1 BMS19102

F/COE/005
Dr. M.G.R.
EDUCATIONAL AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE
DEEMED TO BE UNIVERSITY

MT02
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, JANUARY – 2024
FIRST YEAR
BMS19102
ANATOMY – PAPER II
REGISTER NUMBER

Time: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Answer ALL Questions

Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary

PART – A (2x10 = 20 Marks)

LONG ESSAY
1. Describe the Inguinal canal under the following headings.
(a) Location
(b) Extent
(c) Boundaries
(d) Contents
(e) Defensive mechanisms
(f) Applied anatomy (1+1+2+1+3+2)

2. A35-year-old sportsman was brought to hospital after sustaining an injury over his
right knee joint while playing football. He said that his knee was almost flexed to
90 degrees at the time of injury and at present he is not able to bear weight on his
right leg. On examination, the orthopedician noticed that the tibia was driven
forwards and when anterior drawer test was elicited it was positive for right knee
joint.
Based on this case, answer the following questions.
(a) Which ligament is likely to be damaged in this case? Give reason.
(b) What is meant by unhappy triad of knee joint?
(c) What is anterior drawer test?
(d) Write about the Intracapsular ligaments of knee joint.
(e) Describe on details the Extracapsular ligaments of knee joint. (1+3+2+4)
 2 BMS19102
PART – B (8x5 = 40 Marks)

SHORT ESSAY

3. Describe layers and nerve supply of scrotum.

4. Explain “Lesser sac” –boundaries, recesses and clinical correlation.
5. A38-years-old bicyclist was struck by a motorist. He sustained a comminuted
fracture of the proximal 1/3rd of his left tibia. During repair, the surgeon noted that a
nerve on the anterior surface of the interosseus membrane been partially severed
by bone fragments. Patient has difficulty in dorsiflexion of foot. Which nerve would
have been injured? Explain.
6. Describe the microanatomy of liver.
7. What is Prenatal diagnosis?
8. Describe the ways you respect the cadaver.
9. Describe the development of diaphragm.
10. Write notes on Internal trigone of bladder.

PART – C (10x2 = 20 Marks)

SHORT ANSWERS

11. Draw a neat, labeled diagram of testis.

12. Name the parts of fallopian tube.
13. Barr body.
14. What are Peyer’s patches?
15. Describe Rectouterine pouch of Douglas.
16. Describe Haemorrhoids.
17. Define stomach bed.
18. Write briefly on annular pancreas.
19. What is Fallot’s tetralogy.
20. Name the branches of coeliac trunk.
 3 BMS19102
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, JANUARY – 2024
FIRST YEAR
BMS19102
ANATOMY – PAPER II
PART – D (20x1 = 20 Marks)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

21. All the following statements about saphenous nerve is true EXCEPT, it is
A. a branch of femoral nerve
B. the longest cutaneous nerve in the body
C. closely related to great saphenous vein at the ankle
D. the thickest cutaneous nerve in the body

22. All the statements about the bare area of the liver are correct EXCEPT
A. it is the largest non-peritoneal area of liver
B. it is located on the posterior segment of the right lobe
C. it is related to right side of the spleen
D. it is one of the sites of portocaval anastomoses

23. The referred pain from loin to groin in renal colic, is through which spinal
segments?
A. T9 - T12
B. T10 - L1
C. T11 - L2
D. T12 - L3

24. The nerve of III brachial arch is

A. facial nerve
B. glassopharyngeal nerve
C. vagus nerve
D. maxillary nerve

25. All the following are the parts of levatorani EXCEPT

A. levator prostate
B. pubococcygeus
C. iliococcygeus
D. coccygeus

26. Peroneus longus is supplied by

A. tibial nerve
B. superficial peroneal nerve
C. deep peroneal nerve
D. sural nerve
 4 BMS19102
27. Left gastroepiploic artery is a branch of
A. common hepatic artery
B. gastroduodenal artery
C. celiac trunk
D. splenic artery

28. Hyaline cartilage is absent in which of the following parts?

A. Bronchiole
B. Trachea
C. Principal bronchus
D. Segmental branches

29. On “annular pancreas”, the pancreatic buds encircle the

A. I part of duodenum
B. stomach
C. II part of duodenum
D. transverse colon

30. Pyramidal cells are present in

A. cerebellum
B. cerebrum
C. spinal cord
D. sympathetic ganglion

31. Which of the following ligaments is the strongest?

A. Iliolumbar ligaments
B. Interosseus sacroiliac ligament
C. Sacrospinous ligament
D. Sacrotuberous ligament

32. Which one of the following is NOT a hamstring?

A. Semitendinosus
B. Semimembranosus
C. Short head of biceps femoris
D. Adductor magnus

33. Portal vein is formed

A. in front of neck of pancreas
B. close to II part of duodenum
C. behind the head of pancreas
D. behind the neck of pancreas

34. Fallopian tube is developed from

A. mesonephric duct
B. mesonephric tubules
C. para mesonephric duct
D. vitello intestinal duct
 1 BMS19102
F/COE/005
Dr. M.G.R.
EDUCATIONAL AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE
DEEMED TO BE UNIVERSITY

KV02
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER – 2023
FIRST YEAR
BMS19102
ANATOMY – PAPER II
REGISTER NUMBER

Time: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Answer ALL Questions

Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary

PART – A (2x10 = 20 Marks)

LONG ESSAY
1. A 14year old boy came with altered gait a few hours after an injection in his right
buttock. On clinical examination he was found to be having right foot drop.
(a) What is anatomical basis for foot drop? (4)
(b) Describe the gluteus maximus muscle under the following headings:
(i) Origin and Insertion (ii) Nerve supply and action
(iii) Structures under the cover of gluteus maximus muscle
(2+2+2)

2. Describe “Stomach” under the following heads.

(a) Location and parts
(b) External features
(c) Relations
(d) Blood supply and lymphatic drainage
(e) Applied anatomy (2+2+3+2+1)

PART – B (8x5 = 40 Marks)

SHORT ESSAY
Explain the following
3. Supports of uterus.
4. Coeliac trunk.
5. Portocaval anastomosis.
6. Interior of anal canal.
7. Rectus sheath.
8. Obturator nerve.
 2 BMS19102

9. Histology of testis.
10. Development of Kidney.

PART – C (10x2 = 20 Marks)

SHORT ANSWERS

11. Name the short lateral rotators of hip joint.

12. Ducts of pancreas.
13. Name the contents of spermatic cord.
14. Name the structures present within the prostate gland.
15. What is perineal body?
16. Define mitosis.
17. Cruciate anastomosis.
18. What are Kupffer cells?
19. Give the salient features of Hamstring muscles.
20. Epiploic foramen.
 3 BMS19102

M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER – 2023

FIRST YEAR
BMS19102
ANATOMY – PAPER II
PART – D (20x1 = 20 Marks)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

21. Dorsalis pedis artery is the continuation of

A. anterior tibial artery
B. posterior tibial artery
C. profunda femoris artery
D. popliteal artery

22. Tibial collateral ligament is the degenerated tendon of

A. adductor longus
B. adductor brevis
C. adductor magnus
D. tibialis anterior

23. Following are the muscles attached to medial surface of shaft of tibia, EXCEPT
A. semitendinosus
B. semimembranosus
C. gracilis
D. sartorius

24. Ligamentum teres in liver is the embryological remnant of obliterated,

A. left umblical vein
B. right vitelline vein
C. left vitelline vein
D. right umblical vein

25. Deep inguinal ring is an oval opening present in

A. external oblique aponeurosis
B. internal oblique aponeurosis
C. parietal peritoneum
D. fascia transversalis

26. Left gonadal vein drains into

A. inferior vena cava
B. internal iliac vein
C. common iliac vein
D. left renal vein
 4 BMS19102

27. Cremaster muscle is supplied by

A. subcostal nerve
B. ilioinguinal nerve
C. iliohypogastric nerve
D. genito femoral nerve

28. Following are the posterior boundaries of epiploic foramen, EXCEPT

A. inferior vena cava
B. right kidney
C. right suprarenal gland
D. T12 vertebra

29. The second commonest position of appendix is

A. pelvic
B. retrocolic
C. paracolic
D. splenic

30. Inferior rectal artery is a branch of

A. internal iliac artery
B. external iliac artery
C. internal pudendal artery
D. Common iliac artery

31. Sphincter urethrae is supplied by

A. vagus nerve
B. pelvic splachnic nerve
C. obturator nerve
D. pudendal nerve

32. Following are the contents of broad ligament of uterus, EXCEPT

A. ovary
B. uterine tube
C. paroophoron
D. ovarian artery

33. Which one of the following muscles forms the pelvic diaphragm?
A. Obturator internus
B. Piriformis
C. Levator ani
D. Ilaicus
 5 BMS19102

34. Ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of vas deferens and

A. prostatic duct
B. duct of bulbo-urethral gland
C. duct of seminal vesicle
D. ureter

35. The largest part of the uterine tube is the

A. infundibulum
B. ampulla
C. intramural
D. isthmus

36. When both allelic genes regulating a particular character are similar is called
A. heterozygous allele
B. homozygous alleles
C. multiple alleles
D. mutant allele

37. Proximal convoluted tubule in kidney is lined by

A. simple columnar epithelium with brush border
B. simple columnar epithelium without brush border
C. simple cuboidal epithelium with brush border
D. simple cuboidal epithelium without brush border

38. Trigone of urinary bladder develops form

A. cloaca
B. ectoderm
C. mesonephric duct
D. allantois

39. Ventral part of second pharyngeal pouch gives rise to

A. tonsil
B. thymus
C. superior parathyroid gland
D. inferior parathyroid gland

40. Left 7th cervical intersegmental artery gives rise to

A. left pulmonary artery
B. left internal carotid artery
C. left subclavian artery
D. left axillary artery

******
 1 BMS19101
F/COE/005
Dr. M.G.R.
EDUCATIONAL AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE
DEEMED TO BE UNIVERSITY

MB13
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, APRIL – 2022
FIRST YEAR
BMS19101
ANATOMY – PAPER I
REGISTER NUMBER

Time: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Answer ALL Questions

Draw Suitable Diagrams wherever necessary

PART – A (2x10 = 20 Marks)

ESSAY

1. a. Explain the blood supply of heart in detail.

b. Write a note on its applied anatomy. (7+3 Marks)

2. A 14-year-old boy presented with complaints of rapidly growing painful swelling on

the face in front of his ear on the right side. He also told that the pain increases
while taking meals but subsides to some extent after finishing the meal. On
examination the physician found that the ear lobule is lifted on the affected side.
Examination of the oral cavity revealed congestion in the mucous membrane of the
vestibule of the mouth opposite to the second molar tooth on the right side. It was
diagnosed as a case of acute parotitis.

a. Identify the structure affected in this condition.

b. Explain the location and capsule of the involved structure.
c. Describe the external features and relations of the structure involved.
d. Give an account of its nerve supply.
e. What is Frey Syndrome? (1+2+4+2+1 Marks)
 2 BMS19101

PART – B (8x5 = 40 Marks)

DETAILED ANSWERS

Explain the following

3. Cubital fossa.
4. Anastomosis around the elbow joint.
5. Ansa cervicalis.
6. Deltoid.
7. Corpus Callosum.
8. Circle of Willis.
9. Microstructure of hyaline cartilage.
10. Decidua.

PART – C (10x2 = 20 Marks)

SHORT ANSWERS

11. What is wrist drop?

12. Name the extrinsic muscles of the tongue with their nerve supply.
13. Enumerate the muscles of hand.
14. Define Waldeyer’s lymphatic ring.
15. Write the contents of posterior mediastinum.
16. What are the tributaries of Azygos vein?
17. What is cerebrospinal fluid?
18. Define periosteum.
19. Name the types of synovial joint with examples.
20. Write the anomalies of placenta.
 3 BMS19101
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, APRIL – 2022
FIRST YEAR
BMS19101
ANATOMY – PAPER I
PART – D (20x1 = 20 Marks)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
21. Which facial expression muscle helps to whistle and blow?
A. Orbicularis oris
B. Buccinator
C. Platysma
D. Mentalis

22. Rotator cuff of shoulder is formed by all the following EXCEPT

A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres major
D. Subscapularis

23. Which of the following nucleus is related to ciliary ganglion?

A. Superior salivatory
B. Inferior salivatory
C. Lacrimatory
D. Edinger Westphal

24. All the following are derivatives of ectoderm, EXCEPT the

A. Spinal cord
B. Cortex of suprarenal gland
C. Sensory ganglia of spinal nerves
D. Pituitary gland

25. The retromandibular vein is formed by the union of

A. Superficial temporal vein and maxillary vein
B. Common facial vein and maxillary vein
C. Maxillary vein and middle temporal vein
D. Facial vein and superficial temporal vein

26. Which of the following, regarding the aortic opening in the diaphragm, is
CORRECT?
A. Lies anterior to the body of tenth thoracic vertebra
B. Lies between the crura of the diaphragm
C. Transmits the sympathetic trunk
D. Transmits the azygos vein
 4 BMS19101
27. Which muscle is responsible for intorsion of eye?
A. Superior oblique
B. Lateral Rectus
C. Inferior rectus
D. Inferior oblique

28. Which of the following is the artery of epitasis?

A. Anterior ethmoidal
B. Greater palatine
C. Spheno palatine
D. Superior labial

29. Which among the following is in the anterior mediastinum?

A. Oesophagus
B. Arch of aorta
C. Descending aorta
D. Thymus

30. Which of the following structures forms the lateral wall of the tympanic cavity?
A. Tegmen tympani
B. Jugular fossa
C. Tympanic membrane
D. Carotid canal

31. Root value of long thoracic nerve is,

A. C5
B. C5,6
C. C5-7
D. C5-8

32. Which of the following is known as the dangerous layer of scalp ?

A. Skin
B. Loose areolar tissue
C. Galea aponeurotic
D. Periosteum

33. Which of the following is an example of bipennate muscle ?

A. Rectus sheath
B. Rectus Abdominis
C. Rectus Femoris
D. Deltoid
 5 BMS19101
34. Which of the following structure is pierced by parotid duct?
A. Masseter muscle
B. Depressor angulioris muscle
C. Sublingual gland
D. Buccinator muscle

35. Symphysis pubis is an example of

A. Primary cartilaginous joint
B. Secondary cartilaginous joint
C. Fibrous joint
D. Gomphosis

36. Which of the following nerve injury leads to wrist drop ?

A. Ulnar nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Axillary nerve

37. Which nerve is felt behind the medial epicondyle of humerus?

A. Radial
B. Ulnar
C. Musculocutaneous
D. Median

38. The extrinsic ligaments of the larynx are all, EXCEPT

A. Thyrohyoid ligament
B. Cricotracheal ligament
C. Quadrangular ligament
D. Cricothyroid ligament

39. Stave cells are seen in the

A. Lymph node
B. Spleen
C. Thymus
D. Tonsil

40. Common interosseous artery is a branch of

A. Brachial artery
B. Radial artery
C. Ulnar artery
D. Axillary artery
******
 1 BMS19102
F/COE/005
Dr. M.G.R.
EDUCATIONAL AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE
DEEMED TO BE UNIVERSITY

MB14
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, APRIL – 2022
FIRST YEAR
BMS19102
ANATOMY – PAPER II
REGISTER NUMBER

Time: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Answer ALL Questions

Draw Suitable Diagrams wherever necessary

PART – A (2x10 = 20 Marks)

ESSAY

1. A 20-year-old healthy individual went for recruitment in the army. He fulfilled all the
physical requirements except that he was having flat feet. Consequently, he was
rejected.
a. What is flat foot?
b. Give the anatomical basis of medial longitudinal arch of foot.
c. Explain the factors maintaining the medial longitudinal arch.
d. Define inversion and eversion of foot and name the muscles producing it.
e. What are the effects of flat foot? (1+3+2+3+1)

2. Describe uterus under the following headings:

a. Location and position.
b. Parts and relations.
c. Supports.
d. Blood supply.
e. Applied anatomy. (1+3+3+2+1)

PART – B (8x5 = 40 Marks)

DETAILED ANSWERS

Explain the following

3. Femoral sheath.
4. Dorsalis pedis artery.
5. Lesser sac.
 2 BMS19102
6. Relations of left kidney.
7. Superficial Perineal Pouch.
8. Klinefelter’s Syndrome.
9. Histology of Stomach – Fundus.
10. Paramesonephric duct.

PART – C (10x2 = 20 Marks)

SHORT ANSWERS

11. What is Cruciate anastomosis?

12. Write about the second part of duodenum.
13. Write note on stomach bed.
14. What is pouch of Douglas?
15. Mention the branches of Internal iliac artery.
16. Explain “Barr body”.
17. Briefly write about Sertoli cells.
18. Write about the microanatomy of cornea.
19. What is Meckel’s diverticulum?
20. Write the components of Fallot’s tetralogy.
 3 BMS19102
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, APRIL – 2022
FIRST YEAR
BMS19102
ANATOMY – PAPER II
PART – D (20x1 = 20 Marks)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

21 The following structures are supplied by the nerve to popliteus, EXCEPT

A. Tibialis posterior
B. Superior tibiofibular joint
C. Popliteus
D. Soleus

22. The normal neck shaft angle of femur in adult is

A. 125º
B. 127º
C. 130º
D. 134º

23. Which muscle is known as peripheral heart?

A. Soleus
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Adductor longus
D. Quadratus femoris

24. Blood supply of liver is

A. 80% arterial, 20% venous
B. 80% venous, 20% arterial
C. 70% arterial, 30% venous
D. 60% arterial ,40% venous

25. What is the vertebral level of origin of superior mesenteric artery from
abdominal aorta?
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4

26. Which one of the following is an end artery?

A. Proper hepatic artery
B. Appendicular artery
C. Common hepatic artery
D. Middle colic artery
 4 BMS19102
27. Which one of the following is NOT a retroperitoneal organ?
A. Stomach
B. Pancreas
C. Duodenum
D. Kidney

28. Portocaval anastomosis occur at all the following sites, EXCEPT

A. Umbilicus
B. Lower end of oesophagus
C. Stomach
D. Bare area of liver

29. Which of the following structure is NOT related to the posterior surface of liver?
A. Oesophagus
B. Caudate lobe
C. Groove for IVC
D. Bare area of liver

30. Superior rectal artery is the continuation of

A. Left colic artery
B. Inferior mesenteric artery
C. Superior mesenteric artery
D. Sigmoidal artery

31. The highly coiled structure in intestine is

A. Ileum
B. Jejunum
C. Duodenum
D. Large intestine

32. The skin around the umbilicus is supplied by

A. T9
B. T10
C. L1
D. L2

33. Diaphragm is supplied by

A. Phrenic nerve
B. Subcostal nerve
C. Ilio hypogastric nerve
D. Ilio lumbar nerve
 5 BMS19102
34. Which aponeurosis forms the inguinal ligament?
A. Aponeurosis of internal oblique
B. Aponeurosis of transverse abdominis
C. Aponeurosis of external oblique
D. Aponeurosis of rectus abdominus

35. Which of the following is NOT a content of broad ligament?

A. Cervix
B. Uterine tube
C. Ligament of the ovary
D. Round ligament of uterus

36. The DNA has all the following bases EXCEPT

A. Adenine
B. Uracil
C. Guanine
D. Thymine

37. Brunner’s glands are present in the

A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C. Ileum
D. Jejunum

38. Trigone of the urinary bladder is a derivative of

A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Natural guest cells

39. Appendix of testis is a remnant of

A. Mesonephric duct.
B. Mesonephric tubules.
C. Mesenchymal condensation of genital ridge.
D. Paramesonephric duct.

40. Kupffer cells in liver are a derivative of

A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Ventral mesogastrium

******
 1 BMS19103
F/COE/005
Dr. M.G.R.
EDUCATIONAL AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE
DEEMED TO BE UNIVERSITY

MT03
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, JANUARY – 2024
FIRST YEAR
BMS19103
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER I
REGISTER NUMBER

Time: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Answer ALL Questions

Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary

PART – A (2x10 = 20 Marks)

LONG ESSAY
1. (a) Explain transport of oxygen from lungs to the tissue.
(b) Add a note on the hypoxic hypoxia. (7+3)

2. (a) Define blood pressure with the normal values.

(b) Explain the role of arterial baroreceptors in the regulation of blood pressure
following blood loss. (3+7)
PART – B (8x5 = 40 Marks)

SHORT ESSAY

3. Explain tubular reabsorption of glucose.

4. Explain Homeostasis with suitable example.
5. A 25-years-old man complains of general weakness and fatigue. On clinical
examination pallor and icterus was seen. Vandenberg test showed indirect
positive.
(a) What is your probable diagnosis?
(b) Explain the cause for the above condition.
(c) What other tests can be performed to confirm the diagnosis? (1+2+2)
6. Electrocardiogram.
7. Explain the causes, features and prevention of Erythro-blastosis fetalis.
8. Enlist and explain the qualities of a good doctor. (2+3)
9. Explain the chemical regulation of respiration.
10. Explain the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates.
 2 BMS19103

PART – C (10x2 = 20 Marks)

SHORT ANSWERS

11. What is the type of blood picture seen in iron-deficiency anemia?

12. Define Symport and Antiport with examples.
13. What is A-V nodal delay?
14. What are the indications for artificial respiration?
15. Define and list the phases of deglutition.
16. Any four functions of saliva.
17. What is migratory motor complex?
18. Splay.
19. What is atonic bladder?
20. Define Tidal volume and give its normal value.
 3 BMS19103

M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, JANUARY – 2024

FIRST YEAR
BMS19103
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER I
PART – D (20x1 = 20 Marks)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

21. Deuterium oxide is used to measure the volume of

A. blood
B. total body water
C. extracellular fluid
D. intracellular fluid

22. The RBC of a person with Bombay blood group does not have
A. GLUT
B. H substance
C. spectrin
D. ankyrin

23. When an infecting organism pierces the skin, which of the following WBCs would
quickly migrate out of the blood vessels and pool into the tissues to ingest the
foreign body invader?
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils

24. Which of the following is normally circulating in the plasma?

A. Prothrombin
B. Fibrin
C. Plasmin
D. Thrombin

25. The parasympathetic nervous system sends impulses to the heart via the vagus
nerve, which
A. slows down the heart rate
B. increases the heart rate
C. does not affect the heart rate
D. raises the blood pressure

26. In an electrocardiogram, the QRS complex represents,

A. atrial depolarization
B. ventricular depolarization
C. ventricular repolarization
D. impulse transmission from the atria to the ventricles
 4 BMS19103

27. The pressure in a capillary in skeletal muscle is 35mm Hg at the arteriolar end
and 14mm Hg at the venular end. The interstitial pressure is 0 mm Hg. The
colloid osmotic pressure is 25 mm Hg in the capillary and 1mm Hg in the
interstitium. The net force producing fluid movement across the capillary wall at
its arteriolar end is
A. 3 mm Hg out of the capillary
B. 3 mm Hg into the capillary
C. 10 mm Hg out of the capillary
D. 11 mm Hg out of the capillary

28. The pressure differential between the heart and the aorta is least in the
A. left ventricle during systole
B. left ventricle during diastole
C. right ventricle during systole
D. right ventricle during diastole

29. The mechanism that regulates cerebral blood flow during cerebral compression
is the
A. Sino-aortic reflex
B. Cushing’s reflex
C. Bezold-Jarisch reflex
D. Bainbridge reflex

30. Which one of the following, does not affect respiration?

A. Variation in arterial HCO3- ion concentration
B. Variation in arterial H+ ion concentration
C. Variation in arterial Na+ ion concentration
D. Variation in CO2 in CSF

31. Functions of the nasal cavity are the following EXCEPT

A. humidification
B. olfaction
C. filtration
D. regulation of respiration

32. Spontaneous breathing stops when a section is made at

A. mid thoracic region
B. mid collicular level
C. lower level of medulla
D. bilateral vagotomy

33. In health, physiological dead space is

A. double than that of anatomical dead space
B. less than that of anatomical dead space
C. triple than that of anatomical dead space
D. same as anatomical dead space
 5 BMS19103

34. What is NOT seen in acclimatization to a high altitude?

A. Hyperventilation
B. Polycythemia
C. O2 dissociation curve shifts to right
D. Decreased density of systemic capillaries

35. Most nutrients are absorbed in the

A. stomach
B. small intestine
C. large intestine
D. mouth

36. RBC membrane is maintained by

A. spectrin
B. laminin
C. collagen
D. elastin

37. The entry of carbohydrate-rich food into the duodenum mainly stimulates the
production of which one of the following hormones from GIT?
A. GIP
B. Secretin
C. VIP
D. Somatostatin

38. The term filtration fraction is used to refer to

A. RPF/ GFR
B. GFR/ RPF
C. RBF/ GFR
D. GFR/ RBF

39. Macula densa in kidney is located in

A. PCT
B. DCT
C. afferent arteriole
D. efferent arteriole

40. What is the clearance of a substance when its concentration in the plasma is
10mg/dL, its concentration in the urine is 100mg/dL, and urine flow is 2ml/ min?
A. 2 ml/min
B. 10 ml/min
C. 20 ml/min
D. 200 ml/min

******
 1 BMS19104
F/COE/005
Dr. M.G.R.
EDUCATIONAL AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE
DEEMED TO BE UNIVERSITY

MT04
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, JANUARY – 2024
FIRST YEAR
BMS19104
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER II
REGISTER NUMBER

Time: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Answer ALL Questions

Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary

PART – A (2x10 = 20 Marks)

LONG ESSAY
1. (a) Draw a neat labeled diagram of a synapse.
(b) Describe electrical events during neuronal excitation. (4+6)
2. (a) Name the hormones secreted from pituitary gland.
(b) Explain the mechanism of action and functions of growth hormone.
(c) Add a note on Acromegaly. (2+6+2)

PART – B (8x5 = 40 Marks)

SHORT ESSAY

Explain the following

3. An elderly person sits on floor with folded legs for half an hour. When he tries to
get up, he complains of numbness in his right leg. The numbness disappeared
after 5 mins.
(a) Which degree nerve injury leads to the above conditions?
(b) Define Wallerian degeneration.
(c) Write the steps of regeneration after nerve injury. (1+1+3)
4. Spermatogenesis.
5. Functions of female sex hormones.
6. Importance of dietry fibre.
7. Causes, clinical features and treatment of Parkinsonism.
8. Explain the pyramidal tract with the help of a diagram.
9. Dark and light adaptation.
10. Define and give the normal values of the various lung volumes & capacities. Draw
a suitable diagram.
 2 BMS19104
PART – C (10x2 = 20 Marks)

SHORT ANSWERS

11. List the causes for brain death.

12. What is Cushing’s syndrome? Give any two features.
13. What is Aldosterone escape?
14. Name the various female contraceptive methods.
15. What is Phantom limb?
16. Any four differences between UMN & LMN lesion.
17. Name the Hearing tests.
18. Name the primary taste sensations.
19. Draw a normal ECG tracing & name the waves.
20. What is cardiopulmonary resuscitation? List two indications for the same.
 3 BMS19104
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, JANUARY – 2024
FIRST YEAR
BMS19104
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER II
PART – D (20x1 = 20 Marks)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

21. Excitability of a tissue is measured by the value of

A. conduction velocity
B. refractory period
C. chronaxie
D. threshold stimulus

22. It is right to say that

A. dendrites conduct impulses away from the soma
B. axon conducts impulse towards the soma
C. neurilemmal sheath is important for nerve regeneration
D. neurilemmal sheath is lipoprotein, in nature

23. An excitable cell has an RMP of -70mV and a firing level of -50 mV. This cell
would be inexcitable when its membrane potential is
A. -30mV
B. -55mV
C. -75mV
D. -90mV

24. All are TRUE about growth hormone secretion, EXCEPT

A. it is stimulated by somatostatin released from the hypothalamus
B. it increases when the blood glucose level falls
C. it has a lactogenic effect
D. it increases the size of viscera

25. All the following cause hyperglycemia EXCEPT

A. GH
B. Cortisol
C. Catecholamines
D. Insulin

26. In a laboratory research project, a mouse is treated with a drug that inhibits the
activity of the major enzyme responsible for the catabolism of circulating thyroid
hormones. Identify the, pattern of changes in TSH, free T4, and protein-bound T4
that are most likely to be detected in this animal immediately following the drug
treatment.
A. Increased, increased, increased
B. Increased, decreased, decreased
C. Increased, decreased, increased
D. Decreased, increased, increased
 4 BMS19104
27. Parathyroid hormone is responsible for all actions, EXCEPT
A. absorption of phosphorus increase
B. vit D absorption increase
C. mobilization of 6calcium from bone
D. increase in the intestinal absorption of calcium

28. The secretion of which of the following would be the least affected by decrease
in extracellular fluid volume?
A. CRH
B. Arginine vasopressin
C. Estrogens
D. Aldosterone

29. Mr. X visits his primary care physician complaining of being tired. His BMI is 35
and his blood pressure is 146/90mmHg. The physician decides to measure his
serum testosterone levels since testosterone levels are reduced with chronic
diseases and obesity. Testosterone is produced mainly by the
A. Leydig cells
B. Sertoli cells
C. seminiferous tubules
D. epididymis

30. Human chorionic gonadotrophic hormone (HCG)

A. acts directly on the uterus to maintain the endometrium
B. is formed in the anterior pituitary
C. in blood level rises steadily throughout pregnancy
D. can be detected in the urine as an early sign of pregnancy

31. Puberty does not normally occur in humans under the age of 8 years, because
before that age group,
A. the tissues are unresponsive to gonadal steroids
B. the ovaries and testes are unresponsive to gonadotropins
C. the brain secretes a substance that inhibits the responsiveness of gonads
to gonadotropins
D. the hypothalamus fails to secrete GnRH in a pulsatile fashion

32. In sensory receptors,

A. stimulus energy is converted into local depolarization
B. the generator potential is graded and self-propagating
C. a generator potential can be produced by only one form of energy
D. the frequency of action potentials generated doubles when the strength of
the stimulus doubles

33. Which of the following is NOT a property of a synapse?

A. All or none law
B. Summation
C. Convergence
D. Fatigue
 5 BMS19104
34. All the following sensations are carried by dorsal column pathway EXCEPT
A. tactile discrimination
B. stereognosis
C. fine touch
D. crude touch

35. All are features of pyramidal tract lesion, EXCEPT

A. clasp knife rigidity
B. increase tone
C. Babinski sign positive
D. involuntary movement

36. What is the name for the topographical representation of the sensory input to
the somatosensory cortex?
A. Homunculus
B. Homo sapiens
C. Postcentral gyrus
D. Primary cortex

37. Visual association area corresponds to which Brodmann area number?

A. 3,1,2
B. 4,6
C. 18,19
D. 41,42

38. Endolymph has a high concentration of

A. Na +
B. Ca ++
C. K +
D. Cl-

39. In the nose where are the receptors for smell located?
A. Olfactory foramina
B. Olfactory epithelium
C. Olfactory bulb
D. Jacobsons' organ

40. All of the following are the physiological changes in the old age EXCEPT
A. decrease in the RBC count
B. increased sensitivity of baroreceptors
C. decrease in GFR
D. decrease in T-lymphocyte

******
 1 BMS19104
F/COE/005
Dr. M.G.R.
EDUCATIONAL AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE
DEEMED TO BE UNIVERSITY

KV04
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER – 2023
FIRST YEAR
BMS19104
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER II
REGISTER NUMBER

Time: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Answer ALL Questions

Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary
PART – A (2x10 = 20 Marks)
LONG ESSAY
1. A 60-year-old male presented to the medical specialist with signs of flexion
attitude, pill rolling movement of thumb over fingers, resting tremor, mask-like face
and festinating gait.
(a) What is the likely diagnosis and give cause for the same?
(b) Write the nuclei and explain in detail about the functions of basal ganglia.
(c) What is the treatment for this condition? (4+4+2)
2. List the hormones involved in calcium homeostasis and explain in detail about the
regulation of calcium. Add a note on hypocalcemia. (2+4+4)
[
PART – B (8x5 = 40 Marks)
SHORT ESSAY

Explain the following

3. Functions of middle ear.
4. Spermatogenesis.
5. Neuro muscular transmission.
6. Functions of cortisol.
7. Obesity.
8. Diagrammatic representation of pyramidal tract.
9. Taste pathway.
10. Regulation of body temperature.
 2 BMS19104

PART – C (10x2 = 20 Marks)

SHORT ANSWERS

11. What is cretinism? Give any two features of cretinism.

12. What is Cushing’s syndrome? Give any two features.
13. Define Rigor mortis.
14. What is Presbyopia? How it is corrected.
15. Define intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCD). Give one example.
16. What is Corpus luteum? Give one important functions of corpus luteum.
17. Speech areas and Aphasia.
18. What is REM sleep?
19. Any four functions of skin.
20. Physiological changes in human body during exercise.
 3 BMS19104
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER – 2023
FIRST YEAR
BMS19104
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER II
PART – D (20x1 = 20 Marks)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

21. Best method to increase the muscle strength is by doing

A. isometric exercises
B. isotonic exercises
C. aerobic isotonic exercise
D. electrical stimulation

22. Trousseau’s sign is the test for detecting

A. tetanus
B. tetany
C. cretinism
D. Cushing’s syndrome

23. The site of fatigue in an intact animal is in the

A. neuromuscular junction
B. synapse
C. spinal cord
D. medulla

24. Lesion in the optic tract causes

A. blindness in the same eye
B. blindness in the opposite eye
C. bitemporal hemianopia
D. homonymous hemianopia

25. A state of sustained contraction is called

A. tetanus
B. clonus
C. treppe
D. fatigue

26. The character of white muscle is

A. it has a short latency
B. it has a long latency
C. they respond slowly
D. they are postural muscles
 4 BMS19104
27. The normal intraocular pressure is:
A. 0 – 5 mmHg
B. 6 – 9 mmHg
C. 10 – 20 mmHg
D. 21 – 30 mmHg

28. The calcium – binding protein which acts as a second messenger is

A. calmodulin
B. cAMP
C. cGMP
D. adenosine

29. Site of production of aqueous humor is

A. ciliary body
B. iris
C. choroid
D. cornea

30. Sertoli cells are present in

A. epididymis
B. seminal vesicle
C. prostate
D. seminiferous tubules

31. Progesterone is secreted by all the following, EXCEPT

A. corpus luteum
B. placenta during pregnancy
C. adrenal cortex
D. adrenal medulla

32. Lesion in one of the following leads to sensory ataxia

A. posterior column
B. spinocerebellar tract
C. cerebellum
D. vestibular apparatus

33. Normal sperm count is:

A. 6,000 – 12,000/mL
B. 60,000 – 1.2 million/mL
C. 6 – 12 million/mL
D. 60 – 120 million/mL
 5 BMS19104
34. Cerebellar nystagmus occurs with damage to
A. vermis
B. flocculonodular lobe
C. anterior lobe
D. posterior lobe

35. Testosterone causes the following, EXCEPT

A. causes increase in RBC count
B. causes muscular growth
C. causes bone growth
D. decrease in RBC count

36. Which thalamic nucleus relays somesthetic information to the sensory cortex?
A. Posteroventral
B. Ventrolateral
C. Ventroanterior
D. Anterior

37. The precursor of progesterone is

A. estrogen
B. cholesterol
C. oxytocin
D. glycogen

38. Delta waves in EEG are seen in

A. deep sleep
B. REM sleep
C. awake with eyes open
D. awake with eyes closed

39. Satiety center is in which portion of the hypothalamus?

A. Dorsomedial nucleus
B. Ventromedial nucleus
C. Preoptic area
D. Lateral nucleus

40. Higher intellectual functions are linked to:

A. limbic system
B. parietal cortex
C. prefrontal cortex
D. motor cortex

******
 1 BMS19103
F/COE/005
Dr. M.G.R.
EDUCATIONAL AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE
DEEMED TO BE UNIVERSITY

KV03
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER – 2023
FIRST YEAR
BMS19103
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER I
REGISTER NUMBER

Time: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Answer ALL Questions

Draw suitable diagrams wherever necessary

PART – A (2x10 = 20 Marks)

LONG ESSAY
1. A 45 year old patient reported with blood pressure of 150/100mm Hg. Doppler
investigation revealed stenosis of renal arteries.
(a) What is the diagnosis?
(b) What is hypertension and classify hypertension?
(c) Explain in detail the short-term regulation of blood pressure. (1+3+6)
2. Describe the mechanism of regulation of secretion of gastric Hydrochloric Acid.
Add a note on peptic ulcer. (5+3+2)

PART – B (8x5 = 40 Marks)

SHORT ESSAY

Explain the following

3. Non-excretory functions of kidney.
4. Artificial respiration.
5. Cellular immunity.
6. Haemolytic disease of the new-born.
7. Oxygen dissociation curve.
8. Doctor patient relationship.
9. Factors affecting GFR.
10. Hypovolemic shock.
 2 BMS19103

PART – C (10x2 = 20 Marks)

SHORT ANSWERS

11. What is AV nodal delay? What is its significance?

12. Define oral rehydration therapy. What is the principle used in it.
13. Define vital capacity. Give the normal value.
14. Why blood does not clot inside the blood vessel?
15. Role of calcium in coagulation.
16. What is Peristalsis?
17. What is Cystometrogram?
18. What are Diuretics? Give two examples.
19. Distribution of body fluid compartment.
20. Positive feedback mechanism.
 3 BMS19103
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION, NOVEMBER – 2023
FIRST YEAR
BMS19103
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER I
PART – D (20x1 = 20 Marks)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

21. False statement regarding sickle cell anaemia is:

A. RBCs fragility increases
B. RBCs are sickle shaped
C. blood flow to tissues decreases
D. manifests as mild anaemia

22. Smallest blood cell is the

A. small lymphocyte
B. RBC
C. platelet
D. neutrophil

23. Which of the following moves rapidly across the cell membrane?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water
C. Glucose
D. Urea

24. Chemical mediator of immediate hypersensitivity reaction is contained in the

granules of
A. neutrophils
B. eosinophils
C. basophils
D. mast cell

25. A reliable screening test for platelet function is

A. clotting time
B. prothrombin time
C. thrombin time
D. clot retraction time

26. Immunoglobulins are produced by the

A. plasma cells
B. megakaryocytes
C. neutrophils
D. macrophages
 4 BMS19103
27. Atrophy of gastric mucosa produces
A. indigestion
B. hyperacidity
C. pernicious anaemia
D. belching

28. pH of the liver bile is

A. 1–2
B. 4–6
C. 6.4 – 7.2
D. 7.8 – 8.6

29. The rhythmic contraction in gastro-intestinal tract is highest in the

A. stomach
B. duodenum
C. ileum
D. colon

30. Concentrating or diluting ability of urine depends upon the functioning of all,
EXCEPT
A. Loop of Henle
B. PCT
C. DCT
D. Collecting duct

31. Following is the least absorbable in tubules

A. Creatinine
B. Glucose
C. Urea
D. Sucrose

32. Denervation of urinary bladder may result in all, EXCEPT

A. complete loss of voluntary micturition
B. isolated bladder
C. insufficient emptying
D. polyuria

33. Myoglobin binds with

A. 1 mol of oxygen per mol
B. 2 mol of oxygen per mol
C. 3 mol of oxygen per mol
D. 4 mol of oxygen per mol
 5 BMS19103
34. The maximum size of the particle in diameter that reaches the alveoli is
A. 15 µm
B. 10 µm
C. 5 µm
D. 2 µm

35. Maximum mid expiratory flow rate (MMEFR) indicates the flow obstruction in
A. large airways
B. small airways
C. trachea
D. bronchi

36. Normal QRS complex is approximately

A. 0.02 sec
B. 0.04 – 0.06 sec
C. 0.08 – 0.12 sec
D. 0.13 – 0.15 sec

37. Macula densa cells get stimulated by

A. hypovolemia
B. decreased K+
C. decreased Na+
D. alteration in transmural pressure

38. Hyperosmolarity of renal medulla is due to the increased content of

A. K+
B. Na+ & urea
C. Glucose
D. Na+ only

39. In renal glycosuria, the renal threshold for glucose is

A. low
B. high
C. same
D. greatly increased

40. Lack of vitamin K causes deficiency of all, EXCEPT

A. prothrombin
B. fibrinogen
C. factor VII
D. factor X

******
 1 BMS19103
F/COE/005
Dr. M.G.R.
EDUCATIONAL AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE
DEEMED TO BE UNIVERSITY

MB15
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, APRIL – 2022
FIRST YEAR
BMS19103
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER I
REGISTER NUMBER

Time: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Answer ALL Questions

Draw Suitable Diagrams wherever necessary

PART – A (2x10 = 20 Marks)

ESSAY

1. A 50-year-old man came to the clinic with complaints of constant headache

worsening as the day progress, sweating and blurry vision. On examination of his
blood pressure he had systolic pressure of 170 mm Hg and diastole pressure of
110mm Hg .His father had history of hypertension for 15years and due to improper
medication, died last year by haemorrhagic stroke.
a. Give the clinical diagnosis and explain.
b. Explain in detail the mechanism involved in the regulation of blood pressure.
(2+8 marks)

2. A 40-year-old stone polisher, complained of dyspnoea .Investigations revealed,

decrease in total lung capacity and normal FEVI/FVC ratio.
a. He is suffering from what disease? Explain.
b. Explain neural regulation of respiration.
(4+6marks)

PART – B (8x5 = 40 Marks)

DETAILED ANSWERS

Explain the following

3. Cell mediated immunity.

4. Electrocardiogram (ECG).
5. Deglutition reflex.
 2 BMS19103

6. Active transport.
7. Intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
8. Micturition reflex.
9. Factors affecting cardiac output.
10. Hypoxia.
PART – C (10x2 = 20 Marks)

SHORT ANSWERS

11. What are the functions of plasma protein?

12. Write the functions of cholecystokinin (CCK).
13. Briefly write about shock.
14. Write a short note on dialysis.
15. What is fibrinolytic system?
16. Define cyanosis.
17. Write the composition of pancreatic juice.
18. Define GFR with its normal value.
19. What is mass peristalsis?
20. State Landsteiner’s law.
 3 BMS19103
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, APRIL – 2022
FIRST YEAR
BMS19103
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER I
PART – D (20x1 = 20 Marks)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

21. Renin is secreted by

A. Renal tubular epithelial cells
B. Renal interstitial cells
C. Justaglomerular cells
D. Mesangial cells

22. Corrigan pulse is seen in

A. Aortic stenosis
B. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
C. Aortic insufficiency
D. Decrease in sympathetic tone

23. Iron is stored in liver and spleen as

A. Ferritin
B. Transferrin
C. Apoferritin
D. Hemosiderin

24. Renal threshold for glucose is

A. 90mg
B. 140mg
C. 180mg
D. 240mg

25. Erythropoietin in kidneys is produced by

A. JG cells
B. Lacis cells
C. Renal tubular epithelial cells
D. Peritubular interstitial cells

26. Which of the following hormones inhibits gastrin secretion?

A. Gastrin
B. Histamine
C. Cortisol
D. Somatostatin
 4 BMS19103

27. Tall T waves are seen in

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hyponatremia

28. Hemophilia A is caused by the deficiency of

A. Factor II
B. Factor X
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor XII

29. The symptoms of Dumping syndrome are caused in part by

A. Increased BP
B. Increased secretion of gastrin
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hyperglycemia

30. Urea clearance by the kidney is

A. More than insulin clearance
B. More than glucose clearance
C. More than creatinine clearance
D. Less than insulin clearance

31. At full term, the foetal lung maturation is facilitated by

A. Glucocorticoids
B. ADH
C. Parathormone
D. Aldosterone

32. Number of nephrons present in both kidneys together is,

A. 0.5 million
B. 1 million
C. 2-3 million
D. 5 million

33. Pancreatic bicarbonate secretion is mainly stimulated by

A. CCK-PZ
B. Secretin
C. Gastrin
D. Vasoactive instestinal polypestide (VIP)
 5 BMS19103
34. Immunoglobulins are produced by
A. Plasma cells
B. Megakaryocyte
C. Neutrophils
D. Macrophage

35. Normal intra pleural pressure is

A. - 2.5mm Hg
B. 5mm Hg
C. 10mm Hg
D. - 20mm Hg

36. An important starch digesting enzyme in saliva is

A. Lipase
B. Alpha amylase
C. Trypsin
D. Elastase

37. Central chemoreceptors are highly sensitive to

A. PCO2 changes of arterial blood
B. HCO3 changes in the CSF
C. HCO3 changes in the arterial blood
D. decreased PO2 of arterial blood

38. In normal ECG, QRS complex represents

A. Ventricular repolarisation
B. Atrial repolarisation
C. Ventricular depolarization
D. Atrial depolarisation

39. Extrinsic system of blood clotting is initiated by

A. Factor I
B. Factor II
C. Factor III
D. Factor VIII

40. Glucose reabsorption occurs in

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Cortical collecting duct

******
 1 BMS19104
F/COE/005

Dr. M.G.R.
EDUCATIONAL AND RESEARCH INSTITUTE
DEEMED TO BE UNIVERSITY

MB16
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, APRIL – 2022
FIRST YEAR
BMS19104
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER II
REGISTER NUMBER

Time: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Answer ALL Questions

Draw Suitable Diagrams wherever necessary
PART – A (2x10 = 20 Marks)

ESSAY

1. A 20-year-old female came to the casualty with bilateral calf muscle pain and
paresthesia of fingers for one hour. On examination carpopedal spasm was
present. ECG showed prolonged QT interval.
a. What is your diagnosis?
b. What is the mineral deficiency in this case and what is its normal level in the
blood?
c. Describe in detail the functions of the hormone involved in the mineral involved.
(1+2+7 marks)

2. A 70-year-old male was admitted in the emergency department following self-fall at

his residence. On examination he had mask like facies, reduced arm swing,
involuntary movements of the fingers and stooped posture and slowness of
movements.
a. What is your diagnosis? Explain.
b. Which part of the basal ganglia is involved in this disease?
c. Write in detail about the functions of basal ganglia. (3+1+6 marks)

PART – B (8x5 = 40 Marks)

DETAILED ANSWERS

Explain the following

3. Functions of cerebellum.
4. Pain pathway.
 2 BMS19104
5. Spermatogenesis.
6. Schematic representation of Visual pathway.
7. Classification of nerve fibres.
8. Cerebro spinal fluid (CSF).
9. Functions of skin.
10. Functions of thyroid hormone.

PART – C (10x2 = 20 Marks)

SHORT ANSWERS

11. What is “Frost bite”?

12. Write the significance of Barr bodies.
13. Write the causes and prevention of difficiency of vitamin K.
14. What is Myasthenia gravis?
15. Write the functions of Corpus luteum.
16. What is Alpha block?
17. What is the structure of muscle spindle?
18. Write the significance of LH surge.
19. Write about the hormone involved in glucose homeostasis.
20. What is sarcotubular system?
 3 BMS19104
M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATIONS, APRIL – 2022
FIRST YEAR
BMS19104
PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER II
PART – D (20x1 = 20 Marks)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

21. The bulk of semen is contributed by the

A. Prostate
B. Seminal vesicle
C. Seminiferous tubules
D. Bulbourethral glands

22. The centre for olfaction is

A. Area 3
B. Area 20
C. Area 25
D. Area 42

23. Sarcomeres are present in the

A. Skeletal and cardiac muscle
B. Neuron
C. Smooth muscle
D. Nephron

24. The neurotransmitter at neuro muscular (N- M) junction is

A. Noradrenaline
B. Serotonin
C. Glutamate
D. Ach

25. Scavenger of central nervous system is

A. Satellite cells
B. Schwann cells
C. Microglia
D. Neutrophils

26. The longest neuron present in our body is

A. Corticospinal tract neuron
B. Reticulospinal
C. Corticonuclear
D. Neurons of cerebellum
 4 BMS19104

27. Length- tension relation in a muscle, is explained by

A. Weber-fechner law
B. Bell-magendie law
C. Sliding filament theory
D. Starling law

28. In Brown- Sequard syndrome, all the sensations EXCEPT one, is lost on the
same side.
A. Proprioception
B. Vibration
C. Stereognosis
D. Pain

29. Plasma Na2+ level is mainly influenced by

A. Aldosterone
B. Cortisol
C. Noradrenaline
D. Vasopressin

30. Babinski sign is seen in

A. LMN lesion
B. UMN lesion
C. Cerebellar lesion
D. Thalamic syndrome

31. The action of PTH is mediated through

A. Cyclic AMP
B. Cyclic GMP
C. IP2
D. DAG

32. Turners’ syndrome has the following sex chromosomal combination

A. XY
B. YO
C. XO
D. XXY

\ 33. Complete development of seminiferous tubules requires

A. LH
B. Cortisol
C. Oxytocin
D. FSH and androgens
 5 BMS19104

34. Tritanopia subjects fail to perceive which colour?

A. Blue
B. Red
C. Green
D. All the primary colours

35. Main source for progesterone during pregnancy is the

A. Ovary
B. Placenta
C. Adrenal cortex
D. Corpus luteum

36. Visual acuity is the function of

A. Rods
B. Cones
C. Mueller cells
D. Horizontal cells

37. Thirst centre is present in the

A. Cerebellum
B. Hypothalamus
C. Brainstem
D. Thalamus

38. Myelin sheath in the peripheral nerve is formed by

A. Astrocytes
B. Mueller cells
C. Schwann cells
D. Oligodendrogliocytes

39. Normal serum calcium level is

A. 3mg/dL
B. 9-11 mg/dL
C. 15-17 mg/dL
D. 20 mg/dL

40. Eggs are rich in which amino acid?

A. Tyrosine
B. Glutamine
C. Valine
D. Tryptophan

******