NCMB 312 Review Questions Week 14-17 Only (Finals)

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 12

WEEK 14 8.

What is the drug of choice to treat ascariasis for


1. What is considered as the gold standard in pregnant women?
determining the parasites in malaria? A. Albendazole
A. Malarial smear B. Mebendazole
B. Rapid diagnostic tests C. Pyrantel pamoate
C. Splenic biopsy D. Piperazine citrate
D. Nocturnal blood examination
9. What is the etiologic agent for body lice?
2. What is the drug of choice for malaria? A. Pediculosis humanus capitis
A. Chloroquine B. Pediculosis humanus corporis
B. Quinine C. Phthirus pubis
C. Artemether lumefantrine D. Crab lice
D. Primaquine
10. What is the first and predominant symptom of
3. What is the confirmatory test for encephalitis? head lice?
A. Serologic test A. Itching
B. Circulating Filarial Antigen B. Swelling of the skin
C. CT scan C. Scaling of scalp
D. Electroencephalogram D. Infection

4. What is the best imaging option for encephalitis? 11. What is the most definitive diagnosis for rabies?
A. MRI A. Virus isolation
B. CT scan B. Fluorescent Rabies Antibody
C. ECG C. Kato-katz technique
D. Skull x ray D. ELISA

5. What is the main host of leptospirosis 12. Which of the following is the intermediate
A. Dogs management on a bite victim after rabies
B. Cats exposure?
C. Rats A. Post-exposure prophylaxis
D. Flies B. Pre-exposure prophylaxis
C. Tetanus antiserum administration
6. Which of the following diagnostic procedure can D. Administration of ERIG
confirm leptospirosis on the basis of determining
the antibodies present against the bacteria 13. What is the confirmatory test for
A. Kidney function test schistosomiasis?
B. ELISA A. ELISA
C. Liver function test B. Kato-katz technique
D. Urinalysis C. ELISA
D. Circumoval precipitin test
7. Which of the following manifestations of
ascariasis is described as colicky, periumbilical pain 14. Which of the following is a schistosomiasis
aggravated by cold stimulation? manifestation that describes a pruritic rash that
A. Hemorrhagic manifestations develops at the site of penetration of the
B. Maculae Cerulae microorganism?
C. Nakaluwag-luwag sign A. Swimmer’s itch
D. Nakamura sign B. Maculae cerulae
C. Nakamura sign
D. Washerwoman’s hand
B. Uterus
15. What is the drug therapy for schistosomiasis? C. Pharynx
A. Piperazine citrate D. Eyes
B. Pyrantel pamoate
C. Praziquantel 22. What type of infection is common among
D. Albendazole homosexuals when affected by gonorrhea?
A. Cervicitis
16. Which of the following is a condition where B. Urethritis
candidiasis affects the nails? C. Rectal infections
A. Onychomycosis D. Urethral strictures
B. Diaper rash
C. Thrush 23. What is the other term for syphilis?
D. Monoliasis A. Clap
B. Lues venerea
17. Which of the following is the management for C. Gleet
oral candidiasis? D. Shingles
A. Clotrimoxazole
B. Fluconazole *According to the lecture, these are both correct
C. Ketoconazole answers, however Sir Habac only accepted the
D. Nystatin response "clap" during the quiz*

18. Which of the following is not correct about 24. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation
chlamydia infection? of a primary syphilis?
A. Sexually transmitted infection A. It has a hematogenous spread
B. Can be acquired during vaginal, anal, or B. Lesions will erode revealing condylomata
oral sex lata
C. It can be passed from an infected mother to C. Considered as the destructive stage
her baby during childbirth D. Lesions are at the original site of infection
D. It cannot be passed from an infected mother
to her baby during childbirth 25. What is the confirmatory test for the AIDS
infection
19. Which of the following is a manifestation of A. Oraquick HIV test
women with cervicitis as a result of chlamydia B. Home access HIV-1 test system
infection? C. Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay
A. Abdominal tenderness D. Western blot analysis
B. Cervical erosions
C. Painful scrotal swelling 26. What is the mechanism of action of protease
D. Tender urethral meatus inhibitors?
A. Inhibits the enzyme protease
20. What is considered as the criterion standard for B. Inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase
diagnosis for herpes simplex? C. Inhibit reproduction of HIV
A. Tissue culture D. Inhibit CD4 cell counts
B. ELISA
C. Immunofluorescence 27. What is the confirmatory result of Dengue
D. Signs and symptoms fever?
A. High fever with petechial rash
21. What is the most common site of gonorrhea for B. A platelet count of <100,0000/mm3
women? C. An elevated hematocrit of 20%
A. Cervix D. Positive occult blood testing
D. Rats
28. What are the 3 manifestations common to
patients with dengue fever?
A. Fever, rash, nausea and vomiting 35. What is the treatment of choice for
B. Fever, rash, myalgia paragonimiasis?
C. Rash, muscle pains, abdominal pain A. Praziquantel
D. Fever, muscle pains, myalgia B. Bithionol
C. Artemether lumefantrine
29. What is the mode of transmission of filariasis? D. Primaquine
A. Mosquito
B. Elephant 36. What causative agent of malaria affects the
C. Contaminated food senile RBC only?
D. Sexual contact A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium vivax
30. Which of the following diagnostic examinations C. Plasmodium malaria
to determine filariasis is taken any time of day? D. Plasmodium ovale
A. Nocturnal blood examination
B. Rumpel leede test
C. Tourniquet test
D. Circulating Filarial Antigen

31. What is Category A as a biologic agent?


A. Second highest priority
B. Poses a high risk and high mortality rate to
public
C. Third highest priority that can be used in
mass spread in the future
D. Least priority and does not cause serious
debilitation

32. Which of the following forms of anthrax infection


is the deadliest?
A. Skin contact
B. Sexual contact
C. Inhalation
D. GI ingestion

33. What is the standard method for diagnosing


ascariasis?
A. Chest x ray
B. Kato-katz technique
C. Abdominal x ray
D. CBC

34. What is the first intermediate host of


paragonimiasis?
A. Oncomelania quadrasi
B. Antemelania asperata
C. Freshwater crabs
A. Neo
B. Plasia
C. Plasm
WEEK 15 (PARTS A,B, AND C) D. Trophy

1. What is the histological proof of cancer? 8. It refers to if a cell is enclosed in a capsule or not
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin test A. Growth rate
B. CA 19-9 B. Invasion
C. СА 15-3 C. Enclosure
D. Biopsy D. Capsulation

2. Which of the following is referred to as genes 9. It refers to if a cell has the capacity to travel to
that promote the formation of cancers? distant body organs
A. Oncogenes A. Invasion
B. Tumor suppressor genes B. Local invasion
C. Telomeres C. Encapsulation
D. Telomerase D. Metastasis

3. Which of the following is the cell that goes 10. This is the amount of time required for a cell to
outside the cell cycle after a certain point of move from one mitosis to another mitosis
maturity? A. Apoptosis
A. Permanent cells B. Doubling time
B. Stable cells C. Mitotic phase
C. Quiescent cells D. Cell cycle time
D. Labile cells
11. This is the length of time it takes for a tumor to
4. Which phase of the cell cycle DNA duplication double its volume
happens? A. Apoptosis
A. G1 phase B. Doubling time
B. S phase C. Mitotic phase
C. G2 phase D. Cell cycle time
D. M phase
12. What do you call a tumor that comes from a
5. Which of the following is an example of a gland?
permanent cell? A. Polyp
A. Skin cells B. Adeno
B. Endometrial cells C. Cyst
C. Liver cells D. Papillo
D. Neurons
13. Which of the following is a benign tumor?
6. It is a branch of medicine that deals with the A. Adenocarcinoma
study, detection, treatment and management of B. Fibrosarcoma
cancer and neoplasia C. Myosarcoma
A. Pathology D. Myoma
B. Oncology
C. Radiology 14. Which of the following is a malignant tumor?
D. Cancerology A. Myoma
B. Lipoma
7. This root word means "growth" C. Osteoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Alkylating agents

15. It is a category of chemotherapy wherein it is 21. To reduce the effects, what is the antidote for
used to reduce tumor size before surgery methotrexate
A. Neoadjuvant A. Hydroxyurea
B. Adjuvant B. Acetylsalicylic acid
C. Primary chemotherapy C. Leucovorin
D. Secondary chemotherapy D. Fluorouracil

16. This is a category of chemotherapy where it is 22. Which of the following chemo drugs has a side
used to destroy any remaining tumor cells effect of red urine?
post-operatively A. Bleomycin
A. Neoadjuvant B. Finasteride
B. Adjuvant C. Daunorubicin
C. Primary chemotherapy D. Doxorubicin
D. Secondary chemotherapy
23. If a male client is taking saw palmetto because
17. What is a complication of parenteral of his prostate enlargement, which of the following
Chemotherapy? will be a side effect?
A. Hemolysis A. Gynecomastia
B. Overload B. Virilization
C. Extravasation C. Allergic reactions
D. Skin irritation D. Development of male traits

18. Vinca alkaloids are not advised to be 24. Alopecia is a


administered to pregnant clients because of its A. Temporary side effect
A. Anaphylactic effects B. Permanent side effect
B. Decreases hormones C. Widespread complication of hair loss
C. Neuropathic effect D. Normal after chemotherapy
D. Teratogenic effect
25. It is a type of radiation therapy that is commonly
19. The following are characteristics of malignant used where the radiation source is external to the
neoplasia. Select all that apply. patient. What is being described?
1. Undifferentiated A. Brachytherapy
2. Slow growth B. Sealed source
3. Expansive and Invasive C. Unsealed source
4. Secretes abnormal proteins D. Teletherapy
5. Does not metastasize
26. Also known as systemic radiotherapy where
A. 1,2,3 radioisotopes are administered by IV, IM or oral.
B. 3,4,5 What is being described?
C. 1,3,5 A. Sealed source
D. 1,3,4 B. Unsealed source
C. Teletherapy
20. Which of the following is not a cell-cycle specific D. Brachytherapy
agent?
A. Vinca alkaloids 27. When will an individual who is taking a
B. Antimetabolite hormonal therapy will start to perform
C. Hormonal drugs breast self- examination?
A. Before taking the 1st pill
B. After taking the 1st pill
C. Before the end of hormonal therapy
D. Before taking the last pill 34. This stage of cancer cell growth involves the
irreversible alteration, change, or mutation of genes
28. What screening test is used to detect early arising spontaneously or induced by exposure to a
cervical cancer? carcinogenic agent
A. Breast self-examination A. Initiation
B. Mammography B. Promotion
C. Dilatation and curettage C. Transformation
D. Pap smear D. Metastasis

29. What is the recommended age to undergo pap 35. Which of the following UV rays can cause skin
smear? cancer?
A. 12 yo A. UVA
B. 15 yo B. UVB
C. 18 yo C. UVC
D. 21 yo D. UVD

30. Which of the following is not a normal finding 36. What do you call a tumor that is fluid-filled?
after testicular self-examination? A. Polyp
A. Feels like an egg B. Adeno
B. Firm but not hard C. Cyst
C. Well-differentiated lump D. Papillo
D. Smooth with no lumps

31. What is the nurse’s responsibility if a sealed


radioisotope is dislodged?
A. Pick it up!
B. Pick the radiation source with a long-
handled forceps
C. Leave it then inform the housekeeping to
pick it up
D. Leave it, radiation will fade after exposure to
light

32. When should someone begin breast self-


examination
A. 30 yo then monthly
B. 45 yo then monthly
C. 20 yo then monthly
D. 30 yo then monthly

33. Which of the following UV rays are absorbed by


the ozone layer and do not pose much risk?
A. UVA
B. UVB
C. UVC
D. UVD
B. Hepaticojejunostomy
WEEK 16 UPPER GI CANCERS - ESOPHAGUS, C. Pancreaticojejunostomy
STOMACH, LIVER, PANCREAS D. Gastrojejunostomy

1. Which of the following is not a risk factor in 7. What is the cause of a yellow to green-bile color
cancer formation of stomach after a Whipple procedure?
A. Exposure of areas of stomach from gastric A. Bleeding
acids B. Infection exudates
B. When enzymes come into contact with C. Improper anastomosis resulting in leakage
mucosal linings of the stomach D. Tumor occlusion
C. Exposure to UVC rays
D. Chemicals from food intake 8. What is the primary symptom of esophageal
cancer?
2. Chemotherapeutic drugs are less effective when A. Odynophagia
a patient has liver cancer. What is the reason for B. Dysphagia
this? C. Polyphagia
A. Because of the acidic environment of the D. Aphasia
stomach.
B. Because of the first-pass hepatic effect 9. What is the reason for Barrett's esophagus?
C. Because of the tumor in the liver A. Decreased bilirubin production
D. Because of the decrease production of the B. Occlusion of tumor in the esophagus
bile C. Alcoholism
3. What is the most common site of cancer in D. Chronic exposure to gastric acids and
pancreas? enzymes associated with reflux disease
A. Head
B. Tail 10. What is the first test being performed to
C. Body determine upper GI tumors?
D. Pancreatic duct A. Biopsy
B. Serologic tests
4. What is the indication of lobectomy? C. Radiology studies
A. If tumor is confined and there is no lymph D. Liver function tests
node involvement
B. If tumor has invaded 2 segments of the liver 11. What is the most common test in the
C. If tumor is confined to one lobe of liver only visualization of the upper GI tract?
D. If tumor has metastasized A. Serologic test
B. Barium swallow
5. This procedure involves percutaneous insertion C. Ultrasound
of radiofrequency ablation probe which emits D. CT scan
extreme cold supplied by liquid nitrogen to destroy
cancer cells. What is being described? 12. To determine abnormal movement of the
A. Cryoablation surgery esophagus during swallowing, the solution is drunk
B. Brachytherapy when?
C. Teletherapy A. While the technician takes series of x ray
D. Antineoplastic drugs B. After x ray
C. Before x ray
6. In Whipple procedure, it is the connection of the D. Upon order of the oncologist
pylorus of the stomach or duodenum connected to
the side of the jejunum. What is being described?
A. Duodenojejunostomy
13. Which of the following is a pre-med that is given 19. How do you stage a liver tumor that arises in 1
before surgery to reduce secretions to prevent segment?
aspiration? A. Stage 1
A. Diazepam B. Stage 2
B. Methotrexate C. Stage 3
C. Anxiolytic D. stage 4
D. Atropine
20. How do you stage liver cancer when 2 tumors
14. What is being administered prior to the insertion arise in 1 segment regardless of the size?
of the endoscope to prevent gag reflex? A. Stage 1
A. Atropine B. Stage 2
B. Lidocaine spray C. Stage 3
C. Anxiolytic D. Stage 4
D. Lidocaine injection 21. How do you stage a pancreatic cancer when
the tumor already metastasizes regardless of the
15. To prevent aspiration during endoscopy, what size of the tumor?
equipment should be prepared? A. Stage 1
A. Suction B. Stage 2
B. Oxygen C. Stage 3
C. Atropine D. Stage 4
D. Ketamine
22. It means painful swallowing
16. This procedure is done with endoscopy and dye A. Dysphagia
is injected directly into the duodenal papilla to B. Odynophagia
determine patency of the ductal systems and view C. Polyphagia
the pancreas, liver, stomach and esophagus. What D. Hematemesis
is being described?
A. Echocardiography 23. What is not a possible assessment finding in
B. Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio- hepatomegaly if the cause is a tumor?
pancreatography A. Irregular liver structures
C. CT Scan B. Jaundice
D. Endoscopy with TURP C. White stools
D. Brown stools
17. What is the definitive diagnostic test for liver
cancer? 24. What is the primary symptom of pancreatic
A. Liver Biopsy cancer?
B. Liver Function Test A. Dull and constant abdominal pain
C. ALT, AST B. Jaundice
D. SGOT, SGPT C. Weight loss
D. Nausea and Vomiting
18. What is the position of the patient after liver
biopsy? 25. What is the mainstay of Treatment for upper GI
A. Sim's position cancer?
B. Right side lying position w/pillows under the A. Surgery
pt on the side of the liver B. Teletherapy
C. Supine C. Brachytherapy
D. Trendelenburg position D. 5-FU regimen
26. It Is the removal of a portion of the esophagus
where tumor arises and involves anastomosis,
What Is being described?
A. Gastrectomy
B. Esophagostomy
C. Esophagectomy
D. Polypectomy

27. What is the indication of esophageal stenting?


A. In situ tumors
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4

28. What is the indication of endoscopic mucosal


resection?
A. Stage 2 cancers
B. Stage 3 cancers
C. Polyps
D. Stage 4 cancer

29. This procedure involves a partial gastrectomy


area of the tumor and the remainder of the stomach
anastomosed to the duodenum. What is described?
A. Billroth I
B. Billroth II
C. Billroth III
D. Roux-en-y

30. What is not included in the Roux-en-y


procedure?
A. Gastrectomy
B. Gastrojejunostomy
C. Gastroduodenostomy
D. Jejunojejunostomy

31. What is stage 0 or in situ in cancer staging?


A. Tumor does not invade local tissues
B. Tumor can metastasize
C. Tumor is large enough to cause cancer
D. There is lymph node involvement
WEEK 17 CANCERS OF THE BLOOD 7. What is the goal of post-remission therapy in
ALL?
1. The category of bone cellularity refers to the A. Achieve a complete remission
decreased number of hematopoietic cells and B. Eliminate minimal residual disease
increased number of adipose cells. What is being C. Achieve a cure
described? D. Achieve a complete remission of less than
A. Normocellular marrow 5%
B. Hypocellular marrow
C. Hypercellular marrow 8. Which of these is described as man-made
D. Isotonic marrow proteins and act as an immune response against
foreign bodies?
A. Monoclonal antibodies
2. The category of bone cellularity refers to the B. Chemotherapy
increased number of hematopoietic cells and C. Brachytherapy
decreased number of adipose cells. What is being D. Teletherapy
described?
A. Normocellular marrow 9. These are monoclonal antibodies that are made
B. Hypocellular marrow up of mouse proteins and names of treatment ends
C. Hypercellular marrow in omab. What is being described?
D. Isotonic marrow A. Murine
B. Chimeric
3. What specimen will be obtained and will undergo C. Humanized
biopsy if the patient has leukemia? D. Human
A. Bone marrow aspirates
B. Blood 10. These are monoclonal antibodies that are made
C. CSF up of mouse proteins and names of treatment ends
D. Pulmonary secretions in ximab. What is being described?
A. Murine
4. In ALL, which phase of chemotherapy is B. Chimeric
designed to clear the bone marrow of the disease? C. Humanized
A. Induction therapy D. Human
B. Post-remission therapy
C. Consolidation 11. These are monoclonal antibodies that are made
D. Maintenance up of small parts of mouse proteins that are
attached to human proteins and names of
5. The definition of complete remission in ALL is treatment ends in zumab. What is being described?
less than A. Murine
A. 3% of the symptoms B. Chimeric
B. 5% of the symptoms C. Humanized
C. 10% of the symptoms D. Human
D. 15% of the symptoms
12. These are monoclonal antibodies that are made
6. What is the route of administration of up of fully human proteins and names of treatment
methotrexate and cytarabine? ends in umab. What is being described?
A. Oral A. Murine
B. Intravenous B. Chimeric
C. Intradermal C. Humanized
D. Spinal cord D. Human
C. CHOP regimen
13. Which of the following is the combined D. HIDAC
chemotherapeutic drugs of option for pediatric
patients during induction therapy? 19. Which of the following is the possible cause of
A. Cytarabine and methotrexate the development of CLL?
B. Cytarabine and anthracycline A. Environment
C. Vincristine and doxorubicin B. Radiation
D. Fludarabine and etoposide C. Drug exposures
D. Genetic mutations
14. Upon completion of the 7+3 regimen for
pediatric patients, and to check for response to 20. What is leukemia and lymphoma awareness
treatment. the patient will undergo bone marrow month?
aspiration and biopsy when? A. September
A. On the 10th day from the 1st day of B. October
chemotherapy C. November
B. On the 12th day from the 1st day of D. December
chemotherapy
C. On the 14th day from the 1st day of 21. Which of the following cells is responsible for
chemotherapy producing immature RBCs, WBCs and platelets?
D. On the 1st day of chemotherapy until the A. Myeloid stem cells
last day of chemotherapy B. Lymphoid stem cells
C. T-cells
15. Which of the following is not a positive result of D. B-cells
chemotherapy after BMA?
A. Hypercellular marrow 22. Which of the following is not a part of the
B. Marrow aplasia peripheral lymphatic system?
C. Neutropenia A. Tonsils and adenoids
D. Thrombocytopenia B. Spleen
C. Thymus gland
16. How does a CLL will be different from CML? D. Blood
A. A CLL cell has a positive ZAP-70 or CD38
B. A CML has a positive ZAP-70 or CD38 23. These are large, cluster of lymphatic system
C. A CLL cell has CA 19-9 found in the pharynx. What is being described?
D. A CML cell is seen with BCR and ABL A. Bone marrow
genes B. Tonsils and adenoids
C. Mediastinal nodes
17. It refers to an abnormality that occurs when a D. Mesenteric nodes
portion of chromosome 22 is translocated to
chromosome 9. What is being described? 24. Which of the following is the largest lymphatic
A. Down syndrome organ?
B. Philadelphia chromosome A. Lymph
C. Oncogenesis B. Liver
D. Chromosomal defect C. Blood
D. Spleen
18. Which of the following is the chemo drug of
option for patients with AML during the 25. Which of the following is a complication of
post-remission therapy? leukopenia?
A. ВеMOC A. Easy bruising
B. FVR regimen B. Epistaxis
C. Gingival bleeding
D. Infection

26. It is a green discoloration on the surface of the


skin when bruises are being pressed. This
manifestation occurs in AML. What is being
described?
A. Chromosomes
B. Chloromas
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Kinases

27. Abdominal pain or abdominal fullness is a


manifestation that occurs as a result from which
condition/s?
A. Lymphoma
B. Leukemia
C. Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
D. Mediastinal node enlargement

28. A blood smear in AML patients will reveal what?


A. Myeloperoxidase
B. ZAP-70 and CD38
C. BCR and ABL genes
D. Auer rods

29. It is the ratio of hematopoietic tissue to adipose


tissue. What is being described?
A. Cell morphology
B. Marrow fat
C. Bone cellularity
D. Cell differentiation

30. What is your FCR regimen?


A. Fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, and
rituximab
B. Vincristine, oncovin, prednisone

You might also like