100 QUESTIONS ON MEDICINE & SURGERY

BRO EMMA & TEAM (0501321481)

1. Which of the following lab studies should be done periodically if the client is taking warfarin
sodium (coumadin)?
A. Blood glucose
B. Erythrocyte count
C. Stool specimen for occult blood

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of retinal detachment. Which of the following will the
nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Out of bed to ambulate with assistance
B. Place an eye patch over the affected eye
C. Maintain high-Fowler’s position

3. In appendicitis, pain is felt in the right lower quadrant of the patient’s abdomen when the
left lower quadrant is palpated. This is known as as………………
A. Brudzikin’s sign
B. McBurney’s point
C. Rebound tenderness
D. Rovsing’s sign

4. The client has an order for heparin to prevent post-surgical thrombi. Immediately following
a heparin injection, the nurse should:
A. Aspirate for blood
B. Check the pulse rate
C. Check the site for bleeding

5. A nurse provides dietary teaching about a low-sodium diet for a client with hypertension.
Which nutrient selected by the client indicates an understanding about foods that are low in
natural sodium?
A. Milk
B. Meat
C. Fruits
6. A self-help group of clients with irritable bowel syndrome have invited a nurse to present a
program on nutrition. Which substance should the nurse teach the clients to minimize in
the diet to disease GI irritability?
A. Cola drinks
B. Amino acids
C. Rice products

7. A nurse is collecting a health history from a client who has a diagnosis of cancer of the
tongue should the nurse assess when collecting the client’s history?
A. Nail biting
B. Poor dental habits
C. Frequent gum chewing
D. Large consumption of alcohol

8. Paracentesis is the removal of fluid from the

A. Abdominal cavity
B. Pleural cavity
C. Peritoneal cavity

9. Myopia is a disease condition which refers to

A. Far-sightedness
B. Opacity of the conjunctiva
C. Short-sightedness

10. The major purpose of the cerebrospinal fluid is to……….

A. Provide electrical conduction to the brain
B. Protect the brain from jarring movement
C. Supply nutrients to the brain

11. Calcitonin is a hormone of the:

A. Adrenal Cortex
B. Thymus gland
C. Thyroid gland

12. When an intestinal obstruction is suspected, a client has a nasogastric tube inserted and
attached to suction. For what response should the nurse critically assess this client?
A. Edema
B. Belching
C. Fluid deficit
13. A hormone that plays an important role in maintaining a normal fluid balance is
A. Calcium
B. Parathormone
C. Thyroxin
D. Vasopressin

14. The bluish colouring of the skin in respiratory condition is known as…….
A. Clubbing
B. Cyanosis
C. Dyspnoea

15. A client is scheduled for ligation of hemorrhoids. Which diet does the nurse expect to be
ordered in preparation for this surgery?
A. Bland
B. Clear liquid
C. High-protein
D. Low-reside

16. After a subtotal gastrectomy a client is returned to the surgical unit. Which is the best
nursing action to prevent pulmonary of complications?
A. Ambulating the client to increase respiratory exchange
B. Promoting frequent turning and deep breathing to mobilize secretions
C. Maintaining a consistent oxygen flow rate to increase saturation

17. Koilonychia is a condition of the nails which occurs in

A. Blood calcium depletion
B. Chronic bronchial asthma
C. Iron deficiency anaemia

18. A client with a fractured leg is exhibiting shortness of breath, pain upon deep breathing, and
hemoptysis. The nurse would determine that these clinical manifestations are indicative of:
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Pulmonary embolus
C. Adult respiratory distress syndrome

19. A patient with duodenal ulcer would probably describe the associated pain as………
A. Generalized abdominal pain intensified by moving
B. A gnawing sensation relieved by food
C. An ache radiating to the left side

20. The receptors for hearing and balance are contained in the………. ear
 A. Inner
B. Middle
C. Outer

21. The nurse is caring for a client with possible cervical cancer. What clinical data would the
nurse most likely find in the client’s history?
A. Post-coital vaginal bleeding
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge

22. Which laboratory test indicates liver cirrhosis?

A. Decreased red blood cell count
B. Decreased serum acid phosphate level
C. Elevated white blood cell count
D. Elevated serum aminotransferase

23. When percussing a normal lung, which of the following sounds be heard.
A. Tympany
B. Resonance
C. Dullness
D. Hyperresonance

24. For which classic clinical funding should the nurse assess the stool of clients with
malabsorption syndrome?
A. Melena
B. Frank blood
C. Fat globules
D. Currently jelly consistency

25. Which statement made by a client after attending a class on nutrition indicates an
understanding of the importance of essential amino acids?
A. “Amino acids can be made by the body because they are essential to life “
B. “They come from the diet because they cannot be synthesized in the body"
C. “They are used in key processes essential for growth once they are synthesized by the
body”

26. Mega doses of vitamin A are taken by a client. Why should the nurse question this practice?
A. Vitamin A is highly toxic, even in small amounts
B. The liver has a great storage capacity for vitamin A, even to toxic amounts
C. Vitamin A cannot be stored, therefore excess amounts will saturate the general body tissues

27. A client with the diagnosis of cancer of the stomach express aversion to meals and eats only
small amounts. What should the nurse provide?
A. Nourishment between meals
B. Small portions more frequently
C. Supplementary vitamins to stimulate the client’s appetite

28. An abnormal condition in a child due to a lack of vitamin D is

A. Osteoporosis
B. Ostomalacia
C. Rickets
D. Acromegaly

29. A client who had an incision and drainage of an oral abscess is to be discharged. For which
clinical finding, if it should occur, should the nurse instruct the client to notify the health
care provider?
A. Foul odor to the breath
B. Pain associated with swallowing
C. Pain with swelling after one week

30. A client with gastric ulcer disease asks the nurse why the health care provider has
prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl). The nurse explains, “Antibiotics are prescribed to:
A. augment the immune response”
B. Potentiate the effect of antacids”
C. Treat Helicopter pylori infection”
31. A client has a suspected peptic ulcer in the duodenum. What should the nurse expect the
client to report when describing the pain associated with this disease?
A. An ache radiating to the left side
B. An intermittent colicky flank pain
C. A gnawing sensation relieved by food

32. Nurse Tristan is caring for a male client in acute renal failure. The nurse should expect
hypertonic glucose, insulin, infusions, and sodium bicarbonate to be used to treat:
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperkalemia

33. A client is performing a breast exam on a client when she discovers a mass. Which
characteristic of the mass would most indicate a reason for concern?
A. Tender to touch
B. Regular shape
C. Moves easily
D. Firm to be touch

34. After a subtotal gastrectomy for cancer of the stomach, a client develops dumping
syndrome. The client says “What does it mean when the breath care provider said that I am
experiencing dumping syndrome? When information should the nurse include in a response
to this question?
A. Nausea resulting from a full stomach
B. Reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus
C. Buildup of flatulence within the large intestine
D. Rapid passage of concentrated fluid into the small intestine
35. Two hours after a subtotal gastrectomy, the nurse identifies that the drainage from the
client’s nasogastric tube is bright red. What should the nurse do first?
A. Severe oral medications
B. Clamp the nasogastric tube for one hour
C. Notify the health care provider

36. The term “blue bloater” refers to a male client which of the following conditions?
A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B. Asthma
C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
D. Emphysema

37. A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory test should the nurse
monitor that, when abnormal, might identify a client who may benefit from neomycin
enemas?
A. Ammonia level
B. Culture and sensitivity
C. White blood cell count

38. The term “pink puffer” refers to the female client with which of the following conditions?
A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B. Asthma
C. Chronic Obstructive bronchitis
D. Emphysema

39. A patient with liver cirrhosis is at increased risk for excessive bleeding primarily because of:
A. Impaired clotting me mechanism
B. Varix formation
C. Inadequate nutrition

40. A client is admitted to the surgical unit from the post-anesthesia care unit with a Salem
sump nasogastric tube that is to be attached to wall suction. Which nursing action should
the nurse implement when caring for this client?
A. Use normal saline to irrigate the tube
B. Employ sterile technique when irrigating the tube
C. Withdraw the tube quickly when decompression is terminated

41. A myotic agent would always

A. Improve the sight
B. Induce diereses
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil

42. A mydriatic agent would always

A. Assist the sight of the client
B. Assist to overcome
C. Constrict the pupil
D. Dilate the pupil

43. A nurse is caring for a male client who is scheduled for a dilation of the urethra. Which
structure surrounding the male urethra should the nurse include in a teaching program when
explaining the procedure?
A. Epididymis
B. Prostate gland
C. Seminal vesicle
44. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which
information about this condition is important for the nurse to consider when caring for this
client?
A. It is a congenital abnormality
B. A malignancy usually results
C. It predisposes to hydronephrosis

45. A nurse is counseling a woman who had recurrent urinary tract infections. What factor
should the nurse explain is the reason why women are at a greater risk than men for
contracting a urinary tract infection?
A. Altered urinary PH
B. Hormonal secretions
C. Juxtaposition of the bladder
D. Proximity of the urethra to the Anus

46. Obstruction of the urinary tract or failure of urinary peristalsis may result in……….
A. Pyelonephrosis
B. Hydronephrosis
C. Pyelonephristis
D. Hypernephroma

47. A routine urinalysis is ordered for a client. What should the nurse do if the specimen cannot
be sent immediately to the laboratory?
A. Take no special action
B. Refrigerate the specimen
C. Store it in the dirty utility room and send it later
D. Discard the specimen and collect another specimen later
48. A client with a urinary retention catheter reports discomfort in the bladder urethra. What
should the nurse do first?
A. Milk the tubing gently
B. Notify the health care provider
C. Check the patency of the catheter

49. A client experiences difficulty in voiding after an indwelling urinary catheter is removed. To
what does the nurse determine that this is most probably related?
A. Fluid imbalance
B. Sedentary lifestyle
C. Interruption in previous voiding habits

50. A client diagnosed of Maniere’s disease should avoid

A. Cereal products
B. Salty foods
C. Citrus foods
D. Green vegetables

51. To facilitate communication with an 80-year-old client diagnosed of presbycusis, the nurse
should
A. Lower the voice pitch and face the client when speaking
B. Use sign language
C. Speak loudly

52. A health care provider schedules a paracentesis. What should the nurse instruct client to do
to prepare for the procedure?
A. Empty the bladder before the procedure
B. Take a laxative the evening before the procedure
C. Ingest nothing by mouth for 8 hours before the procedure

53. A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy. What instruction should the nurse provide the
client in preparation for this diagnosis procedure?
A. Have an enema the morning of the test
B. A chalklike substance will have to be swallowed
C. Withhold food for twenty-four hours before the test

54. Which of the following is caused by a vitamin A deficiency?

A. Edema
B. Anaemia
C. Night blindness
D. Rickets

55. Three days after admission to the hospital for a brain attack (cerebrospinal accident [CVA], a
client has a nasogastric tube inserted and is receiving continuous tube feedings. What
should the nurse do to best evaluate whether the feeding is being absorbed?
A. Aspirate for a residual volume
B. Evaluate the intake in relation to the output
C. Instill air into the client’s stomach while auscultating

56. The 10th cranial nerve is called…...nerve

A. Abducent
B. Vagus
C. Hypoglossal
D. Glossopharyngeal
57. When caring for a male client who is to receive chemotherapy for a cancerous condition, at
which time should the nurse consider that spermatogenesis occurs?
A. At the time of puberty
B. At any time after birth
C. Immediately following birth
D. During embryonic development

58. The nurse is caring for a client with scalding burns across the face, neck, upper half of the
anterior chest, and entire right arm. Using the rule of nines, estimated the percentage of
body burned
A. 18%
B. 23%
C. 32%
D. 36%

59. A nurse is caring for a client with an undescended testicle. The nurse teaches the client that
the main reason why the testicles are suspended in the scrotum is to:
A. Protect the sperm from the acidity of urine
B. Facilitate the passage of sperm through the urethra
C. Protect the sperm from high abdominal temperatures

60. Which of the following vitamins promote healthy functioning of the eye?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

61. The basic unit of the nervous system that automatically controls body function is the
A. Dendrite
B. Glial cells
C. Neuron
D. Axon

62. Which nursing action can best prevent infection from a urinary retention catheter?
A. Cleansing the perineum
B. Encouraging adequate fluids
C. Irrigating the catheter once daily
D. Cleansing around the meatus routinely

63. A nurse obtains daily stool specimens for a client with chronic bowel inflammation. The
nurse concludes that these stool examinations were ordered to determine:
A. Fat content
B. Occult blood
C. Ova and parasites
D. Culture and sensitivity

64. In haemophilia there is a:

A. Fast clothing time
B. Delay clotting time
C. Absence of clothing

65. A patient who develops air in the pleural space is experiencing which of the following
conditions?
A. Pleural effusion
B. Haemothorax
C. Pneumothorax
D. Pleural thorax

66. Haemophilia B is also called:

A. Addison’s disease
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Christmas disease

67. A client with chronic hepatic failure is soon to be discharged from the hospital. Which diet
should the nurse encourage the client to follow based on the health care provider
provider’s order?
A. High-fat
B. Low-calorie
C. Low-protein

68. A nurse is assessing the urine of a client with a urinary tract infection. For which
characteristic should the nurse assess each specimen of urine?
A. Cloudiness (turbidity)
B. Viscosity
C. Glucose level
D. Specific gravity

69. A nurse is caring for a client with glomerulonephritis. What should the nurse instruct the
client to do prevent recurrent attacks?
A. Take showers instead of tub baths
B. Continue the same restrictions on fluid intake
C. Avoid situations that involve physical activity
D. Seek early treatment for respiratory tract infections
70. A nurse is concerned that a client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis of the liver may experience
the compilation of hepatic coma. For which clinical indicator should the nurse assess this
client?
A. lcterus
B. Urticaria
C. Uremic frost

71. An open-angle glaucoma occurs when

A. The pressure increases within the eye from excess fluid or blocking the drainage
B. The lens of the eye becomes opaque
C. The blood vessels in the back of the eye ruptures

72. A client diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear usually complains of
A. Hearing loss
B. Pruitus
C. Tinnitus
D. Burning in the ear

73. A health care provider orders intermittent nasogastric tube feedings to supplement a
client’s oral nutritional intake. Which hazard associated with a nasogastric tube feeding will
be reduced if the nurse administers this feeding over 30 to 60 minutes?
A. Distention
B. Flatulence
C. Ingestion
D. Regurgitation

74. Which of the following is not primarily a function of the hypothalamus?

A. Regulates body temperature
B. Links nervous and endocrine system
C. Regulates appetite
D. Serves as a center for language and memory

75. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of alcohol withdrawal syndrome. What
body organ should the nurse teach, the client will be protected by the ingestion of a high-
calorie diet fortified with vitamins?
A. Liver
B. Heart
C. Pancreas

76. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) and niacin (Vitamin B3) are prescribed for a client with alcoholism.
What body function maintained by these vitamins should the nurse include in a teaching
plan?
A. Neuronal activity
B. Bowel elimination
C. Efficient circulation

77. Which function must be addressed in the plan of care when a client has dysphagia?
A. Writing
B. Focusing
C. Swallowing

78. In which position should the nurse initially place a client who has experienced CVA?
A. Prone
B. Lateral
C. Supine

79. A client with CVA is comatose on admission. Which clinical indicator is the nurse most likely
to identify?
A. twitching motions
B. Purposeful motions
C. Urinary incontinence
80. A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client with a history of Cholelithiasis. Which
information about why the ingestion of fatty foods will cause discomfort should the nurse
include in the teaching plan?
A. Fatty foods are hard to digest
B. Bile flow into the intestine is obstructed
C. The liver is manufacturing inadequate bile

81. Before a cholecystectomy vitamin K is prescribed. Which element, formed in the presence
of Kumasi K, should the nurse determine is the purpose of a administering this medication?
A. Bilirubin
B. Prothrombin
C. Thromboplastin

82. A client is diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas and is apprehensive and restless. Which
nursing action should be included in the plan of care?
A. Encouraging expression of concerns
B. Administering antibiotics as prescribed
C. Teaching the importance of getting rest

83. A person with a damaged medulla Oblongata would have difficulty in:
A. Reading
B. Tasting food
C. Breathing

84. The main purpose of under-water sealed drainage system is to

A. Prevent air from entering the pleural cavity
B. Prevent air and fluid
C. Drain air, fluid and blood from the pleural cavity

85. The nurse should protect the patient’s skin surrounding a colostomy opening by using
A. Barrier cream-to prevent excoriation
B. Methylated spirit
C. Mineral oil

86. With which of the following disorders is jugular vein distention most prominent?
A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
B. Heart failure
C. Myocardial function

87. The immediate objective of nursing care for an overweight, mildly hypertensive male client
with urethra colic and hematuria is to decrease:
A. Pain
B. Weight
C. Hematuria

88. Ricardo, was diagnosed with type I diabetes. The nurse is aware that acute hypoglycemia
also can develop in the client who is diagnosed with:
A. Liver disease
B. Hypertension
C. Kidney disease
89. Tracy is receiving combination chemotherapy for treatment of metastatic carcinoma. Nurse
Ruby should monitor the client for the systemic side effect of:
A. Ascites
B. Nystagmus
C. Leukopenia

90. Potassium excess can result in:

A. tongue fissure
B. Muscle cramps
C. Sunken eyes

91. In hemorrhagic anaemia, injection……………is given to client to allay anxiety.

A. Pethidine
B. Coumadin
C. Herparin
D. Morphine

92. The byproducts of all foods oxidized in the body are;

A. Amino acids, oxygen and glycerol
B. Fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide
C. Glucose, amino acids and water
D. Carbon dioxide, energy and water

93. The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:
A. Alteration in comfort (pain)
B. Anxiety
C. Ineffective coping
94. Terence suffered from burn injury. Using the rule of nines, which has the largest percent of
burns?
A. Face and neck
B. Right upper arm and penis
C. Right thigh and penis
D. Upper trunk

95. Norma, with recent colostomy express concern about the inability to control the passage of
gas. Nurse Oliver should suggest that the client plan to:
A. Eliminate foods high in cellulose
B. Decrease fluid intake at meal times
C. Avoid foods that in the past caused flatus

96. The sense of smell is supplied by……. Nerve

A. Occulomotor
B. Sensory
C. Facial
D. Olfactory

97. Which of the following is water soluble?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
98. A patient with ascites is scheduled for paracentesis abdominis. Before the procedure, the
nurse instructs the patient to
A. Assume the supine position
B. Eat foods low in fats
C. Empty bladder

99. For a client with Graves’ disease, which nursing intervention promotes comfort?
A. Restricting intake of oral fluids
B. Placing extra blankets on the client’s bed
C. Limiting intake of high-carbohydrate foods
D. Maintaining room temperature in the low- normal range

100.Patrick is treated in the emergency department for a Colle’s’ fracture sustained during a
fall. What is a Colle’s fracture?
A. Fracture of the distal radius
B. Fracture of the olecranon
C. Fracture of the humerus

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