Sunya Geography 2024-Questions 400+MCQs KING R QUEEN P

Don‘t Pay Any Money[FREE BY RISHABH RAJPUT]
Revise ENTIRE Prelims 2024 syllabus

through 3000+ MCQs
GEOGRAPHY - MCQs
Join Telegram Channel- t.me/ sunyanotes50

Contact : 8279688595| www .sunyaias.com
FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs
INDEX
PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
Chapter 1: Evolution and Interior of the earth ........................................................................................................... 3
Chapter 2: Distribution of Oceans and Continents ..................................................................................................... 4
Chapter 3: Minerals and Rocks ................................................................................................................................... 4
Chapter 4: Geomorphic Process.................................................................................................................................. 5
Chapter 5: Landforms and their evolution .................................................................................................................. 6
Chapter 6: Composition and Structure of Atmosphere .............................................................................................. 7
Chapter 7: Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature ...................................................................................... 8
Chapter 8: Atmospheric Circulation and whether system .......................................................................................... 9
Chapter 9: Water In Atmosphere and Ocean............................................................................................................ 12
Chapter- 10: Movement of Ocean Water .................................................................................................................... 14
INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
Chapter 1: India - Location, Structure and Physiography ......................................................................................... 15
Chapter-2 : Drainage system ...................................................................................................................................... 17
Chapter-3: India: Climate........................................................................................................................................... 20
Chapter-4 : Natural Vegetation .................................................................................................................................. 23
Chapter-5 : Soil ........................................................................................................................................................... 23
HUMAN AND ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY
Chapter - 1 : Population: India and world .................................................................................................................... 25
Chapter - 2: Human settlement .................................................................................................................................. 27
Chapter -3: India people and Economy ...................................................................................................................... 28
www.sunyaias.com| Join Telegram Channel: t.me/sunyanotes50 | 56/3, ORN, New Delhi | (8279688595) 2


(PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY)
CHAPTER 1: EVOLUTION AND INTERIOR OF THE EARTH
1. Consider the following statements: 4. Which of the following set are the direct sources of
1. Nebular Hypothesis was given by Taylor . information of the interior of the earth?
2. Nebular Hypothesis suggests the Solar System (a) Deep mines of Russia, Drilling of Earth,
is formed from gas and dust orbiting the sun Volcanic activities, Earthquake waves.
which clumped up together to form the (b) Deep mines of Russia, Drilling of oil well,
planets. Meteorites, Volcanism,
3. Big Bang Theory is also known as (c) Magnetic field, seismic activity, gravitational
Contracting Universe Hypothesis. pull by earth
4. According to Big Bang theory the universe (d) Deep mines of South Africa, Ocean Drilling,
Magma .
began as a single point and then expanded
rapidly in a process known as cosmic
inflation. 5. Consider the following statements regarding
Earthquakes:
How many of the above given statements is/are
correct? 1. L waves are the most dangerous waves of
earthquakes.
(a) Only One is correct
2. S waves are the compression waves.
(b) Only Two are correct
3. The core of the Earth does not allow P waves
(c) Only Three are correct to flow and thus we get P shadow zone.
(d) All Four are correct. 4. Earth is the only planet in our solar system
which experiences seismic activities.
2. Consider the following statements: How many of the following statements is/are
1. Initially, the stars are localised lumps of gas correct?
within a nebula. (a) Only one (b) Only Two
2. Later layered structures are formed in the (c) Only Three (d) None
planets.
3. Earth is the only planet in the solar system 6. Match the following:
with lithospheric plates Boundaries Discontinuity
Which of the statement given above is are correct: 1. Lower mantle- A. Gutenberg
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only Outer-core
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Upper mantle- B. Lehman
Lower Mantle
3. With reference to sources of atmosphere and gases 3. Outer core- C. Repiti
on earth, consider the following sources: Inner core
1. Photosynthesis and respiration 4. Crust-Mantle D. Moho
2. Degassing Choose the correct answer using the code given
3. Volcanic eruptions below:
4. Earthquake (a) 1-A,2-B,3-C,4-D (b) 1-C,2-A,3-B,4-D
5. Tsunami (c) 1-D,2-B,3-A,4-C (d) 1-A,2-C,3-B.4-D
6. Meteoroids
Which are the correct sources of atmosphere and 7. Which of the following is the intrusive landform of
gases on earth? volcanism?
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (a) Deccan Plateau
(b) 1, 2, 3 (b) Caldera
(c) 1, 2, 5, 6
(c) Pillow Basalt
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 ,6
(d) Dykes


CHAPTER 2:DISTRIBUTION OF OCEANS AND CONTINENTS
8. Consider the following statements: 3. Origin of Western Ghats is due to plate

1. Sea floor spreading interaction
2. Convection Cells in mantle 4. Deep focus earthquakes is due to plate
3. Lithospheric plates moving over subduction
asthenosphere How many of the above given statement is/are
4. Volcanism in seismic zones correct?
5. Earth Rotation (a) Only one
Which of the above aids Continental Drift? (b) Only two
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) Only three
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 5 (d) All four
9. Consider the following pairs: 11. Consider the following statements:

Oceanic Location 1. Pacific plate is largely continental
feature 2. The continental crust rocks are much younger
1. Mariana : Atlantic Ocean than the oceanic crust rocks
Trench 3. Paleomagnetic feature is best depicted in
2. Doggers Bank : North Sea Atlantic MOR
3. Romanche Gap : Pacific ocean 4. San Andrews fault is due to Nazca plate
4. Turbidity : Continental slope boundary interaction.
Current How many of the above statements are correct?
How many of the above given pairs are correctly (a) Only one
matched? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three
(c) Only three (d) All four (d) All four
10. Consider the following statements regarding Plate 12. Origin of Himalayas is due to:
Tectonics: (a) Continent-Continent convergence
1. It depends on the movement of lithospheric (b) Continent-Continent divergence
plates. (c) Continent-Ocean Convergence
2. Ring of Fire is one of the example of Plate (d) Ocean-Ocean divergence
tectonics
CHAPTER 3: MINERALS AND ROCKS
13. What type of rock is formed by the compressive Choose the correct answer from the code given
forces and lithification of sediments? below:
(a) Sedimentary rock system (a) A, C, B, D (b) A, D, B, C
(b) Basaltic rock system (c) C, B, D, A (d) C, B, A, D
(c) Metamorphic rock system
(d) None of the above 15. Consider the following minerals:
1. Zinc
14. Arrange the element in the Earth's crust in 2. Aluminium
increasing order: 3. Manganese
(A) Iron (B) Silicon 4. Tin
(C) Oxygen (D) Aluminium


How many of the above are ferrous minerals? 17. Consider the following process:
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. Sedimentation of rocks
(c) Only four (d) All four 2. Compaction of rocks
3. Heating of rocks
16. Consider the following rocks: 4. Pressure building on rocks
1. Granite How many of the above are the major processes in
2. Basalt metamorphic rock formation?
3. Shale (a) Only one
4. Sandstone (b) Only two
5. Pegmatite (c) Only three
How many of the above given are primary rocks? (d) All four
(a) Only two (b) Only three
(c) Only four (d) All five
CHAPTER 4: GEOMORPHIC PROCESS
18. Consider the following pairs: 22. Consider the following pairs:
1. Fold mountains - Orogenetic force Landform Characteristics
2. Continent building - Eustatic forces 1. Spits : Erosional landforms
3. Sea level rise- Radial forces 2. Kames : Fluvial erosional landforms
4. Balancing of landforms - Isostatic forces 3. Deposition : Consequence of erosion
How many of the above pairs are correctly 4. Khadeen : Consequence of rain action
matched? How many pair given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) Only three (d) All four (b) Only two
(c) Only three
19. Sliding of a mass of rock or soil along a curved (d) All four
surface in a rotational form is known as:
(a) Slump of rocks or soil 23. Which of the following is not an example of a
secondary soil mineral?
(b) Landslide of rocks or soil
(a) Quartz
(c) Creeping of rocks or soil
(b) Limonite
(d) Mud flow
(c) Gibbsite
(d) Goethite
20. X is one of the weathering processes in which
thermal expansion and contraction takes place.X
24. Match the following pairs:
results into flaking of rocks and sheets and is
1. Alluvial soils A. Calcimorphic soils
common in arid and semi-arid regions. Identify X.
2. Chernozems B. Pedocals
(a) Frost wedging (b) Exfoliation
3. Latosols C. Pedalfers
(c) Abrasion (d) Oxidation
4. Terrarossa D. Azonal Soils
soils
21. ”Capillary Effect” sometimes seen in news is Select the correct answer using the code given
related to: below:
(a) Soil erosion (a) 1-A,2-B,3-C,4-D
(b) Concept of chaos theory (b) 1-D,2-B,3-C,4-A
(c) Sea level rise (c) 1-D,2-C,3-A,4-B
(d) Geothermal Energy (d) 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B


25. Consider the following statements: 3. Tectonic activities
1. Kinetic energy is the potent force in the 4. El Nino effect in India
weathering process. How many of the above given statements are
2. Mosses and lichens are the active agents of correct?
weathering (a) Only one
Which of the above statements are correct? (b) Only two
(a) 1 only (c) Only three
(b) 2 only (d) All four
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2 27. Most of the leached material accumulation takes
place in which horizon of the soil?
26. Consider the following statements regarding the (a) O horizon
factors aiding mass movements: (b) B horizon
1. Removal of support from below by natural or (c) A horizon
artificial means. (d) C horizon
2. Deforestation in hilly areas
CHAPTER 5: LANDFORMS AND THEIR EVOLUTION
28. Which of the following is the deepest canyon in the 31. Consider the following statements:
world? 1. Uvalas are the feature of wave erosion.
(a) Grand canyon of Arizona ,USA 2. Col is the feature of glacial erosion
(b) Yarlung Tsangpo , Tibet 3. Playa lakes are a feature of river erosion.
(c) Colca Canyon, Peru 4. Barchans are the feature of wind deposition.
(d) Ganga canyon,India
How many of the above statements are correct?
29. Consider the following statements: (a) Only one
1. Brahmaputra gorge is an erosional landform (b) Only two
2. Sundarban is an erosional feature (c) Only three
3. Chapora fort cliff is the depositional landform (d) All four
4. Sandspit is an erosional landform
How many of the above statements are correct? 32. What are entrenched meanders?
(a) Only one (a) Very deep and wide meanders can also be
(b) Only two found cut in hard rocks.
(c) Only three (b) Shallow and paired meanders mostly in flood
(d) All four plains
(c) Meanders in deltaic region due to deposition
30. Oxbow lakes are the feature of : of the rivers
(a) Rift valley lakes (d) Meanders due to river shifting.
(b) Waterfalls forming lake pool
(c) Meandering of rivers
(d) River terraces


CHAPTER 6: COMPOSITION AND STRUCTURE OF ATMOSPHERE
33. Consider the following: 37. What is the main reason for the high temperatures
1. Volcanic eruptions in the thermosphere?
2. Degassing (a) Intense solar radiation
3. Meteorite impact (b) Intense GHG in the atmosphere
4. Climate Change (c) Absorption of cosmic rays from space
5. Vehicular emission (d) Residual Geothermal heat from earth's
6. Photosynthesis interior
Which of the above are the major natural sources of
gases building the atmosphere? 38. Consider the following gases:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 1. Oxygen
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 6 2. Nitrogen
(c) 3, 4, 5 and 6 3. Helium
(d) 1, 2 and 6 4. Carbon dioxide
How many of the above gases are transparent to
34. What is the main source of energy for Earth's incoming solar radiation and opaque to outgoing
atmosphere and weather systems? terrestrial radiation?
(a) Tidal energy (a) Only one
(b) Solar energy (b) Only two
(c) Geothermal energy (c) Only Three
(d) Kinetic energy (d) All Four
35. Consider the following statements: 39. Consider the following statements:
1. Water vapour is a static gas and increases with 1. Temperature rises as one goes from bottom to
altitude. top in Stratosphere
2. Water vapour is the most potent greenhouse 2. Temperature decreases as one goes from top
gas. to bottom in mesosphere
3. Cow is the source of water vapour. Which of the above statements are correct?
4. Transpiration can impact quantity of water (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
vapour in atmosphere (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
How many of the statements are correct? (c) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct
(a) Only one (d) No statement is correct.
(b) Only two
(c) Only three 40. Consider the following statements:
(d) All four 1. Height of the tropopause is more above poles.
2. Height of the tropopause varies with season.
36. Which of the following pair is not correctly 3. It act as lid to troposphere weather
matched: phenomenon
Atmospheric layers Characteristics 4. There is a presence of jet streams in
(a) Troposphere : Biological tropopause.
activity How many of the above statements are correct?
(b) Stratosphere : Ozone (a) Only one
(c) Thermosphere : Radio waves (b) Only two
transmission (c) Only three
(d) Ionosphere : Electrically (d) All four
charged particles


41. Consider the following gases: 42. Consider the following statements:
1. Oxygen 1. In the ionosphere F layer is the bottom most
2. Nitrogen layer.
3. Helium 2. The F layer consists of low electron density.
4. Hydrogen Which of the above statements are correct?
How many of the above gases were in abundance at (a) 1 only
the time of evolution of the solar system? (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only three (d) All four (d) None of the above
CHAPTER 7: SOLAR RADIATION, HEAT BALANCE AND TEMPERATURE
43. Consider the following statements regarding How many of the above given statements are
insolation: correct:
1. The energy received from the sun is in the (a) Only one of the given statements is correct
form of short wave radiation and it is constant (b) Only two of the given statements are correct
over the earth surface. (c) All of the given statements are correct
2. The farthest distance of the earth from the Sun (d) None of the given statements is correct
is 152 million Km on 4th July and this
position of the sun is called Aphelion.
46. Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and
Select the correct answer using the code given Reason (R) are given below. Consider them
below: carefully.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (A) Heat budget refers to net flow of energy into
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Earth in the form of shortwave radiation and
the outgoing infrared long-wave radiation into
44. Consider the following pairs regarding Heat space.
transfer: (R) Clouds, ice and atmospheric particles play a
Types of heat Characteristics significant role in balancing the heat budget of
transfer earth.
1. Convection Horizontal transfer of Choose the correct option from below:
heat (a) Both (A) and (R ) are correct and (R ) is the
2. Advection Vertical transfer of heat correct explanation of (A)
3. Conduction Transfer of warmer (b) Both (A) and (R ) are correct but (R ) is not
object to cooler object the correct explanation of (A)
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched (c) (A) is correct and (R ) is incorrect
(a) Only one (b) Only two (d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
(c) Only three (d) None
47. Which of the following are the reasons for the
45. Consider the following statements regarding difference in temperature of the places in South
Albedo: India than the places located in North india
1. It is the amount of Solar radiation reflected 1. Latitude of the places in south India
back into space from the earth’s surface. 3. Closeness to the sea
2. Astronomical Albedo is the amount of solar 4. Air-mass circulation
radiation reflected back by the Galaxy. How many of the above given statements are
3. Albedo determines the rate at which incident correct?
solar radiation is absorbed. (a) Only one (b) Only two


48. Consider the following pairs about humidity: How many of the above pairs are correctly
Types of Expressed as matched?
Humidity (a) Only one pair
1. Absolute Weight of water vapour (b) Only two pairs
Humidity per unit volume of air (c) Only three pairs
2. Specific Weight of water vapour (d) All the pairs
humidity per unit weight of air
3. Relative Percentage of moisture 51. Consider the following statements regarding
Humidity present in the radiation:
1. The earth's surface loses heat majorly through
atmosphere as compared
conduction.
to its full capacity
2. Non-ionizing radiation is low energy radiation
How many of the above pairs are correctly as compared to the Ionizing radiation.
matched? Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (a) 1 only
(c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
49. Which of the following are the favourable (d) Neither 1 nor 2
conditions for the temperature inversion?
1. Short winter nights 52. Consider the following statements regarding
2. Dry air near the ground surface temperature inversion:
3. Snow covered surface 1. Subsidence inversion is a Non Advectional
Choose the correct option using the code given temperature inversion commonly observed in
below: the northern continents.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 Only 2. A frontal inversion is stable and has long
(c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1 and 3 only lasting impacts.
3. Radiation inversion occurs due to cold nights
and gets destroyed during day time.
50. Consider the following pairs regarding the
How many of the above given statements are
atmospheric layers
correct::
Atmospheric Salient feature
(a) Only one of the given statements is correct
layer
(b) Only two of the given statements are correct
1. Troposphere Aviation takes place here
(c) All the statements are correct
2. Stratosphere Home to ozone layer (d) None of the given statements are correct
3. Mesosphere Meteor burning
4. Thermosphere Houses international
space station
CHAPTER 8: ATMOSPHERIC CIRCULATION AND WHETHER SYSTEM
53. Two statements labelled as Assertion (a) and Choose the correct option from below:
Reason (R ) are given below. Consider them (a) Both (A) and (R ) are correct and (R ) is the
carefully. correct explanation of (A)
(A) The horizontal distribution of atmospheric (b) Both (A) and (R ) are correct but (R ) is not
pressure is not uniform across the world. the correct explanation of (A)
(R ) Earth does not heat up uniformly because of (c) (A) is correct and (R ) is incorrect
unequal distribution of insolation. (d) (A) is incorrect and (R ) is correct


54. Consider the following statements regarding 58. Which of the following is/are favourable conditions
Planetary Winds: for the formation of tropical cyclones?
1. The pattern of the movement of the planetary 1. Near coastal region of countries where
winds is called the general circulation of the equator passes through
atmosphere, which is also responsible for the 2. Large sea surface with temperature higher
ocean water circulation. than 27° C
2. The westerlies of the southern hemisphere are 3. Upper convergence at the sea level system
stronger and consistent Select the correct answer from the following codes
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 Only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 Only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
59. Consider the following statements regarding Extra
55. Given below are two statements labelled as tropical cyclone:
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Consider them 1. They travel eastward from the west.
carefully: 2. There is no influence of temperate cyclone on
(A) Sea Breeze is a wind blowing from the water India as India located between tropics
towards the land 3. Compared to tropical cyclones, extra tropical
(R ) During the night, the land and the air above it cyclones have a greater geographic impact.
cools more quickly 4. Extra tropical cyclones will not occur over sea
Choose the correct option from below: as there is a necessity of differential heating of
(a) (A) is correct and (R ) is incorrect land and sea for frontal formation.
(b) Both (A) and (R ) are correct and (R ) is the How many of the above statements are correct?
correct explanation of (A) (a) Only one
(c) Both (A) and (R ) are correct but (R ) is not (b) Only two
the correct explanation of (A) (c) Only three
(d) (A) is incorrect and (R ) is correct (d) All four
56. Match the following 60. Consider the following statements regarding Inter
Local wind Place Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
1. Punas A. Spain Statement I - ITCZ is a low pressure zone
2. Levanter B. California characterised by high insolation which has
3. Santa Ana C. Peru influence on Indian monsoon
4. Bora D. Adriatic Sea Statement II - Southward movement of ITCZ
Choose the correct code cause onset of monsoon while it’s Northward
(a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D movement cause dry condition
(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D Which one of the following is correct in respect of
(c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C the above statements?
(d) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
57. Clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
cold and long nights are the ideal conditions for its
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
formation of
for Statement-1
(a) Frost
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(b) Dew
incorrect
(c) Mist
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(d) Fog correct


61. Consider the following statements regarding 65. Consider the following statements regarding
Coriollis force: thunderstorms:
1. It diverts the wind to the left in the southern 1. Moist and stable atmosphere is needed for the
hemisphere. formation of thunderstorm
2. The Coriolis force and wind velocity are 2. A mature cumulonimbus cloud that produces
inversely proportional . lightning and thunder is called a thunderstorm.
3. The pressure gradient force and the Coriolis Select the correct answer using the codes given
force are perpendicular to each other. below:
How many of the above statements are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) Only one (b) 2 only
(b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only three (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None
66. Consider the following statements
62. Precipitation is heavy but of short duration, highly Statement I - Dew is the moisture that forms as a
result of condensation.
localised and is associated with minimum amount
of cloudiness. It occurs mainly during summer. Statement II - Dew is the result of water changing
from a vapour to a liquid.
Which of the following is described above?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
(a) Orographic rainfall
the above statements?
(b) Frontal precipitation
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(c) Convectional rainfall and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
(d) Cyclonic rain Statement-I
63. These clouds form at middle levels or very near to and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
the surface of the earth, sometimes even touch the for Statement-1
ground . These are extremely dense and opaque to (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
the rays of the sun. incorrect
(a) Stratus (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(b) Nimbus correct
(c) Cumulus
(d) Cirrus 67. Consider the following statements
1. Doldrums is a region near Equator between
64. Consider the following statements regarding cold 35 degree North and South hemisphere
front: characterised by low pressure, high
temperatures
1. The cold air mass is advancing and
undercutting the warm air mass. 2. Horse Latitudes are subtropical regions known
for calm winds and little precipitation located
2. There will be gradual change in weather
between 30 and 35 degrees latitude in both the
conditions.
Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
3. Development of nimbus clouds.
Select the incorrect answer using the code given
How many of the above statements are correct? below:
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 only
(c) Only three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All four (d) Neither 1 nor 2


68. Consider the following statements regarding Jet (b) Only two
Streams: (c) Only three
1. Jet streams travel in the tropopause. (d) All four
2. Jet streams in the north are more powerful due
greater temperature gradients. 69. What is not a key feature of precipitation in a
3. Subtropical jet stream is produced by the British climate?
earth’s rotation (Coriolis force) and (a) Under the influence of Westerlies all round
temperature contrast between tropical and sub the year
– tropical regions. (b) Mean annual temperatures are usually
4. Jet streams are strongest in the summer season between 5° C and 15° C.
due to greater temperature difference during (c) Maximum rainfall during summer
this time.
(d) Mild winter due to presence of warm current
(a) Only one
CHAPTER 9: WATER IN ATMOSPHERE AND OCEAN
70. Consider the following pairs 72. The occurrence of cyclones in the Bay of Bengal in
more than the Arabian Sea because:
Humidity Characteristics
1. Fresh water flow from perineal river
1. Dew point Actual amount of the
water vapour present in 2. Bay of Bengal is deeper than Arabian sea
the atmosphere 3. Geometry of the Bay of Bengal with its long,
2. Absolute humidity Percentage of moisture curved coastline
present in the 4. Presence of warmer surface water
atmosphere as How many of the above given statements are
compared to its full correct:
capacity (a) Only one
3. Relative humidity Temperature at which (b) Only two
air becomes completely (c) Only three
saturated (d) All four
How many pairs are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one pair 73. "Graupel" generally occur during which type of
(b) Only two pairs rainfall:
(c) Only three pairs (a) Conventional rainfall
(d) None (b) Orographic rainfall
(c) Cyclonic rainfall
71. Consider the following statements regarding Latent (d) Frontal rainfall
heat of vapourization:
1. It is a process where physical state change 74. Match the following statements:
with change in temperature Cloud Characteristics
2. It accelerates the cooling process of the body 1. Cirrus clouds : high altitude clouds.
during sweating. 2. Cumulus clouds : rain bearing clouds
3. It can be seen in cyclone formation. 3. Stratus clouds : layered clouds
How many of the above statements are incorrect? scattered to large
(a) Only one areas.
(b) Only two 4. Nimbus clouds : scattered clouds.
(c) Only three
(d) All four


Select the correct answer using the code given 78. Match the following oceanic features and their
below: locations
(a) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B Oceanic features Location
(b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C 1. Bermuda Triangle : Antarctic ocean
(c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B 2. Mariana trench : Atlantic ocean
(d) 1-D- 2-B, 3-A, 4-C 3. Mauna kea : Pacific ocean
4 Telegraph plateau : Indian Ocean
75. Consider the following statements regarding Ocean How many of the above pairs are correct?
current (a) Only one (b) Only two
1. Temperature differences influences the (c) Only three (d) All four
direction of ocean currents, causing their
differential deflection 79. Consider the following factors with respect to
2. Wind is a primary driver of surface ocean temperature of the ocean:
currents. The transfer of energy from the wind 1. The process of heating and cooling of the
to the water surface causes movement. oceanic water is slower than land.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of 2. The ocean water at great depths is heated
the above statements? faster than the upper water layers.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Choose the correct answer using the codes given
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
76. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2
1. Salinity of oceans is measured in relative
terms in comparison with Pacific ocean 80. Consider the following statements
salinity.
1. Epipelagic zone is the ocean layer with the
2. Generally Salinity high at the poles, and low greatest biodiversity
at mid-latitudes
2. The water temperature in the Bathypelagic
Which of the above statements are correct? Zone is near freezing, and there is no light at
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only all.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2 3. Hadalpelagic Zone mostly found in deep
water trenches and canyons. where water
77. Consider the following statements temperature is just above freezing
Statement I - The ebb is the outgoing phase when How many of the above statements are correct?
the tide drains away from the shore, and the flow is (a) Only one (b) Only two
the incoming phase when the water rises again. (c) Only three (d) None
Statement II - The formation of ebb and flow is
primarily driven by the gravitational forces exerted 81. Consider the following statements:
by the Moon and the Sun on Earth.
1. The Dead Sea in the Middle East has high
\Which one of the following is correct in respect of salinity due to intense evaporation in its arid
the above statements? climate.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 2. Rapid change in salinity in vertical ocean
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for water column up is called halocline
Statement-I
3. The Atlantic ocean has less salinity than the
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct Mediterranean sea.
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
4. The Arabian sea has less salinity than the Bay
for Statement-1
of Bengal.
incorrect
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
correct


82. Consider the following statements (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Statement I - The floating Sargassum seaweed and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
creates a unique ecosystem that supports a variety Statement-I
of marine organisms. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Statement II - Due the region’s proximity to and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
coastal area, the harvesting of seaweed by local for Statement-1
coastal community is possible (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Which one of the following is correct in respect of incorrect
the above statements? (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct
CHAPTER- 10: MOVEMENT OF OCEAN WATER
83. Ocean waves are rhythmic disturbances that travel 86. Consider the following statements:
through the water, typically caused by the wind. 1. A storm surge is a rise in sea level that occurs
They transfer energy across the ocean's surface. during tropical cyclones.
Consider the following statements regarding ocean 2. Storm surges are caused due to atmospheric
waves: pressure.
1. The wave height in shallow water is less than Which of the following statements are correct?
deep water due to lack of energy available (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
here.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2
2. The maximum wave height is determined by
the orientation of the landmass.
87. Match the following pairs
3. Waves travel because wind pushes the water
Tides Characteristics
body in its course while gravity pulls the
crests of the waves downward. A. Diurnal A. One high and one low tide
for a day
B. Spring B. Sun and moon are in right
angle to the earth
C. Semi C. Two high tides and two
diurnal low tide every day
84. Consider the following factors affecting wave
D. Neap tide D. Sun, moon and earth are in
formation in ocean:
straight line
1. Pressure or stress from the atmosphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Earthquakes. below:
3. Gravity of the Earth and celestial bodies. (a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D (b) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
How many of the above statements are correct? (c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
(c) All three (d) None 88. With reference to the ocean currents, consider the
following statements:
85. Consider the following statements 1. Current is the massive movement of ocean
1. The gravitational force exerted by the Moon water which is directional, continuous and
causes high tide on the side facing the Moon predictable.
and low tide on the opposite side 2. Differential temperature and density of ocean
2. When the sun, the moon and the earth are in a water are the primary cause of the ocean
straight line, the height of the tide will be currents
higher. 3. Solar heating, wind, gravity and Coriolis force
Which of the above statements are correct? are the secondary factor for the ocean current
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only How many statements given above are incorrect:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2 (a) Only one (b) Only two


89. Which of the following currents are cold currents 91. Consider the following statements:
1. Hambolt 1. Surges are regular while tides are irregular.
2. Labrador 2. Surges are mostly due to the gravitational
3. Kurile attraction of the sun.
4. California Which of the following statements are correct?
5. Tsushima (a) 1 only
6. Alaskan (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Both 1 and 2
below: (d) Neither 1 and 2
(a) 1, 2, 3 only (b) 2, 5, 6 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 only (d) All of the above 92. What is the tidal range?
(a) The time between high tide and low tide
90. Match the following: (b) The difference in water level between high
1. Kuroshio Current A. South Atlantic tide and low tide
2. Benguela current B. North Pacific (c) The average depth of the ocean
3. Tareev current C. Indian Ocean (d) The distance between two consecutive tidal
4. Irminger current D. North Atlantic nodes
Choose the correct option using the code given
below: 93. What is the term for slow, deep ocean currents that
are driven by differences in water density?
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(a) Surface currents
(b) 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
(b) Western boundary currents
(c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
(d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B (c) Thermohaline currents
(d) Tidal currents
(INDIAN GEOGRAPHY)
CHAPTER 1: INDIA - LOCATION, STRUCTURE AND PHYSIOGRAPHY
94. Consider the following statements about India’s Select the correct answer using the code given
location? below:
1. The Latitudinal expanse of India is from 8 (a) 1-2-3-4
degree 4 minutes south to 37 degree 6 minutes (b) 1-4-2-3
north . (c) 4-1-2-3
2. Indira Col, which is the northernmost point of (d) 1-3-2-4
India, is part of the Saltoro Mountains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
96. Consider the following statements about India:
(a) 1 only 1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu
(b) 2 only is the only Union territory which is spread in
(c) Both 1 and 2 three states.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Areawise, Madhya Pradesh is the largest state
in India.
95. Arrange the following statements in decreasing 3. Telangana touches the borders of four states.
order of their coastline: How many of the given statements are incorrect?
1. Maharashtra (a) Only one of the given statements
2. Karnataka (b) Only two of the given statements
3. Odisha (c) All of the given statements
4. West Bengal (d) None of the given statements

103. Consider the following pairs: How many of the statements given above are
Types of Plain Salient Features correct?:
1. Bhabar Porous and Pebbled (a) Only one pair is correctly matched
2. Terai River reappears (b) Only two pairs are correctly matched
3. Bhangar Old alluvial soil (c) Only three pairs are correctly matched
4. Khadar New alluvial soil (d) All the pairs are correctly matched
How many .of the above pairs are correctly
matched? 105. Consider the following statements regarding the
(a) Only one Island Groups of India:
(b) Only two 1. Mount Thuillier located in Great Nicobar is
(c) Only three the second highest peak of Andaman and
(d) All four Nicobar Islands.
2. Minicoy is the largest and southernmost island
of Lakshadweep archipelago.
104. Consider the following pairs:
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
Western Lies in
coastal plain (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
1. The Gujarat Coastal areas of Gujarat
Plain (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The Konkan Between Daman and Goa (d) Neither 1 nor 2
plain
3. The Kannad Between Mangalore and
plain Kanyakumari
4. The malabar Between Mangalore and
plain Goa
CHAPTER-2 : DRAINAGE SYSTEM
106. Consider the following differences between the Select the correct answer using the code given
Himalayan rivers and the Peninsular rivers: below::
1. The Himalayan rivers are perennial whereas (a) 2-4-5-3-1 (b) 2-1-4-3-5
the peninsular rivers are seasonal. (c) 2-4-1-3-5 (d) 1-2-4-3-5
2. The himalayan rivers are not navigable
whereas peninsular rivers are navigable.
108. Which of the following projects is built on Chenab
3. The himalayan rivers, unlike peninsular rivers, river?
form meanders.
(a) The Pong Project
How many of the statements given above are
correct?- (b) The Uri Project
(a) Only one of the given statements is correct (c) The Chamera Project
(b) Only two of the given statements are correct (d) The Salal Project
(c) All of the given statements are correct
(d) None of the given statements is correct 109. Consider the following statements regarding river
Ganga:
107. Arrange the following tributaries of Indus in the 1. Ganga originates from the Gangotri near
direction of North to South? Gomukh.
1. Chenab 2. Ganga name is given for the combination of
2. Jhelum rivers Alaknanda and Mandakini.
3. Beas Which of the following statements is/are correct?
4. Ravi (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
5. Satluj (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


110. Which of the following are not the left bank How many of the statements given above are
tributaries of Ganga? correct?
1. Ghagra (a) Only one of the given statements is correct
2. Tons (b) Only two of the given statements are correct
3. Gandak (c) All of the given statements are correct
4. Punpun (d) None of the given statements is correct
5. Kosi
Select the correct answer using the code given 114. Which of the following Hydel Power projects is not
below:: located in Mizoram?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Dhaleshwari Hydel Power Project
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Tuirial Hydel Power Project
(c) 2 only and 4 (c) Tuivai Hydel Power Project
(d) Only 3 and 5 (d) Rangit Hydel Power project
111. Consider the following pairs: 115. Consider the following statements:
Statement I : The Narmada and the Tapi are the
River Valley Projects River
two main rivers of peninsular India which flows
1. Tanakpur project Kali
towards the west.
2. Gandak project Mahanadi Statement II : Narmada and Tapi rivers didn’t
3. Rihand project Rihand form valleys and instead they flow through faults.
4. Matatila Project Betwa Which one of the following is correct in respect of
How many of the statements given above are the above statements?
correct? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(a) Only one pair is correctly matched and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
(b) Only two pairs are correctly matched Statement-I
(c) Only three pairs are correctly matched (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(d) All the pairs are correctly matched and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
112. Consider the following statements regarding
incorrect
Brahmaputra river system;
1. Brahmaputra river had its origin in the Trans-
correct
Himalayas.
2. Brahmaputra enters the state of Arunachal
116. Consider the following paragraph:
Pradesh in India near Nanga Parbat.
This river flows across the Deccan Plateau from the
Which of the given statements is/are incorrect?
Western to the Eastern Ghats. It forms an inter-
(a) 1 only State boundary between the States of Telangana
(b) 2 only and Maharashtra; and Telangana and Chattisgarh.
(c) Both 1 and 2 This river flows through the States of Maharashtra,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Telangana, Chhattisgarh, and Andhra Pradesh. At
Dowlaiswaram, the river divides into two branches,
113. Consider the following statements: the Gautami and Vasishta. It is the longest river of
Peninsular India.
1. The river Tista originates in Sikkim and Joins
Brahmaputra in the state of Assam. The river referred in above paragraph is:
2. The river Gana divides into two streams at (a) Bhima
Murshidabad and the main stream flowing in (b) Mahanadi
the south-east direction is known as Padma. (c) Godavari
3. Majuli island is located in the middle of the (d) Penganga
river Brahmaputra in Arunachal Pradesh.


117. Match the following pairs correctly: Select the correct answer using the code given
River Tributary below::
1. Mahanadi A. Musi (a) 1 and 4
2. Krishna B. Seonath (b) 3 and 5
3. Kaveri C. Kabani (c) 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) 4 and 5
below::
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C 121.Arrange the following rivers in North to South
(b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A direction-
(c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C 1. Mandovi
(d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B 2. Periyar
3. Sharavati
118. Consider the following statements regarding Kaveri 4. Gangavali
river: 5. Pampa
1. Despite being a peninsular river the Kaveri is Select the correct answer using the code given
perinerial. below::
2. Shivanasamudra and Hoggenakkal are the (a) 5-4-3-2-1
prominent waterfalls on the course of the river (b) 2-1-3-4-5
Kaveri. (c) 2-1-3-5-4
Which of the given statements is/are correct? (d) 1-4-3-2-5
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 122. Consider the following statements regarding the
(c) Both 1 and 2 rivers of Kerala:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Periyar river is the largest river in Kerala,
which drains into the Arabian sea.
119. Consider the following statements about the rivers 2. The river Subarnarekha originates in
of India: Anamalai hills and joins Vembanad lake after
1. The Narmada originates from the Amarkantak flowing through Kerala.
and drains into the Gulf of Khambhat. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The Tapi originates from Betul and drains into incorrect?
the Gulf of Kachchh. (a) 1 only
3. The Sabarmati originates from Aravallis and (b) 2 only
drains into the Gulf of Khambhat.
(c) Both 1 and 2
4. The Luni originates from the Aravallis and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
drains into the Gulf of Khambhat.
How many of the above given statements is/are
correct?: 123. Consider the following statements regarding Pennar
(a) Only one of the given statements is correct river:
(b) Only two of the given statements are correct 1. Pennar is one of the major rivers of peninsular
(c) Only three of the given statements are correct India. It lies in the state of Karnataka only
(d) All the given statements are correct 2. The source of the river is in Chennakesava
Hill of the Nandidurga range in the State of
Karnataka.
120. Which of the following are not the east flowing
rivers in India? Which of the given statements is/are correct?
1. Damodar (a) 1 only
2. Ponnaiyar (b) 2 only
3. Pumba (c) Both 1 and 2
4. Vaigai (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Bharathapuzha


124. Consider the following pairs: 127. Consider the following statements regarding lakes
River Valley Projects River in India:
1. Kakrapar Project Tapi 1. Wular lake is an example of Deltaic lake
2. Kalinadi Project Krishna 2. Ashtamudi and Vembanad are examples of
3. Sabarigiri Project Pamba Lagoon lakes
4. Pallivasal Project Bharathapuzha 3. Kolleru lake is an example of Tectonic lakes
How many of the above pairs are correctly How many of the statements given above is/are
matched? correct?
(a) Only one of the given pair is correct (a) Only one of the given statements is correct
(b) Only two the given pairs are correct (b) Only two of the given statements are correct
(c) Only three of the given pairs are correct (c) All the given statements are correct
(d) All of the given pairs are correct (d) None of the given statements are correct
125. Which of the following rivers originate from the 128. Consider the following statements about Pulicat
Amarkantak Plateau?
lake;
1. Narmada 2. Son
1. It is a lagoon lake situated on the border of
3. Tapi 4. Johila
Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
2. Sriharikota island separates this lake from the
below::
sea and gives it the form of a lagoon.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Which of the given statements is correct ?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 1 only
126. Match the following pairs: (b) 2 only
Waterfall State (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Nohkalikai A. Kerala (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Dudhsagar B. Meghalaya
3. Khandadhar C. Goa
4. Soochipara D. Odisha
below:
(a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D (b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
(c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B (d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
CHAPTER-3: INDIA: CLIMATE
129. Which of the following factors influences the 130. Consider the following statements:
climate of India ? Statement- I : There is a reversal of winds from
1. The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of northeast to south and southwest direction during
India the Northeast monsoon in India.
2. Trapping of monsoon winds by the Himalayas Statement- II: Intertropical Convergence Zone
3. Long coastline of India (ITCZ) starts shifting towards south during October
4. Distribution of Land and water to December
Which of the statements given above is/are Which one of the following is correct in respect of
correct?: the above statements? :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct How many of the statements given above are
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation correct?
for Statement-I (a) Only one of the given statements is correct
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (b) Only two of the given statements are correct
incorrect (c) All of the given statements are correct
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (d) None of the given statements is correct
correct
134. Consider the following statements regarding
131. Consider the following statements: Summer season in India:
Statement I : Places lying in the coastal peninsular 1. During Summer wind circulation over the
areas of India hardly experience the winter season. Indian subcontinent undergoes a complete
Statement II: A region, which is closer to the sea, reversal.
will have neither too hot, nor too cold climate. 2. The Northward shift of the Intertropical
Which one of the following is correct in respect of Convergence Zone (ITCZ) regulates the
the above statements? : circulation of wind in the subcontinent.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 3. The ‘loo,’ which are strong, gusty, hot, dry
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for winds blows day and night during this time of
Statement-I the year.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 4. Dust storms are very common during the
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation month of May in northern India, these storms
for Statement-I induces the temperature in the region.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect How many of the statements given above are
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct?
correct (a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
132 Consider the following statements regarding
winters in India: 135 Consider the following statements regarding
1. The low-pressure systems over the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ):
Mediterranean Sea move into India along with 1. The position of the ITCZ varies seasonally
the westerly flow. because it follows the Sun.
2. Tibetan highlands bifurcate the jet stream into 2. The ITCZ moves north in the Northern
two branches. Hemisphere summer and south in the
3. Northern branch of the jet stream influences Northern Hemisphere winter.
the winter weather system in India. 3. ITCZ plays a significant role in the incoming
How many of the statements given above are trade winds from the southern hemisphere
correct?: towards India.
(a) Only one of the given statements is correct How many of the statements given above are
(b) Only two of the given statements are correct correct?
(c) All of the given statements are correct (a) Only one
(d) None of the given statements are correct (b) Only two
(c) Only three
133 Consider the following statements regarding (d) None correct
Western Cyclonic Disturbances:
1. They occur over the region of Mediterranean 136. Which of the following conditions are favourable
sea. for the formation of tropical cyclones:
2. They are carried to India by easterly jet 1. Large sea surface with temperatures higher
streams. than 27 degree celsius
3. ‘Mahawat’ is a local term referring to ‘rabi’ 2. Absence of coriolis force
crop during western disturbances. 3. Small variation in the vertical wind speed


How many of the statements given above are 140. Consider the following pairs:
correct?: Local storms Region
(a) Only one of the given conditions 1. Kalbaisakhi West Bengal
(b) Only two of the given conditions 2. Cherry Blossom Arunachal Pradesh
(c) All of the given conditions 3. Mango Shower South India
(d) None of the given conditions 4. Bardoli Chheerha Punjab
How many of the above pairs are correctly
137. Which of the following is/are considered as the matched? :
reason behind the onset of Monsoon winds in (a) Only one pair is correctly matched
India? (b) Only two pairs are correctly matched
1. Differential heating of land and water (c) Only three pairs are correctly matched
2. Apparent movement of Sun (d) All the pairs are correctly matched
3. Easterly Jets stream
Which of the statements given above is/are 141. Which of the following are the reasons for scanty
correct?: rainfall in Rajasthan, despite the fact that the
(a) 1 and 2 only monsoon branch is passing through Rajasthan?
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. The direction of Aravallis is parallel to the
(c) 1 and 3 only monsoon winds.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The dry and hot winds coming from the Sindh
region of Pakistan
Which of the statements given above is/are
138. Consider the following statements regarding El- correct?:
Nino: (a) 1 only
1. It is a common phenomenon observed every (b) 2 only
year in the Pacific Ocean. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It results in the decrease in the temperature on (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Peruvian coast.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 142. Which of the following is not the area of scanty
(a) 1 only rainfall?
(b) 2 only (a) Northern Gujarat and southern parts of Punjab
(c) Both 1 and 2 and Haryana.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Andaman and Nicobar islands
(c) Desert of Ladakh
(d) The rain shadow area of Western Ghats
139. Which of the following are the reasons for the
break in the Monsoon? 143. Match the following pairs
1. Raing Bearing storms are not very frequent Indian region Climate type
2. Wind blowing parallel to the coast 1. Malabar and konkan A. As
3. The phenomena is believed to be happening coast
due to northward shifting of the monsoon 2. Eastern Tamil Nadu B. BWhw
trough 3. Western Rajasthan C. Amw
4. During the break period, heavy rainfall occurs 4. Northern Arunachal D. Dfc
over the sub-Himalayan regions. Pradesh
How many of the above statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below::
(a) Only one (a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(b) Only two (b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
(c) Only three (c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
(d) All four (d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 2-D


CHAPTER-4 : NATURAL VEGETATION
144. Consider the following statements about Tropical 147. Which of the following are the characteristics of
Evergreen Vegetation: Evergreen Forests?
1. This type of vegetation is found in the areas 1. Less dense canopy with short trees.
with annual rainfall more than 200 cm. 2. Wide variety of plant and animal life
2. The occupy one-third of the earth's land 3. Abundant Epiphytes
surface and harbours less than one third of
4. Warm and Humid climate
world’s plants and animals
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Trees in this vegetation have softwoods and
are of height about 30-60m correct?:
How many of the statements given above are (a) 1, 2 and 3
incorrect? (b) 1, 3 and 4
(a) Only one (b) Only two · (c) 2, 3 and 4
(c) All three (d) None (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
145. Which of the following species of trees are not of 148.Consider the following statements regarding
Tropical Evergreen Vegetation? mangroves:
1. Rubber 2. Mulberry 1. Mangroves are only found in tropical and
3. Mahogany 4. Plum subtropical latitudes.
5. Ebony 2. Mangroves in India are found only on its
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Eastern coasts.
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 3. Mangroves have special roots called
(c) 1, 3 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Pneumatophores for absorbing oxygen.
correct?:
146. This type of vegetation is found at the heights of
1500m, the vegetation is evergreen and tree woods (a) Only one of the given statements is correct
are also soft. Which type of vegetation has been (b) Only two of the given statements are correct
referred to here? (c) All of the given statements are correct
(a) Tropical Dry Deciduous vegetation (d) None of the given statements are correct
(b) Moist Temperate Montane vegetation
(c) Moist Subtropical Montane vegetation
(d) Tropical Moist Deciduous vegetation
CHAPTER-5 : SOIL
149. Consider the following statements regarding 150. Consider the following statements regarding soils:
alluvial soils: 1. Zonal soils have similar properties as that of
1. It is formed by the deposition of sediments parent rocks.
2. It lacks in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus 2. Azonal soils are developed by the process of
Which of the given statements is/are correct? deposition.
(a) 1 only 3. Limestone soil is an example of Intra- Zonal soil.
(b) 2 only How many of the statements given above are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one of the given statements is correct
(b) Only two of the given statements are correct
(c) All the given statements are correct
(d) None of the statements is correct


151. Consider the following statements: 155 Consider the following statements regarding
1. Black soils are well suited for the cultivation Laterite soils:
of jute. 1. These soils develop in the area with high
2. Cotton is a kharif crop which is indigenous to temperature and high rainfall.
India. 2. Laterite soils are poor in iron oxide but rich in
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? humus content.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
152. Consider the following statements:
Statement I : Crops can survive in Black soil 156 Consider the following statements regarding
during the dry season as it retains moisture for Laterite soils:
longer periods. 1. Humus content of the soil is removed by the
Statement II : Black soil swells and becomes heavy rains.
sticky when wet and shrinks when dried. 2. These soils are poor in organic matter,
Which one of the following is correct in respect of nitrogen and calcium.
the above statements?
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation 157. Consider the following statements regarding Arid
for Statement-I soils:
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 1. They are sandy in structure and acidic in
incorrect nature.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is 2. The Lower horizons of the soil are occupied
correct by Kankar.
Which of the following statements are correct?
153. Consider the following statements regarding Red (a) 1 only
and yellow soils: (b) 2 only
1. These soils have been formed by the (c) Both 1 and 2
decomposition of granite and gneiss. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. In India, these soils are found only on the
Deccan Plateau..
158. Consider the following statement regarding Saline
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? soils:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. These soils are also called ‘reh’, ‘usar’ or
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ‘kallar’
2. These soils are deficient in nitrogen and lime.
154. Consider the following statements regarding Red Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
and Yellow soils:
1. This soil is non alluvial and is made up of
such acidic rocks as granite, gneiss, and
schist.
2. This type of soil is found in area with scanty 159. Consider the following statements regarding Peaty
rainfall and arid climate. soils:
Which one of the following is correct in respect of Statement I : They are rich in humus and organic
the above statements? : content
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Statement II : These soils contains large quantity of
dead organic matter


Which one of the following is correct in respect of 162. Consider the following statements regarding Soil
the above statements? Health Card Scheme:
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 1. The scheme was introduced by the Ministry of
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Rural development.
Statement-I 2. Soil Health Cards are provided to all the
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct farmers at an interval of three years.
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation Which of the given Statements is/are Correct?
for Statement-I (a) 1 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (b) 2 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
160. Which of the following are the reasons behind the
soil erosion? 163. Arrange the layers of soil from bottom to top
1. Rainfall and Flooding according to their soil profile:
2. Agriculture 1. O horizon
3. Cultivation of Cover crops 2. B horizon
4. Grazing 3. C horizon
5. Intensive tillage 4. A horizon
6. Mining Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? below::
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1-4-2-3
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 (b) 4-2-3-1
(c) 3-2-4-1
161. Arrange the types of soil erosion in order of their (d) 3-4-2-1
occurrence:
1. Rill Erosion 2. Sheet Erosion
3. Splash Erosion 4. Gully Erosion
below:
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 3-2-1-4 (d) 3-1-2-4
HUMAN AND ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY
CHAPTER - 1 : POPULATION: INDIA AND WORLD
164. Consider the following statements 165. Consider the following statements
1. Crude birth rate refers to the number of live 1. Actual growth of population negates the
births in a year per ten thousand of men . Migration factors while natural growth
2. Crude Death Rate: The crude death rate includes Migration factors of an area.
(CDR) is defined as the number of deaths in a 2. Emigration is the act of moving into a new
year per thousand of the midyear population. place and immigration refers to the movement
3. Natural growth of population is the population out of a place .
increased by difference between birth and Select the correct statements
deaths in a particular region. (a) 1 only
How many of the statements given above are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) both 1 and 2
(a) Only one (b) Only two · (d) neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three (d) None


166. Consider the following statements regarding State 169. With reference to the age sex pyramids, Consider
of world's population report, 2023 the following pairs:
1. The UN Population Fund publishes this report Population Characteristics based
every 5 years, conducting an in-depth analysis Pyramid on Shapes
of global population trends and developments. 1. Triangular-shaped Larger populations in
2. According to recent report, India will overtake pyramid : lower age groups due to
China to become world's most populous high birth rates.
country by 2030. 2. Bell-shaped Equal birth and death
3. The life expectancy for males globally was pyramid : rates
projected to be 71 and 76 for females. 3. Narrow base and Declining birth rates,
How many of the statements given above are tapered top low fertility rates, high
correct? pyramid : life expectancy
(a) Only one How many pairs given are incorrect?
(b) Only two (a) 1 pair only
(c) All three (b) 2 pairs only
(d) None (c) 3 pairs only
(d) no pair
167. Consider the following statements
1. According to the State of the World's 170. Consider the following statements:
population report India’s total Fertility Rate 1. Since the year 1900, India experienced a
was estimated at 2.3 which is higher than the population growth rate below zero (-0.31%)
world average of 2. only once.
2. Around 68% of the population in India is in 2. Since the year 1980, there has been a
the age group of 15-64 years . consistent upward trend in the decadal
3. Population growth in both India and China has population growth rate.
been slowing, despite accounting for more 3. According to the National Family Health
than one-third of the estimated global Survey-5, Bihar has the highest Total Fertility
population Rate among the Indian states.
How many of the statements given above are How many of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two ·
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None
168. Consider the following pairs with reference to the 171. Consider the following statements regarding the
stages of demographic transition: Migration in india
Stages Characteristics 1. Migration in india report is released by
1. First stage A. High birth rate ,high no. Ministry of statistics and programme
of deaths implementation
2. Second stage B. Low birth rate but 2. According to the report the migration in the
population increasing urban area is more than the rural area.
3. Third stage C. Low death rate but but 3. Females in rural areas recorded a higher
high fertility rate migration than in urban areas.
4. Fourth stage D. Low birth & death rates How many statements given above are correct
How many of the above pairs are correctly (a) 1 statement only
matched? (b) 2 statements only
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) all 3 statements
(c) Only three (d) All four (d) no statement


172. Consider the following statement with respect to 174. Consider the following statements
migration data by 2011 census: 1. Human development report is released
1. More than 50 % of intra-state migration was annually by World Bank and world economic
for the purpose of employment. forum.
2. Inter state migration was more than intra-state 2. There are 3 indicators of national income, life
migration. expectancy, education
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. India's rank on the Human Development
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Index (HDI) has slipped in 2022 compared to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2020.
173. Consider the following statements correct?
1. Odisha has the more average population (a) Only one
density than average population density of (b) Only two ·
India (c) All three
2. Arunachal Pradesh has the least population (d) None
density among Indian states and Union
territories.
3. Uttar Pradesh has the highest population
density among Indian states.
correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two ·
CHAPTER - 2: HUMAN SETTLEMENT
175. Consider the following statements with reference to 2. Clustered B. Living area is
the urban settlement. settlement distinct and
1. Census town is an area with a population separated from
more than 5000 working in non-agricultural surrounding pastures
activities. and farms
2. Census towns are governed by urban local 3. Dispersed C. Physically separated
bodies. settlement and fragmented
3. A Statutory Town is one with a municipality, Units motivated by
corporation, cantonment board or notified socio ethnic factors
town area committee. Select the correct pairs
How many statements given above are correct? (a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
(a) one statement only (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
(b) two statements only (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
(c) three statements only (d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
(d) no statement
177. Consider the following statements regarding urban
176. With reference to the human settlement, match the agglomeration
following pairs 1. It is a continuous urban spread constituting a
Type of Characteristics of town and its adjoining outgrowths (OGs), or
settlements settlements two or more physically contiguous towns.
1. Hamleted A. Isolated hamlets 2. Criteria for an urban agglomeration is that it
settlement with farms on the must have a population not less than 20,000 as
slope small hills per the 2001 Census.


Select the correct answer 179. With reference to the Urbanisation in India.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Consider the following statements
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. More than half of India’s population is
currently living in urban area.
178. Consider the following statements regarding urban 2. Goa is the most urbanised state in India
settlements whereas Maharashtra tops in having absolute
Urban settlements Characteristics urban population.
1. Conurbation Group of metropolitan areas Select the incorrect statements
which are perceived as a continuous urban (a) 1 only
area through common systems of transport, (b) 2 only
economy, resources, ecology. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Megalopolis An area having a population (d) Neither 1 nor 2
smaller than required in Metropolitan city.
3. Metropolitan city Cities with a population
of more than four million are considered
etropolitan Cities of India
How many of the above pairs is/are correct:
(a) 1 pair only (b) 2 pairs only
(c) 3 pairs only (d) no pairs
CHAPTER -3: INDIA PEOPLE AND ECONOMY
180. Which of the following statements are correct with 182. Match the following
respect to land use categories maintained in land Crops. Characteristics
revenue records 1) Groundnut. Just one or two light
Type of land Criteria showers or irrigations are
1) Culturable : Left fallow for more than required to grow this crop
Wasteland three years 2) Gram. frost sensitive crops and
2) Barren and : Cannot be brought under their yields fluctuate from
Wasteland cultivation with the
available technology year to year
3) Current Fallow : Left without cultivation for 3) Rapeseed rainfed kharif crop of
one year and Mustard drylands while in southern
Select the correct code given below India, it is cultivated during
(a) 1 and 2 rabi season also
Select the correct code
(b) 2 and 3
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
(d) 1–A, 2-C, 3-B
181.. Consider the following paragraph:
It is grown in semi-arid climatic conditions and
over inferior soils. This crop occupies only about 183. Consider the following paragraph:
3.6 per cent of total cropped area. It is sown all This crop thrives in hot, humid regions. It cannot
over India except eastern and north-eastern regions. be grown in areas with a mean annual rainfall of
Which of the following crop is described above? less than 100 cm, continuous rain, or water logging.
The crop cannot grow at temperatures below 15 °C
(a) Jowar
or above 43 °C. It is a soil-exhausting crop. It thus
(b) Pulses
grows well on the well drained fertile soils in the
(c) Maize flood plains. High temperatures (24°C to 35°C),
(d) Bajra heavy rain (125 – 200 cm) and low plain land are
favourable conditions.


Which of the following crops is described above ? 187. Consider the following statements
(a) Cotton Port Characteristics
(b) Sugarcane 1. Kandla port Largest container port
(c) Jute 2. Visakhapatnam Port Land-locked harbour
(d) Coffee 3. Chennai Port Artificial port
Select the correct code given below
184. Which of the following are incorrect with respect to (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
“Central Ground Water Authority” (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
1) It is a statutory body under Water (Prevention
and Control of Pollution) Act 1974 188. Consider the following statement:
1. Uranium enrichment of U235 isotope to only
2) Central Ground Water Authority frame
3 to 5 percent is required for electricity
guidelines for grant of NoC for ground water
generation.
abstraction by industries/projects
2. More than 50% of energy in India is produced
Which of the statements given above are correct: by coal-fired thermal power plants
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
189. Which one among the following industries use the
185. Match the following largest percentage of water in India?
Place Minerals found (a) Mining (b) Thermal power
1. Lohardaga Bauxite (c) Software (d) Paper and pulp
2. Nellore Mica
190. Consider the following statements with respect to
3. Singhbhum Copper
India:
1. Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in
below:
the peninsular plateau region in the old
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C crystalline rocks.
(b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A 2. More than 95 % of coal reserves in India lie in
(c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and
(d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C Godavari.
3. About 80 % of the coal deposits in India are
of bituminous type.
186. Consider the following statements with respect to
energy resources in India How many of the statements given above are
correct?
1) Natural gas exclusive reserves could along the
(a) Only one (b) Only two ·
eastern coast in India
2) Uranium ores found in Singhbhum belt and
coastal area of Kerala and Tamilnadu
191. About 75% of world‟s cobalt, a metal used in
3) Coal are found in Godavari, Mahanadi and manufacture of batteries for electric vehicles(EVs),
Sone river valley is produced by:
How many of the statements given above are (a) China
correct? (b) Australia
(a) Only one (c) Congo
(b) Only two · (d) U.S.A
(c) All three
(d) None

Sunya Geography 2024-Questions 400+MCQs KING R QUEEN P

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Sunya Geography 2024-Questions 400+MCQs KING R QUEEN P

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Sunya Geography 2024-Questions 400+MCQs KING R QUEEN P

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Don‘t Pay Any Money[FREE BY RISHABH RAJPUT]

Revise ENTIRE Prelims 2024 syllabus

Join Telegram Channel- t.me/ sunyanotes50

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

8. Consider the following statements: 3. Origin of Western Ghats is due to plate

9. Consider the following pairs: 11. Consider the following statements:

CHAPTER 3: MINERALS AND ROCKS

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

CHAPTER 4: GEOMORPHIC PROCESS

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

CHAPTER 5: LANDFORMS AND THEIR EVOLUTION

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

CHAPTER 7: SOLAR RADIATION, HEAT BALANCE AND TEMPERATURE

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

CHAPTER 8: ATMOSPHERIC CIRCULATION AND WHETHER SYSTEM

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

CHAPTER 9: WATER IN ATMOSPHERE AND OCEAN

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

CHAPTER 1: INDIA - LOCATION, STRUCTURE AND PHYSIOGRAPHY

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

CHAPTER-2 : DRAINAGE SYSTEM

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

CHAPTER-3: INDIA: CLIMATE

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

FREE BY KING R QUEEN P [Help Others God Will Help You]

REVISE GEOGRAPHY THROUGH 400+ MCQs

HUMAN AND ECONOMIC GEOGRAPHY