finger movement C. Forearm movement
Class/common/general characteristics or Gross = can B. Hand movement D. Whole arm movement
be found in a group of writing. 32. What writing movement is usually indicated by regularity of
Identification involves comparison of their :Characteristics, lines and considerable speed?
Elements & Qualities which are either Class and individual A. Finger movement C. Forearm movement
Characteristics B. Wrist movement D. Whole arm movement
Individual Characteristics = (one’s trade mark in writing) Finger movement = push & Pull ; used by beginners.
characteristics which are highly peculiar or unusual or that (clear cut strokes & lack of freedom)
which unlikely to occur in other’s writing. Hand (wrist) movement = wrist is the point of pivotal
26. What specimen of writing which was executed without with limited freedom of movement.
intention of changing the usual writing habits. It is executed Forearms movement = most skilful type of movement.
normally by the writer. It gives the writer the greatest freedom of movement.
A. Natural writing C. Guided writing Whole arm = used for large or ornamental writing.
B. Disguised writing D. Assisted writing 33. What is an irregularity in strokes characterized by shaky or
Natural writing = consisting of usual writing habits. wavering stroke which is perfectly apparent even without
Disguised = inferior than natural writing. magnification?
Guided or Assisted = executed with the writer’s hand at A. Tremor C. Tremor of old age
steadied. B. Tremor of illiteracy D. Tremor of fraud
27. Writing forms can either be a disconnected or joined letter Genuine Tremor (old age, sickness & illiteracy)
writings. What specimen of writing is characterized by Tremor of illiteracy = due to lack of skills.
disconnected style? Tremor of fraud = due to copying/imitation
A. Hand lettering C. Manuscript form ** The existence of tremor in a signature or
B. Cursive writing D. Rounded handwriting which were due to old age, sickness or
Handprinting or handlettering (ductus broken) illiteracy are considered what kind of signature or
Block Capital = All capital disconnected style (All Majuscule). document. (a) Genuine (b) spurious (c)forged (d)
Manuscript = combination of capital and small letters in fraudulent.
disconnected style (combined majuscule and minuscule). 34. Which is a sign of forgery in guided hand signature?
Cursive = letters are joined. A. Good pen control C. Disconnected stroked
Connection = (ductus link) strokes joining two B. Uneven alignment D. Slanting strokes
successive letters in a word. Sign of genuine guided writing = abrupt change in direction.

35. The following are characteristics of forgery EXCEPT one: A. Ending stroke C. Flying start and finish
A. Presence of Natural Variation B. Terminal stroke D. Pen movement
B. Patchwork appearance 44. Strokes which goes back over another writing strokes and
C. Show bad quality of ink lines which is slightly to occur due to lack of movement control is
D. Multiple pen lifts called __________.
36. A modern pen nib which contains a reservoir of ink in a A. retouching C. shading
specially designed back or chamber is described as ______ B. retracing D. patching
(used to prevent forgery). 45. Pedro was preparing a new script for the show. He noticed
A. ball point pen (difficult to examine) C. fountain pen that he made a certain defect in one of the paragraphs. He
B. pencil D. fiber pen decided to goes back over the defective portion of the stroke
37. What is that which widens the ink strokes due to the added of his writing and corrected it. This act is referring to as _____.
pressure on a flexible pen point. A. retracing C.restoring
A. Pen pressure C. Pen lifting B. retouching D. deciphering
B. Shading D. Retouching 46. What is the outer portion of a curve bend or crook?
38. What is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by A. Humps C. Staff/stem/shank
widening of ink strokes? B. Whirl D. Central part
A. Pen pressure C. Pen Emphasis Arc = the inner portion of upper curve.
B. Shading D. Pen Lift Hook = lower curve.
Pen scope = reach of the pen with the wrist at rest Whirl = long upward strokes.
Pen pressure = average/usual force applied in writing. Staff/stem/shank = long downward strokes.
Pen emphasis = periodic increased in pressure/intermittently Central part = the body of the letter.
forcing the pen against paper surface. 47. What is that introductory up and down stroke found in
Retouching = goes back over a defective stroke. almost all capital letters?
Retracing = goes back over another writing stroke. A. Hitch C. Humps
39. What are those grace lines, superfluous strokes and are B. Beard D. Buckle knot
useful only for ornamentation and are not essential to the Hitch– introductory backward stroke.
legibility of the signatures and usually occurs among writers
who attempt to express some phase of their personalities? 48. What kind of Forged signature is made by free hand
A. Diacritical marks C. Embellishments (imitation) movement and constant practice is called: (Most
B. Idiosyncrasies D. Flourishing strokes skillful class of forgery)?
Diacritics= strokes added to complete certain letters. Such as A. Traced forgery C. Simple forgery
i-dots and t-bars. There are practically three letters in the B. Simulated forgery D. Spurious signature
alphabet that have this characteristics. Small letters i, t, j. 49. A traced forgery of signature is not really a writing but a,
40. What was done, when one retouches or goes back over a __________.
defective portion of a writing stroke? A. retouching C. patching
A. Retracing C. Pressuring B. drawing D. tremor of fraud
B. Patching D. Shading Signature = a name of a person signed by himself on a
41. What is that interruption in a stroke, caused by removing document as a sign of acknowledgment.
the writing instrument from the paper surface? 50. What type of forgery is made when the writer’s exerts no
A. Tremor C. Pen lifting effort to effect resemblance or facsimile between the forged
B. Retouching D. Hiatus and the genuine signatures?
Hiatus = obvious gap. A. Simple C. Traced
42. Mr. Pedro in attempts to forge or imitate the signature of B. Simulated D. Spurious
his boss committed interruption in a stroke caused by 51. What type of forgery which involves fraudulent signature
removing the writing instrument from the paper. This is also executed by actually following the outline (tracing) of a genuine
due to lack of preparation. This observation is described as signature with a writing instrument?
________. A. Carbon outline process C. Indention process
A. pen lift C. pen pressure B. Lasered D. Traced
B. pen emphasis D. pen scope. Methods of Tracing signature: (1) Carbon outline, (2) Indention
43. Stroke where the motion of the pen precedes the or canal like process, and (3) Projection or Transmitted light
beginning and continues beyond the end of a vanishing point process. Laser method.
and are found on free natural writing and as a rule are
important indication of genuineness.

52. As a rule, it is easier to determine whether or not a A. Shading C. Pressure
signature is forgery, but it is very difficult on the other hand to B. Hesitation D. Knob
established who committed the forgery because _______. 61. When examining a document and you found deviations are
A. the forger might be left-handed very usual between the repeated strokes of the handwriting
B. imitation is one of the most effective means to specimen. What will be your conclusion on the specimen?
disguise one’s handwriting A. Forged, because such deviation is a sign of fraud.
C. it might be a traced forgery B. Genuine, because those deviations are considered
D. there should be no sufficient standard available for natural variations.
examination. C. Forged because there are no two persons with the same
53. To be able to make a positive identification of a person, handwriting.
document examiner must be able to observe the _______. D. Genuine, because perhaps two persons may have the
A. characteristics of his handwriting same handwriting.
B. manner on how the writer moves the pen. 62. A bank client does not remember categorically whether he
C. writing position of the writer had signed the check. The signature was compared with the
D. distinguishing individual features of his handwriting. genuine signature but both were in the same size and shape,
54. Which of the following is true about the individual What will be your conclusion about the signature?
characteristics? A. Genuine, the signatory only forgot the issuance of the
A. It could be seen in the terminal shadings. check.
B. on the ratio of all letters. B. Genuine, both signatures are exactly the same in size and
C. always on the usual habitual and systematic forms of slants. shape.
D. all of these. C. Forgery, the signatory just want to deny the issuance of the
55. In the recognition of handwriting characteristics, it offers check.
ability of distinguishing characteristics which are normal and D. Forgery, no signature is the same in all aspects when
disguised. What was being emphasized in the statement? compared.
A. Examination C. Analysis 63. In genuine Philippine banknote the image based on the
B. Familiarization D. Distinguishing same artwork as the bill’s portrait ingrained in the note in the
white space to the left of the portrait is _________.
A. guilloche C. watermark
56. Pedro was writing a holograph document for his last will. B. security thread D. ultraviolet ink
All the letters are in majuscule making it to be more clear and 64. Paper, which has been treated in such a way as to
concise. What form was described in the statement? minimize the chances of a successful forgery by erasure,
A. Handwriting C. Cursive writing whether mechanical or chemical, being carried out on any
B. Block style D. Script writing document of which it forms the basis called______.
57. One of the points that should be considered in Q.D. A. chemical paper C. safety paper
examination is the familiarization of the shape and design of B. tested paper D. polyethylene coated paper
individual letters of the source which was referred to as the 65. What is that indelible ink whose marking substance is
_________. composed of mixture of aniline ink and graphite?
A. characteristics C. form A. Stencil C. Printers ink
B. rhythm D. line quality B. Nut gall ink D. Copy pencil
58. What is that main portion of the letter that remains when 66. What is a fluid or viscous marking material used for writing
the upper and lower projection, upstrokes and terminal or printing?
strokes and diacritics are removed? A. Pen C. Coal
A. Body C. Eyelet B Chalk D. Ink
B. Diacritics D. Stem Ink = a fluid or viscous marking material used for
59. These are flourish strokes which are added usually to the writing or printing.
capital letters to give more attractive form to the eyes of the Carbon ink = oldest ink Indian rubber = oldest eraser
reader which is became one of the individual characteristics? Papyrus = Egyptian plant from which the word paper
A. Beard C. Spur was derived. (considered as an earliest material that
B. Buckle knot D. Garland serve the purpose of a paper during the ancient time).
60. Which of the following refers to the irregular thickening of Paper - came from Latin word “Charta”.
ink which is found when writing slows down or stop while the 68. What is that most expensive instruments used for
pen take a stock of the position? examination of documents that would show three dimensional
enlargements?

A. Polarizing light C. Infra-red gadget Chemical Erasure = kinds of erasure using
B. Stereoscopic microscope D. Ultra-violet light chlorinated solution (Ink eradicator) capable of bleaching inks.
Handwriting slope measuring test plates = used to examine 77. This movement may be categorized into hesitating and
handwriting slant. painful due to weakness an illness?
Typewriting measuring test plates = for typewriting A. Tremors C. Quality of movement
examination. B. Wrist movement D. Whole arm
Magnifying lens = basic tool which can solved almost 75% 78. What kind of an ink that is made by grinding carbon in the
of document cases. form of vegetable char with varnish made of natural gums and
69. What is that type of signature which has been made in a drying oils.
particular date, time, place and at a particular purpose of A. Record ink C. Stam-pad ink
recording it. B. Liquid-lead pencil ink D. Printing ink
A. Model signature C. Standard signature 79.What is the process of making out what is illegible or what
B. Evidential signature D. Guided signature has been effaced?
Microscopic Examination = an examination used to A. Comparison C. Collation
see the minute details of the writings (physical evidence). B. Decipherment D. Examination
70. What light examination in which the source of illumination Restoration - is actual bringing back of what has been erase or
strikes the surface of the paper from the back or at the bottom, removed from the surface of the paper.
usually designed in identification of water markings? 80. What is the process of identifying of similarities and
A. Direct light C. Oblique light dissimilarities, determining their likelihood of occurrence, and
B. Side light D. Transmitted light weighing down of the significance of each factors?
71. What form of an illegible form of a writing which is A. Analysis C. Evaluation
characterized by partially visible depression appearing B. Comparison D. All of these
underneath the original writing? 81. What examination should be made by the examiner to
A. Invisible writing C. Obliterated writing discover or see minute physical details of the writings in a
B. Indented writing D. Contact writing document which would not be possible by merely using the
72. What is a document which contains some changes either naked eye?
as an addition or deletion? A. Transmitted light C. Infra-red light
A. Inserted document C. Disputed document B. Microscopic D. Ultra-violet light
B. Altered document D. Obliterated document Interlineation = addition sentence or paragraph
73. A PNP applicant gets tired of manipulating his credentials Insertion = addition of whole page on a document.
decided to change the contents of his birth certificate for him to Examination = is the act of discovering or studying a given
fit to the age requirement. The officer assigned to the material/phenomenon.
recruitment discovers the discrepancies. It seems that there Comparison = side by side examination of two or more
was an addition and deletion of letter and figure. Which type of specimen.
document would this fall? Collation = critical comparison.
A. Inserted document C. Obliterated document Evaluation = identifying the similarities or differences &
B. Altered document D. Disputed document weighing their significance.
74. What is a form of erasure done by using a rubber eraser, 82.What type of conventional typewriter in which the
razor blade, knife, or picking instrument? characters are normally space 12 in one horizontal?
A. Magnetic erasure C. Mechanical erasure A. Pica C. Proportional spacing machine
B. Chemical erasure D. Electronic erasure B. Elite D. Computer
75. These are usually the result from contact with the a fresh 83. What is a typeface defect in which the letters are printed to
ink. the right or left of its proper position?
A. Folds and creases C. Blots A. Vertical mal alignment C. Twisted letter
B. Smears D. Perforation B. Horizontal mal alignment D. Off-its feet
76. These are devised for obscuring forger’s intention to hide Horizontal Mal. = Left or Right.
rather than a manifestation of the careless use of a pen. Vertical Mal. = Above or Below.
A. folds and creases C. blots Off-its-feet = printing heavier in one side.
B. smears D. perforation Twisted = leans to the left or right.
Erasure = the process of removing or effacing. Rebound = double impression
Mechanical Erasure = kind of erasure done by Clogged/ dirty type face.
rubbing, scrapping or abrasive method using rubber Actual Breakage = damage to the outline of the type face
eraser, sharp knife or razor blades. design.

84. What is that substance which is capable of bleaching an B. remove the obliterating materials chemically or by
ink? some other means leaving the original writing untouched.
A. Sympathetic Ink C. Ink Eradicator C. Studying the impression from the original writing or
B. Superimposing Ink D. Invisible ink typewriting that has not been destroyed by the
Sympathetic Ink or Invisible ink = inks with no readily visible obliterating action.
strokes. D. all of these.
Superimposing ink = used for blotting or smearing over an 94. An investigator conducting investigation encountered a
original writing. (Used in Obliteration) material document to a particular case, however there was an
85. What is the type of light examination best used in alleged erasures done mechanically resulting to translucency
deciphering an obliterated writing and charred document? of the that surface. Under the situation what is the best method
A. Ultra violet light C. Transmitted light to be employed?
B. Infra-red light D. X-ray A. Oblique light C. ordinary light
86. What type of an abnormality/defects in typewriter that can B. transmitted light D. infra-red light
easily be corrected by simply cleaning the machine or 95. The author of a typewritten document can be identified
replacing the ribbon? through:
A. Temporary defect C. Clogged type face A. his peculiar style of indention, grammar
B. Permanent defect D Actual breakage composition, and paragraphing.
87. If a document is changed to spear language different in B. individual characteristics of the typewriting
legal effect from that which is originally spears. It is called machine.
______. C. design and style of the typewriter’s character
A. deception C. alteration D. brand and model of the typewriter.
B. fraudulation D. intercalation 96. Which of the following are not included in the negative
Existence of several movement impulse --- indicator direction in preserving the evidentiary value of the document?
of Forgery. A. It should not be folded in any manner
88. What type of typewriter defect is brought about by clogged B. It should not be wet even with special permission
typeface, poor conditions or worn out or torn ribbon? C. It should not be touched by any sharp instrument
A. Permanent defect. C. Transitory typeface defect D. It should not be underscored with a pencil.
B. Vertical mal-alignment D. Tilted or twisted letters 97. What is the lacework designs that serves as backdraft of
89. Legally speaking, what is the description of the act of the Identification card or that decorative technique in which a
passing, delivering, or giving a counterfeit coin to another very precise, intricate and repetitive pattern is engraved into
person? the material?
A. Counterfeiting C. Falsification A. Guilloche C. Hologram
B. Uttering D. Reproduction B. Micro print D. Optically Variable ink
90. The three equal areas of examination in questioned 98. It is the light examination best used in deciphering
typewriting except, one.. erasures, invisible ink and contact writing?
A. size and spacing C. type style A. Ultra-violet light C. Infra- red
B. style of spacing D. unique identifying B. Transmitted light D. Laser light
characteristics 99. What is a modern equipment used in document
91. Two handwriting cannot be deemed to be the writing of examination that provides a variety of examination with
the same person unless: selection of variety of light examination such as Ultra-violet
A. they were written by one person and infra-red which is very useful in detecting various forms of
B. involves combination of agreements alteration in document?
C. embody no basic differences A. Video Spectral Comparator
D. all of these B. Electro Static Detection Apparatus
92. In typewriting examination, what defect is encountered by C. Stereoscopic Microscope
the examiner, which is found in particular with enclosed letters, D. Digital Microscope
when the typefaces become filled with ink, dirt? 100. What are the three basic technique in determining
A. typeface defects C. vertical mal alignment genuine currency bill?
B. clogged typeface D. off-its feet I. Look II. Stop III. Listen
93. Obliteration may be detected by using this method? IV. Feel V. Tilt
A. using infra-red photography so that the original writing A. I, II and III only C. I, III, and IV
lying beneath is revealed. B. III, IV, and V D. I, IV, and V

V. Polygraphy (numerical scoring). In the year 1960, he was the American
= scientific method of detecting deception done with the aid of interrogation specialist for the CIA.
polygraph machine. A. Grover Cleve Backster C. Richard D. Arthur
= also known as instrumental interrogation/ lie detector test. B. C.D. Lee D. Galilleo
It is not by itself accepted by the court but It is a tool or Richard D. Arthur = developed two (2) galvanic skin
Investigative lead. resistance.
Polygraph Examiner = one who administer the test. C.D. Lee = developed “psychograph machine”
Subject = the one being subjected to polygraph test. 6. What is an ancient method of detecting deception practice in
1. The word Polygraph was derived from the Greek word Poly Bengal, India where accused to prove his innocent would
meaning many or several and “graph” meaning _______. touch his tongue to an extremely hot metal?
A. drawing C. writing chart A. Boiling water ordeal C. Ordeal of balance
B. writing D. tracing B. Red hot iron ordeal D. Ordeal of heat and fire
Poly = many or several Graph = writing chart 7. Ordeal is a term of varying meaning closely related in the
2. In “Polygraph examination” the term “examination simply Medieval Latin “Dei Indicum” meaning ---___________.
means detection of : _______ A. Devine Intervention C. God’s hand
A. forgery C. deception B. Miraculous decision D. God’s grace
B. emotion D. the mind Scientific Methods:
Thomas Jefferson - the first man noted for the used of the 1. Word Association test = used of time pressure (subject is
word “Polygraph”? ask of series of stimulus or non stimulus words and instructed
Polygraph = is a scientific instrument capable of recording to answer as quickly as possible).
changes of blood pressure, pulse beat and respiration as 2. Used of Alcoholic Beverages = works on the principle of “in
indicative of emotional disturbances. vino veritas” –In wine, there is truth.
4. Who is the (1st inventor of American Polygraph Machine) 3. Narco- Analysis= The use of “truth serum”. It violates one’s
person who devise an instrument that can record (capable of constitutional privacy &Free will.
continuously recording all thee phenomena) changes of blood 4. Hypnotism = Subject is under control of the hypnotizer.
pressure, pulse beat and respiration simultaneously which he 5. Polygraphy = instrumental interrogation. An
called the “Bread board Lie Detector”. The first person to invaluable aid in investigation.
develop a polygraph apparatus that was used in detecting 8. The Raid polygraph differs from the keeler’s in the following
deception? respect except :
A Cesare Lombroso C. John A. Larson A. an adjustable and portable chair is employed wherein metal
B. Sir James Mackenzie D. Leonarde Keeler bellows are inserted in the chair arm rests.
Pulselogium was invented by Galileo Galilee as 1st instrument B. the chair seat is directly attached to recording bellows in the
used for measuring pulse beat. machine to form closed pneumatic systems.
1895 – first scientific lie detection (CesareLomrboso) C. three additional recordings are made by this method
1921 –Bread Board lie detector is the first portable polygraph D. there is no need of using corrugated rubber tubing.
machine invented by John Larson in 1921. (BP, Pulse Beat 9. In polygraph examination, who determine the guilt or
and Respiration) innocence of the subject that has undergone polygraph test?
1926 – Keeler’s Polygraph (Leonarde Keeler) (Bread A. Polygraph examiner C. Trial judge
Board + Skin resistance &keymograph) B. Investigator on case D. Fiscal
1942 – Reid Polygraph (John E. Reid) (muscular 10. What is the scientific diagnotstic instrument used in
Resistance) (later became Stoelting Polygraph recording the physiological reactions of the examinee during
machine) the test?
Lafayette Polygraph A. Lie Detector Instrument C. Truth verifier Instrument
Limestone Polygraph B. Polygraph instrument D. All of these
William Marston = utilized sphygmomanometer for detecting 11. What is the act of deceiving usually accompanied by
systolic blood pressure and developed the discontinuous uttering falsehood?
technique in questioning. A. Lying C. Misleading
Sir James Mackenzie = is a heart specialist who described in B. Deception D. Lie
two (2) British Journal a machine which he called “Ink 12. Which of the following is true about Polygraph machine?
Polygraph”. A. It is a machine that can diagnose subject.
5. He devised a quantitative analysis on a polygraph chart and B. It is capable of interpreting and drawing conclusion.
the test called Backster Zone Comparison Technique. C. It is a lie detector machine.
D. It is a machine that detects physiological responses.

13. The polygraph machine should be _________ in relation to 19. What is the Hindu book of science and health which is
the credibility and competence of the examiner? considered one of the earliest references on detecting
A. indirectly proportion C. substitute to investigation deception?
B. supplementary to investigation D. directly proportion A. Ayur Vida C. Dharmasatra of Gautama
14. In Polygraph testing, aside from the condition, credibility of B. Vasistra of Dharmasastra D. Omerta
the machine & necessary preparations, the other important Dharmasastra of Gautama = explains the nature of lying.
face to consider is the examiner’s _________. Vasistra of Dharmasastra = justifies lying.
A. Professionalism C. idealism Omerta = Code of Silence (MAFIA)
B. competence D. integrity 20. What was considered to be the ancient method of crime
15. Before conducting the polygraph test the machine to be detection.
used must be in __________ Condition. A. Methods of Ordeal C. Trial by Combat
A. bad C. A1 B. Boiling Water ordeal D. The Ordeal of rice chewing
B. not so good D. excellent Ordeal = derived from medieval Latin word “Dei Indicum”
Polygraphy is an aid and never a substitute for meaning miraculous decision.
investigation. 21. Which of the following is a major component of the
A-1 condition of the subject: polygraph machine?
1. At least 5 hrs. sleep. A. Blood pressure cuff C. Pen and inking system
2. Refrain from smoking and drinking alcoholic B. Keymograph D. Cardiosphygmograph
beverages for 12 hours. 22. What is the act of conveying or uttering falsehood or
3. Not highly nervous misleading impression, with the intention of affecting
4. Not hungry, not pregnant or not having wrongfully the acts, opinion, or afffection of another?
menstruation. A. Guilt C. Fear
16. The following notions about polygraph machine are wrong, B. Shy D. Lying
EXCEPT. 23. Intoxication of alcohol use the latin maxim “invinoveritas”
A. it rings a bell C. it has a dial indicator as underlying principle. This latin maxim is literally translated
B. it flash a light D. it is like an X-ray as:____.
17. What is the scientific basis of the polygraph test which A. there is wine in truth C. there is truth in wine
states that the polygraph machine is an instrument capable of B. in truth, there is wine D. in wine, there is truth
making records of various human functioning simultaneously in 24. One method of detecting deception currently being used or
a chart paper? applied by law enforcement agencies is the use of drugs that
A. Mechanical leg basic premise try to “inhibit the inhibitor”. Which of the following does not
B. Physiological leg basic premise belong to the classification?
C. Psychological leg basic premise A. Intoxication C. Administration of truth serum
D. Psycho motor leg basic premise B. Hypnotism D. Narcoanalysis or narcosynthesis
Mechanical leg basic premise = Polygraph instrument is used 25. Which one of this is a principal use of polygraph
to record physiological responses of the subject. instrument?
Physiological leg basic premise = polygraph machine detects A. Invaluable aid in investigation
various physiological responses which are voluntary. B. to determine the facts of the case.
Psychological leg basic premise = polygraph instrument C. To determine the guilt or innocence of the subject
detects changes in physiological response as influence by D. A very good substitute for investigation.
emotional disturbances. 26. The following are the commonly used method of detecting
18. What type of deceit is used for the purpose of humor, when deception, EXCEPT:
the falsehood is generally understood, is often regarded as not A. Administration of truth serum
immoral and is widely practiced by humorists and comedians? B. Use of Hypnotism
A. White lie C. Emergency lie C. Use of polygraph or lie detection apparatus
B. Jocose lie D. Malicious lie D. Use of Electro-encephalogram machine.
White lie (officious) =where the lie is harmless, and there are 27. Many polygraph tests are inconclusive for the following
circumstances where there is an expectation to be less than reasons, EXCEPT:
totally honest through necessity or pragmatism. A. Subject may be nervous because of mental condition.
Emergency lie =is a strategic lie told when the truth may not be B. Subject may suffer discomfort or pain
told because, for example, harm to a third party would result. C. Subject may be so angry so as to affect test results.
D. Subject may be physically conditioned to take the test.

Major Components A. Cardiospygmograph C. Kymograph
B. Pneumograph D. Galvanograph
35. The size of the galvanograph recording pen is ______?
A. 5 inches B. 7 inches C. 6 inches D. 10 inches
5 inches = for pneumograph and cardiosphygmograph
recording.
36. The polygraph chart rolled paper has an average length of
;
A. 100 yards C. 100 meters
B. 100 ft D. 100 km
1. Cardiosphygmograph= detects Blood pressure and Pulse 37. The use of “Truth Serums” such as sodium pentothal or
beat. phenobarbital in the questioning of suspects is called:
2. Galvanograph = detects skin resistance. A. narcoanalysis C. the detector test
3. Pneumograph= detects breathing or respiration. B. sugar and vinegar D. word association method
Major Section 38. A person who is capable of detecting deception or verifying
1. Cardiosphygmograph the truth statements is called ________.
2. Galvanograph A. Polygrapher C. Polygraph expert
3. Pneumograph B. Polygraph examiner D. Examiner
4. Keymograph = driving mechanism/ drives the chart paper (6 39. What is the sum total of the dissimulation which the child
– 12 inches) acquires from his surrounding once he learn to go out and
Carl Ludwig = a German physiologist who invented socialized with his neighborhood?
the kymograph in the year 1840s and it was first device to A. Personality C. Environment
monitor blood pressure. B. Heredity D. Education
5. Pen and Inking System = designed to make a permanent 40. What should be the attitude of a polygraph examiner in
record of the polygraph test. confronting subject in a polygraph test?
28. What is that part of the pneumograph component which A. Arrogant C. Cordial but firm
was attached to the body of the subject with the usual length of B. Authoritative D. Antagonistic
10 inches? PER-SON-AL-ITY = the sum total of H2E
A. Beaded chain C. Finger electrode plate Heredity = transmission of physical and mental traits of the
B. Rubber convulated tube D. Blood pressure cuff parents to the offspring upon conception.
29. What section of the polygraph machine (motor that drives Education = formal process of learning in an accredited/
or pulls the chart paper) is designed to run the paper at a recognized institution.
regular speed of 6 inches per minutes? 41. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie detector
A. Kymograph C. Pnuemograph examination are all ______ and this creates a set of distortion.
B. Pen and inking system D. Galvanograph A. terrified C. nervous
30. What is that attachment of the cardiosphygmograph which B. convenient D. confident
is placed above the brachial artery? 42. When the subject is highly nervous, what should the
A. Arm cuff C. Infant cuff examiner do?
B. Wrist cuff D. Hand cuff A. Reschedule the examination
Wrist cuff = attached above the radial artery. B. Prolong the period of the pre-test interview.
C. Call for a doctor or request for an ambulance.
31. This is a galvanograph attachment section EXCEPT: D. Do not continue with the pre test and ask the
A. sets of electrodes C. stretched band subject for his available date for reschedule.
B. electrodes jelly D. rubber tube 43. What is a short horizontal line in a cardio tracing located at
32. These changes are capable of being recorded and the middle of the diastolic stem.
accurately diagnosed by skillful polygraph examiners, Except: A. Dicrotic C. Diastolic
A. Respiration C. Blood pressure B. Diastotic D. Systolic
B. Digestion D. Pulse beat Systolic B.P = the upward blood pressure.
33. What component of the polygraph machine records Diastolic B.P. = the downward blood pressure.
changes of breathing or respiration of the subject? 44. What is the normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in
A. Cardiospygmograph C. Kymograph a polygraph test?
B. Pneumograph D. Galvanograph A. 60 –65 C. 70 – 75
34. What is the longest and the third pen of the instrument? B. 6- 12 D. 13- 15

13- 15 – cyclic rate of respiration. D. Facts of the case must be prepared prior to the
45. The following are disqualified to be subject of polygraph questioning of the subject to monitor responses.
test, EXCEPT. 53. All EXCEPT one is the purpose of polygraph examination?
A. minor C. imbecile A. To determine truth and deception
B. nervous D. insane B. to determine truth and deception based on the
46. In polygraph test Questions are usually answerable by presence of emotional disturbances.
_______. C. to determine truth and deception in a police
A. yes C. no investigation.
B. neither yes nor no D. A or B D. To determine truth and deception for legal matters.
Questions must be: 54. The following should be taken into consideration during the
= short, simple, clear and understandable to the subject; pre-test, EXCEPT.
= answerable by either yes or no; A. Appraisal of the subject’s constitutional rights
= not in a form of accusation. B. Taking history record of the subject.
47. The best way to conduct a thorough interview is for the C. Obtain subject’s consent to undergo examination
investigator to __________. D. evaluating the psychological preparation of the subject.
A. allow himself sufficient time for adjustment 55. Which of the following statement, suits to the technical
B. permit the interviewee to give narrative statement qualifications of a polygraph examiner?
C. be guided by a pre-arranged checklist A. He must have a good knowledge of the instrument
D. devote adequate time for an interviewee’s and its capabilities and limitations.
evaluation. B. He must be free of prejudice and must be
48. What usually set the tone or condition and creates the objective.
atmosphere during the interrogation? C. He must have an intense interest with work itself.
A. Interrogator’s behavior D. The examiner must be dressed decently.
B. Questioning style of the interrogator 56. What is the most important thing to consider in a polygraph
C. The subject’s personal history result?
D. The type of crime involved A. The competence of the examiner B. The
49. The primary purpose of the pre-test interview is ____. training of the Examiner
A. obtain confession C. the knowledge of the Examiner
B. make subject calm D. The experience of the examiner
C. prepare the subject for the polygraph test D. 57. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper at the
explain the polygraph test procedures start of the test?
50. The following are specific rules to be followed in the A. X/60/1.5 A C. X/50/2.5 A
formulation of the questions in a polygraph test, Except one. B. XX/60/1.5 A D. XXX/60/2.5 A
A. Questions must be answerable by yes or no. X – start XX- end of the test
B. Questions must be as short as possible. 58. The investigator should avoid asking witnesses long
C. Questions must all be in a form of accusation. complicated questions because this will:
D. Questions must be clear and phrased in language A. give the witness a chance to formulate desired answer.
the subject can understand. B. enable him to ascertain the purpose of the interviewer.
51. The polygraph instrument is also known as a lie detector, C. renders difficulty in obtaining the facts for conviction
but research clearly shows that it cannot determine or detect a D. embarrass him and cause him to answer he does not know
lying person. What then is the use of polygraph instrument? 59. What stage in the conduct of the polygraph test is
A. To record physiological reactions of the subject. designed to prepare or condition the subject for the actual
B. To record psychological reactions of the subject. test?
C. To record and determine the facts of the case A. Initial Interview C. Pre-test Interview
based on the chart taken. B. Instrumentation D. Post test Interview/Interrogation
D. To record psycho galvanic reflex of the subject.
52. What is the first step to be done in an interview? Stages in the Conduct of Polygraph Examination
A. Ask the subject regarding all information and the 1. Initial interview =between subject & Investigator.
circumstances surrounding the commission of the crime. = designed to obtain information.
B. Examiner tells the nature and characteristics of the 2. Pre-test Interview includes: appraisal of constitutional rights,
polygraph examination to the subject. taking subject consent, Filing-up of the PDS and determine the
C. You are informed of your rights against self- Physical, mental, psychological condition of the subject.
incrimination and your right to a counsel. (not included: taking history record of the subject)

3. Actual test/Instrumentation = begin with the attachment of = those pertaining to basic data and information
the various component parts. regarding the background of the subject not related to the
(test execution = the actual questioning phase of the polygraph case.
examination) = Questions which have no bearing to the case
4. Post-test Interview/Interrogation = after test. under investigation.
= designed to obtain confession or admission. Relevant = to establish specific response.
Chart probing = conducted every after each test. = questions pertaining to the issue under
Lying = the act of conveying or uttering falsehood or investigation.
misleading impression. Control = questions unrelated to the matter under investigation
Stimulus = refers to any force or motion coming from the but are similar nature.
environment and which reach an organism has the tendency to =questions regarding wrongdoing, unrelated but of
arouse. similar and less serious nature.
Fear = it refers to an emotional response to specific danger Symptomatic Questions = questions designed to evaluate the
that appears to be beyond a persons defensive power. presence of outside issues which may presuppose responses
Response =the reaction to a stimulus, in response to, in to relevant questions.
answer to. Knowledge Question = designed to determine whether the
Reaction = an action in mental attitude evoke by external subject possesses information regarding the identity of the
influence. offender, location of evidence etc.
60. What is conducted for the purpose of obtaining confession 67. What are these questions unrelated to the matter under
or an admission from the subject once deception is observed. investigation but are similar nature?
A. Initial interview A. Irrelevant questions C. Control questions
B. Instrumentation B. Relevant Question D. Conclusive question
C. Pre-test interview 68. What kind of response is a deviation from the normal
D. Post-test interview or interrogation tracing of the subject in the relevant question?
61. What is that any outside force coming from the A. Positive response C. Normal response
environment, which could excite a receptor or any of his B. Specific response D. Reaction
organs? 69. A well phrased question designed to cause a response
A. Stimulus C. Response from a subject is technically called—
B. Reaction D. Emotion A. accusatory statement C. symptomatic
62. What type of question do not have any bearing to the case B. specific stimulus D. irrelevant question
designed to Established normal response from the subject? Specific stimulus = technically refers to a well phrased
A. Relevant C. Control question designed to cause a response from a subject.
B. Irrelevant D. Knowledge RESPONSES
63. What is that stage consist of the initial interview with the 1. Normal response = response for irrelevant questions
investigator handling the case or the person requesting it? 2. Specific response = deviation from the normal tracing of the
A. Initial interview C. Preliminary Interview subject in response to relevant question.
B. Preliminary Preparations D. Initial Preparation 3. Deceptive response = specific response to which the
64. What type of question designed to established normal subject denies.
response from the subject? 70. What type of questions is given to determine information
A. Relevant C. Control known or the subject possess regarding the crime or the
B. Irrelevant D. Knowledge criminal or his whereabouts?
65. “ Did you shot Rose last night?” is an example of what A. Evidence connecting question C. Knowledge question
question? B. Sacrifice questions D. Control questions
A. Irrelevant question C. Relevant question 71. What type of test is designed to overly responsive subject,
B. Control question D. None of the above consisting of questions that are purely fictitious incident of a
66. “Were you in the place of the Mr. Generoso on the night of similar nature to the one that is under investigation?
October 29, 2015 is an example of what question? A. General question test C. Guilt complex test
A. Relevant questions C. Weak relevant question B. Peak of tension test D. Silent answer test
B. Irrelevant questions D. Strong relevant General Question test = series of relevant and irrelevant
Irrelevant = deals with known facts where the subject cannot answerable by either yes or no.
lie and does not relate to the facts in issue. Always answerable Peak of tension test = there is only one relevant (that has
by “yes” and design to established the normal response. bearing upon the case) questions usually at the center and a
series of irrelevant question (padding question).

SAT= (silent answer test) no verbal response is because the said technique in eliciting information or deception
required. is still in the____.
Guilt Complex test = used fictitious incident to overly A. experimental stage C. law enforcement
responsive subject. B. analysis aspect D. limb
Yes test, No test, Card test, mixed test. 82. Changes in the height of both respiratory pressure tracing
72. What is force questioning of a person who is reluctant to are considered symptomatic attempt at deception and is called
give an information? _____.
A. Interview C. Interrogation A. changes in Amplitude C. change in wavelength
B. Confession D. Admission B. change in frequency D. increase in speed
73. What is a self incriminating statement falling short of an Change in frequency or rate ---Changes in the speed of rise
acknowledgement of guilt? and fall of the tracing.
A. Admission C. Confession 83. In Backster Zone test, if the color zone for irrelevant is
B. Interview D. Interrogation yellow, what is the color zone for strong relevant questions?
Interview = simple or formal questioning of victim or witnesses A. Green C. Red
who are willing to give information. B. Black D. Orange
Interrogation = forceful/rigid/vigorous/systematic questioning of Red – relevant Yellow – Irrelevant
person who is reluctant to divulge information. Green – Control (Probable lie) Black – Symptomatic
74. If the tracing of the subject indicates that he is truthful, the Question.
examiners findings should be ________. 84. There are so many kinds of test technique used in
A. positive C. negative polygraph examination. What test technique is being used
B. conclusive D. inconclusive when the co-called (Subject- Knowledge- You) S-K-Y
75. What is that actual questioning phase of the polygraph questions were asked during the test?)
examination? A. Backster Zone Comparison test C. Silent Answer test
A. Pre-test C. Test ExecutionB. B. Guilt complex test D. General Question test
Preliminary Interview D. Post-test 85. What is the keynote to accurate chart interpretation?
76. Of the following which is a kind of polygraph machine? A. Good question formulation C. Good chart marking
a. Stoelting polygraph b. Laffayette polygraph B. Good chart-probing D. Good pre-test interview
c. keeler's polygraph d. all of these 86.What kind of response is the reaction of the human body
77. What part of the galvanograph component converts such as nervous system and cardiovascular system caused by
electrical to mechanical current? certain stimuli like fear, anxiety and other strong emotion.
A. Amplifier unit C. Resonance control B. A. Internal response C. Postural
Finger electrode assembly D. Sensitivity knob B. External response D. Specific
78. In any interrogation the belief that man is fallible human 87. The following should be done by the examiner when
being should not be overlooked and therefore polygraph polygraph results to indication of innocence:
examiners are always subject to _________? A. Thank the subject for his cooperation
A. precision of diagnosis C. certainty of interpretations B. Ask the subject if he has any questions
B. errors D. none of these C. release the subject cordially
79. What is the brief confrontation between the subject and the D. all of these
polygraph examiner done every after taking each chart? 88. What test is given is a subject of interrogation is not yet
A. Initial interview C. Chart probing informed of the details of the offense for which he is being
B. Pre-test interview D. Post-test interview or interrogated by the investigation, or by other persons or from
interrogation other sources like the print media?
= performed at the end of each specific polygraph test or every A. Peak of tension test C. IQ test
after taking each chart. B. Control test D. Guilt Complex test
80. In polygraph test, the respiratory tracing is found in the 89. The consistency across examiners/scorers means
_____. _______.
A. bottom of the chart (Cardio tracing) A. validity C. competency
B. top of the chart B. reliability D. infallability
C. middle of the chart (Skin resistance) 90. What is the measure of the extent to which an observed
D. subjects breathing situation reflects the “true” situation?
81. The reason why the result of polygraph examination is not A. Validity C. Competency
admissible evidence in court of law in the Philippines is B. Reliability D. Infallability

91. A type of test where list of stimulus and non-stimulus B. Slide D. Eyepiece
words are read to the subject who is instructed to answer as 7. What is the normal amount of semen per ejaculation of a
quickly as possible? normal built person?
A. Word Association test C. Psychological stress evaluator A. 1.5 to 3.5 cc C. 2.5 to 3.5 cc
B. Card test D. Hyposis B. 3.5 to 5.5 cc D. 3.5 to 4.5 cc
92. What is the symbol used to indicate the start of the 400 to 500 millions = number of average spermatozoa per
polygraph text marked in the chart? ejaculation.
A. X B. W C. S 8. What is that condition of a man having semen but without
D.. Y E. XX spermatozoa?
A. Oligospermia C. ASpermia
VI. Forensic Chemistry/Toxicology B. Ozoosphermia D. B and C
1. What is a poisonous gas which smells like a rotten egg? Oligospermia =lack of sperm counts
A. H2S C. CO Sectretor - a person whose semen can be group just like his
B. CO2 D. H2O blood.
CO is a poisonous gas that liberates from the unburned part of 9. what is the circulating tissue of the human body
the ordinary combustibles. A. Blood .B. Semen C. Urine D. Saliva.
CO2 = does not support life (human) 10. The blood consist of the plasma and the suspended solid
2. In the schematic outline on the isolation and identification of particles. Which of the following suspended soilid particles is
some common poisons, the specimen should first be primarily responsible to carry the oxygen in the blood/
_______. A. White blood cells C. Platelets
A. alkaline solution (Na(OH)) B. Red blood cells D. Thrombocytes
B. distilled with or without stem White blood cells - provides for the immune system. Fights
C. ether-extracted infection, and serves as the soldier of the body.
D. mixed with chemical antidotes. Blood platelets - tiny blood cells that form clots to
(This is the proper order of toxicological testing) prevent bleeding.
3. What study deals with poison, their origin, physical and 11. What will be the possible child of a man with Group A and
chemical properties, effects, treatment and methods of Type M blood with woman of Group B, type N blood?
detection usually on sudden and unexplained deaths? A. AB, N C. B,N
A. Chemistry C. Forensic Chemistry B. O, M D. AB, MN
B. Poisonous investigation D.. Toxicology Anti -A (blue) and anti –B (yellow) used for blood grouping
4. What substances is capable of producing noxious effect or 6 quarts = the amount of blood in normal built person.
destroy life once introduce into the body, absorbed through the O = universal donor
blood stream and acts chemically? AB = universal acceptor and one which is rare or of lowest
A. Protein C. Poison percentage of occurrence.
B. Enzymes D. None of these 12. In the ABO System divides the human race into four (4)
5. what scientific instrument used to show minutes details of blood types. Which of the following types has the lowest
the physical evidence such as in the examination of hair, percentage?
fibers, bloos and other biological evidence? A. O type C. A type
A. Comparator projector C. Shadowgraph B. B type D. AB type
B. Microsope D. Polygraph Chronological Steps in Blood Testing:
6. What part of the microscope is used to hold the specimen/ 1. Preliminary test (Maybe blood) = Benzidine,
A. Objectives C. Stage Phenolphthalein, etc.
2. Confirmatory test (surely blood) = microscopic, micro-
chemical, spectroscopic.
3. Biological or precipitin test (Human or Animal)
4. Blood Grouping and Blood typing.
13. A preliminary test in blood in a solution of 1 to 300,000
dilution is ________.
A. benzidine C. phenolphthalein
B. guiacum D. leucomalachine Green
Phenolphthalein = reddish pink result (1:80,000)
14.To confirm the presence of blood we look for _______.
A. white crystalline B. Salmon pink crystal

C. white cloudy precipitate D. Dark brown rhomboid crystals A.Use a syringe to get blood sample and place it in a vial or
small test tube.
CONFIRMATORY TEST; B. Air dry then place paper envelope to prevent moisture.
1. Microscopic test - shows the minute details of the specimen. C. Scrape the blood using razor blade or knife then place it in
2. Microchemical or Microcrystalline test -consist of the a paper envelope.
a. Teichmann test or Hemin Crystal test Benzidine Test Intense blue color
Positive result: dark brown rhombic crystals of hematin (1:300,000)
chloride which is arranged singly or in clusters.
Phenolphthalein or Kastl Pink or deep permanganate col
b.Takayama test or Haemochromogen Crystal test
e Meyer Test (1:80,000) or
Positive result: large rhombic crystlas, with a salmon-pink
color arranged in clusters or sheaves known as Guaiacum test Beautiful blue color
haemochromogen crystals Leucomalachite Green te Malachite green color or bluish
3. Spectroscopic test - most delicate and reliable test for the st green
determination of the presence of blood in both old and recent Luminol test Viewed under the ultra-violet la
stains. mp - luminescence is observed
15. What is the biological test for blood? D. Get at least 5 ml or 5cc of the blood sample let it air dry and
A. Benzidine test C. Blood grouping/typing place in a plastic envelope.
B. Takayama test D. Precipitin test 23. What method is used in a grouping of dry blood or
16. What type of blood is characterized as bright scarlet in bloodstain?
color, leaves the blood vessel with pressure and high oxygen A. Indirect/Absorption C. Grouping
content? B. Direct D. Regrouping
A. Arterial blood C. Venous blood 24. The following statements are correct EXCEPT, ______.
B. Menstrual blood D. Child’s blood A. Old blood stains can be identified by the precipitin test.
DNA B. Heat affects the precipitin test.
Blood sample required : 5 cc or 5 ml. C. Precipitin test is not specific for human blood.
Cotton buds = 4 for blood and saliva. D. Acids and alcohols may inhibit or even destroy
Semen (3 cotton buds). precipitin reaction.
Hair – 10 strands with root or follicle 25. A police investigator found in a crime scene dried liquid
Plaster of Paris = common casting material. (7 Paris purporting to be saliva. They have a suspect by the Name Ted,
Plus & parts of water.) an American boyfriend of the victim. What the police should do
17. A Forensic Chemist is tasked to examine the chemical so that the saliva can be used in the process of investigation.
nature and composition of the following Except one: A. Microscopic test
A. fingerprint C. blood B. Test saliva if it is really of the suspect
B. explosives D. body fluids C. Secretor test
Alec jeffreys - the Geneticist from Great Britain who pioneered D. DNA analysis to determine if the saliva is of the suspect.
DNA testing and fingerprinting? 26. The test used in determine the presence of semen
18. What is the chemical substance found in all cells whose particularly in stained clothing?
composition have been passed on from parents to their A. Florence test C. Microscopic test
children? B. barberio’s test D. Ultra-violet test
A. RNA C. DNA 27. The study and identification of body fluids?
B. Genotype D. Phenotype A. Pharmacology C. Posology
19. How much blood sample is required for purposes of DNA B. Serology D. Immunology
testing? 28. The approximate time for the completion of one case for
A. 5 cc B. 7 cc C. 10 cc D. 15 cc DNA Testing.
20. DNA is found in all nucleats cells of the body, it is regarded A. Minimum of eight weeksC. Minimum of six weeks
as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands for. B. Minimum of four weeks D. Minimum of two weeks
A. deonaturalacide C. dynamic natural antibody
29. Once a DNA sample is submitted for analysis, after how
B. deoxyribonucleic acid D. deocxyribonuclic acid
many days or hours will the forensic examiners must release
21. What is the other name for cells clump?
the result?
A. overlapping C. agglutinate
A. 24 hours to 36 hours C. 24 hours only
B. clumping D. constipation
B. 48 to 72 hours D. 48 hours only
22. which of the following is best way to collect liquid blood
30. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
found at the scene of the crime?

A. DNA is stable since it can be isolated from material 38. A mercury fulminate is as example of what kind of
that is months or even years old. explosive?
B. DNA can be obtained from a wide variety of A. Low C. Primary high
biological sources like blood, semen,hair, saliva, and bone. B. High D. Secondary High
C. DNA can be replicated in the laboratory from a Kinds of Explosives:
very small amount of initial material through the process called 1. Low Explosives (Propellants) =gun powders
PCR 2. High Explosives
D. DNA does not show greater variability from one a. Primary High = (Primers) designed to ignite.
individual to another. b. Secondary High = designed to explode.
31. The following are some biological specimens used for 39. What causes the pink color of blood and tissue of a
DNA analysis, EXCEPT. gunshot wound of entry?
A. Semen and seminal stains A. Carbon monoxide C. Cellulose nitrite
B. Blood and blood stains B. Carbon dioxide D. Hydrogen disulfide
C. Hair without follicles or roots Smokeless powder = nitrocellulose plus
D. Bones nitroglycerine.
32. Gun powder residue maybe determined by? 39. The presence of seinging, smudging and tattooing in the
A. Takayama test C. Diphenylamine gunshot wound indicates that the gun pbarrel is held about -_-
B. Paraffin test D. Florence test ___.
Nitrate = produced deep blue speaks A. 0 - 2 inches C. 2 -6 inches
Nitrite = produced green speaks B. 6- 12 inches D. 12 - 36 inches
33. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial Gaping hole, seinging, smudging, tattooing - 0.2 inches.
numbers? (Stainless steel, lead, cast iron are examples). Seignging smudging and tattooing - 2- 6 inhes
A. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate Smudging and tattoing - 6 -12 inces
B. etching solution Tattooing - 12- 36 inches.
C. colloidal magnesium Singeing is the slight burning of the clothing around the bullet
D. borax solution perforation.
Metallurgy =study of the micro-metallic composition of metals. Smudging is the blackening of area around the bullet
34. The number restoration is necessary in determining perforation.
whether here is tampering of serial number in ______. Tattooing is the black coarsely peppered pattern around the
A. typewriter C. prisoners bullet perforation.
B. firearm D. bank notes
35. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? 40. What kinds of skin is dry, and dead, peeled away from the
A. It is not always possible to restore the original surface skin?
numbers of tampered serial numbers. A. slight skin C. burned skin
B. It is always possible to restore the original B. incipient ridge D. scarf skin
numbers of tampered serial numbers. 41. What is the center core of a strand of the hair, which form
C. It is not possible to restore the original numbers of the bulk of the fiber?
tampered serial numbers. A. Cuticle C. Cortex
D. It is possible to restore the original numbers of B. Medulla D. Shalf
tampered serial numbers. Hair is a specialized epithelial outgrowth of the skin which
36. Is it always possible to restore tampered serial numbers? occurs everywhere in the human body except on the palms of
A. Yes, by using Etching fluids. the hands and the soles of the feet.
B. No, it is not always possible especially if the filing is too Parts of Hair: Root, Shaft & Tip (cut or not).
deep. 42.In Forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to
C. No, it is not possible even if the tampering is shallow. determine if it was ____.
D. Yes, by applying physical and chemical means. A. bend B. cut C. folded D. stretched
37. What test is used to determine whether or not a person 43. The cuticle of the animal hair is:
possibly fired a gunr? A. rounded C. serrated
A. Dyphinelamine C. Parrafin test B. oblong D. circular
B. Florensce d. Barberio’s test Human = rounded cuticle
Person maybe negative for parrafin test after a lapse of 72 44. What is the ratio between the width of the medulla and the
hours (3day) width of the whole hair?
A. Medulary index C. Medulary ratio

B. Medula D. Medula radius 52. The most serious burn involving skin, nerves and bones,
45. There are two kinds of fiber natural and _____. causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body
A. artificial B. plant C. animal D. organic and massive infection?
46. Which of the following test would distinguished an animal A. First Degree Burn C. Third Degree burn
fiber from plant fiber? B. Second Degree Burn D. Sunburn
A. Bursting test C. Solubility test 53. What is the primary fractures that develop on a glass
B. Ignition test D. Dissolving test when pressure or force is applied?
Animal hair burns fast than plant fiber and it produces A. radial C. crater-like fractures
pungent odor. B. concentric D. Wave-shaped
47.. The Medullary index of a hair specimen submitted 54. The ideal amount of soil sample to be submitted for soil
for analysis is 0.423, this means that it came from ____. analysis.
A. Cow B. Human C. Horse D. Carabao A. 10 mg B. 25 mg C. 20 mg D. . 30 mg
Medullary index of Less than .05 mm - human, 55. When the glass chippings are evenly distributed around
More thaan 0.5 mm is animal hair. the gunshot hole in a glass pane, what is the possible position
48. Which of the following is the most conclusive test for of the shooter?
fibers? A. The shooter is at an angle from the left to the right of
A. Burning test C. Chemical test the glass.
B. Fluorescence test D. Microscopic test B. The shooter is at an angle from the right to the left side
of the glass.
49. Which of the following tests applied on paper can be done C. The shooter is perpendicular to the glass.
D. The shooter is at the rear side of the glass.
only upon the approval of the court since the paper will be
56. What examination is employed to determine the type
destroyed?
of pattern of the glass that determines its composition?
I. physical test causing no perceptible change
A. Spectrographic analysis C. Fluorescence Test
II. physical test causing a perceptible change B. X-ray Diffraction Analysis D. Polish Marks Analysis
III. preliminary test 57. What is a reproduction an impression left on soft surface
IV. chemical test uwing casting materials?
A. II & IV B. I & II C. III & IV D. II & III A. Plaster of Paris C. Moulage
50. The most conclusive and reliable method of identifying B. Shellac D. Borax
ballpoint pen ink. Plaster of Paris - most commonly used casting material in
A. Chemical test C. Physical test making moulage.
B. Paper Chromatography D. Spectrographic test 58. What is that super cooled liquid that possesses high
51.. what is considered as the main composition of every viscosity and rigidity. A non-crystalline inorganic substance.
paper/ A. Soil B. Rock C. Glass D. Clay
A. fiber composition C. loading composition Note; Silica - main composition of a glass.
B.sizing material D. None 59. What type of glassis made up of two glasses where a
Fiber composition - this is the main component of paper. plastic is sandwiched in between the/
Practically all papers may be classified from the A. Soda lime C. Tampered
standpoint of their basic fiber composition into sets of fiber B. Laminated D. Safety E. B and D
mixtures. These sets of fiber mixtures are; mechanical pulp or Soda-lime glass – a type of glass commonly used in windows
ground wood sulfite mixture, soda sulfite mixture and rag and bottles.
sulfite. Tempered glass – glass which is made up of sand, lime and
Sizing material sodium carbonate heated together at high temperature. It is
Sizing materials are added to paper to improve its more than four times stronger than window glass
texture or quality. Some examples of sizing materials used in
paper are casein, rosin, starch and gelatin. 60.. . What is the principal active component of opium which
Loading material comes in white crystalline powder and light tablets?
Loading material is added to paper to improve its A. Heroin C. Morphine
weight and partially fills the pores between the fibers of the B. Cocaine D. Shabu
paper. Examples of loading materials used are barium sulfate Opium poppy (Papaversomniferum)
and calcium sulfate. OPIUM (mother drugs)-–morphine -- heroin-- codeine
. Types of drugs that relieves pain and often induce sleep.

A. Narcotics C. Stimulants 72. What poisons are chemically produced in the laboratory
B. Sedatives D. Neurotics that have useful importance to its purpose but become
61. __________are drugs which affects sensation, thinking, poisonous when taken into the body?
self awareness and emotion. It may be mild or overwhelming A. Mineral C. Synthetic
depending on dose and quality of drugs. B. Organic D. Non-volatile
A. Narcotics C. Hallucinogens B. 73. What poisons act chiefly on the nervous system producing
Sedatives D. Stimulants delirium convulsion, and respiration as the outstanding
62. Which one is not included in street name of MARIJUANA? symptoms?
A. Mary Jane C. Snow A. Neurotics C. Depressants
B. Brownies D. Flower B. Irritants D. Narcotics
THC- Tetrahydrocannabinol = the active component of 74. What poisons produce stupor, complete insensibility, loss
marijuana responsible for its hallucinogenic effect. of feeling?
63. Methampethamine hydrochloride is commonly known as: A. Neurotics C. Tetanics
A. Cocaine C. Heroin B. Narcotics D. Sedatives
B. LSD D. Shabu 75. The largest amount that will cause no harm and at the
64. Which of the following refers to the body of the crime? same time produce the desired therapeutic effect.
A. Evidence C. Criminology A. Maximum dose C. Lethal dose
B. Body of the victim D. Corpus delicti B. Minimum dose D. Toxic dose
65. The volatile poisons may be isolated by means of this 76. What is the most detrimental among the methods of
process: administration of drugs or poison?
A. dialysis C. distillation A. Intravenous injection C. Hypodermic injection
B. dilution D. extraction B. Poisons taken orally D. Poison inhaled
66. If a poison come from a bite or injection, what is the best 77. Poisons are more detrimental when they are diluted,
method of elimination to be used? EXCEPT __________.
A. washing the affected part with water A. Irritants C. Solids
B. neutralizing the effect using citrus fruits. B. Corrosives D. Saturated
C. applying torniquet or a restricting band tied just 78. Poison is more toxic when it is in ______.
above the wound. A. Soluble C. Slightly soluble
D. using ligatures and bleeding B. Insoluble D. Either soluble or insoluble
67. If poison is due to alkali burns, what special treatment 79. What term is applied to individuals who exhibit unusual
should be done? behavior to certain substances?
A. Wash with lemon or other citrus fruits A. Allergy C. Addiction
B. Wash with milk of magnesia B. Idiosyncrasy D. Tolerance
C. Wash with water and soap 80. One in which the history is hazy as to how the poison was
D. Wait for the doctor obtained and why it was administered.
68. What is defined as the determination of drug use, A. Accidental C. Homicidal
poisoning, or exposure to toxic substances as part of a legal B. Undetermined D. Suicidal
investigation? 81.What are those poisons that act directly upon the spinal
A. Forensic Toxicology C. Pharmacology producing such spasmodic and continuous contraction of
B. Toxicology D. Posology muscles because of stiffness?
69. What poisons produce irritation and inflammation of the A. Neurotics C.Tetanics
mucus membrane and characterized by vomiting, pain in the B. Narcotic D. Corrosive
abdomen, and purging? 82. A physical antidote that produces intestinal evacuation.
A. Corrosives B. Irritants C. Tetanics D. Sedatives A. Emetics C. Precipitants
70. What poisons can cause local destruction of tissues and B. Cathartics D. Demulcents
characterized by nausea, vomiting, and great local distress? 83. What is the best specimen to be submitted for toxicological
A. Corrosives C. Depressants examination for cyanide and solvent poisoning?
B. Irritants D. Exhaustives A. Brain B. Lungs C. Liver D. Blood
71. What poisons are unstable and easily affected by heat 84. Which among the following is the method applied in blood
and examples are alcohol and phenol? alcohol concentration determination?
A.Non-volatile B. Volatile C. Metallic D. Mineral A. Gas chromatography C. DNA analysis
B. thermal analysis D. Spectrographic analysis
Dust and Dirt

Dust and dirt have been described as “matter in the
wrong place”.
THANK YOU!!!
TO GOD BE THE GLORY
GOD BLESS YOU ALL
SEE YOU IN YOUR OATH-TAKING

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Do your Best in everything, work hard for it and do it not just OTHER METHOD OF IDENTIFICATIONS;

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

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27. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should

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ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

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ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

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ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

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Potasium alum/ Potassium bromide

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

21. What type of a firearm contains rifling (land and grooves)

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ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

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ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

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ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

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ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

ADMRC Final coaching notes August 2023

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