Physics

Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0625 Physics June 2016

Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
PHYSICS
Paper 0625/11
Multiple Choice (Core)
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 C
2 C 22 A
3 A 23 A
4 A 24 B
5 D 25 B
6 D 26 D
7 D 27 B
8 C 28 C
9 B 29 D
10 B 30 B
11 D 31 A
12 D 32 C
13 B 33 D
14 A 34 A
15 A 35 B
16 C 36 B
17 D 37 B
18 C 38 D
19 B 39 A
20 C 40 B
General comments
Some candidates found this paper challenging. Several questions were not well answered, in particular
questions 2, 18, 23, 29, 33 and 39.
Comments on specific questions
Question 1
Weaker candidates often gave 29 mm as the answer, failing to subtract the 10 mm reading at the left hand
end of the feather.
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Question 2
In this question on average speed, a very large proportion of candidates chose option A. Students should be
reminded always to check units in calculations.
Question 3
Confusion between the concepts of speed and acceleration led many to opt for option D.
Question 5
The topic here was weight and gravitational field strength, and weaker candidates did not appear confident
and appeared to guess with all options proving attractive.
Question 7
A significant proportion of candidates of all abilities believed that pressure was an example of a force.
Question 10
All options were attractive to many of the candidates. Only the strongest candidates selected the correct
answer.
Question 12
The most common error here was to believe that pressure depends on the mass of water in the container,
leading to option C.
Question 14
Almost a third of candidates believed that a cold liquid near its freezing point does not evaporate.
Question 18
The concept of thermal capacity was not well understood, with option D being very popular.
Question 23
Many candidates could not identify the focal length of a converging lens, often choosing the object or image
distance.
Question 29
Only one in four identified the volt as the correct unit for both meters. Students must be careful to read the
answers in both of the columns before making their choice.
Question 33
This question involving an LDR was not well answered by even the stronger candidates with many believing
that the LDR’s resistance would decrease as the light level fell.
Question 34
A common mistake in this question on fuses was to think that a fuse would reduce the current to its rated
value.
Question 39
This was another challenging question, with a high proportion of candidates of all abilities failing to identify
the effect on a nucleus of α emission and β emission.
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PHYSICS
Paper 0625/12
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 C
2 B 22 A
3 B 23 C
4 A 24 B
5 A 25 D
6 C 26 B
7 B 27 A
8 C 28 C
9 B 29 B
10 D 30 B
11 D 31 A
12 C 32 A
13 B 33 D
14 C 34 A
15 B 35 B
16 A 36 B
17 D 37 B
18 C 38 A
19 C 39 A
20 C 40 C
General comments
Overall many candidates found this a challenging paper. Several questions were not well answered, with
particular problems being experienced with questions 5, 16, 17, 32 and 33. Question 2 was particularly well
answered.
Question 1
end of the feather.
Question 3
Confusion between the concepts of speed and acceleration led many candidates to select option D.
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Question 5
Few responses were correct here, with the popularity of option D suggesting that many had either failed to
read the question carefully or believed that there must be an upward force on any object that is moving
upwards.
Question 6
Many weaker candidates chose the object with the greatest volume and mass as having the greatest density
and selected option D.
Question 7
Many weaker candidates appeared to associate zero resultant force with decreasing speed and therefore
chose option D.
Question 10
Option C was very popular, probably because of an assumed link between boiling water and the ‘hydro’ part
of ‘hydroelectric’.
Question 13
This question involved a barometer and considerably more candidates thought that the space above the
column of mercury would increase and so chose option A.
Question 16
Very many candidates were unclear about the process of melting and its lack of effect on temperature, with
options B and D being common choices.
Question 17
In this question on thermometers, a large proportion candidates believed fixed points to be the highest and
lowest recordable temperatures.
Question 32
Many candidates added the resistance values for the parallel arrangement shown, leading them to the
incorrect choice of option D.
Question 33
This question involving an LDR was not well answered by even the stronger candidates with many believing
that the LDR’s resistance would decrease as the light level fell.
Question 34
A common mistake in this question on fuses was to think that a fuse would reduce the current to its rated
value.
Question 38
The most common error here was to choose nuclides with the same nucleon number, rather than the same
proton number.
Question 40
Weaker candidates often judged the likely continuation of the decay curve by eye and deduced that the
activity would reduce to either 125 decays / s or to zero at 8 days.
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PHYSICS
Paper 0625/13
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 C
2 C 22 A
3 B 23 B
4 C 24 C
5 A 25 B
6 C 26 C
7 C 27 A
8 C 28 C
9 B 29 A
10 B 30 D
11 B 31 C
12 A 32 D
13 B 33 D
14 A 34 A
15 D 35 B
16 D 36 B
17 B 37 B
18 B 38 D
19 D 39 B
20 C 40 C
General comments
Many candidates found this a very challenging paper. Many questions were not well answered, with
particular problems being experienced with questions 4, 6, 7, 8, 10, 17, 18, 19, 27, 34 and 38.
Question 1
end of the feather.
© 2016
Question 2
In this question most errors involved considering the options as speed-time graphs and therefore choosing
option A.
Question 4
There was widespread confusion about the acceleration of a freely falling object, with many believing that
acceleration, rather than speed, increases from zero as an object falls from rest.
Question 7
This question concerned the forces on an object falling at terminal velocity, and was not well answered.
Options B and D were very popular, even with able candidates.
Question 8
Many candidates selected option D as the position of the centre of mass, not realising that it must be
vertically below the point of suspension.
Question 10
Most candidates believed that wind is reliably available as well as being renewable.
Question 11
It was common to confuse work with power, leading to option D being slightly more popular than the correct
answer, option B.
Question 13
This question involved a barometer and considerably more candidates thought that the space above the
column of mercury would increase and so chose option A.
Question 15
A very large proportion of able candidates knew that the average speed of the molecules would increase, but
also thought that their average separation would increase, even though the volume of the container was
constant.
Question 16
Only the strongest candidates answered this question correctly with all options being popular choices.
Question 17
The popularity of option A in this question indicated that many candidates were not aware that ice at its
melting point remains at a constant temperature whilst it is melting.
Question 28
Although many candidates knew whether iron or steel were hard or soft magnetic materials, weaker
candidates did not show an understanding of what this actually means, and that steel would be needed for a
permanent magnet.
Question 32
The most common error here was to confuse series and parallel circuits, leading to a choice of option A.
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Question 33
Option B was a very popular choice in this question, indicating a lack of understanding of the effect of light
level on the resistance of an LDR, as well as an incorrect understanding of the effect of decreased resistance
on the p.d. across the LDR.
Question 34
In this question on fuses a common mistake of less able candidates was to think that a fuse would reduce
the current to its rated value.
Question 38
A significant proportion of candidates of all abilities thought that isotopes must be radioactive/unstable.
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PHYSICS
Paper 0625/21
Multiple Choice (Extended)
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 C
2 A 22 D
3 A 23 D
4 D 24 B
5 A 25 D
6 C 26 B
7 B 27 D
8 C 28 A
9 B 29 B
10 C 30 A
11 C 31 A
12 D 32 D
13 B 33 A
14 A 34 B
15 C 35 B
16 C 36 C
17 D 37 B
18 A 38 D
19 B 39 D
20 A 40 B
General comments
Many candidates coped well with this new multiple choice paper.
Question 2
In this question about a speed-time graph candidates had to spot that the gradient, and hence the
acceleration, were zero at 40 s. Many candidates opted for B, which would give the mean value of
acceleration from 3 m/s to 15 m/s over 40 s.
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Question 3
A common error here was to believe that runner 2 was slowing down, confusing reducing acceleration with
reducing speed.
Question 4
This question concerned the forces on a satellite orbiting the Earth at constant speed, and a number of
candidates thought that the resultant force on it must act in its instantaneous direction of travel and so chose
option C.
Question 13
This question concerned a barometer, and a significant proportion of candidates believed that the space
above the column of mercury would increase in length and so selected option A.
Question 18
Virtually all candidates were aware that the black car would show the greater temperature increase, but
approximately half of these also thought that the white car would show the greater decrease, therefore
choosing option B.
Question 20
The mistake made by many weaker candidates here was to fail to convert kHz to Hz, leading to option C.
Question 26
Weaker candidates often opted for A for this question, confusing magnetic and electric fields.
Question 28
Although a large proportion of candidates could calculate the current in this question, a significant number
chose the wrong direction for electron flow.
Question 30
The most common mistake here was to choose B, not appreciating that the current would not be rectified.
Question 32
In this question on an LDR in a potential divider circuit, option B was popular among weaker candidates,
indicating a lack of appreciation of the effect of light level on the resistance of an LDR, as well as an incorrect
understanding of the effect of decreased resistance on the p.d. across the LDR.
Question 33
The most common mistake here was to think that a fuse would reduce the current to its rated value.
Question 36
Only the strongest candidates were able to select the correct answer to this question on deflection of β-
particles.
Question 37
This question concerned an application of a radioactive source, which proved challenging for many
candidates with only the strongest answering correctly.
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PHYSICS
Paper 0625/22
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 D
2 B 22 C
3 B 23 A
4 A 24 B
5 A 25 D
6 A 26 A
7 C 27 A
8 B 28 B
9 B 29 A
10 A 30 A
11 B 31 A
12 D 32 D
13 B 33 A
14 A 34 B
15 B 35 B
16 D 36 C
17 D 37 B
18 C 38 A
19 A 39 D
20 C 40 C
General comments
Many candidates performed well on this new multiple choice paper. Candidates answered particularly well on
Questions 2, 15 and 35, while Question 5 was the most challenging.
Question 3
Weaker candidates often chose option D here, believing that the acceleration of the stone as it fell would
increase as well as its speed.
Question 5
This question tested the meaning and consequences of acceleration. Only stronger candidates gave the
correct answer, with many believing that changing direction does not have to involve acceleration.
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Question 6
The most common error in this moments question was to fail to add the 20 cm to 60 cm when determining the
moment of force F about the pivot.
Question 8
A number of candidates opted for A, which is the value of the resultant force, rather than calculating the
value of R.
Question 10
A large number of candidates either believed that oil did not derive its energy from the Sun, or they did not
read the question carefully enough.
Question 13
This question concerned a barometer, and a significant proportion of candidates believed that the space
above the column of mercury would increase in length and chose option A.
Question 14
A large number of candidates chose option B for this question on change of state.
Question 16
Virtually all candidates were aware that the black section would show the faster temperature increase, but
many of these also thought that the white section would show the faster decrease, and chose option B.
Question 26
This question concerned the current-voltage characteristic of a filament lamp, and almost the same number
of candidates chose option C as the correct option A; students should be able to recall the correct direction
of the curve for given axes.
Question 29
Question 32
In this question on an LDR in a potential divider circuit, option B was popular among weaker candidates,
indicating a lack of appreciation of the effect of light level on the resistance of an LDR, as well as an incorrect
understanding of the effect of decreased resistance on the p.d. across the LDR.
Question 33
Here the most common error was to think that a fuse would reduce the current to its rated value.
Question 39
A significant number of candidates thought that the protactinium nucleus absorbs a proton, possibly as a
guess for those unfamiliar with the effect of β-particle emission in radioactive decay.
© 2016
PHYSICS
Paper 0625/23
Question Question
Key Key
Number Number
1 A 21 C
2 C 22 D
3 C 23 C
4 A 24 D
5 C 25 C
6 C 26 B
7 D 27 D
8 C 28 A
9 B 29 D
10 A 30 B
11 B 31 A
12 D 32 D
13 B 33 A
14 A 34 B
15 D 35 B
16 B 36 C
17 C 37 D
18 A 38 C
19 D 39 B
20 C 40 D
General comments
Many candidates found this new multiple choice paper challenging. Question 10 was the best answered, with
questions 6, 18, 25 and, particularly, 40 proving difficult for many candidates.
Question 2
In this question the most common error was to choose option A, as many candidates read the distance-time
graphs as speed-time graphs.
Question 3
Weaker candidates often chose option D here, believing that the acceleration of the stone, rather than its
speed, would increase from zero as it fell.
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Question 5
Here a number of candidates believed that the force on an object moving in a circle at constant speed would
act in its direction of motion.
Question 6
This question was answered correctly by stronger students, with option B being slightly more popular than
the correct answer C. This incorrect value is produced by multiplying each force by the distance shown
immediately to its left on the diagram; students choosing this did not appreciate that the total distance to the
pivot should be used in each case.
Question 8
Incorrect option D was a popular choice with many candidates who did not realise that the momentum does
change because its direction changes.
Question 9
A significant proportion of candidates believed that hydroelectric energy is not derived from the Sun.
Question 11
Students should be advised to read questions carefully; many failed to take into account here that there were
three boxes.
Question 13
This question concerned a barometer, and a significant number of candidates thought that the space above
the column of mercury would increase in length and selected option A.
Question 15
Almost all candidates knew that the average speed of the molecules would increase, but many of them also
believed that the average separation would increase, even though the volume of the container was constant.
Question 16
A common error, even for stronger candidates, was to think that increasing the length of the tube and stem
would increase sensitivity.
Question 18
A very high proportion of candidates were aware that a black surface was the better absorber, but many of
these also believed that a white surface was the better emitter.
Question 20
Many candidates thought that the frequency of the wave, rather than its wavelength, would decrease when
refraction occurred.
Question 25
Many candidates believed that the speed of sound in gases is greater than in metals, leading to the incorrect
option A.
Question 28
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Question 30
Many weaker candidates treated this as a series, rather than parallel, arrangement, leading to option D.
Question 33
Here a very common mistake was to think that a fuse would reduce the current to its rated value.
Question 40
This question proved challenging with only the strongest candidates answering correctly. Many candidates
either forgot to add on background radiation at the end of their calculation, or ignored it completely.
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PHYSICS
Paper 0625/31
Core Theory
Key messages
All candidates should be advised to check through their responses carefully. Errors such as failing to answer
part of a question, the omission of a unit or checking that the appropriate number of ticks has been used in a
tick box question can then be avoided.
As has been the case for a number of years, the questions on radioactivity proved to be more challenging for
all but the highest scoring candidates. Candidates would benefit from more focus on this area.
General comments
Candidates of all abilities were able to access questions and provide responses to all questions. It was clear
that many candidates had prepared well for the examination; many were able to apply their knowledge and
understanding well to a broad range of contexts. Candidates demonstrated appropriate language skills and
there was no evidence of candidates having insufficient time to complete the questions. The vast majority of
candidates were able express their ideas clearly and received credit for their responses.
When completing calculations many candidates included the formula to be used and then set out the stages
in their working clearly. Partial credit can be given when, despite obtaining the wrong answer, full working is
shown.
All but the weakest candidates were able to use and apply standard equations such as P = F/A and V = IR.
However, a significant proportion of these candidates were unsure about some basic facts. For example, the
electromagnetic spectrum being shown in order of increasing frequency. In a very small number of cases
candidates left parts of a question blank suggesting that their knowledge and understanding was not secure.
Question 1
(a) Many candidates answered this question well. Most recognised that the cyclist and runner were
accelerating and the cyclist was faster.
(b) This was answered correctly by almost all candidates. Those that gave an incorrect response
usually suggested that the cyclist had stopped or was at rest.
(c) This was not a well answered question. A very common incorrect response from weaker
candidates was to multiply speed by time (12 × 9) in order to get 108 m. A number of candidates
partially calculated correct responses giving final values of 54 m or 27 m.
(d) There was a very high number of correct responses to this question. A common error was
candidates drawing the correct line for the constant speed but then the deceleration line finishing at
4 m/s rather than 0 m/s.
Question 2
(a) This was answered well by almost all candidates.
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(b) Correct responses were given by most candidates. Common incorrect responses were 44 kg and
64 kg. Some of those with incorrect values were able to gain partial credit for the correct use of
weight = mass × gravity.
(c) As for part (b), the question was well answered by most candidates. Common incorrect responses
were 540 N or 640 N.
Question 3
(a) There were many correct responses to this question.
(b) This question was only answered well by the strongest candidates. There were many vague
responses in terms of preventing heat loss or stating that shiny surfaces were good reflectors. A
small number referred to the reflection of light rather than thermal energy.
(c) This question was very well answered by all candidates.
Question 4
(a) This question proved challenging for almost all candidates. Common errors were water, rivers,
waves, geothermal and fossil fuels.
(b) There were many correct responses to this question. However, there were a small number of
candidates who reversed input and output energy. Some weaker candidates could not be given
credit as they gave more than the required number of ticks.
(c) This was generally well answered by candidates. Candidates had a good understanding of fossil
fuels being a non-renewable resource.
Question 5
(a) Correct responses were given by many candidates. However, there were many incorrect answers
in terms of the crawler board being a safety device, having more friction so as to stop the workers
sliding or the hand rail providing additional protection.
(b) This question was well answered by many candidates. Many candidates, having obtained the
correct value, did not gain full credit as they forgot to include, or gave an incorrect, unit. For
example, N m or N m2. There were some candidates who gained partial credit for calculating
correctly the pressure exerted by the crawler board or the pressure exerted by the men.
Question 6
(a) (i) This question was not well answered. A very common incorrect response was to draw three
straight lines drawn out from point P.
(ii) Many candidates gained some credit, normally for the idea of collisions. However, there were many
vague responses in terms of particles and molecules without specifying that these particles were
air particles.
(b) There were many correct responses to this question.
Question 7
(a) This question was well answered
(b) Only the best prepared candidates gained full credit on this question.
(c) This question proved challenging. There were a number of vague responses in terms of causing
accidents, damage or fires.
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Question 8
(a) (i) Many correct responses were given to this question. Incorrect answers included incidence line,
critical line and line of symmetry.
(ii) There were many correct responses to this question.
(b) Stronger candidates answered this question well. Most candidates gained some credit.
(c) This question was well answered by only the better prepared candidates. A small number of
candidates did not give a response to this question.
Question 9
(a) (i) There were many correct responses to this question. Incorrect responses included alpha, heat and
sound waves.
(ii) Most candidates answered this question correctly. The most common incorrect response was
wavelength.
(b) (i) Many candidates answered this question well. A number, however, failed to gain full credit for
vague responses such as airports, hospitals or security.
(ii) Stronger candidates answered this well. A very common incorrect response was the wearing of
goggles or lab coats or vague responses about protective clothing.
(iii) This question was only answered well by the strongest candidates.
Question 10
(a) There were many correct responses to this question.
(b) (i) Only the strongest candidates gained full credit for answers to this question.
(ii) This was answered correctly by many candidates.
(iii) Many candidates gained full credit. Other candidates gained partial credit for identifying the
equation (V = IR) correctly.
Question 11
(a) This question was not well answered with many candidates ringing more than two metals.
(b) This was answered correctly by the majority of candidates.
(c) This was answered correctly by the majority of candidates.
Question 12
(a) Very few candidates gained full credit. Most answers, however, gained credit for the idea of using a
sheet of paper to stop alpha radiation.
(b) This question was generally well answered by stronger candidates who recognised that gamma
was less ionising and had greater penetration.
(c) There were many correct responses in terms of mutations of cells. There were also a number of
vague responses in terms of causing harm, illness or death.
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PHYSICS
Paper 0625/32
Core Theory
Key messages
• Candidates should note the number of marks available and the space allocated for responses as
these factors provide a clear indication of the type of answer that is expected.
• Candidates must read the question carefully and make sure they follow the rubric of the question. In
particular, candidates must not try to maximise their chances by giving more than the required
number of answers to a question. If two alternative answers are given, one correct and the other
incorrect, the candidate will almost always score no credit.
• Candidates are advised to read carefully through their responses to make sure that what they have
written has the intended sense. Concise explanations are often the best.
• In calculations, candidates must set out and explain their working correctly. There may be credit
available for working.
• Candidates should be encouraged to present their answers as carefully and neatly as possible.
General comments
A high proportion of candidates had clearly been well taught and prepared for this paper. There remains the
tendency to think less rigorously and logically in non-numerical questions than in numerical questions. Some
areas of the syllabus were better known than others; in particular temperature scales, the transfer of thermal
energy by conduction, convection and radiation and radioactive decay were not well understood.
Equations were generally well known by all but the weakest candidates. Many candidates understood well
how to apply equations to fairly standard situations. On occasions however, when asked to apply their
knowledge to a new situation, they became confused and displayed a lack of breadth of understanding of the
use of the equation. More practice in applying equations in unfamiliar situations would deepen candidates’
understanding and improve their performance in the examination.
The majority of candidates indicated by their knowledge and skills that they were correctly entered for this
Physics Core paper. However, a significant minority of candidates found the subject matter and level of some
questions very easy, and they may have benefited from being prepared and entered for the Extended Theory
paper.
The English language ability of the vast majority of the candidates was adequate for the demands of this
paper. However, there was a small minority who struggled to express themselves adequately.
Candidates did not seem to find any difficulty in completing it in the allocated time and relatively few left
answers to questions blank.
Question 1
(a) Many candidates answered correctly. However, a large number gave volume as their answer.
(b) (i) The majority of candidates answered correctly. The most common error was to give 3.04 s as
3.40 s.
(ii) With e.c.f. from b (i), the majority of candidates gained credit for this part. The most common
mistake was to add the three times on the stopwatch, and then to divide by 2.
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(iii) With e.c.f., many candidates answered this question well. A very common error was failing to
convert the time in minutes to seconds, or only partially converting it, with 905 or 950 being
frequently seen as the time in seconds.
Question 2
(a) Most candidates correctly determined the area under the graph to give the distance travelled by the
student. Common errors were misreads of the speed, with 4.2 m/s very frequently seen. Weaker
candidates inverted the equation and divided the speed by 10 instead of multiplying.
(b) Many candidates correctly selected the forces in diagram C and gave clear explanations to gain full
credit. Weaker candidates tended to give only partial explanations.
(c) Most candidates correctly determined the pressure and gave the correct unit. Many candidates
increased the complexity of the calculation by converting the area into metres in order to give their
answer in pascals. There was no need to do this as N/cm2 was an acceptable unit. Weaker
candidates tended to invert the formula and consequently multiplied force by area.
Question 3
(a) Most candidates correctly gave 720 Nm as the value for the girl’s moment about the pivot.
Common errors were to divide by 2.4 metres or to multiply by the wrong distance.
(b) Many candidates correctly determined the weight of the boy as 450 N. However, very few
candidates set out their working as a moments calculation, and so could gain no credit for any
correct workings. Candidates should be encouraged to show their working for all stages of
calculations.
Question 4
(a) (i) This question was generally well answered.
(ii) A large number of candidates identified zero as the temperature of a mixture of water and ice.
Many candidates thought the reading was below minus 10 degrees Celsius, and others had
temperatures as high as 25 degrees Celsius.
(b) Many candidates gave good descriptions of the melting of ice in terms of the molecules, forces,
spacings and motion, with a significant number gaining full credit.
Question 5
(a) The majority of candidates were able to give two advantages of the lamps connected in parallel
compared to those connected in series.
(b) (i) Only the weakest candidates failed to answer correctly.
(ii) The majority of candidates answered correctly.
(c) Many candidates gained partial credit for this question, but only the most able gave descriptions of
advantages and disadvantages to gain full credit. Candidates should be reminded to give
sufficiently detailed and precise answers.
Question 6
(a) Many candidates correctly identified X-rays and microwaves, but a significant number placed their
responses in the wrong order. Weaker candidates failed to recall the correct waves, and entered
responses such as sound waves.
(b) Many candidates correctly indicated radio waves, but a number chose gamma rays or another
radiation in the spectrum.
(c) (i)(ii) Many candidates suggested suitable uses for gamma radiation and ultraviolet radiation. Weaker
candidates tended to struggle finding a suitable use.
© 2016
Question 7
(a) The majority of candidates answered correctly. The most common error was to only draw the
normal in air.
(b) The majority of candidates answered correctly.
(c) Stronger candidates performed well on this question but weaker candidates appeared to find this
challenging.
(d) Most candidates correctly drew a ray refracting further away from the normal at the second surface.
Question 8
(a) Most candidates recognised that the material Z would melt when the hot coffee was poured into the
cup.
(b) Weaker candidates struggled with this question, giving vague statements about keeping heat in or
stopping heat moving.
Question 9
(a) Most candidates gained some credit here, with even weaker candidates correctly stating the
equation. Weaker candidates then often transposed the equation incorrectly to give an incorrect
answer of 3 amps.
(b) (i) The majority of candidates answered correctly.
(ii) Most candidates recognised that the direction of the force would also be reversed to an upward
direction.
(c) (i) Most candidates gave one or two ways of increasing the turning effect on the coil.
(ii) Most candidates recognised that the coil would turn in the opposite direction, but only the most able
candidates gave a clear explanation of why this happened.
Question 10
(a) The majority of candidates were able to use the transformer equation to correctly determine the
output voltage. In this question more candidates set out their working and some could be credited
for this even when their final answer was incorrect.
(b) Many candidates recognised that this was a step-down transformer.
Question 11
(a) (i) Most candidates answered well, but a significant number confused the nucleon number and proton
number.
(ii) Most candidates were able to determine the number of electrons and neutrons, but a significant
number thought the number of electrons was 146 and the number of neutrons was 95.
(b) Many candidates gave clear explanations. Weaker candidates thought that isotopes contained the
same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons.
Question 12
(a) The majority of candidates correctly stated that a beta particle was an electron, and that its charge
was negative or minus 1. The most common mistake was to give a description of a helium nucleus.
(b) The majority of candidates correctly determined the half-life as 8 days.
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(c) (i) Many candidates correctly calculated the count rate as 45 counts/min. Weaker candidates often
gained partial credit by correctly stating that 60 years was two half-lives.
(ii) Many candidates gave valid suggestions.
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PHYSICS
Paper 0625/33
Core Theory
Key messages
• Candidates should note the number of marks available and the space allocated for responses as
these factors provide a clear indication of the type of answer that is expected.
• Candidates must read the question carefully and make sure they follow the rubric of the question. In
particular, candidates must not try to maximise their chances by giving more than the required
number of answers to a question. If two alternative answers are given, one correct and the other
incorrect, the candidate will almost always score no credit.
• Candidates are advised to read carefully through their responses to make sure that what they have
written has the intended sense. Concise explanations are often the best.
• In calculations, candidates must set out and explain their working correctly. There may be credit
available for working.
• Candidates should be encouraged to present their answers as carefully and neatly as possible.
General comments
A high proportion of candidates had clearly been well taught and prepared for this paper. There remains the
tendency to think less rigorously and logically in non-numerical questions than in numerical questions. Some
areas of the syllabus were better known than others; in particular temperature scales, the transfer of thermal
energy by conduction, convection and radiation and radioactive decay were not well understood.
Equations were generally well known by all but the weakest candidates. Many candidates understood well
how to apply equations to fairly standard situations. On occasions however, when asked to apply their
knowledge to a new situation, they became confused and displayed a lack of breadth of understanding of the
use of the equation. More practice in applying equations in unfamiliar situations would deepen candidates’
understanding and improve their performance in the examination.
The majority of candidates indicated by their knowledge and skills that they were correctly entered for this
Physics Core paper. However, a significant minority of candidates found the subject matter and level of some
questions very easy, and they may have benefited from being prepared and entered for the Extended Theory
paper.
The English language ability of the vast majority of the candidates was adequate for the demands of this
paper. However, there was a small minority who struggled to express themselves adequately.
Candidates did not seem to find any difficulty in completing it in the allocated time and relatively few left
answers to questions blank.
Question 1
(a) Many candidates answered correctly. However, a large number gave volume as their answer.
(b) (i) The majority of candidates answered correctly. The most common error was to give 3.04 s as
3.40 s.
(ii) With e.c.f. from b (i), the majority of candidates gained credit for this part. The most common
mistake was to add the three times on the stopwatch, and then to divide by 2.
© 2016
(iii) With e.c.f., many candidates answered this question well. A very common error was failing to
convert the time in minutes to seconds, or only partially converting it, with 905 or 950 being
frequently seen as the time in seconds.
Question 2
(a) Most candidates correctly determined the area under the graph to give the distance travelled by the
student. Common errors were misreads of the speed, with 4.2 m/s very frequently seen. Weaker
candidates inverted the equation and divided the speed by 10 instead of multiplying.
(b) Many candidates correctly selected the forces in diagram C and gave clear explanations to gain full
credit. Weaker candidates tended to give only partial explanations.
(c) Most candidates correctly determined the pressure and gave the correct unit. Many candidates
increased the complexity of the calculation by converting the area into metres in order to give their
answer in pascals. There was no need to do this as N/cm2 was an acceptable unit. Weaker
candidates tended to invert the formula and consequently multiplied force by area.
Question 3
(a) Most candidates correctly gave 720 Nm as the value for the girl’s moment about the pivot.
Common errors were to divide by 2.4 metres or to multiply by the wrong distance.
(b) Many candidates correctly determined the weight of the boy as 450 N. However, very few
candidates set out their working as a moments calculation, and so could gain no credit for any
correct workings. Candidates should be encouraged to show their working for all stages of
calculations.
Question 4
(a) (i) This question was generally well answered.
(ii) A large number of candidates identified zero as the temperature of a mixture of water and ice.
Many candidates thought the reading was below minus 10 degrees Celsius, and others had
temperatures as high as 25 degrees Celsius.
(b) Many candidates gave good descriptions of the melting of ice in terms of the molecules, forces,
spacings and motion, with a significant number gaining full credit.
Question 5
(a) The majority of candidates were able to give two advantages of the lamps connected in parallel
compared to those connected in series.
(b) (i) Only the weakest candidates failed to answer correctly.
(ii) The majority of candidates answered correctly.
(c) Many candidates gained partial credit for this question, but only the most able gave descriptions of
advantages and disadvantages to gain full credit. Candidates should be reminded to give
sufficiently detailed and precise answers.
Question 6
(a) Many candidates correctly identified X-rays and microwaves, but a significant number placed their
responses in the wrong order. Weaker candidates failed to recall the correct waves, and entered
responses such as sound waves.
(b) Many candidates correctly indicated radio waves, but a number chose gamma rays or another
radiation in the spectrum.
(c) (i)(ii) Many candidates suggested suitable uses for gamma radiation and ultraviolet radiation. Weaker
candidates tended to struggle finding a suitable use.
© 2016
Question 7
(a) The majority of candidates answered correctly. The most common error was to only draw the
normal in air.
(b) The majority of candidates answered correctly.
(c) Stronger candidates performed well on this question but weaker candidates appeared to find this
challenging.
(d) Most candidates correctly drew a ray refracting further away from the normal at the second surface.
Question 8
(a) Most candidates recognised that the material Z would melt when the hot coffee was poured into the
cup.
(b) Weaker candidates struggled with this question, giving vague statements about keeping heat in or
stopping heat moving.
Question 9
(a) Most candidates gained some credit here, with even weaker candidates correctly stating the
equation. Weaker candidates then often transposed the equation incorrectly to give an incorrect
answer of 3 amps.
(b) (i) The majority of candidates answered correctly.
(ii) Most candidates recognised that the direction of the force would also be reversed to an upward
direction.
(c) (i) Most candidates gave one or two ways of increasing the turning effect on the coil.
(ii) Most candidates recognised that the coil would turn in the opposite direction, but only the most able
candidates gave a clear explanation of why this happened.
Question 10
(a) The majority of candidates were able to use the transformer equation to correctly determine the
output voltage. In this question more candidates set out their working and some could be credited
for this even when their final answer was incorrect.
(b) Many candidates recognised that this was a step-down transformer.
Question 11
(a) (i) Most candidates answered well, but a significant number confused the nucleon number and proton
number.
(ii) Most candidates were able to determine the number of electrons and neutrons, but a significant
number thought the number of electrons was 146 and the number of neutrons was 95.
(b) Many candidates gave clear explanations. Weaker candidates thought that isotopes contained the
same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons.
Question 12
(a) The majority of candidates correctly stated that a beta particle was an electron, and that its charge
was negative or minus 1. The most common mistake was to give a description of a helium nucleus.
(b) The majority of candidates correctly determined the half-life as 8 days.
© 2016
(c) (i) Many candidates correctly calculated the count rate as 45 counts/min. Weaker candidates often
gained partial credit by correctly stating that 60 years was two half-lives.
(ii) Many candidates gave valid suggestions.
© 2016
PHYSICS
Paper 0625/41
Extended Theory
Key messages
• Candidates should be encouraged never to omit a unit and to check that they are using the correct unit.
• It is apparent that many candidates began to write without sufficient initial planning. If candidates spent
time reading a question carefully and gathering their thoughts as a preliminary to writing, many would
benefit accordingly.
General comments
There was no evidence that the time allowed for completion of the paper was insufficient.
The numerical work was in general good. Although most candidates managed it well, rearranging basic
formulae such as P = F/A proved to be problematic for some candidates. In questions, data is given with 2
significant figures, so answers are expected to this level. However, answers with more than 2 significant
figures are accepted.
Most candidates achieved significantly less success with those questions requiring descriptions or
explanations. This applied even to those candidates who had performed well overall on the paper.
In many cases it was apparent that candidates had read the questions with insufficient care. For example, an
answer to a question that begins with ‘State and explain’ frequently only covered the ‘state’ aspect. A
subsequent explanation was often absent or amounted only to a repetition of some wording from the
question.
Question 1
(a) This was generally answered well, but in some cases the final section of the graph was not always
clearly steeper than the first section.
(b) Most candidates clearly attempted to use the area under the graph and gained credit for this. There
was some misreading of data from the graph. However, there were many correct final values with,
in this particular question, few errors in units.
Question 2
(a) (i) The majority of candidates had learnt momentum = mv and used it successfully to calculate the
numerical value. Some multiplied or divided the correct value by g. There was less certainty over
the unit, with kg/m/s sometimes seen along with other examples.
(ii) The object of the question was to test the knowledge that the impulse equalled change of
momentum in (i). This was not well done in many instances and many candidates started with a
new, mostly unsuccessful, calculation. Many candidates quoted the correct numerical value but
with the acceptable unit given as Ns rather than the kg m/s they had given in (i).
(b) (c) These parts were generally well answered.
© 2016
(d) Many misunderstandings over the use of an airbag were seen, with many candidates not
addressing the given fact that the deceleration of the dummy or passenger is less than that of the
passenger compartment. This fact should have led candidates to the idea that the force on the
passenger is less than it would have been without the airbag, with consequent reduced injury.
Question 3
(a) (i) Those who used P = hdg were usually successful. Less success was achieved by those who
attempted to use P = F/A or mg/A, with the volume of the tank being calculated instead of the base
area.
(ii) Use of P = F/A or mg/A was required in this case, and many candidates answered this correctly.
(b) Most candidates divided the weight of the oil by g mass correctly. Some multiplied the mass by g.
(c) There were very few wrong statements comparing the densities of the brass and the oil.
(d) Most candidates assumed that attaching a brass key to a piece of wood automatically meant that
this would prevent the key from sinking in the oil. The relevance of the combined density of the
wood and the key only featured in the strongest answers.
Question 4
(a) Many candidates wrote far more than necessary, but most succeeded in suggesting that gas
molecules are widely spaced or have large gaps between them. The idea that liquid molecules are
close to each other or touching was less clearly expressed. Many simply stated that they were
closer together than gas molecules.
(b) (i) Most candidates realised that the reduction of temperature was the result of evaporation. Two
ideas were then required: that the faster or more energetic molecules evaporated or escaped, and
that the slower or less energetic molecules remained. The first idea was usually conveyed
successfully. The second was sometimes missing from answers or wrongly expressed.
(ii) Most candidates correctly predicted that the greater rate of cooling applied to the container with the
larger surface area of water. Fewer went on to suggest that evaporation from this container
occurred at a faster rate.
Question 5
(a) (b) Three statements were required, any one of the three in (a) and the other two in (b). The one
suggesting that molecules in the container move faster or have more k.e. or momentum was
usually made. The other two needed to refer to a greater frequency of collision with the walls of the
container and that they exerted a greater force on the walls. Answers often omitted any mention of
the walls.
(c) (i) A majority used PV = constant successfully and obtain the correct numerical value. Unfortunately a
minority of these gave the unit as Pa rather than kPa.
(ii) Most candidates answered this well.
Question 6
(a) Many candidates did not include a reference to a long distance for the sound to travel, although
mention of a specific distance of 100 m or more was acceptable. Some candidates also did not
mention the use of the tape to measure the distance. The actions of the two candidates were often
not described precisely enough. Very few candidates gained full credit on this question.
(b) (i) Many candidates quoted the formula v = fλ and were credited for this. Some began their answer
with a wrongly rearranged version of the formula however.
(ii) Many candidates had not learnt that the frequency of a wave does not change or that sound travels
more slowly in a gas than in a liquid.
© 2016
Question 7
(a) (i) Many candidates answered this well. However, some failed to draw a curved section of fibre.
Others showed total internal reflection but with unequal angles of incidence and reflection.
(ii) This question proved challenging. Often after correctly stating that optical fibres can be used to
look inside a patient’s body, there was little essential physics in the rest of the answer. The idea
that light travels up and down a bundle of fibres, not a fibre, into and out of the body was seldom
addressed.
(b) The wrong connecting line that many candidates drew from the microwaves box suggested that a
majority of candidates did not appreciate that microwaves are electromagnetic. The line from the
‘sound in steel’ box was almost equally likely to have been drawn to the boxes showing 90 m/s and
6000 m/s.
(c) Some answers began with the use of sin i/sin r, suggesting a misunderstanding of the situation.
With the benefit of an error carried forward from (b), many candidates calculated the correct
numerical value. A minority wrote down a correct formula but rearranged it incorrectly. Others, not
having written down a formula, wrote down numbers suggesting a wrong rearrangement was being
used. There were many correct numerical answers with no unit added.
Question 8
(a) (i) Many candidates found this question challenging. To categorise the direction of the magnetic field
at Y due to the current in X, candidates needed to imagine or draw the field surrounding X and
know the direction of the field arrows. Only the strongest candidates provided good answers.
(ii) To answer this question, candidates needed to revisit the thinking that applied in (i), or know that
two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other. Although there were
some correct answers, some candidates suggested there was no force while others made vague
statements that could not be credited.
(b) Some candidates treated this question as if it were a transformer with the normal type of input and
gained little credit. Suggestions of current in the core were not uncommon.
Question 9
(a) (i) Most candidates coped with the addition for two series resistors. A minority mistakenly applied the
rule for parallel resistors.
(ii) Most candidates applied the parallel rule successfully. Some made errors in the arithmetic, or
included 3 resistors in their use of the formula.
(iii) This was generally answered correctly.
(b) (i) Many candidates answered this question well. Some used the value of 6 Ω in their calculation, but
could have been given credit for the formula if this had been written down.
(ii) Many candidates used the correct formula with the correct numbers or with the previous wrong
current value carried forward. A significant number used current x time and calculated a quantity of
charge rather than a quantity of energy.
Question 10
(a) In (i), recall of the name of a component was required; in (ii) recall of a component name. A good
proportion of candidates succeeded in both.
(b) Candidates’ recall of the function of an AND gate was in general sound, with few mistakes in
column C. The entries in Column E were slightly more prone to error however.
(c) Suggestions of replacing the OR gate by an AND gate were credited. None of the other
suggestions that were made would fulfil the requirement. A substantial number of candidates
offered no response to this question.
© 2016
Question 11
(a) Most candidates answered well. However, weaker answers included a number of electrons as
being present in the nucleus.
(b) The nuclide notation of a β-particle is only well known by stronger candidates, with errors common
in either the superscript or the subscript or both. Some candidates wrote down the notation for an
α-particle.
(c) A good number of correct count rates were seen in answers, but many candidates were unsure as
to how to continue. Some halved the mass number rather than the initial count rate. Others halved
the initial count rate too few or too many times. In some cases there were mistakes in the
arithmetic.
(d) Fear of cancer or mutations and the high cost of maintaining a storage facility were the most
common suggestions, but many of the other possibilities allowed by the mark scheme were also
seen. However, some candidates gave uses of nuclear materials and did not consider the storage
of such materials at all.
© 2016
PHYSICS
Paper 0625/42
Extended Theory
Key messages
• Candidates should read the question carefully and answer the question that is asked, not the one the
candidate thinks has been asked. Often a question is about a situation that the candidate thinks is
familiar but the actual question is different from that expected. This was particularly the case throughout
Question 2 on the topic of momentum.
• Particularly in questions requiring extended calculation, candidates must set out and explain their
working correctly. Where a final answer is incorrect but some correct working are shown it may be
possible to award some credit for these workings.
• Answers should be given to 2 significant figures. Fractions should not be used in final answers but this
was seen on a few occasions.
• All but the very strongest candidates would benefit from more practice in applying their knowledge in
unfamiliar situations. This would deepen candidates’ understanding and improve their performance in
the examination. Many candidates, when asked to apply their knowledge to a new situation, became
confused and unable to use what knowledge they had. Often candidates have learnt well how to apply
equations to fairly standard situations but display a lack of breadth of understanding of their use in
contexts outside of a physics laboratory.
General comments
A high proportion of candidates had clearly studied the material and prepared well for this paper. The
majority of candidates were able to apply their knowledge and understanding of physics to the questions set,
and produce correct responses. Only a very small minority of candidates found the subject matter and level
of some questions so difficult that these questions were inaccessible to them and would have been better
entered for the Core paper. The vast majority of candidates indicated by their knowledge and skills that they
were correctly entered for this Extended Theory paper.
Generally candidates followed the rubric of the questions. However, candidates must not try to maximise
their chances by giving more than one answer to a question. If two answers are given, one right and the
other incorrect, the candidate will invariably gain no credit. There were a few examples in questions involving
tick boxes where candidates gave more answers that instructed, some of which would obviously be mutually
contradictory.
A high proportion of candidates displayed a good grasp of the English language, and almost all candidates
had a sufficient understanding to be able to attempt the questions.
Equations were generally well known but the use of equations and the quantities represented were not
always understood. There were frequent examples where candidates substituted numbers from the question
in the wrong place in equations.
Overall the use of units by all candidates was good with the exception of the units for momentum and
impulse in Question 2.
Question 1
(a) On the whole the question was well answered. The good responses seen most often were change
of speed and change of direction.
© 2016
(b) (i) This was generally well answered with only a small number of unit errors, usually giving m/s.
(ii) The majority of candidates correctly calculated the skier’s average speed.
(iii) The question asked for a valid suggestion linked to a suitable explanation such as “reduces air
resistance to increase speed” but many weaker answers merely gave a suggestion or an
explanation e.g. “to lower the centre of mass” or “to increase speed”.
Question 2
Many stronger candidates had a good understanding of this topic and answered this question well, gaining
full credit. Many less strong candidates made a reasonable attempt at various parts of the question but their
depth of knowledge was insufficient so confusion and errors occurred. There were many unit errors for
momentum and impulse; both kg m/s and Ns were acceptable for both. Perhaps because many momentum
questions in textbooks are linked with kinetic energy, some candidates incorrectly introduced kinetic energy
to parts of their answer.
There were many instances of candidates answering the question they were expecting and rather than the
question as set on the paper.
(a) Most candidates correctly calculated the momentum of the truck. The most common errors
included giving the wrong unit or calculating kinetic energy.
(b) (i) Many candidates correctly determined the impulse as being equal to the change in momentum of
truck B. The most common error was to give the momentum of truck A after the collision. Many
candidates determined the velocity of truck B after the collision, which was not part of the question.
An error frequently seen with less strong candidates was the use of the incorrect equation for
impulse e.g. force = impulse × time.
(ii) Many candidates were able to gain full credit here, sometimes thanks to correct subsequent
working despite an earlier error.
(iii) Only a minority of candidates, even among the stronger candidates, answered this question
correctly. Many candidates attempted an answer in terms of conservation of momentum but then
used a mass of 11 000 kg, as if the trucks stayed together after the collision. Others who used an
acceptable alternative approach using F = ma then confused themselves through not recognising
momentum as a vector quantity. Consequently they failed to use the correct algebraic signs to take
direction into account.
Question 3
(a) There was a wide range of answers for this question. However, many identified the two correct
types of energy. The most common error was to state that the kinetic energy of the cabin increases
even though it is moving at constant speed.
(b) Most candidates could find the gravitational potential energy.
(c) Most answers to this question were very vague. Specific statements such as “less fuel used”, “less
CO2 produced” or a sensible use for the electricity generated were required. Vague statements
gained no credit. Many candidates repeated the words of the question that the motor acted as a
generator, which also gained no credit.
Question 4
(a) All parts of this question were generally well answered but weaker candidates did not use correct
equations or transposed incorrectly.
(i) Weaker candidates could not remember the correct equation for pressure in this context -
calculation of area was common here.
(ii) A number of candidates failed to appreciate that all that was needed was addition of atmospheric
pressure.
© 2016
(iii) Many candidates wrote down P = F/A with correct figures but then failed to transpose correctly thus
dividing by 0.96 rather than multiplying by 0.96.
(b) Most candidates gave one valid reason but there were many vague responses such as weight or
pressure instead of weight of the lid, upthrust on the lid. Other responses which gained credit were
about corrosion of the hinges or clear statements about moments.
Question 5
(a) Most candidates gained credit on this part. A small number of candidates thought that the small
pan had the greater rate of evaporation because it contained less water.
(b) Most candidates were able to give a clear difference between boiling and evaporation.
(c) (i) Many candidates failed to realise that, as boiling takes place at fixed temperature, the average KE
is constant. Consequently many answers saying KE increases and molecules move faster were
seen. A minority of these candidates went on to gain credit for saying that inter-molecular bonds
could be broken or overcome.
(ii) Many candidates gained full credit on this part and provided clear and well set out working. Weaker
candidates sometimes had the equation inverted or attempted to use an equation for specific heat
capacity, which often involved the inclusion of 100 °C in the calculation. Other common mistakes
were to divide power by time instead of multiplying, to give the amount of energy transferred or to
substitute the time in minutes instead of in seconds.
Question 6
(a) (i) The majority of candidates were able to state the angle correctly but many others did not realise
that the angle should be measured from the normal and gave answers of 55° or 125°.
(ii) Many candidates gained some credit on this question. Snell’s Law was well known and used but
often the reciprocal of the correct value was substituted. A small minority of candidates carried out
the calculation without using sines.
(b) (i) Many responses were vague just referring to an angle instead of the angle of incidence.
(ii) This was generally well answered.
(c) (i) This was generally well answered.
(ii) This was generally well answered.
Question 7
(a) Some very good answers were seen here, many gaining full credit, although a significant number
of candidates wrote about an inappropriate application despite the wording of the question. Many
good responses contained clear diagrams of a typical airport security set up but this was not the
only acceptable example. Many candidates included incorrect use of X-rays in the form of human
scanning at the airport or having an X-ray of the bone taken in a hospital. Of the candidates talking
about a security application, there were a number of poor or vague diagrams or a very vague
mention of the object of the search.
(b) This was answered well by strong candidates. Students should realise that understanding the
context can be an aid to recall e.g. no wave can travel faster than 3 × 108 m/s and knowing that
ultrasound is a sound wave not an electromagnetic wave.
© 2016
Question 8
(a) Many candidates gave strong answers, but there were often descriptions that were lacking in detail.
Many weaker candidates failed to read in the question “No other apparatus is available” so heating
or hammering were quite common incorrect responses. Many otherwise excellent responses
mentioned the use of a.c. for demagnetisation but failed to mention that the rod had to be
withdrawn or the current reduced.
(b) Many candidates gained full credit usually by calculating the current in the secondary to be 4.0 A
for a current in the primary of 0.20 A. There were other possible alternatives by calculating a
primary current of 0.15 A for a secondary current of 3.0 A or some sort of power comparison
between the primary and secondary. These alternatives were seldom more than partially
successful and the final link between the calculation and the fuse blowing was often not well
expressed.
Question 9
(a) Strong candidates wrote clear, correct answers and gained full credit. Weaker candidates often
gave explanations that involved the separation of the positive and negative charges on the ball.
They went on to state that the negative charges on the left of the ball would be attracted to the
positive plate but did not realise that the positive charges on the right of the ball would be attracted
to the negative plate.
(b) Most candidates correctly identified the particles as electrons. However many weaker answers
gave vague or contradictory descriptions of the direction in which they move through the ammeter.
(c) Whilst the correct equation was well known, the substitution for time proved to be more
challenging. Few candidates knew how to use frequency to get the time. The most common error
was to divide the charge by four instead of multiplying.
Question 10
Many strong candidates performed well on this question showing a good understanding as well as knowing
the appropriate equations. However, often the correct equations had been memorised but there was little
evidence of a true understanding of circuit electricity.
(a) Most candidates used an equation for electrical power to calculate correctly the resistance of
heater X.
(b) Many candidates showed a lack of understanding as they simply halved their correct value of
resistance from (a) for an answer to (b).
(c) Many candidates gained full credit on this part. Alternative approaches were possible but the
easiest way was to use P = V I. Candidates needed to choose correct values of voltage and power.
As the heaters Y and Z are in series they have the same current. Successful answers used the
power and voltage for Z on its own or for Y and Z together.
Question 11
(a) The majority of candidates gained full credit. Sometimes weaker candidates failed to give the
number of neutrons or the number of electrons.
(b) This was well answered by the majority of candidates.
(c) The majority of candidates correctly recognised 4 half-lives were involved. However, a number
showed fundamental misconceptions about how to apply this value. Commonly it was followed by
720 divided by 4 or 720 × 4.
© 2016
PHYSICS
Paper 0625/43
Extended Theory
Key messages
• Candidates should ensure that the answer given responds to the question asked rather than a
similar question on the same topic.
• A numerical answer should have an appropriate unit.
• Candidates should include the various stages of working out in a calculation as marks may be
available for workings.
• Candidates need to be especially careful when using numbers expressed in standard form. Division
by numbers that include a negative power of ten seem to cause problems and it is possible that
some candidates are not fully familiar with the process for entering such numbers into a calculator.
• Candidates should be reminded to make their answers clear, particularly if they have crossed out
one answer and replaced it with another. Particular care should be taken with numbers to make
them clear.
General comments
The standard of answers varied enormously and while some candidates seemed to be familiar with every
topic being assessed, there were some candidates who did not show such familiarity.
Question 1
(a) This part was commonly correctly answered; occasionally a candidate gave an answer which
referred to a scalar quantity.
(b) (i) This part was very commonly well answered although the answer 5.0 N was given by weaker
candidates.
(ii) Most candidates gave the correct numerical answer here although the erroneous re-arrangement
a = m/F was used in some answers. The significance of the unit of acceleration is not always fully
understood and candidates who misremember it might simply use the unit of velocity or
occasionally use m/s–2.
(c) Only occasionally was this part answered well. Some diagrams were not drawn to scale and even
when they were, the wrong diagonal was often chosen and measured. Where the diagram was
correctly drawn, some candidates gave an answer that lay outside of the allowed range either
through careless measurement or through simply using a diagram that was too small.
Question 2
(a) This correct answer with the correct unit was very frequently given.
(b) (i) Many candidates wrote down the value 21 000 kg m/s straight from the question rather than
subtracting it from the answer to (a).
(ii) The concept impulse was less well understood than momentum and only a minority of candidates
gave the correct answer here.
© 2016
(iii) The simplest way of obtaining the correct answer was to divide the impulse or momentum from
(b)(i) or (b)(ii) by the time taken and many candidates did this. Candidates who calculated the
deceleration and applied F = ma could also obtain the correct answer but the larger number of
stages in the calculation increased the possibility of an arithmetic error.
(c) Many candidates answered this part well but where a written explanation such as this was asked
for, some answers were not sufficiently precise and lacked any reference to the physics involved.
Question 3
(a) Many candidates made one or two relevant points here but answers that omitted any mention of
molecules could not be awarded full credit.
(b) There were some good answers here and many candidates related, in some way, the thermal
energy supplied to the work done in separating the molecules of the solid.
(c) (i) This was frequently correct but some candidates either misread the scale or gave the unit as the
degree (°) rather than the degree Celsius (°C).
(ii) This calculation involved two stages and many candidates stopped after the first stage and gave an
answer of 10 500 J. Other sources of error included the use of a wrong time difference, (both 8.0
minutes and 15 minutes were chosen by several candidates).
Question 4
(a) (i) There were some good answers here and many candidates gave answers in terms of the
frequency of the molecular collisions with the wall. There were two instructions here: Describe and
Explain. A minority of candidates merely described what the graph showed.
(ii) The answer to this question required the candidate to read a pair of values from the graph (there
were several simple possibilities) and to apply the formula p1V1 = p2V2 using the pressure given in
the question. Many candidates tried simply to read a volume from the graph that corresponded to
the given pressure. The graph did not, however, extend to the value given.
(b) Both parts (i) and (ii) were well answered by the majority of candidates.
Question 5
(a) (i) This part proved challenging for many candidates. The strongest answers mentioned the fact that
ultrasound is inaudible to humans. Although the range of audible sound frequencies needs to be
known, only a minority of candidates adapted this knowledge to deduce a minimum possible
frequency of ultrasound waves.
(ii) This part revealed several misunderstandings although many candidates did produce strong
answers.
(b) Most candidates approached this part in the correct way by using the equation x = vt in some form.
A very common mistake was to ignore the factor of 2 that is needed because the time given in the
question is for the journey from X to Y and back.
Question 6
(a) (i) The angle of refraction is shown in the diagram but the angle of incidence needs to be calculated
as it is its complement that is shown. Only a minority of candidates used the correctly calculated
angle of incidence.
(ii) The appropriate formula was supplied by many candidates but only a small proportion of these
used it correctly to calculate the critical angle.
(b) Both the endoscope and optical fibres featured very commonly although a few other uses were
given by some candidates. The diagrams varied in quality.
© 2016
Question 7
(a) Most candidates stated the sign of the charge correctly but some of these gave an incorrect
explanation involving the movement of positive charges or even positive electrons. Some
candidates suggested that the pole would gain negative charge from the cloud.
(b) (i) Although this was quite frequently correct, it was a part where the division by a number in standard
form that included a negative power of ten caused some inaccurate answers to be given. Similarly,
the equation I = Q/t was not always rearranged correctly.
(ii) A correct suggestion was often given here.
(c) Most candidates gave the correct answer to this part.
Question 8
(a) (i) This was answered correctly by stronger candidates. The device was very frequently shown with
only one input terminal.
(ii) Most candidates had some understanding of what was expected but only a minority gave the
correct figures.
(b) (i) This was generally well answered.
(ii) Many candidates realised that the LED would switch off but a common incorrect answer suggested
that the current would divert through the thermistor, in some way, as its resistance had decreased.
(c) Some candidates stated that in this circuit the LED would switch on as the temperature rose but
others did not. Many candidates omitted the second part and did not suggest any possible use for
this circuit.
Question 9
(a) (i) Many candidates offered one or two reasons and these were very usually correct.
(ii) Although some candidates gave a correct factor, many others suggested an answer that influenced
the current by influencing the e.m.f. That this part was concerned with the current was not always
noticed.
(b) (i) Most candidates aimed at a sinusoidal curve of some description but many of these drew curves
that were not drawn with sufficient care and full credit could often not be awarded.
(ii) Many candidates drew a T at one of the peaks but there were other answers which were not
correct.
(iii) Many candidates found this quite challenging but stronger candidates were often able to state what
happened and explain why.
Question 10
(a) (i) This was correctly answered by many candidates although a few candidates simply wrote in the
numbers 91 and 143 in either order.
(ii) This part was also well answered with many candidates realising the effect of the -1 on the proton
number of the uranium nucleus.
(b) (i) There were many good answers although answers such as α-particles suggested that the intention
of the question had not been fully appreciated.
(ii) This was quite well answered with a significant number of candidates being awarded full credit for
the completely correct answer with unit. Many of the candidates who were not awarded full credit
made good progress and omitted to add on the background count at the end. Of these some did
not take it off originally either.
© 2016
(iii) This was generally not well answered and very few candidates hinted at the random variation that
is a feature of radioactive emission.
© 2016
PHYSICS
Paper 0625/51
Practical Test
Key messages
• Candidates need to have had a thorough grounding in practical work during the course, including
reflection and discussion on the precautions taken to improve reliability and control of variables.
• Candidates should be aware that, as this paper tests an understanding of experimental work,
explanations and justifications will need to be based on practical rather than theoretical considerations.
• Numerical answers should be expressed clearly, to the appropriate number of significant figures and
with a correct unit, where applicable. Candidates should know that these techniques will be tested at
some point in the paper.
• Candidates should be ready to apply their practical knowledge to different situations. Questions should
be read carefully to ensure that they are answered appropriately.
General comments
The aim of the examination is to enable candidates to display their knowledge and understanding of practical
physics techniques, including the following:
• plotting graphs
• tabulating readings
• manipulating data to obtain results
• drawing conclusions
• dealing with possible sources of error
• controlling variables
• handling practical apparatus and making accurate measurements
• choosing the most suitable apparatus.
It is assumed that, as far as possible, the IGCSE course will be taught so that candidates undertake regular
practical work as an integral part of their study of physics.
Questions on experimental techniques were answered much more effectively by candidates who clearly had
regular experience of similar practical work and much less successfully by those who, apparently, had not.
The practical nature of the examination should be borne in mind when explanations or justifications are
required, for example in Questions 1(e), 2(b) and 3(f).
Question 1
(a) The majority of candidates successfully recorded the distances, and calculated A and B correctly.
(b) Most candidates labelled the graph axes correctly and drew them the right way round with the origin
included, as instructed in the question. Plotting was generally accurate. Many candidates drew a
well-judged straight line although some drew a ‘dot-to-dot’ line whilst others drew a straight line that
did not match the plots. Some candidates drew lines which were too thick or the plots too large.
(c) Here candidates were asked to show clearly on the graph the method used to find the intercept.
Many did this well but some did not continue the line drawn through the plots but changed the
direction of the line to ‘force’ it through the origin.
© 2016
(d) Most candidates successfully read the value for Y from the graph and went on to calculate W
correctly.
(e) Candidates who wrote about a difficulty in a convincing manner, showing that they had thought
about the experiment, answered well. Many sensibly chose to mention the difficulty in making the
rule balance horizontally.
(f) Strong candidates followed the experiment through with care and accuracy and gave good answers.
Question 2
(a) Most candidates recorded realistic values for the potential difference and current. The potential
difference had to be given to at least 1 decimal place, and the current to at least 2 decimal places.
The majority of candidates calculated the resistance correctly. The units m, V, A and Ω were
recorded correctly by many candidates. Some used cm for d and a few missed the unit for d in spite
of correctly recording the other units.
(b) The response here had to match the candidate’s experimental results. Many noted that the
resistance was not constant but a significant proportion had difficulty in justifying their answer with
reference to the results.
(c) Here candidates were expected to notice from their observation of the experiment that the lamp
filament changed brightness. Then they needed to relate this to the change in temperature of the
filament that caused the change in resistance.
(d) Many candidates correctly identified the variable resistor as the component but a whole range of
other components were seen – most commonly the thermistor. The circuit symbol needed to be
carefully drawn. The circuit itself had to be accurately drawn with the variable resistor in series with
other components and all the circuit symbols correctly drawn.
Question 3
(a) Many candidates recorded a value of v within the tolerance allowed and went on to calculate f1
correctly.
(b) The second v value was again often within tolerance. For full credit, both f values had to be within
the tolerance allowed, showing that the candidate had carried out the procedure with care.
(c) Here the candidate was required to show knowledge of how to calculate an average value.
(d) Many candidates found the focal length by this second method to within the tolerance allowed. At
this point candidates were tested on using the correct unit (cm).
(e) Candidates who had followed the experiment through with care and accuracy obtained values for x
and y that were very similar, giving a small value for the difference.
(f) Successful candidates made a relevant suggestion from their experience. Others made more vague
suggestions. Some candidates appeared to be relying on answers they had learned from past
papers that were not appropriate for this experiment.
Question 4
This planning question was a new type of question for this paper. Many candidates coped well with the
challenge. Successful candidates were able to write a brief, logical account, using the guidelines given.
Firstly candidates had to decide which beaker to use. Next they needed to explain the method. Most chose
to monitor the temperature of hot water as it cooled over a period of time. Repeats using each of the three
insulating materials were required. The table headings had to match the method and be shown clearly with
the correct units. The explanation of how to reach a conclusion also had to match the method.
© 2016
PHYSICS
Paper 0625/52
Practical Test
Key messages
• To achieve well in this test, candidates need to have a thorough grounding in practical work during the
course.
• Candidates should have as much personal experience of carrying out experiments as possible.
• The practical work should include reflection and discussion of the significance of results, precautions
taken to improve reliability and control of variables.
• Centres are provided with a list of required apparatus well in advance of the examination date. Where
centres wish to substitute apparatus, it is essential to contact Cambridge to check that the change is
appropriate and that candidates will not be disadvantaged. Any changes must be recorded in the
Supervisor’s report.
explanations will need to be based on data from the question and practical work carried out, rather than
on theoretical considerations.
• Candidates should be ready to apply their practical knowledge to unusual situations. Papers will contain
a planning question, requiring candidates to design an experiment to investigate a given brief.
General comments
physics techniques. These include:

• tabulation of readings
• graph plotting and interpretation
• understanding the concept of results being equal within the limits of experimental accuracy
• dealing with possible sources of inaccuracy
• control of variables
• choosing the most effective way to use the equipment provided
The majority of candidates were well prepared and able to demonstrate some ability and understanding
across the whole of the range of practical skills being tested. All parts of every practical question were
attempted and there was no evidence of candidates running short of time. The majority of candidates were
able to follow instructions correctly, record observations clearly and perform calculations accurately and
correctly. Units were well known and were almost always included, writing was neat and legible and ideas
were expressed logically. However many candidates seemed less able to derive conclusions backed up by
evidence, or to present well thought out conclusions.
The gathering and recording of data presented few problems for any candidates. However, there was
evidence of some candidates not having the use of a calculator.
The ability to record readings to an appropriate precision, usually reflecting the measuring instrument being
used, or to quote a derived result to an appropriate number of significant places, still causes difficulty for
many candidates. On some occasions it was difficult to read corrected answered. Candidates should be
© 2016
encouraged to cross out completely and to re-write their answers so that there is no ambiguity. Some
candidates still find difficulty in choosing an appropriate scale to plot their graphs and in drawing a best-fit
line to display their data.
There were instances this year, of centres potentially disadvantaging their candidates by not supplying the
correct apparatus or by changing the value of a component and not recording this on the Supervisor’s Report
sheet. It is important to provide details of changes made to the specified apparatus, and possibly specimen
results if appropriate, so that full credit can be given to candidates’ results which lie outside the expected
tolerance values. Cambridge should agree major changes to apparatus in advance of the examination date.
Question 1
(a) In many centres, all candidates’ values for S0 were out of range. Some candidates had S values
decreasing. Since the apparatus was set up for candidates, this was the Supervisor’s responsibility.
Where modifications are made to the apparatus, a note must be written on the report form so that
the examiner can make allowances for this. Some complete centres had a very large range for S –
it would be helpful to know the spring constant, if a spring other than the suggested one was used.
While most candidates could calculate the extension, e values correctly, some unexpected
answers were seen, with no obvious method whereby these were obtained.
(b) It was rare to see a set-square or small ruler used to aid reliability of readings. Most precautions
related to the avoidance of parallax when taking the readings. Take the reading at eye level was a
common acceptable response. Waiting for the spring to stop bouncing was a common incorrect
answer.
(c) The graph proved to be straightforward for most candidates. Only a minority of candidates reversed
the axes, although some candidates did choose scales that made too little use of the graph paper
available. Scales which involved multiples of 3, 7, etc. were much less evident this year than in
previous years. Best-fit lines were usually well judged, but there were still many dot-to-dot lines or
curves. The standard of point plotting and of line drawing continues to improve and there was not
as much evidence this year of large dots or thick lines.
(d) Most candidates drew a good graph for this part, with relatively few omitting the unit of weight. A
very small number multiplied their answer by 10 and then quoted their final answer in kg
suggesting a fundamental misunderstanding about the relationship between mass and weight.
Candidates occasionally lost credit by ignoring the instruction given in the question, namely to
show on the graph how the information was obtained.
Question 2
(a)(b) The table was usually completed with a full set of temperatures for the cooling of beakers A, B and
C. Correct units almost always given for the temperature and the time. Some candidates
misunderstood the instruction to measure and record the temperature of the hot water at t = 0, and
inserted a value for room temperature at the head of the table.
(c) (i) A sizeable minority of candidates did not tick the statement that best described the results that they
had obtained.
(ii) Although most candidates attempted to justify the answer they had given in (i), the instruction to
make reference to the readings was often ignored, and the answer given was purely qualitative.
(d) Most candidates were able to give at least one condition that should be kept the same in order to
make a fair comparison. A common answer which was not accepted was to use the same
volume/amount of water. This was because the same volume of water was used by the candidates
when investigating the cooling of the beakers.
(e) Most candidates produced a correct diagram. However, some candidates then went on to write
something which contradicted what they had drawn on their diagram. Students should be advised
that where a question states “you may draw a diagram”, they should take advantage of this
suggestion.
© 2016
Question 3
(a) (i)(ii) In this question, some whole centres clearly used a lens other than that specified, resulting in out-
of-range values for a and b and also h1. It has been pointed out that a lens of focal length ~ 16.7
cm has a power of +6D and it is possible that such a lens may be more widely available than one
of 15 cm and centres may have felt it was sufficiently close to 15 cm that it was unnecessary to
mention it. Centres must first check with Cambridge and also report if a lens with a focal length
different to the specified value has been used. Every effort was made to adjust the expected
tolerance values for the distances involved in this experiment so that candidates were not
disadvantaged.
Candidates were able to calculate the magnification, although it seems that many have been taught
to always quote their answer to 3 significant figures, with no regard as to the precision of the
measurements.
(c) Although many candidates seem to have grasped the concept of experimental uncertainty, far too
many stated that the suggestion was false because the product did not exactly equal 1. There is a
subtle difference between the results supporting the suggestion (that m1 x m2 = 1) and m1 x m2
actually equalling 1.
(d) Most candidates could state at least one valid precaution and “a darkened room” was a very
common answer. However, fewer could get two, despite the wide range of options.
Question 4
In this planning question, many candidates failed to identify the resistance wire in the circuit they had drawn.
A large number of candidates thought that 3 (or 2 or even 1) different lengths were sufficient to carry out this
investigation. Those who performed well usually increased the length of the wire in 5 cm increments from
5 cm, or 10 cm increments from 10 cm, or 20 cm increments from 20 cm. However, it was not uncommon to
see very short wires of only a few millimetres or very long wires of several metres.
Overall the impression given was that that many candidates had never carried out this investigation or, in
some cases, appeared not to have been taught about electricity.
A number of candidates wrote too much, giving far more information than was asked for. It was quite
common to see a hypothesis, sample results and graph sketched. Candidates should confine their answers
to the five bullet-pointed sentences at the end of the question that tells them what is required.
The strongest candidates performed well, giving a clear diagram and a table with correct headings and at
least five suggested values for length with very little writing needed at all.
Centres should stress to students that the five different lengths that we accept are an absolute minimum,
constrained by time limitations in an examination, and that in reality more are desirable.
© 2016
PHYSICS
Paper 0625/53
Practical Test
Key messages
• To achieve well in this test, candidates need to have a thorough grounding in practical work during the
course.
• Candidates should have as much personal experience of carrying out experiments as possible.
• The practical work should include reflection and discussion of the significance of results, precautions
taken to improve reliability and control of variables.
• Centres are provided with a list of required apparatus well in advance of the examination date. Where
centres wish to substitute apparatus, it is essential to contact Cambridge to check that the change is
appropriate and that candidates will not be disadvantaged. Any changes must be recorded in the
Supervisor’s report.
explanations will need to be based on data from the question and practical work carried out, rather than
on theoretical considerations.
a planning question, requiring candidates to design an experiment to investigate a given brief.
General comments

• tabulation of readings
• understanding the concept of results being equal within the limits of experimental accuracy
• choosing the most effective way to use the equipment provided
The majority of candidates were well prepared and able to demonstrate some ability and understanding
across the whole of the range of practical skills being tested. All parts of every practical question were
attempted and there was no evidence of candidates running short of time. The majority of candidates were
able to follow instructions correctly, record observations clearly and perform calculations accurately and
correctly. Units were well known and were almost always included, writing was neat and legible and ideas
were expressed logically. However many candidates seemed less able to derive conclusions backed up by
evidence, or to present well thought out conclusions.
The gathering and recording of data presented few problems for any candidates. However, there was
evidence of some candidates not having the use of a calculator.
The ability to record readings to an appropriate precision, usually reflecting the measuring instrument being
used, or to quote a derived result to an appropriate number of significant places, still causes difficulty for
many candidates. On some occasions it was difficult to read corrected answered. Candidates should be
© 2016
encouraged to cross out completely and to re-write their answers so that there is no ambiguity. Some
candidates still find difficulty in choosing an appropriate scale to plot their graphs and in drawing a best-fit
line to display their data.
There were instances this year, of centres potentially disadvantaging their candidates by not supplying the
correct apparatus or by changing the value of a component and not recording this on the Supervisor’s Report
sheet. It is important to provide details of changes made to the specified apparatus, and possibly specimen
results if appropriate, so that full credit can be given to candidates’ results which lie outside the expected
tolerance values. Cambridge should agree major changes to apparatus in advance of the examination date.
Question 1
(a) In many centres, all candidates’ values for S0 were out of range. Some candidates had S values
decreasing. Since the apparatus was set up for candidates, this was the Supervisor’s responsibility.
Where modifications are made to the apparatus, a note must be written on the report form so that
the examiner can make allowances for this. Some complete centres had a very large range for S –
it would be helpful to know the spring constant, if a spring other than the suggested one was used.
While most candidates could calculate the extension, e values correctly, some unexpected
answers were seen, with no obvious method whereby these were obtained.
(b) It was rare to see a set-square or small ruler used to aid reliability of readings. Most precautions
related to the avoidance of parallax when taking the readings. Take the reading at eye level was a
common acceptable response. Waiting for the spring to stop bouncing was a common incorrect
answer.
(c) The graph proved to be straightforward for most candidates. Only a minority of candidates reversed
the axes, although some candidates did choose scales that made too little use of the graph paper
available. Scales which involved multiples of 3, 7, etc. were much less evident this year than in
previous years. Best-fit lines were usually well judged, but there were still many dot-to-dot lines or
curves. The standard of point plotting and of line drawing continues to improve and there was not
as much evidence this year of large dots or thick lines.
(d) Most candidates drew a good graph for this part, with relatively few omitting the unit of weight. A
very small number multiplied their answer by 10 and then quoted their final answer in kg
Candidates occasionally lost credit by ignoring the instruction given in the question, namely to
show on the graph how the information was obtained.
Question 2
(a)(b) The table was usually completed with a full set of temperatures for the cooling of beakers A, B and
C. Correct units almost always given for the temperature and the time. Some candidates
misunderstood the instruction to measure and record the temperature of the hot water at t = 0, and
inserted a value for room temperature at the head of the table.
(c) (i) A sizeable minority of candidates did not tick the statement that best described the results that they
had obtained.
(d) Most candidates were able to give at least one condition that should be kept the same in order to
make a fair comparison. A common answer which was not accepted was to use the same
volume/amount of water. This was because the same volume of water was used by the candidates
when investigating the cooling of the beakers.
something which contradicted what they had drawn on their diagram. Students should be advised
that where a question states “you may draw a diagram”, they should take advantage of this
suggestion.
© 2016
Question 3
(a) (i)(ii) In this question, some whole centres clearly used a lens other than that specified, resulting in out-
of-range values for a and b and also h1. It has been pointed out that a lens of focal length ~ 16.7
cm has a power of +6D and it is possible that such a lens may be more widely available than one
of 15 cm and centres may have felt it was sufficiently close to 15 cm that it was unnecessary to
mention it. Centres must first check with Cambridge and also report if a lens with a focal length
different to the specified value has been used. Every effort was made to adjust the expected
tolerance values for the distances involved in this experiment so that candidates were not
disadvantaged.
Candidates were able to calculate the magnification, although it seems that many have been taught
to always quote their answer to 3 significant figures, with no regard as to the precision of the
measurements.
(c) Although many candidates seem to have grasped the concept of experimental uncertainty, far too
many stated that the suggestion was false because the product did not exactly equal 1. There is a
subtle difference between the results supporting the suggestion (that m1 x m2 = 1) and m1 x m2
actually equalling 1.
Question 4
© 2016
PHYSICS
Paper 0625/61
Alternative to Practical
Key messages
• Candidates need to have a thorough grounding in practical work during the course, including reflection
and discussion on the precautions taken to improve reliability and control of variables.
explanations will need to be based on data from the question and practical rather than theoretical
considerations.
• Candidates should be ready to apply their practical knowledge to unusual situations. Questions should
be read carefully to ensure that they are answered appropriately.
General comments
• plotting graphs
• making accurate measurements
• choosing the most suitable apparatus
practical work as an integral part of their study of physics. This examination should not be seen as
suggesting that the course can be fully and effectively taught without practical work. Some of the skills
involved in experimental work, including graph plotting and tabulation of readings, can be practised without
doing experiments. However, there are parts of this examination in which the candidates are asked to
answer from their own practical experience.
experience of similar practical work and much less successfully by those who, apparently, had not.
The practical nature of the examination should be borne in mind when explanations, justifications or further
developments are asked for. For example see Questions 1(e) and (f), 2(b), 3(f) and 5(e).
Question 1
(a) The majority of candidates successfully calculated A and B and either knew, or worked out the unit
N cm. Some candidates recorded N/cm or other inappropriate units.
(b) Most candidates labelled the graph axes correctly and drew them the right way round with the
origin included, as instructed in the question. Plotting was generally accurate. Many candidates
drew a well-judged straight line although some drew a ‘dot-to-dot’ line whilst others drew a straight
© 2016
line that did not match the plots. Some candidates did not gain credit because their line was too
thick or the plots too large.
(c) Here candidates were asked to show clearly on the graph the method used to find the intercept.
Many did this well but some did not continue the line drawn through the plots but changed the
direction of the line to force it through the origin.
(d) A large number of candidates obtained a value for W that was within the tolerance allowed.
(e) This part gave candidates the opportunity to comment on the experiment, using their experience of
similar experiments carried out during the course, and to identify a difficulty that they had
encountered. Stronger candidates were able to explain simply that it is very difficult to exactly
balance the metre rule on the pivot. There were many possible ways to answer this part and
candidates were given credit for a suitable, considered comment.
(f) Here candidates were asked to consider how reliable they thought the readings might be, and to
make a judgement on the results. Strong answers included a clear statement which was justified
with comments on the closeness (or otherwise) of the two values.
Question 2
(a) The majority of candidates read the meters correctly and entered the correct units.
(b) Most candidates read the thermometer scale correctly.
(c) Many candidates drew a neat diagram showing the bottom of the meniscus read at right angles to
the scale.
Question 3
(a) The majority of candidates calculated the resistance correctly. Consistent use of either two
significant figures or three significant figures was credited. The units m, V, A and Ω were recorded
correctly by many candidates. Some used cm for d and a few candidates missed the unit for d in
spite of correctly recording the other units.
(b) Here candidates were expected to realise that the presence of a current reading showed that the
filament was not broken.
(c) Here candidates were expected to notice from the table that the lamp filament changed brightness.
Then they had to relate this to the change in temperature of the filament that caused the change in
resistance.
(d) Many candidates correctly identified the variable resistor as the component but a whole range of
other components were seen – most commonly the thermistor. It was expected that the circuit
symbol could be carefully drawn. The circuit itself needed to be accurately drawn with the variable
resistor in series with other components and all the circuit symbols correctly drawn.
Question 4
This planning question was a new type of question for this paper. Many candidates answered well.
Successful candidates were able to write a brief, logical account, using the guidelines given. Firstly
candidates had to decide which beaker to use. Next they needed to explain the method. Most chose to
monitor the temperature of hot water as it cooled over a period of time. Repeats using each of the three
insulating materials were required. The table headings needed to match the method and be shown clearly
with the correct units. The explanation of how to reach a conclusion also had to match the method. Credit
was available for other relevant suggestions involving precautions designed to improve the reliability of
results or the control of variables.
© 2016
Question 5
(a) Most candidates measured u and v accurately.
(b) Many candidates correctly multiplied by 10 to obtain the U and V values. Some divided by 10; a
few gave results apparently unrelated to u and v. Some rounding errors were seen in the value for
f. The answer was expected to be given to two or three significant figures. Many candidates did not
take the value shown on the calculator and adjust to a suitable number of significant figures.
(c) Most candidates successfully calculated the average value from the results given.
(d) Here candidates were expected to realise that the difference in the two results was within the limits
of experimental accuracy. This could be expressed in a number of ways as long as the meaning
was clear.
(e) Successful candidates made a relevant suggestion from their experience. Weaker answers made
vague suggestions that that did not go further than saying that they would follow the instructions
carefully. Some candidates appeared to be relying on answers they had learned from past papers
and these were generally were not appropriate for this experiment.
© 2016
PHYSICS
Paper 0625/62
Key messages
• Candidates should have as much experience of carrying out practical experiments as possible.
• Candidates should be advised to read the questions through very carefully to ensure that they are
answering the question as written, and not simply recalling the answer to a similar question.
• Candidates will need to have had a thorough grounding in practical work during the course, including
reflection and discussion on the precautions taken to improve reliability, and control of variables.
considerations.
a planning question requiring candidates to design an experiment to investigate a given brief.
General comments

• tabulating of readings
• understanding the concept of results being equal to within the limits of experimental accuracy
• choosing the most effective way to use the equipment provided.
Most of the candidates entering this paper were well prepared and the practical skills being tested proved to
be accessible to the majority of the candidature. Most candidates demonstrated that they were able to draw
upon their own practical experience to answer the questions. No parts of any question proved to be
inaccessible to candidates and there was no evidence of candidates running short of time. The majority of
candidates were able to follow instructions correctly, record measurements clearly and perform calculations
accurately and correctly. Units were well known and were invariably included, writing was legible and ideas
were expressed logically. However, candidates seemed less able to derive conclusions from given
experimental data and justify them.
The vast majority of candidates finished the paper and there were few scripts with substantial numbers of
blank responses to the questions set. There were some scripts which showed an exemplary understanding
of practical skills but equally, there were those which demonstrated a lack of graph skills, poor understanding
of significant figures and a lack of comprehension of good practice in carrying out experiments.
© 2016
Question 1
(a) Most candidates measured the unstretched length of the spring from the diagram correctly. A
minority of candidates ignored the unit given at the head of the column and quoted the length as
5.5 (cm) and not 55 (mm).
(b) (i) While most candidates could calculate the e values correctly, some unusual answers were seen,
with no obvious method as to how these were obtained.
(ii) It was rare to see a set-square or small ruler used to aid reliability of readings. Avoiding parallax by
placing the eye level with the reading was more common, and placing the rule close to the spring
was also a popular acceptable answer. Waiting for the spring to stop bouncing was a common
incorrect answer.
(c) The graph was accessible even for those candidates who obtained the wrong results for the
experiment. Only a minority of candidates reversed the axes, although some candidates did
choose scales that made too little use of the graph paper available. Scales which involved multiples
of 3, 7 etc. were much less evident this year than in previous years. Best-fit lines were usually well
judged, but dot-to-dot lines or curves were still in evidence. The standard of point plotting and of
line drawing continues to improve and there was not as much evidence this year of large dots or
thick lines.
(d) Many candidates drew a good graph for this part, with relatively few omitting the unit of weight. A
very small number multiplied their answer by 10 and then quoted their final answer in kg –
Candidates occasionally ignored the instruction given in the question, namely to show on the graph
how the information was obtained.
Question 2
(a) Many candidates defined x as the distance to the edge of P rather than the centre of mass. The
arrows to indicate this distance were often not drawn with care, and it was often difficult to
determine on which part of cube P the arrow ended.
(b) Although “cube” and “regular” shape were very common answers some answers were too vague to
gain credit, suggesting definite or smooth shapes. Two-dimensional shapes were also accepted
here.
(c) “Repeat and take the average” was a more common correct response given than allowing the
beam to tip both ways. However, many candidates failed to average after repeating the experiment.
(d) Although there were some very good answers to this part, many candidates clearly had no idea
that the markings would be covered up, suggesting they had never carried out an experiment of
this type.
(e) Very many candidates assumed that the rule was uniform and simply suggested measuring the
mid-point of the rule as a method of determining the position of its centre of mass – often by using
another rule. The idea of balancing the unloaded rule on the knife-edge to determine the balance
point was not well known.
Question 3
(a) Candidates were able to calculate the magnification, although it seemed that many have been
taught to always quote their answer to 3 significant figures, with no regard as to the precision of the
measurements.
(b) Most candidates answered well here. In weaker answers, the unit with the magnification was often
missing, or candidates quoted the answer to too many significant figures.
(c) Although many candidates seem to have grasped the concept of experimental uncertainty, many
stated that the suggestion was false because the product did not exactly equal 1.There is a subtle
© 2016
difference between the results supporting the suggestion (that m1 × m2 = 1) and m1 × m2 actually
equalling 1.
(e) Only a small number of candidates answered this question well. The idea that the image appears
to be well-focused over a range of lens positions was not widely known.
Question 4
Question 5
(a) The table was usually completed with a correct value read from the diagram of the thermometer
scale. Correct units were almost invariably given for the temperature and the time, although
occasionally the unit of time was missing.
(b) (i) A minority of candidates did not tick the statement that best described the results that they had
obtained.
(d) The majority of candidates were able to give the name of a suitable material for the lid of the
beaker and support their choice with a correct reason.
something that contradicted what they had drawn on their diagram. Students should be advised
that where a question states ‘you may draw a diagram’, they should take advantage of this
suggestion.
© 2016
PHYSICS
Paper 0625/63
Key messages
• Candidates need to have a thorough grounding in practical work during the course, including reflection
and discussion on the precautions taken to improve reliability and control of variables.
considerations.
with a correct unit, where applicable.
• Candidates should be ready to apply their practical knowledge to unusual situations.
General comments
• plotting graphs
• making accurate measurements
• choosing the most suitable apparatus.
practical work as an integral part of their study of physics. This examination should not be seen as
suggesting that the course can be fully and effectively taught without practical work. Some of the skills
involved in experimental work, including graph plotting and tabulation of readings, can be practised without
doing experiments. However, there are parts of this examination in which the candidates are asked to
answer from their own practical experience.
experience of similar practical work and much less successfully by those who, apparently, had not.
This was seen in the clear practical details given by some candidates in Questions 1(d) and (e), Question
2(e) and Question 4(d).
It is expected that numerical answers will include a matching unit and will be expressed to a number of
significant figures which is appropriate to the data given in the question or a measurement carried out by the
candidate. These points were demonstrated in many good responses to Question 2(d) and Question 4(e).
Where explanations or justifications are required, candidates should base them on practical considerations,
using data from the question. Theoretical responses are not usually acceptable. Good detail was seen in
many of the answers to Question 1(c) and Question 4(f).
© 2016
Question 1
(a) Most candidates answered correctly but 20.1 was seen on a few occasions.
(b) Although responses were generally good, many candidates omitted the temperature unit and
sometimes the time unit. This was the main reason for not gaining full credit, rather than showing
the units incorrectly.
(c) (i) Many concluded correctly that thermometer A cooled more quickly, citing the greater temperature
change in the same time as an explanation. However, a number of candidates gave theoretical
reasons rather than using results as evidence for the statement and did not gain credit. Some
candidates arrived at their conclusion by comparing the final temperatures. This would be valid only
if the starting temperatures were the same.
(ii) This was answered correctly by most candidates. A number of candidates gained credit by
identifying that the initial and final cooling rate were the same. Weaker answers gave the decrease
in cooling rate or the fact that it changed but these are not unusual and could not be credited.
(d) (i) Stronger answers identified that this action allowed cooling with wet and dry cotton wool to be
compared. However, most candidates did not recognise the significance of this part of the
procedure.
(ii) Only the stronger candidates answered this question correctly.
(e) Many candidates gained partial credit here. The need for starting temperatures to be the same was
a common correct answer, although not mentioned in the previous question. Weaker candidates
gave single word responses such as ‘time’. Credit was given for clear reference to the duration of
the cooling period but not for the intervals between recording successive temperatures.
Question 2
(a) Many candidates gave the correct answer and showed a clear, well-structured calculation based on
the readings at the edges of the mass. Some assumed that the mass was placed symmetrically
and used the average of 68.0 cm and 72.0 cm. This gave the correct answer but did not allow for
adequate working for full credit.
(b) Most candidates obtained the correct values of F and presented them consistently to 2 decimal
places. There were some transposition errors, particularly showing the last figure as 4.50, as well
as mistakes with rounding or consistency of significant figures.
(c) There were many good responses to this graph question. Some candidates reversed the axes but
scales were for the most part sensible. A small number of candidates equally spaced the F values
on the vertical axis, producing an inconsistent scale. Plotting was mostly correct with many
candidates indicating the plots with fine crosses as advised in previous reports to Centres. Many
candidates produced a fine, straight, well-judged line of best fit but this proved to be a problem for
a significant number of weaker candidates. The line was often forced through the origin although
the trend of plots did not indicate this.
(d) (i) Most candidates obtained the correct value from their line. 0 was accepted here, although not for
the weight of the rule in the following question.
(ii) Many good answers gave a value in the expected range, included a unit and expressed the value
to 2 or 3 significant figures. However, a number of responses had no unit or were given to an
excessive number of significant figures.
(e) Many candidates found this question challenging and most incorrect answers were based on poor
experimental practice, such as misreading the forcemeter. Stronger candidates referred to the
possibility of inexact values of the loads or a non-uniform rule, with a mass which was not at its
centre. Unavoidable practical issues such as the mass sliding on the angled rule were accepted if
clearly explained.
© 2016
Question 3
This question proved to be the most challenging on the paper for many candidates. A number of candidates
showed a knowledge of experimental techniques, but some had difficulty in interpreting the required practical
approach to investigate the given relationship. There were some very clear answers with a significant
amount of good detail. Most of these followed the structure suggested by the question and it was clear from
some responses that the bullet points had been used by candidates as a checklist of what was to be
included.
Only a few candidates drew the standard arrangement for a lens experiment. A number of candidates did not
draw the required diagram at all and had subsequent difficulty in describing how the apparatus was to be
arranged. The common mistake of not using a screen but looking through the lens to see the image
suggested that many did not have experience of this type of practical work. Many candidates included a
lamp, remembering the need for an illuminated object, but this was sometimes used to produce a shadow of
the object rather than an image.
The most common error in the instructions for carrying out the experiment was to omit the need to move the
screen in order to focus the image. Even the best candidates apparently assumed that a focused image
would appear as soon as the apparatus was set up. The better answers were clear about the lengths to be
measured and subsequently plotted on graphs, referring specifically to ‘object distance’ and ‘height of
image’. A number of candidates drew ray diagrams, a theoretical construct rather than a practical
experiment. These responses could gain some credit by correctly referring to the graph.
A significant number of candidates did not answer this question, suggesting a possible lack of preparation for
this type of question.
Question 4
(a) Many good answers were seen with a correct voltmeter symbol in parallel with lamp P. However,
a lot of candidates, even those with otherwise good answers, gave incorrect answers, frequently
showing the voltmeter in series.
(b) A number of candidates recorded the correct value but there were many errors, most commonly
0.215.
(c) Reading of the voltmeters was clearly better than the ammeter, with many correct answers
recorded.
(d) (i) Many candidates recognised that the presence of a current was an indicator of the filament not
being broken. The small potential difference across lamp Q was also acceptable as an indicator. A
number of candidates giving this answer added that the potential difference would be 0.0 V if the
filament was broken, rather than correctly identifying that it would be the value of the supply
voltage. This part of any response was ignored, as it relied on theoretical knowledge rather than
practical observation, and the initial statement was credited. Candidates also pointed out that lamp
P was bright and this was credited if accompanied by a reference to the lamps being in series.
(ii) Candidates found this question more challenging as it required specific comparison of each
potential difference to the working potential difference for full brightness. A number of responses
gave a clear comparison for one lamp but not both. Many candidates attempted to use a theoretical
answer rather than use the practical data from the question. A common incorrect answer in this
case was that lamp P had taken all the power and there was none left for lamp Q.
(e) Many chose the correct values to be used in the equation, gave an answer to the expected 2 or 3
significant figures and included a unit. However, a large number of candidates could not be fully
credited as they recorded a value of 13.04, made rounding errors or omitted the unit.
(f) A large number of candidates recognised correctly that the values did not have be identical for the
suggestion to be true. The difference of 0.1 V was within the limits of experimental accuracy and full
credit was given for a justification of this type, using values from the question and linked to a
positive statement. Answers indicating that the values were not the same could gain no credit.
© 2016

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Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

0625 Physics June 2016

Comments on specific questions

Comments on specific questions

Comments on specific questions

Comments on specific questions

Comments on specific questions

Comments on specific questions

Comments on specific questions

(a) This was answered well by almost all candidates.

(a) There were many correct responses to this question.

(c) This question was very well answered by all candidates.

(b) There were many correct responses to this question.

(a) This question was well answered

(ii) There were many correct responses to this question.

(a) There were many correct responses to this question.

(ii) This was answered correctly by many candidates.

(b) This was answered correctly by the majority of candidates.

(c) This was answered correctly by the majority of candidates.

Comments on specific questions

(a) (i) This question was generally well answered.

(b) (i) Only the weakest candidates failed to answer correctly.

(ii) The majority of candidates answered correctly.

(b) The majority of candidates answered correctly.

(b) (i) The majority of candidates answered correctly.

(b) Many candidates recognised that this was a step-down transformer.

(b) The majority of candidates correctly determined the half-life as 8 days.

(ii) Many candidates gave valid suggestions.

Comments on specific questions

(a) (i) This question was generally well answered.

(b) (i) Only the weakest candidates failed to answer correctly.

(ii) The majority of candidates answered correctly.

(b) The majority of candidates answered correctly.

(b) (i) The majority of candidates answered correctly.

(b) Many candidates recognised that this was a step-down transformer.

(b) The majority of candidates correctly determined the half-life as 8 days.

(ii) Many candidates gave valid suggestions.

Comments on specific questions

(b) (c) These parts were generally well answered.

(ii) Most candidates answered this well.

(iii) This was generally answered correctly.

Comments on specific questions

(b) Most candidates could find the gravitational potential energy.

(ii) This was generally well answered.

(c) (i) This was generally well answered.

(ii) This was generally well answered.

(b) This was well answered by the majority of candidates.

Comments on specific questions

(ii) A correct suggestion was often given here.

(c) Most candidates gave the correct answer to this part.

(b) (i) This was generally well answered.

Comments on specific questions

• handling practical apparatus and making accurate measurements

Comments on specific questions

• handling practical apparatus and making accurate measurements

Comments on specific questions

Comments on specific questions

(b) Most candidates read the thermometer scale correctly.

(a) Most candidates measured u and v accurately.