Form 2 Endterm 2 Set 3 (Qa) Exams

F2 ENDTERM 2 SET 3 EXAM
ALL SUBJECTS
A Series of Assessment Questions Covering the
Syllabus upto end of term 2 as per the
Curriculum design
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KENYA CERTIFICATE OF SECONDARY EDUCATION
AGRICULTURE FORM TWO

ENDTERM 2 SET 3 EXAM
{THE QUALITY ASSURANCE SERIES}
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name, admission number and class in the space provided.
• This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C
• Answer all the questions in sections A, B and C in the spaces provided.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
SECTION QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATE’S

SCORE
A 1 – 16 30
B 17 – 22 30
C 23 – 24 40
TOTAL 100
SECTION A (20 MARKS)
Answer All The Questions In This Section
1. State the two main farming systems practiced in Kenya. (2 mks)
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2. State four reasons for ridging in potato production. (2 mks)
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3. State three effects of low temperature on crop production. (1 ½ mks)
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4. Outline three effects of soil organisms which benefit crop growth. (3 mks)
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5. Give four features of plastic pipes a farmer should consider before buying the pipes
(2 mks)
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6. Define the following terms as used in Agricultural Economics. (2 mks)
a) Scarcity
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b) Opportunity cost
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7. State the functional difference between a pruning saw and a sickle. (2 mks)
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8. State two main functions of the crop in the digestive system of poultry. (1 mk)
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9. Give three symptoms of excessive nitrogen in plants. (1 ½ mks)
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10. Name two main categories of tomatoes. (1mks)
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11. Name the following vitamins:
i) Its deficiency leads to retarded growth, poor eyesight and reduced resistance to
diseases. (1 mk)
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ii) Found in whole grains and can be synthesized by micro- organisms in the rumen.
(1mk)
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iii) Helps in reproduction and its deficiency causes sterility and premature birth. (1mk)
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12. State four factors that determine the type of irrigation to be used in an area. (2 mks)
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13. List four tick borne diseases. (2 mks)

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14. Give four desirable characteristics of bos indicus. (2 mks)

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15. Give four characteristics that make a crop suitable for green manuring.(2 mks)
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16. State two methods used in training crops. (1 mk)
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SECTION B (30 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section.
17. Study the illustration below and answer the questions that follow.
a) Identify the equipment represented by the illustration. (1 mk)

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b) What is the use of the equipment. (1 mk)
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c) Name the parts labeled H,J,L and give their functions. (3 mks)
H–
J–
L–
18. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.
a) Identify the method of propagation illustrated. (1 mk)

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b) Outline the procedure followed when carrying out the above practice. (4 mks)
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19. The diagram below illustrates some parasites study them and answer the questions that
follow.
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a) Identify the parasite A,B,C (3 mks)
A
B
C
b) Name the part of the host where the parasites A and B are found. (1 mk)
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c) Name the intermediate host of parasite C. (1 mk)
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20. A farmer is required to prepare 100 kg of ration of 30% digestible crude protein (DCP)
from simsim seed cake containing 50% DCP and maize meal 10% DCP. Using Pearson’s
square method, calculate the amount of simsim and maize the farmer requires. (5 mks)
21. The figure below illustrates the external parts of a cow.
a) Name all the parts labeled A to H. (4 mks)

A E
B F
C G
D H
b) State one function of the part labeled H. (1 mk)
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22. A farmer spreads lime on the soil at the rate of 0-.3 kg per m2.
a) How much lime will be needed for one hectare of land? (2 mks)
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b) How will adding lime affect the PH of the soil. (1 mk)

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c) What is the benefit of adding lime to clay soil. (2 mks)
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SECTION C (40 MARKS)
ANSWER TWO QUESTIONS FROM THIS SECTION IN THE SPACES PROVIDED
23. a) State and explain six field management practices carried out in tomato production.
(12 mks)
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b) State the role of each of the following components of the compost manure. (4 mks)
i) Farm yard manure
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ii) Maize stalks

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iii) Wood ash

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iv) Top soil

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c) Give four factors that should be considered when siting the compost pit.
(4 mks)
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24. a) Describe the life cycle of a two host tick. (10 mks)
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b) Outline five preventive measures used to control livestock diseases.
(5 mks)
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Compare the differences of the Ruminants and non-ruminants (5 mks)
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BIOLOGY FORM TWO

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS
1. All Questions are Compulsory
2. Write your Answers in the Spaces Provided
3. Wrong Spelling of Technical Terms shall be Penalized
Max Student’s
Score Score
80

1. Define the following terms as used in biological studies
a) Species
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b) Diastema
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2. a) Identify the function of a microscope shown by the arrow in the diagram below
Identity ………………………………………………………………………………(1mk
b) Give the importance of the concept identified in a) in microscope work
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c) State the formula for calculation of magnification when using a light microscope
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3. a) Why do carnivores have a shorter alimentary canal compared to herbivores?

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b) Give TWO reasons why digestion of starch stops in the stomach of animals
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4. a) State the function of the following (2mks

i) Epiglottis
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ii) Pericardial membrane
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b) Fill the table below to show the differences between smooth endoplasmic reticulum
and rough endoplasmic reticulum (2mks
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Rough endoplasmic reticulum
5. State the importance of the following in photosynthesis (2mks

a) Xylem tissue
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b) Leaves having very thin leaf lamina
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6. The following are apparatus used in biological studies

Z
X Y
State the importance of the labelled parts to the function of the apparatus shown: (2mks
i) Part W……………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Part Z ……………………………………………………………………………………
7. The diagram below is a sketch of biological process
Enzyme K
Fatty Acid + C Lipid + D
a) Identify compounds labeled (2mks

C ………………………………………………………………………………………..
D ………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) State TWO conditions that can denature enzyme K (2mks
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8. Explain why the following happen in a human body during mountain climbing
a) The number of red blood cells increase (2mks
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b) The blood vessels within the nose may burst leading to nose bleeding (1mk
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9. a) Under what condition is fat used as a source of energy in a human body

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b) State TWO reasons to explain why children require more energy-rich food than adults
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10. a) While using a light microscope, Susan observed 10 cells along the diameter of a field of
view with a radius of 3mm. Calculate the estimated diameter of one cell
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b) Give TWO advantages of using an electron microscope in biological studies
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11. Study the photomicrograph shown below to answer the questions that follow
a) Give TWO reasons why the illustration above is a plant cell

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…...........................................................................................................................(2mks
b) Explain how part Q is important to the function of a root hair cell
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12. a) State TWO adaptive features that increase surface area in the ileum (2mks

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b) Give TWO functions of the operculum in a fish

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13. James wrote the scientific name of an organism as VIBRO cholerae

a) Write the scientific name above correctly using the rules of binomial nomenclature
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b) What is the advantage of referring to organisms by their scientific names
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14. State TWO ways osmosis is important to the body of a dog (2mks
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15. The following diagram is a cross-section of blood vessels
a) Identify the blood vessel labelled (2mks

i) R ………………………………………………………………………………..
ii) S ………………………………………………………………………………..

b) Which letter represents the blood vessel that: (2mks
i) Carries blood of high pressure …………………………………………………
ii) Has valves along its length …………………………………………………….
16. The diagram shown below represents cross section of stems of different plants
P Q
a) Which letter represents the stem of a monocot plant (1mk
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b) Give a reason for your answer in a) above (1mk
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c) State TWO ways in which Q will differ with a section of the root of the same plant
Q Root
(2mks
17. The set up shown below can be used to demonstrate a given physiological process
a) State the expected result on the level of sucrose solution in the straw (1mk
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b) Account for your answer in a) above (2mks

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18. a) Explain why
i) it is important to screen blood before transfusion (1mk
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ii) A person of blood group B can not receive blood from a blood group A donor (2mks
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19. The diagram below is a skull of an animal
a) Identify the mode of feeding of the animal represented above (1mk

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b) Give a reason for your answer in a) above (1mk
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c) Label the following parts in the diagram above (2mks
i) incisor
ii) carnassial tooth
20. a) Distinguish between pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation (2mks

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b) What is the importance of interventricular septum to the functioning of the heart (1mk
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21. Study the set up shown below and answer the questions that follow
a) Account for the observation made on the rate of movement of the air bubble when the
setup is transferred to a windy area (2mks
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b) Why is it advisable to cut the leafy shoot under water (1mk
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22. Protein digesting enzymes like trypsin and pepsin are released in their inactive forms in
the alimentary canal
a) What is the biological significance of this? (1mk
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b) Name the compounds that convert these compounds to their active forms (2mks
i) Trypsinogen …………………………………………………………………………
ii) Pepsinogen ………………………………………………………………………….

23. Give TWO adaptations of the alveolus to its function (2mks
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24. Study the experimental setup shown below
a) What was the aim of the experiment? (1mk

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b) Account for the expected observation in test tube B (2mks
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25. Study the graph shown below
a) Account for the rate of enzymatic reaction in the A-B direction (2mks
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b) Give TWO limiting factors at B-C (2mks
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26. Consider the experimental set up shown below
Account for the results obtained in test tube B in case boiled yeast was used (2mks
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The
End

BUSINESS STUDIES FORM TWO

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
- Answer all questions in the spaces provided

1. State four ways in which business studies is important to an individual (4 Marks)
i) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. Highlight four ways in which the COVID-19 pandemic has negatively impacted the
matatu industry in Kenya (4 Marks)
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iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. State four characteristics of human wants (4 Marks)
i) …………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) …………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. Classify each of the following activities in its appropriate level of production. (4mks)
Activities Level of production
i)Farming
ii)Entertainment
iii)Nursing
iv)Road construction
5. Highlight four circumstances under which a trader may transport his goods by air
(4 Marks)
i) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. State four characteristics of economic resources. (4mks)
i) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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7. Name the document described in each of the following statements (4 Marks)
a) Used to politely ask for payment before goods are delivered

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b) Used to inform the buyer that the order has been received and is being worked on
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c) Used to correct and undercharge
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d) Used to acknowledge a debt
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8. Outline four reasons why one would prefer a letter to a telephone to send a message.
(4 Marks)
i) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. State four advantages of using a cheque to make a payment compared to cash (4 Marks)
i) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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10. Identify the office equipment described in each of the statements below (4 Marks)
a) Used to make postage stamp impressions on envelopes

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b) Used to transmit verbal messages
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c) Used to store confidential documents and valuable items
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d) Used to record and store information in audio tapes
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11. State four features of a private limited company (4 Marks)

i) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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12. State four roles of an entrepreneur in production. (4 Marks)

i) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. Outline four benefits that a consumer get from warehousing. (4mks)
i) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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14. Highlight four functions of the Kenya External trade Authority (KETA) (4 Marks)
i) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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15. State the unit of carriage for each of the following modes of transport. (4 Marks)
Mode of transport Unit of carriage
a)Porterage
b)Sea
c)Cartage
d)Air

16. State four limitations of consumer initiated methods in protecting consumers from
exploitation by some traders. (4 Marks)
i) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv) ………………………………………………………………………………………
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17. Explain five factors that may limit entrepreneurial growth in Kenya (10 Marks)
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18. Discuss five circumstances under which a partnership may be dissolved. (10 Marks)
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19. State and explain any four types of wholesalers (8 Marks)

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20. Explain four essentials a good warehouse (8 Marks)

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CHEMISTRY FORM TWO

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS:
• Write your name and other details on the space provided above
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided for each question.
• All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
• Mathematical tables and non-programmable electronic calculators may be used.
For Examiners Use Only
Questions Total marks Student’s score

1 - 27 80
This paper consists of 10 printed pages. Students should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

1. Draw a diagram of the apparatus used to measure accurately 250 cm3 of liquids or
solutions.
(1 mark)
2. In the laboratory, there are two types of flames; with reasons, state which flame is used
for:
(a) Heating………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) Lighting………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. Define the term drug abuse. (1 mark)
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4. Shanty accidentally mixed iron fillings, iron (III) chloride crystals and sulphur powder.
Describe how she would obtain each of the substances separately. (3 marks)
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5. Classify the following as either chemical or physical changes. (5 marks)
Process Type of change

Electrical conductivity by copper wire
Rusting of an iron nail
Sublimation of iodine
Burning candle wax
Attraction of iron filings by a magnet

6. Matter exists in three states. Describe how particles behave in each state according to
kinetic theory of matter.
(a) Solid state: (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Liquid state: (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) Gaseous state: (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Explain how acid rain can be formed. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Solutions may be classified as strongly basic, weakly basic, neutral, weakly acid, or
strongly acidic. The information below gives solutions and their pH values. Study it and
answer the questions that follow.
Classify the solutions in the table using the stated classifications. (2 Marks)
Solution pH value Nature of solution

B 0.5
C 6
9. A farmer tested soil in his farm and found out that its pH was 5.5. This was below the
recommended pH of 7.0. Suggest how the farmer could achieve the recommended pH of
soil in his fam. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
10. Name three gaseous components of unpolluted air. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. (a) Zinc reacts with dilute sulphuric (VI) acid to produce a colourless gas. Write an
equation for the reaction. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Describe a test for the colourless gas. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. The set – up below was used to obtain a sample of iron metal.
(a) Write two equations for the reactions which occur in the combustion tube. (2 marks)
Equation 1:
.........................................................................................................................................................
Equation 2:
.........................................................................................................................................................
(b) Name the gas collected in the gas jar. ...…………………………………… (1 mark)
(c) Give two uses of carbon (II) oxide that are also uses of hydrogen. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
13. (a) Name one natural source of water for a chemical industry. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Kerosene is a hydrocarbon. Name the product of burning kerosene that is a liquid at
room temperature. …………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
(c) Metal Y can displace metal X from its oxide. Hydrogen can reduce the oxide of metal
X. Metal X does not react with water, while metal Y reacts with water moderately. Metal
Z reacts with explosively with water. Arrange the metals and hydrogen from the most
reactive. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. The set-up below was used to prepare a gas Q.
(a) Complete the diagram to show how a dry sample of gas Q may be collected. (2 marks)
(b) Give a reason why calcium is not the most appropriate metal for use in this preparation.
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Write an equation for the reaction for the formation of gas Q. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
15. Complete the key shown below for sub atomic particles. (3 marks)

Key
A …………………………………
B…………………………………
C …………………………………
16. The relative atomic mass of

element Y which consists of the isotopes 20Y and 22Y is 20.2. Calculate the percentage of
the atoms in the isotopic mixture. (3 marks)
17. The ionic radii of the ions of Q and R are given as follows: Q2+ = 2,8,8 and R- = 2,8.
(a) Complete the table below: (2 marks)
Element Group Period
Q
R
(b) Write the formula of the product formed when Q and R react. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. The halogens are a group of non-metals in Group VII of the Periodic Table.
(a) Describe an experiment which shows that chlorine is more reactive than iodine. Include a
chemical equation in your answer. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State two observations made when warm sodium metal in a deflagrating spoon is
lowered in a gas jar full of chlorine gas? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Write an equation for the reaction in (b) above. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. The following table gives the number of protons in the nucleus of some elements. The
letters do not represent the actual symbols of elements. Use it to answer the questions
that follow.
Element E F G H I J K L
Number of 3 12 6 17 10 19 14 35
protons
(a) Which elements belong to the same group of the periodic table? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) How will the reactivity of element F compare with that of element E? Explain. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. The atomic numbers of elements X and W are 11 and 16 respectively.

(a) Write the electronic arrangements of the elements. (1 mark)
Element X…………………………………… Element W…………………………………
(b) Predict the type of bonding in the product formed if elements W and X were to be reacted.
Give the formula of the resulting compound. (2 marks)
Type of bond…………………………………… Formula of compound ………………………
21. The table below show the physical properties of some substances. Use it to answer the
questions that follow.
(a) Which substance is likely to be; (1 mark)

(i) A metal? …………………………… (ii) A liquid at 22oC? ………………………….
(b) Which substance is likely to have the following structures? (3 marks)
(i) Simple molecular structure …………………………………………………………….
(ii) Giant ionic structure ………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Giant atomic structure ……………………………………………………………………
22. The diagram below shows the apparatus used for the electrolysis of molten sodium
bromide.
(a) What does the term electrolysis mean? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Which letter R, S, T or U on the diagram represents the cathode? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) State the observation made at the anode. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(d) Which condition is missing in the set-up? …………………………………… (1 mark)

(e) Write the half equation for the reaction at: (2 marks)
(i) Cathode: …………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Anode: ……………………………………………………………………………………….
23. Name the instrument that is used to accurately determine the relative atomic masses of
elements. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. Sketch a heating curve to illustrate the heating curve of pure water from 20oC to boiling.
(1 mark)
25. Name the type of bond and structure of each of the following: (2 marks)
(a) Aluminium
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Silicon
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Chlorine
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Diamond
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
26. Using iodine molecule, illustrate the difference between covalent bonds and weak Van
der Waals forces of attraction. (2 marks)

27. Use dot (.) and cross (x) to show bonding in tetrachloromethane (carbon tetrachloride)
CCl4 (2 marks)

CHEMISTRY FORM TWO

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS:
• Write your name and other details on the space provided above
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided for each question.
• All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
• Mathematical tables and non-programmable electronic calculators may be used.
For Examiners Use Only
Questions Total marks Student’s score

1 - 27 80
This paper consists of 10 printed pages. Students should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as

1. Draw a diagram of the apparatus used to measure accurately 250 cm3 of liquids or
solutions.
(1 mark)
2. In the laboratory, there are two types of flames; with reasons, state which flame is used
for:
(a) Heating………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
(b) Lighting………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
3. Define the term drug abuse. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Shanty accidentally mixed iron fillings, iron (III) chloride crystals and sulphur powder.
Describe how she would obtain each of the substances separately. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. Classify the following as either chemical or physical changes. (5 marks)
Process Type of change

Electrical conductivity by copper wire
Rusting of an iron nail
Sublimation of iodine
Burning candle wax
Attraction of iron filings by a magnet

6. Matter exists in three states. Describe how particles behave in each state according to
kinetic theory of matter.
(a) Solid state: (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Liquid state: (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(c) Gaseous state: (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Explain how acid rain can be formed. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Solutions may be classified as strongly basic, weakly basic, neutral, weakly acid, or
strongly acidic. The information below gives solutions and their pH values. Study it and
answer the questions that follow.
Classify the solutions in the table using the stated classifications. (2 Marks)
Solution pH value Nature of solution

B 0.5
C 6
9. A farmer tested soil in his farm and found out that its pH was 5.5. This was below the
recommended pH of 7.0. Suggest how the farmer could achieve the recommended pH of
soil in his fam. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
10. Name three gaseous components of unpolluted air. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. (a) Zinc reacts with dilute sulphuric (VI) acid to produce a colourless gas. Write an
equation for the reaction. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Describe a test for the colourless gas. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. The set – up below was used to obtain a sample of iron metal.
(a) Write two equations for the reactions which occur in the combustion tube. (2 marks)
Equation 1:
.........................................................................................................................................................
Equation 2:
.........................................................................................................................................................
(b) Name the gas collected in the gas jar. ...…………………………………… (1 mark)
(c) Give two uses of carbon (II) oxide that are also uses of hydrogen. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
13. (a) Name one natural source of water for a chemical industry. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) Kerosene is a hydrocarbon. Name the product of burning kerosene that is a liquid at
room temperature. …………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
(c) Metal Y can displace metal X from its oxide. Hydrogen can reduce the oxide of metal
X. Metal X does not react with water, while metal Y reacts with water moderately. Metal
Z reacts with explosively with water. Arrange the metals and hydrogen from the most
reactive. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. The set-up below was used to prepare a gas Q.
(a) Complete the diagram to show how a dry sample of gas Q may be collected. (2 marks)
(b) Give a reason why calcium is not the most appropriate metal for use in this preparation.
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Write an equation for the reaction for the formation of gas Q. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
15. Complete the key shown below for sub atomic particles. (3 marks)

Key
A …………………………………
B…………………………………
C …………………………………
16. The relative atomic mass of

element Y which consists of the isotopes 20Y and 22Y is 20.2. Calculate the percentage of
the atoms in the isotopic mixture. (3 marks)
17. The ionic radii of the ions of Q and R are given as follows: Q2+ = 2,8,8 and R- = 2,8.
(a) Complete the table below: (2 marks)
Element Group Period
Q
R
(b) Write the formula of the product formed when Q and R react. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. The halogens are a group of non-metals in Group VII of the Periodic Table.
(a) Describe an experiment which shows that chlorine is more reactive than iodine. Include a
chemical equation in your answer. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State two observations made when warm sodium metal in a deflagrating spoon is
lowered in a gas jar full of chlorine gas? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Write an equation for the reaction in (b) above. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. The following table gives the number of protons in the nucleus of some elements. The
letters do not represent the actual symbols of elements. Use it to answer the questions
that follow.
Element E F G H I J K L
Number of 3 12 6 17 10 19 14 35
protons
(a) Which elements belong to the same group of the periodic table? (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) How will the reactivity of element F compare with that of element E? Explain. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. The atomic numbers of elements X and W are 11 and 16 respectively.

(a) Write the electronic arrangements of the elements. (1 mark)
Element X…………………………………… Element W…………………………………
(b) Predict the type of bonding in the product formed if elements W and X were to be reacted.
Give the formula of the resulting compound. (2 marks)
Type of bond…………………………………… Formula of compound ………………………
21. The table below show the physical properties of some substances. Use it to answer the
(a) Which substance is likely to be; (1 mark)

(i) A metal? …………………………… (ii) A liquid at 22oC? ………………………….
(b) Which substance is likely to have the following structures? (3 marks)
(i) Simple molecular structure …………………………………………………………….
(ii) Giant ionic structure ………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Giant atomic structure ……………………………………………………………………
22. The diagram below shows the apparatus used for the electrolysis of molten sodium
bromide.
(a) What does the term electrolysis mean? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Which letter R, S, T or U on the diagram represents the cathode? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) State the observation made at the anode. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(d) Which condition is missing in the set-up? …………………………………… (1 mark)

(e) Write the half equation for the reaction at: (2 marks)
(i) Cathode: …………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Anode: ……………………………………………………………………………………….
23. Name the instrument that is used to accurately determine the relative atomic masses of
elements. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. Sketch a heating curve to illustrate the heating curve of pure water from 20oC to boiling.
(1 mark)
25. Name the type of bond and structure of each of the following: (2 marks)
(a) Aluminium
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Silicon
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Chlorine
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Diamond
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
26. Using iodine molecule, illustrate the difference between covalent bonds and weak Van
der Waals forces of attraction. (2 marks)

27. Use dot (.) and cross (x) to show bonding in tetrachloromethane (carbon tetrachloride)
CCl4 (2 marks)

COMPUTER STUDIES FORM TWO
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
Instructions to candidates:
• This paper has TWO questions.

• Answer all the questions.
• Type your name and index number at the right-hand corner of each printout.
• Write your name and index number on the CD – ROM provided.
• Write the Name and version of software used in each question attempted in the answer sheet.
• Passwords should not be used while saving your work.
• Make a printout of the answers on the answer sheets provided.
• Arrange your print outs and stable them together.
• Hand in all the printouts and the CD – ROM provided.
• This paper consists of 4 printed pages.
• Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed and no questions are
missing

1.(a) Create and enter the data as in the following spreadsheet for form3N students in Bright Star School in
Baringo County and save it as BSSBC. (14marks)
A B C D E F G H I
1 Name English kiswahili maths Biology pyhsics C/Studies Total Average
2 Sally 60 76 42 76 66 77
3 Jane 56 45 53 65 45 72
4 Philip 65 58 47 64 65 46
5 George 56 66 30 85 48 60
6 Mary 74 68 59 83 36 57
7 James 80 72 45 74 54 70
8 Tina 78 55 37 71 63 56
9 Subject
average
Using the above information,
(b) Enter appropriate formulas to compute the Average mark in each subject (3 marks)
(c) Enter the total marks for each student (3 marks)
(d) Enter the Average marks for each student (3 marks)
(e) Format the table as follows:
i. Set the direction of the labels to 45 degrees (2marks)
ii. Centre vertically all the records (2 marks)
(f) Create an embedded bar chart for average mark per subject titled BRIGHT STAR PERFORMANCE in
its own page (8 marks)
(g) Add a column of marks for Chemistry and enter the following data for each student:78,56,67,81,72,68,53
starting from Sally down to Tina (4 marks)
(h) Rank the students starting from those with the highest total mark (3 marks)
(i) In cell I10 count the number of students who scored 490 marks and above. (3marks)
(i) Filter the data using the Biology column and display only those rows with marks less than 80 (3 marks)
(j) Print the worksheet and the graph (2 marks)

2. (A) Type the following passage using a word processing package and save as Network software. Answer
the questions that follow. (26 marks)
NETWORK SOFTWARE
A Computer netwok is a group of computers and other devices connected together by a suitable
media. The computer networks have evolved from simple linking of computers on a common
transmission media to highly managed and optimized data and information transfer systems. This
means that apart from data comunications, the focus is now squarely on how best to utilize network
resources.
C
O
Network software can be classified into two main groups namely: M
1. Network operating systems M
U
2. Network protocol N
I
C
Advantages of computer Networks A
T
I
➢ Multiple users can communicate, exchange and share information O
➢ Resource sharing including program, data base, hardware etc. is possible
N
By definition comunications refers to the transfer of information from one place to another between two
individuals using agreed symbols, signs or even human behavior such as nodding. Exchange of information
relies on a communication system to convert, amplify and send signal through a common medium. Message,
Sender, Medium and Receiver are the essential components of communication systems.
If a system is extended by cascading more communication systems, it is called networked systems.
In case communication involves the sending of information over a significant distance, it must use
telecommunications as an aid. By definition, telecommunications refers to the transmission of information
between distant locations by some electromagnetic means.
Data communications is defined as the interchange and processing of encorded (digital that is, 1s and 0s)
information between distant locations using telecommunications.
Data communications is regarded as the collection and distribution of the electronic representation of
information which can be text, voice, graphics or image, from and to remote computing facilities. As
information can only be carried to the remote site provided that the information carrier supports that
particular type of data transmission, information may undergo data conversion processes if the nature of data
signal is incompatible with the characteristics of the signal carrier.
PROTOCOLS
This are set of rules and procedures that govern communication between two different device or people .
In computer networking, protocols refer to the rules and technical procedures that govern
communication between different computers.
How protocol work

The data transmission process over network has to be broken down into discrete systematic steps. At
each step certain action takes place and each steps has its own procedures as defined by network
protocol. The co-ordination of protocols must be co-ordinated so that there are no conflicts.
COMPARISON AMONG DIFFERENT TOPOLOGIES
Below are the advantages and disadvantages of various LAN topologies.
Type Advantage Disadvantage

Star
Simple and easy to identify fault Failure of central node causes disaster
Topology
Mesh Immunity to bottleneck and failure Expensive to provide an alternative
Topology problems routing
Bus Only a single communications channel
Simple to control traffic flow
Topology is required to service all the nodes
Ring
Simple to implement One channel is required to service all
Topology
(B) :
i. Centre and double underline the title Computer Software (2 marks)
ii. Convert the paragraphs beginning with “By definition communications…..” to the end Into
hanging indent. (4 marks)
iii. Move the paragraph under protocols and paste after the table (2 marks )
iv. Insert and center your name, admission number and the name of your school as a footer so as
to appear © name ,admission number, and the name of your school. (4 marks)
v. Find and telecommunications and replace with Telephones. (3marks)
vi. Insert a picture of a computer and wrap the picture behind the table (4 marks)
vii. Spell check your data for grammatical errors (1 mark)
viii. Save the data as computer communication (2 mks)
ix. Print the document network software and computer communication (2marks)

CRE FORM TWO
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS: ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS
1 a ) Identify eight historical books in the old testament (8mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b ) Identify six responsibilities given to human beings by God in the Genesis stories of creation. (6mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
.

c ) Give six reasons why Christians should forgive. (6mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
.
2 a ) From the Exodus story state how God showed concern for the Israelites in the wilderness (7mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
.
b ) Identify six types of sacrifices and offerings that were given by the Israelites in the wilderness (6mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
c ) Outline the nature of the Canaanite Religion. (7mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3 a ) Outline the message of Angel Gabriel to Mary in Luke 1:26-38 (6mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b ) Describe four activates that took place during the dedication of Jesus in the Temple (Luke 2: 22-40). (8mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c ) Identify six qualities shown by Jesus when He accompanied His parents to the Temple at the age of twelve
(6mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4 a ) State five teachings of Jesus from the sermon on the plain. (5mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b ) Describe the incident in which Jesus calmed the storm (Luke 8:22-25) (10mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c ) What lessons do Christians learn from the temptation s of Jesus.(5mks)
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5 a ) Name six places in which worship took place in Traditional African communities (6mks)
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b) State the traditional African understanding of spirits. (6mks)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c ) What is the responsibility of the living towards the ancestors in traditional African communities (8mks)
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ENGLISH FORM TWO

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
(a) Write your Name and Adm Number in the spaces provided.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided.
(c) Answer all questions in this paper.
(d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided.
(e) This paper consists of 11 printed pages.
(f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as
(g) Candidates must answer all the questions in English.
The paper consists of FOUR sections as follows
SECTION 1 WRITING 20MKS

SECTION 2 COMPREHENSION 20MKS
SECTION 3 ORAL SKILLS 25MKS
SECTION 4 GRAMMAR 15MKS
TOTAL 80MKS

1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING 20 MARKS
You traveled to South Africa three weeks ago for a business trip which would last for three
years. Your younger brother who is in form three has sent you his end of term one results and to
your surprise, he has drastically dropped. Write a letter to your elder who is at home requesting
him to offer pieces of advice to your brother on the poor academic performance.
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2.COMPREHENSION 20 MARKS
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow
Substance Abuse has emerged in recent decades as a major concern both on and off the job.
Although reasons vary, substance abuse can be a way that some people try to manage or reduce
distress.
But it is important to be clear on what is generally meant by a drinking problem. In all cases
related to alcohol abuse, a common factor is the unfavorable effect alcohol has on the health or
well-being of the drinker and his or her associates. Common signs and symptoms that frequently
indicate a drinking problem include being constantly absent from work, causing on-the-job
accidents and expressing grievances most of the time.
Alcoholic employees can sometimes go undetected for years. Coworkers cover up for those
unable to perform their jobs because of drunkenness. Even managers may be adept at concealing
their alcohol abuse problems. Their secretaries or loyal associates may cover up for them.
Alcoholics can be clever at inventing “credible” excuses when detected: “I must have a drink or
two when I’m entertaining customers, of course.”
Drug abuse, or drug addiction, exists when the taking of drugs, whether prescribed or non-
prescribed, legal or illegal, causes difficulties in any area of an individual’s life. Years ago, the
stereotype of the drug user was either of a glazed-eyed musician frantically beating his sticks on
a tight skin or a person who dwelt in a slum. Mass publicity on drug abuse has long since caused
that stereotype to fade from view.
Complicating the ongoing war on drugs are changes in public attitude and drug-use patterns. It
sometimes seems that no sooner is progress made in combating one illegal drug than a different
kind of substance abuse comes into vogue. Ethyl alcohol was the social drug during prohibition
(1920-1933), marijuana became the social drug of the 1960s and 1970s and some observers
believe that crack cocaine and possibly ecstasy – another so-called upper – became the social
drugs of the 1980s and 1990s. The drug of choice and people’s attitude toward them may change,
but the problem of drug abuse appears to be continuing unabated.
Pinpointing the specific symptom of alcohol and drug abuse problems is not a simple task. A
supervisor’s main responsibility therefore should not necessarily be uncovering evidence of
dependency on alcohol and drugs but instead being observant for declining job performance.
Yet there are certain behavioral patterns that some excessive users of alcohol and drugs display.
These patterns can sometimes be spotted through simple observation. Increasingly though,
employers are taking more aggressive steps to ferret out substance abuse among their
workforces. A growing number of companies, especially large ones with many employees and
those in business with potential to effect public health or safety, are adopting drug-testing
programmes.
The signs of alcohol dependency, unfortunately, do not always become manifest until the middle
of the late stages of the problem. No wonder some managers have mistaken an employee’s
euphoric appearance for the “look of love”. The earlier treatment begins, naturally, the earlier
treatment begins, naturally, the easier it will be. A person could experience some isolated
incidents of such drinking problems without necessarily being a alcoholic, however, alcohol
abuse usually results in declining job performance.

Because there are many symptoms of drug abuse, no one person would exhibit all of them and a
supervisor should guard against assuming that the presence of one or more symptoms is
conclusive of alcohol or drug abuse.
Questions
1. What is the main reason given for substance abuse? (2mks)
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2. From paragraph two, state three ways in which alcohol abuse can unfavorably affect the
workmate of a drunker? (3mks)
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3. According to the passage, what is drug abuse? (2mks)

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4. What was the common misconception about who a drug user was? (2mks)
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5. Rewrite the following sentences using “as soon as”
It sometimes seems that no sooner is progress made in combating one illegal drug than a
different kind of substance abuse comes into vogue. (1mk)
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6. What can we infer about “prohibition”? (2mks)

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7. In not more than 55 words, summarize the reasons that make it difficult to effectively
deal with substance abuse. (4mks)
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8. Why do you think the author of the passage cautions supervisors against hastily
concluding that one is a drug abuser? (2mks)
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9. Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage. (2mks)
(i)credible_______________________________________________________________
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3.ORAL SKILLS 25 MARKS
a. Study the oral literature below and answer the questions that follow. (10marks)
Teddy told Terry to tick ten tall ticks.
i. Identify the genre above. (1 marks)

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ii. Which sound features has the above genre employed? Explain any three.
(6marks)
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iii. Give three functions of the genre above (3 marks)
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b. Why is it important to respect people’s personal space? (5 marks)
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c. Underline the silent letter in each of the following words.
(4marks)
i. Fasten-
ii. Salmon-
iii. Logically-
iv. Reign-
d. Which word is pronounced as the each of the following? (2 marks)
i. World-
ii. War-
e. State whether you will use rising or falling intonation in each of the following
sentences (2marks)
i. Come here!
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ii. Did you see the teacher?
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4.GRAMMAR (15 MARKS)
1. Use the correct preposition to fill in the blanks below (4marks)

i. The students were doubtful ___________________ the issue of assured security in
the school compound.
ii. He was attached _________________ the robbery case.
iii. The student was told to admit __________ the mistake or being expelled from school.
iv. Her father finally agreed to insure his tractor ________ against the accident
2. Join the following sentences using appropriate coordinating conjunction.
(3marks)
i. I love to travel. I hate travelling by water.
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ii. He arrived at school late. He left home early.
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iii. You should go to bed now. You will be tired tomorrow.
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3. Underline the noun phrases in each of the following sentences. (3marks)

a. He wishes to see the president.
b. My best friend is Jeff.
c. The girl in black dress is my girlfriend.
4. Complete the sentences below using the most appropriate indefinite pronoun.
(2marks)
a. Does ________________ know her?
b. We will get you ___________________ you are. You can’t hide for long.
5. Change the following sentences into passive voice. (3marks)
a. The mechanic changed the flat tire.
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b. They will send her a dismissal letter.

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c. The terrible news shocked everyone.
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FRENCH FORM TWO

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
Instructions to candidates
1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
4. This paper consists of 9 printed pages.

5. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are
printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.

A. Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow after each passage.
Passage 1
Bonjour Lola,
Comment vas-tu? Je t’écris en france, où j’habite avec ma famille depuis deux mois. Nous allons
bien, nous habitons dans une petite maison ancienne avec un très beau jardin. Nous avons de
nouveaux amis et nous avons rencontré nos voisins pendant une soirée festive la semaine
dernière.
J’ai fait de gros progress en français je le comprends et je sais le parler nien mieux mentainant.
Je suis dentist dans un nouveau cabinet depuis une semaine et j’aimè mon travail. Mes collègues
sont gentils et m’ont bien accueillie. Comme c’est proche, de la maison, je peux y aller, à pied,
c’est très agreeable. Mon mari a enfin trouvé une place d’architecte et travaille sur un important
projet d’immeuble avec son équipe.
A bientôt, je t’embrasse
Sarah.
1. Qui a écrit cette lettre? (1pt)
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2. Elle habite seule en france. (2pts)
Vrai faux
Cochez la bonne réponse.
b) Justifies votre réponse.
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3. Quelle est la profession de Sarah et où travaille -t- elle? (1pt)

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4. Comment va-t-elle au travail? (1pt)
a) en bus
b) à pied
c) en bateau
5. Depuis combien de remps la famille de Sarah vit-elle en france? (1pt)
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6. Décrivez la maison de Sarah. (2pts)
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Passage II
Jules, Paul et Marie sont trois amis très proches. Ils sont toujours ensembles. On les appelle (les
copains inseparables). Jules et Paul ont il ans mais Marie a 10 ans. Ils sont tous dans la meme
école. Leurs matières préférées sont la géographie et le sport. Ils ont souvent de bonnes notes
mais ils ne sont pas très forts en mathématiques.
Cette semaine, ils ont un projet pour le cours de géographie. Leur projet s’appelle (Qu’est- ce
que nous devons faire pour avoir un monde proper?) Les trios amis ont choisi de nettoyer la
rivie’re de leur village para qu’ils adorent cetre rivie’re bleue. En été, ils y nagent et leurs parents
y font de la pêche para qu’il y a beaucoup de poisons dedans. Mais aujourd’hui les trios amis ne

soont pas contents et ils sont très furieux. Ils trouvent beaucoup de déchets dans l’eau. Leur
rivie’re est très sale. Ils se demandent (pourquoi les gens jettent leurs déchets dans la rivière?
Pourquoi les gens sont méchants avec l’environnement?)
1. a) Pourquoi ont-ils choisi la rivie’re de leur village? (2pts)
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2. Complétes lec deux phrases suivantes avec (moins ou pius)
a) Les trios amis sont _______________________ forts en mathématiques qu’en
géographie.
b) Jules et Paul sont _______________________ ages que Marie.
3. Comment s’appelle le projet qu’ils ont? (1pt)
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4. Aujourd’hui les trios amis ne sont contents, ils sont _______________________.
Pourquoi? _______________________ (1pt)
5. Les trios amis sont aux écoles différentes.
Vrai faux. Cochez la bonne réponse.
B. Complete the following sentences with the correct article: à la en, au, aux, à l’ (6pts)
1. Mathilde et Caroline habitant _______________ Lagos.
2. Mes amis et moi allons passer les vacances ______________ Seychelles.
3. Ma tante Sabrina travaille ___________ Ouganda.

4. Mon fre’re va _________________ école à pied chaque jour.
5. Kizito prend un matatu ________________ travail le matin.
6. Je me dépêche _________________ gave pour ne pas rater le train.
C. Rewrite the following sentences in (14pts)
a) Passé compose
b) Future proche
1. Jacquiline descend les escaliers.
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2. Le directeur arrive à neuf heures.
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3. Le bébé tombe par terre.
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4. Papa lit son journal favori.
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5. Les étudiants écrivent des lettre à leurs parents.

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6. Les camarades partent en randonnée en montagner.
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7. Pierre a achète une nouvelle voiture.
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D. Conjugate the verbe in brackets in the present tense (6pts)
1. Les enfants ________________ (boire) du lait avant de dormer.
2. Tous les éhidiants _______________ (finir) les examons de la fin du trimester puis ils
vont en vacances.
3. Pierre ____________________ (pouvoir) parler l’allemand couramment.
4. Je _________________ (vouloir) me coiffer.
5. Nos amis ___________________ nous visiter l’apre’s-midi. (venir)
6. Les élèves _________________ (mettre) leurs cahiers dans les pupitres.
E. Beginning as indicated, rewrite the sentences, avoiding unnecessary repetitions ( le, la,
les, leur, y, en)
Exemple: Tu habites à Kisumu?
Oui, ______________
Oui, j’y habite.
1. Kamau va chez le dentist?

Oui, il ______________________________________
2. Les élèves mangent des casse-croûtes?
Oui, ils _____________________________________
3. Claude parle à Madame Laroche?
Oui, il ______________________________________
4. Est- a que les Martin ont des animaux domestiques?
Non, ils _____________________________________
5. Monsieur le directeur, parle -t -il aux professeurs?
Non, il ______________________________________
6. Aimes -tu les oiseaux?
Oui, je ______________________________________
7. Les enfants regardent la television le matin avant d’aller à l’école?
Non, ils _____________________________________
8. Voulez -vous du chocolat, les enfants?
Biensûr, nous ________________________________
9. Mamie, allons -nous au jardin le soir?
Mais oui, ma petite, nous ___________________________
F. Answer the sentences below using either: oui, si or non (4pts)
1. Tu habites à Paris Jules?
__________________, j’habite à lyon.
2. Pierre n’a pas de sæur?
Mais ___________, il en a trios.
3. M. Dupont, est -il Kenyan?

______________, il vient de Nakuru.
Et monsieur Kilosho?
_____________, il est congolais.
G. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of (l’article partitif) de, de la,
des, du de l’ (6pts)
1. Il n’y a pas ___________________ sucre dans la cuisine.
2. Notre professeur d’anglais nous a donńe _________________ I romans intéressants.
3. Quard je suis fatigue, je prends ________________ café chaud.
4. Maman prépare _____________ salade dans la cuisine.
5. Tu veux ________________ soda?
Non, je préfère ______________ lemonade.
H. Write down the following sentences in the negative form (4pts)
1. Marie va telephoner à ses parents.
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2. Nous avons parlè au directeur.
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3. Je parle français.
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4. Les amis de papa viennent chez nous aujourd’hui.

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5. Elle a deux amis.
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I. Write the following figures in words (4pts)
1. 2021
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2. 1983
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3. 80
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4. 289
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GEOGRAPHY FORM TWO

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS:
a). Write your name, class and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
b). Answer all the questions
c). All answers must be written in the space provided in this booklet.

SECTION A
1. a) What is Environment? 2 mks

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b) Name two scientific theories used to explain the origin of solar system. 2 mks
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2. a) What is Isostacy? 1 mk
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b) Differentiate between lava and magma. 2 mks
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3. a) Name two dates of Equinoxes in a year. 2mks

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b) List down two processes through which atmosphere is heated. 2 mks
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4. a) Name two isothermal layers of atmosphere. 2 mks

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b) Highlight two conditions necessary for the formation of fog. 2 mks
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5. a)i) What is the specific shape of the earth? 2 mks
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ii) At town X on longitude 37oE local time is 1.00 p.m. What time would it be at town Y which is
on longitude 10oW? 3 mks
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b) The diagram below represents the structure of the earth. Use it to answer the questions that
follow.
Mantle
i) Name parts marked. 3 mks

P–
Q–
R–
ii) State two characteristics of mantle. 2 mks

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SECTION B
6. The table below shows four principal crops produced in Kenya in the years 2000, 2001 and
2002. Use it to answer the questions that follow.
CROPS AMOUNT IN METRIC TONS

2000 2001 2002
Maize 200,000 370,000 280,000
Wheat 70,000 130,000 100,000
Coffee 98,000 55,000 80,000
a) Calculate the total crop production for the year 2001. 2 mks
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b) Calculate the percentage increase in coffee production between year 2001 and 2002. 2 mks
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c) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 50,000 metric tons, draw a comparative bar graph to
represent the above data in the graph paper provided. 8 mks
d) State three advantages of using comparative bar graph. 3 mks

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7. a) What is a photograph? 2 mks

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b) Name three types of photographs. 3 mks

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c) Name three major parts of a photograph. 3 mks

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8. The diagram below represents a section of a topographical map. Use it to answer the
26
Q
25
N
24
23
22
21
20
50 51 52 53 54 55 56
a) If one grid square represents 1km2, calculate the area of the forest/shaded part in the above
diagram. 2 mks
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b) i) Give four figure grid reference for letter N. 2 mks

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ii) What is the bearing of letter Q from N? 2 mks
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c) List down three methods of representing relief on topographical maps. 3 mks
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d) Name three expressions of north as used on topographical maps. 3 mks
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e) i) Convert the scale 1:100,000 into a statement scale. 2 mks
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ii) Convert the following statement scale into R.F scale. 2 mks
1cm rep 5km
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9. a) What is faulting. 2 mks
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b) Name three types of faults. 3 mks
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c) Name three block mountains in East Africa. 3 mks

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e) With the aid of well labeled diagram, explain the formation of Rift Valley by tension forces.
7 mks
10. a) State three modes of occurrence of minerals. 3 mks

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b) Give three uses of soda ash. 3 mks

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c) Explain how mining is done using the shaft method. 7 mks
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d) Students in form two from your school are planning to conduct a field study on soda ash
mining in L. Magadi.
i) State three preparations they would make for the study. 3 mks
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ii) Give three methods that they would use to collect data. 3 mks
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iii) State two follow up activities for their study. 2 mks

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HISTORY & GOVERNMENT FORM TWO

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES:
• This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.

• Answer all questions in section A, three questions from section B , and two
questions from section C
• Answers to all questions must be written in a separate booklet provided.
SECTION QUESTIONS MARKS

A 1-17
B 18
19
20
21
C 22
23
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TOTAL
This paper consists of 3 printed pages. Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and
that no questions are missing.

SECTION A (25marks)) (Answer all questions in this section)
1. State one limitation of written sources of information on History and Government (1mk)
2. Identify two ways in which Homo erectus attempted to improve his life (2mks)
3. Name one type of dwelling used by early man during Stone Age period (1mk)
4. Give one reason why early agriculture was done along the river valleys (1mk)
5. State one way in which poor transport has led to food shortage in the Third World (1mk)
6. Name one community in Kenya that belong to the Southern Cushites (1mk)
7. Identify the main reason why the Mijikenda lived in Kayas (1mk)
8. Give two evidence to show that the Chinese reached Kenyan coast before 16th Century (2mks)
9. State two ways in which mission stations promoted the spread of Christianity in Kenya (2mks)
10. Define the term dual citizenship (1mk)
11. Identify one symbol of national unity in Kenya (1mk)
12. Give two main trade items during Trans-Saharan trade (2mks)
13. State two methods used to acquire slaves during West Africa during Trans-Saharan trade (2mks)
14. Outline one way in which development of wheel promoted early transport (1mk)
15. Identify one advantage of using pipeline over vehicles in transporting oil (1mk)
16. Give two uses of bronze in early Egypt (2mks)
17. State the main factor for the growth of Kilwa as an early urban center in Africa (1mk)
SECTION B (45 MARKS) (Answer any three questions in this section)
18 a) State five reasons which influenced the migration of Plain Nilotes to their present homeland in Kenya
(5mks)
b) Explain five results of the migration and settlement of the Maasai during the pre-colonial period (10mks)
19 a) Identify five factors that led to the growth of towns along the Kenyan coast before 19th Century (5mks)
b) Explain five reasons for the decline of the Portuguese rule along the coast in the 19th Century (10mks)
20 a) State five roles of the Tuaregs during the Trans-Saharan trade (5mks)
b) Describe five positive effects of the Trans-Saharan trade on the people of West Africa (10mks)
21 a) Give five reasons why Britain was the first country to industrialize in Europe (5mks)
b) Explain six ways in which the development of iron technology affected African communities (12mks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS) (Answer any two questions in this section)
22 a) State three circumstances under which citizenship by registration can be revoked (3mks)
b) Explain six civic responsibilities of a Kenyan citizen (12mks)
23 a) Give three ways in which education promote national unity in Kenya (3mks)
b) Explain six peaceful ways methods of conflict resolution in the society (12mks)
24 a) Identify three human rights that have no limitations (3mks)
b) Explain six ways in ways in which the Bill of Rights protect rights of the individuals (12mks)

HOME SCIENCE FORM TWO

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
.Instructions to students
a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided
c) This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C
d) Answer all the questions in sections A and B and any two questions from section C
e) Answers to all the questions must be written in the spaces provided in the paper
f) This paper consists of 16 printed pages
g) Students should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing
h) Students should answer the questions in English
For examiner’s use only

Section Question Maximum Score Student’s Score
A 1- 21 40
B 22 20
C 20
20
TOTAL SCORE 100

SECTION A: (40 marks)
Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. State two functions of carbohydrates in the body. ( 2 marks)
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2. Give four disadvantages of using metal spoons when cooking. ( 2 marks )
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3. Identify two reasons why pork should be thoroughly cooked before serving. ( 2 marks )
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4. List two methods of disinfecting loose coloured cottons. ( 1 mark )
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5. Mention three dangers of using medication wrongly. ( 3 marks )
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6. Give two categories of permanent stitches. ( 1 mark )
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7. State two ways of preventing development of dandruff on the scalp. ( 2 marks )
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8. List four substances added to soap to improve its efficiency. ( 2 marks )
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9. Identify two dangers of poor hand hygiene in a school cook. ( 1 mark )
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10. Give two methods of removing dirt from clothes. ( 1 mark )
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11. Mention two reasons for repairing clothes. ( 2 marks )
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12. Identify the two ways man-made fibres are classified. ( 1 mark )
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13. State two ways of maintaining healthy nails. ( 2 marks )
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14. Mention four things that can stain the clothes of a sick person. ( 2 marks )
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15. Identify three signs of worm infestation. ( 3 marks )
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16. Give three reasons why pockets should be emptied before washing. ( 3 marks )
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17. Draw four symbols that may be found on a dark loose coloured cotton shirt. ( 2marks )
18. Outline three dangers of poorly built congested houses in urban areas. ( 3 marks )
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19. Give two differences between a soak pit and a cesspool. ( 2 marks )
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20. Mention two reasons why classroom windows should be kept open during the day. (1 mark )
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21. Identify two reasons for clearing bushes around the home. ( 2 marks )
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SECTION B: (20 marks)
COMPULSORY
Answer question 22 in the spaces provided.

22. Your sister is celebrating her 21st birthday and your parents are throwing a party for her and
her friends
a) Outline the procedure you will follow in cleaning the wooden floor in the dining room.
( 8 marks )
b) Describe how you will clean the silver platter to be used in serving. (5 marks)
c) Give the steps you will follow in laundering her sheer silk blouse for the occasion
(7marks)
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SECTION C: (40 marks)
Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided at the end of this section.
23.
a) Outline five factors that determine the choice of cooking method. (5 marks)
b) Explain three disadvantages of using hard water in laundry. ( 6 marks )
c) Citing an example in each case, give five reasons for cleaning a house. ( 5 marks )
d) Mention four uses of lipids in the body. ( 4 marks )
24.
a) Outline four ways of eliminating malaria infections. ( 4 marks )
b) Give three qualities of a good kitchen knife. ( 3 marks )
c) Mention three ways of maintaining the appearance of clothes. ( 3 marks )
d) Give four ways of avoiding cracks on the feet. ( 4 marks )
e) Discuss three reasons why linen is used in making dish cloths. ( 6 marks)
25.
a) Mention four rules to observe when removing stains. ( 4 marks )
b) Explain four ways of enhancing health in young people. ( 8 marks )
c) Discuss three ways insecurity can lead to malnutrition. ( 6 marks )
d) Give four general information found on a garment care label. ( 2 marks )
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THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

AGRICULTURE FORM TWO
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_______
1. a) State the reasons why mankind needed revelation of the Qur’an. (5mks)
b) Explain the lessons that Muslims can learn from the last three verses of Surah Al-
Bagarah. (7mks)
2. a) Discuss the reasons why the prophet (p.b.u.h) discouraged the writing of Hadith
during his time. (4mks)
b) Give the characteristics of Hadith in the 2nd period of growth and development.
(4mks)
c) Explain the ways in which the swahabas helped in the transmission of Hadith.
(6mks)
3. a) Explain four types of Tawaf. (4mks)

b) State the significances of swalatul ja’mah. (7mks)
4. a) Give the different manifestations of shirk al Akbar. (4mks)

b) Discuss briefly the trials of each of the ulul Azm prophets. (5mks)
c) Mention any six characteristics of angels. (6mks)
5. a) What is the importance of practising Husunul Khulq. (4mks)

b) What are the examples of Munkarat. (4mks)
c) Explain the principals of Islamic morality. (6mks)
6. a) Give five reasons why the family is considered as the foundation of Islamic society.
(5mks)
b) What is the rationale behind the prophets marriages in Islam. (5mks)
7. a) Identify four human rights issues in the Madina constitution that are found in
modern charters and constitutions. (4mks)
b) State five themes found in the prophets farewell speech. (5mks)
c) Derive lessons from the battle of Badr. (5mks)
8. a) Give a brief biography of sheikh Al-Amin Mazrui. (5mks)

b) State the lessons Muslims can learn from sheikh Abdallah Farsy. (5mks)

Tel 0724333200 E-mail kenyaeducators@gmail.com. ORDER MARKING SCHEMES AT
KISWAHILI FORM TWO

NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_______
Maagizo
(a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa juu.
(b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
(c) Jibu maswali yote.
(d) Majibu yote yaandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa.
(e) Majibu yote ni lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
(f) Usitoe ukurasa wowote kutoka kwenye mtihani huu.
(g) Karatasi hii ina kurasa 8 zilizopigwa chapa.
(h) Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa
chapa sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.
Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee.
SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1 15
2 40
3 15
4 10
JUMLA 80

1). UFAHAMU (Alama 15)
Soma Makala yafuatayo kisha ujibu maswali.
Miaka michache iliyopita, kila aliyekuwa amesoma alikuwa na bahati ya kupata kazi katika
ofisi za humu nchini. Wote waliofika darasa la saba au pengine kidato cha pili na zaidi wale
waliofuzu mtihani wa kidato cha nne, walinyakuliwa juu kwa juu na wizara mbalimbali za
serikali au pengine waliandikwa kazi na makampuni. Kwa vile kila mmoja wao alipata kazi
ya kuajiriwa, hakuna aliyejishugulisha na kazi za mtu binafsi kama useremala, uashi, ukulima,
uvuvi na kadhalika – kazi kama hizo ziliachiwa wale tu ambao hawakupata fursa ya kuenda
shule.
Siku hizi mambo yamebadilika. Licha ya kuwa na elimu ya darasa la saba au kidato cha pili
na pengine cha nne, hata wale wenye shahada za vyuo vikuu nao pia wamezifungia shahada
hizo mashubakani zikiota ukungu huku wenyewe wakijipurukusha kulima au kufuga; na wale
ambao bado hawajakata shauri kama hili, wako barabarani wakipiga lami.
Wakoloni walifanya kosa moja kubwa sana ambalo tumeligundua tu baada ya kunyakua uhuru
wetu. Kosa lenyewe ni lile la kuwafanya wananchi waliopata elimu wasipende kushika kazi
zinazochafua mikono. Walijua tu kwamba mashamba yao na hata mitambo yao ingalifilisiwa
na ile ya waafrika; kwa hivyo ingaliwabidi hata wao waje wawatumikie wenyeji. Ndipo
walipokata shauri kutowaamsha waliolala ili wasije wakalala wao.
Katika karne hii, wataalamu wameshawishika kuitumia elimu yao kufanya kazi za mashamba,
ujenzi na ufundi wa mitambo. Ijapokuwa baada ya kazi kama hizo mikono huwa imejaa tope
au masizi, pato lake ni kubwa ajabu, jambo la kuvutia zaidi katika makazi kama haya ni
kwamba mwananchi huwa ni ‘bwana’ mwenyewe, hujitegemea mwenyewe bila kochokocho.
Kila moja wetu anaelewa kinaganaga kwamba kazi kama ya ukulima huleta donge kubwa zaidi
ya kazi zote; kwani kila mfanyikazi humwelekea mkulima baada ya kumaliza kazi yake.
Mkulima naye hutoa jasho jingi wakati wa kulima shamba. Baadaye atapekua magugu na
visiki aviweke katika matita ili aviteketeze moto. Baada ya muda kidogo atapanda na angoje
hadi mbegu zake zianze kuchipuza. Mara maua huchanua na mazao kujionyesha. Baada ya
kuvuna, kazi yake kubwa huwa ni kuanika na kuanua nafaka zake. Wakati huo, mazao yake
huwa yatanga mara yuapanga mara yuapangua mipango juu ya uuzaji. Mazao yafikapo
nyumbani, pengine mkulima huipamba nyumba yake na akawaita marafiki zake ili awakirimu
kwa vyakula na vinywaji. Karamu ikiisha hana budi kupambua mapambo yote. Huyoo, aenda
kuuza bidhaa zake; akirudi yuakaa raha mstarehe akila na kuburudika pamoja na familia yake.
Je kuna kazi yenye raha zaidi ya ukulima?
Watu wengi hufikiria maana ya neno ‘kulima’ ni kushika jembe tu. Hiyo si kweli kwani kuna
ukulima namna nyingi, kama vile ufugaji wa ng’ombe, mbuzi au kuku. Hata ufugaji wa samaki
au utunzaji wa nyuki pia waweza kuitwa ukulima. Dhamira ya taifa letu changa ni kuwapatia
mwangaza wananchi wake waliomo mashuleni, kwamba wangojewa kwa hamu wajiunge na
wenzao katika kulijenga taifa lenye nguvu, ili katika kujisaidia wenyewe pia waongeze pishi
katika kulipa taifa mwongozi mema yasiyokinai kazi zilizokuwa zikiitwa ‘chafu’ lakini ambazo
ndizo hasa kiini cha maendeleo na kujitegemea.
Maswali.

(a) Kipe kifungu hiki anwani mwafaka (alama 1)
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(b) Eleza sababu tatu zilizochangia kupuuzwa kwa kazi za kiufundi na ukulima.(alama 2)
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(c) Bainisha lengo la wakoloni kukata shauri kutowaamsha waliolala? (alama 2)
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(d) Unafikiri mwandishi alikuwa na dhamira gani kwa wasomaji wake? (alama 2)
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(e). Fafanua mambo matatu yanayochochea watu kupendelea ukulima kwa mujibu wa
kifungu (alama 3)
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(f) Kwa kurejelea kifungu hiki, fafanua maana ya ‘wamezifungia shahada hizo
mashubakani zikiota ukungu huku wenyewe wakijipurukusha kulima au kufuga’
(alama 2)
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(g)Eleza maana ya semi hizi kama zilivyotumiwa katika taarifa: (alama 3)

i). Kata shauri ……………………………………………………..
ii). Kuwa bwana ……………………………………………………
iii) masizi………………………………………………………..

2. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)
a) Linganisha sauti zifuatazo; (alama 2)
/p/ na /b/
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b) Nyuzi za sauti hutumiwa kuainisha sifa gani za vitamkwa? (alama 1)
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c) Tia shadda katika maneno yafuatayo; (alama 2)
ukuta
mkulima
d) Tunga sentensi moja moja kuonyesha matumizi ya viakifishi vifuatavyo (alama 2)
i) ritifaa
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) mshazari
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e) Tumia o-rejeshi tamati kuunganisha sentensi zifuatazo (alama 2)
i) Mwanafunzi anasoma
ii) Mwanafunzi hupita mtihani
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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f) Tambua aina ya vitenzi katika sentensi hizi
Mtoto angali mgonjwa (alama 3)

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Rais aliweza kushinda uchaguzi
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g) Geuza sentensi ifuatayo katika usemi wa taarifa; (alama 2)

‘Unaitwa nani?’ Mwalimu alimuuliza
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h) Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa njia ya mistari (alama 4)
Wananchi wengi walijiandaa vizuri lakini kiongozi huyo hakufika mapema
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i) Geuza sentensi hii katika udogo wingi. (alama 2)
Mtu huyu atanunua shamba mwaka ujao
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j) Andika sentesi hii upya ili neno lililopigwa mstari liwe kitenzi. (alama 1)
Alikuwa na majuto kwa makosa yake
......................................................................................................................................................
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k) Tambua aina za virai katika sentensi hii (alama 3)

Wake mrembo atawasili kesho jioni.
l) Andika kinyume cha sentensi hii (alama 2)
Baba alinisifu kwa kutia bidii shuleni
......................................................................................................................................................
m) Tunga sentensi ukitumia maneno yafuatayo ili kudhihirisha matumizi ya kauli ya

kutendama (alama 2)
i) ganda
ii) ficha
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n) Yakinisha kifungu hiki. (alama 2)
Babu hakula wala kushiba
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o) Akifisha
Lo ni nani huyo anayemshambulia mwanangu jirani yangu aliuliza (alama 3)
......................................................................................................................................................
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p) Nomino zifuatazo zinapatikana katika ngeli zipi? (alama 2)
i) kiwete………………………….
ii) ukuta………………………….
q) Tunga sentensi katika wakati uliopita hali timilifu (alama2)
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r) Bainisha viambishi katika neno hili; (alama 3)
Aliyetuletea
......................................................................................................................................................
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3. FASIHI SIMULIZI (ALAMA 15)
Soma kifungu ulichopewa kisha ujibu maswali
Asiyesikia la mkuu huvunjika guu
a) Tambua kipera hiki cha utanzu wa fasihi simulizi (alama 1)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
b) Mbali na kipera hiki, bainisha vipera vingine vitano vinavyopatikana katika utanzu
huu. (alama 5)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Fafanua vigezo vinne vya kuainisha kipera hiki (alama 4)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) Kipera hiki kina umuhimu upi katika jamii yako? (alama 5)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)
a) Taja na ueleze hadhi tatu za lugha. (alama 3)

..........................................................................................................................................
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..........................................................................................................................................
..........................................................................................................................................
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b) Eleza changamoto tano zinazokumba lugha ya Kiswahili nchini Kenya (alama 5)
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c) Eleza nadharia mbili za chimbuko la Kiswahili. (alama 2)
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..........................................................................................................................................

NAME:……………………………………….……………………..ADM:……………..CLASS:……..3
FORM TWO
MATHEMATICS
ENDTERM 2 SET 3 EXAMS

• Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided at the top of this page.
• Answer ALL questions in section I and ONLY THREE questions in section II.
• All answers and workings must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below each
question.
• Show all steps in the calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces provided.
• Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used, except
where stated otherwise
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY
SECTION I
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 TOTAL
Marks
SECTION II
Question 14 15 16 17 18 TOTAL
Marks
GRAND TOTAL
SECTION I (40 Marks) - Answer all questions in this section.
1. a) Use the table of cubes to evaluate 23.53 (2 mark)
b) Find the cube root of 3.375 using prime factor method (2marks)
2.5 2
2. Evaluate using the table of reciprocals: + (4 marks)
0.0842 64.5
3 27𝑥 3 𝑦 9
3. Simplify the expression √ (2 marks)
𝑥6𝑦3
2 124.4 ×35.8
4. Use logarithm tables to evaluate: √ (3 marks)
745
5. Solve for x given that 2𝑥 × 8𝑥 ÷ 4 = 64 (3 marks)
6.
7. A bank in Kenya buys and sells foreign currencies as follows.
Currency Buying(Ksh) Selling(Kshs)
1Sterling 134.20 134.65
pound
1US dollar 71.40 71.84
A tourist arrived in Kenya with 4500 US dollars. He converted all the dollars to Kenya shillings at the
bank. While in Kenya he spent Kshs 215,000 and then converted the remaining amount to sterling
pounds in the same bank. Calculate the amount he received in sterling pound. (3marks)
7. The length of an arc of a circle is 8.8cm. If the arc subtends an angle 144° at the centre, calculate;
a) the radius of the circle (Take 𝜋 = 22/7) (2 marks)
b) the area enclosed by the arc and the radii (2 marks)
8. Determine the number of sides of a regular polygon whose sum of interior angles is 14400. (2marks)
9. A shopkeeper made a loss of 20% by selling a trouser at Sh. 960. What profit would he have made if he
had sold it at sh.1500 (3marks)
10. A student spent 2⁄7 of his pocket money on stationeries, a third on food-stuffs and 5⁄8 of the remainder
on transport. If he had Ksh. 150 left, how much pocket money did he have at the beginning? (3marks)
11. Two bells ring at intervals of 35 and 42 minutes respectively. The bells ring together at 8:48 a.m.
Determine the time when the bells will ring together again. (3 marks)
12. A two-digit number is 18 more than the number formed by reversing the digits. If the sum of the digits is
10. Find the number. (3 marks)
13. Evaluate; (3 marks)
1 1 3 1
14 ÷ 𝑜𝑓 5 − 3 × 1
3 4 4 3
SECTION II (30Marks)- Answer any THREE questions
14. The figure below represents a piece of land consisting of a trapezoidal region and a semi-circular end of
radius 87.5m
250m
200m
a) Calculate
(i) The perimeter of the land (3marks)
(ii) The area of the land in hectares (3marks)
b) A private developer bought this piece of land at a price of Ksh 400,000 per hectare and later sold the
all land at 2.25 million shillings. Determine;
(i) The price at which he bought the whole piece of land (2marks)
(ii) His percentage profit (2marks)

15. The corner points A, B, C and D of a ranch are such that B is 8 km directly East of A and C is 6 km from
B on a bearing of 30o. D is 7 km from C on a bearing of 300o.
(a) Using a scale of 1 cm to represent 1 km, draw a diagram to show the position of A, B, C and D.
(4 marks)
b) Use the scale to determine the;

(i) compass bearing of A from D. (1 mark)
(ii) distance BD in kilometers. (2 marks)
(iii) bearing of D from B (1 mark)
(iv) perimeter of the ranch in kilometers. (2 marks)
16. a) A straight line L1, whose equation is 3y – 2x = -2 meets the x-axis at R. Determine the coordinates of
R. (2 marks)
b) A second line L2 is perpendicular to L1 at R. Find the equation of L2 in the form y = mx +c, where m
and c are constants. (3 marks)
a) A third line L3 passes through (-4, 1) and is parallel to L2. Find:

(i) the equation of L3 in the form y = mx +c, where m and c are constants. (2 marks)
(ii) The coordinates of a point S, at which L1 and L3 intersects (3 marks)
17. A cylindrical tank of diameter 3.6m and height 2.5m internally is two-thirds full of juice.
a) Calculate the volume of the juice in litres. (3 marks)

c) The juice is packed in small packets measuring 8cm by 5cm by 12cm. A packet retails at Kes. 40.
Calculate;
i) the capacity of each packet in cm3 (2 marks)
ii) the number of full packets obtained (3 marks)
iii) the amount of money realized from the sale of the juice (2 marks)
18. Triangle PQR has vertices P(3,2), Q(-1,1) and R(-2,-1).

(a) Draw PQR on the grid provided. (1mark)
(b) Under a rotation the vertices of P1Q1R1 are P1(1,4), Q1(2,0) and R1(4,-1). Find the centre and angle
of rotation using points P and Q. (4marks)
(c) Triangle PQR is enlarged with scale factor 3 centre O (0,0) to give triangle P2Q2R2. Draw triangle
P2Q2R2 and state its co-ordinates. (2marks)
(d) Triangle P1Q1R1 undergoes reflection in line y = -x to give triangle P3Q3R3. Draw P3Q3R3 and state
its coordinates. (3armks)
PHYSICS FORM TWO

ENDTERM 2 SET 3 EXAMS
NAME:_______________________________STREAM______DATE:_________
Instruction to candidates
• This paper consists of two sections: A and B
• Answer all questions in section A and B in the spaces provided
• All workings must be clearly shown, and Use the CONSTANTS given where necessary.
✓ Gravitational acceleration, ‘g’ = 10m/s2
✓ Density of fresh water = 1000kg/m3
✓ Density of mercury = 13.6g/cm3
• Silent, non-programmable calculator may be used
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:
QUESTION MARKS CANDIDATES’ SCORE
1-14 25
15 12
16 11
17 13
18 11
19 08
TOTAL 80

SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. Mercury on a clean glass slide collects into small spherical balls as shown in figure 1 below. Explain why
. (1 mark)
Drops of mercury
Clean glass slide

Figure 1
2. Distinguish between natural and forced convection currents (1 mark)
3. The figure below shows how to determine the volume of an irregular solid by displacement method
using a eureka can and a burette. The burette was initially empty before the solid was immersed into the
eureka can. If the mass of the solid is 25g, determine the density of the irregular solid. (3 marks)
string
30
3
cm
40
50
support
Figure 2
4. Give a reason why a concrete beam reinforced with steel does not crack when subjected to changes in
temperature. (1 mark)

5. The figure below shows a scale of part of venier-caliper.
Figure 3
State the correct reading of the scale if the instrument has a zero error of -0.02cm. (2 marks)
6. Define the term ‘centre of gravity’ of a body (1 mark)
7. The figure 4, below shows a circular ring of a thin steel washer. Determine the center of gravity of the
washer. (1 mark)
Figure 4
8. The figure 5, below shows a circuit diagram for controlling temperature of a room.
S
conductor
contact Power supply
X
Y
Bimetallic strip
Figure 5
(a) Explain the purpose of the strip (1 mark)
(b) Describe how the circuit controls the temperature of the room when the switch, S is closed
(3 marks)

9. The figure 6, below is a stop watch. Record the reading shown on its screen in the SI units.
(2 marks)
10: 25:38
Figure 6
10. One of the laws of reflection of light is that: the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection are equal.
State the other law. (1 mark)
11. It is advisable for a driver moving a vehicle on muddy soil to remove some air from the tyres. Explain
(2 marks)
12. Two straight conductors carrying current are placed side-by-side as shown below in figure 7. Complete
the diagram by showing the field due to the current and the direction of motion of the two conductors:
(2 marks)
Figure 7
13. State the advantages a diverging mirror has over a plane mirror when used as a rear- view in vehicles.
(2 marks)
14. Using a ray diagram, illustrate how a barber may use a curved mirror as a shaving mirror
(2 marks)

SECTION B (55 MARKS)
15.
(a) Define the following terms:
i. Focal point of a concave mirror (1 mark)
ii. Centre of curvature (1 mark)
(b) Figure 8 shows a ray of light incident on a convex mirror. Complete the diagram to show how the
incident ray is reflected by the mirror. (2 marks)
Incident ray
Principal axis
F
Reflecting surface
Figure 8
(c) Distinguish between a real and a virtual image. (2 marks)
(d) State ONE application of each of the following. (2 marks)
a. Convex mirrors
b. Parabolic mirrors

(e) An object pin is placed between two plane mirrors as shown.
i. Determine the number of images which can be seen (show clearly your working)
(3 marks)
Reflecting surface
Object pin
Mirror 1
900
Mirror 2
Figure 9
ii. Explain what is meant by a ‘magnification’ (1 mark)
16.
(a) State the basic law of magnetism (1 mark)
(b) Figure 10 shows an incomplete circuit of an electromagnet. Complete the circuit between X and Y by
drawing the windings on the two arms of the core such that A and B are both North poles when the
switch S is closed. Indicate the direction of the current on the windings drawn.
(2 marks)
X Y
A B
Figure 10
(c) State TWO factors that affect the strength of an electromagnet (2 marks)

(d) The figure below shows a circular soft iron plate placed between poles of two magnets.
S N S N
Soft-iron plate
Figure 11
i. Sketch the magnetic field pattern between the two magnets (1 mark)
ii. Give a reason why soft iron is used as a core of the coil of an electric bell. (1 mark)
(e) Figure 12, shows a horse- Shoe magnet whose poles are labeled and two other magnets near it. Iron
nails are attracted to the lower ends of the magnets as shown. Identify the poles marked X and Y.
(2 marks)
X:
Y:
X N S
Y
nails
Figure 12
(f) Using domain theory, explain the difference between a magnet and magnetic material. (2 marks)
17.
(a)
i. Define ‘electric current’ and state it’s SI unit (2 marks)

ii. A student learnt that a battery of eight dry cells each 1.5V has a total e.m.f of 12V the same as a
car battery. He connected in series eight new dry batteries to his car but found that they could not
start the engine. Give a reason for this observation (2 marks)
(b) Distinguish between a primary cell and a secondary cell. (1 mark)
(c) State two advantages of an alkaline cell over a lead acid cell (2 marks)
(d) A current of 0.08A passes in a circuit for 2.5 minutes. How much charge passes through a point in the
circuit? (3 marks)
(e)
i. State the basic law of electrostatics (1 mark)
ii. Name any two uses of a charged electroscope (2 marks)

18.
(a) The figure below shows a barometer being used for the measurement of atmospheric pressure in a
given town.
A
i. Identify the part labelled, A (1 mark)
65mm
mercury ii. Determine the atmospheric pressure (in N/m2) of

the town (3 marks)
support
Figure 13
iii. Explain how you would test for the part labelled, A (2 marks)
(b) A small drop of oil has a volume of 5 x 10-8m3. When it is put on the surface of some clean water, it
forms a circular film of 0.lm2 in area;
(i) What is the size of a molecule of oil? (3 marks)
(ii) State two assumptions you make in your calculations? (2 marks)
19.
(a) State the kinetic theory of matter (1 mark)
(b) The figure below is a beaker completely filled with water as shown:

beaker
water
support
Figure 14
A certain mass of common salt is added into the beaker but the water did not spill. Explain.
(2 marks)
(c) Suggest any two reasons why diffusion in gases is faster than in liquids (2 marks)
(d) Smoke is introduced into a transparent smoke-cell containing air. The smoke cell is well illuminated
and then viewed under a microscope.
i. State the use of the microscope (1 mark)
ii. State the observation made in the microscope (1 mark)
iii. Explain the observation made in d, ii above (1 mark)
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F2 ENDTERM 2 SET 3 EXAM

FOR MARKING SCHEMES:

KENYA EDUCATORS CONSULTANCY

©Copyright Kenya Educators Consultancy Compilation & Publication

AGRICULTURE FORM TWO

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATE’S

SECTION A (20 MARKS)

Answer All The Questions In This Section

1. State the two main farming systems practiced in Kenya. (2 mks)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

13. List four tick borne diseases. (2 mks)

14. Give four desirable characteristics of bos indicus. (2 mks)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

a) Identify the equipment represented by the illustration. (1 mk)

a) Identify the method of propagation illustrated. (1 mk)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

21. The figure below illustrates the external parts of a cow.

a) Name all the parts labeled A to H. (4 mks)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

b) How will adding lime affect the PH of the soil. (1 mk)

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

ii) Maize stalks

iii) Wood ash

iv) Top soil

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

BIOLOGY FORM TWO

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

3. a) Why do carnivores have a shorter alimentary canal compared to herbivores?

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

4. a) State the function of the following (2mks

5. State the importance of the following in photosynthesis (2mks

6. The following are apparatus used in biological studies

7. The diagram below is a sketch of biological process

a) Identify compounds labeled (2mks

9. a) Under what condition is fat used as a source of energy in a human body

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

a) Give TWO reasons why the illustration above is a plant cell

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

b) Give TWO functions of the operculum in a fish

13. James wrote the scientific name of an organism as VIBRO cholerae

15. The following diagram is a cross-section of blood vessels

a) Identify the blood vessel labelled (2mks

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

b) Give a reason for your answer in a) above (1mk

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

19. The diagram below is a skull of an animal

a) Identify the mode of feeding of the animal represented above (1mk

20. a) Distinguish between pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation (2mks

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

a) What was the aim of the experiment? (1mk

25. Study the graph shown below

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

BUSINESS STUDIES FORM TWO

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

Compiled and Distributed by Kenya Educators Consultancy, P.O.BOX 15400-00500, Nairobi.

a) Used to politely ask for payment before goods are delivered