Cambridge IGCSE™

* 4 4 5 4 8 7 2 4 9 8 *

PHYSICS 0625/41
Paper 4 Theory (Extended) May/June 2020

1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the question paper.

No additional materials are needed.

INSTRUCTIONS
● Answer all questions.
● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
● Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
● Do not write on any bar codes.
● You may use a calculator.
● You should show all your working and use appropriate units.
● Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N (acceleration of free fall = 10 m / s2).

INFORMATION
● The total mark for this paper is 80.
● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].

This document has 16 pages. Blank pages are indicated.

DC (ST/CT) 194261/3
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1 An aeroplane of mass 2.5 × 105 kg lands with a speed of 62 m / s, on a horizontal runway at time
t = 0. The aeroplane decelerates uniformly as it travels along the runway in a straight line until it
reaches a speed of 6.0 m / s at t = 35 s.

(a) Calculate:

(i) the deceleration of the aeroplane in the 35 s after it lands

deceleration = ......................................................... [2]

(ii) the resultant force acting on the aeroplane as it decelerates

force = ......................................................... [2]

(iii) the momentum of the aeroplane when its speed is 6.0 m / s.

momentum = ......................................................... [2]

(b) At t = 35 s, the aeroplane stops decelerating and moves along the runway at a constant speed
of 6.0 m / s for a further 15 s.

On Fig. 1.1, sketch the shape of the graph for the distance travelled by the aeroplane along
the runway between t = 0 and t = 50 s. You are not required to calculate distance values.

distance

0
0 35 50
time / s

Fig. 1.1
[3]

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(c) As the aeroplane decelerates, its kinetic energy decreases.

Suggest what happens to this energy.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

[Total: 10]

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2 Fig. 2.1 is the extension–load graph for a light spring S.

30

extension / cm

20

10

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
load / N

Fig. 2.1

(a) State the range of loads for which S obeys Hooke’s law.

from ....................................................... to .......................................................... [1]

(b) Using information from Fig. 2.1, determine the spring constant k of spring S.

k = ......................................................... [2]

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(c) A second spring, identical to spring S, is attached to spring S. The two springs are attached
to a rod, as shown in Fig. 2.2. A load of 4.0 N is suspended from the bottom of spring S. The
arrangement is in equilibrium.

rod

second spring

spring S

4.0 N load

Fig. 2.2

(i) State the name of the form of energy stored in the two springs when they are stretched.

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

(ii) Determine the extension of the arrangement in Fig. 2.2.

extension = ................................................... cm [1]

(iii) The load is carefully increased to 6.0 N in total.

Calculate the distance moved by the load to the new equilibrium position as the load
increases from 4.0 N to 6.0 N.

distance moved = ......................................................... [1]

[Total: 6]

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3 Fig. 3.1 shows gas trapped in the sealed end of a tube by a dense liquid.

open end

sealed
trapped gas end
cm3
10
20
30
40
50
60
70

dense liquid

Fig. 3.1

The scale marked on the sealed end of the tube is calibrated to read the volume of gas trapped
above the liquid surface. Fig. 3.1 shows that initially the volume V1 of the gas is 60 cm3.

The pressure of the atmosphere is 1.0 × 105 Pa.

(a) State how Fig. 3.1 shows that the pressure of the trapped gas is equal to the pressure of the
atmosphere.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) Explain, in terms of the momentum of its molecules, why the trapped gas exerts a pressure
on the walls of the tube.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [3]

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(c) More of the dense liquid is poured into the open end of the tube. The level of the liquid surface
in both the sealed and the open ends of the tube rises as shown in Fig. 3.2. The temperature
of the trapped gas and atmospheric pressure both remain constant.

open end

15 cm

sealed
trapped gas end
cm3
10
20
30
40
50
60
70

dense liquid

Fig. 3.2

(i) In the sealed end of the tube, the volume V2 of the trapped gas is 50 cm3. In the open
end of the tube, the liquid surface is 15 cm above the new level in the sealed tube.

Calculate the pressure p2 of the trapped gas.

pressure p2 = ......................................................... [2]

(ii) Calculate the density of the liquid in the tube.

density = ......................................................... [2]

[Total: 8]

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4 Water has a specific heat capacity of 4200 J / (kg °C) and a boiling point of 100 °C.

(a) State what is meant by boiling point.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) A mass of 0.30 kg of water at its boiling point is poured into a copper container which is
initially at 11 °C. After a few seconds, the temperature of the container and the water are both
95 °C.

(i) Calculate the energy transferred from the water.

energy transferred = ......................................................... [2]

(ii) Calculate the thermal capacity of the copper container.

thermal capacity of the copper container = ......................................................... [2]

(iii) Water from the container evaporates and the temperature of the remaining water
decreases slowly.

Explain, in terms of molecules, why evaporation causes the temperature of the remaining
water to decrease.

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [3]

[Total: 8]

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5 The distance between the centre of a thin converging lens and each principal focus is 5.0 cm.

(a) Describe what is meant by the term principal focus for a thin converging lens.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [2]

(b) The lens is used as a magnifying glass to produce an image I of an object O.

(i) Underline the terms that describe the nature of the image produced by a magnifying
glass. [2]

diminished enlarged inverted real same size upright virtual

(ii) Fig. 5.1 is a full-scale diagram of the lens and the image I.

centre of lens

1 cm

1 cm

Fig. 5.1 (full-scale)

1. On Fig. 5.1, mark both principal focuses and label each of them F. [1]

2. By drawing on Fig. 5.1, find the position of object O and add object O to the diagram.
[3]

(iii) Using Fig. 5.1, determine the distance of object O from the centre of the lens.

distance = ......................................................... [1]

[Total: 9]

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6 The speed of sound in air is 340 m / s.

(a) Calculate the range of wavelengths for sounds that are audible by a healthy human ear.

wavelengths range from ................................. to ................................. [2]

(b) Sound waves are longitudinal waves.

Describe how a longitudinal wave differs from a transverse wave.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [3]

(c) Fig. 6.1 shows a band in front of a building.

Fig. 6.1

The drum produces a low frequency sound. Other musical instruments produce a high
frequency sound. These sounds are equally loud.

A young man at the side of the building hears the drum but not the high frequency sounds
from the other musical instruments.

Explain why this happens.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [3]

[Total: 8]

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7 An electromagnet consists of a solenoid X that is made of copper wire. The solenoid contains an
iron core.

(a) Explain why:

(i) the structure of copper makes it a suitable material for the wire

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [2]

(ii) iron is a suitable material for the core of an electromagnet.

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [2]

(b) Fig. 7.1 shows the electromagnet inside a second solenoid Y.

terminals of Y

solenoid X iron core

solenoid Y

a.c. power supply

Fig. 7.1

(i) Describe and explain what happens in solenoid Y when solenoid X is connected to an
alternating current (a.c.) power supply.

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [3]

(ii) A switch and a lamp are connected in series with the terminals of solenoid Y. When the
switch is closed, the lamp lights up at normal brightness.

Describe and explain what happens to the current in solenoid X when the switch is
closed.

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [2]

[Total: 9]
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8 The power supply used in an electric vehicle contains 990 rechargeable cells each of electromotive
force (e.m.f.) 1.2 V.

The cells are contained in packs in which all the cells are in series with each other. The e.m.f. of
each pack is 54 V.

(a) Calculate the number of packs in the power supply.

number of packs = ......................................................... [2]

(b) When in use, each pack supplies a current of 3.5 A.

(i) Calculate the rate at which each cell is transferring chemical energy to electrical energy.

rate of energy transfer = ......................................................... [2]

(ii) The packs are connected in parallel to supply a large current to drive the electric vehicle.

Explain why it is necessary to use thick wires to carry this current.

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [3]

[Total: 7]

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9 (a) Describe how a digital signal differs from an analogue signal. You may draw a diagram.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [2]

(b) (i) In the appropriate box, draw the symbol for an AND gate and the symbol for an OR gate.

AND gate OR gate

[1]

(ii) State how the behaviour of an AND gate differs from that of an OR gate.

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

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(c) An arrangement of logic gates A, B and C is shown in Fig. 9.1. The arrangement has two
inputs, X and Y and two outputs P and Q.

X B

P
Y

Fig. 9.1

Output P of logic gate B has logic state 1 (high).

(i) Determine the logic states of the two inputs of logic gate B.

upper input = ...............................................................

lower input = ...............................................................

[1]

(ii) Determine and explain the logic state of output Q.

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

logic state of Q = ......................................................... [3]

[Total: 8]

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10 Fig. 10.1 represents a neutral atom of an isotope of element X.

Fig. 10.1

(a) State one similarity between this atom and a neutral atom of a different isotope of element X.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) The isotope of element X is radioactive. It decays to form an isotope of element Y by emitting
a β-particle.

(i) Using Fig. 10.1 deduce the nuclide notation for the isotope of Y produced by this decay.

......
nuclide notation:
...... Y [3]

(ii) β-particles ionise the air they pass through less strongly than the same number of
α-particles.

Suggest why this is so.

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [3]

[Total: 7]

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge IGCSE™

PHYSICS 0625/41
Paper 4 Extended Theory May/June 2020
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 80

Published

Students did not sit exam papers in the June 2020 series due to the Covid-19 global pandemic.

This mark scheme is published to support teachers and students and should be read together with the
question paper. It shows the requirements of the exam. The answer column of the mark scheme shows the
proposed basis on which Examiners would award marks for this exam. Where appropriate, this column also
provides the most likely acceptable alternative responses expected from students. Examiners usually review
the mark scheme after they have seen student responses and update the mark scheme if appropriate. In the
June series, Examiners were unable to consider the acceptability of alternative responses, as there were no
student responses to consider.

Mark schemes should usually be read together with the Principal Examiner Report for Teachers. However,
because students did not sit exam papers, there is no Principal Examiner Report for Teachers for the June
2020 series.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the June 2020 series for most Cambridge
IGCSE™ and Cambridge International A & AS Level components, and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 10 printed pages.

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0625/41 Cambridge IGCSE – Mark Scheme May/June 2020
PUBLISHED
Generic Marking Principles

These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1:

Marks must be awarded in line with:

• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2:

Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3:

Marks must be awarded positively:

• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the
scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4:

Rules must be applied consistently e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.

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GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5:

Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6:

Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.

Science-Specific Marking Principles

1 Examiners should consider the context and scientific use of any keywords when awarding marks. Although keywords may be present, marks
should not be awarded if the keywords are used incorrectly.

2 The examiner should not choose between contradictory statements given in the same question part, and credit should not be awarded for any
correct statement that is contradicted within the same question part. Wrong science that is irrelevant to the question should be ignored.

3 Although spellings do not have to be correct, spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other syllabus
terms with which they may be confused (e.g. ethane / ethene, glucagon / glycogen, refraction / reflection).

4 The error carried forward (ecf) principle should be applied, where appropriate. If an incorrect answer is subsequently used in a scientifically
correct way, the candidate should be awarded these subsequent marking points. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme where
necessary and any exceptions to this general principle will be noted.

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5 ‘List rule’ guidance

For questions that require n responses (e.g. State two reasons …):

• The response should be read as continuous prose, even when numbered answer spaces are provided
• Any response marked ignore in the mark scheme should not count towards n
• Incorrect responses should not be awarded credit but will still count towards n
• Read the entire response to check for any responses that contradict those that would otherwise be credited. Credit should not be
awarded for any responses that are contradicted within the rest of the response. Where two responses contradict one another, this
should be treated as a single incorrect response
• Non-contradictory responses after the first n responses may be ignored even if they include incorrect science.

6 Calculation specific guidance

Correct answers to calculations should be given full credit even if there is no working or incorrect working, unless the question states ‘show
your working’.

For questions in which the number of significant figures required is not stated, credit should be awarded for correct answers when rounded by
the examiner to the number of significant figures given in the mark scheme. This may not apply to measured values.

For answers given in standard form, (e.g. a × 10n) in which the convention of restricting the value of the coefficient (a) to a value between 1
and 10 is not followed, credit may still be awarded if the answer can be converted to the answer given in the mark scheme.

Unless a separate mark is given for a unit, a missing or incorrect unit will normally mean that the final calculation mark is not awarded.
Exceptions to this general principle will be noted in the mark scheme.

7 Guidance for chemical equations

Multiples / fractions of coefficients used in chemical equations are acceptable unless stated otherwise in the mark scheme.

State symbols given in an equation should be ignored unless asked for in the question or stated otherwise in the mark scheme.

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Question Answer Marks

1(a)(i) (a =) (v – u) / t OR (62 – 6.0) / 35 OR 56 / 35 C1

1.6 m / s2 A1

1(a)(ii) (F =) ma OR ∆p / ∆t OR 2.5 × 105 × 1.6 OR (62 × 2.5 × 105 – 6.0 × 2.5 × 105) / 35 C1

4.0 × 105 N A1

1(a)(iii) (p =) mv OR 2.5 × 105 × 6.0 C1

1.5 × 106 kg m / s A1

1(b) curve of decreasing gradient from (0,0) to a point along dashed line B1

straight line of positive gradient after t = 35 s B1

gradient not zero at t = 35 s OR no change of gradient (at t = 35 s) B1

1(c) thermal energy AND in something specific (e.g. brakes / air / tyres) OR kinetic energy of air B1

Question Answer Marks

2(a) 0 (N) AND 8.0 N B1

2(b) (k =) F / x OR 8.0 / 0.15 C1

53 N / m OR 0.53 N / cm A1

2(c)(i) elastic potential (energy) B1

2(c)(ii) 15 cm B1

2(c)(iii) 7.5 cm OR 2(c)(ii) / 2 B1

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Question Answer Marks

3(a) liquid levels in the two limbs of the tube are equal B1

3(b) molecules collide with the walls (of the container) B1

momentum of molecules changes (reverses) B1

this causes a force AND force spread out (over area of walls) B1

3(c)(i) (p2 =) p1V1 / V2 = 1.0 × 105 × 60 / 50 C1

1.2 × 105 Pa A1

3(c)(ii) p2 = patm + hρg OR 1.2 × 105 – 1.0 × 105 OR 2.0 × 104 OR (ρ =) 2.0 × 104 / (0.15 × 10) C1

1.3 × 104 kg m–3 A1

Question Answer Marks

4(a) temperature at which liquid turns into gas B1

4(b)(i) (E =) mc∆T OR 0.30 × 4200 × (100 – 95) C1

6300 J A1

4(b)(ii) (C =) E / ∆T OR 6300 / 84 C1

75 J / °C A1

4(b)(iii) molecules do work against attractive force as they evaporate B1

more energetic molecules more likely to escape B1

average energy of remaining molecules decreases B1

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Question Answer Marks

5(a) (point) where incident parallel rays meet after passing through lens OR origin of rays that emerge parallel after passing M1
through lens

on principal axis OR use of term paraxial OR centre line A1

5(b)(i) enlarged virtual upright M1

two correct answers underlined AND no more than one wrong answer underlined

three correct answers underlined AND no wrong answer underlined A1

5(b)(ii)1 both principal focuses marked at points 5.0 cm from the optical centre B1

5(b)(ii)2 any two construction lines from: B2

• line from top of I towards far principal focus and traced back from lens horizontally
• line from top of I to (and through) centre of lens
• horizontal line from top of I to lens and traced back to near principal focus

O marked with top at intersection B1

5(b)(iii) 2.7 cm ⩾ distance ⩾ 3.1 cm B1

Question Answer Marks

6(a) (λ =) v / f OR 340 / 20 000 OR 340 / 20 C1

0.017 m AND 17 m A1

6(b) (longitudinal wave) vibration direction parallel to propagation / energy travel direction B1

transverse wave vibration direction perpendicular to propagation / energy travel direction B1

consists of rarefactions AND compressions B1

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Question Answer Marks

6(c) diffraction mentioned B1

wavelength of sound from drum / low frequency sound greater (than wavelength of high frequency sound) B1

more diffraction of sound from drum OR less diffraction of high frequency sound B1

Question Answer Marks

7(a)(i) (copper) contains free electrons B1

good electrical conductor B1

7(a)(ii) magnetic material OR easily magnetised B1

temporary magnetic material OR easily demagnetised B1

7(b)(i) alternating / changing / varying magnetic field (produced by X) B1

(electromagnetic) induction in Y B1

(alternating) electromotive force (e.m.f.) between terminals of Y / in Y B1

7(b)(ii) current in X increases B1

to supply the power used in Y / the lamp B1

Question Answer Marks

8(a) 990 / (54 / 1.2) OR 990 / 45 OR (number of cells in pack =) 54 / 1.2 OR 45 C1

22 A1

8(b)(i) (P =) EI OR 1.2 × 3.5 C1

4.2 W OR 4.2 J / s A1

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Question Answer Marks

8(b)(ii) thick wires have a smaller resistance B1

less thermal energy generated in wires B1

more efficient OR less risk of fire / insulation melting B1

Question Answer Marks

9(a) digital signal: consists of high and low states / voltages B1

analogue signal: continuously varying voltage B1

9(b)(i) AND gate OR gate B1

AND

9(b)(ii) when the inputs differ AND ‘AND gate’ produces 0 AND ‘OR gate’ produces 1 B1

9(c)(i) both inputs to upper NOR gate are 0s B1

9(c)(ii) two (identical) inputs to NAND gate are 1s M1

lower input to lower NOR gate is 1 M1

output Q is 0 A1

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Question Answer Marks

10(a) equal number of electrons OR equal number of protons B1

10(b)(i) 13
5X
C1

0 C1
−1β

13
6Y
A1

10(b)(ii) any three from: B3

• β-particles have charge of smaller size
• β-particles have smaller mass
• β-particles have less energy
• β-particles travel faster / less time near to air molecule
• effect / force on electrons in air molecules less

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