1) Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is

not correct?

(a) A Money Bill can be introduced only by a Minister.

(b) It cannot be returned for reconsideration by the President.
(c) It deals with the receipt of money on account of Public
account of India.
(d) A bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only
provisions relating to imposition of fines or other pecuniary
penalties.
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Answer: D
Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills. It states that a bill is
deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with all or any of the
following matters:
o The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
o The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government;
o The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the
payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund;
o The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
o Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing
the amount of any such expenditure;
o The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account
of India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union
or of a state; hence statement (c) is correct; or
o Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.
• However, a bill is not to be deemed to be a money bill by reason only that it provides for:
o the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, Hence, option (d) is not correct.
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2) An Inter-State Council may be established by:

(a) The Parliament

(b) The President
(c) The National Development Council
(d) The Zonal Council

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Answer: B
The Constitution of India in Article 263, provided that an Inter-State
Council (ISC) may be established "if at any time it appears to the
President that the public interests would be served by the
establishment of a Council".

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3. Consider the following statements regarding the office of Speaker
in the Lok Sabha:
1. A person who is not a member of the lower house cannot be
elected as its Speaker.
2. The Speaker is elected by a simple majority of members present
and voting in the House.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer: B
Each House of Parliament has its own presiding officer. There is a
Speaker and a Deputy Speaker for the Lok Sabha and a Chairman and
a Deputy Chairman for the Rajya Sabha.
• In the Lok Sabha, the Lower House of the Indian Parliament, both
Presiding Officers – the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are elected
from among its members by a simple majority of members present
and voting in the House. The date of election of the Speaker
is fixed by the President. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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4) Which Articles in the Constitution deal with the topic of
state legislatures?

a) Articles 168 to 212

b) Articles 26 to 78
c) Article 370
d) Article 1 to 25

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ANSWER: a) Articles 168 to 212

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5) Presidents rule can be imposed in a state for a maximum
of

A. 3 years
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years

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Answer : A. 3 years
6) In the parlance of parliament and state legislatures, what is “special
majority ?

(a) Two-thirds of present and voting members must vote yes, and this number
must also constitute the majority of the total capacity of membership of that
House
(b) Two-thirds of present and voting members must vote yes
(c) Two-thirds of present and voting members must vote yes, and there should
also be two- thirds majority of the total capacity of membership of that House
(d) None of the above

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Answer – (A)

7) Consider the following statements regarding the Sessions of Parliament in

India.
1. India does have a fixed parliamentary calendar and meets for three sessions
in a year.
2. Usually the Budget session has the longest period.
3. The summoning of Parliament is based on the provisions of the Government
of India Act, 1935.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 only
(b) 1, 3 only
(c) 2, 3 only
(d) 2 only
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Answer: C
➢ India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention, Parliament
meets for three sessions in a year. The longest, the Budget Session, starts
towards the end of January, and concludes by the end of April or first week of
May. The session has a recess so that Parliamentary Committees can discuss
the budgetary proposals.

➢ The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution.

Like many other articles, it is based on a provision of The Government of India
Act, 1935. This provision that the central legislature had to be summoned to
meet at least once a year, and that not more than 12 months could elapse
between two sessions.

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8) Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a
State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s Rule.
2. Appointing the Ministers.
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the
President of India.
4. Making rules to conduct the business of the State Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 ,3 & 4
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Answer – (B)

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9) Which is the Upper Chamber of State Legislature
in India?
(A) Legislative Council
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Governor’s Office
(D) None of the above

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Answer – (A)

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10) Consider the following statements:

1. Only Parliament shall have the power to make laws restricting the application
of Fundamental Rights to members of armed forces.
2. Both Parliament and State Legislature shall have powers to make laws for
prescribing punishment for offenses such as traffic in human beings and forced
labor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer: A
Article 35 lays down that the power to make laws, to give effect to
certain specified fundamental rights shall vest only in the Parliament
and not in the state legislatures. This provision ensures that there is
uniformity throughout India with regard to the nature of those
fundamental rights and punishment for their infringement.

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11) Which of the following amendments are deemed to be amendments of the
Constitution for the purposes of Article 368?

1. Changing the name of state

2. To change the procedure for removal of judges of Supreme Court.
3. To alter the representation of states in Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer: B
Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and also
through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some other articles provide for the
amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of
the members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative process). Notably, these
amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
• Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states can be done by
simple majority in Parliament and hence it is not considered a constitutional amendment. The following
provisions can be amended by special majority + consent of states.

1. Election of the President and its manner.

2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
3. Supreme Court and high courts.
4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
5. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
6. Representation of states in Parliament.
7. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368)

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12) Consider the following statements regarding Puducherry
Legislative Assembly.
1. The Puducherry Legislative Assembly is the unicameral legislature.
2. The members of the legislative assembly are both elected directly
by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise and nominated
by the Government of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: C

➢ Exercising the power given by the Constitution, the central government

made The Government of Union Territories Act, 1963.

➢ This law specifies that the Puducherry legislature will have 30 elected
MLAs, and a maximum of three MLAs nominated by the central
government. The law also specifies that the nominated persons should not
be government employees.

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13) Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary
form of Government in India:
1. The executive is responsible to the Legislature.
2. Only members elected in Parliament are eligible to become a
Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer: A
Statement 1 is correct: The parliamentary system of government is the one in
which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The ministers are members of both the legislature
and the executive.
This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of
the Parliament. The Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a
member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be
a minister.

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14) Which of the following statements is false?

(A) Fundamental Duties are given in Part IV of the Constitution

(B) After the 42nd constitutional amendment Fundamental Duties have been
added to the Constitution of India.
(C) In 2002, after the 82nd Constitution Amendment Act, another Fundamental
Duty was added.
(D) Public Representation Act, Built in1951.

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Ans. C
Explanation: In 2002, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India.

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15) If a Constitutional Amendment bill is presented to the President for
assent. The President:

(a) May give his assent

(b) May withhold his assent
(c) May return the bill for reconsideration of the parliament
(d) He must give his assent

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Answer: D
If a Constitutional Amendment bill is presented to the President for assent. The
president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to
the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.

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16) Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary Secretaries:

1. They are the members of the last category of the council of ministers.
2. They could be given the charge of separate ministries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer: A
Statement 1 is correct: They are the members of the last category of the council
of ministers (which is also known as the ‘ministry’).

Statement 2 is incorrect: They have no department under their control. They are
attached to the senior ministers and assist them in the discharge of their
parliamentary duties.

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17) Which one of the following statements about the Chief Minister
is not correct?
(A) He is normally selected by the Governor
(B) He is formally appointed by the Governor
(C) He is chosen by the members of the majority party in the
Legislative Assembly
(D) His continuance is office depends upon many factors

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Answer – (A)
18) Consider the following statements:

1. Parliament have the exclusive power to make laws on residuary subjects.

2. Education comes under union list.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer: A
➢ The power to make laws on residuary subjects rests with
Parliament.

➢ 2 is incorrect

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to

Concurrent List from state list.
They are Education, Forests, Weights and Measures, Protection of
wild animals and birds.

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19) Consider the following Directive Principles of State Policies:

1. To secure prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production.

2. To organise village panchayats.
3. To promote cottage industries.
4. To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest.

Which of the statements given above are Gandhian principles?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of the above

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Answer: B
The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the
basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories, viz,
socialistic, Gandhian and liberal–intellectual. The Gandhian principles are:
1. To organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to
enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).
2. To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas (Article
43).
3. To promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and
professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43(B).
4. To promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of
the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation (Article 46).
5. To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health
(Article 47).
6. To prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve
their breeds (Article 48).
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20) Consider the followings statements:

1. In respect of matters in the Concurrent List, the executive power

rests with the states, although with exceptions.
2. No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer: D
Statement 1 is correct: In respect of matters on which both the Parliament and the state
legislatures have power of legislation (i.e., the subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List),
the executive power rests with the states except when a Constitutional provision or a
parliamentary law specifically confers it on the Centre. Therefore, a law on a concurrent
subject, though enacted by the Parliament, is to be executed by the states except when the
Constitution or the Parliament has directed otherwise.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 265 says that no tax shall be levied or collected except by
authority of law.
Article 263: Provision with respect to an Inter-state council.

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