CRIMINOLOGY

Comprehension Questions (COR AD)
1. The following are the characteristics of the Classical School of Criminology;

1. The basis of criminal liability is human free-will and the purpose of penalty is retribution
2. Man is essentially a moral creature with an absolute free-will to choose between right and
wrong
3. Criminals are distinguishable from non-criminals because of their physical deviation
(Positivism)
4. That every man is therefore responsible for his act
A. 1, 2, 3 are correct
B. 1, 3, 4 are correct
C. 2, 3, 4 are correct
D. 1, 2, 4 are correct
2. The cartographical school of criminology stated that crimes against person increase during
summer and crimes against property increase during winter. Who is the proponent of the said
theory?
A. Robert King Merton
B. Edwin Sutherland
C. Adolphe Quetelet
D. Earnest Hooton
3. This school of thought claimed that man is occasionally subdued by strange and morbid
phenomenon, which contains him to do wrong, in spite or contrary to his volition.
a. THE CLASSICAL SCHOOL OF CRIMINOLOGY
b. THE NEO-CLASSICAL SCHOOL OF CRIMINOLOGY
c. THE POSITIVIST/ITALIAN SCHOOL
d. THE CHICAGO SCHOOL OF CRIMINOLOGY
4. The positivists maintained that crime as any other act is ______

a. A naturally immoral to be condemned even if it is not written
b. natural phenomenon and is comparable to disaster or calamity.
c. An anti-social behavior that needs to be treated with punishment
d. A deviancy that can be considered crime when the society says so.
5. According to the study of Lombroso, he noted that most women are not criminal, however,
they are most often________
a. Habitual criminals
b. Occasional criminals
c. Victim
d. Born to be wild
6. The return of a trait or reappearance of previous behavior after a period of absence.
a. ATAVISM
b. ATAVISTIC ANOMALY
c. Atavistic stigmata
d. Born Criminals
7. Who is a person that commits crime due to less physical stamina or self-control?
A. Criminaloids
B. Criminal by passion
C. Insane criminal
D. Born criminal
8. The basis of criminal liability in classical school is _____and the purpose of penalty is_____
a. human free will : retribution
b. Morbid phenomenon : treatment
c. Rational thinking : deterrence
d. Physical attributes : reformation
9. Cesare Lombroso focuses on biological while Raffaele Garofalo on Psychological determinism

of crime. How about Enrico Ferri?
a. Psychological
b. Manifold causes – marami, hindi lang nakafocus sa isa
c. Sociological
d. Economical
10. Raffaele Garofalo traced the roots of criminal behavior not to physical features but to their
psychological equivalents, which he called
a. Physical anomalies
b. Immoral anomalies
c. Mental anomalies
d. Moral anomalies
11. Cesare Beccaria developed in his treatise a number of innovative and influential principles.
According to him, punishment is:
1. Must go beyond the need of preserving the public safety
2. Proportionate to the crime committed.
3. Severity and not probability, would achieve a preventive effect
4. Must be Prompt.
5. Deterrent, not a retributive, function.
a.1345
b. 2345
c. 135
d. 245
12. Kardo was born from a criminal family and he was always looking for a pleasure in life but do
not want to take any risk and avoids pain. PO1 Victor Mangubat is a great representation of a
_____.
A. Rational Calculator
B. Atavistic
C. Hedonist
D. Criminaloid
13. Who added a social dimension to Lombroso's work by arguing that people commit crimes
due to outside forces that they cannot control?
A. Cesare Beccaria
B. Enrico Ferry (may sociological – outside)
C. Jeremy Bentham (internal)
D. Raffaele Garofalo
14. What is innate to man when desire and capability is present?

a. Intent
b. Motive
c. Instrumentality
d. Criminal tendency
Innate – likas
15. According to him, crime is as old as mankind and is inevitable to growing society. He
maintains that crime is not only normal for society but that it is necessary. Without crime there
could be no evolution of law.
a. Cesare Beccaria
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Abrahamsen
d. Emile Durkheim
16. The bio-psychosocial model of crime causation is an example of ____

a. SINGLE/UNITARY THEORY
b. MULTIPLE FACTOR THEORY
c. ECLECTIC THEORY
d. INTEGRATED THEORY
17. Refers to the scientific study of crimes, criminals, and victims. It also deals with the
prevention, and solution of crimes.
a. Criminology as defined by Edwind Sutherland
b. Criminology as defined by RA 6506
c. Criminology as defined by IRR RA 11131 – may dinagdag na “and criminal behavior”
d. Criminology as defined by RA 11131
18. This pertains to the study of how people, the criminal, and the government reacts towards
the breaking of laws.
a. THE MAKING OF LAWS
b. THE BREAKING OF LAWS
c. PENOLOGY
d. Nota
19. Laws should be made for the protection, common good and benefit of the people. “SALUS
POPULI EST SUPREMA LEX”
a. It is rule of conduct
b. It is just
c. It is obligatory
d. It is prescribed by legitimate authority
e. It is ordained for the common benefit
20. Laws serve as guides of an individual in relation to his fellowmen and to his community
a. It is rule of conduct
b. It is just
c. It is obligatory
d. It is prescribed by legitimate authority
e. It is ordained for the common benefit
21. The doctrine of Pro Reo advocates that penal laws and laws penal in nature are construed
and applied in a way_________
a. Strict and harsh to the offender
b. lenient or liberal to the offender
c. lenient or liberal to the community
d. lenient or liberal to the state
22. It is defined as “state authority to enact legislation that may interfere with personal liberty
or property in order to promote the general welfare.”
a. Police power of the state
b. Power of eminent domain
c. Power of taxation
d. Nota
23. Crimes that are economic and social by nature should be dealt with in a positivist manner;
thus, the law is more compassionate. Heinous crimes should be dealt with in a classical manner;
thus, capital punishment.
a. Utilitarian theory or protective theory
b. Classical or juristic philosophy
c. Positivist or realistic philosophy
d. d or mixed philosophy – ginagamit natin, hinalo
24. In CJS, they are the actual offended party.
a. Accused
b. Victim
c. complainant
d. People of the Philippines
25. These are the five stages in the criminal justice process
a. Arrest , charging, adjudication, sentencing, corrections
b. Law enforcement, prosecution, court, correction, and community
c. Initial contact, initial investigation, intervention, reintegration
d. Initial contact, initial investigation, diversion, reintegration
26. Criminology changes as social circumstances changes. It means that the progress is in
concordant with the sciences applied to it. It connotes that criminology is _____.
A. Progressive
B. Excellent
C. Dynamic
D. Nationalistic
27. One of the three interrelated divisions of criminology has attempted to explain the
systematic analysis of the economic, political and social conditions in which penal laws are
developed, and crime and criminality are either generated or prevented. Which of the following
corresponds with the preceding statements?
A. Sociology of the application of the criminal justice process and system
B. Sociology of law, crime and social psychology of criminal behavior
C. Sociology of crime and criminal law
D. Sociology of punishment and correction
28. Which is not a function and consequence of crime in society according to Emile Durkheim?
A. Society becomes vigilant
B. It creates unity in the society
C. Disintegration and disunity of the society
D. Society decide what behavior must be prohibited
May advantage kasi ang crime
29. Criminal justice system is one of the various systems operating in the society such as political
system, economic system, educational system, health care system, and others. The interplay of
these systems taken together is known as _____.
A. Public safety system
B. Social defense system
C. Total social system
D. Civil defense system
Pinagsama na
30. Which of the following refers to preventive, rehabilitative and developmental programs and
initiatives that mobilize/utilize the family and community to respond to a problem, need, issue
or concern of children, youth, women, person with disabilities, older persons and families who
are in need and at-risk?
A. Residential care services
B. Center-based services
C. Institution based services
D. Community based services
31. What crime rate incidence in a given locality is reflective of the effectiveness of the social
defenses employed by the people primarily of the police system?
A. Crime is reflective
B. Crime is destructive
C. Crime is expensive
D. Crime is pervasive
32. Lack of skill is _______.

a. Negligence
b. Imprudence
c. Deficiency of perception
d. Deficiency of action
33. What is this statement that confirms crime correlates to society that affects almost all
people?
A. Crime is progressive
B. Crime is expensive
C. Crime is destructive
D. Crime is pervasive
34. Which of the following is in front in giving justice in Criminal justice System?
a. Investigator
b. Prosecutor
c. Court
d. Correction
35. What is the difference between dolo and culpa?

a. Freedom
b. Intelligence
c. Intent
d. Discernment
36. Adultery and other offense is an example of

a. Crimes
b. Formal crimes
c. Material crimes
d. Continuing crime
37. Kardo wanted to kill his wife by means of poison. Maria, before consuming the poison,
Kardo immediately stopped her and confessed the crime he is about to commit. Kardo
committed a crime of ___
a. Attempted murder
b. Attempted parricide
c. Frustrated homicide
d. No crime committed
e. Frustrated parricide
38. What is the violent criminal which has mental illness or brain damage?
A. Emotional violent offender
B. Abnormal violent offenders
C. Delinquent violent offenders
D. Pathologically violent offenders
39. Tanggol fired at Kardo, but the latter dodged the bullet. Narda, who was behind Kardo was
hit instead and died. This is a best example of ___
a. Complex crime
b. Delito compuesto
c. Delito complejo
d. Composite crime
e. Nota
40. Kardo, wanted to take revenge to Tanggol. He smashed Tanggol from behind with baseball
bat. He did not noticed that Narda was also hit and suffered an injury for almost a week in
hospital.
a. Complex crime
b. Delito compuesto
c. Delito complejo
d. Composite crime
e. Nota
Walang complex crime kasi slight physical injury lang.
41. . Kardo jumped over the backard of Mang Karding. Once inside, he stole the rooster of Mang
Kanor, Mang Bebot, and Mang Go. Kardo commited a _____
a. CONTINUED CRIME
b. CONTINUING CRIME
c. Mala in se
d. Malum prohibitum
42. One way of classifying criminals in on the basis of etiology. What kind of criminal is that
whose action arises from the intra-psychic conflict between the social and anti-social
components of his personality? A. Acute – burst feeling
B. Neurotic
C. Chronic – deliberate thinking
D. Normal – idolizes people who are criminals
Note: Ordinary – Not require specialized or technical skill.
43. Graft and corrupt practices is an example of ____

a. Blue Collar Crimes – ordinary professionals
b. White Collar Crimes – upper socio economic class
c. Under World Crimes
44. In accomplishing a white collar crime, it refers to the offenders conduct while carrying out
the scheme.
a. CONCEALMENT
b. DISGUISE OF PURPOSE
c. INTENT
d. RELIANCE ON THE VICTIM’S IGNORANCE
45. Kardo is an accountant involve in malversation of funds and any other crimes in the course
of his legal occupation. What is the type of crime committed by him?
a. Corporate crimes
b. Environmental crimes
c. Occupational crimes
d. Professional Occupational Crime
46. Which of the following refers to deliberately and without justification following or surveilling
(or both) another person?
A. Harassing
B. Stalking
C. Bullying
D. Manhandling
47. Which is the act of using cyberspace for revenge, destruction and to achieve a malicious
intent such as website defacement, cyber stalking and cyber bullying?
A. Cyber vandalism
B. Cyber war
C. Cyber terrorism
D. Cyber theft
48. Which is a crime committed in cyberspace to defraud people for easy profit such as illegal
copyright infringement, internet securities fraud and identity theft?
A. Cyber war
B. Cyber vandalism
C. Cyber theft
D. Cyber terrorism
49. These are those traditional, illegal behaviors that most people think of as crime.
a. Conventional crime
b. Violent crimes
c. Property crimes
d. Index crime – sufficient regularity
50. Refers to the adverse psychological impacts rape victims continue to suffer long after the
incident.
a. rape trauma impact
b. Rape trauma syndrome
c. Rape impact syndrome
d. Rape traumatic syndrome
51. This rapist primarily wishes to express his domination over the victim.
a. ANGER RAPE
b. POWER RAPE
c. AGGRAVATED RAPE
d. SERIAL RAPE
e. STATUTORY RAPE
52. Maria greeted Kardo upon meeting the latter at the “inuman session”. Kardo feels that
Maria has sexual feeling towards him because of the friendliness of the girl that’s why he raped
her. Kardo is what type of rapist?
a. Naïve Graspers – hold high expectations (akala mo nasasarapan hindi pala)
b. Meaning Stretchers
c. Sex Looters – use woman as sex object
d. Group Conformers – gang bang
53. Identify the type of criminal psychic organization that ensembles a normal individual except
that he identified himself with criminal prototype.
A. Acute
B. Ordinary – not required specialized skill
C. Chronic
D. Normal – nakaidol siya sa mga criminal na may characteristics siyang criminal
54. A single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave felonies are _________
a. Delito compuesto
b. Delito complejo
c. Complex crime
d. Composite crime
55. Kardo maintains his living through robbing an unattended house, pick pocket ahd robbery
holdap. a. Kardo is
a. Habitual Criminal
b. Kardo is a Situational criminal
c. Kardo is a Professional Criminal
d. Kardo is a Accidental Criminal
56. Kardo killed Narda because of promise of reward from his boss Tanggol. What type of
criminal is kardo?
a. Active Criminals
b. Passive Inadequate Criminals
c. Socialized Delinquents
d. Habitual Delinquent
57. They Kill in order to “rid” society of a certain group.

a. Visionary – believes that a person or entity is commanding him to kill. Most likely suffering
from psychosis.
b. Mission-oriented
c. Hedonistic
d. Power/control
58. This is the most common form of serial murderer

a. Thrill killers
b. Mission killers
c. Expedience killers – kill out for profit or want to protect themselves
d. Nota
59. They are mass murderers who are usually trying to cover-up a crime, eliminate witnesses,
and carry out a criminal conspiracy.
a. Revenge killers- galit sa society
b. Love killers
c. Profit killers
d. Terrorist killers- to send a message
60. These are are crimes which are sufficiently significant and which occur with sufficient
regularity to be meaningful.
a. Index crimes
b. Non-index crimes
c. Sensational crime
d. Malum In se
61. Violation of special penal laws and other crimes against moral and order are examples of
____
a. Index crimes
b. Non-index crimes – bihira lang mangyari
c. Sensational crime
d. Malum In se
62. What is this principal division of criminology that deals with the reformation of criminal
adult offender, youthful offenders polishing their behaviour for their return in the mainstream
of the society?
A. Correction
B. Criminal Etiology
C. Sociology of Law
D. Penology
63. Which refers to restraining or isolating criminals behind prison or jail facilities to effectively
protect society?
A. Crime prevention
B. Crime deterrence
C. Crime control
D. Crime suppression
64. This process submits that the criminal behavior was due to the gap between the criminal
and the community. For this reason the offender must be assisted to strive hard to face the
forces of the society or community which will join upon his release from jail/prison.
A. Rehabilitation
B. Purpose of sentencing
C. Isolation of prisoners
D. Re-integration
65. Theft like pickpocket is very rampant during holidays in Divisoria market. What are/is the
factors that enhances the development of criminal behavior of those pick pocketers?
a. Criminal Demography
b. Criminal Epidemiology
c. Criminal Physical Anthropology
d. Criminal Ecology
66. The profile of inhabitants can be a factor to determine what crime or how crime can develop
in such community.
a. Criminal Demography
b. Criminal Epidemiology
c. Criminal Physical Anthropology
d. Criminal Ecology
67. The public will be protected if the offender has been held in conditions where he cannot
harm others especially the public.
a. Retribution
b. Expiation or Atonement
c. Deterrence
d. Incapacitation and Protection
68. Punishment should be no more or less than the offenders actions deserve, it must be based
on how blameworthy the person is
a. General Deterrence
b. Specific Deterrence
c. Incapacitation
d. Retribution/Just Desert
69. Criminals are diverted into a community correctional program for treatment to avoid stigma
of incarceration.
a. Equity/Restitution
b. Rehabilitation
c. Restorative Justice
d. Diversion
70. Which is known as RA 11131?

A. The Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2019
B. The Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018
C. The Criminology Profession Act of 2018
D. The Criminology Profession Act of 2019
71. Which of the following is true about the powers, functions, duties and responsibilities of the
Professional Regulatory Board for Criminologist?
1. Issue, suspend, revoke or reinstate the certificate of registration of the registered
criminologist
2. Cancel temporary/special permit granted to foreign criminologist
3. Receive complaints and decide the matter as to the malpractices and unethical conduct in the
practice of the criminology profession
4. Monitor all colleges and universities offering criminology program and recommend sanctions
to the CHED, for noncompliance with the policies, standards and requirements.
A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1,3 and 4
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 3
72. The Professional Regulatory Board for Criminologists shall have the power, upon notice and
hearing , to revoke or suspend the certificate of registration of a registered criminologist or to
cancel temporary/special permit granted to foreign criminologist for the commission of any of
the following acts, except ______.
A. Non-renewal of the professional identification card for a period of 3 years with the PRC
without justifiable cause – dapat 6 years
B. Perpetration or use of fraud in obtaining one's certificate of registration, professional
identification card or temporary/special permit
C. Non-compliance with CPD and APO requirements, unless one is exempted therefrom, for the
renewal of professional identification card
D. Addiction to drugs or alcohol impairing one's ability to practice the profession or a
declaration by a court of competent jurisdiction that the registrant is of unsound mind
73. Registered criminologist is a/an, except:

a. Natural person
b. Holder of a valid COR
c. Holds an updated PIC
d. Nota
74. All but one are the objectives of the Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018.
a. The examination, registration and licensure for criminologists;
b. The participation in the standardization of the criminology education program
c. To promulgate and adopt Code of Ethics and Code of Good Governance for the practice of
criminology;
d. The development of the professional competence of criminologists through Continuing
Professional Development (CPD)
75. Refers to the one and only recognized and accredited integrated national organization of
criminologists.
a. Autonomous International Professional Organization
b. Accredited Integrated Professional Organization
c. Alliance of Integrated Professional Organization
d. Ako’y Isang Pilipinong taga Olongapo
76. It provides that only nationals of foreign countries in which the requirements for the
licensure examination and/or registration and practice of criminology are substantially the same
as those required and contemplated by the Philippine laws and regulations, and which laws and
regulations allow Philippine citizens to practice criminology within the territory of such foreign
countries shall be allowed to take the Philippine Criminologists licensure examination
a. Foreign Reciprocality
b. Foreign Reciprocity
c. Foreign Alliance on Criminologists
d. Practice Through Temporary/Special Permit
77. All but one are the qualification of the Chairperson and Members of the Board.
a. Must be a natural-born Filipino citizen and a resident of the Philippines
b. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Science in Criminology, and a holder of a Post Graduate
Degree in Criminology
c. having at least two (2) years of practice in the profession prior to the appointment including
no less than ten (10) years teaching experience of criminology or law subjects (baliktad)
d. Must not be a member of the faculty of any school, college or university where a regular class
or review course in criminology
10 years – practice of profession

2 years – teaching
78. It is the primary tool for advancing any body of knowledge, including the field of criminal
justice
a. Research
b. Investigation
c. Criminological research
d. Nota
General lang yung tanong, kasama lang ang field ng CJS, we are not referring sa pag-aaral ng
crime causation.
79. It is a systematic and accumulative study of issues related to the causes and consequences
of crime and it lies at the heart of criminological theory, influences social policy development,
as well as informs criminal justice practice.
a. Research
b. Investigation
c. Criminological research
d. Nota
80. It is defined as an attribute of an object of study. These are names that are given to the
variance the researcher wishes to explain.
a. Variance
b. Variables
c. Variation
d. Attributes
81. The term "thesis" comes from the Greek meaning __________, and refers to an intellectual
proposition.
a.something put forth
b. discussion
c. to discuss
d. to prove
82. Research is being undertaken within a framework of a set of ______ which means
approaches either qualitative, quantitative and the academic discipline in which you have been
trained.
a. Validity
b. Philosophies (approach)
c. Research instrument
d. Research design
Kabuuang framework
83. It is designed to collect data that may help develop a new theory about a process or
phenomenon. The researcher starts by making observations or gathering data. Then, take a
broad view of his/her data and search for patterns. Also known as theory-building research.
a. Inductive Research Approach
b. Deductive Research Approach
c. Theory-testing research
d. theory-building research
84. It is commonly used in scientific research, and it's especially associated with quantitative
research.
a. Inductive Research Approach
b. Deductive Research Approach
c. Theory-testing research
d. theory-building research
85. The objective of basic research is to gain more comprehensive knowledge or understanding
of the subject under study, without specific applications in mind .
a. Basic/ Fundamental Research
b. Applied Research
c. Exploratory Research
d. Descriptive Research
86. It is aimed at gaining knowledge or understanding to determine the means by which a

specific, recognized need may be met. It is meant to offer knowledge that is applicable and
implementable.
a. Basic/ Fundamental Research
b. Applied Research
c. Exploratory Research
d. Descriptive Research
87. Kardo wanted to understand concepts, opinions, or experiences. If he is going to gather in

depth insights into a problem or generate new ideas for research. What types of research
should he conduct?
a. Qualitative
b. Quantitative
c. Mixed Research
d. Nota
88. What kind of research describes a condition or a given state of affairs in terms of specified
aspects or factors?
A. Correlation research
B. Research framework
C. Intervention research
D. Descriptive research
89. A criminologist studies an offender not only to establish the motives and other extraneous
factors that impel him to commit the crime but also to gain a general understanding of the
offender's specific case and apply this knowledge to a group which is made of similarly situated
individuals. This is a characteristic of qualitative research known as _____.
A. Specificity to generalization
B. Contextualization
C. Human understanding and interpretation
D. Internal analysis
90. What is the part of the research paper that contains the procedures in data collection,
analysis of data as well as the source of data?
A. Title
B. Introduction
C. Abstract
D. Methodology
91. This is the primary focus of crime research wherein information is collected without
changing the environment, that is, nothing is manipulated. Sometimes these are referred to as
“correlational” or “observational” studies.
a. Evaluation research
b. Explanatory research
c. Descriptive research
d. Evaluation research
Wala kang binabago, dinidescribe mo lang.
92. It is one of the classification of research according to the type of analysis in which the
researcher begins with the total situation. Focusing attention on the system first and then on its
internal relationships.
a. Analytical research
b. Holistic research
c. Action research
d. Evaluation research
93. This study was conducted at the University of Manila and limited only to the currently
enrolled students of the College of Business Administration in their practicum course. The range
of study was from Nov. 2010 to March 2011", this is the best example of:
a. Scope of the study – coverage of the study
b. Delimitation of the study – limitation of your study
c. Significance of the study
d. Statement of the problem
94. It can be used to guide the reader with tips, suggestions or modes of action that the reader
can follow.
a. Interpretation of data
b. Conclusions
c. References
d. Recommendation – nilagay mo para makatulong sa mga readers mo
95. An author’s statement recognized his use of the works of other authors or a declaration or
avowal of one’s act of a fact to give it legal validity.
a. Dedication – kanino inaalalay ang iyong likha o katha
b. Abstract
c. Introduction
d. Acknowledgment
96. In some cases, additional information that is not critical to understanding the research
paper, such as a list of experiment stimuli, details of a secondary analysis, or programming code,
is provided. This is often placed in________.
a. Tables and Figures
b. Appendix
c. References
d. Abstract
97. It suggests that when one variable is increased, the value of another variable increases.
Example of this is as the number of pedestrians increases, so do ,jaywalking incident.
a. Positive associations
b. Negative associations
c. Associations and Cause and Effect
d. Nota
98. It is a comprehensive research paper often written in consultation with a faculty adviser. It is
a long essay that poses an interesting research question and persuasively answers it.
a. Thesis
b. Thesis Paper
c. Research
d. Scientific Article
99. In writing a thesis statement, what kind of paper explains something to the audience.
a. Analytical paper
b. Expository
c. Argumentative paper
d. Nota
100. It presents research findings written by researchers and scientists. They are generally
considered primary sources and are written for other researchers.
a. Thesis
b. Thesis Paper
c. Research
d. Scientific Article.
101. Headings serve an important purpose in research papers – they organized your paper and
make it simple to locate different pieces of information. In APA format, there are ________of
headings.
a. Three levels
b. Four levels
c. Five levels
d. Six levels
102. The last paragraph of introduction should state that ________

A. what is known
B. what is unknown
C. why the study was done
D. how the study was done
Bakit mahalaga ang research problem na to.
103. The definition of terms must be arranged ________

a. In order
b. Chronologically
c. Alphabetically
c. From earliest to recent
104. It should provide a brief background in present tense to establish context, relevance, or
nature of the problem, question, or purpose (what is known).
a. First paragraph of introduction
b. Second paragraph of introduction
c. Last paragraph of introduction
d. Introduction and its rationale
105. This referencing is used widely for academic writing, particularly in the humanities.
a. HARVARD
b. Modern Language Association (MLA)
c. American Psychological Association (APA)
d. Nota
106. As per the APA research paper format, the title should be between _________and should
reflect the essence of the paper.
a. 10-30 words
b. 10-20 words
c. 20-30 words
d. Unlimited words
107. Your abstract should be a single paragraph, doublespaced, and typically be ____________
a. no more than 250 words.
b. no less than 250 words.
c. no more than 200 words.
d. no less than 200 words.
108. In this section, you could describe how you analyzed the data and explain your findings.
a. Introduction
b. Methods
c. Results – nag analyze ka pa lang at the same time explaining the findings
d. Discussion – ininterpret mo na
109. Results are interpreted and understood in this section. It helps understand the research
hypothesis better and places the results in the broader context of the literature in the area.
a. Introduction
b. Methods
c. Results
d. Discussion
110. This type of comma is placed before the words AND and OR or in a series of three items.
a. Webster comma
b. Oxford comma
c. APA comma
d. MLA comma
111. In presenting a table for your research, this sequence must be observed.
a. Title, table number, table, and note.
b. Table number, title, table, and note.
c. Note, table, title, and table number
d. Title, note, table number and table.
112. Any conclusion drawn based upon hard evidence gathered from information collected from
real-life experiences and observations is called _____.
A. Empirical
B. Critical
C. Systematic
D. Rigorous
113. Which research problem is not researchable due to insufficient data or that data cannot be
obtained? A. A research on the conduct of morning meetings and afternoon meetings on the
crime solution efficiency of police stations
B. A research on the factors which cause the retirement of PNP personnel upon reaching 20
years in the service
C. A research on the effect of yearly unit performance evaluation rating on the overall
performance of provincial offices
D. A research on the problems encountered by the pioneering Criminology class of a university
who graduated 25 years ago
114. Jose found out that the scope of his research is too broad which requires great investments
in time, effort and money. In order to conduct his study within his means, which is his best
course of action?
A. He must only utilize descriptive statistics
B. He must simplify his theoretical framework
C. He must change his research problem
D. He must set the delimitation of the scope of his study
115. Harry is writing his research paper. There are numerous literatures which deal with his
research topic. In order to prevent the commission of plagiarism, he must observe which of the
following guidelines?
A. Check the validity of the research instruments
B. Obtain permission of the respondents
C. Citing the authors of the literature used in the research
D. Cite all ideas and information's that are not the words of the researcher
116. Which Philippine law penalizes plagiarism?

A. RA 8293
B. RA 6975
C. RA 8551
D. RA 6713 – Professional Code and Ethical Standard
117. Which of the following choices is the rationale as to why controversial issues are
discouraged as research topic?
A. It can provide comprehensive information regarding the respondents of the study
B. It prevents an in-depth analysis of the problem
C. It is hard to adopt an objective attitude toward controversial topics
D. It involves specialized equipment
118. Which is an advantage of qualitative research design where the researcher is allowed
greater spontaneity and adaptation in interacting with the research respondents?
A. Flexibility
B. Subjectivity
C. Labor-intensive
D. Unreliability
119. One of the common problems in designing your study is not concise and clear, and overly
general. Avoid using vague qualifiers, such as, extremely, very, entirely, completely, etc.
a. Poorly Defined Research Problem
b. Lack of Specificity
c. Poor Sampling
d. Provincialism
120. This refers to using a sample which is not based upon the purposes of the study, but rather,
is based upon the closeness of a particular group of subjects. If their selection is based primarily
on ease of access and having a convenient sample base, the research design is weak.
c. Poor Sampling
d. Provincialism
121. This refers to designing a narrowly applied scope, geographical area, sampling, or method
of analysis that restricts your ability to create meaningful outcomes and, by extension, obtaining
results that are relevant and possibly transferable to understanding phenomena in other
settings.
c. Poor Sampling
d. Provincialism
122. The researcher's design must document how he/ she intends to minimize risk for
participants or respondents during stages of data gathering while, at the same time, still being
able to adequately address the research problem. Failure to do so can lead the reader to
question the validity and objectivity of the entire study.
a. Poor Sampling
b. Provincialism
c. Ethical Dilemmas
d. Statistical Treatment
123. According to the COPE, a good research should be well adjusted, well-planned,
appropriately designed, and ethically approved. COPE stands for ____
a. Cooperative of Publication Ethics
b. Code of Public Ethics
c. Code of Publication ethics
d. Committee on Publication Ethics
124. Before starting any study involving data collection with people, the researcher submits
their research proposal to an/a_______________, of the respective organizations for studies
involving people, medical records, and anonymized human tissues.
a. Institutional Review Board (IRB)
b. Ethics Committee
c. A and B
d. Nota
125. Kardo does not want the readers to misinterpret the results of his data analysis without
considering the possibility of the study being underpowered. What Kardo must do?
1. All sources and methods used to obtain and analyze data should be fully disclosed
2. Fabricate and falsify the data
3. Mention any issues of bias in discussion section of a paper and explain how they have been
dealt with in the design and interpretation of the study.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 only
d. 1 and 3
126. Who among the following do/does not deserve an authorship.

a. Kardo who made substantial contributions to the intellectual content, including
conceptualizing and designing the study.
b. Idol Maltos who take responsibility to certify that the manuscript represents valid work and
take public responsibility for the work
c. Idol Jesmar who is involved in drafting or revising the manuscript, as well as approving the
submitted manuscript
d. Mang Kanor who made the collection of data, editing of grammar and language, and other
routine works by itself – inedit lang niya
127. This happens when researchers have interests that are not fully apparent and that may
influence their judgments on what is published.
a. Redundant Publication
b. Plagiarism
c. Authorship
d. Conflicts of Interest
128. If there is a conflict of interests in making a research, one should _____

1. Discussed these in the early stage of research.
2. Let these influence their judgments on what is published
3. Consult an independent researcher, or Ethics Committee, on this issue if in doubt.
4. Be declared to editors.
5. Ensure that these do not influence the methodology and outcome of the research.
a. 1235
b. 1345
c. 1234
d. 2345
129. It occurs when two or more papers, without full cross reference, share the same
hypothesis, data, discussion points, or conclusions.
a. Redundant Publication – pare parehas kayo ng gawa
b. Plagiarism – unreferenced useof others’ published and unpublished ideas
c. Authorship
d. Conflicts of Interest
130. It is the main organizing principle guiding the analysis of the research paper.
a. Conceptual framework
b. Research problem
c. Theoretical framework
d. Hypothesis
Lahat ng yan ay nagaguide per piliin mo ang main.
131. It is the very first step in writing a research.

a. Identify the problem
b. Define the problem
c. Selecting a research area
d. Identify the questions to be answered
Tingnan mo saan ka muna interesado bago ka magkaroon ng problema
132. In formulating a problem, after identifying your general area of interest, you have to learn
more this by means of the following, except:
a. Looking for background and specifics
b. Assess who or what it might affect and how the research could address those relationships
c. define and test the environmental variables in the research
d. consider whether other research groups have already tried to solve the problem in the
research and how his/her approach might differ
133. Kardo, after collecting enough information about his problem, this next step will help him
to easily estimate the amount of data his/her research is likely to deliver.
a. Determine Relationships Between Variables
b. Review the Context of the Information
c. Select and Include Important Variables
d. Receive Feedback and Revise
134. It is a formulation of an issue which is usually a 'gap' within the field and allows the reader
to quickly understand the purpose and intent of the research.
a. Problem Statement
b. A research gap
c. Problem
d. Research problem
135. The main goal of a statement of the problem is _______

a. Describes the issue that is in need of study.
b. Outlines the problem addressed by a study.
c. Understand the purpose and intent of the research.
d. Transform a generalized problem into a targeted, well-defined problem
136. A component of problem statements that intended to establish a baseline of accepted

facts.
a. Interacting Proposition
b. Principal Proposition – general na kaalaaman
c. Speculative Proposition
d. Explicative Statement
137. It is the most important port of the problem statement because it provides a contrast to
the principal proposition and is especially sensitive to being supported by the scholarly
literature or in combination with a credible professional source.
b. Principal Proposition
138. It is the statement of the purpose of the research study. It serves to complete the cycle of
logic that the researcher has generated.
c. Speculative Proposition – haka-haka
d. Explicative Statement – nagpapaliwanag
139. It juxtaposes the previous two sets of information, which are offered as being true, and
suggest why it might be important, to resolve the contradiction that they have seemingly
caused.
140. The type of research problem depends on ______

a. Topic of interest and the type of study the researcher wants to do. - kabuuan
b. The series of questions that wants the researchers to answer.
c. A phenomenon or context that has not been closely studied.
d. A situation or relationship that is not well understood
141. This type of problem focuses on expanding knowledge and understanding rather than
directly contributing to change.
a. Action Research Problem
b. Theoretical Research Problem
c. Applied Research Problem
d. Nota
142. It is a non-systematic problem, involving the practical use of theoretical knowledge.

d. Nota
143. It aims to provide solutions for problems that are time-sensitive and immediate.
d. Nota
144. Among the following variables which of the following is usually the problem itself?
A. Intervening variables
B. Antecedent variables
C. Dependent variables
D. Independent variables
145. When to start reviewing related literature?

a. When research problem is still being conceptualized – tapos na
b. when research problem is still on data analysis
c. when research problem is being defined
d. when research problem is partially over
146. The sources that the chief purpose is to list, summarize or simply repackage ideas or other
information and usually not credited to a particular author.
a. Primary Sources
b. Secondary Sources
c. Tertiary Sources
d. All of the above
147. These sources are records of events or evidence as it they are first described or actually
happened without any interpretation or commentary.
a. Primary Sources
b. Secondary Sources
c. Tertiary Sources
d. All of the above
148. It is a strategy for answering the research question using empirical data. It constitutes the
blueprint for the collection, measurement, and analysis of data.
a. Research method
b. Research design
c. Research framework
d. Statement of the Problem
149. Research design is a plan to answer research question while research method _________.
a. Ensuring the effective address of the research problem
b. Determines the type of design that needs to be used
c. A strategy used to implement the plan of research design.
d. Ensures that the data obtained will help to answer the research question more effectively
150. The following are some of the purpose of a research design.

a. Identify the research problem clearly and justify its selection
b. Review and synthesize previously published literature
c. Clearly and explicitly specify hypotheses central to the problem
d. All of the above
151. When practitioners use this research design, it has the potential to increase the amount
they learn consciously from their experience. It can regarded as a learning cycle.
a. Action research studies
b. Case study Design
c. Meta Analysis Design
d. Mixed Method Design
152. It is an in-depth study of a particular research problem rather than a sweeping statistical
survey or comprehensive comparative inquiry.
153. The main objectives this study include analyzing differences in the results among studies
and increasing the precision by which effects are estimated.
154. It is a procedure for collecting, analyzing, and "mixing" both quantitative and qualitative
research and methods in a single study to understand a research problem .
155. This research entails that the researcher concurrently conducts the quantitative and
qualitative elements in the same phase of the research process, weighs the methods equally,
analyzes the two components independently, and interprets the results together
a. Explanatory Sequential Design
b. Convergent Parallel Design
c. Embedded Design
d. Exploratory Sequential Design
156. The purpose of this is to use qualitative data to help explain quantitative results that need
further exploration, and to use quantitative results to purposefully select best participants for
qualitative study.
c. Embedded Design
Pag nauna ang qualitative follows the quantitative
157. This is a mixed methods study design, where the quantitative phase of data collection and
analysis follows the qualitative phase of data collection and analysis.
c. Embedded Design
Pag nauna ang quantitative follows the qualitative
158. The premises of this design are that a single data set is not sufficient, that different
questions need to be answered, and that each type of question requires different types of data.
a. Convergent Parallel Design
b. Explanatory Sequential Design
c. Exploratory Sequential Design
d. Embedded Design
159. It is a foundational review of existing theories that serves as a roadmap for developing the
arguments you will use in your own work and support research by describing and/or drawing
from relevant theoretical aspects obtained in previous work .
a. Theoretical Framework
b. Conceptual Framework
c. Research Design
d. Research problem
160. It is like a roadmap for the study, helping the researcher visualize his/her research project
and put it into action. It defines the relevant variables for the study and maps out how they
might relate to each other.
a. Theoretical Framework
b. Conceptual Framework
c. Research Design
d. Research problem
161. Kardo make sure that while reviewing for board exam, he maintains his body healthy by
not staying too late at night and exhausted so that it will not affect his performance on exam.
The “health” here is considered ____
a. Independent variables
b. Dependent variables
c. Moderating variables
d. Mediating variables
e. Control variables
162. Kardo always give a “tip” to a gasoline boy for his extra effort and warmth service. The “tip”
can be considered as an independent variable while the “effort” is the dependent variable. But
giving a “tip” to the gasoline boy cause a positive morale to exert extra effort in doing his job.
What can you conclude in relation to the “positive morale”?
a. It is a mediating variable that without it, the tip will not affect the service of gasoline boy.
b. It is a moderating variable that leads a direction between independent and dependent
variable
c. It is a control variable that must be keep constant to control the dependent variable
d. It is also an independent variable that affects the dependent variable.
163. Idol Maltos read his notes for almost 20 hours before BET while Jaymark Pogi slept early
after reading his review materials for almost 12 hours. The latter got higher grades than the
former. The “studying” is the independent variable while the “getting higher or lower grades” is
the dependent variable, where “lack or enough sleep” could be _____
164. Onset of putrefaction of cadaver varies among countries. The cadaver will decompose
approximately 24-48 hours in tropical countries while 36-48 hours in other countries. If your
going to conduct an experiment to which cadaver shall decompose faster as to the size of the
body, the climate shall be _______
165. In research, such as a questionnaire or a measuring device, like a weighing scale or a

thermometer is changed during the study period between the pretest and the post test, the
change could result in an effect that is independent of the intervention and yet, may be
attributed to it.
A. History
B. Selection
C. Instrumentation
D. Testing
166. Psgt. Daniel, a graduate school student, wanted to determine the acceptability of the
50/50 work scheme among uniformed personnel of Maliksi Police Station. This work scheme
entails that only half of the personnel will report to work in any given day. Which is the most
appropriate research method that he will use?
A. Correlational
B. Explanatory
C. Descriptive – describe the current status of the identified variables
D. Exploratory
167. A person was considered to be a serial killer for having been proved beyond reasonable
doubt of killing 9 persons. He came from a respected family and was well-educated. A
criminologist would like to conduct a study to determine the reason behind the killings
committed by the convict. To achieve this objective, which is the most appopriate research
method to use?
A. Phenomenology
B. Ethnography
C. Biography
D. Case study
168. The following are approaches to quantitative research, except ______.
A. Survey research
B. Grounded theory
C. Experimental research
D. Casual-comparative research
169. This method of data collection used in exploratory research has the idea to produce a
sense of synergy among the participants, which should in theory, result in a richer and more
fruitful discussion.
a. Focus group interviews
b. Depth interviews
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
170. It is a complete analysis of scholarly sources on a selected topic of study. It is crafted to

give an overview of the current knowledge, to help the researcher know the methods, theories,
and gaps that exist in research.
a. Research studies
b. Literature review
c. Research
d. Research review
171. It is a systematic method of collecting and measuring data gathered from different sources
of information in order to provide answers to relevant questions.
a. Literature review
b. Data gathering
c. Data analysis
d. Interpretation of data
172. It refers to the gathering of second-hand data collected by an individual who is not the
original user. a. Primary Data
b. Secondary Data
c. Tertiary data
d. Raw data
173. It is also suitable in examining sensitive topics, as the rapport building provides a
comfortable atmosphere for participant's disclosure.
a. Qualitative method of research
b. Quantitative method of research
c. Research
d. All of the above
174. The researcher is interested in understanding how participants make meaning of a
situation or phenomenon, this meaning is mediated through the researcher as instrument, the
strategy is inductive, and the outcome is descriptive.
a. Basic Interpretive Qualitative Study
b. Phenomenological Research
c. Phenomenological Research
d. Nota
175. Attempts to understand problems, ideas, and situations from the perspective of common
understanding and experience rather than differences.
a. Basic Interpretive Qualitative Study
b. Grounded Theory Methodology
c. Phenomenological Research
d. Nota
176. The primary goal of this qualitative interview is to hear what respondents think is
important about the topic at hand and to hear it in their own words.
a. Qualitative interviews
b. In-depth interviews
c. Focus Groups
d. Nota
177. In this qualitative interview, the researcher's aim is to get participants talking to each other
and to observe interactions among participants, and act as the moderator.
a. Qualitative interviews
b. In-depth interviews
c. Focus Groups
d. Nota
178. Is a procedure used in experiments to create study groups with similar characteristics so
that the groups are equivalent at the beginning of the study.
a. Random sampling
b. Random assignment
c. Blinding
d. Sampling
179. It provides credibility to the study as it shows the researcher has done his/her "homework"
in reading the research for this topic, and his/her study is "grounded" in the research.
a. Introduction
b. Review of the Literature
c. Methods
d. Results
e. Discussion
180. In methodology, it is the statistical or qualitative techniques that were used to analyze the
data.
a. Setting
b. Participants
c. Procedures
d. Data Analysis
181. This is the specific aggregation of the elements, also known as universe.
a. Sample
b. Population
c. Variable
d. Constant
182. Selecting the individuals out of N such that individuals have equal chances of being
selected. Techniques suitable for homogeneous population.
a. Systematic random sampling
b. Random sampling
c. Stratified sampling
d. Simple cluster sampling
183. This sampling is ideal when the researcher wishes to study in- depth a particular
phenomenon.
a. Probability sampling/Scientific Sampling
b. Non-probability sampling – quantitative kasi to
c. Judgment sampling
d. Accidental sampling
e. Snowball Sampling
184. The 3 stages of theory development are _____

a. Deductive, abductive, and inductive
b. Speculative, descriptive and constructive
c. Problem, conclusion, and solution
d. Idea, knowledge, and proof.
185. Which of the following choices does not relate to the characteristics of classical theory in
criminal law?
A. The basis in criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of penalty is retribution
B. It has endeavored to establish a mechanical and direct proportion between crime and
penalty
C. That man is essentially a moral creature with an absolutely free will to choose good and evil
D. That man is occasionally subdued by a strange and morbid phenomenon
186. Among the following statements, which best describes the founding of Charles Goring after
analyzing 3,000 English convicts?
A. Crime prone people can be seen through their features
B. There is no such thing as anthropological criminal type
C. There were no significant physical or mental abnormalities among the criminals
D. Criminals are born
187. What criminological theory states that the external cranial characteristics dictates which
areas of the brain control physical activity?
A. Physiognomy
B. Phrenology
C. Sociology
D. Psychology
188. Hydraulic model is also referred to as _____ theory.

A. Passive-aggressive
B. Psychodynamic
C. Social learning
D. Darwinian perspective
189. The following are explanations of the imitation theory of Gabriel Tarde, except ____.
A. When two behavior patterns clash, one may take the place of the other, as when guns largely
replaced knives as murder weapons
B. Individual imitate others in proportion to the intensity and frequency of their contacts
C. A breakdown of social order is a result of loss of standards and values and if plagued by
anomie, disintegration and chaos replace social cohesion
D. Inferiors imitate superiors - that is, trends on from town to country and from upper to lower
classes
190. In human personality which of the following can differentiate reality from fantasy?
A. Id
B. Ego
C. Superego
D. Super id
191. In ICAP theory, ________ is a person’s risk or propensity to engage in crime and cognition is
the thinking process that turns potential into actual behavior.
a. Criminal tendency
b. Antisocial potential
c. Antisocial behavior
d. Antisocial propensity
192. What is this theory which holds that crime is a function of the conflict between the goals
people have and the means they can use to legally obtain them? It argues that it is the inability
to obtain these goals, usually materials goals that trigger the commission of crimes because
members of the lower class are unable to achieve these goals which come easy for members of
the upper class.
A. Social disorganization theory
B. Cultural deviance theory
C. Social learning theory
D. Strain theory
193. The _____ is a broad analysis of the relationship between personal and social controls. This
theory is a form of control, which suggest that a series of both internal and external factors
contributes to criminal behavior.
A. Anomie theory
B. Strain theory
C. Containment theory
D. Differential Association theory
194. Marga has a poor relationship with her parents, has no goals for the future, and
participates in few extracurricular activities; hence, this can lead to deviance. Which theory
explains assumption?
A. Conflict
B. Labeling
C. Self-control
D. Social control
195. Kardo has never been involved in crime because he does not want to lose everything, he
has like being a dean’s lister and afraid that he may not be able to achieve his dreams if he shall
be convicted.
a. Commitment
b. Attachment
c. Involvement
d. Belief
196. Which of the following is a Marxist criminology review, idea and philosophy?
A. Inequality and poverty turns people to crime, including that exploiting of the powerless
B. Criminality is well within the rational choice of a man who is capable of thinking
C. Crime and criminality are by product of atavistic tendency in a society
D. Crime is absolutely caused by the free-will or man's own volition
197. It is assumed that participation in criminal activity is the result of an optimizing individual
responding to incentives.
a. Economic Model of Criminal Behavior
b. Karl Marx’s Theory
c. Friedrich Engels’ and Willem Bonger’s Theory
198. Which theory states that juveniles sense a moral obligation to be bound by law wherein
such bind between a person and the law remains in the place most of the time when it is not in
place, delinquents will drift?
A. Denial of Responsibility
B. Denial of Injury
C. Denial of the Victim
D. Neutralization theory
199. What is this THEORY puts the focus on the process of naming behaviours and the people
that perform them.
A. PRIMARY AND SECONDARY DEVIANCE
B. Rational choice
C. Anomie
D. Labelling
200. The develop sense of powerlessness which increases levels of mistrust. Some residents
become so suspicious of authority that they directly develop a _____. It often results in an
expanding mistrust of social institutions, including law enforcement, business, government and
schools.
A. Crab mentality
b. Brain drain
c. Siege mentality
d. Focus lang sa goal, iwan pati pamilya mentality
201. It refers to the state where youths are incapable of achieving their legitimate goals in life
because of the social conditions that they are into.
a. Frustration
b. Strain
c. Status frustration
d. Siege mentality
202. It is the most common response to middle-class rejection. He is not a chronic delinquent
but may be a truant who engages in petty or status offenses, such as sex before marriage and
recreational drug abuse.
a. The Corner Boy
b. The College Boy
c. The high School Boy
d. The Delinquent Boy
203. This might include things like brain changes, genetics, or functioning of major body organs,
such as the liver, the kidneys, or even the motor system.
a. The “Bio” component
b. The “Psycho” component
c. The “Social” component
d. The BIO-PSYCHOSOCIAL MODEL
204. This theory identifies critical points in the life-course that produce crime; in childhood,
family factors are critical; in adulthood, marital and job factors are key to show how crime is a
developmental process that shift in direction over the life course.
a. Interactional theory
b. Age-graded theory
c. Latent trait theory
d. Life-course theory
205. This theory suggests that while most people age out of crime, small segments are not
removed from a criminal path and continue crimes into adulthood.
a. Developmental theories
b. Life-course theory
c. General theory of crime
d. Latent trait theory
Kahit tumatanda na tayo,may mga pagkakataon pa rin talaga na meron tayong ugali na hindi
mawawala sa atin.
206. A female student got pregnant in her third year of college and eventually stopped by her
parents from going to school. After delivering the baby, the student had no intention anymore
of going back to school instead she’s now more concerned on joining her friends wherever they
go, letting her parents took care of her baby.
a. Life course theory – changing direction in life, changing perceptions and experiences
b. Routine activity theory
c. Lifestyle theory
d. Latent trait theory
207. These are the turning points referred in Age-graded theory that cause a man to change his
criminal behavior.
a. Realization and actualization
b. Marriage and career
c. Achievement and self-respect
d. Belongingness and self-esteem
208. This theory implicates that minor or primary deviance must be given much coordination
and must be deterred immediately before it could be imitated by others or be continued by the
author.
a. Labelling theory
b. Imitation theory
c. Broken window theory
d. Nota
209. Among the following choices, this describes a radical criminological approach to the
explanation of crime that sees the conflict and inequality present in society as being based
primarily on gender.
A. Peacemaker criminology
B. Left-realist criminology
C. Radical criminology
D. Feminist criminology
210. Which views suggest that males such as judges, police officers and prosecutors tend to
have traditional views on women thus; they are more lenient to them as compared to their
male counterparts?
A. Paternalism
B. Chivalry hypothesis
C. Masculinity
D. Power control theory
211. This theory claims that the cause of criminality originates with the onset of male
supremacy and the efforts of males to control female sexuality.
a. Critical feminist
b. THEORY OF “PENIS ENVY”
c. MARGINALIZATION THEORY
d. OPPORTUNITY THEORY
212. Is a process in which a progressive series of changes occurs as a result of maturation and
experience of a person.
a. Development
b. Human development
c. Innovation
d. Maturation
213. A perspective in studying human behavior that focuses on the subject’s experiences,
freedom of choice, and strong motivation to achieve self-actualization.
a. Behavioral
b. Cognitive
c. Humanistic
d. Neurological
214. It refers to the person’s knowledge of a given stimulus which largely helps to determine the
actual behavioral response in a given situation.
a. Perception – perception of stimuli
b. awareness – experience of stimuli
c. Sensation – feelings or impressions of stimuli
d. Learning
215. Part of moral development theory; individual's moral rules and moral values consist of do's
and don'ts to avoid punishment young children.
a. Preconventional level
b. Conventional level
c. Postconventional level
d. Nota
216. The period following the onset of puberty during which a young person develops from a
child into an adult.
A. Adolescence – cross over into adulthood
B. Manhood
C. Teenager
D. Adulthood
217. What is this usual pattern of behavior of any individuals as express by physical and rational
activities and attitudes?
A. Attitude
B. Character
C. Customs
D. Behavior
218. It claimed that childhood experiences and unconscious desires ultimately influence our
behaviors as adults.
a. THEORY OF PSYCHOSOCIAL DEVELOPMENT
b. PSYCHOANALYTIC THEORIES
c. Sociocultural Theory of Cognitive Development
d. Constructivism
219. It is the objective, rational part of the personality.

a. ID
b. EGO
c. SUPEREGO
220. In Sigmund Freud's psychosexual development, in phallic stage, the libido focuses on what?
A. Bowel and bladder control
B. Mouth area
C. Genitals
D. Sexual interest
221. This is a period of exploration and place an important role in the development of
confidence as well as social and communication skills.
a. Latency Stage
b. Genital Stage
c. Anal Stage
d. Oral Stage
222. The main objective of this phase is the eventual separation from one’s attachment to
his/her parents and the achievements of mature relationships as well as adults roles and duties.
a. Latency Stage
b. Genital Stage
c. Anal Stage
d. Oral Stage
223. It is the shortest of all developmental periods and is considered a time of extreme
adjustments, thus making it a hazardous period.
a. Prenatal Period
b. Infancy
c. Early Childhood
d. Puberty Or Preadolescence
224. A major element of this theory is the “ego identity”, which is the “conscious sense of self
that we develop through social interaction.”
a. THEORY OF PSYCHOSOCIAL DEVELOPMENT - Erikson
d. Constructivism
225. Is a theory in education which posits that individuals or learners do not acquire knowledge
and understanding by passively perceiving it within a direct process of knowledge transmission,
rather they construct new understandings and knowledge through experience and social
discourse, integrating new information with what they already know
a. THEORY OF PSYCHOSOCIAL DEVELOPMENT
d. Constructivism
226. Behavior is ________ when acts are with in the level of awareness.
a. Overt
b. Covert
c. Conscious
d. Unconscious Behavior
227. This family is usually due to value differences as common sources of conflict and
dissatisfaction.
a. THE INADEQUATE FAMILY – kulang sa financial
b. THE ANTI-SOCIAL FAMILY – ugali ng pamilya na hindi katanggap tangap sa society
c. THE DISCORDANT/DISTURBED FAMILY - wala ng pagmamahal sa isa’t-isa
d. THE DISRUPTED FAMILY – bunga ng hiwalayan
228. This is a result of needs which is a psychological state of arousal that prompts someone to
take action. a. Needs – kinakailangan natin para mabuhay
b. Drives
c. Motivation
229. According to Abraham Maslow, this is the most important needs.

a. Safety Needs
b. Love/Belongingness
c. Esteem Needs
d. Self- actualization
e. Biological or Physiological Needs
230. Refers to the characteristics of an individual, describing a habitual way of behaving,

thinking and feeling.
a. Behavior
b. Attitude
c. Character
d. Trait
231. This refers to the process of consciously experiencing deep emotions that have previously
been repressed, thus moving them to the surface and allowing them to come out.
a. Frustration Aggression Theory
b. What is the Hypothesis of Catharsis
c. purging or cleansing
d. catharsis
232. It is the ability to withstand frustration without developing inadequate modes of response
such as being emotionally depressed or irritated, becoming neurotic or becoming aggressive.
a. Frustration Tolerance
b. Coping Mechanism
c. Defense Mechanism
d. Frustration
233. What is the disorder that has been linked to brain disfunction and damage, neurological
immaturity, and genetic predisposition?
A. Attention-deficit hyperactivity
B. Learning
C. Post-traumatic stress
D. Obsessive-compulsive
234. Which describes traits of people who will often try to justify their faults often think that
any criticism is directed at them; loves praises because it gives them temporary self-confidence;
and they do not like competition unless they are certain to win because it hurts them too much
when they lose?
A. Superiority complex
B. Maladjusted personality
C. Anti-personality disorder
D. Inferiority complex – gusto laging mananalo, bully
235. Which of the following is the true psychopath?
A. Secondary psychopath
B. Dyssocial psychopath
C. Neurotic
D. Primary psychopath
236. What is the sexual disfunction wherein there is no sexual drive or interest in sexual
activity?
A. Sexual aversion disorder
B. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
C. Sexual pain disorder
D. Post traumatic sexual disorder - naglock
237. What is the false interpretation of external stimulus which manifested through sight,
hearing, taste, smell and touch?
A. Hallucination
B. Illusion
C. Delusion
D. Mania
238. A serious mental and emotional disorder that is a manifestation of withdrawal from reality.
Some of examples are encephalitis, intoxication, mania, dementia praecox or split personality.
A. Psychosomatic
B. Psychoneurosis
C. Psychosis
D. Psychogenic
239. Mr. Jessie, during sexual intercourse, utters obscence languages to achieve sexual
satisfaction. What form of abnormality sexual behavior is this?
A. Exhibitionism
B. Coprolalia
C. Don Juanism
D. Pluralism
240. Which of the following is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of conscience,
deficient feeling of affection to others and aggression to environment and other people?
A. Schizophrenic personality
B. Psychopathic personality
C. Compulsive neurosis
D. Neurotic personality
241. Which of the following is a disorder characterized by chronic mental and physical fatigue
and by various aches and pains?
A. Anxiety disorder
B. Somatoform disorder
C. Dissociative disorder
D. Amnesia
242. Kardo has this serious mental and emotional disorder that manifest a withdrawal from
reality. He feels that he has this split personality.
A. Psychosis
B. Schizophrenia
C. Psychosomatic
D. Psychoneurosis
243. This is the inexcusable reverential of a specific situation when there is no existing evil that
are totally out of dimensions.
A. Phobias
B. Obsessive-compulsive - perfection
C. Exposure
D. Anxiety neurosis
244. Displays neurological symptoms such as numbness, paralysis, or fits, even though no
neurological explanation is found and it is determined that the symptoms are due to the
patient’s psychological response to stress.
a. Hypochondriasis – overreacting simple illness
b. Conversion Disorder (Hysteria)
c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
d. Mass Hysteria
245. Lack of empathy or conscience, difficulty controlling impulses and manipulative behaviors.
It is called Conduct disorder in less than 18 years old.
a. Antisocial personality disorder
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder
c. Paranoid Personality Disorder
d. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
246. Exhibit a pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attempt to get attention in
unusual ways, such as bizarre appearance or speech.
a. Histrionic personality disorder – dramatic, oa, kulang sa pansin
b. Avoidant Personality Disorder
c. Narcissistic personality disorder
d. Borderline personality disorder
247. A person with mental defectiveness of such a degree that he is unable to guard himself
against common physical dangers. His mental capacity is commensurate to 2 years old.
a. Feeble–Minded
b. Idiot
c. Imbecile
d. Morally defective
248. It is recurrent, persistent ideas, thoughts, images, or impulses that are ego-dystonic, that is,
they are not experienced as voluntarily produced, but rather as ideas that invade consciousness.
a. Obsession
b. Anxiety
c. Phobia
d. Compulsion
249. This is a psychoneurotic condition that is accompanied by a vast range of mental and
emotional symptoms that cannot be controlled.
a. Psychasthenia – general term ng compulsion and obsession
b. Amnesia
c. Phobias
d. Compulsion
e. Obsession
250. It is defined as the way people react to frustration. This could be attributed to individual
differences and the way people prepared in the developmental task they faced during the early
stages of their life.
a. Coping mechanism
b. Defense mechanism
c. Fight/flight
d. Frustration Tolerance
251. When an individual realizes that in finding for the right solution of the problem, he always
end up with a negative outcome or result. Thus, he tries to change direction first and find out if
the solution or remedy is there.
a. Direct approach
b. Detour
c. Substitution
d. Developing feeling of inferiority
252. Most of time are resulted to in handling frustration when an original plan intended to solve
the problem did not produce the intended result, thus the most practical way to face the
problem, is to look for most possible or alternative means.
a. Direct approach
b. Detour
c. Substitution
d. Developing feeling of inferiority
253. Substituting acceptable physical symptoms for unacceptable emotions and feelings. For
example, a student has a test and is nervous and afraid of failing, develops nausea and vomiting.
a. Denial
b. Conversion
c. Repression
d. Sublimation
254. . Ricardo "Cardo" Dalisay is a volleyball team captain that keeps the game on even if it is a
25-20 and they're losing at the fourth set of game. This situation if referring to:
A. Denial
B. Dissociation
C. Avoidance
D. Acting out
255. Refers to fear that instincts will get out of control and cause the person to do something for
which he or she will be punished.
a. Anxiety
b. Reality Anxiety – fear of real dangers
c. Neurotic Anxiety
d. Moral Anxiety – fear of conscience
256. It is characterized by immaturity, excitability, emotional instability and self-dramatization.

a. Paranoid Personality Disorder
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder
c. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
d. Histrionic Personality Disorder
257. It is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance and pre-occupation with

receiving attention. The person usually expects and demands special treatment from others and
disregarding the rights and feeling of others.
a. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
b. Borderline Personality Disorder
c. Avoidant Personality Disorder
d. Dependent Personality Disorder
258. It is characterized by excessive concern with rules, order, and efficiency that everyone does
things their way and an ability to express warm feeling.
a. Passive-Aggressive Personality Disorder – stubborn, spoiled
b. Compulsive Personality Disorder – may mania
c. Anti-social Personality Disorder
d. Nota
259. Believes they have done something terribly wrong. One extremely rare instance if this
diseases is called FOLIE A DEUX.
a. JEALOUS PARANOIA
b. SOMATIC DELUSION
c. GUILT DELUSION
d. Paranoia
260. A response to obvious stress characterized by amnesia, multiple personality, and

depersonalization. Loss of integration of consciousness, identity and memories of important
personal events.
a. Dissociative Disorders
b. Amnesia
c. Multiple Personality
d. Depersonalization
261. Refers to anti-social acts that place the actor at risk of becoming a focus of the attention of
criminal and juvenile justice professionals.
a. Abnormal behavior
b. Criminal behavior
c. Anti-social behavior
d. Maladaptive behavior
262. What is that common human tendency to discount the influence of the situation and
explain behavior by referring to the personality of the actor instead?
A. Self-serving bias
B. Crime of obedience
C. Frustration-induced situation
D. Fundamental attribution error
263. A Scottish Woodcutter was accused of killing a man he believed to be Prime Minister for
thought that he was persecuted by the Tories and their leader, Robert Peel, however turned out
to be another person. The court believed he was so mentally deranged that it would be
inhuman to convict him since it was clear he was not in control of his faculties. This case
became known as:
A. ALI " Substancial Capacity" Test
B. The M'naghten Rule
C. The Durham Rule
D. "Product Test"
264. This rule stated that a person is not responsible for his criminal act if, as a result of the
mental disease or defect he lacks substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality of his act or
to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law.
A. ALI " Substancial Capacity" Test
B. The M'naghten Rule
C. The Durham Rule
D. "Product Test"
265. In the Mendelsohn's victim types, who is the victim with minor guilt?
A. No provocation or facilitating behavior
B. Victim provokes or instigate the casual act
C. Victim was engaging in vice crimes and was hurt, suicide victim
D. Victim inadvertently places himself in compromising situation
266. What occours when a victim unintentionally makes it easier for an offender to commit a
crime, a victim may, and in this way be a catalyst for victimization ?
A. Victim precipitation
B. Victim provocation
C. Victim facilitation
D. Victim instigation
267. Jose and his fellow adolescents are living with economic difficulties and are engaged in
some unlawful activities. Adjacent in their environment is a subdivision not regularly patrolled
by policemen and "tanods" and whose residents are mostly middle and upper class of the
society whose houses are fully equipped with easily saleable items, fixtures and appliances.
Applying the routine activity theory, which may aptly consider to Jose and his fellow
adolescents?
A. Motivated offenders
B. Economically poor
C. Suitable targets
D. Capable guardians
268. What kind of crime victim does these people who experience the harm intensely through
media publicity as their source of information?
A. Specific crime victim
B. Tertiary crime victims
C. direct crime victim
D. indirect crime victim
269. What type of victim who is particularly vulnerable to stresses that occur at a given period
of time in the life cycle, such as juvenile victims?
A. Self-serving
B. Wanton – seeking pleasure
C. Tormentor
D. Greedy
270. Victim typologies based on the offender-victim dyad in a criminal act. Common to the ideas
of these early victimologists was that each classified victim in regard to the degree to which
they had cause their own victimization.
a. First Generation: Early Criminologist
b. Second Generation: Theories Of Victimization
c. Third Generation
d. Moving Beyond Opportunity Theories
271. It is a term that describes the relationship between the victim and the criminal.
a. Penal lover
b. Penal couple
c. Penal relationship
d. Penal exam
272. These are actions which stand neutral in relation to the norm of morality.
a. MORAL (GOOD) ACTIONS
b. IMMORAL (BAD) ACTIONS
c. AMORAL (INDIFFERENT) ACTIONS
d. Human acts
e. Acts of man
273. Peter was walking down the street when he heard several boys catcall a lady who was
wearing mini skirt. Peter told the group to stop what they are doing since it was wrong. Select
which best describes Peter's action.
A. Moral decision
B. Moral issue
C. Courtesy
D. Moral judgment
274. During Local and National elections, the Commission on Election requires Ricardo "Cardo"
Dalisay not to carry firearms and other form of explosives even if he is a law enforcer unless he
is on duty. If Cardo shall be caught in the said regulation he shall be facing administrative case.
What type of duty is the above mentioned?
A. Natural duties
B. Positive duties
C. Affirmative duties – dapat mong gawin
D. Negative duties – hindi mo dapat gawin
275. What is this ability to go on despite the tremendous adversity?

A. Endurance
B. Patience
C. Perseverance
D. Prudence
276. This provides the basis for judgments about what is important for the organization to
succeed in its core business.
A. Habits
B. Customs
C. Moral values
D. Practices
277. Pat Kardo was conducting beat patrol when he found a bag with no apparent owner in a
sidewalk. When he opened the bag, it was full of money. He was faced with a moral issue
between appropriating the bag or returning it to its rightful owner. This situation is called
a. Moral judgment
b. Moral dilemma
c. Moral decision
d. Moral issue
278. Kardo was a bus driver. As he was driving near a bridge, he noticed a couple riding a
motorbike. When he applied the brakes, it did not respond. The only way he could avoid the
couple is to ditch the vehicle into the river which will possibly kill numerous passengers or run
over the couple. This situation which calls for choosing between, two evils is called
a. Moral judgment
b. Moral dilemma
c. Moral decision
d. Moral issue
279. Maria Osaka, a fourth year criminology student was approached by the school janitor who
claimed that he has a photocopy of the final examination. The latter offered to give her a copy
in exchange for PhP1,000. Maria Leonor declined saying that she would rather fail the exam
than cheat. She was placed in a situation and confronted by the choice of what act to perform.
This is called
a. Moral judgment
b. Moral dilemma
c. Moral decision
d. Moral issue
280. All public officers and employees of the government including every member of the armed
forces shall, before entering upon the discharge of his duties ______
a. bear true faith and allegiance to it; obey the laws, legal orders and decrees promulgated by
the duly constituted authorities
b. Take an oath or affirmation to uphold and defend the Constitution
c. voluntarily assumes the obligation imposed by his oath of office
d. Copies of the oath shall be deposited with the Civil Service Commission and the National
Archives
281. What is the primary responsibility of registered criminologist?

a. Improve their effectiveness by diligent study
b. To bear faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines and be loyal to his profession
c. To know its bounds upon him, be aware of limitations and prescriptions and recognize the
system of government
d. be just, impartial and reasonable, never according anyone more preferential treatment than
another.
282. The Registered Criminologist must be mindful of his special identification by the public as
an upholder of the law. For achieve this, what should be done?
a. He must never be lax in conduct or manner in private life, express disrespect for the law, nor
seek to gain special privilege that would be reflective upon the profession
b. develop and maintain complete support and cooperation of the public
c. deal with individuals of the community in a manner calculated to instill respect for its laws
and their profession.
d. encouraging complete cooperation of members for their mutual benefit.
283. Which of the following means service, refers to the commitment, dignity and attitude of
an individual towards work and his integrity and practice of the core moral value principles?
A. Competence
B. Efficiency
C. Professionalism
D. Integrity
284. Which of the following is the key to professionalism, and its improper implementation
will greatly prejudice the personnel professionalization process as regard to procurement ,
promotion, assignment, placement, and training awards and retirement?
A. Police professionalism
B. Police management
C. Career management
D. Management ethics
285. Public officials and employees shall provide service to everyone without unfair
discrimination and regardless of party affiliation or preference.
A. Police neutrality
B. Political neutrality
C. Professionalism
D. Commitment to public interest
286. Primary attribute for effective leadership.

a. Be a born leader
b. Have acquired the techniques of handling men
c. Have enough experience and training
d. Have normal intelligence and sincere desire to serve
287. Which of the following choices exemplifies that PNP members shall provide services to
everyone without discrimination regardless of party affiliation?
A. Non-partisanship
B. Non-solicitation of political patronage
C. Devotion to duty
D. Secrecy discipline
288. Patrolman Kardo hosted a birthday party in a hotel which provided him with one free
room. When he was in the room, he found out that he lost several pieces of jewelry and cash.
Suspecting that the program coordinator is the perpetrator, Patrolman Kardo frisked him in
front of the guests. Which is the basis of the civil liability of Patrolman Kardo, if any?
A. Abuse of a right
B. Doctrine of self help – nilalagay mo ang batas sa iyong kamay
C. Doctrine of vicarious liability
D. Performance of duty
289. SPO2 Jack Chan, an active member of PNP General Santos City, conhabited with Mrs.
Ashley Conrado knowing her to be legally married. What virtue as PNP member SPO2 Chan did
not passess?
A. Integrity
B. Honor
C. Charity
D. Valor
Correct Answer: Morality
290. The PNP shall endeavor to promote a lifestyle for every member of the organization that
is ____ in the eyes of the public.
A. Respectable and adorable
B. Disciplined and professional
C. acceptable and respectable
D. Efficient and competent
291. Which of the following refers to the state of affairs requiring tact to protect the integrity of
a person?
A. Dedication
B. Word of honor
C. Delicadeza
D. Trustworthiness
292. When these public officials and employees remains true to the people at all times, what
norm of conduct they are emphasizing?
A. Professionalism
B. Responsiveness to the public
C. Commitment to public interest
D. Justness and sincerity
293. P/Supt. Kardo Dalitay went to Criminal Justice College and punched Prof. Prof. Tango Ol in
the stomach after berating the professor for scolding the police official's son who is a
Criminology student. P/Supt. Dela Cruz's act should be condemned because it is an act
A. Of irregularity in the performance of duty
B. Of malfeasance
C. Of misconduct
D. Of incompetence
294. Which statement refers to a conduct that a public servant, especially members of the
uniformed services, must strictly observe social decorum?
A. A formal act or set of formal acts established by customs or authority as proper to special
occasion - courtesy
B. A set of norms and standards practiced by members during social and other functions
C. Bodies of unwritten beliefs, stories, customs and usages handed down from generation to
generation – tradition
D. A manifestation or expression of consideration and respect to others
295. Choose the level of care that is required of PNP members to exercise in the protection and
care of public property like a " good father of the family".
A. Degree of diligence exercised by regulatory institutions
B. Degree of diligence exercised by banks and financial institutions
C. Duty of extraordinary care, vigilance and precaution
D. Reasonable care required of an ordinarily prudent person
296. Design to bridge any communication between the police and people
a. Public information program
b. Civic action program
c. Mass communication program d
d. Public relations program
297. Designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police force.

a. Public information program
b. Civic action program
c. Mass communication program
d. Public relations program
298. Consist of moral and legal precepts which govern the relationship of man in all aspects of
life.
a. Public relations
b. Human relations
c. Police community relations
d. Civic action program
299. The most important medium to determine public attitudes between the police and the
public attitude is the:
a. Radio and television
b. Print mass media
c. Individual policeman
d. Police public relation officer
300. Which of the following is the universal or generic term used for youthful offender?
A. Child at risk
B. Juvenile delinquent
C. Minor offender
D. Child in conflict with the law
301. Jose is a student of one university, one time, the University Administrator saw him smoking
inside the campus, while the Administrator telling him not to do so because it is in violation to
University's regulation, Jose violently uttered bad words and resent the Administrator. In what
type of delinquent youth Jose belong?
A. Neurotic
B. Asocial – walang konsensya
C. Social – galit sa taong sinusubukang kontrolin ang kanyang ugali
D. Accidental
302. Petra Mercado is a kind of hunchback girl, every time she will go out with her friends; she
always felt that she is a normal person because her friends make her feel it. What approach
towards delinquency is this?
A. Neurogenic
B. Sociogenic
C. Biogenic
D. Psychogenic
303. The study on the nature of human being concerning his physical needs in order to satisfy
his ants. It explains that the deprivation of the physical body on the basic needs is an important
determiner of the commission of crime or delinquency
a. ANTHROPOLOGICAL APPROACH – physical characteristics
b. MEDICAL APPROACH
c. BIOLOGICAL APPROACH
d. PHYSIOLOGICAL APPROACH – physical needs
304. These approaches deal on the study of groups, social processes and institutions as
influences to behavior. They are primarily derived from social sciences.
a. subjective approach, (panloob, focus sa individual)
b. objective approach (panlabas) and
c. The contemporary approach.
d. Notas
305. This approach is focused on the psychoanalytical, psychiatric and sociological explanations
of crime in an integrated theory.
a. subjective approach,
b. objective approach and
c. The contemporary approach
d. Nota
306. These are conditions and elements which provoke crimes such as personal problems,
curiosity, ignorance, necessities, diseases, traumatic experiences and the like.
a. PREDISPOSING FACTORS – natural na sa bata (Internal Propensities)
b. PRECIPITATING FACTORS
c. Family factors
d. School
307. When it comes to rules, they believe “it’s their way or the highway.”
a. Indulgent parents – ginawang spoiled ang bata
b. Authoritarian parents – kung ayaw mo sa rules ko lumayas ka
c. Authoritative parents – ideal, nakikinig at naghihigpit
d. Indifferent parents – pabaya
308. Frequent, unreasonable absenteeism from school; being out of school without permission
for 20 days or more might lead the child into involvement in crime.
a. TRUANCY
b. DROPPING OUT
c. UNDERACHIEVERS
d. SCHOOL FAILURE
309. The kind of family structure that could influence a person to criminal behavior,
characterized by non-satisfaction of one or both parent from the relationship that may express
feeling of frustration refers to _____.
A. Anti-social Families
B. Disturbed Families
C. Disrupted Families
D. Inadequate Families
310. This is also called as ability grouping or streaming. When children considered to be slow
learners are grouped, they come to see themselves in an unfavorable light and therefore will
result to dislike school, to truancy and even to delinquency.
a. Underachievers
b. School failure
c. School tracking
d. Grade retention
311. Parents shall endeavor to discover the child’s talents or aptitudes, if any, and to encourage
and develop them. If the child is especially gifted, what should be done by parents?
a. Support the child and maximize his time to enhance his talent
b. Enrolled the child to such institution that will help him enhance his skills and talents.
c. Spoil the child with everything he needs to express his talent without affecting his/her study
d. Report this fact to the national center or to other agencies concerned so for official assistance
or recognition
312. If by reason of his studies or for other causes, a child does not live with his parents, the
latter shall _____
a. Maintain his distance to give the child an opportunity to live his own life
b. Communicate with him regularly and visit him as often as possible
c. Let him take this chance to prove himself
d. All of the above
313. What is the legal doctrine holding parent liable for injuries caused by a child's negligent
driving or other actions?
A. Family Purpose Doctrine
B. Family Immunity Doctrine
C. Parens Patriae Doctrine
D. None of the Above
314. Which of the following statement best describes the concept of guardian ad litem?
A. For the proceeding
B. Protection of child by the law
C. Guardians of the little children
D. Legal authority
315. What is the legal doctrine granting custody to the parent whom the child feels the greatest
emotional attachment to?
A. Psychological parent
B. Tender years doctrine
C. Joint parental authority
D. Family immunity doctrine
316. In case of separation between parents of the child, a child of what age is given by the court
the preference to choose between either parents?
A. Under nine (9) years of age
B. Seven (7) years of age
C. Ten (10) years of age
D. Five (5) years of age
317. In the absence of death of the parents of the child, who shall continue to exercise authority
over the child?
1. Surviving grand parents
2. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of age
3. Surviving parents of child
4. Actual custodian of the child over 21 years of age
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, 3 only
D. All of the above
318. Kardo is a child who is malnourished, ill clad and without proper shelter. what category of
child kardo is?
a. abandoned child
b. dependent child
c. NEGLECTED CHILD
d. physical neglected child
e. Emotional neglected child
319. Is an institution or person assuming the care, custody, protection and maintenance of
children for placement in any child-caring institution or home or under the care and custody of
any person or persons for purposes of adoption.
a. A child-placing agency
b. A reception and study center
c. A shelter-care institution
d. Receiving homes
320. An institution, whose primary purpose is education, is deemed to be a child-caring

institution when nine or more of its pupils or wards in the ordinary course of events
a. do not return annually to the homes of their parents or guardians for at least six months of
summer vacation.
b. do not return annually to the homes of their parents or guardians for at least three months of
summer vacation.
c. do not return annually to the homes of their parents or guardians for at least two months of
summer vacation.
d. do not return annually to the homes of their parents or guardians for at least one month of
summer vacation.
321. In case of doubt as to the age of the child, it shall be resolved in favor of the _____.
A. Child- minority
B. The investigator
C. DSWD
D. Court
322. The following are the differences between the juvenile and adult justice system, except
_____.
A. Juvenile court procedures are generally informal and private, those adult court are formal
and open to the public
B. Juvenile proceedings are not considered criminal
C. Court's duty to release information to the press about juvenile cases
D. Juveniles can be detained for acts that would not be criminal if they were committed by an
adult ( status offenses)
323. Restricting or prohibiting the child to mingle with other persons as a means of depriving
his/her liberty for socialization is an example of ____.
A. Emotional abuse
B. Psychological abuse
C. Physical abuse
D. Mental abuse
324. What should be the proper action for all the records and proceedings involving children in
conflict with the law from initial contact until final disposition of the case?
A. Place in the dockets of court which forms part of the public record
B. It can be open to the public
C. Considered restricted
D. Nota – it must be deemed confidential and privilege
325. As a general rule, children below 15 years old shall _______

a. Shall not be employed
b. Shall be employed provided that he is under responsibility of his parents - exception
c. Shall be employed provided that his employer obtained permit from DOLE - exception
d. Nota
326. Dagul is a child star in Going Damulag. His parents must set up a trust fund for ____ of his
earnings. A . At most thirty percent (30%)
b. at least twenty percent (20 %)
c. at least thirty percent (30%)
d. at most twenty percent (20%)
327. In relation to questions above, Dagul’s income that______may be used for the collective
needs of the family
a. At most thirty percent (30%)
b. at least twenty percent (20 %)
c. at least thirty percent (30%)
d. at most twenty percent (20%) (Not more than)
328. A parent who only abuses the child when he/she is confronted with a particular situation.
One who is usually non-abusive but "fly off the handle" when some circumstances develops.
A. Accidental abuser
B. Institutionally prescribed abusers
C. Parentally incompetent abuser
D. Situational abuser
329. The preliminary investigation of cases related to child abuse shall be terminated ________
a. Within a period of 60 days from the date of filing - normal
b. within a period of 45 days from the date of filing.
c. within a period of 30 days from the date of filing. - bata
d. within a period of 15 days from the date of filing. – waiver for arbitrary detention
330. Shall ensure that the status, rights and interests of children are upheld in accordance with
the constitution and international instruments on human rights.
a. Child Rights Center
b. Commission of human rights
c. Child Rights Center of the Commission on Human Rights
d. Nota
331. Willy and Lemuel, both aged 14 were arrested for petty theft and chronic vandalism. As a
result, both of them will be charged accordingly for their acts and processed judicially after
careful evaluation of the authority. What system or process will they be subjected to?
A. Social Justice System
B. Criminal Justice System
C. Juvenile Justice Welfare Council
D. Juvenile Justice System
332. The goal of any juvenile justice system is _____.

A. Punish the children
B. Save children from becoming criminals
C. Remove children from streets
D. Ensure that children are in school
333. Who has the jurisdiction over a child at-risk who, immediately after initial intervention of
the case, said child at-risk is found to be a non-resident of a particular city or municipality?
A. The local social welfare development officer if the child is non-resident of the municipality or
city
B. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology of the city or municipality
C. The barangay council for the protection of children if residing in that barangay
D. The PNP detention facility in the city or municipality
334. Which trend in the juvenile welfare system where Bahay Pag-asa is a component thereof?
A. Non-residential community treatment
B. Institutionalization
C. Deinstitutionalization
D. Community treatment and residential treatment
335. If a youthful offender has a good conduct while in custody of DSWD or training institution
and has shown his capability to be useful member of the community, his case shall be _____.
A. Remanded to the court
B. Remanded to the fiscal's office
C. Decided with finally the court
D. Dismissed and offender finally discharged
336. A twenty-four hour child-caring institution providing short-term residential care for
children in conflict with the law, who are awaiting court disposition of their cases or transfer to
other agencies or jurisdiction, is known as _____.
A. Youth rehabilitation center
B. Youth detention home
C. Orphanage
D. DSWD
337. When may a child in conflict with the law undergo diversion program without necessity of
court intervention?
A. When the imposable penalty for the crime committed is not more than six (6) years
B. When the imposable penalty for the crime committed exceeds six (6) years imprisonment
C. When the imposable penalty for the crime committed exceeds six (6) years imprisonment but
not more than twelve (12) years imprisonment
D. When the imposable penalty for the crime committed does not exceeds twelve (12) years
imprisonment
338. Kardo, a minor has been found guilty of an act committed without knowingly that the act
committed is wrong. Now he must undergo ____.
A. Intervention program
B. Diversion
C. Diversion program
D. Counselling
339. A multi-disciplinary team compose of the following shall operate the ‘Bahay Pag-asa’,
except:
1. Psychologist/mental health professional
2. Social worker
3. Principal of public school
4. Medical doctor
5. Educational/Guidance councilor
6. BCPC member
7. Member of IBP
a. 1 and 7
b. 2 and 7
c. 3 and 7
d. none of these
340. The primary mode of intervention.

a. Institutionalized program
b. Community-based programs
c. Community service program
d. Center-based program
341. This model is based on the assumptions that juvenile wrongdoing is the product of social
or environmental factors for which the young person cannot be held individually responsible. Its
primary goal is to provide appropriate help or treatment for offenders rather than punishment.
a. Justice Model Of Corrections
b. Minimum Intervention Model
c. Restorative Justice Model
d. Welfare Model
342. This model suggests that all official forms of processing young offenders are potentially
harmful to them since they label and stigmatized them as criminals.
a. Justice Model of Corrections
b. Minimum Intervention Model
c. Restorative Justice Model
d. Welfare Model
343. Under RA 9344, JJWC is hereby created ________

a. Under the DSWD for administrative supervision
b. Attached to the DOJ under its administrative supervision
c. Under DOJ for administrative supervision
d. Attached to DSWD under its administrative supervision
344. A child committed drug related offense punished with______imprisonment shall be

deemed a neglected child and shall be committed to intensive intervention in IJISC
a. reclusion temporal
b. more than 12 years
c. 12 years and more
d. More than 6 years
345. Part of the features of a Bahay Pag-asa is an/a _______. This will cater to children in
conflict with the law in accordance with sections 20, 20-a and 20-b as amended.
a. Intensive Juvenile Intervention Support Center
b. Intervention for Juvenile in Intensive Support Center
c. Intensive Juvenile Intervention and Support Center
d. Intensive Juvenile Intervention and Service Center
346. In relation to the section 6 of RA 10630 that amended sec. 20 or RA 9344, if the child has
no parents or guardians or if they refuse or fail to execute the written authorization for
voluntary commitment, the proper petition for involuntary commitment shall be immediately
filed by the DSWD or LSWDO, provided that the minimum age for children committed to a youth
care facility or ‘Bahay Pag-asa’ shall be ________ a. 9 years old
b. 12 years old
c. 15 years old
d. 17 years old
347. The child with age ______ shall be committed to intensive intervention if she/he
committed serious crimes.
a. 12 to 15
b. More than 12 but less than 15
c. 12 but not exceeding 18
d. 13 to 15 years old (More than 12 to 15)
348. A child committed a crime in violation of RA 9165 with more than 12 years imprisonment
shall deemed _______ and be committed to intensive intervention.
a. Serious criminal
b. Child at risk
c. CICL
d. Neglected child
349. Under this law "A child is deemed to be fifteen (15) years of age on the day of the fifteenth
anniversary of his/her birthdate.
a. Pd 603
b. Ra 7610
c. Ra 9344
d. Ra 10630 – Strengthening the Juvenile Justice System in the Philippines
350. A child committed an offense for the 2nd time or oftener shall be deemed a neglected child
provided that _______
a. he previously subjected to diversion program but failed to rehabilitate
b. he previously subjected to intensive intervention program but failed to reform
c. previously subjected to a community-based intervention program
d. he previously tried by court but not qualified for diversion
351. The moment the child is taken into custody, the law enforcement officer shall properly
identify oneself and present proper identification to the child then immediately notify the
________
1. child’s parents or guardians
2. Local Social Welfare and Development Officer
3. The victim’s parents (X)
4. Public Attorney’s Office
5. WCPD (X)
a. 1245
b. 124
c. 1235
d. 1234
353. When may LSWD or DSWD file for involuntary commitment of the child except:
a. The child in conflict with the law who is at least 15 years old and below is determined by the
LSWDO to be dependent, abandoned, neglected or abused by the parents (dapat at least 12
years old)
b. The best interest of the child requires that the child be placed in a youth care facility or
“Bahay Pag-asa,”
c. The child, who is above twelve (12) years of age up to fifteen (15) years of age, commits a
serious crime under RA 10630
d. All of the above
354. A child in conflict with law may undergo diversion proceedings outside of the criminal
justice system when the case is referred to the Barangay through the_______
a. Chairman
b. Lupong tagapamayapa
c. Pangkat tagapagkasundo
d. Pangkat tagapagsindi
355. The child, together with the parents or guardians, shall present themselves to the
competent authorities that imposed the diversion program, ____________for reporting and
evaluation of the effectiveness of the program.
a. at least once a month
b. at least twice a month
c. Not less than three times
d. As may be determined by court
356. General rule, the investigation of the crime committed by a child shall be conducted by
the____
a. WCPD
b. general investigation section
c. CIDG
d. Prosecutor
357. If any person contesting the age of the child in conflict with the law, prior to the filing of
the information in any appropriate court, what shall be done?
1. file a case in a summary proceeding which shall be decided by the judge within twenty-four
(24) hours 2. file a motion to determine the age of the child in the same court where the case is
pending.
3. file a motion for temporary suspension of hearing while the contest is pending on court
4. file a complaint in barangay or police station
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4
358. It means digging into an issue to pinpoint the underlying needs and wants of the two
individuals.
a. Avoiding
b. Competing
c. Accommodating
d. Collaborating
Note: Compromising – moderate,
359. There is an element of self-sacrifice in this mode.

a. Avoiding
b. Competing
c. Accommodating
d. Collaborating
360. The following are the tested methods of closing a negotiation, except _____.
A. Do not offer deadlines and warnings
B. Offer concessions
C. Split the difference
D. Suggest an adjournment
361. Which statements about mediation are true?

1. A mediator in a negotiation can help both parties reach an agreement but cannot impose a
settlement on or make decisions for them
2. A mediator help parties make concessions when conflicts of interest are insignificant
3. Mediation is a commonly used intervention option but is not necessarily the remedy for all
disputes
4. A mediator can help the parties reach an agreement, but not necessarily the best agreement
A. 1,3 and 4
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2,3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 3
362. It is often called "assisted negotiation.“

a. Mediation
b. Arbitration
c. Conciliation
d. Litigation
363. Which of the following is not an advantages of negotiation?

a. Parties engage in verbal interaction completely in their own terms
b. Parties can choose their mediator
c. Outcome is whatever the parties agree to.
d. Decision is made by the parties
364. Another among the types of mediation, a trained, neutral third party hears disputants’
evidence and testimony in an arbitration; writes an award but keeps it from the parties;
attempts to mediate the parties’ dispute; and unseals and issues her previously determined
binding award if the parties fail to reach agreement.
a. Med-Arb
b. Arb-Med
c. COURT-ANNEXED MEDIATION
d. COURT-REFERRED MEDIATION
365. Here, the neutral third party will be asked by the parties to provide them with a non-
binding settlement proposal.
a. Mediation
b. Conciliation
c. Arbitration
d. Litigation
366. JDR is a process whereby the judge employs conciliation, mediation or early neutral
evaluation in order to settle a case at the ___________.
a. Arraignment
b. Pre trial
c. Before trial
d. Trial
367. What is the ultimate goal of mediation
a. To help the disputants to come to a consensus of their own.
b. To render a peaceful resolution (Walang resolution dito)
c. Both a and b
d. Nota
368. Retributive justice focuses on the past by determining the person to be blamed for the
crime committed, while restorative justice ______
a. Requires that the punishment fit the crime and that like cases be treated alike.
b. Wrongdoers deserve blame and punishment in direct proportion to the harm inflicted
c. Focused on determining the following what law was broken.
d. Focuses on the future to determine the matters to be considered so that the crime will not be
repeated.
369. The Office for Alternative Dispute Resolution (OADR) is as an agency attached to the
Department of Justice. It shall have a Secretariat and shall be headed by ___________
a. Sec of justice
b. President
c. Secretary
d. Executive director
370. Shall be charged with the establishment and maintenance of a central repository of ADR
laws, rules and regulations, jurisprudence, books, articles, and other information about ADR in
the Philippines and elsewhere.
a. Secretariat
b. Public information and Promotion Division
c. Training Division
d. Nota – Records and Library Division
371. Members of Advisory Council of Office for Alternative Dispute Resolution of shall be
appointed by the _____________
a. President
b. DOJ Secretary
c. Executive Director
d. Secretary
372. As a Rule, ADR act __________that a mediator shall have special qualifications by
background or profession.
a. Requires
b. Does not require
c. Does not care
d. Really care
373. A mediator shall refrain from giving legal or technical advice and otherwise engaging in
counseling or advocacy.
a. IMPARTIALLY
b. CONFIDENTIALITY
c. CONSENT AND SELF-DETERMINATION
d. SEPARATION OF MEDIATION FROM COUNSELING AND LEGAL ADVICE
374. A mediation service provider may determine such mediation fee as is reasonable taking
into consideration the following factors, among others, except.
a. The social class or standing of both parties
b. The complexity of the case.
C. The number of hours spent in mediation.
d. The training, experience and stature of mediators
375. As a general rule, a mediator, after having been engaged and having acted as mediator of a
dispute between the parties, following a failed mediation ______________
a. Shall not act as arbitrator of the same dispute (General Rule)
b. May also act as arbitrator of the same dispute
c. May also act as arbitrator of the same dispute if the parties expressly authorized
d. Nota
376. A stage wherein the neutral third party focuses on the interest, improve cooperation,
minimizing impact of problems and eliminating adversarial attitude of both parties.
a. Preventive And Cooperation Stage
b. Dispute De-escalation Control and Real Time Resolution Stage
c. Facilitated Resolution Stage
d. Binding Resolution Stage
377. An essential element of crisis management that focuses on mitigating the adverse effects
that may be brought about by an incident.
a. Incident management
b. Consequence management
c. Risk management
d. A and b
378. In hostage taking situation, to successfully negotiate, there must be

a. A highly disciplined and secured chain of command
b. A skilled and trained negotiator
c. need to live on the part of the hostage taker
d. A mutual understanding between the offender and the victim
379. Natural calamities and disasters are the responsibilities of the ________ while PNP shall act
as the _________
a. National and Local Peace and Order Council : Support Personnel
b. National and Local Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council : First Responder
c. National and Local Peace and Order Council : First Responder
d. National and Local Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Council : Support Personnel
380. Who is designated as Cabinet - Officer Primarily Responsible (C-OPR)for threats to peace
and order such as civil disturbance, violent labor strikes, riots, anarchy, disorderly mass
demonstrations.
a. President
b. SILG
c. Vice President
d. Secretary of DND
381. In this level of man-made critical incident alert , there is a strong possibility that manmade
Critical Incidents may occur within a short period of time.
a. Level 1 (Low) - malabo
b. Level 2 (Moderate) - posible
c. Level 3 (High) – mataas yung posibilidad
d. Level 4 (Extreme)- inaasahan nang mangyari
382. Which refers to a turning point in the course of something decisive or crucial time, stage or
event? It may also mean a time of great danger or trouble, the outcome of which decides
whether possible bad consequences will follow.
A. Disaster
B. Risk
C. Crisis
D. Incident
383. Identify the term conducted by the negotiating team prior to turnover to another set of
negotiating team.
A. Operational debrief
B. Psychological debrief
C. Hot debrief
D. Cold debrief
384. What is the time frame in minutes which is considered the most dangerous phase in most
hostage taking situations?
A. 44319
B. 5 -15
C. 10 – 30
D. 15 – 45
385. He/she advises the Incident/On-Scene Commander on the best negotiating strategies and
co-ordinates the process with the swat and the forward command reseources.
a. The Primary Negotiator
b. The Secondary Negotiator
c. The Intelligence/Recorder Negotiator
d. The Board Negotiator
e. The Negotiation Team Leader/Coordinator
386. It is done to build rapport and get the trust of the hostage-takers and should likewise be
taken as an opportunity to gather intelligence from the stronghold.
a. Emergency Response Plan
b. Breakout Plan
c. Delivery Plan
d. Surrender Plan
e. Hostage Reception/Release
387. It should not be used as a go signal for assault unless the escaping hostages are threatened
by the hostage-takers.
a. Emergency Response Plan
b. Breakout Plan
c. Delivery Plan
d. Surrender Plan
e. Hostage Reception/Release
388. The main strategy for settling disputes in Katarungang Pambarangay

a. To provide a venue for the disputing parties to search for a solution that is mutually
acceptable.
b. To assist the parties in discussing the possible amicable settlement of their disputes.
c. To promote autonomy among parties in settling their disputes.
d. All of these
389. The primary role of the Katarungang Pambarangay System.

a. To provide a venue for the disputing parties to search for a solution that is mutually
acceptable.
b. To assist the parties in discussing the possible amicable settlement of their disputes.
c. To promote autonomy among parties in settling their disputes.
d. All of these
390. How shall the vacancies in the Pangkat be filled up?

a. Shall be chosen by the parties to a dispute
b. shall be chosen by chairman of Lupon
c. shall be chosen by secretary of Lupon
d. shall be chosen by chairman of pangkat
391. A criminology research on the links between the different types of crimes and criminals is
referred to as crime ____.
a. etiology
b. profiling
c. typology
d. statistics
392. What is NOT an element of classical criminology?

a. The use of scientific method in explaining phenomenon like criminal behavior.
b. Crime is attractive when it promises great benefits with little effort.
c. People have free will to choose lawful solutions to meet their needs or settle their problems
d. Crime may be controlled by the fear of punishment.
393. Which type of criminal possesses atavistic tendency?

A. Neurotic
B. Born
C. Psychotic
D. Hedonistic
394. Which idea does social positivism believe?

A. Crime is normal.
B. Crime is due to free-will.
C. Criminal is born.
D. Crime is Inherited.
395. Which approach is applied when the government strategy on crime

prevention is punishment and retribution of crime rather than the
rehabilitation of offender?
A. Eclectic
B. Classical
C. Positivism
D. Sociological
396. What academic discipline uses scientific method to study the nature, extent, cause, and
control of criminal behavior?
A Police Administration
B. Criminal Justice System
C. Criminology
D. Sociology
397. Which sub-areas constitute the discipline of criminology that utilizes scientific methods to
assess the effectiveness of crime control and offender treatment programs?
A. Penology and Social Control
B. Criminal Statistics and Research Methodology
C. Criminal behavior system and Criminal Typology
D. Sociology of law and Criminal Typology
398. The study of criminology involves several disciplines. Which is the objective of
Criminology?
a. The determination of the origin of law, measure the forces that can change laws and society
b. The study of the agencies of social control (police, courts and corrections) that prosecute
convict, and treat criminal offenders
c. The development of general and verified principles regarding the process of law, crime, and
treatment or prevention
d. The study of systematic set of interrelated statements or principles that explain aspect of
social life.
399. Which of these typologies of killer murder a numerous number of

people overtime and seek to escape out of detection?
A. Serial
B. Spree
C. Mass
D. Chance
340. Which refers to a behavior of a lawbreaker that leads to the commission of an illicit act?
A. Immature behavior
B. Psychopathic behavior
C. Deviant behavior
D. Criminal behavior
341. Rafaelle Garofalo’s theory explains that the roots of criminal behavior are not on the
physical features but on their psychological equivalents. Which of the following espouses this
theory?
A. Moral reasoning
B. Anomie
C. Moral anomalies
D. Abnormalities
342. Which pillar of the criminal justice system includes all the agencies and various programs
that assume legal responsibility for the custody, supervision, treatment and punishment of
convicts?
A. Prosecution
B. Correction
C. Court
D. Prison
343. Cesar is child in conflict with the law. Which should be applied?
A Restorative Justice
B. Juvenile Justice
C. Criminal Justice
D. Retributive Justice
344. What is NOT a ground for the revocation of certificate of registration of a licensed
criminologist?
A. Malpractice and incompetency
B. Administrative sanctions
C. Unprofessional conduct
D. Serious ignorance or gross negligence
345. The following are considered practices of the Criminology profession in other countries.
EXCEPT It is
A. a field under the social science
B. research-based profession
C. a field under behavioral science
D. a profession under the Criminal Justice umbrella
346. What theory focuses on the genetic factors as causes of crime?

A. Classical
B. Psychological
C. Biological
D. Sociological
347. Many employees exert their best effort because most of their supervisors and employers
impose penalties for not following the rules. Just like in deviant and criminal acts, the possibility
for repeating the deviant act is very highly if no corresponding penalties are imposed
Which theory espouses social reinforcement by using reward and punishment?
A. Social Learning
B. Cognitive
C. Attachment
D. Behavior
Specific Answer: Differential Reinforcement
348. Which of the following explains the biological and psychological theories of crime?
A. The labeling of an individual and relating the label to criminality.
B. The way society is organized which results to is being conducive to criminality.
C. The physical characteristics and mental qualities of man are conducive to criminality.
D. The influence of society to crime commission.
349. In a certain geographical location where all residents are exposed to hazardous
environment (i.e., informal settlers) located near polluted industrial sites, the likelihood that
children born there may be inclined to criminal activities. Which explains criminal acts are
caused by environmental pollutants?
A. Biopsychosocial
B. Biosocial
C. Biochemical
D. Biopsychological
350. A famous movie plot is for the anti-hero to sow crime and discord in order for the human
population to be reduced by murders. Those who survive must learn to be cohesive and law-
abiding thus, improving social integration and social regulation. Which of the following
embraces
this idea?
A. Culture conflict theory
B. Structural functionalism
C. Strain theory
D. Social disorganization theory
351. In the Communist Manifesto of Karl Marx, he explained that society is divided into two
classes the workers and capitalists. Which term did he use in describing the workers?
A. Bourgeoisie
B. Proletariat
C. Laborer
D. Middlemen
352. Pedro does not want to interact with the rich in his neighborhood and prefer to be
associated with people possessing the same economics status as with him. In this situation a
sub-culture is born that may produce disorganization in the youth as opposed to conventional
and traditional values. This is a classic example of which theory?
A. Social Conflict
B. Social Process
C. Social Control
D. Social Structure
Specific Answer: Deviance Culture
353. This way of life is based on mutual help. When there ls abundance all are fed, when food it
scarce all are hungry. Furthermore, a person is subordinate to nature and becomes materialistic
and selfish. Which is being referred to in this situation?
A. Socialism
B. Altruism
C. Communism
D. Anomie
354. Which of the following DOES NOT characterize anomie?

A. It is the ability to adjust easily to changing norms.
B. It is a conflict within the norms itself.
C. It is the Inability to adjust on changing norms.
D. It is the failure of the individuals to internalize the norms of the society.
355. What is the criminological approach that believes in the symbiotic
relationship of man his behavior and his society as causes of crime?
A. Radical
B. Environmental
C. Functionalist
D. Ecological
356. Who is the professional in the forensic system qualified to moderate between the mental
health and legal expert?
A. Psychiatrist
B. Clinical Criminology
C. Pathologist
D. Psychologist
357. How do biopsychosocial theories differ from sociological theories of crime?

A. Both focus on one factor in explaining crime.
B. Biopsychosocial focuses on one factor while sociological theory focuses on multi-factors.
C. Biopsychosocial covers the concept of biological, psychological, and sociological causes of
crime while sociological is limited on the social, Institutional, and environmental factors.
D. Biopsychosocial is limited to human factors while sociological focuses on social and
environmental factors.
358. Which factor in biopsychosocial study is related to the perfectionistic tendency that may
trigger depression or aggression of man?
A. Social
B. Physical
C. Biological
D. Psychological
359. Freda Adler describes female criminality as both women’s liberation movement and new
feminism. Taking into account Adler’s premise which of the following will be the trend of crimes
committed by women?
A. Will be extinguished
B. Will be higher than male
C. Will be equal to male
D. Will still be lower
360. In the psychological analysis of profiling female criminals, both Cyril Burt and Willer Bonger
agree that females are less dominant than males. Generating from their ideas towards female
criminality, which is NOT included in this less dominant behavior?
A. Fear
B. Forgiveness
C. Tenderness
D. Toughness
361. What kind of development refers to the growth of the body?

A Moral
B. Cognitive
C. Psychosocial
D. Physical
362. What is/are the realm of Developmental Psychology?

A. Inherent characteristics
B. Nature-nurture
C. Genetics
D. Environmental
363. A psychopath is calloused, unemotional, and morally deprived. Which is the central or
cardinal feature of psychopaths?
a. Impulsivity
b. Success
C. Cunning ability
D. Kind hearted
364. Johnny is found to be persistently misbehaving at home, school and community. He is ever
displaying coercive and threatening behavior in dealing with other people. Such display of
behavior is known as
A. Minimal Brain Dysfunction
B. Oppositional Defiant Disorder – ayaw nilang kinocontrol sila
C. Conduct Disorder – mas Malala kasi gusto nila magcontrol ng iba
D. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
365. Manuel’s condition deprives him of freedom of choice, manifested by actions which
deviate from normal conduct. Such condition requires treatment and medication. Which
condition Is Manuel suffering from?
A. Mental illness – disease of the brain
B. Mental retardation
C. Mental depression
D. Mental disorder – disease of the brain that affects the body
366. Juancho is suffering from “split personality” where he seems to have several distinct
personalities. Which condition is Juancho suffering from?
A. Borderline Personality – mood disorder
B. Dissociative
C. Anxiety
D. Obsessive Compulsive
367. This personality is said to be that of a human being who possesses consciousness of the
self and of the world. Which DOES NOT constitute the personality of man.
A. Mental state
B. Temperament
C. Soul
D. Emotion
368. A defendant in a criminal case must have the mental capacity to understand the charges
against him/her. Who is a competent defendant?
A. One who has been diagnosed with psychosis.
B. One who has poor performance on psychological tests specifically designed to assess legally
relevant functional abilities of the defendants.
C. One who has been diagnosed with psychosis
D. One who has good performance on psychological tests specifically designed to assess legally
relevant functional abilities of the defendants.
369. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is characterized by intense disturbing thoughts, and
feelings. related to a terrifying event that a person has experienced, and lasts for a long time
after such event has occurred. PTSD may be experienced after the following events. EXCEPT___
A. military combat
B. momentous events
C. sexual assaults
D. natural disasters
370. Insanity is an abnormal mental or behavioral pattern which is an exempting circumstance

in a criminal case aside from the insane who can invoke exempting circumstances?
A. neurotic
B. schizophrenic
C. imbecile
D. epileptic
371. Janine could not conform to the social norms, rules, and regulations. She is manipulative,
deceitful, and reckless, and does not care for the feelings of other people. Which disorder is
Janine suffering from?
A. Antisocial Personality
B. Depressive
C. Schizophrenia
D. Delusional
372. Motorists sometimes forget to lock their vehicles or may unintentionally leave their cellular
phones behind. In doing so, they become victims of a crime. Which refers to a situation where a
victim unintentionally makes it easier for an offender to commit crime?
A. Victim provocation
B. Victim administration
C Victim precipitation
D. Victim facilitation
373. To date, several branches of Victimology started to grow. When a criminologist focuses on
advocating for the victims and their rights in relation to certain types of prosecutions. this
branch is referred to as
A. General Victimology
B Victimology
C Penal Victimology
D. Forensic Victimology
Specific Answer: Critical Criminology
374. Amie travelled to a place where the inhabitants have a culture different from his own. This
causes communication gap and misunderstanding between him and the residents of the
place. As a result, Amie can be an easy victim of a crime. Which refers to the status of Amie?
A. Immigrant
B. Female
C. Senile/old
D. Minorities
375. Victims are the persons who suffered as a result of a crime. Which refers to the scientific
study of victims and victimization, including the relationships between victims and offenders,
investigators, courts, corrections, media and social movements?
A. Penal Victimology
B. Victimology
C. General Victimology
D. Forensic Victimology
376. Generally, the discipline that deals with what is good and bad as well as our moral duties
and obligations is referred to as?
A. Values
B. Philosophy
C. Ethics
D. Morals
377. Socrates held that virtue is a form of knowledge and that the cultivation of virtue is the
most important human obligation. Which ethical tenets was developed by Socrates?
A. No man is deliberately corrupt and all evil activities come from ignorance
B. Spiritual and sensual enjoyment are associated with greatest freedom from displeasure and
pain
C. Joy and cheerfulness as the highest good
D. Justice, temperance and fortitude very well constitute the harmony of human activities.
378. The findings of Registered criminologists can very well get an innocent man free or convict
those who are guilty. Which Is NOT a criterion that must guide criminologist in the formulation
of their findings?
A. It must conform with the goals and objectives of the prosecution.
B. It shall be derived from a fair and impartial examination personally performed by them
C. It must be done personally or with the aid of the legally authorized criminology practitioners
D. It shall be based solely and entirely on logical and scientific deductions and conclusions
379. Peter, a questioned document expert, was employed to determine the authenticity of a
testator’s holographic will. In determining his remuneration, which canon of professional ethics
of registered criminologist should be applied?
A. Canon 7. Limitation of Authority
B. Canon 8. Practice of Profession
C. Canon 10. Decorum
D. Canon 9. Malpractice of the Profession
380. John included in his resume that he is an expert in Dactyloscopy although his only training
was when he was taking up Criminology as an undergraduate course. Which canon of
professional ethics of registered criminologists did he violate?
A. Prohibition against self-laudatory or unfair statement or claim regarding to his qualifications
of services.
B. Prohibition against delegation to any unqualified person the performance of any task.
C. Prohibition against the use their position or rank in the law enforcement and other
government services for self-interests.
D. Prohibition in engaging directly or indirectly in any corrupt practices.
381. In order to provide speedy disposition of justice and to unclog the courts. Republic Act No.
9285 was enacted. Which Is the title of this law?? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Alternative Dispute Resolution Act of 2004
B. Bayanihan Act
C. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Law
D. The DILG Law
382. There was a hostage-taking incident and the Philippine National Police responded to
address the situation. In man-made incidents like this, which operational procedure must guide
the actions of the police personnel? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Incident Command System
B. PNP Manual on Anti-Illegal Drugs Operation and Investigation
C. Critical Incident Management
D. Police Operational Procedures
383. The PNP Directorate for Operations has issued an alert bulletin that there is a strong
possibility that a man-made critical incident may occur within a short period of time. Which is
its equivalent critical Incident alert level? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Level 1 (Low) - wala
B. Level 4 (Extreme) – inaasahan na
C. Level 2 (Moderate) – pwede, possible pero malabo
D. Level 3 (High) – strong possibility
384. Which is an incident or event whether human-Induced or natural disaster that requires
the implementation of special tasks by one or more government agencies?(December 2022,
CLE)
A. Disaster incident
B. Critical mass rally
C. Critical incident
D. Crisis management
385. Prevention capability, is essential for physical security. For man-made incidents, which of
the following courses of action Is NOT an appropriate measure? (December 2022, CLE)
A. Warning and alert systems to minimize the effects of terrorism attacks.
B. Alertness to signs and manifestations of suspicious looking individuals.
C. Peace negotiations among warring parties. – nangyari na
D. Active and passive security measures.
386. What deals with collecting data and testing hypotheses or answering questions concerning
the current status of the subject of study?
A. Basic
B. Historical
C. Descriptive
D. Evaluative
387. Identify the classification of research which aims at finding a practical solution for an
immediate problem of society while making optimal use of available resources?
A. Historical
B. Basic – discovering a knowledge
C. Evaluative
D. Applied
388. The word “research” originated from the old French word “recerchier”.
What is the meaning of this word?
A. To define and study
B. To find and comprehend
C. To know and understand
D. To search and search again
Note: The ultimate purpose of research – to improve man’s welfare.

389. The research participants must have an informed choice about whether to participate in a
research study. Which refers to an agreement to participate in the study where agreement is
obtained directly from the person?
A. Substitute Consent
B. Direct Consent
C. Informal Agreement
D. Voluntary Agreement
390. The rights of the respondents must be respected and cannot be bargained away under the
course of research undertaking. Which is an act of seclusion of confidentiality is being removed
from public view or knowledge?
A. Consent
B. Secrecy
C. Identity
D. Privacy
391. Researches may use any relevant material in the conduct of the study. Which refers to the
type of data that is collected by researchers directly from main sources through any of the
methods of data collection?
A. Secondary
B. Primary
C. Historical
D. Statistical
392. Research may be conducted to test or conduct experiments for educational, scientific,
medical, experimental purposes. Which classification of research takes place in an environment
designed by the researchers?
A. Case
B. Descriptive
C. Laboratory
D. Field
393. A good hypothesis has the ability to anticipate the future. Which is NOT a criterion for good
hypotheses?
A. Hypotheses are the basis for the formulation of conceptual paradigm
B. Hypotheses have clear implications for testing the relationships between variables.
C. Hypotheses contain two or more variables that are measurable.
D. Hypotheses are statement about relationships between variables.
394. Dan is conducting his research. He used the references cited in a published research of his
study. These references are considered as ___ source.
A. secondary
B. other
C. primary
D. tertiary
395. Research is a process of systematic inquiry involving data collection. Which provides
baseline data or a description of how things are?
A. Analytical research
B. Descriptive research
C. Experimental research
D. Historical research
396. The Professional Criminologist Association of the Philippines is the only _____________ of
criminologists, as endorsed by the Professional Regulatory Board subject to the approval of the
Profession Regulation Commission (PRC).
A. Accredited Integrated Professional Organization
B. Accredited and Integrated Professional Organization
C. Accreditation Integration of Professional Organization
D. Accreditation and Integration of Professional Organization
397. Data collection is a process of collecting information from all relevant sources to find
answers to the research problem, test the hypothesis, and analyze the results. Which is NOT a
tool in data collection for research?
A. Interview
B. social media
C. Focus group discussions
D. Questionnaires
398. Who is recommended to be employed when negotiations break down and none of the
mentioned methods work and the negotiator finds himself/herself in a deadlock?
A. Secretary negotiator
B. Third negotiator
C. Mediator
D. Intermediary
393. If the punong barangay is unable to achieve a settlement, the case is

referred for consultation mediation or arbitration to the ____________.
A. Pangkat ng tagpagkasundo
B. Police
C. Lupong tagapamayapa
D. Pangkat tagapagsindi
394. A criminologist studied about the types of inmates in prison and how they interact with
each other in to understand why some inmates adapt incarceration more easily than others.
The objective of the study is to propose a general theory of inmate behavior that extends to all
similar
inmate populations. The researcher utilized ethnography (study of a particular group or culture)
as his research design. How is ethnography suitable to the purpose of the study?
A. It studies certain group to gain clear understanding of its internal operations or lifestyle
B. It involves a lengthy study of a person, group or situation
C. It studies how people find their experiences meaningful
D. It prevents the discrimination of ethnic groups.
395. Kardo wad tasked to conduct research on the acceptability of the new work scheme that is
being implemented in the workplace. The respondents to the study are divided into managerial,
supervisors and the rank and file. He decided to use qualitative research. How is this research
design different from the quantitative research design?
A. Qualitative research is harder to conduct than quantitative research
B. Qualitative research is considered to be subjective while quantitative research is objective
C. Qualitative research is considered to be objective while quantitative research is subjective
D. Qualitative research uses numbers and statistics while quantitative research usually uses
verbal
396. Which is not a guideline on the formulation of a research problem?

A. The research question must arouse the researcher’s curiosity
B. The relation between the research question and the problem must be clear
C. Avoid research question which is answerable by a yes or no
D. It must be in a paragraph form to make it clear and comprehensive
397. Which of the following defines plagiarism, considered as one of themost

common violations of research ethics?
A. It is the act of deliberately violating accepted principles of right and wrong
B. It is the act of taking someone’s words or ideas as if they were your own
C. It is the act of deserting you. Allegiance of duty to leader or cause or principle
D. It is the act of violating accepted standards or rules
398. Identify the initial step to be taken after a child who committed a light offense was listed in
the child at risk or pink blotter.
A. Give the child a friendly advice or “payo” or a simple warning not to repeat the act/s she/he
has committed;
B. Notify the parents
C. Turn over to the barangay council for the protection of children if residing in that barangay
D. Turn over directly to the local social welfare development officer if the child is nonresident of
the municipality.
399. The following procedures shall be observed by a police officer in conducting initial contact:
A. The apprehending officer shall identify himself/herself to the child and shall introduce
herself/himself as kuya or ate.
B. If the apprehending officer is wearing a vest or a jacket while in uniform, she/he shall show
her/his nameplate and/or badge to the child.
C. If the apprehending officer is in civilian clothes, he/she shall show his/her identification card.
D. The apprehending officer shall conduct the search of the child in a friendly, non-degrading
and gender-sensitive manner.
E. All of the above
400. “Intervention” generally refers to programmatic approaches or

systematic social protection programs for children that are designed to,
except:
A. Promote the physical and social well-being of children;
B. Avert or prevent juvenile delinquency from occurring;
C. Stop or prevent children from re-offending
D. Avoid unnecessary contact with the formal justice system – kasama sa 3 levels D. avoid
unnecessary contact with the formal justice system
401. The following factors shall be considered in formulating a Diversion Program for the child:
1. Child’s feelings of remorse (pagsisi) for the offense committed;
2. Parents’ or legal guardians’ ability to guide and supervise the child;
3. Victim’s view about the propriety of the measures to be imposed;
4. Availability of community-based programs for the rehabilitation and reintegration of the
child; and
5. Record of prior offenses
a. 1,4 and 5
b. 1,2 and 4
c. 1,2,4 and 5
d. 1,3,4 and 5
e. All of the above
402. Which is NOT true about Criminology?

A. considered as an applied science
B. It is stable and it varies from one time and place to another - changing
C. study of crime as a social phenomenon
D. none of these
403. This school of criminology was established based on the philosophy of utilitarianism. It was
particularly founded by Cesare “Beccaria” Bonesana. This was known as the classical school.
What is that treatise on the legal reform that became the pillar of the school?
A. Classical School
B. Positivist School
C. Essay on Crimes
D. Essay on Crimes and Punishment
404. The theory that sees a criminal as an underdog who initially does something which is out
of the ordinary.
A. strain theory
B. labeling theory
C. Differential association theory
D. social bond theory
405. The earliest broad laws existing, these edicts are based on a retributive system of “an eye
for an eye”, “a tooth for a tooth”.
A. Lex taliones
B. Code of Hammurabi
C. Code of Kalantiao
D. Revised penal Code
406. The primary advocate of the Positivist School in Criminology.

A. Cesare Beccaria
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Edwin Sutherland
D. Leonard Keeler
407. Pursuant to the previous question, when was RA 11131 approved?

A. July 1, 1972
B. November 8, 2018
C. November 15, 2018
D. November 30, 2018
408. As defined by RA 11131, which of the following describes a criminologist?

A. a natural person who holds a valid certificate of registration and an updated professional
identification card as criminologist issued by the Board and the Commission
B. the scientific study of crimes, criminals, and victims, it also deals with the prevention, and
solution of crimes
C. any person who is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, who has passed the examination
for criminologists and is registered as such by the Board
D. a person who graduated with a B.S. in Criminology and passed the Criminologist Licensure
Examination
409. This theory believes that punishment should fit the criminal and not the crime committed
A. Positivist theory
B. Neo-classical theory
C. Classical theory
D. Differential Association Theory
410. This theory puts the focus on the process of naming behaviors and the people that
perform them.
A. Strain theory
B. Anomie theory
C. Rational choice theory
D. Labeling theory
411. This type of physique has relatively predominant muscles, bones and motor organs of the
body.
A. Viscerotonic
B. Mesomorphic
C. Endomorphic
D. Ectomorphic
412. What theory considers crime as a natural social phenomenon?

A. Somatotyping Theory
B. Differential Association Theory
C. Anomie Theory
D. Psychoanalytic Theory
413. Crime is caused by the rational effort of man to augment his pleasure and to minimize his
pains is a notion coming from:
A. Positivist school
B. Classical school
C. Chicago school
D. Neo-classical school
414. Labeling theory purports that criminal behavior may be caused by adverse reactions of the
society towards a reformed offender. Now, among the following, which is the best solution to
the problem at hand?
A. Strict enforcement of the law and increase imprisonment
B. Application of diversion, deinstitutionalization, and the like
C. Vocational training in jails and prisons for rehabilitation
D. Religious activities must be conducted in jails and prisons
415. All of the following are the description of a criminal man according to Lombroso, EXCEPT
ONE:
A. Symmetry of the Face
B. Excessive length of Arms
C. Abnormal Dentition
D. Defects of the Thorax
416. The main objective of this notion is that there is a terrific morality of cases between the
times a crime has been reported up to the time a verdict of conviction has been made.
A. existence of crime
B. legal point of view
C. scientific viewpoint
D. all of these
417. All of the following except one are the examples of the penalty given to the guilty person
during the time of Datu Kalantiao.
A. incarceration
B. slavery
C. flagellation
D. bitten by ants
418. This theory holds that people commit crimes when the forces that bind them to society
are weakened or broken, according to Travis Hirschi.
A. Differential Identification Theory
C. Strain Theory
D. Social Bond Theory
419. This belief is true during the pagan age when any wrongful act of man is attributed to the
will of evil. The statement is referring to:
A. Divine will theory
B. Supernatural theory
C. Classical theory
D. all of these
420. Which of the following best explains why Cesare Lombroso was regarded as the father of
modern Criminology?
A. He established the Positivist School
B. He contributed through Empirical research to the field of criminology
C. Founded the anthropological study which became the pillar of the positivists school of
Criminology
D. He studied thousands of criminals
421. The study that relates the link between the physical constitution of man and criminality
was known as criminal anthropology, how about if it is related to mental disorder?
A. Criminal Anthropology
B. Criminal Psychiatry
C. Criminal Psychology
D. Victimology
422. What school of thought adopted a social ecology approach to studying cities, and
postulated that urban neighborhoods with high levels of poverty often experience breakdown
in the social structure and institutions such as family and schools. Arose in the early twentieth
century, through the work of Robert Ezra Park, Ernest Burgess?
A. Chicago School of Criminology
B. Classical school
C. positive school
D. Chicago School
423. The principle that events include criminal behavior that has sufficient causes.
A. positivism
B. determinism
C. atavism
D. narcissism
424. This theory states that obedience to the norms of lower-class culture places people in
conflict with norms of the dominant culture.
A. Theory of anomie
B. Strain theory
C. Differential association theory
D. Culture conflict theory
425. It was emphasized that the multiplicity of conflicting cultures is the principal source of
social disorganization.
A. Containment theory
B. Conflict culture theory
C. Differential social organization theory
D. Imitation suggestion theory
426. Persons who violate criminal law because of the impulse of the moment, fit of passion or
anger or spell of extreme jealousy.
A. Acute criminal
B. Chronic Criminal
C. Habitual Criminal
D. Neurotic criminal
427. Mr. Pedro, a former boxer, had a heated argument with Mr. Juan as the latter accused him
of having an affair with his wife Petra. Due to his anger, Mr. Pedro boxed the face of Mr. Juan
leading to his death. To what classification of criminals does Pedro belong?
A. Acute Criminal
B. Chronic Criminal
C. Ordinary Criminal
D. Professional Criminal
428. Martinez belongs to a poor family and commits crimes due to financial inadequacy, this
scenario applies to what theory.
A. Culture Deviant Theory
B. Life Course Theory
C. Strain Theory
D. None of these
429. Anton stabbed Billy at the back, killing the latter instantly, it was committed at Fuentes
Street, Pasay and Anton left for Cavite to escape captivity for his felonious act. What type of
crime did he commit?
A. Extinctive crime – destructive crime
B. Static crime
C. Acquisitive crime
D. Simple crime
430. A criminological theory that states that visible signs of crime, anti-social behavior, and
civil disorder create an urban environment that encourages further crime and disorder,
including serious crimes.
A. Anomie Theory
C. Social Disorganization Theory
D. Broken Windows Theory
431. Mr. Freedy, son of a serial killer, on a drinking spree celebration killed Mr. Doy because the
latter provoked Mr. Freedy telling that he went swimming that is why he was absent in the class,
according to the types of criminal set by Lombroso. What type of criminal is Mr. Freedy?
A. Criminaloid – less physical stamina and control
B. Atavistic
C. Insane Criminal
D. Atavism
432. Shiona is suffering from a severe emotional disorder making her perception not to
function well and that she already has a conflict between social and anti-social components.
What type of criminal classification Shiona belongs to?
A. emotional criminal
B. irrational criminal
C. ordinary criminal
D. neurotic criminal
433. Dessy is showing a distinct behavior in which it is forbidden by our laws, because of the
impulse of the moment. What classification would fit the statement?
A. crime of passion
B. neurotic crime
C. acute criminal
D. victimless crime
434. Pat. Nandy was born from a criminal family and he was always looking for pleasure in life
but did not take any want risks and avoided pain. Pat. Nandy is a great representation of a:
A. Rational Calculator
B. Atavistic
C. Hedonist – people seeks pleasure and avoids pain
D. Criminaloid
435. This personality disorder is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of conscience,
deficient feeling of affection to others and aggression to environment and other people.
A. Neurotic Personality
B. Compulsive Neurosis
C. Psychopathic Personality
D. Schizophrenic Personality
436. It refers to the sum total of man's reaction to his environment or the way human beings
act.
A. Human Beings
B. Human Behavior
C. Learning
D. Stimulus
437. The only normal sexual relationship between members of the opposite sex and could
lead to reproduction is referred to as:
A. Homosexuality
B. Pornography
C. sensuality
D. heterosexuality or sexuality
438. All of the following are NOT the causes of depression, EXCEPT:
A. narcotics use
B. party
C. fair
D. speech
439. Which of the following is considered as the most difficult to resolve?

A. approach-approach conflict
B. approach-avoidance conflict
C. avoidance-avoidance conflict
D. multiple approach-avoidance conflict
440. It is not common as major depression or even dysthymia and sometimes being referred to
as an illness which is manic-depressive in nature.
A. Bipolar disorder
B. psychotic depression
C. endogenous depression
D. reactive depression
441. Individuals with this kind of personality are fearful of becoming involved with people
because of excessive fears of criticism or rejection.
A. Dependent Personality
B. Avoidant Personality
C. Compulsive Personality
D. Passive-Aggressive Personality
442. This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.

A. Schizophrenia
B. psychosis
C. neurosis
D. split mind
443. Maria killed Jose while she was asleep. What abnormality was manifested?
A. Delirium
B. Hypnotism
C. Semisomnolence
D. Somnambulism
444. Scientific approach based upon mental processes and characteristics.

A. psychogenic determinism
B. emotional determinism
C. biological determinism
D. criminological determinism
445. Unfaithful boyfriend suspects his girlfriend to have another “LOVER”. The statement best
describes;
A. sublimation
B. displacement
C. suppression
D. projection
446. It is considered as behavior that is a noticeable departure from the accepted norm.
A. Deviation of norm
B. Abnormal behavior
C. Deviated behavior
D. Standard behavior
447. Feeling that is private and subjective, condition of psychological arousal an expression or
display of distinctive somatic and automatic responses.
A. Emotion
B. Stimuli
C. Feelings
D. Attitude
448. It is an urge wherein a person is compelled to perform some actions against his free will
and with duress as a result of external factors.
A. Obsession
B. Compulsion
C. Impulsion
D. Obsessive-Compulsive
449. A French-Israeli attorney who was known as the ''father of victimology”

A. Uziel Gal
B. Benjamin Mendelsohn
C. Edwin Sutherland
D. William Sheldon
450. Human behavior is man’s response to the interpretation of the ____ from within the
person or from his environment.
A. stimulus
B. perception
C. action
D. inclination
451. The professor of sociology at Northeastern University in Boston, Massachusetts, who

published what is regarded by some as the first textbook on the subject of victimology. “The
Victim and His Criminal: A Study in Functional Responsibility.”
A. Benjamin Mendelsohn
B. Hans von Hentig
C. Dr. Stephen Schafer
D. August Vollmer
452. An Act Creating a Board of Claims under the Department of Justice for Victims of Unjust
Imprisonment or Detention and Victims of Violent Crimes
A. RA 8353
B. RA 8505
C. RA 9262
D. RA 7309
453. Police officers must only employ legal methods in the conduct of their work. The
statement is referring to what canon of police ethics?
A. Primordial Police Responsibility
B. Limitation of Police Authority
C. Knowledge of the Law and other Responsibilities
D. Use of Proper Means to Obtain Proper Ends
454. The doing either through ignorance, inattention or malice, of that which the police officer
had no legal right to do at all, as where he acts without any authority whatsoever or exceeds,
ignores or abuses his powers.
A. Incompetence
B. Dishonesty
C. Misconduct
D. Neglect of Duty
455. An established and generally accepted moral values refer to:

A. Ethical Standards
B. Morality
C. Integrity
D. Judicious use of authority
456. The act known as the “Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and
Employees.”
A. RA 6975
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6713
D. RA 7160
457. As a general rule, police officers are not permitted or allowed to engage in any other
business or calling.
A. Bribery
B. Moonlighting
C. Neglect of duty
D. Misconduct
458. In pursuant to the Duties of Public Officials and Employees, all public officials and
employees shall respond to letters, telegrams or other means of communications sent by the
public, within how many days?
A. fifteen (15) working days from receipt
B. ten (10) working days from receipt
C. five (5) working days from receipt
D. twenty (20) working days from receipt
459. Anti-Graft and Corruption Practices Act

A. R.A. 3019
B. R.A. 6975
C. R.A. 8551
D. R.A. 7080
460. In Pursuant to the Registered Criminologist Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical
Standards, which among the following statements best describes “Conduct towards the public”?
A. The Criminologists remind at all times that dignity, fairness and a genuine willingness to help
are essential to their public image and their ability to do a good job.
B. The Criminologists, mindful of their responsibility to the whole community, deal with
individuals of the community in a manner calculated to instill respect for its laws and their
profession.
C. They shall be habitually courteous and accept their responsibility by being punctual and
expeditious in their engagements and duties. They shall regard their profession as a public trust
and in the discharge of their duties, bear constantly in mind their obligation to serve the public
efficiently and effectively.
D. All of them
461. Public officers and employees who served with the highest degree of integrity, loyalty,
responsibility and efficiency manifests.
A. Love of country
B. Allegiance to the government
C. Allegiance to the constitution
D. Public office is a public trust
462. It refers to the sum total of dealings of the police with the people it serves
A. Police Community Relations
B. Police Relations
C. Public Relations
D. Human Relations
463. The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is

A. harass the people
B. perform his job well
C. dress well
D. always present in the office
464. Which of the statement best suits on the phrase “ignorance of the law excuses no one”
A. A taxi driver who fails to carry with him his driver’s license.
B. Uneducated person who does not know how to read violated an offense.
C. A man who kills another person just to save himself from danger.
D. An idiot person shouting that there is a bomb at the plaza.
465. The following are the canon of police ethics EXCEPT ONE;
A. Proper conduct of behavior
B. Obedience and loyalty to superior officers
C. Attitude towards police profession
D. Firmness in refusing gifts or favors
466. Discipline should be strict but must always be tempered with sympathy and
understanding. To abide by these principles, a superior officer must:
A. Investigate thoroughly all the facts before making a
decision
B. Always implement the policies, rules and regulations
C. Treat all personnel equally
D. Maintain discipline
467. A police officer being a law enforcement officer does not mean that he/she is exempted in
obeying the law. The statement is referring to what canon of Police ethics?
A. Primordial Police Responsibility
B. Limitation of Police Authority
C. Knowledge of the Law and other Responsibilities
D. Use of Proper Means to Obtain Proper Ends
468. A police officer in uniform is prohibited from carrying any package or bundle unless it is
needed in the performance of his duty. The likelihood, the said officer will be misinterpreted to
A. Have accepted favors
B. A trim appearance while in uniform is important
C. Be a comprador for his wife
D. All of the forgoing
469. These are the specific indicators of shared priorities and respect.
A. Image and visibility
B. Trust and competency
C. Misconduct and corruption
D. Priorities and dependability
470. They prescribe professional standards of conduct necessary for the ethical enlightenment
of practitioners if they are to lead a professional career. The statement is referring to:
A. professional conduct
B. police creed
C. police ethics
D. code of ethics
471. A child who is deprived of speech and hearing due to abnormality defects during birth is
known as.
A. Disabled child
B. Emotionally disturbed child
C. Mentally ill child
D. Physically handicapped child
472. A parent who provided a sperm, egg or uterus to help in the conception of a child
A. Stepparent
B. Unfit parent
C. Biological parent
D. Surrogate parent
473. Refers to the program that the child in conflict with the law is required to undergo after
he/she is found responsible for an offense without resorting to formal court proceedings.
A. Intervention
B. Diversion program
C. Rehabilitation
D. Reintegration
474. This type of family structure is consisting of parents and children:

A. extended
B. conjugal
C. nuclear
D. foster
475. How many months are needed in order for the child to be considered abandoned?
A. 3 months
B. 9 months
C. 6 months
D. 2 months
476. It is used to denote those various offenses committed by children under the age of
majority
A. Juvenile delinquency
B. Juvenile acts
C. Juvenile crime
D. Juvenile delinquent
477. Offender who is less than eighteen years old is classified as:
A. Adult offender
B. Senile offender
C. Youthful offender
D. Special Protection for Children Law
478. One of the following is a least cause of juvenile delinquency:

A. Neglected homes
B. Police inefficiency
C. Lack of proper guidance
D. Delinguent parent
479. The following are examples of delinquency EXCEPT ONE:

A. Children out of parental control
B. Children with high grades in school
C. School dropouts without justifiable reasons
D. Waywardness of children
480. The period when a person gets liberated from parents authority is called?
A. Period of Conception
B. Period of Adoption
C. Period of Emancipation
D. Menstrual Period
481. Under PD 603, what do we call a person under 18 years old who committed a crime?
A. Child
B. Youthful Offender
C. Juvenile
D. Child in Conflict with the Law
482. Under RA 9344, a child who is exactly 15 years of age is ____ from criminal liability.
A. Exempted
B. Not exempted
C. Mitigated
D. Aggravated
483. Under the Juvenile Justice Welfare Act, Children under the following age are exempted
from criminal responsibility
A. 9 yrs. and below as well as over 9 yrs. but below 15
B. 12 yrs. and below as well as over 12 yrs. but below 15
C. 15 yrs. and below as well as over 15 yrs. but below 21
D. 15 yrs. and below as well as over 15 yrs. but below 18
484. Refers to a 24-hour residential care facility that provides care, treatment and
rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the law.
A. Receiving home
B. Youth rehabilitation center
C. Child caring institution
D. Maternity home
485. What methodology towards delinquency where its view gives an explanation that law
violations and delinquency is a result of some physical defect, it advocates that youth
misconduct is a direct result of faulty biology and the support from family members, friends and
acceptance of the community may solve the problem of delinquency?
A. Biogenic Approach
B. Biological Approach
C. Bio-sociological Approach
D. Psychogenic Approach
486. The operation conducted by US forces in 2019 that led to the elimination of the former
Islamic State leader Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi.
A. Operation Exodus- operation ng SAF 44
B. Operation Neptune Spear- Osama Benladin
C. Operation Geronimo- other name ng Operation Neptune Spear
D. Operation Kayla Mueller
487. This Act shall be known as "The Arbitration Law."

A. RA 876
B. RA 11131
C. RA 9285
D. RA 6975
488. Considered to be the oldest tactic in terrorism:

A. Prostitution
B. Bombing – most common tactic
C. Assassination
D. Kidnapping
489. This theory is an extension of feminism into theoretical, fictional, or philosophical

discourse. It aims to understand the nature of gender inequality.
A. Feminism Theory
B. Critical Race Theory
C. Queer Theory
D. Post-modern Theory
490. Within how many days should the Pangkat settle the dispute?
A. within ten (10) days from its meeting
B. within fifteen (15) days from its meeting
C. within five (5) days from its meeting
D. within twenty (20) days from its meeting
491. This means any partial or final decision by an arbitrator in resolving the issue in a
controversy.
A. Settlement
B. Reward
C. Dispute
D. Award
492. It is an act or manner of running or handling decisive materials.

A. Police management
B. Negotiation
C. Crisis management
D. Negotiator
493. It will enhance a client's interpersonal relationship and it will help him/her become more
aware of his/her shortcomings/weaknesses. This will also help him/her overcome painful
experiences that drove him/her to commit a crime/ offense.
A. Rehabilitation
B. Counseling
C. Restitution
D. Community Work Service
494. The International commercial arbitration shall be governed by the Model Law adopted by
what commission of the United Nations?
A. United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC)
B. United Nations Commission on Human Rights (UNCHR)
C. United Nations Commission on Laws of the Seas (UNCLOS)
D. United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL)
495. The Pangkat shall arrive at a settlement of the dispute within _____ days from its meeting.
A. Five
B. Ten
C. Fifteen
D. Twenty
496. In connection with the previous question, the period may be extended for another _____
days, at the discretion of the Pangkat.
A. Five
B. Ten
C. Fifteen
D. Twenty
497. It is the science and art of planning the procedures for conducting studies so as to get the
most valid findings.
A. Research design
B. Research ethics
C. Research hypothesis
D. Research question
498. This type of research describes a situation or a given state of affairs in terms of specified
aspects or factors
A. Intervention research
B. Extensive research
C. Correlation research
D. Descriptive research
499. One of the major researches that utilize a time element that describes what will be.
A. Experimental
B. descriptive
C. Historical
C. Statistical
500. This explains the existence of a problem. It serves as the basis for examining and
analyzing the connection between or among the study variables.
A. Research outline
B. Research framework
C. Research chart
D. Statistics
501. One of the research methods approach is to determine the growth and development of a
group, organization or institution.
A. Content Analysis
B. Survey method
C. Experimental Method
D. Historical Method
502. It refers to the problem to be investigated in a study stated in the form of a question.
A. Research design
B. Research hypothesis
C. Research ethics
D. Research question
503. In studies that take a long time to finish, say, one year or more, like cohort studies, where
the subjects (the same people) are followed up overtime, some cases may drop out, thus
resulting in a loss of cases
A. Selection
B. Instrumentation
C. Mortality
D. Maturation
504. It may be a question about the unknown characteristics of a population or about factors
that explain the presence or occurrence of a phenomenon.
A. Problem
B. Analysis Problem
C. Research Problem
D. Critical Problem
505. A kind of research with the purpose of determining the future operation of the variables
under investigation.
A. Illuminative
B. Directive
C. Predictive/Prognostic
D. Phenomenological
506. In defining the research problem, what is the important thing for the researcher to
present for the conduct of the study?
A. Valid ID
B. Certificate
C. Valid justification
D. Present relevant data
507. This type of research attempts to explain possible factors related to problems which have
been observed in a descriptive study.
A. Explanatory research
B. Exploratory research
C. Descriptive research
D. Historical Research
508. An abbreviation of the Latin term “et alia,” which means “and others.” which is used in
source citations to save space when there are too many authors to name them all.
A. etc.
B. et al.
C. eg.
D. aka.
509. A type of source which shows where to locate other sources of information related to a
certain topic.
A. Glossary
B. General reference
C. Primary sources
D. Secondary sources
510. One of the research methods that obtain data to determine specific characteristics of a
group.
A. Content Analysis
B. Survey method
C. Interview Method
D. Observation Method
511. A type of source which results from many research studies that are published in journals or
monographs. These articles or reports are generally written by those who actually conducted
the study
A. Glossary
B. General reference
C. Primary sources
D. Secondary sources
512. A kind of research with the goal of developing the theories and principles
A. Pure
B. Applied
C. Analytical
D. Holistic
513. This refers to publications where authors cite the work of others. The most common
secondary sources are books, reviews, yearbooks and encyclopedias
A. Secondary sources
B. Glossary
C. General reference
D. Primary sources
514. In writing a research paper, what font size should be used?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 15
515. When are we going to define a problem?

A. When the solution is already done
B. When the problem is partially solved
C. When the problem is already identified
D. When the solution is already discovered
516. It is a theory that explains why a problem under study exists and explains the connection
between certain factors and the problem
A. Conceptual Framework
B. Research Framework
C. Special Framework
D. Theoretical Framework
517. Is a negative statement which indicates the absence of a relationship/ correlation

between two variables
A. Alternative Hypothesis
B. Null hypothesis
C. Research Hypothesis
D. Hypothesis
518. What is the specific title of Chapter 3 in a thesis book?

A. Review of Related Literature
B. Methods, Procedures and Source of Data
C. Summary, Conclusion and Recommendation
D. The Introduction and Its Setting
519. It refers to the extent to which a measurement does what it is supposed to do, which is to
measure what it intends to measure
A. Validity
B. Validity Threats
C. Reliability - consistency
D. Variable
520. People and things change over time and this change can threaten the validity of
conclusions
A. Selection
B. Instrumentation
C. Testing
D. Maturation
521. Science concerned with improving the quality of human offsprings.

A. Genetics
B. Eugenics
C. Criminology
D. Heredity
522. Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community.

A. Criminal Epidemiology
B. Criminal Ecology
C. Criminal Psychology
D. Criminal Determinism
523. In labeling theory, the type of minor, infrequent offending people commit before they are
caught and labeled as offenders.
A. Primary Deviance
B. Dramatization of Evil
C. Secondary Deviance
D. Symbolic Interactionism
524. This theory considers delinquent behavior as a result of people’s frustration and anger over
their inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
A. Strain theory
B. Imitation-Suggestion Theory
C. Positivist Theory
D. Labeling Theory
525. In the study of criminology, this concerns the basis of knowing the criminal behavior of a
certain person, this examination and comparison focuses on the chromosomes.
A. Karyotype studies
B. Biological studies
C. Cellular studies
D. Molecular studies
526. Those criminals who have entered happy marriages and quality marital life may desist
(stop) from committing crime anymore. Also those criminals who are already aged may also
stop in committing crime because their body physique and stamina could not support them
anymore.
A. General Theory of Crime
B. Thornberry’s Interactional Model
C. Age-Graded Theory
D. Sampson and Laub’s Developmental Model
527. This refers to the relationship between perpetrator and victim of a crime. These
phenomenons are both involved in the event
A. Penal couple
B. Suspect-victim
C. Legal couple
D. Victim-suspect relationship
528. Which of the following mirrors the thought that a diversity of values and beliefs exists in
any society and that different social groups will each have its own set of beliefs?
A. Pluralistic Perspective
B. Consensus Model
C. Conflict Model
D. Proletariat
529. Delinquency and crime matters are learned and adopted. The learning process may either
be conscious type of copying or unconscious copying of confronting patterns of behavior
A. Imitation-Suggestion Theory
B. Strain theory
C. Positivist Theory
D. Labeling Theory
530. This refers to the theory which states that obedience to the norms of lower-class culture
places people in conflict with norms of the dominant culture.
A. Culture conflict theory
B. Strain Theory
C. Positivist theory
D. Labeling theory
531. This theory takes into account associations with persons and images presented in the
media.
A. Differential Identification theory
B. Learning theory
C. Control theory
D. Differential Association theory
532. They are said to be an easy target, careless and unsuspecting and are the most likely type
of victim.
A. Depressive Type
B. Greedy Type
C. Wanton Type
D. Tormentor type
533. Which of the following encompasses the large mass of people, who are relatively
uneducated and are without power?
A. Proletariat
B. Conflict Model
C. Consensus Model
D. Bourgeoisie
534. He developed the study of body build and criminal behavior or Somatotype School,
which held that manifest distinct physiques that makes them susceptible to particular types of
delinquent behavior.
A. William Sheldon
B. Charles Goring
C. Earnest A. Hooton
D. Alphonse Bertillon
535. The current redemptive philosophy in criminal justice tends to be about faith-based
initiatives, and/or religious-based correctional interventions. Which of the following is not a
synonymous term of restorative justice?
A. Redemptive Justice
B. Direct Expenses
C. Crime is Destructive
D. Extinctive Crime
536. Many lives have been lost because of crimes like murder, homicide and others violent
deaths. Property has been lost or destroyed on account of Robbery, Theft and Arson
A. Crime is Destructive
B. Direct Expenses
C. Extinctive Crime
D. Redemptive Justice
537. There is a congregation of people in fertile level lands than in hilly rugged terrain that
causes more irritation. In addition, there is also more incidence of rape in level districts. This
study refers to what geographical factor?
A. Soil Formation
B. Criminal Epidemiology
C. Criminal Ecology
D. Neurobiological approach
538. Criminologists may equate the term "dark figure" of crime as:
A. The number of unreported crimes.
B. Index crimes listed in the Uniform Crime Reports.
C. The figure of incorrectly reported crimes received by the authorities.
D. The quantity of brutal crimes where no arrest is made.
539. Crimes such as gambling and drug possession have been created by legislative order to
maintain and protect the "fabric" of society. Laws describing to such crimes are considered:
A. Mala prohibitum
B. Actus delicti.
C. Mala in se
D. Stare decisis
540. Which type of intent would be the most relevant to a person who kills a stranger while
driving under the influence of alcohol?
A. Constructive intent
B. Specific intent
C. Transferred intent
D. Generic Intent – presumed from the act of commission (Such as speeding)
541. This theory postulates that the ordinary routines of life present opportunities for crime.
A. Functionalist theory
B. Routine activities theory
D. Control theory
542. Who is a person who kills three or more persons in three or more separate events?
A. Serial Killer
B. Spree Killer
C. Mass Murderer
D. Homicidal
543. Which is not true about Criminology?

A. considered as an applied science
B. It is stable and it varies from one time and place to another
C. study of crime as a social phenomenon
D. none of these
544. All of the following except one are the concepts drawn by Lombroso in his Positivist theory.
A. Psychiatry
B. Society Darwinism
C. Physiognomy
D. Eugenics
545. It is the process by which individuals reduce the frequency of their offending behavior as
the age increases.
A. doing gender
B. aging out
C. criminal reduction
D. active precipitation
546. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and others which are committed to maintain one’s
livelihood or as a means for living are what crimes?
A. Rational crimes
B. Blue-collar crimes
C. Irrational crimes
D. White collar crimes
547. It is that element of intentional felony which means that the person who committed the
felony has the capacity to distinguish between what is right and wrong and fully understands
the consequences of his actions:
A. intelligence
B. imprudence
C. intent
D. freedom
548. An act in violation of the criminal law that is designed to bring financial gain to the
offender.
A. organized crime
B. economic crime
C. cyber crime
D. profit crime
549. A phenomenon that refers to the handing down of delinquent behaviors as socially
learned and transferred from one generation to the next taking place mostly among
disorganized urban areas.
A. Cultural Transmission
B. Social Phenomenon
C. Crime
D. Delinquent behavior
550. One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of etiology. What kind of criminal is that
whose action arises from the intrapsychic conflict between the social and anti-social
components of his personality?
A. Acute
B. Chronic
C. Neurotic
D. normal
551. Criminals can also be classified according to this behavioral system. What are those
criminals who have a high degree of organization that enables them to commit crime without
being detected and usually operates on a large scale?
A. Ordinary Criminals
B. Professional Criminals
C. Situational Criminals
D. Organized Criminals
552. “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) . This was the term used by Philippe
Pinel describing the personality that is characterized by an inability to learn from experience,
lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt better known as:
A. psychotic personality
B. neurotic behavior
C. psychopathic personality
D. dementia praecox
553. The Idea that low female crime and delinquency rates are a reflection of the leniency
which the police treat female offenders
A. Doing gender
B. masculinity hypothesis
C. Chivalry hypothesis
D. premenstrual syndrome
554. Refers to the document issued by the Commission, through the Board, signifying that the
person named therein is entitled to practice the criminology profession with all the privileges
appurtenant thereto.
A. Temporary Permit
B. Special Permit
C. Certificate of Registration
D. Tables of Specification
555. What is an offense that has an international dimension and implies crossing at least one
national border before, during or after the fact. This includes but is not limited to illegal drug
trafficking, money laundering, terrorism, arm smuggling, piracy, kidnapping, trafficking in
persons, and cyber crimes. Most of these crimes falling under this category reflect connection
with organized and white-collar criminals?
A. Organized Crimes
B. Crimes of the upper world
C. Transnational Crimes
D. National Crimes
556. Human mind has three (3) levels of awareness, which level serves as the scanner for us to
perceive an event, trigger a need to react , and then depending on the importance of the event,
store it either in the unconscious or the subconscious area of the human mind.
A. Conscious Level
B. Subconscious Level
C. Unconscious
D. Ego
557. When you do not conform to the social norms that are accepted by your culture or group,
it is considered an abnormal behavior. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
A. Mores
B. Taboo
C. Folkways
D. Culture
558. In the field of criminology, it is an undeniable fact that there are multiple factors which
lead the individual to commit crime. What perspective regarded crime as the product of internal
forces. For example: A person who is suffering from kleptomania.
A. Conflict Perspective
B. Biological Perspective
C. Biosocial Perspective
D. Classical Perspective
559. If the child witnesses that his father beats her mother by the time his father is under the
influence of alcohol; then the child will assume that it is good to beat somebody and when the
time comes the child becomes a husband the same situation will be applied to his wife. What
theory is being described in the statement given:
A. Life- Course Theory
B. Cheater Theory
C. Evolutionary Theory
D. Latent Trait Theory
560. Another theory under evolution which holds that all organisms can be located along a
continuum based upon their reproductive drives.
A. R/K Selection
B. Cheater Theory
C. Evolutionary Theory
D. Latent Trait Theory
NOTES:
● “R” end reproduce rapidly whenever they can and invest little in their offspring; are more
cunning and deceptive
● “K” end up reproducing slowly and cautiously and take care in raising their offspring. K-
oriented people are more cooperative and sensitive to others
561. Holds that low intelligence is genetically determined and inherited. This was supported by
Henry Goddard in his studies in 1920 that many institutionalized people were what he
considered “feebleminded” and concluded that at least half of all juvenile delinquents were
mentally defective.
A. Nature Theory
B. NurtureTheory
C. Somatotype
D. Phrenology
562. Aimed at making potential criminals fear the consequences of crime showing that crime
does not pay. It focuses on potential offenders and that these offenders must receive
punishment in a severe, swift and certain way. It is also manifesting societal deterrence which
aimed to target would-be offenders. For example: imposing long prison sentences or in the
Philippines lifetime imprisonment for violent or heinous crimes.
A. Specific Deterrence
B. General Deterrence
C. Active Precipitation
D. Incapacitation Theory
563. This theory concerned the study of observable behavior rather than unconscious
processes. It focuses on particular stimuli and how people respond toward that stimulus. It
maintains that human actions are developed through learning experiences; that behavior is
learned when it is rewarded and extinguished by negative reactions or punishment
A. Behavioral Theory
B. Social Learning and Violence
C. Cognitive Theory
D. Moral Development Theory
564. Having a convicted father, mother, brother, or sister predicted a boy's own convictions, and
all four relatives were independently important as predictors, is what theory?
A. Alternative theory
B. Intergenerational transmission theory
C. Differential association-reinforcement
D. Eysenck’s Conditioning Theory
565. According to Wilson and Herrnstein, the factors that made the person commit crimes are
IQ, body build, genetic makeup, impulsiveness, ability to delay gratification, aggressiveness,
and even the drinking and smoking habits of pregnant mothers.
A. Integrated theory
B. Maternal Deprivation and Attachment Theory
C. Social disorganization theory
566. According to Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels, criminals came from a third class in society—
the lumpen proletariat— who would play no decisive role in the expected revolution (Siegel,
2004).
A. Conflict theory
B. Social Reality of Crime
C. Institutive-Constitutive Theory
D. The Marxist Criminology
567. The blending of an individual’s personal-self and social-self with that of a group, has
attempted to explain why a person engages in political participation
A. Identity Fusion Theory
B. Maternal Deprivation and Attachment Theory
C. Social disorganization theory
568. The principle which states that man, by nature, always tries to maximize pleasure and
avoid pain.
A. Utopia
B. Hedonism
C. Socialism
D. Atavism
569. This type of physique has relatively predominant muscles, bones and motor organs of the
body.
A. Viscerotonic
B. Mesomorphic
C. Endomorphic
D. Ectomorphic
570. What law created the board of criminology in the Philippines?

A. RA 11131
B. RA 6560
C. RA 6506
D. RA 8551
571. This school of criminology was established based on the philosophy of utilitarianism. It was
particularly founded by Cesare “Beccaria” Bonesana. This was known as the classical school.
What is that treatise on the legal reform that became the pillar of the school?
A. Classical School
B. Positivist School
C. Essay on Crimes
D. Essay on Crimes and Punishment
572. This book contains all of the Stigmata of a potential criminal written by Lombroso on his
medical studies in the inmate of the different prison.
A. The Criminal Mind
B. Atavistic
C. Atavism
D. The Criminal Man
573. Crime is caused by the rational effort of man to augment his pleasure and to minimize his
pains is a notion coming from:
A. positivist school
B. classical school
C. Chicago school
D. neo-classical school
574. All of the following are the description of a criminal man according to Lombroso, Except
one:
A. Symmetry of the Face
B. Excessive length of Arms
C. Abnormal Dentition
D. Defects of the Thorax
575. Which of the following is not true about the principles of Positivism?
A. stated that criminality is inherited
B. criminal behavior is caused by internal factors
C. imposition of deterrence
D. understanding criminality through the study of human behavior
576. All of the following except one are the indicative of criminal tendency according to the
Criminal anthropology of Cesare Lombroso.
A. measurement of the hairline
B. measurement of the jaw
C. measurement of the cheek bones
D. measurement of the cleft palate
577. Cesare Lombroso was considered as the father of Modern Criminology and the father of
the Italian school of Criminology. Which of the following is not part of his works?
A. Identifying the three types of criminal
B. he took a scientific approach in the study of crime
C. he was the one who wrote “The Criminal Mind”
D. none of these
Criminal Man yung book niya.
578. Attempting to provide a scientific analysis of the causes of crime is a function of criminal
etiology as one of the principal divisions of Criminology. What division is treating youthful
offenders?
A. Criminal etiology
B. Criminal sociology
C. Sociology of law
D. Penology
579. Which of the following is not included in the coverage of Criminology in terms of
theoretical field of study?
A. Sociology of crime – dapat sociology of law
B. causes of crime
C. meaning of crime in law
D. community reaction
580. The science of classifying human physical characteristics.

A. Freewill
B. Somatology
C. Positivism
D. Atavism
581. A doctrine which criminals were seen as distinct types of humans who could be
distinguished from non criminals by certain physical traits.
A. theory of biological inferiority
B. theory of natural selection
C. theory of differential association
D. theory of evolution
582. The primary aim of studying criminology is

A. To prevent the crime problem
B. To understand crimes and criminals
C. To be a source of philosophy in life
D. All of these
583. A theory based upon the idea that the assessment of the person's outer appearance,
primarily the face, may give insights into one's character or personality.
A. Physiognomy
B. Phrenology
C. Biological Theory
D.Ecology Theory
584. efore the development of scientist theorists, this theory involved believing that criminal
behavior is caused by the possession of evil spirits.
A. Demonological
B. Divine Theory
C. Classical Theory
D. Neo-classical
585. Crime in one instance may be caused by one or more factors, while in other instances it is
caused by another set of factors.
A. Biological Factor
B. Eclectic theory
C. Multiple Factor theory
D. Single or Unitary
586. He used empirical methods and an ethnographic approach to address social questions
and poverty, and presented his studies in London Labor and the London Poor
A. Rawson W. Rawson
B. Emile Durkheim
C. Henry Mayhew
D. Willem Bonger
587. On the basis of activities, this refers to a person who continuously commits criminal acts
for such diverse reasons due to deficiency of intelligence and lack of self control.
A. Professional Criminal
B. Accidental Criminal
C. Habitual Criminal
D. Situational Criminal
588. On the basis of etiology, this refers to a person who violates criminal law because of the
impulse of the moment: fit of passion or anger or spell of extreme jealousy (Crime of Passion).
A. Chronic Criminal
B. Acute Criminal
C. Nuerotic Criminal
D. Normal criminal
589. It presumes that criminal behavior is caused by internal and external factors outside of the
individual’s control. The Positivist School introduced the scientific method of understanding
criminality and was applied to study human behavior.
A. Positivist School
B. Classical theory
C. Neoclassical theory
D. Lombroso’s theory
590. The Differential Association Theory provides a good illustration of a social learning
approach perspective in Criminology Criminal behavior according to this theory is:
A. A result of an emotional disturbance
B. An inmate quality of goodness or badness
C. Learned and not inherited
D. An excess of wisdom
591. This theory states that crime is an economic concept. It places emphasis on the notion
that a person expects to be rewarded if he commits a crime.
A. Routine Activities Theory
B. Rational Choice theory
C. Economic Theory
D. Free Will Theory
592. This theory suggests that people break the law because they are not sufficiently governed
by the social norms and mores of society.
A. Functionalist theory
B. Anomie theory
D. Control theory
593. What theory provides that criminal behavior is learned through interaction with other
persons in the process of communication or potentially significant to police planning?
A. Strain theory
B. Social disorganization theory
C. Psychoanalytical theory
D. Differential association theory
594. Sociology of law areas of inquiry include the following except one…
A. social development of legal institutions
B. social construction of legal issues
C. social image of law enhancement
D. relation of law to social change
595. The main objective of this notion is that there is a terrific morality of cases between the
times a crime has been reported up to the time a verdict of conviction has been made.
A. existence of crime
B. legal point of view
C. scientific viewpoint
D. all of these
596. Ex post facto law is one of the constitutional rights of every Filipino people which means
that, a person should not be put into jeopardy where there is no effective law forbidding the
particular act, except:
A. the suspect was not yet arrested
B. the law is in favor to the offender
C. retroactive effect
D. all of these
597. The study that relates the link between the physical constitution of man and criminality
was known as criminal anthropology, how about if it is related to mental disorder?
A. Criminal anthropology
B. Criminal Psychiatry
C. Criminal psychology
D. victimology
598. On the basis of mental attitude, this refers to a person who commits crime because
he/she is pushed to it or is induced by reward or promise without considering its
consequences.
A. Active Aggressive Criminal
B. Passive Inadequate criminal
C. Socialize Delinquent
D. None of these
599. Perceptions of coercion can begin in early life when children experience a punitive form of
discipline including both physical attacks and psychological coercion including negative
commands. Critical remarks such as teasing, humiliation, whining, yelling and threats.
A. Identity Fusion Theory
B. Differential Coercion Theory
C. Social Development Model
D. Control balance theory
600. Is the study of human conduct; the way a person behaves or acts; includes the study of
human activities in an attempt to discover recurrent patterns and to formulate rules about
man's social behavior
A. Overt Behavior
B. Simple Behavior
C. Human Behavior
D. Voluntary Behavior
601. Characteristics of a person acquired from birth being transferred from one generation to
another.
A. Heredity
B. Chromosomes
C. Genes
D. Offspring
602. There are different environmental factors affecting the individuals’ behavior, one of them is
the family background. Among the choices which pathogenic family structures pertains to a
discordant family
A. Characterized by dissatisfaction of one or both parents from the relationship that may
express feelings of frustration. This is usually due to value differences as common sources of
conflict and dissatisfaction.
B. characterized by the inability to cope with the ordinary problems of family living. It lacks the
resources, physical or psychological, for meeting the demands of family satisfaction (Inadequate
Family)
C. those that espouse unacceptable values as a result of the influence of parents to their
children. (Anti-social Family)
D. characterized by incompleteness whether as a result of death, divorce, separation or some
other circumstances. (Disrupted Family)
603. Affect the feeling of security of a child undergoing development processes. The
development processes are being blocked sometimes by parental deprivation as a
consequence of parents or lack of adequate maturing at home because of parental rejection,
overprotection, restrictiveness, over permissiveness and faulty discipline. Statement refers to
what environmental factors?
A. The family background
B. The influences of childhood trauma
C. Institutional influences
D. Socio-cultural factors
604. Sees human beings as born neutral (neither inherently conforming nor unruly) and subject
to developmental changes throughout the life course. This perspective argues that humans
learn virtually all their behavior, beliefs, and tendencies from the social environment.
A. The conformity perspective
B. The nonconformist perspective
C. The learning perspective
D. Difference-in-kind Perspective
605. In the earliest theory of human behavior, the Greek philosopher Hippocrates believed that
four basic elements (air, water, earth, and fire) and four body fluids (blood, phlegm, yellow and
black bile) affect human behavior. This was further developed by the Roman physician Galen.
What temperament connotes by an excess of blood so the person is cheerful, confidently
optimistic, and impulsive.
A. Sanguine
B. Melancholic
C. Choleric
D. Phlegmatic
606. Hans J, Eysenck had Biological Typology where he defined personality as the stable and
enduring organization of a person’s character, temperament, intellect and physique, which
determines his/her unique adjustment to the environment. One of the dimensions of
temperament is that neuroticism ranges from normal to fairly calm but tends to be quite
nervous; indicative of emotional overreaction and having difficulties adjusting to normal state
after emotional experiences.
A. Stability-instability
B. Psychoticism
C. Extroversion
D. Introversion
607. He believed the core motive behind personality involves striving for superiority, or the
desire to overcome challenges and move closer toward self-realization. This desire to achieve
superiority stems from underlying feelings of inferiority that Adler believed were universal.
A. Karen Horney
B. Alfred Adler
C. Carl Jung
D. Sigmund Freud
608. Psychoanalytic treatment that adheres to Sigmund Freud’s basic procedures, using dream
interpretation, free association, and analysis of resistance, and to his basic aim of developing
insight into the patient’s unconscious life as a way to restructure personality. Also called as
A. Psychoanalytic Theory
B. Orthodox Psychoanalysis
C. Freudian's Psychoanalysis
D. Developmental Psychology
609. According to Freud, human beings experience an extreme form of anxiety when they are
separated from their mother at birth. He called this as
A. Birth Trauma
B. Separation Anxiety
C. Cathexis
D. Anxiety
610. There are three (3) kinds of Anxiety, which of the following fear that the id’s impulses will
overwhelm the ego and make the person do something for which he/she will be punished.
A. Reality Anxiety
B. Neurotic Anxiety
C. Moral Anxiety
D. Separation Anxiety
611. The libido is the psychic energy associated with what according to Sigmund Freud?
A. Thanatos
B. Impulses
C. Eros
D. ID
612. A theory of mind that emphasizes the importance of wholeness for each individual
A. Psychoanalytical Theory
B. Analytical Psychology
C. Cognitive Theory
D. Individual Psychology
613. The main motives of human thought and behavior are individual man’s striving for
superiority and power, partly in compensation for his feeling of inferiority.
A. Analytical Psychology
B. Individual Psychology
C. Psychoanalytic
D. Cognitive Developmental
614. Is the focus of attention until the next child is born, at which time he/she is “dethroned”.
A. First Born
B. Second Bord
C. Only Child
D. Youngest
615. Never dethroned by another sibling, but experiences shock upon learning that he/she
cannot remain the center of attention (e.g. school).
A. First Born
B. Second Bord
C. Only Child
D. Youngest
616. Refers to the representation of the image we have of ourselves as compared with an
established ideal, such as role models or anyone that a person imitates.
A. Body Ego
B. Ego Ideal
C. Ego Identity
D. Ego
617. Type of anxiety disorder that is considered as severe distress about leaving home, being
alone, or being separated from a parent
A. General Anxiety Disorder
B. Separation Anxiety Disorder
C. Anxiety
D. Reality Anxiety
618. Separation anxiety disorder must be present for a minimum of how many weeks?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
619. Is characterized by persistent, high levels of anxiety and excessive and difficult-to-control
worry over life circumstances; symptoms must be present on the majority of days for at least 6
months and cause significant distress or impairment in life activities
A. General Anxiety Disorder
B. Separation Anxiety Disorder
C. Anxiety
D. Obsessive-compulsive Disorder
620. Involve repetitive actions, in contrast to the recurring thoughts or distressing images
associated with obsessions.
A. Compulsion
B. Obsession
C. Distress
621. An intrusive, repetitive thought or image that produces anxiety compulses the need to
perform acts or mental tasks to reduce anxiety.
A. Compulsion
B. Obsession
C. Distress
622. Recurrent and compulsive hair pulling that results in hair loss and causes significant
distress.
A. Trichotillomania
B. Excoriation
C. Obsessive-compulsive Disorder
D. Somatic Symptom Disorder
623. A distressing and recurrent compulsive picking of the skin resulting in skin lesions
A. Trichotillomania
B. Excoriation
624. A condition involving a pattern of reporting distressing thoughts regarding the seriousness
of one’s physical symptoms combined with excessive time and concern devoted to worrying
about these symptoms
A. Trichotillomania
B. Excoriation
625. This is a somatic symptom disorder where a person actually loses a sensory or motor
bodily function, resulting in blindness, deafness, paralysis, or numbness or sometimes suffers
from seizures.
A. Conversion Disorder
B. Somatization disorder
C. Hypochondriasis
D. Body dysmorphic disorder
626. Persons can have various physical symptoms related to any body part such as pain,
nausea, vomiting, bloating, headaches, sexual dysfunction, irregular menstruation and balance
problems.
A. Conversion Disorder
C. Hypochondriasis
627. Persons often imagine that they suffer from a serious illness when they experience minor
symptoms. For example, a bloating sensation or indigestion may be attributed to having
stomach cancer or a headache may be attributed to brain cancer.
A. Pain Disorder
C. Hypochondriasis
628. The afflicted person is unduly concerned with body image, manifesting as excessive
concern about and preoccupation with a perceived defect of their physical appearance that is
not very obviously apparent to others.
A. Pain Disorder
C. Hypochondriasis
629. Persons suffer from chronic pain for which no physical cause can be found
A. Pain Disorder
C. Hypochondriasis
630. Characterized by a disruption of and/or discontinuity in the normal integration of
consciousness, memory, identity, emotion, perception, body representation, motor control,
and behavior.
A. Dissociative Disorder
B. Dissociative amnesia
C. Dissociative identity disorder
D. Depersonalization-derealization disorder
631. During this phase, the patient may show excessive, unwarranted excitement or silliness,
carrying jokes too far. They may also show poor judgment and recklessness and may be
argumentative
A. Depressive Episode
B. Manic Phase
C. Manic-depression
D. Bipolar
632. It is characterized by an infant level of response, lack of conscience, deficient feeling of

affection to others, and aggression to people and environment.
on to people and environment.
A. Neurotic personality
B. schizophrenic personality
C. Psychopathic personality
D. compulsive neurosis
633. It refers to an emotional disturbance in which moods change between periods of wild
ecstasy and profound depression.
A. Depressive stupor
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Neurotic affective
D. Paranoia
634. The compulsive desire to drink alcohol is called

A. insomnia
B. cutaneous
C. dipsomania
D. erotomania
635. The view that males must separate their sexual feelings from needs for affection, love
and respect is called
A. Virility mystique
B. Oedipus complex
C. Megalomania
D. Melancholia
636. When a person persistently believes on some things that do not correspond with reality,
the person is suffering from
A. delusion
B. depression
C. illusion
D. hallucination
637. Man has a juridical capacity and capacity to act. From the choices below which best
describes Temperate Damages:
A. the compensation awarded to a person’s physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious
anxiety, besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation, and similar
injury (Moral Damages)
B. The compensation awarded to a person for such pecuniary loss suffered by him as he has
duly proved (Actual or Compensatory Damages)
C. The amount awarded to a victim in order that his right that had been violated or invaded may
be restored or recognized (Nominal Damages)
D. Moderate damages; The compensation that is more than nominal but less than
compensatory damages given to a person when the court finds that he has suffered some
pecuniary loss, but its amount cannot, from the nature of the case, be proved with certainty
638. An individual with strongly self-centered pattern of emotion, fantasy and thought.
A. Delusion
B. Extrovert
C. Hallucination
D. Introvert
639. A person jumps out of the window to his death because he believes he can fly is _______.
A. Psychotic
B. Mental retardate
C. Neurotic
D. Pyromanic
640. It is a means to describe the form of criminal behavior

A. Sociology
B. Typology
C. Psychology
D. Psychiatric
641. It refers to all types of internal forces which may prevent a person from committing a
crime.
A. Contact with reality
B. Internal Inhibition
C. Need frustration
D. Situational crime potential
642. Is the result or product of interplay of biology, psychology, and culture, just is as normal
personality
A. Schizophrenia
B. psychoses
C. neurosis
D. split mind
643. Presenting a sophisticated topic in front of your classmate will fall on what specific type of
stress.
A. brief naturalistic stress
B. acute time
C. short term stress
D. long term stress
644. A type of depression that takes a long time but with less depressive symptoms.
A. major depressive disorder
B. psychotic disorder
C. SAD
D. dysthymia
645. It is not common as major depression or even dysthymia and sometimes being referred to
as an illness which is manic-depressive in nature.
A. Bipolar disorder
B. psychotic depression
C. endogenous depression
D. reactive depression
646. As to the types of long term stress, this may have a long-lasting effects on the emotional
and mental health of the person.
A. Distant stress
B. distant stressor
C. chronic stress
D. stressful event sequence
647. This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.

A. Schizophrenia
B. psychosis
C. neurosis
D. split mind
648. Which behavior is characterized by the attempts of committing suicide.

A. Maladaptive behavior
B. psychosi
C. somatoform disorder
D. dissociative disorder
649. Taking the licensure examination for criminologists. The statement best describes:
A. brief naturalistic stress
B. acute time
C. short term stress
D. long term stress
650. A 27 years old man having a mental capacity of a 4 years old child is considered as mentally
retarded that falls of what particular category?
A. moron
B. idiot
C. imbecile
D. dull-minded
651. It is the absence of thought disorder and usually there will be a misled in thinking and the
perceiving of objects.
A. Hallucination
B. Delusion
C. Psychoses
D. Neurosis
652. It develops itself from the pleasure and pain level and from the discovery that the behavior
of the seat of psychic energy can have boring results.
A. ID
B. Ego
C. Superego
D. Awareness
653. Mario has a strong sexual desire for women but could not show it so he started painting
nude pictures. The statement best describes:
A. sublimation
B. displacement
C. suppression
D. projection
654. Which of the following is true about depression?

A. it could be functional or dysfunctional
B. will not happen to those families without history of it
C. Close of interest on things in life
D. most common on the four sources of frustration
655. “A man will not be responsible for an act if he does not know what he is doing”. This state
is a notion coming from what presumption rule?
A. product test
B. presumption of sanity
C. presumption of insanity
D. irresistible impulse
656. According to Stephen Schafer's (1968) typology classifies victims on the basis of their
“functional responsibility", those Biologically weak victims, Socially weak victims, Unrelated
victims and Political victim has no responsibility while Provocative victims shares responsibility
and precipitative victims have some degree of responsibility, how about self-victimization?
A. No responsibility
B. Some degree of responsibility
C. Shares responsibility
D. Total Responsibility
657. Arresting a suspect without a warrant of arrest may tantamount to;

A. Neglect of duty
B. Nonfeasance
C. Malfeasance
D. Misfeasance
658. The best interest of the child shall be paramount ____ in all actions concerning them,
whether undertaken by public or social welfare institution, courts of law administrative
authorities and legislative bodies, consistent with the principle of first call for children.
A. Consideration
B. Attention
C. Precaution
D. Measure
659. What do you call those reported instances of crimes recorded in a systematic classification
according to the set standard adopted by the law enforcement agency?
A. Crime statistics
B. Crime index
C. Data index
D. Customized Index
660. Which among the justice prevails when people obtains from law what they deserve to
have?
A. Justice as law
B. Justice as substance
C. Justice as law as all
D. Justice as equality
661. This is the institution necessary in transforming the unrefined mind of child. They used
instruments to achieve goals and objectives in the development of child?
A. Church
B. Family
C. DSWD
D. School
662. Kardo went to canteen to buy snacks ,but he forgot his wallet in the desk in the room.
Suddenly RJ sees Kardo’s wallet and he get the bag, laptop, and tablet of Kardo, no one see
what RJ do. What crime dis RJ do?
A. Acquisitive
B. Extinctive
C. Seasonal
D. Situational
663. The type of killer that run on a certain group of people as their target. They believe to
unworthy people, the statement is referring to a mission oriented killer but how about to
excitement?
A. Mission-oriented
B. Lust killer
C. Thrill oriented
D. Missionary motive killer
664. What do we call to the proceeding case by the juvenile court officer? This may be based by
commitment to the court, police report or because a minor is the offender.
A. Intake
B. Preview
C. Overtake
D. Re-investigate
665. What kind of parents when they are harm but firm wherein they set standard for the child
conduct but expectation consistent developing care and capabilities?
A. Indulgent parents
B. Authoritarian parents
C. Authoritative parents
D. Indifference parents
666. Cases involving child abuses shall be heard or tried at _______.

A. Regional Trial Court
B. Supreme Court
C. Municipal Trial Court
D. Family Courts
667. If a youthful offender has a good conduct while in custody of DSWD or training institution
and has shown his capability to be useful member of the community, his case shall be ____.
A. Remanded to the court
B. Remanded to the fiscal’s office
C. Decided with finally the court
D. Dismissed and offender finally discharged
668. Jose is a student of one university, one time, the University Administrator saw him smoking
inside the campus, while the Administrator telling him not to do so because it is in violation to
University's regulation, Jose violently uttered bad words and resent the Administrator. In what
type of delinquent youth Jose belong?
A. Neurotic – internalized his conflicts
B. Asocial- cold, brutal
C. Social – resents authority
D. Accidental – wrong time and place
669. Petra Mercado is a kind of hunchback girl, every time she will go out with her friends; she
always felt that she is a normal person because her friends make her feel it. What approach
towards delinquency is this?
A. Neurogenic
B. Sociogenic
C. Biogenic
D. Psychogenic
670. Generally, the specific act to delinquent is ______.

A. A symptom of a more complex problem
B. A problem to be ignored
C. Un-assumed to child’s problem
D. A beginning of a criminal career
671. Restricting or prohibiting the child to mingle with other persons as means of depriving
his/her liberty for socialization is an example of _____.
A. Emotional abuse
B. Psychological abuse
C. Physical abuse
D. Mental abuse
672. The Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA) is responsible in suppressing drug cases
here in the Philippines. What is the mother agency of PDEA?
A. Office of National Defense
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of the Interior and Local Government
D. Office of the President
673. In human personality which of the following can differentiate reality from fantasy?
A. ID
B. Ego
C. Superego
D. Super ID
674. Turf in the parlance of gang members refers to ____.

A. Territory where a gang operates
B. Activities of a gang in a certain condition
C. Rituals and practices honored by gang members
D. Form of discipline imposed to erring members of gang
675. Which of the following constitutes a waiver of any irregularity attending arrest?
A. Posting bail
B. Filing a petition for bail
C. Entering a plea
D. All of the above
676. What is the most influential environmental factor that affects the behavior of the child?
A. School
B. Family
C. Delinquent peers
D. Church
677. In Sigmund Freud’s psychological development, in phallic stage, the libido focuses on what?
A. Bowel and bladder control
B. Mouth Area
C. Genitals
D. Sexual Interest
678. In marital rape, if the offender (husband) was forgiven by the offended party (wife), what
will happen to the criminal liability of the accused?
A. It will be extinguished
B. It will be mitigated
C. It will be pursued
D. It will not affected
679. Before the conduct of rescue operation of minors, the police officer should coordinate
with the following agency, except _____.
A. DSWD
B. DOJ
C. DOLE
D. Barangay Officials
680. The legal duty of prosecuting officer to file charges against whomsoever the evidence may
show to be responsible for the offender means that _____.
A. Prosecutor has no discretion at all
B. Prosecutor has all the discretion
C. Discretion in determining evidence submitted justifies a reasonable belief that a person
committed an offense
D. The police report will be the basis for filling of charges
681. When the charges for offense are found on the same facts or that which form part of a
series of offense of the same character, the court may decide to _____.
A. Obviate by continuing proceedings
B. Set the cases for consolidate case raffle
C. Pursue separate trials
D. Consolidate raffles
682. What is the effect of the death of the offended party in a criminal action for libel?
A. No effect at all
B. The criminal liability is partially extinguished
C. The criminal liability is extinguished
D. The criminal liability is not extinguished
683. What are the three existing factors to develop criminal and anti-social behavior?
A. Biological, psychological, and environment
B. Biological, cultural, and education
C. Sociological, psychological, and education
D. Socio-economic, political, and cultural
684. Julian Valero a child who frustrated in this particular stage will tend to become optimistic.
A. Oral stage
B. Anal Stage
C. Genital Stage
D. Latency Stage

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Comprehension Questions (COR AD)

1. The following are the characteristics of the Classical School of Criminology;

4. The positivists maintained that crime as any other act is ______

9. Cesare Lombroso focuses on biological while Raffaele Garofalo on Psychological determinism

14. What is innate to man when desire and capability is present?

16. The bio-psychosocial model of crime causation is an example of ____

May advantage kasi ang crime

32. Lack of skill is _______.

35. What is the difference between dolo and culpa?

36. Adultery and other offense is an example of

Walang complex crime kasi slight physical injury lang.

Note: Ordinary – Not require specialized or technical skill.

43. Graft and corrupt practices is an example of ____

57. They Kill in order to “rid” society of a certain group.

58. This is the most common form of serial murderer

70. Which is known as RA 11131?

73. Registered criminologist is a/an, except:

10 years – practice of profession

86. It is aimed at gaining knowledge or understanding to determine the means by which a

87. Kardo wanted to understand concepts, opinions, or experiences. If he is going to gather in

Wala kang binabago, dinidescribe mo lang.

102. The last paragraph of introduction should state that ________

Bakit mahalaga ang research problem na to.

103. The definition of terms must be arranged ________

116. Which Philippine law penalizes plagiarism?

126. Who among the following do/does not deserve an authorship.

128. If there is a conflict of interests in making a research, one should _____

Lahat ng yan ay nagaguide per piliin mo ang main.

131. It is the very first step in writing a research.

Tingnan mo saan ka muna interesado bago ka magkaroon ng problema

135. The main goal of a statement of the problem is _______

136. A component of problem statements that intended to establish a baseline of accepted

140. The type of research problem depends on ______

142. It is a non-systematic problem, involving the practical use of theoretical knowledge.

145. When to start reviewing related literature?

150. The following are some of the purpose of a research design.

Pag nauna ang qualitative follows the quantitative

Pag nauna ang quantitative follows the qualitative

165. In research, such as a questionnaire or a measuring device, like a weighing scale or a

170. It is a complete analysis of scholarly sources on a selected topic of study. It is crafted to

184. The 3 stages of theory development are _____

188. Hydraulic model is also referred to as _____ theory.

219. It is the objective, rational part of the personality.

229. According to Abraham Maslow, this is the most important needs.

230. Refers to the characteristics of an individual, describing a habitual way of behaving,

235. Which of the following is the true psychopath?

256. It is characterized by immaturity, excitability, emotional instability and self-dramatization.

257. It is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance and pre-occupation with

260. A response to obvious stress characterized by amnesia, multiple personality, and

275. What is this ability to go on despite the tremendous adversity?

281. What is the primary responsibility of registered criminologist?

286. Primary attribute for effective leadership.

Correct Answer: Morality

297. Designed to influence public opinion in favor of the police force.

320. An institution, whose primary purpose is education, is deemed to be a child-caring

325. As a general rule, children below 15 years old shall _______

332. The goal of any juvenile justice system is _____.

340. The primary mode of intervention.

343. Under RA 9344, JJWC is hereby created ________

344. A child committed drug related offense punished with______imprisonment shall be