Test 2

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READING

Directions: In this section you will read FOUR different passages. Each one is followed by
10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D to
each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Answer all questions
following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your
answers to the answer sheet.

READING PASSAGE 1
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.

THE EUROPEAN DREAM


In the aftermath of the Second World War 1945, some political leaders in
Western Europe believed that the only way to avoid war and conflict in the future
was to unite the countries of Europe in an economic and political union. So, in
1952 six countries France, Germany, Italy, Belgium, the Netherlands and
5 Luxembourg formed what was to evolve into the European Union (EU). Since
then a further 21 countries have joined the organisation, bringing the total
population of the EU to over 500 million. To become a member, a country must
meet the Copenhagen criteria, defined at the 1993 meeting of the European
Council in Copenhagen.
10 The EU has developed a single market through a standardised system of
laws that apply in all member states. The monetary union was established in
1999 and came into full force in 2002. It is currently composed of 19 member
states that use the euro as their legal tender. EU policies aim to ensure the free
movement of people, goods, services, and capital, enact legislation in justice and
15 home affairs, and maintain common policies on trade, agriculture, fisheries, and
regional development.
The EU is not a federation like the United States. The member states of the
EU remain independent sovereign nations but they pool their sovereignty in
certain areas of policy. Pooling sovereignty means, in practice, that tChe member
20 states delegate some of their decision-making powers to shared institutions they
have created, so that decisions about specific matters of joint interest can be
made democratically at European level.
The three main decision-making institutions are
- The European Commission, consisting of 27 commissioners, one chosen
25 by each member state. The role of the Commission is to propose new
legislation, but it cannot pass laws by itself.
- The Council of the EU, consisting of one government minister from each
country. The Council is the EU's main decision - making body. It votes on
legislation proposed by the Commission.
30 - The European Parliament, based in Brussels and Strasbourg, and
consisting of 785 MEPs directly elected by the citizens of the EU. Elections
are held every five years. Like the Council the Parliament votes on and
passes laws proposed by the Commission.
The British have a very uneasy relationship with the EU. British Europhiles
35 claim that the EU continues to bring tangible economic and political benefits to
the UK, and that it has delivered peace and stability to Europe for over half a
century. Eurosceptics, however, who are probably in majority in the UK, are

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concerned about the direction the EU is taking. They believe that it is
fundamentally undemocratic and unaccountable, and maintain that the real aim
of the EU is to create an enormous federal state in which individual member
states will exercise little control over their own affairs.

1. In which decade was the organisation that was to become the EU formed?
A. 1990s B. 2000s C. 1950s D. 1940s
2. The original members of the EU included ……….
A. Britain, France, Germany B. Germany, Italy, Luxembourg
C. France, Belgium and New Zealand D. Italy, Britain and the United States
3. How many member states are there in the EU now?
A. 21 B. 27 C. 26 D. 6
4. ……………… is one of the two cities the European Parliament meets.
A. Brussels B. Luxembourg C. Copenhagen D. Stratford
5. What did the founders of the EU hope that it would achieve?
A. giving European countries a priority in world affair
B. reducing the likelihood of hostility and war
C. bringing to Europe sustainable prosperity
D. making important decisions in world affair
6. What does “what” in line 5 refer to ………….?
A. the six countries B. the only way C. a system of laws D. an organisation
7. What do Eurosceptics fear?
A. that the direction the EU is taking is misleading.
B. that the individual member states will abuse their power over the world affairs.
C. that the EU continues to bring tangible economic and political benefits to the UK.
D. that the EU is fundamentally democratic and unaccountable.
8. Which of the followings is NOT the benefit of the EU?
A. Becoming over-bureaucratic and undemocratic
B. Free movement of people, goods, services, and capital
C. Single market and currency
D. Peace and stability
9. We can infer from the passage that the British …………
A. provide economic aid to the poorer regions of Europe.
B. have a tight relationship with the EU.
C. are always unfavourable of EU.
D. do not want the EU to leave more decisions to national governments.
10. Which of these statements about the EU is NOT correct?
A. The European Commission has commissioners coming from all states.
B. Members of European Parliament are elected.
C. Most British people are concerned about the direction the EU is taking.
D. The member states of the EU are dependent on one another.

READING PASSAGE 2
Questions 11-20 refer to the following passage.
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is
actually considered unsual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are
very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a
means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and
5 connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some
health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future
many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In
England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone
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10 companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say
that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells
of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the
brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a
15 traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss.
He couldn’t remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his
own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day,
every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed
his mobile phone use, but his employer’s doctor didn’t agree.
20 What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is
radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from
mobile phones. Mobile phone comapanies agree that there is some radiation,
but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it’s the
25 best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk
for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile
phones can be very useful and convenient, espeicially in emergencies. In the
future, mobile phones may have a warning lable that says they are bad for your
health. So for now, it’s wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
11. According to the passage, why are cellphones especially popular with young
people?
A. They keep the users alert all the time
B. They make them look more stylish
C. They are indispensable in everyday communications
D. They cannot be replaced by regular phones
12. What are the changes possibly caused by the cellphone mainly concerned with?
A. The smallest unites of the brain. B. The arteries of the brain.
C. The mobility of the mind and the body D. The resident memory.
13. What does the word ‘means’ in line 3 is closest in meaning to…….?
A. method B. expression C. meaning D. transmission
14. What does the word ‘potentially’ in line 19 is closest in meaning to…….?
A. obviously B. privately C. certainly D. possibly
15. Why did the writer mention ‘negative publicity’?
A. To refer to widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones.
B. To talk about the negative public use of cellphones.
C. To refer to poor ideas about the effects of cellphones.
D. To refer to information on the lethal effects of cellphones.
16. What have doctors tentatively concluded about cellphones?
A. Cellphones may change their users’ social behaviours
B. Cellphones may change their users’ temperament.
C. Cellphones may cause some mental malfunction.
D. Cellphones may damage their users’ emotions.
17. What happened to the man mentioned in the passage?
A. He abandoned his family.
B. He suffered serious loss of mental ability.
C. He could no longer think lucidly.
D. He had a problem with memory.
18. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful?
A. Their power of attraction. B. Their invisible rays.
C. Their radiant light. D. Their raiding power.
19. What did the writer advise mobile phone users to do?
A. Keep off mobile phones regularly.
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Practice Test 2
B. Only use mobile phones in medical emergencies.
C. Never use mobile phones in all cases.
D. Only use mobile phones in urgent situations.
20. Which could be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Mobile Phones: a Must of Our Time B. The Way Mobile Phone Work
C. Technological Innovations and Their Price D. The reasons Why Mobile Phones Are
Popular

READING PASSAGE 3
Questions 21-30 refer to the following passage.
MARY'S FIRST JOB
When I was just fifteen, my father purchased an old hostel in the country
where we lived and decided to turn it into a luxury hotel. At the early stages of the
hotel, he experimented with everything. None of us had ever worked in a hotel
before, but my dad had a vision of what guests wanted. His standards were
5 extremely high and he believed that to reach those standards the most important
thing was work.
For a month that summer I worked as a waitress at breakfast and dinner. As
part of the job I had to lay the tables in the dining room beforehand and clean up
afterwards. This gave me the middle of the day free for studying because my school
1 report predictably had not lived up to my father’s high expectations.
0 Like all the other waitresses, I was equipped with a neat uniform and told to
treat the guests as though they were special visitors in my own home. Although I felt
more like a stranger in theirs, I did not express my feelings. Instead I concentrated
on doing the job as well as, if not better than, the older girls.
In the kitchen I learned how to deal with Gordon, the chef, who I found rather
1 daunting. He had an impressive chef's hat and a terrifying ability to lose his temper
5 and get violent for no clear reason. I avoided close contact with him and always
grabbed the dishes he gave me with a cold look on my face. Then, as I walked from
the kitchen to the dining room, my cold expression used to change into a charming
smile.
I found waiting at breakfast was more enjoyable than at dinner. The guests
2 came wandering into the dining room from seven-thirty onwards, staring with
0 pleasure at the view of the sea and the islands through the dining room window. I
always made sure that everyone got their order quickly and I enjoyed getting on well
with the people at each table.
In the evenings it was funny how differently people behaved; they talked with
louder, less friendly voices, and did not always return my smile. However, that all
2 changed when Dad created a special role for me which improved my status
5 considerably.
I started by making simple cakes for guests’ picnics and soon progressed to
more elaborate cakes for afternoon teas. I found that recipes were easy to follow and
it was amusing to improvise. This led to a nightly event known as Mary’s Sweet
Trolley. I used to enter the dining room every evening pushing a trolley carrying an
3 extraordinary collection of puddings, cakes and other desserts. Most of them were of
0 my own invention, I had cooked them all myself, and some were undeniably strange.

21. The word "it" in line 2 refers to ………

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Practice Test 2
A. an old hostel B. the country C. a luxury hotel D. Mary's first job
22. What did the people working at the hotel have in common?
A. They knew what the guests expected. B. They shared all the jobs.
C. They lacked experience. D. They enjoyed the work.
23. Mary's working day was organized in order to give her ………
A. time for her school work. B. working experience.
C. time at midday to relax. D. time to have lunch with her father.
24. In the second paragraph, what best paraphrases the sentence "my school report
predictably had not lived up to my father’s high expectations"
A. The school made a report about my expectations to my father.
B. My father has not satisfied with my results at school.
C. The report from school is highly predictable to my father.
D. My father expects to receive the school report soon.
25. What does the writer mean by "daunting" in line 15?
A. disgusting B. frightening C. interesting D. strange
26. What did Mary do while she walked from the kitchen to the dining room?
A. She smiled at Gordon in a friendly way. B. She avoided touching Gordon.
C. She checked the food Gordon gave her. D. She started to look more friendly.

27. Why did Mary enjoy serving breakfasts more than dinners?
A. She enjoyed the view from the dining room while working.
B. She had a better relationship with the guests.
C. The guests were more punctual than at dinner.
D. She worked more efficiently at breakfast.
28. How did Mary’s father improve her position in the hotel?
A. He put her in charge of the restaurant.
B. He asked her to provide entertainment for the guests.
C. He made her responsible for part of dinner.
D. He gave her a special uniform.
29. What was special about the food on Mary’s Sweet Trolley?
A. Mary made it following traditional recipes. B. Mary made the same food for picnics.
C. Mary and Gordon made it together. D. Mary made most of it without following recipes.
30. What impression does Mary give of her job throughout the passage?
A. It brought her closer to her father. B. It was sometimes uncomfortable.
C. It was always enjoyable. D. It was quite easy to do.

READING PASSAGE 4
Questions 31-40 refer to the following passage.
Jamie tried to ignore the shouts from the spectators, urging the players on.
Across the squash court, Danny Powell glared back at him. But there was an
element of satisfaction in Danny’s face. His arrogance had gone – the first two
games had at least knocked that a bit – but having fought back with unusual
5 aggression to two games all, he clearly felt he was in with a chance of taking the
match.
Jamie tried to focus his mind and energy. He knew the pressure was on him
now. He had been two games ahead and had thrown that led away. Though this
was meant to be a minor event, the semi-final of the Under 19 Knockout in the
10 “friendly” atmosphere of their own club, it was obvious that everyone wanted to
know who the winner would be, as they saw it as a faster for Regional
Championships in two weeks’ time.
Jamie glanced up at the faces in the gallery. Their classmates were all there,
and, of course, Bob Powell, who was going on and on with pride every time Danny
15 won a point, as though his son were a superstar and not the show-off that he was.
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Practice Test 2
But there was only one face up there Jamie was bothered about – his own father’s,
and right now, he did not dare to look at it.
“Fifth and final game,” called Geoff, the umpire. The shouts from the gallery
died away and Jamie forced his mind back to the match. Danny served. Jamie
20 started to dive forward. Earlier in the match, he would have reached this shot, but
now, with his energy almost spent, he stopped, knowing it was out of reach,
anxious to save what strength he had left.
Powell’s voice bellowed out: “Good boy, Danny, good boy! He’s finished!”
Jamie heard disapproving noises from Joe who, as owner of the club, always tried
25 to limit Powell’s open hostility towards his son’s opponents. It never did any good.
Jamie turned back to the court, determined to fight back, but now
desperately jaded. It seemed to him suddenly that he’d been on a squash court
every waking moment of his sixteen years. And before the next ball came towards
him, he just had time to reflect that this wasn’t far from the truth. No wonder these
30 walls had come to feel like a prison cell; and it was a cell of tension, with moments
of victory, but dominated for the most part by an ambition he sensed he would
never fulfil.
The next point was given to Jamie. Danny turned to Geoff: “It was out”.
Jamie looked away. He knew it was his point but he didn’t expect a problem. Geoff
35 was not a person to be fazed by anyone, not even Danny and her father. “Come on,”
said Danny. “It was my point”. Jamie had heard this sort of dialogue so many times
from Danny and, if it went on long enough, which it usually did, Bob Powell was
bound to join in. “I’ve given my decision,” said Geoff. “Now play on.”
Jamie said nothing and continued to wait, ball in hand. In a strange way, he
40 was grateful for this interruption. It gave him a moment to catch his breath. But
not for long, Geoff leaned on the rail and fixed his eyes on Danny. “Danny, play on,
please, or I’ll award a penalty point.” Danny, with a final glare, walked back into
position to continue the match. Jamie served at once, hoping the incident would
have unsettled Danny’s rhythm.
45 But Danny was now fired up. The ball came back like a bullet. To Jamie, the
next four points seemed to fly past in a maze of volleys and smashes that forced
him back, pulled him forward, played with him like a toy. He knew that he could
not beat Danny. Not today. Perhaps not ever. Danny was too strong.

31. The paragraphs above this extract may be about …………….


A. the way Jamie played squash. B. the first two games
C. the spectators D. the ways Danny Powell played.
32. In the first paragraph, Jamie noticed that Danny……………..
A. wasn’t happy with the way he was playing.
B. wasn’t quite so sure of himself as he had been.
C. was annoyed by the noise from the spectators.
D. was being less aggressive than normal.
33. What does “it” in line 10 refer to?
A. the winner B. the club C. the atmosphere D. the semi-final
34. What did Jamie feel when he looked at the gallery?
A. anxiety about what his father would be thinking
B. pride that his father was watching him
C. annoyance that Danny had more supporters
D. pleasure that his friends were watching
35. In the fourth paragraph, how did Jamie react to the ball?
A. He misjudged where it was going to land. B. He thought it wasn’t a good shot.
C. He decided it wasn’t worth trying to hit it. D. He tried to hit it and missed.
36. What do we learn about Joe in the fifth paragraph?
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Practice Test 2
A. He didn’t think Danny was a good player.
B. He attempted to stop Danny’s opponents shouting.
C. He thought Powell should praise his son more.
D. He had little effect on Powell’s behavior.
37. What did Jamie realize in the sixth paragraph?
A. He should have concentrated harder on his practice.
B. He was tired of the constant pressure he felt.
C. He didn’t need to worry so much about his skills.
D. He should be more ambitious for the future.
38. What did Jamie think when Danny argued with Geoff?
A. He expected Geoff to stick to his decision.
B. He Knew Geoff might ask for his opinion.
C. He wondered how Geoff would react.
D. He hoped Geoff would sort the problem out quickly.
39. In the last paragraph, the expression “played with him like a toy” is used to
illustrate the fact that
A. the match had become more entertaining.
B. the match had gone on for too long.
C. Jamie was no longer serious about winning.
D. Jamie had little control over the match.
40. What is the writer trying to do in this extract?
A. To describe how Jamie tried to fight Danny.
B. To describe a game called squash.
C. To describe the semi-final game between two friends.
D. To describe how spectator like the game.
LISTENING

Directions: This is the listening test for levels from 3 to 5 of the Vietnam’s 6-level
Language Proficiency Test. There are three parts to the test. You will hear each part once.
For each part of the test there will be time for you to look through the questions and time
for you to check your answers. Write your answers on the question paper. You will have 5
minutes at the end of the test to transfer your answers onto the answer sheet.

SECTION 1 Questions 1-8


There are eight questions in this part. For each question, there are four options and a short
recording. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. You now have 48
seconds to look through the questions and the options in each question.
1. What will the boy wear in the race?
A. the short running trousers B. the short running trousers with a hat
C. the long running trousers with a hat D. the long running trousers
2. What colour will the room be?
A. yellow B. green C. orange D. pink
3. Where did Minnie and Richard first meet?
A. in the classroom B. at the tennis court C. at her house D. at Richard’s
house
4. What has the girl lost?
A. mobile phone B. purse C. pen D. bag
5. When will Jack’s mum pick him up?
A. five-thirty B. six o’clock C. seven o’clock D. half past six
6. Which postcard will they send?
A. with a picture of a lake and a village B. with a picture of a mountain
C. with a picture of a cottage and flowers D. with a picture of a forest
7. What do they decide to buy?
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Practice Test 2
A. biscuits B. cake C. ice-cream D. fruits
8. What has the girl forgotten to bring?
A. cell phone B. pencil C. homework D. bag

SECTION 2 Questions 9-20


Conversation 1. You will hear a conversation between a girl, Jane and her brother,
Michael, about a Spanish family who are coming to visit them in England.
9. What are Jane and Michael talking about?
A. Their trip to Spain B. Their parents’ trip to London
C. Activities for the Sanchez family D. Activities for their family
10. How many children are there in the Sanchez family?
A. two B. three C. four D. five
11. What suggestion is not discussed by Jane and Michael?
A. go to jazz music festival B. go fishing C. go windsurfing D. play tennis
12. What do they decide to do at last?
A. Let the family decide for themselves. B. Pick up a list for them
C. Tell Mom everything D. Write for the family
Conversation 2. Listen to an interview with someone who is involved in the music
business.
13. When did James start his career?
A. When he was at school. B. After he watched Bubble TV.
C. When he went to Ireland. D. When he is 23.
14. What did he do with the money earned?
A. Spent it on his events B. Invested on his station
C. Help his neighbors D. Organizing big concerts
15. What does James imply about his business?
A. It’s a piece of cake B. It requires lots of money
C. It gets harder when he’s older D. It is complained by his boss.
16. What can be learned from this interview?
A. Irish young people are successful B. Young people should give up working for a
boss.
C. It’s easy to earn money in music industry D. People don’t want you to be successful
Conversation 3. Listen to two overseas students discussing with their English language
teaching teacher on how to cope with their course
17. According to Spiros, what was helpful thing for him?
A. seminar he attended B. university course he studied
C. presentation he gave D. marketing subjects
18. In general, what did Spiros say about this presentation?
A. very nervous B. still poor-prepared
C. lack of time D. quite professional
19. What did Hiroko say about her classmates’ presentation?
A. They are confident B. They are surprising
C. They are worrying D. They are stressful
20. What did Hiroko feel after she finished her presentation?
A. satisfied B. relieved C. negative D. positive

SECTION 3 Questions 21-35


Talk 1. Listen to a talk about the end of China’s one child policy.
21. When was the one-child policy introduced?
A. 1975 B. 1979 C. 1973 D. 1989
22. What percentage of China's population had to stick to one child?
A. 38% B. 53% C. 36% D. 18%

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Practice Test 2
23. What does China want to reverse that is currently very low?
A. policies B. restrictions C. poverty D. childbearing rates
24. What is expected to develop after this new policy?
A. the economy B. the society C. the family D. the labor force
25. What increase was seen in baby goods companies?
A. annual consumption B. public concerns C. stakes D. goods
Talk 2. Listen to a talk about influenza vaccine.
26. What do millions of people go to the doctor every year for?
A. a flu jab B. advice C. tissues D. an operation
27. What other animals did they test on besides ferrets and monkeys?
A. chimpanzees B. frogs C. mice D. elephants
28. How many people are killed by flu virus every year?
A. just over 500,000 B. 500,000 C. millions D. 300,000
29. What makes the success rate low?
A. wrong process B. unqualified scientists C. predictions D. methods
30. What other two viruses might the research help?
A. chickenpox and the common cold B. SARS
C. Ebola D. HIV and the common cold
Talk 3. Listen to a talk about the need of chocolate researcher.
31. What kind of mind will chocolate-loving applicants need?
A. a narrow mind B. a rich mind C. a scientific mind D. an open mind
32. What temperature is similar to the melting point of chocolate?
A. the human body B. solid C. the average temperature in Ghana D. butter
33. How long is the research position for?
A. 2 years B. 2 ½ years C. 3 years D. 3 ½ years
34. What controls how hard or soft chocolate is?
A. the quality of cocoa beans B. oils and fatty acids C. butter D. sugar
35. What controls the dispersal of chocolate's flavour on the tongue?
A. the sugar content B. the melting point C. saliva D. the wrapping

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