21-07-2024

2202CMD303033240004 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) When a bus suddenly takes a turn, the passengers are thrown outwards because of :

(1) Inertia of direction

(2) Acceleration of motion
(3) Speed of motion
(4) Both (2) & (3)

2) Assertion : A player lowers his hands while catching a cricket ball and suffers less reaction force.
Reason : The time of catch increases when cricketer lowers its hand while catching a ball.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

3) The Newton’s laws of motion are valid in -

(1) inertial frames

(2) non-inertial frames
(3) rotating frames
(4) accelerated frames

4) A force vector applied on a mass is represented as and accelerates with 1m/s2.

What will be the mass of the body-

(1) kg
(2) kg
(3) 10 kg
(4) 20 kg

5) The force versus time graph of a body of mass 18 kg is shown in figure. The velocity of the body

12 seconds after stating from rest is

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 12 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

6) A ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall with speed u at an angle of 30° and get reflected with the
same speed and at the same angle as shown in the figure. If the ball is in contact with the wall for

time t, then the force acting on the wall is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Force applied on a body is given by F = (3t2 – 2t + 10) N where t is in sec. Find impulse in t = 0 to
t = 2 sec (in kg m/sec)

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 32
(4) 24

8) The position-time graph of a body of mass 2 kg is shown in :

What is the impulse on the body at t = 2 sec. ?

(1) 5 kg ms–1
(2) + 10 kg ms–1
(3) –10 kg ms–1
(4) zero
9) A 500 kg rocket is set for vertical firing the exhaust speed is 800 m/s to give an initial upward
acceleration 20 m/s2. The amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed thrust will be –

(1) 127.5 kg/s

(2) 187.5 kg/s
(3) 185.5 kg/s
(4) 137.5 kg/s

10) A machine gun can fire 180 bullets per minute with velocity of 200 m/s. If mass of each bullet is
50 g then the force required to hold the gun while firing is :

(1) 60 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 120 N
(4) 240 N

11) Gravel is dropped into a conveyor belt at a rate of 0.5 kg/s. The extra force required in newton to
keep the belt moving at 2 m/s is:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 0.5

12)

Contact force between A and B is :-

(1) 20 N
(2) 18 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 11 N

13) The surfaces are frictionless, the ratio of T1 and T2 is:

(1)
(2)
(3) 1 : 5
(4) 5 : 1
14) A man slides down a light rope whose breaking strength is η times the weight of man (η < 1).
The maximum acceleration of the man so that the rope just breaks is

(1) g (1 – η)
(2) g (1 + η)
(3) gη

(4)

15) Three forces are acting at a point in a plane. The angle between and & and
are 90° and 120° respectively. Then for equilibrium, forces are in the ratio :

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
1:2:
(2)

(3) :1:2
(4) :2:1

16) Two blocks each having a mass M, rest on frictionless surfaces as shown in Fig. If the pulleys are
light and frictionless, and M on the incline is allowed to move down, then the tension in the string
will be :-

(1)
Mg sin θ

(2)
Mg sin θ

(3)
Mg sin θ
(4) 2 Mg sin θ

17) Three masses of 1 kg, 6 kg, 3 kg are connected to each other with strings and are placed on a
table as shown in figure. What is the acceleration with which the system is moving surface is
smooth.
(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) Zero
(2) 1 ms–2
(3) 2 ms–2
(4) 3 ms–2

18)

Reading of the spring balance, as shown in figure, is (assume all ideal cases and neglect friction, g =
10 m/s2) :-

(1) 20 N
(2) 10 N

(3)

(4) Zero

19) The acceleration of the 2 kg block if the free end of string is pulled with a force of 20 N as shown

is :-

(1) zero
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2 upward
(4) 5 m/s2 downward

20) A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the help of a rope which moves with a velocity v as

shown in figure. The horizontal velocity of the block is :

(1) v

(2)

(3) v sinθ
(4)

21) Find velocity of end A when rod AB is inclined at θ with horizontal.

(1) vBsinθ
(2) vBcosθ
(3) vBtanθ
(4) vBcotθ

22) A balloon of mass M is descending with a constant acceleration g/3. When a mass m is removed
from the balloon it starts rising with the same acceleration g/3. The value of m is (Assuming that its
volume does not change) :-

(1) M/2
(2) M/4
(3) 4M
(4) 2M

23) A block slides with a velocity of 10 m/s on a rough horizontal surface. It comes to rest after
covering a distance of 50 metres. If g is 10 m/sec2, then the coefficient of dynamic friction between
the block and the surface is :-

(1) 0.1
(2) 1
(3) 10
(4) 5

24) A block of mass m is placed at rest on a rough inclined plane of angle θ. If coefficient of friction
between the block and the inclined plane is μ, then the total force exerted by the inclined plane on
the block is :-

(1) mg
(2) μmg cosθ
(3) mg sinθ
(4) μmg tanθ

25) For the arrangement in figure, the tension in the string to prevent it from sliding down, is
(1) 6 N
(2) 6.4 N
(3) 0.4 N
(4) zero

26) A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The
coefficient of friction between the block and wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is-

(1) 20 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 2 N

27) A force acts on block shown. The force of friction acting on the block is : (In N)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) A uniform rope of length l lies on a table. If the coefficient of friction is μ then the maximum
length I1 of the part of this rope which can overhang from the edge of the table without sliding down
is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
29) In the arrangement as shown, tension T2 is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 50 N
(2) 100 N
(3)
(4)

30) The correct relation which express angle of repose and cofficient of static friction

(1) μ = tanθ
(2) μ = cosθ
(3) μ = sinθ
(4) μ = cotθ

31) The coefficient of static friction between two surfaces depend on

(1) the nature of surface

(2) the shape of the surface in contact
(3) the area of contact
(4) all of the above

32)

Friction between two surfaces

(1) Always opposes motion

(2) Always helps motion
(3) Always helps relative motion between surfaces
(4) Always opposes relative motion between the surfaces

33) Assertion : The driver in a vehicle moving with a constant speed on a straight road is in a non-
inertial frame of reference.
Reason : A reference frame in which Newton's laws of motion are applicable is non-inertial.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
34) A 1 kg stationary bomb is exploded in three parts having mass ratio 1 : 1 : 3. Parts having same
mass move in perpendicular direction with speed 30 m/s each, then the speed of bigger part will be
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Find acceleration of 8 kg block when acceleration of 4 kg block is 2 m/s2 in given situation –

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 8 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 4 m/s2

SECTION-B

1) A gardener waters the plants by a pipe of diameter 1 mm. The water comes out at the rate of 10
cm3/sec. The reactionary force exerted on the hand of the gardener is

(1) zero
(2) 1.27 × 10–2 N
(3) 1.27 × 10–4 N
(4) 0.127 N

2) A given object takes n times as much time to slide down a 45º rough incline as it takes to slide
down a perfectly smooth 45º incline. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the
incline is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3) Block B moves to the right with a constant velocity v0. The velocity of body A relative to B is :-

(1)
, towards left

(2)
, towards right

(3)
, towards left

(4)
, towards right

4) Find relation between a1, a2 and a3?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley P.
The mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction =
μ). The pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1 is

(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) Consider the situation as shown in the figure. The maximum value of m so

that the blocks do not move is :

(1) 0.2 kg
(2) 0.4 kg
(3) 0.6 kg
(4) 0.8 kg

7) A block of mass 1 kg is projected from the lowest point up along the inclined plane. If g = 10

ms-2,retardation experienced by the block is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

8) A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and the cart is m. The acceleration a of the cart that will prevent the
block from falling satisfies :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) A ball suspended from ceiling of a car makes an angle 37° with the vertical as seen by an observer
in the car. Possible value of acceleration of car is :-

(1) 5 ms–2
(2) 7.5 ms–2
(3) 10 ms–2
(4) 20 ms–2

10) Two blocks are moving on a smooth horizontal surface such that the mass m remains stationary
with respect to block of mass M as shown in the figure. The magnitude of force P is

(1) (M + m)g tan

(2) g tan
(3) mg cos
(4) (M + m)g cosec

11)
Find friction force between 2 kg and 6 kg blocks?

(1) 6 N
(2) 7 N
(3) 8 N
(4) 4 N

12) A bullet of mass 50gm is fired from a gun of mass 2kg. If the total KE produced is 2050J, the
energy of the bullet and the gun separately are :-

(1) 200 J, 5 J
(2) 2000 J, 50 J
(3) 5 J, 200 J
(4) 50 J, 2000 J

13) The force required to just move a body up an inclied plane is double the force required to just
prevent the body from sliding down the plane. The coefficient of friction is μ. The inclination θ of the
plane is :-

(1) tan–1 (μ)

(2) tan–1 (μ/2)
(3) tan–1 (2μ)
(4) tan–1 (3μ)

14) A man of mass 50 kg stands on a frame of mass 30 kg as shown. What force must man exert on

the rope for system to be in equilibrium ?

(1) 40g
(2) 80g
(3) 30g
(4) 50g

15) Five forces are applied on a body of mass 10 kg. Find out the acceleration of the body :-

(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 7 m/s2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
1) Which one of the following is the most stable conformer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Assertion : Meso compounds are optically inactive.

Reason : These are optically inactive due to external compensation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

3)

Incorrect statement about a pair of enantiomers :-

(1) One is 'd' form and other is 'l' form.

(2) Both are optically active.
(3) One is optically inactive and other is optically active.
(4) Both are non-superimposable mirror images of each other.

4) Which of the following is optically active:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None

5) Calculate total number of optically active isomers of given compound.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

6) Match Column - I with Column - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Column - I Column - II
An equimolar
Meso
(A) (P) mixture of
compound
enantiomers
Stereoisomers that are
(B) Enantiomers (Q)
not mirror images
Non- superim-
(C) Diastereomers (R)
posable mirror image
An optically
inactive compound
Racemates whose molecule is
(D) (S)
(Racemic mixture) achiral even though
they contain chiral
centres
(1) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(2) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(3) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P
(4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

7) Correct absolute configuration of following molecule is :

(1) R
(2) S
(3) E
(4) None

8)

Which of the following is optically active :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Correct absolute configuration of chiral atoms present in the given structure.

(1) (2R, 3R)

(2) (2S, 3S)
(3) (2R, 3S)
(4) (2S, 3R)

10) Which of the following is optically active :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Which one of the following can exist in meso form :-

(1) 2, 3-Dichloropentane
(2) 2-Methyl butanal
(3) 1, 2-Dimethylcyclobutane
(4) 1, 3-Dimethylcyclobutane

12) Below gauche form is more stable than anti form when Z is/are :

(1) –F
(2) —OH
(3) –OCH3
(4) All of these

13) Which of the following compounds is Erythro?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both 2 and 3

14) Racemic mixture is :

(1) 50% d + 50% l

(2) 60% R + 40% S
(3) 70% R + 30% S
(4) 75% d + 25% l

15) Which of the following is chiral molecule ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
16)

Consider the configuration's I and II.

I and II are
(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Homomers
(4) Structural isomers

17) The total number of conformation possible for ethane by rotation around C–C bond is

(1) 2
(2) ∞
(3) 4
(4) 9

18) The species which are paramagnetic amongst the following is/are :
O2, NO+, NO, O+2, O2–2

(1) Only O2
+
(2) O2 and O 2 only
+ 2–
(3) O2, NO and O 2 only
+
(4) O2, O 2 and NO only

19)

Column-I Column-II

(A) KHF2 (P) Ionic Bond

(B) CuSO4.5H2O (Q) Covalent Bond

(C) NH4Cl (R) Coordinate Bond

(D) KO2 (S) H-Bond

Choose the correct Answer-
(1) A - P,Q,S; B - P,Q,R,S; C - P,Q,R; D - P,Q
(2) A - P,Q,R; B - Q,R,S; C - P,Q,R; D - P,Q
(3) A - P,Q,S; B - P,Q,R; C - Q,R; D - P,Q
(4) A - P,Q,R,S; B - P,Q,R,S; C - P,Q,R; D - P,Q

20) Two pi and half sigma bonds are present in-

(1)
(2) N2
(3)
(4) O2

21) Which of the following combination of orbitals is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The bond order of NO is 2.5 while that in is 3. Which of the following statements is true for
these two species ?

(1) Bond length in is equal to that in NO

(2) Bond length in NO is greater than in
(3) Bond length in is greater than in NO
(4) Bond length is unpredictable

23) Correct set of species with zero dipole moment is :

(i) CO2 (ii) COCl2 (iii) CH2Cl2 (iv) BCl3

(1) (i) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

24) Which of the following is correct order of extent of H-bonding (No. of H-Bond)

(1) HF > H2O > H2O2

(2) H2O2 > H2O > HF
(3) H2O > H2O2 > HF
(4) All are incorrect

25)

Ion Bond order of m-o bond

 (M = Central atom)

(a) ClO4– :

(b) PO43– :

(c) NO2– :

(d) NO3– :
Correct match is :-

(1) d
(2) a, b
(3) c, d
(4) None

26) The correct order of C–O bond order :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) In N2 → N2+ process, removal of e¯ takes place from ?

(1) σ2s orbital

(2) π2p orbital
(3) σ2p orbital
(4) π* 2p orbital

28) Assertion: Extent of paramagnetism is measured by magnetic moment

Reason: Spin magnetic moment is always integer

(1) If (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) & (R) both are incorrect.

29) Bond length of H2+, H2– and H2 are in order :-

+ –
(1) H2 > H2 > H2
+ –
(2) H2 > H2 > H2
– +
(3) H2 > H2 > H2
– +
(4) H2 > H2 > H2
30) The correct order of bond order :-

2– 2– – 3–
(1) SO4 < CO3 < ClO4 < PO4
3– 2– 2– –
(2) PO4 < CO3 < SO4 < ClO4
2– 3– 2– 2–
(3) CO3 < PO4 < SO4 < ClO4
– 3– 2– 2–
(4) ClO4 < PO4 < CO3 < SO4

31)

Which of the following can form intermolecular H–bonding between its molecules?

(1) CH3OCH3
(2) CH3COCH3
(3) CH3Cl
(4) NH3

32) The incorrect order is/are :

2–
(1) CO3 < CO2 < CO : C – O bond strength
–
(2) N2O4 > N3 > N2 : N – N bond length
2– 2–
(3) SO2 < SO4 < SO3 : S – O bond order
(4) ClOH < HClO2 < HClO4 : thermal stability

33) The lowest O—O bond length in the following molecule is :-

(1) O2F2
(2) O2
(3) H2O2
(4) O3

34) Match the column.

Column-I Column-II
(order) (Properties)

(A) N2 > N2+ (P) No. of σ bond

(B) B2 > B2+ (Q) No. of unpaired e–

(C) O22– > O2 (R) Bond order

(D) H2 > H2+ (S) No. of A.B.M.O e–s

(1) (A)-P,R (B)-Q,S (C)-S (D)-P,Q,R,S
(2) (A)-Q,R (B)-Q,R (C)-P,Q (D)-Q,R,S
(3) (A)-P,Q,R (B)-P,Q,R (C)-Q,R (D)-R,S
(4) (A)-P,R (B)-P,Q,R (C)-S (D)-P,R
35) What is the formal charge on carbon atom in the given carbonate ion ?

(1) Zero
(2) –1
(3) +1
(4) +2

SECTION-B

1) Correct order of stability of the following conformers of n-butane.

(1) anti > Gauche > Partial Eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(2) Gauche > Anti > Partially Eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
(3) anti > Partial Eclipsed > Gauche > Fully eclipsed
(4) Fully eclipsed > anti > Partially Eclipsed > Gauche

2) Which among the following is the most stable conformation of n-butane?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which of the following molecule does not have chiral carbon ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Find correct decreasing order of groups according to CIP rule :-

(1) –COOH > –CHO > –OH > –Cl

(2) –Cl > –OH > –COOH > –CHO
(3) –OH > –Cl > –COOH > –CHO
(4) –Cl > –OH > –CHO > –COOH

5) If optical rotation produced by is +36° then that produced by is:-

(1) –36°
(2) 0°
(3) +36°
(4) Unpredictable

6) and are :

(1) Enantiomer
(2) Diastereomer
(3) Geometrical isomers
(4) Both (2) and (3)

7) The simplest alkanol exhibiting optical activity is

(1) n-butyl alcohol

(2) Isobutyl alcohol
(3) s-butyl alcohol
(4) t-butyl alcohol

8) Total number of stereoisomers which are possible for the given compound, will be -
 2
(1)

(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 8

9) In which of the following process, the bond order has increased and magnetic behaviour has
changed :-

O2 →
(1)

(2) C2 →
(3) N2 →

(4) C2 →

10) Order of dipole moment of the following

(1) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I

(2) NH3 < NF3
(3) CH3Cl > CH2Cl2 > CHCl3 > CCl4
(4) All of these

11) Which of the following molecule is symmetrical and have net zero dipole moment ?

(1) ClF3
(2) SF4
(3) XeF4
(4) XeF6

12) Which molecule contain only π bonds.

(1) H2
(2) F2
(3) C2
(4) O2

13) Molecule with is :-

(1) SO2
(2) ClO2
(3) NO2
(4) HgCl2

14) Dipole induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs :-
(1) SiF4 and He atoms
(2) H2O and alcohol
(3) Cl2 and CCl4
(4) HCl and He atoms

15) In which of the following intra molecular hydrogen bond is present

(1) Methanol
(2) Ortho-nitrophenol
(3) Ammonia
(4) Ice

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) In mosses vegetative reproduction take place by:-

(1) fragmentation and budding in the secondary protonema

(2) gemmae formation and endospore formation
(3) gemmae and tuber formation
(4) Spores

2) Protonema is a characteristic feature of :-

(1) Fern
(2) Marchantia
(3) Moss
(4) Cycas

3) The plant body of bryophytes is thallus-like, prostrate or erect and attached to substratum with
the help of:-

(1) unicellular or multicellular root

(2) unicellular or multicellular rhizoids
(3) multicellular roots
(4) unicellular roots

4) Which of the following statements are true for marchantia ?

(A) Gemma cups present on dorsal surface
(B) Rhizoids are present on ventral surface
(C) Unicellular scales
(D) Unicellular & jacketed sex organs

(1) A, B & C are correct

(2) A & B are correct
(3) B & D are correct
(4) A & C are correct

5) In a moss, the sporophyte :-

(1) Arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte

(2) Manufactures food for itself, as well as for the gametophyte
(3) Is partially parasitic on gametophyte
(4) Produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte

6) Consider the following two statements and select the correct option.
Statement I: Mosses reduce the impact of falling rain and prevent soil erosion.
Statement II: Mosses are the first terrestrial plants with vascular tissues.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

7) Assertion : Sporophyte of moss is more elaborate than that in liverworts.

Reason : Sporophyte of moss is differentiated into foot, seta and capsule.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

8) Select the correct combination of the statements (a-d) regarding the characteristics of certain
organisms
(a) Sphagnum provides peat that have long been used as fuel
(b) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and prevent soil erosion
(c) Gammae are green, multicellular, asexual buds present in some liverworts
(d) Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by conidia
The correct statements are :-

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d only
(3) a, b, c only
(4) b, c, d only

9) Which bryophyte is known as peat moss :-

(1) Riccia
(2) Fucus
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Marchantia

10) Statement-I : Brophytes are amphibians of plant kingdom.

Statement-II : Bryophytes require water to complete their life cycle.
Choose the correct answer from options given below :

(1) Both statements-I and statement-II are false

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true
(4) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false

11) In bryophytes, antheridium produces ___A___ and female sex organ archegonium produces
___B____. Here A and B refer to

(1) A–uniflagellate antherozoids; B–two eggs

(2) A–biflagellate antherozoids; B–one egg
(3) A–non-motile antherozoids; B–one egg
(4) A–non-motile antherozoids; B–two eggs

12) Bryophytes resemble algae on the following basis:

(1) Differentiation of the plant body into root, stem and heterotrophic mode of nutrition
Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissue, absence of roots and autotrophic mode of
(2)
nutrition
(3) Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(4) Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissue and autotrophic mode of nutrition.

13) Match the classes of pteridophytes given in column I with their examples given in column II and
choose the correct option.

Column -I
Column-II
(Classes of
(Examples)
pteridophytes)

A. Psilopsida I. Selaginella

B. Lycopsida II. Psilotum

C. Sphenopsida III. Dryopteris

D. Pteropsida IV. Equisetum

(1) A - II; B - I; C - IV; D - III
(2) A - I; B - II; C - IV; D - III
(3) A - II; B - I; C - III; D - IV
(4) A - II; B - IV; C - I; D - III

14) In pteridophytes, prothallus produces :

(1) Sporangia
(2) Antheridia and archegonia
(3) Vascular tissues
(4) Root, stem and leaf

15) Which is important in development of seed habit ?

(1) Free-living gametophyte

(2) Heterospory
(3) Haplontic life cycle
(4) Dependent sporophyte

16) Which of the following Pteridophytes are heterosporous –

(1) Salvinia
(2) Selaginella
(3) Azolla
(4) All

17) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
(A) In pteridophytes, the main plant body is a gametophyte which is differentiated into true root,
stem and leaves
(B) In some cases sporophylls may form distinct compact structures called strobili or cones
(Selaginella, Equisetum).
(C) Precursor to the seed habit is found in homosporous pteridophytes
(D) In majority of the pteridophytes all the spores are of similar kinds; such plants are called
homosporous.

(1) Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct

(2) Only (A), (B) and (D) are correct
(3) Only (A), (C) and (D) are correct
(4) Only (B) and (D) are correct

18) Read the following terms :

(i) Seed habit
(ii) Prothallus
(iii) archegonium
(iv) zygotic meiosis
(v) sporophyll
How many terms are related to pteriodophyte.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

19) Which among the following belongs Pteropsida?

(1) Selaginella
(2) Equisetum
(3) Psilotum
(4) Adiantum

20) Identify the diagrams A, B, C, D :-

(1) A-Fern, B-Marchantia, C-Pinus, D-Fern (aquatic)

(2) A-Riccia, B-Equisetum, C-Fern, D-Sphagnum
(3) A-Funaria, B-Equisetum, C-Selaginella, D-Pinus
(4) A-Selaginella, B-Equisetum, C-Fern, D-Salvinia

21) Arrange the given events in a correct sequence in the life cycle of pteridophytes ?
(I) Fertilization
(II) Liberation of spores
(III) Prothallus formation
(IV) Embryo formation

(1) II, III, I, IV

(2) IV, III, II, I
(3) I, II, III, IV
(4) I, IV, III, II

22) Majority of the pteridophytes are

I. Homosporous and produce only one kind of spores
II. Produce seeds
III. Heterosporous and produce microspores and macrospores.
IV. Restricted to narrow geographical regions due to specific requirement of water.

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and IV
(4) I and IV

23) Aquatic fern which supports the growth of blue green algae, Anabaena, and used to increase the
yield of paddy crop is :-

(1) Salvinia
(2) Marsilea
(3) Isoetes
(4) Azolla
24) In gymnosperm endosperm is :–

(1) Triploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Haploid
(4) Tetraploid

25) Assertion : Gymnosperm include medium sized trees or tall tree and shrub.
Reason : The giant (Red wood tree) sequoia is one of the tallest tree species of the gymnosperm.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Pollination in gymnosperm occurs by :-

(1) Water
(2) Air current
(3) Birds
(4) Bat

27) Choose the incorrect statement from followings

(1) Almost all Gymnosperms are Xerophytes

(2) All Gymnosperms show Heterosporous nature
(3) All Gymnosperms show seed habit
(4) All Gymnosperms are Monoecious

28) The compact arrangement of microsporophylls in gymnosperms form

(1) Seed cones

(2) Male cones
(3) Ovule
(4) Flower

29) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of gymnosperms ?

(1) The development of pollen grains take place within the microsporangia.
(2) Some gymnosperms are homosporous.
(3) The ovules are borne on megasporophylls which may be clustered to form the male cones.
(4) All of the above.

30) Cycas is ……a…… plant while Pinus is ……b…..plant. What are a and b Respectively?

(1) Monoecious and dioecious

(2) Dioecious and dioecious
(3) Dioecious and monoecious
(4) Monoecious and monoecious

31) Stilt roots are characteristic of :-

(1) Sugarcane
(2) Mangifera
(3) Ficus
(4) Mirabilis

32) In some plant growing in swampy area, many roots come out of the ground and vertically grow.
They are known as :

(1) Stilt Root

(2) Pneumetophore
(3) Prop root
(4) Nodulated root

33) Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones:-
(a) In Rhizophora pneumatophores are present which help to get oxygen for respiration.
(b) Prop root are present in banyan tree for support.
(c) Stilt roots are present in maize and sugarcane.
(d) Adventitious roots are develop from radicle.
Options :-

(1) Statement (a), (b) and (c)

(2) Statement (a), (b)
(3) Statement (c), (d)
(4) Statement (a), (c), (d)

34) The root is covered at the apex by a thimble like structure called :-

(1) Root hair

(2) Prop root
(3) Meristematic cells
(4) Root cap
35) Recognise the different regions in the root section- (i) Maturation region

(ii) Meristematic activity region

(iii) Root Cap
(iv) Elongation region

(1) a - (i); b - (iv); c - (iii) d - (ii)

(2) a - (i); b - (iv); c - (ii) d - (iii)
(3) a - (iv); b - (i); c - (iii) d - (ii)
(4) a - (ii); b - (iii); c - (i) d - (iv)

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following is incorrect about A, B, C and D ?

(1) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of sweet potato get swollen and store food
(2) Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for respiration
(3) Pneumatophores are found in the plants that grow in sandy soil
(4) A, B and C are underground roots but D grows vertically upwards

2) Assertion : Plants show various kinds of root modification.

Reason : Root modification helps in support, food, storage and respiration.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Root shows rapid growth in region of :-

(1) Elongation
(2) Maturation
(3) Root cap
(4) Differentiation

4) Tap root system is found in :-

(1) Monocots
(2) Dicot
(3) Grass
(4) Wheat

5) In wheat (monocot)

(1) Primary root is short lived

(2) Primary root replaced by fibrous roots
(3) Fibrous roots arises from the base of stem
(4) All are correct

6) Assertion : In gymnosperm the male and female gametophytes do not have an independent free
living existence.
Reason : In gymnosperm, spores are germinated in soil.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

7) The leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to extreme conditions due to all, except :-

(1) Needle like leaves

(2) Thick cuticle
(3) Sunken Stomata
(4) Coralloid roots

8) Match the incorrect options ?

(1) Pinus - fungal association

(2) Cycas - N2 fixation by cyanobacteria
(3) Cedrus - branched stem
(4) Cycas - Simple leaves

9) Phloem in gymnosperms lacks:

(1) Albuminous cells and sieve cells

(2) Sieve tubes only
(3) Companion cells only
(4) Both sieve tubes and companion cells
10) Prothallus in homosporous fern is :-
a. Multicellular
b. Gametophyte
c. Usually heterotrophic
d. Usually dioecious
Options :

(1) a and c
(2) a and b
(3) a and d
(4) b and c

11) Assertion : The spread of living pteridophytesis limited and restricted to narrow geographical
regions.
Reason : Gametophyte of pteridophytes required cool, damp and shady places to grow as well as
water for fertilization.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & theReason is a correct explanation of theAssertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True butReason is not a correct explanation of theAssertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False

12) Select the incorrect statement regarding pteridophytes.

(1) All Pteridophytes are homosporous.

(2) Prothallus is multicellular, free living gamatophyte arise from spore.
(3) Root stem and leaves are diploid.
(4) Water is required for transfer of antherozoids.

13) What is the unique character of life-cycle of pteridophyte?

(1) Gametophyte is dependent upon sporophyte.

(2) Sporophyte is dependent upon gametophyte.
(3) Sporophyte and gemetophyte are independent of each other
(4) Main plant body is sporophyte

14) The main plant body of bryophyte is :-

(1) Haploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Haplo-diploid
(4) Diplo-haploid

15) Assertion :- Bryophytes are of great ecological importance.

Reason :- Bryophytes help in colonisation (succession) on bare rocks/soil.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) In response to decrease in blood volume and blood pressure, which of the following do not occur?

(1) Secretion of renin

(2) Secretion of aldosterone
(3) Secretion of vassopressin
(4) Secretion of ANF

2) Angiotensin II activates the . . . . A . . . . and release . . . . B . . . .

Choose the correct option for A and B to complete the given statement

(1) A - adrenal cortex; B - aldosterone

(2) A - adrenal medulla; B - aldosterone
(3) A - adrenal capsule; B - aldosterone
(4) A - adrenal medulla; B - oxytocin

3) You and your study partner want to draw the pathway that controls the reabsorption of sodium
ion when blood presssure falls. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events?
(a) Aldosterone is released
(b) Renal tubules reabsorb Na+
(c) Renin is released
(d) Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) recognizes a drop in blood pressure.
(e) Angiotensin II is produced

(1) a, c, e, b, d
(2) d, b, c, a, e
(3) d, c, e, a, b
(4) b, d, c, a, e

4) Assertion : A counter current mechanism operates between the two limbs of the loop of henle
and of vasa recta.
Reason : Electrolytes and uric acid are retained in the interstitium by this arrangement.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

5) If ADH level in blood is decreased–

(1) volume of urine remains unaffected
(2) volume of urine increases
(3) volume of urine decreases
(4) Reabsorption of glucose in DCT occurs

6) Assertion (A): Diabetes insipidus is marked by excessive urination and too much thirst for water.
Reason (R): Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

7) Juxtaglomerular apparatus is made up of

(1) Juxtaglomerular cell, macula densa and lacis cell

(2) Juxtaglomerular cell, Purkinje cell and chief cell
(3) Juxtaglomerular cell, lacis cell and myoepithelial cell
(4) Juxtaglomerular cell, macula densa and argentaffin cell

8) Select the correct statement:

(1) Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases the blood pressure.

(2) Angiotensin II is a powerful vasodilator.
(3) Counter current pattern of blood flow is not observed in vasa recta.
(4) Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate activates JG cells to release renin.

9) Read the following statements :

Statement-A : NaCl is returned to the ascending limb of loop of Henle from the descending limb of
vasa recta.
Statement-B : The osmolarity of the filtrate increases from 300 m OsmolL–1 to 1200 m OsmolL–1 as
it moves down the descending limb of Henle's loop.
Choose the correct option from below :

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A & B are correct
(4) Both statements A & B are incorrect

10) Which statement is false for counter-current mechanism ?

(1) This mechanism helps to maintain a concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium.
(2) The flow of filterate in two limbs of Henle's loop in the same direction forms counter current.
(3) The flow of blood through the two limbs of vasa recta is also in counter current pattern.
(4) The gradient in inner medullary interstitium is mainly caused by NaCl and urea.
11) Read the following points :-
(i) Increases GFR
(ii) Increases B.P.
(iii) Decreases blood volume
(iv) Increases aldosterone secretion
(v) Vasoconstrictor
(vi) Increases Na⊕ excretion
How many points are correct about Angiotensin II?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

12) Kidney is regulated by hormonal feedback mechanism involving :-

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) JGA
(3) Heart
(4) All of above

13) Arrange the events of A.D.H. hormone function in blood pressure regulation
(A) Hypothalamus to release ADH
(B) Excessive loss of fluid from body
(C) ADH facilitates H2O reabsorption from later part of tubule
(D) ADH cause constrictory effect on blood vessel
(E) Increase in blood pressure & GFR. (Replica of Q. 190)

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) B → A → D → C → E
(3) B → A → C → D → E
(4) A → B → D → C → E

14) ANF is secreted by :-

(1) Atrial wall and increase blood pressure

(2) Atrial wall and decrease blood pressure
(3) Ventrical wall and decrease blood pressure
(4) Both atrial and ventricular wall to decrease blood pressure

15) Various events occurring during micturition reflex are listed below.
I. Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary bladder send signal to the CNS.
II. The bladder fills with urine and becomes distended.
III. Causing the release of urine.
IV. CNS passes on motor messenger to initiate the contraction smooth muscles
of bladder and simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter.
Identify the correct order of their occurrence.
(1) II → I → IV → III
(2) IV → III → II → I
(3) II → I → III → IV
(4) III → II → I → IV

16) Match the columns :-

(i) Accumulation of urea in blood (a) Glomerulonephritis

(ii) Kidney transplantation (b) Renal stone

(iii) Oxalates in kidney (c) Uremia

(iv) Inflammation of glomerulus (d) Renal failure

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(4) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

17) Assertion : Kidneys maintain the osmotic concentration of the blood.

Reason : Kidneys eliminate either hypotonic or hypertonic urine according to the need of the body.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

18) Which of the following is not an accessory excretory organ ?

(1) Liver
(2) Skin
(3) Kidneys
(4) Lungs

19) pH of urine :

(1) 9
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 6

20) Following are the steps of dialysis :-

A. Blood is passed into a vein
B. Blood is mixed with heparin
C. Blood is mixed with anti-heparin
D. Blood is drained from convenient artery
E. Blood is passed through a coiled and porous cellophae tube bathing in dialysis fluid.
F. Removal of nitrogenous wastes from blood.
The correct sequence of steps is :-

(1) A → B →C → D → E → F
(2) F → C → E → B → A → D
(3) D → B → E → F → C → A
(4) D →C → E → F → B →A

21) In skeletal muscle fibre, Ca++ is stored in

(1) sarcoplasmic reticulum

(2) sarcosom
(3) sarcomere
(4) sarcolemma

22) The movement present during contraction of muscle

(1) Thin filaments slide over the thick filaments

(2) Thick filament slides over the thin filaments
(3) Both filaments slide over each other
(4) No filament slides during contraction

23) How many vertebrochondral ribs are found in human ?

(1) 12 pairs
(2) 5 pairs
(3) 3 pairs
(4) 2 pairs

24) Which event does not happen during muscle contraction ?

(1) Actin filaments move towards H-zone

(2) Decrease length of myosin filament
(3) Decrease length of sarcomere
(4) Length of A-band remains unchanged

25) Thick filament is polymer of ...........

(1) Myosin
(2) G-Actin
(3) F-Actin
(4) Meromyosin

26) Which of the following is correct match for number of human bones :-

(1) Cranial bones – 30

(2) Vertebral column – 8
(3) Facial region – 14
(4) Each limb – 26

27) Recognise the figure & find out the correct match:

(1) a-F actin; b-Troponin; c-Tropomyosin

(2) b-Troponin; c-F actin; a-Tropomyosin
(3) c-F actin; a-Troponin; b-Tropomyosin
(4) b-F actin; a-Troponin; c-Tropomyosin

28) At the time of maximal contraction which zone of muscle fibre get fully contracted and disappear
:-

(1) H-zone
(2) Sarcomere zone
(3) M-zone
(4) I-zone

29) One actin filament in the myofibrils of skeletal muscle fibre is surrounded by how many myosin
filaments ?

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

30) Match column I and column II and choose correct option from followings :-

Column-I Column-II

A H- Zone i Actinin protein

Light central area of A-

B Sarcoplasmic reticulum ii
band

Part of meromyosin
C Z-line iii
protein

D Cross Arm iv Store house of Ca+2 ions

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

31) Given below is the diagrammatic view of human skull in which certain bones are labelled by A,
B, C and D. Find out the correct option in which all the alphabets are correctly labelled?
 (A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Zygomatic bone Sphenoid bone Temporal bone Frontal bone

(2) Sphenoid bone Maxilla bone Occipital bone Parietal bone

(3) Sphenoid bone Zygomatic bone Occipital bone Frontal bone

(4) Zygomatic bone Maxilla bone Temporal bone Parietal bone

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Identify the parts labelled A, B and C in given diagram and select the correct option which
includes all the labelled parts are correct ?

A = Actin binding site

(1) B = Myosin binding site
C = Cross arm
A = Actin binding site
(2) B = Myosin binding site
C = Cross bridge
A = Actin binding site
(3) B = ATP binding site
C = Cross arm
 A = Myosin binding site
(4) B = ATP binding site
C = Cross bridge

33) Select the incorrectly matched pair from the following:-

Myasthenia gravis : Auto immune disorder affecting myofibrils leading to weakening of

(1)
skeletal muscles
Muscular dystrophy : Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic
(2)
disorder.
(3) Tetany : Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca2+ in body fluids
(4) Muscular fatigue: Due to lactic acid accumulation, muscle contraction is stopped

34)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Statement-I :- The number of cervical vertebrae are seven in almost all mammals.
Statement-II :- First vertebra is atlas and it articulates with the occipital condyles.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(4) Statement II is correct but I is incorrect
 SECTION-B

1) Statement I : Many monomeric proteins called tropomyosin constitute one thick filament.
Statement II : Each actin filament is made up of two 'F' actins helically wound to each other.
Choose the correct option from the given statements.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

2) Red muscle fibres are rich in

(1) golgi bodies

(2) mitochondria
(3) lysosomes
(4) SR

3) How many vertebrae are present in vertebral column of an adult human?

(1) 13
(2) 26
(3) 33
(4) 31

4)

Which of following structure of myofibril do not shorter during muscle concentration ?

(A) I-Band
(B) Myosin filament
(C) A-Band
(D) H-zone
(E) Sarcomere
(F) Actin filament

(1) A, D, F
(2) B, C, F
(3) A, C, E
(4) C, D, F

5)

Match the following

Column-I Column-II
(a) legs (i) Skeletal muscle
(b) Digestive tract (ii) Cardiac muscle
(c) Heart (iii) Smooth Muscle
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii

6) Statement-I : Ribs has two articulation surfaces on ventral end, so called as bicephalic.
Statement-II : The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but join
the seventh rib with the help of hyaline cartilage.
Choose the correct option given below :

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct
(4) Statement-I and II both are incorrect

7) In humans, which of the given cells show amoeboid movement? [NCERT-XI-303]

(1) Goblet cells

(2) Macrophages
(3) Spermatozoa
(4) Fibroblasts

8) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram and choose the correct option.

(1) A–Sternum, B–Vertebral column, C–Ribs

(2) A–Ribs, B–Vertebral column, C–Sternum
(3) A– Ribs, B– Sternum, C–Vertebral column
(4) A–Sternum, B–Ribs, C–Vertebral column

9) Sarcomer is structural and functional unit of voluntary muscle fibre. What is correct structure of
sarcomere :-

(1) I band + 1, A band + 1/2, I band

(2) 1, I band + 1/2, A band + 1, I band
(3) 2 A-band + 1/2 I band
(4) 1/2 I band + 1 A band + 1/2 I band

10) Find out the correct statement with regarding to muscle fibres:
(1) Cardiac muscle fibres are multinucleated, unbranched and striated.
(2) Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated, unbranched and striated.
(3) Smooth muscle fibres are uninucleated, unbranched and unstriated.
(4) Skeletal muscle fibres are short, multinucleated and branched.

11) _______ bone has a depression called Sella turcica or hypophyseal fossa and contains the pituitary
gland.

(1) Sphenoid
(2) Occipital
(3) Frontal
(4) Temporal

12) Find out the correct statement :

(1) All locomotions are not movements & all movements are not locomotions
(2) All locomotions are movement and all movements are locomotion.
(3) All locomotions are not movements but all movements are locomotion
(4) All locomotions are movements but all movement are not locomotions.

13)

The correct no. of facial, cranial and the ear ossicles respectively is :

(1) 22, 14, 8

(2) 14, 8, 9
(3) 14, 8, 6
(4) 8, 14, 9

14) The only movable bone in the skull is :–

(1) Maxilla
(2) Fronto parietal
(3) Mandible
(4) Nasal

15) Which of the following protein is able to convert "Chemical energy" in the ATP molecule into
mechanical energy :-

(1) Troponin
(2) Tropomyosin
(3) Actin
(4) Myosin
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 3 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 1 1 1 4 4 1 3 2 1 1 4 4 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 1 2 2 4 1 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 3 4 4 1 1 1 2 4 1 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 1 2 4 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 2 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 3 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 2 2 3 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 2 2 4 4 2 4 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 4 3 1 2 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 2 4 2 4 4 4 2 1 1 3 1 1

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 3 3 2 2 1 4 2 2 3 4 3 2 1 4 1 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 1 3 2 4 3 2 1 3 3 3 3 1 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 2 2 2 1 3 2 4 4 3 1 4 3 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

4)

mass m = = = kg

6)

7)

I=

=
= (t3 – t2 + 10t)0
2

= (8 – 4 + 20) – 0
= 24 kg m/sec.

8)

Impulse = Change in momentum

= m (v2 – v1) = 2[0 – 5]
= – 10kg m/s

9)

10)
F = nmu

= 30 N

12)

13)

14) Tmax – mg = mamax

ηmg – mg = mamax
amax = g (η – 1)

15)

A:B:C=

17)

a=

a= = 2 m/s2

18)

19)

Impulse = change in momentum

 20)

x2 + h2 = y2

21)

For θ to be constant,

vAcos(90 – θ) = vBcosθ
vAsinθ = vBcosθ

22) Mg – F = Mg /3

F=
F – (M – m ) g = (M – m) g /3

– Mg + mg =

m = M/2

23)

Force of friction, F = μN = μmg

Retardation due to friction,

Now, u = 10 m s–1, s = 50m, v = 0.
a = –μg, g = 10 m s–2
Now, v2 = u2 + 2as
 (0)2 = (10)2 + 2(–10μ)(50)
∴ μ = 0.1.

24)

As block is at rest
So N = mgcosθ, f = mgsinθ
So
R = mg

25)

Friction is sufficient to hold the block.

26)

W = f = μN
W = 0.2 × 10 = 2N

31)

Nature of surface

32) So ma = 0.4 mg a=

34)

Let speed of bigger part = v then by COLM,

35)

48 – kx = 4 × 2
kx = 48 – 8 = 40 N

kx = 8 × a
⇒ 40 = 8 × a

⇒a=
= 5 m/s2
 36)

Rate of flow (Q) = Av

Density of water
Cross-sectional area of pipe A = π(0.5 × 10–3)2
F = ρAv2
By substituting the value in the above formula we get
F = 0.127 N

37)

Let the length of incline is d

Case I : for rough incline plane

ar = gsin45° – μgcos45° = =

time taken to slide down (tr) =

Case II : For smooth incline plane

as = gsin45° =

⇒ ts =
According to question
nts = tr ⇒ n2ts2 = tr2

n2 = ⇒ μ=1–

39)

Ta1 – 2Ta2 + Ta3 = 0

T(a1 + a3) = 2Ta2

40) Force of friction on mass

Force of friction on mass
Let a be common acceleration of the system.
 Here,

41)

mg ≤ µs(2g) ⇒ m ≤ (2 µs = 2 × 0.2)
mg ≤ 0.4 kg

43)

FBD of block w.r.t cart

Here,
f = mg and N = mα
But
f ≤ mN, so mg ≤ μmα

44)

50)
a= = 5 m/s2

CHEMISTRY

55) Total number of optical isomers in unsymetrical = 2n , 22 = 4

63) Same group on same on horizontal line in Fischer projection called erythro.

67)

Answer (2)
Alkanes can have infinite number of conformations by rotation around C–C single bond.

73)

is linear and is trigonal planar hence net polarity of both molecules is zero.

84)

N2 - B.O = 3 unpaired e– = 0
N2+ = 2.5 unpaired e– = 1

86) Based on information.

92)
Sec- butyl alcohol is optically active.

94)

Addition of e– in BMO, increases the bond order. In the formation of C2 —→ , e– is added into σ2Pz
molecular orbital (BMO). Therefore BO and also the magnetic behaviour has changed from
diamagnetic → paramagnetic
C2 —→
–
12e 13e–
BO = 2 BO = 2.5
Diamagnetic Paramagnetic

BOTANY

101)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 36, IIIrd Para

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 36

111)

NCERT Pg. # 35

115)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 38

116) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 38

120)

NCERT XI, Fig. 3.3

122)

NCERT Page No. 32

125)

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126)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 39, 3.4

130)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 38

131)

NCERT XIth Pg.#67, last para (E), 2nd para (H)

132)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 67, Para : 5.1.2

 134)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 67, Para-1, Line, 1, 2

136)

NCERT XI Pg # 67, 68,Para-5.1.2

137)

NCERT Pg # 67

138) NCERT XI Pg. No.# 67

139)

NCERT 11, Pg. # 65

141)

NCERT XI Page No.# 39

142)

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143)

NCERT XII Pg. # 39

145)

NCERT XI Pg. no. 36 and 38

ZOOLOGY

155)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 297

159)

NCERT Pg.#296

162)

NCERT XI Biology, Page # 297

163)

NCERT Pg.# 297

173)
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174)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 308

181)

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182)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 306

185)

NCERT, Pg # 224

191) NCERT Pg. # 310

192)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. Page 303

198) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 309