Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A x 2
Sol. f : (0, 2) ® R ; f(x) = +
1. Considering only the principal values of inverse 2 x
trigonometric functions, the number of positive 1 2
f ¢(x) = -
p 2 x2
real values of x satisfying tan -1 (x) + tan -1 (2x) =
4 \ f(x) is decreasing in domain.
is : f(x)
(1) More than 2
(2) 1

®
(3) 2
(4) 0
2
Ans. (2)
p x
Sol. tan -1 x + tan -1 2x = ;x>0 2
4
p ìx 2
Þ tan -1 2x = - tan -1 x ïï 2 + x 0 < x £ 1
4 g(x) = í
Taking tan both sides ï3 + x 1< x < 2
ïî 2
1-x
Þ 2x = g(x)
1+ x
Þ 2x 2 + 3x - 1 = 0
-3 ± 9 + 8 -3 ± 17
x= =
8 8
O 1 2
-3 + 17
Only possible x =
8 3. Let the image of the point (1, 0, 7) in the line
2. Consider the function f : (0, 2) ® R defined by x y -1 z - 2
= = be the point (a, b, g). Then
x 2 1 2 3
f(x) = + and the function g(x) defined by which one of the following points lies on the line
2 x
2p
ìmin{f(t)}, 0 < t £ x and 0 < x £ 1 passing through (a, b, g) and making angles
ï 3
g(x) = í 3 . Then
ïî 2 + x, 1< x < 2 3p
and with y-axis and z-axis respectively and an
4
(1) g is continuous but not differentiable at x = 1
acute angle with x-axis ?
(2) g is not continuous for all x Î (0, 2)
(3) g is neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 1
(
(1) 1, -2,1 + 2 ) (
(2) 1,2,1 - 2 )
(4) g is continuous and differentiable for all x Î (0, 2) (3) ( 3,4,3 - 2 2 ) (4) ( 3, -4,3 + 2 2 )

Ans. (1) Ans. (3)

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 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
x y -1 z - 2 4. Let R be the interior region between the lines
Sol. L1 = = = =l
1 2 3 3x - y + 1 = 0 and x + 2y - 5 = 0 containing the
P(1,0,7) origin. The set of all values of a, for which the
points (a2, a + 1) lie in R, is :
æ 1 ö æ1 ö
(1) (-3, -1) È ç - ,1÷ (2) ( -3,0) È ç ,1÷
è 3 ø è3 ø
M
æ2 ö æ1 ö
(3) (-3,0) È ç ,1÷ (4) (-3, -1) È ç ,1÷
è3 ø è3 ø
Q(a,b,g)
Ans. (2)
M(l,1 + 2l, 2 + 3l)
Sol. P(a2, a + 1)
uuur
PM = (l - 1)iˆ + (1 + 2 l)ˆj + (3l - 5)kˆ L1 = 3x – y + 1 = 0
uuur
Origin and P lies same side w.r.t. L1

®
PM is perpendicular to line L1
uuur r r Þ L1(0) . L1(P) > 0
PM.b = 0 ( b = ˆi + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ )
\ 3(a2) – (a + 1) + 1 > 0
Þ l - 1 + 4l + 2 + 9l - 15 = 0
y
14l = 14 Þ l = 1
\ M = (1,3,5)
r r r r r
Q = 2M - P [M is midpoint of P & Q ]
x
r O (0,0)
Q = 2iˆ + 6 ˆj + 10kˆ - ˆi - 7kˆ
L2 : x+2y–5=0
r
Q = ˆi + 6 ˆj + 3kˆ
L1 : 3x–y+1=0
\ (a, b, g) = (1,6,3)
Þ 3a2 – a > 0
Required line having direction cosine (l, m, n)
æ1 ö
a Î ( -¥,0) È ç , ¥ ÷ …….(1)
l2 + m2 + n 2 = 1 è3 ø
2
æ 1ö æ 1 ö
2
Let L2 : x + 2y – 5 = 0
Þ l2 + ç - ÷ + ç - ÷ =1
è 2ø è 2ø Origin and P lies same side w.r.t. L2

1 Þ L 2 (0).L 2 (P) > 0

l2 =
4
Þ a 2 + 2(a + 1) - 5 < 0
1
\l = [Line make acute angle with x-axis] Þ a 2 + 2a - 3 < 0
2
Þ (a + 3)(a - 1) < 0
Equation of line passing through (1, 6, 3) will be
\ a Î ( -3,1) …….(2)
r ˆ ˆ + m æ 1 ˆi - 1 ˆj - 1 kˆ ö
r = (i + 6 ˆj + 3k) ç ÷
è2 2 2 ø Intersection of (1) and (2)

Option (3) satisfying for m = 4 æ1 ö

a Î (-3,0) È ç ,1÷
è3 ø

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 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
5. The 20th term from the end of the progression 7. For 0 < a < 1, the value of the integral
1 1 3 1 p
20,19 ,18 ,17 ,...., -129 is :- dx
4 2 4 4 ò 1 - 2a cos x + a
0
2
is :
(1) –118 (2) –110
(3) –115 (4) –100 p2 p2
Ans. (3) (1) (2)
p + a2 p - a2
1 1 3 1
Sol. 20,19 ,18 ,17 ,......, -129 p p
4 2 4 4 (3) (4)
1- a2 1+ a2
This is A.P. with common difference
1 3 Ans. (3)
d1 = -1 + = -
4 4 p
dx
1 1 Sol. I=ò ; 0 < a <1
-129 ,..............,19 , 20 0
1 - 2a cos x + a 2
4 4
p
1 3 dx
This is also A.P. a = -129 and d = I=ò
1 + 2a cos x + a 2

®
4 4 0
Required term = p /2
2(1 + a 2 )
1 æ3ö 2I = 2 ò dx
-129 + (20 - 1) ç ÷ (1 + a ) - 4a 2 cos2 x
2 2
4 è4ø 0

p /2
1 3 2(1 + a 2 ).sec 2 x
= -129 - + 15 - = -115
4 4
ÞI= ò
0
(1 + a 2 ) 2 .sec 2 x - 4a 2
dx

ì -1 ü ì -5 ü
6. Let f : R - í ý ® R and g : R - í ý ® R be p /2
2.(1 + a 2 ).sec 2 x
2
î þ î2þ ÞI= ò (1 + a 2 )2 .tan 2 x + (1 - a 2 ) 2
dx
2x + 3 | x | +1 0
defined as f (x) = and g(x) = . Then
2x + 1 2x + 5 2.sec 2 x
the domain of the function fog is : p /2 .dx
1+ a2
ì 5ü
ÞI= ò æ 1- a2 ö
2
(1) R - í- ý (2) R 0
tan x + ç
2
î 2þ 2 ÷
è 1+ a ø
ì 7ü ì 5 7ü
(3) R - í- ý (4) R - í- , - ý 2 ép ù
î 4þ î 2 4þ ÞI= 2 ê
- 0ú
(1 - a ) ë 2 û
Ans. (1)
2x + 3 1 p
Sol. f (x) = ;x ¹ - I=
2x + 1 2 1- a2
| x | +1 5
g(x) = ,x ¹ - æxö
2x + 5 2 8. Let g(x)= 3f ç ÷ + f (3 - x) and f ¢¢(x) > 0 for all
è3ø
Domain of f(g(x))
2g(x) + 3 x Î (0,3) . If g is decreasing in (0, a) and
f (g(x)) =
2g(x) + 1 increasing in (a, 3), then 8a is
5 | x | +1 1 (1) 24
x ¹ - and ¹-
2 2x + 5 2
(2) 0
ì 5ü
x Î R - í- ý and x Î R (3) 18
î 2þ
(4) 20
ì 5ü
\ Domain will be R - í- ý
î 2þ Ans. (3)

3
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
æxö 10. If a, b are the roots of the equation, x 2 - x - 1 = 0
Sol. g(x) = 3f ç ÷ + f (3 - x) and f ¢¢(x) > 0 " x Î (0, 3)
è3ø and Sn = 2023a n + 2024bn , then
Þ f ¢(x) is increasing function
(1) 2S12 = S11 + S10
1 æxö
g¢(x) = 3 ´ .f ¢ ç ÷ - f ¢(3 - x) (2) S12 = S11 + S10
3 è3ø
(3) 2S11 = S12 + S10
æxö
= f ¢ ç ÷ - f ¢(3 - x)
è3ø (4) S11 = S10 + S12
If g is decreasing in (0, a) Ans. (2)
g¢(x) < 0 Sol. x2 - x -1 = 0
æxö Sn = 2023a n + 2024bn
f ¢ ç ÷ - f ¢(3 - x) < 0
è3ø
Sn -1 + Sn -2 = 2023a n -1 + 2024bn -1 + 2023a n -2 + 2024bn -2
æxö

®
f ¢ ç ÷ < f ¢(3 - x)
è3ø = 2023a n-2 [1 + a ] + 2024bn -2[1 + b]
x = 2023a n-2 [a 2 ] + 2024bn -2[b2 ]
Þ < 3- x
3
= 2023a n + 2024bn
9
Þx< Sn -1 + Sn -2 = Sn
4
9 Put n = 12
Therefore a =
4 S11 + S10 = S12
9
Then 8a = 8 ´ = 18 11. Let A and B be two finite sets with m and n
4
elements respectively. The total number of subsets
3 + a sin x + b cos x + log e (1 - x) 1 of the set A is 56 more than the total number of
9. If lim 2
= , then
x ®0 3tan x 3 subsets of B. Then the distance of the point P(m, n)
2a–b is equal to : from the point Q(–2, –3) is
(1) 2 (2) 7 (1) 10 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 1 (3) 4 (4) 8
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)
3 + a sin x + b cos x + log e (1 - x) 1
Sol. lim 2
= Sol. 2m - 2n = 56
x ®0 3tan x 3
é x3 ù é x2 x4 ù æ x2 x3 ö 2n (2m-n - 1) = 23 ´ 7
3 + a ê x - + ....ú + b ê1 - + ....ú + ç - x - - ... ÷
ë 3! û ë 2! 4! û è 2 3 ø 1
Þ lim
x ®0 3 tan 2 x
=
3
2n = 23 and 2m -n - 1 = 7
æ 1 bö Þ n = 3 and 2m-n = 8
(3 + b) + (a - 1)x + ç - - ÷ x 2 + ....
è 2 2ø x2 1
Þ lim 2
´ = Þ n = 3 and m - n = 3
x ®0 3x tan 2 x 3
1 b Þ n = 3 and m = 6
- - 1
Þ b + 3 = 0, a - 1 = 0 and 2 2 = P(6,3) and Q(–2, –3)
3 3
PQ = 82 + 62 = 100 = 10
Þ b = -3, a = 1
Hence option (1) is correct
Þ 2a - b = 2 + 3 = 5

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 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
12. The values of a, for which (x 8 - x 2 )dx
14. The integral ò 12 6 æ 1 ö
is
3 3 (x + 3x + 1) tan -1 ç x 3 + 3 ÷
1 a+ è x ø
2 2
1 1 equal to :
1 a + = 0 , lie in the interval 1/3
3 3 æ 1 öö
2a + 3 3a + 1 æ
0 (1) log e ç tan -1 ç x 3 + 3 ÷ ÷ + C
è è x øø
1/2
(1) (–2, 1) (2) (–3, 0) æ æ 1 öö
(2) log e ç tan -1 ç x 3 + 3 ÷ ÷ +C
è è x øø
æ 3 3ö
(3) ç - , ÷ (4) (0, 3)
è 2 2ø æ æ 1 öö
(3) log e ç tan -1 ç x 3 + 3 ÷ ÷ + C
Ans. (2) è è x øø
3
3 3 æ æ 1 öö
1 a+ (4) log e ç tan -1 ç x 3 + 3 ÷ ÷ + C
2 2 è è x øø

®
1 1
Sol. 1 a+ =0 Ans. (1)
3 3
2a + 3 3a + 1 x8 - x 2
0 Sol. I = ò dx
-1 æ 3 1 ö
(x + 3x + 1) tan ç x + 3 ÷
12 6

è x ø
ì 7a ü ì -7 ü
Þ (2a + 3) í ý - (3a + 1) í ý = 0 æ 1 ö
î 6 þ î6 þ Let tan -1 ç x 3 + 3 ÷ = t
è x ø
7a 7 1 æ 3 ö
Þ (2a + 3). + (3a + 1). = 0 Þ . ç 3x 2 - 4 ÷ dx = dt
6 6 æ
2
1 ö è x ø
1 + ç x3 + 3 ÷
Þ 2a 2 + 3a + 3a + 1 = 0 è x ø
Þ 2a 2 + 6a + 1 = 0 x6 3x 6 - 3
Þ . dx = dt
x12 + 3x 6 + 1 x 4
-3 + 7 - 3 - 7
Þa= , 1 dt 1
2 2 I = ò = ln | t | +C
3 t 3
Hence option (2) is correct. 1 æ 1 ö
I = ln tan -1 ç x 3 + 3 ÷ + C
13. An urn contains 6 white and 9 black balls. Two 3 è x ø
successive draws of 4 balls are made without 1/3
æ 1 ö
replacement. The probability, that the first draw I = ln tan -1 ç x 3 + 3 ÷ + C
è x ø
gives all white balls and the second draw gives all
Hence option (1) is correct
black balls, is :
15. If 2 tan 2 q - 5sec q = 1 has exactly 7 solutions in
5 5 é np ù
(1) (2) the interval ê 0, ú , for the least value of n Î N
256 715 ë 2 û
n
3 3 k
(3) (4) then å k is equal to :
715 256 k =1 2

Ans. (3) 1 14 1 15
(1) (2 - 14) (2) (2 - 15)
6 9 215 214
C4 C4 3
Sol. ´ = 15 1
15
C4 11
C 4 715 (3) 1 - 13 (4) 13 (214 - 15)
2 2
Hence option (3) is correct. Ans. (4)

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 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
Sol. 2 tan 2 q - 5sec q - 1 = 0 \ D is midpoint of BC

Þ 2sec2 q - 5sec q - 3 = 0 æ1 3 ö
D ç , ,3 ÷
Þ (2sec q + 1)(sec q - 3) = 0 è2 2 ø
2 2
1 æ 1ö æ 3ö
Þ sec q = - ,3 \ l = ç 2 - ÷ + ç -3 - ÷ + (3 - 3) 2
2 è 2ø è 2ø
1 45
Þ cos q = -2, l=
3 2
1 \2l2 = 45
Þ cos q =
3 17. If y = y(x) is the solution curve of the differential
For 7 solutions n = 13
equation (x 2 - 4)dy - (y2 - 3y)dx = 0 ,
13
k
So, å2
k =1
k
= S (say)
x > 2, y(4) =
3
and the slope of the curve is never

®
2
1 2 3 13 zero, then the value of y(10) equals :
S= + 2 + 3 + .... + 13
2 2 2 2
3 3
(1) (2)
1 1 1 12 13 1 + (8)1/4 1+ 2 2
S = 2 + 3 + ..... + 13 + 14
2 2 2 2 2
3 3
1
(3) (4)
1 - 13 1- 2 2 1 - (8)1/4
S 1 13 æ 213 - 1 ö 13
Þ = . 2 - 14 Þ S = 2. ç 13 ÷ - 13 Ans. (1)
2 2 1- 1 2 è 2 ø 2
2 Sol. (x 2 - 4)dy - (y 2 - 3y)dx = 0
16. The position vectors of the vertices A, B and C of a
dy dx
Þò =ò 2
triangle are 2iˆ - 3jˆ + 3kˆ , 2iˆ + 2jˆ + 3kˆ and y - 3y
2
x -4

-ˆi + ˆj + 3kˆ respectively. Let l denotes the length of 1 y - (y - 3) dx

Þ ò
3 y(y - 3)
dy = ò 2
x -4
the angle bisector AD of ÐBAC where D is on the
line segment BC, then 2l2 equals : 1 1 x-2
Þ (ln | y - 3 | - ln | y |) = ln +C
(1) 49 (2) 42 3 4 x +2
(3) 50 (4) 45 1 y -3 1 x - 2
Þ ln = ln +C
Ans. (4) 3 y 4 x +2
Sol. AB = 5 3
At x = 4, y =
AC = 5 2
A(2,–3,3) 1
\ C = ln 3
4
1 y-3 1 x -2 1
\ ln = ln + ln(3)
3 y 4 x+2 4
l At x = 10
B C 1 y -3 1 2 1
(2,2,3) D (–1,1,3) ln = ln + ln(3)
3 y 4 3 4

6
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session

ln
y-3
= ln 23/4 , "x > 2,
dy
<0 19. Let a =
( 4!)! and b =
( 5!)! . Then :
( 4!) ( 5!)
3! 4!
y dx

3 (1) a Î N and bÎN (2) aÎN and b Î N

as y(4) = Þ y Î (0,3)
2
(3) a Î N and b Î N (4) aÎN and bÎN
- y + 3 = 81/4.y
Ans. (3)
3
y=
1 + 81/4 (4!)! (5!)!
Sol. a= 3!
,b =
18. Let e1 be the eccentricity of the hyperbola (4!) (5!) 4!

x 2 y2 (24)! (120)!
- = 1 and e2 be the eccentricity of the ellipse a= 6
,b =
16 9 (4!) (5!) 24
x 2 y2 Let 24 distinct objects are divided into 6 groups of
+ = 1 , a > b, which passes through the foci
a 2 b2 4 objects in each group.

®
of the hyperbola. If e1e2 = 1, then the length of the
24!
chord of the ellipse parallel to the x-axis and No. of ways of formation of group = ÎN
(4!)6 .6!
passing through (0, 2) is :
Similarly,
8 5
(1) 4 5 (2) Let 120 distinct objects are divided into 24 groups
3
of 5 objects in each group.
10 5
(3) (4) 3 5 No. of ways of formation of groups
3
Ans. (3) (120)!
= ÎN
(5!) 24 .24!
x 2 y2 5
Sol. H: - =1 e1 =
16 9 4 20. Let the position vectors of the vertices A, B and C

4 of a triangle be 2iˆ + 2jˆ + kˆ , ˆi + 2jˆ + 2kˆ and

\ e1e2 = 1 Þ e2 =
5
2iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ respectively. Let l1, l2 and l3 be the
Also, ellipse is passing through ( ±5,0)
lengths of perpendiculars drawn from the ortho
\ a = 5 and b = 3
center of the triangle on the sides AB, BC and CA
2 2
x y respectively, then l12 + l22 + l32 equals :
E: + =1
25 9
1 1
(1) (2)
Q P 5 2
(0,2) 1 1
(3) (4)
(–5,0) (5,0) 4 3
Ans. (2)
æ 5 5 ö Sol. DABC is equilateral
End point of chord are ç ± ,2 ÷
ç 3 ÷ Orthocentre and centroid will be same
è ø

10 5 æ 5 5 5ö
\ LPQ = Gç , , ÷
3 è 3 3 3ø

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 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
A(2,2,1) Correct Sx i 2 = 2295 – 100 + 144 = 2339

2339 182 ´182

D s2 (correct variance) = -
15 15 ´15
G
Required value
= 15(m + m 2 + s2 )
B C
(1,2,2) (2,1,2) æ 182 182 ´ 182 2339 182 ´182 ö
= 15 ç + + -
è 15 15 ´ 15 15 15 ´15 ÷ø
æ3 3ö
Mid-point of AB is D ç ,2, ÷ æ 182 2339 ö
è2 2ø = 15 ç +
è 15 15 ÷ø
1 1 1
\ l1 = + + = 2521
36 9 36
22. If the area of the region
1

®
l1 = = l 2 = l3 {(x, y) : 0 £ y £ min{2x,6x - x 2}} is A, then 12 A
6
is equal to………………
1 Ans. (304)
\ l12 + l 22 + l 23 =
2
Sol. We have
y
SECTION-B
(0,9)
21. The mean and standard deviation of 15
observations were found to be 12 and 3 (0,8)
respectively. On rechecking it was found that an
observation was read as 10 in place of 12. If µ and
(6,0)
s2 denote the mean and variance of the correct x
O (3,0) (4,0)
observations respectively, then 15(m + m 2 + s2 ) is
6
equal to …………………….. 1
A = ´ 4 ´ 8 + ò (6x - x 2 )dx
Ans. (2521) 2 4

Sol. Let the incorrect mean be m¢ and standard 76

A=
deviation be s¢ 3

We have 12A = 304

Sx i 23. Let A be a 2 × 2 real matrix and I be the identity

m¢ = = 12 Þ Sx i = 180 matrix of order 2. If the roots of the equation
15
| A - xI |= 0 be –1 and 3, then the sum of the
As per given information correct Sx i = 180–10+12
diagonal elements of the matrix A2 is……………
182 Ans. (10)
Þ m (correct mean) =
15
Sol. |A – xI| = 0
Also
Roots are –1 and 3
Sx i 2
Sum of roots = tr(A) = 2
s¢ = - 144 = 3 Þ Sx i 2 = 2295
15 Product of roots = |A| = –3

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 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
éa b ù 25. The coefficient of x2012 in the expansion of
Let A = ê
ë c d úû (1 - x) 2008 (1 + x + x 2 ) 2007 is equal to
We have a + d = 2 Ans. (0)
ad – bc = –3 Sol. (1 - x)(1 - x) 2007 (1 + x + x 2 )2007
éa b ù éa b ù éa 2 + bc ab + bd ù (1 - x)(1 - x 3 ) 2007
A2 = ê ´ =ê 2ú
ë c d úû êëc d úû ë ac + cd bc + d û
(1 - x)( 2007 C0 -2007 C1 (x 3 ) + .......)
We need a 2 + bc + bc + d 2
General term
= a 2 + 2bc + d 2 (1 - x)(( -1) r 2007 Cr x 3r )
= (a + d) 2 - 2ad + 2bc
(-1) r2007 Cr x 3r - ( -1) r 2007 Cr x 3r +1
= 4 – 2(ad – bc)
3r = 2012
= 4 – 2(–3)
2012
r¹

®
=4+6 3
= 10 3r + 1 = 2012
24. If the sum of squares of all real values of a, for 3r = 2011
which the lines 2x – y + 3 = 0, 6x + 3y + 1 = 0 and 2011
r¹
ax + 2y –2 = 0 do not form a triangle is p, then the 3
greatest integer less than or equal to p is ……… Hence there is no term containing x2012.
Ans. (32) So coefficient of x2012 = 0
Sol. 2x - y + 3 = 0 26. If the solution curve, of the differential equation
dy x + y - 2
6x + 3y + 1 = 0 = passing through the point (2, 1) is
dx x-y
ax + 2y - 2 = 0 æ æ y -1 ö ö
2
æ y -1 ö 1
÷ - log e çç a + ç ÷ ÷ = loge | x - 1| ,
-1
tan ç
Will not form a D if ax + 2y - 2 = 0 is concurrent è x -1 ø b è è x - 1 ø ÷ø
with 2x - y + 3 = 0 and 6x + 3y + 1 = 0 or parallel then 5b + a is equal to
to either of them so Ans. (11)
Case-1: Concurrent lines dy x + y - 2
Sol. =
2 -1 3 dx x-y
4
6 3 1 =0Þa = x = X + h, y = Y + k
a 2 -2 5
dY X + Y
Case-2 : Parallel lines =
dX X - Y

-
a -6
=
2 3
a
or - = 2
2
h+k-2=0
h-k =0
h = k =1 }
Þ a = 4 or a = -4 Y = vX
16 dv 1 + v dv 1 + v2
P = 16 + 16 + v+ = Þ X- =
25 dX 1 - v dX 1 - v
é 16 ù 1- v dX
[P] = ê32 + ú = 32 dv =
ë 25 û 1+ v 2
X

9
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
1 28. Consider a circle (x - a) 2 + (y - b) 2 = 50 , where
tan -1 v - ln(1 + v2 ) = ln | X | +C
2 a, b > 0 . If the circle touches the line y + x = 0 at
As curve is passing through (2, 1) the point P, whose distance from the origin is 4 2 ,
1 æ æ y -1 ö ö
2
then (a + b) 2 is equal to…………….
-1 æ y - 1 ö
tan ç ÷ - ln ç1 + ç ÷ ÷ = ln | x - 1|
è x - 1 ø 2 èç è x - 1 ø ø÷ Ans. (100)
y
\a = 1 and b = 2
Þ 5b + a = 11
x (a,b)
æ 1- t ö
27. Let f (x) = ò g(t) log e ç ÷ dt , where g is a C
0 è 1+ t ø P
continuous odd function. Sol. x
O
p/2 2
æ x 2 cos x ö æ pö
Ifò çè f (x) + 1 + e x ÷ø dx = çè a ÷ø - a , then a is x+y=0
-p/2

®
equal to………….
S : (x - a) 2 + (y - b)2 = 50
Ans. (2)
x
CP = r
æ 1- t ö
Sol. f (x) = ò g(t)ln ç ÷ dt a +b
è 1+ t ø =5 2
0
2
-x
æ 1- t ö Þ (a + b) 2 = 100
f ( - x) = ò g(t)ln çè 1 + t ÷ø dt
0 x-2 y z-7
29. The lines = = and
x
æ 1+ y ö 2 -2 16
f ( - x) = - ò g(- y) ln ç ÷ dy x +3 y+ 2 z + 2
0 è 1- y ø = = intersect at the point P. If the
x
4 3 1
æ 1- y ö x + 1 y -1 z -1
= - ò g(y) ln ç ÷ dy (g is odd) distance of P from the line = = is l,
0 è 1+ y ø 2 3 1
f ( - x) = -f (x) Þ f is also odd then 14l2 is equal to……………..
Ans. (108)
Now,
x-2 y z-7
p/ 2
æ x 2 cos x ö Sol. = = =l
I= ò ç f (x) +
è 1 + e x ÷
ø
dx …..(1) 1 -1 8
-p /2 x +3 y+2 z+2
p /2
= = =k
æ x 2 e x cos x ö 4 3 1
I= òç
-p /2 è
f ( - x) +
1 + ex ø
÷ dx ……(2)
Þ l + 2 = 4k - 3
p /2 p /2
-l = 3k - 2
2I = ò x cos x dx = 2 ò x 2 cos x dx
2 Þ k = 1, l = -1
-p /2 0 8l + 7 = k - 2
p /2
\ P = (1,1, -1)
I = ( x 2 sin x )
p /2
0
- ò 2x sin xdx
0 P(1,1,–1)
p2
( )
p /2
= - 2 - x cos x + ò cos xdx
4 0 l
2
p2 p2 æpö
= - 2(0 + 1) = -2Þç ÷ -2
4 4 è2ø (–1,1,1)
\a = 2

10
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session

Projection of 2iˆ - 2kˆ on 2iˆ + 3jˆ + kˆ is

4-2 2
= =
4 + 9 +1 14
4 108
\l 2 = 8 - =
14 14
Þ 14l 2 = 108
1
30. Let the complex numbers a and lie on the
a
circles | z - z0 |2 = 4 and | z - z0 |2 = 16 respectively,

where z 0 = 1 + i . Then, the value of 100 | a |2

is……………

®
Ans. (20)
Sol. | z - z0 |2 = 4

Þ (a - z 0 )(a - z0 ) = 4

Þ aa - a z0 - z0a+ | z0 |2 = 4

Þ | a |2 -a z0 - z0a = 2 ……(1)

| z - z0 |2 = 16

æ1 öæ 1 ö
Þ ç - z 0 ÷ç - z0 ÷ = 16
èa øè a ø
Þ (1 - az 0 )(1 - a z0 ) = 16 | a |2

Þ 1 - az 0 - a z0 + | a |2 | z0 |2 = 16 | a |2

Þ 1 - az 0 - a z0 = 14 | a |2 ……(2)

From (1) and (2)

Þ 5 | a |2 = 1

Þ 100 | a |2 = 20

11
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 33. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
31. The equation of state of a real gas is given by Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R ).
Assertion (A) : The angular speed of the moon in
æ a ö
ç P + 2 ÷ ( V - b ) = RT , where P, V and T are its orbit about the earth is more than the angular
è V ø
speed of the earth in its orbit about the sun.
pressure. volume and temperature respectively and Reason (R) : The moon takes less time to move
R is the universal gas constant. The dimensions of around the earth than the time taken by the earth to
a move around the sun.
is similar to that of : In the light of the above statements, choose the
b2
most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) PV

®
below:
(2) P (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) RT (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(4) R correct explanation of (A)
Ans. (2) (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
[ P ] = êé
a ù
Sol. 2 ú
Þ [ a ] = éë PV2 ùû (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
ëV û Ans. (2)
And [V] = [b] 2p 1
Sol. w = Þ wµ
[a ] é PV2 ù
ë û= P
T T
= [ ] Tmoon = 27 days
éb ù éV ù
2 2
ë û ë û
Tearth = 365 days 4 hour
32. Wheatstone bridge principle is used to measure the Þ wmoon > wearth
specific resistance (S1) of given wire, having 34. Given below are two statements :
length L, radius r. If X is the resistance of wire, Statement (I) : The limiting force of static friction
æ pr 2 ö depends on the area of contact and independent of
then specific resistance is : S1 = X ç ÷ . If the materials.
è L ø Statement (II) : The limiting force of kinetic
length of the wire gets doubled then the value of friction is independent of the area of contact and
specific resistance will be : depends on materials.
S1 In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) most appropriate answer from the options given
4
below :
(2) 2S1
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
S1 incorrect
(3)
2 (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) S1 correct
Ans. (4) (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Sol. As specific resistance does not depends on
Ans. (2)
dimension of wire so, it will not change. Sol. Co-efficient of friction depends on surface in
contact So, depends on material of object.

1
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
35. The truth table of the given circuit diagram is: 37. The atomic mass of 6C12 is 12.000000 u and that of
13
A 6C is 13.003354 u. The required energy to
remove a neutron from 6C13, if mass of neutron is
Y 1.008665 u, will be :
(1) 62. 5 MeV (2) 6.25 MeV
B (3) 4.95 MeV (4) 49.5 MeV
Ans. (3)
A B Y A B Y Sol. C13 + Energy ® 6 C12 + 0 n1
6
0 0 1 0 0 0
Dm = (12.000000 + 1.008665) – 13.003354
(1) 0 1 0 (2) 0 1 1
= – 0.00531 u
1 0 0 1 0 1
\ Energy required = 0.00531 × 931.5 MeV
1 1 1 1 1 0
= 4.95 MeV
A B Y A B Y 38. A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical

®
0 0 0 0 0 1 plane so that its magnitude of acceleration in the
(3) 0 1 0 (4) 0 1 1 extreme position and lowest position are equal.
The angle (q) of thread deflection in the extreme
1 0 0 1 0 1
position will be :
1 1 1 1 1 0
Ans. (2)
(1) tan -1 2 ( ) æ1ö
(2) 2 tan -1 ç ÷
è2ø
A A.B æ1ö æ 1 ö
Sol. A (3) tan -1 ç ÷ (4) 2 tan -1 ç ÷
è2ø è 5ø
B
Y Ans. (2)
A.B Sol.
A
B
B

Y = A×B+ A×B q
This is XOR GATE v
36. A current of 200 mA deflects the coil of a moving Loss in kinetic energy = Gain in potential energy
1
coil galvanometer through 60°. The current to Þ mv 2 = mg l (1 - cos q )
2
p
cause deflection through radian is : v2
10 Þ = 2g (1 - cos q )
l
(1) 30 mA (2) 120 mA
v2
Acceleration at lowest point =
(3) 60 mA (4) 180 mA l
Ans. (3) Acceleration at extreme point = gsinq
v2
Sol. i µ q (angle of deflection) Hence, = gsin q
l
i2 q2 i2 p / 10 3 \ sin q = 2 (1 - cos q )
\ = Þ = =
i1 q1 200 mA p / 3 10
q 1 æ1ö
Þ tan = Þ q = 2 tan -1 ç ÷
Þ i 2 = 60 mA 2 2 è2ø

2
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
39. Three voltmeters, all having different internal 42. Primary side of a transformer is connected to
resistances are joined as shown in figure. When 230 V, 50 Hz supply. Turns ratio of primary to
some potential difference is applied across A and secondary winding is 10 : 1. Load resistance
B, their readings are V1, V2 and V3. Choose the
connected to secondary side is 46 W. The power
correct option.
consumed in it is :
V1 V2
(1) 12.5 W (2) 10.0 W
(3) 11.5 W (4) 12.0 W
A B
Ans. (3)
V3 V1 N1
Sol. =
V2 N 2
(1) V1 = V2 (2) V1 ¹ V3 - V2
230 10
(3) V1 + V2 > V3 (4) V1 + V2 = V3 =
V2 1
Ans. (4)
Sol. From KVL, V2 = 23 V

®
V1 + V2 – V3 = 0 Þ V1 + V2 = V3
V22
40. The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at Power consumed =
R
27°C is :
[Use universal gas constant (R)= 8.31 J/mole K] 23 ´ 23
= = 11.5 W
(1) 6845.5 J (2) 5942.0 J 46
(3) 6232.5 J (4) 5670.5J 43. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is
Ans. (3) found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute
f
Sol. Kinetic energy = nRT Cp
2 temperature. The ratio of for the gas is :
Cv
5
= ´ 1 ´ 8.31 ´ 300 J 5 3
2 (1) (2)
= 6232.5 J 3 2
41. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as 7 9
Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (3) (4)
5 7
(R).
Ans. (2)
Assertion (A) : In Vernier calliper if positive zero
error exists, then while taking measurements, the Sol. P µ T3 Þ PT -3 = constant
reading taken will be more than the actual reading. PV g = const
Reason (R) : The zero error in Vernier Calliper g
might have happened due to manufacturing defect æ nRT ö
Pç ÷ = const
or due to rough handling. è P ø
In the light of the above statements, choose the P1-g T g = const
correct answer from the options given below : g
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the PT1-g = const
correct explanation of (A)
g
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the = -3
1- g
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false g = -3 + 3g
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true 3 = 2g
Ans. (2)
3
Sol. Assertion & Reason both are correct g=
Theory 2

3
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
44. The threshold frequency of a metal with work Sol. Let I0 be intensity of unpolarised light incident on
function 6.63 eV is : first polaroid.
I1 = Intensity of light transmitted from 1st polaroid
(1) 16 ´ 1015 Hz
I
= 0
(2) 16 ´ 1012 Hz 2
q be the angle between 1st and 2nd polaroid
(3) 1.6 ´ 1012 Hz
f be the angle between 2nd and 3rd polaroid
(4) 1.6 ´ 1015 Hz q + f = 900 (as 1st and 3rd polaroid are crossed)
Ans. (4) f = 900 - q
Sol. f0 = hn0 [ 0,1] I2 = Intensity from 2nd polaroid
I
6.63 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 = 6.63 ´ 10 -34 n0 I 2 = I1 cos2 q = 0 cos2 q
2
1.6 ´ 10 -19 I3 = Intensity from 3rd polaroid
v0 =
10 -34 I 3 = I 2 cos2 f

®
v 0 = 1.6 ´ 1015 Hz I 3 = I1 cos2 q cos2 f
45. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as I0
I3 = cos2 q cos2 f
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason 2
(R) f = 90 - q
Assertion (A) : The property of body, by virtue of I0
I3 = cos2 q sin 2 q
which it tends to regain its original shape when the 2
2
external force is removed, is Elasticity. I 0 é 2sin q cos q ù
I3 =
Reason (R) : The restoring force depends upon the 2 êë 2 ú
û
bonded inter atomic and inter molecular force of I0
I 3 = sin 2 2q
solid. 8
I3 will be maximum when sin 2q = 1
In the light of the above statements, choose the
2 q = 90°
correct answer from the options given below : q = 45°
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true 47. An object is placed in a medium of refractive
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false index 3. An electromagnetic wave of intensity
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 6 × 108 W/m2 falls normally on the object and it is
explanation (A) absorbed completely. The radiation pressure on
the object would be (speed of light in free space
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
= 3 × 108 m/s) :
correct explanation of (A) (1) 36 Nm–2 (2) 18 Nm–2
Ans. By NTA (3) (3) 6 Nm—2 (4) 2 Nm–2
Ans. By Allen (3 or 4) Ans. (3)
Sol. Theory I
Sol. Radiation pressure =
46. When a polaroid sheet is rotated between two v
crossed polaroids then the transmitted light I ×m
=
intensity will be maximum for a rotation of : c
(1) 60° (2) 30° 6 ´ 108 ´ 3
=
3 ´ 108
(3) 90° (4) 45°
= 6 N/m2
Ans. (4)

4
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
48. Given below are two statements : one is labelled a 50. A bullet is fired into a fixed target looses one third
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
of its velocity after travelling 4 cm. It penetrates
Reason(R)
Assertion (A) : Work done by electric field on further D × 10–3 m before coming to rest. The
moving a positive charge on an equipotential value of D is :
surface is always zero.
Reason (R) : Electric lines of forces are always (1) 2 (2) 5
perpendicular to equipotential surfaces. (3) 3 (4) 4
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given Ans. (Bonus)
below : Sol. v2 – u2 = 2aS
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
2
æ 2u ö
correct explanation of (A)
ç 3 ÷ = u + 2 ( -a ) 4 ´ 10
è ø
2
(-2
)
(2) ((A) is correct but (R) is not correct

®
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4u 2
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
9
(
= u 2 - 2a 4 ´ 10 -2 )
correct explanation of (A)
Ans. (4) 5u 2
Sol. Electric line of force are always perpendicular to
-
9
( )
= -2a 4 ´ 10 -2 …(1)

equipotential surface so angle between farce and

2
æ 2u ö
displacement will always be 90°. So work done 0 = ç ÷ + 2 ( -a )( x )
equal to 0. è 3 ø
49. A heavy iron bar of weight 12 kg is having its one
4u 2
end on the ground and the other on the shoulder of - = -2ax …(2)
9
a man. The rod makes an angle 60° with the
horizontal, the weight experienced by the man is : (1) /(2)
(1) 6 kg
5 4 ´ 10 -2
(2) 12 kg =
4 x
(3) 3 kg
(4) 6 3 kg 16
x= ´ 10 -2
Ans. By NTA (1) 5
Ans. By Allen (3) x = 3 × 2 ´ 10 -2 m
N2
x = 32 ´ 10 -3 m
Sol.
Note : Since no option is matching, Question
N1
should be bonus.
60° 120
O f
Torque about O = 0
æL ö
120 ç cos60° ÷ - N 2 L = 0
è 2 ø
N2 = 30 N

5
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
SECTION-B (1, 0, 4) (2, –1, 5)
Sol.
51. The magnetic field at the centre of a wire loop A B
– 4mC 4mC
formed by two semicircular wires of radii R1 = 2p m
r r r
and R2 = 4p m carrying current I = 4A as per figure t = p´ E
r r
given below is a × 10–7 T. The value of a is p = ql
r V V
______. (Centre O is common for all segments) E = 0.2 = 20
cm m
r
(
p = 4 ´ ˆi - ˆj + kˆ )
O
R2
( )
= 4iˆ - 4 ˆj + 4kˆ mC - m
r
R1 ( ) ( )
t = 4iˆ - 4 ˆj + 4kˆ ´ 20iˆ ´ 10 -6 Nm

®
Ans. (3.00) ( )
= 8kˆ + 8jˆ ´ 10 -5 = 8 2 ´ 10 -5

a=2

Sol. 53. A closed organ pipe 150 cm long gives 7 beats per
R2 second with an open organ pipe of length 350 cm,
O both vibrating in fundamental mode. The velocity
R1 of sound is ________ m/s.
Ans. (294.00)
m0 i æ p ö miæ p ö
ç ÷ Ä+ 0 ç ÷Ä Sol. closed open
2R 2 è 2p ø 2R1 è 2p ø
pipe pipe
æ m0 i m iö
ç + 0 ÷Ä 150 cm 350 cm
è 4R 2 4R1 ø
v v
4 p ´ 10 -7 ´ 4 4 p ´ 10 -7 ´ 4 fc = fo =
+ 4l 1 2l 2
4 ´ 4p 4 ´ 2p
fc - f0 = 7
= 3 ´ 10 -7 = a ´ 10 -7
v v
a=3 - =7
4 ´ 150 2 ´ 350
52. Two charges of –4 mC and +4 mC are placed at the v v
- =7
600 cm 700 cm
points A(1, 0, 4)m and B(2, –1, 5) m located in an
r v v
electric field E = 0.20 ˆi V / cm . The magnitude of - =7
6m 7m
the torque acting on the dipole is 8 a ´ 10 -5 Nm , æ 1 ö
vç ÷ = 7
è 42 ø
Where a = _____.
v = 42 ´ 7
Ans. (2.00) = 294 m/s

6
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
54. A body falling under gravity covers two points A 1
Sol. Change in pressure = rv 2
and B separated by 80 m in 2s. The distance of 2

upper point A from the starting point is ________ 1

4.5 ´ 10 4 - 2.0 ´ 10 4 = ´ 103 ´ v 2
2
m (use g = 10 ms–2)
1
2.5 ´ 10 4 = ´ 10 3 ´ v 2
Ans. (45.00) 2
v2 = 50
O start v = 50
u=0

S Velocity of water = V = 50
Sol.
= V = 50
A v1
56. A ring and a solid sphere roll down the same
80 m inclined plane without slipping. They start from

®
rest. The radii of both bodies are identical and the
B 7
ratio of their kinetic energies is where x is
x
From A ® B
________.
1
-80 = -v1t - ´ 10t 2 Ans. (7.00)
2
Sol. In pure rolling work done by friction is zero.
1
-80 = -2v1 - ´ 10 ´ 22 Hence potential energy is converted into kinetic
2
energy. Since initially the ring and the sphere have
-80 = -2v1 - 20
same potential energy, finally they will have same
-60 = -2v1 kinetic energy too.

v1 = 30 m/s \ Ratio of kinetic energies = 1

7
From O to A Þ =1 Þx = 7
x
v 2 = u 2 + 2gS 57. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of

30 2 = 0 + 2 ´ ( -10 )( -S ) wavelength 5000 Å is incident normally on a

single narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is
900 = 20 S
focused by convex lens on screen, placed on its
S = 45 m focal plane. The first minima will be formed for
55. The reading of pressure metre attached with a the angle of diffraction of ________ (degree).
4 2
closed pipe is 4.5 × 10 N/m . On opening the Ans. (30.00)
valve, water starts flowing and the reading of Sol. For first minima
4 2
pressure metre falls to 2.0 × 10 N/m . The a sin q = l

velocity of water is found to be Vm/s . The l 5000 ´ 10 -10 1

Þ sin q = = =
a 1 ´ 10 -6 2
value of V is ________
Þ q = 30°
Ans. (50)

7
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
58. The electric potential at the surface of an atomic 100 10-3
nucleus (z = 50) of radius 9 × 10–13 cm is 60. A series LCR circuit with L = mH, C = F
p p
________ × 106 V.
Ans. (8.00) and R = 10 W, is connected across an ac source of
kQ k.Ze 220 V, 50 Hz supply. The power factor of the
Sol. Potential = =
R R
circuit would be ________.
9 ´ 10 9 ´ 50 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
= Ans. (1.00)
9 ´ 10 -13 ´ 10 -2
1 p
= 8 ´ 10 6 V Sol. Xc = = = 10 W
wC 2p ´ 50 ´ 10 -3
59. If Rydberg’s constant is R, the longest wavelength
100
a X L = wL = 2p´ 50 ´ ´ 10 -3
of radiation in Paschen series will be , where p
7R
= 10 W
a = ________.
Ans. (144.00) Q X C = X L ,Hence, circuit is in resonance

®
Sol. Longest wavelength corresponds to transition R R
between n = 3 and n = 4 \ power factor = = =1
Z R
1 æ 1 1 ö æ1 1 ö
= RZ 2 ç 2 - 2 ÷ = RZ 2 ç - ÷
l è3 4 ø è 9 16 ø
7RZ 2
=
9 ´ 16
144
Þl= for Z = 1 \a = 144
7R

8
 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024

(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 63. Which of the following statements is not correct
61. The order of relative stability of the contributing about rusting of iron?
structure is: (1) Coating of iron surface by tin prevents rusting,
y even if the tin coating is peeling off.
O O (2) When pH lies above 9 or 10, rusting of iron
Å
CH2 = CH – C – H CH2 – CH = C – H does not take place.
I II (3) Dissolved acidic oxides SO2, NO2 in water act
as catalyst in the process of rusting.
(4) Rusting of iron is envisaged as setting up of
OÅ electrochemical cell on the surface of iron
– object.

®
CH2 – CH = C – H
III Ans. (1)
Choose the correct answer from the options given Sol. As tin coating is peeled off, then iron is exposed to
below: atmosphere.
64. Given below are two statements:
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
Statement (I) : In the Lanthanoids, the formation
(3) I = II = III (4) III > II > I of Ce+4 is favoured by its noble gas configuration.
Ans. (1) Statement (II) : Ce+4 is a strong oxidant reverting
Sol. I > II > III, since neutral resonating structures are to the common +3 state.
more stable than charged resonating structure. II > III, In the light of the above statements, choose the
since stability of structure with –ve charge on more most appropriate answer from the options given
electronegative atom is higher. below:
62. Which among the following halide/s will not show (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
SN1 reaction: (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(A) H2C = CH – CH2Cl
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(B) CH3 – CH = CH – Cl Ans. (2)
CH2 – Cl Sol. Statement (1) is true, Ce+4 has noble gas electronic
(C) configuration.
Statement (2) is also true due to high reduction
CH3 potential for Ce4+/Ce3+ (+1.74V), and stability of
(D) CH – Cl Ce3+, Ce4+ acts as strong oxidizing agent.
H3C
65. Choose the correct option having all the elements
Choose the most appropriate answer from the with d10 electronic configuration from the following:
options given below: (1) 27Co, 28Ni, 26Fe, 24Cr
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only (2) 29Cu, 30Zn, 48Cd, 47Ag
(2) (A) and (B) only (3) 46Pd, 28Ni, 26Fe, 24Cr
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) 28Ni, 24Cr, 26Fe, 29Cu
(4) (B) only Ans. (2)
Ans. (4) Sol. [Cr] = [Ar]4s1 3d5
+ [Cd] = [Kr]5s24d10
Sol. Since CH 3 - CH = C H is very unstable, [Cu] = [Ar]4s13d10
CH3 – CH = CH – Cl cannot give SN1reaction. [Ag] = [Kr]5s14d10
[Zn] = [Ar]4s23d10

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 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
66. Phenolic group can be identified by a positive: Sol. B2 H 6 /H 2 O2 ,OH
PhCH = CH 2 ¾¾¾¾¾¾®
–
PhCH 2 CH 2 OH
(1) Phthalein dye test
(2) Lucas test PhCH2CH2OH + HBr PhCH2CH2Br + H2O(SNNGP)
(3) Tollen’s test O Mg/dry ether
(4) Carbylamine test
(I) H – C – H
Ans. (1) PhCH2CH2CH2OH + PhCH2CH2MgBr
(II) H3O
Sol. Carbylamine Test-Identification of primary amines
Lucas Test - Differentiation between 1°, 2° and 3°
alcohols 70. Match List-I with List-II.
Tollen's Test - Identification of Aldehydes List-I List-II
Phthalein Dye Test - Identification of phenols (Reaction) (Reagent(s))
67. The molecular formula of second homologue in the (A) OH OH (I) Na2Cr2O7,
COOH H2SO4
homologous series of mono carboxylic acids is
_________.
(1) C3H6O2 (B) OH OH (II) (i) NaOH
(2) C2H4O2

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CHO (ii) CH3Cl
(3) CH2O
(4) C2H2O2
(C) OH O (III) (i)NaOH,
Ans. (2)
CHCl3
Sol. HCOOH, CH3COOH
(ii) NaOH
­ (iii) HCl
Second homologue O
68. The technique used for purification of steam
volatile water immiscible substance is: (D) OH (IV) (i) NaOH
(1) Fractional distillation (ii) CO2
(2) Fractional distillation under reduced pressure OCH3 (iii) HCl
(3) Distillation
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Steam distillation
below:
Ans. (4)
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
Sol. Steam distillation is used for those liquids which
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
are insoluble in water, containing non-volatile
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
impurities and are steam volatile.
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
69. The final product A, formed in the following Ans. (4)
reaction sequence is: Sol. (A) ® Kolbe Schmidt Reaction
(i) BH 3
! (B) ® Reimer Tiemann Reaction
(ii) H 2O 2, OH
Ph–CH=CH2 A (C) ® Oxidation of phenol to p-benzoquinone
(iii) HBr
(iv) Mg, ether, then HCHO/H3 O
+ (D) ® PhOH + NaOH ® H2O + PhO–
(1) Ph - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH3 PhO– + CH3 – Cl ¾® PhOCH3 + Cl–
(2) Ph - CH - CH3
| 71. Major product formed in the following reaction is a
CH3 mixture of:
CH3
(3) Ph - CH - CH3
| HI
O – C – CH3 Major Product
CH 2OH
CH3
(4) Ph - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 2 - OH
Ans. (4)

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 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
I Statement (II) : Down the group 16 stability of +4
oxidation state decreases and +6 oxidation state
(1) and (CH3)3Cl increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
I
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(2) and (CH3)3COH
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
OH (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Ans. (3)
(3) and (CH3)3COH
Sol. Statement-I: Oxygen can have oxidation state from
OH –2 to +2, so statement I is incorrect
CH3
Statement- II: On moving down the group stability

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(4) and CH3 – C – I
of +4 oxidation state increases whereas stability of
CH3 +6 oxidation state decreases down the group,
Ans. (4)
Sol. according to inert pair effect.
H So both statements are wrong.
O +
O 74. Identify from the following species in which d2sp3
+H–I +I
– hybridization is shown by central atom:
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(2) BrF5
OH
+ I– (3) [Pt(Cl)4]2–
+ I
(4) SF6
Ans. (1)
72. Bond line formula of HOCH(CN)2 is: Sol. [Co(NH3)6]+3 – d2sp3 hybridization
H
BrF5 – sp3d2 hybridization
(1) C CN [PtCl4]-2 – dsp2 hybridization
HO CN SF6 – sp3d2 hybridization
(2) HO CºN
CH 75. Identify B formed in the reaction.
CºN excess NH
Cl - (CH 2 ) 4 - Cl ¾¾¾¾®
3 NaOH
A ¾¾¾ ® B + H 2 O + NaCl
CN
(3) HO CH NH
CN
(1)
OH
(4)
CN CN (2) H 2 N - ( CH 2 )4 - NH 2
Ans. (4) + +
OH (3) Cl N H 3 - (CH 2 ) 4 - N H 3Cl -
OH
CH
Sol. CH (OH) (CN)2 is or
CN CN NC CN N
73. Given below are two statements: N
Statement (I) : Oxygen being the first member of (4)
group 16 exhibits only –2 oxidation state.

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 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
Ans. (2) (3) Eclipsed conformation is the most stable
Sol. conformation.
(4) The conformations of ethane are inter-
excess –Å Å –
Cl – (CH2)4 – Cl NH Cl NH3 – (CH2)4 – NH3Cl convertible to one-another.
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(A) Ans. (3)
Sol. Eclipsed conformation is the least stable
NaOH
conformation of ethane.
80. Identity the incorrect pair from the following:
2NaCl + 2H2O + NH2 – (CH2)4 – NH2 (1) Photography - AgBr
76. The quantity which changes with temperature is: (2) Polythene preparation – TiCl4, Al(CH3)3
(1) Molarity (3) Haber process - Iron
(4) Wacker process – Pt Cl2
(2) Mass percentage
Ans. (4)
(3) Molality
Sol. The catalyst used in Wacker's process is PdCl2
(4) Mole fraction
SECTION-B
Ans. (1)

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81. Total number of ions from the following with
Molesof solute noble gas configuration is _________.
Sol. Molarity =
Volume of solution
Sr2+ (Z = 38), Cs+ (Z = 55), La2+ (Z = 57) Pb2+
Since volume depends on temperature, molarity (Z = 82), Yb2+ (Z = 70) and Fe2+ (Z = 26)
will change upon change in temperature.
Ans. (2)
Sol. Noble gas configuration = ns2 np6
77. Which structure of protein remains intact after
[Sr2+] = [Kr]
coagulation of egg white on boiling?
[Cs+] = [Xe]
(1) Primary
[Yb2+] = [Xe] 4f14
(2) Tertiary
[La2+] = [Xe] 5d1
(3) Secondary
[Pb2+] = [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2
(4) Quaternary
[Fe2+] = [Ar] 3d6
Ans. (1)
82. The number of non-polar molecules from the
Sol. Boiling an egg causes denaturation of its protein
resulting in loss of its quarternary, tertiary and following is __________
secondary structures. HF, H2O, SO2, H2, CO2, CH4, NH3, HCl, CHCl3, BF3
78. Which of the following cannot function as an Ans. (4)
oxidising agent? Sol. The non-polar molecules are CO2, H2, CH4 and
(1) N3– BF3
(2) SO24 - 83. Time required for completion of 99.9% of a First
order reaction is ________ times of half life (t1/2)
(3) BrO3-
of the reaction.
(4) MnO-4 Ans. (10)
Ans. (1) Sol.
Sol. In N3– ion 'N' is present in its lowest possible 2.303 æ a ö æ 100 ö
log ç
oxidation state, hence it cannot be reduced further t 99.9% k çè a - x ÷ø è 100 - 99.9 ÷ø log10 3 3
= = = = = 10
because of which it cannot act as an oxidizing t1/ 2 2.303 log 2 log 2 0.3
log 2
agent. k
79. The incorrect statement regarding conformations 84. The Spin only magnetic moment value of square
of ethane is: planar complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl is
(1) Ethane has infinite number of conformations ________ B.M. (Nearest integer)
(2) The dihedral angle in staggered conformation is (Given atomic number for Pt = 78)
60°

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 Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/27-01-2024/Evening Session
Ans. (0) 89. 9.3 g of aniline is subjected to reaction with excess
Sol. Pt2+ (d8) of acetic anhydride to prepare acetanilide. The
mass of acetanilide produced if the reaction is
100% completed is _________ × 10–1 g.
5d 6s 6p (Given molar mass in g mol–1 N : 14, O : 16, C :
12, H : 1)
Ans. (135)
dsp2 O O
|| ||
Pt 2+ ® dsp 2 hybridization and have no unpaired e–s. Sol. C6 H 5 NH 2 + CH 3 - C - O - C - CH 3 ®
\ Magnetic moment = 0 ( AnilineMM = 93)
85. For a certain thermochemical reaction M ® N at O
! –1 –1 ||
T = 400 K, DH = 77.2 kJ mol , DS = 122 JK , C 6 H 5 NH - C - CH 3 + CH 3 COOH
log equilibrium constant (logK) is –______ × 10–1. ( Ace tan ilide MM =135)
Ans. (37) n Acetanilide = n Aniline

®
Sol. DG° = DH° - TDS°
m 9.3
= 77.2 ´ 103 - 400 ´ 122 = 28400 J Þ =
135 93
DG° = -2.303RT log K Þ m = 13.5g
Þ 28400 = -2.303 ´ 8.314 ´ 400 log K 90. Total number of compounds with Chiral carbon
Þ log K = -3.708 = -37.08 ´ 10 -1 atoms from following is ________.
86. Volume of 3 M NaOH (formula weight 40 g mol–1) O
O O
which can be prepared from 84 g of NaOH is
________ × 10–1 dm3.
Ans. (7)
CH3 - CH 2 - CH(NO 2 ) - COOH
n NaOH (84 / 40 )
Sol. M = Þ3= CH 3 - CH 2 - CHBr - CH 2 - CH 3
Vsol (in L) V
CH 3 - CH(I) - CH 2 - NO2
Þ V = 0.7L = 7 ´ 10 -1 L
87. 1 mole of PbS is oxidised by “X” moles of O3 to CH 3 - CH 2 - CH(OH) - CH 2OH
get “Y” moles of O2. X + Y = __________ CH 3 - CH - CH(I) - C 2 H 5
Ans. (8) |
I
Sol. PbS + 4O3 ® PbSO4 + 4O2
x = 4, y = 4 Ans. (5)
88. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of Sol. Chiral carbons are marked by.
pH = 3 at 25°C. The potential of the electrode will O
be –________ × 10–2 V. I
*
* CH CH –CH–COOH * NO2
æ 2.303RT ö , 3 2 ,
ç = 0.059V ÷
è F ø NO2
Ans. (18) I
Sol. 2H (+aq. ) + 2e - ® H 2 (g) *
* , * OH
0.059 PH2 I OH
E cell = E cell -
0
log 2
2 éë H + ùû
= 0 – 0.059 × 3
= –0.177 volts. = –17.7 × 10–2 V.