SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THI TU ỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10

ĐỒNG NAI NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

Môn: TIẾNG ANH- CHU ÊN
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề thi này gồm 08 trang, có 90 câu và 1 bài luận)

Họ và tên thí sinh: .................................................................................... SBD: .................................

WRITE YOUR ANSWERS ON THE ANSWER SHEET.

I. PHONOLOGY
For questions 1-5, choose the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.5 point)
1. A. exhibition B. exhaustion C. honorable D. rehearsal
2. A. obstacle B. observant C. obsolete D. obvious
3. A. conservation B. preservation C. conversation D. transportation
4. A. bury B. justice C. lullaby D. cultivate
5. A. loathe B. oatmeal C. oasis D. soap

For questions 6-10, choose the letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the word whose main stress is placed
differently from that of the others. (0.5 point)
6. A. existential B. adolescent C. individual D. facility
7. A. museum B. cathedral C. skyscraper D. prohibit
8. A. downtown B. wander C. treasure D. vendor
9. A. introduce B. volunteer C. interpret D. entertain
10. A. admirable B. preferable C. painstakingly D. horizontal

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1: Questions 11-20 (1.0 point)
Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions.
11. He became internationally famous ___ his novels.
A. with B. for C. about D. at
12. It is strongly recommended that the machines ___ every year.
A. should check B. were checked C. be checked D. check
13. ___ you to change your mind, you’d be welcomed to join our staff.
A. If B. Unless C. Were D. Had
14. Jack says he appreciates ___ out last weekend.
A. your help B. helping him C. your helping him D. to be help
15. The first meeting was a success, so we ___ a second one.
A. needn’t have hold B. needed to hold C. needed hold D. didn’t need to hold
16. It’s no ___ having to work in the same office as hers. You have to watch your words all the time.
A. harm B. wonder C. use D. joke
17. Uncle Ross is a ___ smoker. He smokes 2 packets a day.
A. habitual B. continual C. frequent D. permanent

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18. The thief ___ unnoticed as he left the building.
A. looked B. seemed C. went D. made
19. She fell down a ___ of stairs and hurt her back.
A. group B. flight C. lump D. case
20. People in the village have got an ___ appetite for news.
A. inexorable B. inevitable C. insatiable D. inedible

Part 2: Questions 21-30 (1.0 point)

Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word in brackets.
21. Lowering interest rates could have ____________ consequences for the economy. (DISASTER)
22. All the doctors and nurses have been ____________ against the COVID-19. (VACCINE)
23. The equator is a(n) _____________ line around the middle of the earth. (IMAGINE)
24. Gwen was a boring, _____________ woman who never laughed. (HUMOR)
25. The whole town is in _____________ mood. (FESTIVAL)
26. They fought a long battle against prejudice and _____________. (IGNORE)
27. He felt that he was being ______________ to resign. (PRESSURE)
28. One of the _____________ of unemployment is an increase in crime. (PRODUCE)
29. The __________ board has decided against implementing the new system. (ADVISE)
30. If a feeling or idea ___________ someone, it influences everything they do or think. (SLAVE)

Part 3: Questions 31-35 (0.5 point)

Complete each sentence with the correct form of one of the phrasal verbs made from one word
from each box below. Each word is used once only.
set fall look break pull
through after for in off
31. Who’s going to ___________ the children while you’re away?
32. We had our house _____________ last week.
33. They __________ for Paris at midnight.
34. She was so beautiful that he _____________ her as soon as he saw her.
35. Although he’s in a critical state after the accident, the doctors think he’ll __________.

Part 4: Questions 36-40 (0.5 point)

The passage below contains 5 mistakes. For questions 36-40, identify the mistakes and write the line
numbers, the incorrect words and the corrections in the blanks provided below the passage. (0) has
been done as an example.

NATIONAL PARKS
Line 1 You realize that truly incredible the natural environment
is when you take a trip to one of the world’s national park.
To be eligible for national park status, a place must possess
a unique natural, cultural or recreational resource and be
Line 5 considered in need for protection. Fortunately, a
considerable number of natural gems have been designated
as national parks and some are also World Heritage sites.
From hot springs to snowy peaks, these postcard-worthy
destinations should definitely be on your list of places to
Line 10 visit. Many are also home to some pretty amazing flora and
fauna. The parks are extremely popular to outdoor

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 enthusiasts, which can indulge in their favorite activities
like hiking or rafting, surrounded by nature. The largest
national park in the world isn’t easily accessible, being in a
Line 15 remote area of Greenland. It’s also not used to receive
visitors (around 500 a year). This is a long way from the
estimated 11 million tourists who flock to the Great Smoky
Mountains of North Carolina and Tennessee in the United
States.

Example:
(0) Line 1: that → how
Your answers:
36. Line _____: ……………………...
37. Line _____: ……………………...
38. Line _____: ……………………...
39. Line _____: ……………………...
40. Line _____: ……………………...

III. READING
Part 1: Questions 41-48 (0.8 point)
Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space.
THE IDEAL JOB
A government research agency recently (41) ___ out a survey in which 15,000 people in the UK were
asked the question: “What would be your ideal job?” Incredibly, around 60% of those who filled in the
questionnaire gave the same answer. It may (42) ___ as a surprise to anyone who actually works in the
business, but these people all thought they would like to be writers. (43) ___ no data is available to
(44) ___ their reasons for choosing this particular occupation, it seems that what (45) ___ to these people
is the lifestyle that they imagine a writer leading. Writing work is often done from home, with no (46) ___
timetable and so can be combined with family commitments and other activities. In reality, of course, the
lifestyle isn't so glamorous. Most writers work on a freelance (47) ___ and so have no regular salary to
rely on, challenging deadlines are the norm, and only the most successful of them can expect to (48) ___ a
living from it.
41. A. managed B. carried C. arranged D. organized
42. A. come B. sound C. result D. seem
43. A. However B. Although C. Otherwise D. Despite
44. A. account B. inform C. explain D. refer
45. A. likes B. attracts C. enjoys D. appeals
46. A. heavy B. stuck C. fixed D. solid
47. A. basis B. method C. system D. way
48. A. take B. do C. have D. make

Part 2: Questions 49-55 (0.7 point)

Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word.
TREES
All over the world, forests are safeguarding the health of the planet itself. They do this (49) ___
protecting the soil, providing water and regulating the climate. Trees bind soil to mountain-sides. Hills
where the trees have been felled lose 500 times as much soil a year as those with trees.
Trees catch and store rainwater. Their leaves break the impact of the rains, robbing them (50) ___
their destructive power. The roots of trees allow the water to go into the soil, which gradually releases it
to flow down rivers and refill ground-water reserves. Where there are (51) ___ trees, the rains run in
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sheets of water off the land , carrying soil with them. Land covered with trees and other plants absorbs 20
times more rainwater than bare earth. As (52) ___ grow, trees absorb carbon dioxide, the main cause of
the “greenhouse effect”, (53) ___ threatens irreversibly to change the world’s climate. Together, the
world’s trees, plants and soils contain three times as much carbon as there is in the atmosphere.
The world’s forests contain (54) ___ vast majority of its animal and plant species. The tropical
rainforests alone have well (55) ___ half of them, even though they cover only about 6% of the Earth’s
land surface.

Part 3: Questions 56-62 (0.7 point)

You are going to read an extract from an article about space tourism. Choose from the list A-H the
sentence which best summarizes each part (56-62) of the extract. There is one extra sentence which
you do not need to use.

A. A. Careers can be planned in readiness for jobs in space tourism.

B. B. We can look forward to a time of widespread space tourism.
C. C. Individuals can contribute in various ways to making space tourism a reality.
D. D. The development of space tourism will depend on the level of commercial
investment.
E. E. Financial planning is required now if you want to be a space tourist in the future.
F. F. There are good reasons for encouraging space tourism.
G. G. In its initial phase, space tourism will offer only basic facilities.
H. H. Space tourism is becoming the concern of private companies.

SPACE TOURISM
The idea of what's called Space Tourism, where ordinary members of the public queue up to buy
tickets for travel into outer space and back, really stretches the imagination. According to Alan Grant, this
distant dream could soon be a reality…

56.
On Earth, governments provide a number of services, such as defence, police and a legal system. But
most activities are done by individuals and companies and it is going to be the same in space. Over the
past few years a growing volume of work has been done on the subject and it is now clear that setting up
commercial space tourism services is a realistic target for businesses today.

57.
Many people still think that to get the chance to go to space you have got to try to become an
astronaut. Unfortunately, the chances of succeeding are tiny, simply because there are so few astronauts -
and there is no prospect of a lot more being employed. However, you need not despair because you will
be able to go as a visitor. So for anyone, the first thing you should do if you want to go to space is save up
because the demand is expected to be strong and, in the early stages, prices will be high.

58.
In order to stay longer in space, you could work in one of the businesses that will be set up in orbit.
There will be opportunities in manufacturing - aerospace vehicle makers, orbital construction, electric
power, extra-terrestrial mining, chemical engineering and other fields. So you can start university studies
and try to get the sort of work experience that will ensure you are well-placed to apply for a job in any of
these areas.

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 59.
The general public are very interested in travelling to space. Apart from the interest factor, such
tourism is the only way in which space activities can become profitable and the quickest way to start to
use the limitless resources of space to solve our problems on Earth. And living in space involves every
line of business, from construction to marketing, fashion, interior design and law.

60.
It is possible to envisage a future when demand for space tourism travel will grow from thousands of
passengers per year to hundreds of thousands per year. Tickets to orbit will cost less and flights will
depart from many different airports. Orbital facilities will grow from just being prefabricated modules to
large structures constructed for hundreds of guests.

61.
But like any other business, space tourism will develop progressively. Starting as a relatively small-
scale and relatively high-priced activity, customers will find that the service will be nearer to “adventure
travel” than to a luxury-style hotel. Orbital accommodation will be safe but rather simple. This will be a
time for the pioneers who will not mind the jack of comfort.

62.
Few projects are successfully completed without the help of people who believe in them. It is
possible to take an active role in bringing space tourism about by asking airlines, hotels and travel
companies if and when they intend to offer space travel. Others may prefer to lend a hand by doing
research into one or more of the areas needing it, or by joining one of the many companies that are
already working towards a future in space.

Part 4: Questions 63-70 (0.8 point)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 63-70.

IS THERE MORE TO VIDEO GAMES THAN PEOPLE REALIZE?

1. Many people who spend a lot of time playing video games insist that they have helped them in areas
like confidence-building, presentation skills and debating. Yet this way of thinking about video games
can be found almost nowhere within the mainstream media, which still tend to treat games as an odd mix
of the slightly menacing and the alien. This lack of awareness has become increasingly inappropriate, as
video games and the culture that surrounds them have become very big business indeed.

2. Recently, the British government released the Byron report into the effects of electronic media on
children. Its conclusions set out a clear, rational basis for exploring the regulation of video games. The
ensuing debate, however, has descended into the same old squabbling between partisan factions: the
preachers of mental and moral decline, and the innovative game designers. In between are the gamers,
busily buying and playing while nonsense is talked over their heads.

3. Susan Greenfield, renowned neuroscientist, outlines her concerns in a new book. Every individual's
mind is the product of a brain that has been personalized by the sum total of their experiences; with an
increasing quantity of our experiences from very early childhood taking place “on screen” rather than in
the world, there is potentially a profound shift in the way children's minds work. She suggests that the
fast-paced, second-hand experiences created by video games and the Internet may inculcate a worldview
that is less empathetic, more risk-taking and less contemplative than what we tend to think of as healthy.

4. Adam Martin, a lead programmer for an online games developer, says: “Computer games teach and
people don't even notice they're being taught.” But isn't the kind of learning that goes on in games rather
narrow? “A large part of the addictiveness of games does come from the fact that as you play you are
mastering a set of challenges. But humanity's larger understanding of the world comes primarily through
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 communication and experimentation, through answering the question "What if?" Games excel at teaching
this too.”

5. Steven Johnson's thesis is not that electronic games constitute a great, popular art, but that the mean
level of mass culture has been demanding steadily more intellectual engagement from consumers. Games,
he points out, generate satisfaction via the complexity of their virtual worlds, not by their robotic
predictability. Testing the nature and limits of the laws of such imaginary worlds has more in common
with scientific methods than with a pointless addiction, while the complexity of the problems children
encounter within games exceeds that of anything they might find at school.

6. Greenfield argues that there are ways of thinking that playing video games simply cannot teach. She
has a point. We should never forget, for instance, the unique ability of books to engage and expand the
human imagination, and to give us the means of more fully expressing our situations in the world.
Intriguingly, the video games industry is now growing in ways that have more in common with an old-
fashioned world of companionable pastimes than with a cyber-future of lonely, isolated obsessives.
Games in which friends and relations gather round a console to compete at activities are growing in
popularity. The agenda is increasingly being set by the concerns of mainstream consumers - what they
consider acceptable for their children, what they want to play at parties and across generations.

7. These trends embody a familiar but important truth: games are human products, and lie within our
control. This doesn't mean we yet control or understand them fully, but it should remind us that there is
nothing inevitable or incomprehensible about them. No matter how deeply it may be felt, instinctive fear
is an inappropriate response to technology of any kind.

8. So far, the dire predictions many traditionalists have made about the “death” of old-fashioned
narratives and imaginative thought at the hands of video games cannot be upheld. Television and cinema
may be suffering, economically, at the hands of interactive media. But literacy standards have failed to
decline. Young people still enjoy sport, going out and listening to music. And most research - including a
recent $1.5m study funded by the US government - suggests that even preteens are not in the habit of
blurring game worlds and real worlds.

9. The sheer pace and scale of the changes we face, however, leave little room for complacency.
Richard Bartle, a British writer and game researcher, says, “Times change: accept it; embrace it.” Just as,
today, we have no living memories of a time before radio, we will soon live in a world in which no one
living experienced growing up without computers. It is for this reason that we must try to examine what
we stand to lose and gain, before it is too late.

Questions 63- 67: Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in the reading
passage?
On your answer sheet, write:
Y if the statement agrees with the views of the writer.
N if the statement contradicts the views of the writer.
NG if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this.

63. Much media comment ignores the positive impacts that video games can have on many people's
lives.
64. The publication of the Byron Report was followed by a worthwhile discussion between those for and
against video games.
65. Susan Greenfield's way of writing has become more complex over the years.
66. More sociable games are being brought out to satisfy the demands of the buying public.
67. Being afraid of technological advances is a justifiable reaction.

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Questions 68-70: Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

68. What main point does Adam Martin make about video games?
A. People are learning how to avoid becoming addicted to them.
B. They enable people to learn without being aware of it happening.
C. They satisfy a need for people to compete with each other.
D. People learn a narrow range of skills but they are still useful.

69. Which of the following does Steven Johnson disagree with?

A. The opinion that video games offer educational benefits to the user.
B. The attitude that video games are often labelled as predictable and undemanding.
C. The idea that children's logic is tested more by video games than at school.
D. The suggestion that video games can be compared to scientific procedures.

70. Which of the following is the most suitable subtitle for the above reading passage?
A. Debate about the effects of video games on other forms of technology.
B. An examination of the opinions of young people about video games.
C. A discussion of whether attitudes towards video games are outdated.
D. An analysis of the principles behind the historical development of video games.

IV. WRITING
Part 1: Sentence transformation
A. Questions 71-80 (1.0 point)
Complete each restatement with the word given so that it has the same meaning as the original one.
Do NOT change the form of the given word. You must use between TWO and SEVEN words,
including the word given.
71. We got to work late because we decided to drive rather than take the train. (INSTEAD)
 We got to work late because we decided to drive _____________________ the train.
72. I cannot get all my clothes in the suitcase. (BIG)
 The suitcase ________________________ take all my clothes.
73. The earthquake made many people homeless. (LARGE)
 The earthquake made _________________ homeless.
74. Tickets for the concert cannot be bought before 12th May. (SALE)
 Tickets for the concert will not ______________________ 12th May.
75. I really don’t want to go to work today. (FEEL)
 I really _______________________ to work today.
76. I didn’t like Chemistry when I was at school. (USED)
 I ___________________________ like Chemistry when I was at school.
77. “All your complaints will be investigated by my staff tomorrow,” said the bank manager. (LOOK)
 The bank manager promised that his staff __________________ all our complaints the next day.
78. She has always been proud of her appearance. (PRIDED)
 She has always _______________________ her appearance.

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79. The town hall has approved the plans for a new sports center. (GREEN)
 The town hall _______________________ the plans for a new sports center.
80. She didn’t like the young man asking her so many questions. (OBJECTED)
 She ________________________ so many questions.

B. Questions 81 – 90 (1.0 point)

Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. You MUST write the complete sentences.
81. I didn’t buy the camera because it was so expensive.
 If the camera __________________________________.
82. I have never had such a delicious meal.
 It’s ____________________________________.
83. “What an excellently organized office you have!” Mary said to David.
 Mary complimented _________________________________.
84. As soon as she said it, she burst into tears.
 No sooner _____________________________.
85. It’s possible that they took the wrong road in the dark.
 They might __________________________________.
86. Rosana found it difficult to persuade her boss to give her a pay rise.
 Rosana had ___________________________________.
87. They tried again to free the hostages.
 Another effort ___________________________________.
88. I would rather have the lesson on Wednesday than on Tuesday.
 I would prefer ___________________________________.
89. Robert really enjoys making other people look stupid.
 Robert really takes ___________________________________.
90. I really must find time to clear out the attic.
 I really must get ________________________________.

Part 2: Composition (1.0 point)

Write a paragraph of about 150 words on the following topic:
Many people believe that it is important for teenagers to make decisions about matters that affect
them (such as food, clothes, entertainment, learning, etc.).
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer and
include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience.

- END OF THE TEST –

Chữ ký giám thị : ............................................................................................................................................

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