Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section A 6. Identify the option where all the columns are
not correctly matched:
1. When both male and female flowers are PGR Nature Actions
present on the same plant, then plant is said to Apical dominance,
be: Flowering in
1. Bisexual Indole
1. Auxin pineapples,
2. Monoecious compounds
Parthenocarpy in
3. Unisexual tomatoes
4. Dioecious
Cell division,
2. A couple has a daughter. What is the Adenine
2. Cytokinin Adventitious shoot
probaility that their next child will be a derivative
formation, Delay in
daughter? leaf senescene
(1) 0 %
3. Gibberellin Terpene Increase in length
(2) 25 %
(3) 50 % Closure of stomata
(4) 100 % in water stress,
4 Carotenoid
ABA inducing seed
. derivative
3. Which one of the following alcoholic drinks dormancy, inducing
is produced without distillation? flowering in mango
(1) Wine
(2) Whisky
(3) Rum
(4) Brandy
7. Which of the following taxonomic categories
4. A species whose distribution is restricted to a contains organisms least similar to one
small geographical area because of the another?
presence of a competitively superior species is 1. Class
found to expand its distributional range 2. Genus
dramatically when the competing species is 3. Family
experimentally removed. This is called: 4. Species
1. Competitive Exclusion
2. Competitive Release 8. The growth of a root elongating at a constant
3. Competitive Supremacy rate will be represented by:
4. Competitive Inclusion

5. BOD of waste water is estimated by

measuring the amount of:
(1) total inorganic matter
(2) biodegradable organic matter
(3) oxygen evolution
(4) oxygen consumption.

1. A only
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

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9. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen 16. Cycas is classified as a gymnosperms due to
Demand) indicates that its
1. Water is pure 1. motile sperms
2. water is highly polluted 2. fruit formation
3. water is less polluted 3. naked ovule
4. Consumption of organic matter in the water 4. pycnoxylic wood
is higher by the microbes
17. Fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
10. The hilum is a scar on the was given by
1. seed, where funicle was attached 1. Robertson
2. fruit, where it was attached to the pedicel 2. Robert Hooke
3. fruit, where style was present 3. Singer and Nicholson
4. seed, where micropyle was present 4. Gorter and Grendel

18. Water stress may cause which of the

11. In S-phase of the cell cycle following?
1. amount of DNA doubles in each cell a. Closure of stomata
2. amount of DNA remains same in each cell b. Wilting of leaf
3. chromosome number is increased c. reducing metabolic activity
4. amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell d. all of these

12. Which one of the following is an example 19. In lac operon, repressor is inactivated by
of polygenic inheritance ? (1)interaction with enzyme
(1) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa (2)interaction with protein
(2) Production of male honey bee (3)interaction with carbohydrate
(3) Pod shape in garden pea (4)interaction with nucleic acid
(4) Skin colour in humans
20. In monocot root the pith present is
13. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is 1. small or inconspicuous
approximately: 2. large and well developed
(1) 20 nm 3. small and well developed
(2) 0.34 nm 4. large and inconspicuous
(3) 3.4 nm
(4) 2 nm 21. In grasses certain adaxial epidermal cells
along the vein modify themselves into large,
14. Sacred forests are those that empty, colourless cells called ________.
1. have rich growth of plants used for worship
by the people in the region (1) Bark
2. are protected by tribal communities due to (2) Bulliform cells
religious sanctity accorded to them (3) Bundle sheath cells
3. have not been discovered by humans (4) Spongy mesophyll cells
4. none of the above

15. The pollen grains of rice and wheat lose

their viability in ___ minutes of their release. 22. Global species diversity and land area
(1) 30 covered by India with respect to world is:
(2) 10 (1) 12%, 7%
(3) 60 (2) 2.4%, 9%
(4) 90 (3) 8.1%, 2.4%
(4) 4%, 3%

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23. Sapindales is which taxon? 29. Which of the following is not correct with
a. Order respect to parasites?
b. Class 1. Harm the host
c. Genus 2. Reduce survival, growth of the host.
d. Species 3. Doesn't affect population density of host as
no effect on reproduction ability of the host
24. Red tides in the sea are because of 4. Render host more vulnerable to predation by
making it physically weak.
(1) Red dinoflagellates
(2) Geladium 30. Which of the following is not the problem
(3) Red Chrysophytes regarding in situ approach that has been
(4) Red algae addressed by eminent conservationists?

(1) The conflict between development and

conservation
25. Which one is true about Schleiden (2) Unrealistic and economically not feasible to
(1)He proposed that body of a plant is made up conserve all their biological wealth
of cells and their products (3) The number of species waiting to be saved
(2)He was a botanist from extinction far exceeds the conservation
(3)He couldn’t explain the formation of the new resources available
cells (4) Human Intrusion is the major cause of its
(4)All of the above failure

26. Identify the odd one out.

1. Cockroach
2. Crow 31. Paramecium and Amoeba are placed in
3. Humans kingdom protista with
4. Goat 1. Anabaena and Colletotrichum
2. Anabaena and Chlorella
27. The base of each pyramid represents the 3. Chlamydomonas and Colletotrichum
_________or the ___________level while the apex 4. Chlorella and Chlamydomonas
represents ____________
1. Consumers, first trophic and top trophic level 32. In Pteridophytes reduction division occurs
2. Producers, first trophic and top trophic level during
3. Producers, second trophic and top trophic 1. spore formation
level 2. gamete formation
4. Consumers, second trophic and top trophic 3. sporophyte formation
level 4. gametophyte germination

28. If meiosis in zygote results in haploid 33. Kinetin term was used for …..by…
spores, then ploidy of adult cells should be- 1.Cytokinins, Darwin
a. Haploid 2.Cytokinin, Skoog And Miller
b. Diploid 3.ABA, Darwin
c. Dikaryon 4.ABA, F. Skoog
d. None of the above

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34. Which of the following is a mustard family? 38. Which of the following is not the property
of a molecule that can act as genetic material?
(1) Brassicaceae 1. Able to replicate
(2) Solanaceae 2. Able to mutate
(3) Liliaceae 3. Chemically and structurally stable
(4) Fabaceae 4. Should express as dominant characters.

39. Consider the following statements regarding

Y chromosome in humans:
35. Study the following statements find the
Y chromosome is a male-determining
incorrect match. I.
chromosome in humans
1. Wild relatives are used in plant breeding.
2. Production of single cell protein is useful in II. Y chromosome contains a gene, SRY, which
reducing environmental pollution. triggers embryonic development as a male
3. Somaclones are different from source of III. 50 % of sons of a male inherit his Y
explant. chromosome
4. Maize hybrid have twice amount of amino
acid lysine & tryptophan. Of the given statements, the correct statements
are:

Botany - Section B 1. I and II only 2. I and III only

36. Match the classes of pteridophyte given in 3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III
column-I with their respective members given
in column-II
Column I Column II 40. In which step of glycolysis does water form?
1. Fructose 1,6 –bisphosphate →
(a) Psilopsida (i) Selaginella
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(b) Lycopsida (ii) Adiantum 2. 1,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid → 3-
(c) Pteropsida (iii) Psilotum phosphoglyceric acid
(d) Sphenopsida (iv) Equisetum 3. 2-phosphoglycerate → Phosphoenolpyruvate
4. Phosphoenolpyrespruvate → Pyruvic acid
Select the correct answer from the following
41. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1. The capacity to generate a whole plant from
1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) any cell is called totipotency
2. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 2. In tissue culture, the nutrient medium must
3. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) provide a carbon source such as sucrose,
nitrogen source such as urea, vitamins and
4. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
growth regulators like auxins, cytokinins
3. When a plant is infected with a virus, the
meristem (apical and axillary) is free of virus
37. “The synaptonemal complex is formed
4. Somatic hybrids are obtained by fusing
during _A_
isolated protoplasts from two different varieties
stage and dissolves during _B_ stage”.
of plants
Complete the above statement by choosing the
correct
option for A and B
A B
1. Diplotene Diakinesis
2. Leptotene Zygotene
3. Zygotene Diplotene
4. Pachytene Diplotene

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42. Interspecies as well as intergeneric plants 47. Which of the following combinations is
hybrids are produced by which of the tissue required for chemiosmosis?
culture methods?
(1) Gynogenic culture Proton pump, electron gradient, NADP
(2) Meristem culture 1.
synthase.
(3) Androgenic culture Membrane, proton pump, proton gradient,
(4) Somatic hybridization 2.
ATP synthase.
Membrane, proton pump, proton gradient,
43. Choose the incorrect option with respect to 3.
NADP synthase
nucellus:
1. Possesses abundant reserve food material Proton pump, electron gradient, ATP
4.
2. Generally differentiate a single megaspore synthase
mother cell
3. It represents microsporangium
4. It is enclosed within integuments 48. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
44. Glycolysis is a sequence of ________ reactions
involving ___________ intermediate compounds: Castor and maize plant can prevent both
A:
1. 10, 5 autogamy and geitonogamy.
2. 10, 9 Orchid fruit contains thousands of tiny
B:
3. 10, 10 seeds.
4. 9, 10
1. Only statement A is incorrect
45. What is true regarding aleurone layer in a 2. Only statement B is incorrect
monocot seed? 3. Both statements A and B are correct
I. It is composed of proteinaceous material. 4. Both statements A and B are incorrect
II. It is the outermost cell layer of the
endosperm. 49. Given below are two statements:
1. Only I 2. Only II It was inferred from the
3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II experiments performed on
Assertion (A): green & purple sulphur bacteria
that the O2 evolved by green
46. Select the incorrectly matched pair from the plants comes from H2O.
following options: Purple and green sulphur
bacteria release sulphur or
Fragmentation - breakdown of detritus into Reason (R):
1. sulphate as oxidation product
smaller particles by detrivores during photosynthesis.
Leaching - water soluble inorganic nutrients
2. go down into the soil horizon and get Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
precipitated as unavailable salts 1.
correct explanation of (A).
Catabolism - bacterial and fungal enzymes Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
3. degrade simple inorganic substances into 2.
correct explanation of (A).
detritus
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
Humification - accumulation of a dark
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
coloured amorphous substance that is highly
4.
resistant to microbial action and undergoes
decomposition at an extremely slow rate

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50. Metaphase is the best phase to study 55. Dense irregular connective tissue
morphology of chromosomes. How many
chromatids you can observe in a somatic cell of (1) Present in the skin
human at metaphase? (2) Present beneath the skin
1. 23 (3) Present above the skin
2. 46 (4) Absent in skin
3. 92
4. 23 pairs
56. Which of the following cannot be the
Zoology - Section A parasites of intestine?
51. The similarities between the eyes of an (1) Tapeworm
octopus and of a mammal are a result of: (2) Pinworm
1. Convergent evolution (3) Virus
2. Divergent evolution (4) Threadworm
3. Saltation
4. Retrograde evolution

52. The receptors for the drug shown below are 57. Which of the following is the part of the
located in : thoracic chamber
1. ribs and vertebral column
2. diaphragm
3. sternum
4. All of these

58. For the site of fertilization both the gametes

(1) Follow same path

(2) Follow different path
(3) Sperm crosses isthmus first to reach
ampulla
(4) More than one option
1. CNS and CVS
2. CVS and GIT
3. CNS and GIT
4. CNS and PNS 59. The signals for parturition originate from

53. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are (1) Fully Developed Foetus
(1) long fibre and resistance to aphids (2) Placenta
(2) medium yields, long fibres and resistance to (3) More than one option
beetle pests (4) Local hormones
(3) high yield and production of toxic protein
crystals which kill dipteran pests
(4) high yield and resistance to bollworms
60. Purkinje fibers are:
54. Which of the following is a 1. Intrinsic neural fibers in the ventricles
homopolysaccharide? 2. Muscle fibers that interconnect the SA node
(1) Heparin and AV node
(2) Inulin 3. Muscle fibers that are distributed in the
(3) Pectin ventricular musculature
(4) Hyaluronic acid 4. Neural fibers that spread the impulse
throughout the ventricular muscle mass

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61. In Filariasis; 67. The release of urine does not take place by
1. The lymphatic vessels of the upper limbs
are affected (1) Contraction of smooth muscles of the
2. The blood vessels of the upper limbs are bladder
affected (2) Simultaneous relaxation of urethral
3. The lymphatic vessels of lower limbs are sphincter
affected (3) Relaxation of smooth muscels of the bladder
4. The blood vessels of lower limbs are (4) Both B and C
affected.

62. In the structure of an antibody; which

terminal has antigen-binding site? 68. Which of the following event is last in the
1. N action of Bt toxin?
2. C
(1) Binding to epithelial cells
3. N terminal of heavy chain and C terminal of
(2) Swelling
light chain
(3) Lysis
4. C terminal of heavy chain and N terminal of
(4) Creating pores
light chain

63. Use of primers, occurs in which step of PCR?

1. Annealing 69. Agrobacterium vectors carried nematode
2. Extension specific genes which is introduced into the host
3. Denaturation plant and such that it produced
4. Both extension and Annealing
(1) Sense and anti sense RNA
64. The cylindrical body or curved base of a (2) Only antisense RNA
bioreactor actually facilitates (3) Only sense RNA
1. The handling and maintenance of bioreactor (4) Sense and antisense Protein
2. mixing
3. better oxygen transport
4. more accumulation of product
70. Which of the following statements is
65. Podocytes are not incorrect?
1.Arranged in intricate manner 1. A new ATP binds and cross-bridge is broken
2.Left with some spaces called filtration slits with the next cycle of contraction
3.Having slit pores 2. The process of contraction continues till the
4.Found in 2nd layer of filtration membrane calcium ions are pumped back to the
sarcoplasmic cisternae and resulting in the
66. For normal fertility, what percent of the unmasking of actin Filaments
sperm in ejaculate must exhibit normal 3. The reaction time of the fibres can vary in
morphology? different muscles
4. Both 1 and 3
1. 20
2. 30
3. 40
4. 60

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71. Which of the following is not associated 75. Which of the following hormone induce
with midbrain? ovulation and maintains corpus luteum?
1. FSH
(1) Located between thalamus of the forebrain 2. LH
and pons of the hindbrain 3. Both A and B
(2) A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes 4. Estrogen
through the midbrain
(3) The ventral portion of the midbrain made 76. Which one is a true statement regarding
up of mainly of four round swellings (lobes) DNA polymerase used in PCR?
called Corpora Quadrigemina 1. It is used to ligate introduces DNA in
(4) Midbrain and hindbrain form the brain recipient cells
stem 2. It serves as a selectable marker
3. It is isolated from a virus
4. It remains active at high temperatures
72. A piece of nucleic acid used to find a gene, 77. Glycogenolysis involves:
by forming a hybrid with it, is called a 1. conversion of sugar into glycogen
1. Probe 2. oxidation of sugar
2. Vector 3. conversion of glycogen into sugar
3. Restriction sequence 4. conversion of glycogen into fat
4. Retrovirus
78. Which of the following is true about
73. Which statement about the glomerular sponges except
filtration rate (GFR) is false? 1.Sponges are hermaphrodite
2.Fertilisation is internal
1. The GFR averages approximately 180 L per
3.Development is direct
day.
4.Primitive multicellular animals
2. The GFR will increase during fight-or-flight
situations due to the vasodilation of afferent
79. Which of the following is incorrect for the
arterioles.
given diagram?
3. A decrease in GFR results in a decrease in the
total urine output.
4. Renal autoregulation maintains the GFR at a
relatively constant rate despite fluctuations in
the mean arterial blood pressure.

74. Which part of the specialized conducting 1. Dioecious

system of the human heart is auto-excitable? 2. External fertilisation
I. SA Node II. AV node 3. Indirect development
III. AV bundle IV. Purkinje fibers 4. Saccoglossus
1. I and II only
2. I, II and III only
3. II, III and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV

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80. Which of the following statements are true 85. The type of synovial joint shown below
regarding [between lower end of humerus and ulna] is a:
association areas of brain?
A. These are the largest areas of forebrain.
B. These are involved in the regulation of
sexual
behaviour, expression of emotional reactions
and motivation.
C. These are responsible for complex functions
like
intersensory association, memory and
communication. 1. Ball and socket joint
D. It is a part of cerebral cortex. 2. Pivot joint
1. A & B 3. Saddle joint
2. A, B & C 4. Hinge joint
3. A, C & D
4. A & C
Zoology - Section B
81. The hormones from the heart, kidney, and 86. Which one of the following is not a
gastrointestinal tract respectively are: matching pair of an animal and a certain
1. ANF, Rennin, Trypsin phenomenon it exhibits?
2. ADH, Renin, GIP 1. Obelia : Metagenesis
3. ANF, Erythropoietin, CCK 2. Pila : Torsion
4. GIP, CCK, Renin 3. Octopus : The animal moves rapidly by jet
propulsion mechanism
82. Seaweeds existed probably around: 4. Nereis : Monoecious
1. 500 mya
2. 350 mya 87. Choose the correct option, pairing the
3. 320 mya principal cell
4. 300 mya with the tissue
(1) Mast cell − Adipose tissue

83. Which of the following is an example of (2) Fibroblasts − Areolar tissue

branched (3) Macrophages − Tendon

polymer? (4) Chondroclasts − Bone

1. Chitin.
2. Cellulose. 88. Select the incorrect option with respect to
3. Amylose. animal listed in column A and features
4. Glycogen exhibited in column B
Column A Column B
84. Select the correct statement: (Organism) (Features)
Expiration occurs due to external intercostal Homeothermy, Air sacs to
1. 1. Psittacula
muscles. supplement respiration
Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than Panthera Viviparity, Thecodont
2. 2.
atmospheric pressure during inspiration. tigris dentition
Inspiration occurs when atmospheric Bioluminescence, Eight rows
3. Pleurobrachia
3. pressure is less than intrapulmonary of ciliated comb plates
pressure. Presence of operculum,
4. Pristis
Expiration is initiated due to the contraction Absence of air bladder
4.
of the diaphragm.

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89. Which one of the following is incorrect 93. What type of natural selection is shown in
with respect to pulmonary volumes? the given figure?
1. VC = ERV + IC
2. FRC = RV + EC
3. TLC = IC + FRC
4. IC = TV + IRV

90. Which of the following structure of protein

is absolutely necessary for the many biological
activites of proteins
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. Quaternary

91. The vomiting centre is situated in

1. Stabilizing
1. Cerebrum
2. Directional
2. Cerebellum
3. Disruptive
3. Medulla
4. Regressive
4. Hypothalamus
94. Given below are two statements:
92. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
The coagulum is formed of
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints Statement
network of threads called
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone I:
thrombins.
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints Statement Spleen is the graveyard of
(d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone II: erythrocytes.

Choose the correct answer from the options In the light of the above statements, choose the
given below: most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
1. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) correct.
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) correct.
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.

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95. Which of the following is false about the 97.

frog? Sharing of injection needles
I. Eyes are bulged out and covered by a Assertion (A): between two individuals is not
nictitating membrane that protects them while recommended.
in water This transmits STDs like AIDS
II. On either side of the eyes a membranous Reason (R): and Hepatitis from the diseased
tympanum (ear) receives sound signals person to a healthy person.
III. The forelimbs and hind limbs help in
swimming, walking, leaping and burrowing
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
IV. The hind limbs end in five digits and they 1.
correct explanation of (A).
are larger and muscular than fore limbs that
end in four digits Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
2.
V. Feet have webbed digits that help in correct explanation of (A).
swimming 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
VI. Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism 4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
1. Only I and VI
2. Only III
3. Only IV and V 98. What is the partial pressure of oxygen and
4. None carbon dioxide in atmospheric air?
1. pO2 159 mm Hg, pCO2 0.3 mm Hg
96. 2. pO2 104 mm Hg, pCO2 40 mm Hg
Techniques like CT and MRI are very 3. pO2 40 mm Hg, pCO2 45 mm Hg
Assertion: useful in detection of cancers of 4. pO2 95 mm Hg, pCO2 40 mm Hg
internal organs.
Techniques of molecular biology can 99. Which of the following statements is/are
Reason: also be used to detect diseases correct about diaphragms, cervical caps and
having genetic susceptibility. vaults?
1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and the (A) Barrier methods of contraception
Reason is the correct explanation of the (B) Cover the cervix during coitus
Assertion. (C) Protect the user from contracting STDs
2. Both Assertion and Reason are true and the (D) They are reusable
Reason is not the correct explanation of the 1. A and B only
Assertion. 2. A, B and C
3. Assertion is true but Reason is false. 3. A, B and D
4. Both Assertion and Reason are false. 4. A, B, C and D

100. In India, population crossed 1.2 billion

mark in May 2011. The probable reasons for
this are, decline in
(A) Maternal mortality rate (MMR)
(B) Infant mortality rate (IMR)
(C) Number of people in reproducing age
(D) Death rate
1. A and B only
2. A, B and C
3. A, B and D
4. A, B, C and D

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Chemistry - Section
105. A and B in the following reactions are

A HCN /

−−
−→
B

A→
101. Which of the electronic configuration of an KCN

atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy? 1. A=RR CH2 CN, B=NaOH
′

1. 1s2,2s22p5
2. 1s2,2s22p3
3. 1s2,2s22p6 ,3s1
4. 1s2,2s22p6 2. A= , B=CH3

102. Elements of group IB is called as:

1. Normal elements. 2. Transition elements.
3. Alkaline earth metals. 4. Alkali metals. 3. A= , B=CH3

103. An example of metalloid elements in the

periodic table is: 4. A= , B=LiAlH4
1. Na and K 2. Cu and Al
3. As and Si 4. Ca and Mg 106. The lowest boiling point, if concentration is
fixed at 0.1 M in aqueous solution, is given by
which of the following solutions?
104. PCl5 is highly unstable and in a solid-state, a. K2SO4
b. NaCl
it exists as into [PCl4]+ and [PCl6]- ions.
c. Urea
The geometry of [PCl6]- is d. Glucose
1. Octahedral 1. a, b
2. Tetrahedral 2. b, c
3. Square pyramidal 3. c, d
4. Square planar 4. d, a

107. The atomic mass of Al is 27. When a

current of 5 faraday is passed through a
solution of Al3+ ions, the mass of Al deposited
is:
1. 27 g
2. 36 g
3. 45 g
4. 9 g

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108. Consider the reaction: 113.

+ -
Cl2(aq) + H2S(aq) → S(s) +2H (aq) +2Cl (aq) E
0
= − 0. 25 V, E
0
= 1. 50 V
+3
Ni+2
/ /
Au
Ni Au

The rate equation for this reaction is rate = the emf of Voltaic cell
k[Cl2][H2S] Which of these mechanisms is/are +2 +3
Ni ∣ ∣ Ni (1M) ∣ ∣
∣∣ Au (1M) Au is : −
consistent with this rate equation?
A. Cl2 + H2S → H+ + Cl- +Cl+ + HS- (slow) (1) 1.25 V
+ - + -
cl + HS → H +Cl + S (fast) (2) -1.75 V
(3) 1.75 V
B. H2S ⇔ H+ + HS- (fast equilibrium)
(4) 4 V
Cl2 + HS- → 2Cl- + H+ + S (slow)
1. A only 114.
2. B only
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

109. p-nitrophenol is stronger acid than phenol

because nitro group is: Product (A) and (B) respectively are:-
1. Electron withdrawing
2. Electron donating
3. Basic
4. Acidic

110. The compound obtained by heating a

mixture of primary amine and chloroform with (a)
ethanolic potassium hydroxide (KOH) is
[1997]
1. An alkyl isocyanide
2. An alkyl halide
3. An amide
4. An amide and nitro compound
(b)
111. In an acidic Buffer solution (CH3COOH +
CH3COONa), the species mainly present in the
solution are:
(Ignore negligible amount)
1. CH3COOH, CH3COO-, CH3COONa, H+
2. CH3COO-, Na+, CH3COOH
3. CH3COONa, CH3COO-, H+
(c)
4. CH3COO-, Na+, H+, CH3COONa

112. In which of the following compound

oxidation state of Fe is zero:-
1. FeS
2. Fe2O3
3. FeSO4 (d)
4. Fe(CO)5

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115. At iso-electric point: 120. The correct order of increasing s-character

(1) conc. of cation is equal to conc of anion (in percentage) in the hybrid orbitals of the
(2) Net charge is zero. following molecules/ions is:
(3) Maximum conc. of di-polar ion (Zwitterion) (i) CO
2−

3
will be present
(4) All of the above (ii) XeF 4

−
(iii) I
3

116. The stability of 2,3-dimethyl but-2-ene is (iv) NCl3

more than 2-butene. This can be explained in
(v) BeCl2
terms of:
1. resonance
2. hyperconjugation 1. (ii)<(iii)<(iv)<(i)<(v) 2. (ii)<(iv)<(iii)<(v)<(i)
3. electromeric effect 3. (iii)<(ii)<(i)<(v)<(iv) 4. (ii)<(iv)<(iii)<(i)<(v)
4. inductive effect

117. Which one of the following is incorrect for

ideal solution ? 121. Only iodine forms hepta-fluoride IF7 , but
(1) ΔHmix = 0 chlorine and bromine give Penta-fluorides. The
(2) ΔUmix = 0 reason for this is :
(3) ΔP = Pobs − Pcalculated by Raoul 's law = 0
(1) low electron affinity of iodine
(4) ΔGmix = 0 (2) unusual pentagonal bipyramidal structure
of IF7
118. When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and (3) that the larger iodine atom can
concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the accommodate more number of smaller fluorine
oxidation atom around it
number of chlorine changes from (4) the low chemical reactivity of IF7
1. zero to +1 and zero to -5
2. zero to -1 and zero to +5 122. Match the complex ions listed in column-I
3. zero to -1 and zero to +3 with the characteristics listed in column-II
4. zero to +1 and zero to -3 using the codes given below.
Column-I
Column-II
2+
119. Which one of the following sets of (a) [Ni (NH3 )6 ] (p)
monosaccharides forms sucrose? d sp and diamagnetic
2 3

1. a-D-galactopyranose and a-D-glucopyranose 3+

2. α-D-glucopyranose and b-D-fructofuranose (b) [Cr (NH3 )6 ] (q)

3. b-D -glucopyranose and a-D fructofuranose sp d and diamagnetic
3 2

4. α-D-glucopyranose and b-D-fructopyranose 3+

(c) [Co (NH3 )6 ] (r)
sp
3
d
2
and two unpaired electrons.
2+
(d) [Zn (NH3 ) ]
6
(s)
d
2
sp
3
and three unpaired electrons.
a b c d

(1) r s p q

(2) s r q p

(3) r s q p

(4) p q r s

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123. Which of the following statements is most 128. R3 SiCl on complete hydrolysis forms:
likely to be incorrect ? 1. R3 SiOH
(1) Ti (NO3 )4 is a colourless compound 2. R3 Si— O— SiR3
(2) [Cu (NCCH3 )4 ] BF4 is a colourless 3. R3 Si = O
+ −

4. None of the above.

compound
3+ ‐
(3) [Cr (NH3 ) ]
6
3 Cl is a coloured 129. Which of the following is the most correct
compound. electron displacement for a nucleophilic
(4) K3 [VF6 ] is a colourless compound reaction to take place?
1.
124. H2 O has higher boiling point than H2 S
because.
(1) H2 O is a smaller molecule and hence more 2.
closely packed
(2) The bond angle in H2 O is more than in H2 S 3.
and hence the former molecules are more
tightly packed 4.
(3) Of intermolecular hydrogen bonding in
liquid H2 O
(4) The latent heat of vaporisation is higher for
H2 O than for H2 S
130. Compound among the following that will
produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot
125. The element of the first transition series concentrated Hl is:
having lowest oxidation potential value
(M → M
2+
+ 2e
−
) is - 1.
1. Mn
2. Fe
3. Ni
4. Cu 2.

126. A particular reaction at 27oC for which

ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0 is found to be non-

spontaneous. The reaction may proceed

spontaneously 3.
1. The temperature is decreased
2. The temperature is increased 4.
3. The temperature is kept constant
4. It is carried in an open vessel at 27oC
131. Among the following compounds the one
127. Which species does not exist?
3− that is most reactive towards electrophilic
1. [BF6 ] nitration is:
3−
2. [AlF6 ] 1. Benzoic acid
3. [GaF6 ]
3−
2. Nitrobenzene
3− 3. Toluene
4. [lnF6 ]
4. Benzene

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Chemistry - Section
132. Under the isothermal condition, a gas at
300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L
against a constant external pressure of 2 bar.
The work done by the gas is: B
[Given that 1 L bar = 100 J] 136. 2.56 g of sulphur in 100 g of CS2 has
1. 30 J depression in a freezing point of 0. 01 °C and
2. -30 J Kf = 0.1 K / molal. The atomicity of sulphur in
3. 5 kJ
the solution will be:
4. 25 J
1. 2
2. 4
133. The excited state of an H atom emits a
3. 6
photon of wavelength λ and returns to the
4. 8
ground state. The principal quantum number of
the excited state is given by:
137. Iodide ion on oxidation in the basic
1. √λR(λR − 1) medium by KMnO 4
λR
2. √ will give:
( λR−1 )
1. I2
3. √λR(λR + 1)
2. IO4
−

( λR−1 ) −
4. √ 3. I3
λR
−
4. IO3
134. CH3–CH2–CHO + dil NaOH gives X
What is product X in the above reaction? 138. Consider the following reactions:
1. CH3 − CH2 COOH (A) Cl2 reacts with an aqueous N a2 SO3
solution
2. CH3 − CH2 − CH2 COOH
(B) Cl2 is passed through suspension of iodine
(C) Cl2 reacts with dry SO2
3. (D) Cl2 is passed through an aqueous SO2
solution
Select the reactions in which HCl is produced
(1) A, B, C, D
4.
(2) A, B, D
(3) B, D
(4) all of these

135. The change in optical rotation with time of 139.

11
A photon with an initial frequency of
freshly prepared solution of sugar is known as– 10 Hz scatters off an electron at rest. Its final
1. Specific rotation frequency is 0.9 × 1011 Hz. The speed of
2. Inversion scattered electron is close to:
3. Rotation 1. 3 × 102 ms−1 2. 3.8 × 103 ms−1
4. Mutarotation
3. 2 × 106 ms−1 4. 30 ms−1

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140. The element that combines with oxygen to 146. A saturated solution of non-radioactive
give an amphoteric oxide is sugar was taken and a little radioactive sugar
1. N was added to it. A small amount of it gets
2. P dissolved in solution and an equal amount of
3. Al sugar was precipitated. This proves
4. Na 1. The equilibrium has not been established in
the solution
141. For a reaction 1 A → 2B, rate of 2. Radioactive sugar can displace non-
2
radioactive sugar from its solution.
disappearance of 'A' is related to the rate of
3. Equilibrium is dynamic in nature
appearance of 'B' by the expression:
d[A] d[B]
4. None of the above
(1) − = 4
dt dt
d[A] 1
d[B] 147. A compound having the highest boiling
(2) − =
dt 2 dt point among the following is -
d[A] 1 d[B]
(3) − dt = 4 dt 1. Iso-octane 2. n-Octane
d[A] d[B] 3. 2,2,3,3-Tetramethyl butane 4. n-Butane
(4) − dt = dt

142. Primary amine and secondary amine are 148. An alkene among the following that reacts
distinguished by: fastest with H2 under catalytic conditions is -
1. Br2 / KOH
2. HClO
3. HNO2 1. 2.
4. NH3

143. Among the following, identify the species

with an atom in +6 oxidation state- 3. 4.
1. MnO4-
2. Cr(CN)63-
3. NiF62-
4. CrO2Cl2 149. A molecule or ion that has an unequal
bond length is:
144. If 0.50 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 1. SF4 2. SiF4
−
mole of Na3PO4, the maximum number of 3. XeF4 4. BF4
moles of Ba3(PO4)2 that can be formed is -
1. 0.10
2. 0.20 150. An alkyl halide is converted into alcohol
3. 0.30 by:
4. 0.40 1. Substitution reaction. 2. Addition reaction.
3. Elimination reaction. 4. Coupling reaction.
145. The amount of Zinc (atomic weight=65)
necessary to produce 224 mL of H2 (at STP) by
the reaction with dilute sulphuric acid will be:
1. 0.65 g 2. 7.6 g
3. 6.5 g 4. 8.5 g

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Physics - Section A
154. In the Bohr's model of a hydrogen atom,
the centripetal force is furnished by the
151. A circular disc A of radius r is made from Coulomb attraction between the proton and the
an iron plate of thickness t and another circular electron. If α0 is the radius of the ground state
disc B of radius 2r and thickness 4 . The orbit, m is the mass and e is the charge on the
t

electron, ε0 is the vaccum permittivity, the

relation between moments of inertia IA and IB
speed of the electron is [1998]
is
1. zero
1. IA > IB
2. e

2. IA = IB √ε a m0 0

e
3. IA < IB 3.
√4πε a m 0 0

4. Depends on the actual values of t and r √4πε a m 0 0

4. e

152. Four masses are fixed on a massless rod as

shown in the figure. The moment of inertia 155. A neutron of mass m enters a uniform
about the axis P is about magnetic field B with the velocity v
perpendicular to it. The radius of the circular
path made by a neutron is :
mv
1. B
mv
2. B
2

3. Infinity

4. Zero

156. The current through a choke coil increases

from zero to 6 A in 0.3 seconds and an induced
emf of 30 V is produced. The inductance of the
1. 2 kg-meter2 coil is
2. 1 kg-meter2 1. 5 H
3. 0.5 kg-meter2 2. 2.5 H
4. 0.3 kg-meter2 3. 1.5 H
4. 2 H
153. The root-mean-square speed of hydrogen
molecules at 300 K is 1930 m/s. Then the root 157. A gas is formed of molecules, each
mean square speed of oxygen molecules at 900 molecules possessing n degree of freedom. The
K will be: [MH CET 2002; Odisha JEE 2010] value of γ(Cp /Cv ) for the gas is
1. 1930√3 m/s 1.
2

n
2. 836 m/s 2
2. 1+ n
3. 643 m/s
1930 3. 1 + n

4. m/s 2
√3 1
4. n + 2

158. What are the units of K = 1/4πε0

(1) C2N–1m–2
(2) Nm2C–2
(3) Nm2C2
(4) Unitless

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159. Read the assertion and reason carefully to 163. Three resistors are connected to form the
mark the correct option out of the options given sides of a triangle ABC, the resistance of the
below: sides AB, BC and CA are 40 ohms, 60 ohms and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the 100 ohms respectively. The effective resistance
reason is the correct explanation of the between the points A and B in ohms will be
assertion. (1) 32
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (2) 64
reason is not the correct explanation of the (3) 50
assertion. (4) 200
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If the assertion and reason both are false. 164. Two insulated charged conducting spheres
(5) If assertion is false but reason is true. of radii 20 cm and 15 cm respectively and
Assertion : Rocket in flight is not an illustration having an equal charge of 10 C are connected
of projectile. by a copper wire and then they are separated.
Reason : Rocket takes flight due to combustion Then -
of fuel and does not move under the gravity (1) Both the spheres will have the same charge
effect alone. of 10 C
(2) Surface charge density on the 20 cm sphere
160. Read the assertion and reason carefully to will be greater than that on the 15 cm sphere
mark the correct option out of the options given (3) Surface charge density on the 15 cm sphere
below: will be greater than that on the 20 cm sphere
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the (4) Surface charge density on the two spheres
reason is the correct explanation of the will be equal
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but 165. The earth (mass = 6 × 1024 kg ) revolves
reason is not the correct explanation of the round the sun with angular velocity
assertion. ‐7
2 × 10 rad/s in a circular orbit of radius
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. 8

(4) If the assertion and reason both are false. 1. 5 × 10 km . The force exerted by the sun on
(5) If assertion is false but reason is true. the earth in Newtons, is
Assertion : Displacement of a body is vector 1. 18 × 1025
sum of the area under velocity-time graph. 2. Zero
Reason : Displacement is a vector quantity. 3. 27 × 1039
21
4. 36 × 10
161. If the body is moving in a circle of radius r
with a constant speed v, its angular velocity is:166. If the radius of the 13Al27 nucleus is taken
1. v2/r to RAl then the radius of 53Te125 nucleus is
2. vr
nearly
3. v/r
4. r/v 1. (53/13)1/3 RAl
2. 5/3 RAl
162. Rocket engines lift a rocket from the earth 3. 3/5 RAl
surface because hot gases with high velocity: 4. (13/53)1/3 RAl
(1) push against the earth.
(2) push against the air.
(3) react against the rocket and push it up.
(4) heat up the air which lifts the rocket.

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167. What is the flux through a cube of side 'a' if 172. Which of the following is not true for this
a point charge q is at one of its corners? t
progressive wave y = 4 sin 2π( 0.02 − 100 )
x

2q
1. ε
q
0
where y and x are in cm and t in sec
2. 8ε (1) Its amplitude is 4 cm
0

q (2) Its wavelength is 100 cm

3. ε
q
0
(3) Its frequency is 50 cycles/sec
4. 2ε 6a2 (4) Its propagation velocity is 50 × 103 cm/sec
0

168. A car of mass m is moving on a level 173. When the kinetic energy of an electron is
circular track of radius R. If μs represent the increased, the wavelength of the associated
static friction between the road and tyres of the wave will
car, then the maximum speed of the car in (1) Increase
circular motion is given by: (2) Decrease
(3) Wavelength does not depend on the kinetic
1. √μs mRg 2. √Rg/μs
energy
3. √mRg/μs 4. √μsRg (4) None of the above

174. Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on an

169. The ionization energy of the electron in the aluminium surface (work function 4.2 eV ). The
hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. kinetic energy in joules of the fastest electron
The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to emitted is approximately
emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum 1. 3. 2 × 10−21
wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to 2. 3. 2 × 10−19
−17
the transition between 3. 3. 2 × 10
(a) n=3 to n=2 states 4. 3. 2 × 10−15
(b) n=3 to n=1 states
(c) n=2 to n=1 states 175. The quantity of heat which crosses unit
(d) n=4 to n=3 states area of a metal plate during conduction
depends upon
170. A copper wire and a steel wire of the same (1) The density of the metal
diameter and length are connected end to end (2) The temperature gradient perpendicular to
and a force is applied, which stretches their the area
combined length by 1 cm. The two wires will (3) The temperature to which the metal is
have heated
(1) Different stresses and strains (4) The area of the metal plate
(2) The same stress and strain
(3) The same strain but different stresses 176. Colour of shining bright star is an
(4) The same stress but different strains indication of its
(1) Distance from the earth
171. A uniform cube is subjected to volume (2) Size
compression. If each side is decreased by 1%, (3) Temperature
then bulk strain is (4) Mass
(1) 0.01
(2) 0.06
(3) 0.02
(4) 0.03

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177. An ideal monoatomic gas expands in such 180. The charge on a drop of water is 3 × 10−8
a manner that its pressure and volume can be C. If its surface potential is 500 V, its radius
related by equation P V 5/3 = cons tan t. must be equal to:
During this process, the gas is 1. 81 cm
(1) Heated 2. 54 cm
(2) Cooled 3. 27 cm
(3) Neither heated nor cooled 4. 108 cm
(4) First heated and then cooled
181. In a vernier calliper, N divisions of vernier
178. If an electron and a positron annihilate, scale coincides with (N-1) divisions of the main
then the energy released is: scale (in which length of one division is 1 mm).
1. 3. 2 × 10−13
J The least count of the instrument should be:
2. 1. 6 × 10
−13
J
1. N mm
3. 4. 8 × 10−13
J
2. (N − 1) mm
1
4. 6. 4 × 10−13 J 3. 10N
cm

1
4. mm
179. Graph of specific heat at constant volume ( N−1 )

for a monoatomic gas is

182.
The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in the
figure will be:

1. ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
1. X = A ⋅ B

2. X = A ⋅ B
¯¯
¯¯¯
¯¯¯
¯¯¯
¯¯¯¯
3. X = A + B
¯
¯¯¯ ¯
¯¯¯
¯
¯¯¯ ¯
¯¯¯
4. X = A ⋅ B

2.
183. A current of 3 A flows through the 2 Ω
resistor shown in the circuit. The power
dissipated in the 5 Ω resistor is:

3.

1. 4 W 2. 2 W

3. 1 W 4. 5 W

4.

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184. A beam of electrons passes un-deflected 188. A liquid drop at temperature T, isolated
through mutually perpendicular electric and from its surroundings, breaks into a number of
magnetic fields. Where do the electrons move if droplets. The temperature of the droplets will
the electric field is switched off and the same be–
magnetic field is maintained? 1. equal to T
1. in an elliptical orbit. 2. greater than T
2. in a circular orbit. 3. less than T
3. along a parabolic path. either (1), (2) or (3) depending on the surface
4.
4. along a straight line. tension of the liquid.

185. A plane mirror approaches a stationary 189. Time period of a freely suspended magnet
person with acceleration of 10 ms–2. The does not depend upon
acceleration of his image as seen by the person, 1. length of the magnet
will be: 2. pole strength of the magnet
1. 10 m/s2 3. horizontal component of earth's magentic
field
2. 20 m/s2 4. length of the suspension thread
3. 5 m/s2
4. can't be determined 190. An alternating voltage V = V0 sin ωt is
connected to a capacitor of capacity C0 through
an AC ammeter of zero resistance. The reading

Physics - Section B
of ammeter is
V0 √ 2
1.
186. The pressure of water in a water pipe ωC
V
when tap is opened and closed are respectively 2.
0

ωC√2
3 × 10 Nm
5 –2 and 3.5 × 105 Nm–2. With open
V ωC
3.
0

tap, the velocity of water flowing is: √2

4. none of these

191. Select the correct option based on

statements:
Light can travel in vacuum but sound
I:
cannot do so.
1. 10 ms–1
Light is an electromagnetic wave and sound
2. 5 ms–1 II:
is a mechanical wave.
3. 20 ms–1
4. 15 ms–1 Both I and II are true and II is the correct
1.
explanation of I.
187. The frequency of y - rays, X - rays and
Both I and II are true but II is not the correct
ultraviolet rays are a, b and c respectively. 2.
explanation of I.
Then
(1) a > b > c 3. I is true but II is false.
(2) a < b < c 4. I is false but II is true.
(3) a = b = c
(4) a > c > b

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192. Assertion: A convex mirror is used as a 196. In the circuit diagram shown below, the
rearview mirror. reading of the a.c. voltmeter is
Reason: Convex mirror always forms a virtual,
erect, and diminished image for real objects.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) Assertion is a true statement but Reason is 1. 200 V
false. 2. 100 V
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 3. 50√2 V
statements. 4. zero

193. A particle performing S.H.M. is at rest at 197. A wire of length 6 m is rotated about the
points P and Q which are at a distance a and b axis passing through point C and parallel to the
from point O. It has velocity v when it is magnetic field lines with angular velocity 4
halfway between P and Q. The time period of radian/second. If B = 0.5T, the potential
oscillation is: difference across the ends of the wire is

1. [
b − a
]v
1. 2 V
b×a
2. 6 V
2.
π(b − a)
3. 12 V
v
b − a
4. Zero
3. (
ba
)v

4. Data is insufficient to answer. 198. Two coherent sources are 0.3 mm apart.
They are 1 m away from the screen. The second
194. Choose the incorrect statement: dark fringe is at a distance of 0.3 cm from the
center. The distance of the fourth bright from
1. All SHM's have a fixed time period.
the centre is
All motions having the same time period are 1. 0.16 cm
2.
SHM. 2. 1.6 cm
In SHM, the total energy is proportional to 3. 0.8 cm
3.
the square of the amplitude. 4. 8 cm
Phase constant of SHM depends on
4.
initial conditions. 199. A shell fired from a cannon explodes in
mid-air. It's total
(1) Linear momentum is not conserved
195. S.I. unit of intensity of magnetization is: (2) Linear momentum is conserved
1. Ampere-metre 2. Ampere-metre2 (3) Kinetic energy is conserved
(4) Potential energy is conserved
3. Ampere/metre 4. Ampere/metre2

Page: 23
 Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

200. At the three corners of an equilateral

triangle, charges are placed as shown in the
figure. The magnitude of the electric field at
point O is

1 2Q
1. 4πε0 r2

1 Q
2. 4πε0 r2

1 Q√ 2
3. 4πε0 r2

1 Q√ 3
4. 4πε0 2
r

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