ĐỀ SỐ 01

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. stale B. bake C. faith D. fair
Question 2: A. horn B. hour C. help D. health

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. plastic B. cartoon C. package D. standard
Question 4: A. holiday B. journalist C. attention D. document

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Denmark ranks first in the list of ______ countries in the world.
A. cleaner B. the cleanest C. more clean D. as clean
Question 6: They ______ a large amount of money in developing this city last year.
A. investment B. investing C. investor D. invested
Question 7: That single dad is working hard to support his family and ______ his children alone.
A. take back B. bring up C. turn down D. put on
Question 8: Could we ______ a meeting to discuss technical issues of the project tomorrow?
A. open B. hold C. take D. give
Question 9: The students finished their assignment on time, ______ their teacher happy.
A. is made B. to make C. making D. made
Question 10: The first award in the competition ______ by Jennifer Hawkins last week.
A. won B. was won C. was winning D. has won
Question 11: Working back-to-back shifts at the hospital ______ her energy, leaving her no time for rest.
A. trickled B. drained C. exuded D. sucked
Question 12: The coach wants his team to feel confident ______ winning the game.
A. of B. at C. with D. on
Question 13: The kids are getting in my ______ today, so I need you to watch them for a little bit.
A. hair B. nose C. mouth D. tongue
Question 14: We chose group 4 ______ with us to complete the project lesson on climate change.
A. to collaborate B. collaborated C. collaborating D. collaborate
Question 15: Tom burnt his hand when he ______ a cake in the kitchen.
A. had baked B. bakes C. was baking D. baked
Question 16: This charity organisation helped handicapped children ______ their difficulties.
A. recover B. surpass C. overcome D. outweigh
Question 17: I'm looking for______ apartment in the city center.
A. the B. an C. ∅ (no article) D. a
Question 18: ______ , she will let you know.
A. When Linda found out the truth B. When Linda was finding out the truth
C. When Linda had found out the truth D. When Linda finds out the truth
Question 19: His parents are hospitable, ______?
A. aren’t they B. are they C. don’t they D. do they

1
1
 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 20: Leo and Tim are talking about food.
- Leo: “I think it is true to say that the quickest way to a man’s heart is through his stomach.”
- Tim: “______. Sometimes a man cares more about his feelings rather than food”
A. That’s great B. I refuse to believe that
C. I totally agree with you D. I guess you’re right
Question 21: Mary and her friend, Lily, are in a coffee shop.
- Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice-cream or Caramel with jam?”
- Lily: “ ______”
A. Neither is fine. They are good. B. I like eating them all.
C. Yes, I’d love to. D. It doesn’t matter.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She took her time to assimilate the complex concepts, ensuring she truly understood them.
A. integrate B. contribute C. associate D. understand
Question 23: The teacher will demonstrate how to solve complex exercises on the board, which helps
students understand the lessons easily.
A. show B. confuse C. hide D. forget

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: My best friend is a reckless driver. He has been fined for speeding and has his license
suspended for six months.
A. enormous B. dangerous C. cautious D. famous
Question 25: I tried to be friendly with her, but I was told she’s a hard nut to crack.
A. a person who is very difficult to understand
B. a person who is sociable
C. a situation to deal with
D. a complicated problem to solve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: It is impossible for us to finish the research in a month.
A. We must finish the research in a month. B. We needn’t finish the research in a month.
C. We can’t finish the research in a month. D. We would finish the research in a month.
Question 27: Linda last went to the university library three months ago.
A. Linda went to the university library for three months.
B. Linda didn’t go to the university library for three months.
C. Linda has gone to the university library for three months.
D. Linda hasn’t gone to the university library for three months.
Question 28: “It is not easy for my son to overcome his shyness in class,” she told the teacher.
A. She told the teacher that it was not easy for her son to overcome her shyness in class.
B. She told the teacher that it was not easy for her son to overcome his shyness in class.
C. She told the teacher that it is not easy for her son to overcome his shyness in class.
D. She told the teacher that it was not easy for his son to overcome his shyness in class.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair

2
2
 of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Press photographers are banned from taking photographs backstage. There is not any
exception whatsoever.
A. On no account are press photographers allowed to take photographs backstage.
B. In no way were press photographers allowed to take photographs backstage.
C. Under no circumstances are press photographers prohibited to take photographs backstage.
D. On no occasion are press photographers banned from taking photographs backstage.
Question 30: We were nearly out of petrol. That’s why we stopped at the service station.
A. If we hadn’t been nearly out of petrol, we would have stopped at the service station
B. If we weren’t nearly out of petrol, we would stop at the service station.
C. If we hadn’t been nearly out of petrol, we wouldn’t have stopped at the service station
D. If we hadn’t been nearly out of petrol, we wouldn’t stop at the service station.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 31: Our country could successfully fight against COVID-19 pandemic thanks to the
government’s imaginary approaches.
A. fight against B. approaches C. imaginary D. thanks to
Question 32: My grandmother can remember things which happens many years ago.
A. happens B. My C. things D. can
Question 33: Some of my friends are going to spend his holidays by the sea.
A. spend B. his C. the sea D. Some
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 40.
A pandemic is a worldwide outbreak of disease. It happens when a bacterium or virus becomes
capable of spreading across a large region, continent, or worldwide. It causes severe contagious illnesses
which can spread quickly from one person to another. Throughout history, there have been many
pandemics that have had significant effects on various populations.
Pandemics have the capability of killing large portions of people in a place. In 1347, the Black
Death, a plague in Europe, spread and killed 75 million people, a whopping one-third of Europe's
population. When European explorers began encountering other places in the world, they tended to
spread diseases to the local population. One notable example is the complete destruction of the
Guanches on the Canary Islands. The majority of tribe members were killed by disease brought by
Spanish invaders in the 15th century.
In fact, many countries and cultures faced deadly pandemics after international exploration
became possible. It is believed that Columbus and his crew brought a strain of syphilis back with them
to Europe from the New World. In Europe, the virus was able to mutate because of the location's
different conditions. Additionally, European people that were sent to work in Asia were killed by
disease. Intercultural mixing, exposure to new viruses, and the transportation of diseases led to many
pandemics across the world.
Today, the COVID-19 pandemic is an ongoing global pandemic of coronavirus disease. It is
caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome SARS-CoV-2. This epidemic first broke out in Wuhan,
China, in December 2019. Many efforts to control its spread have failed, which allows the virus to reach
almost every country. The World Health Organization (WHO) declared a Public Health Emergency of
International Concern on 30th January 2020 and a pandemic on 11th March 2020. By 10th April 2022, the
pandemic had caused more than 498 million cases and 6.17 million deaths, making it one of the deadliest
pandemics in human history.

Question 34: The word “contagious” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

3
3
 A. healthy B. infectious C. expressible D. dangerous
Question 35: Why did the Guanches in the Canary Islands disappear?
A. The tribe caught a bad strain of syphilis.
B. The tribe was uninformed about pandemics.
C. Europeans intentionally exposed native populations to the disease.
D. They were infected with the illness spread by the Spanish
Question 36: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. strains of syphilis B. Columbus and his crew
C. destructive pandemics D. Europe and the New World
Question 37: The word “ongoing” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. continuing B. past C. future D. over
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The Black Death in medieval Europe was caused by exploration and conquest.
B. WHO upgraded the Covid-19 warning level twice within two months.
C. The efforts by WHO brought an end to the COVID-19 pandemic.
D. The Guanche population in the Canary Islands disappeared due to the malady from the
Spanish intruders.
Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Coronavirus disease is trouble-free to control in its early stages.
B. People hadn't witnessed the Covid-19 pandemic before 2019.
C. The number of people killed in pandemics has made up a small percentage.
D. The popularity of cultural exchange led to the deadly pandemics in many nations and
cultures.
Question 40: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Spread of Covid-19
B. Europeans Creating Pandemics
C. Infection and the Death of Africans
D. The Killing Effects of Pandemics in Human History
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 45.
If you are interested in having a trip of a lifetime, but also doing something useful at the same
time, then why not try joining a Greenforce expedition as a volunteer. Greenforce, (41)______ was set up
in 1997, is an international research agency that gathers information about wildlife and natural habitats
in various parts of the world. There is a qualified biologist in charge of each team of volunteers and
these carry out surveys all year round in some of the world remote and most beautiful places.
Volunteers come from all walks of life. No previous experience is necessary as Greenforce provides full
(42)______ in animal identification and survey methods. However, you will need to be a person who
enjoys the outdoor life (43)______ working in remote locations can be challenging. You’ll also need to be
passionate about wildlife and prepare to learn a lot about the place you visit. (44)______ expedition lasts
for ten weeks, and training begins in the UK with a residential weekend where you can get a taste of
expedition life and meet up with some of your teammates, as well as learning about first-aid and basic
survival skills. Each volunteer (45)______ £2,550 to the total cost of the expedition, but past volunteers
say it is worth every penny.
Question 41: A. who B. which C. that D. whose
Question 42: A. operation B. performance C. production D. training
Question 43: A. but B. moreover C. since D. although
Question 44: A. Many B. Much C. Other D. Each
Question 45: A. contributes B. compensates C. pays D. offers

4
4
 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.
In the next decade, population growth will probably add to world hunger problems. As the
population grows, according to the World Hunger Programme, so will the number of malnourished
people. The world's population, estimated at 5.6 billion in 1994, may reach 11.5 billion by the year 2150,
and most of that growth is occurring in the world's poorest countries. At least 95 percent of the global
population growth over the next thirty-five years will take place in the hunger-belt regions of Africa,
Asia, and Latin America. For countries that already have a hard time feeding their populations, growth
on a scale of even 3 percent a year could add significantly to their food problems. This level of growth is
already occurring in Namibia and in South Africa, and many other countries are not far behind.
In 1981, the United States recorded a population on the African continent of 481 million people.
This number topped 800 million by the year 2000. Africa would have to increase its food production by 4
percent a year to meet the food needs of its increased population. But Africa's food production is
growing by only 1 percent a year, which means that nations already struggling to meet their people's
food needs will have an even greater struggle as populations grow. “When food supply grows slower
than population,” says Professor De- Gregori, “a country is in trouble.”
(Source: Basic IELTS Reading)
Question 46: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Population growth as a factor of hunger B. Prediction of world population
C. The consequences of hunger D. Population of the world
Question 47: The word malnourished in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. hungry B. disadvantaged C. needy D. poor
Question 48: According to paragraph 2, which is true about the food production in Africa?
A. It has greatly increased in recent years.
B. It can eventually meet the needs of the population.
C. It has dramatically decreased since 1981.
D. It is growing more slowly than the population.
Question 49: All of the following mentioned in the passage are about population growth and its effect
on world hunger EXCEPT ______.
A. when population grows faster than food supply, a country will suffer.
B. the biggest increase in population will be recorded in poor countries.
C. a country’s population will not starve if its annual growth reaches 3 percent.
D. the number of people in Africa is increasing faster than its ability to feed them.
Question 50: The word its in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. The United States B. Africa C. a population D. a country

------ THE END ------

5
5
 ĐỀ SỐ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. influence B. demonstrate C. encourage D. penalize
Question 2: A. strengthen B. attract C. destroy D. succeed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 3: It is expensive to take down and ______ the tent, so they do not remove it during winter.
A. push up B. put down C. push down D. put up
Question 4: The students looked a little confused ______ the teacher’s questions.
A. at B. of C. with D. in
Question 5: You will visit Cuc Phuong National park next weekend, ______?
A. don’t you B. won’t you C. will you D. would you
Question 6: When Mrs. Wilson got home, her son ______ with his girlfriend on the phone.
A. chatted B. chats C. was chatting D. is chatting
Question 7: After 20 days of premiere, “Mai” has become ______ grossing film projects.
A. the highest B. higher C. the higher D. high than
Question 8: ______the letter, Tom will have left for Paris.
A. By the time we receive B. Before we received C. After we receive D. When we received
Question 9: The teacher tries her best to make sure that her students can ______ her explanations.
A. understandably B. understandable C. understand D. understanding
Question 10: During the discussion, he suddenly ______ red when someone criticized his work, and the
meeting quickly became tense.
A. met B. watched C. looked D. saw
Question 11: I don’t want her to smell ______. She has never had a surprise party before.
A. a rat B. a pig C. a thief D. a culprit
Question 12: House prices are expected ______ sharply in the next few months.
A. rising B. rise C. to rise D. to rising
Question 13: VigilEASE, Inc. has made a huge profit of $1,000 million, ______ its branches to expand
across the continent.
A. allowing B. allows C. to allow D. is allowed
Question 14: My husband's family speaks ______ Polish.
A. the B. ∅ (no article) C. an D. a
Question 15: The unexpected thunderstorm ______ the flight, causing passengers to wait anxiously at
the gate.
A. detained B. apprehended C. bagged D. collared
Question 16: Whenever you’re planning to ______ a new product, it’s essential to provide excellent
customer service.
A. start B. launch C. declare D. initiate
Question 17: The top-secret document ______ by one of the supervisors of the company in 2020.
A. was leaked B. leaks C. was leaking D. has leaked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.

Question 18: Tom and Peter are talking about extreme sports.

6
6
 -Tom: “People should be encouraged to take part in dangerous sports.”
-Peter: “______. They are prone to both minor and severe injuries.”
A. For sure B. I completely disagree with you
C. Come on, that’s surely the case D. I couldn’t agree with you more
Question 19: Mr. Collins is asking to see the menu at a restaurant.
- Mr. Collins: “Could we see the menu, please?”- Waiter: “______.”
A. I’ll be your server, Sir B. Here you are, Sir
C. My pleasure, Sir D. You get a 2% discount

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. system B. historical C. landscape D. business
Question 21: A. bathe B. tank C. plane D. fame

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The conservation efforts aim to protect vulnerable species from extinction.
A. endangered B. harmful B. dangerous D. abundant
Question 23: The professor provided adequate resources for the research project to ensure that students
have necessary materials.
A. abundant B. sufficient C. limited D. lack
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: We need detailed information to determine exactly why these cancers are occurring.
A. discover B. precede C. doubt D. estimate
Question 25: I hate to speak in public, but she'll get up on stage at the drop of a hat.
A. immediately B. hesitantly C. instantly D. confidently

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 26: Perhaps she will get the yard mowed before it rains.
A. She should mow the yard before it rains.
B. She must get the yard mowed before it rains.
C. She must have the yard mowed before it rains.
D. She may get the yard mowed before it rains.
Question 27: It last rained in my town a month ago.
A. It hasn’t rained in my town for a month.
B. It rained in my town for a month.
C. It didn’t rain in my town for a month.
D. It has rained in my town for a month.
Question 28: "I was watching the stars all night," she said.
A. She said she was watching the stars all night.
B. She said she had been watching the stars all night.
C. She said she has been watching the stars all night.
D. She said she watched the stars all night.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.

7
7
 Question 29: Last week, a team of foreign volunteers launches a campaign to help students
with disabilities.
A. to help B. launches C. with D. week
Question 30: If you have a problem, you are welcome to discuss it with me before you try to resolve
them.
A. them B. have C. before D. with
Question 31: This was due to the shortage of males at the marital ages and was further aggravated by
heavy male unemployment at ages 20-34.
A. aggravated B. unemployment C. shortage D. marital

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Spectators are not permitted to bring alcohol into the stadium. There is no exception for
any individual.
A. On no condition are spectators allowed to bring alcohol into the stadium.
B. On no account are spectators banned from bringing alcohol into the stadium.
C. In no way were spectators allowed to bring alcohol into the stadium.
D. In all cases are spectators banned from bringing alcohol to the stadium.
Question 33: Nam was seriously ill for two weeks. He couldn’t take part in the School Festival.
A. If Nam hadn’t been seriously ill for two weeks, he could have taken part in the School
Festival.
B. If Nam wasn’t seriously ill for two weeks, Nam could take part in the School Festival
C. If it weren’t for his serious illness for two weeks, Nam would take part in the School
Festival.
D. If Nam hadn’t been seriously ill for two weeks, he couldn’t have taken part in the School
Festival

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
A team of social psychologists from California has spent six years studying the reactions of
people in cities around the world to different situations. The results show that cities where people have
less money generally have friendlier populations. Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, which is often known for its
crime, comes out top, Vientiane ranks second, and the capital of Malawi, Lilongwe, comes third.
But what makes one city friendlier than another? The psychologists from California State
University say it has got more to do with environment than culture or nationality. They carried out a
study into the way locals treated strangers in 23 cities around the world. The team conducted their
research through a series of tests, where they dropped pens or pretended, they were blind and needed
help crossing the street.
The study concludes that people are more helpful in cities with a more relaxed way of life such
as Rio. While they were there, researchers received help in 93 percent of cases, and the percentage in
Lilongwe was only a little lower. However, richer cities such as Amsterdam and New York are
considered the least friendly. Inhabitants of Amsterdam helped the researchers in 53 percent of cases
and in New York just 44 percent. The psychologists found that, in these cities, people tend to be short
of time, so they hurry and often ignore strangers.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS by Guy Brook- Hart and Vanessa Jakeman)
Question 34: What is the passage mainly about?
A. What makes a city friendlier than another.

8
8
 B. An action research on city inhabitants’ behavior.
C. How to conduct a survey in a city.
D. An interesting survey about cities.
Question 35: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. the team B. tests C. locals D. strangers
Question 36: According to paragraph 3, Amsterdam and New York’s inhabitants _______.
A. pay less attention to strangers B. have more relaxed lifestyles
C. don’t have much money D. often commit crimes
Question 37: All of the following are mentioned in the study conducted by social psychologists from
California EXCEPT ______.
A. the study took six years to complete.
B. Rio de Janeiro, Vientiane, and Lilongwe are the top three friendliest cities according to the
study.
C. friendliness in a city is more dependent on the environment than culture or nationality.
D. the research shows that people are more helpful in richer cities.
Question 38: The word “helpful” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. supportive B. serious C. honest D. polite

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 39 to 43.
THE SECRETS OF LONG LIFE
Marge Jetton is speeding down the motorway in her purple car. Marge, (39)______ recently
turned 101, is late for one of several volunteer commitments she has today. Already this morning, she
has eaten breakfast, walked 1.6 km, and lifted weights.
Like (40)______other residents of Loma Linda, California, Marge is a member of a religious
community that has always supported healthy living. It (41)______ smoking and drinking alcohol, and
discourages the (42)______ of most meat, rich foods, and caffeinated drinks as well as most spices.
Instead, they enjoy beans, nuts, whole wheat bread, soy milk, tomatoes, and other fruits as well as five
glasses of water a day.
All of these lower the risk of developing certain diseases. (43) ______, they get together and
socialize with each other to relieve stress every Saturday. A study has revealed that members of this
community live four to ten years longer than other Californians.
(Adapted from Close up B1-Student’s book)
Question 39: A. which B. that C. who D. whom
Question 40: A. many B. few C. each D. much
Question 41: A. excludes B. prevents C. halts D. forbids
Question 42: A. digestion B. consumption C. storage D. intake
Question 43: A. However B. Because C. Moreover D. Although

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Learning to speak is automatic for almost all children, but learning to read requires elaborate
instruction and conscious effort. Well aware of the difficulties, educators have given a great deal of
thought to how they can best help children learn to read. No single method has triumphed. Indeed,
heated arguments about the most appropriate form of reading instruction continue to polarize the
teaching community.

9
9
 Three general approaches have been tried. In one, called whole-word instruction, children learn
by rote how to recognize at a glance a vocabulary of 50 to 100 words. Then they gradually acquire other
words, often through seeing them used over and over again in the context of a story.
Speakers of most languages learn the relationship between letters and the sounds associated with
them (phonemes). That is, children are taught how to use their knowledge of the alphabet to sound out
words. This procedure constitutes a second approach to teaching reading – phonics.
Many schools have adopted a different approach: the whole-language method. The strategy here
relies on the child’s experience with the language. For example, students are offered engaging books and
are encouraged to guess the words that they do not know by considering the context of the sentence or
by looking for clues in the storyline and illustrations, rather than trying to sound them out.
Many teachers adopted the whole-language approach because of its intuitive appeal. Making
reading fun promises to keep children motivated, and learning to read depends more on what the
student does than on what the teacher does. The presumed benefits of whole-language instruction – and
the contrast to the perceived dullness of phonics – led to its growing acceptance across America during
the 1990s and a movement away from phonics.
(Adapted from https://mini-ielts.com)
Question 44: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Challenges of Learning to Read
B. A Debate Among Educators: Approaches to Teaching Reading
C. The Benefits of Whole-Language Instruction
D. The Triumph of Phonics over Whole-Word Instruction
Question 45: The word appropriate in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. proper B. unsuitable C. important D. essential
Question 46: The word them in paragraph 4 refers to ______.
A. illustrations B. books C. words D. clues
Question 47: According to paragraph 4, the whole-language method depends on ______.
A. the child’s awareness of vocabulary B. the child’s engagement with books
C. the language experience of the child D. the way the child pronounces words
Question 48: The word appeal in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. attraction B. refusal C. purpose D. drawback
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Educators have tried three approaches to teach children to read.
B. The whole-language approach is applied because of its intuitive appeal.
C. Educators can use only one method to teach children to read.
D. Most children learn to speak automatically.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. In most languages, speakers learn the connection between letters and the words.
B. In whole-word instruction, children learn how to use the knowledge of the alphabet.
C. The influence of the teacher’s activities on student’s learning to read is more important than
anything else.
D. The abandonment of the phonics approach in American schools was assumed to be due to its
boredom.

------ THE END ------

1
10
0
 1
11
1