100 Bài Đọc Hiểu - Foto

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BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TIẾNG ANH ÔN THPT

1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that bestfits each ofthe numbered blanks from 1 to 5
Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (1) ______up about 10 percent of the population - but,
frankly, it seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the right-handed gadgets, awkwardly
designed desks, and cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your right hand. What (2) ______someone to become
a lefthand? Scientists aren’t exactly sure, but research points to a complex (3) ______between genes and
environment While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered, people who dominantly use their left hands
do have more left-handed family members. And researchers have found different brain wirings in righties vs. lefties.
But no matter (4) ______it is that drives someone to use their antipodal paw, science has also uncovered a particular
set of personality traits that left-handed people tend to have. So for all of you lefties, leftie-loving righties, and
ambidextrous folks out there - it’s time to brush up on your left-handed knowledge and help (5) ______an end to
leftie discrimination once and for all.
Question 1: A. consist B. account C. hold D. make
Question 2: A. causes B. makes C. gets D. does
Question 3: A. collaborate B. collaboration C. collaborating D. collaborated
Question 4: A. which B. who C. what D. that
Question 5: A. put B. bring C. make D. take

2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 6 to 12.
Successful students often do the followings while studying. First, they have an overview before reading.
Next, they look for important information and pay greater attention to it (which often needs jumping forward or
backward to process information). They also relate important points to one another. Also, they activate and use their
prior knowledge. When they realize that their understanding is not good, they do not wait to change strategies. Last,
they can monitor understanding and take action to correct or “fix up” mistakes in comprehension.
Conversely, students with low academic achievement often demonstrate ineffective study skills. They tend to
assume a passive role, in learning and rely on others (e.g., teachers, parents) to monitor their studying, for example,
low-achieving students often do not monitor their understanding of content; they may not be aware of the purpose of
studying; and they show little evidence of looking back, or employing “fix-up” strategies to fix understanding
problems. Students who struggle with learning new information seem to be unaware that they must extent effort
beyond simply reading the content to understand and remember it. Children with learning disabilities do not plan and
judge the quality of their studying. Their studying may be disorganized. Students with learning problems face
challenges with personal organization as well. They often have difficulty keeping track of materials and assignments,
following directions, and completing work on time. Unlike good studiers who employ a variety of study skills in a
flexible yet purposeful manner, low-achieving students use a restricted range of study skills. They cannot explain
why good study strategies are important for learning; and they tend to use the same, often ineffective study approach
for all learning tasks, ignoring task content, structure or difficulty.
(Source: Adapted from Study Skills: Managing Your Learning — NUI Galway)
Question 6: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Successful and low-academic achieving students
B. Successful learners and their learning strategies
C. Study skills for high school students
D. Effective and ineffective ways of learning
Question 7: The word “prior” in the first paragraph is closest meaning to ______?
A. important B. earlier C. forward D. good
Question 8: According to the passage, what can be learnt about passive students?
A. They depend on other people to organize their learning
B. They are slow in their studying
C. They monitor their understanding
D. They know the purpose of studying
Question 9: Which of the followings is NOT an evidence of monitoring studying?
A. Being aware of the purpose of studying B. Monitoring their understanding of content
C. Fixing up mistakes in understanding D. Looking at their backs
Question 10: According to the passage, to learn new information, low-achieving students do NOT______.
A. just understand it B. relate it to what they have known
C. simply remember it D. read it
Question 11: In compared with low-achieving students, successful students use______.
A. aimless study techniques B. various study skills
C. restricted strategies D. inflexible study ways
Question 12: The underlined pronoun “They” in the last sentence refers to______.
A. study strategies B. study skills
C. low-achieving students D. good studiers

3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 13 to 20
Pollution emitted in industrial areas represents a threat to human health and the surrounding natural
resources. We have a tendency to believe that the production processes are the only source of environmental damage,
and often forget about the possible long-term effects of harmful production practices. We may think that the closure
of these huge industrial areas would improve the quality of the environment. Unfortunately, this ignores the threat of
the remaining waste, which is abandoned and poorly stored. It represents an even bigger danger because it stands
neglected as it degrades and leaks into the earth without any control at all.
Changes in the water chemistry due to surface water contamination can affect all levels of an ecosystem. It
can affect the health of lower food chain organisms and, consequently, the availability of food up through the food
chain. It can damage the health of wetlands and damage their ability to support healthy ecosystems, control flooding,
and filter pollutants from storm water runoff. The health of animals and humans are affected when they drink or
bathe in contaminated water. In addition water-based organisms, like fish and shellfish, can pile up and concentrate
contaminants in their bodies. When other animals or humans eat these organisms, they receive a much higher dose of
contaminant than they would have if they had been directly exposed to the original contamination.
Contaminated groundwater can badly affect animals, plants and humans if it is removed from the ground by
manmade or natural processes. Depending on the study of rocks of the area, groundwater may rise to the surface
through springs or seeps, flow sideways into nearby rivers, streams, or ponds, or sink deeper into the earth. In many
parts of fhe world, groundwater is pumped out of the ground to be used for drinking, bathing, other household uses,
agriculture, and industry.
Contaminants in the soil can harm plants when they take up the contamination through their roots. Eating,
breathing in, or touching contaminated soil, as well as eating plants or animals that have piled up soil contaminants
can badly affect the health of humans and animals.
Air pollution can cause breathing-related problems and other bad health effects as contaminants are
absorbed from the lungs into other parts of the body. Certain air contaminants can also harm animals and humans
when they contact the skin. Plants rely on breathing for their growth and can also be affected by exposure to
contaminants moved in the air.
Question 13: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Sources of environmental damage B. The pollution from the city
C. Bad effects of industrial waste D. The quality of the environment
Question 14: According to the passage, the industry is likely to be thought as______.
A. a danger to the environment B. the only source of pollution
C. the utmost harmful activity D. a threat to human health
Question 15: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to______.
A. the remaining waste B. a danger
C. the environment D. the threat of the remaining waste
Question 16: Which of the followings affect an ecosystem as the whole?
A. Surface water contamination B. Soil contamination
C. Groundwater contamination D. Air contamination
Question 17: According to the passage, which of the followings supports healthy ecosystems?
A. Lower food chain organisms B. Animals C. Water-based organisms D. Wetlands
Question 18: Which of the followings is NOT badly affected by contaminated groundwater?
A. Human B. Plants C. Rocks D. Animals
Question 19: Which of the followings is the flow of water from the ground to the surface?
A. Streams B. Ponds C. Rivers D. Springs
Question 20: Which of the followings has the closest meaning to the word “absorbed” in the last paragraph?
A. Consumed B. Taken in C. Swallowed D. Piled up
4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer for each of the questions.
Understanding India's Caste System
It has been said that life is what we make of it. In other words, if we work hard and focus on our goals, we can have
great careers and enjoy high status is society. However, these opportunities don‟t exist for everyone. In some places,
the family you are born into will decide almost everything about your life. India‟s caste system is an example of this.
The caste system is a major part of the Hindu religion that has existed for thousands of years. It is a way of
organizing and grouping people based on the occupation of the family. Castes will determine whom people can
socialize with and their place in society. Originally, a person‟s caste was supposed to be determined by their
personality, but over time it has been linked to their job and family.
There are four classes, also known as varnas, in India‟s caste system. The highest one is Brahmin. People in this
class have jobs in education and religion. These are seen as extremely important functions for the society as they deal
with the knowledge. The second highest level is the Kshatriya, or ruling class. People from this group can be
soldiers, landowners, or have jobs in politics. The class beneath this is the Vaishya. These people often work in the
commercial sector as merchants. The fourth class level is the Shudra. Shudras typically work as unskilled labourers
doing factory or farm work, or they may also be employed as artists.
There is another group, the Harijan, that is at the bottom and considered to be outside of the caste system. For many
years, they were known as Untouchables, people from this caste held the most undesirable jobs in society, such as
cleaning up garbage. Furthermore, they weren‟t allowed to pray at public temples or drink water from the same wells
as other classes. If someone from another caste came into contact with an Untouchable, they were considered dirty
and would be expected to bathe vigorously to clean themselves.
Although the caste system still exists in India, the government is taking steps to improve the living conditions and
decrease unemployment rates for the Shudras and Harijan. This includes providing better health care, offering
literacy programmes, and making sure that people from higher social classes do not exploit them. It seems unlikely
that the caste system will disappear any time soon, but the overall conditions for those at the bottom do seem to be
improving.
21. Which of the following is not true about India‟s caste system?
A. The caste system has been used in India for a long time.
B. The Kshatriya is the second highest class.
C. Hard work helps people move up in the caste system.
D. It is possible that a Shudra would work on a farm.
22. The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. the fact that your origin will mostly decide your future
B. the pleasure of life in India
C. the India’s caste system existing for thousands of years
D. the major part of the Hindu religion
23. What is the caste system mainly based on?
A. What a person believes on B. When a person starts school
C. Who a person’s parents are D. Where a person was born
24. What kind of job would a Brahmin likely have?
A. A priest B. A warrior C. An inventor D. A painter
25. What could replace the word “ruling” in paragraph 3?
A. defeating B. guessing C. delaying D. governing
26. All of the following are true about the Harijan EXCEPT that ________.
A. they used to be known as Untouchables
B. they had to do undesirable jobs in society
C. any contact between someone from another caste with an Untouchable was considered unacceptable
D. anyone from another caste coming to contact with an Untouchable is not allowed to pray at temples
27. What does the passage suggest about the future of the caste system?
A. One day soon it won‟t be used anymore in India.
B. It is probably going to get worse before it gets better.
C. The bottom groups will rise to rule over the top classes.
D. It will likely continue to exist for a long time in India.
5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer for each of the questions.
Throughout the world there are different ways for people to greet each other. In much of the world, a handshake is
the (28) __________ form of welcoming and greeting someone. In many countries around the Mediterranean Sea a
(29) ___________ kiss on the cheek is the appropriate way to welcome friends and family. It can be a very (30)
__________ surprise if you expect to shake hands and get a kiss or a hug instead.
At times, it is difficult to tell what sort of greeting (31) ___________ is followed. People may bow, grab another‟s
arm or even slap the other person on the back. In some places people just smile, look at the other‟s face and say
nothing.
Most people in the world are tolerant of visitors and don‟t mind what travellers do that seems wrong as long as the
visitors are (32)__________. A big part of the delightfulness of world travel is experiencing different customs.
28. A.different B.unique C.common D.same
29. A.light B.superficial C.fast D.heavy
30. A.huge B.large C.big D.great
31. A.habit B.routine C.custom D.tradition
32. A.sincere B.truthful C.faithful D.hopeful
6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer for each of the questions
Humans have struggled against weeds since the beginnings of agriculture. Marring our gardens is one of the milder
effects of weeds – any plants that thrive where they are unwanted. They clog waterways, destroy wildlife habitats,
and impede farming. Their spread eliminates grazing areas and accounts for one-third of all crop loss. They compete
for sunlight, nutrients, and water with useful plants.
The global need for weed control had been answered mainly by the chemical industry. Its herbicides are effective
and sometimes necessary, but some pose serious problems, particularly if misused. Toxic compounds threaten animal
and public health when they accumulate in food plants, groundwater, and drinking water. They also harm workers
who apply them.
In recent years, the chemical industry has introduced several herbicides that are more ecologically sound. Yet new
chemicals alone cannot solve the world‟s weed problems. Hence, scientists are exploring the innate weed-killing
powers of living organisms, primarily insects and microorganisms.
The biological agents now in use are environmentally benign and are harmless to humans. They can be chosen for
their ability to attack selected targets and leave crops and other plants untouched. In contrast, some of the most
effective chemicals kill virtually all the plants they come in contact with, sparing only those that are naturally
resistant or have been genetically modified for resistance. Furthermore, a number of biological agents can be
administered only once, after which no added applications are needed. Chemicals typically must be used several
times per growing season.
33. With what topic does this passage primarily deal?
A. The dangers of toxic chemicals.
B. A proposal to ban the use of all herbicides.
C. The importance of the chemical industry.
D. Advantages of biological agents over chemical ones.
34. The word ‘marring’ in bold is closest in meaning to
A. planting B. spoiling C. dividing D. replacing
35. The word ‘clog’ in bold is closest in meaning to
A. drain B. grow along C. obstruct D. float on
36. Which of the following terms does the author define in the first paragraph?
A. grazing area B. weeds C. nutrients D. wildlife habitats
37. Which of the following statements about the use of chemical agents as herbicides would the author most likely
agree?
A. It has become more dangerous recently. B. It is occasionally required.
C. It is safe but inefficient. D. It should be increased.
38. The word ‘innate’ in bold is closest in meaning to
A. effective B. natural C. active D. organic
39. The word ‘applications’ in bold could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. treatments B. requests C. special purposes D. qualifications
40. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. Two possible causes of a phenomenon are compared.
B. A problem is described and possible solutions are discussed.
C. A general idea is introduced and several specific examples are given.
D. A recommendation is analysed and rejected
7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase for each of the blanks from 41 to 45
About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources. We (41)___
well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high
proportion of our animal consumption is in the (42)____ of packaging and this constitutes about seven percent by
weight, of our domestic(43) ____ . Almost all of it can be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling
industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific(44) ____
than coal and one methodn of “recovery” strongly (45)____ by plastic manufacturers if the conversion of waste
plastic into a fuel.
Question 41. A. consign B. import C. consume D. remove
Question 42. A. form B. way C. type D. kind
Question 43. A. goods B. refuse C. rubble D. requirements
Question 44. A. effect B. degree C. value D. demand
Question 45. A. argued B. presented C. desired D. favored
8: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 46 to 51.
FIRST TIME IN THE AIR
When John Mills was going to fly in an aeroplane for the first time, he was frightened. He did not like the idea of
being thousands of feet up in the air. “ I also didn't like the fact that I wouldn't be in control,” says John.
“I'm a terrible passenger in the car. When somebody else is driving, I tell them what to so. It drives everybody
crazy.”
However John couldn't avoid flying any longer. It was the only way he could visit his grandchildren in Canada.
“I had made up my mind that I was going to do it, I couldn't let my son, his wife and their three children travel all the
way here to visit me. It would be so expensive for them and I know Tom's business isn't doing so well at the moment
– it would also be tiring for the children – it's a nine-hour flight!” he says.
To get ready for the flight John did lots of reading about aeroplanes. When he booked his seat, he was told that he
would be flying on a Boeing 747, which is better known as a jumbo jet. “I needed to know as much as possible
before getting in that plane. I suppose it was a way of making myself feel better. The Boeing 747 is the largest
passenger aircraft in the world at the moment. The first one flew on February 9th 1969 in the USA. It can carry up to
524 passengers and 3.400 pieces of luggage. The fuel for aeroplanes is kept in the wings and the 747 is wings are so
big that they can carry enough fuel for an average car to be able to travel 16,000 kilometres a year for 70 years. Isn't
that unbelievable? Even though I had discovered all this very interesting information about the jumbo, when I saw it
for the first time, just before I was going to travel to Canada, I still couldn't believe that something so enormous was
going to get up in the air and fly. I was even more impressed when I saw how big it was inside with hundreds of
people!”
The biggest surprise of all for John was the flight itself. “The take-off itself was much smoother than I expected
although I was still quite scared until we were in the air. In the end, I managed to relax, enjoy the food and watch one
of the movies and the view from the window was spectacular. I even managed to sleep for a while! Of course,”
continues John, “the best reward of all was when I arrived in Canada and saw my son and his family, particularly my
beautiful grandchildren. Suddenly, I felt so silly about all the years when I couldn't even think of getting on a plane. I
had let my fear of living stop me from seeing the people I love most in the world. I can visit my son and family as
often as I like now!”
Question 46. Why did John Mills fly in an aeroplane?
A. He wanted to go on holiday B. He wanted to try it.
C. He wanted to see his family D. He had to travel on business.
Question 47. Why did John read about aeroplane?
A. He wanted to know how they work. B. It was his hobby.
C. It made him feel safer. D. He had found a book on them.
Question 48. What happened when he saw the jumbo jet for the first time?
A. He felt much safer. B. He liked the shape of it.
C. He couldn‟t believe how big it was. D. He thought the wings were very small.
Question 49. How did John feel when the aeroplane was taking off?
A. excited B. happy C. sad D. frightened
Question 50. What surprised John most about the flight?
A. that he liked the food. B. that he was able to sleep
C. that there was a movie being shown D. that the view was good
Question 51. How did John feel about his fears in the end?
A. He thought he had wasted time being afraid.
B. He realized it was okay to be afraid.
C. He hoped his grandchildren weren‟t afraid of flying.
D. He realized that being afraid kept him safe.
9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 52 to 34.
Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is very difficult
to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable.
Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause
hearing loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by-product of our advancing technology
causes physical and psychological harm, and detracts from the quality of life for those who are exposed to it.
Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is, therefore, always
open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection.
Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises
instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response,
heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a
general increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of
these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased.
Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same way that we
would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than
an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not
only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America's
number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be
victims of noise as well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive
to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness,
irritability, tension, and anxiety increase affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities
during waking hours, as well as the way that we interact with each other
Question 52: Which of the following is the author‟s main point?
A. Hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem.
B. Loud noises signal danger.
C. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.
D. The ear is not like the eye.
Question 53: According to the passage, what is noise?
A. A byproduct of technology. B. Physical and psychological harm
C. Congestion.. D. Unwanted sound.
Question 54: Why is noise difficult to measure?
A. All people do not respond to it in the same way
B. It causes hearing loss.
C. It is unwanted.
D. People become accustomed to it.
Question 55: The word congested in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ___.
A. hazardous B. crowded C. polluted D. rushed
Question 56: The word it in the first paragraph refers to ___.
A. the quality of life B. advancing technology
C. the noise D. physical and psychological harm
Question 57: According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same way that they respond to
___.
A. annoyance B. danger C. damage D. disease
Question 58: Look at the verb accelerate in paragraph 3. Which of the following is the closest in meaning to _____.
A. decrease B. alter C. increase D. release
Question 59: The phrase as well in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___.
A. after all B. instead C. also D. regardless
Question 60: It can be inferred from the passage that the eye ___.
A. responds to fear B. enjoys greater protection than the ear
C. increases functions D. is damaged by noise
10: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 28.
EXAMS OR CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT?
How do you feel when you (61) ______an exam? Do you always succeed in getting all your ideas down on
paper, or do you sometimes feel that you’re (62) ______a mess of it? Apart from those lucky few who sail through
exams, most secondary school (63) ______find them very stressful. Many teachers are aware of the problems their
students face and use a different method for measuring their progress: continuous assessment. With continuous
assessment, students are given various (64) ______to do through the year. All their marks are added together to
produce a total mark at the end of the year. Students have to take more responsibility for their education because they
can’t rely on doing well on just one day. Also, they have more time to (65) ______ over their work, meaning that
they are able to do their best.
Question 61: A. sit B. write C. make D. give
Question 62: A. doing B. making C. having D. taking
Question 63: A. colleagues B. classmates C. perfects D. students
Question 64: A. tasks B. efforts C. achievements D. results
Question 65: A. consider B. imagine C. think D. examine

11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 66 to 72.
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than speech. A little
thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human beings have been
writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they have been talking for much
longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly. Even today
there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to write;
any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal human being
cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write. In the past many
intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many who speak languages with
writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments of those skills do so only
imperfectly.
To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage writing
has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must have. Thus, if
speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized.
Question 66: We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because______.
A. it has become very important in our culture.
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years.
C. writing is secondary to language.
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings.
Question 67: The author of the passage argues that______.
A. all languages should have a written form.
B. writing has become too important in today’s society.
C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write.
D. speech is more basic to language than writing.
Question 68: Normal human beings______.
A. learn to talk after learning to write. B. learn to write before learning to talk.
C. learn to write and to talk at the same time. D. learn to talk before learning to write.
Question 69: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of ______.
A. severely handicapped children. B. people who learn the rudiments of speech.
C. intelligent people who couldn’t write. D. people who speak many languages.
Question 70: According to the author, one mark of any civilized society is that it______.
A. keeps written records. B. affirms the primacy of speech over writing.
C. teaches its children to speak perfectly. D. affirms the primacy of writing over speech.
Question 71: The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means______.
A. skill B. rudiments C. domination D. benefit
Question 72: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. It is easy to acquire the writing skill.
B. Writing has become so important in our culture.
C. Writing represents speech, but not perfectly.
D. Speech is essential but writing has important benefits.

12. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 73 to 80
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster. According to
several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious parents make.
Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations
can cause great damage to children
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a sensible
way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of their child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to
concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for
violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra.
However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and
they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for
every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will
disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.
Question 73: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to______.
A. push their child into trying too much. B. help their child to become a genius.
C. make their child become a musician. D. neglect their child’s education.
Question 74: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents.
C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists.
Question 75: Michael Collins is fortunate in that______.
A. his father is a musician. B. his parents are quite rich.
C. his parents help him in a sensible way. D. his mother knows little about music.
Question 76: The phrase "crazy about" in in the paragraph 3 mostly means______.
A. surprised at B. extremely interested in
C. completely unaware of D. confused about
Question 77: Winston’s parents push their son so much and he______.
A. has won a lot of piano competitions. B. cannot learn much music from them.
C. has become a good musician. D. is afraid to disappoint them.
Question 78: The word "They" in the paragraph 3 refers to______.
A. Michael’s parents B. violin lessons C. parents in general D. concerts
Question 79: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT______.
A. Winston’s father B. Winston’s mother C. Michael’s father D. Michael’s mother
Question 80: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that______.
A. successful parents always have intelligent children.
B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children.
C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants.
D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education.
13. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
I had never been to Denmark before, so when I set out to catch the ferry in early May, I little suspected that by the
end of the trip I'd have made such lasting friendships. Esjberg is a (81) ________ port for a cyclist's arrival, where
tourist information can be obtained and money changed. A cycle track leads (82) ________ town and down to Ribe,
where I spent my first night. The only appointment I had to keep was a meeting with a friend who was flying out in
June. I wanted to use my time well, so I had planned a route which would include several small islands and various
parts of the countryside.
In my (83) ________, a person travelling alone sometimes meets with unexpected hospitality, and this trip was no
(84) ________. On only my second day, I got into conversation with a cheerful man who turned out to be the local
baker. He insisted that I should join his family for lunch, and, while we were eating, he contacted his daughter
inOdense. Within minutes, he had (85) ________ for me to visit her and her family. Then I was sent on my
way with a fresh loaf of bread to keep me going and the feeling that this would turn out to be a wonderful
holiday.
Question 81: A. capable B. ready C. favorable D. convenient
Question 82: A. in to B. up ward C. out of D. upon
Question 83: A. information B. experience C. knowledge D. observation
Question 84: A. exception B. difference C. change D. contract
Question 85: A. fixed B. ordered C. settled D. arranged

14. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For employees
whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer
is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed,
employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today
estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the
trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as
its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers.
These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would
be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s
responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity.
Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the
same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even
when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office.
Question 86: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. An overview of telecommuting B. The failure of telecommuting
C. The advantages of telecommuting D. A definition of telecommuting
Question 87: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week B. More than 8 million
C. Fewer than last year D. Fewer than estimated in USA Today
Question 88: The phrase “of no consequence” means ________.
A. of no use B. irrelevant C. of no good D. unimportant
Question 89: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting EXCEPT ________.
A. the opportunities for advancement B. the different system of supervision
C. the lack of interaction with a group D. the work place is in the home
Question 90: The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to ________.
A. telecommuters B. systems C. executives D. responsibilities
Question 91: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees ________.
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
Question 92: The word “reluctant” in line 13 can best be replaced by ________.
A. opposite B. willing C. hesitant D. typical
15. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a counselor and professor 25
years ago. College has always been demanding both academically and socially. But students now are less mature and
often not ready for the responsibility of being in college.
It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s obstacle. Parents,
who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children writing admission essays to picking
college courses, certainly may contribute to their children’s lack of coping strategies. But we can look even more
broadly to the social trends of today.
How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression? The number of students
who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has increased dramatically in the past 10 years. We,
as a society, don’t want to “feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don’t want our children to “suffer”.
The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the necessary skills to
tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact that some individuals suffer from
depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I question the growing number of medicated adolescents
today.
Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political realities, but I don’t believe that
the college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. What I do think is that many
students are often not prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life.
What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic parenting of these students –
the student who complains that the professor didn’t remind her of the due date for an assignment that was clearly
listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite of careful instructions about plagiarism.
As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college student before we can even
begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young people to meet challenges. To encourage them in
this direction, we have to step back and let them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This approach needs
to begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood.
Question 93: According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are
____________.
A. too ready for college B. not as mature
C. not so academic D. responsible for their work
Question 94: The word “handle” in parapgraph 2 mostly means ____________.
A. deal with B. gain benefits from C. lend a hand to D. point at
Question 95: According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to ____________.
A. the absence of parents’ protection B. the lack of parental support
C. the over-parenting from parents D. the lack of financial support
Question 96: The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to ________.
A. studying medicine at college B. doing medical research
C. receiving medical treatment D. suffering anxiety from depression
Question 97: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.
B. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.
C. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.
D. Our society certainly doesn’t want our children to experience unpleasant things.
Question 98: Students who are not well – prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life will need
______.
A. to be assigned more housework from adults
B. to be given more social responsibilities
C. to be encouraged to meet challenges
D. daily coaching from their teachers
Question 99: According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will ______.
A. help students to learn to stand on their own feet
B. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives
C. defeat students from the very beginning
D. discourage students and let them down forever
Question 100: What is probably the writer’s attitude in the passage?
A. Praising B. Indifferent C. Humorous D. Critial

16. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word of
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 101 to 105.
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In this world of
diversity, (101) ______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the old days, it was not much a
problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse learning areas to choose from. Besides, there were
only a few distinctive professional careers like doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher,etc. to think about. Most
higher learning usually led to a financially successful life. (102) ______, the cost of education was not so high.
Today’s world is entirely different from the things (103) ______ have just been described. The job market is
constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (104) ______. Meanwhile, most teenagers have difficulty
in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well- organized career talks and student counseling
workshop to guide and help teenagers (105) ______ what course to take. Furthermore, psychological tests are also
used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews and computer software can help to find out
preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students.
Question 101: A. taking B. making C. giving D. having
Question 102: A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. Therefore
Question 103: A. when B. that C. where D. what
Question 104: A. competitively B. competition C. compete D. competitive
Question 105: A. employ B. study C. decide D. apply

17: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Living things include both the visible world of animals and plants as well as the invisible world of bacteria
and viruses. On a basic level, we can say that life is ordered. Organisms have an enormously complex organization.
Life can also “work”. Living creatures can take in energy from the environment. This energy, in the form of food, is
changed to maintain metabolic processes and for survival. Life grows and develops. This means more than just
getting larger in size. Living organisms also have the ability to rebuild and repair themselves when injured. Life can
reproduce. Life can only come from other living creatures. Life can respond. Think about the last time you
accidentally stubbed your toe. Almost instantly, you moved back in pain. Finally, life can adapt and respond to the
demands placed on it by the environment. There are three basic types of adaptations that can occur in higher
organisms.
Reversible changes occur as a response to changes in the environment. Let's say you live near sea level and
you travel to a mountainous area. You may begin to experience difficulty breathing and an increase in heart rate as a
result of the change in height. These signs of sickness go away when you go back down to sea level.
Body- related changes happen as a result of prolonged changes in the environment. Using the previous
example, if you were to stay in the mountainous area for a long time, you would notice that your heart rate would
begin to slow down and you would begin to breath normally. These changes are also reversible. Genotypic changes
(caused by genetic change) take place within the genetic make up of the organism and are not reversible. An example
would be the development of resistance to bug-killing chemicals by insects and spiders.
Question 106: In what way is life organized?.
A. Hard B. Difficult C. Complicated D. Problematic
Question 107: Which of the followings is NOT a feature of life?
A. Getting a job. B. Giving birth.
C. Getting larger and self-repairing. D. Reacting to the environment.
Question 108: What is the energy for the living things called?
A. Food. B. Metabolic process. C. Green energy. D. Environment
Question 109: You see life respond most clearly when you______.
A. unintentionally hurt yourself. B. move part of your body due to threat.
C. look at your toe. D. feel hurt.
Question 110: Which type of living creatures can adapt to the changes in the environment?
A. More visible B. Lower C. Higher D. More human
Question 111: What does the word “Reversible” in the passage mean?
A. Changeable B. Visible C. Fitful D. Irregular
Question 112: Which type of adaptation is permanent?
A. Body- related B. Reversible C. Genotypic D. Environmental

18. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
For many American university students, the weeklong spring break holiday means an endless party on a
sunny beach in Florida or Mexico. In Panama City Beach, Florida, a city with a permanent population of around
36,000, more than half a million university students arrive during the month of March to play and party, making it
the number one spring break destination in the United States.
A weeklong drinking binge is not for anyone, however, and a growing number of American university
students have found a way to make spring break matter. For them, joining or leading a group of volunteers to travel
locally or internationally and work to alleviate problems such as poverty, homelessness, or environmental damage
makes spring break a unique learning experience that university students can feel good about.
During one spring break week, students at James Madison University in Virginia participated in 15
“alternative spring break” trips to nearby states, three others to more distant parts of the United States, and five
international trips. One group of JMU students traveled to Bogalusa, Louisiana, to help rebuild homes damaged by
Hurricane Katrina. Another group traveled to Mississippi to organize creative activities for children living in a
homless shelter. One group of students did go to Florida, but not to lie on the sand. They performed exhausting
physical labor such as maintaining hiking trails and destroying invasive plant species that threaten the native Florida
ecosystem.
Students who participate in alternative spring break projects find them very rewarding. While most
university students have to get their degrees before they can start helping people, student volunteers are able to help
people now. On the other hand, the accommodations are far from glamorous. Students often sleep on the floor of a
school or spend the week camping in tents. But students only pay around $250 for meals and transportation, which is
much less than some of their peers spend to travel to more traditional spring break hotspots.
Alternative spring break trips appear to be growing in popularity at universities across the United States.
Students cite a number of reason for participating. Some appreciate the opportunity to socialize and meet new
friends. Others want to exercise their beliefs about people’s obligation to serve humanity and make the world a better
place whatever their reason, these students have discovered something that gives them rich rewards along with a
break from school work.
(“Active Skills for Reading: Book 2” by Neil J.Anderson – Thompson, 2007)
Question 113: How many university students travel to Panama Beach City every March for spring break?
A. Around 500,000 B. Around 10,000 C. Around 36,000 D. Around 50,000
Question 114: The article is mainly about______.
A. sleeping on the floor or camping in tents.
B. alternative spring break trips.
C. drinking problems among university students.
D. spring break in Florida and Mexico
Question 115: The word “binge” in the second paragraph probably means______.
A. having very little alcohol. B. refusing to do something.
C. studying for too long. D. doing too much of something.
Question 116: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem that alternative spring break trips try to help
solve?
A. Alcoholism. B. Environmental damage.
C. Poverty. D. Homelessness.
Question 117: Which of the following gives the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. One group of JMU students worked on homes damaged by a hurricane.
B. Some students work to help the environment on alternative spring break trips.
C. Children living in homeless shelters enjoy creative activities.
D. University students do many different types of work on alternative spring break trips.
Question 118: The article implies that university students______.
A. many take fewer alternative spring break trips in future.
B. would prefer to wait until they have their degrees to start helping people.
C. complain about accommodations on alternative spring break trips.
D. spend more than $250 for traditional spring break trips.
Question 119: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to______.
A. degrees B. projects C. people D. students
Question 120: Which of the following is mentioned as a reason for participating in alternative spring break trips?
A. The hope of earning money.
B. A personal opinion that people must help other people.
C. A desire to travel to glamorous places.
D. A wish to get away from family and friends.

19. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many African cultures. In paying a
bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to the family of the bride before the marriage is allowed. The
bride price can vary greatly from culture to culture in Africa. In the Zulu and Swazi tribes of southern Africa, the bride
price often takes the form of cattle. In Western African, kola nuts, shells, and other goods are often used for the payment
of the bride price. The actual payment of money sometimes takes place, but the payment of goods is more frequent. The
amount of paid in a bride price can also vary. In modern times, the bride price is occasionally quite small and its value is
mainly symbolic. However, the bride price can still be quite high, especially among prominent or highly traditional
families.
There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is that the bride price
represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride's family has gone in order to raise her and bring her up as a
suitable bride for the groom. It also represents payment for the loss of a family member, since the bride will officially
become a member of her husband's family and will leave her own. On a deeper level the bride price represents payment
for the fact that the bride will bring children into the family of the groom, thereby increasing the wealth of the family.
This concept is reinforced by the fact that the bride price must often be returned if the bride fails to bear children.

The payment of the bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the payment of bride price acts to
increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are dependent on their fathers and older relatives to help them
pay the bride price of their wives, and this generally leads to greater levels of obedience and respect. The negotiations
between the two families concerning the bride price allow the parents and other family members to meet and get to know
one another before the marriage. Finally, since the bride price must often be repaid in case of divorce, the bride's family
often works to make sure that any marital problems are solved quickly. Bride prices also work as a system of wealth
distribution in African cultures. Wealthier families can afford to support the marriage of their son, and thus their wealth
is transferred to other families.
Question 121: According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of the bride price EXCEPT ______.
A. its amount and form can vary
B. its practice is occasionally only symbolic
C. it is a relatively new practice in Africa
D. it is generally higher among traditional families
Question 122: Why does the author mention “the payment of money” in paragraph 1?
A. To stress that the use of goods in the payment of bride price is most common.
B. To demonstrate the differences in how rich and poor families pay the bride price.
C. To illustrate how the practice of bride price has changed over time.
D. To demonstrate how expensive a bride price can be sometimes.
Question 123: The word "prominent" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. educated B. important C. religious D. conservative
Question 124: The phrase "The first" in paragraph 2 refers to the first _________.
A. Marriage B. Bride price C. Payment D. Justification
Question 125: It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that African families ________.
A. never see their daughters after marriage
B. pay the bride price on the day of the wedding '
C. place more value on men than women
D. place great importance on childbirth
Question 126: The author uses the word "marital" to indicate that the problems are related to ________.
A. money B. law C. marriage D. pregnancy
Question 127: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Sometimes the bride’s family has to return the bride price to the groom’s for equal distribution of wealth.
B. The initial negotiations over the birde price provide opportunities for 2 families to meet each other.
C. Animals are not an acceptable form of payment when it comes to paying the bride prices.
D. Without having to pay the bride price, African men would not respect their family members.
Question 128: Why are women often married to older men?
A. Young men lack the financial to marry.
B. The legal age for marriage is lower for women than for men.
C. Families are eager to gain the bride price from their daughter’s marriage.
D. Women live longer than men on average.
20. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
SPORTS IN SOCIETY
The position of sport in today's society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer seem to think of sports as
‘just a game’ - to be watched or played for the (129) _________ of enjoyment. Instead, it has become big business
worldwide. It has become accepted practice for leading companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large
sums of money to screen important matches or competitions. The result has been huge rewards for athletes, some of
(130) _________ are now very wealthy, particularly top footballers, golfers and tennis players.
(131) ________ , it is not unusual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their salary, for advertising products
or making personal appearances.

A trend towards shorter working hours means that people generally tend to have more free time, both to watch and to
take in sporting activity; sport has become a significant part of the recreation industry that we now rely (132) _________
to fill our leisure hours. Professional sport is a vital part of that industry, providing for millions of (133) _________
people all over the world.
Question 129: A. advantage B. good C. benefit D. sake
Question 130: A. whose B. whom C. who D. that
Question 131: A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. Therefore
Question 132: A. for B. with C. on D. in
Question 133: A. ordinary B. mighty C. extremist D. abnormal

21. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
One of the most important social developments that helped to make possible a shift in thinking about the role of
public education was the effect of the baby boom of the 1950's and 1960's on the schools. In the 1920's, but
especially in the Depression conditions of the 1930's, the United States experienced a declining birth rate – every
thousand women aged fifteen to forty-four gave birth to about 118 live children in 1920, 89.2 in 1930, 75.8 in 1936,
and 80 in 1940. With the growing prosperity brought on by the Second World War and the economic boom that
followed it, young people married and established households earlier and began to raise larger families than had their
predecessors during the Depression. Birth rates rose to 102 per thousand in 1946, 106.2 in 1950, and 118 in 1955.
Although economics was probably the most important determinant, it is not the only explanation for the baby boom.
The increased value placed on the idea of the family also helps to explain this rise in birth rates. The baby boomers
began streaming into the first grade by the mid-1940's and became a flood by 1950. The public school system
suddenly found itself overtaxed. While the number of schoolchildren rose because of wartime and postwar
conditions, these same conditions made the schools even less prepared to cope with the flood. The wartime economy
meant that few new schools were built between 1940 and 1945. Moreover, during the war and in the boom times that
followed large numbers of teachers left their profession for better-paying jobs elsewhere in the economy.

Therefore, in the 1950's and 1960's, the baby boom hit an antiquated and inadequate school system. Consequently,
the "custodial rhetoric" of the 1930's and early 1940's no longer made sense; that is, keeping youths aged sixteen and
older out of the labor market by keeping them in school could no longer be a high priority for an institution unable to
find space and staff to teach younger children aged five to sixteen. With the baby boom, the focus of educators and
of laymen interested in education inevitably turned toward the lower grades and back to basic academic skills and
discipline. The system no longer had much interest in offering nontraditional, new, and extra services to older
youths.
Question 134: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Birth rates in the United States in the 1930's and 1940
B. The impact of the baby boom on public education
C. The role of the family in the 1950's and 1960's
D. The teaching profession during the baby boom
Question 135: The word "it" in paragraph refers to _________.
A. the economic boom B. the Second World War
C. the 1930s D. the United States
Question 136: The word "overtaxed" in line 14 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. changed too much B. plentifully supplied C. heavily burdened D. well prepared
Question 137: The public school of the 1950's and 1960's faced all of the following problems
EXCEPT _________.
A. an inadequate number of school buildings B. old-fashioned facilities
C. a shortage of teachers D. a declining number of students
Question 138: According to the passage, why did teachers leave the teaching profession after the outbreak of the
war?
A. Teaching positions were scarce. B. They were dissatisfied with the curriculum.
C. Other jobs provided higher salaries. D. They needed to be retrained.
Question 139: The word "inevitably" in parapraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. unavoidably B. impartially C. irrationally D. unwillingly
Question 140: Which of the following best characterizes the organization of the passage?
A. The second paragraph provides a fictional account to illustrate a problem presented in the first paragraph.
B. The second paragraph argues against a point made in the first paragraph.
C. The second paragraph introduces a problem not mentioned in the first paragraph.
D. The second paragraph presents the effect of circumstances described in the first paragraph.
22. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 141 to 145.
CHESS
Chess, often (141)______ to as the Royal Game, is the oldest of all board games which do not contain an element of
chance.
The origins of chess are uncertain, (142)______ there are a number of legends regarding its invention. One story says
that it was King Solomon who invented chess, another that it was the Greek god Hermes, and yet another that the
Chinese mandarin Han-Sing was responsible for its creation. In fact, chess almost certainly originated in India in the
sixth or seventh century AD. The game’s popularity then spread quickly through Persia (now known as Iran) and from
there came to Europe. The first documented reference to chess in literature is in a Persian romance which was written
about 600 AD.
It is (143)_______ the word ‘chess’ comes from ‘shah’, the Persian word for ‘king’ and that ‘checkmate’, the game’s
winning (144)_______, comes from the phrase ‘shah mat’, (145)______ ‘the king is dead’.
The rules and pieces used in the game have undergone changes over the centuries. Modem chess owes much to the
Spaniard Lopez de Segura, who in 1561 wrote the first book on how to play the game. In it, he introduced the
concept of ‘castling’, which had not been part of the game until then.
Question 141: A. mentioned B. called C. known D. referred
Question 142: A. despite B. nevertheless C. although D. however
Question 143: A. believed B. imagined C. held D. taken
Question 144: A. place B. stand C. go D. move
Question 145: A. representing B. suggesting C. intending D. meaning
23. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 146 to 34.
Rain pounded down on the roof. I was trying to read but the sound was too loud. I couldn’t help myself from being a
little grumpy. I wanted to be outside playing, but the rain was keeping me inside.
My mom had gone to the grocery store, and my dad was spending Saturday at the office. I had planned to spend the day
hiking, but Mother Nature decided that today was the perfect day for rain.
It meant that I would have to entertain myself. I spent most of the morning playing with my stuffed animals and reading.
I was sitting next to the window staring out when I got a strange idea: why not just go outside anyway?
I put on my boots and a big raincoat and stepped out into the wet world. It was raining hard but it wasn’t cold. All I
could hear were raindrops and the wind. I decided to go on my hike anyway.
My feet didn’t make any sound on the wet ground and the forest seemed different. I went to my favourite place and sat
down. In the summer, my best friend Ellen and I would come here and sit for hours. It was our special place. All of a
sudden, I thought I heard someone shouting my name. I turned and saw Ellen walking up behind me.
“Oh my Gosh! It’s really you, Martha!” she said. “I can’t believe that you are out here right now. I thought I would be
the only person crazy enough to go for a walk in the rain.”
I was very happy to have some company. We decided that hiking in the rain was just as fun as hiking in the sunshine.
We planned on hiking in the rain again.
Question 146: What is the best title for the story?
A. Rainy Day Work B. Rainy Day Hike
C. A Rainy Day Indoors D. Rainy Day Homework
Question 147: The word “grumpy” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. stupid B. bad-tempered C. uninterested D. unsatisfactory
Question 148: What was keeping Martha inside?
A. The heat B. Her parents C. Bad weather D. Lots of homework
Question 149: What does Martha mean when she says “It meant that I would have to entertain myself”?
A. She was tire D. B. She was feeling sick.
C. She had to find something to do. D. She was bored with doing homework.
Question 150: The word “company” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. time B. space C. friend D. business
Question 151: What did Martha think about being outside?
A. It was too hot. B. It was too cold.
C. It was very nice. D. It was too wet to walk.
Question 152: What will Martha and Ellen probably do next time it rains?
A. Stay inside B. Do homework
C. Go for another hike D. Go to their friend’s house
24. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 153 to 160.
Life in the Universe
Exobiology is the study of life that originates from outside of Earth. As yet, of course, no such life forms have been
found. Exobiologists, however, have done important work in the theoretical study of where life is most likely to evolve,
and what those extrateưestrial life forms might be like.
What sorts of planets are most likely to develop life? Most scientists agree that a habitable planet must be terrestrial, or
rock-based, with liquid surface water and biogeochemical cycles that somewhat resemble Earth’s. Water is an important
solvent involved in many biological processes. Biogeochemical cycles are the continuous movement and transformation
of materials in the environment. These cycles include the circulation of elements and nutrients upon which life and the
Earth’s climate depend. Since (as far as we know) all life is carbon-based, a stable carbon cycle is especially important.
The habitable zone is the region around a star in which planets can develop life. Assuming the need for liquid surface
water, it follows that most stars around the size of our sun will be able to sustain habitable zones for billions of years.
Stars that are larger than the sun are much hotter and bum out more quickly; life there may not have enough time to
evolve. Stars that are smaller than the sun have different problem. First of all, planets in their habitable zones will be
so close to the star that they will be “tidally locked” – that is one side of the planet will always face the star in
perpetual daylight with the other side in the perpetual night. Another possible obstacle to life on smaller stars is that
they tend to vary in their luminosity, or brightness, due to flares and “star spots”. The variation can be large enough to
have harmful effects on the ecosystem.
Of course, not all stars of the right size will give rise to life; they also must have terrestrial planets with the right kind of
orbits. Most solar systems have more than one planet, which influence each other’s orbits with their own gravity.
Therefore, in order to have a stable system with no planets flying out into space, the orbits must be a good distance from
one another. Interestingly, the amount of space needed is roughly the width of a star’s habitable zone. This means that
for life to evolve, the largest possible number of life-supporting planets in any star’s habitable zone is two.
Finally, not all planets meeting the above conditions will necessarily develop life. One major threat is large, frequent
asteroid and comet impacts, which will wipe out life each time it tries to evolve. The case of Earth teaches that having
large gas giants, such as Saturn and Jupiter,.in the outer part of the solar system can help keep a planet safe for life. Due
to their strong gravitation, they tend to catch or deflect large objects before they can reach Earth.
Question 153: What is the topic of the passage?
A. The search for intelligent life B. Conditions necessary for life
C. Characteristics of extraterrestrial life D. Life in our solar system
Question 154: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as necessary for the development of life except
A. rock B. carbon C. oxygen D. water
Question 155: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. star B. zone C. region D. planet
Question 156: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that
A. the Earth is in the sun’s habitable zone B. the Earth is tidally locked to the sun
C. the sun varies in its luminosity D. variations in luminosity help life to develop
Question 157: The word “sustain” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. assist B. have C. need D. experience
Question 158: In order for life to develop, a planet’s orbit must not be
A. stable
B. very close to another planet’s orbit
C. on the same planet as another planet’s orbit
D. less wide than the star’s habitable zone
Question 159: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that
A. most stars have more than two planets in their habitable zones
B. no star has more than two planets in its habitable zone
C. it is not possible for a star to have three planets with life on them
D. for life to develop, a star must have at least two planets in its habitable zone
Question 160: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the
passage?
A. Because of their nearness, habitable planets orbiting smaller stars usually have either constant daylight or constant
night.
B. The habitable zones of small stars are so close to the star that planets within them do not spin.
C. One problem with some stars is that their habitable zones are tidally locked into either light or darkness.
D. Some stars become tidally locked, so that they only shine light on one side of a planet.
25. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
In 1972. a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed
to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected
coastal habitats similar to that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine
sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there,
but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a
branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary
status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after
1978. They range in size from the very small (less than 1 square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in
American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square
kilometers.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of
species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and
overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that
also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.
Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine
Research Reserve System managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries.
Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves and preserves.
Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known
Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where
tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to
recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas whether as sanctuaries,parks, or
estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.

Question 161: What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves
B. Various marine conservation programs
C. International agreements on coastal protection
D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments
Question 162: The word “administered” the passage is closest in meaning to ……
A. managed B. recognized C. opposed D. justified
Question 163: The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in paragraph 2 as an example of a
sanctuary that ….
A. is not well known
B. covers a large area
C. is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary
D. was not originally proposed for sanctuary status
Question 164: According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established?
A. Before 1972
B. After 1987
C. One hundred years before national parks were established
D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established
Question 165: According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries
Program EXCEPT …..
A. the discovery of several new marine organisms
B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species
C. the protection of coastal habitats
D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life
Question 166: The word “periphery” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. depth B. landmass C. warm habitat D. outer edge
Question 167: The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States?
A. Limitations in financial support B. The use of marine species as food
C. Variability of the climate D. Increases in tourism
26. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy available for use
per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off
animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they
could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off more intensive heat than
wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th
century, but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution.
In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and other nations
undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams,
domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of
all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood. However, at he
beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries.
Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more
concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they
are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil
could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration in the early 1900s, when the
automobile arrived on the scene.
By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent of the commercial and
industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16
percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large
number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and
solar energy converted to electricity. The energy derived from non-renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced
in one location and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather
than public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to
be replaced.
Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples. The extraction of shale oil
from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labor consuming and costly. The resulting product is
sulfur-and nitrogen-rich, and large scale extractions are presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons
from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is complex. Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone
and limestone that carry them, and modern technology is not sufficiently versatile for a large-scale removal of the
material. However, both sources of fuel may eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and limitations in
fossil fuel availability make alternative deposits more attractive.
Question 168: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Application of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels
C. A history of energy use D. A historical review of energy rates
Question 169: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples
B. the Greeks used coal in industrial productions
C. the development of efficient fuel was a gradual process
D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental
Question 170: The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were
A. used for commercial purposes B. used in various combination
C. not derived from mineral deposits D. it could be converted to automobile fuel.
Question 171: The phrase “the latter” refers to
A. wood B. coal C. most regions D. climate zones
Question 172: According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?
A. it was a concentrated source of energy.
B. it was lighter and cheaper than coal.
C. it replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.
D. it could be converted to automobile fuel.
Question 173: It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th centurgy, energy was obtained primarily from
A. Fossil fuels B. Nuclear fission
C. Hydraulic and solar sources D. Burning biomass
Question 174: The author of the passage implies that alternative sources of fuel are curently
A. being used for consumption B. available in few locations
C. being explored D. examined on a large scale
Question 175: The word “prohibitive” is closest in meaning to
A. prohibited B. provided C. too expensive D. too expedient
27. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a machine that would
do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory work could be (176) ________ by robots,
why not boring and repetitive household chores too?
For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors And they came up
against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very complex It has never been one job it has always been
many. A factor robot (177) ________ one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run the
whole factory. A housework robot on the other hand, has to do several different (178) ________ of cleaning and carrying
jobs and also has to cope (179) ________ all the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and
dogs. (180) ________, there have been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help the robot
locate objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the
software- the programs that will operate the machine.
Question 176: A. managed B. succeeded C. made D. given
Question 177: A. carries over B. carries out C. carries off D. carries away
Question 178: A. systems B. types C. ways D. methods
Question 179: A. from B. with C. by D. for
Question 180: A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover

Part 28: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
New cycling schemes
The County Council has decided to give a higher (181)______ to cycling and agreed a new strategy to guide the way
ahead in East Sussex.
Cycling is a (182) ______, healthy and environmentally friendly form of transport. It is (183) ______ to make it safer,
more convenient, and to increase the proportion of journeys made by bicycle.
Cycling is being encouraged both for utility purposes (such as journeys to work, school and the shops) and for recreation
trips for exercise and enjoyment, including longer trips by tour. Recent cycle schemes carried out in conjunction with
District Councils and other bodies (184) ______ the Brighton and Hove seafront route and the Cross Levels Way cycle
route, in Eastbourne.
Local people will be consulted as the strategy is implemented. The County council will work with local cycling and
other groups, and a countrywide Cycling Forum will be formed to (185) ______ that all bodies concerned with cycling
are in regular (186) ______ .
The (187) ______ of the Cycling strategy are given in a leaflet, and a copy of the full strategy document can be seen in
County Council Public Libraries.
Question 181: A. advantage B. benefit C. priority D. income
Question 182: A. low-cost B. dangerous C. shortcut D. high-speed
Question 183: A. written B. convinced C. spoken D. intended
Question 184: A. consist B. include C. improve D. participate
Question 185: A. improve B. ensure C. maintain D. assert
Question 186: A. basis B. touch C. contact D. account
Question 187: A. rights B. cyclists C. objectives D. vehicles

Part 29: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
The days of the camera-toting tourist may be numbered. Insensitive travelers are being ordered to stop pointing their
cameras and camcorders at reluctant local residents. Tour companies selling expensive trips to remote corners of the
world, off the well-trodden path of the average tourist, have become increasingly irritated at the sight of the visitors
upsetting locals. Now one such operator plans to ban clients from taking any photographic equipment on holidays. Julian
Mathews is the director of Discovery Initiatives, a company that is working hand-in-hand with other organizations to
offer holidays combining high adventure with working on environmental projects. His trips are not cheap; two weeks of
white-water rafting and monitoring wildlife in Canada cost several thousand pounds.
Matthews says he is providing 'holidays without guilt', insisting that Discovery Initiatives is not a tour operator but an
environmental support company. Clients are referred to as 'participants' or 'ambassadors'. 'We see ourselves as the next
step on from eco-tourism, which is merely a passive form. of sensitive travel - our approach is more proactive.'
However, says Matthews, there is a price to pay. 'I am planning to introduce tours with a total ban on cameras and
camcorders because of the damage they do to our relationships with local people. I have seen some horrendous things,
such as a group of six tourists arriving at a remote village in the South American jungle, each with a video camera
attached to their face. That sort of thing tears me up inside. Would you like somebody to come into your home and take a
photo of you cooking? A camera is like a weapon; it puts up a barrier and you lose all the communication that comes
through body language, which effectively means that the host communities are denied access to the so-called cultural
exchange.'
Matthews started organizing environmental holidays after a scientific expedition for young people. He subsequently
founded Discovery Expeditions, which has helped support 13 projects worldwide. With the launch of Discovery
Initiatives, he is placing a greater emphasis on adventure and fun, omitting in the brochure all references to scientific
research. But his rules of conduct are strict. 'In some parts of the world, for instance, I tell people they should wear long
trousers, not shorts, and wear a tie, when eating out. It may sound dictatorial, but I find one has a better experience if one
is well dressed. I don't understand why people dress down when they go to other countries.'
Matthews' views reflect a growing unease among some tour companies at the increasingly cavalier behaviour of well-
heeled tourists. Chris Parrott, of Journey Latin America, says: 'We tell our clients that indigenous people are often shy
about being photographed, but we certainly don't tell them not to take a camera. If they take pictures without asking,
they may have tomatoes thrown at them.' He also reports that increasing numbers of clients are taking camcorders and
pointing them indiscriminately at locals. He says: 'People with camcorders tend to be more intrusive than those with
cameras, but there is a payoff - the people they are filming get a tremendous thrill from seeing themselves played back
on the viewfinder.'
Crispin Jones, of Exodus, the overland truck specialist, says: 'We don't have a policy but, should cameras cause offence,
our tour leaders will make it quite clear that they cannot be used. Clients tend to do what they are told.
Earthwatch, which pioneered the concept of proactive eco-tourism by sending paying volunteers to work on scientific
projects around the world, does not ban cameras, but operates strict rules on their use. Ed Wilson, the marketing director
of the company, says: 'We try to impress on people the common courtesy of getting permission before using their
cameras, and one would hope that every tour operator would do the same. People have to be not only environmentally
aware but also culturally aware. Some people use the camera as a barrier; it allows them to distance themselves from the
reality of what they see. I would like to see tourists putting their cameras away for once, rather than trying to record
everything they see.'
Question 188: The word ‘indigenous’ in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. timid B. native C. ignorant D. impoverished
Question 189: Which of the following does Chris Parrott believe?
A. Local people may react angrily towards tourists who use cameras
B. Tourists are becoming more sensitive about their use of cameras.
C. Camcorders always cause more trouble with local people than cameras
D. Tourists are unlikely to agree to travel without their cameras.
Question 190: In the first paragraph we learn that Discovery Initiatives
A. organizes trips to places where few tourists go
B. offers trips that no other tour company offers
C. has decided to respond to its customers’ complaints
D. has already succeeded in changing the kind of tourist it attracts
Question 191: Which of the following best summarizes the view of Earthwatch?
A. There are more problems concerning the use of cameras these days.
B. Cameras enable people to be detached from places they visit.
C. Too many tour operators ignore the problems caused by cameras.
D. Most tourists realize when they have caused offence to local people.
Question 192: The word ‘courtesy’ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. dignity B. politeness C. nobility D. elite
Question 193: What does Matthews say in paragraph 3 about cameras and camcorders?
A. They prevent local people from learning about other societies.
B. They encourage holidaymakers to behave unpredictably.
C. They discourage holidaymakers from intruding on local people.
D. They give local people a false impression of holidaymakers.
Question 194: What is Matthews keen for clients to realize?
A. that the brochure does not contain all the information they need.
B. that certain behavior may spoil their enjoyment of a trip.
C. that it is likely that they will not be allowed in certain places.
D. that they may find certain local customs rather surprising.
Part 30: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades. The
rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth,
has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these
environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the
human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth’s ecosystems. In terrestrial
ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In
most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types
of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the
variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution.
Certainly, there have been periods in Earth’s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction of the
dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions,
as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have
lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which
died out.
However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the physical and
chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans
are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has
continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time
for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and
new species that may be able to survive in new environments.
Question 195: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs
B. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests
C. The time required for species to adapt to new environments
D. The impact of human activities on Earth’s ecosystems
Question 196: The word “critical” is closest in meaning to
A. complicated B. interesting C. negative D. essential
Question 197: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph to emphasize that
A. the cause of the dinosaurs’ extinction is unknown
B. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species’ extinction
C. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity
D. Earth’s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs’extinction
Question 198: The word “jolting” is closest in meaning to
A. shocking B. unknown C. illuminating D. predicted
Question 199: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the world’s ecosystems
EXCEPT
A. habitat destruction in wetlands
B. the introduction of new varieties of plant species
C. damage to marine ecosystems
D. destruction of the tropical rain forests
Question 200: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy.
B. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems.
C. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress.
D. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems.
31. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 201 to 208
The Forbidden City is the former imperial palace in the center of Beijing, China. Construction began in 1406, and the
emperor's court officially moved in by 1420. The Forbidden City got its name because most people were barred from
entering the 72-hectare site, surrounded by walls. Even government officials and the imperial family were permitted only
limited access. Only the emperor could enter any section at will.
The architecture of the Forbidden City conforms rigidly to traditional Chinese principles. All buildings within the walls
follow a north-south line and the most important ones face south to honor the sun. The designers arranged the other
buildings, and the ceremonial spaces between them, to impress all visitors with the great power of the Emperor, while
reinforcing the insignificance of the individual. This architectural concept was carried out to the smallest detail. For
example, the importance of a building was determined not only by its height or width but also by the style of its roof and
the quantity of statuettes placed on the roof’s ridges.
In recognition of the importance of its unparalleled architecture, UNESCO added the palace to its World Heritage List
in 1987. Today, visitors from all over the world do not wait for an imperial invitation to walk about this palace, now a
museum of imperial art.
One of the most impressive landmarks of the Forbidden City is the Meridian Gate, the formal entrance to the southern
side of the Forbidden City. The gate, with its auxiliary wings on either side of the entryway, is 38 meters high at its roof
ridge. When you stand in front of this majestic structure, you understand how awed people felt when they stood there
listening to imperial proclamations.
As you walk through the gate, you come into a large courtyard, 140 meters long and 210 meters wide. Running through
the courtyard is the Golden River, which is crossed by five parallel white marble bridges. These bridges lead to the Gate
of Supreme Harmony, which, in turn, leads to the heart of the Forbidden City. At the northernmost end of the Forbidden
City is the Imperial Garden, which is totally different from the rest of the compound. Instead of rigid formality, you see a
seemingly spontaneous arrangement of trees, fishponds, flowerbeds, and sculpture. Here is the place of relaxation for
the emperor.
Question 201: According to the passage, what do the bridges over the Golden River lead to?
A. The Meridian gate B. The Gate of Supreme Harmony
C. The Imperial Gardens D. The center of Beijing
Question 202: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word 'unparalleled' as used in paragraph 3?
A. high quality found nowhere else B. at an angle from the main line
C. careless of small details in design D. partially designed in a foreign country
Question 203: From the passage, it is implied that the main entrance area to the Forbidden City is
A. not very impressive B. surrounded by three tall walls
C. decorated with statuettes D. painted gold and green
Question 204: Which word(s) does the word 'its' refer to in paragraph 3?
A. Architecture B. World Heritage List C. Palace D. UNESCO
Question 205: Which word or phrase is closest in meaning to the word "spontaneous"?
A. Without thinking B. Unique C. Without planning D. Strange
Question 206: From the passage, it can be inferred that
A. Chinese architects borrowed ideas from many different countries
B. the garden of the Forbidden City was laid out in a strict, rectangular pattern.
C. the design of the Forbidden City is dull and colorless.
D. the architecture of the Forbidden City exemplifies traditional Chinese values.
Question 207: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “proclamations”?
A. Poetry written for the emperor. B. Music composed for public ceremonies.
C. Speeches encouraging soldiers to fight. D. Official public announcements.
Question 208: Which sentence in the first paragraph explains who could go anywhere in the Forbidden City at any time?
A. Sentence 2 B. Sentence 5 C. Sentence 4 D. Sentence 3
32. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 209 to 215.
People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and patients undergoing
surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then divided into platelets, white blood cells, and
red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood cells) about once every two months. Transfusing the blood from
the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking the blood from a donor’s arm vein by means of a
hypodermic syringe. The blood flows through a plastic tube to a collection bag or bottle that contains sodium citrate,
which prevents the blood from clotting. When the blood is given to a patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are
connected to the recipient's arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow process and may
last as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the recipient. The patient is protected from being infected
during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing, and needles are used, and this helps ensure that transfused or
stored blood is not exposed to disease causing bacteria. Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient
may suffer an allergic reaction or be sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red cell
incompatibility. Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other causes of such negative
reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading of the circulatory system through
administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma or platelets. Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great
lengths to screen alt blood donors and their blood. All donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such
as HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to
eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is washed, and the white blood cells and platelets removed. Storing the blood
sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol solution is added. To unfreeze the, the
glycerolis removed. The ability to store blood for long periods has been a boon to human health.
Question 209: All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusion EXCEPT
A. Sensitivity to donor leukocytes B. Air bubbles in the blood
C. Allergies D. Red-cell incompatibility
Question 210: What can the phrase "go to great length" best replaced by?
A. irradiated B. rigorously C. routinely D. removed
Question 211: According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells?
A. Every four months B. Every three month
C. Every two months D. Every month
Question 212: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfused to infants and
newborns?
A. It is treated with radiant energy. B. It is not treated differently from adults.
C. It is not dangerous for children. D. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults.
Question 213: The word "it" refers t
A. surgical procedures B. accident victims
C. a pint of whole blood D. surgery patients
Question 214: What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected”?
A. not illustrated B. not captured C. not found D. not wanted
Question 215: What does the author imply in the passage?
A. Motoring blood benefits mankind. B. Clotting cannot be prevented.
C. Freezing blood destroys platelets. D. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process.
33. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 216 to 220.
Working as a novelist is not really a career like being a doctor or a scientist. Although a fewwell-known ones, like Harry
Potter author J. K. Rowling, have become wealthy, most writers find it difficult even to make a living from their book
sales. Novels take a long time towrite, and authors can get into financial (216) _____ if they don’t have money coming
in regularly from another job. But for those determined to write novels, it is without (217)______ one of the most
enjoyable kinds of work to do. The writer has to be creative, thinking up completely new stories, and (218) _____,
meaning they put all their time and effort into their work. They also need to be able to cope in a crisis, as nobody else
can write their book for them. For this, a good sense of (219)______ often helps. Or the thought that maybe their novel
might one day be turned into a film and become a Hollywood (220) _____!
Question 216: A. problem B. trouble C. upset D. worry
Question 217: A. difficulty B. suspicion C. thinking D. doubt
Question 218: A. deliberate B. delivered C. decided D. dedicated
Question 219: A. hoping B. humor C. smiling D. joking
Question 220: A. best-seller B. attraction C. blockbuster D. victory
34. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 1 to 8.
The world is losing languages at an alarming rate. Michael Krauss suggested that of the approximately 6,000 human
languages alive today, only 350 to 500 are safe from extinction. Some linguists estimate that a language dies every two
weeks or so. At the current rate, by 2100, about 2,500 native languages could disappear.
Languages become extinct for many reasons. Through imperialism, colonizers impose their languages on colonies.
Some politicians believe multilingualism will fragment national interests. Thus they prohibit education in all but the
national language. Another reason for language death is the spread of more powerful languages. In the world today,
several languages, including English, are so dominant in commerce, science, and education, that languages with fewer
speakers have trouble competing.
Although in the past, governments have been one of the primary causes of language death, many have now become
champions of preserving endangered languages and have had some significant successes. Two outstanding examples are
the revival of Hebrew and Irish. Hebrew was considered a dead language, like Latin, but is now the national language of
Israel. Irish was not dead, but severely threatened by English when the government of Ireland began its rescue
immediately after the establishment of the Irish Free State in 1922. All students in public schools must now take some
classes in Irish and there are Irish programs in major media, such as television and radio. According to the Irish
government, approximately 37% of the population of Ireland now speaks Irish.
One of the largest programs to revive languages, Documenting Endangered Languages (DEL), is being conducted by
three U.S. government agencies: the National Science Foundation, the National Endowment for the Humanities, and the
National Museum of Natural History. Researchers funded by these agencies are recording interviews with the mostly
elderly people who still speak the languages. Analyses of these interviews will help linguists publish dictionaries and
grammars of the languages. Eventually, linguists hope to establish language-training programs where younger people
can learn the languages, carrying them on into the future.
The linguists participating in DEL defend spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages. They point out that
when a language dies, humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world that that culture held. Traditional healers in rural
areas have given scientists important leads in finding new medicines; aspirin is an example of these. But one of the most
common reasons given by these researchers is that studying languages gives us insight into the radically different way
humans organize their world. David Lightfoot, an official at the National Science foundation, gives the example of
Guguyimadjir, and Australian aboriginal language, in which there are no words for “right” or left,” only for “north,”
“south,” “east,” and “west.”
Many researchers are optimistic that the efforts to save dying languages will succeed, at least in part. Bruce L. Cole,
Chairman of the National Endowment for the Humanities, said, “Not only is this a time of great potential loss, it is also a
moment for enormous potential gain. In this modern age of computers and our growing technological capabilities, we
can preserve, assemble, analyze, and understand unprecedented riches of linguistic and cultural information.”
Question 221: What is the best title for this passage?
A. Similarities between Engendered Species
B. Preserving Endangered Languages
C. Linguistic Globalization
D. How Languages Die and Efforts to Revive Them
Question 222: According to the passage, which language is a dead language?
A. Irish B. English C. Hebrew D. Latin
Question 223: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that ______.
A. It is the Governments that make the right policies on language preservation.
B. No governments can preserve languages once they have disappeared.
C. Governments are more concerned with their imperialism than language preservation.
D. Governments take education as the tool to spread their languages.
Question 224: The word “revive” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. bring in B. bring back C. regain D. retain
Question 225: According to the passage, what would linguists in the DEL project like to do someday?
A. Record interviews with elderly people
B. Get funding from the government
C. Teach endangered languages to young people
D. Write a dictionary and grammar for Irish
Question 226: The word “these” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. dying languages B. traditional healers C. important leads D. new medicines
Question 227: David Lightfoot gives the example of Guguyimadjir in order to ______.
A. protest against spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages
B. describe how humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world through dead languages
C. prove that languages give us insight into different ways humans organize their world
D. show how language preservation helps traditional healers in rural areas find new medicines
Question 228: How would you describe Bruce Cole’s opinion of the DEL project?
A. He thinks that we will lose the fight to save endangered languages.
B. He believes that it isn’t worth the time and energy required to save languages.
C. He believes we can save significant amounts of information about languages.
D. He thinks that we will be able to save Guguyimadjir, the aboriginal language.
35. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 229 to 233.
We all want to live in a clean and green world and breathe pollution free air. For this kind of environment we desperately
need a fossil fuel free world. Scientists are toiling hard to come up (229)______ alternative fuels which can replace
conventional fuels. One such study was presented at the 237th National Meeting of the American Chemical Society. This
study throws interesting light on the first economical, eco-friendly process to (230)______ algae oil into biodiesel fuel.
The scientists are quite hopeful that one day America will become independent (231)______ fossil fuels. Ben Wen is the
(232)______ researcher and vice president of United Environment and Energy LLC, Horseheads, N.Y. According to
him, “This is the first economical way to produce biodiesel from algae oil. It costs much less than conventional
processes because you would need a much smaller factory, there (233)______ no water disposal costs, and the process is
considerably faster.”
Question 229: A. to B. against C. with D. for
Question 230: A. adapt B. transform C. modify D. alter
Question 231: A. on B. from C. with D. of
Question 232: A. lead B. top C. summit D. peak
Question 233: A. were B. are C. had D. have

36. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 234 to 240.
Rome is the capital of Italy. This sprawling modern city has many ancient monuments. Rome’s history goes back more
than 2,500 years. Because of its age, Rome is often called the Eternal City. Rome’s many art treasures and historic
buildings make the city an important center of European culture.
In ancient times, Rome was the center of a mighty Roman empire. The empire lasted nearly 500 years, into the ad 400s.
Roman armies conquered the lands that are now Italy, Greece, Great Britain, France, and Egypt. The Romans built many
roads from Rome to distant parts of their empire. This network of roads led to a saying that “All roads lead to Rome.”
The Roman Empire’s influence is still present. The Romans spread their language, Latin, throughout Europe. Latin is the
basis for Italian, French, Spanish, and other European languages.
The ancient Romans were great builders. Several of their buildings still stand today. They are among Rome’s famous
landmarks.The Pantheon is a temple dedicated to the many Roman gods of mythology. The Roman Colosseum is a four-
story amphitheater. An amphitheater is like a football stadium. The Colosseum is where Roman citizens once watched
gladiators fight to the death. The Roman Forum was the political center of ancient Rome. The senate building and law
courts were there, along with shops and religious buildings.
Many artists painted in Rome. The most famous of them is Michelangelo. He lived 500 years ago. Thousands of people
visit Rome each year to see his art. Visitors to the Vatican stare in wonder at the beautiful murals that Michelangelo
painted on the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel. The murals show scenes from the first book of the Bible, the Book of
Genesis.
Vatican City is the headquarters of the Roman Catholic Church. The pope lives at the Vatican. He is the head of the
Catholic Church. There are more than a billion Catholics worldwide, making Roman Catholicism the largest Christian
religion. Vatican City is an independent country within Rome. It is the smallest country in the world.
Question 234: Rome is called the Eternal City because ______.
A. it is over thousands of years old B. it is sprawling modern
C. it has many ancient monuments D. its history goes too far away
Question 235: Rome is made an important center of European culture ______.
A. by the country of Italy B. with its long history
C. by its art treasures and historic buildings D. for its many ancient monuments
Question 236: The word “mighty” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. powerful B. great C. strong D. wealthy
Question 237: The author mentions the Pantheon, the Roman Colosseum, and the Roman Forum as ______.
A. great builders B. famous landmarks C. gods of mythology D. Roman citizens
Question 238: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ______.
A. the Pantheon is a famous landmark building in modern Rome
B. Roman citizens watched gladiators fight to the death in the Colosseum
C. important political decisions were made in the Roman Forum
D. the Roman Colosseum is an amphitheater with four floors
Question 239: The word “murals” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. Bible books B. walls C. paintings D. Bible stories
Question 240: According to the passage, what is NOT true about Vatican City?
A. It is the headquarters of the Roman Catholic Church.
B. It is the largest Christian religion area in the world.
C. It is an independent country within Rome.
D. It is where the head of the Catholic Church lives.

37. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
On April 3, 1972, a man came out of the Hilton hotel in Manhattan and started walking down the street. He stopped,
(241)______ his hand with a strange object in it, put it to his ear and started to talk into it. This was the beginning of
mobile phone (242)_______, more than 30 years ago. That man was Motorola's project manager, Martin Cooper, who
was (243)______ his 34th birthday that day. The strange object was the first mobile phone, which was nicknamed "the
shoe" because of its unusual (244)_______. Mr. Cooper had gone to New York to introduce the new phone. The first call
he made was to his rival, Joe Engel at AT&T's research centre. Engel was responsible for the development of the
radiophones for cars. "I called him and said that I was talking on a real mobile phone (245)_____ I was holding in my
hand," said Cooper. "I don't remember what he said in reply, but I'm sure he wasn't happy." The quality of the call was
very good, because although New York had only one base station at that time, it was being used by only one user -
Martin Cooper.
Question 241: A. pulled B. raised C. lifted D. rose
Question 242: A. past B. times C. history D. story
Question 243: A. making B. driving C. expecting D. celebrating
Question 244: A. kind B. shape C. type D. symbol
Question 245: A. that B. when C. as D. how

38. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
Most of the early houses built in America were suited to farm life, as it was not until cities became manufacturing
centers that colonists could survive without farming as their major occupation. Among the earliest farmhouses in
America were those built in Plymouth Colony. Generally they consisted of one large rectangular room on the ground
floor, called a hall or great room and having a fireplace built into one of the walls, and a loft overhead. Sometimes a
lean-to was attached alongside the house to store objects such as spinning wheels, firewood, barrels, and tubs. The
furnishings in the great room were sparse and crudely built. Tabletops and chest boards were split or roughly sawed and
often smoothed only on one side. Benches took the place of chairs, and the table usually had a trestle base so it could be
dismantled when extra space was required. One or two beds and a six-board chest were located in one corner of the
room. The fireplace was used for heat and light, and a bench often placed nearby for children and elders, in the area
called the inglenook.
The original houses in Plymouth Colony were erected within a tall fence for fortification. However, by 1630 Plymouth
Colony had 250 inhabitants, most living outside the enclosure. By 1640, settlements had been built some distance from
the original site. Villages began to emerge throughout Massachusetts and farmhouses were less crudely built. Windows
brought light into homes and the furnishings and décor were more sophisticated.
As more diversified groups of immigrants settled the country, a greater variety of farmhouses appeared, from Swedish
long-style houses in the Delaware Valley to saltbox houses in Connecticut, Dutch-Flemish stone farmhouses in New
York, and clapboard farmhouses in Pennsylvania. From Georgian characteristics to Greek revival elements, farmhouses
of varied architectural styles and building functions populated the landscape of the new frontier.
Question 246: The main idea of the passage is
A. The history of the American farmhouse B. Where immigrants settled in America
C. How to build an American farmhouse D. life in Plymouth Colony
Question 247: Which of the following is not mentioned as part of the furnishings in farmhouses?
A. Rocking chair B. Bench C. Trestle- based table D. Six - board chest
Question 248: According to the passage the earliest farmhouses were built in
A. Delaware Valley B. Massachusetts C. Connecticut D. Pennsylvania
Question 249: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to
A. trestle base B. space C. table D. chest board
Question 250: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. the major occupation in Plymouth Colony was carpentry
B. sophisticated tools were available to the early immigrants
C. cloth was important from England
D. the extended family lived together in the farmhouse
Question 251: The passage was most probably written by a specialist in American
A. urban planning B. farming C. architecture D. immigration
Question 252: The word “emerge” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced with
A. proceed B. settle C. come out D. appear
39. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters. These hunters had tracked down one after
another of the microbes responsible for the most dreaded scourges of many centuries: tuberculosis, cholera, diphtheria.
But there remained some terrible diseases for which no microbe could be incriminated: scurvy, pellagra, rickets,
beriberi. Then it was discovered that these diseases were caused by the lack of vitamins, a trace substance in the diet.
The diseases could be prevented or cured by consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the decades of the
1920's and 1930's, nutrition became a science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters.
In the 1940's and 1950's, biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins was essential for health. They discovered
that key enzymes in metabolism depend on one or another of the vitamins as coenzymes to perform the chemistry that
provides cells with energy for growth and function. Now, these enzyme hunters occupied center stage.
You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters who are tracking genes - the
blueprints for each of the enzymes - and are discovering the defective genes that cause inherited diseases - diabetes,
cystic fibrosis. These gene hunters, or genetic engineers, use recombinant DNA technology to identify and clone genes
and introduce them into bacterial cells and plants to create factories for the massive production of hormones and
vaccines for medicine and for better crops for agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibilliondollar industry.
In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be replaced in the spotlight. When
and by whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate the scene in the last decade of our waning century and in the early
decades of the next? I wonder whether the hunters who will occupy the spotlight will be neurobiologists who apply the
techniques of the enzyme and gene hunters to the funtions of the brain. What to call them? The head hunters. I will
return to them later.
Question 253: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The microbe hunters. B. The potential of genetic engineering.
C. The progress of modern medical research. D. The discovery of enzymes.
Question 254: The word “incriminated’ in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. blamed B. eliminated C. investigated D. produced
Question 255: Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet?
A. Tuberculosis B. Cholera C. Cystique fibroses D. Pell Agra
Question 256: The word “strived” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. studied B. tried C. experimented D. failed
Question 257: How do vitamins influence health?
A. They protect the body from microbes
B. They are broken down by cells to produce energy
C. They keep food from spoiling
D. They are necessary for some enzymes to function
Question 258: The phrase “occupy the spotlight” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. go to furthest B. lighten to load
C. conquer territory D. receive the most attention
Question 259: The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the future will be
A. the functions of the brain B. inherited diseases
C. the operation of vitamins D. the structure of genes
Question 260: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. Most diseases are caused by defective genes
B. The focus of medical research will change in the next two decades.
C. Medical research throughout the twentieth century has been dominated by microbe hunters.
D. Medical breakthroughs often depend on luck.
40. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that best
fits each of the blanks.
HOLIDAYS
We've just come back exhausted after a two-week holiday in France. We were really stupid. On the last day we drove
non-stop from Marseille to Calais- we should have(261)_____ our journey in Lyon or Paris. As if that wasn't enough, the
sea was so rough in the English Channel that the (262) _____ took three hours instead of one and a half. Next year we've
decided we're going on a cheap (263) _____ holiday to Italy. It sounds marvellous- the cost of the flight, the hotel and all
our meals are (264) _____ in the price. While we're in Rome we'll be going on a guided tour of the Coliseum. The last
time I was in Italy, I was on a business trip - I can't say I saw many of the famous tourist (265) _____ on that occasion
Question 261: A. stopped B. paused C. broken D. interrupted
Question 262: A. expedition B. crossig C. cruise D. passage
Question 263: A. party B. package C. overall D. inclusive
Question 264: A. included B. involved C. contained D. combined
Question 265: A. views B. visit C. scenes D. sights

41. Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their knowledge and
experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in streaming pupils. It does not take into account the
fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright chil d. After
all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one aspect of their total
personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also
value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of
learning.
In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the opportunity to learn to
co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope with the personal problems as well as
learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from
each other as well as from the teachers.
Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes the work on individual tasks and assignments, they can do this at their
own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the
library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works;
it does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every
encouragement to attain this goal.
Question 266: The phrase "held back" in paragraph 1 means_________.
A. made to lag behind B. prevented from advancing
C. forced to study in lower classes D. made to remain in the same classes
Question 267: The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of the pupils’
_________
A. intellectual abilities B. learning ability and communicative skills
C. personal and social skills D. total personality
Question 268: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities
B. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others
C. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability
D. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers
Question 269: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to ______.
A. offer advice on the proper use of the school library
B. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class
C. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching
Question 270: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full
B. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work
C. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability class
D. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different intellectual abilities
Question 271: According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-ability teaching?
A. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class
B. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own
C. Formal class teaching is the important way to give pupils essential skills such as those to be used in the library.
D. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development
Question 272: According to the passage, “streaming pupils” ______
A. is the act of putting pupils into class according to their academic abilities
B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
C. is quite discouraging
D. will help the pupils learn best
Question 273: According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because _______
A. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems
B. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils
C. its aim at developing the children’s total personality
D. formal class teaching is appropriate
42. Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well placed for
observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest of the planets apart from Venus, though for
relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter’s less than 10 hour rotation period gives it the shortest day in the
solar system in so far as the principal planets are concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the axial
inclination to the perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 3°-less than that for any other planet.
The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red Spot. It has shown variations in both intensity and color, and at
times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest extent it may be 40,000 kilometers long
and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater than that of Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies
little, it drifts about in longitude. Over the past century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to approximately 1200°.
The latitude is generally very close to -22°. It was once thought that the Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body
floating in Jupiter’s outer gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager results have refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot
to be a phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well due to its exceptional size, but there are signs that it
is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red spots have been seen occasionally but have not
lasted.
Question 274: It can be inferred from the passage
A. a day on Earth is shorter than a day on Jupiter
B. there are other structures on Jupiter that has the same size as the Great Red Spot
C. there are times when Great Red Spot cannot be observed from the earth
D. the Great Red Spot is the only structure on Jupiter
Question 275: According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly?
A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Venus D. Mars
Question 276: According to the passage, the Great Red Spot________.
A. has different colors B. is as big as the earth
C. is a solid structure floating in the air D. has increased its size over the years
Question 277: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. Jupiter B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity D. color
Question 278: The word “exceptional” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______
A. extreme B. sustainable C. temporary D. infrequent
Question 279: According to the passge, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Jupiter is bigger than all the other planest in the solar system.
B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long.
C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally.
D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size to become other Great Red Spots.
Question 280: The passage was probably taken from________
A. an art journal B. a geology magazine
C. a high school textbook D. an archaeology book

43. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
Although the “lie detectors” are being used by governments, police departments, and businesses that all want guaranteed
ways of detecting the truth, the results are not always accurate. Lie detectors are properly called emotion detectors, for
their aim is to measure bodily changes that contradict what a person says. The polygraph machine records changes in
heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and the electrical activity of the skin (galvanic skin response, or GSR). In the first
part of the polygraph test, you are electronically connected to the machine and asked a few neutral questions (“What is
your name?”, “Where do you live?”). Your physical reactions serve as the standard (baseline) for evaluating what comes
next. Then you are asked a few critical questions among the neutral ones (“When did you rob the bank?”). The
assumption is that if you are guilty, your body will reveal the truth, even if you try to deny it. Your heart rate,
respiration, and GSR will change abruptly as you respond to the incriminating questions.
That is the theory; but psychologists have found that lie detectors are simply not reliable. Since most physical changes
are the same across all emotions, machines cannot tell whether you are feeling guilty, angry, nervous, thrilled, or revved
up form an exciting day. Innocent people may be tense and nervous about the whole procedure. They may react
physiologically to a certain word (“bank”) not because they robbed it, but because they recently bounced a check. In
either case the machine will record a “lie”. The reverse mistake is also common. Some practiced liars can lie without
flinching, and others learn to beat the machine by tensing muscles or thinking about an exciting experience during
neutral questions.
Question 281: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Lie detectors distinguish different emotions
B. Physical reaction reveal guilty
C. Lie detectors make innocent people nervous
D. How lie detectors are used and their reliability
Question 282: According to the test, polygraph ________.
A. measure a person’s thoughts B. always reveal the truth about a person
C. make guilty people angry D. record a person’s physical reactions
Question 283: According to the passage, what kind of questions is asked on the first part of the polygraph test?
A. incriminating B. critical C. emotional D. unimportant
Question 284: The word “ones” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. questions B. reactions C. standards D. evaluations
Question 285: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. the question B. your body C. the assumption D. the truth
Question 286: The word “assumption” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with _____.
A. belief B. faith C. statement D. imagining
Question 287: This passage was probably written by a specialist in _____.
A. sociology B. anthropology C. criminal psychology D. mind reading

44. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
Pollution is a threat to many species on Earth, but sometimes it can cause species to thrive. Such is the case
with Pfiesteria piscicida. A one-celled creature called a dinoflagellate, Pfiesteria inhabits warm coastal areas and river
mouths, especially along the eastern United States. Although scientists have found evidence of Pfiesteria in 3,000-year-
old sea floor sediments and dinoflagellates are thought to be one of the oldest life forms on earth, few people took notice
of Pfiesteria.
Lately, however, blooms – or huge, dense populations – of Pfiesteria are appearing in coastal waters, and in such large
concentrations the dinoflagellates become ruthless killers. The blooms emit powerful toxins that weaken and entrap fish
that swim into the area. The toxins eventually cause the fish to develop large bleeding sores through which the tiny
creatures attack, feasting on blood and flesh. Often the damage is astounding. During a 1991 fish kill, which was
blamed on Pfiesteria on North Carolina’s Neuse River, nearly one billion fish died and bulldozers had to be brought in to
clear the remains from the river. Of course, such events can have a devastating effect on commercially important fish,
but that is just one way that Pfiesteria causes problems. The toxins it emits affect human skin in much the same way as
they affect fish skin. Additionally, fisherman and others who have spent time near Pfiesteria blooms report that the
toxins seem to get into the air, where once inhaled they affect the nervous system, causing severe headaches, blurred
vision, nausea, breathing difficulty, short-term memory loss and even cognitive impairment.
For a while, it seemed that deadly Pfiesteria blooms were a threat only to North Carolina waters, but the problem seems
to be spreading. More and more, conditions along the east coast seem to be favorable for Pfiesteria. Researchers suspect
that pollutants such as animal waste from livestock operations, fertilizers washed from farmlands and waste water from
mining operations have probably all combined to promote the growth of Pfiesteria in coastal waters.
Question 288: What is true of Pfiesteria?
A. It seems to flourish in the presence of certain pollutants
B. It has been a menace to fish and humans for over 3000 years.
C. It is the oldest life form on earth
D. In large concentrations, it poses a threat to fish but not to humans.
Question 289: What is the main function of the toxins emitted by the dinoflagellates?
A. They are quick-acting poisons that kill fish within minutes.
B. They weaken the fish just long enough for the tiny creatures to attack
C. They damage the nervous system of potential predators.
D. They cause fish to develop wounds on which creatures feed.
Question 290: The word “astounding” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. continual B. incredible C. spectacular D. apprehensive
Question 291: What were bulldozers used for in the Neuse River?
A. cleaning up the sediment at the bottom of the river
B. excavating holes to bury the dead fish
C. scooping up the vast number of dead fish in the water
D. removing the huge amount of Pfiesteria from the river
Question 292: According to the paragraph 2, what will NOT happen if one breathes the toxic air?
A. vomiting B. visual impairments
C. circulatory difficulty D. terrible headaches
Question 293: What is especially worrying about Pfiesteria blooms?
A. Conditions are becoming increasingly favourable for their spread
B. They are fatal to humans who come in contact with them
C. They have devastated the fishing industry in U.S coastal waters
D. Researchers have no idea as to exactly what causes them
Question 294: All of the following are true, according to the passage, EXCEPT _____
A. Pfiesteria caused the death of about one billion fish in the late 1990s
B. animal and chemical waste from farmlands, livestock and mining operations may contribute to the expansion of
Pfiesteria
C. Pfiesteria was not commonly noticed despite scientific findings
D. the toxic subtances emitted by Pfiesteria have a similar effect on human and fish skins
Question 295: In which environment would you NOT expect a Pfiesteria bloom to develop?
A. a marsh which absorbs waste water from a nearby pig farm
B. a river located near a rock quarry
C. a cool mountain lake teeming with fish
D. a river that flows through rich farmland
45. Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the blanks
It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are. One thing you have to be
aware of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of people who would rather say something
negative than positive. If you’ve made up your (296) ______ to achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don’t let
the negative criticism of others prevent you from reaching your target, and let the constructive criticism have a positive
effect on your work. If someone says you’re totally in the (297)_______ of talent, ignore them. That’s negative criticism.
If, (298)________, someone advises you to revise your work and gives you a good reason for doing so, you should
consider their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars who were once out of work . There are many famous
novelists who made a complete mess of their first novel – or who didn’t, but had to keep on approaching hundreds of
publishers before they could get it (299)_______. Being successful does depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things
are more likely to (300)_______ well if you persevere and stay positive.
Question 296: A. thought B. mind C. idea D. brain
Question 297: A. absentee B. missing C. lack D. shortage
Question 298: A. hence B. however C. whereas D. otherwise
Question 299: A. publishes B. published C. to publish D. publish
Question 300: A. deal with B. turn out C. sail through D. come into

46. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the following questions
Simply being bilingual doesn’t qualify someone to interpret. Interpreting is not only a mechanical process of converting
one sentence in language A into the same sentence in languageb. Rather, its a complex art in which thoughts and idioms
that have no obvious counterparts from tongue to tongue _ or words that have several meanings must be quickly
transformed in such a way that the message is clearly and accurately expressed to the listener.
At one international conference, an American speaker said, “You cant make a silk purse out of a sows ear”, which
meant nothing to the Spanish audience. The interpretation was, “A monkey in a silk dress is still a monkey” _ an idiom
the Spanish understood and that expressed the same idea.
There are 2 kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive. The former, sitting in a separated booth, usually at a
large multilingual conference, speaks to listeners wearing headphones, interpreting what a foreign language speaker says
_ actually a sentence behind. Consecutive interpreters are the ones most international negotiations use. They are
employed for smaller meetings without sound booths and headphones. Consecutive interpretation also requires two-
person teams. A foreign speaker says his piece while the interpreter, using a special shorthand, takes notes and during a
pause, tells the client what was said.
Question 301: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To differentiate between simultaneous and consecutive interpreters.
B. To state the qualifications of an interpreter.
C. To point out the importance of an interpreter.
D. To explain the scope of interpreting.
Question 302: What is a difference mentioned between a simultaneous interpreter and a consecutive interpreter?
A. The size of group with whom they work. B. Their proficiency in the language.
C. The type of dictionary they use. D. The money they are paid.
Question 303: The word “converting” is closest in meaning to…
A. changing B. concluding C. understanding D. reading
Question 304: The author implies that most people have the opinion that the skill of interpreting is …..
A. very complex and demanding B. based on principles of business
C. simpler than it really is D. highly valued and admired
Question 305: The phrase “the former“ refers to…
A. simultaneous interpreters B. the conference
C. consecutive interpreters D. the booth
Question 306: The example “You cant make a silk purse out of a sows ear” is used to...
A. point out the difference in attributes of animals in English and Spanish
B. emphasize the need for translation of the meaning of what is said
C. show the differences in language A and language B
D. stress the importance of word for word translation
Question 307: The word “rather” is closest in meaning to….
A. in brief B. on the contrary C. in general D. as a result
Question 308: Which of the following would a consecutive interpreter be used for?
A. An interpretation of a major literary work.
B. A business transaction between 2 foreign speakers.
C. A large meeting of many nations.
D. A translation of a foreign book.

47. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can't find the energy to get
out of bed (309) ________ for school? According to a new report, today's generation of children are in danger of getting
so (310)_______ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at (311)_______. Adults can easily survive
on seven to eight hours' sleep a night, (312)_______teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts,
one in five youngsters (313)________ anything between two and five hours' sleep a night less than their parents did at
their age.
By Tim Falla and Paul A.Davies, Solutions Advanced. OUP
Question 309: A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at time
Question 310: A. few B. less C. much D. little
Question 311: A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger
Question 312: A. or B. because C. whereas D. so
Question 313: A. puts B. gets C. brings D. makes
48. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the following questions
Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours. There are two very different types of
flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways. The skates and rays, relatives of the sharks have become flat in
what might be called the obvious way. Their bodies have grown out sideways to form great “wings” They look as though
they have been flattened but have remained symmetrical and “the right way up”. Conversely fish such as plaice, sole,
and halibut have become flat in a different way. There are bony fish which have a marked tendency to be flattened in a
vertical direction; they are much “taller” than they are wide. They use their whole vertically flattened bodies as
swimming surfaces, which undulate through the water as they move. Therefore when * their ancestors migrated to the
seabed, they lay on one side than on their bellies. However, this raises the problem that one eye was always looking
down into the sand and was effectively useless - In evolution this problem was solved by the lower eye “moving” around
the other side. We see this process of moving around enacted in the development of every young bony flatfish. It starts
life swimming near the surface, and is symmetrical and vertically flattened, but then the skull starts to grow in a strange
asymmetrical twisted fashion, so that one eye for instance the left, moves over the top of the head upwards, an old
Picasso - like vision. Incidentally, some species of 20 flatfish settle on the right side, others on the left, and others on
either side.
Question 314: The passage is mainly concerned with:
A. symmetrical flatfish B. bony flatfish
C. evolution of flatfish D. different types of flatfish
Question 315: The author mentions skates and rays as examples of fish that ____
A. become asymmetrical B. appear to fly
C. have spread horizontally D. resemble sharks
Question 316: It can be inferred from the passage that the early life of a flatfish is_____
A. often confusing B. pretty normal C. very difficult D. full of danger
Question 317: It can be inferred from the passage that horizontal symmetrical fish _____
A. have one eye each side of the head B. have one eye underneath the head
C. have two eyes on top of the head D. have eyes that move around the head
Question 318: The word “conversely” is closest in meaning to:
A. Similarly B. Alternatively C. Inversely D. Contrarily
Question 319: The word “this” refers to_____
A. the migration of the ancestors
B. the practice of lying on one side
C. the problem of the one eye looking downwards
D. the difficulty of the only one eye being useful
Question 320: According to the passage, the ability of a bony flatfish to move its eyes around is______
A. average B. weak C. excellent D. variable

49. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 321 to 325.
My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store. I wanted to work part-time, because I was still studying at
university and I was only able to work a few nights a week.
I came across the advertisement in the local newspaper. I remember the interview as though it were yesterday. The
(321) ________ manager sat behind a large desk. He asked me various questions which surprised me because all I
wanted was to work in sales. An hours later, I was told that I had got the job and was given a contract to go over. I was
to be trained for ten days before I took my post. Also, as a member of staff, I was (322) ______ to some benefits,
including discounts.
When I eventually started, I was responsible (323) _______ the toy section. I really enjoyed it there and I loved
demonstrating the different toys. I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too. They made working there fun
even when we had to deal with customers (324) ______ got on our nerves. (325) _______, working there was a great
experience which I will never forget.
Question 321: A. personal B. personable C. personage D. personnel
Question 322 A. catered B. given C. entitled D. supplied
Question 323: A. for B. with C. in D. to
Question 324: A. which B. why C. when D. who
Question 325: A. In contrast B. However C. Moreover D. On the whole

50. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many
countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of
communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worrie d. Some doctors are
concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there
has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such
ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs
of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling
salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would
often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of
his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't
agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very
small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say
the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular
phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be
very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says
they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
Question 326: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. doctors B. ideas C. professionals D. companies
Question 327: The phrase “negative publicity” in paragraph 2 most likely means _______.
A. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones
B. information on the lethal effects of cellphones
C. the negative public use of cellphones
D. widespread opinion about bad effect of cellphones
Question 328: According to the passage, cellphones are very popular with young people because _______.
A. they make them look more stylish
B. they are worrying
C. they are a means of communication
D. they are considered unusual
Question 329: What could be the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Technological Innovations and Their Price
B. The Way Mobile Phones Work
C. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time
D. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular
Question 330: The word “potentially” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _______.
A. possibly B. privately C. obviously D. certainly
Question 331: According to the passage, people should _______.
A. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
B. never use mobile phones in all cases
C. only use mobile phone in urgent cases
D. keep off mobile phones regularly
Question 332: According to paragraph 3, the salesman _______.
A. couldn’t remember his name B. blamed his doctor
C. had a problem with memory D. had to retire because of his age

51. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the question.
TRAVELING TO WORK
If you were going to choose a job that involves travel, what would be your first choice? There are many jobs available
today that give people opportunities to travel. Although may traveling careers sound fantastic, they also have
disadvantages.
 Being an au pair is an excellent way to not only go to different countries, but to live in different places around
the world and really get a feel for the culture. Au pairs lives with the families they are placed with and take of
children. Many parents include au pairs in family events and vacations, so they experience many aspects of the
new culture while on the job. However, many of the activities are centered around the children, so they may not
get to experience many things that interest adults.
 For people who want a bit more freedom working abroad, being an English teacher maybe a good choice. There
are English teaching jobs in almost countries in the world. People teaching English in other countries often have
a chance to travel on the weekends around the country. One drawback is that many teachers often wind up
hanging out with other English teachers, and they don’t have time to learn the country’s language.
 The nickname “roadie” implies that this job involves life on the road. Roadies are people who work and travel
with bands and provide technical support. Roadies can be lighting and stage crew who set up the stage and break
it down before and after events. They can also be technicians helping band members with their instruments.
International tours take a band’s crew to cities around the world, often requiring air travel. However, the crew
doesn’t get much time off, so they may travel to several countries without seeing much besides concert venues
and hotels.
 Similarly, flight attendants often travel to cities around the world, but they don’t see much besides the inside of
airplanes and hotels. However, when they do have time off, they can often fly at no cost, and family member can
sometimes fly free as well. Its is widely thought that a flight attendant job is glamorous, but flight attendants
must deal with travel hassles, as well as security issues.
 All jobs gave advantages and disadvantages whether or not you travel for work, so if you have the travel bug,
keep these jobs in mind for the future.
Question 333: Which of the following is a disadvantage of the job as an au pair?
A. experience many interesting things B. live in different places around the world
C. experience many aspects of the new culture D. most activities are centered around children
Question 324: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Jobs with opportunities to travel B. Disadvantages of travelling jobs
C. Travelling to and from work D. Jobs involving traveling by planes
Question 335: The word “glamorous” in paragraph 5 is closet in meaning to _______.
A. skilled B. attractive C. permanent D. challenging
Question 336: How is a flight attendant’s job similar to a roadie’s?
A. Family members may not have to pay for flights
B. They must deal with travel hassles.
C. A lot of time is spent indoors.
D. They provide technical support.
Question 337: The word “venue” in paragraph 4 is closet meaning to _______?
A. performances B. places C. tours D. artists
Question 338: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _______?
A. people B. opportunities C. careers D. disadvantages
Question 339: Which of the following is something a roadie might do?
A. set up the lights for a performance
B. play the guitar in front of a large audience
C. clean hotel rooms after the ban and crew have left
D. work on the road
Question 340: It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. travelling careers have more disadvantages than many other
B. English teachers abroad don’t know the language of the country where they work
C. it’s essential that the job you choose have more benefits than drawbacks
D. people who want to travel are more likely to get a job

52. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
A considerable body of research has demonstrated a correlation between birth order and aspects such as temperament
and behavior, and some psychologists believe that birth order significantly affects the development of personality.
Psychologist Alfred Adler was a pioneer in the study of the relationship between birth order and personality. A key point
in his research and in the hypothesis that he developed based on it was that it was not the actual numerical birth position
that affected personality; instead, it was the similar responses in large numbers of families to children in specific birth
order positions that had an effect. For example, first-borns, who have their parents to themselves initially and do not
have to deal with siblings in the first part of their lives, tend to have their first socialization experiences with adults and
therefore tend to find the process of peer socialization more difficult. In contrast, later-born children have to deal with
siblings from the first moment of their lives and therefore tend to have stronger socialization skills.
Numerous studies since Adler’s have been conducted on the effect of birth order and personality. These studies have
tended to classify birth order types into four different categories: first-born, second-born and/or middle, last, and only
child.
Studies have consistently shown that first-born children tend to exhibit similar, positive and negative personality traits.
First-borns have consistently been linked with academic achievement in various studies; in one study, the number of
National Merit scholarship winners who are first-borns was found to be equal to the number of second-and third-borns
combined. First-borns have been found to be more responsible and assertive than those born in other birth-order
positions and tend to rise to positions of leadership more often than others; more first-borns have served in the U.S.
Congress and as U.S. presidents than have those born in other birth-orderpositions. However, studies have shown that
first-borns tend to be more subject to stress and were considered problem children more often than later-borns.
Second-born and/or middle children demonstrate markedly different tendencies from first-borns. They tend to feel
inferior to the older child or children because it is difficult for them to comprehend that their lower level of achievement
is a function of age rather than ability, and they often try to succeed in areas other than those in which their older sibling
or siblings excel. They tend to be more trusting, accepting, and focused on others than the more self-centered first-
borns, and they tend to have a comparatively higher level of success in team sports than do first-borns or only children,
who more often excel in individual sports.
The last-born child is the one who tends to be the eternal baby of the family and thus often exhibits a strong sense of
security. Last-borns collectively achieve the highest degree of social success and demonstrate the highest levels of self-
esteem of all the birth-order positions. They often exhibit less competitiveness than older brothers and sisters and are
more likely to take part in less competitive group games or in social organizations such as sororities and fraternities.
Only children tend to exhibit some of the main characteristics of first-borns and some of the characteristics of last-borns.
Only children tend to exhibit the strong sense of security and self-esteem exhibited by last-borns while, like first-borns,
they are more achievement oriented and more likely than middle-or last-borns to achieve academic success. However,
only children tend to have the most problems establishing close relationships and exhibit a lower need for affiliation than
other children.
Question 341: The word “body” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by________.
A. amount B. organization C. corpse D. skeleton
Question 342: The word “key” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by________.
A. secret B. studied C. significant D. locked
Question 343: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to________.
A. component B. research C. hypothesis D. personality
Question 344: What is stated in paragraph 1 about Adler?
A. He had found that the responses by family members had little to do with personality.
B. He believed that it was the actual birth order that affected personality.
C. He was one of the first to study the effect of birth order on personality.
D. He was the only one to study birth order.
Question 345: Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the italic sentence in paragraph 3?
Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Because first-borns tend to be very assertive, they are uncomfortable serving in government positions.
B. Several examples support the idea that first-borns have characteristics that make them leaders.
C. An interesting fact that is difficult to explain is that many first-borns have served in high government positions.
D. In spite of certain characteristics that first-borns possess, many of them become leaders.
Question 346: The word “accepting” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to________.
A. respectable B. affectionate C. admissible D. tolerant
Question 347: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Middle children tend to have a preference for team sports.
B. First-borns tend to do well in individual sports.
C. Only children tend to prefer individual over team sports.
D. Last-borns tend to prefer games with fierce competition.
Question 348: The phrase “more achievement oriented” in the paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. more skilled as leaders
B. more aware of surroundings
C. more directly involved
D. more focused on accomplishments
53. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
An important point to remember if you like spending time out in the open air is that the human head doesn’t work very
well outdoors if it becomes too hot, cold or wet. That’s why a hat is a good investment, whenever you are planning to go
out and about. Surprisingly, a single waterproof hat with a brim will do the (349)______ adequately in most conditions.
In cold climates, the problem is that the head is (350)______ heat all the time. As much as fifty to sixty per cent of your
body’s heat is lost through the head and neck, (351)______ on which scientist you believe. Clearly this heat loss needs to
be prevented, but it’s important to remember that hats don’t actually keep you warm, they simply stop heat escaping.
Just as important is the need to protect your neck from the effects of bright sunlight, and the brim of your hat will do
this. If you prefer a baseball cap, (352)______ buying one that has a drop down ‘tail’ at the back to stop your neck
getting sunburnt.
And in wet weather (353)______, hats are often more practical than pooling up the hood of your waterproof coat
because when you turn your head, the hat goes with you, whereas the hood usually does not.
Question 349: A. role B. duty C. job D. task
Question 350: A. giving away B. sending out C. running down D. dropping off
Question 351: A. regarding B. relating C. depending D. according
Question 352: A. advise B. suggest C. recommend D. consider
Question 353: A. conditions B. cases C. occasions D. positions

54. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
Certainly no creature in the sea is odder than the common sea cucumber. All living creature, especially human beings,
have their peculiarities, but everything about the little sea cucumber seems unusual. What else can be said about a
bizarre animal that, among other eccentricities, eats mud, feeds almost continuously day and night but can live without
eating for long periods, and can be poisonous but is considered supremely edible by gourmets?
For some fifty million years, despite all its eccentricities, the sea cucumber has subsisted on its diet of mud. It is
adaptable enough to live attached to rocks by its tube feet, under rocks in shallow water, or on the surface of mud flats.
Common in cool water on both Atlantic and Pacific shores, it has the ability to such up mud or sand and digest whatever
nutrients are present.
Sea cucumbers come in a variety of colors, ranging from black to reddish-brown to sand-color and nearly white. One
form even has vivid purple tentacle. Usually the creatures are cucumber-shaped-hence their name-and because they are
typically rock inhabitants, this shape, combine with flexibility, enables them to squeeze into crevices where they are safe
from predators and ocean currents.
Although they have voracious appetites, eating day and night, sea cucumbers have the capacity to become quiescent and
live at a low metabolic rate-feeding sparingly or not at all for long periods, so that the marine organisms that provide
their food have a chance to multiply. If it were not for this faculty, they would devour all the food available in a short
time and would probably starve themselves out of existence.
But the most spectacular thing about the sea cucumber is the way it defends itself. Its major enemies are fish and crabs,
when attacked, it squirts all its internal organs into the water. It also casts off attached structures such as tentacles. The
sea cucumber will eviscerate and regenerate itself if it is attached or even touched; it will do the same if the surrounding
water temperature is too high or if the water becomes too polluted.
Question 354: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Places where the sea cucumber can be found
B. The reason for the sea cucumber’s name
C. How to identify the sea cucumber
D. What makes the sea cucumber unusual
Question 355: The word “bizarre” is closest meaning to
A. rare B. simple C. marine D. odd
Question 356: The fourth paragraph of the passage primarily discusses
A. the eating habits of sea cucumbers
B. the food sources of sea cucumbers
C. the reproduction of sea cucumbers
D. threats to sea cucumbers’ existence
Question 357: According to the passage, why is the shape of sea cucumbers important?
A. It makes them attractive to fish
B. It helps them to protect themselves from danger.
C. It helps them to digest their food.
D. It makes it easier for them to move through the mud.
Question 358: The phrase “casts off” is closest in meaning to
A. gets rid of B. grows again C. grabs D. uses as a weapon
Question 359: The words “this faculty” refers to the sea cucumber’s ability to
A. live at a low metabolic rate
B. squeeze into crevices
C. devour all available food in a short time
D. suck up mud or sand
Question 360: What can be inferred about the defense mechanisms of the sea cucumber?
A. They are very sensitive to surrounding stimuli.
B. They are almost useless.
C. They are similar to those of most sea creatures.
D. They require group cooperation.

55. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
Thunderstorms, with their jagged bursts of lightning and roaring thunder, are actually one of nature’s primary
mechanisms for transferring heat from the surface of the earth into the atmosphere. A thunderstorm starts when low-
lying pockets of warm air from the surface of the earth begin to rise. The pockets of warm air float upward through the
air above that is both cooler and heavier. The rising pockets cool as their pressure decreases, and their latent heat is
released above the condensation line through the formation of cumulus clouds.
What will happen with these clouds depends on the temperature of the atmosphere. In winter, the air temperature
differential between higher and lower altitudes is not extremely great, and the temperature of the rising air mass drops
more slowly. During these colder months, the atmosphere, therefore, tends to remain rather stable. In summer, however,
when there is a high accumulation of heat near the earth’s surface, in direct contrast to the considerably colder air higher
up, the temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes is much more pronounced. As warm air rises in this
type of environment, the temperature drops much more rapidly than it does in winter; when the temperature drops more
than 4 degrees Fahrenheit per thousand feet of altitude, cumulus clouds aggregate into a single massive cumulonimbus
cloud, or thunderhead.
In isolation, a single thunderstorm is an impressive but fairly benign way for Mother Earth to defuse trapped heat from
her surface; thunderstorms, however, can appear in concert, and the resulting show, while extremely impressive, can
also prove extraordinarily destructive. When there is a large-scale collision between cold air and warm air masses during
the summer months, a squall line, or series of thunderheads, may develop. It is common for a squall line to begin when
an advancing cold front meets up with and forces itself under a layer of warm and moist air, creating a line of
thunderstorms that races forward at speeds of approximately forty miles per hour. A squall line, which can be hundreds
of miles long and can contain fifty distinct thunderheads, is a magnificent force of nature with incredible potential for
destruction. Within the squall line, often near its
southern end, can be found supercells, long-lived rotating storms of exceptional strength that serve as the source of
tornadoes.
Question 361: The topic of the passage is ________.
A. the development of thunderstorms and squall lines
B. the devastating effects of tornadoes
C. cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds
D. the power of tornadoes
Question 362: The word “mechanisms” in paragraph 1 is most likely ________.
A. machines B. motions C. methods D. materials
Question 363: It can be inferred from the passage that, in summer, ________.
A. there is not a great temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes
B. the greater temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes makes thunderstorms more likely to occur
C. there is not much cold air higher up in the atmosphere
D. the temperature of rising air drops more slowly than it does in winter
Question 364: The word “benign” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. harmless B. beneficial C. ferocious D. spectacular
Question 365: The expression “in concert” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ________.
A. as a chorus B. with other musicians
C. as a cluster D. in a performance
Question 366: The word “itself” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.
A. a large-scale collision B. a squall line
C. an advancing cold front D. a layer of warm and moist air
Question 367: All of the following are mentioned in the passage about supercells EXCEPT that they ________.
A. are of short duration B. have circling winds
C. have extraordinary power D. can give birth to tornadoes
Question 368: This reading would most probably be assigned in which of the following courses?
A. Geography B. Meteorology C. Marine Biology D. Chemistry

56. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking and
salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited;
there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-
and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing
and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained
low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines
that mass-produced cans from tinplate.
Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban
population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars
enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by
the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously
available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to
store perishables. As easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation
had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in
most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavily in
starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of
previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
Question 369: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
D. Population movements in nineteenth century
Question 370: The phrase “in season” in paragraph 1 refers to
A. a kind of weather B. a particular time of year
C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food
Question 371: The word “prevent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. estimate B. avoid C. correct D. confine
Question 372: During the 1860’s, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas B. shipped in refrigerator cans
C. available in limited quantities D. a staple part of the American diet
Question 373: It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920
Question 374: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. refrigerator cars B. perishables C. growers D. distances
Question 375: The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice
A. decreased in number B. were on an irregular schedule
C. increased in cost D. occurred only in the summer

57. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s)
to each of the questions
Last year, there were millions of international tourist arrivals across the globe. Whether they were students on their
(376)______ years looking for overseas adventure, stressed-out workers hoping to get away for a weekend, or retirees
(377)______ to relax in an exotic location- clearly none of them thought they could find the same experience at home.
The question is whether foreign travel brings more advantages or disadvantages.
An obvious positive point is that going abroad sometimes helps people to expand their knowledge of the world. If they
are (378)_____ - minded, they can learn about new cultures and hopefully gain a more accurate understanding about
their way of life. In addition, there is the economic benefit of tourism to countries which have few other resources. It can
provide an income to many people within the industry.
Having said that, some people simply go to a foreign resort (379)______ by high walls and therefore learn little about
their holiday (380)______. Another issue is that hordes of tourists often spoil the “unspoilt” places they visit. The most
recent example of this is Antarctica, where last year cruise ships took thousands of visitors to view the disappearing
icebergs and wildlife. Vegetation, nesting penguins and resting walrus are vulnerable
when humans intrude.
Question 376: A. space B. break C. pause D. gap
Question 377: A. wish B. wished C. wishing D. to wish
Question 378: A. open B. narrow C. absent D. single
Question 379: A. covered B. surrounded C. sheltered D. stopped
Question 380: A. direction B. destination C. departure D. situation

58. Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions
Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein. His theories of
relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and gravity. Einstein's work led to such
scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as a practical application of Einstein's work.
In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he published the first of five
major research papers. The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of
microscopic particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In
it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the
properties of particles and some of the properties of waves. A third paper contained the "special theory of relativity"
which showed that time and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are
the same everywhere in the universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity.
Here Einstein presented his famous formula, E = m(cc), known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein
published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the space-time
continuum, created by the presence of mass.
Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He opposed war and
violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in Palestine. When the Nazis came to
power in 1933, they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German
chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein wrote to President Franklind. Roosevelt warning him that this scientific
knowledge could lead to Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic
bomb research.
Question 381: According to the passage l, Einstein's primary work was in the area of
A. chemistry B. biology C. physics D. math
Question 382: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of Einstein's
discoveries?
A. Radio B. Television C. Automobiles D. Computer
Question 383: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except
A. nationalism
B. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine
C. atomic bomb research in the United States.
D. the defeat of the Nazis.
Question 384: According to the passage in which country did Einstein live in 1930s?
A. Switzerland B. the United States C. Germany D. Israel
Question 385: The word “exalting” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. criticism B. elimination C. support D. elevation
Question 386: It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels
A. Einstein's work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views.
B. Einstein's work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical applications.
C. Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history.
D. Einstein's theories have been consistently proven incorrect.
Question 387: According to Einstein, light is composed of separate packets of energy called
A. electrons B. photoelectrons C. gamma rays D. quanta

59. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best first each of the numbered blanks
Humans are destroying the earth’s tropical rain forests. About 80,000 square kilometers are being destroyed every year.
About a quarter of the (388)_____ comes from people cutting trees for fuel. Another quarter is to make grassland for
their cattle. The (389)______ trees are cut down to sell the wood to start farms.
The population in cities all over the world is growing, and more and more wood is needed to build huge new buildings.
For example, 5,000 trees from Sarawak rain forest in Malaysia were used to build just one tall building. (390)_______
people continue cutting down that many trees in Sarawak rain forest, all the trees could be gone in eight years.
The world needs more food, and it (391)______ like a good idea to clear the rain forests and use the land for agriculture.
Many people think that the land under these huge, thick forests must be in rich nutrients, but it isn't. This is another
surprising thing about rain forests. Most of the land in tropical rain forest is very (392)________.
Question 388: A. destruction B. destroying C. destroy D. destructive
Question 389: A. staying B. remaining C. standing D. dwelling
Question 390: A. Unless B. If C. While D. Although
Question 391: A. seems B. looks C. tastes D. sounds
Question 392: A. short B. poor C. unfortunate D. ill

60. Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions
Garbage cans are not magical portals. Trash does not disappear when you toss it in a can. Yet, the average American
throws away an estimated 1,600 pounds of waste each year. If there are no magic garbage fairies, where does all that
trash go? There are four methods to managing waste: recycling, landfilling, composting, and incinerating. Each method
has its strengths and weaknesses. Let's take a quick look at each.
Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be turned into paperboard,
which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution, save materials, and lower energy use. Yet,
some argue that recycling wastes energy. They believe that collecting, processing, and converting waste uses more
energy than it saves. Still, most people agree that recycling is better for the planet
than landfilling.
Landfilling is the oldest method of managing waste. In its simplest form, landfilling is when people bury garbage in a
hole. Over time the practice of landfilling has advanced. Garbage is compacted before it is thrown into the hole. In this
way more garbage can fit in each landfill. Large liners are placed in the bottom of landfills so that toxic garbage juice
doesn't get into the ground water. Sadly, these liners don't always work. Landfills may pollute the local water supply.
Not to mention that all of that garbage stinks. Nobody wants to live next to a landfill. This makes it hard to find new
locations for landfills.
Compositing is when people pile up organic matter, such as food waste, and allow it to decompose. The product of this
decomposition is compost. Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil richer and better for growing crops. While
composting is easy to do onsite somewhere, like home or school, it's hard to do after the garbage gets all mixed up. This
is because plastic and other inorganic materials must be removed from the compost pile or they will pollute the soil.
There's a lot of plastic in garbage, which makes it hard to compost on a large scale.
One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to incinerate waste. The first is to create or
harvest a fuel from the waste, such as methane gas, and burn the fuel. The second is to burn the waste directly. The heat
from the incineration process can boil water, which can power steam generators. Unfortunately, burning garbage
pollutes the air. Also, some critics worry that incinerators destroy valuable resources that could be recycled.
Usually, the community in which you live manages waste. Once you put your garbage in that can, what happens to it is
beyond your control. But you can make choices while it is still in your possession. You can choose to recycle, you can
choose to compost, or you can choose to let someone else deal with it. The choice is yours.
Question 393: Which of the following serves as the best title for this passage?
A. The Magic of Recycling: Bringing Back What Was Once Lost
B. Recycling, Landfilling or Composing: Which is Best for You?
C. Do Your Part How to Save the Earth by Recycling and Composting.
D. Methods of Waste Management: Advantages and Disadvantages
Question 394: According to the passage all of the following are mentioned as an issue with landfilling EXCEPT that
A. landfills are smelly
B. landfills may pollute the water supply
C. it is difficult to find locations for landfills
D. usable materials are wasted in landfills
Question 395: What does the word “stinks” in paragraph 3 mean?
A. smells unpleasant B. seems dirty C. looks attractive D. feels soft
Question 396: Which of the following best explains why composting is not feasible on a large scale?
A. People wouldn't want to touch all of that gross rotting food.
B. Plastic would get into the compost and turn it into a pollutant.
C. It would smell too bad in densely populated cities.
D. It would attract rodents that would spread disease.
Question 397: According to the passage which of the following best defines “incineration”?
A. buying waste materials in a large hole
B. allowing waste products to decompose and become fertilizer
C. turning waste materials into products like book covers
D. burning waste materials and harvesting the energy
Question 398: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to
A. community B. garbage C. waste D. possession
Question 399: According to the passage how many main ways to incinerate waste?
A. one B. three C. two D. four
Question 400: Which conclusion could be drawn from the passage?
A. Recycling is without a doubt the best way to handle waste.
B. Each method of waste management has its drawbacks.
C. Incineration is the best way to process waste.
D. All large cities should create massive compost piles.

61. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert
animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to
absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass
their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating
effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North
American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running
and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely
nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated.
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of
their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and
Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning
hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-
baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 401: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT
A. they are watchful and quiet B. they sleep during the day
C. they dig home underground D. they are noisy and aggressive
Question 402: We can infer from the passage that
A. healthy animals live longer lives B. living things adjust to their environment
C. desert life is colorful and diverse D. water is the basis of desert life
Question 403: According to the passage, creatures in the desert
A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
C. live in an accommodating environment
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
Question 404: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT
A. moist-skinned animals B. many large animals
C. water-loving animals D. the coyote and the bobcat
Question 405: The word “them” means
A. animals B. minutes C. people D. water
Question 406: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means
A. wild B. unmanageable C. cunning D. unhealthy
Question 407: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as
A. water is an essential part of his existence
B. very few large animals are found in the desert
C. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
D. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
Question 408: The title for this passage could be
A. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment” B. “Desert Plants”
C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Life Underground”

62. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 409 to 413.
TATTOOING: AN ANCIENT TRADITION
Tattooing is an old art. In ancient Greece, people who had tattoos were regarded as members of the upper classes. On the
other hand, tattooing was (409) __________ in Europe by the early Christians, who thought that it was a sinful thing to
do. It was not until the late 18th century, when Captain Cook saw South Sea Islander decorating their bodies with tattoos
that attitudes began to change. Sailors came back from these islands with
pictures of Christ on their backs and from then on, tattooing (410)__________ in popularity. A survey by the French
army in 1881 showed that among the 387 men (411) __________there were 1,333 designs.
Nowadays, not everybody finds tattoos acceptable. Some people thing that getting one is silly because tattoos are more
or less permanent. There is also some (412) __________ about catching a blood disease from unsterilized needles. Even
for those who do want a tattoo, the process of getting one is not painless, but the final result, in their eyes, is (413 )
__________ the pain.
Question 409: A. exported B. finished C. banned D. blamed
Question 410: A. gained B. won C. earned D. made
Question 411: A. inquired B. questioned C. spoken D. demanded
Question 412: A. trouble B. danger C. concern D. threat
Question 413: A. worth B. owed C. due D. deserved

63. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It is common to think of
learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning occurs outside the classroom, and people
continue to learn throughout their lives.
Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to manipulate toys, food, and
other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They
learn how to interact with their parents, siblings, friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter
school, children learn basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a
great deal outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to be
punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish school, people must learn to adapt
to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job.
Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of learning is important
in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate children. Psychologists, social workers,
criminologists, and other human-service workers need to understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors.
Employers, politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of workers,
voters, and consumers.
Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain. Psychologists who study memory
are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and how the brain later retrieves
knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior and how
behavior changes as a result of a person’s experiences.
There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a single stimulus.
A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning
known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as lightning followed
by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its consequences
(reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation - that is, by watching others perform
behaviors. More complex forms of learning include learning languages, concepts, and motor skills.
(Extracted from Microsoft® Student 2009 – DVD Version)
Question 414: Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in paragraph 2 as
examples of ______.
A. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves
B. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education
C. the changes to which people have to orient themselves
D. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives
Question 415: According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of?
A. Acquisition of social and behavioural skills
B. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom
C. Acquisition of academic knowledge
D. Knowledge acquisition and ability development
Question 416: According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom?
A. literacy and calculation B. right from wrong
C. life skills D. interpersonal communication
Question 417: The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. practical examples of learning inside the classroom
B. simple forms of learning
C. application of learning principles to formal education
D. general principles of learning
Question 418: It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians concern themselves
with the study of learning because they need to ______.
A. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning
B. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest
C. thoroughly understand the behaviours of the objects of their interest
D. change the behaviours of the objects of their interest towards learning
Question 419: According to the passage, the study of learning is important in many fields due to ______.
A. the need for certain experiences in various areas
B. the exploration of the best teaching methods
C. the influence of various behaviours in the learning process
D. the great influence of the on-going learning process
Question 420: The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. recovers B. creates C. generates D. gains

64. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 421 to 427.
Duncan Phyfe made some of the most beautiful furniture found in America. His family name was originally Fife, and he
was born in Scotland in 1768. In 1784, the Fife family immigrated to Albany, New York where Duncan’s father opened
a cabinetmaking shop. Duncan followed his father’s footsteps and was apprenticed to a cabinetmaker. After completing
his training, Duncan moved to New York City.
Duncan Fife was first mentioned in the 1792 NYC Directory as a furniture “joiner” in business at 2 Broad Street. Two
years later, he moved, expanded his business, and changed his name to Phyfe. He was a quiet-living, God-fearing young
man who felt his new name would probably appeal to potential customers who were definitely anti-British in this post-
Revolutionary War period.
Duncan Phyfe’s name distinguished him from his contemporaries. Although the new spelling helped him better compete
with French emigrant craftsmen, his new name had more to do with hanging it on a sign over his door stoop.
The artisans and merchants who came to America discovered a unique kind of freedom. They were no longer restricted
by class and guild traditions of Europe. For the first time in history, a man learned that by working hard, he could build
his business based on his own name and reputation and quality of work.
Phyfe’s workshop apparently took off immediately. At the peak of his success, Phyfe employed 100 craftsmen. Some
economic historians point to Phyfe as having employed division of labor and an assembly line. What his workshop
produced shows Phyfe’s absolute dedication to quality in workmanship. Each piece of furniture was made of the best
available materials. He was reported to have paid $1,000 for a single Santo Domingo mahogany log.
Phyfe did not create new designs. Rather, he borrowed from a broad range of the period’s classical styles, Empire,
Sheraton, Regency, and French Classical among them. Nevertheless, Phyfe’s high quality craftsmanship established him
as America’s patriotic interpreter of European design in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries.
Although the number of pieces produced by Duncan Phyfe’s workshop is enormous, comparatively few marked or
labeled pieces have been found extant. In antiques shops and auctions, collectors have paid $11,000 for a card table,
$24,200 for a tea table, and $93,500 for a sewing table.
Question 421: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The business of cabinetmaking. B. The significance of Duncan Phyfe’s name.
C. Duncan Phyfe’s life and career. D. Duncan Phyfe’s cabinetmaking designs.
Question 422: According to the passage, which of the following does the author imply?
A. Duncan Fife and his father had the same first name.
B. Duncan Fife worked for his father in Scotland.
C. Duncan Fife and his father were in the same business.
D. Duncan Phyfe made over 100 different kinds of tables.
Question 423: Which choice does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. His spelling B. His chair C. His French D. His name
Question 424: Which choice is closest in meaning to the word “guild” in paragraph 4?
A. Verdict of a jury B. Organization of craftsmen
C. Political party of emigrants D. Immigrants’ club
Question 425: In his business, Duncan Phyfe used all of the following EXCEPT________.
A. division of labor B. an assembly line
C. continental designs D. the least expensive materials
Question 426: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe’s death?
A. He died in the eighteenth century. B. He died in Albany.
C. He died in the nineteenth century. D. He died in Scotland.
Question 427: The author implies that________.
A. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop no longer exists.
B. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop costs a lot of money today.
C. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was ignored by New Yorkers.
D. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was made by his father.

65. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 428 to 432.
A rainbow is an optical display of color that usually appears in the sky when a beam of sunlight refracts through
millions of raindrops. Each (428)________ color from the spectrum is then sent to your eyes. For this to happen, the
angle between the ray of light, the raindrop and the human eye must be between 40 and 42 degrees.
After studying rainbows in (429)________, Sir Isaac Newton was able to explain how they are formed. However, he
was color blind, so he had to rely on the eyes of his assistant, who could easily (430)________all the seven colors: red,
orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet. His assistant could also clearly tell the difference between indigo and
violet.
There are two types of rainbows. Primary rainbows are the most common and have the most distinctive colors, with red
appearing on the outside of the arc and violet on the inside. Secondary rainbows are unusual because the light is reflected
twice within the raindrop before it (431)________ a rainbow, so the colors are in reverse order and not as bright as
primary rainbows.
There is a popular myth that if you reach the end of a rainbow, you will find a pot of gold waiting for you. In fact, it is
impossible to do this, because a rainbow has no end - as you go towards the point where the rainbow seems to touch the
ground, it moves away from you as quickly as you (432)________.
Question 428: A. single B. divided C. detached D. separate
Question 429: A. depth B. width C. breadth D. length
Question 430: A. realize B. discover C. understand D. recognize
Question 431: A. forms B. grows C. develops D. shapes
Question 432: A. progress B. arrive C. get D. approach
66. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 433 to 440.
After the United States purchased Louisiana from France and made it their newest territory in 1803, President Thomas
Jefferson called for an expedition to investigate the land the United States had bought for $15 million. Jefferson’s
secretary, Meriwether Lewis, a woodsman and a hunter from childhood, persuaded the president to let him lead this
expedition. Lewis recruited Army officer William Clark to be his co-commander. The Lewis and Clark expedition led
the two young explorers to discover a new natural wealth of variety and abundance about which they would return to tell
the world.
When Lewis and Clark departed from St. Louis in 1804, they had twenty-nine in their party, including a few Frenchmen
and several men from Kentucky who were well-known frontiersmen. Along the way, they picked up an interpreter
named Toussant Charbonneau and his Native American wife, Sacajawea, the Shoshoni “Bird Woman” who aided them
as guide and peacemaker and later became an American legend.
The expedition followed the Missouri River to its source, made a long portage overland though the Rocky Mountains,
and descended the Columbia River to the Pacific Ocean. On the journey, they encountered peaceful Otos, whom they
befriended, and hostile Teton Sioux, who demanded tribute from all traders. They also met Shoshoni, who welcomed
their little sister Sacajawea, who had been abducted as a child by the Mandans. They discovered a paradise full of giant
buffalo herds and elk and antelope so innocent of human contact that they tamely approached the men. The explorers
also found a hell blighted by mosquitoes and winters harsher than anyone could reasonably hope to survive. They
became desperately lost, then found their way again. Lewis and Clark kept detailed journals of the expedition, cataloging
a dazzling array of new plants and animals, and even unearthing the bones of a forty-five-foot dinosaur.
When the party returned to St. Louis in 1806 after travelling almost 8,000 miles, they were eagerly greeted and grandly
entertained. Their glowing descriptions of this vast new West provided a boon to the westward migration now becoming
a permanent part of American life. The journals written by Lewis and Clark are still widely read today.
Question 433: The purpose of the Lewis and Clark expedition was________.
A. to establish trade with the Otos and Teton Sioux
B. to explore territory purchased by the United States
C. to purchase land from France
D. to find the source of the Missouri River
Question 434: Where in the passage does the author mention hardship faced by the expedition?
A. Lines 4-6 B. Lines 8-10 C. Lines 12-13 D. Lines 16-17
Question 435: It can be inferred that Sacajawea ________.
A. married a Shoshoni interpreter B. abducted a child
C. demanded tribute from the traders D. is a well-known American heroine
Question 436: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to________.
A. elk and antelope B. buffalo herds
C. the members of the expedition D. Shoshoni and Mandans
Question 437: The word “blighted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. increased B. ruined C. swollen D. driven
Question 438: Lewis and Clark encountered all of the following EXCEPT_______.
A. mountains B. buffaloes C. dinosaur herds D. friendly people
Question 439: The word “boon” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. power B. hurdle C. benefit D. conclusion
Question 440: It can be inferred from the passage that the Lewis and Clark expedition________.
A. experienced more hardships than successes
B. encouraged Americans to move to the West
C. probably cost the United States more than $15 million
D. caused the deaths of some of the explorers

67. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
Child workers, some as young as 10, have been found working in a textile factory in conditions described as close to
slavery to produce clothes that appear destined for one of the major high street retailers. The discovery of these children
working in appalling conditions in the Shahpur Jat area of Delhi has renewed concerns about the (441)______ by some
large retail chains of their garment production to India, recognised (442)______ the United Nations as one of the world’s
hotspots for child labour. According to one (443)______, over 20 per cent of India's economy is dependent on children,
(444)______ comes to a total of 55 million youngsters under 14 working. Consumers in the West should not only be
demanding answers from retailers about how their (445)______ are produced but also should be looking into their
consciences at how they spend their money and whether cheap prices in the West are worth the suffering
caused to so many children.
Question 441: A. outsourcing B. outsources C. outsourced D. outsource
Question 442: A. for B. with C. of D. by
Question 443: A. evaluation B. investigation C. calculation D. estimate
Question 444: A. who B. which C. what D. that
Question 445: A. goods B. stuff C. garment D. ware

68. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
Unlike these fish, which are actually extinct, the coelacanth is a type of fish that was believed to be extinct. However, an
unexpected twentieth- century rediscovery of living coelacanths has brought about a reassessment of the status of the
prehistoric sea creature that was believed to have long since disappeared from the Earth. From fossil remains of the
coelacanth, paleontologists have determined that the coelacanth was in existence around 350 million years ago, during
the Paleozoic Era, more than 100 million years before the first dinosaurs arrived on the Earth. The most recent fossilized
coelacanths date from around 70 million years ago, near the end of the age of dinosaurs. Because no fossilized remnants
of coelacanth was believed to have died out around the same time as the dinosaurs.
The prehistoric coelacanth studied by paleontologists had distinctive characteristics that differentiated it from other fish.
It was named for its hollow spine and was known to have been a powerful carnivore because of its many sharp teeth and
a special joint in the skull that allowed the ferocious teeth to move in coordination with the lower jaw. It also had a pair
of fins with unusual bony and muscular development that allowed the coelacanth to dart around the ocean floor. These
fins also enable the coelacanth to search out prey trying to hide on the ocean bottom.
In 1938, a living specimen of the coelacanth was discovered in the catch of a fishing boat off the coast of South Africa,
and since then numerous other examples of the coelacanth have been found in the waters of the Indian Ocean. This
modern version of the coelacanth is not exactly the same as its prehistoric cousin. Today's coelacanth is larger than its
prehistoric relative, measuring up to six feet in length and weighing up to 150 pounds. However, the modern version of
the coelacanth still possesses the characteristic hollow spine and distinctive fins with their unusual bony and muscular
structure.
Question 446: It can be inferred from the passage that the first dinosaurs most likely appeared on Earth around
A. 450 million years ago B. 350 million years ago
C. 150 million years ago D. 250 million years ago
Question 447: It can be inferred from the passage that the word “coelacanth” comes from the Greek
A. sharp teeth B. extinct fish C. hollow spine D. bony fingers
Question 448: What is NOT true about the prehistoric coelacanth, according to the passage ?
A. It was smaller than the modern coelacanth.
B. It had a hollow pine and distinctive fins.
C. It weighed less than 150 pounds.
D. It measured as much as six feet in length.
Question 449: The pronoun “It” in the third paragraph refers to
A. coordination B. coelacanth C. joint D. jaw
Question 450: What is stated in the passage about the prehistoric coelacanth?
A. It had few teeth. B. It was a rather feeble fish.
C. It lived on plants. D. It moved its teeth in an unusual way.
Question 451: This passage is about a fish
A. that is extinct C. that is becoming extinct
B. that once was extinct D. that is not extinct
Question 452: According to the passage, why are scientists sure that the prehistoric coelacanth was a flesh-eater?
A. Because of its hollow spine
B. Because of its unusual bony and muscular development
C. Because of the shape and movement of the teeth
D. Because of the size of the skull
Question 453: The topic of the preceding paragraph is most likely
A. the discovery of the coelacanth
B. a reassessment of the status of a number of kinds of fish
C. a particular prehistoric sea creature
D. various extinct fish

69. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
For a century before the Erie Canal was built, there was much discussion among the general population of the Northeast
as to the need for connecting the waterways of the Great Lakes with the Atlantic Ocean. A project of such monumental
proportions was not going to be undertaken and completed without a supreme amount of effort.
The man who was instrumental in accomplishing the feat that was the Erie Canal was Dewitt Clinton. As early as 1812,
he was in the nation's capital petitioning the federal government for financial assistance on the project, emphasizing what
a boon to the economy of the country the canal would be; his efforts with the federal government, however, were not
successful.
In 1816, Clinton asked the New York State Legislature for the funding for the canal, and this time he did succeed. A
canal commission was instituted, and Clinton himself was made head of it. One year later, Clinton was elected governor
of the state, and soon after, construction of the canal was started.
The canal took eight years to complete, and Clinton was on the first barge to travel the length of the canal, the Seneca
Chief, which departed from Buffalo on October 26, 1825, and arrived in New York City on November
4. Because of the success of the Erie Canal, numerous other canals were built in other parts of the country.
Question 454: The pronoun “it” in the 3rd paragraph refers to which of the following?
A. The canal B. The New York State Legislation
C. The state governor D. The commission
Question 455: When did Clinton ask the U.S. government for funds for the canal?
A. In 1812 B. In 1825
C. In 1816 D. One hundred years before the canal was built.
Question 456: The Seneca Chief was
A. the nickname of Buffalo B. the name of the canal
C. Clinton's nickname D. the name of a boat
Question 457: The information in the passage
A. is in chronological order B. is organized spatially
C. gives a cause followed by an effect D. lists opposing viewpoints of a problem
Question 458: The word “boon” in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. Disadvantage B. Benefit C. Cost D. Detriment
Question 459: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
A. the effect of the Erie Canal on the Buffalo area
B. Clinton's career as governor of New York
C. the century before the building of the Erie Canal
D. canals in different U.S locations
Question 460: Where in the passage does the author mention a committee that worked to develop the canal?
A. The first paragraph B. The second paragraph
C. The fourth paragraph D. The third paragraph

70. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 461 to 465.
WILLIAM THE HERO!
Brave William Baldock, who is six years old, is a hero after helping his mother when she fell downstairs. William
quickly rang for an ambulance when he discovered his mother had broken her leg. In spite of being frightened, he (461)
________ the emergency services what had happened and answered all the questions they asked him. He also telephoned
his father at work, and then his grandmother, to explain what he had (462) _________. While waiting for these people to
come, William looked after his 18-month-old sister. When ambulance man Steve Lyn went to the house, he was amazed:
'It's great that a young boy of six knew the right number to dial, and was able to give us the correct information. ( 463)
________ of William's quick thinking, we were able to (464) ________ there immediately." Mrs. Baldock left hospital
yesterday, very (465) ________ to both William and the ambulance service.
Question 461: A. called B. talked C. spoke D. told
Question 462: A. done B. made C. acted D. worked
Question 463: A. Since B. Because C. In spite D. Instead
Question 464: A. manage B. find C. get D. reach
Question 465: A. agreeable B. happy C. grateful D. approving

71. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 466 to 472.
A large number of inventions require years of arduous research and development before they are perfected. For instance,
Thomas Edison had to make more than 1,000 attempts to invent the incandescent light bulb before he finally succeeded.
History is replete with numerous other examples of people trying, yet failing to make inventions before they eventually
succeeded. Yet some inventions have come about not through hard work but simply by accident. In most cases, when
someone unintentionally invented something, the inventor was attempting to create something else. For example, in the
1930s, chemist Roy Plunkett was attempting to make a new substance that could be used to refrigerate items. He mixed
some chemicals together. Then, he put them into a pressurized container and cooled the mixture. By the time his
experiment was complete, he had a new invention. It was not a new substance that could be used for refrigeration
though. Instead, he had invented Teflon, which is today most commonly used to make nonstick pots and pans. Similarly,
decades earlier, John Pemberton was a pharmacist in Atlanta, Georgia. He was attempting to create a tonic that people
could use whenever they had headaches. While he was not successful in that endeavor, he managed to invent Coca -
Cola, the world - famous carbonated soft drink.
Scientists have also made crucial discoveries by accident when they were conducting experiments. In 1928, Alexander
Fleming discovered penicillin, an antibiotic, in this manner. He discovered some mold growing in a dish with some
bacteria. He noticed that the bacteria seemed to be avoiding the mold. When he investigated further, he determined some
of the many useful properties of penicillin, which has saved millions of lives over the past few decades. Likewise, in
1946, scientist Percy Spencer was conducting an experiment with microwaves. He had a candy bar in his pocket, and he
noticed that it suddenly melted. He investigated and learned the reason why that had happened. Soon afterward, he built
a device that could utilize microwaves to heat food: the microwave oven.
Question 466: Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
A. History's Most Important Inventions
B. Accidental Inventions and Discoveries
C. How to Become a Great Inventor
D. You Don't Always Get What You Want
Question 467: In paragraph 1, the word arduous is closest in meaning to _______.
A. detailed B. tough C. specific D. constant
Question 468: In paragraph 2, the word endeavor is closest in meaning to _______.
A. research B. dream C. request D. attempt
Question 469: What does the author say about Teflon?
A. People first used it as a refrigeration device.
B. It was created many years before Coca-Cola.
C. The man who made it was a pharmacist.
D. It is used for kitchenware nowadays.
Question 470: Who was John Pemberton?
A. The person who made Teflon B. The creator of Coca-Cola
C. The man who discovered penicillin D. The inventor of the microwave
Question 471: The author uses Alexander Fleming as an example of ________.
A. one of the most famous inventors in history
B. a person who made an accidental scientific discovery
C. someone who became a millionaire from his invention
D. a man who dedicated his life to medical science
Question 472: What does the author imply about penicillin?
A. Doctors seldom use it nowadays. B. Some people are not affected by it.
C. It is an invaluable medical supply. D. Mold combines with bacteria to make it.
72. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 473 to 480.
How is the news different from entertainment? Most people would answer that news is real but entertainment is fiction.
However, if we think more carefully about the news, it becomes clear that the news is not always real. The news does
not show us all the events of the day, but stories from a small number of chosen events. The creation of news stories is
subject to specific constraints, much like the creation of works of fiction. There are many constraints, but three of the
most important ones are: commercialism, story formulas, and sources. Newspapers, radio, and TV stations are
businesses, all of which are rivals for audiences and advertising revenue. The amount of time that the average TV station
spends on news broadcasts has grown steadily over the last fifty years - largely because news is relatively cheap to
produce, yet sells plenty of advertising. Some news broadcasts are themselves becoming advertisements. For example,
during one week in 1996 when the American CBS network was airing a movie about the sinking of the Titanic, CBS
news ran nine stories about that event (which had happened 84 years before). The ABC network is owned by Disney
Studios, and frequently runs news stories about Mickey Mouse. Furthermore, the profit motive drives news
organizations to pay more attention to stories likely to generate a large audience, and to shy away from stories that may
be important but dull. This pressure to be entertaining has produced shorter, simpler stories: more focus on celebrities
than people of substance, more focus on gossip than on news, and more focus on dramatic events than on nuanced
issues.
As busy people under relentless pressure to produce, journalists cannot spend days agonizing over the best way to
present stories. Instead, they depend upon certain story formulas, which they can reuse again and again. One example is
known as the inverted pyramid. In this formula, the journalist puts the most important information at the beginning of the
story, than adds the next most important, and so on. The inverted pyramid originates from the age of the telegraph, the
idea being that if the line went dead halfway through the story, the journalist would know that the most crucial
information had at least been relayed. Modern journalists still value the formula for a similar reason. Their editors will
cut stories if they are too long. Another formula involves reducing a complicated story into a simple conflict. The best
example is "horse race" election coverage. Thorough explication of the issues and the candidates' views is forbiddingly
complex. Journalists therefore concentrate more on who is winning in the opinion polls, and whether the underdog can
catch up in the numbers than on politicians' campaign goals.
Sources are another constraint on what journalists cover and how they cover it. The dominant sources for news are
public information officers in businesses and government offices. The majority of such officers try to establish
themselves as experts who are qualified to feed information to journalists. How do journalists know who is an expert? In
general, they don't. They use sources not on the basis of actual expertise, but on the
appearance of expertise and the willingness to share it. All the major news organizations use some of the same sources
(many of them anonymous), so the same types of stories always receive attention. Over time, the journalists may even
become close friends with their sources, and they stop searching for alternative points of view. The result tends to be
narrow, homogenized coverage of the same kind.
Question 473: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author of the passage thinks _______.
A. that watching or reading the news is extremely boring
B. that most news stories are false
C. that most people don't realize how different news is from reality
D. that most people don't pay enough attention to the news
Question 474: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true?
A. One effect of commercialism is news stories with more complex content.
B. The ABC network owns Disney Studios.
C. Some news broadcasts are shown without advertisements.
D. More time is devoted to news on TV now than 50 years ago.
Question 475: Why does the author mention Mickey Mouse in paragraph 2?
A. To indicate that ABC shows entertaining news stories
B. To give an example of news stories that are also advertisements
C. To contrast ABC's style with that of CBS
D. To give an example of news content that is not serious
Question 476: According to paragraph 3, an advantage of the inverted pyramid formula for journalists is that
_________.
A. if a story is cut by the editor, only the less crucial information will be lost
B. it makes a story more likely to be cut by the editor
C. it makes a story more likely to attract the attention of the audience
D. it makes a story simpler and easier to understand
Question 477: The word relayed in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. chosen B. Known C. gathered D. sent
Question 478: According to the passage, which of the following tends to lead to homogenized coverage?
A. Journalists' use of experts as sources
B. Journalists' becoming friends with their sources
C. Journalists' search for alternative points of view
D. Journalists' using government officials as sources
Question 479: The word them in paragraph 4 refers to _________.
A. journalists B. organizations C. experts D. sources
Question 480: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentences "Thorough
explication of the issues .... than on politicians' campaign goals. " in the passage?
A. Journalists focus on poll numbers instead of campaign issues because it is easier.
B. Journalists are more interested in issues and candidates' views, but viewers are more interested in who is winning.
C. During an election campaign, journalists mainly concentrate on "horse race" coverage.
D. Candidates' views and how they are explained by journalists can have a big effect on poll numbers.

73. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.
British families started going on holiday to the seaside around the middle of the 19th century. The invention of the
railways made this possible. The first holidaymakers were quite rich and went for their health and education. The seaside
was a place to be (481)__________of illnesses, and doctors recommended bathing in the sea and drinking sea water.
Also to increase their knowledge, families attended concerts and read books from libraries.
At that time, ordinary working people had very little time (482)__________. However, in 1871, the government
introduce four “Bank Holidays” – national holiday days. This allowed people to have a day or two out, which now and
then gave them a taste for leisure and the seaside. At first they went on day-trips, taking
(483)__________of special cheap tickets on the railways. By the 1880s, rising incomes meant many ordinary workers
and their families could have a week’s holiday at the seaside. Rail fares were reduced and cheap hotels were built to
(484)__________them. Holidaymakers enjoyed being idle, sitting on the beach, bathing in the sea, and eating ice-cream.
Cheap entertainment was (485)__________offer and holidaymakers went to have fun.
Today, the English seaside remained popular, with more than 18 million holidays taken there each year.
Question 481: A. recovered B. cured C. improved D. remedied
Question 482: A. out B. off C. from D. away
Question 483: A. opportunity B. benefit C. profit D. advantage
Question 484: A. cater B. board C. lodge D. accommodate
Question 485: A. for B. on C. in D. to

74. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was born in North Carolina. His
only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina’s school until the age of fifteen, where he developed his lifelong love
of books. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However, within a year, on the recommendation of a medical colleague
of his Father’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in Texas for two years herding sheep. During this time, Webster’s
Unabridged Dictionary was his constant companion, and Porter gained a knowledge of ranch life that he later
incorporated into many of his short stories. He then moved to Austin for three years, and during this time the first
recorded use of his pseudonym appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In
1887, Porter married Athol Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank.
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that failed within a year, and later wrote a
column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was examined, and the subsequent
indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds. Porter then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras,
leaving his wife and child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill-health, however she died six
months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and sentenced to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of
thirty five, he entered prison as a defeated man; he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He
emerged from prison three years later, reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He
wrote at least twelve stories in jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he published more
than 300 stories and gained fame as America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter married again in 1907, but after months
of poor health, he died in New York City at the age of forty-eight in 1910. O. Henry’s stories have been translated all
over the world.
Question 486. According to the passage, Porter’s Father was ___________.
A. the person who gave him a life-long love of books
B. a medical doctor
C. a licensed pharmacist
D. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas
Question 487. Why did the author write the passage?
A. to outline the career of a famous American
B. because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer
C. because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer
D. to outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing
Question 488. The word “imprisonment” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to _________.
A. captivity B. escape C. insult D. punishment
Question 489. What is the passage primarily about?
A. The life and career of William Sydney Porter.
B. The way to adopt a nickname.
C. O.Henry’s influence on American literature.
D. The adventures of O.Henry.
Question 490. The author implies which of the following is true?
A. Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled.
B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.
C. O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America.
D. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three years.
Question 491. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?
A. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist
B. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”
C. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin
D. Both of Porter’s wives died before he died
Question 492. The word “pseudonym” in the passage refers to ___________.
A. William Sydney Porter B. O. Henry
C. Athol Estes D. the Aunt Lina

75. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
INTERNET JOBS
Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course, there are plenty of
jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has opened up a wide range of
Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical expertise. Probably one of the most well-known
online job opportunities is the job of Webmaster. However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position.
The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a Webmaster to perform.
To specify the job description of a Webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software the website the
Webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require different skill sets to manage
them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally or externally (renting shared space on the
company servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working
independently, or whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can
create an accurate webmaster job description.
Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer applications. However,
there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high demand. Content jobs require excellent
writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media’.
The term “new media” is difficult to define because it compasses a constantly growing set of new technologies and
skills. Specifically, it includes websites, email, internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD, streaming audio and video,
interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer illustration, video games, virtual reality, and
computer artistry.
Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With many companies having
to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance workers online has become common
business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers from around the world with whom freelancers can
contract their services. An added benefit to such online jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with
companies outside their own country.
How much can a person make in these kinds of careers? As with many questions related to today’s evolving technology,
there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with Internet skills salaries well over
$70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at about $30,000 per year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers
working online have been known to make between $40,000 to $70,000 a year.
Question 493. Which of the followings is true about the job of the freelance writers?
A. They may work with others in the company.
B. It is considered a “content” job.
C. They manage hardware and software.
D. They require in-depth knowledge of applications.
Question 494. The word “vary” in paragraph 6 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. decrease B. change C. differ D. increase
Question 495. It can be inferred from the passage that ___________.
A. only skilled workers make good money
B. online workers can work full-time online.
C. it is easy to become a webmaster
D. workers with limited computer skills can not work online.
Question 496. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of webmasters?
A. They never work independently.
B. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.
C. They require a minimal level of expertise.
D. They do not support software products.
Question 497. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To inform people about the tasks and the roles of a webmaster.
B. To inform people about employment related to the Internet.
C. To inform people about the computer industry.
D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money.
Question 498. According to the passage, all of the followings are TRUE except ___________.
A. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.
B. Online workers can not free themselves from the office.
C. “New media” is not easy to define.
D. There are online jobs available for workers with minimal computer skills.
Question 499. Which of the followings is not mentioned as part of the “new media”?
A. Internet technology B. writing skills C. websites D. video games
Question 500. The word “identify” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. name B. discover C. encounter D. estimate

76. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best first each of the numbered blanks from 501 to 505.
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (501)________. Many species of animals are
threatened, and could easily become (502)________. if we do not make an effort to protect them. In some cases, animals
are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are
caught (503)________. and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat - the place
where they live - is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces
than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them to grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the
environment and (504)________. wildlife. The most successful animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only
ones (505)________., unless we can solve this problem.
Question 501: A. threat B. problem C. danger D. vanishing
Question 502: A. disappeared B. vanished C. extinct D. empty
Question 503: A. for life B. alive C. lively D. for living
Question 504: A. spoil B. wound C. wrong D. harm
Question 505: A. left B. over C. staying D. survive

77. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers have become increasingly
interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets and "life in the fast lane" have
long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of risk factors
may be significantly longer and quite surprising.
Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart attacks occur in
cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of the week. In addition,
people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning
phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An early-morning rise in blood
pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all
contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.
In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors. Statistics reveal that heart attack
rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding and following their
birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though stress is thought
to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of further
comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered .
Question 506. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Risk factors in heart attacks
B. Seasonal and temporal pattern of heart attacks
C. Cardiology in the 1980s
D. Diet and stress as factors in heart attacks
Question 507. The word “trigger” as used in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. involve B. affect C. cause D. encounter
Question 508. What do the second and the third paragraphs of the passage mainly discuss?
A. The link between heart attacks and marriage B. Unusual risk factors in heart attacks
C. Age and gender factors in heart attacks D. Myths about lifestyles and heart attacks
Question 509. The phrase “susceptible to” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by
A. aware of B. affected by C. accustomed to D. prone to
Question 510. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of any heart attacks?
A. Decreased blood flow to the heart B. Increased blood pressure
C. Lower heart rate D. Increase in hormones
Question 511. Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?
A. Having a birthday B. Getting married
C. Eating fatty foods D. Being under stress
Question 512. Which of the following does the passage infer?
A. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
B. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
C. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks.
D. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.

78. Read the following passage and mark letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent technological advances, however,
the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor. This has caused a debate between
those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve them.
Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable objects on a sunken
ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic, which sank outside the Boston
harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that projects sound waves across the ocean bottom and
produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in just two and a half days. Before the use of this new technology,
such searches could take months or years. The team of divers searched the wreck for two months, finding silver tea
services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of American
Gold Eagle coins they were searching for.
Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck's treasure does not have a high
monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved in nearly mint condition. But once a
salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is lost. Maritime archaeologists who are
preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten
remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists are lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater
searches and unregulated salvages. To counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and
million-dollar treasures, the wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all.
Question 513. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.
B. Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.
C. The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins.
D. The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers.
Question 514. The word “sunken” is closest in meaning to which of the following words?
A. broken B. underwater C. ancient D. hollow
Question 515. Which of the following statements is best supported by the author?
A. The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.
B. Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonars
C. Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.
D. The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.
Question 516. The author uses the word “services” to refer to which of the following?
A. cups B. sets C. containers D. decorations
Question 517. All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT
A. wine bottles B. silver tea services
C. American Gold Eagle coins D. crystal dinnerware
Question 518. From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to
A. shun treasure-seeking salvagers B. be a diver
C. put treasures in a museum D. do archaeological research
Question 519. The word “scoured” is most similar to which of the following?
A. scraped away B. scratched over C. scrambled around D. searched through
Question 520. The second and third paragraphs are an example of
A. chronological order B. explanation C. specific to general D. definition

79. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
blanks.
American folk music originated with (521) ________ people at a time when the rural population was isolated
and music was not (522) ________ spread by radio, records, or music video. It was (523) _______ by oral
traditional and is noted for its energy, humor, and emotional impact. The major source of early American folk songs was
music from the British Isles, but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have significant part in its
heritage. Later settler from other countries also contributed songs. In the nineteenth century, composer Steven
Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs, (524) _________ soon became part of the folk
tradition. Beginning in the 1930s, Woody Guthrie gained great popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and supplying
new ones as well. In the 1950s and 1960s, singer – composers such as Peter Seeger, Bob Dylan, Joan Baez continued
this tradition by urban’ folk music. Many of these songs deal (525) ________ important social issue, such as
racial integration and the war in Vietnam.
Question 521: A. ordinary B. popular C. common D. typical
Question 522: A. even B. still C. until D. yet
Question 523: A. transferred B. transformed C. transmitted D. transited
Question 524: A. which B. this C. who D. that
Question 525: A. in B. by C. with D. at

80. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy
built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction makes it one of
the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered
with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest
single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and
west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so
computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific
study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many of the events have been
interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are
currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some
researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.
Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?
Question 526. In the second passage, the word ‘prophesied’ is closest in meaning to ____.
A. foretold B. terminated C. precipitated D. affiliated
Question 527. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Advanced tools of measurement B. Knowledge of the earth’s surface
C. Advanced technology D. Observation of the celestial bodies
Question 528. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the Pharaoh.
D. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
Question 529. The word ‘feat’ in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to ____.
A. accomplishment B. festivity C. appendage D. structure
Question 530. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
B. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
C. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
D. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza
Question 531. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It was built by a super race.
B. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
C. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.
D. It was very old.
Question 532. What has research of the base revealed?
A. There are cracks in the foundation
B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. A superior race of people built in
D. The lines represent important events

81. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little space, is closely
associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of resources, or from both.
Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain number of people can be
supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food and other resources the land can
provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and
gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers of people because these labor-intensive subsistence
activities produce only small amounts of food.
In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe, overpopulation generally
is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large quantities of food through mechanized
farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale irrigation, and agricultural machinery. This form of
production provides enough food to support the high densities of people in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural productivity.
Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1,147 persons per sq km. A large
majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low-productivity manual farming, which contributes to the country’s
extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller countries in Western Europe, such as the Netherlands and Belgium,
have high population densities as well. These countries practice mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech
industries, however, and therefore have high standards of living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less than 30 persons
per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these countries also have infertile land,
and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a consequence, these nations are very poor.
The United States has both relatively low population density and high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s
wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many poor families
because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies commonly sanction the
value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide little or no support, financial or
political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their families small have difficulty doing so. For all these
reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates of population growth.
Question 533. Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many developing countries?
A. Sufficient financial support B. High-tech facilities
C. High birth rates D. Economic resources
Question 534. The word “infertile” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. inaccessible B. unproductive C. impossible D. disused
Question 535. The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. participate in B. escape from C. look into D. give up
Question 536. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences
B. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem
D. Poverty in Developing Countries
Question 537. The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ______.
A. countries B. resources C. people D. densities
Question 538. In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because ______.
A. there are small numbers of laborers
B. there is a lack of mechanization
C. there is an abundance of resources
D. there is no shortage of skilled labor
Question 539. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
B. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
C. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
D. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.
Question 540. Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ______.
A. its population density only
B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. population density in metropolitan areas
D. its high agricultural productivity

82. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
SOCIAL NETWORK
A 16-year-old girl from Essex has been sacked after describing her job as boring on the social networking
website, Facebook. The teenager, who had been working (541) _________ an administrative assistant at a marketing
company for just three weeks, didn’t feel very enthusiastic about the duties she was asked to do. (542) _________ of
moaning to her friends she decided to express her thoughts on her Facebook page to a colleague, who (543)
_________ the boss’s attention to it. He immediately fired her on the (544) _________ that her public display
of dissatisfaction made it impossible for her to continue working for the company. She later told newspapers she had
been treated totally unfairly, especially as she hadn’t even mentioned the company’s name. She claimed she’s been
perfectly happy with her job and that her light-hearted comments shouldn’t (545) _________ taken seriously.
A spokesperson from a workers’ union said the incident demonstrated two things: firstly, that people need to
protect their privacy online and secondly, that employers should be less sensitive to criticism.
Question 541: A. for B. as C. like D. at
Question 542: A. Due B. Regardless C. Instead D. In spite
Question 543: A. got B. caught C. paid D. drew
Question 544: A. terms B. condition C. grounds D. basis
Question 545: A. to be B. have been C. be D. have

83. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 546 to 552.
Therapeutic cloning
Reproductive cloning involves implanting a cloned embryo into a uterus in the hope of producing a healthy foetus. A
company called Clonaid claims to have successfully cloned thirteen human babies. They say that all of the babies are
healthy and are in various location including Hong Kong, UK, Spain and Brazil. Clonaid states that they are using
human cloning to assist infertile couples, homosexual couples and families who have lost a beloved relative.
The same technology can be used for animal cloning. If endangered species such as the giant panda and Sumatran tiger
could be cloned, they could be saved from extinction. Livestock such as cows could also be cloned to allow farmers to
reproduce cattle that produce the best meat and most milk. This could greatly help developing countries where cows
produce significantly less meat and milk.
Question 546: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How the development of technology can be monitored.
B. How different human cloning is from animal cloning.
C. A famous scientist working on cloning technology.
D. Two different types of human cloning technology.
Question 547: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Cloning technology can help cure back and neck injuries.
B. The first dog to be cloned was in Korea.
C. Many countries can use cloning technology to produce more meat and milk.
D. Diabetes can’t be cured by using cloning technology.
Question 548: The word “assist” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. hinder B. help C. contribute D. cure
Question 549: The word “unveiling” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. entrance B. introduction C. opening D. promotion
Question 550: According to the passage, who is King Chow?
A. A scientist who discovered cloning technology. B. A Professor of Biotechnology.
C. A famous Parkinson’s doctor. D. A therapeutic cloning expert.
Question 551: According to paragraph 4, what animals are in danger of extinction?
A. cows B. giant pandas C. all breeds of tiger D. livestock
Question 552: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. reproductive cloning
B. the development of cloning technology
C. Hong Kong University of Science and Technology
D. the first cloned dog

84. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 553 to 560.
THE PRAISE OF FAST FOOD
The media and a multitude of cookbook writers would have us believe that modern, fast, processed food is a disaster,
and that it is a mark of sophistication to bemoan the steel roller mill and sliced white bread while yearning for stone-
ground flour and a brick oven. Perhaps, we should call those scorn industrialised food, culinary Luddites, after the 19th-
century English workers who rebelled against the machines that destroyed their way of life. Instead of technology, what
these Luddites abhor is commercial sauces and any synthetic aid to flavouring our food.
Eating fresh, natural food was regarded with suspicion verging on horror; only the uncivilised, the poor, and the starving
resorted to it. The ancient Greeks regarded the consumption of greens and root vegetables as a sign of bad times, and
many succeeding civilizations believed the same. Happiness was not a verdant garden abounding in fresh fruits, but a
securely locked storehouse jammed with preserved, processed foods.
What about the idea that the best food is handmade in the country? That food comes from the country goes without
saying. However, the idea that country people eat better than city dwellers is preposterous. Very few of our ancestors
working the land were independent peasants baking their own bread and salting down their own pig. Most were
burdened with heavy taxes and rent, often paid directly by the food they produced. Many were ultimately serfs or slaves,
who subsisted on what was left over; on watery soup and gritty flatbread.
The dishes we call ethnic and assume to be of peasant origin were invented for the urban, or at least urbane, aristocrats
who collected the surplus. This is as true of the lasagna of northern Italy as it is of the chicken korma of Mughal Delhi,
the moo shu pork of imperial China, and the pilafs and baklava of the great Ottoman palace in Istanbul. Cities have
always enjoyed the best food and have invariably been the focal points of culinary innovation.
Preparing home-cooked breakfast, dinner, and tea for eight to ten people 365 days a year was servitude. Churning butter
or skinning and cleaning rabbits, without the option of picking up the phone for a pizza if something went wrong, was
unremitting, unforgiving toil. Not long ago, in Mexico, most women could expect to spend five hours a day kneeling at
the grindstone preparing the dough for the family's tortillas.
In the first half of the 20th century, Italians embraced factory-made pasta and canned tomatoes. In the second half,
Japanese women welcomed factory-made bread because they could sleep a little longer instead of getting up to make
rice. As supermarkets appeared in Eastern Europe, people rejoiced at the convenience of readymade goods. Culinary
modernism had proved what was wanted: food that was processed, preservable, industrial, novel, and fast, the food of
the elite at a price everyone could afford. Where modern food became available, people grew taller and stronger and
lived longer.
So the sunlit past of the culinary Luddites never existed and their ethos is based not on history but on a fairy tale. So
what? Certainly no one would deny that an industrialised food supply has its own problems. Perhaps we should eat more
fresh, natural, locally sourced, slow food. Does it matter if the history is not quite right? It matters quite a bit, I believe.
If we do not understand that most people had no choice but to devote their lives to growing and cooking food, we are
incapable of comprehending that modern food allows us unparalleled choices. If we urge the farmer to stay at his olive
press and the housewife to remain at her stove, all so that we may eat traditionally pressed olive oil and home-cooked
meals, we are assuming the mantle of the aristocrats of old. If we fail to understand how scant and monotonous most
traditional diets were, we fail to appreciate the 'ethnic foods' we encounter.
Culinary Luddites are right, though, about two important things: We need to know how to prepare good food, and we
need a culinary ethos. As far as good food goes, they've done us all a service by teaching us how to use the bounty
delivered to us by the global economy. Their ethos, though, is another matter. Were we able to turn back the clock, as
they urge, most of us would be toiling all day in the fields or the kitchen, and many of us would be starving.
Question 553: The word “preposterous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. sensible B. popular C. ridiculous D. right
Question 554: Which of the following is NOT an important factor mentioned in paragraphs 5 and 6?
A. the development of take-away food as an option
B. the arduous nature of food preparation before mass-production
C. the global benefits of industrialised food production
D. the range of advantages that industrialised food production had
Question 555: What is the overall point that the writer makes in the reading passage?
A. People should learn the history of the food they consume.
B. Criticism of industrial food production is largely misplaced.
C. Modem industrial food is generally superior to raw and natural food.
D. People should be more grateful for the range of foods they can now choose from.
Question 556: The word “its” in paragraph 7 refers to ______.
A. food supply’s B. fairy tale’s C. history’s D. sunlit past’s
Question 557: What does the writer say about peasants?
A. They created imaginative soup and flatbread dishes.
B. Much of what they produced went to a landowner.
C. They were largely self-sufficient.
D. They had a better diet than most people living in cities.
Question 558: What is an important point the writer wishes to make in paragraph 7?
A. People need to have a balanced diet.
B. There are disadvantages to modem food production as well as advantages.
C. People everywhere now have a huge range of food to choose from.
D. Demand for food that is traditionally produced exploits the people that produce it.
Question 559: Lasagna is an example of a dish ______.
A. that tastes like dishes from several other countries
B. that was only truly popular in northern Italy
C. invented by peasants
D. created for wealthy city-dwellers
Question 560: The word “servitude” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. attitude B. enslavement C. capability D. liberty

85. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 561 to 565.
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and influenced every
aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has done more harm than good.
In order to (561)______ the question, we must first turn to the type of consumer. Presumably, most parents buy mobile
phones for their teenagers to track their whereabouts and ensure their safety. We can also assume that most teenagers
want mobile phones to avoid missing out (562)______ social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. However,
we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also
(563)______ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills.
The ubiquitous use of the mobile phone has, (564)______ question, affected adult consumers, too. What employee, on
the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us, according to
a recent survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we’ve left the office.
Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally speaking, they
are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (565)______. According to a recent
survey, they also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations.
In conclusion, mobile phones do have their drawbacks, but these are outweighed by the benefits. I would
argue that it is not the tool that chooses its purpose, but the user.
Question 561: A. answer B. address C. remedy D. . put right
Question 562: A. in B. to C. of D. on
Question 563: A. indisputable B. arguable C. doubtless D. unhesitating
Question 564: A. out of B. without C. beyond D. outside
Question 565: A. time B. notice C. term D. warning

86. Read the following passage and mark the letter A B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
All foods contain water - cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 93% water, potatoes and other root
vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If this water is
removed, the activity of the bacteria which cause food to go bad is checked.
Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and ot her Mediterranean countries, and also in California, South
Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the fruit is spread out on trays in drying yards in the hot sun.
In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are exposed to the fumes of burning sulphur before drying.
Plums for making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in an alkaline
solution in order to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax coating, so increasing the rate of drying.
Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such dehydration is to put food in
chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about 110°C at entry to about 45°C at exit. This is the usual
method for drying such things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.
Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a heated horizontal steel
cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air passes. In the first case, the dried material
is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then broken up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In the
second process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable pieces of meat and vegetables
are required, as in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then mixed.
Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans or frozen, and they do not need to be
stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers in battle, who have
little storage space. They are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to cook them.
Question 566: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Advantages of dried foods.
B. Water: the main component of food.
C. Mechanization of drying foods.
D. Different methods of drying foods.
Question 567: The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reduced considerably B. put a tick
C. examined carefully D. motivated to develop
Question 568: In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help ______
A. remove their wax coating B. kill off bacteria
C. maintain their color D. crack their skin
Question 569: Nowadays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat is ______.
A. spreading them out on trays in drying yards
B. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through
C. dipping them in an alkaline solution
D. pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder
Question 570: What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to?
A. Vegetables B. Foods C. Things D. Chambers
Question 571: The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be ______.
A. small flakes B. fine powder C. dried soup D. recognizable pieces
Question 572: According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for ______.
A. explorers who are underweight B. soldiers who are not in battle
C. people who are on the move D. housewives who have little storage space
Question 573: This passage is mainly ______.
A. argumentative B. analytical C. informative D. fictional

87. Read the following passage and mark the letter A B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of globalization believe
aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over globalization is about what the best rules
are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can grow while its problems can be solved.
On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade and investment,
allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of choice. With free-market
globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the developing countries. Consumers can
benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to
buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows
ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others.
On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty, inequality, social
conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed nations – the United States,
Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but because of protectionism and subsidies. They argue that
the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development
strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries” –
that is, industries that are just beginning to develop – enables a country to become internationally competitive.
Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of money from
speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid inflow of foreign
funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot sustain such expectation, the
bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country.
Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself but rather
against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by nongovernmental
organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards
or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards and undermining environmental
regulations.
One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets should be regulated to promote
fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale.
Question 574: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that
A. investment will be allocated only to rich countries
B. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased
C. there will be less competition among producers
D. consumers can benefit from cheaper products
Question 575: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means
A. distributed B. solved C. removed D. offered
Question 576: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means
A. prevents sellers from selling new products B. forces sellers to go bare-footed
C. makes sellers responsive to any changes D. allows sellers to stand on their own feet
Question 577: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of
A. their help to developing countries B. their neo-liberal policies
C. their protectionism and subsidies D. their prevention of bubbles
Question 578: The word “undermining” in the passage mostly means
A. making less effective B. obeying C. observing D. making more effective
Question 579: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
C. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.
D. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
Question 580: The debate over globalization is about how
A. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization
B. to govern the global economy for
C. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries
D. to terminate globalization in its entirety

88. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.
Over the next 20 to 50 years, it will become harder to tell the (581) _______ between the human and the machine. All,
body part will be replaceable. Computers will function like the human brain with the ability to recognize feelings and
respond in a feeling way. They will then produce fake people. We will then be able to create a machine duplicate of
ourselves (582) _______ we will appear to be alive long after we are dead. Maybe a few decades later, a way will be
found to transfer our spirit, including our memories and thoughts, to the new body. Then we can choose to live for as
long as we want. It might be expensive. When it becomes possible to do a spirit transfer, they will find (583) _______ to
do them automatically. So we will be able to reside within whichever duplicate we want, whenever we want.
Miniature robots will be built (584) _______ through your blood stream and repair damage. Also, larger robots will be
used when you are sick. When you have an upset stomach, you will swallow a very small cherry tasting robot which will
travel through your stomach taking video of the mess. It will be set up like a video game, so you can control the
exploring and the selection of images. Then you can replay the video to help a doctor (585) _______ your illness, or to
prove to your employer that you really, were sick.
Question 581: A. change B. difference C. appearance D. variety
Question 582: A. because B. soon C. but D. so
Question 583: A. over B. out C. down D. up
Question 584: A. travelling B. to be travelled C. to travel D. travel
Question 585: A. watch B. observe C. notice D. diagnose

89. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
Continents and ocean basins represent the largest identifiable bodies on Earth. On the solid portions of the planet, the
second most prominent features are flat plains, elavated plateaus, and large moutain ranges. In geography, the term
"continent" refers to the surface of continuous landmasses that together comprise about 29.2% of the planet's surface. On
the other hand, another definition is prevalent in the general use of the term that deals with extensive mainlands, such as
Europe or Asia, that actually represent one very large landmass. Although all continents are bounded by the water
bodies or high mountain ranges, isolated mainlands, such as Greenland and India-Pakistan areas are called
subcontinents. In some circles, the distinction between continents and large islands lies almost exclusively in the size of
a particular landmass.
The analysis of compression and tension in the earth's crust has determined that continental structures are composed of
layers that underlie continental shelves. A great deal of disagreement among geologists surrounds the issue of exactly
how many layers underlie each landmass because of their distintive mineral and chemical composition. It's also quite
possible that the ocean floor rests on top of unknown continents that have not yet been explored. The continental crust is
believed to have been forrmed by means of a chemical reaction when lighter materials separated from heavier ones, thus
settling at various levels within the crust. Assisted by the measurements of the specifics within crust formations by
means of monitoring earthquakes, geologists can speculate that a chemical split occured to form the atmosphere, sea
water and the crust before it solidified many centuries ago.
Although each continent has its special features, all consist of various combinations of components that include shields,
moutain belts, intracratonic basins, margins, volcanic plateaus, and blockvaulted belts. The basic differences among
continents lie in the proportion and the composition of these features relative to the continent size. Climatic zones have a
crucial effect on the weathering and formation of the surface features, soil erosion, soil deposition, land formation,
vegetation, and human activities.
Mountain belts are elongated narrow zones that have a characteristic folded sedimentary organization of layers. They are
typically produced during substabtial crustal movements, which generate faulting and moutain building. When
continental margins collide, the rise of a marginal edge leads to the formation of large moutain ranges, as explained by
the plate tectonic theory. This process also accounts for the occurrence of mountain belts in ocean basins and produces
evidence for the ongoing continental plate evolution.
Question 586. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Continental structure and crust. B. Continental drift and division.
C. Scientific analyses of continental crusts. D. Various definitions of the term "continent".
Question 587. According to tha passage, how do scientists define continents?
A. As masses of land without divisions. B. As extensive bodies of land.
C. As surficial compositions and ranges. D. As the largest identifiable features.
Question 588. The word "bounded" is closest in meaning to
A. covered B. convened C. dominated D. delimited
Question 589. The author in the passage implies that the disagreement among scientists is based on the fact that
__________.
A. Continents undergo compression and experience tension.
B. Continents have various underlying layers of crust.
C. Each continent has several planes and shelves.
D. Continents have different chemical makeup.
Question 590. According to the passage, what are the differences in the structure of continents?
A. The distinctive features of their elements.
B. Ratios of major components and their comparative size.
C. Climatic zones and their effect on the surface features.
D. The proportional size of continents to one another.
Question 591. The phrase "This process" refers to _.
A. The rise of margins B. Mountain ranges
C. Plate tectonic theory D. Continental collision
Question 592. The word "evidence" in the last line is closest in meaning to _____.
A. confirmation B. eventuality C. challenge D. exemplification

90. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
In many experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a counselor and professor 2 years
ago. College has always been demanding both academically and socially. But students now are less mature and often not
ready for the reponsibility of being in college.
It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s obstacle. Parents, who handle
every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children writing admission essays to picking college courses,
certainly may contribute to their children’s lack of coping strategies. But we can look even more broadly to the social
trends of today.
How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression? The number of students who
arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has increased dramatically in the past 10 years. We, as a
society, don’t want to “feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don’t want our children to “suffer”.
The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the necessary skills to tolerate
and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact that some individuals suffer from depression and
anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I question the growing number of medicated adolescents today.
Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political realities, but I don’t believe that the
college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. What I do think is that many students are
often not prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life.
What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic parenting of these students – the
student who complains that the professor didn’t remind her of the due date for an assignment that was clearly listed on
the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite of careful instructions about plagiarism.
As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college student before we can even begin
to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young people to meet challenges. To encourage them in this
direction, we have to step back and let them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This approach needs to
begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood.
Question 593. According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are ___________.
A. not so academic B. too ready for college
C. responsible for their work D. not as mature
Question 594. The word “handle” in paragraph 2 mostly means .
A. point at B. deal with C. gain benefits from D. lend a hand to
Question 595. According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to _________.
A. the absence of parents’ protection B. the over – parenting from parents
C. the lack of parental support D. the lack of financial support
Question 596. The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to ___________.
A. studying medicine at college B. receiving medical treatment
C. suffering anxiety or depression D. doing medical research
Question 597. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation.
B. Our society certainly doesn’t want our children to experience unpleasant things.
C. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years.
D. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students.
Question 598. Students who are not well – prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life will need
______.
A. to be assigned more housework from adults B. to be encouraged to meet challenges
C. daily coaching from their teachers D. to be given more social responsibilities
Question 599. According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will ______.
A. help students to learn to stand on their own feet
B. defeat students from the very beginning
C. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives
D. discourage students and let them down forever
Question 600. What is probably the writer’s attitude in the passage?
A. Indifferent B. Critical C. Praising D. Humorous

91. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best fits the blank space
in the following passage.
21st CENTURY TEACHERS: INEVITABLE CHANGES
21st century teachers need to serve as a guide or mentor for their students, not as the all- knowing sage providing them
with everything they need. Nowadays, with so much access (601) ______ resources of all kinds, children invariably
know more than teachers on different topics, step ahead of the technology. Teachers need to be empowered as
facilitators for learning, so that they can empower their students in (602) ______. This shift is great news for teachers.
Instead of struggling to give kids all the information in areas (603) ______they know little about, teachers can support
students as they make their own steps into different fields. It’s about preparing them to go beyond their seniors, ensuring
they have the skills to do it, and assisting them along the way.
(604) ______, teachers need to be forward-thinking, curious and flexible. They must be learners: learning new teaching
methods, and learning alongside their students. Simply asking questions like “What will my students need dozens of
years from now?” or “How can I help give them those skills?” can change teachers' (605) ______, make them a leader,
and bring about changes in the classroom, school and community.
Question 601: A. to B. with C. for D. in
Question 602: A. sight B. use C. line D. turn
Question 603: A. what B. that C. where D. whom
Question 604: A. For instance B. Therefore C. In practice D. Otherwise
Question 605: A. knowledge B. prejudice C. mindset D. judgement

92. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions
For centuries, time was measured by the position of the sun with the use of sundials. Noon was recognized when the sun
was the highest in the sky, and cities would set their clock by this apparent solar time, even though some cities would
often be on a slightly different time. Daylight Saving Time (DST), sometimes called summer time, was instituted to
make better use of daylight. Thus, clocks are set forward one hour in the spring to move an hour of daylight from the
morning to the evening and then set back one hour in the fall to return to normal daylight.
Benjamin Franklin first conceived the idea of daylight saving during his tenure as an American delegate in Paris in 1984
and wrote about it extensively in his essay, "An Economical Project." It is said that Franklin awoke early one morning
and was surprised to see the sunlight at such an hour. Always the economist, Franklin believed the practice of moving
the time could save on the use of candlelight, as candles were expensive at the time.
In England, builder William Willett (1857–1915) became a strong supporter for Daylight Saving Time upon noticing
blinds of many houses were closed on an early sunny morning. Willet believed everyone, including himself, would
appreciate longer hours of light in the evenings. In 1909, Sir Robert Pearce introduced a bill in the House of Commons
to make it obligatory to adjust the clocks. A bill was drafted and introduced into Parliament several times but met with
great opposition, mostly from farmers. Eventually, in 1925, it was decided that summer time should begin on the day
following the third Saturday in April and close after the first Saturday in October.
The U.S. Congress passed the Standard Time Act of 1918 to establish standard time and preserve and set Daylight
Saving Time across the continent. This act also devised five time zones throughout the United States: Eastern, Central,
Mountain, Pacific, and Alaska. The first time zone was set on "the mean astronomical time of the seventy-fifth degree of
longitude west from Greenwich" (England). In 1919, this act was repealed.
President Roosevelt established year-round Daylight Saving Time (also called War Time) from 1942–1945. However,
after this period, each state adopted its own DST, which proved to be disconcerting to television and radio broadcasting
and transportation. In 1966, President Lyndon Johnson created the Department of Transportation and signed the Uniform
Time Act. As a result, the Department of Transportation was given the responsibility for the time laws. During the oil
embargo and energy crisis of the 1970s, President Richard Nixon extended DST through the Daylight Saving Time
Energy Act of 1973 to conserve energy further. This law was modified in 1986, and Daylight Saving Time was reset to
begin on the first Sunday in April (to spring ahead) and end on the last Sunday in October (to fall back).
Question 606: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. Franklin’s idea of daylight saving B. Franklin's first conception
C. Franklin’s first official tenure D. Franklin’s delegation
Question 607: The word “obligatory” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. imperative B. approved C. deficient D. peculiar
Question 608: Who opposed the bill that was introduced in the House of Commons in the early 1900s?
A. Sir Robert Pearce
B. television and radio broadcasting companies
C. farmers
D. the U.S. Congress
Question 609: The word “devised” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. divided B. invented C. ordered D. adapted
Question 610: Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. Department of Transportation?
A. It was created by President Richard Nixon.
B. It set standards for DST throughout the world.
C. It constructed the Uniform Time Act.
D. It oversees all time laws in the United States.
Question 611: The Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 was responsible for
A. extending Daylight Saving Time in the interest of energy conservation
B. preserving and setting Daylight Saving Time across the continent
C. instituting five time zones in the United States
D. conserving energy by giving the Department of Transportation authority over time laws
Question 612: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. Lyndon Johnson and the Uniform Time Act
B. The History and Rationale of Daylight Saving Time
C. The U.S. Department of Transportation and Daylight Saving Time
D. Daylight Saving Time in the United States

93. Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
SHAYNE’S DREAMS COME TRUE - BUT WILL THEY BE SHATTERED?
It is a week before The X Factor live tour when I meet the winner of the series, Shayne Ward. “It has been mental,” he
says, referring to the past six months of his life. “I've just been talking to Louis Walsh on the phone. Louis Walsh!”
Walsh, a top record producer and The X Factor judge, now manages Shayne’s career. “I was talking to Simon Cowell (a
celebrity record producer) yesterday!” He shakes his head in amazement. And these people are telling me they're excited
about working with me. “I can't get my head round it.”
Shayne is about as natural as any pop star arriving in the public arena can be. “I just can’t accept where I am now” he
says sincerely. “It doesn't feel real. To me, this is just a job.” “What do you think being famous feels like?” I ask him.
“I'm not sure, to be honest. Different from this?” he laughs, with only a hint of nerves. Since winning The X Factor,
Shayne's success has been phenomenal. His debut single took just three days to reach the number one spot. On tour, he's
going to play to audiences of 10,000 on average. He has already brought the house down at a gig in his home city. “I
walked out after that performance and just thought, “I’m dreaming!”” Shayne is one of a family of seven children. Times
were hard, but he has never wished or a different childhood. Although he thought about going to college, he ended up
leaving school at sixteen, just to help his mother pay the rent. He set out on his reality show journey shortly afterwards.
When he told he friends he had an audition for The X Factor, none of them really believed him. “I thought I’d go fot it
because my family wanted me to, but I never really believed that I would win.”
Naturally, Ward is a fan of reality TV talent shows. “They're brilliant, because people who want recording contracts try
for years and get nowhere. Then these competitions come along the people at home decide whether they like the singers
or not. So its not just a few people at a record company deciding who gets a chance.” But the previous winner of The X
Factor only had one hit. He hasn't been heard of since then. Is Shayne Ward going to be another talent show flop?
A lot of people feel cynical about reality TV show winners and their chances of continuing success. Audiences usually
lose interest in them as soon as the show has finished. In fact, contestants on shows like Big Brother are given severe
warnings from the show’s producers beforehand, basically telling them “you will not be liked”. Talent shows like The X
Factor have to offer contestants a kind of stardom though, and something they can think of as a career, months
afterwards at least.
Question 613: The word “mental” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. psychiatric B. physical C. crazy D. mind-bending
Question 614: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to
A. the tour B. the experience C. the phone call D. the show
Question 615: Which of the following statement is TRUE about Shayne Ward?
A. He is certain how well known he is.
B. He finds his present situation unacceptable.
C. He is confused about the nature of fame.
D. He thinks his job isn’t particularly glamorous.
Question 616: After performing in his home city, Shayne felt
A. overwhelmed B. embarrassed C. disappointed D. relieved
Question 617: After leaving school at the age of sixteen, Shayne
A. set off on a trip B. gave up performing
C. got himself a job D. applied to a college
Question 618: The word “flop” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. someone who is unpopular B. someone who is unsuccessful
C. someone who isn’t ambitious D. someone who lacks character
Question 619: According to the passage, who decide the winner of a reality TV talent show?
A. audiences B. contestants C. previous winners D. record companies
Question 620: What does the writer suggest about reality talent show winners?
A. They are treated badly by producers. B. Their fame is short-lived.
C. Audiences never really like them. D. They don’t expect to be popular.
94. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions
Millions of people tune into the weather forecast each evening on television. Most of them imagine that the presenter
does little more than arrive at the studio a few minutes before the broadcast, read the weather, and then go home. In fact,
this image is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we all rely on when we need to know tomorrow's weather
is the result of a hard day's work by the presenter, who is actually a highlyqualified meteorologist. Every morning after
arriving at the TV studios, the first task of the day is to collect the latest data from the National Meteorological Office.
This office provides up-to-the-minute information about weather conditions throughout the day, both in Britain and
around the world. The information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite and radar pictures, as well as more
technical data. After gathering all the relevant material from this office, the forecaster has to translate the scientific
terminology and maps into images and words which viewers can easily understand. The final broadcast is then carefully
planned. It is prepared in the same way as other programmes. The presenter decides what to say and in what order to say
it. Next a "story board" is drawn up which lays out the script word for word. What makes a weather fore-cast more
complicated than other programmes are the maps and electronic images which are required. The computer has to be
programmed so that the pictures appear in the cor-rect order during the bulletin.
The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather re-port is screened after the news, which
can vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn't always know how much time is available, which means that he/she
has to be thoroughly prepared so that the material can be adapted to the time available. Another related complication is
that the weather forecast has to be a live broadcast; it cannot be pre-recorded. Live shows are very nerve-racking for the
presenter because almost anything can go wrong. Perhaps the most worrying aspect for every weather fore-caster is
getting the following day's predictions wrong. Unfortunately for them, this is not an unusual occurrence; the weather is
not always possible to predict accurately. The weather is a national obsession in Britain, perhaps because it is so
changeable. It’s the national talking point, and most people watch at least one day bulletin. It can be mortifying for a
weather man or woman who has predicted rain for the morning to wake up to brilliant sunshine. This day, a weather
forecaster’s job is even more complicated because they are relied upon to predict other environmental conditions. For
example, in the summer the weather forecast has to include reports on ultraviolet radiation intensity to help people avoid
sunburn. The job of a weather forecaster is certainly far more complicated than just pointing at a map and describing
weather conditions. It's a job for professionals who can cope with stressful and demanding conditions.
Question 621: What perception do most people have of weather forecasters?
A. They have many qualifications. B. They do a hard day’s work at the studio.
C. They work very short hours. D. They always tell the truth.
Question 622: Meteorologists get their information from
A. the TV studio. B. the country’s main weather centre.
C. satellite and radar information. D. their office.
Question 623: Creating a weather forecast is complex because
A. maps have to be drawn. B. a lot of data has to be interpreted
C. radar pictures are technical. D. the information includes unreliable predictions.
Question 624: The computer has to be carefully programmed
A. so that the visuals are sequenced correctly.
B. so that the script is visible to the presenter.
C. because the script has to be written on a story board.
D. because electronic maps are used.
Question 625: Weather forecasters have to know the material well because
A. the broadcast is pre-recorded
B. the forecast may be incorporated into the news broadcast.
C. the content of the report may have to change.
D. the length of the report may have to change.
Question 626: What does “this” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. The weather forecaster’s worry. B. Reading the weather live.
C. Giving a forecast that doesn't come true. D. An accurate prediction
Question 627: In Britain, people’s attitude to the weather
A. is not changeable.
B. makes it a top discussion topic.
C. depends on the prediction being for a sunny or rainy day.
D. is a national problem.
Question 628: Nowadays, weather forecasters have to
A.do experiments to determine the pollen count. B. simply point at map and describe weather conditions
C. cope with professionals. D. be able to cope under pressure

95. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for
each of the blanks.
YOGA
Yoga is one of the most ancient forms of exercise, originating in India 5000 years ago. Yoga has taken several years to
become recognised world-wide, although recently, much more attention has been (629)______ to it because of the ways
in which it can benefit health. Yoga can be practised by anyone, at any age, in any physical condition, depending on
physical needs. For example, athletes and dancers can practise it to (630)______ their energy and to improve stamina;
executives to give a much needed (631)______ to their overworked minds; children to improve their memory and
concentration. It's a good idea to (632)______ with a doctor first if you've suffered from any type of injury. None of the
exercises should (633)______ you any pain, but it's best to start slowly at first. The best time to practise is either
in the morning or in the evening. Beginners find it easier in the evening when the body is more supple.
Question 629: A. put B. paid C. allowed D. provided
Question 630: A. receive B. return C. realize D. restore
Question 631: A. interruption B. pause C. interval D. break
Question 632: A. see B. check C. control D. call

Question 633: A. make B. do C. cause D. result

96. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to Indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
There is a wide range of organisms by their population whose lives mostly depend on how they hunt or are hunted. And
most living organisms have some way of protecting themselves from natural predators. Some mammals, like the
platypus, carry internal toxins to transmit to predators via biting or other means, and some plants protect themselves by
being poisonous. The African crested rat was originally thought to be poisonous because predators that tried to eat it
often became paralyzed. But scientists have recently learned that's not actually the case.
The crested rat chews on the poisonous bark of a certain tree, and then smears the chewed-up substance onto its fur,
where a strip of special quill-like hairs soaks up the poisonous mixture. Though similar to a porcupine's, the quills do
differ: whereas the porcupine defends itself by poking predators, the African rat uses its quill-like hairs to deliver poison
to them. When a predator comes after it, instead of running away, the rat stays put and parts its hair to reveal the strip of
fur on its back where the poison is being stored. That raised strip is the first thing that receives a bite, and the poison
inside disables the predator. These hair tubes are unusual. In fact, scientists do not know of another animal that uses
plant poison in this way.
Scientists are puzzled that the rat doesn't appear to be affected by the poison. Because it affects heartbeat regulation,
understanding how the rat can keep its heart rate regulated effectively while using the poison could help scientists
develop new medicines for people with heart trouble. And they hope that those suffering from heart diseases will benefit
from this.
Question 634: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To show how animals can affect plant life.
B. To compare one animal to other similar ones.
C. To emphasize the dangers of researching animals.
D. To discuss an unusual animal defense technique.
Question 635: In paragraph 1, why does the author mention the platypus?
A. To illustrate that mammals may eat poisonous plants.
B. To give an example of a mammal that uses poison.
C. To show how it differs from the crested rat.
D. To explain that the platypus is at risk.
Question 636: The word “paralyzed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. disabled B. unaffected C. inaccessible D. undecided
Question 637: In paragraph 2, what does the word “them” refer to?
A. predators B. porcupines C. crested rats D. quill-like hairs
Question 638: The word “defends” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. encourages B. protects C. feeds D. pretends
Question 639: What are scientists surprised by?
A. How toxic plant poison can be. B. How useful plant toxins can be.
C. How quickly rats learn new behavior. D. That the rats are protected from the poison. Question 640:
What would scientists like to investigate further?
A. Medicine used to counteract poison. B. Other animals like the crested rat.
C. Health effects of a chemical. D. Rats with unhealthy hearts.

97. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.
University researchers have taken samples from a preserved dodo specimen in an (641) _____ to uncover the extinct
bird’s family tree. They worked with the British Natural History Museum to collect and study genetic material from
large number of specimens: a preserved dodo, the extinct solitaire bird, and 35 kind of living pigeons and doves. Their
analysis (642) _____ the doo and the solitaire to be close relatives with the Nicobar pigeon, their nearest living relative.
The dodo lived on Mauritius in the Indian Ocean. It was a flightless bird, bigger than a turkey. By 1681, all dodos had
been (643) _____ by hungry sailors. The solitaire, which looked a bit like a dodo, had gone the same way by 1800. By
extracting short pieces of the dodo’s DNA and (644) _____ these with the DNA of living birds, the scientists were able
to deduce when the dodo evolved away from its relatives into a separate entity. The scientists can now (64 5) _____
assume that the dodo developed its distinctive appearance and features as a result of its geographical
isolation. They are now convinced that it separated from the solitaire about 25 million years ago, long before
Mauritius became an island.
Question 641: A. attempt B. intention C. order D. assistance
Question 642: A. advises B. involves C. shows D. recommends
Question 643: A. disappeared B. vanished C. killed D. extinct
Question 644: A. studying B. comparing C. researching D. combining
Question 645: A. surely B. hardly C. highly D. safely

98. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the Question s.
There has been much debate over the past few decades concerning fears that automation will lead to robots replacing
human workers on a massive scale.
The increasing use of robotics, computers and artificial intelligence is a reality, but its full implications are far from cut
and dried. Some forecasts present the future in a utopian way, claiming that robots will take over the tedious heavy work
thus freeing up human time and potential, allowing for more creativity and innovation. At the other end of spectrum are
those who foresee an employment apocalypse, predicting that almost fifty percent of all American jobs could vanish
within the next few decades. Former Microsoft chairman Bill Gates states that in 20 years robots could be in place in a
number of job categories, particularly those at lower end of the scale in terms of skills.
The bottom line is that while the future is always uncertain, robots are a fixture of our society, which is not going to
disappear. As with the Industrial Revolution, where machines were utilized in many tasks in place of manual laborers
and social upheaval followed, the Digital Revolution is likely to place robots in various jobs. In spite of that, many of
today’s jobs were not in existence before the Industrial Revolution, such as those of programmers, engineers and data
scientists. This leads other experts to criticize this alarmist approach of robot scare-mongering, which is invariably
compared to the 19th-century “Luddites”. This group was textile workers who feared being displaced by machines and
resorted to violence, burning down factories and destroying industrial equipment – their rejection of inevitable progress
has come to symbolize mindless ignorance.
Needless to say, exactly what new kinds of jobs might exist in the future is difficult to envision at present. Therefore,
the crux of the issue is not whether jobs will be lost, but whether the creation of new vacancies will outpace the ever-
increasing number of losses and what skills will be required in the future.
It is clearly not all doom and gloom, as demand for employees with skills in data analysis, coding, computer science,
artificial intelligence and human-machine interface is rising and will continue to do so. Furthermore, the demand for
skills in jobs where humans surpass computers, such as those involving care, creativity and innovative craftmanship, are
likely to increase considerably. Ultimately, the key lies in the adaptation of the workforces, through appropriate
education and training, to keep pace with our world’s technological progress.
Question 646: What is the main concern associated with technological advances in the workplace?
A. safety at work B. increased unemployment
C. the use of artificial intelligence D. robots taking over the world
Question 647: What do optimists predict technology will allow?
A. workplaces to become more relaxing B. a greater enjoyment of life
C. flexible working hours D. higher quality products
Question 648: What can be inferred from the comments made by Bill Gates?
A. Changes will occur for many decades.
B. There will be increasing amounts of unskilled workers.
C. Highly skilled workers have less to worry about.
D. Technology will have a negative effect in the workplace.
Question 649: Why is the example of the Industrial Revolution given?
A. It was also a time of great change in the workplace.
B. It had far less of an effect than the Digital Revolution.
C. It lead to widespread unemployment in the world.
D. It resulted in a more violent society.
Question 650: What is the modern-day view of the Luddites?
A. They managed to protect their jobs.
B. Their refusing to adapt to change is seen in a negative way.
C. Their adapting to new technology saved their jobs.
D. Their actions are inspiring many workers today.
Question 651: Which of the following is closest in meaning to crux in paragraph 4?
A. The most complex part B. The hidden message
C. The least understood part D. The most important part
Question 652: According to the article, which quality will technology never be able to replace?
A. teamwork B. human compassion
C. the desire to manufacture goods D. human intelligence
Question 653: What is the main idea of this article?
A. There are few negative consequences to the Digital Revolution.
B. Learning about technology is a natural part of human development.
C. Workers will need to adapt to technological changes.
D. Unemployment will increase dramatically as technology advances.

99. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the Question s.
Thanks to electricity, candles are no longer a necessity in our lives, but they are still a pleasure. The warm flame of
candlelight can quickly alter the mood and atmosphere of a room, often creating a peaceful scene that electric light just
cannot match.
Candles are an important part of many cultural and religious festival and have been burnt in various forms for centuries.
The ancient Romans and Egyptians made candles from a type of fiber coated with wax. However, up until the nineteenth
century, most candles were made from a substance called tallow, obtained from beef fat. Tallow candles were very
smoky and, understandably, had an unpleasant odor.
In the 19th century, candle makers learned to separate stearin, the solid form fat used as a type of glue, from tallow and
used it to harden other fats. Candles that contained stearin would burn longer than previous ones and had a better smell.
Stearin is still one of the main components of modern candle-making, and the techniques used to create candles today
are much the same as they have been for many years. These days, the increase range of wax dyes, perfumes and other
additives that are now available make candle making a very exciting and rewarding hobby.
Sales of candles have increased greatly over the last few years, showing that they have become part of our lives again,
not through necessity, but because of the magical atmosphere they create. In our increasingly stressful lives, the calming
quality of candlelight has a relaxing effect that many enjoy.
For those would like to learn to make candles, finding and buying candle-making kits is easy. Candle-making is
definitely enhanced by the exciting possibilities of experimentation with various materials. Be brave and try out different
effects – some of the most wonderful creations can happen by accident. With a bit of practice, you will be amazed at the
very professional finish that can be achieved.
Despite their delicate beauty, candles can, of course, be highly dangerous. One should never leave lit candles
unattended, even for a few moments. Always make sure candles are securely placed within candleholders.
Teach your children to respect a burning candle, and of course keep burning candles away from flammable materials.
Keep your home safe by remembering that a candle is magical, but fire can be very destructive. Be careful, and enjoy the
beauty of your candles!
Question 654: According to the text, what is the importance of candles?
A. We need them in case there is an electric backout.
B. We gain a feeling of calm when they are lit in a room.
C. We light them to create a more romantic atmosphere.
D. We cannot do without them in our daily lives.
Question 655: Why dose the writer mention ancient Romans and Egyptians in the text?
A. to show that before making candles, we should learn their history
B. to show one of the ways candles were made in the past
C. to show how candles were invented
D. to show that candles have always been used
Question 656: Why was stearin used in candles?
A. It create a more colorful flame than tallow. B. It covered up unpleasant smells in the air.
C. It was used to get rid of fat in the candles. D. It helped make candles burn longer.
Question 657: According to the text, what dose the increase of candle sales illustrate?
A. People enjoy the calming effect that candles produce.
B. The variety of candles to choose from makes them more attractive.
C. People buy candles as gifts more often than they used to.
D. Candles are cheaper to buy now than they were in the past.
Question 658: According to the text, what is needed to succeed at candle-making?
A. a few years of practice B. a lot of time and money
C. willingness to take risks D. many expensive materials
Question 659: What dose the passage warn readers not to do?
A. burn candle without adult supervision B. leave a room where a candle is burning
C. use unapproved ingredients in candles D. burn candles for only a few minutes
Question 660: Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
A. Candle-making can be a successful business.
B. Candles are made from different types of material.
C. Candles continue to be a part of people’s lives.
D. Candle-making has changed little over the years.

100. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for
each of the blanks
Women are much healthier when they (661) ______ it easy, reveals a new survey. Those who work long hours are more
likely than men to (662) ______ in unhealthy behavior such as eating snacks, smoking and drinking caffeine. (Long
hours have no such impact on men). One positive benefit of long hours for both sexes, however, is that alcohol ( 663)
______ is reduced.
The study (664) ______ by the Economic and Social Research Council is part of a wider study by psychologists from the
University of Leeds into the effects of stress on eating. “Stress causes people to (665 ) ______ for unhealthy high fat
and high–sugar snacks in preference to healthier food choice” says researcher Dr. Daryl of the University of
Leeds.
Question 661: A. make B. feel C. take D. get
Question 662: A. indulge B. interest C. develop D. participate
Question 663: A. beverage B. consumption C. expenditure D. sales
Question 664: A. funding B. which funds C. funded D. which funded
Question 665: A. choose B. select C. decide D. opt

101. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the twentieth century were marked by the development of an
international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous lines, floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent
coloration. The Art Nouveau style was an eclectic one, bringing together elements of Japanese art, motifs of ancient
cultures, and natural forms. The glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often deliberately distorted,
with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored device of the style was to imitate the iridescent surface seen on ancient glass
that had been buried. Much of the Art Nouveau glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had been
generically termed “art glass.” Art glass was intended for decorative purposes and relied for its effect on carefully
chosen color combinations and innovative techniques.
France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau style; among the most celebrated was Emile
Galle (1846–1904). In the United States, Louis Comfort Tiffany (1843–1933) was the most noted exponent of this style,
producing a great variety of glass forms and surfaces, which were widely copied in their time and are highly prized
today. Tiffany was a brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian, Japanese, and Persian motifs.
The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 until 1915, although its influence continued
throughout the mid–1920’s.It was eventually to be overtaken by a new school of thought known as Functionalism that
had been present since the turn of the century. At first restricted to a small avant–garde group of architects and designers,
Functionalism emerged as the dominant influence upon designers after the First World War. The basic tenet of the
movement–that function should determine form–was not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic code evolved: from
should be simple, surfaces plain, and any ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This new design
concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the styles and conventions of the preceding decades, created an
entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau types of glass to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic
effects of contrast, stark outline and complex textural surfaces.
Question 666: What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?
A. Design elements in the Art Nouveau style
B. The popularity of the Art Nouveau style
C. Production techniques for art glass
D. Color combinations typical of the Art Nouveau style
Question 667: The word “one” refers to______.
A. century. B. development. C. style. D. coloration.
Question 668: Para.1 mentions that Art Nouveau glass was sometimes similar to which aspect of ancient buried
glass______.
A. The distortion of the glass B. The appearance of the glass surface
C. The shapes of the glass objects D. The size of the glass objects
Question 669: The word “overtaken” in line 19 is closest in meaning to______.
A. surpassed B. inclined C. expressed D. applied
Question 670: What does the author mean by stating that “function should determine form”?
A. A useful object should not be attractive.
B. The purpose of an object should influence its form.
C. The design of an object is considered more significant than its function.
D. The form of an object should not include decorative elements.
Question 671: It can be inferred from the passage that one reason Functionalism became popular was that it______.
A. clearly distinguished between art and design
B. appealed to people who liked complex painted designs
C. reflected a common desire to break from the past
D. was easily interpreted by the general public
Question 672: Paragraph 3 supports which of the following statements about Functionalism?
A. Its design concept avoided geometric shapes.
B. It started on a small scale and then spread gradually.
C. It was a major force in the decorative arts before the First World War.
D. It was not attractive to architects all designers.
Question 673: According to the passage, an object made in the Art Nouveau style would most likely include ______.
A. a flowered design. B. bright colors. C. modern symbols. D. a textured surface.

102. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
According to anthropologists, people in preindustrial societies spent 3 to 4 hours per day or about 20 hours per week
doing the work necessary for life. Modern comparisons of the amount of work performed per week, however, begin with
the Industrial Revolution (1760–1840) when 10– to 12–hour workdays with six workdays per week were the norm.
Even with extensive time devoted to work, however, both incomes and standards of living were low. As incomes rose
near the end of the Industrial Revolution, it became increasingly common to treat Saturday afternoons as a half–day
holiday. The half holiday had become standard practice in Britain by the 1870's, but did not become common in the
United States until the 1920's.
In the United States, the first third of the twentieth century saw the workweek move from 60 hours per week to just
under 50 hours by the start of the 1930' s. In 1914, Henry Ford reduced daily work hours at his automobile plants from 9
to 8. In 1926 he announced that henceforth his factories would close for the entire day on Saturday. At the time, Ford
received criticism from other firms such as United States Steel and Westinghouse, but the idea was popular with
workers.
The Depression years of the 1930's brought with them the notion of job sharing to spread available work around; the
workweek dropped to a modem low for the United States of 35 hours. In 1938 the Fair Labor Standards Act mandated a
weekly maximum of 40 hours to begin in 1940, and since that time the 8–hour day, 5–day workweek has been the
standard in the United States. Adjustments in various places, however, show that this standard is not immutable. In 1987,
for example, German metalworkers struck for and received a 37.5–hour workweek; and in 1990 many workers in Britain
won a 37–hour week. Since 1989, the Japanese government has moved from a 6– to a 5–day workweek and has set a
national target of 1,800 work hours per year for the average worker. The average amount of work per year in Japan in
1989 was 2,088 hours per worker, compared to 1,957 for the United States and 1,646 for France.
Question 674: Compared to preindustrial times, the number of hours in the workweek in the nineteenth century______.
A. remained constant B. decreased slightly
C. decreased significantly D. increased significantly
Question 675: The "idea" mentioned in line 15 refers to______.
A. the criticism of Ford by United States Steel and Westinghouse.
B. the reduction in the workweek at some automobile factories.
C. the reduction in the cost of automobiles.
D. the 60–hour workweek.
Question 676: Which of the following is mentioned as one of the purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938?
A. To restrict trade with countries that had a long workweek.
B. To discourage workers from asking for increased wages.
C. To establish a limit on the number of hours in the workweek.
D. To allow employers to set the length of the workweek for their workers.
Question 677: What is one reason for the change in the length of the workweek for the average worker in the United
States during the 1930's?
A. Several people sometimes shared a single job.
B. Labor strikes in several countries influenced labor policy in the United States.
C. Several corporations increased the length of the workweek.
D. The United States government instituted a 35–hour workweek.
Question 678: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Working conditions during the Industrial Revolution.
B. Why people in preindustrial societies worked few hours per week.
C. Changes that have occurred in the number of hours that people work per week.
D. A comparison of the number of hours worked per year in several industries.
Question 679: The word "henceforth" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
A. for a brief period. B. from that time on. C. in the end. D. on occasion.
Question 680: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as evidence that the length of the workweek has been
declining since the nineteenth century?
A. Henry Ford. B. German metalworkers.
C. The half–day holiday. D. United States Steel and Westinghouse.

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