ORAL SURGERY

1. Most common Signs and symptoms of Infective endocarditis

a. Fever
b. Heart murmur
c. Osler's nodes
d. Janeway lesions
e. Splenomegaly
2. In Patient taking aspirin:

a. Should be stopped three days before dental extraction.

b. Serious bleeding can occur and can't be controlled by local hemostatic agents.
c. Avoid any surgical intervention.
d. It should be replaced by heparin 5 days before surgery.
e. None of the above.
3. Adult patient with prosthetic cardiac valve came to your dental clinic suffering from infection at the lower right
molar, the tooth is non-restorable tooth and need extraction, the ideal prophylactic antibiotic is to use:

a. Oral Azithromycin 500mg 30-60 minutes before Procedure.

b. Oral Amoxicillin 2 g 30-60 minutes before Procedure.
c. Oral Amoxicillin 500mg every 8 hours starting one day before Procedure
d. Oral Clindamycin 600 mg 30-60 minutes before Procedure.
e . Oral Ceftriaxone 1 g 30-60 minutes before Procedure.
4. In hypertensive patient
a. One to two cartridges containing 1:100.000 adrenalin can be used safely in most patients with controlled hypertension
with the use of aspirating syringes.
b. We should always use anesthesia without adrenalin.
c. Patients may report dry mouth.
d. Adrenalin-impregnated gingival retraction cord are minimally absorbed so it has no adverse consequence.
e. All of the above

5. Patients with pacemaker

a. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be given 30-60 minutes before procedure.
b. Prophylactic nitroglycerine tab should be used.
c. Avoid the ultrasonic scalers as it causes bacteremia.
d. Diode laser should be avoided.
e. None of the above.

6. Patient develop signs of Myocardial infarction your management including:

a. Oxygen should be administered.
b. 300 mg of aspirin should be chewed.
c. Nitroglycerine sublingually
d. A and c
e. All of the above
7. Regarding the Hemolytic anemia. All of the following are true, except:
a. Inherited abnormal function or structure of erythrocytes.
b. Sickle cell anemia and Thalassemia are Hemolytic anemia.
c. Can be corrected by life style.
d. It could be autoimmune, drug induced or infective
e. Erythrocyte membrane defects as in Spherocytosis, Ovalocytosis and Stomatocytosis
8. The most common clinical sign and symptoms of multiple myeloma is
a. Painful bony lesions, that appear as osteolytic punched out lesions which may be associated with cortical bone
expansion,
b. Weight gain occasionally present.
c. Surgical approaches are preferred in those patients
d. Treatment of the osteolytic lesions is by the use of Bisphosphonate which may cause osteoradionecrosis after
extraction.
e. Patient may have multiple osteoid tissue in the skull

9. Which of the following is true regarding the oral complication of patient have WBCs dyscrasis?
a. Mucositis rare complication.
b. Infection can be severe.
c. Bleeding after minor oral surgery can be prevented by blood transfusion.
d. Fungal& viral infection may present.
e. All of the above.
10. All of the following may be seen as oral complications of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, except:
a. Xerostomia
b. Kaposi sarcoma
c. Poor wound healing
d. Gingivitis and periodontal disease
e. Burning mouth symptoms

11. All of the following is true regarding the management of the adrenal crisis, except:
a. Proper patient positioning (i.e., head lower than feet), fluid replacement,
b. Administration of vasopressors
c. Administration of 100 mg of hydrocortisone or 4 mg of dexamethasone IV
d. Transportation to a medical facility can be postpended.
e. All of the above

12. All of the following is true regarding the management of the thyrotoxic crisis, except:
a. The patient kept warm with hot towels
B. An injection of hydrocortisone (100-300 mg) can be given.
c. IV infusion of glucose water (if equipment is available) is required.
d. Vital signs must be monitored
e. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation can be initiated
13.In management of patient with Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases for dental treatment
a-Stable patients should be treated in upright or semi supine position.
b - Dentist should avoid anything that could further depress respiration.
c-Local anesthesia is satisfactory but bilateral inferior dental nerve or palatal nerve block should be avoided.
d-All of the above
e-None of the above

14. In management of patient with Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases for dental treatment
a-Low flow oxygen should be avoided when oxygen saturation is reduced below 95%.
b-Nitrous oxide (N₂O) is indicated in severe COPD.
c-Barbiturates and narcotics can be used safely.
d-All of the above
e-None of the above

15.In management of patient with asthma for dental treatment

a-Routine dental care should be postponed if patient is suffering sever unstable asthma.
b- It is not necessary to ask the patients to bring their bronchodilator inhalers with them,
c-Erythromycin can be used safely if the patient is taking Theophylline
d- All of the above
e-None of the above
16.Hepatitis A is considered less risky than Hepatitis B because:
a. Hepatitis A is less contagious than Hepatitis B.
b. Hepatitis A is self-limited hepatitis.
c. Hepatitis A virus is transmitted by blood route.
d. The Hepatitis B virus is transmitted by parenteral routes
e. All of the above

17.Major dental treatment considerations apply for patients with alcoholic liver disease are all except:
a. Bleeding tendencies
b. Unpredictable metabolism of drugs
c. Risk of infection or spread of infection
d. Transmission of viral hepatitis to the dentist
e. All are true

18. More sensitive indicator of liver damage are

a Scrum Alanine aminotransferase
b. Serum Aspartate aminotransferase
c. Plasma bilirubin level
d. Serum alkaline phosphatase
e. None of the above
19.Patient with chronic kidney disease under conservative care
a- Should not be treated for dental problem at all regardless of disease stage
b-Can be treated in hospital only if in stage 1
c-Requires consultation before dental treatment if was stage 4
d-All of the above
e-None of the above

20.Patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)

a-Requires antibiotic considerations if in stages 1 CKD and are not receiving dialysis
b-Requires antibiotic considerations if in stages 2 CKD and are not receiving dialysis
c-Requires antibiotic considerations if in stages 3 CKD and are not receiving dialysis
d-Do not requires additional antibiotic considerations if in stages 1 of the disease.
e-Do not requires additional antibiotic considerations if in stages 5 of the disease and undergoing extensive procedure

21.Patient with chronic kidney disease may complain of

a-Red-orange discoloration of the cheeks and mucosa
b-Salivary flow may be diminished
c-Altered or metallic taste
d- Any or all of the above
e-None of the above
22.If the patient has an epileptic seizure while in the dental chair
a-The primary task is to protect the patient and try to prevent injury.
b- No attempt should be made to move the patient to the floor.
c-The instruments and the instrument tray should be cleared from the area
d-All of the above
e-None of the above

23.If the patient has an epileptic seizure while in the dental chair
a-The chair should be placed in a supported supine position.
b-The patient's airway should be maintained patent.
c-Passive restraint should be used only.
d-All of the above
e-None of the above

24. In the event that epileptic seizure becomes prolonged or is repeated (status epilepticus):
a-Intravenous lorazepam is generally effective in controlling it.
b- Oxygen and respiratory support should be provided.
c-If the seizure lasts longer than 15 minutes, the following should be provided: IV access, repeat lorazepam dosing,
phenytoin administration and activation of the emergency medical system.
d-All of the above
e-None of the above
25.Regarding medical consideration of pregnant women, which of the following is true?
a. There will be increase in the blood volume by 40% to 50% in the 1st trimester
b. Cardiac output increases by 80% in the 3rd trimester.
c. Supine hypotensive syndrome developed in the 2nd trimester of the pregnancy
d. Syncope and postural hypotension are expected in the 1st trimester.
e. All of the above.

26. All of the following are true regarding the postural hypotension in the pregnancy, except:
a. Associated with an abrupt fall in blood pressure
b. Bradycardia, sweating, nausea, weakness may occur too
c. It's thought to be related to the compression of the inferior vena cava by the uterus.
d. May associated with impairment or loss of consciousness.
e. Management by rolling the patient on her right side.

27. Regarding the blood changes in the pregnant women, which of the following is false?
a. Anemia is expected in pregnant women
b. Increase the risk of risk of thromboembolism
c. WBC count increases progressively
d. Increased susceptibility to intracellular pathogens such as cytomegalovirus virus, herpes simplex virus, and varicella
e. Those patients had hypo-coagulable state.
28. Which of the following is true regarding patient in the stage 1 of AIDS infection?
a. Symptoms occur within about 1-3 months after infection
b. Symptoms clear in about 1-2 months
c. No seroconversion occurs at this stage
d. CD4+ and CD8+ lymphocytes reduced in numbers
e. All of the above

29. Regarding the dental management of patients with AIDS, which of the following is wrong?
a. Patients with a CD4+ cell count more than 350/µl, may receive all indicated dental treatment.
b. Prophylactic antibiotics indicted in the patients with CD4+ cell count≤ 400/µl because of the increased risk of
opportunistic infections.
c. Patient with lesions suggestive of HIV infection must be evaluated for possible HIV.
d. In planning invasive dental procedures, attention must be paid to the prevention of infection and excessive bleeding
e. All of the above

30.Risk of transmission of HIV include:

a-Low level of viremia.
b-Needle stick injury during injection of infected needle.
c-Exposure of large volume of non-infected needle.
d-All of the above
e-None of the above.
31.Regarding the Rheumatoid arthritis.
a. The severity of the disease varies widely from patient to patient and fluctuates over time within the same patient.
b. It's characterized by symmetrical inflammation of the joints.
c. Female to male ration 3:1
d. Corticosteroid is the first line of treatment
e. All of the above.

32.Regarding patients with Rheumatoid arthritis, all true except

a. About 20% of the patients had TMJ involvement.
b. Patients presented with decreased mobility of the Involved joint
c. Characterized by bilateral TMJ involvement
d. Fibrosis or bony ankylosis can occur as a consequence for the TMJ involvement
e. All of the above

33. Regarding rheumatoid arthritis all of the following are true, except.
a . May have anterior open bite.
b. Advanced TMJ Involvement with the disease can be solved by only physiotherapy.
c. May have severe stomatitis.
d. Radiographic changes of the TMJ, initially may show increased joint space
e. Inflammation in the joint.
34. When patient develops contact stomatitis
a-This could have been caused by impression materials containing aromatic sulfonate in postmenopausal women
b-Can not be caused by amalgam restorations
c-Dental composite always causes this type of reaction so should be avoided in all patients
d-The acrylic monomer in denture construction was not found to be associated with this type of reaction
e-None of the above

35.Lichenoid Drug Eruptions

a-Characterized with a lesion (identical to those of lichen planus) in patients that have taken certain drugs after
appearance of the lesions.
b. Characterized with a lesion (identical to those of lichen planus) in patients that have taken certain drugs before
appearance of the lesions.
c-Can be managed by drugs withdrawal which may result in the clearance of the lesions within several minutes
d-Can be managed by drugs withdrawal which may result in the clearance of the lesions immediately.

36.Management of severe type I hypersensitivity reactions

a-Place the patient in a head-down or supine position.
b- Make certain that the airway is patent.
c-Administer oxygen.
d- Be prepared to send for help and to support respiration and circulation
e-All of the above
37. Management of Xerostomia for patient with history of radiotherapy for head and neck are by
a. Drinking of water
b. Chewing any gum
c. Sympathomimetic drugs
d. A and c
e. All of the above

38. During Radiotherapy for patient with oral cancer

a. Oral mucositis can be reduced by using oral cryotherapy
b. Prevention of trismus by having the patient place tongue blades or Mouth blocks each day
c. Candidiasis is best managed with the use of topical oral antifungal agents
d. Dentures should not be worn until the end of acute phase of mucositis
e. All of the above

39. For Prevention of osteoradionecrosis in patient with history of Radiotherapy for head and neck, consider all
except
a. Endodontic therapy is preferred over extraction
b. Local anesthesia without adrenaline
c. A prophylactic dose of antibiotic before and after the extraction one hour before extraction and daily for three days
d. 20% hyperbaric oxygen therapy dives before extraction and 10 more dives immediately after extraction
e. Conservative management usually is indicated
40. Which bacteria are commonly involved in odontogenic infections?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Streptococci and Staphylococci
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
e. Salmonella typhi

41. Which space lies between the Mylohyoid muscle above, skin, subcutaneous tissue, Platysma muscle, and
deep cervical fascia below, laterally by the lower border of the mandible and anterior bellies of Digastric
muscle?

a. Submandibular space
b. Submental space
c. Sublingual space
d. Buccal space
e. Masticator space

42. What is the primary source of infection for the Submandibular space?
a. Upper molar teeth
b. Lower incisors and canines
c. Lower molar teeth, especially second and third molars
d. Tonsillitis,
e. Fracture of the angle of the mandible
43. In Ludwig's Angina, which spaces are simultaneously affected bilaterally?
a. Submandibular, Submental, and Sublingual spaces
b. Buccal and Masticator spaces
c. Subperiosteal abscess and Maxillary antrum
d. Sublingual and Submandibular spaces
e. Canine fossa and Temporal space
44. Which space is bounded laterally by the ramus of the mandible and the Temporalis muscle, medially by the
lateral pterygoid (plate superiorly by infratemporal surface of the greater wing of the sphenoid, and contains the
pterygoid venous plexus?
a. Temporal space
b. Sublingual space
c. Infratemporal space
d. Buccal space
e. Retropharyngeal space

45. What is the primary aim of dental treatment in managing odontogenic infections?

a. Drain accumulated pus

b. Relieve and decompress tissues
c. Eliminate the source of infection
d. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
e. Address systemic signs and symptoms
46. What is the primary reason for utilizing incision and drainage in odontogenic infections?
a. To relieve and decompress tissues
b. To administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
c. To eliminate the source of infection.
d. To address systemic signs and symptoms
e. To create a surgical airway

47. Which antibiotic is often indicated in the therapeutic management of odontogenic infections involving
Streptococcus?
a. Cephalosporin
b. Metronidazol
c. Tetracycline
d. Penicillin
e. Erythromycin

48. What is the clinical presentation of chronic pericoronitis?

a. Severe pain and limitation of mouth opening

b. Asymptomatic or mild discomfort
c. Sever pain, tenderness, and redness
d. Intraoral swelling and extraoral swelling
e. None of the above
49.In general, the suture diameter:
a. 0.2-0.8 mm
b.0.1-0.5 mm
c. 0.02-0.08 mm
d. 0.02-0.8 mm
e. None of the above

50. The flap should be of adequate width; this is true for the following reasons
a. For better healing
b. Good visualization and accessibility of the operative field
c. Permit flap margins to rest on intact and healthy bone
d. All statements are true
e. Only a and b

51.Ideally reflection of the triangular flap begins at

a. Papilla
b. Horizontal part of incision-
c. Non flap side
d. Edentulous area
e. According to the case
52.Semilunar Flap characterized by
a. Easy re-approximation to original position
b. Easily modified and extended
c. Convex part towards the labial or buccal vestibule
d. The lowest point of the incision must be at least 0.5 cm from the gingival margin
e. Good accessibility and visualization

53.Buccal Advancement Flap are

a. Envelope Flaps
b. Triangular Flap
c. Trapezoidal Flap
d. Finger flap
e. Y-shaped incision

54. The main suturing technique to evert the flap edges are
a. Simple interrupted
b. Anchor suture
c. Continuous suture
d. Vertical mattress
e. Horizontal suture
55.Suitable blade for most oral surgical procedures
a. Blade no. 12
b. Blade no. 10
c. Blade no. 11
d. Blade no.15
e. Blade no. 7

56. Which suture material is NOT suitable for oral surgery due to its high tissue reaction and short absorption
time?
a. Plain Catgut
b. Nylon
c. Olyglactin (Vicryl)
d. Polydioxanone (PDS)
e. Silk

57. Ideal timing for intraorally placed suture removal is;

a. 2-3 days postoperatively
b. 5-7 days postoperatively
c. 7-10 days postoperatively
d. 10-14 days postoperatively
e. 14-21 days postoperatively
58. In extraction sequencing, why are maxillary teeth usually removed first?
a. Rapid onset and disappearance of infiltration anesthesia
b. Better control of hemorrhage
c. Prevent trauma to the mandibular teeth
d. The maxillary teeth are easy to extract
e. More vertical traction force required

59. Under what conditions may leaving root fragments in the alveolar process be considered?
a. Root fragment is mobile
b. Presence of infection
c. Root fragment size is greater than 5 mm
d. Radiolucency around the root apex
e. Risk of serious local complications

60. In suturing the flap, the soft tissues are hold atraumatically with little chance of slippage by using
a. Non-toothed tissue forceps
b. Toothed tissue forceps
c. Artery forceps
d. Needle holder
e. None of the above
61.Causes of impacted teeth removal
a-Pericoronitis and pericoronal abscess
b-Dental Caries
c-Periodontal diseases: There is high prevalence of increased periodontal probing
d-All of the above
e-None of the above

62. Third molar should be removed in following patient to eliminate further complication in their existing
conditions
a-Prior to administration of radiotherapy
b-Patient with asthma
c-Patient with liver disease
d- All of the above
e-None of the above

63. According to space available between ramus and the distal side of the second molar one of the following
statements is true
a-Class I impacted third molar is when there is sufficient space available to erupt.
b-Class II impacted third molar is when there is sufficient space available to erupt.
c. Class I impacted third molar is when Space is less than the mesio-distal width of the crown of 3rd molar
d-Class II impacted third molar is when All or most of 3rd molar located within the ramus
e-Class III impacted third molar is when Space is less than the mesio-distal width of the
64. When examining radiographic data for the removal of impacted third molar the following fact or facts may
apply
a-Periapical radiograph: are more discriminating than OPG
b- Occlusal X-ray will help to show Bucco-lingual relationship
c-Lateral oblique view of mandible is useful when periapical film could not be taken due to trismus.
d-All of the above
e-None of the above

65. When Interpreting periapical X-ray prior to remove lower third molar surgically,
a-Access can be assessed
b- Access cannot be assessed
c- Noting the inclination of the radiopaque line cast by the external oblique ridge help to avoid fracturing maxillary
tuberosity
d- All of the above
e-None of the above

66. When discussing root morphology of impacted lower third molar

a- Roots that curve in the opposite direction to the pathway of removal break less often
b- Tooth with more than two-thirds root development is harder to remove compared to tooth with limited root
development.
c- Third molars with conical and fused roots are easier to remove than those with widely separated roots.
d- Roots with severe curvature are less difficult to remove.
e- Roots that curve in the same direction as the pathway of removal break more often
67. Tooth sectioning during removal of impacted third molar may
a-Increase operating time
b- Result in removal of additional amount of bone.
c-Can reduce operating time
d-All of the above
e-None of the above

68. What is the most common impacted tooth in the mouth?

a. Maxillary canine
b. Mandibular third molar
c. Maxillary third molar
d. Mandibular canine
e. Maxillary second premolar

69. What is the contraindication for corticotomy-assisted orthodontic treatment?

a. Impacted teeth
b. Active periodontal disease or gingival recession
c. Ankylosed teeth
d. Tooth decay
e. Overactive frenum
70. All are true for "Canine tooth Transplantation" procedure except
a. The transplanted tooth should be splinted in its new position for about a month.
b. Success rate is increased when the unerupted teeth with complete root formation.
c. Handling of the root is kept to minimum to ensure the viability of the cementum and periodontal ligament.
d. Endodontic treatment should be performed as soon as possible after surgery (about 6-8 weeks)
e. All are true

71. Which factor is significantly associated with failures in endodontic surgery?

a. Root canal retreatment
b. Volume of the periapical lesion
c. Inadequate crown/root ratio
d. Healthy periodontal status
e. Presence of sinus tract

72. What is not contraindication for periapical surgery?

a. Clinical evidence of vertical root fracture
b. Tooth with inadequate periodontal support
c. When the operation around the maxillary sinus (in molar apical surgery) and may lead to exposure of the sinus
d. Inexperienced operator with no training
e. Uncooperative patient
73. What is the primary purpose of prophylactic antibiotics in periapical surgery?
a. Pain management
b. Hemostasis enhancement
c. Prevention of infection spread
d. Decrease the size of the periapical lesion
e. Resolution of sinus tract

74. What is the recommended local anesthetic for an inferior alveolar nerve block in endodontic surgery?
a. Articaine
b. Bupivacaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Mepivacaine
e. Prilocaine

75. What is the preferred material for root end filling in contemporary endodontic surgery?
a. Gutta-percha
b. Zinc oxide eugenol
c. Glass ionomer
d. Mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA)
e. Composite resin
76. What is the ideal suture technique in the esthetic zone during endodontic surgery?
a. Interrupted sutures
b. Continuous sutures
c. Horizontal mattress sutures
d. Vertical mattress sutures
e. Sling suture

77. Why is osteomyelitis more common in the mandible than in the maxilla?
a. Greater blood supply in the mandible than maxilla
b. Presence of thick cortical plates in the mandible
c. Limited blood supply to the maxilla
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

78. What is the traditional role of Staphylococcus species in osteomyelitis, and which other bacteria are commonly
involved in cases of mandibular osteomyelitis?
a. Exclusively responsible for osteomyelitis
b. Limited role in osteomyelitis
c. Not associated with osteomyelitis
d. Predominantly involved; Streptococci and anaerobic bacteria
e. Only anaerobic bacteria are involved
79. What is the primary treatment approach for acute suppurative osteomyelitis, and what clinical and
radiological findings are associated with this condition?
a. Surgical debridement; moth-eaten appearance on X-rays
b. Antibiotic therapy alone; radiopaque sequestra
c. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy; increased trabecular bone density
d. Removal of the periosteum; radiographic onion-skinning
e. Nonviable tissue removal; chronic dull pain

80. Which type of osteomyelitis is characterized by intense pain, sclerosis, and fibrosis of the medullary space
involving Actinomyces species and Eikenella corrodens?
a. Chronic Suppurative Osteomyelitis
b. Osteomyelitis with Proliferative Periostitis
c. Chronic Sclerosing Osteomyelitis
d. Acute Suppurative Osteomyelitis
e. Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaws (MRONJ)

81. What is the primary cause of osteoradionecrosis?

a. Vascular compromise
b. Infection of bone
c. Bone remodeling
d. Osteoclast dysfunction
e. Bone resorption
82. What is the recommended treatment for osteoradionecrosis?
a. Aggressive debridement and systemic antibiotics
b. Prophylactic extraction of all teeth
c. Localized irradiation of affected areas
d. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy alone
e. Conservative management without intervention

83. What are the preventive measures recommended before radiotherapy to reduce the risk of
osteoradionecrosis?
a. Immediate extraction of all teeth
b. Delaying radiotherapy for 4 to 6 weeks after invasive dental procedures
c. Prophylactic use of systemic antibiotics
d. Administration of hyperbaric oxygen therapy
e. Administration of bisphosphonates

84. What are the three main classes of medications that can cause Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaws
? (MRONJ)
a. Antibiotics, analgesics, and antifungals
b. Anticoagulants, antihypertensives, and antidiabetics
c. Bisphosphonates, RANK Ligand Inhibitors, and Antiangiogenic Medications
d. Steroids, immunosuppressants, and chemotherapeutic agents
e. Anti-inflammatory drugs, muscle relaxants, and sedatives
85.How can dental care for patients about to start taking an antiresorptive medication help prevent the
development of MRONJ?
a. Immediate extraction of all teeth is recommended
b. Extraction of teeth should be avoided after starting medication
c. Prophylaxis, caries control, and conservative restorative dentistry
d. Avoiding any dental care until completion of medication
e. Administration of hyperbaric oxygen therapy before dental procedures

86.A threaded implant design

a. Cannot engages bone well
b-Achieves good primary stabilization.
c-Does not achieves good primary stabilization.
d-Is not preferred by majority of practitioners
e-Currently not used in dentistry

87. The use of a tapered implant design has been advocated because
a- It requires less space in the apical region
b-Better for placement between roots or in narrow anatomic areas with labial concavities
c-Can be use in extraction sockets.
d-All of the above
e-None of the above
88. Additive processes in dental implant manufacturing
a. Modifies the microstructure only of the implant surface
b. Modifies the macrostructure only of the implant surface
c. Add materials or chemicals to the existing surface
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

89.Subtractive processes in dental implant manufacturing

a-Modifies the microstructure only of the implant surface
b-Modifies the chemical nature only of the implant surface
c-Modifies the microstructure and chemical nature of the implant surface by adding to existing surface
d-Modifies the microstructure and chemical nature of the implant surface by removing or altering the existing
surface.
e-None of the above

90.Successful osseointegration of dental implant

a-Occurs for submerged but not for non-submerged dental implants when proven clinical guidelines are followed
b-Occurs for non-submerged but not for submerged dental implants when proven clinical guidelines are followed
c-Occurs for submerged and non-submerged dental implants when proven clinical guidelines are followed
d-Rarely occurs for submerged and non-submerged dental implants when proven clinical guidelines are followed
e-None of the above
91.The two-stage, submerged approach of dental implant surgery
a-Simplifies the procedure because exposure surgery is not necessary
b-Can be used when bone augmentation procedures at the time of implant placement is needed
c-Cannot be used when bone augmentation procedures at the time of implant placement is needed
d-All of the above
e-None of the above

92. Which of the following is NOT an indication of the biopsy procedure?

a. Any pathological condition that can be clinically diagnosed
b. Any lesion does not respond to routine clinical management
c. Malignant or premalignant suspicion
d. Fixed lymph node enlargement
e. None of the above

93. When conducting Incisional Biopsy

a. Small portion of a lesion is removed
b. All of the lesion is removed.
c. Not indicated if the lesion is large
d. Not required if the lesion demonstrates differing characteristics in different locations
e. None of the above
94. Excisional Biopsy
a-Removal of a lesion in its entirety or partially
b-Removal entire lesion with about 2 to 3 mm perimeter of normal tissue around the lesion
c-Avoided in smaller lesions (<1 cm in diameter, without excessively compromising function)
d- All of the above
e-None of the above .

95. What is the primary advantage of interventional imaging in oral and maxillofacial surgery?
a. Quick imaging
b. Non-invasiveness
c. Palliative treatment with minimal morbidity and mortality
d. Not leave scar
e. Cost-effectiveness

96. All are applications or uses of Ultrasonography in oral and maxillofacial surgery except
a. Detection of cervical lymphadenopathy.
b. Examination of various masses including thyroid gland, abscess, salivary glands.
c. Vascular abnormalities
d. Guided fine needle aspiration biopsy.
e. Fractures in facial skeleton
97. What is the major advantage of Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) over Computed Tomography (CT)?
a. Higher resolution of bone
b. Quick imaging
c. Non-ionizing radiation
d. Lower cost
e. Better for emergency cases

98. The pathological changes detected in Plain x-ray when the mineral content change at least
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 50-60%
e. None of the above

99.All are disadvantages of computed tomography (CT) except:

a. Ionizing radiation.
b. Inexpensive
c. Children require sedation
d. Respiratory motion or body motion leads to degradation of the image.
e. None of the above
100. Intravenous contrast in Computed tomography used to:
a. Enhance blood vessels resolution
b. Delineate bowel
c. Enhance bone resolution
d. Enhance fat resolution
e. None of the above