SOCIAL SCIENCE FINAL MCQs (4) Asa

HISTORY
GRADE: X
Chapter1
TOPIC WISE MCQ QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Rise of Nationalism in Europe
SOCIAL SCIENCE 1. Introduction, French Revolution and the Idea of the Nation.
1. When did the National Assembly form a Constitution to limit the powers of the monarch?
(a) 1791
(b) 1792
(c) 1793
C O N T E N TS (d) 1794
UNIT I 2. Who wrote an influential pamphlet „What is the third Estate‟?

CHAPTERS HISTORY PAGE (a) Mirabeau
Chapter 1 Rise of Nationalism in Europe (b) Abbe Sieyes
(c) Jean-Paul Marat
UNIT II
(d) Olympe de Gouges.
GEOGRAPHY
3. Which group of people did not join the Jacobin club?
Chapter 1 Resource and Development (a) Artisans
(b) Shopkeepers
(c) Daily-wage workers
Chapter 4 Agriculture
(d) Men with property
UNIT III
4. What is called a vision of a society that is so ideal that it is unlikely to actually exist ?
DEMOCRATIC POLITICS (a) Absolutist
(b) Utopian
Chapter 1 Power Sharing (c) Republics
(d) Plebiscite
Chapter 2 Federalism
5. What did the slave wear upon becoming free?
UNIT IV (a) blue cap
ECONOMICS (b) white cap
(c) red cap
Chapter 1 Development (d) green cap
Chapter 2 Sectors of the Indian Economy

6. Who comprised the Third Estate?
(a) Clergy
(b) Nobility
(c) Big businessmen, merchants, lawyers
(d) King
7. Which of the following statements is False about the “Third Estate”?

(a) The Third Estate was made of the poor only
(b) Within the Third Estate some were rich and some were poor
(c) Richer members of the Third Estate owned lands
(d) Peasants were obliged to serve in the army, or build roads
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8. What is the word “livres” stands for? 16. Who was killed in the armed fight at Bastille?
(a) unit of currency in France (a) The commander of the Bastille
(b) tax levied by the Church (b) The king of France
(c) Tax to be paid directly to the state (c) The Prisoner of the Bastille
(d) Indirect tax (d) The clergy of the church
9. What was the „Subsistence Crisis‟ which occurred frequently in France? 17. What did the people do with the stone fragments of the demolished Bastille?
(a) An extreme situation endangering the basic means of livelihood (a) Took them to the home
(b) Subsidy in food grains (b) Broke in to pieces
(c) Large-scale production of food grains (c) Sold in the market.
(d) large number of deaths (d) Threw in the ocean
10. What was „Estates General‟? 18. Who did France help to gain the independence from the Britain to?
(a) Post of Army General (a) The French nobility
(b) A political body (b) The French clergy
(c) Head of all landed property (c) The Indian Kings
(d) Advisor of the king (d) The American colonies
11. What is the term „Old Regime‟ usually used to describe? 19. What did the French government decide to meet its regular expenses?
(a) France before 1000 B.C. (a) To expand overseas trade
(b) Society of France after 1789 A.D. (b) To increase taxes
(c) Society and institutions of France before 1789 A.D. (c) To grow more crops
(d) None of the above (d) To reduce the expenditure
12. Which of these books was written by John Locke? 20. The French society was divided into how many states?
(a) The Spirit of the Laws (a) 3
(b) Two Treatises on Government (b) 4
(c) The Social Contract (c) 5
(d) What is the third Estate? (d) 6
13. What did the Bastille stand for? 21. Who enjoyed certain privileges by birth?
(a) The Spirit of the Laws (a) Peasants and farmers
(b) The despotic power of the king (b) Clergy and nobility
(c) The symbol of the justice (c) Businessman and industrialist
(d) The place of arms. (d) Court officials and lawyers
14. When did the agitated crowd storm and destroyed the Bastille? 22. Who were obliged to render services to the lord?
(a) 14 July 1798 (a) Workers
(b) 14 July 1789 (b) Nobles
(c) 14 August 1789 (c) Peasants
(d) 14 August 1798 (d) Servants
15. Why did the people's militia enter a number of government buildings? 23. What was the tax extracted by the church called?
(a) to kill the officers (a) Direct tax
(b) to destroy the offices (b) Indirect tax
(c) In search of arms (c) Tithe
(d) In search of money (d) Taille
2. The Making of Nationalism in Europe.
24. What was the direct tax paid to the states called?
(a) Direct tax 1. Napoleon invaded Italy in
(b) Indirect tax (a) 1767
(c) Tithe (b) 1777
(d) Taille (c) 1787
(d) 1797
25. What was the increase in the population from 1750 in to 1718?
(a) 1 million 2. Name the customs union formed by Prussia to abolish tariff barriers.
(b) 3 million (a) Elle
(c) 5 million (b) Zollverein
(d) 7 million (b) Zweibiicken
(d) La Patrie
26. What is an extreme situation where the basic means of livelihood are endangered called?
(a) Feudal System 3. Which one of the following was the basic aim of Zollverein?
(b) Subsistence crisis
(c) Financial activities (a) The abolition of tariff barriers
(d) Feudal Privileges (b) To reunite Germany
(c) To reunite Prussia
27. How did the middle class earn their wealth? (d) To promote Democracy
(a) By working in the factories
(b) By expanding overseas trade 4. Name one kind of revolt that started in Europe in 1848.
(c) By growing more crops (a) Linguistic Revolt in Germany
(d) By getting more salary from the king. (b) Artisans, industrial workers and peasants revolted against economic hardships
(c) Revolt against monarchy in Switzerland
28. Which class believed that no group in the society should be privileged by birth? (d) Revolt for freedom in Greece
(a) First class
(b) Second class 5. Socially and politically dominant class in Europe during mid-eighteenth century was called:.
(c) Middle class (a) The Nobility
(d) Last class (b) The landed aristocracy
(c) The Church
29. Which country's constitution was an important example for political thinkers in France? (d) The absolute monarchs
(a) India
(b) America 6. The denial of universal suffrage in Europe, led to :
(c) England (a) Revolutions
(d) France (b) Women and non-propertied men organizing opposition movements, demanding equal rights
throughout 19th and early 20th centuries
30. What was the name of the king of France before the French Revolution? (c) Demand of equal political rights
(a) King Louis 15 (d) Return of monarchy
(b) King Louis 16
(c) King Louis 17 7. In politics, liberalism emphasized:
(d) King Louis 18 (a) End of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and a representative government through
Answers Parliament
(b) The inviolability of private property
1.a 2.b 3.d 4.b 5.c 6.c 7.a 8.a 9.a 10.b 11.c 12.b (c) The right to vote
13.b 14.b 15.c 16.a 17.c 18.d 19.b 20.a 21.d 22.c 23.c 24.d (d) Growth and freedom
25.c 26.b 27.b 28.c 29.b 30.b

8. Friedrich List, a German professor of Economics, hoped to achieve two political ends through c. England and France
economic measures. They were ______________ d.Austria and Hungary
(a) Increase in power in Europe
(b) Binding Germans economically into a nation 16.After the defeat of Napoleon, the European government follows the spirit of
(c) Educate locals a. Conservatism
(d) Awakening national sentiment through a free economic system b.Absolutism
c.Absolute monarchy
9. Which new spirit guided European nations after Napoleon‟s defeat? d.Democracy
(a) Fascism
(b) Conservatism 17. Who among the following formed the secret society called “Young Italy”?.
(c) Nazism (a) Otto von Bismarck
(d) Communism (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Metternich
10. All the new regimes, set up in 1815, was autocratic because: (d) Johann Gottfried Herder
(a) They did not tolerate criticism and dissent
(b) They imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, plays, songs etc. 18. Zollverein or the Customs Union was formed in Prussia to abolish
(c) They curbed activities which questioned their legitimacy a.Monarcy
(d) They were selfish rulers b. tariff barriers.
d.Democracy
11. Repression of liberal revolutionaries after 1815, in Europe, led to d.Military rule
(a) Armies being trained by revolutionaries
(b) All revolutionaries trained to overthrow monarchy 19. Which one of the following type government was functioning France before the Revolution of 1789?
(c) Secret societies being formed in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their a) Dictatorship
ideas b) Military
c) Body of French citizen.
(d) Win democracy
d) Monarchy
12. The three leaders who helped unification of Italy were : 20. Who among the following hosted, the Congress at Vienna in 1815?
(a) Giuseppe Mazzini, Victor Emmanuel II, Cavour a) King of Netherlands
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini, Cavour, Giuseppe Garibaldi b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Victor Emmanuel, Bismarck, Cavour c) Duke Metternich
(d) Napoleon, Bismarck, Cavour d) Otto von Bismarck
13. Which one of the following is not regarding the reforms carried out by the Union called 21. Zollverin started in 1834 in Prussia refers to a
Zollverein? a) Trade union.
(a) Creation of a network of railways to promote nationalism b) Customs union.
c) labour union.
(b) Opposition to unhindered movement of goods, people and capital in member states
d) Farmer union
(c) Reduction of tariff barriers in states
(d) Reduction of number of currencies in Germany 22. When did French revolution occur?
a) 1777
14. The main function of the Prussian Zollverein was to : b) 1785
(a) Impose customs duty on imported goods c) 1789
(b) Abolish tariff barriers d) 2004
(c) Reduce customs duties
(d) Introduce new rules for trade 23. When did the Napoleon introduced civil code?
a) 1804
15. Which one of the following divisions was having their autonomous rulers? b) 1904
a. Italy and Switzerland c) 1708
d) 1928
b. duchies and cantons
24. The civil code was introduced in 1804 by Napoleon is known as----
3. The Age of Revolutions
a) Bar code
b) Group code
c) Napoleonic code 1) July revolution that took place in 1830 resulted in destruction of
d) Bank code a) Ottoman Empire
b) Muslim Empire
25. Who was the famous Italian revolutionary born in 1807 and a part of society called as Carbanari? c) Bourbon dynasty
a) St. Paul d) France rule
b) Duke Metternich
c) Otto von Bismarck 2) Who has remarked “When France Sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold."?
d) Giuseppe Mazzini a) Metternich
b) Giuseppe Mazzini
26. French armies moved in Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and Italy in 1907 with which promise
c) Louis Philippe
a) Liberating peoples despotic rules.
b) Liberating, people from Royal community people
d) Johann Gottfried
c) Liberating people from feudal system
d) Liberating people from clergy 3) Which of the following Treaty declined Greece I an Independent nation in 1882?
a) Treaty of Versailles
27. When was Mazzini went to exile? b) Treaty of Greece
a) In 1831 c) Treaty of Constantinople
b) In 1832 d) Treaty of Tem
c) In 1833
d) In 1844 4) What is the objective focusing Vernacular language?
a) Raise regional voice against autocrats
28. What played an important role in creating the idea of nation? b) Recover ancient national spirit
a) Science
c) Convey modern nationalism message to illiterate
b) Culture
c) Technology d) Fight against monarchy
d) Internet
5) Which ruler was forced to run away in 1848 due to food shortage and unemployment?
29. Which of the following revolution is called as the first expression of “Nationalism”? a) Wilhelm wolf
a) French Revolution b) Louis Philippe
b) Russian Revolution c) Friedrich Wilhelm IV
c) Glorious Revolutions d) Louis XIV
d)The Revolution of the liberals .
6) What happened at the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832?
a) Revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off
30. The term „liberalism‟ derives from the Latin root liber, meaning: b) Struggle for independence amongst the Greeks began
a. Victory c) Greece was recognized as an independent nation
b. Global d) European civilization and mobilized public opinion to support its struggle against Muslim empire
c. World
d. Free 7) In which year did Louis Philippe as an independent nation?
a) 1846
Answers b) 1848
c) 1845
1d 2b 3a 4b 5a 6b 7d 8c 9b 10d 11d 12b d) 1847
13b 14b 15b 16a 17b 18b 19d 20c 21b 22c 23a 24c
25 26a 27a 28b 29.a 30d

8) Name the English poet who was organized funds and later went to fight in the war of Greek a) Frederic Sorrieu
independent. b) Eugene Delacroix
a) Lord Byron c) Louise Otto peters
b) Mazzini d) Victor Emmanuel II
c) Metternich
d) Johann Gottfried 16) Through which print Delacroix' sought to the emotions of the spectators and create sympathy for
the Greeks.
9) How many elected representatives marched in a festive procession to take their place in the a) The massacre & at chios
frankfurt parliament convened in the church of St. Paul. b) Peasants uprising 1848
a) 831 c) Democratic and social Republics
b) 829 d) Germania
c) 832
d) 800 17 What was the name of German Romantic Philosopher?
a) Giuseppe Mazzini
10) Which years was faced great economic hardship Europe. b) Johann Gottfried Herder
a) 1830s c) Carl walker
b) 1829s d) Wolf Tone
c)1835s
d) 1828s 18. What was 'Das Volk' ?
a) Daily news paper from Berlin, Germany
11) A National Assembly Proclaimed a Republic, granted suffrage to all adult males above age of b) It is book written by German philosopher Johann Herder
a) 25 c) It is periodicals
b) 26 d] It is a pamphlet
c) 18
d) 21
19. Who was celebrated the National struggle through his operas and music‟s.
a) Karol Kurpinski
12) Who had led a revolt against contractors who supplied them raw material and gave them b) The Grimm Brothers
Orders for finished textiles but drastically reduced their payments c) Johann Herder
a) Workers in France d) Wolf Tone
b) Weavers in Silesia
c) Nationalist in Europe is 20. Name the two folk dance that were turned into nationalist Symbol in Europe,
d) Contractors in Silesia a) Bhangra
b) Garba
13) What was the name of journalist, who has described the events in a Silesian village? c) Polonaise and Mazur
a) John Gottfried d) lavani
b) Giuseppe Mazzini
c) Carl walker 21. Which language was used for church gathering and all religious instruction?
d) Wilhelm Wolff a) Polish
b) German
14) Which was the ruler granted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867 c) Indian
a) The Habsburg d) Russian
b) The Greek
c) The German 22. Which language was came to be seen as symbol of the struggle against Russian dominance,
d) The Italian a) German
b) Polish
15) Who was depicted an incident in which 20,000 Greeks were said to have been killed by Turks on c) Italian
the island of chios. d Russian
30. Which was the event in France brought about the abdication the monarch and a republic based on
23. What was the result to use polish language for church gathering and all religious instruction. universal male suffrage had been proclaimed.
a.) As a result a large number of priests and bishops were put in jail a. Feb. 1848
b) As a result large number of priests and bishops were killed b. March 1848
c) AS a result large number of priests and bishops were honored. c. May 1848
d. Jan 1848
24. Where did the Grimm brothers born,
a) German city, Hanau 31. Who founded a women's journal and subsequently a feminist political association.
b) German city, Berlin a) Louise Otto Peters
d) Russia b) Louis XVI
d) Prussia c) Louis Philippe
d) Jacob.
25. Assertion: on 18 may 1848, 831 elected representatives revolted in the Frankfurt parliament
Reason : The elected representatives revolted against the issue of extending political rights to
women. 32. Who was regarded as father of modern nationalism?
a. Both assertion and reason is true (a). Johann Gottlieb Fichte
b. Both assertion and reason reason is true but reason is not the correct of assertion. (b). John Gottfried herder
c. both assertion and season are false (c). Carl Welcker
d. assertion is true but reason is false (d). Louise Philippe
33. When Zollverein customs union did was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of
the German states.
26. Who was the King of Prussia? (a). 1834
a. Friedrich Wilhelm IV (b). 1833
b. Louis XVI (c). 1832
c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d). 1835
d) Grimm
34. What was the name of customs union which was formed in 1834?
(a). Zollverein
(b). Conservatism
27. When did Lord Byron died because of fever (c). Frankfurt Parliament
a) 1823 (d). National Assembly
b) 1824
c) 1826 35. Why were the revolutions of 1830 and 1848 so widespread?
d) 1822 (a). People opposed nationalism
(b). People supported absolute monarchs
28. Who was described the events of a Silesian village. (c). Trade increased and united Europe into a market economy
a) A poet Lord Byron (d). Enlightenment ideas and nationalism had spread across Europe
b) philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder
c) Journalist Wilhelm wolf 36.Who was the great leader of the Hungarians?
d) Revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini (a). Kossuth
(b). Fichte
29. Who was fled away to a neighboring village in the time of revolt against contractors? (c). Harder
a) Weavers (d). Hegel
b) Peasants
c) Teachers 37.What reforms stayed permanent after the revolutions of 1848 in Australia?
d) Contractor's (a). Ending of serfdom
(b). Liberal constitution
(c). Equal rights for Hungarians Answers
(d). Independence for citizens
1.c 2.a 3.c 4.c 5.b 6.c 7.b 8.a 9.a 10.a 11.d 12.b
38. This nation had a successful revolution in 1830 splitting it from another nation. It was recognized 13.d 14.a 15.b 16.a 17.b 18.a 19.a 20.c 21.a 22.b 23.a 24.a
as a neutral state. 25.c 26.a 27.b 28.c 29.d 30.a 31.a 32.b 33.a 34.a 35.d 36.a
(a). Britain 37.a 38.c 39.b 40.a 41.c 42.a 43.a
(b). France
(c). Belgium
(d). Prussia
4. German Unification, Italy Unified.
39. Jacob and Wilhelm the two brothers who developed an interest in collecting old folktales were 1. Which among the following group of people often mobilized for promoting state power and achieving
called. domination over Europe?
(a). Bonn Brothers a) Nationalists
(b). Grimm brothers b) Conservatives
(c). Twin Brothers c) Liberals
(d). Trinn Brothers d) Radicals
40. When Greek struggle for independence begins? 2. Among which group of people in Germany nationalist feelings widespread?
(a). 1821 a) Low-class Germans
b) High-class Germans
(b). 1797
c) middle-class Germans
(c). 1850 d) upper-class Germans
(d). 1800
3. Which group of people in Germany in 1848 tried to unite the different regions of German Confederation
41. Romanticism refers to which movement? into a nation state governed by an elected parliament?
(a). Political Movement a) Upper class Germans
(b). Religious Movement b) middle-class Germans
(c). Cultural Movement c) Low-class Germans
(d). Literacy Movement d) High-class Germans
42. Which country broken away from the „United Kingdom‟ of the Netherland‟ after July Revolution 4) What were the large landowners of Prussia Called?
a) Punkers
of 1830?
b) Dunkers
(a). Belgium C) Hunkers
(b). Greece d) Junkers
(c). Ireland
(d). Scotland 5) Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark and France ended in which victory?
a) Prussian victory
43. The artisans, industrial workers and peasants revolted against which one of the following in b) Danish victory
1848? e) French victory
(a). Economic Hardship d) German victory
(b). Political Instability
(c). Monarchy 6) Who is called the art architect of German unification?
a) Kaiser William I
(d). Revolutionary war
b) Anton Von Werner
c) Otto von Bismarck
d) General von Roon
7 ) Who were the "Junkers"?

a) Soldiers
b) Large landowners
c) Aristocracy
d) Weavers 16). How many wars over seven years with Austria Denmark and France ended in Prussian Victory and
completed the process of German unification?
8). Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany in 1871? (a) 4
(a). Otto Von Bismarck (b) 3
(b). Victor Emmanuel II (c) 6
(c). Count Cavour (d) 2
(d). Kaiser William I
17). In 1861 who was proclaimed the King of United Italy?
9). In which year was Kaiser William I of Prussia proclaimed the head of the new German Empire? (a). Victor Emmanuel II
(a). 18 January 1872 (b). Kaiser William I
(b). 18 January 1871 (c). Napoleon
(c). 18 January 1870 (d). Giuseppe Mazzini
(d). 18 January 1873
18). Who was count Cavour?
10). The Nation-building process in Germany had demonstrated the dominance of which power? (a). Revolutionist of Italy
(a). Prussian state power (b). The Chancellor of Germany
(b). Danish State Power (c). The chief Ministry of Italy
(c). French State Power (d). The chief Minister of Germany
(d). Italian State Power
19). Which of the following state lead the unification of Germany?
11). After which year did nationalism in Europe move away from its association with democracy and (a). Bavaria
revolution? (b). Prussia
(a). After 1868 (c). Rhineland
(b). After 1858 (d). Hanover
(c). After 1848
(d). After 1838 20). What was “Yong Italy”?
(a). Vision of Italy
(b). National Anthem of Italy
12). Who was proclaimed king of united Italy in 1861? (c). Secret society
(a). Victor Emmanuel II (d). Sacred Book
(b). Giuseppe Mazzini
(c). Count Cavour 21). Assertion: Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one was ruled by an Italian princely house.
(d). Giuseppe Garibaldi Reason: The north was under the domination of the Bourbon Kings of Spain.
(a). Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
13). During the 1830s, who had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic. (b). Both A & R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(a). Giuseppe Garibaldi (c). A is true but R is false
(b). Count Cavour (d). Both A and R are false
(c). Giuseppe Mazzini
(d). Victor Emmanuel II
22). Italian princely ruled which of the following states before unification of Italy.
14). Who formed a secret society called “Young Italy”? (a). Sardinia – Piedmont
(a). Count Cavour (b). Lombardy
(b). Giuseppe Garibaldi (c). Venetia
(c). Victor Emmanuel II (d). Kingdom of two Sicilians
(d). Giuseppe Mazzini
23). Who made a tactful alliance with France and defeated Austrian forces in 1859.
15). In which year did the Sardinia-Piedmont succeed in defeating the Austrian forces in order to unite Italy? (a). Garibaldi
(a). 1839 (b). Cavour
(b). 1849 (c). Mazzini
(c). 1859 (d). Victor Emmanuel II
(d). 1869
24). Who led the famous expedition to south Italy and Fred the states from Bourbon rules in the year 1860? 5. The Strange Case of Britain, Visualizing the Nation.
(a). Cavour
(b). Garibaldi 1. Who was the king of Sardinia - Piedmont?
(c). Mazzini a) Germania
(d). Victor Emmanuel II
b) Wolfe Tone
25). Which nation controlled the kingdom of the two Sicilia‟s before Italian Unification? c) Victor Emmanuel - II.
(a). Spain d) Victor Emmanuel I.
(b). France
(c). Austria 2. When did Ireland forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom‟?
(d). Greece a) In 1798
b) In 1807
26). Following Italy‟s Unification, who ruled as its first-king? c) In 1707
(a). Victor Emmanuel I d) In 1801
(b). Victor Emmanuel II
(c). Victor Emmanuel III Q.3.Which among the following Union act led the formation of United Kingdom of Great Britain
(d). Victor Emmanuel IV
a) Act of (1707)
27). Who unified much of southern Italy with only a volunteer army in 1860? b ) Act of (1705)
(a). Giuseppe Mazzini c) Act of (1807)
(b). Cavour d) Act of (1882).
(c). Emmanuel II
(d). Giuseppe Garibaldi Q.4. Who led the famous expedition of the thousand to South Italy.
a) Wolfe Tone.
28). What title was given to William after the successful unification of Germany? b) Victor Emmanuel.
(a). General (c) Marianne.
(b). Chief Commander d) Garibaldi
(c). Supreme Highness
(d). Kaiser
Q.5 The act of Union C1767) was there between England and ________ that resulted in the
29). The first-Kaiser of a unified Germany was? formation of the e United Kingdom of the Great Britain.
(a). victor Emmanuel a) Italy
(b). William I b) Switzerland
(c). Nicholas I c) Scotland
(d). Charles I d) Germany.
30). This nation took the lead in the unification of Germany? Q.6 In which of the following groups Ireland was divided?
(a). Germany a) Scottish
(b). Austria b) Protestants
(c). Bavaria c) Missionaries
(d). Holstein
d) Catholic and Protestants.
31). Unification is
(a). The belief that one should be loyal to the ruler of a country. Q.7. Whose images were marked on coins and Pristina stamps
(b). The belief that one should be loyal to the country, not ruler. a) Germania‟s.
(c). The process of uniting separate area into one country. b) Emmanuel's.
(d). The process of gaining new colonies. c) Marianne's
d) Garibaldi's
Answers:
1.b 2.c 3.b 4.d 5.a 6.c 7.b 8.d 9.b 10.a 11.c 12.a Q.8.What does statues of Marianne‟s remind?
13.c 14.d 15.d 16.b 17.a 18.c 19.b 20.c 21.c 22.a 23.b 24.b a) Heroism
25.a 26.b 27.d 28.d 29.b 30.b 31.c b) Unity.
c) Being freed Q.16. What is the meaning of Broken – Chain?
d) Willingness to make peace. a) Heroism
b) Readiness to fight
Q.9. Where did the Papal States finally joined? c) Being freed
a) To Rome d) Willingness to make peace.
b) To Italy
c) To Prussia Q.17 Who became the King of United Italy in 1861?
d) To France a) Garibaldi
b) Victor Emmanuel – II
Q.10 In which Revolution artists used the female allegory portray ideas; such as Liberty Justice, c) Mazzini
Republic? d) Emmanuel - I.
a) In Italic Revolution.
b) In catholic Revolution Q: 18: Which among the following is symbol of the German Empire - strength?
c) In German Revolution a) Tricolour
d) In French Revolution b) Broken chains
c) Sword
Q.11. Who underlined the idea of people's nation? d) Breastplate with eagle.
a) Garibaldi
b) Emmanuel Q.19 What was the significance of olive branch around the sword?
c) Wolfe Tone a) Willingness to make peace.
d) Christened Marianne. b) Being colonized
. c. Beginning of new era
Q.12. Pick up the symbols of New Britain that promoted nationalism d) Ready to fight.
a) sword
b) crown of oak leaves Q.20. How did ideals represented?
c) Union Jack, English language a) Through symbols.
d) Attributed b) Through Justice
c) Through liberty
Q.13. How did the artists of 18th and 19th „centuries portrayed a nation? d) Through symbols and objects
a) Soldier figures.
b) Male figures Q.21 Which language was forbidden by the Scottish highlanders?
c) Female figures. a) English language
d) Objects b) Gaelic language
c) Spanish language
Q.14. How did French Revolution symbolized Justice? d) Greek language
a) By broken chains
b) By tricolour Q.22Which symbol does the statue of christened Marianne Shows?
c) By liberty a) Symbol of Unity
d) By blindfolded woman carrying pair of weighing scales. b) Symbol of strength
c) Symbol of poverty
d) Symbol of Justice.
Q.15 Which female figure became symbol of German nation?
a) Marianne Q.23 From where, the characteristics of christened Marianne drawn?
b) Germania a) From liberty and Justice
c) Amelia Earhart b) From Justice and Republic
d) German Marianna. c) From liberty and Republic.
d) From liberty

Q.24 Who helped the protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance over a largely Catholic b. Second World War
country? c. Fallen of Ottoman Empire
a) English d. Integration of the Balkan States
b) Spanish
c) Welsh 7. Which idea made Balkan region very explosive
d) Ethnic a. allegory
b. Conservative ideology
Answers: c. Romantic nationalism
1.c 2.d 3.a 4.d 5.c 6.d 7.c 8.b 9.c 10.d 11.d 12.c d. Socialism
13.c 14.d 15.b 16.c 17.b 18.d 19.a 20.d 21.b 22.a 23.b 24.a
8. In which year Nationalism, aligned with imperialism led Europe to disaster.
6. Nationalism and Imperialism. a. 1914
b. 1918
1. The region consisting of modern- -day Romania, Bulgaria,- Albania Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, c. 1939
Bosnia , Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro was commonly known as d. 1945
a. Latina
b.Balkan 9. Which idea of European came to the accepted as natural and universal?
c. Slavs a. nationalism
d .Welsh. b. anti-imperialism
c. nation-states
2. A large part of Balkan area was under the control of d. socialism
a. British Empire
b.Ottoman Empire 10. Why the Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each other?
c. French Empire a. to control
d. Spanish Empire b. to gain more territory
c. to secure their culture
3. Conflicts of in Balkan area led to d. to secure these customs.
a. First World War
b. Second World War 11. Which one of the following areas were the most serious sources of nationalist tension in Europe
c. War of ' Waterloo after 1871?
d. Napoleonic wars a. Italy
b. Germany
4. Who were Slavs? c. Britain
a. Residents of Brazil, Peru, Tunisia d. The Balkan
b. Residents of China, Japan, Indonesia
c. Residents of Greece, Serbia, Croatia 12. Which is the ethnic group in Balkans?
d. Residents of England, France, Germany a. Gypsis
b. Taters
5. The most serious source of nationalist tension in the year of c. Arabs
a. 1875 d. Slavs
b. 1775
c. 1781 13. Ottoman empire belonged to
d. 1871 a. Christian Empire
b. Muslim empire
6. Both power Russia, Germany, England, and Austro-Hungary was keen on countering the hold of c. Jewish empire
outer powers over Balkans, this became one of the major reason for d. Hindu empire
a. First world war

14. Which of the following is true with reference to Romanticism? d. Tatars
a. concept of government by consent
b. freedom of market 22. Which areas rebellious nationalities thought of their struggles as attempts to win back their long
c. cultural movement lost Independence?
d. Freedom of an Individual a. France
b. Italy
15. Which country became important Imperialist country in Europe after second half of 19th c. Germany
century? d. Balkan
a. Russia,
b. Austria, 23. Anti- Imperial movement was developed in
c. British, a. European colonies
d. France b. Monorelies
c. Independent nations
16. The dominations of the world is shown as basis of whose national pride? d. Imperialistic countries
a. German
b. Britain 24. The domination of the world is shown as the basis of whose national pride?
c. France a. France
d America. b. Germany
c. Prussia
17. When did world war first started? d. Britain
a.1918
b. 1914 25. Sense of Identity with the nation is known as
c.1928 a .Imperialism
d. 1924 b. Nationalism
c. Monarchy
18. When did World War I ended? d. Socialism
a. 1939
b 1945
c. 1918 26. Which county is located to Balkan Region?
d. 1920 a. France
b. England
19. Most of the imperialist countries belonged to which continent? c. Germany
a. Asia d. Greece
b. South America
c. Australia 27. North Eastern side of Europe generally known as
d. Europe. a. Turkish region
b. Kurd region
20. The early 20th c which movement was developed in European colonies c. Balkan region
a. Anti – nationalism d Alps region
b. Anti - Imperialism
c. Anti-socialism 28.From where Balkan areas states declared Independence
d. Anti -capitalism. a. Mongol empire
b. Ottoman Empire
21. Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia Bosnia, Slovenia Serbia and c. Bourbon kingdom
Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as d: Habsburg Empire
a. Arabs
b. Turks
c. Slavs
29. Who was the head of Ottoman Empire? 37. "A policy of extending country‟s power and Influence through colonization, use of military
a. King force, or other means is known as.
b. Duke а . Nationalism
c. Khalifah b. Liberalism
d. Chancellor c. Imperialism
d. Socialism
30. Balkan peoples had once been independent but had subsequently subjugated by whom?
a. Foreign powers. Answers:
b. European powers 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
c. Asian powers b b a c d a c a c b d d b c c b b c d
d South American powers. 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37
b c d a d b d c b c b d a d c d b c
31. Which one of the following country did not attend hold power in Balkan region?
a. Russia
b. Germany
c. England
d. Sweden
GEOGRAPHY
32. Which one of the following country did not pant of Balkan region?
Chapter-1
a. Spain Resources and Development
b. Bulgaria 7. What is Resource, Types of Resources, and Development of Resources.
c. Greece
d. Serbia (1) Human being interacts with Nature through ……………
(a) Resources
33. Which one of au European country did not part of European power? (b) Technology
a Russia (c) Institutions
b, Germany (d) Family members
c. England
d, Serbia (2) Who transforms material available in our environment into resources?
(a) Nature
34. After 1871 nationalist tension mounted in Europe in the area known as: (b) Wild Animals
a .Austria (c) Human Beings
b. Alps region (d) Plants
c. Balkan
d. Italia (3) What are the resources obtained from biosphere called?
(a) Renewable
35. Who led the series of wars in I'm Balkan regions. (b) Biotic
a. Asian powers (c) Abiotic
b. South American powers (d) Non renewable
c. African powers
d. European powers. (4) Which of the following can be called as abiotic resource?
(a) Forest
36. Which movements developed nationalism and formed Independent nation states? (b) Wild life
a. anti-national movement (c) Crops
b. anti- Imperial movement (d) Minerals
c. Socialist movement
d Communist movement (5) Which of the following is an individual resource?
(a) Water in a well
(b) Water in a river (b) Region
(c) Water in a sea (c) Nature
(d) Water in an ocean (d) Culture
(6) Who allotted land to farmers against the payment of revenue? (14) Which of the following is a developed resource?
(a) Nature (a) Solar energy
(b) Government (b) Wind energy
(c) God (c) Petroleum
(d) Landowners (d) Wild life
(7) Which of the following is a community owned resource? (15) Which type of resources is the subset of the stock?
(a) Forest (a) Potential
(b) Form (b) Developed
(c) Public Park (c) Reserves
(d) Plantation (d) Individual
(8) Which authorities are empowered by the government to acquire land? (16) What purpose can reserves be used?
(a) Urban development (a) Development
(b) Ministry of labour and employment (b) Future development
(c)Ministry of consumer affairs (c) Individual requirements
(d) National investigation agency (d) Public goods
(9) What is the oceanic area up to 12 nautical miles from the coast termed as……………….. (17) What does divide the society into rich and poor?
(a) Coastal Area (a) Overutilization of resources.
(b) Territorial area (b) Accumulation of resources in few hands
(c) Exclusive economic Zone (c) Indiscriminate explanation of resources
(d) International Water (d) Equitable distribution of resources
(10) How many kilometers from the coast are termed as territorial water? (18) Why is Resource planning very important in India?
(a) 12 km (a) Because India has enormous diversity in the availability of resource.
(b) 22.2 km (b) Because India is very vast country with more population.
(c) 22 km (c) Because, In India there is accumulation of resources in few hands.
(d) 12. 2 km (d) Because, India follows an equitable distribution of resources.
(11) Which of the following statement is true about the international institutions? (19) What is Rajasthan very well endowed with?
(a) They regulate international resources (a) Water resource
(b) They belong to rich countries (b) Major crops
(c) They use international resources (c) Solar energy
(d) They sell the international resources. (d) Minerals
(12) What are the resources, found in a region but have not been utilized, called? (20) Which stage of resource planning involves surveying and mapping?
(a) Potential resources (a) Identification and inventory of resources.
(b) Developed resources. (b) Evolving a planning structure
(c) Stock (c) Matching the resource development plan with natural development
(d) Reserves. (d) Utilization of resources.
(13). What does the development of resources depend on? (21) Which of the following is the reason that some countries were colonized by other?
(a) Technology (a) Because of their natural beauty
(b) Because of the rich resources (d) Quality of development
(c) For money
(d) For getting human resources 7. What as the following may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems?
Answer Keys (a) Rational consumption of resources
(b)Utilization of resources
1.b 2.c 3.b 4.d 5.a 6.b 7.c 8.a 9.b 10.b 11.a 12.a (c) Irrational consumption of resources
13.a 14.c 15.c 16.b 17.b 18.a 19.c 20.a 21.b (d) Usage of resources
8. What has been the main concern of the leaders and thinkers in the past?
(a) Resources planning
(b) Resources conservation
8. Resource Planning, Resource Planning in India, Conservation of Resources. (c) Resources utilization
(d) Resources development
1. Resource planning is a complex process which involves the following.
(a) Travelling 9. Which of the following leader was very apt in varying his concern about resource conservation?
(b) Surveying (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Audit (b) Indira Gandhi
(d) Inspection (c) Gandhi ji
(d) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
2. Evaluating planning structure should be endeared with the following?
(a) Technology 10. According to Gandhiji, what is the root cause for resource depletion at a global level?
(b) Infrastructure (a) Modern technology
(c) Blue Print (b) Modern Infrastructure
(d) Planning (c) Modern development
(d) Modern Lifestyle
3. Which of the following states face acute shortage at same vital resources in India?
(a) Maharashtra (11) Identification and inventory of resources are the part of which of the following process?
(b) Punjab (a) The process of resources conservation.
(c) Rajasthan (b) The process of resources planning
(d) Kerala (c) The process of development
(d) The process of enhancing technology
4. Which of the following state is known as resource rich but economically backward?
(a) Jharkhand 12. Which of the following state is rich in minerals and coal deposits?
(b) Maharashtra a) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Gujarat c) Maharashtra
d) Kerala
5. What was the main attraction for the foreign invaders during colonial period?
(a) Development 13. The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with, which kind of energy?
(b) Resources a) Tidal energy
(c) Princely States b) Wind energy
(d) Technology c) Geothermal energy
d) Biomass energy
6. Resources and development in India not only in general are referred to as resource development,
but also ……………. 14. What out of the following is the objective of the resource planning?
(a)Quality of skill a) To maintain balance of resources.
(b) Quality of growth b) To utilize resources
(c) Quality of human resources c) To enhance existing technology
d) To conserve resources 9. Land Resources, Land Utilization, Land Use Pattern in India, Land
Degradation and Conservation.
15. Resources planning is the essential for existence of the all form of life.
a) Ecological balance
1. What is the percentage of plain land in India?
b) Sustainable
a) 43
c) Exploitation
b) 30
d) Eradicating
c) 27
Assertion and Reason d) 33
16. Assertion: Some states of India are economically weak but are rich in resources 2. How much percentage do mountains account for?
Reason: The state of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh are rich in mineral and coal deposits but lack in a) 37
infrastructure and development. b) 27
Options: c) 30
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation as assertion. d) 43
b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason not correct explanation of assertion
c) Assertion is true but reason is false. 3. What is the total area as the plateau region?
d) Assertion is false but reason is true. a) 57
b) 32
17. Assertion: Consumption of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems. c) 43
Reason: Over use of resources will lead to destruction of forests and raw materials we get from d) 27
nature and eventually will lead to affectively wildlife.
Options: 4. Which among the following relief features facilitate agriculture?
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation as assertion. a) Islands
b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason not correct explanation of assertion b) Plains
c) Assertion is true but reason is false. c) Mountains
d) Assertion is false but reason is true. d) Plateaus
18. Assertion: Resource planning is an easy process in India 5. Which among the following relief features facilitates tourism and ecological aspect?
Reason: Resources planning is not an easy but very complicated process in India. a) Mountains
Options: b) Plains
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation as assertion. c) Plateaus
b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason not correct explanation of assertion d) Islands
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but reason is true. 6. Where do you find the possessions of reserves of minerals, fossil fuels and forests?
a) Islands
19. Assertion: Resources can be contributed to the development only when they are accompanied by b) Mountains
appropriate technological and institutional changes. c) Plateaus
Reason: Technology can help to create resources. d) Plains
Options:
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation as assertion. 7. What is the land called which is not available for cultivation?
b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason not correct explanation of assertion a) Fallow land
c) Assertion is true but reason is false. b) Cultivable waste land
d) Assertion is false but reason is true. c) Current Fallow land
Answers d) Barren and waste land
1b 2a 3c 4a 5b 6c 7c 8b 9c 10a 11b 12b

13b 14a 15b 16a 17a 18d 19c

8. What is the total geographical area of India? c. A is true and R is also true
a. 2.38 million sq.km d. A is true but R is not correct explanation of A
b. 3.28 million sq.km
c. 3.28 billion sq.km 16. Assertion: Most of the other than current follow lands are either of good quality or the cost of
d. 8.32 million sq.km cultivation is very low.
Reason: These lands are cultivated more than once in a year.
9. In which among the following areas, the land use reporting has not been done fully? a. A is true but R is false
a. Assam b. Both A and R are false
b. Eastern states c. A is false but R is true
c. North states d. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
d. North-East states
17. Assertion: The pattern of net sown area varies greatly from one state to another.
10. What is the percentage of land use of the total geographical area in India? Reason: This is due to the different relief feature of land.
a. 39 a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b. 44 b. A is true but R is false
c. 93 c. A is false but R is true
d. 33 d. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A.
11. What is the percentage of net sown area in Punjab and Haryana? 18. Assertion: -Waste land put to other non-agricultural uses
a.80% Reason: - It can be utilized for settlement, roads, railways, industries etc.
b.50% a. Both A and R are false
c.93% b. A is true but R is false
d.85% c. A is false but R is true
d. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
12. Which among the following states have the net sown area less than 10%?
a. Bihar 19. Assertion: Land degradation has been observed more in past many years
b. Arunachal Pradesh Reason: This is due to the continuous use of land over a period of time without taking appropriate
c. Andhra Pradesh measures to conserve and manage it.
d. Himachal Pradesh a. A is true but R is false
b. A is false but R is true
13. What was the desired percentage of forest area? c. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
a. 10% d. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A
b. 23%
c. 43% 20. Assertion: Human activities have brought about degradation of land
d. 33% Reason: Humans have shown their various skills to achieve this
a. A is true but R is false
14. Assertion: Forest of country is far lower than the desired 33% of geographical area. b. A is false but R is true
Reason: It is considered essential for maintenance of the ecological balance. c. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A
Options: d. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is the wrong explanation of A 21. How much degraded land is in India?
c. A and R is not true a. 110 million hectors
d. A is not true R is true. b. 130 million hectors
c. 120 million hectors
15. Assertion: The land under permanent pasture has also decreased. d. 150 million hectors
Reason: This is due to the increase in forest area
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. A is not true but R is correct
22. Assertion: Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha have been more deforested c. A is false but R is true
Reason: This is due to mining which has cause severe land degradation. d. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A
a. A is false but R is true
b. A is true but R is false 29. Land degradation is a process in which the value of the biophysical environment is affected by a
c. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A combination of human induced process acting upon the land.
d. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A a. true b. false
23. Assertion: Over irrigation is responsible for land degradation in the states like Gujarat, 30. Which among the following is the method for reducing fallow land?
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra a. Use fertilizers
Reason: More utilization of both land and waste for high production. b. Use HYV seeds
a. A is true but R is false c. Leave the land without cultivation
b. Both A and R are wrong and R is not correct explanation of A d. Irrigation system
c. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true 31. What is gross cropped area?
24. Assertion: - In recent years, industrial effluents as waste have become a major source of land a. net sown area
and water pollution b. Area sown less than once in an agricultural year
Reason: The land is not under cultivation and water bodies are not used for irrigating the fields. c. Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus not sown area
a. A is true but R is false d. Cultivable land
b. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
c. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A 32. Assertion: Human activities have degraded the land
d. A is false but R is true. Reason: 95% of our basic needs are obtained from land
a. A is false but R is true
25. Assertion: - Over irrigation in Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh is responsible for land b. A is true but R is false
degradation. c. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A
Reason: Land degradation in these places is due to water logging which leads to increase in salinity d. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
and alkalinity in the soil.
a. A is false but R is true 33. Assertion: Along with other north-east states, some areas of Jammu and Kashmir have also not
b. A is true but R is false been surveyed
c. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A Reason: As most of the area is occupied by Pakistan and China
d. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is wrong explanation of A
b. A is true but R is false
26. In which among the following areas the planting of shelter belts of plants, control over grazing, c. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
stabilization of sand dunes laid growing thorny brushes are some methods to check land degradation. d. A is false but R is true
a. forests
b. arid areas
c. waste lands
d. suburban areas. Answers
27. What has affected the area other than 56% of water eroded area? 1.a 2.c 3.d 4.b 5.a 6.c 7.d 8.b 9.d 10.c 11.a 12.b
a. Quarrying 13.d 14.a 15.d 16.b 17.a 18.d 19.c 20.a 21.b 22.d 23.b 24.a
b. Mining 25.c 26.b 27.d 28.a 29.a 30.a 31.c 32.d 33.c
c. Deforestation
d. Saline and alkaline deposits
28. Assertion: It is important to use the available land for various purposes with careful planning.
Reason: Land is an asset of finite magnitude
a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b. A is true but R is false
10. Soil as a Resource, Classification of Soils, Soil Erosion and Conservation. 12. Bangar is also known as………
(GEO) a. new alluvial soil b old alluvial soil
c. black soil d. red soil
1. Most important renewable resource, which is medium of plant growth,
13. Alluvial soil is ideal for the growth of……..
a) Metal b) fossil fuels
a. tea b. coffee
c) Soil d) Copper
c. sugarcane d. coconut
2. How many years it takes to form soil up to a few cm in depth?
14. Black soil is also known as---------------
a) 10 years b) 75 Years
a. Regur soil b. Alluvial soil
c) 100 Years d) Millions of years
c. Khadar soils d. Bangar soil
3. The important factor in the formation of a soil is…….
15. Which of the following rock is important factor for the formation of black soil?
a) Minerals b) nutrients
a. sedimentary soil b. igneous rock
c) Soil texture d) vegetation
c. parent rock material d. metamorphic rock
4. Soil is formed by the process of……..
16. Which of the following area is covered by black soil?
a) Denudation b) gradation
a. Madhya Pradesh b. Punjab
c) Erosion d) weathering
c. Goa d. Assam
5. Soil formed by intense leaching is…….
17. Which of the following is not covered by black soil?
a) Alluvial b) Red soil
a. Chhattisgarh b. Malwa
c) Laterite soil d) Desert soil
c. Maharashtra d. Punjab
6. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation?
18. Black soil is generally poor in following content…….
a) Intensive cultivation b) over irrigation
a. Calcium b. Carbonate
c) Deforestation d) overgrazing
c. phosphor d. magnesium
7. In which one of the following States is terrace cultivation practiced?
19. Which soil develop deep crack?
a) Punjab b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
a. Red soil b. Yellow soil
c) Haryana d) Uttarakhand
c. Black Soil d. Loam Soil
8. In which of the following state is black soil found?
a. Jammu & Kashmir b. Gujarat
20. Yellow and Red soil are found in the following part………..
c. Rajasthan d. Jharkhand
a. Jammu and Kashmir b. Odisha and Chhattisgarh
c. Jharkhand and Bihar d. Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
9. The old alluvial soil is known as……
a. Bangar b. Bhabar
21. What does mean by Latin word later?
c. Khadar d. Regur
a. Soil b. Rock
c. Sand d. Brick
10. Which one of the following methods is ideal for controlling land degradation in coastal areas and
in deserts?
22. Laterite soil is generally deficient in……….
a. strip cropping b. counter ploughing
a. plant nutrients b. phosphoric contents
c. plants of the shelter belts d. plugging of gullies
c. magnesium d. calcium
11. The area brought under cultivation in a year is called…….
23. Red laterite soil is useful for the growth of which crop in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and
a. fallow land b. net sown area
Kerala.
c. Cultivable wasteland d. gross sown area
A. groundnuts b. peanuts
c. cashew nut d. pulses.
Chapter-2
24. Due to what reason arid soil lacks humus?
a. wet climate b. low temperature
Agriculture
c. humid conditions d. high temperature. 11. Types of Farming, Cropping Pattern
1. Choose the correctly matched pair about the primitive cultivation in India from the following
25. In which area forest soil experiences denudation? a. Dahia- Andra Pradesh
a. In the snow-covered areas of Himalaya‟s b. Kumari- Jharkhand
b. In the sand covered areas of Rajasthan c. Khil- Andra Pradesh
c. Black soil covered areas of Madhya Pradesh d. Koman- Madhya Pradesh
d. In Red Laterite soils covered areas of Tamil Nadu.
2. A type of millet rich in iron, calcium , other micro nutrients and roughage is----------
26. The process of soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally, there is a balance a. Bajra
between the two but sometime this balance is disturbed due to ……… b. Rajma
a. human activities b. afforestation c. Jowar
c. Developing gardens d. doing agriculture. d. Ragi
27. In which of the following state mining has caused severe land degradation……………. 3. Read the source given below and answer the following questions :
a. Jharkhand b. Maharashtra Millet: Jowar, Bajra and ragi are the important millets grown in India . Though, these are
c. Karnataka d. Uttar Pradesh known as coarse grains , they have very high nutrients value . For example, ragi is very rich
in iron, calcium other micro nutrients and roughage . Jower is the third most important food
28 Shelter belts means……..
crop with respect to area and production. It is rain fed crops mostly grown in the moist areas
a. planning lines of trees b. strip cropping
c. breaks up wind force d. counter ploughing. which hardly needs irrigation. Major Jowar producing states are Maharashtra, Karnataka,
Andra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Q.29 Bad land means……….. Answer the following MCQ’s by choosing the most appropriate option.
a. The land becomes fit for cultivation 3.1 Jawar, …………and ragine are important millets grown in India.
b. The land becomes unfit for cultivation a) Bajra
c. Land become fit for growing forest b) Wheat
d. Land becomes fit for agriculture. c) Bariey
d) Maize
3.2 Which of the following millets is very rich in iron, calcium other micro nutrients
and roughage?
a) Bajra
Answer Keys b) Jowar
1. c 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. d 7. d 8.b 9. a 10. c c) Ragi
11. c 12. b 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. b d) Maize
21. d 22. a 23. c 24. d 25. a 26. a 27.a 28. a 29. a 3.3 Which of the following states is the largest producer of Jowar?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Karnataka
d) Maharashtra
3.4 Jowar is the ………….most important food crop with respect to area and
production
a) First
b) Second
c) Third

d) Fourth d. Sunflower, groundnut, sesame and linseed
4. Which of the following states is the largest producer of maize? 11. Which of the following are plantation crops?
a. Telangana a. Rice and maize
b. Uttar Pradesh b. Wheat and pulses
c. Andhra Pradesh c. Tea, coffee, banana and sugarcane
d. Karnataka d. Pulses and oilseeds
5. How much temperature is required for maize?
a. 210 C to 270 C 12. The three major cropping seasons of India are…………
b. 220C to 280C a. Aus, Aman, Boro
c. 180 C to 220C b. Rabi, Kharif, and Zaid
d. 250C to 300C c. Baisakh, Paus and chait
d. None of the above.
6. In the question below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Read the
statement and choose the correct option. 13. The main food crop of Kharif season is:
Assertion (A): The cultivation of rice is a primary activity. a. Mustard
Reason (R): When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the b. Pulses
primary sector. c. Rice
Options: d. Wheat
a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A 14. The main food crop of Rabi season is………..
b. Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A a. Wheat
c. A is correct but R is wrong b. Rice
d. A is wrong but R is correct. c. Jowar
d. Maize
7. The main characteristics of commercial farming is……….
a. It is practise 15. Rabi crops are……
b. d with the help of primitive tools a. Sown in winter and harvested in summer
c. Use of higher doses of modern inputs b. Sown during rainy season and harvested in winter
d. It depends on monsoon rainfall c. Sown in summer and harvested in winter
e. It is practised with the family/community labour. d. None of these
16. Kharif crops are grown ………….

8. The main factor that plays an important role in the development of plantation is…….. a. With the onset of monsoon and harvested in September- October
a. Adequate and cheap labour b. With the onset of winter and harvested in summer.
b. Well-developed network of transport and communication. c. With the onset of Autumn and harvested in summer
c. High doses of biochemical inputs and irrigations d. None of these
d. Availability of port facilities.
17. A short season between the Rabi and Kharif season is known as……
9. Land productivity in primitive subsistence farming is low due to……… a. Aus
a. Absence of fertilized and modern inputs b. Baro
b. Small land holdings c. Zaid
c. Infertile soil d. None of these
d. Unfavourable climatic conditions
18. Important non-food crops of the country are………….
10. Some of the important Rabi crops are ……….. a. Tea and coffee
a. Paddy , maize, jowar, bajra and moong b. Millets and pulses
b. Wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard c. Cotton and jute
c. Watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber and sugarcane d. None of these
27. What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?
19. Which is the main food of the eastern and southern part of the country? a. 21
a. Rice b. 12
b. Wheat c. 2
c. Maize d. 4
d. Sugarcane
28. Coffee cultivation was first introduced in……….
20. The two main wheat Growing regions are………. a. Himalaya b. Aravali hills
a. The Ganga-Sutlej plains and the Deccan trap. c. Garo Hills d. Babu Budan Hills
b. North –eastern part and eastern coastal plains
c. Deccan plateau and Western coast
d. None of these
21. Wheat requires annual rainfall between……… 29. Cultivation of fruits and vegetables is called
a. 50 and 75 cm a. Floriculture b. Sericulture
b. About 200cm c. Horticulture d. Agriculture
c. 200 and 300 cm
d. Less than 20cm 30. Which of the following describes a system of agriculture, where a single crop is grown on a large
22. Which state is the largest producer of Bajra? area?
a. Rajasthan a. Shifting agriculture b. Plantation agriculture
b. Maharashtra c. Intensive agriculture d. Horticulture
c. Gujarat
d. Haryana 31. Which one of the following is not a cropping season?
a. Winter b. Kharif
23. Which of the right condition for the growth of maize? c. Rabi d. Zaid
a. Temperature between 21 to 270C and old alluvial soil
b. Temperature between 170C and shallow black soil 32. Which of the following crop is known as Golden Fibre?
c. Temperature of 25 and 200cm of rainfall a. Wheat b. Rice
d. None of the above c. Groundnut d. Jute
24. Which of the following crops is a major source of Protein in a vegetation diet? 33. Which of the following crop grow well in the Black soil?
a. Wheat a. Jute b. Rice
b. rice c. Cotton d. Wheat
c. pulses
d. oilseeds. 34. Which country is the largest producer of oilseed in the world?
a. China b. India
25. Which of the following is not true for pulses? c. USA d. Pakistan
a. Pulses are given in both Rabi and Kharif season
b. Pulses are leguminous crops 35. What is the rearing of silkworms for the production of silk called?
c. They are grown in rotation with other crops a. Horticulture b. pisciculture
d. Pulses require intense irrigation facilities. c. Sericulture d. Agriculture
26. Which of the ideal condition for the growth of sugarcane? 36. Which of the following groups of crops are known as beverage crops?
a. Temperature of 210c to 270c and on annual rainfall between 75cm and 100cm a. Castor seed and sunflower
b. Temperature below 170c and 50 to 75cm rainfall b. Peas and gram
c. Temperature of 250c and 200cm of rainfall c. Cotton and jute
d. None of these. d. Tea and coffee

37. India is believed to be the original home of which type of the following fibre crops…………
a. Cotton 12. Major Crops.
b. Jute Read the paragraph and answer the following:
c. Hemp India is the largest producer as well as consumer of pulses in the world. These are the
d. Silk major sources of protein in a vegetarian diet.
38. Arabica variety of coffee was initially brought to India from which of the following countries?
a. Yemen (1) What are pulses also called as?
b. Vietnam (a) Rabi crops (b) Leguminous crop
c. Japan (c) Oil seed crops (d) Cash crop
d. Korea
(2) What climatic condition is required to grow pulses?
39. What is primitive subsistence farming known as in north eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, (a) Frost free climate
Mizoram and Nagaland? (b) Humid climate
a. Horticulture (c) Less moisture and even dry condition
b. Penda (d) Heavy rainfall
c. Jhumming
d. Milpa (3) Which nutrient is present in pulses?
(a) Vitamin
40. Which of the following is practiced in areas with high population pressure on land? (b) Protein
a. Primitive subsistence farming (c) Carbohydrates
b. Intensive subsistence farming (d) Fats
c. Commercial farming
d. Plantations (4) Which crop is used as raw material in automobile industry?
(a) Jute (b) rubber
41. Which one of the following is an annual crop? (c) Sugar cane (d) Cotton
a. Sugarcane b. Cotton
b. Jute d. Cucumber (5) In which season fodder crops grow.
(a) Zaid season (b) Rabi Season
42. Which of the following are known as coarse grains? (c) Kharif Season (d) Monsoon Season
a. Wheat and Rice
b. Millets – Jowar, Bajra and Regi (6) How many cropping seasons does India have?
c. Pulses – Urad, arhar, gram (a) 1 (b) 3
d. Oilseeds (c) 5 (d) 7
43. Which one of the following was the main focus of our first five year plan? (7) Which of the following crops are grown with the onset of monsoon and are harvested in the
a. Cost of food grains month of September-October?
b. Land reforms (a) Rice (b) Wheat
c. Industrialization (c) Barely (d) Peas
d. Globalization
(8) Which of the following are plantation crops?
(a) Rice & Maize (b) tea & Coffee
(c) Wheat pulses (d) Ragi & Jowar
Answer Keys
1. a 2. d 3.1 .a 3.2 . c 3.3 d 3.3- d 3.4- c 4. c 5. d 6. a (9) What are the favourable to grow Maize?
7. a 8. a 9.a 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. c 15. b 16. c (a) Temperature between 210 C to 270 C and old alluvial soil
17. a 18. a 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. a 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. b (b) Temperature below 170 C and shallow black soil.
27. c 28. d 29. c 30. b 31. a 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. c 36. d (c) Temperature above 320 and loamy soil
37. a 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. b
(d) Humid temperature and black soil. (a) Due to less production (b) Due to low quality
(c) Due to its high cost (d) Due to its less demand
(10) What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (22) Which fibre is obtained from animal?
(c) 12 (d) 21 (a) Jute (b) Silk
(c) Cotton (d) Rubber
(11) Where was coffee cultivation was introduced in India?
(a) Garo Hills (b) Budhan Hills (23) What is the production of silk fibre known as?
(c) Himalayas (d) Aravali Hills (a) Sericulture (b) Silk culture
(c) Vermin Culture (d) Fibre culture
(12) Which of the following is a food crop?
(a) Cotton (b) Jute (24) In which season the Rabi crops are harvested?
(c) Wheat (d) Sugar cane (a) Winter (b) Summer
(c) Autumn (d) spring
(13) What type of soil is required to grow Maize?
(a) Black soil (b) Old alluvial soil (25) How rice is grown is less rainfall area?
(c) Red Soil (d) Laterite soil (a) It grows with help of irrigation
(b) It grows with help of well drainage
(14) Which is largest producer of sugar cane in world? (c) With the help of temperature control
(a)India (b) China (d) It grows with help of use of high fertilizers
(c) Brazil (d) Pakistan
(26) In which season fodder crops grow.
(15) What type of crop is rice? (a) Zaid season (b) Rabi Season
(a) Rabi crop (b) Kharif crop (c) Kharif Season (d) Monsoon Season
(c) Oil seed crop (d) Zaid crop
(27) How many cropping seasons does India have?
(a) 1 (b) 3
(16) Which is the leading producer of Jowar? (c) 5 (d) 7
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Maharashtra
(c) Assam (d) Rajasthan (28) Which of the following crops are grown with the onset of monsoon and are harvested in the
month of September-October?
(17) Which of the following are known as coarse grains? (a) Rice (b) Wheat
(a) Jowar and bajra (b) Wheat-Jowar (c) Barely (d) Peas
(c)Jute – rubber (d) rice – maize
(29).Which of the following are plantation crops?
(18) In which favourable temperature do rice grow? (a) Rice & Maize
(a) 21 – 250 C (b) 22 – 320 C (high humidity) (b) Tea & Coffee
(c) 32 – 400 C (d) 22 – 320 C (Low humidity) (c) Wheat pulses
(d) Ragi & Jowar
(19) Which crops helps in fixing of nitrogen from the air?
(a) Rabi crops (b) Kharif Crops (30) What are the favourable to grow Maize?
(c) Leguminous Crops (d) Cash Crops (a) Temperature between 210 C to 270 C and old alluvial soil
(b) Temperature below 170 C and shallow black soil.
(20) Which crop is also known as golden fibre? (c) Temperature above 320 and loamy soil
(a) Cotton (b) jute (d) Humid temperature and black soil.
(c) Silk (d) Nylon
(21) Why jute is losing market?

(31) What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds? (i) What are pulses also called as?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (a) Rabi crops (b) Leguminous crop
(c) 12 (d) 21 (c) Oil seed crops (d) Cash crop
(32) Where was coffee cultivation introduced in India? (ii) What climatic condition is required to grow pulses?
(a) Garo Hills (b) Buden Hills (a) Frost free climate
(c) Himalayas (d) Aravali Hills (b) Humid climate
(c) Less moisture and even dry condition
(33) Which crop is used as raw material in automobile industry? (d) Heavy rainfall
(a) Jute (b) rubber
(c) Sugar cane (d) Cotton (iii) Which nutrient is present in pulses?
(a) Vitamin (b) Protein
34. Who among the following as a spiritual heir of Mahatma Gandhi? (c) Carbohydrates (d) Fats
a) Indira Gandhi
b) Lokmanya Tilak. Answer Keys
c) Vinoba Bhave. 1. b 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. c
d) Pandit Nehru 11. b 12.c 13. b 14. c 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. b
21.c 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. a 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. a
35 In which state the place Pochampalli is located? 31. c 32. b 33. b 34.c 35.d 36.c 37.a 38.d 39.i. b 39.ii. c
a) Karnataka 3.iii. b
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh
13. Technological and Institutional Reforms, Contribution of Agriculture to
36) What is BPL? Economy, Impact of Globalization on Agriculture.
a) Behind poverty line 1. What was the most important focus of First Five Year Plan in India?
b) Before poverty line a) Green Revolution
c) Below poverty line b) White Revolution
d) Beneath poverty line
c) Land Reform
37) What has led to reduction in area under irrigation? d) Sustainable development
a) Periodic scarcity of water
b) Continuous scarcity of water. 2. What is another name used to White Revolution?
c) Heavy rainfall a) Operation Flood
d) No rainfall. b) Milk Revolution
c) Green Revolution
38) What has led to water logging and salinity?
d) Construction of dam.
a) Proper water management
b) Excessive use of water.
c) Efficient water management 3. A comprehensive land reform programme was initiated by government of India in the following
d) Inefficient use & water management decade:
a) 1960-1970
(39)Read the paragraph and answer the following: b) 1970-1980
India is the largest producer as well as consumer of pulses in the world. These are the major
c) 1980-1990
sources of protein in a vegetarian diet.
d) 1990-2000

4. Find out the correct one which is introduced to help the poor farmers of India. 11. Who introduced Bhoodan- Gramdan movement in India?
a) Debit card a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b) Credit card b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) KCC c) Acharya Vinobha Bhave
d) NAC d) Periyar Ramaswami Naikar
5. Mention the name of insurance scheme introduced for poor farmers of In India. 12. What is the other name in which Bhoodan-Gramdan movement is famous for?
a) JEEVAN BHEEMA a) Bloodless Revolution
b) JEEVAN MITRA b) Bloodshed Revolution
c) PAIS c) Glorious Revolution
d) KISSAN CREDIT CARD d) Spiritual Revolution
6. Name the scientist who is considered as the father of Green Revolution. 13. Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop?
a) V. J.Kurian (a) Maximum support price
b) M.S. Swaminathan (b) Minimum support price
(c) Moderate support price
c) Dr. Amartya Sen
(d) Influential support price
d) Acharya Vinobha Bhave
14. Which of the following crop had very much demand in foreign markets even centuries past?
7. Who introduced White Revolution in India? a) Coriander
a) M.S . Swaminadhan b) Spices
b) Dadabai Navaroji c) Mustard
c) V.J. Kurian d) Pulses
d) K.C. Panth
15. Which of the following city was famous for cotton textile industries?
8. Name the famous concept of Gandhiji propagated by Vinoba Bhave. a) New York
a) Rama Rajya b) Manchester
b) Satyagraha c) Aurangabad
c) Fast unto death d) Masulipatnam
d) Grama Swrajya
16. Champaran Satyagraha was associated which of the following crop.
9. Who was the spiritual heir of Mahatma Gandhi after his martyrdom? a) Tobacco
a) Sardar Patel b) Cotton
b) Jawaharlal Nehru c) Indigo
c) Vinoba Bhave d) Wheat
d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
17. India had opened its doors for globalization in the following period.
10. ……….. was the great person who first gifted his land Vinobha Bhave. a) After 1990
a) Ramanujan b) Before1990
b) Zakir Hussain c) Before 1947
c) Dr. Ramakrishna Naidu d) After 2000
d) Sri Ramachandra Reddy

18. The genetic engineering is also called as…….
a) Blue Revolution
b) White Revolution
c) Gene Revolution POLITICAL SCIENCE
d) Genocide
Chapter-1
19. What is recognized as a powerful supplement in inventing new hybrid varieties of seeds? Power Sharing
a) Horticulture 14. Belgium and Sri Lanka, Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka.
b) Sericulture
c) Viticulture
1) The principle of majoritarianism- led to civil war in -
d) Genetic engineering a) Srilanka
b) Georgia
20. Find out the name of the plant can be used for making bio-diesel. c) Belgium
a) Hibiscus d) Ukraine
b) Mulberry
c) Jojoba 2) Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called as
a) Sri lankan Tamils
d) Marijuana b) Indian Tamils
Answers Keys c) Tamils
d) Muslim Tamil
1-c 6-b 11-c 16-c
2-a 7-c 12-a 17-a
3) Which language was recognized as the official language after Independence of Sri Lanka?
3-c 8-d 13-b 18-c
a) Tamil
4-c 9-c 14-b 19-d b) Hindi
5-c 10-d 15-b 20-c c) Sinhala
d) Telugu
4) Identify the major social group that constituted the largest share in the population of Sri Lanka
a) SrilankanTamils
b) Indian Tamils
c) Muslims
d) Sinhalas
5) The major Social groups of Sri Lanka are

a) Sinhala speaker 74% Tamil speaker 18%
b) Sinhala speaker 75%Tamil Speaker 20%
c) Sinhala speaker 78% Tamil speaker 21%
d) Sinhala speaker 79% Tamil speaker 22%
6) An act was passed in Shrilanka that recognized SINHALA as the only official in______
a)1954
b)1955
c) 1956
d)1957
7) What does Tamil Eelam Mean?

a) Tamil state d) Hindu
b) Tamil government
c) Tamil nation 15) Which community was relatively rich and powerful in Belgium?
d) Tami court a) French
b) Dutch
8) A belief that the majority community should be able to rule county in whichever way they want, c) Sinhala
by disregarding the wishes. and needs of minority is known as________ d) Muslim
a) Majoritarianism
b) Federal government 16) Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka
c) Community government a) In Belgium the Dutch speaking majority people tried to impose the domination on the minority
d) Prudential government French speaking community
b) In Sri Lanka the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala
9) What measure was adopted by the democratically elected government of Srilanka to establish speaking majority.
Sinhala supremacy? c) The Tamils of the Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their
culture, language end equality of opportunity education and jobs
a) Constitutional Reforms D) The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a possible
b) Monarchy rule division of the County on linguistic lines.
c) Majoritarian measure Which statements given above are correct?
d) Community Government a) A B C and D
b) A, B, and C
10) Which language was recognized as the Official language after independence in Sri lanka? c) C and D
a)Tamil d) B, C, and D
b) Tundi
c) Sinhala
d) Telugu
11) What is the linguistic composition of Belgium?

Answer Key
a) 59% Speaks French, 1^% speaks German , 40% speaks Dutch
b) 59% speaks Dutch, 40% speaks French and 1% speaks German 1.A 2.A 3.C 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.A 9.C 10.C
c) 50% speaks Dutch, 49% speaks French, and 1% speaks German 11.B 12.B 13.C 14.B 15.A 16 D
d) 70% speaks Dutch , 25% speaks French and 5% speaks German..
12) Which of the following does not border Belgium?

a) Germany 15. Accommodation in Belgium, Why Power Sharing is Desirable?
b) Ireland
c) France 1. The Community Government signifies:
d) Netherland (a) The powers of government regarding community development.
(b) The powers of the government regarding law making for the community.
13) Which are the two major ethnic groups of Belgium?
(c) The powers of the government regarding cultural, educational and language related issues
a) Dutch and German
(d) The powers of government regarding capital city.
b) French and German
c) Dutch and French
d) None of these. 2. Power sharing is:
(a) The very spirit of democracy
14) The constitution or Sri Lanka protect and foster (b) Separation of powers at different levels.
a) Christian (c) System of checks and balances.
b) Buddhism (d) a type of balancing powers.
c) Muslim
9. When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, was chosen as
its headquarters.
3. Choose the correct option: A. New York
Power sharing is desirable because it helps: B. Amsterdam
(a) to increase pressure on government. C. London
(b) to reduce possibilities of conflicts. D. Brussels
(c) to generate awareness among people.
(d) to increase percentage of voters. 10. In Belgium, the leaders have realised that the unity of the country is possible only by :
A. Rule of majority community
B. Respecting the feelings and interests of different communities and regions.
4. Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the facts that: C. Respecting the feelings and interests of majority communities.
A. It ensures the stability of political order. D. Dividing the country in language wise.
B. It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.
C. It gives a fair share to minority. 11. Which will undermine the unity of the nation in long run?
D. It is the very spirit of democracy. A. Power sharing in the country.
Which of the above statements are correct? B. Imposing the will of majority community over others
(a) A, B (b) A, C and D (c) All are correct (d) A, B & C C. Accommodation of social diversities.
D. Decentralisation of power.
5. How many times Belgium had amended their constitution?
A. Three times 12. The prudential reasons stress that power sharing will bring out …….
B. Four times A. Political instability
C. Only for one time B. Conflicts and violence
D. Two times C. better outcomes
D. Better understanding.
6. Between which years Belgium had amended its constitution?
A. 1970 and 1993 13. Identify the correct statement related to the Belgium model of power sharing.
B. 1973 and 1993 A. Any single community can make decisions unilaterally.
C. 1960 and 1970 B. The Dutch speaking people accepted equal representation for French in Brussels
D. 1975 and 1995 C. Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments.
D. The central government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-
7. Which is the wrong statement related to Belgium Model of power sharing? related issues.
A. the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central
government 14. Which can undermine the unity of the country:
B. Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal A. respecting the feelings and interests of different communities and regions
representation. B. mutually acceptable arrangements for sharing power
C. Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of government- C. Central government shares power with states.
„community government. D. if a majority community wants to force its dominance over others and refuses to share
D. The state governments are subordinate to the Central Government. power
8. Who has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues in Belgium? 15. Moral reasons emphasise the very act of power sharing as ……..
A. Central government A. creating better outcomes
B. State government B. Valuable
C. Community government C. Time consuming
D. European Union D. Valueless

Answer Keys (8). Assertion: Power sharing is good for democracy.
Reason: It helps to reduce conflict between social groups
1. c 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. d 10. b (a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
11. b 12. c 13. c 14.d 15. b (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c). A is correct but R is wrong
(d). A is wrong but R is true.
16. Forms of Power Sharing. (9). Assertion: In India we have reserved constituencies in assemblies and the parliament of our
country.
(1). Which of the following is an example of horizontal sharing of power? Reason: Because India follows community government as in Belgium
(a). Power sharing between different states. (a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b). Power sharing between different organs of the government. (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c). Power sharing between different levels of the government (c). A is correct but R is wrong
(d). Power sharing between different political parties (d). A is wrong but R is true.
(2). Division of powers between higher and lower levels of government is called. 10) Assertion - in a democracy we find interest groups such as traders, businessmen, industrialist,
(a). Horizontal distribution (b). Parallel distribution workers who also will have a share in government
(c). Vertical division (d). Diagonal division
Reason - Because power sharing arrangements can also be to seen in the way political parties,
(3). Which one of the following is the 3rd tier of government in India? pressure groups control or influence those in Power.
(a). Panchayati Raj Government (b). State government
(c). Community Government (d). National Government
a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4). Which one of the following organs of the government keeps a check on the functioning of b) A is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
executive or legislatives? c) A is true but R is false
(a). Legislatives d) A is false but R is true
(b). Executives
(c). Parliament 11) Assertion: In the longer run, Power is shared among different political parties that represent
(d). Judiciary Reason: Because Power should be concentrated in The hands few
(5). Community government in Belgium is a good example of which form of power sharing a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
arrangements. b) A is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(a). Vertical division of power c) A is true but R is false
(b). Power sharing among different social groups d) A is false but R is true
(c). Horizontal division of power
(d). Power sharing among political parties, pressure groups & movements. 12) Read the given extract and the following and questions.
The idea of Power sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions undivided political power. For a
(6). In India power sharing mechanism does not involve directly to ____ long time it was believed that all power of a government must reside in one person or group of
(a). Legislative (b). Judiciary (c). Industry (d). Executive persons located at one place. It was felt that if the power to decide is dispersed, it would not to be
possible take quick decisions and to enforce them. But these notions have changed with the
(7). Which of the following is not one of the three organs of government powers are shared? emergence of democracy. One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all
(a). Legislative political power. In a democracy people rule themselves through institutions of self-government.in a
(b). Bureaucracy good democratic government, power. In a democracy, people rule In a good democratic government,
(c). Executive due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society Everyone has a Voice in the
(d). Judiciary shaping of policies Therefore it follows that in a political power should be distributed among many
citizens as possible.

Answers the following by choosing the correct option:
1) The basic principle of democracy is Chapter-2
a) People are the source of Political power
b) None can exercise unlimited Power
Federalism
c) Power of a government reside in one person 17. What is Federalism? Features of Federalism, Types of Federations.
d) To reduce conflict between social groups.
Q.1 Which of the following is NOT a feature of federalism?
a) There are two or more levels of government
b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens
2) Which one of the following is a prudential reason for power sharing?
c) Sources of revenue for each revel of government are clearly specified.
a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between communities and ensures the stability of political d) The central government can order the state government.
order
b) It pause the way for conflict and differences in opinion among social groups. Q.2 Which of the following country is an example of coming together federation"?
c) Due to power sharing power will be concentrated in few hands a) USA
d) It provides opportunities to a single majority group to rule b) India
c) Spain
3) Which of the following option describes good democratic system? d) Belgium
a) Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies
b) Power to take quick decision and to enforce them Q.3 Which government has two or more levels?
c) All powers reside in the hands of a Single person a) Unitary government
b) Federal government
d) Power is shared among few groups only
c) central
d) State government
4) Which of the following statement is true as good democratic govt. is Concerned?
a) Due respect is not given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society Q.4 Which of the following country is an example of „Holding together federation‟?
b) Only few social groups are given Considerations a) USA
c) political parties are given importance b) Australia
d) Due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society c) India
d) Switzerland
(13). Which of the following is not an element of vertical power sharing? Q.5 Which among the following are examples of „coming together federations‟?
(a). Power sharing between different levels of government a) Belgium and Sri Lanka
b) India, Spain and Belgium
(b). Supervision of higher organ over lower organ
c) India, USA and Spain
(c). Sharing of power between government and opposition d) USA, Australia and Switzerland.
(d). Sharing of power central and provisional government
Q.6 which among the following are examples of „Holding together federation‟?
(14). Name the third level of government in Belgium? a) India, Spain and Australia
(a). Federal Government (b). Democratic Government b) India, Spain and Belgium
(c). Community Government (d). Central Government c) USA, Australia and Switzerland
d)USA, Spain and Belgium
Q.7 Belgium shirted from a unitary form of government to

Answer Key a) Democratic
1. b 2. c 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. c 10.a b) Authoritarian
11.b 12. i. a 12.ii.a 12.iii.a 12.iv.d 13.c 14.c c) federal
d) Central
Q.8 In a „Holding together federation‟ ____

i) A large country divides its power between constituent states and the national government
ii) The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the states.
ii) All the constituent stares usually have equal powers.
iv) Constituent states have unequal powers. Q.17 State government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the
Q. 9 Which type of government does Belgium have? a) Central Government
a) Federal b) Local Government
b) Communist c) Judiciary
c) Unitary d) Both (a) and (b)
d) central
Q.18 In India, there is ____ tier system of government
Q. 10 Which type of government does Sri Lanka have ? a) Two
a) central b) Three
b) Unitary c) Four
c) federal d) Six
d) communist
Q.19. Who want Sri Lanka to become a federal system?
Q.11 In federalism, power is divided between various constituent units and ___ a) Sinhala leaders
a) Central authority b) Buddhist Sinhala leaders
b) States c) Tamil leaders
c) Locals d) Both Sinhala and Tamil leaders-
d) Control authority and states.
Q.20 An ideal federal system has this aspect
Q.12 In federal system, Central government cannot order the a) Mutual trust
a) Principal b) To safeguard and promote unity of the country.
b) Local government c) To accommodate regional diversity
c) State government d) To concentrate power with central Government.
d) Local government and principal
(21). Choose the option which is most suitable.
Q.13 In which system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to the Assertion: Belgium and Spain has holding together federalism
central government? Reason: A big country divides power between constituent states and national government
a) Unitary (a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Federal (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) Democratic (c). A is correct but R is wrong
d) communist (d). A is wrong but R is true.
Q.14 In Unitary form of government (22). Assertion: USA and Switzerland has holding together federalism
a) All the power is divided between the central and the state government. Reason: The central government can pass on orders to the provincial or the local government.
b) All the power is with the citizens (a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
c) State Government has all the powers. (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) Power is concentrated with the Central Government (c). Both A and R are false
(d). A is true but R is false
Q. 15 Power to interpret the constitution is with the
a) Central Government (23). Assertion: USA, Switzerland and Australia have coming together federalism.
b) State Government Reason: They divide their power between the constituent units.
c) Judiciary (a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
d) Local Government (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q.16 A system of government in which power is divided between central authority and various constituent
units of the county is called (24). Assertion: The federal system has dual objectives.
a) Democracy Reason: Federal government has two or more levels of government
b) Federalism (a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
c) Communalism (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) Socialism. (c). A is correct but R is wrong
18. What Makes India a Federal Country? How is Federalism practiced in India?
(25). Assertion: Unitary government has two or more levels of government.
Reason: There is no division of power in unitary form of Government 1. Who plays an important role in safeguarding the constitutional provisions?
(a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A a. Executive
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
b. legislature
(d). A is wrong but R is true. c. judiciary
d. Parliament.
(26). Assertion: An ideal federal system has aspects.
Reason: To maintain mutual trust and agreement to live together are the most important aspects of the 2. How many subjects does the union list consist
federal system. a. 93
b. 96
(a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A c. 97
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A d. 99
(d). A is wrong but R is true. 3. What is the necessary for the success for federalism?
a. Constitutional provisions
(27). Assertion: India has a federal system.
Reason: Under the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub units are b. Parliamentary provisions
subordinate to the central government. c. Central provision
(a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A d. State provision
(c). A is correct but R is wrong 4. Which one of the following states in India had its own constitution before August 2019?
(d). A is wrong but R is true. a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Jammu Kashmir
(28). Assertion: India is a federation. c. Uttar Khand
Reason: Power resides with the central authority. d. Nagaland
(a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
5. Subjects included in union list are
(d). A is wrong but R is true. a. Education, forests trade union marriages
b. Police, trade, commerce, agriculture
(29). Assertion: In coming together federation states come together to form bigger unit. c. Computer software, terrorism
Reason: India, Belgium and Spain are examples of coming together federation. d. Defense, foreign affairs banking currency
(a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 6. In case of clash between the laws made by the centre and a state on a subject in the
(c). A is correct but R is wrong concurrent list
(d). A is wrong but R is true. a. The state law prevails
b. The central law prevails
c. Both the laws prevail within their respective judiciary
d. The supreme court has to intervene to decide
Answer Key 7. Which of the following subjects is NOT included in the state list?
1. D 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.D 6.B 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.B
a. Law and order
11.A 12.C 13.A 14.D 15.C 16.B 17.A 18.B 19.C 20.C
b. Education
21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. d 26. a 27. b 28. a 29. c
c. National defense
d. Agriculture
8. What did the constitution declare India after independence ?

a. List of states
b. Collaboration of states 16. In India‟s federal system the state government have the power to legislate on all those
c. Union of states subjects which are included in the
d. Combination of states a. Union list
b. State list
9. How is the legislative powers divided between center and state? c. Concurrent list
a. 2 lists d. Residuary list
b. 3 lists
c. 4 lists 17. The constitution of India:
d. 5 lists a. Divided powers between centre and states in two lists
b. Divided powers between centre and the state in three lists
10. Which are the two levels of government recommended by the constitution before 1992 c. Divided the powers of the state and left the undefined powers to the state
a. Municipal and Panchayat Raj d. Divided the powers of the centre and left the residuary power with the state
b. State and municipal corporation
c. Centre and state 18. Which of the following comes under state list in India?
d. Center and Panchayat raj a. Defense
b. Currency
11. Who has the power to legislate on “residuary subjects”? c. Communication
a. Union government d. Police
b. State government
c. Regional government 19. On which given subject can both the union as well as the state government make laws?
d. Community government a. Currency
b. Defense
12. The central government has a special powers in running c. Trade unions
a. State territories d. Agriculture
b. Regional territories
c. Rural territories 20. What is meant by residuary subjects
d. Union territories a. Subjects under union list
b. Subjects under state list
13. How many languages does the Indian constitution recognize as schedule languages? c. Subjects under both state and union list
a. 22 d. Subjects which are not under any lists.
b. 24
c. 32 21. Give an example of a subject under residuary list?
d. 34 a. Currency
b. Irrigation
14. Here are three reactions to the languages policy followed in India which of the following c. computer software
holds true in case of India d. commerce
a. The policy of accommodation has strengthen the national unity
b. Language based states have divided us by making every one conscious of their language 22. What are the special powers given to a state under constitution of India (Article 371)
c. The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over other a. provision for free trade and commerce
language b. protection of land rights of indigenous people
d. The language policy does not give scope over the regional language c. special provisions for agriculture in the state
d. special powers for state defense purposes
15. How can the fundamental provisions of the constitution be changed in federalism?
a. Passed by both the houses of parliament with one third majority 23. Give one feature of union territories
b. Passed by both the houses of parliament with two third majority a. they have equal powers like states
c. Passed by both the houses of parliament with one fifth majority b. they enjoy independent powers
d. Passed by both the houses of parliament with two fifth of majority. c. the central government has special powers over them
d. they are small states merged with large states
Q.31 The union territories is administered by
Q.24 What was the first major test for democratic Politics in our country after independence? a) The president
a) Creation of states according to religion b) The vice president
b) Creation of states according language c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
c) Creation of status according to culture d) The central government
d) Creation of states according to topography
Q.32 Who makes a decision in a case of any dispute about the division of powers?
Q.25 On which basis were states like Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand created? a) The Supreme Court
a) On the basis of commerce and trade b) Central Government
b) On the basis of religion c) State Government
c) On the basis of culture ethnicity is d) President
d) On the basic on language
Q.33 The states which were created on the basis of culture, ethnicity, geography
Q.26 How much percent of Indians have Hindi as their mother tongue? a) Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh
a) 20% b) Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand
b) 30% c) Bihar and West Bengal
c) 40% d) Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh.
d) 50%
Q.34. According to constitution in which year use of English for official purpose was to stop.
Q.27 Besides Hindi, how many other languages recognized as Scheduled language by the a) 1960
constitutions? b) 1963
a) 21 c) 1965
b) 23 d) 1970
c) 24
d) 27 Q.35 How many languages are included in the eighth schedule of the Indian constitution beside
Hindi?
Q.28 Which list include subject of national Importance? a) 21
a) Union list b) 23
b) State list c) 25
c) Concurrent list d) 27
d) Residuary list
Q. 36 The state which violently demanded that the use of English for official purpose should be
Q.29 The areas which are too small to become independent state but which could not be merged with continued
any of the existing state is deemed to be a) Karnataka
a) Creative state b) Andhra Pradesh
b) Provincial state c) Kerala
c) Central territory d) Tamil Nadu
d) Union territory
Q.37 Who has the power to raise resources by levying taxes, to carry on Government
Q.30 The number of states and union territories in India are responsibilities?
a) 28 States and 7 union territories a) Centre and state Government
b) 29 States and 7 union territories b) Centre and union territory.
c) 28 States and 8 union territories c) Centre and municipal corporations
d) 29 States and 8 union territories d) Centre and Panchayat
Q. 38. What ensured the spirit of federalism in India?

a) Respect for language and culture
b) Respect for diversity and desire for living together
c) Respect for ethnicity and desire for common language Q. 5 Assertion (A) – It is very simple to make the changes in the basic structure of the constitution
d) Respect for political parties and desire for power. Reason (R) – Both the houses have interdependent power to attend constitution
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Q. 39. Two or more political parties coming together to form a Government is: (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
a) central Government (c). A is correct but R is wrong
b) State Government (d). both A and R are false
c) Coalition Government
d) Regional government Q.6 Assertion (A) – Hindi is adopted as an official language of India
Reason (R) – 21 other languages are also recognized by the constitution
Answer Key a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
1. c 2.c 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. c 8.c 9. c 10. c (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
11. a 12. d 13. c 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. d 19. c 20. d (c). A is correct but R is wrong
21. c 22. b 23. c 24.b 25.c 26.c 27.a 28. a 29.d 30.c (d). A is wrong but R is true.
31.d 32.a 33.b 34.c 35.a 36.d 37.a 38.b 39.c
Q.7 Assertion (A) – In case there is a clash between centre and state on laws of concurrent list
Reason (R) – Supreme Court law prevails
Assertion & Reasoning (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q.1 Assertion (A) – Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, Delhi are union territories (d). A is wrong but R is true.
Reason (R) – The central government has special power in administering these areas
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A Q.8 Assertion (A) – After 1965, the use of English for official purpose was stopped
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A Reason (R) – South Indian states demanded that the use of English continue
(c). A is correct but R is wrong a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(d). A is wrong but R is true. (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q.2 Assertion (A) – Banking in India is included in the Union list
Reason (R) – Only the union government makes laws related to banking Q.9 Assertion (A) – Coalition government was formed into alliance of many regional parties
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R) – Give respect and autonomy to state government
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(c). A is correct but R is wrong (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(d). A is wrong but R is true. (c). A is correct but R is wrong
Q.3 Assertion (A) – The subjects which are included in the union list, state list and concurrent list
are considered as residuary subjects Q.10 Assertion (A) – Restructuring the Centre state relations has strengthened federalism
Reason (R) – The subjects include that came after constitution was made and thus could not Reason (R) – Constitutional provisions determine these limits
be classified. a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c). A is correct but R is wrong
(c). A is correct but R is wrong (d). A is wrong but R is true.
Q.11 Assertion (A) – Centre Government would offer misuse the constitution and dismiss state
Q.4 Assertion (A) – Coalition government is formed during dearth of coal in the country government with level parties
Reason (R) – It helps in overcoming coal crisis Reason (R) – Central government has autonomy on state
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c). A is correct but R is wrong c). A is correct but R is wrong
(d). both A and R are false d). A is wrong but R is true.

Q.12 Assertion (A) – Language policy was the first major test to the Indian Federation
Reason (R) – Our constitution did not give the states of national language to any one Q.19 Assertion (A) – The judiciary play an important role in implementation of constitution all
language provision
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R) – The union & state government has power to levy taxes
b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
c). A is correct but R is wrong b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d). A is wrong but R is true. c). A is correct but R is wrong
d). A is wrong but R is true.
Q.13 Assertion (A) – Formation of linguistic states has made the country more united
Reason (R) – Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of Q.20 Assertion (A) – Common interest subjects to both centre and state are included in concurrent
India list
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R) – Subjects include education forest, trade union and marriage
b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
c). A is correct but R is wrong b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
d). A is wrong but R is true. c). A is correct but R is wrong
d). A is wrong but R is true
Q.14 Assertion (A) – All states of India are created on the basis of culture, ethnicity and geography
Reason (R) – Some states were formed on the basis of language
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A Q.21 Assertion (A) – The basic structure of the constitution is the power sharing between centre and
b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A state
c). A is correct but R is wrong Reason (R) – The parliament cannot on it‟s own change this arrangement
d). A is wrong but R is true. a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Q.15 Assertion (A) – The constitution declared India as Union of States c). A is correct but R is wrong
Reason (R) – The Indian Union is based on the Principals of federalism d). A is wrong but R is true.
b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A Q.22 Assertion (A) – Any changes in the constitutional provisions has to be first passed with two
c). A is correct but R is wrong third majority in both the houses of parliament
d). A is wrong but R is true. Reason (R) – Changes are to be satisfied by the legislatures of at least half of the total states
Q.16 Assertion (A) – Union government has power to legislate on „residuary subject‟ b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) – This is the provision given to the central government by the constitution c). A is correct but R is wrong
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A d). A is wrong but R is true.
c). A is correct but R is wrong
Answer Key
1. a 2. a 3. d 4.d 5. d 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. a 10. a
Q.17 Assertion (A) – All states in the Indian union do not have identical power
Reason (R) – Some states enjoy special status 11. c 12. d 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. a
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 21. a 22. a
c). A is correct but R is wrong
19. Linguistic Diversity of India, Decentralization in India.
Q.18 Assertion (A) – Special provision assists for union territories
Reason (R) – These territories have powers of state 1) Which language are declared as official language of India.
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A a) Hindi and English
b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A b) English and Marathi
c). A is correct but R is wrong c) Telugu and Tamil
d). A is wrong but R is true. d) Hindi and Urdu
c) Hindi
2) Why there is linguistic diversity in India? d)Tulu
a) In 1950 ,the states were reorganized
b) Many language are being spoken in India 10) Which of the following states was NOT created to recognize difference based on culture,
c) Different states have different language ethnicity or geography?
d) Many dialects a) Uttarakhand
b) Assam
3) In terms of population, which one of the following Indian state is bigger than Russia? c) Nagaland
d) Jharkhand
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala 11) Which one of the following languages is spoken by majority of the people in India?
c) Uttar Pradesh a) Hindi
d) Maharashtra b) Sanskrit
c) Tamil
4) In terms of population, which one of the following Indian state is bigger than Germany? d) English
a) Odisha
b) Madhya Pradesh 12) When was the State Reorganization Commission (SRC) implemented in India?
c) Maharashtra a) 1947
d) West Bengal b) 1956
c) 1991
5) A third-tier of government, in India is called : d) 2006
a) Central government
b) State government 13) When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local
c) Community government government, it is called
d) Local government. a) Democracy
b) Federalism
6) Which is the national language of India? c) Power Sharing
a) No national language d) Decentralization
b) Marathi
c) Hindi 14) The basic idea behind decentralization is that
d) English a) There are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the central level
b) There are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.
7) How many languages are recognized as scheduled languages by the constitution? c) There are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the government level
a) 22 d) There are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the state level
b) 24
c) 20 15) Which is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-
d) 26 government.
a) Central government
8) Besides Hindi, there are ______________schedules languages in India. b) Local government
a) 21 c) Union government
b) 22 d) State government
c) 24
d) 23 15) What is linguistic diversity?
a) Different culture
9) Which one of the following language in India is considered as an official as well as scheduled b) Variety in clothing and food
language? c) a specific measure of the density of language or concentration of unique languages
a)Urdu d) Different mother languages
b) Konkani
16) How many percent of all positions are reserved for women in local government?
a) Sixty
ECONOMICS
b) Fifty
c) one-fourth 20. What Development Promises, Income and other Goals, National
d) one-third
Development.
17) Rural local government is popularly known by the name
a) Panchayati raj. (1) Developmental goals of the different sections of our society can be achieved
b) Municipalities through………………..
c) Zilla Parishad (a) Democratic Political Process
d) Mandal (b) Military Force
(c) Violent agitation
18) The panchayat works under the overall supervision of the following (d) Terrorism
a) Sarpanch
b) Gram sabha (2) Development or progress involves………………………………………….
c) Mayor (a) Industrialization
d) Chairperson (b) Political participation
(c) Education and health
19) Both municipalities and municipal corporations are controlled by (d) All the aspects of life
a) State government
b) Elected bodies consisting of people‟s representatives (3) All round development in India can be achieved through
c) Mayor (a) Dictatorship
d) Chairperson (b) Monopoly
(c) Democracy
(d) Monarchy
Answer Keys (4) Development goals of different categories of person will be _______________
1.a 2.b 3.c 4.c 5.d 6.a 7.a 8.a 9.c 10.b (a) Only income
11.a 12.b 13.d 14.b 15.b 16.d 17.a 18.b 19.b (b) Income and education
(c) Income and Freedom
(d) Mixed of different goals.
(5) Various categories of people will have a different set of development goals which are often
(a) Conflicting
(b) Favorable
(c) Respectful
(d) Pleasurable
(6) Development for one may not be development for another. It may even be ____________
(a) Enjoyable for the other
(b) Pleasurable for the others
(c) Prosperous for the other
(d) Destructive for the others
(7) The most common important component of development may be _______________

(a) Income
(b) Skilled People
(c) Population
(d) Education (15) The development goal for an urban unemployed youth will be ____________
(a). Government should provide employment opportunities
(8) A person who expects more days of work and better wages, quality local school for his children (b). Government should provide loan with zero interest
will be from which following category? (c). Equal opportunity in all fields.
(a) A rich farmer (d).To be able to go abroad for higher education.
(b) Landless rural farmer
(c) An industrialist. (16) Apple mobile, standard bike and luxurious life will be the developmental goals of which one of
(d) Shopkeeper the following people?
(a) A private school teacher
(9) What will be the top priority in the developmental goals of a landless laborer? (b) A government servant
(a) More days of work and better wages (c) A boy from rich urban family
(b) Modern Machinery (d) A well settled urban woman
(c) Irrigation Facility
(d) Insurance Policy (17) What will be the aspiration of a girl from a rich urban family?
(a) To get married to a boy from a rich family
(10) There is no social discrimination and have aspiration to become leader in village. This will be (b) To become a good business woman
one of the development goals of (c) As much as freedom as her brother gets
(a) A dairy farmer (d) To enter in politics.
(b) A prosperous farmer
(c) An unemployed youth (18) No discrimination, equal opportunities and proper education facility are the developmental
(d) a landless rural laborer. goals of ………………………………………………….
(11) Identify the developmental goal of a prosperous farmer from Punjab. (a) A merchant
(a) Reduction in export duties. (b) A business woman
(b) Luxurious life for their children (c) A rural farmer
(c) High support prices for their crops (d) An Adivasi from tribe.
(d) Availability of schools in their locality.
(19) When industrialists want more dams then why do local people resist it?
(12) High family income through hardworking and cheap labour, plus their children should be able (a). They are against industrial production.
to settle abroad, this can be the developmental goal (b) Their lands will be submerged
of……………………………………………………………….. (c). The river water would be polluted
(a) Business men from Gujarat (d).They are against the government.
(b) Industrial workers of Ahmedabad
(c) Prosperous farmers from Punjab (20). Different persons can have different developmental goals and what may be development for
(d) Poor farmers of Odisha. one may not be development for the other. Which one among the following will be the appropriate
example of this?
(13) What will be the development goal of farmer who depend only rain for growing crops? (a). Educational institutions
(a) Government subsidy (b). Banks
(b) Better irrigation facility (c). Road development
(c) Big land holding (d). Dam Construction
(d) Equal treatment in the society.
(21). Money cannot but all the goods and services that we may need to have a good life. A list of
(14) Favorable monsoon, better water supply and better irrigation facilities are the developmental things required for a good life is given below. Which among the following things money cannot
goals of………………………………………………………………… buy?
(a) A house wife (a). A pollution free atmosphere in every part of the country
(b) A business woman (b). High quality education
(c)Unemployed educated person (c). High standard of living
(d) A landless agricultural laborer (d). Luxury life

(22). Select the two non-material benefits that would increase the welfare of the population. 21. How to Compare Different Countries? Income and other Criteria,
(a). House and Car
(b). Medical and Insurance facility Public Facilities.
(c). Freedom of security
(d). Dignity and High income. 1. The criterion used for the purpose of comparison should depend upon.............
(a) The situation
(23). The individuals seek different goals and their motive of national development is also likely to (b) Need of the time.
be different. Under national development, priority is given to which one of the following? (c) Purpose of Comparison
(a). Benefits large number of people. (d) As a formality
(b). Benefits given to a small group
(c). Benefits given to all women 2- Which of the following can make country economically developed?
(d). Benefit given to the youth. (a) Higher Population
(b) Higher Income
(24). Assertion: People not only think of better income but also have goals such as security, (c) Advanced technology
respect for others, equal treatment, freedom etc. in mind. (d) Strong defense.
Reason: Money cannot buy everything.
(a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 3. What can be called as the income of the country?
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (a) Income of an individual
(c). A is correct but R is false (b) Income of the Government.
(d). A is false but R is true. (c) Income of the industries.
(d) Income of all the residents of the country.
(25). Assertion: Different person can have different as well as conflicting nations of country‟s
development. 4. The average income is also called as.......
Reason: Individuals seek different goals for their personal development. (a) Per capita income
(a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Family income.
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) Income of the country
(c). A is true but R is false. (d) Income of the Society.
(d). A is false but R is true.
5. Under which category does India lie?
(26). Assertion: Money is not a factor that brings happiness in the life of the people. (a) Low income country
Reason: Quality of life also depends on non-material things like Freedom, Respect of others, b) High income country
security etc. c) High middle income country
(a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A d) Low middle income country
(c). A is true but R is false. 6) How can the development of country be determined?
(d). A is false but R is true. a). By average literacy level
b) By it's per capita income
c) By the health status of its people.
Answer Key (d) By the income of government
1. a 2. d 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. d 7) Which one of the following has low infant mortality rate?
11. c 12. c 13. b 14.d 15. a 16. c 17. 18. d 19. d 20. d a) Maharashtra
21. a 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. a (b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) Bihar
8). What is P.D.S.?

(a) Public Data Service
(b) Public Distribution system 16. In which currency the per capita income of all countries is calculated?
(c) Public Demand Service. a) Rupees
d) People Donation system. b) Dollars
c) Yen
9) Which neighboring country from the following has better performance in human development d) Pounds
than India?
a) Sri Lanka 17. Which one is NOT an important goal of our life?
b) Bangladesh (a) Good education
c) Pakistan (b) High salaried Job
d) Nepal (c), Blood Donation
(d) Luxurious life.
10. The total income of the country divided by total population is called
a) National income 18. What kind of resource Ground water is?
b) Total income a) Renewable
c) Per capita income b) Non-renewable
d) Industrial income c) Preserve stock
d) Unreserved Stock
11. Which of the following organization publish Human Development Report?
a) WHO 19. Which one of the following is correct explanation of Infant mortality?
b) UNDP a) Malnutrition of the children up to one year.
c) WTO b) Nutritional health of the children up to one year.
d) IMF c) Children that die before age of one year.
d) Children that die before age of five year.
12. BMI (Body Mass Index) is a method of finding out which of the following?
a) Economic development 20. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
b) Longevity Read the statement and choose the correct option.
c) Infant mortality Assertion (A) – Money or material things that buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends.
d) Health status. Reason (R) - But the quality of our life does not depend on non-material things.
13. A boy of age 15-16 years is overweight if the Body Mass Index is more than (a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
a) 28 (b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
b) 20 (c). A is true but R is false.
c) 22 (d). A is false but R is true.
d)18
21. Assertion (A) - The development goals that people have are not only about better income but
14. India's neighboring countries, Nepal and Bangladesh have better performance than India in also about other important things in life.
which one of the following aspects? Reason (R) - A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or
a) Per capita Income run a business.
b) Literacy & Health
a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c) Employment
b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
d) Life expectancy c). A is true but R is false.
d). A is false but R is true.
15. How do the Public Distribution system (PDS) help people?
a) By maintaining the nutritional status of people. 22. Assertion (A): - We compare the average income which is unevenly distributed income of the
b) By distributing daily wages. country divided by the half of its population.
c) By providing continuous work and employment. Reason (R) Averages hide disparities.
d) By providing them free food. (a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c). A is true but R is false. Questions:
(d). A is false but R is true. 1.1. Which area has minimum. Crude oil?
a. India b. Russia c.USA d. Ireland.
23. Assertion (A):- Non-renewable resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use.
Reason (R) :- Kerala has a low infant mortality rate because it has adequate provision of basic health 1.2. How many reserves does the rest of the world have?
& education. a. 1587 b. 1698 c.1597 d.1697
(a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b). Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 1.3. How does the countries with low reserve secure oil?
(c). A is true but R is false. a.They secure oil through economic power
(d). A is false but R is true.
b. They secure oil somewhat through economic power
c. They secure oil through military or economic power
24. Consider that, there are five families in a country. The average per capita income of these
d.They secure oil through only military power
families is Rs. 6000. It‟s the income of other form families is Rs.6000, Rs. 9000, Rs. 3000, Rs. 5000.
1.4). How does India get oil?
a) 5500
a. India depends on importing oil from abroad because it has enough stocks of its own
b) 6000
b. India depends on importing oil from abroad because it doesn‟t have enough stock.
c) 7000
c. India doesn‟t need any resources as it has enough reserves.
d) 7500
d. India imports oil only from Middle East countries.
Answer Key
1.c 2.b 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. c
1.5) How many years would the reserves last if the people continue to use it at the present rate?
11. b 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. a 19. c 20. c a. 10-15 year‟s b. 45-50 years
21. b 22. c 23. b c. 30-35years d. 20-25 years
1.6) How many years would the reserves of Middle East last, if it continues to extract oil at the same
rate?
a. Middle East has maximum 700 thousand million barrels of oil and it will last for 40 years.
22. Body Mass Index, Human Development Report, And Sustainable b. Middle East has maximum 808 thousand million barrels of oil and it will last for 50 years.
c. Middle fast has 708 thousand million barrels of oil and it will last for 30 years
Development. d. Middle East has 808 thousand million barrels of oil and it will last for 70 years.
1. Case study. I Exhaustion of Natural Resources
2. Case study
Table: Crude oil Reserves.
Source: Human Development Report
Region / Country Reserves (2016) Number of years Reserves
Once it is realized that even though the level of income is important, yet inadequate measure of the
Thousand Million Barrels will lost
level of development, we begin to think of other criterion. There could be a long list of such criterion
1. Middle East 808 70
but then it would to not be so useful. What we need is a small number of the most important things
2. United States of 50 10
Health and education indicators, such as we used in comparison of Kerala and Haryana, among
America
them. Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along
3. World 1697 50.2 with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development Report published by
UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the people their health status and per
The table gives an estimate of reserves of crude oil (column 1). More important, it also tells us for capita income.
how many years the stock of crude oil will last if people continue to extract it at the present rate. The
reserves would last only 50 years more. This is for the world as a whole. However different Questions
countries face different situations. Countries like India depend on importing oil from abroad because 2.1. Who publishes the Human Development Report?
they do not have enough Stock of their own. If prices of oil increase this becomes a burden for a. WHO b. UND c. UNDP d. NDP
everyone. There are countries like USA which have low reserves and hence want to secure oil
through military or economic power. The question of sustainability of development raises many 2.2. Which indicators are used in Human development Report for comparison of Kerala and
fundamentally new issues about the nature and process of development. Haryana?
a.Income and education b. health and income c. Health and education d. Education only.

2.3. What is Human Development Report? 5. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Read the statements and chose the correct option:
a) Report which compares Countries based on education levels of people, their health status and per
capita income. Assertion (A): Sustainable development is essential for economic growth of the countries.
b) Report which compares countries based on their education level of people. Reason (R): Sustainable development ensures that environment friendly measures are adopted for
c) Report which compares countries based on their health status and per capita income carrying out production process.
d) Report which compares states on the bases of educational level of the people, their health status
and per capita income. Options:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
2.4. Identify the correct statement from the following. c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
a) Over the past century health and education indicators have come to be widely used along with
income as a measure of development
b) Over the past decade or so health and education indicators have come to be widely used along 6. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
with income as a measure of development. Read the statements and chose the correct option:
c) Over the past two decades or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used
along with income as a measure of development. Assertion (A): Non-renewable resources are abundant in nature.
d) Over the past three decades, health and education indicators have come to be widely used along Reason (R): Non-renewable resources can be replenished over a period of time.
with income as a measure of development.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
3. What is Human Development Report? b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
a) Report which compares countries based on education levels of people, their health status and per c) A is true but R is false.
capita income. d) A is false but R is true.
b) Report which compares countries based on their education level of people.
c) Report which compares countries based on their health status and per capita income 7. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
d) Report which compares states on the basis of educational level of the people, their health status Read the statements and chose the correct option:
and per capita income.
Assertion (A): A country that was extremely rich in natural resources has mainly relied on oil
4. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) extraction for revenue generations for several decades. However, scientists predict that the country
Read the statements and chose the correct option: may become poor in the future if other means of generating income are not devised.
Reason (R): Oil is non-renewable resource, and it is likely to get exhausted if not used
Assertion (A): The crude oil reserves are going down for the entire world, and the countries need to judiciously.
find substitute fuel for crude oil. Options:
Reason (R): A country that is dependent on imports for crude oil will demand more crude oil in a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
the future. b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Options: c) A is true but R is false.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. d) A is false but R is true.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true. 8) What is the HDI Rank of India according to the HDR of 2018?
a) 145 b)135 c)130 d)125

9) Economic development by maintaining the natural resources for present and future use is known 23. Sectors of Economic Activities, Comparing the Three Sectors,
as
a) Sustainable development b) Planned development. Historical Change.
a) Human development Index c)Development
1. Which one of the following is an economic activity
a. Doing social work
1o) What would be the most promising source of energy fifty years from now and why? b. House wife looking after households
a) Petroleum, because it is obtained from fossil fuel. c. Publishing a book
b) Solar energy because it is not exhaustible. d. Going to temple
c) Coal based energy because it is pollution free.
d) Forest product based energy because India has abundant forest. 2. Fishing is a primary Sector activity because
a) It is used for consumption
b) It is done by exploiting natural resources
11) Pick out the cause that enhances environmental degradation. c) It is an age old activity
a) Planting of trees d) It contributes highly to the economic development
b) Preventing of factory wastes getting mixed up with river water
c) Ban on use of plastic bags 3. Choose the correct meaning of the primary sector
d) Allowing increase in the level of exhaust fumes emitted by cars, buses, trucks etc a) The most important economic activities are included in this sector.
b) This sector is independent.
c) The products require some process of manufacturing.
12) How can we find out whether we are properly nourished? d) It forms the base for all other products.
a) By measuring height and weight
b) By calculating Body Mass Index 4. Construction comes under which sector?
c) By following Nutrient table A) Primary Sector b) Secondary Sector c) Tertiary Sector d) Service Sector
d) By measuring the weight.
5. Consider the following statements about of tertiary sector.
A) These are activities that help in the development of primary and secondary sectors. .
13) According to the Human Development Report 2018, which two countries have better Life B) These activities by themselves do not produce any goods
expectancy at birth than India? C) These activities do not give any income in return
a) Sri Lanka and Myanmar D) These activities generate services rather than goods.
b) Pakistan and Nepal
c) Pakistan and Bangladesh Which of the above statements are correct?
d) Nepal and Bangladesh a) A, B, C b) A, B, D c) B, C, D d) A, B, C
Answer Key
6. Which among the following occupations come under the tertiary sector?
1.1) c 1.2)d 1.3)c 1.4)b 1.5)b 1.6)d 2.1)c 2.2)c 2.3)d 2.4)b a) Bee keeper, Milk vendor, Courier
3) d 4) a 5) b 6) d 7) a 8) c 9) a 10) b 11) d 12) b b) Astronaut, Mill Vendor, Courier
13) d c) Priest, Money vendor, Courier
d) Call centre employee, fishermen, Gardener.
7. Primary and secondary sectors are different from tertiary sector because
a) They produce goods rather than services.
b) They exploit natural resources.
c) Primary and secondary sectors are dependent on each other.
d) They are associated with different stages of production

8. Match the following items in a column A with those of column B. Choose the correct answer from 13) In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as assertion (A) and Reason(R).
the options given below. Read the statement and choose the correct option.
Column A Column B Assertion (A): In recent times, ATM booths, call centers, consultancy services etc, have
A. Real estate 1.Secondary sector become important services.
B. Food processing 2. Tertiary sector Reason (R): Tertiary sector is also known as service sector.
C. Oil extraction 3. Primary sector
D. Public administration 4. Tertiary sector a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Options: c) A is true but R is false.
a) A (4), B (1), C (2), D (3) d) A is false but R is true.
b) A (2), B (1), C (3), D (4)
e) A (3), B (1), C (2), D (4) 14) When the price of fertilizers or pump sets go up, cost of cultivation of the farmer will rise and
d) A (2), B (4), C (3), D (1) their profit will be reduced. It shows that
a) Secondary sector is dependent on the primary sector.
9. We use cotton fibre to spin yarn and weave cloth. This activity comes under which of the b) Primary sector is dependent on the secondary sector.
following sector? c) Primary sector is dependent on the tertiary sector.
a) Primary sector b) Secondary sector d) Both primary and secondary sectors dependent on the tertiary sector.
c) Tertiary sector d) Agriculture and related sector
10. Identify the wrong statement about service sector. 15) If Indian textile companies decide not to buy from Indian market, then cotton cultivation will
become less profitable and the farmers may even go bankrupt. It shows that
a) They help in the development of primary and secondary sectors. a) Secondary sector is dependent on the primary sector.
b) Service sector also includes some essential services such as teachers, doctors, lawyers etc. b) Primary sector is dependent on the secondary sector.
c) Services that directly support primary and secondary sectors are only included in the tertiary c) Primary sector is dependent on the tertiary sector.
sector d) Both primary and secondary sectors dependent on the tertiary sector.
d) In recent times certain new services based on IT have become important.
11. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as assertion (A) and Reason (R) 16) If the truck drivers go for a strike in the towns and cities it would result in the shortage of food
read the statement and choose the correct option. materials and workers in the secondary and tertiary sectors would find it difficult to buy vegetables
and fruits etc, This also would affect the life of farmers who would be unable to sell their crops. In
Assertion (A): Diary is a primary sector activity this context, which one of the following statements is true?
Reason(R): We are dependent on the biological process of the animals and availability of fodder.
a) Primary sector depends upon the tertiary sector.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. b) Tertiary sector depends upon the primary sector.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. c) Both tertiary and secondary sectors depends on primary sector for food.
c) A is true but R is false d) All the three sectors are interdependent.
17) Identify the statement that shows the importance of tertiary sector.
12) In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as assertion (A) and Reason (R) a) Loans from the banks support the agriculture and the industries
read the statement and choose the correct option. b) Small scale industries employ large workforce.
Assertion (A): Secondary sector is called as industrial sector c) Textile industry is an agro based industry.
Reason(R): The secondary sector produces raw materials for the industries. d) Poultry farming can generate good income to farmers.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 18) Identify the wrongly matched pair.
b) Both a and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. a) Trade - service sector.
c) A is true but R is false b) Metallurgy- industrial sector.
d) A is false but R is true c) Basket weaving- service sector.
d) Communication- service sector
Which of these following values has to be added to the GDP?
19) Identify the correctly match pair. a) Rs.50 b) Rs.120 c) Rs.75 d) Rs.85
a) Trade and transport - Support primary and secondary sectors.
b) Teachers and doctors - Essential services. 26. The following table gives the GDP in rupees(crores) by the three sectors
c) Storage and banking - Personal services.
d) ATM and call centers - IT based services. Year Primary sector Secondary sector Tertiary sector
2013 800500 1074000 3868000

20) Industries that depend on primary sector for raw materials are known as
a) Basic industries
b) Agro- based industries Calculate the GDP of the country in 2013.
c) Heavy industries
d) Light industries a) 3868000 b) 5742500 c) 5627410 d) 1874500
21) Which of the following statements is true about the economy of a country? 27) Identify the correct statement:
a) One or more sectors are dominant while other sectors are relatively small in size. The GDP is calculated by including
b) All the three sector are equally dominant.
a) The total value of all goods produced.
c) Two sectors are dominant and the third sector is too small in size.
b) The total value of all goods and services.
d) It is difficult to identify the dominant sector. c) The total value of all final goods and services
d) The total value of all primary goods and services
22) How is it possible to calculate the final production in each sector?
a) Add the number of goods produced in each sector.
b) Add the numbers of goods and services produced in each sector. 28) Consider the following statements about GDP.
c) Add the total value of goods produced in each sector. A) GDP of the country shows the size of its economy.
d) Add the total value of all goods and services produced in each sector. B) GDP is calculated by adding the value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a
particular year.
23) The following table gives the GDP in rupees and (crores) by the 3 sectors. C) GDP of a country is calculated once in 5 years.
D) The GDP reveals the contribution of the three sectors to the economy.
Year Primary sector Secondary sector Tertiary sector
Which of the above statements are correct?
2000 52000 48500 133500 a)A,B,C b)A,B,D c)B,C,D d)A,B,C,D
Now calculate the share of primary sector in GDP.

29) Estimation of GDP in India under taken by
a)25% b)22.22% c)26.47% d)24.12% a) The central government ministry
b) The central government ministry with the help of various departments of states and UTs.
24) Identify the intermediary goods in the following manufacturing activity. c) The World Bank
d) National Sample Survey Organization.
Raw cotton -----> Cotton fibre --------> Yarn -----> Fabric ----->Garment
30) Match the following items in column A and column B. Choose the correct answer from the options given
a) Raw cotton and yarn below.
b) Raw cotton and cotton fibre
Column A Column B
c) Fabric and garment
d) Cotton fibre, yarn and fabric A GDP 1 Intermediary good
25) The values of different goods during the production of ice cream are given below. B Biscuit 2 Primary good
A) Milk - Rs.50
B) Sugar - Rs.25 C Wheat Flour 3 Final good and services
C)Vanila Essence - Rs.10
D) Ice-Cream - Rs.120 D Wheat 4 Final good

Options: a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
a) A (3), B (1), C (2), D (4) b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
b) A (2), B (1), C (3), D (4) c) A is true but R is false
c) A (3), B (4), C (1), D (2) d) A is false but R is true.
d) A (2), B (4), C (3), D (1)
38. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as assertion (A) and Reason (R).
31. Which was the most important sector of economic activity at initial stages of development? Read the statement and choose the correct option
a. primary sector b. secondary sector c. tertiary sector d. industrial sector
(A) Counting the value of flour and wheat separately is not correct.
32. Identify the wrong statement about the economic activities at the initial stages of development? (R) Then we would be counting the value of same things a number of times.
a. There were increasing number of craft persons and traders.
b. Buying and selling activities got decreased. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. Most of the goods produced were natural products. b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. Most of the people were employed in primary sector. c) A is true but R is false
33. Secondary sector gradually became the most important sector because
a. New methods of manufacturing were introduced 39. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as assertion (A) and Reason (R).
b. Agriculture sector received prosperity Read the statement and choose the correct option
c. The methods of farming changed
d. People started to take up alternative activities. (A) In the past hundred years there has a shift from secondary to tertiary sector
(R) Most of the working people are employed in tertiary sector now.
34. The most important sector of economic activity at present in terms of production and
employment is a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
a. Primary sector b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
b. Secondary sector c) A is true but R is false
c, Tertiary sector d) A is false but R is true.
d. Industrial sector.
40. Identify the wrong statement about the historical change in sectors in India.
35. The industrial sector has never been dominant in India because
a. Primary sector has been dominant over the years. a. At the initial stages of development, primary sector was the most important sector.
b. Tertiary sector has become important sector. b. Secondary sector had emerged as the leading sector in 1850s
c. Absence of industrialization and lack of industrial growth. c.Tertiary sector has become the most important sector now.
d. Lack of industrial infrastructure d. The importance of tertiary sector is rising over the years in India
36. Why don‟t we include the value of primary and intermediary goods in the calculation of GDP? Answer Keys
a. Primary and intermediary goods are of less value 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. c 7.a 8. b 9.b 10.c
b. The GDP considers only the value of final goods 11.a 12.c 13.b 14.b 15.b 16.d 17.a 18.c 19.c 20.b
c. The values of primary and intermediary goods are already included in the values of final goods. 21.a 22.d 23.b 24.d 25.b 26.b 27.c 28.b 29.b 30. c
d. The GDP separately calculates the values of primary and intermediary goods. 31. a 32.b 33.a 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. b 40. b
37. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statement and choose the correct option.
(A) Secondary sector gradually become the most important sector in total production and
employment.
(R) People who have worked earlier in farms now began to work in factories.

24. Importance of Tertiary Sector, Where are the Most People (d). People are doing work but they are not fully employed
Employed? How to Create More Employment? (14). Disguised unemployment mostly occurs in which sector?
(a). Primary (b). Tertiary
(1). Over the last 40 years production has increased in which sector? (c). Secondary (d). Services
(a). Primary (b). Secondary (c). Tertiary (d). Health
(15). MGNREGA was introduced in how many districts of the country?
(2). Which of the following service does basic services include? (a). 150 districts (b). 200 districts (c). 250 districts (d). 625 districts
(a). Restaurants (b). Transport (c). Mechanic (d). Shopping
(16). How can Laxmi create more employment opportunity in her small plot of unirrigated land?
(3). Development of agriculture and industry leads to development of which services? (a). By irrigating her land (b) By ploughing her land
(a). Courts (b). Police Station (c). Hospital (d). Storage (c). By spraying pesticides. (d) By applying fertilizers
(4). Now a days income levels are rising, due to which, there is a demand for which service? (17). Choose one requirement needed for a farmer with a small plot of land?
(a). Tourism (b). Government hospital (c). Post Offices (d). Defence (a). Transportation and storage (b). More labour
(c). School nearby (d). National policy
(5). In recent times there is tremendous increase in the tertiary sector but a part of the service sector
is not growing. Which one is the right example for this? (18). Percent of population in India in the age group of 5 – 29 years is
(a). Banking (b). Hospitals (c). Repair Person (d). Private schools (a). 50 (b). 60 (c). 70 (d). 40
(6). What is another name for tertiary sector? (19). According to the Planning Commission estimates, how many numbers of jobs can be created
(a). Agriculture (b). Service (c). Health (d). Industrial every year in education sector?
(a). 10 lakh (b). 20 lakh (c). 5 lakh (d). 25 lakh
(7). The task of measuring GDP is under taken by
(a). District government (b). Central Government (20). According to Planning Commission how many additional jobs can be created in tourism sector
(c). State Government (d). Provincial Government every year?
(a). More than 35 lakh (b). More than 25 lakh
(8). A situation in which more persons are employed in a job than are optimally required is (c). more than 10 lakh (d). More than 20 lakh
(a). Structural unemployment (c). Disguised unemployment
(c). Cyclical unemployment (d). Seasonal unemployment (21). National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 is referred as
(a). Right to Information (b). Right to work
(9). According to share of employment in three sectors in 1972-73 to 2011 – 12, employment in (c). Right to live (d). Right to study
industry is increased by how many times?
(a). 1 time (b). 2 times (c). 3 times (d). 4 times Answer Key
(10). Production in service sector in 1972-73 to 2011-12 rose by how many times?
1. a 2. b 3.d 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. d
(a). 11 times (b). 12 times (c). 12 times (d). 14 times 11. a 12. d 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. b 20. a
21. b
(11). In which sector largest number of people are employed?
(a). Primary (b). Secondary (c). Service (d). Tertiary
(12). Which sector contributes the largest share to the GDP of the country?
(a). Primary (b). Secondary (c). Agriculture (d). Tertiary
(13). under employment is a situation when

(a). a person does not have a job
(b). a person do not want to work
(c). A person is capable of doing work.
25. Organized and Unorganized Sectors, How to Protect the Workers?
8. Who are the vulnerable people in the rural areas, who need protection?
1. Which sector is characterized by small and scattered units largely outside the control of the (a) Large scale farmers
government? (b) Workers in organized sectors
(a) Organized sector (c) Workers in public sectors
(b) Fixed sector (d) Landless agricultural labourers.
(c) Temporary sector
(d) Unorganized sector 9. How many percent of rural households are in small and marginal farmer category in India?
(a) 10
2. Which sector includes a large number of people that are employed on their own doing small jobs (b) 30
such as selling on the street or doing repair work? (c) 50
(a) Service sector (d) 80
(b) Organized sector
(c) Unorganized sector 10. Identify the vulnerable people in the urban areas who need protection?
(d) Public sector (a) Agricultural labourers
(b) Casual workers
3. In which sector is it common to see a large number of workers losing their jobs since the 1990‟s? (c) Doctors
(a) Service sector (d) Engineers
(c) Unorganized sector 11. Which workers in both rural and urban areas need to be protected?
(d) Public sector (a) Agricultural labourers
(b) Casual workers
4. What is protection and support are necessary for the workers in the unorganized sector? (c) Workers in organized sector
(a) Rural development. (d) Industrial workers.
(b) Economic and political development
(c) Social and political development 12. In which sectors do the people from scheduled caste, tribal and backward communities find a job
(d) Economic and social development for them?
(a) Organized sector
5. Which sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are (b) Fixed sector
regular and the people have assured work? (c) Public sector
(d) Unorganized sector
(a) Service sector
(b) Organized sector 13. Which workers face the social discrimination from the society?
(c) Unorganized sector (a) Workers from upper caste
(d) Public sector (b) Workers from scheduled caste
(c) Workers from rich families
6. In which sectors are the workers paid for overtime by the employer? (d) Workers from poor families.
(a) Service sector
(c) Unorganized sector Answer key
(d) Public sector
1.d 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. d 9. d 10. b
7. In which sectors do the workers get pensions when they retire? 11. b 12. d 13. b
(a) Service sector
(c) Unorganized sector
(d) Public sector
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26. Public and Private Sectors, importance of Public Sector. 9) Name the sector that provides services without expecting profit
a)Public Sector
b) Private sector
c)Organized Sector
1 The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of d)Unorganized sector
a) Employment conditions
b) The nature of economic activities 10) Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited, Reliance Industries Limited, Wipro etc. are the examples of
c) Number of workers' employed a) Public sector
d) Ownership of enterprises b) Joint sector
c) Organized sector
2) When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the............... d) Private sector
a) Secondary sector
b) Tertiary sector 11) In any country the services such as hospitals, village administrative offices, municipal corporations,
c) Primary sector banks, defense, transport, insurance companies etc. are called as the 'basic services‟. In the
d) Organized Sector Developing countries these services are provided by the
a)Private sector
3) Government owns most of the assets and provides all the services in……………………….. b) Public sector
a) Private sector, c) Human development sector
b) Public sector d) Joint sector
c) Organized sector
d) Tertiary Sector 12) For the social and economic development, which sector is important?
a) Private sector
4) The value of all final goods and services produced within country during particular year is called as b) Public sector
a) Gross Domestic Product c) Organized sector
b) Net Domestic Product d) Joint sector
c) National Product
d) Production of tertiary Sector 13) For more employment possibilities which sector is beneficial?
a)Private sector
5) The purpose of the public sector is b) Public sector
a) To earn the profit c) Service sector
b) To promote the public welfare and earn profit d) Organized sector
c) To provide only services
d) To produce goods and services. 14) This sector promotes redistribution of Income and wealth.
a) Private sector
6) Railways comes under the b) Public sector
a) Public sector c) Joint Sector
b) Private sector d) Organized sector
c) Organized sector
d) Unorganized sector 15) To develop industries, huge Investment is required. It is possible only by…………………….
a) Public sector
7) The major purpose of the private sector is b) Private sector
a) To earn profit c) Unorganized sector
b) To promote the public welfare d) Organized sector
c) To provide only services
d) To produce goods & services. 16) Which one of the following sectors contributes immensely towards community development, public
distribution and nutritional services?
8) Construction of dams, roads, bridges, railway track etc. is beyond the capacity of_________ a) Public sector
a) Public Sector b) Private sector
b) Private sector c) Unorganized sector
c) Joint sector d) Organized sector
d) Organized sector
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17) This sector promotes rapid economic development through creation and expansion of infrastructure.
A) Public sector
b) Private sector
27. Assertion and Reason Questions
c) Unorganized sector HISTORY
d) Cooperative sector Chapter: 1
Rise of Nationalism in Europe
18) The sector which plays an important role in the gross domestic capital formation of the country. 1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
a) Private sector (R). Read the statements and chose the correct option:
b) Joint sector Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know
c) Public sector the total production in each sector.
d) Cooperative sector
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
19) The sector that plays a major role in the administration, health and education of the people
Options:
a) Private sector a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Joint sector b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) Public sector c. A is true but R is false.
d) Cooperative sector d. A is false but R is true.
20) The sector which provide a strong Industrial base is 1. Assertion: European governments were driven by a spirit of conservatism.
a) Private sector Reason: Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society.
b) Joint sector Ans.a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c) Public sector
d) Unorganized sector 2. Assertion: Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one,was ruled by an Italian princely
house.
21) Which sector promotes balanced regional growth?
a) Private sector Reason:The north was under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain.
b) Public sector Ans:a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c) Cooperative sector
d) Joint sector
3. Assertion: Giuseppe Mazzini worked with the conservatives for the monarchy.
22) To get reasonable cost services this sector in beneficial Reason : Italy had to continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms.
a) Private sector Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are false.
b) Public sector
c) Cooperative sector
d) Joint sector 4.Assertion : Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation.
Reason : Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors who supplied raw material
23) Who has the ownership of the assets in the public sector? and gave them orders for finished textiles but drastically reduced their payments.
a) The government. Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
b) The industrialists. assertion.
c) The corporates.
d) The bureaucrats. 5.Assertion : From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various
measures and practices like the idea of la patrie and le citoyen.
Answer Key Reason : This was done to create a sense of collective identity among the French people.
1.d 2.c 3.b 4.a 5.b 6.a 7.a 8.b 9.b 10.d Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
11.b 12.b 13.b 14.b 15.a 16.a 17.a 18.c 19.c 20.c assertion.
21.b 22.b 23.a
6. Assertion: The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic language or
wear their national dress, and large numbers were forcibly driven out of their homeland.
Reason : The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance over a
largely Catholic country.
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Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. 2. Assertion: Alluvial soil is ideal for growth of paddy, wheat, cereal and pulse crops.
Reason: Alluvial soil is well-known for its capacity to hold moisture.
Options:
7. Assertion: On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives revolted in the Frankfurt a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
parliament. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Reason: The elected representatives revolted against the issue of extending political rights c. A is true but R is false.
to women. d. A is false but R is true.
Ans : c. A is true but R is false.
Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
8. Assertion :The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789.
Reason: France was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an absolute monarchy. 3. Assertion: Shelter belts breaks up the force of the wind.
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Reason: Shelter belts have contributed significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in
assertion. stabilising the desert in eastern India.
Options:
9. Assertion: The ideas of la patrie (the citizen) and le citoyen (the fatherland) emphasised the a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Reason:A new French flag, royal standard., was chosen to replace the former the tricolor. c. A is true but R is false.
Ans : (c) . :. A is true but R is false. d. A is false but R is true.
Ans.c. A is true but R is false.
10. Assertion: The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the Napoleonic Code – did away with all
privileges based on birth, established equality before the law and secured the right to property. 4.Assertion : Resources are free gifts of nature.
Reason: This Code was exported to the regions under French control. Reason : Resources like soil, air, are easily available in nature.
Ans:a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A Options:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
11. Assertion: Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one was ruled by an Italian b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
princely house. c. A is true but R is false.
Reason : The north was under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain. d. A is false but R is true.
Ans : (d) Both assertion and reason are true.
12. Assertion: Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic.
Reason: They did not tolerate criticism and dissent, and sought to curb activities that questioned 5.Assertion : Land is a natural resource of utmost importance.
the legitimacy of autocratic governments. Reason : Land can be used for various purposes.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Options:
GEOGRAPHY b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Chapter: 1 c. A is true but R is false.
Resource and Development d. A is false but R is true.
1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and chose the correct option: Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know assertion.
the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods. 6.Assertion : Resource planning is an easy process in India.
Options: Reason : Resource planning involves planning structure, identification and inventory of
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. resource across the regions.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Options:
c. A is true but R is false. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d. A is false but R is true. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Page 107 of 118 Page 108 of 118
c. A is true but R is false. 11.Assertion : Terrace cultivation restricts erosion.
d. A is false but R is true. Reason : Running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies.
Options:
Ans : d. A is false but R is true. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
7.Assertion : Soil is the most important renewable natural resource. c. A is true but R is false.
Reason : Soil supports different types of living organisms on earth. d. A is false but R is true.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Ans : b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true. 12. Assertion: Hydrogen can be used as a rich source of energy
Reason :Water is a compound of two gases; hydrogen and oxygen.
Ans : b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Options:
8.Assertion : Processes of soil formation and erosion goes simultaneously. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Reason : The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is soil erosion c. A is true but R is false.
Options: d. A is false but R is true.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Ans :a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d. A is false but R is true. 13. Assertion : The availability of resources is not the only necessary condition for the
development of any region.
Ans : b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Reason : Not only availability of resources but also corresponding change in technology is
necessary for development of any region.
9.Assertion : Arid soil is unsuitable for cultivation. Options:
Reason : Arid soil is generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. It restricts the a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
filtration of water. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Options: c. A is true but R is false.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. d. A is false but R is true.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
c. A is true but R is false. assertion
d. A is false but R is true. Chapter:4
d. A is false but R is true. Agriculture
1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
Ans : b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (R). Read the statements and chose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know
10.Assertion : Controlling on mining activities reduces land degradation. the total production in each sector.
Reason : In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, deforestation has occurred due Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
to overgrazing, not minings Options:
Options: a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. c. A is true but R is false.
c. A is true but R is false. d. A is false but R is true.
d. A is false but R is true.
1.Assertion : The country has legal powers to acquire even private property for public good.
Ans : c. A is true but R is false. Reason: Technically,all the resources belong to the nation.
Page 109 of 118 Page 110 of 118
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
2.Assertion : Agriculture is not an old economic activity. assertion.
Reason : Farming varies from subsistence to commercial type.
Ans : (d) A is false but R is true. 12. Assertion : Intensive Subsistence farming is practised in areas of less population pressure on
land.
3.Assertion : Plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Reason :High doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production.
Reason : Plantation is a type of commercial farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. Ans: : d. A is false but R is true.
assertion.
DEMOCRATIC POLITICS
4.Assertion : Biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production. Chapter:1
Reason : Doses of biochemical input are used to grow crops rapidly. Power Sharing
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of 1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
assertion. (R). Read the statements and chose the correct option:
5.Assertion : Crops are grown depending upon the variations in soil, climate and cultivation the total production in each sector.
practices. Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
Reason : Crops are also grown according to availability of water. Options:
Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
assertion. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
6.Assertion : Staple food crop in India is rice and requires more rain. d. A is false but R is true.
Reason : Our country is the fourth largest producer of rice in the world.
Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false. 1. Assertion: In Belgium , many powers of the central government have been given to state
governments of the two regions of the country.
7.Assertion : Pulses are not considered as a major source of protein in a vegetarian diet. Reason :The state governments are not subordinate to the Central Government
Reason : Rice is a Kharif crop and requires lot of rain to grow. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Ans : d. A is false but R is true.
2.Assertion : In Belgium, the leaders realized that the unity of the country is possible by
respecting the feelings and interest of different people .
8.Assertion : Tea cultivation, is a labour - intensive industry. Reason : Belgium favoured Dutch speaking community.
Reason : Cultivation can be done throughout the year .Tea bushes require warm and moist Ans : c. A is true but R is false.
frost- free climate.
Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of 3.Assertion : French speaking community in Belgium was rich and powerful.
assertion. Reason : Belgian Government favoured Dutch speaking community.
9.Assertion : Organic farming is much in vogue.
Reason : In organic forming, crops are grown using high doses chemical fertiliser to 4.Assertion : In a democracy, everyone has voice in the shaping of public policies.
increase production. Reason : India has federal system.
Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false. Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
10.Assertion :Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value
crops. 5.Assertion : Power should not reside with one person and group located at one place in a
Reason :This will increase incomes and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously. democracy.
Ans (a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Reason : If the power is dispersed, it will not be possible to take decision quickly and
enforce it.
11.Assertion : India‟s primary activity is Agriculture. Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Reason : Two-thirds of its population is engaged in agricultural activities.
Page 111 of 118 Page 112 of 118
6.Assertion : Belgium and Sri Lanka both faced ethical tension among different communities. Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know
Reason : Both the countries resolved the conflict by power sharing arrangement which the total production in each sector.
gave equal representation to all the communities. Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false. Options:
7.Assertion : There was a feeling of alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Reason : The Sri Lankan government denied them equal political rights and discriminated c. A is true but R is false.
against them in getting jobs and other opportunities, d. A is false but R is true.
assertion. 1. Assertion : The Indian Union is based on the principles of democracy
Reason : Although it did not use the word federation in the Constitution.
8.Assertion : Community government in Belgium is elected by one language community. d. A is false but R is true.
Reason : Community government helped in resolving conflict between different linguistic
groups. 2.Assertion : Hindi is identified as the only official language of India.
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Reason : It helped in creating supremacy of Hindi speaking people over others.
assertion. Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
9.Assertion : Sinhala was recognized as only official language of Sri Lanka. 3.Assertion : It is very difficult to make the changes in the basic structure of the
Reason : The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish the supremacy of Sinhala constitution.
community. Reason : Both the houses have power to amend the constitution independently.
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
assertion.
4.Assertion : India is a federation.
10. Assertion: Power Sharing is good. Reason : Power resides with the central authority.
Reason : It leads to ethical tension. Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
5.Assertion : Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language.
11. Assertion: The Dutch-speaking community has accepted equal representation in the Central Reason : Hindi was identified as the official language.
Government.
Reason :The French speaking people accepted equal representation in Brussels. b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
assertion. 6. Assertion : The subjects which are not included in Union List, State List and
Concurrent List are considered as residuary subjects.
12.Assertion : Tyranny of majority is highly undesirable. Reason : The subjects included that came after constitution was made and thus could not be
Reason : It helps in making the political order more stable. classified.
Ans : c. A is true but R is false. Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
13.Assertion : Belgium and Spain has holding federation 7.Assertion : India has a federal system.
Reason : A b i g c o u n t r y d i v i d e s p o w e r b e t w e e n c o n s t i t u e n t s s t a t e s a n d Reason : Under a unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-
national government. units are subordinate to central government.
Ans : c. A is true but R is false. Ans : (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
Chapter:2
Federalism 8.Assertion : Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the Zilla parishad.
1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason Reason : Mayor is the head of municipalities.
(R). Read the statements and chose the correct option: Ans :. c. A is true but R is false.
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9. Assertion : A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992 by amending the
constitution. Ans.a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Reason: Constitution was amended to make the third tier of democracy more powerful and
effective. 6.Assertion :.Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Reason : it has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities.
assertion. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
10.Assertion : Third-tier of government is local government. 7. Assertion: A country that was extremely rich in natural resources has mainly relied on
Reason : It made democracy weak. oil extraction for revenue generation for several centuries. However, the scientists predict
Ans : (c) Assertion is true but reason is false. that the country may become poor in the future if other means of generating income are not
devised.
Reason : Oil is a non-renewable resource, and it is likely to get exhausted if not used
judiciously.
ECONOMICS Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
Chapter:1 assertion.
Development
1.In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason 8. Assertion : The crude oil reserves are going down for the entire world, and the
(R). Read the statements and chose the correct option: countries need to find substitute fuel for crude oil.
Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals. Reason : A country that is dependent on imports for crude oil will not demand more crude
Reason (R): People want freedom, equality, security and respect. oil in the future.
Options: Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. .
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 9.Assertion : Non-renewable resources are abundant in nature.
c. A is true but R is false. Reason : Renewable resources can be replenished over a period of time.
d. A is false but R is true. Ans : (d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. .
10.Assertion : A high average income is not indicative of the overall well-being or human
2.Assertion : The average income of a country is about USS 12,056; however, the country development in a country.
is still not a developed country. Reason : Average income does not cover indicators like level of literacy rate, health
Reason : The income levels are highly skewed for the country. facilities and public facilities in a country.
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
3.Assertion : Sustainable development is essential for economic growth of the countries.

Reason : Sustainable development ensures that environment friendly measures are adopted Chapter: 2
for carrying out production processes. Sectors of the Indian Economy
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of 1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
assertion. (R). Read the statements and chose the correct option:
4.Assertion : Suppose the literacy rate in a state is 78% and the net attendance ratio in the total production in each sector.
secondary stage is 47%. Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods.
Reason : More than half of the students are going to other states for elementary education. Options:
Ans : (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
5.Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know c. A is true but R is false.
the total production in each sector. d. A is false but R is true.
Reason (R): The value of all the intermediate goods already includes the value of final goods
Page 115 of 118 Page 116 of 118
1.Assertion : In India, over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while 9. Assertion : When calculating the total value of goods and services produced in a
production in all the three sectors has increased, it has increased the most in the tertiary country, the value of all goods and services at each stage of production should be
sector. calculated.
Reason : Tertiary sector is the only organized sector in the economy so the government spends Reason The money value of all final goods or service, produced in each sector in a
a lot of money for creating jobs in tertiary sector. country per year to estimate GDP
Ans : (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. Ans : (d) A is false but R is true.
2.Assertion : Reliance industries is a privately-owned firm. 10. Assertion: There are several things needed by the society as a whole but which the private
Reason : Government is a major stakeholder is reliance industries. sector will not provide at a reasonable cost.
Ans : (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false. Reason: Private sector is profit oriented.
3.Assertion : The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
service sector. assertion.
Reason : As the primary and secondary sectors develops, the demand for transport, storage
structures, banks, insurance, etc., increases.
Ans : (a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
Thank You
4.Assertion : An individual who manufactures flour from wheat is engaged in primary ***************
sector.
Reason : When the process of manufacturing is used the product is a part of secondary sector.
Ans : (d) A is false but R is true.
5. Assertion: GDP shows the economic strength of a country.

Reason : GDP is the f i n a l value of all goods and services produced within the domestic
territory of a country in a year.
assertion.
6.Assertion : Salim is an educated and skilled worker who earns a high monthly salary as he
is employed in a private bank in a city.
Reason : All service sectors in India are growing extremely well and each individual engaged
in any kind of tertiary activity earns a high income.
Ans : Ans. (c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
7.Assertion : Geeta works five days a week, receives her income on the last day of each
month and gets medical facilities from her firm.
Reason : Geeta is working in organized sector.
assertion.
8.Assertion : Mohan is a shopkeeper. He has employed two workers Gopal and Rajan in
his shop. He pays them well, however, none of the workers get any paid leaves in the year.
Reason : Gopal and Rajan are employed in unorganized sector.
assertion.
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SOCIAL SCIENCE FINAL MCQs (4) Asa

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SOCIAL SCIENCE FINAL MCQs (4) Asa

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HISTORY

UNIT I 2. Who wrote an influential pamphlet „What is the third Estate‟?

Chapter 2 Sectors of the Indian Economy

7. Which of the following statements is False about the “Third Estate”?

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7 ) Who were the "Junkers"?

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1b 2a 3c 4a 5b 6c 7c 8b 9c 10a 11b 12b

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16. Kharif crops are grown ………….

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(21) Why jute is losing market?

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5) The major Social groups of Sri Lanka are

7) What does Tamil Eelam Mean?

11) What is the linguistic composition of Belgium?

12) Which of the following does not border Belgium?

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Q.7 Belgium shirted from a unitary form of government to

Q.8 In a „Holding together federation‟ ____

8. What did the constitution declare India after independence ?

Q. 38. What ensured the spirit of federalism in India?

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(7) The most common important component of development may be _______________

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8). What is P.D.S.?

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a) 145 b)135 c)130 d)125

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2013 800500 1074000 3868000

Now calculate the share of primary sector in GDP.

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(13). under employment is a situation when

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3.Assertion : Sustainable development is essential for economic growth of the countries.

5. Assertion: GDP shows the economic strength of a country.

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