GENESIS d) Tonsillectomy

(Post Graduation Medical orientation Centre) e) Ureteroscopic extraction of calculus from

Exam : Subject Final-5: Surgery Faculty Exam the ureter
Course: M.Phil / Diploma Discipline: Anaesthesiology (7 of 100 )
Faculty: Surgery Pre-renal causes of acute kidney injury
Batch: Online Diploma 500 Topic Batch-2 a) Blood transfusion
Year: 2023 Session: March'24 M.Phil/Diploma b) Cardiac failure
Candidate c) Diabetes
(1 of 100 ) d) Sepsis
Drains are inserted to allow fluid that might e) Surgery
collect in a body cavity to drain freely to the (8 of 100 )
surface. In which operations usually there is no Full thickness skin graft is preferable to split-
need of drain tube placement? thickness graft where there is a high priority for
a) Axillary dissection without mastectomy a) Reliability of graft “take"
b) Breast lumpectomy b) Sensory return
c) Parotid surgery c) Extent of wound coverage
d) Thyroid surgery d) Durability
e) Ventral hernia repair in obese patient e) Coverage of the pressure bearing area
(2 of 100 ) (9 of 100 )
Diathermy is the method to control bleeding or to Which is the cause of complicated cataract?
cut the tissues during surgery. True for Unipolar a) Acute anterior uveitis
diathermy b) Pathological myopia
a) Utilize an AC of 400 HZ c) Hereditary fundus dystrophy
b) Can be used in patient with artificial d) Acute angle closure glaucoma
valves e) Retinal detachment
c) Cannot be used in patient with artificial (10 of 100 )
valves Cause of Polyhydramnions are following?
d) Produce local heat up to 10000 C a) Renal agenesis of fetus
e) No need of conducting plate
b) Esophageal atresia
(3 of 100 )
c) Chorioangioma of placenta
Absolute contraindication(s) of MRI
d) Aneuploidy
a) Claustrophobia
e) Obstructed uropathy
b) Cochlear implants
(11 of 100 )
c) First trimester of pregnancy
What are risk factor for colon cancer?
d) Ocular metallic FB
a) FAP
e) Pacemakers b) Calcium in diet
(4 of 100 ) c) Saturated fat
Advantages of minimal access surgery-
d) Chrons disesase
a) Decreased wound trauma
e) Ulcerative colitis
b) Extraction of large specimen
(12 of 100 )
c) Hemostasis
Opportunistic post splenectomy infections caused
d) Improved mobility by:
e) Reliance on new technologies a) E. coli
(5 of 100 ) b) Psudomonas
Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital c) Haemophyllus influenza
diverticulum arising from the terminal ileum and
d) Nisseria meningitides
is part of the unobliterated proximal portion of
e) Acinobacter
the vitellointestinal duct. True regarding this
(13 of 100 )
a) 2 cm away from ileocaecal valve
Cause of non-billious vomiting in infancy:
b) 2 cm in length
a) Hirchsprung’s disease
c) 2:1 Male preponderance
b) Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
d) 2 % of it is asymptomatic
c) Duodenal atresia
e) 50% of symptomatic are below 2 years
d) Incarcerated inguinal hernia
of age
e) Down syndrome
(6 of 100 )
(14 of 100 )
Example(s) of day case surgery
Intracranial complications of CSOM are-
a) Arthroscopy of knee or shoulder
a) Facial nerve paralysis
b) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
b) Extradural abscess
c) Radical mastectomy
c) Otitic hydrocephalus b) Neck rigidity
d) Cerebellar abscess c) Vomiting
e) Purulent labyrinthitis d) Constipation
(15 of 100 ) e) Convulsion
Regarding Vacuum-assisted closure (VAC) (23 of 100 )
a) Uses (-100mmHg) negative pressure Warning sign of burns to the respiratory system
b) Also known as negative pressure wound a) Tachycardia
closure b) Stridor
c) Act by removing interstitial fluid c) Changes in voice
d) Act by decreasing granulation tissue load d) Burn at abdomen
e) Used in non-healing ulcer management e) Low BP
(16 of 100 ) (24 of 100 )
A pilonidal sinus Thyroglossal cyst-
a) is usually congenital a) Is a midline neck swelling
b) is best treated by primary excision and b) Is a remnant of fifth pharyngeal arch
closure mesoderm
c) affects man more than women c) May contain thyroid tissue
d) often present as an acute abscess d) Dose not move with deglutition
e) frequently presents at puberty e) Is affected to the base of tongue
(17 of 100 ) (25 of 100 )
Characteristics of ulcers according to edge: Immediate life threatening thoracic injuries are
a) Shelving edge –Tuberculous ulcer a) Cardiac tamponade
b) Punched out edge-Syplilitic ulcer b) Flail chest
c) Everted edge- Healing ulcer c) Injury to tracheo-bronchial tree
d) Undermined edge- Rodent ulcer d) Massive hemothorax
e) Heaped up edge – Epithelioma e) Tension pneumothorax
(18 of 100 ) (26 of 100 )
Which cells are used for tissue engineering? Causes of True colicky abdominal pain are
a) Somatic stem cells a) Biliary colic
b) Induced totipotent stem cells b) Intestinal colic
c) Fetal cells c) Labour pain
d) Placental cells d) Renal colic
e) Embryonic stem cells e) Ureteric colic
(19 of 100 ) (27 of 100 )
Commonly used antiseptic for skin preparation: The Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated
a) Chlorhexidine with-
b) Povidone-iodine a) β-cell tumours of the pancreas
c) Hypochlorites b) Chronic duodenal ulcer
d) Hexachlorophane c) Choreiform diarrhoea
e) Cetrimide d) Pituitary adenoma
(20 of 100 ) e) Phaeochromocytoma
Hospital acquired infection (28 of 100 )
a) TB Obstructive jaundice is caused by
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae a) Sclerosing cholangitis
c) Staphylococcus aureus b) Choledocal cyst
d) Tetanus c) Parasitic infestations
e) Gas gangrene d) Klatskin tumour
(21 of 100 ) e) Carcinoma tail of pancreas
Feature of crohn's disease (29 of 100 )
a) Chronic inflammatory cells are found in Metabolic changes in acute pancreatitis -
all layers a) Hypocalcaemia
b) Fissuring is rare b) Hypercalcaemia
c) Dysplastic change in mucosa c) Hyperglycaemia
d) Non caseating granuloma d) Hypoglycaemia
e) Crypt abscess is very common e) Hyperlipidaemia
(22 of 100 ) (30 of 100 )
Features of raised intracranial pressure includes Surgical Resection of terminal ileum may cause:
a) Headache a) Osteomalacia
b) Decrease fat content in the stools. a) Head & neck cancer
c) Decrease blood haemoglobin level b) Leukemia
d) Decrease body weight c) Oesophageal cancer
e) Decrease ECF d) Thyroid cancer
(31 of 100 ) e) Hepatoma
Familial Adenomatous polyposis (FAP): (38 of 100 )
a) Defined by presence of less than 100 Hormones which play role during metabolic
colorectal adenomas response to injury are
b) Cause hypokalaemia a) Insulin
c) FAP is more common than HNPCC b) Glucagon
d) APC gene identified on the short arm of c) Cholecystokinin
chromosome-5 d) Testosterone
e) 100% Risk to develop colorectal cancer. e) Gastrin
(32 of 100 ) (39 of 100 )
Irritable urinary bladder symptoms includes In progressive stage of shock
a) Frequency a) There is metabolic acidosis
b) Haematuria b) Reflex compensatory mechanisms are
c) Urgency activated
d) Nocturia c) There is widespread tissue hypoxia
e) Retention of urine d) Survival is not possible
(33 of 100 ) e) There is complete renal shutdown
Indication for thyroid surgery (40 of 100 )
a) Hyperplastic goiter Haemangioma-
b) Multinodular goitre a) Are hamartomas
c) Nodudler goiter with features of b) Surgical excision is the only treatment
malignancy c) Can regress spontaneously
d) Swallowing symptoms d) May be associated with consumption
e) Cosmetic purpose coagulopathy
(34 of 100 ) e) May be associated with organomegaly
Discharge from nipple draws attention highly as (41 of 100 )
it is related with a variety of pathology. Causes of Characteristics of multiple myeloma -
blood stained nipple discharge from single ducts- a) ESR is usually raised
a) Intraduct papilloma b) Osteolytic lesions are common
b) Intraduct carcinoma c) Hypercalcaemia may be absent
c) Fibrocystic disease d) Serum alkaline phosphatase is usually
d) Duct ectasia elevated
e) Ductal carcinoma e) Bence-jones proteinuria may be present
(35 of 100 ) (42 of 100 )
Small bowel obstruction can generally be Complications of massive blood transfusion are
distinguished from large bowel obstruction by a) Febrile reaction
virtue of the following- b) Hypothermia
a) Small bowel lies centrally c) Thrombophlebitis
b) Haustration presents though out the d) Coagulopathy
width of small bowel e) Incompatible haemolytic transfusion
c) Caliber is less reaction
d) Ileum –Distal ileum described by (43 of 100 )
wengensteer as featureless Followings are the colloid solution
e) Jejunum –shows ladder effect a) Ringers lactate solution
(36 of 100 ) b) Hydroxyl ethyl starch
During right hemicolectomy following structures c) Albumin
are vulnerable to injury- d) One fifth normal saline
a) Right ureter e) Gelatin derivatives
b) Right gonadal vessels (44 of 100 )
c) Superior mesenteric vein Hartmann's solution contains
d) Duodenum a) Sodium
e) Right renal pelvis b) Potassium
(37 of 100 ) c) Magnesium
Alcohol drinking is associated with following d) Calcium
cancer
e) Bicarbonate d) Ascites
(45 of 100 ) e) Subphrenic abscess
Gases used for the creation of (53 of 100 )
pneumoperitoneum in laparoscopic procedure Essential features of brain death are-
are a) Flat ECG
a) Carbondioxide b) No gag reflex
b) Nitrous oxide c) No chest movement at PCO2 greater than
c) Oxygen 7 KPa
d) Carbon monoxide d) Absence of spinal reflex
e) Neon e) Presence of occulocephalic reflex
(46 of 100 ) (54 of 100 )
Followings are nonabsorbable suture materials The following kidney stones are radiolucent -
a) Catgut a) Calcium urate
b) Polyglactin 910 b) Pure uric acid
c) Polyglycolic acid c) Xanthine
d) Polypropylene d) Indinavir
e) Silk e) Struvite
(47 of 100 ) (55 of 100 )
Pyrexia within 24 hours of surgery may be due to The following statements regarding Wilm’s
a) Atelectasis tumours
b) Deep vein thrombosis a) The peak age for presentation is during
c) Pneumonia the third year of life and there is no sex
d) Urinary tract infection predilection
e) Wound infection b) In 50% cases, the tumours are bilateral
(48 of 100 ) c) The incidence of familial Wilm’s tumour
ATLS guideline constitutes ABCDE of trauma is more than nonfamilial Wilm’s tumours
care d) Wilm’s tumours usually cross the
a) A stands for airway midline whereas neuroblastoma are
b) B stands for bleeding typically confined to one side of abdomen
c) C stands for circulation e) Hypertesion is seen in 25-60% of cases
d) D stands for disorder and is caused by elevated renin levels
e) E stands for exposure (56 of 100 )
(49 of 100 ) Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
Causes of lump in right iliac fossa are a) Is cancer specific
a) Intestinal tuberculosis b) Is prostate specific
b) Amoeboma c) Decreases in prostatic infarction
c) Chron's disease d) Increases in prostatic carcinoma
d) Ulcerative colitis e) Increases in prostatic infection
e) Intussusception (57 of 100 )
(50 of 100 ) Cough impulse is positive in
Toxic megacolon is a feature of a) Saphena varix
a) Ulcerative colitis b) Hernia
b) Transverse myelitis c) Varicocele
c) Amoebic d) Ectopic testis
d) Scleroderma e) Encysted hydrocele of the cord
e) Crohn’s disease (58 of 100 )
(51 of 100 ) Osteoblastic metastasis occurs in
Veins used for central venous catheterization are a) Neuroblastoma of children
a) Basilic vein b) Carcinoma of the prostate
b) Femoral vein c) Mucinous adenocarcinoma of the GIT
c) Internal jugular vein d) Transitional carcinoma of the urinary
d) Long saphenous vein bladder
e) Subclavian vein e) Renal cell carcinoma
(52 of 100 ) (59 of 100 )
Unilateral elevation of diaphragm is due to Common sites of bone metastasis
a) Scoliosis a) Vertebral column
b) Obesity b) Proximal femur
c) Phrenic nerve palsy c) Proximal humerus
d) Distal tibia
e) Distal forearm d) Perineum
(60 of 100 ) e) Medial side of thigh
Pressure sore occurs in the following body parts (68 of 100 )
a) Heel Followings are the congenital anomalies of the
b) Ischium kidney-
c) Occiput a) Horse-shoe kidney
d) Sacrum b) Thoracic kidney
e) Tibia c) Pelvic kidney
(61 of 100 ) d) Wilms’ tumour
Bow legs may occur in e) Grawitz tumour
a) Osteoporosis (69 of 100 )
b) Trauma The followings are definitive airway devices
c) Rickets a) Endotracheal tube
d) Bone tumour b) I-gel airway tube
e) Blount's disease c) Laryngeal mask
(62 of 100 ) d) Tracheostomy tube
Ankylosing spondylitis e) Oropharyngeal tube
a) Is a variant of rheumatoid arthritis (70 of 100 )
b) Is a process of calcification and Headache after spinal anaesthesia
ossification of cartilage a) Is less likely with a 27G than with a 25G
c) Occurs most commonly in women needle
d) Can be partly diagnosed by tissue typing b) Is unlikely to develop after 24 hours
e) Begins in the sacroiliac joints c) Is more frequent in the elderly
(63 of 100 ) d) May be accompanied by 6th cranial
Traumatic avascular necrosis occurs in nerve palsy
a) Head of the femur e) Symptoms are more prominent in sitting
b) Tarsal bone position
c) Condyle of the mandible (71 of 100 )
d) Scaphoid Competitive neuromuscular blocking agents are -
e) Medial malleolus a) Suxamethonium
(64 of 100 ) b) Atracurium
In pathological fracture - c) Mivacuriam
a) Metastasis is the commonest cause d) Vecuronium
b) Radius is the commonest site e) Decamethonium
c) Breast cancer is the commonest source (72 of 100 )
d) Local radiotherapy is indicated Contraindications of lumbar puncture are
e) Fracture stabilization alone does not a) High fever
improve the quality of life b) Increased intracranial pressure
(65 of 100 ) c) Preterm baby
Compartment syndrome – d) Thrombocytopenia
a) May produce cyanosis of limb e) Generalized tonic convulsion
b) Numbness is absent (73 of 100 )
c) May cause severe pain Ketamine
d) Produce pallor of limb a) Raises the plasma nor adrenaline level
e) Can be excluded by pulpable distal pulse b) Cannot cause unpleasant side effects
(66 of 100 ) c) Is an induction agent
Multiple osteolytic lesions in the bone may be d) Produces loss of consciousness in one
found in arm brain circulation time
a) Hyperparathyroidism e) Is a bronchodilator
b) Metastatic bone tumour (74 of 100 )
c) Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia Factors associated with increased risk of
d) Plasmacytoma aspiration during anaesthesia -
e) Ricket a) Recent oral intake
(67 of 100 ) b) Distal bowel obstruction
Sites of undescended testis are- c) Hypervolemia
a) Deep inguinal ring d) H2 blocker injection during induction
b) Inguinal canal e) Hiatus hernia
c) Root of the penis (75 of 100 )
Vascular imaging include
a) CT venogram found raised eosinophil count. The CT scan
b) Echocardiography shows a smooth space-occupying lesion with
c) ERCP several septa. Ultrasonography of the biliary
d) Lymphangiogram tract may show abnormality in the gallbladder
e) Doppler scan and bile ducts. Diagnosis should be regarding
(76 of 100 ) this conditions.
Radiological features of scurvy included a) Colon carcinoma involving proximal part
a) Lucency of transverse colon
b) Thin bony spur extending from b) Cirrhosis of liver
metaphysis c) Hydatid disease
c) Fraying splaying of metaphysis d) Intestinal TB
d) Metaphyseal Wimberger's sign e) Liver Carcinoma
e) Pelkan spurs (83 of 100 )
(77 of 100 ) Which one is the imaging of choice for the
Gynaecomastia may results from detection of pulmonary masses?
a) Teratoma of testis a) CT scan
b) Leprosy b) FAST
c) Thiazide diuretics c) eFAST
d) Down syndrome d) MRI
e) Bronchial carcinoma e) X-ray
(78 of 100 ) (84 of 100 )
Deep venous thrombosis in lower limbs- There are some risk factors for post ERCP
a) Can develop as a complication of pancreatitis. Which one is definite risk factors?
varicose vein a) Absent CBD stone
b) Conservative treatment is the choice b) Abnormal bilirubin
c) Can develop after long journey c) Female sex
d) Anticoagulant therapy is not always d) Low volume of ERCPs performed
required e) Young age
e) May produce swelling of the face (85 of 100 )
(79 of 100 ) There are so much surgical procedure have been
Buerger's disease done every day among them which one is high
a) Was called “thromboangitis obliterans” risk factor of deep vein thrombosis?
b) Is a non-atherosclerotic segmental a) Abdominal surgery
inflammatory disease b) Cardiothoracic surgery
c) Commonly encountered in elderly men c) Neurosurgery
d) Is not encountered in women d) Total knee replacement
e) Is classified pathologically as vasculitis e) Urological surgery
(80 of 100 ) (86 of 100 )
Cataract occurs in A three-week-old male infant presents to A&E
a) Long term chloroquine treatment with non-bilious projectile vomiting and failure
b) Long term busulphan treatment to thrive. The most likely diagnosis is:
c) Hyperparathyroidism a) Duodenal atresia
d) Dystrophic myotonica b) Overfeeding
e) Atopic dermatitis c) Gastroenteritis
(81 of 100 ) d) Intracranial birth injury
Prophylactic antibiotics are used when there is a e) Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
risk of wound contamination with bacteria (87 of 100 )
during surgery. In long operations antibiotics A Severely malnourished person admitted in
may be repeated at surgery department for operative procedure. For
a) 30-minutes interval optimization feeding regimen started. But
b) 1-hour interval Suddenly Patient developed feature of cardiac
c) 2-hours interval arrhythmia followed by Cardiac failure. On
d) 3-hours interval investigation what is least likely to be expected-
e) 4-hours interval a) Low potassium level
(82 of 100 ) b) High phosphate level
A sheep farmer admitted into department of c) Low Calcium
surgery with the complains of a gradually d) Low magnesium
enlarging painful mass in the right upper e) Lactic acidosis
quadrant. After some investigations we have (88 of 100 )
The most common organism implicated in acute c) Extensive devitalised tissue
bacterial tonsillitis in children is: d) Containing foreign bodies
a) Group A β-haemolytic Streptococcus e) Wounds or burns with systemic sepsis
b) Bacteroides fragilis (95 of 100 )
c) Haemophilus infl uenza A 30-year lady presented with hematuria with
d) Escherichia coli fleshy materials for 3times for 5 months. After
e) Staphylococcus aureus TUR biopsy she was diagnosed bladder cancer.
(89 of 100 ) Which factor is most likely responsible for this?
Thyroid is one of the important gland in our a) Human immunodeficiency virus
body. It plays an important role to regulate b) Schistosomiasis
metabolism. Sometimes it is associated with c) Ionizing radiation
various types of tumour among them most d) Human papillomavirus
common primary malignant tumor of the thyroid e) Asbestos
gland is (96 of 100 )
a) Anaplastic carcinoma Which is Emergency procedures package for
b) Follicular carcinoma strengthening emergency and essential surgical
c) Lymphoma care and anaesthesia?
d) Medullary carcinoma a) Fracture treatment
e) Papillary carcinoma b) Hernia repair
(90 of 100 ) c) Bowel resection
H/O Head injury by a cricket ball, loss of d) Hysterectomy
consciousness for a period followed by regaining e) Cataract
consciousness. CT scan shows Lentiform (97 of 100 )
hyperdense area. Which structure injured? Ascending cholangitis is a potentially life-
a) Middle cerebral artery threatening emergency associated with infection
b) Middle meningeal artery of the biliary tree. which organism is most
c) Superior sagittal sinus commomly responsible for ascending
d) Anterior cerebral artery cholangitis?
e) Sigmoid sinus a) Escherichia coli
(91 of 100 ) b) Salmonella
What is the most common cause of antenatal c) Bacteroid
unilateral hydronephrosis? d) H. Pylori
a) Ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction e) A. lumbricoidis
b) Ureterovesical junction (UVJ) (98 of 100 )
obstruction A footballer presented with knee injury. He can
c) Posterior urethral valve not play on and the knee swells due to blood in
d) Vesicoureteral reflux knee. It may be a case of ACL tear. What is the
e) UTI mechanism?
(92 of 100 ) a) Deceleration when the knee falls into
Cubital tunnel syndrome occurs due to varus and the tibia externally rotates
compression of b) Deceleration when the knee falls into
a) Radial nerve valgus and the tibia internally rotates
b) Axillary nerve c) Deceleration when the knee falls into
c) Ulnar nerve varus and the tibia internally rotates
d) Median nerve d) Deceleration when the knee falls into
e) Sciatic nerve valgus and the tibia externally rotates
(93 of 100 ) e) Only tibial rotation
A 30 years old patient present with cellulitis. (99 of 100 )
Which is the most pathogenic organism for A Patient is presented emergency OPD who is
cellulitis? mining accident survivor. During management of
a) Staphylococcus aureus the patient. which one is incorrect-
b) Streptococcus pyogenes a) Crush syndrome arises as a result of
c) Streptococcus faecalis reperfusion
d) Peptostreptococcus b) Aggressive volume loading of the patient
e) Streptococcus viridans preferably before extrication is best
(94 of 100 ) treatment
Which is High-risk tetanus-prone wounds? c) Myoglobinuria may leads to renal failure
a) Bites d) Mannitol administration can reduce
b) Compound fractures reperfusion injury
e) A late fasciotomy after 24 hours may
make things worse, not better
(100 of 100 )
Global end point of resuscitation of shock patient
is determined by?
a) Blood pressure
b) Serum lactate level
c) Mixed arterial oxygen consumption
d) Metabolic alkalosis
e) Urine output