Chemistry - Class Note & Workbook - Module - II
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shane.sarosh2024Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
Module - II
JC & JW -2024
CLASS (XI)
CHEMISTRY
Module - II
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CONTENTS
CLASS NOTE
1. Chemical bonding and molecular structure -----------------------------------------05
2. Hydrogen --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 11
3. States of matter ------------------------------------------------------------------------------15
4. Thermodynamics and chemical energetics -----------------------------------------21
5. Chemical and ionic equilibrium ---------------------------------------------------------26
6. Redox reactions------------------------------------------------------------------------------32
7. The s-block elements ----------------------------------------------------------------------36
8. The p-block elements (Class XI) --------------------------------------------------------42
9. Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles-Part-I
(Nomenclature) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------47
10. Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles-Part-II
(Reaction mechanism) ---------------------------------------------------------------------55
11. Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles-Part-I
(Purification) -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------63
12. Hydrocarbons ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------68
13. Environmental Chemistry ---------------------------------------------------------------- 76
WORKBOOK
1. Chemical bonding and molecular structure -----------------------------------------81
2. Hydrogen ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------87
3. States of matter ------------------------------------------------------------------------------92
4. Thermodynamics and chemical energetics -----------------------------------------99
5. Chemical and ionic equilibrium ------------------------------------------------------- 105
6. Redox reactions---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 112
7. The s-block elements -------------------------------------------------------------------- 117
8. The p-block elements (Class XI) ------------------------------------------------------ 122
9. Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles-Part-I
(Nomenclature) ----------------------------------------------------------------------------- 128
10. Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles-Part-II
(Reaction mechanism) ------------------------------------------------------------------- 136
11. Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles-Part-I
(Purification) --------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 147
12. Hydrocarbons ------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 153
13. Environmental Chemistry -------------------------------------------------------------- 160
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 01
CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR
STRUCTURE
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Which of the following molecule/ion violates octect rule?
A) BF4 B) NCl3 C) PCl4 D) SF4
2. Formal charge on the three atoms in ozone molecule are
A) 0, 0, +1 B) 0, +1, –1 C) –1, +1, –2 D) 0, 0, +2
3. Correct order of lattice energy
A) NaCl > AlCl3 B) AlCl3 > MgCl2 C) AlCl3 < MgCl2 D) AlCl3 = MgCl2
4. Pick out the most covalent compound among the following
A) NaCl B) PbCl2 C) SnCl4 D) SnCl2
5. On decreasing the internuclear distance below the optimum distance (where potential energy is
minimum) there is steep increase inpotential energy of a molecule due to
A) increase in force of attraction between electrons and nuclei
B) increase in stability of the bonded atoms
C) equal probability of finding bonding electrons near to either of the nuclei
D) increase in net repulsions in the molecule
6. Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are
A) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively
B) the same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs of electrons respectively
C) different wtih 0,1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectivaly
D) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively
7. Which of the following represents the given mode of hybridisation of carbon atoms from left to right
sp2 – sp2 – sp – sp?
A) H 2 C C C CH 2 B) HC C C CH
C) H 2 C CH CH CH 2 D) H 2 C CH C CH
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. The correct order of increasing bond lengths of the following bonds is
I) C–H II) C–O III) C–C IV) C C
A) IV < I < II < III B) I < IV < II < III C) IV < I < III < II D) I < IV < III < II
9. Which one of the following is not true about resonance?
A) The resonance structures are hypothetical
B) The number of unpaired electrons in various resonating structures of a molecule should be the
same
C) Hybrid structure is more energies than any one of the resonating structures
D) Hybrid structure is more stable than any one of the resonating structure
10. which of the following process, the bond order has increased and paramagnetic character has changed
to diamagnetic
N 2
A) N 2 NO
B) NO
O 22
C) O 2 O 2
D) O 2
LEVEL-II
1. Which of the following statements are correct?
i) ClO 4 is a super octect ion
ii) BF3 is a Lewis acid
iii) NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl (melting point order)
iv) BaCO3 is less soluble in water than BeCO3
A) i and ii B) i, iii and iv C) ii, iii and iv D) All are correct
2. Choose the correct code of characteristics for the given order of hybrid orbitals of the same atom
sp < sp2 < sp3
i) Electronegativity
ii) Bond angle, between same hybrid orbitals
iii) size
iv) energy
A) i, iii and iv B) iii and iv C) ii and iv D) i, ii and iii
3. The orbitals used in hybridisation of AsF5 are
2
A) d x2 y2 , d z , s, Px Py Pz B) d xy , s, Px Py Pz
C) s, Px, Py, Pz, d 2z D) s, Px, Py, Pz, d x 2 y2
4. A diatomic molecule has dipole moment 1.2D and its bond length is 1A0. Percentage of ionic character
in it is
A) 10% B) 35% C) 25% D) 50%
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
5. The correct increasing bond lengths of the following bonds is
i) F3C – CF3 ii) CH3 – CH2F iii) H3C – CH3 iv) FCH2 – CH2F
A) iv < i < ii < iii B) i < iv < ii < iii C) iv < i < iii < ii D) i < iv < iii < ii
6. Which of the following is a polar molecule
A) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene B) cis-1, 2-dichloro ethene
C) trans 1, 2-dichloro ethene D) Benzene
Assertion-Reason type questions
A) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C) Assertion is true, reason is false
D) Both assertion and reason are false
7. Assertion : PCl5 and BrF5 molecules have identical shape
Reason : P in PCl5 and Br in BrF5 are in same hybridisation
8. A molecule has 3 resonating structures with energies E1, E2 and E3 in the order E3 < E2 < E1. The
experimental energy of the molecule is E0. Its resonance energy is
A) (E1 + E2 + E3) – E0 B) E0 – E3
C) E0 – E1 D) E0 – E2
9. Which of the following statments is incorrect?
A) O2 O2 O2 - decreasing order of bond energy
B) He2 molecule does not exist as the bonding and antibonding effects cancel each other
C) C2, O22 and Li2 are diamagnetic
D) In F2 molecule, the energy of 2pz is greater than that of 2p x and 2p y
10. The decreasing order of boiling points among the following compounds is
A) SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 B) SbH3 > AsH3 > NH3 > PH3
C) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 D) PH3 > NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3
LEVEL-III
1. Which of the following molecules are polar?
A) O3 B) SF4 C) I3 D) XeOF4
2. Select the correct order between bond angles / bond length (X = halogen)
A) COCl2 > COF2 – XCX bond angle B) NO2F > NO2Cl – ONO bond angle
C) SO2F2 < SOF2 – FSF bond angle D) N2F2 < N2 (CH3)2–N–N bond length
3. Select the correct statements
A) All the N–N bond lengths are same in N3 ion
B) All the N–N bond lengths are not identical in HN3
C) In HN3, the terminal N–N bond length is shorter than the central N–N bond length
D) N3 ion and HN3 molecule have same number of electrons
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4. Both N(SiH3)3 and NH(SiH3)2 have trigonal planar skeleton. The correct statement(s) about the
compounds is/are
A) N–Si bond length in NH(SiH3)2 < N–Si bond length in N(SiH3)3
B) Si–N–Si bond angle in NH(SiH3)2 > Si–N–Si bond angle in N(SiH3)3
C) Back bond strength in NH(SiH3)2 > back bond strength in N(SiH3)3
D) N–Si bond length in NH(SiH3)2 > N–Si bond length in N(SiH3)3
5. The molecular orbital electronic configuration of molecular species X2 can be represented as follows
MOs AOs
AOs
2s
2s 2s
Energy
2s
1s
1s 1s
1s
which of the following conclusion are correct?
A) It is the excited electronic configuration of X2
B) It is more stable than ground state of X2 molecule
C) Bond order of X2 in the excited state is one
D) It is more likely to dissociate in to two X atom in ground state than in excited state
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
6. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct on the basis of hydrogen bond?
A) KHF2 exists but KHCl2 does not
B) Boiling point order of hydrogen halides is HF > HI > HBr > HCl
C) CCl3 CH(OH)2 and orthonitrophenol shows intramolecular hydrogen bond
D) Ortho nitrophenol has a lower vapour pressure than para nitrophenol
Matrix match type questions
7. Column-A Column B
(Axial/side wire appropriate/ Molecular type of orbitals
appropriate overlaps of pure orbitals)
A) p and p orbitals P) bonding MO’s
B) s and p orbitals Q) bonding MO’s
C) Non axial d orbitals and p orbitals R) bonding MO’s
D) Axial d orbital and p orbital S) bonding MO’s
T) Non bonding orbitals
A) A PQRST; B PRT; C QST;; D PRT
T
B) A PQRST; B PRT; C QST;; D PRT
T
C) A QST; B PQRST; C PRT;; D PS
D) A PRT; B P; C QT;; D PS
8. Column-I Column-II
1) XeF4 p) sp3d2
2) SF4 q) sp3d
3) BrF3 r) no.of lone pair = 1 on central atom
4) I31 s) no.of lone pair = 2 on central atom
t) planar
A) 1 p, q, t; 2 p, r; 3 p, r; 4 q, s B) 1 p, s, t; 2 q, r; 3 p, r; 4 q, t
C) 1 p,s, t; 2 q; 3 p, r, t; 4 p, s D) 1 p, q, t; 2 q, r; 3 r, t; 4 q, s
LEVEL-IV
Numerical Type
1. The sum of p d bonds in SO2 and SO3 is
2. Consider the elements A, B, C and D and their outer electronic configuration as ns2np1, ns2np3,
ns2np4 and ns2np5 respectively. Element E also has the same electronic configuration as D but shows
only single oxidation state, –1. Elements A, B, C and D belong to the same period as sodium. Consider
the following compounds
1) CE4 2) BD2E3 3) DE3 4) CE2
5) BD3E2 6) C2E2 7) DE 8) A2D6
Calculate the value of x y . x and y are total number of polar and non polar compounds respectively
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
3. What is the maximum number of equal angles present in CH2F2
4. Maximum number of atoms present in a plane of molecule allene CH2 = C = CH2
5. Percentage of ionic character in HCl is 22.05. The observed dipole moment is 1.08 D. The internuclear
distance in 1 × 10–x. Find X
6. The observed dipole moment of H2O is 1.85 D. The O–H bond distance is 0.94 D and HOH bond
angle is 104.50 Cos 52.250 = 0.612 Cos 104.50 = –0.250. The percentage of fractional charge on
hydrogen atom in terms of charge of the electron is (30 + x)%. Find the value of x
7. A molecule has hybridisation involving s and p orbitals. Calculate the percentage of s character in its
bonds. The bond angle is 1050 (cos 1050 = –0.2588). Divide the percentage by 10
8.
Total number of electron pairs Total number of lone
Shape
(lps + no: bonds pair on the central atom
5 p linear
q 1 see saw
4 r bent shape
s 2 square planar
5 t T-shape
Find the value of p + q + r – s – t
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 02
HYDROGEN
QUESTIONS
LEVEL-I
1. The process of conversion of atomic hydrogen in to molecular hydrogen is
A) Exothermic change B) Endothermic change
C) Nuclear change D) Photochemical change
2. Very pure (99.9%) hydrogen can be made by which of the following processes?
A) Reaction of salt like hydrides with water
B) Reaction of methane with steam
C) Mixing of natural hydrocarbons having high molecular weight
D) Electrolysis of warm aq. Ba(OH)2 between nickel electrodes
3. Nascent hydrogen consists of
A) hydrogen atoms with excess of energy
B) hydrogen molecules with excess energy
C) hydrogen ions in excited state
D) solvated protons
4. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from water gas (CO + H2), which of the following
is the correct statement?
A) CO and H2 are fractionally separated using difference in their densities
B) CO is removed by absorption in aqueous Cu2Cl2 solution
C) H2 is removed through occlusion with Pd
D) CO is oxidized to CO2 with steam in the presence of a catalyst followed by absorption of CO2 in an
alkali
5. Which of the following is in correct order?
I. T2 > D2 > H2 (Order of Boiling Point)
II. T2 > D2 > H2 (Order of Bond dissociation energy)
III. T2 = D2 = H2 (Order of bond length)
IV. T2 < D2 < H2 (Order reactivity with chlorine)
A) I, II and III B) I and II C) I, II, III, and IV D) I, III, and IV
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6. The hydrides used to remove traces of water from organic solvents due to their high reactivity with
water are
A) ionic hydrides B) metallic hydrides C) covalent hydrides D) interstitial hydrides
7. Hydrogen burns in air with a
A) light bluish flame B) yellow flame C) green flame D) reddish flame
8. Electron- deficient, electron - precise and electron - rich hydrides are types of
A) ionic hydrides B) complex hydrides C) covalent hydrides D) metallic hydrides
9. Hydrogen sulphide is acidic but water is neutral. This is because
A) molecular weight of hydrogen sulphide is more than water
B) water molecules associate while hydrogen sulphide molecules do not
C) H – S bond is weaker than H – O bond due to bigger size of S atom
D) H2S cannot form intermolecular hydrogen bonding as water can
10. Which of the following statements regarding water is incorrect?
A) High dielectric constant and strong solvating power make water an excellent solvent
B) Water is a polar molecule
C) The density of water is maximum at 4° C
D) On cooling, density of water decreases up to 4°C followed by increase up to 0° C
LEVEL – II
1. Hydrogen atom may attain stability by
A) forming an electron pair (covalent) bond with other atoms
B) losing an electron to form H+
C) gaining an electron to form an H–
D) All of these
2. A deuterium atom
A) Has same atomic mass as hydrogen atom
B) Has same electronic configuration as hydrogen atom
C) Has same nuclear composition as the hydrogen atom
D) Contains one proton more than a hydrogen atom
3. The molecule of ortho-hydrogen is distinguished from para-hydrogen by
A) Two electrons rotating in opposite directions
B) Two electrons rotating in same directions
C) Two protons rotating in opposite directions
D) Two protons rotating in same directions
4. Hydrogen accepts an electron to form inert gas configuration. In this it resembles
A) Halogens B) Alkali metals C) Chalcogens D) Alkaline earth metals
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
5. Hydrides of elements of group 3 to 5 are generally called
A) Interstitial hydrides B) Ionic hydrides C) Polymeric hydrides D) Complex hydrides
6. Both temporary and permanent hardness can be removed on boiling hard water with
A) Ca(OH)2 B) Na2CO3 C) CaCO3 D) CaO
7. Hard water is not fit for washing purpose. Because
A) it contains salts of K+ and Na+ B) soap is precipitated
C) it contains heavy hydrogen D) It is acidic in nature
8. D2O is called heavy water because
A) A heavy liquid B) An oxide of heavy isotope of oxygen
C) An oxide of deuterium D) Denser than water
9. H2O2 can act as a bleaching agent due to its
A) Oxidising nature B) Reducing nature C) Acidic nature D) Basic nature
10. The mass percent of H2O2 in ‘30 Volume H2O2’ is
A) 4.56% B) 9.11% C) 11.39% D) 13.67%
LEVEL – III
More than one correct answer type
1. Which of the following properties of hydrogen atom are similar to those of halogens?
A) Formation of H+ like X+ B) Formation of H– like X–
C) Formation of H2 like X2 D) Liberation of H– to anode like X–
2. Which of the following elements are expected to be forming metallic hydrides?
A) Cu B) Pd C) Li D) Sc
3. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by which of the following processes?
A) Boiling hard water with Na2CO3 B) Calgon process
C) Clark’s process D) Ion exchange method
4. Which of the following statements about H2O2 are true
A) H2O2 is used to clean oil paintings
B) H2O2 acts as oxidising as well as reducing agent
C) Two hydroxyl groups in H2O2 lie in the same plane
D) Oxygen is in -1 oxidation state
5. Isotopes of hydrogen are
A) Ortho hydrogen B) Para hydrogen C) Protium D) Deuterium
6. Uses of H2O2 are
A) As a bleaching agent B) As an oxidising agent
C) as a reducing agent D) As an antiseptic
7. Isomeric form of hydrogen is/are
A) Ortho hydrogen B) Para Hydrogen C) Nascent hydrogen D) Tritium
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. Properties in which hydrogen is similar to alkali metals is/are
A) Electronic configuration B) Existence as diatomic
C) Electro positive nature D) High ionization enthalpy
9. 10ml of H2O2 solution on treatment with KI and titration of liberated I2 required 10mL of 1N hypo. Then
concentration of H2O2 is
A) 1N B) 5.6 Volume C) 1.7 g/L D) 17g/L
10. Match column I with column II. Find all possible matching pairs
Column I Column II
a) Sodium ion in zeolite gets exchanged with p) Ca2+
b) Expression of hardness q) Mg2+
c) Temporary Hardness r) Ca (HCO3)2
d) Permanent Hardness s) MgSO4
t) ppm
A) a - p, q; b -t; c - r, t; d - s, t B) a - p; b - q, r, s, c - p, d - s
C) a - p, q, r, s; b - p, r, s, c - r, d - s D) a - q; b - p, q, s, c - s, d – p
LEVEL – IV
Numerical Questions
1. The degree hardness of water sample which contains 0.001 mole of MgSO4 dissolved per litre of
water is expressed as
2. 10L of hard water required 0.56g of lime (CaO) for removing hardness. Hence, temporary hardness in
ppm (parts per million,106) of CaCO3 is
3. The hardness of a water sample containing 0.002 mole of MgSO4 dissolved in a litre of water is
expressed as
4. There are three samples of H2O2 labelled as 10 Volume, 15 Volume and 20 Volume. Half litres of each
sample are mixed and then diluted with equal volume of water. The volume strength of resultant
solution will be.
5. The mass percent of H2O2 in ‘30 VolumeH2O2’ is
6. The volume of oxygen liberated from 10 ml of 30 vol H2O2will be
Integer type
7. The sum of protons, neutrons and electrons in the radioactive isotope of hydrogen is
8. The number of electron rich hydrides among the following is
CH4, NH3, PH3, H2O, H2S, BH3, HF, AlH3, AsH3
9. Number of co-ordinated water molecules present in CuSO4.5H2O is
10. The maximum possible number of hydrogen-bonds a water molecule can form in ice is
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 03
STATES OF MATTER
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Which of the following graph is incorrect
A) T 1 > T2 > T3 B) P1 > P2 > P3
C) D) V1 < V2 < V3
2. In a hospital, an oxygen cylinder hold 10 L of oxygen at 200 atm pressure. If a patient breath in 0.50 mL
of oxygen at 1.0 atm with each breath the cylinder will be sufficient. Assume all the data is at 370 C
A) 6 × 104 B) 3 × 106 C) 8 × 105 D) 4 × 106
3. A student forgot to add reaction mixture to round bottomed flask at 270 C, but he placed the flask on the
flame. After a lapse of time he realised his mistake, using a pyrometer, he found the temperature of the
flask was 4770 C, what fraction of the air would have been expelled out
A) 0.6 B) 0.45 C) 0.8 D) 0.5
3
4. An open vessel at 27°C is heated until part of the air in it has been expelled. Assuming that the
5
volume of the vessel remains constant the temperature to which the vessel has been heated is
A) 500 K B) 750 K C) 1000 K D) 1250 K
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
5. Three footballs are respectively filled with nitrogen, hydrogen and helium. If the leaking of the gas
occurs with time from the filling hole, then the ratio of the rate of leaking of gases rN 2 : rH 2 : rHe from
three footballs (in equal time interval) is
A) 1: 14 : 7 B) 14 : 7 :1 C) 7 :1: 14 D) 1: 7 : 14
6. The mass of a molecule A is twice the mass of molecule B. The rms speed of A twice the rms speed
of B. If two samples of A and B contain same number of molecule, the ratio of pressure of two samples
A and B in separated containers of equal volume is
A) 8 : 1 B) 4 : 3 C) 16 “ 5 D) 2 : 1
7. The temperature at which CO2 has the same RMS speed to that of O2 at STP is/are
A) 375.38 K B) 10.238°C C) 275.38 K D) 202.38 K
8. The term that corrects for the attractive force present in the real gas in the vander waals equation is
an 2 an 2 V2
A) nb B) C) nb D)
V2 V2 an 2
9. At high pressure, the compressibility factor z is equal to
Pb Pb
A) unity B) 1 C) 1 D) zero
RT RT
10. For a real gas, deviation from ideal behaviour is maximum at
A) 1000 C & 1 atm B) 00 C & 1 atm
C) - 200 C & 5 atm D) - 100 C & 2 atm
LEVEL-II
1. An evacuated glass vessel weighs 50 g when empty, 144 g when filled a liquid of density 0.47 g ml-1,
and 50.5 g when filled with an ideal gas at 760 mm Hg and 300 K. The molar mass of the gas is about
A) 48 B) 60 C) 131 D) 88
2. Two gas bulb A and B are connected to a tube having a stopcock bulb A has a volume of 100 ml and
contains hydrogen. After opening the gas from A to an evacuated bulb B, the pressure falls down to
40 %. The volume (ml) of B must be
A) 75 B) 150 C) 125 D) 200
3. A volume V of a gas at temperature T1 and a pressure P is enclosed in a sphere. It is connected to
another sphere of volume V/2 by a tube and stopcock. The second sphere is initially evaccuated and
the stopcock is closed. If the stopcock is opened the temperature of the gas in the second sphere
become T2. The first sphere is maintained at a temperature T1. What is the final pressure P1 within the
apparatus ?
2PT2 2PT2 PT2 2PT2
A) 2T T B) T 2T C) 2T T D) T T
2 1 2 1 2 1 1 2
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
4. There is a drum of volume V L in which air is filled at 1 atm pressure. Now a sealed glass tube of 25 L
containing an inert gas at 20 atm is placed inside it and it is sealed. During the transportation the glass
tube is cracked final pressure inside the drum rises to 1.4 atm. What is the volume of the drum.
A) 1300 L B) 1250 L C) 1376 L D) 1185 L
5. 0.5 mole of each H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in a container. A hole was made in the container. After 3
hours, the order of partial pressures in the container will be
1) PSO2 PCH 4 PH 2 2) PH 2 PSO2 PCH 4 3) PCH 4 PSO 2 PH 2 4) PH 2 PCH 4 PSO 2
6. X ml of H2 gas effused through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the effusion of
same volume of gas specified below under identical conditions is
A) 10 seconds : He B) 20 seconds : O2 C) 25 seconds : CO D) 55 seconds : CO2
7. The average kinetic energy (in joules of) molecules in 8.0 g of methane at 270 C is
A) 6.21 × 10-20 J/molecule B) 6.21 × 10-21 J/molecule
C) 6.21 × 10-22 J/molecule D)3.1 × 10-22 J/molecule
8. For one mole of a van der Waals gas when b = 0 and T = 300 K, the PV vs 1/V plot is shown below. The
value of van der Waals constant a (atm L2 mol-2)
A) 1.0 B) 4.5 C) 1.5 D) 3.0
9. A mixture of CO and CO2 is found to have a density of 1.50 g L-1 at 200 C and 740 mm pressure. What
is the mole percentage of CO and CO2 in the mixture
A) 43.38 & 56.62 B) 20.28 & 79.72
C) 37.24 & 62.79 D) 52.23 & 47.77
10. The critical temperature of a gas if it gets liquified at 4.1 atm and has a critical volume of 3 L
A) 250 K B) 500 K C) 300 K D) 400 K
LEVEL-III
Morethan one correct answer type questions
1. Which of the following pair of gases will have same rate of diffusion under similar conditions?
A) H2 and He B) CO2 and N2O C) CO and C2H4 D) NO and CO
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
2. Two flasks A and B have equal volume. Flask A contains hydrogen at 300 Kwhile B contains equal
mass of methane of 600 K. Which of the following facts is/are correct if the gases follow ideal behaviour?
A) Flask A contains greater number of molecules
B) The average speed of molecule in flask B is twice that of molecules in flask A
C) Both the gases have same compression factor
D) Total kinetic energy of molecules in flask A is greater than that of molecule in flask B
3. Which of the following statements are correct
A) Helium diffuse at a rate 8.65 times as much as CO does
B) Helium escapes at a rate of 2.65 times as fast as CO does
C) Helium escapes at a rate of 4 times as fast as CO2 does
D) Helium escapes at a rate 4 times as fast as SO2 does
4. Select the correct statements
A) At Boyle temperature, a real gas behaves like an ideal gas at low pressure
B) Above critical conditions, real gas behave like an ideal gas
C) For hydrogen gas ‘b’ dominates over ‘a’ at all temperatures
D) At high pressure, van der Waals constant ‘b’ dominates over ‘a’
5. Select correct statements
A) The value of compressibility factor ‘z’ for the gas is greater than one at room temperature and
pressure
B) The real gas behaves as an ideal gas at Boyles temperature
C) For real gas following van der Waals equation of state, the expression of critical temperature is
8a
27 Rb
Pb
D) At low pressure the compressibility factor Z 1 for van der Waals gases
RT
6. Select correct statements
According to kinetic theory of gases,
A) A real gas can be liquified at critical temperature
B) Critical pressure is the maximum pressure at which substance present in its liquid state at Tc
C) Ideal gas can be liquified below Tc
D) Critical volume is molar volume of substance in gaseous state at Tc and Pc
7. According to kinetic theory of gases
A) Collision are always elastic
B) Behavior molecules transfer more momentum to the walls of the container
C) Only a small number of molecules have very high velocity
D) Between collisions, the molecules move in straight lines with constant velocities
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
LEVEL-IV
Integer type questions
1. A compound exist in gaseous state both as a monomer and dimer. The molecular mass of monomer
is 48. In an experiment 96 gm of the compound was taken in a vessel of volume 33.6 L at 273 K. What
is the pressure developed if the compound exist as dimer to an extend of 50 % by mass ?
2. A spherical balloon of 21 cm diameter is to be filled with H2 at NTP from a cylinder containing the gas
at 20 atm at 270C. The cylinder can hold 2.82 L of water at NTP. The number of balloons that can be
filled up is
3. A 10 cm column of air is trapped by a column of Hg 4.00 cm long in a capillary tube of uniform box
when the tube is held horizontally at 1 atm. What will be the length of the air column when the tube is
held vertically with the open end up
4. A vessel of volume 5 litre contains 1.4 g of nitrogen at a temperature 1800 K. Find the pressure of the
gas in atm if 30 % of its molecules are dissociated into atoms at this temperature (divide the answer
with 1.92)
5. At 400 K, the rms speed of a gas X (molecular weight = 40) is equal to the most probable speed of gas
Y at 60 K. The molecular weight of Y is
6. N2 is found in a litre flask under 100 kPa pressure and O2 is found in another 3 litre flask under 320 kPa
pressure. If the two flasks are connected, the resultant pressure is
7. A gas cylinder containing cooking gas can withstand a pressure of 14.9 atm. The pressure of the
cylinder indicates 12 atm, at 27°C. Due to sudden fire in the building, its temperature starts rising. At
what temperature (in Kelvin) will the cylinder explode?
8. A balloon filled with He at 730 mm of Hg at 25°C. If density of air 1.25 g/L the lifting power of balloon is
9. Assume that for every increase in hight of 1m, pressure decreases by 10 mm Hg, initially an experi-
ment air balloon of maximum 200 L capacity has 150 L air at 1 atm at sea-level. At what height , the
balloon is expected to burst
3
10. An open vessel at 27°C is heated until part of the air in it has been expelled. Assuming that the
5
volume of the vessel remains constant the temperature to which the vessel has been heated is
Matrix match type question
11. Match the entries of column I with appropriate entries of column - II
Column - I Column - II
a) rate of diffusion of gas p) P P pressure
1
b) rms speed q) d density
d
c) average kinetic energy of gas r) T
d) vapour pressure of liquid s) T
A) a - q, r; b - p, r; c - q; d - s B) a - p, q, r; b - r; c - s; d - s
C) a - p, r; b - r; c - s; d - q D) a - p, q, r; b - r; c - q; d - q, s
19
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
12. Column - I Column - II
a) root mean square speed p) T
1
b) average speed q)
M
1
c) most probable speed r)
d
d) kinetic energy per mole s) T
A) a - p, q, r; b - p, q, r; c - p, q, r; d - s B) a - p, q, r; b - r; c - p, q, r; d - s
C) a - s; b - p, q, r; c - p, q, r; d - s D) a - p, q, r; b - p, q, r; c - p, q; d - q, r
13. Match the term with expression
Column-I Column-II
1
A) Boyles temperature i) PV Nmu 2
3
a 2
B) Critical temperature ii) b
27
a
C) Critical pressure iii)
Rb
8a
D) Kinetic gas equation iv)
27 Rb
A) A iii; B iv; C ii; D i B) A ii; B iv; C i; D iii
C) A i; B ii; C iii; D iv D) A iv; B iii; C ii; D i
20
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 04
THERMODYNAMICS AND CHEMICAL ENERGETICS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL-I
1. Which of the following is an extensive property
A) Mass B) Enthalpy C) Energy D) All of these
2. q = -w is not true for (ideal gas)
A) Isothermal process B) Adiabatic process
C) Cyclic process D) A and C both
3. One mole of ideal gas allowed to expand reversibily and adiabatically from a temperature of 27°C. If
the work done by the gas in the process is 3 kJ, the final temperature will be (CV = 20 JK–1 mol–1)
A) 100 K B) 450 K C) 150 K D) 400 K
4. For which change H U
2HI(g)
A) H 2 (g) I 2 (g)
B) HCl(l ) NaOH( l ) NaCl(s) H 2 O l
C) C s O 2(g) CO2(g)
D) N 2(g ) 3H 2(g ) 2NH 3(g )
5. In which reaction S is positive
A) H 2O(l ) H 2 O s B) 3O 2(g ) 2O 3(g ) C) H 2O l H 2 O(g) D) N 2(g ) 3H 2(g ) 2NH 3(g)
6. For the reaction 2Ag s 1 O2(g) the value of H 30.56 kJ mol 1 and
Ag 2 O s
2
S 66 JK 1mol 1 . The temperature at which the free energy change for the reaction will be zero is
A) 373 K B) 413 K C) 463 K D) 493 K
7. The heat of combustion of methane is –880 kJ/mol–1. If 3.2 g of methane is burnt ........... kJ of heat
evolved
A) 88 B) 264 C) 176 D) 440
21
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. For endothermic reaction when change in entropy is negative, then reaction is
A) not possible at any temperature B) possible at low temperature
C) possible at all temperature D) possible at high temperature
LEVEL-II
1. For a given reaction, H 35.5 kJ mol1 and S 83.6 JK 1mol 1 . The reaction is spontaneous at:
(Assume that H and S do not vary with temperature)
A) T > 425 K B) All temperatures C) T > 298 K D) T < 425 K
2. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5
atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy U of the
gas in joules will be
A) –500 J B) –505 J C) +505 J D) 1136.25 J
3. Calculate the work done during isothermal reversible process when 5 mol ideal gas is expanded so
that its volume is doubled at 400 K?
A) –11.5 kJ B) –344 kJ C) 0 D) –2.8 kJ
4. The enthalpy of solution of BaCl2 and BaCl2.2H2O(s) are –20.6 and 8.8 kJ/mol respectively. The enthalpy
change for the hydration of BaCl2(s) is
A) 29.4 kJ B) –29.4 kJ C) –11.8 kJ D) +11.8 kJ
5. For hypothetical reversible reaction 1 2 A 2(g) 3 2 B2(g) AB3(g) ; H 20 kJ . If standard
entropies of A2, B2 and AB3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK–1 mole–1 respectively. The above reaction will be in
equilibrium at
A) 400 K B) 500 K C) 250 K D) 200 K
6. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
A) Isothermal process P) q = u
B) Adiabatic process Q) w = PV
C) Isobaric process R) w = v
V2
D) Isochoric process S) w = RT ln
V1
A) A S; B R; C Q; D P B) A P; B Q; C R; D S
C) A S; B R; C P; D Q D) A R; B S; C Q; D P
7. One mole of a non ideal gas undergoes a change state (2 atm 3L 95 K) (4 atm 5L 245 K) when a
change in internal energy u 30 L atm . The change in enthalpy of process in L Vm is
A) 40 B) 42.3 C) 44
D) Not defined becaused pressure is not a instant
22
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. Given that bond energies of H–H and Cl–Cl are 430 kJ/mol and 240 kJ/mol respectively and H for
HCl is –90 kJ/mol. Bond enthalpy of HCl is
A) 245 kJ/mol B) 290 kJ/mol C) 380 kJ/mol D) 425 kJ/mol
LEVEL-III
More than one correct answer type
1. A sample contain 1 mole of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly to ten times of its
original volume in two seperate experiments. The expansion is carried out at 300 K and at 600 K
respectively. Choose the correct options
A) work done at 600 K is 20 times the workdone at 300 K
B) work done at 300 K is 2 times the workdone at 600 K
C) work done at 600 K is 2 times the workdone at 300 K
D) U 0 in both cases
2. The reversible expansion of ideal gas under adiabatic and isothermal condition is shown below. Which
of the following statement (s) is/are correct?
A) T1 = T2 B) T3 > T1
C) W isothermal > W adiabatic D) U isothermal U adiabatic
3. The initial pressure, volume and temperature of an ideal monoatomic gas are P,V and T respectively.
The gas is expanded isothermally to a final volume of 2V and a pressure of Pi. If the same gas is
expanded adiabatically to a final volume of 2V and a pressure of Pa. Then,
P P
A) P 1
1
B) P 2
i a
P 1
C) P 2 0.66
a
D) Tfinal (adiabatic) < Tfinal (isothermal)
i
4. In experiment I , 200 mL 0.1 M KOH is mixed with 100 mL 0.1 M H2SO4. In experiment II , 100 mL 0.1
M KOH is mixed with 50 mL 0.1 M H2SO4. Select the correct statement
A) Heat liberated in each of the two reaction is 274 cal
B) Heat liberated in I is 274 cal and II is 137 cal
C) Temperature rise in I is more than that in II
D) Temperature rise in I is equal to the temperature rise in II
23
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
5. The normal boiling point of a liquid ‘X’ is 400K . Which of the following statement is true about the
process X( ) X(g)?
A) at 400 K and 1 atm pressure G 0
B) at 400 K and 2 atm pressure G ve
C) at 400 K and 0.1 atm pressure G ve
D) at 410 K and 1 atm pressure G ve
6. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas (CV = 5 cal) was transformed from initial 25°C and 1L to the state
when temperature is 100°C and volume 10 L. Then for this process (R = 2 Cal K–1 mol–1) mark out the
correct one/s
A) H 525
373
B) S 5 ln 2 ln10
298
C) U 525
D) H U
LEVEL-IV
Numerical/Ingeger type questions
7. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K, is heated at constant volume (V1) until its temperature is doubled
then it is expanded isothermally till it reaches the original pressure. Finally, the gas is cooled at constant
pressure till the system reached to the half of original volume (V1/2). Determine the total work done (w)
in calories
use n 2 = 0.7, R = 2 cal
8. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal compression from 5m3 to 1m3 against a constant external pressure
of 4Nm–2 . Heat released in this process is used to increase the temperature of 1 mole Al. If molar heat
capacity of Al is 24 J mol–1 K–1. The temperature of Al increases by
9. 0.144g CH4 is burned with O2 in Bomb calorimeter (heat capacity 1.5 kcal). The calorimeter contains
300 mL H2O (d = 1g/mL). Calorimeter heat capacity is 1.5 kcal, it shows temperature rise by 1.2. The
magnitude of U is
10. The reaction CH4(g) Cl2(g) CH3Cl(g) HCl(g) has H 25 kCal . From the following data, what is
the bond energy of Cl–Cl bond in kcal?
B ond C-Cl H-Cl C-H Cl-Cl
Bond energy
84 103 x y x :y = 9: 5
in kcal
11. The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction Br2 Cl 2(g )
2BrCl(g) are 30 kJ mol–1 and
105 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. The temperature at which the reaction will be in equilibrium is
24
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
12. C 4 H10(g) n bu tan e
For the reactions: 4C(g) 5H 2(g)
H 0 124.73 kJ
S0 365.8J
4C g +5H2(g) C4H10(g) Isobutane
H0 131.6 kJ
S0 381 J
What is the magnitude of G 0 for the conversion of n-butane to isobutane in kJ mol–1?
Statement Type Questions
A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is the correct explanation of
Statement-I
B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of
Statement-I
C) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
D) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
13. Statement-I : When a gas at high pressure expands against vacuum, the work done is maximum.
Statement-II : Work done in expansion depends upon the pressure inside the gas and increase in
volume.
14. Statement-I : The enthalpy of formation of H 2O is greater than H 2 O g
Statement-II : Enthalpy change is negative for the condensation process H 2 O(g)
H 2 O
Matrix match type questions
15. Match the transformation in Column-I with appropriate in Column-II
Column-I Column-II
A) CO 2(s)
CO 2(g) p) Phase transition
B) CaCO3(s)
CaO(s) CO2(g ) q) Allotropic change
C) 2H
H 2 (g ) r) H is positive
D) C(graphite)
C diamond s) S is positive
t) S is negative
A) A p, r,s ; B r,s ; C t ; D q, r, t
B) A p,s ; B r ; C t ; D t
C) A p,r,s ; B q ; C r ; D s
D) A r,s,t ; B p,q,s ; C r ; D p
25
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 05
CHEMICAL AND IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Given:
N2 (g) 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g); K1
N2 (g) O2 (g) 2NO(g); K 2
1
H2 (g) O2 (g) H2O(g); K 3
2
5
The equilibrium constant for 2NH3 (g) O2 (g) 2NO(g) 3H2O(g) will be
2
K1K 2 K1K 23 K 2K 33
A) K1K2K3 B) C) D)
K3 K2 K1
2. Match the column-I with column-II and mark the appropriate choice
Column-I Column-II
Vapour
A) Liquid i) Saturated solution
liquid
B) Solid ii) Boiling point
vapour
C) Solid iii) Sublimation point
Solute (solution)
D) Solute(s) iv) Melting point
A) A i; B ii; C ii; D iv B) A ii; B iv; C iii; D i
C) A iv; B ii; C i; D iii D) A iii; B iv; C ii; D i
3. At a certain temperature, the vapour density of PCl5 in equilibrium with PCl3 and Cl2 is 90. The degree
of dissociation of PCl5 is
A) 0.185 B) 0.058 C) 0.158 D) 0.258
26
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
4.
For the reaction 2AB(g) A 2 (g) B2 (g) . The degree of dissociation of HI(g) is related to
the equilibrium contant KP by expression
1 2 KP 1 2K p 2K p 2 KP
A) B) C) D)
2 KP 2 1 2K p 1 2 KP
5. Which of the following expression is wrong?
A) H OH 10 for a neutral solution at all temperatures
7
B) H
K w and OH > K w for basic solution
C) H OH
K w for a neutral solution
D) H
K w and OH– < K w for an acidic solution
6. Kb for NH4OH is 1.8 10 5 . The [OH–] of 0.1 M NH4OH is
A) 5.0 10 2 B) 4.20 10 3 C) 1.34 10 3 D) 1.8 10 6
7. pH of a lemon water bottle is 3 and that of orange juice is 4. Calculate the pH of final solution obtained
by mixing above solutions in volume ratio 1 : 2 respectively. [Assuming there is not chemical reaction]
A) 3.4 B) 4.4 C) 5.4 D) 2.4
8. Which will make basic buffer?
A) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
B) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH
C) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
D) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 ml of 0.1 M NH4OH
LEVEL-II
1. C (g) D g is studied in a one litre vessel at 250°C. The initial concentration
The reaction A g B g
of A was ‘3n’ and that of B was ‘n’. When equilibrium was attained, the equilibrium concentration of C
was found to equal to the equilibrium concentration of B. What is the concentration of A at equilibrium?
A) n 2 B) 5n 2 C) 3n 2 D) n
2 2NO 2(g) . At a fixed temperature,
Consider the following equilibrium in a closed container N 2 O 4(g)
the volume of reaction container is halved for this change, which of the following statements hold true
regarding equilibrium constant (Kp) and degree of dissociation
A) Neither Kp nor change B) Both Kp and change
C) Kp changes, but does not change D) Kp doesnot change, but changes
27
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
3. CH 3OH (g) . What will be the effect of the following
Consider the equilibrium setup 2H 2(g) CO
on the equilibrium of the reaction
i) Addition of H2 ii) Addition of CH3OH iii) Removal of CO iv) Removal of CH3OH
i ii iii iv
1) Forward direction Backward direction Backward direction Forward direction
2) Backward direction Backward direction Forward direction Forward direction
3) Forward direction Forward direction Backward direction Backward direction
4) Backward direction Forward direction Forward direction Backward direction
4.
The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the reaction 2A B C is 2494.2 J. At a given
1 1
time, the composition of the reaction mixture is [A] = , B = 2 and [C] = . The reaction proceeds in
2 2
the [R = 8.314 J/K/mol, e = 2.718]
A) forward direction because Q > KC
B) reverse direction because Q > KC
C) forward direction because Q < KC
D) reverse direction because Q < KC
5. The pH of 10–7 M solution of NaOH in water is
A) 7 B) 6.7 C) 7.3 D) 6.2
6. A certain weak acid has a dissociation constant of 1.0 10 4 . The equilibrium constant for its reaction
with a strong base is
A) 10 10 4 B) 10 10 10 C) 1.0 1010 D) 1.0 1014
7. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in the order
A) NaCl NH4Cl NaCN HCl
B) HCl NH4Cl NaCl NaCN
C) NaCN NH4Cl NaCl HCl
D) HCl NaCl NaCN NH4Cl
8. When 2.5 mL of 2/5 M weak monoacidic base (Kb = 1 1012 at 25C) is titrated with 2/15 M HCl in
14
water at 25°C the concentration of H at equivalence point is K w 1 10 at 25 C
0
A) 3.7 10 13 M B) 3.2 10 7 M C) 3.2 10 2 M D) 2.7 10 2 M
28
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
LEVEL-III
Multiple correct answer type
1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) The pH of 1.0 10 8 M solution of HCl is 8
B) The conjugate base of H2PO4 is HPO24
C) The autoprotolysis constant of water increases with temperature
D) When a solution of a weak monoprotic acid is treated against a strong base, at half-neutralisation
point. pH = (1/2) pKa
2. A 1 litre solution of p H 1 diluted upto 10 times. What volume of a solution with p H 2 is to be added
in diluted solution so that p H doesnot change
A) 1L B) 10L C) 100L D) 25L
3. 2NO2 ; K C 4 .
Reversible reaction is studied graphically as shown in the given figure N 2O4
Select the correct statements out of I, II and III
A) Reaction quotient has maximum value at point A
B) Reaction proceeds left to right at a point when [N2O4] = [NO2] = 0.1 M
C) KC = Q when point D or F is reached
D) C is the point of equilibrium
4. 0.1 mol of CH3NH2(KP = 5 × 10–4) is mixed with 0.08 mol of HCl and diluted to 1L. Which statement is
correct?
A) The concentration of H+ ion is 8 × 10–11 M
B) The concentration of H+ ion is 8 × 10–5 M
C) The pH of solution is 9.8
D) The pH of solution is 10.2
5. Which of the following solution will have pH = 13
A) 2g NaOH in 500 ml solution
B) 100 ml solution of 0.05 M Ca(OH)2
C) 100 ml solution of 0.1 N Ca(OH)2
D) 4g NaOH in 500 ml solution
29
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
6. The thermal dissociation equilibrium of CaCO3(s) is studied under different conditions.
CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) CO2 (g) . For this equilibrium, the correct statement(s) is(are)
A) H is dependent on T
B) K is independent of the initial amount of CaCO3
C) K is dependent on the pressure of CO2 at a given T
D) H is independent of the catalyst, if any
7. At 25oC, the degree of ionisation of water is given as 1.8 × 10–9. Which of the following statements
about autoprotolysis of water is correct?
A) The value of Kw = 10–14 at 273 K
B) The value of ionisation constant is 1.8 × 10–16
C) When temperature increases, pH value decreases
D) [H+] concentration decreases when boiling due to vapourisation
8. Which is/are correct?
A) 2.303 log K = H0 / RT S0 / R
B) G0 2.303 RT log K
C) –2.303 log K = H0 /RT 2 S0 /R
D) 2.303 log K 1/ RT H S
0 0
LEVEL-IV
1. The degree of dissociation is 0.4 at 400 K and 1.0 atm for the gaseous reaction
PCl5 PCl3 Cl2 . Assuming ideal behaviour of all the gases, calculate the density of equilibrium
mixture at 400 K and 1.0 atm (relative atomic mass of P is 31.0 and of Cl is 35.5)
2. The values of Ksp of CaCO3 and CaC2O4 are 4.7 × 10–9 and 1.3 × 10–9 respectively at 25°C. If a
solution mixture of these two is washed with water, the concentrations of Ca2+ in the water is
X × 10–5M. Find the value of X.
3. 0.1 M NaOH is titrated with 0.1 M HA till the end point is Ka for HA is 5 × 10–6 and degree of hydrolysis
is less compared to 1. The pH of the resulting solution at the end point is
4. 20 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is added to 30 mL of 0.2 M NH4OH solution. The pH of the resulting
mixture is (pKb of NH4OH = 4.7)
30
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
5. pH of a lemon water bottle is 3 and that of orange juice is 3.7. Calculate the pH of final solution obtained
by mixing also solution in Volume ratio 1:2 respectively. [Assuming no chemical reaction]
6. Calculate solubility of solid zinchydroxide at a pH of 13. Given that
Zn(OH) 2 aq; K1 106 M
Zn OH 2 (s)
Zn(OH) OH ; K 2 107 M
Zn OH 2 aq
Zn 2 OH ; K 3 104 M
Zn OH
Zn OH ; K 4 103 M 1
Zn OH 2 aq OH
3
Zn OH ; K 5 10 M 1
Zn OH 3 OH
2
4
7. Calculate pH of 1M NaHCO3 . Given
H 2 CO3 H 2 O HCO H3O ; pKa 6.38
3 1
2
HCO H2O CO H3 O; pKa2 10.26
3 3
Matrix Match Type Questions
8. Column I Column II
a) Ksp =s2 p) KI3
b) Ksp = 4s3 q) Fe(OH)3
c) Ksp = 27 s4 r) Zirconium phosphate
d) Ksp = 108 s5 s) Hg2Cl2
t) Calcium phosphate
A) a q; b r; c s, t; d p B) a q; b s; c r; d t
C) a p; b s; c q; d t D) a p; b q;c s, t; d r
31
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 06
REDOX REACTIONS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. The oxidation number of C is zero in :
I) HCHO II) CH2Cl2 III) C6H12O6 IV) CH3COOH
A) I, II only B) I, II, III only C) 1 and III only D) All
2. –1/3 oxidation state of nitrogen will be obtained in case of
A) Ammonia (NH3) B) Hydrazoic acid (N3H)
C) Nitric oxide (NO) D) Nitrous oxide (N2O)
3. Oxidation number of Fe in Fe0.94 O is
A) 200 B) 200/94 C) 94/200 D) none
4. A sulphur containing species that cannot act as oxidising agent is :
A) H2SO4 B) H2S C) SO2 D) H2SO3
5. When methane is burnt in oxygen to produce CO2 and H2O, the oxidation number of C change by :
A) 6 B) zero C) 8 D) 4
6. Which of the following can act as oxidising agent as well as reducing agent ?
I) H2O2 II) H2S III) SO2 IV) HNO2
A) I, II, III B) II, III, IV C) I, III, IV D) All
7. In the reaction H 2S 2HNO3 2H 2 O 2NO 2 S the equivalent weight of H2S is :
A) 16 B) 17 C) 34 D) 68
8. What is A in the following reaction ?
2Fe3 (aq) Sn 2 (aq) 2Fe2 (aq) A
A) Sn 3 (aq) B) Sn 4 (aq) C) Sn 2 (aq) D) Sn
9. The product of oxidation of I with MnO4 alkaline medium is :
A) IO3 B) I2 C) IO D) IO4
10. The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of MnO4 to MnO2 is :
A) IF B) 3F C) 5F D) 6F
32
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
LEVEL - II
1. The oxidation states sulphur in Caro’s acid and Marshalls acid are
A) 6,4 B) 5, 6 C) 6,6 D) 6, 2
2. Which of the following does not represent disproportionation ?
A) MnO 2 4HCl MnCl 2 Cl 2 2H 2 O B) 2H 2 O 2 2H 2 O O 2
C) 4KClO 3 3KClO 4 KCl D) 3Cl 2 6NaOH 5NaCl NaClO 2 3H 2 O
3. The oxidation state of nitrogen is correctly given for
Compound Oxidation state
A) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 0
B) NH2OH –2
C) (N2H5)2 SO4 +2
D) Mg3N2 –3
4. A compound contains atoms of three elements, A, B and C. If the oxidation number of A is +2, B is +5,
and C is -2, the possible formula of the compound is :
A) A3(BC4)2 B) A3(B4C)2 C) ABC2 D) A3(BC3)2
5. The complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 is formed in the brown ring test when freshly prepared FeSO4 solu-
tion is added to aq. solution of NO 3 followed by addition of conc. H2SO4. This complex is formed by
charge transfer in which
A) Fe2+ changes to Fe3+ and NO+ changes to NO
B) Fe2+ changes to Fe3+ and NO changes to NO+
C) Fe2+ changes to Fe+ and NO changes to NO+
D) No charge transfer takes place
6. The value of ‘n’ in :
MnO 4 8H ne Mn 2 4H2 O is :
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
7. Standard reduction potentials of 3 metals X, Y and Z are +0.52 V, -2.87 V and -0.44 V respectively. The
reducing power of metals are in the order
A) Y > Z > X B) X > Y > Z C) Y > X > Z D) X > Z > Y
8. Which of the following is spontaneous ?
a) Zn 2 Cu Zn Cu 2 b) Cu 2 Zn Cu Zn 2
c) Zn 2 Cu 2 Zn Cu d) Zn Cu Zn 2 Cu 2
Given that Zn 2 Zn; E0 0.76 V and Cu 2 Cu; E 0 0.34 V
A) a only B) b only C) b and c only D) d only
33
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
9. “Layer test” is used for the identificaiton of
2
A) CO3 , SO 24 B) MnO 4 and MnO 42 C) Cr 3 and Cr2 O 72 D) I– and Br–
10. Indicator used in the titration of KMnO4 and ferrous oxalate is
A) Methyl red
B) Methyl orange
C) Diphenyl hydramine
D) KMnO4 acts as self indicator
LEVEL-III
One or more than one option correct type questions
1. In the reaction 3Br2 6CO32 3H 2 O 5Br BrO 3 6HCO 3
A) Bromine is oxidised B) Bromine is reduced
C) Carbon is oxidised D) It is disproportionation reaction
2. Which of the following are disproportionation reactions ?
A) 2HCHO NaOH HCOONa CH 3OH
B) P4 3NaOH 3H 2 O PH 3 3NaH 2 PO 2
C) 2NO 2 2KOH KNO 2 KNO3 H 2 O
D) 2KClO3 2KCl 3O 2
3. Which of the following can be oxidised further with a strong oxidising agent ?
A) SO2 B) MnO2 C) Al2O3 D) CrO3
4. In the titration of K2Cr2O7 and FeSO4, following data is obtained. V1 ml of K2Cr2O7 of molarity M1
requires V2 ml of FeSO4 solution of molarity M2. Which of the following relations are true for the above
titration ?
A) M1V1 = M2V2 B) N1V1 = N2V2 C) 6M1V1 = M2V2 D) M1V1 = 6M2V2
5. Choose the correct statements :
A) 1 mole of MnO4 ion can oxidise 5 moles of Fe2 in acidic medium
B) 1 mole of Cr2 O72 can oxidise 6 moles of Fe2 in acidic medium
C) 1 mole of Cu2S can be oxidised by 1.6 moles of MnO4 in acidic medium
D) 1 mole of Cu 2S can be oxidised by 1.33 moles of Cr2 O72 ion in acidic medium
6. Point out the correct statement from the following:
A) In Na2S4O6 oxidation number of two S atoms is zero each and that of other two S atoms is +5 each
B) In CrO5 oxidation number of Cr is +6
C) In HNO4 oxidation number of N is +5
D) Oxidation state of phosphorous in cyclotrimeta phosphoric acid is +5
34
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
7. FeC2O4 + MnO 4 CO 2 Mn 2
List-I List-II (Stoichiometric coefficients)
A) FeC2O4 p) 3
B) MnO 4 q) 5
C) H+ r) 10
D) CO2 s) 24
A) a q; b p; c s;d r B) a p; b q; c r;d s
C) a s; b r; c p;d q D) a r; b s; c p;d q
LEVEL-IV
Integer Type Questions
1. 0.2828 g of iron wire was dissolved in excess of dilute H2SO4 and the solution was made upto 100 ml.
N
20 ml of this solution required 30 ml K 2 Cr2 O7 solution for exact oxidation. Calculate the % purity of
30
Fe in the wire (Atomic mass of Fe = 56)
2. MnO4 is reduced to Mn 2 in acidic medium and to MnO2 in neutral medium when MnO4 acts as
oxidant. 20 ml of Fe2 require 30 ml MnO4 solution in acidic medium. What volume of this aqueous
solution of MnO4 is needed for the same Fe2 solution if 30 ml is used in neutral medium
3. 6 10 3 mol K 2 Cr2 O 7 reacts completely with 9 103 mol X n to give XO 3 and Cr 3 . The value of n
is
4. 0.56 g of limestone was treated with oxalic acid to give CaC2O4. The precipitate decolourised 45 ml of
0.2 N KMnO4 in acid medium. Calculate % of CaO in limestone
5. A standard solution of K2Cr2O7 (Mole. mass = 294) contains 2.94 g dissolved to make 250 ml solution.
20 ml. of this solution with excess 5 % KI solution liberate I2 which when titrated with Na2S2O3 solution
using starch indicator changes blue colour to colourless at the addition of 18 ml Na2S2O3 solution.
The molarity of Na2S2O3 are :
35
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 07
S-BLOCK ELEMENTS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Most abundant alkali metals are
A) Li, Na B) Na, K C) Rb, Cs D) K, Rb
2. Given ionisation enthalpy values of X and Y are given. Identify X and Y
X : IE1 495 kJ / mol; IE 2 4000 kJ / mol
Y : IE1 520 kJ / mol; IE 2 7300 kJ / mol
A) Na, Li B) Na, K C) K, Rb D) Rb, Cs
3. By considering IE values alkali metals are
A) Strong reducing agents B) Weak reducing agents
C) Weak oxidising agents D) Strong oxidising agents
4. Density value of Li is
A) 0.53 g/cm3 B) 0.85 g/cm3 C) 1.05 g/cm3 D) 1.03 g/cm3
5. Identify the correct order of conductivity of Li+, Na+, K+, Rb+ and Cs+ is aqueous medium
A) Cs+ < Rb+ < K+ < Na+ < Li+ B) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+
C) Cs+ < Li+ < Rb+ < K+ < Na+ D) Cs+ < Li+ < K+ < Na+ < Rb+
6. Which of the following does not give CO2 on heating
A) Li2CO3 B) KHCO3 C) BaCO3 D) Na2CO3
7. Washing soda has the formula
A) Na2CO3 B) Na2CO3.10H2O C) Na2CO3.H2O D) Na2CO3.7H2O
8. Reagents used in solvay process are
A) NH4OH, CO2 & Brine B) NH4OH, CaCl2, CO2
C) NH4OH, Ca(OH)2, Brine D) NH3, CaCl2, NaCl
9. Alkali metal halide which is soluble in water and pyridine or alcohol is
A) LiCl B) NaCl C) KCl D) CsI
36
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
10. Group two element which as the lowest density value is
A) Mg B) Be C) Sr D) Ca
LEVEL-II
1. Na and Li are placed in dry air, we get
A) NaOH, Na2O, Li2O B) Na2O, Li2O
C) Na2O, Li2O, Li3N, NH3 D) Na2O, Li2O, Li3N
2. Which of the following has highest M.P.
A) NaCl B) NaF C) NaBr D) NaI
3. Which is false regarding chemical properties of alkali metals
A) They react vigorously with H2O, least reactive is Li
B) They react with alcohol and acetylene
C) They have no reaction with hydrogen
D) They form ionic halides except Li
4. Which of the following group 2 hydroxide is the strongest base
A) Ca(OH)2 B) Sr(OH)2 C) Ba(OH)2 D) Mg(OH)2
5. Which of the following is incorrect about group 2 elements
A) All group 2 MO + H2O
M(OH)2 + heat
B) Solubility of group 2 hydroxides increases down the group
C) Group 2 elements combine with halogens to form MX2 which are deliquescent solids
D) H 0f oxides are very low, order of stability of carbonate is in the order BeCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3
> SrCO3 > BaCO3
6. Microcosmic salt used in analytical chemistry for detection of transition metal oxides. It is
A) Na(NH4)H2O B) K(NH3)HPO4.2H2O
C) Na(NH4)HPO4..4H2O D) Na(NH3)HPO4.4H2O
7. Correct order of solubility of group 2 fluorides in water is
A) BeF2 < CaF2 < SrF2 < BaF2 B) BeF2 < CaF2 < SrF2 < BaF2
C) CaF2 < SrF2 < BaF2 < BeF2 D) CaF2 < SrF2 < BaF2 < BeF2
8. Na Hg
Na Hg
Cathode : Na Hg H 2 O
NaOH Hg H
2H 2e
2H
H2
Anode : Cl
Cl 1e ; Cl Cl
Cl 2
Above reaction represent the preparation of
A) NaOH - Electrolysis of NaCl B) NaOH - Castner Kellner cell
C) NaOH - Gossage process D) NaOH - Nelson cell/Nafion cell
37
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
9. When CaC2 is heated with N2 gas in an electric furnace, product formed is Nitrolim. It is
A) Ca(CN)2 B) Ca3N2 C) CaCN D) CaCN2 + C
10. Match suitably
List-I List-II
1) 14% Li with Mg A) Oxone
2) Na2O2 B) Armour plate and aerospace components
3) (C2H5)4Pb C) Liquid Na
4) Nuclear coolant D) Used by Astronauts
5) LiOH E) Sodium lead alloy
6) KO2 F) Photoelectric cells
7) Cs and K G) Breathing apparatus, para magnet yellow colour
A) 1 B; 2 F; 3 E; 4 C; 5 D; 6 G; 7 A
B) 1 B; 2 A; 3 E; 4 C; 5 D; 6 G; 7 F
C) 1 B; 2 A; 3 E; 4 C; 5 F; 6 G; 7 D
D) 1 B; 2 A; 3 C; 4 E; 5 D; 6 G; 7 F
LEVEL-III
More than one correct answer type questions
1. The correct statement in the following
A) LiClO4 is soluble in water
B) LiCl can be used to control humidity
C) Electrolysis of LiCl used for extraction of Li
D) Least stable carbonate is Li2CO3
2. The pair of compounds which cannot exist together in aqueous medium is
A) NaH2PO4 and Na2HPO4
B) Na2CO3 and NaHCO3
C) NaOH and NaH2PO4
D) NaHCO3 and NaOH
3. Which of the following are correct about Na2O2
A) It decolourises acidified KMnO4 solution
B) On heating with oxygen at 450°C, it becomes paramagnetic
C) Prepared by heating Na metal with air/O2 face from H2O and CO2 in Al trays
D) It gives both H2O2 and O2 gas with water and with H2SO4
38
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
4. Be and Al resemble in
A) Their chlorides are Lewis acids
B) Their chlorides exist in polymeric form
C) They become passive in con.HNO3
D) Their oxides and hydroxides are amphoteric
5. Correct order indicated is
A) NaF > NaCl > NaBr > NaI (Melting point)
B) LiBr > NaBr > KBr > RbBr (Solubility)
C) Li2CO2 > Na2CO3 > K2CO3 > Rb2CO3 (Thermal stability)
D) LiF, CsI - ionic insoluble in H2O (high lattice energy)
Matrix match type questions
6. List-I List-II
1) Be and Mg p) Deep blue solutions
2) Preparation of BeF2 q) Inert towards O2 and H2O
3) BeCl2 solid r) Burns to give oxide and nitride
4) Group 2 in liquid NH3 s) BeO + Cl2 + Coke
5) BeH2 t) From BeCl2 with LiAlH4
u) Thermal decomposition of (NH4)2BeF4
A) 1 q, r; 2 u; 3 s; 4 p; 5 t B) 1 q, r; 2 s; 3 u; 4 p; 5 t
C) 1 s; 2 q, r; 3 u; 4 p; 5 t D) 1 u; 2 q, r; 3 s; 4 p; 5 t
7. List-I List-II
1) Magnalium a) For plastering fractured bones
2) Milk of magnesia b) Interior decoration, statues
3) CaSO4. 1 2 H2O c) As a purgative
4) MgSO4.7H2O d) As an antacid
5) Metallic Be e) In air craft industry
f) In automobile engines
g) X-ray tubes
A) 1 e, f ; 2 d; 3 a, b; 4 c; 5 g
B) 1 e, f ; 2 a, b; 3 d; 4 c; 5 g
C) 1 a, b; 2 e, f ; 3 d; 4 c; 5 g
D) 1 d; 2 a, b, f ; 3 a, b; 4 c; 5 g
39
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. List-I List-II
1) Be a) Treatment of cancer
2) Mg b) Extraction of Ti
3) Ca c) Incenary bombs and signals
4) Ra d) Flash bulbs
e) X-ray tubes
f) Its carbide on hydrolysis give CH4
A) 1 e, f ; 2 b, c, d; 3 b; 4 a B) 1 b, c; 2 e, f ; 3 a, d; 4 a
C) 1 e, f ; 2 b, c;3 b, d; 4 a D) 1 b, c; 2 e, f ;3 b, d; 4 a
9. List-I List-II
1) Na2O2 a) Soft soap
2) Na2CO3.10H2O b) Hard glass
3) NaHCO3 _ NaK tartrate c) Oxone
4) NaHCO3 + H2SO4 + Al2(SO4)3 d) Washing soda
5) NaHCO3 + Sand e) Washing soap and glass
6) K2CO3 f) Sidelits powder
g) Foamite oil fire extinguisher
h) Dry powder fire extinguisher
A) 1 c; 2 d, e; 3 f ; 4 g; 5 h; 6 a, b
B) 1 d, e; 2 c; 3 f ; 4 h; 5 g; 6 a, b
C) 1 f ; 2 c; 3 d, e; 4 g; 5 h; 6 a, b
D) 1 a, b; 2 c; 3 d, e; 4 g; 5 h; 6 f
10. List-I List-II
1) Na in excess NH3 a) Blue colour
2) K in excess O2 b) Paramagnetic
3) CsI3 in aqueous medium c) Cs+ and I3
4) BeCl2 in vapour state at 1000 K and 1200 K d) KO3
e) Breathing apparatus
f) sp, sp2
A) 1 a, b; 2 b, d, e;3 c; 4 f B) 1 b, d, e; 2 a, b;3 c; 4 f
C) 1 c; 2 b, d, e;3 a, b; 4 f D) 1 a, b; 2 c;3 b, d, e; 4 f
40
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
LEVEL-IV
Integer type questions
1. LiCl is a deliquescent solid exist as LiCl.xH2O value of x is ......................
2. Li2+ ion in aqueous medium surrounded by definite no.of water molecules. No.of water molecules is
.....................
3. When Gypsum converted to plaster of paris, no.of water molecules lost will be ....................
4. Epsom salt has the formula MgSO4.7H2O. No. of co-ordinated H2O and no.of H-bonded water are
................ and .................
5. Beryllium carbide on hydrolysis give CH4 gas no.of moles of H2O required for this reaction is ...............
Numerical type questions
6. How many grams of CH4 gas formed by hydrolysis of 2 moles of Be2C?
7. 1.35 g of a group 2 metal converted to its oxide. If the mass of oxide is 1.88 g. What is the atomic
mass of metal?
8. Mass of Quick lime obtained by heating 200 g of 95% pure lime stone is ............
9. Percentage decrease in mass of 1 mol of Gypsum converted to paster of paris is ..........
10. 1.2 g of Na2CO3 dissolved in water and allowed to react with CaCl2. Mass of CaCO3 formed is 1.04g.
What is the percentage purity of Na2CO3.
41
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 08
THE p-Block ELEMENT (XI)
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Which statement is incorrect?
A) The occurrence of oxidation states two unit less than the group oxidation state are attributed to inert
pair effect
B) The change of non-metallic to metallic character down the p-block group can be illustrated by the
nature of the oxides they form
C) Density increases regularly down the group 13
D) The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 is B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
2. Which is a correct statement?
A) Except Boron, all other trihalides of group 13 hydrolyse in Aq. medium to produce [M(OH)4]– and
[M(H2O)6]3+
B) Aluminium dissolves in dil. HCl and aq. alkali to produce H2
0
C) Standard reduction potential value E M3 /M shows that Tl3+ in aqueous solution is a powerful oxidising
agent
D) All the above
3. Identify the incorrect statement?
2
A) Borax contain the tetra nuclear unit B4 O5 OH 4
B) Boric acid is not a protonic acid
C) Diborane undergoes cleavage reactions with Lewis base to give borane adducts
D) When borax is heated with cobaltoxide in a flame, a green coloured bead of Co(BO2)3 is produced
4. In group 14
A) EN values of Sn and Pb are almost same
2
B) SiF62 , GeCl6 and Sn OH 6
2
exist
C) Tin decomposes steam
D) All the above are correct
42
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
5. Select the incorrect statement?
A) Standard enthalpy of formation of C60 is +38.1 kJ mol–1
B) Carboxy haemoglobin complex is 300 times less stable than oxygen-Haemoglobin complex
C) Quartz is a piezoelectric material
D) The starting materials for the manufacture of silicones are alkyl or aryl substituted silicon chlorides
RnSiCl4 4 n
6. Which is incorrect?
A) Sn in +2 state is a reductant and Pb in +4 state is an oxidant
B) The tetrahalides of group 14 can undergo hydrolysis except carbon
C) Catenation C > > Si > Ge Sn
D) In diamond, each carbon undergoes sp2 hybridisation and is paramagnetic
7. Which one of the following silicate share only one oxygen?
C) SiO3 n D) Si 2 O 5 n
2n 2n
A) SiO 44 B) Si 2 O 67
8. Which of the following has doubtful existence?
A) PbI 4 B) GeI 4 C) SnI4 D) CI 4
LEVEL-II
1. Tl I3 is an ionic compound. In the aqueous solution it provides
A) Tl+ and I3 B) Tl3+ and I C) Tl , I and I 2 D) Tl3 and I3
2. Which of the following statements regarding boric acid is false?
A) It acts as tribasic acid B) It has planar structure
C) It act as monobasic acid D) It is soluble in hot water
3. When an inorganic compound (X) having 3c - 2e– as well as 2c – 2e– bonds react with NH3 gas at
certain temperature gives a compound (Y), isostructural with benzene. Compound (X) with NH3 at
high temperature produces a substance (Z). Then
A) (X) is BH3, (Y) is B2N2H3, (Z) is inorganic benzene
B) (X) is B2H6, (Y) is B3N3H6, (Z) is Boron nitride
C) (X) is borax, (Y) is B2O3, (Z) is inorganic benzene
D) Reactions insufficient for prediction
4. Which one is the wrong statement?
A) Anhydrous AlCl3 exists as a dimer (Al2Cl6)
B) Al2Cl6 contains 3c – 4e– bonds
C) Anhydrous AlCl3 fumes in air
D) Anhydrous AlCl3 is ionic
43
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
5. Which are incorrect statements?
I) In group 14, lead has no catenation
II) The first IE decreases from carbon to tin except lead
III) C–C single bond enthalpy = 240 kJ
IV) f H 0 of fullerene is +1.90 kJ
A) All are correct B) I, IV C) III, IV D) I, II
6. Which statement is incorrect regarding the green house gas CO2?
A) An aq. solution of CO2 is an equilibrium mixture of CO2, H2CO3, HCO3 and CO 32
B) Solid CO2 is a refrigerent under the name Drikold or Cardice
C) Super critical CO2 is used to extract perfumes from flowers
D) CO2 doesn’t react with NH3 at high pressure
7. Assertion (A) : The thermal stability of the hydrides of carbon family is CH4 > SiH4 > GeH4 > SnH4 >
PbH4.
Reason (R) : E–H bond enthalpy of the hydrides decreases down the group with increase in atomic
size.
A) Both A and R are true, R is a correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, R is not a correct explanation of A
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
8. Among the following substituted silanes, the one which will give rise to cross-linked silicone polymer
on hydrolysis followed by condensation is
A) RSiCl3 B) R2SiCl2 C) R3SiCl D) R4Si
LEVEL-III
1. Which of the following options are correct?
Ca 2 B6 O11 Na 2 CO3 CaCO3 (A) (B)
A CO2
B
A) (B) contains five B–O–B bonds
B) (A) can be obtained by thermal decomposition of (B)
C) Aq. solution of (B) is used as an acidic buffer in titration
D) A can exist in polymeric form
2. Boric acid
A) Exists in polymeric form due to intermolecular H-bonding
B) Is used in the manufacturing of heat resistant pyrex glasses
C) is a mild antiseptic
D) is estimated by adding glucose or cis-1,2-diol
44
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
3. Aqueous solution of Boric acid is treated with salicylic acid which of the following statements are
incorrect for the product formed in the above reaction?
A) No product will be formed because both are acids
B) Product is 4-coordinated complex and optically resolvable
C) Product is 4-coordinated complex and optically non-resolvable
D) There are only two rings which are five membered.
4. The correct statements regarding the structure of diborane are
A) Maximum six hydrogen atoms can lie in a plane
B) Maximum six atoms can lie in a plane
C) Bridging Hb – B – Hb bond is stronger than terminal B–Ht bond
ˆ H bond angle is greater than bridging H B
D) Terminal H t B ˆ H bond angle
t b b
5. Which of the following are correct for group 14 elements?
A) Stability of dihalides are in the order CX 2 SiX 2 GeX 2 SnX 2 PbX 2
B) The ability to form p p bonds increases down the group
C) The tendency for catenation decreases down the group
D) They all form oxides of the formula MO2
6. Which of the following are the uses of zeolites?
A) Conversion of alcohol to gasoline B) Cracking of hydrocarbons
C) Isomerisation of hydrocarbons D) Softening of Hard water
7. The correct statements related to the allotropes of carbon are
A) Graphite is thermodynamically most stable with 2D-sheet structure of hexagonal carbon rings
(sp2)
B) The hardest allotrope of carbon is diamond with 3D network structure of carbon (sp3)
C) Fullerenes are non-crystalline allotropes with foot ball like structure
D) The layers of structure of graphite are 614 pm apart
8. Matrix match
Column-I Column-II
A) Bi 3
BiO p) Heat
Al OH 3
B) AlO 2 q) Hydrolysis
C) SiO 44
Si 2 O 67 r) Acidification
2
B OH 3
D) B4 O7 s) Dilution with water
A) A q,s; B r; C p; D q, r B) A r,s; B p; C r; D q,s
C) A p; B q; C r; D s D) A s; B r; C q; D p
45
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
9. Column-I Column-II
A) Cyclic silicates p) Tetrahedral hybridisation
B) Single chain silicates q) Si – O bonds are 50% ionic and 50% covalent
2n
C) Pyrosilicates r) General formula SiO3
n
D) 2D-Sheet silicates s) Two oxygen atoms per tetrahedron are shared
A) A p, q, r,s; B p, q, r, s; C p, q; D p, q
B) A p, q;; B p, q; C p, q, r, s; D p, q, r,s
C) A p; B q; C p, q, r,; D p, q,s
D) A q, r; B q,s; C p, q, r,; D p, q,s
LEVEL-IV
1. Carbon monoxide is estimated by using I2O5. How many moles CO are used according to the reaction?
2. Borax is made up of ‘x’ triangular and ‘y’ tetrahedral units. x + y = .................. ?
3. Find the value of ‘x’ in the tremolite asbestos Ca 2 Mg x Si 4O11 2 OH 2
4. Beryl is a cyclic silicate. Calculate the value of ‘n’. Be n Al 2Si 6O18
5. X
B2 H6 NH 3
Y H 2 . Find the total no.of sp2 hybridised atoms per (Y) molecule.
Ionic
6. Find the no.of bonds and lone pair respectively in borax. [If your answer is 10 and 10 respectively
then write 1010]
7. The no.of ions which are regarded as ionic carbides among C 4 , C 22 , C34 and C34 are .............
8. When oxalic acid is heated with con.H2SO4, the gases produced are .................. in number
9. The total no.of Boron atoms in the anionic part of Borax which participate in back bonding are .......
3
10. The difference between the total no.of lone pairs and total no.of sigma bonds in B3O3 OH 6 is/
are ................
11. The total number of faces and boron centres in icosahedral B12 unit are .....................
12. How many water molecules are present in the molecular formula of sodium peroxoborate?
13. What is the pKa value of Boric acid?
14. What is the coordination number of crystalline AlCl3?
15. Among all the diatomic species carbon monoxide has the highest bond enthalpy of .......... kJ mol–1
rSi4
16. All silicates contain the basic unit SiO 44 tetrahedral. Calculate the radius ratio r ?
O2
46
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 09
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES-PART-I
(NOMENCLATURE)
QUESTIONS
LEVEL-I
1. The number of and bonds in 5-oxohexanoic acids respectively is
A) 18, 2 B) 18, 1 C) 17, 2 D) 17, 1
2. The number of 1°, 2° and 3° hydrogen atom in 3-ethyl-5-methyl heptane respectively
A) 12. 8, 1 B) 14, 4, 2 C) 12, 6, 2 D) 12, 8, 2
3. Which of the following statement is wrong for homologous series
A) All members have a general formula
B) All members have the same functional group
C) All members have the same chemical properties
D) All members have the same physical properties
4. Which of the following is a heterocyclic compound?
A) B) C) NH D) All of these
S O
OH
O
SO3H
5. O
NH CH3
Which functional group is present above compound
A) Carboxylic acid B) Aldehyde C) Thiols D) Alcohol
6. The term that is used to denote number of carbon atom in the parent chain?
A) word root B) 1° suffix C) 2° suffix D) 2° prefix
47
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
7. The group that obtained by replacing hydrogen from alkane is
A) Azo B) Thio C) Alkyl D) Alkenyl
8. Which group is always taken as a substituent in IUPAC sytem of nomenclature
A) –NO2 B) C N C) C O D) –NH2
9. The decreasing order of priority for the following functional group is
I) C N II) –CONH2 III) C O IV) –CHO
A) II > I > IV > III B) IV > I > III > II C) I > II > IV > III D) II > III > IV > I
10. Which of the following is bicyclic compound
A) B) C) D) All of these
LEVEL-II
1. Which one is the correct bond line structure of the following compound CH 3 CH 2 CH CH 2
A) B) C) D)
2. IUPAC name of CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 IS
A) Propane diene B) Buta-1,2-diene C) Buta-1, 3-diene D) Butdiene
3. Give the IUPAC name of
Me
Me Me
Me
Me
Me Me
A) 2, 2-Dimethyl-3-propyl-4-isopropyl heptane
B) 4-isopropyl-5-t-butyl octane
C) 4-(1, 1-dimethyl ethyl)-5-(1-methyl ethyl) octane
D) 2-methyl-3-propyl-4-isopropyl heptane
4. The correct IUPAC name of the compound CH3–NHCHO
A) Methyl amino formyl B) Methylaminomethane
C) N-methyl formaldehyde D) N-methyl methanamide
48
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
O O
5. IUPAC name of the compound
O
A) Diethanoic anhydride B) Ethanoic anhydride
C) Butanoic anhydride D) Diethyl anhydride
C
OC2H5
6. The correct IUPAC name of
Cl
A) Ethyl-2-chlorocyclopentane carboxylate B) 2-chloro ethane cyclopentane carboxylate
C) 1-chloro-2-ethoxy carboxyl cyclopentane D) 2-chloro cyclopentanoate
CHO
7. The IUPAC name of CH3 CH CH CH2 CH3
Br
A) 2-Methyl-3-bromo hexanal B) 3-bromo-2-methyl butanal
C) 3-bromo-3-formyl pentane D) 3-bromo-2-methyl pentanal
8. Which of the following is correctly named
Cl
A) -4-chloro-1,3-dinitro benzene
NO2 NO2
NO2
B) -4-methyl-3-chloro nitrobenzene
Cl
CH3
C) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethyl cyclohexane
D) 1-ethyl-3,3-dimethyl cyclohexane
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
OH
OH
9. IUPAC name of
COCl
A) 1, 2-dihydroxy benzyl chloride B) 3,4-dihydroxy benzoyl chloride
C) 4,5-dihydroxy benzoyl chloride D) 1-chloro carbonyl benzene-3,4-diol
N CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
10. IUPAC name of CH3 CH2
CH2 CH3
A) N, N-diethyl butanamine B) N-ethyl–N-butyl ethanamine
C) N-butyl-N-ethyl ethanamine D) None of the these
LEVEL-III & IV
1. The correct IUPAC name of the following is compound
O C CH2 CH CHO
OH C O
H
A) 3, 3-Diformyl propanoic acid B) 3-formyl-4-oxobutanoic acid
C) 3,3-dioxopropanoic acid D) 3,3-dicarbaldehyde propanoic acid
2. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
CH3 CH2 C CH CHO
is
O CN
A) 2-cyano-3-oxopentanal B) 2-formyl-3-oxo pentane nitrile
C) 2-cyanopentane-1,3-dione D) 1,3-dioxo-2-cyanopentane
3. IUPAC name of
O O
CH3 C 2CH C O CH3
4 3 1
C O
CH3
A) Methyl-2,2-bis(1-oxo ethyl) ethanoate B) 2,2-bis (1-oxo ethyl) -1-methoxy ethanone
C) Methyl-2 (1-oxo ethyl) - 3-oxobutanoate D) Methyl-2-acetyl-3-oxobutanoate
50
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
4. One among the following is the correct IUPAC name of the compound CH3–CH2–O–CHO is
A) Ethoxy methanal B) Ethoxy formaldehyde
C) Ethyloxoformaldehyde D) Ethyl methanoate
5. The IUPAC name of the compound
CH3OOC CH COOCH3 is
CH2 OH
A) 2-(hydroxy methyl) methyl propanedioate
B) Methyl-2-(hydroxy methyl) propanedioate
C) 2-(hydroxy methyl) dimethyl propanedioate
D) Methyl hydroxy propanoate
COOC2H5
6. The IUPAC name of
COCl
A) 2-chloro carbonyl ethyl benzoate
B) 2-carboxy ethyl benzoyl chloride
C) Ethyl-2-(chloro carbonyl) benzoate
D) Ethyl-1-(chloro carbonyl) benzoate
OH
7. The IUPAC name of is
CH3
A) 3-ethylcyclobut-1-en-2-ol B) 4-methyl cyclobut-2-en-1-ol
C) 2-methyl cyclobut-2-en-1-ol D) 1-methylcyclobut-2-en-4-ol
8 The IUPAC name of the following polyfunctional compound is
O O
H C H
COOH
H
A) 2, 4-dioxocyclohexanoic acid
B) 2,4-dioxocycloheptanoic acid
C) 4-formyl-2-oxocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid
D) 2,4-dioxocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
C
NH
9. IUPAC name of the compound is
COOH
NO2
A) 4-(Benzamide)-6-nitro benzoic acid
B) 4-(Benzamide)--2-nitrobenzoic acid
C) 4-N-(Benzoyl amino)-2-nitrobenzoic acid
D) 4-N-(Benzoyl amino)-6-nitrobenzoic acid
CH3
10. IUPAC name of
OH
A) 3-Methylbicyclo[0.4.4] decanol
B) 8-Methyl bicyclo [4.4.0] decan-2-ol
C) 8-methyl-2-hydroxy bicyclo[4.4.0] decane
D) 2-hydroxy-8-methyl bicyclo [4.4.0] decane
11. The IUPAC name of is
I Br
Cl
A) 1-Bromo-2-chloro-5-fluoro-3-iodobenzene
B) 1-fluoro-3-bromo-4-chloro-5-iodo benzene
C) 2-Bromo-1-chloro-6-iodo-4-fluoro benzene
D) 3-Bromo-2-chloro-5-fluoro-1-iodobenzene
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) The common name of butane-1,4-dioic is succinic acid
B) The common name of benzene-1,4-diol quinol
C) The common name of (CH2 = CH – Ph) is styrene
D) The common name of benzene -1, 4-diol is hydroquinone
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
13. Choose the correct option according to given IUPAC name
A) Neopentane is dimethyl butane
B) Isopentane is 2-methyl butane
C) Isobutane is 2-methyl propane
D) Neohexane is 2, 2-dimethyl butane
14. Which of the following name (s) will be incorrect
A) 3, 6-dimethyl cyclohexene B) 1, 2-dimethyl cyclohexene
C) 6,6-dimethyl cyclohexane D) 2, 4-dimethyl cyclohexene
15. Matrix match
Column-I Column-II
a) C8H18 only 1° H atom p)
Me Me
b) C6H12 with only 2° q) Me
NH
c) Cyclic diester r)
O
O
O
d) Cyclic imide s)
O
O
A) a p; b q; c r; d s B) a q; b p; c s; d r
C) a s; b r; c p; d q D) a r; b q; c s; d r
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
Numerical type questions
16. How many substituted methyl groups are present in alkane
17. The following is named as Bicyclo[X.Y.Z] hept-2-ene. Thus (X + Y + Z) is
18. How many 1° carbon atom will be present in a simplest hydrocarbon having two 3° and one 2° carbon
atom.
19. Position of –CH3, group in the following compounds
CH3
20. The number of carbon atoms in the parent chain of
OH
54
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER -10
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES-PART-II
(REACTION MECHANISM)
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Maximum number of isomers (only structural) that are possible for mono-chlorination of the compound
CH3
CH3 CH CH2 CH3 is
A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3
2. Which of the following does not shows tautomerism
O O
A) C6H5 C CH3 B) CH3 C H
O
O
C) CH3 C CH3 D)
3. Different types of isomerism exhibited by the compound with M.F. C4H10O are
A) Position and functional B) Functional and metamerism
C) Chain, position and functional D) Functional, chain, position and metamerism
4. In 1, 3-butadiene, C–C bond length between C2 and C3 is
A) 1.54 A0 B) 1.34 A0 C) 1.24 A0 D) 1.46 A0
5. Arrange the following alkenes in the increasing order of heat of hydrogenation
p) q) r) s)
A) p < q < s < r B) p < q < r < s C) p < s < r < q D) q < p < s < r
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
6. Which of the following stability order of carbocations is wrong?
A) CH2 > CH3 CH2
CH3 CH3
B) CH C CH2 OH > CH3 C O CH3
3
C) CH3 CH CH2 Cl > Cl CH2 CH CH2 Cl
CH2 CH2
D) >
OCH3 NO2
7. Arrange the following carbanions in the decreasing order of stability
CH2 CH2
CH2
p) q) r)
NO2 CH3
A) p > r > q B) r > q > p C) q > r > p D) p > q > r
8. Arrange the following halides in the increasing order of SN1 reactivity
CH2 Cl
Cl
i) CH 3 Cl ii) CH3 CH CH3 iii)
A) iii > ii > i B) i > ii > iii C) iii > i > ii D) ii > iii > i
LEVEL-II
1. Which of the following substance will increase the acidity of phenol
A) HCOOH B) Dil.HCl C) Con.H2SO4 D) Conc.CH3COOH
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
2. Which of the following represents correct graph for SN1 reaction
A) B)
C) D)
OH
H
3. The product formed in the reaction + SOCl2
is
Cl H Cl OCl OCl H
H H
A) B) C) D)
4. The reaction + SOCl 2
pyridine
Cl + SO2 + HCl proceeds through the
HO H H
mechanism
A) SN1 B) SN2 C) SNi D) SN1 & SN2
5. For the reaction
CH3 CH CH2 CH3 alco.KOH CH3 CH CH CH3 + CH2 CH CH2 CH3
(P) (Q)
A) major product is P
B) major product is Q
C) 50% P + 50% Q
D) The product ratio depends on the halogen
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
6.
HI
SN1
A. The major product A is
D I
I D
A) B)
D D
D
D D I
I
C) D)
D
7.
Product obtained in above reactions (1), (2) and (3) is
A) P = Q but R is different
B) P = R but S is different
C) Q = R but P is different
D) P = Q = R all products are identical
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. Which of the following -complexes generated by the attack of an electrophile on ring has lowest
energy ?
H H E
H
A) B) E C) D) all have same energy
N E N N
LEVEL-III
One or more than one correct answer type questions
1. Which one of the following gives keto-enol tautomerism ?
O O
I: II : O III :
CH3
CH3
A) only I B) only II C) only III D) I, II and III
Br
AlCl3 P
2. + CH3 Br
Benzene (major)
as solvent
The product ‘P’ is
Br Br CH3 Br
CH3
A) B) C) D)
CH3
CH3
3. The order of decreasing ease of abstraction of hydrogen atoms in the following molecule in a free
radical reaction is ?
Ha Me
Hb
Hc
A) Ha > Hb > Hc B) Ha > Hc > Hb C) Hb > Ha > Hc D) Hc > Hb > Ha
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
4. Identify the correct matching
O O
A) CH3 C O C2H5 and C2H5 C O CH3 Metamers
B) CH3 CH2 C CH and CH 3 C C CH 3 Positions isomers
CH3
C) CH3 CH NH2 and CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2 Chain isomers
D) CH3 – CH2 – OH and (CH3)2O Functional isomers
5. Which of the following statements are correct for enolisation of tautomerism
A) In acid catalysted enolisation, the carbonyl oxygen of the keto tautomer protonated first to give a
cation as a intermediate
B) In acid catalysed enolisation, enolate ion is formed as an intermediate
C) in base catalysted enolisation, protonated cation is formed as an intermediate
D) in base catalysted enolisation, enolate ion is formed as an intermediate
6. Which of the following are expected to be intermediate of the following reaction
OH
I
H 2O
OH2
A) B) C) D)
7. Which of the following statements are correct ?
A) 20 alkylhalides with strong base undergoes E2 elimination.
B) 30 alkylhalides with strong base undergoes E2 elimination.
H F
C) The compound Cl C C F undergoes elimination reaction by E1cb mechanism
Cl F
D) 10 alkylhalides with strong nucleophile undergoes substitution reaction by SN2 mechanism
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. Which of the following reactions are correct ?
Cl
alc. KOH
A) CH3 CH2 CH CH3 CH3 CH CH CH3
major
F
alc. KOH
B) CH3 CH2 CH CH3 CH3 CH2 CH CH2
major
CH3 Br CH3
- +
(CH3)3CO K
C) CH3 CH CH CH3 CH3 CH CH CH2
major
CH3 Br CH3
alc. KOH
D) CH3 CH CH CH2 CH CH2 CH3 CH CH CH CH CH2
Matrix Match Type Question
9. Column I Column II
OH
Br
A) P) Elimination
Br OH
B) Q) unimolecular
C2 H5 O
C) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Cl CH3 CH CH 2 R) Rearrangement
D) CH3 – Cl CH3 –OH S) Bimolecular
A) A Q, R; B S;C P,S; D S
B) A Q; B P,S; C S; D P
C) A Q, R; B P,S; C S; D P
D) A Q, R; B P; C S; D S
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
LEVEL-IV
1. The number of structural isomers (Kekule structures only) of monobromodichloro benzene is
2. Total no. of cyclic isomers (only structural) possible for the molecular formula C3H6O is
3. How many double bond equivalents does a compound of molecular formula C6H12O6 possess ?
4. The total number of isomers for the aromatic compound having molecular formula C7H8O is
5. How many electrons are there in the following structure?
6. Number of C-atoms arranged linearly in the molecule, Pent-2-yne is
7. No.of tetrahedral angles present in the molecule CH2 = CH - CH3 is
8. An organic compound has five conjugated C=C bonds. Heat of hydrogenation of C=C bond is –28.6
Kcal. Experimental value of heat of hydrogenation is –98 K cal mol–1. The resonance energy is
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER -11
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES-PART-III
(PURIFICATION)
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be separated by
A) Steam distillation B) Fractional distillation
C) Crystallisation D) Sublimation
2. The formula of the compound “Prusssian Blue” is
A) Fe4 Fe CN 6 3 B) Fe3 Fe CN 6 4
C) Na 4 Fe CN 6 3 D) Fe2 Fe CN 6 3
3. In paper chromatography
A) Mobile phase is liquid and stationary phase is solid
B) Mobile phase is solid and stationary phase is liquid
C) Both phases are solids
D) Both phases are liquids
4. In Kjeldahl’s methods, nitrogen in organic compound is quantitatively converted to
A) NH4NO3 B) NH4Cl C) (NH4)2SO4 D) (NH4)2CO3
5. A mixture of acetone and methanol can be separated by :
A) Vacuum distillation B) Steam distillation
C) Fractional distillation D) Simple distillation
6. When sodium nitroprusside solution is added to sodium sulphide solution, the violet colour developed
is due to the formation of
3 4 2
A) Fe CN 5 NO B) Fe CN 5 NOS C) Fe CN 5 NO D) Fe CN 5 NOS
7. Copper wire test for halogen is known as
A) Dumas method B) Lassaignes test
C) Beilstein test D) Baeyer’s test
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
A) Fluorine cannot be detected by Beilstein test
B) During Lassaignes test for nitrogen, Saccharin may give a blood red colour
C) Phosphorous in an organic compound is estimated as MgNH4PO4
D) Benzene diazonium chloride fails to answer Lassaignes test for nitrogen
LEVEL-II
1. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen fails in :
A) NH2CONHNH2.HCl
B) NH2NH2.HCl
C) NH2CONH2
D) C6H5NHNH2.HCl
2. In which of the following compouds N cannot be estimated by Kjeldahl’s method
A) Pyridine B) Nitrobenzene C) Azobenzene D) All of these
3. The volume of N2 gas at STP, that can be obtained from 0.3 g of urea by Dumas method is
A) 56 ml B) 112 ml C) 224 ml D) 110 ml
4. Victor-Meyer’s method is not applicable to
CH3
A) C6H6 B) CH3OH C) C6H12O6 D)
5. 1g of an organic compound containing 56% nitrogen was Kjeldahlised and the ammonia evolved was
M
absorbed in 50 ml H 2SO 4 . What volume of 0.5 N NaOH would be required to neutralise the residual
2
acid?
A) 40 ml B) 30 ml C) 20 ml D) 24 ml
6. 0.4 g of an organic compound gave 50 ml of nitrogen collected at 300 K and 715 mm pressure in
Dumas method. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is (Vapour pressure of water or aqueous
tension of water at 300 K is 15 mm)
A) 24.2 B) 17.46 C) 9.8 D) 20.4
7. The molecular mass of nitrogeneous compound, which contains only one nitrogen atom per molecule
is
A) 76 B) 73 C) 146 D) 152
8. When an organic compound is oxidised with alkaline KMnO4, S in the organic compound is converted
to
A) S2– B) S2 O 52 C) S2 O82 D) SO 24
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
LEVEL-III
1. Silver salt of certain organic acid with atomic ratio C : H : O as 2 : 3 : 2 contains 65.06% of silver. If
each molecule of acid has two ionisable H-atoms. The formula of acid is
COOH CH2 COOH
A) B)
COOH CH2 COOH
COOH COOH
C) D) CH2
COOH COOH
2. A gaseous hydrocarbon contains 85.7% carbon and its vapour density is 28. Then possible M.F. of the
hydrocarbon is
A) C3H8 B) C2H4
C) C3H6 D) C4H8
3. Which of the following statements are correct?
A) Paper chromatography is partitition chromatography
Dis tan ce travelled by component from base line
B) R f
Dis tan ce travelled by solvent from base line
C) In TLC, adsorbent is a liquid
D) Thickness of adsorbent is approximately 0.2 mm in TLC
4. Choose the correct statements
A) Nitroprusside ion is [Fe(CN)5NOS]2–
B) Oxidation number of Fe in nitroprusside ion is +2
C) I2O5 is oxidising agent used in Aluise method
D) Prussian blue and Turn bull’s blue are not two different compounds
5. During Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen, a blood red colouration may be given by
A) Thiourea
B) Glycine
C) Methionine
D) Saccharin
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
6. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
A) Nitrogen in isoquinoline can be quantitatively estimated by Kjeldahl’s method
B) The molecular mass of any organic compound can be determined by Victor Meyer’s method
C) Beilstein test is not given by urea and pyridine
D) Sodium fusion extract of any organic compound is always neutral
Integer type questions
7. How many of the following give Beilstein test? Chloro compounds, urea, thiourea, pyridine, quinoline,
purines,fluorides
8. How many of the following are purified by steam distillation?
o-nitrophenol, salicylaldehyde,aniline, nitrobenzne, benzoic acid.
9. Among the following, the total number of compound which does not give Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen
NH2
I) II) H2N – CH2 – COOH III) NH2NH2
IV) Ph – N = N –Ph V) NH2OH VI) H2N C NH2
O
VII) VIII) Ph – NO2 IX)
Ph NH C Ph N
10. An organic compound contains 20% carbon. If the vapour density of the compound is 60, the number
of carbon atoms in one molecule of the compound is
Numerical type questions
11. 2.54 g of an organic compound gave 0.94 g AgI in the Carius estimation. % of iodine is
12. If the percentage of nitrogen in an organic compound is 12.5, the volume of N2 gas at STP, that may be
obtained from 0.56 g of the compound by Dumas method is
13. 29.2 mg of an organic compound containing nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl’s method
and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 20 ml of 0.1 M HCl solution. The excess of acid required
15 ml of 0.1 M NaOH solution for complete neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound
is
14. 0.262 of an organic compound containing phosphorous gave 0.111 go f magnesium pyrophosphate
by Carius method. The percentage of phosphorous in the organic compound is
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
Matrix match type questions
15. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
Column-I (Characteristics) Column-II (Methods)
a) Quantitative estimation of C and H in an organic compound p) Kjeldahl’s method
b) Equivalent mass of an organic acid q) Carius method
c) Quqntitative estimation of halogens in organic compound r) Liebig method
NH2
d) Quantitative estimation of N in s) Silver salt method
A) a q; b r; c p; d s B) a r; b s; c q; d p
C) a s; b q; c r; d p D) a r; b p; c s; d q
16. Column-I (Organic compound containing) Column-II (Reagent used)
a) S p) HNO3/AgNO3
b) N q) FeCl3
c) Br r) FeSO4/H2SO4
d) N, S s) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
t) Cd (CH3COO)2
A) a s, t; b r; c p; d q, r B) a r; b s, t; c p; d q, r
C) a p; b r; c s, t; d q, r D) a q; b r; c p; d s, t
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 12
HYDROCARBON
QUESTIONS
LEVEL-I
1. Which represents an alkane
A) C5H8 B) C8H6 C) C9H10 D) C7H16
2. The number of chain isomers possible for hydrocarbon C5H12 is
A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 6
3. The decreasing order of boiling points is
A) n-Pentane > iso-Pentane > neo-Pentane
B) iso-Pentane > n-Pentane > neo-Pentane
C) neo-pentane > iso-pentane > n-pentane
D) n-pentane > neo-pentane > iso-pentane
4. To prepare a pure sample of n-hexane using sodium metal as one reactant, the other reactant will be
A) n-propyl bromide
B) Ethyl bromide and n-butyl bromide
C) Ethyl chloride and n-butyl chloride
D) Methyl bromide and n-pentyl chloride
5. Which alkane is produced when sodium salt of butanoic acid is heated with soda lime?
A) CH3CH3 B) CH3CH2CH2CH3 C) CH4 D) CH3CH2CH3
6. Which of the following is oxidised by KMnO4
A) Methane B) Pentane C) Isobutane D) Neopentane
7. Which step is chain propagation step in the following mechanism?
h
i) Cl 2 Cl Cl
ii) Cl CH 4
CH 3 HCl
iii) Cl Cl
Cl2
iv) CH 3 Cl
CH 3Cl
A) i B) ii C) iii D) iv
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. R C C R H2
Lindlar catalyst
R R R H
C C C C
A) B)
H H H R
C) Both A and B D) R – CH2 – CH2 – R
9. CH 3 CH 2 Cl
alc.KOH
A , the product is
A) CH3CH2OK B) CH3CHO C) CH3CH2OCH2CH3 D) CH2 = CH2
10. The function of anhydrous AlCl3 in the Friedel-Craft’s reaction is to
A) Absorb water B) Absorb HCl
C) To produce electrophile D) To produce necleophile
LEVEL-II
1. 0.037 g of an alcohol, R–OH was added to CH3MgI and the gas evolved measured 11.2 cm3 at STP.
What is the molecular mass of R–OH?
A) 46 B) 60 C) 74 D) 88
2. Arrange in increasing order of heat of hydrogenation of following dienes
i) ii) iii)
iv) v)
A) iii < v < i < iv < ii B) v < i < iv < ii < iii C) iii > v > i > iv > ii D) iii > v > iv > i > ii
3. . Final product is
A) B)
C) D) CH 3CHO HCHO
69
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
4. Consider the given reactions:
OH
BH3/THF
CH CH2
(I) H2O2/OH
OH
(1) Hg(OAc)2/H2O
CH CH2
(II)
(2) NaBH4
OH
H2O
CH CH2
(III) dil.H2SO4
(1) Hg(OAc)2/CH3 OH
(IV) CH CH2
(2) NaBH4
OCH3
Here in which reactions, the product formed is correctly given?
A) I, II, III B) I, II only C) I, III, IV D) I, II, IV
5. The product of following reaction is
CH3
CH3 C CH CH2
(I) Hg(OAc)2 /H 2 O
(II) NaBH 4
CH3
CH2 CH3
1) CH3 C CH CH2 2) CH3 C CH2 CH2OH
CH3 OH CH3
OH CH3 CH3
CH3 C CH CH3 HOCH2 C CH2 CH2
3) 4)
CH3 CH3
70
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
6. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the product. Its structure is
CH2CH2CH3 CH CH CH3
1) 2)
CH2 CH2 CH3 CH2 CH CH2
3) 4)
7. Which of the following is the major product for the reaction given below?
HC C Na
X
A) B) C CH
CH
C) CH2 C CH D) CH2 + CH
CH2
8. on reaction with NBS in CCl4 solvent gives the major product
CH2 CHBr
A) B)
Br
CH3 CH2Br
C) D)
Br
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
18
m CPBA
9. A
H / H 2O
B(Major)
CH3
18
A) B is O B) OH
OH
CH3 CH3
C) B is OH D) OH
18 18
OH OH
H
10. The major product formed in the following reaction is
A) B)
C) D)
LEVEL-III
1. Which of the following on reductive ozonolysis give only glyoxal?
A) Ethylene B) Benzene
C) Toluene D) Acetylene
2. Alkenes can be prepared by
A) Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halide
B) Sabatier-Sanderen’s reduction of alkynes
C) Dehydration of alcohols with conc. H2SO4 at 443 K
D) Treatment of 3° alkyl halide at 573 K
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
3. Which product will form during this reaction?
A) B)
C) D)
4. Which of the following will give cis-diols?
A) B)
C) D)
5. Which of the following statements are not correct for alkanes?
A) All C–H and C–C bonds have a length of 1.112 A0 and 1.54 A0 respectively
B) All bond angles are tetrahedral, having a value of 109.5°
C) The C–C chain is linear and not zig-zag
D) All alkanes exhibit isomerism
6. Which of the following statements are not correct?
A) Wolff-Kishner reduction of –CO– group into –CH2 – group involves the use of hydrazine and strong
base
B) Halogenation in the side chain of C6H5CH3 can be carried out by using halogen and FeCl3
C) Hydrogen atom shown in the structure C H is known as benzylic hydrogen
D) Order of reactivity of halogens towards halogenation reaction in Alkane is F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
7. Products can be
A) B)
C) D)
8. Match the column-I with column-II and mark the appropriate choice.
A) A iii; B i; C iv; D ii B) A ii; B iv; C i; D iii
C) A i; B ii; C iv; D iii D) A iv; B i; C iii; D ii
9. Match the column-I with column-II to identify the products of oxidation of alkanes and mark the appropriate
choice.
C
o
l
u
m
n
-
I
C
o
l
u
m
n
-
I
I
A) CH 4 2O 2
KMnO4
O i) HCOOH H 2 O
B) 2CH 4 O 2
Cu /523 K
100 atm
ii) CO 2 2H 2 O
C) CH 4 O 2
Mo 2 O3
iii) 2CH 3OH
3 CH3COO 2 Mn
D) CH 4 O 2 iv) HCHO H 2 O
2
A) A i; B ii; C iii; D iv B) A ii; B iii; C iv; D i
C) A iv; B ii; C iii; D i D) A iii; B i; C ii; D iv
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
10
A) a p, r ; b q, t ; c p,s ; d q, t
B) a q, t ; b p, r ; c q, t ; d p,s
C) a p,q ; b r,s ; c q, t ; d p,s
D) a s, t ; b p, r ; c q,s ; d r,s
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 13
ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Which is not correct in the case of smog?
A) Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate
B) Classical smog is a mixture of smoke and fog
C) Classifical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate
D) Photochemical is a mixture of products from unsaturated hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides by the
action of sunlight.
2. Depletion of ozone layer affect which part of the ozone layer?
A) Lithosphere B) Troposphere
C) Ionosphere D) Stratosphere
3. Tooth decay, caused by the deficiency in drinking water
A) Flouride B) Chloride C) Iodide D) Bromide
4. The growth of fish gets inhibited, when the concentration of dissolved oxygen of water is below
A) 2 ppm B) 8 ppm C) 3 ppm D) 6 ppm
5. Combination of which of the following gases is 300 times strong with haemoglobin than O2?
A) CO2 B) CO C) SO2 D) NO2
6. The most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant is :
A) Isobutane B) Propane C) Methane D) Isooctane
7. The substance which are acting as carcinogens
A) NO2 B) Hydrocarbons C) CO D) CO2
LEVEL - II
1. Which is a correctly matched pair
A) Mesosphere - hotest region in atmosphere
B) Thermosphere - coldest region in atmosphere
C) Exosphere - atomic & ionic O, H & He
D) Stratosphere - ionosphere
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2. The prime source of SO2 pollution by human activity is :
A) Burning of S containing fossil fuels
B) Forest fire
C) Bacterial decay of living or organic matter
D) Synthesis and decay of chlorophyll
3. Which of the following statements is wrong
A) even low concentration of SO2 causes respiratory diseases, irritations to eye resulting in tears
and redness
B) high concentration of SO2 leads to stiffness of flower buds
C) SO2 in atmosphere oxidised into SO3 and oxidation reaction is suppressed by O 3 and H2O2
D) presence of particulate matter in polluted air catalyses oxidation of SO2 into SO3
4. The major natural source of release of SO2 pollutant into atmosphere is :
A) volcanic eruption
B) Decay of vegetable garbages
C) Thunder and lightning
D) Oceans
5. Catalytic converters are fitted in automobiles to prevent the release of which of the following
pollutants in to atmosphere :
A) HCl
B) HNO3
C) Water vapour
D) Oxides of Nitrogen, Hydrocarbon and CO
6. The maximum permissible concentration of CO in the ambient air is 40ppm. Concentration of
CO if 750 ppm or more lead to acute oxygen starvation, and the stage is called :
A) anoxia
B) asphyxiation
C) carboxylation
D) Both A and B
7. In anaerobic digestion organic matter is converted into
A) CO2 and H2O
B) CO2 and CH4
C) CH4 and H2O
D) H2O and O 2
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
LEVEL - III
Matrix match type questions
1. Match the following and choose the correct answer.
List I List II
i) Primary pollutant a) Oceans
ii) Secondary pollutant b) Vegetable garbage
iii) Biodegradable pollutant c) DDT
iv) Non biodegradable pollutant d) SO 2
v) Sink for CO2 pollutant e) PAN
A) i - d ; ii - e ; iii - b ; iv - a ; v - c
B) i - d ; ii - e ; iii - b ; iv - c ; v - a
C) i - d ; ii - e ; iii - c ; iv - b ; v - a
D) i - d ; ii - b ; iii - e ; iv - a ; v - c
2. Column -I (pollutant of air/water ) Column-II (Threshold limit)
A) CO in air P) 50ppm
B) CO2 in air Q) 40ppm
C) Flurides in water R) 5000ppm
D) Nitrates in water S) less than 1ppm
E) BOD of pure water T) 1ppm
A) A P, B R,C Q, D S, E T
B) A Q, B R,C T, D P, E S
C) A S, B Q,C R, D T, E P
D) A T, B R,C P, D S, E Q
3. Match the following
List-I List- II
I) Insecticides - A) NaClO3, Na3AsO3
II) Fungicides - B) Zinc phosphide
III) Herbicides - C) Organomercuric compound, triazines
IV) Redenticides - D) DDT , BHC
A) I D, II A, III B, IV C
B) I B, II A, III D, IV C
C) I D, II C , III A, IV B
D) I A, II D , III C , IV B
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4. Match suitably and choose the correct answer.
List I List II
i) viable particulate a) workers in Textile industry
ii) Nonviable particulate b) Bacteria, fungi etc.
iii) Black lung disease c) smoke, dust etc.
iv) white lung disease d) workers in coal mines
v) Beryllosis e) BeSO4, BeCl2 etc.
A) (i) - c, (ii) - a, b, (iii) - d, (iv) - a, (v) - b
B) (i) - a, (ii) - c, d, (iii) - b, (iv) - d, (v) - e
C) (i) - b, (ii) - c, e, (iii) - d, (iv) - a, (v) - e
D) (i) - a, (ii) - d, e, (iii) - b, (iv) - c, (v) - a
5. Total number of true statements about Taj Trapezium is/are
i) It is action plan to save Taj Mahal from Acid Rain
ii) All industries in the trapezium would be allowed to use only natural gas or LPG instead of coal
or oil.
iii) People in these area would also be advised to use LPG instead of coal, wood, kerosene oil etc
for cooking
iv) Heavy vehicles in the near by area would be encouraged to use low sulphur content fuel.
6. True statements about green house effect is/are
i) This is a long term effect due to the changing concentration of green house gases like CO2, water
vapour etc.
ii) Had there been no green house effect earths mean temperature might have been below 0oC.
iii) If this effect is increased beyond a certain limit, it may cause global warming.
iv) Deforestation has no influence on green house effect
7. Choose the number of correct statement/s :
i) Polar vortex is the tight whirlpool of wind formed in the stratosphere which surrounds Antarctica.
ii) It cut off Antarctica from the surrounding ozone rich air of non polar regions
iii) Polar stratospheric Clouds contain solidified hydrated nitric acid and ice.
iv) Depletion of ozone layer over Antarctica takes place during summer season
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
LEVEL-IV
1. Acid rain has a pH below
2. Fertile soil is likely to have a pH of :
3. How many times carboxy haemoglobin is more stable than Oxy haemoglobin complex?
4. Give the normal pH of rain water
5. The tolerable limit of fluoride in drinking water (in ppm) is
6. The maximum concentration of ‘Mn’ in drinking water (in mg/dm3)
7. Total number of correct statement about classical smog
A) It occurs in cool, humid climate and is the result of build up of sulphur oxides and particulate
matter from fuel combustion
B) It is formed due to the formation of sulphuric acid droplets which combine with particulates
C) It is also called sulphurous smog
D) It is formed in the evening hours of winter months
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
WORKBOOK
CHAPTER - 01
CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR
STRUCTURE
QUESTIONS
1. In which of the following the bond is nondirectional?
A) NCl3 B) RbCl
C) BeCl2 D) BCl3
2. The lattice energy of NaCl is 788 kJ mol–1. This means that 788 kJ of energy is required
A) to separate one mole of solid NaCl into one mole of Na (g) and one mole of Cl(g) to infinite distance
B) to separate one mole of solid NaCl into one mole of Na(g) and one mole of Cl(g) to infinite distance
C) to convert one mole of solid NaCl into one mole of gaseous NaCl
D) to convert one mole of gaseous NaCl into one mole of solid NaCl
3. The electronegativities of 4 atoms D, E, F and G are as follows: D - 3.8, E - 3.3, F - 2.8 and G - 1.3. If
the atoms form molecules DE, DG, EG and DF, the increasing order of covalent character in them is
A) DG < EG < DF < DE B) DF < DG < DE < EG
C) DG < DF < EG < DE D) DE < EG < DG < DF
4. The formal charges on nitrogen atoms 1 and 2 and oxygen atom 3 in N N O are respectively
1 2 3
A) 0, +1, –1 B) 0, –2, +1 C) 0, 0, –1 D) –1, –1, 0
5. The number of bond, bond and lone pair of electrons respectively in acetone
O
C CH3 are
CH3
A) 9, 2, 1 B) 8, 2, 2 C) 10, 1, 1 D) 9, 1, 2
6. Which is the correct statement?
A) A bond has no free rotation around its axis
B) p orbitals always have only sidewise overlap
C) s orbitals cannot form bonds
D) There can be more than one bond between two atoms
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
7. Resonance structures can be written for
A) O3 B) NH3 C) CH4 D) H2O
8. The common features of the species N 22 , O2 and NO are
A) bond order 3 and isoelectronic
B) bond order 2 and isoelectronic
C) bond order 3 but not isoelectronic
D) bond order 2 but not isoelectronic
9. Which of the following species have same bond order and identical magnetic property?
I) O2 II) NO III) N 2
A) I and II B) I and III C) I, II and III D) II and III
10. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s) ?
A) CuCl is covalent and NaCl is ionic
B) Inner d electrons have poor shielding effect on the nucleus
C) Cations with 18 valence shell electrons have greater polarising power than cations with 8 valence
shell electrons
D) All the above statements are correct
11. Which of the following species are hypervalent?
I) ClO4 II) BF3 III) SO24 IV) CO32
A) I, II and III B) I and III C) III and IV D) I and II
12. Pick out the most covalent compound among the following
A) NaCl B) PbCl2 C) SnCl4 D) SnCl2
13. The correct order of increasing s character (in percentage) in the hybrid orbitals of the following
molecules/ions is
I. CO32 II) XeF4 III) I3 IV) NCl3 V) BeCl2
A) I < II < III < IV < V B) V < IV > III < II < I C) II < III < IV < I < V D) IV < I < III < II < V
14. Choose the correct code of characteristics for the given order of hybrid orbitals of the same atom
sp < sp2 < sp3
i. Electronegativity ii. Bond angles between same hybrid orbitals
iii. Size iv. Energy
A) i, iii and iv B) iii and iv C) ii and iv D) i, ii and iii
15. A molecule XY2 contains 2 bonds, 2 bonds and one lone pair of electrons in the valence shell of X.
The arrangement of bond pairs and lone pairs is
A) Square pyramidal B) linear
C) trigonal planar D) trigonal bipyramidal
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16. Which of the following xenon compound has the same number of lone pairs on the central atom as in
I3 ?
A) XeO4 B) XeF4 C) XeF2 D) XeO3
17. Which of the following molecules have distorted geometry?
I) H2O II) NH3 III) PCl3 IV) XeF2
A) I, III, IV B) I, II, IV C) I, II, III, IV D) I, II
18. The bent or V shape of the molecule can be resulted from which of the following hybridisations?
A) sp3 B) sp2 C) both A and B D) sp3d2
19. In which of the following, carbon-carbon single bond length is the shortest
A) C C B) C C
C) C C D) C C
20. Which of the following will result in zero overlap if the molecular axis is X axis?
i. 1s - 2px ii. 2s - 2pz iii. 2px - 2px iv. 1s - 2py
A) i only B) i and ii C) ii and iv D) iii and iv
21. Which of the following statements is correct for 1 : 1 complex of (CH3)3N and BF3?
A) Geometry around N is pyramidal with sp3 hybridisation and that around B is planar with sp2
hybridisation
B) The B–F bond length in the complex is longer than that in BF3
C) The geometry around N and B both are tetrahedral with sp3 hybridisation
D) B and C both
22. Resonating structures of a molecule may not have
A) Identical bonding B) Identical arrangement of atoms
C) Nearly the same energy content D) The same number of unpaired electrons
23. Decreasing order of stability of O2 ,O2 ,O2 and O22 is
A) O2 O22 O2 O2 B) O2 O2 O2 O22
C) O22 O2 O2 O2 D) O2 O2 O22 O2
24. Which of the following species is paramagnetic?
A) NO B) O22 C) CN D) CO
25. During the change of O2 to O2 , the electron is added to which one of the following orbitals?
A) * orbital B) orbital C) * orbital D) orbital
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26. The highest H-C–H bond angle is present in
A) CH2F2 B) CH4 C) CH3Cl D) CH3F
27. In which of the following bond angle will be the maximum?
A) NH3 B) NH4 C) PCl3 D) SCl2
28. Which of the following will have electron in antibonding molecular orbital ?
A) CN B) N2 C) B2 D) O2
29. The correct order of the strength of hydrogen bond in the following compounds is
A) H2O > H2O2 > HF > H2S B) HF > H2O2 > H2O > H2S
C) HF > H2O > H2S > H2O2 D) HF > H2O > H2O2 > H2S
30. Which of the following is the correct order of boiling point among HF, HCl, HBr and HI
A) HF < HCl < HBr < HI B) HCl < HBr < HI < HF
C) HF < HI < HBr < HCl D) HI < HBr < HCl < HF
More than one correct answer Type Questions
31. Select the correct statements
A) Polarizability of S2– is lower than that of Se2–
B) Polarizability of S2– is higher than that of Cl–
C) Polarizability of S2– is lower than that of P3–
D) Polarizability of S2– is lower than that of O2–
32. Which of the following molecules are polar and sp3d2 hybridized?
A) IF5 B) XeF4 C) XeOF4 D) SO3
33. In which case/s there is a change in hybridisation?
A) NH3 combines with H+ B) AlH3 combines with H–
C) NH3 loses H+ to form NH2 D) SiF4 forms SiF62
34. X, Y and Z are three substances. X does not conduct electricity in the solid or liquid state.
Y conducts electricity both in the fused and solution states. Z conducts electricity only in solution
state. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) X has polar covalent linkage B) X has non-polar covalent linkage
C) Y is ionic in nature D) Z has polar covalent linkage
35. Which of the following species is/are having 2p as HOMO?
A) N2 B) O22 C) NO+ D) B2
36. Which is/are not the correct variation of properties in NH2 ,NH3 and NH4
A) NH2 NH3 NH4 - H–N–H bond angle
B) NH2 NH3 NH4 - number of lone pairs on N atom
C) NH2 NH3 NH4 - N–H bond length
D) NH2 NH3 NH4 - number of s and p orbitals used in hybridisation
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
Matrix Match Type Questions
37. Compound Type of bond
A) NH4Cl i) Hydrogen bond
B) CuSO4. 5H2O ii) Co-ordinate bond
C) HNC iii) Ionic bond
D) Liquid H2O2 IV) Covalent bond
A) A ii, iii, iv; B i, ii, iii, iv; C ii, iv; D i, iv
B) A i; B ii; C iii; D iv
C) A ii; B i; C iv; D iii
D) A vi; B iii; C ii; D i
38. Column-I Column-Ii
1) O2 p) energy of 2px 2py 2pz
2) N2 q) energy of 2pz 2px 2py
3) F2 r) 2 bonds
4) C2 s) 1 bond
t) Bond order 2
A) 1 q, s, t; 2 p; 3 q, p; 4 p, r
B) 1 q,s, t; 2 p, s; 3 q; 4 p, r, t
C) 1 p,s, t; 2 q, s; 3 p, q; 4 p, r, t
D) 1 s, t; 2 P,s; 3 p, q; 4 p, r, t
39. Column-I (overlappin) Column-II (inter nuclear axis z)
1) S–S p) bond
2) S p z q) bond
3) p x p z r) +ve over lapping
4) p x p x s) zero over lapping
A) 1 q, r; 2 p, r; 3 p; 4 s
B) 1 P, r; 2 q, r; 3 q; 4 r
C) 1 p, r; 2 q, r; 3 p; 4 s
D) 1 p, r; 2 P, r; 3 s; 4 q, r
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
40. Column-I Column-II
1) Paranitrophenol p) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
2) Ortho nitro phenol q) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding
3) Water r) Volatile liquids
4) HF s) less volatile liquids
t) higer viscosity
A) 1 p, s, t; 2 q, r; 3 p, s, t; 4 p, s, t
B) 1 p, q, r; 2 p, t; 3 p, s, t; 4 p,s, t
C) 1 q, r; 2 p, r; 3 p,s; 4 q, s
D) 1 p,s, t; 2 p, r; 3 p,s; 4 p,s, t
41. A bonded molecule MX3 is T shaped. The number of non bonding pairs of electrons on M are
42. The number of bp-lp repulsion at 900 in ICl4 is
Numerical Type
43. There are some species given below
i. O2 ii. CO iii. B2 iv. O2 v. NO+
vi. He2 vii. C22 viii. CN– ix. N2
Total number of species which have fractional bond order is
44. Calculate the I – I distance in Å for the given compound CH 2 C I 2 if C – I bond length is 2.35 Å
(sin 600=0.866)
45. The total number of electrons in the antibonding molecular orbitals of O2 is
46. Calculate the expression (x + y+z) for diatomic molecules
x = total number of singly occupied molecular orbitals in O2
y = total number of singly occupied molecular orbitals in B2
z = total number of singly occupied molecular orbitals in NO
47. Total number of 109°28/ angles in CH4 molecule
Sum of number of nodal planes in 2px and 2px
*
48.
49. A bonded molecule MX5 is T shaped. The number of non bonding pairs of electrons is
50. The molecule MLx is planar with six pairs of electrons around M in the valence shell. The value of X is
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 02
HYDROGEN
QUESTIONS
1. In elemental form, hydrogen exists as
A) Hydrogen atom B) Diatomic molecule
C) Triatomic molecule D) All the above
2. The isotopes of hydrogen are
A) protium, deuterium and tritium B) protium and deuterium only
C) deuterium and tritium only D) Tritium and protium only
3. Ortho and para hydrogen have
A) Identical chemical properties but different physical properties
B) Identical physical and chemical properties
C) Identical physical properties but different chemical properties
D) Different physical and chemical properties
4. Nascent Hydrogen is obtained by
A) Subjecting molecular hydrogen to a silent electric discharge
B) Displacing hydrogen from an acid when treated with active metal
C) Heating of water at high temperature
D) None of the above
5. The first ionization energy in kJ mol -1 for H, Li, F, Na has one of the following values 1681, 520,
1312,495. Which of these values corresponds to that of hydrogen?
A) 1681 KJ/Mol B) 1312 KJ/Mol C) 520 KJ/Mol D) 495 KJ/Mol
6. The best explanation for not placing hydrogen in the group of alkali metals or halogens is
A) Hydrogen can form compounds with all other elements
B) Hydrogen is much lighter element than alkali metals or halogens
C) The ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen is too high for group of alkali metals but too low for halogen
D) Hydrogen is existing as a diatomic molecule
7. The products obtained in coal gasification are
A) CO2, H2 and H2O B) CO and H2 C) CO2 and H2 D) H2 and H2O
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. Ionic hydrides react with water to give
A) Hydronium ions B) Acidic solutions C) Protons D) Basic solutions
9. Which species is not hydrolysed in water?
A) P4O10 B) BaO2 C) Mg3N2 D) CaC2
10. H2O2 cannot be concentrated easily because
A) It fs highly volatile in nature B) It will not dissolve in water
C) It decomposes at its boiling point D) It has very high boiling point
11. An isotope of hydrogen has two neutrons in its atom. Its atomic and mass number respectively will be
A) 2 and 1 B) 3 and 1 C) 1 and 1 D) 1 and 3
12. In which among the following aspects, hydrogen is similar to halogens?
A) Its tendency to lose an electron to form a cation
B) Its tendency to gain a single electron in its valence shell to attain stable electronic configuration
C) Its low negative electron gain enthalpy value
D) Its small size
13. When same amount of Zn is treated separately with excess of sulphuric acid and excess of sodium
hydroxide solution, the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolved is
A) 1:1 B) 1:2 C) 2:1 D) 9:4
14. Hydrogen gas can be prepared from HCl by
A) Mg B) Cu C) P D) Pt
15. Systematic name of H2O is
A) Water B) Hydrogen oxide C) Oxidane D) None of these
16. Pure hydrogen can be obtained by carrying electrolysis of
A) Water containing H2SO4 B) Water containing NaOH
C) Ba(OH)2 solution D) KOH solution
17. Hydrogen can act as an oxidising agent in
A) Ca + H2 B) H2 + O2 C) H2 + F2 D) CuO + H2
18. Hydrogen molecules are
A) Monoatomic and form X22- type ions
B) Diatomic and form X2- type ions
C) Diatomic and form X+ as well as X- type ions
D) Monoatomic and form X-1 type ions
19. Which of the following will determine whether the given colourless liquid is water or not
A) Testing its smell B) Noticing its colour
C) Adding phenolphthalein D) Adding a punch of CuSO4
20. Water cannot be reduced by
A) Ca B) Fe C) Cu D) Li
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
21. Which among the following can remove temporary hardness of water?
A) Slaked lime B) Plaster of Paris C) Cuprous D) Hydrolith
22. Chemical A is used for water softening to remove temporary hardness. A, on reaction with sodium
carbonate generates caustic soda. When CO2 is bubbled through a solution of A, there is a milky
appearance. What is the chemical formula of A?
A) CaCO3 B) CaO C) Ca (OH)2 D) Ca (HCO3)2
23. Heavy water is used more in
A) Chemical Industry B) Nuclear reactor
C) Pharmaceutical preparation D) Insecticide preparation
24. Heavy water is called as such. Because it
A) Is a dimer than common water B) Is an oxide of protium
C) Has heavy or bad taste D) Has a heavier isotope of hydrogen
25. What is formed when CaC2 is dissolved in water?
A) C2D2 B) CaD2 C) Ca2D2O D) CD2
26. H2O2 can be prepared in the laboratory by the action of
A) Cold and dilute H2SO4 on BaO2 B) Aqueous alkali on Na2O2
C) MnO2 and cold H2SO4 D) Dilute HCl and MnO2
27. The reaction H2S + H2O2 S + 2H2O shows
A) Acidic nature of H2O2 B) Alkaline nature of H2O2
C) Oxidising action of H2O2 D) Reducing action of H2O2
28. Which among the following does not speed up the decomposition of H2O2?
A) Glycerol B) Pt C) Gold D) MnO2
29. The oxide that can give H2O2 on action with dilute acid will be
A) Pb3O4 B) Na2O2 C) MnO2 D) LiO2
30. H2O2 is always stored in black bottles because
A) It is highly unstable
B) Its enthalpy of decomposition is high
C) It undergoes auto oxidation on prolonged standing
D) None of the above
More than one correct answer type:
31. Which among the following exhibit sp3 hybridization?
A) H2O2 B) NH3 C) H2O D) NO3-
32. Which among the following metals can liberate hydrogen gas from dil. HNO3?
A) Zn B) Sn C) Mg D) Mn
33. Choose the properties shown by water
A) Oxidising B) Reducing C) Amphoteric D) Hydrolysis
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
34. Compounds containing -O-O- linkage are
A) BaO
B) MnO2
C) Na2O2
D) CrO5
35. Statements regarding hydrogen are given. Identify the correct statements
A) Hydrogen forms more compounds than any other elements in the periodic table
B) Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe
C) Hydrogen can behave as a metal under very high pressure
D) Hydrogen is found more abundantly in our atmosphere
36. Incorrect regarding Heavy water is/are
A) An oxide Heavier isotope of Hydrogen
B) Readily electrolysed than ordinary water
C) Act as a good solvent than ordinary water
D) Used a moderator in nuclear reactors
37. Electron rich hydrides among following are
A) H2O
B) CH4
C) NH3
D) B2H6
38. Permanent hardness can be removed by
A) Boiling of hard water
B) Adding Ca (OH)2 into hard water
C) Adding Calgon to water
D) Adding hydrated sodium aluminium silicates in to water
Match the entries of column I with entries of column II. Each entry in column I may have one or
more than one correct option from column II. Find as many relations between entries in column
I and column II
39. Column-I Column-II
1) sp3 Hybridization a) Hydrogen
2) Antiseptic b) D2O
3) Lightest element c) H2O
4) Prolonged electrolysis of water d) H2O2
A) 1-q, r, s; 2- s; 3-p;4-q
B) 1-q, r; 2- s; 3-p;4-q
C) 1- s; 2- r, s; 3-p;4-q
D) 1-q, s; 2- s; 3-p, q, r;4-q, s
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
40. Column-I Column-II
1) Nascent hydrogen p) Permutit
2) Hard water q) Molecular hydrogen with excess energy
3) Hydrogen peroxide r) Reduces FeCl3 in to FeCl2
4) Dihydrogen s) Reduces Cr2O7- to Cr3+
A) 1- r, s; 2- p, q; 3- r, s; 4-r
B) 1- p, q, r, s; 2- p; 3- r, s; 4-r
C) 1- q, r, s; 2- p; 3- r, s; 4-r
D) 1- q, r, s; 2- p, q, r; 3- s; 4-r, s
Numerical Type:
41. 20V H2O2 solution has a strength of about
42. Volume strength of 1.5N H2O2 solution will be
43. The percentage by weight of hydrogen in H2O2 is
44. A commercial sample of H2O2 is labelled as 10V. Its percentage strength is
45. The hardness of a water sample containing 0.002 mol MgSO4 dissolved in a litre of water is expressed
as
46. In transforming 0.01mol PbS to PbSO4, the volume of 100 volume H2O2 required will be
Integer type questions
47. Heavy water freezes at ----- °C
48. Among protium, deuterium and tritium, how many of them are having equal number of protons?
49. How many among the following compounds can cause permanent hardness?
Ca (HCO3)2, Mg (HCO3)2, CaCl2, MgCl2, CaSO4, MgSO4
50. Number of coordinated water molecules present in CaSO4.5H2O is
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 03
STATES OF MATTER
QUESTIONS
1. A sample of a given mass of gas at a constant temperature occupies 95 cm3 under a pressure of
9.962 × 104 Nm–2. At the same temperature its volume at a pressure of 10.13 × 104 Nm–2 is
A) 190 cm3 B) 93 cm3 C) 46.5 cm3 D) 47.5 cm3
2. The density of a gas at 27°C and 1 atm is d. Pressure remaining constant, at which of the following
temperatures will its density become 0.75?
A) 20°C B) 30°C C) 400 K D) 300 K
3. 3.2 g of oxygen (At. wt = 16) and 0.2 g of hydrogen (At. wt. = 1) are placed in a 1 : 12 L flask at 0°C. The
total pressure of the gas mixture will be
A) 1 atm B) 4 atm C) 3 atm D) 2 atm
4. The density of methane at 2.0 atmosphere pressure at 27°C is
A) 0.13 gL–1 B) 0.26 gL–1 C) 1.30 gL–1 D) 26.0 gL–1
5. The pressure of 2 moles of ideal gas at 546 K having volume 44.8 L is
A) 2 atm B) 3 atm C) 4 atm D) 1 atm
6. 50 mL of hydrogen diffuses through a small hole from vessel in 20 minutes time. Time taken for 40 mL
of oxygen to diffuse out under similar conditions will be
A) 12 min B) 64 min C) 8 min D) 32 min
7. The kinetic energy of two moles of N2 at 27°C is (R = 8.324 JK–1 mol–1)
A) 5491.6 J B) 6491.6 J C) 7491.6 J D) 8882.4 J
8. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4
9. Which one of the following is correct about surface tension and viscosity ?
A) Both increase with temperature
B) Both decrease with temperature
C) Surface tension increases whereas decreases with temperature
D) Surface tension decreases whereas increases with temperature
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
10. Which of the following does not decrease with rise temperature?
A) Density B) Surface tension C) Vapour pressure D) Viscosity
11. At 25°C and 730 mm pressure, 380 mL of dry oxygen was collected. If the temperature is constant,
what volume will the oxygen occupy at 760 mm pressure?
A) 365 mL B) 449 mL C) 569 mL D) 621 mL
12. What will happen to volumes of a bubble of air found under water in a lake wehre temperature is 15°C
and the pressure is 1.5 atm, if the bubble rises to the surface where the temeprature is 25°C and the
pressure is 1.0 atm?
A) its volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5
B) its volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6
C) its volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1
D) its volume will become smaller by a factor
13. An LPG cylinder contains 15 kg of butane gas at 27°C and 10 atmospheric pressure. It wasleaking
and its pressure fell down to 8 atmospheric pressure after one day. The gas leaked is
A) 1 kg B) 2 kg C) 3 kg D) 4 kg
14. The density of O2(g) is maximum at:
A) STP B) 273 K and 2 atm C) 546 K and 1 atm D) 546 K and 2 atm
15. A cylinder is filled with a gaseous mixture containing equal masses of CO and N2. The partial pressure
ratio is
A) PN2 PCO B) PCO 0.875PN2 C) PCO 2PN2 D) PCO 1/ 2N2
16. In a flask of volume V litre, 0.2 mol oxyge, 0.4 mol nitrogen, 0.1 mole of NH3 and 0.3 mol of He are
enclosed at 27°C. If the total pressure exerted by these non reacting gases is one atmosphere, the
partial pressure exerted by nitrogen is
A) 1 atm B) 0.1 atm C) 0.2 atm D) 0.4 atm
17. A mixture contains 64 g of neon at a total pressure of 10 Bar. The partial pressure in bar of dioxygen
and neon are respectively (atomic masses O = 16, Ne = 20)
A) 4 and 6 B) 6 and 4 C) 5 and 5 D) 8 and 2
18. Equal masses of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25°C, The fraction of the
total pressure exerted by hydrogen is
A) 1/2 B) 8/9 C) 1/9 D) 16/17
19. At what temperature will the rms velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K?
A) 403 K B) 303 K C) 606 K D) 273 K
20. The average velocity of an ideal gas molecule at 27°C is 0.3 m/sec. The average velocity at 927°C will
be
A) 0.6 m/sec B) 0.3 m/sec C) 0.9 m/sec D) 3.0 m/sec
21. If 4g of oxygen diffuse through a very narrow hole, how much hydrogen would have diffused under
indentical conditions?
A) 16g B) 1g C) 1/4g D) 64g
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
22. An ideal gas cannot be liquefied because
A) Its critical temperature is always above 0°C
B) Its molecules are relatively small in size
C) It solidifies before becoming a liquid
D) forces operative between its molecules are negligible
23. The values of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for the gases O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.360, 1.390, 4.170
and 2.253 L atm mol–2 respectively. The gas which can most esily be liquefied is
A) O2 B) N2 C) NH3 D) CH4
24. Water boils at low temperature on the hills than at the level because
A) at high altitudes atmospheric pressure is low
B) at high altitudes atmospheric pressure is high
C) at sea level atmospheric pressure is low
D) none of the above
25. A box of 1L capacity is divided into two equal compartments by a thin partition which are filled with H2
and CH4 respectively. The pressure in each compartment is recorded as P atm. The total pressure
when partition is removed will be
1) P 2) 2P 3) P/2 4) P/4
26. Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the folloiwng pairs.
1) H2O and alcohol 2) Cl2 and CCl4 C) HCl and He atoms D) SiF4 and He atoms
27. A sealed tube which can withstand a pressure of 3 atmosphere is filled with air at 27° C and 760 mm
pressure. The temperature above which the tube will burst will be
1) 900°C 2) 627°C 3) 81°C 4) 1173°C
28. A 2.24 L cylinder oxygen at NTP is found to develop leakage. When the leakage was plugged, the
pressure droped to 570 mm of Hg. The number of moles of gas that escaped will be
1) 0.025 2) 0.050 3) 0.075 4) 0.09
29. N2 is found in a litre flask under 100 kPa pressure and O2 is found in another 3 litre flask under 320 kPa
pressure. If the two flasks are connected, the resultant pressure is
1) 265 kPa 2) 310 kPa 3) 210 kPa 4) 420 kPa
30. A weather balloon filled with hydrogen at 1 atm and 27°C has volume equal to 12000 litres. On as-
cending it reaches a place where temperature is –23° C and pressure is 0.5 atm. The volume of the
balloon is
1) 24000 L 2) 20000 L 3) 10000 L 4) 12000 L
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
More than one correct answer type
31. Real gases do not obey ideal gas equation,
A) At low temperature
B) At low pressure
C) At high pressures
D) At high temperature
32. Molar mass of Ne atom is ten times of H2 molecule. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
A) Both these gases have same average kinetic energy at 27°C
B) H2 molecule will travel 10 times faster than Ne atom at same temperature
C) Pressure of 1 mole Ne atom and 1 mole H2 molecule will be same
D) Ten mole of H2 molecule and 1 mole of Ne will have the same volume at a temperature of 27°C
33. Which of the following statements are correct?
A) The viscosity of liquid molecule depends on the temperature the liquid and intermolecular force of
attraction between molecules
B) Ideal gases are liquified at very low temperature
C) Fraction of total pressure exerted by oxygen in a mixture of equal masses of methane and oxygen
is 0.33
D) If increase in temperature and volume of an ideal gas is two times, then pressure remains same
34. For a fixed mass of a gas and constant pressure, which of the following graphs represents the Charle’s
law
V V
A) B)
TK TK
V V
C) T D)
TK T(°C)
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
35. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) All real gases are less compressible than ideal gases at high pressure
B) Hydrogen and helium are more compressible than ideal gas for all values of pressure
PV
C) Except H2 and He, the compressibility factor Z = 1 for all gases at low pressure
nRT
D) The compressibility factor of real gases is independent of temperature
36. Whic of the following is/are correct
PV
A) Z (Ideal gas)
RT
Pb
B) Z 1 (At very high pressure)
Rt
a
C) Z 1 (at moderate pressure)
RT
a
D) Z 1 (At very high pressure)
RTV
Integer type question
37. A 400 K, the root mean square (rms) speed of a gas X (molecular mass = 40) is equal to the most
probable speed of gas Y at 60K. The molecular mass of Y is
38. To an evacuated vessel with movable piston under pressure of 1 atm, 0.1 mole of He and 1.0 mol of
unknown compound (vapour pressure 0.68 atom. at 0°C) are introduced. Considering the ideal gas
behaviour, the total volume (in litre) of the gases at 0°C is close to
39. A flask has 10 gas molecules, out of which four molecules are moving at 7 ms–1 and the remaining
ones are moving at the speed of x ms–1. If rms of the gas is 5 ms–1, the value of x is ..........
40. If pressure of a gas is increased from 27° C to 927°C, the root mean square speed will become .........
time.
41. One mole of nitrogen gas at 0.8 atm takes 38 sec to diffuse through a pin hole, whereas one mole of
an unknown compound of Xenon with fluorine at 1.6 atm takes 57 sec to diffuse through the same
hole. Number of fluorine atoms per molecular formula of unknown compound
42. The pressure exerted by 1023 gas molecules, each of mass 10–22 g in a container of volume 1L and
having root mean square velocity of 105 Cms–1 is 3.3 × 10x Pa. The value of x is
43. A 15.0 L cylinder of Ar gas is connected to an evacuated 235.0 L tank. If the pressure is 750 mm of Hg,
what have been the original gas pressure (in atm) in the cylinder?
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
44. An open flask containing air is heated from 300 to 500 K. What percentage of air will be escaped to the
atmosphere, if pressure is keeping constant?
45. 3.7 g of a gas at 25°C occupied the same volume as 0.184 g of hydrogen at 17°C and the same
pressure. The molecular mass of the gas is
46. A gas cylinder containing cooking gas can withstand a pressure of 14.9 atm. The pressure of the
cylinder indicates 12 atm, at 27°C. Due to sudden fire in the building, its temperature starts rising. The
temperature (in Kelvin) above which the cylinder will explode?
Matrix match type questions
47. Column-I Column-II
A) p) Charles law
B) q) Maxwell distribution curve
C) r) Gay-Lussacs law
D) s) Boyle’s law
A) A s; B r; C p; D q
B) A r; B s; C q; D p
C) A p; B q; C r; D s
D) A s; B r; C q; D p
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
48. Column-I Column-II
RT
i) van der Waals equation a) P n1 n 2 ...
V
1
ii) Kinetic energy per molecule b)
d
an 2
2
iii) Grahams law of diffusion c) p V nb nRT
V
3
iv) Daltons law of partial pressure d) kt
2
A) i a; ii b; iii d; iv c B) i d; ii b; iii c; iv a
C) i c; ii d; iii b; iv a D) i c; ii d; iii a; iv b
49. The vander Waal’s constant a and b of a real gases are 3.6 L2 atm mol–2 and 0.05 L mol–1 respectively.
If 200g of a gas (molecular mass 40) is placed in 10L vessel at 300 K, then the match the following
Column-I Column-II
A) Pressure correction (atm) p) 0.25
B) Free space for the molecule to move about (L) q) 0.06
C) Actual volume occupied by gas molecules (L) r) 0.9
D) Effective volume occupied by gas molecules (L) s) 9.75
A) A r; B s; C q; D p B) A s; B r; C p; D q
C) A p; B q; C r; D s D) A s; B r; C q; D p
50. Column-I Column-II
A) Critical volume i) Deviate from ideal gas equation
B) Compressibility factor of gas Z > 1 ii) vander waals constant b
C) Co-volume iii) Depends on T and nature of liquid
D) Vapour pressure of the liquid iv) 3b
A) A iv; B i; C ii; D iii B) A i; B iv; C iii; D ii
C) A i; B ii; C iii; D iv D) A iv; B iii; C ii; D i
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 04
THERMODYNAMICS AND CHEMICAL ENERGETICS
QUESTIONS
1. Pick out the wrong statement
A) mode of energy transfer due to difference in temperature is heat
B) mode of energy transfer due to difference in pressure is work
C) energy transferred due to difference in pressure depends only on initial and final pressure
D) in an isolated system, no energy can be exchanged between system and surroundings
2. One mole of methane undergoes combustion to form CO2 and water at 25°C. Then
A) H U B) H U
C) H U D) can’t be predicted
3. The work done on the system when one mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally to a final
volume of 0.01 m3 at constant external pressure of 5 bar is 20 kJ. What is initial volume of the gas?
A) 0.05 m3 B) 0.025 m3 C) 0.04 m3 D) 0.03 m3
4. 64 g of oxygen (assume ideal behaviour) at 27°C undergoes reversible isothermal expansion from 2.5
L to 25 L. The values of U, w and q are (in cal)
A) 0, 2764, –2764 B) 0, –2764, 2764 C) 2764, –2764, 0 D) –2764, 0, 2764
5. The difference of heat of reaction at constant pressure and at constant volume for combustion of 2
mol of liquid benzene at 300 K
A) 3.74 kJ B) –7.48 kJ C) –3.74 kJ D) 7.48 kJ
6. 1L atm = ................ J
1) 100 2) 101 3) 101.3 4) 100.3
7. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to cube of its absolute
temperature. The Poisson’s ratio of gas is
A) 3/2 B) 7/2 C) 5/3 D) 9/7
8. f H0 of H2O, CO2 and sucrose (C12H22O111) are respectively (in kJ mol–1) –286, –393.5 and –2222. The
enthalpy of combustion of sucrose is
A) –5466 kJmol–1 B) –5646 kJmol–1 C) –2823 kJmol–1 D) +5466 kJmol–1
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
9. When 0.2 g of 1-butanol was burnt in a suitable apparatus, the heat evolved was sufficient to raise the
temperature of 200 g water by 5°C. The values of enthalpy of combustion and calorific value of
1-butanol are [kcal]
A) –370, –5 B) +370, 5 C) –370, 5 D) +370, –5
10. 200 mL 0.1 M H2SO4 is mixed with 200 mL 0.2 M NaOH. The heat generated due to neutralisation is
A) 1142 J B) 114.2 kJ C) 228 kJ D) 2280 J
11. Bond breaking energy of CH4 is 360 kJ/mol. The bond dissociation energy of C–C bond in CH3–CH3 is
(Bond breaking energy of CH3–CH3 is 580 kJ/mol)
A) 80 B) 40 C) 60 D) 50
12. The work done in reversible adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas is :
V2 nRT
A) w nRTn V B) w nCvT C) w D) Both B and C
1 1
13. A) For N2O gas, the difference in specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume is equal
to 0.04545 cal/g
B) Entropy of a perfectly crystalline solid is zero at absolute zero of temperature
C) Standard Gibbs energy of formation and standard enthalpy of formation are zero for elements in
standard state
D) TStotal Gsystem
Which of these statements are true?
A) All B) B, C C) A, B, C D) B, C, D
14. Which expansion will produce more change in entropy during reversible and isothermal expansion?
A) 1 mol H2 at 300 K from 2L to 20 L B) 1 mol N2 at 400 K from 1L to 10 L
C) 1 mol O2 at 500 K from 3L to 30 L D) All have same S
15. For which of the following processes S is negative ?
A) H 2(S)
2H g B) CaCO3(s)
CaOs CO 2(g)
C) NaCl(s) dissolves in water D) Water crystallise to ice at 0°C
16. For a reversible reaction at equilibrium Ssys Ssurr is
A) >0 B) <0 C) =0 D) none
17. Equilibrium constant of a reaction is 10, what will be the value of G 0 (in kcal mol–1) at 298 K?
A) 4.6 B) 1.37 C) 46 D)4606
18. An amount of 3 mole H 2O at 100°C and 1 atm is converted into H2O(g) at 100°C and 5 atm. G for
the process is
A) Zero B) 1720 n 5 cal C) –2238 n 5 cal D) 2238 n 5 cal
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
19. Standard Gibbs free energy change of a reaction is zero. The value of equilibrium constant will be
A) 10 B) 1 C) 100 D)1000
20. Entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK-1 mol-1 respectively. For the reaction
1 3
X 2 Y2 XY3 ; H 30kJ to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be:
2 2
A) 600 K B) 750 K C) 700 K D) 725 K
21. The direct conversion of A to B is difficult, hence it is carried out by the following shown path:
C D
A B
S A C 50; S C D 30; S B D 20
The entropy change for the process A B is:
A) 100 B) -60 C) -100 D) +60
22. H vapourisation of substance X (molar mass 30) is 300 J/g at its boiling point 300K, then molar
entropy change for reversible condensation process is
A) 30 J/mol K B) –300 J/mol K C) –30 J/mol D) 3000 J/mol K
23. Ethanol can undergoes decomposition to form two sets of products
1
C2H4(g)+H2O(g) 0
H =45.54kJ
C2H5OH(g)
2 0
CH3CHO(g)+H2(g) H =68.91kJ
If the molar ratio of C2H4 to CH3CHO is 8:1 in a set of product gases, then the energy involved in the
decomposition of 1 mole of ethanol is
A) 65.98kJ B) 48.137 kJ C) 52.46 kJ D) 57.22 kJ
24. The molar heat capacities at constant pressure (assumed constant with respect to temperature) at
A,B adn C are in ratio of 3:1.5:2.0. The enthalpy change for the exothermic reaction A 2B 3C at
300 K is H 3 0 0 a n d H 3 1 0 respectively then:
A) H300 H310 B) H300 H310
C) H300 H310 D) if T2 T1 then H310 H300 and ifT2 T1 then H310 H300
25. For a reaction, P + Q R + S. The value of H0 is –30 k Jmol–1 and S is –100 JK–1 mol–1. At
what temperature, the reaction will be at equilibrium
A) 27°C B) 52°C C) 30°C D) 45°C
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
Multiple correct answer (26-33)
26. Free expansion of gas in vacuum
A) Ssystem 0 B) Ssurrounding 0
C) Stotal 0 D) Workdone = 0
27. Dissociation of NH4Cl in water
A) S 0 B) H 0 C) H 0 D) G 0
15
28. At 27oC the reaction, C6 H 6 O 2 6 CO 2(g) 3H 2 O ( ) proceeds spontaneously, because
2 (g )
A) H TS B) H TS C) H TS D) G 0
29. Identify extensive property from the following
A) U B) H C) S D) G
30. Identify incorrect statements from the following?
A) Work done during a cyclic process is zero
B) Change in internal energy is zero in a cyclic process
C) Change in internal energy depends on temperature
D) Internal energy cannot changed by doing same work done on the system
31. Identify correct expression/s from the following
V2
A) G TSsystem B) G H TS C) S nCv n D) G RT n K C
V1
32. Which of the following statements are correct?
A) When G is positive, the process is said to be endoergonic
B) Entropy change of vapourisation of CHCl3 and benzene remains constant and is approximately
equal to 88 J/K/mol
C) neutralisation H 0 of HF and NaOH is always greater than –13.7 Kcal/equivalent
HC
D) calorific value = Molar mass
33. From the following which one is/are correct relations
V2
A) K eG0 / RT B) S 2.303nRTlog V
1
V2
C) Wmax 2.303nRTlog V D) G G 0 RT n QC
1
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
Statement Type Questions
A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is the correct explanation of
Statement-I
B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of
Statement-I
C) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
D) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
34. Statement-I : Eventhough HF is a weak acid heat liberated during neutralisation with a strong base is
more than 57 kJ mol–1
Statement-II : Hydration energy of F– is very large
35. Statement-I : At constant temperature and pressure chemical reactions are spontaneous in the direction
of decreasing Gibb’s energy
Statement-II : For every chemical reaction at equilibrium standard Gibb’s energy of the reaction is
zero.
36. Statement-I : Enthalpy of graphite is lower than that of diamond
Statement-II : Entropy of graphite is greater than that of diamond
37. Statement-I : Enthalpy of formation of HCl is equal to bond energy of HCl
Statement-II : Enthalpy of formation and bond energy both involve the formation of one mole of HCl
from the elements.
38. Statement-I : The enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is zero
Statement-II : Enthalpy change is zero for an element in its standard state
39. Statement-I : Heat of neutralisation of HNO3 and NaOH is same as that of HCl and KOH
Statement-II : Both HNO3 and HCl are strong acids and NaOH and KOH are strong bases
40. Statement-I : An exothermic process which is non spontaneous at high temperature may become
spontaneous at low temperature
Statement-II : Spontaneous process is an irrevessible process and may be reversed by some external
agency
Numerical Type/Integer type questions
41. Calculate the magnitude of free energy change in kJ mol–1 at 270C for H2 + Cl2 2HCl. Bond
enthalpies of H2, Cl2, HCl are 435, 240 and 430 KJ mol respectively. Entropies of H2, Cl2 and HCl
–1
are 131, 223 and 187 JK–1 mol–1
42. The entropy change in JK–1 mol–1 involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an
ideal gas from a volume of 10 dm3 to a volume of 100 dm3 at 270C is
43. From the following data, the enthalpy change in kJ mol–1 for the sublimation of ice at 223 K will be
[mean heat capacity of ice = 2 J K–1 g–1, mean heat capacity of H 2O = 4.2 J K–1 g–1, mean heat
capacity of H 2 O ( g ) = 1.85 J K–1 g–1, enthalpy of fusion of ice at 00C = 334 J g–1, enthalpy of evaporation
of water at 1000 = 2255 J g–1
44. A cylinder of gas supplied by Bharat Petroleum is assumed to contain 14kg of butane. If a normal
family requires 20, 000 kJ of energy per day for cooking, butane gas in the cylinder last for ..................
days
H C of C 4 H10 2658KJmol1
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
45. The magnitude of work done during the expansion of a gas from 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a constant
external pressure of 3 atm (1L atm = 101.3 J) in Joule is
46. What will be the melting point of KCl in K if enthalpy change for the reaction is 7.25Jmol–1 and
entropy change is 0.007JK–1 mol–1 ?
47. 2.1g Fe combines with S evolving 3.75 kJ. The magnitude of heat of formation of FeS in kJ/mol
according the equation Fe S FeS is
48. W hat will be the magnitude of standard enthalpy change for the reaction
OF2 g H 2O g O2 g 2HF g at 298K if enthalpies of formation of OF2 g , H 2O g and HF g are +20,
–250 and –270 kJmol–1 respectively?
Matrix Match Type Questions
49. Column-I Column-II
T2
a) Isothermal reversible p) nC v n
T1
T2
b) Adiabatic reversible q) nCp n
T1
T2 V
c) Isochoric reversible r) nCv n nR n 2
T1 V1
V2
d) Isobaric reversible s) nR n
V1
A) a s; b r; c p; d q B) a s; b r; c q; d p
C) a r; b p; c q; d s D) a r; b q; c p; d s
50. Column-I Column-II
a) Freezing of water at 273 K and 1 atm p) q = 0
b) Expansion of 1 mol of an ideal gas into a
vacuum under isolated conditions q) w = 0
c) Mixing of equal volume of two ideal gases
at constant temperature and pressure in an
isolated container r) Ssys 0
d) Reversible heating of H2(g) at 1 atm from
300 K to 600 K, followed by reversible
cooling to 300 K and 1 atm s) U 0
t) G 0
A) a r, t; b p, q, s; c p, q, s; d p, q, s, t
B) a r, t; b p, q; c p, q,s; d p, q, s
C) a r, s; b p, q, s; c p, q, r; d p, q, r, t
D) a r, s; b p, q; c p, q,s, t; d p, q,s, t
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 05
CHEMICAL AND IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
QUESTIONS
1. The dissociation of N2O4 to NO2 was carried out at 298K in chloroform medium. When equilibrium
was reached 0.2mol of N2O4 and 0.02 mol of NO2 were found to be present in a 2 litre solution. The KC
of the reaction at 298K is
A) 2×10–4 B) 2×10–3 C) 1×10–3 D) 1×10–2
2. In the decomposition reaction AB5 g AB3 g B2 g at equilibrium in a closed 10L vessel at 227°C,
2mols of AB3, 5 mols of B2 and 4 mols of AB5 are present. The KC for the formation of AB5 at this
temperature is
A) 4 B) 0.25 C) 0.04 D) 2.5
3. For the reaction C s CO 2 g 2CO g , K P 63 atm at 1000K. If at equilibrium PCO 10 PCO 2 , then
the total pressure of the gases at equilibrium is
A) 6.3 atm B) 6.93 atm C) 0.63atm D) 0.693 atm
4. 2AB2 g A 2 g 2B2 g 5 mols of AB2 were heated in a closed vessel to constant temperature.
Equilibrium was attained by the time 2 moles of it dissociated. If the equilibrium pressure was 12 atm
the KP of the reaction is
A) 1.72 B) 0.9 C) 0.27 D) 0.6
5. At 500K, the KC of the reaction N 2 3H 2 2NH3 is 61. A mixture of N2, H2 and NH3 with molar
concentrations 1×10–3M, 3×10–3M and 2×10–3M respectively was prepared at 500K. Which statement
below is true?
A) The system is now in equilibrium
B) The forward reaction occurs
C) The backward reaction occurs
D) More data is needed to predict what happens
6. The vapour density of the gaseous compound AB is 80, but when heated to 400K, its V.D is reduced
to 50. The % dissociation of AB in to A(g) and B)(g) at 400K is
A) 60% B) 50% C) 30% D) 20%
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7. The equilibrium constant of a reaction changes when
A) more of a reactant as a product is added to the equilibrium mixture
B) a catalyst is added to the equilibrium mixture
C) temperature is changed
D) All of these
8. A weak monoprotic acid is 1% ionised in its 0.1M aq. solution at 25°C. The % ionisation in its 0.025M
aq. solution at 25°C is
A) 2% B) 3% C) 4% D) 5%
9. The solubility of a certain binary salt (mol mass = 188g mol–1) in water at room temperature is
0.376gL–1. The Ksp of the salt at this temperature is
A) 2×10–3 B) 8×10–9 C) 4×10–6 D) 6.4×10–8
10. If the solubility of AgI in water at a given temperature is 2×10–5mol/L, its solubility in a 0.1M KI solution
at this temperature is
A) 4×10–9 B) 2×10–4 C) 4×10–10 D) 2×10–6(mol/L)
11. Ksp of AgBr at room temperature is 5×10–13M2. The quantity of KBr (mol mass = 120 gmol–1) to be
added to 1L of a 0.05M AgNO3 solution at room temperature to start the precipitation of AgBr is
A) 1.2×10–10g B) 6.2×10–5g C) 5×10-8g D) 1.2×10–9g
12. Which of the following is not a conjugate acid-base pair?
A) NH 4 & NH3 B) H 3O & OH
C) HCO3 & CO32 D) NH3 & NH 2
13. In the reaction AB g A g B g at 30oC Kp for the dissociation equilibrium is 2.56 × 10–2 atm. If the
total pressure at equilibrium is 1 atm, then the percentage dissociation of AB is:
A) 87% B) 13% C) 43.5% D) 16%
14. At a particular temperature, the following equilibrium is attained when 50% of each reactant is converted
C D . If the amount of B in moles is doubled, percentage of B converted
A B
into products (g) (g) (g) (g)
into products will be
A) 33.33% B) 75% C) 50% D) 26%
1
15. For the reaction, N2O5(g) 2NO2(g) O2(g) . Calculate mole fraction of N 2 O5(g) decomposed at
2
constant vol and temp. if initial pressure is 600 mm Hg and pre at any time is 960 mm Hg. Assuming
ideal gas behaviour
A) 0.92 B) 0.75 C) 0.63 D) 0.407
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16. The solubility product of Hg2I2 is 1.2 10 28 . The concentrations of cation and anion in a saturated
solution of Hg2I2 in water is
A) Hg 22 3.1 1010 M and I 6.2 1010 M
B) Hg 22 6.2 10 10 M and I 12.4 1010 M
C) Hg 22 3.1 1014 M and I 6.2 1014 M
D) Hg 22 3.6 1012 M and I 1.8 10 12 M
17. Ksp of Ag2CrO4 is 1.1 x 10–12 at 298 K. Solubility of it in pure water is S1 and in 0.05 M AgNO3 is S2. Then
A) S1 < S2 B) S1 = S2 C) S1 > S2 D) S1 S2
18. At a certain temp, the dissociation constants of formic acid and acetic acid are 1.8 x 10–4 and
1.8 x 10–5 respectively. The molarity of an acetic acid solution in which the H+ concentration is the
same as in a 0.001 M formic acid solution is
A) 0.1 M B) 0.0001 M C) 0.001 M D) 0.01 M
19. At 100°C the Kw of water is 55 times its value of 25°C. What will be the pH of neutral solution (log 55 =
1.74)
A) 6.13 B) 7.00 C) 7.87 D) 5.13
20. Calculate pH of following solution of 40 mL of 0.02 M Na3PO4 + 40 mL of 0.04 M HCl
For H3PO4 K1 = 10–3, K2 = 10–8 and K3 = 10–13
A) 3.42 B) 4.5 C) 5.5 D) 3
21. pH of 2 10 4 M H3X solution assuming first dissociation to be 100%, second to be 50% and third to
be neglected is
A) 1.52 B) 2.5 C) 3.52 D) 4.7
22. pH of 0.01 M solution of potassium propionate is 8. What is Ka of propionic acid
A) 1 10 4 B) 2 10 4 C) 1 10 2 D) 4.5 10 4
23. Ksp of PbBr2 is 8 × 10–5. If the salt is 80% dissociated in solution, calculate the solubility of salt
(Pb = 208, Br = 80)
A) 1.84 g/L B) 12.5 g/L C) 2.84 g/L D) 2.24 g/L
24. A definite amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask already containing ammonia gas at a certain
temperature and 0.50atm pressure. NH4HS decomposes to give NH3 and H2S and at equilibrium total
pressure in flask is 0.84atm. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is
A) 0.30 B) 0.18 C) 0.17 D) 0.11
25. The equilibrium constants K P1 and K P2 for the reaction x 2Y and Z P Q , respectively are in
the ration of 1 : 9 if the degree of dissociation of x and z be equal then the ratio of total pressures at
these equilibria is
A) 1:36 B) 1 : 1 C) 1 : 3 D) 1 : 9
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1
26. Variation of log10 k with is shown by the following graph in which straight line is at 45o, hence
T
H o is
log k
1
T
A) 4.606cal B) 2cal C) –4.606cal D) –2cal
27. The vapour density of N 2 O 4 at a certain temperature is 30. What is the % dissociation of N2O4 at this
temperature
A) 53.3% B) 106.6% C) 26.7% D) 42.8%
28. Calculate the pH at which Mg(OH)2 begin to precipitate from a solution containing 0.10M Mg2+ ion.
Ksp of Mg(OH)2 = 1 × 10–11
A) 8 B) 9 C) 10 D) 11
29. Calculate the amount of (NH4)2SO4 in grams which must be added to 500ml of 0.2M NH3 to give a
solution of pH = 9.3. Given pkb for NH3 = 4.7
A) 0.66g B) 1.32g C) 6.6g D) 13.2g
30. The pH of a buffer containing 0.02M NH3 a nd 0.03M NH 4Cl is x. The pH after 1ml of 0.1M NaOH is
added to 0.102 ml of this buffer is y. Find y – x[Given Ka of NH = 5.70 × 10–10]
4
A) 0.40 B) 0.04 C) 0.80 D) 0.08
31. Ksp of PbI2 is 1.4 × 10–8. Calculate its molar solubility in 0.1M KI solution
A) 1.4 10 2 molL1 B) 1.4 10 7 molL1 C) 1.4 10 8 molL1 D) 1.4 10 6 m
32. 50ml 0.1MNaOH is added to 75ml of 0.1M NH4Cl to make a basic buffer. If pka of NH is 9.26,
4
Calculate pH?
A) 4.44 B) 9.56 C) 11.34 D) 8.28
33. How many litres of water must be added to 1L an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an
aqueous with pH of 2
A) 0.1L B) 0.9L C) 2L D) 9L
34. For a sparingly soluble salt ApBq, the relationship between its solubility product Ksp with its solubility
(s) is:
D) Ksp Spq . pq
pq
A) Ksp Sp q pp qq B) Ksp Sp q pq qp C) Ksp Spq .pp qq
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
35. Ksp of salts of Types MX, MX2 and M3X at temperature ‘T’ are 4 10 8 , 3.2 10 14 and 2.7 10 15
respectively. Solubilities of the salts at temperature ‘T’ are in the order
A) MX MX2 M3X B) M3X MX2 MX
C) MX 2 M 3 X MX D) MX M 3 X MX 2
36. The precipitate of CaF2(Ksp = 1.7 1010 ) is obtained when equal volumes of the following are mixed
A) 10 4 M Ca 2 10 4 M F B) 10 2 M Ca 2 10 3 M F
C) 10–5 M Ca2+ + 10–3 M F D) 10 3 M Ca 2 10 5 M F
37. The best indicator for the detection of end point in titration of a weak acid and a strong base is
A) Methyl orange (3 to 4) B) Methyl red (5 to 6)
C) Bromothymol blue (6 to 7.5) D) Phenolphthalein (8 to 9.6)
38. When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, the precipitation of AgCl(Ksp = 1.8 1010 )
will occur only with
4
4
A) 10 M Ag and10 M Cl
5
5
B) 10 M Ag and10 M Cl
6
6
C) 10 M Ag and10 M Cl
10
10
D) 10 M Ag and10 M Cl
39. A solution which is 10–3 M each in Mn2+, Fe2+, Zn2+ and Hg2+ is treated with 10–16 M sulphide ion. If the
Ksp of MnS, FeS, ZnS and HgS are 10–15, 10–23, 10–20 and 10–54, respectively, which one will precipitate
first?
A) FeS B) MgS C) HgS D) ZnS
40.
A) a p; b q; c r; d s B) a p; b r; c s; d q
C) a r; b p; c q; d s D) a s; b r; c q; d p
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
41.
A) a q; b r; c s; d p B) a p; b q; c r; d s
C) a r; b p; c q; d s D) a s; b r; c q; d p
42.
A) a q; b p; c s; d r
B) a p; b q; c r; d s
C) a r; b s; c p; d q
D) a s; b r; c p; d q
Numerical type questions
43. What volume of strong monobasic acid of normality 10 is needed to prepare 1L of a buffer solution of
pH 9, using 1mol of NH3 and as much of strong acid needed.
K b for NH 3 1.8 10 5 pKb 4.74
44. The ionisation constant of benzoic acid (PhCOOH) is 6.45×10-5 and Ksp for silver benzoate is
2.5×10-3. How many times is silver benzoate more soluble in a buffer of pH 3.19 compared to its
solubility in pure water?
45. Phenyl acetic acid, used in manufactre of synthetic perfumer is slightly soluble in water. 25ml of a
saturated solution of phenyl acetic acid requires 17.70ml of 0.1850M NaOH for its neutralisation.
What is the pH of saturated solution. (pKa = 4.255)
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
Multiple correct answer type
46. Buffer solution A of a weak monoprotic acid and its sodium salt in the concentration ratio x : y has
pH = pH1. Buffer solution B of the same acid and its sodium salt in the concentration ration y : x has
pH = (pH2)
If pH 2 pH1 1 unit and pH1 pH 2 9.5 unit. Then
x x
A) pka 4.75 B) 2.36 C) 3.162 D) p ka 5.25
y y
47. 5gm of PCl5 were completely vapourised at 250oC is a vessel of 1.9L capacity. The mixture at equi-
librium exerted a pressure of 1 atm. Choose the correct option related to the dissociation, kc and kp
for this reaction
A) 0.843 B) k c 0.0565mol / L
C) k p 2.426 D) k p 0.1565 mol/L
48. 138gm of N 2 O4g is placed in 8.2L container at 300k. The equilibrium vapour density of mixture was
1 1
found to be 30.67. Then R 0.082atmLmol K
A) (degree of dissociation) of N2O4 = 0.25 B) K p of N2O4 2NO 2 will be 9 atm
C) Total pressure at equilibrium = 6.75atm D) density of equilibrium mixture will be 16.83g/c
49. 2CaSO 4s 2CaO s 2SO2g , H 0
Above equilibrium is established by taking sufficient amount of CaSO4(g) in a closed container at
1600k. Then which of the following may be correct option. [Assume that solid CaSO4 is present in the
container in each case]
A) moles of CaO(s) will increase with the increase of temperature
B) If the volume of the container is doubled at equilibrium then partial presure of SO2(g) will change at
new equilibrium
C) If the volume of the container is halved partial pressure of SO2(g) at new equilibrium will remain
same
D) If 2 moles of the He gas is added at constant pressure then the moles of CaO(s) will increase
50. The equilibrium constant at 298K for areaction A B C D is 100. If the initial concentration of all
the four species were 1M each, then equilibrium concentration of D will be
A) 0.818 B) 1.818 C) 1.182 D) 0.182
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 06
REDOX REACTIONS
QUESTIONS
1. Oxidation number of carbon is highest in
A) HCOO B) HCHO C) CH3OH D) CH4
2. Which among the following is not a redox reaction ?
A) 2Na O 2 Na2O2 B) SO 2 2H2S 2H2O 3S
C) Na 2O 2HCl 2NaCl H2 O D) MnO2 4HCl MnCl2 Cl2 H2O
3. The oxidation number of Cr in Cr NH3 4 Cl2 is :
A) + 3 B) + 2 C) + 1 D) zero
4. Which of the following halogens always show only one oxidation state
A) Cl B) Br C) I D) F
5. Oxidation number of carbon in C3O2, Mg2C3 are respectively :
A) - 4/3, + 4/3 B) + 4/3, - 4/3 C) - 2/3, + 2/3 D) - 2/3, + 4/3
6. Which of the following cannot be an oxidising agent
A) H2SO4 B) H2S C) SO2 D) H2SO3
7. The oxidation state of the most electronegative element in the products of the reaction between BaO2
and H2SO4 are :
A) 0, -1 B) -1, -2 C) -2, 0 D) -2, +1
8. Oxidation number of S in H2SO5 is :
A) + 8 B) + 6 C) + 4 D) + 2
9. Which is the reducing agent in the following reaction ?
Ni Cr2O72 14H 3Ni2 2Cr 3 7H2O
A) Cr2O72 B) H+ C) Ni D) H2O
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10. Oxidation number of S in the anions
SO32 ,S2O24 and S2O62 follow the order
A) SO23 S2O24 S2O26 B) S2 O24 SO32 S2O26
C) S2 O24 S2O62 SO32 D) S2 O26 S2O24 SO32
11. In which of the following changes, there is transfer of five electrons ?
A) MnO24 MnO2 B) Cr2O72 2Cr 3 C) CrO24 Cr 3 D) MnO4 Mn2
12. SO2 under atmospheric condition changes to SO2x . If oxidation number of S is + 6, what is the value
of x in SO2x ?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
13. The equivalent mass of oxidising agent in the following reaction is :
SO 2 2H2S 3S 2H2O
A) 32 B) 64 C) 16 D) 8
14. Equivalent weight of H3PO2 (M = Mole.wt.) when it disproportionates into PH3 and H3PO3 is
M M 3M
A) M B) C) D)
2 4 4
15. In a reaction 4 mole of electrons are transferred to 1 mole of HNO3, the possible product obtained
due to reduction is :
A) 0.5 mole N2 B) 0.5 mole N2O C) 1 mole NO2 D) 1 mole NH3
16. Among the following identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state
B) Cr CN6
3
A) MnO4 C) NiF62 D) CrO2Cl2
17. In the reaction 8Al 3Fe3 O4 4Al2O3 9Fe; the number of electrons transferred from reductant to
oxidant is :
A) 8 B) 4 C) 16 D) 24
18. The equivalent weight of Mohr’s salt when it act as a reducing agent
M M M
A) B) C) D) M
4 3 2
19. What are the coefficients of H2O, H+ and NO2 in the reaction when it is balanced:
NO2 MnO4 H Mn2 NO3 H2O
A) 3, 6, 5 B) 2, 3, 5 C) 3, 5, 6 D) 4, 5, 3
20. Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by 1 mol of Sn2 is :
A) 1/3 B) 1/6 C) 2/3 D) 1
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21. HNO3 oxidises NH4 to nitrogen and gets reduced to NO2. Moles of HNO3 reduced by one mol NH4Cl
is:
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 5
22. In which of the following, the same element does not exhibit two different oxidation states :
A) C3O2 B) Na2S4O6 C) CrO5 D) OsO4
23. A compound of Xe and F is found to have 53.3 % Xe. Oxidation number of Xe in this compound is :
A) - 4 B) zero C) + 4 D) + 6
24. 2 mole of FeSO4 are oxidised by x mole of KMnO4 whereas 2 mole of FeC2O4 are oxidised by y mole
of KMnO4. The ratio of x and y is
A) 1 : 3 B) 1 : 2 C) 1 : 4 D) 1 : 5
25. In the reaction, 2CuSO 4 4KI Cu2I2 I2 2K 2SO 4 the equivalent weight of Cu will be :
A) 31.75 B) 63.5 C) 127 D) 15.88
(atomic mass of Cu = 63.5)
26. Volume of 0.1 M ferrous oxalate solution required to react completely with 60 ml of 0.1 N acidified
KMnO4 solution is :
A) 30 ml B) 20 ml C) 150 ml D) 10 ml
27. V1 ml. of 0.1 M K2Cr2O7 is needed for complete oxidation of 0.678 g N2H4 in acidic medium. The
volume of 0.3 M KMnO4 needed for same oxidation in acidic medium will be :
2 5 1
A) V1 B) V1 C) 113 V1 D) V1
5 2 3
28. It requires 40 ml. of 0.50 M Ce 4 to titrate 10 ml. of 1 M Sn2 to Sn4 . What is the oxidation state of
cerium in the reduced product ?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
29. How many electrons are donated by 0.16 g of CH3OH on oxidation to HCOOH by excess of acidified
K2Cr2O7 ?
A) 2.4 × 1023 B) 1.2 × 1022 C) 2 × 1020 D) 1.2 × 1020
30. In SHE, the pH of the acid solution should be :
A) 7 B) 1 C) 0 D) 14
31. The oxidation state of C is +2 in :
1) HCN 2) CO2 3) CH4 4) HNC
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 1 only D) 1 and 4
32. In the half reaction :
2ClO3 Cl2
A) 5 electrons are gained B) 5 electrons are lost
C) 10 electrons are gained D) 10 electrons are lost
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
33. In titration between KMnO4 and oxalic acid solutions, the indicator used is :
A) Methyl orange B) Phenolphthalein
C) Anthranillic acid D) KMnO4 acts as self indicator
34. Which of the following is not an intramolecular redox reaction :
A) NH4NO2 N2 2H2O B) 2Mn2 O7 4MnO 2 3O2
C) 2KClO3 2KCl 3O2 D) 2H2O 2 2H2O O 2
35. F2 is the strongest oxidising agent because it has
A) highest electron affinity B) lowest electron affinity
C) highest reduction potential D) lowest reduction potential
3 2 1
36. The oxidation number of C1, C2 and C3 in propyne CH3 C CH are :
A) -1, 0, -3 B) -1, 1, -4 C) -2, 0, -3 D) +1, -2, -3
37. The values of x and y in the following reaction are :
x Cl2 6OH ClO3 y Cl H2O
A) x = 2, y = 4 B) x = 5, y = 3 C) x = 3, y = 5 D) x = 4, y = 2
38. For decolourisation of 1 mole of KMnO4 in acidic medium, number of moles of H2O2 required is :
1 3 5 7
A) B) C) D)
2 2 2 2
39. Oxidation state of Zn in Zincamalgam is
A) 0 B) +2 C) +5 D) +3
40. C2H2 MnO4
H
Mn2 CO2
The number of H+ ions in the balanced equation is :
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8
41. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
A) +5 B) +4 C) +6 D) +2
42. Correct stock notation will be
A) Fe(III) SO4 B) Cu2(II)O C) Fe(II) Cl3 D) Fe(II) SO4
Numerical type
43. Calculate the number of grams of FeSO4 that will be oxidised by 24.0cm3 of 0.05M KMnO4 in a
solution acidified with H2SO4 (Mw of FeSO4 = 152) (Answer divided by .456)
44. Oxidation number of P in P2 O 74 is
45. The oxidation state of molybdenum in its oxo complex species [Mo2O4(C2H4)2H2O2)]2– is
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
46. A 2.5 mol of hydrazine N2H4 loses 25 mole of electrons to form a new compound X. Assuming that all
of the nitrogen appears in the new compound. What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in compound X
Multiple correct
47. Consider the redox reaction 2S2 O 32 I 2 S4 O 62 2I
A) 2S2 O32 gets reduced to S4 O 26 B) 2S2 O32 get oxidised to S4 O 26
C) I2 gets reduced to I– D) I2 gets oxidised to I–
48. Which of the following reactions do not involve oxidation reduction
A) 2Rb + 2H2O 2RbOH + H2
B) 2CuI2 2CuI + I2
C) NH4Cl + NaOH NaCl + NH3 + H2O
D) 4KCN + Fe(CN)2 K4[Fe(CN)6]
49. Oxidation number of carbon is correctly given for
Compound Oxidation number
A) HN C +2
B) H C N +4
C) CCl4 –4
D) C6H12O6 0
Section IV - Matrix match
50. Match the underlined substance in the reactions listed in column I with their equivalent masses listed
in column II (M = molecular mass of the substances in question,)
Column I Column II
2
A) FeC2 O 4 Cr2 O7 H Products p) M/6
B) Fe3O 4 MnO 4 H Products q) M/2
C) KHC2 O4 MnO 4 H Products r) M
2
D) H 2 O 2 Cr2O 7 H Products s) M/3
A) A - s, B - r, C - q, D -p B) A - p, B - q, C - r, D -s
C) A - r, B - s, C - q, D -p D) A - p, B -r, C - s, D -q
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 07
S-BLOCK ELEMENTS
QUESTIONS
Group-1 (Alkali metals)
1. Which is incorrect regarding alkali metals
A) ns1 outer EC, with low IE and most electropositive
B) Hydration enthalpy Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
C) They provide colour to oxidising flame
D) Reducing property Na > K > Rb > Cs > Li
2. Alkali metal used in photoelectric cell is
A) Na B) Li C) Rb D) Cs
3. When alkali metals are exposed to air get tarnished due to
A) Formation of oxides
B) Formation of hydroxides
C) Formation of carbonate
D) All these
4. Alkali metal Li is normally kept in
A) Kerosene B) Ethanol C) Paraffin wax D) Liquid NH3
5. The compound NaOH is a colourless crystalline solid. Also known as caustic soda. Caustic property
is due to
A) Hygroscopic nature
B) Deliquescent nature
C) Subliming nature
D) Photosensitive nature
6. Which is not true regarding chemical properties of group 1 alkali metals
A) They react with water, least reactive is Li
B) They don’t form ionic hydrides
C) React vigorously with halogens except Li
D) Dissolve in liquid ammonia, to give blue coloured solution, colour changes to bronze on increasing
the concentrations
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
7. The incorrect statement about oxides and hydroxides of alkali metals is
A) Stability of oxides and peroxides increases down the group due to large cations and anions
B) They are hydrolysed by water
C) Oxides and peroxides have colour and superoxides are colourless and exhibit diamagnetism
D) Hydroxides are crystalline solids and strong bases
8. Which of the following compound is oxone
A) Na2O2 B) Na2O C) NaBO2 D) NaO2
9. Which of the following is Glauber’s salt
A) Na2SO4.10H2O B) Na2SO4 C) Na2B4O7.10H2O D) NaNO3
10. Which of the following is stable nitride
A) Li3N B) Na3N C) NaN3 D) K3N
11. Which of the following compounds liberate NH3 gas when treated with excess water
A) Li3N B) Mg3N2 C) CaCN2 D) All these
12. Which is not the diagonal relation between Li and Mg
A) They form nitrides
B) Their carbonates are thermally unstable
C) They could not form solid bicarbonates
D) They are not hard and possess least M.P.
13. Which of the following is incorrect statement
A) LiClO4 is soluble in water
B) Li extracted by electrolysis of LiCl
C) Li+ has greater mobility than Na+ in aqueous medium
D) Li2CO3 is least stable carbonate in group 1
14. Na2CO3.10H2O (washing soda) can be prepared by solvay process, but K2CO3 (Pearl Ash) can’t be
prepared because
A) KHCO3 formed is soluble in medium
B) K2CO3 is more soluble than Na2CO3
C) KHCO3 is not formed during the process by using KCl
D)KHCO3 is insoluble compared to NaHCO3
15. The antiseptic powder known as Sidelitz powder, has the composition
A) Na2CO3 + NaHCO3 B) NaHCO3 + Rochelle salt
C) NaHCO3 + H2SO4 (dil) D) Na2CO3 + K2CO3
16. Which of the following is Engel salt which is used in toilet soaps and in hard glass
A) K2CO3 B) KHCO3 C) K2SO4 D) K H tartrate
17. Which of the following is soluble in water and organic solvent pyridine or ethanol
A) LiCl B) NaCl C) KCl D) CsI
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18. KO2 is an yellow solid and paramagnetic used in breathing apparatus by Deep sea divers and mine
workers due to
A) It absorb CO2 and liberate O2
B) It react with H2O in exhaled air liberating O2
C) It has tendency to dissolve in ethanol
D) Both A and B
19. Which of the following compound known as fusion mixture
A) Na2CO3 + K2CO3 B) Na2O2 + K2O2 C) NaHCO3 + Na2CO3 D) NaHCO3 + KHCO3
20. Correct statement for CsI3
A) It is covalent
B) Contain Cs+ & I3 ions in aqueous medium
C) Contain Cs3+ and 3I ions
D) Contain Cs+, I and I2
21. Microcosmic salt is used as analytical chemistry for detection of transition metal oxides. It is
A) Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O B) Na(NH3)HPO4.4H2O
C) NaK - tartrate D) Na(NH3)PO4 .6H2O
22. Brine is chemically
A) conc. solution of NaCl
B) conc. solution of Na2SO4
C) conc. Solution fo Na2CO3
D) conc. solution of soda alum
23. The order of stability of alkali metal hydride is
A) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
B) LiH < NaH < KH < RbH < CsH
C) NaH > LiH > CsH > KH > RbH
D) KH > NaH > RbH > CsH > LiH
24. Pearl Ash and Caustic potash are
A) K2CO3 and KOH B) KOH & K2CO3 C) Na2CO3 & KOH D) Na2CO3 & NaOH
Group-2 (Alkaline Earth Metals)
25. Group-2 elements except Be are called alkaline earth metals because
A) Be is rare, its compounds are amphoteric. But compounds of others are basic
B) Be has high I.E. value
C) Be compounds are more basic than others
D) Be compounds are acidic
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26. Order of hydration enthalpy of group 2 elements are in the order in aqueous solution
A) Be2+ > Mg2+ > Ca2+ > Sr2+ > Ba2+ B) Ba2+ > Sr2+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
C) Mg2+ > Ca2+ > Be2+ > Ba2+ > Sr2+ D) Ca2+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ > Sr2+ > Ba2+
27. Which is false with respect to group 2 compounds
A) Solubility of hydroxides increases down the group
B) H 0f of oxides are very low order of stability of carbonate BaCO3 < SrCO3 < CaCO3 < MgCO3 <
BeCO3
C) BeF2 ionic soluble in water
D) BeSO4 soluble in water but BaSO4 insoluble in H2O
28. Diagonal relation between Be & Al not found in
A) They are not readily attacked by acids
B) They react with alkali liberating H2
C) They form hydrated ions, strong tendency to form fluoro complexes
D) They form linear complexes
29. Which of the following on heating give acidic and basic oxides
A) NaNO2 B) KClO3 C) CaCO3 D) NH4NO3
30. Correct order of increasing covalent character is
A) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 B) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
C) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl D) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
31. Nitrolim is prepared by heating CaC2 with N2 in an electric furnace. It is
A) Ca(CN)2 B) Ca3N2 C) CaNC2 D) CaCN2 + C
32. Which statement is incorrect?
A) Be exhibit co-ordination number six
B) Be-chloride and Al-chlorides have bridge bonded structure in vapour phase
C) Be2C and Al4C3 on hydrolysis give CH4
D) CaC2 and MgC2 on hydrolysis give C2H2
33. Which of the following will not give colour to the flame
A) BeCl2 & MgCl2 B) CaCl2 and MgCl2 C) CaCl2 and BaCl2 D) SrCl2 and BaCl2
More than one correct answer type questions
34. Which of the following alloys used in aircraft industry
A) Magnalium B) Duralumin C) Electron metal D) Alcino
35. Which of the following on heating liberate NO2 gas
A) Mg(NO3)2 B) Ba(NO3)2 C) Sr(NO3)2 D) LiNO3
36. Which of the following will not give colour to the oxidising flame
A) BeCl2 B) MgCl2 C) CaCl2 D) BaCl2
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37. Pair of compounds which cannot exist together in aqueous solution
A) NaHCO3 & NaOH B) NaOH & NaH2PO4
C) NaH2PO4 & Na2HPO4 D) NaHCO3 & Na2CO3
38. Which of the following carbides on hydrolysis give acetylene (Ethyne) gas
A) Li2C2 B) CaC2 C) MgC2 D) Mg2C3
39. Which of the following carbides on hydrolysis give methane gas
A) Be2C B) Al4C3 C) Li2C2 D) Mg2C3
40. Which statements are correct
A) At room temp group 1 metals have body centered type of lattice with co-ordination number 8
B) At very low temperature Li has hexagonal close packed arrangement with co-ordination no-12
C) Lithium is the softer alkali metal
D) Li2O, Na2O are yellow coloured and KO2 is colourless solid
Integer type and Numericals
41. MgCl2 exist as MgCl2.xH2O and CaCl2 exist as CaCl2.yH2O. The value of X and Y are
42. Gypsum on heating to 393 K give a hemihydrate (X). The difference in molecular wt. of Gypsum and
X is 9Y. What is the value of Y.
43. 2 moles of K2CO3, 2 moles of CaCO3, 2 moles of NaHCO3 and 2 moles of Li2CO3 are heated. Total
no.of moles of CO2 gas liberated will be ..............
44. Volume of 8.4 N H2SO4 that will be completely neutralised by 12.5 g Na2CO3 solution will be ............
45. Mass of caO(quick lime) obtained by heating 200 g of 95% pure CaCO3 will be ...............
46. How much volume of H2 gas at STP liberated when 36g of Be react with excess of concentrated
NaOH?
47. What weight of propyne liberated when 2 moles of Mg2C3 treated with excess of water.
48. What is the ratio of volume of NH3 gas liberated when 1 mol of Li3N and 2 moles of Mg3N2 treated with
water.
49. Sodium peroxide react with sulphuric acid giving sodium sulphate and H2O2. How many moles of
H2SO4 required for 2 moles of Na2O2 for above reaction?
50. Calcium carbide is used for artificial ripening of fruits, acetylene gas liberated cause ripening. How
much volume of C2H2 at STP liberated by hydrolysis of 2 mol CaC2.
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CHAPTER - 08
THE p-Block ELEMENT (XI)
QUESTIONS
1. Group 13 elements show +1 and +3 oxidation states. Relative stability of +3 oxidation state may be
given as
A) Tl3 In 3 Ga 3 Al3 B3 B) B3 Al3 Ga 3 In 3 Tl3
C) Al3 Ga 3 Tl3 In 3 B3 D) Al3 B3 Ga 3 Tl3 In 3
2. The liquid metal which expands on solidification is
A) Al B) Ga C) Sn D) Tl
3. The straight chain polymer is formed by
A) hydrolysis of CH 3SiCl3 followed by condensation polymerisation
B) hydrolysis of CH 3 4 Si by addition polymerisation
C) hydrolysis of CH 3 2 SiCl 2 followed by condensation polymerisation
D) hydrolysis of CH 3 3 SiCl followed by condensation polymerisation
4. Which of the following boron trihalide has the expected strongest Lewis acid strength?
A) BF3 B) BCl3 C) BBr3 D) BI3
5. Which one of the following silicates share only one oxygen atom?
C) Si O3 n D) Si 2 O5 n
2n 2n
A) Si O44 B) Si 2 O76
6. The B–F bond length in BF3 is shorter than that in BF4 . This is because of
A) resonance in BF3 but not in BF4
B) p p back bonding in BF4 but not in BF3
C) p p back bonding in BF3 but not in BF4
D) p d back bonding in BF3 but not is BF4
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7. The stability of hydrides of carbon family is in the order
A) CH4 > SiH4 > GeH4 > SnH4 > PbH4
B) CH4 < SiH4 < GeH4 < SnH4 < PbH4
C) CH4 > SnH4 > GeH4 > SiH4 > PbH4
D) None of the above
8. Which is correct for the structure of diborane?
A) It contains four (2c, 2e) covalent bonds and two (3c, 2e) covalent bonds.
B) It contains three (2c, 2e) covalent bonds and three (3c, 2e) covalent bonds
C) It contains two (2c, 2e) covalent bonds and four (3c, 2e) covalent bond
D) It contains six (2c, 2e) covalent bonds
9. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) Organosilicon polymers are known as silicones
B) Silicones have the general formula (R2SiO)n where R = –CH3, –C2H5, –C6H5, etc.
C) Hydrolysis of dialkyldichlorosilane produces cross-linked silicon polymer
D) Hydrolysis of alkyltrichlorosilane produces cross-linked silicon polymer
10. AlCl3 is an electron-deficient compound but AlF3 is not, due to
A) Atomic size of F is smaller than Cl, which makes AlF3 more covalent
B) AlCl3 is a covalent compound while AlF3 is an ionic compound
C) Al in AlCl3 is sp3 hybridised but in AlF3, Al is sp2 hybridised.
D) AlCl3 exists as a dimer but AlF3 does not
11. An oxide of carbon (X) reacts with ammonia under pressure to produce urea, which of the following
combinations will not yield (X)
A) Na2CO3 + HCl B) CaO + C
C) C + excess O2 D) HCO3 HCl
12. The products obtained when SiO2 is heated with coke are
A) SiO2, CO2 B) SiC, CO C) SiO2,N2 D) CaO, CO
13. Specify the coordination geometry around and hybridisation of N and B atoms in a 1 : 1 complex of
BF3 and NH3.
A) N : Tetrahedral, sp3 ; B : Tetrahedral, sp3
B) N : Pyramidal, sp3 ; B : Pyramidal, sp3
C) N : Pyramidal, sp3 ; B : Planar, sp3
D) N : Pyramidal, sp3 ; B : Tetrahedral, sp3
14. Which of the following carbides on treatment with water evolves methane?
A) CaC2 B) Al4C3 C) B4C D) SiC
15. Light emitting diodes (LED) and memory chips in computers are made up of
A) Gallium Arsenide B) Ga C) Al D) As
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16. CO2 in water behaves as
A) Weak dibasic acid H2CO3
B) Weak monobasic acid HO - CO2H
C) Weak diacid base CO(OH)2
D) Weak mono acid base HO - CO2H
17. Allylides are ionic carbides. They contains
A) C4- ions B) C 22 ions C) C33 ions D) C34 ions
18. When silica is treated with excess HF, -------------- is produced :
A) NaF B) H2SiF6 C) SiH4 D) SiO44–
19. Pure Boron is best prepared by
A) Heating B2O3 with H2
B) Thermal decomposition of BI3
C) Heating KBF4 with Na or K
D) Heating BBr3with N2(g) in presence of a catalyst
20. Which gas is evolved when PbO2 is treated with conc. HNO3?
A) NO2 B) O2 C) H2 D) N2
21. Which of the following burns with green edged flame?
A) Na2[B4O5(OH)4]8H2O B) B2O3
C) B D) B (OC2H5)3
22. Considering the following statements for diborane
1. Boron is approximately sp3 hybridised
2. B-H-B angle is 1800
3. There are two terminal B-H bonds for each boron atom
4. There are only 12 bonding electrons available.
Of these statements
A) 1,2 and 4 are correct
B) 1,2 and 3 are correct
C) 2,3 and 4 are correct
D) 1,3 and 4 are correct
23. BF3 on hydrolysis gives
A) H 3 BO 3 HF2 B) H 3 BO3 HBF4 C) B OH 3 B2 O3 D) H 3 BO3 F2
24. Which of the following metals is protected by a layer of its own oxide?
A) Aluminium B) Iron C) Silver D) Gold
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25. B(s) Z LiH
X Y + LiBF4
Which of the statement is true for the above sequence of reactions?
A) Z is hydrogen B) Y is LiBH4
C) Z and Y are F2 and B2H6 respectively D) Z is potassium hydroxide
2n
26. Si 2O5 n anion is obtained when
A) no oxygen of a SiO 44 tetrahedron is shared with another SiO 44 tetrahedron
B) One oxygen of a SiO 44 tetrahedron is shared with another SiO 44 tetrahedron
C) Two oxygen of a SiO 44 tetrahedron are shared with another SiO 44 tetrahedron
D) Three oxygen of SiO 44 tetrahedron are shared with another SiO 44 tetrahedron
27. Borax is Na2B4O7 . 10H2O. Consider the following statements about borax
I. Two boron atoms have four B –O bonds whereas the other two have three B –O bonds
II. Each boron has one OH group
III. It is a salt of tetraboric acid
IV. It is a cyclic metaborate having two six - membered rings. Select the correct statements
A) I, II, III B) II, III, IV C) I, II, IV D) I, II, III, IV
28. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare BF3?
A) B2O3 + CaF2 + H2SO4 (conc)
heat
B) B2O2 + NH4BF4
heat
C) Na2[B4O5(OH)4] + HF + H2SO4 (conc)
heat
D) All of these
29. The bond order in graphite is
A) 1.33 B) 1.0 C) 2.0 D) 3.0
30. Me2SiCl2 on hydrolysis will produce
A) Me2Si OH 2 B) Me 2 Si O
C) O Me2 Si On D) Me2SiCl OH
More than one correct answer type questions
31. Boron can be isolated by
A) Reduction of BX3 with H2 at 1270 K B) Reduction of B2O3 with Mg
C) Thermal decomposition of volatile BI3 D) Electrolysis of fused Borates
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32. Inorganic graphite is Boron nitride. It is prepared by
A) Heating B2O3 with NH4Cl B) Heating Boron with nitric oxide
C) Heating Borax with NH4Cl D) Heating B with N2 at 973 K
33. The colour produced when borax bead test is performed with oxidising flame for Cu2+, Mn2+, Ni 2 and
Fe3+ . Which are correctly matched
A) Cu2+ - pale green B) Ni2+ - Brown C) Mn2+ - Light violet D) Fe3+ - yellowish brown
34. Diborane undergoes unsymmetrical cleavage reactions with
A) Dimethylamine B) NH3 at low temp C) Methylamine D) Tertiary amine
35. Carbon monoxide is prepared by
A) Heating HCOOH with con.H2SO4
B) Heating K 4 Fe CN 6 with con.H2SO4
C) Heating Malonic acid with P4O10
D) Hydrolysis of Mg2C3
36. Which are incorrect?
A) Graphite is harder than diamond
B) Graphite has higher electrical conductivity than diamond
C) Graphite has higher thermal conductivity than diamond
D) Graphite has lower bond order than diamond
37. Which are correct statements?
A) GaX and InX disproportionate in water
B) Elemental silicon, isostructural with diamond doesn’t form an analogue of graphite
C) True alums have general formula MAl(SO4)2.12H2O where Al3+ are replaced by transition metal ion
of comparable size
D) The bond length order is CO < CO2 < CO 32
38. Matrix match
Column-I Column-II
A) Borax P) BN
B) B2 H 6 H 2 O Q) B2H6
C) B2 H 6 excess NH3 R) H3BO3
D) BCl3 LiAlH 4 S) NaBO2 + B2O3
A) A S; B R; C P; D Q B) A R; B S; C Q; D P
C) A P; B Q; C R; D S D) A S; B R; C Q; D P
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39. Column-I Column-II
A) Al 2 C2 3 6H 2 O p) One of the product contains both and bond
B) CH 2 COOH 2 P4 O10
q) Hydrolysis
C) CH 3SiCl3 H 2 O r) Dehydration
s) Complex cross linked polymer
A) A p, q; B p, r; C q,s B) A p; B q; C r
C) A p, q; B q, r; C r, s D) A r, s B q, r; C p,s
40. Column-I Column-II
A) B2H6 p) Lewis acid nature
B) BI3 q) Amphoteric
C) Al r) Antiseptic
D) B(OH)3 s) Reduced domestic used due to toxic nature
t) Electron deficient
A) A p, t; B p; C q, s; D t, p, r
B) A p, q; B q, r; C q, s; D t, r
C) A p, q, r; B q, r,s; C q,s ; D t, r
D) A q, r; B q, p; C s, t ; D t, r
Integer/Numerical type questions
41. During the confirmatory test for lead (II) ions, using K2CrO4, chrome yellow is precipitated. The total
no.of atoms in the formula of the ppt are ...................
42. In the 3, D-structure of silica, Each oxygen atom is linked to ..................... silicon atoms.
43. 2CH3Cl Si;
Cu powder
TK
B2 CH3 2 SiCl2 . The temp (T) in K is approximately ................
44. CO2 is a resonance stabilised linear molecule. The C–O double bond length equals .............. pm
45. f H 0 of diamond is .............. kJ/mol
46. In fullerene there are 20 six membered rings and 12 five membered rings. A five membered ring can
fuse only with ..................... membered rings
47. In graphite the layers are at a distance of ...................... pm, held by weak forces of attraction
48. The half life period of C-14 is ................ years
49. Diborane burns in O2 releasing approximately ................ kJ/mol of energy
50. The metal which expands on solidification is Gallium. It is a thermometric fluid with a boiling point of
............. K.
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CHAPTER - 09
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES-PART-I
(NOMENCLATURE)
QUESTIONS
1. IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH2CH CH(CH3)CH2CH3 is
CH2CH3
A) 4-methyl-3-ethylhexane
B) 3-Ethyl-4-methyl hexane
C) 1,1-diethyl-2-methyl butane
D) 3-methyl-4,4-diethylbutane
O O
2. IUPAC name of the compound OH
A) 5-oxo hexanoic acid
B) 3-oxohexanoic acid
C) 3,5-dioxohexanol
D) 5-oxoheptanoic acid
CH3
3. IUPAC name of the compound CH3 C CH COOH is
A) 2-methylbut-2-enoic acid
B) 3-methylbut-3-enoic acid
C) 3-methylbut-2-enoic acid
D) 2-methylbut-3-enoic acid
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4. Identify the false statement
A) IUPAC name of CH3 CH 2-Methyl propyl
CH3
B) Isobutyl also accepted as IUPAC name of CH3 CH CH2
CH3
C) IUPAC name of CH3 CH CH2 CH2 is 2-methylbutyl
CH3
D) Isopentyl also accepted as IUPAC name of CH3 CH CH2 CH2
CH3
5. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3 CH C CH2 CH3 is
CH2CH2CH3
A) 3-Ethyl hex-2-ene B) 3-Propyl-hex-2-ene
C) 3-Propylhex-3-ene D) 4-Ethyl hex-4-ene
6. The IUPAC name of CH3 – CH = CH – COOC2H5 is
A) Ethylbut-1-enoate B) Ethyl but-2-enoate
C) Ethyl prop-2-enoate D) Hex-2-enoate
7. IUPAC name of CONH is
A) N-cyclohexylbenzamide
B) N-phenyl-N-cyclohexylmethanamide
C) N-phenyl cyclohexane carboxamide
D) N-cyclohexyl phenylamide
CH3
8. IUPAC name of is
A) 3-methyl hexene B) 3-methyl cyclohexene
C) 6-methyl cyclohexene D) 1-methyl cyclohex-2-ene
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C
9. The IUPAC name of CH3 is
A) Acetylcyclohexadiene B) 1-cyclohexa-2,4-dienylethanone
C) 6-cyclohexa-1,3-dienylethanone D) None of these
10. The compound with an iso group is
A) 2,2,3,3-Tetramethyl pentane B) 2,2-Dimethyl pentane
C) 2,2,3-Trimethyl pentane D) 2-Methyl butane
11. IUPAC name of CH3–O–CH2CH3 is
A) Ethoxy methane B) Methoxy ethane C) Methyl ethyl ether D) Ethyl methyl ether
12. IUPAC name of Neo-hexane
A) 2-methyl butane B) 2,2-Dimethyl butane
C) 2-methyl propane D) 2,2,3-Trimethyl propane
13. The IUPAC name of the following compound N
A) N, N-Dimethyl-3-methyl pentan-3-amine
B) N, N,3-Trimethyl pentan-3-amine
C) 3-Methyl-N,N, 3-Trimethyl pentanamine
D) Both A and B
14. The IUPAC name of the given structure is Cl
Br
A) 5-Bromo-6-chloro-1-cyclohex en-3-yne
B) 6-Bromo-5-chloro cyclohex en-3-yne
C) 6-Bromo-5-chloro cyclohex-3-en-1-yne
D) 4-Bromo-3-chloro cyclohex-1-en-5-yne
15. Which one of the following is the heterocyclic compound
A) Phenol B) Aniline C) Toluene D) Thiophene
16. The IUPAC name of CH3CH(OH) CH2CH2COOH is
A) 4-Hydroxy pentanoic acid B) 1-carboxybutan-3-ol
C) 1-carboxybutan-4-ol D) 4-carboxybutan-2-ol
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17. The suffix for alcohol, aldehyde and ketone according to IUPAC system are respectively
A) –alc, –ald, ket B) –ol, -al, ket C) –ol, –al, –one D) –one, –al, –ol
18. The IUPAC name of Cl3CCH2CHO is
A) Chloral B) 3,3,3-Trichloropropanal
C) 1,1,1-Trichloropropanal D) 2,2,2-Trichloro propanal
19. The IUPAC name of the compound is CH2 CH CH2
CN CN CN
A) 1, 2, 3-Tricyanopropane B) Propane tricarbylamine
C) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile D) 2-cyano pentane-1,5-dinitrile
20. The structure of 4-methyl pent-2-en-1-ol is
A) (CH3)2C = CHCH2CH2OH B) (CH3)2CHCH = CHCH2OH
C) CH3 CH2 CH = CH CH2OH D) CH3CH (OH) CH = C(CH3)2
21. The compound (RCO)2O belongs to the class
A) Alkanoid B) Acid anhydrides
C) Esters D) Alkendiones
22. The formula of propane nitrile is
A) CH3CN B) CH3CH2CN C) CH3CH2CH2CN D) CH3CH2NC
23. The common name of propanone is
A) Acetone B) Dimethyl ketone C) Ethyl methyl ketone D) Diethylketone
24. The incorrect IUPAC name is
A) CH3 C CH CH3 2-Methyl butan-3-one
O CH3
B) CH3 CH CH CH3 2, 3-Dimethyl pentane
CH3 CH2 CH3
C) CH3 – C C – CH(CH3)2 4-methyl pent-2-yne
D) CH3 CH CH CH3 2-Bromo-3-chlorobutane
Cl Br
25. The IUPAC name of CH2 = CH – CN is
A) Ethane nitrile B) Vinyl cyanide
C) Cyano ether D) Prop-2-enenitrile
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26. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
HO C CH CH2 OH
NH2
A) 3-Amino-2-hydroxypropanoic acid B) 2-Aminopropan-3-ol-1-oic acid
C) 2-Amino-3-hydroxy propanoic acid D) Amino hydroxy propanoic acid
27. The IUPAC name of C2H5 O C CH CH3 is
CH3
A) Ethoxy methanone B) Ethyl-2-methyl propanoate
C) Ethoxy propanone D) 2-methyl ethoxy propanone
CH CH CH2 CH CH2 CONH2
28. The IUPAC name of the following is CH3
NH2
A) 3-Aminohept-5-enamide B) 5-Amino hex-2-ene carbamide
C) 3-Amino-1-heptanamide D) 4-Amino hept-4-enamide
29. Which one of the following IUPAC name is incorrect
A) Ethanoic acid B) Ethanal C) Pent-3-ene D) 3-methyl pentan-2-ol
30. Ethanoyl chloride is the IUPAC name of
A) CH3CH2Cl B) CH3COCl C) CCl3CHO D) CH2ClCOOH
31. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is
A) isopropyl methyl ketone B) 2-methylbutan-3-one
C) 4-methyl isopropyl ketone D) 3-methyl butan-2-one
32. The group of heterocyclic compound is
A) Phenl, furan B) Furan, Thiophene
C) Thiophene, phenol D) Phenol, Aniline
33. Which of the following is the first member of ester homologous series
A) Ethyl ethanoate B) Methyl ethanoate
C) Methyl methanoate D) Ethyl methanote
34. Which of the following is the first member of acid anhydride homologous series
A) Methanoic anhydride B) Dimethanoic anhydride
C) Diethanoic anhydride D) Ethanoic anhydride
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35. How many secondary carbon atoms does methyl cyclopropane have
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) None
36. How many secondary carbon atoms does 1, 1-dimethyl cyclohexane have
A) 4 B) 2 C) 5 D) None
37. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
CH3 CH3
CH2 C C CH CH CH2 CH2 CH3
CH3 is
C2H5
A) 5-Ethyl-3,6-dimethyl non-3-ene B) 5-Ethyl-4,7-dimethyl non-3-ene
C) 4-Methyl-5,7-dimethyl oct-2-ene D) 2,4-dimethyl-5-methyl oct-2-ene
CH CH CH CH2 CH3
38. The IUPAC name of is
CH3
A) 1-Cyclohexyl-3-methyl pent-1-ene B) 3-Methyl-5-cyclohexyl pent-1-ene
C) 1-cyclohexyl-3-ethyl but-1-ene D) 1-cyclohexyl-3,4-dimethyl but-1-ene
39. IUPAC name of OH is
CH3
A) 5-methylhexanol B) 2-methylhexenol
C) 2-methyl hex-3-enol D) 4-methylpent-2-enol
CH2 C COOH
40. The correct IUPAC name of CH3 is
CH2
A) 2-methylbutanoic acid B) 2-ethylprop-2-enoic acid
C) 2-carboxy butene D) None of the above
CH3 CH3
41. IUPAC name of isooctane CH3 C CH2 CH CH3 is
CH3
A) 2,4,4-Trimethylpentane B) 2,2,4-Trimethyl pentane
C) Neo octane D) Isopropyl neobutayl methane
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CHO
42. The IUPAC name of CH3 CH CH CH2 CH3 is
Br
A) 2-methyl-3-bromo hexanal
B) 3-Bromo-2-methyl butanal
C) 3-Bromo-3-formyl pentane
D) 3-Bromo-2-methyl pentanal
43. Which among the following is 3-methylbutyl group
A) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – B) CH3 CH CH2 CH2
CH3
CH3 CH3
C) CH3 CH2 CH CH2 D) CH3 C CH2
CH3
44. List-I (Compounds) List-II (Number of carbons in the bridges)
A) P) [2.2.1]
B) Q) [4.3.0]
C) R) [4.4.0]
D) S) [3.2.0]
A) A S; B P; C R; D Q
B) A Q; B R; C S; D P
C) A P; B Q; C R; D S
D) A R; B P; C Q; D S
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45. List-I (Functional group) List-II (Suffix name
A) –CONH2 P) Carbonitrile
B) –CN Q) Carboxamide
C) –CHO R) Carboxylic acid
D) –COOH S) Carbaldehyde
A) A P; B Q; C R; D S
B) A Q; B P; C R; D S
C) A Q; B P; C S; D R
D) A S; B P; C Q; D R
46. Which of the following statements are correct
A) The IUPAC name of alkenes end with suffix ene
B) The IUPAC name of alkynes ends with suffix -yne
C) The substituents get lowest possible number in compared with functional group
D) The IUPAC name of acid amide is alkanamide
A) A, B, C, D B) A, C, D C) A, B, D D) C, D
O
47. The compound is named as CH3 CH2 C CH2
CH3
A) 2-methyl-1, 2-epoxybutane B) 1,2-Epoxy-2-methyl butane
C) 2-Ethyl-2-methyl oxirane D) 2-methyl-2-ethyloxirane
A) A, B B) B, C C) B,C,D D) A, B, C, D
Integer type questions
48. C5H12 give ............. types of alkyl group
HO
49. Number of carbon atoms in the parent chain of
CH3
50. Position of –CH3 group in the following compounds
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CHAPTER -10
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES-PART-II
(REACTION MECHANISM)
QUESTIONS
1. How many structural isomers are possible for the compound with M.F. C6H14
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
2. Pent-1-yne and 3-methyl-but-1-yne are
A) Chain isomers B) Position isomers
C) Functional isomers D) Metamers
3. Of the isomeric hexanes the isomers that give the minimum and maximum number of monochloro
derivatives are respectively
A) 3-methyl pentane and 2, 3-dimethyl butane
B) 2, 3-dimethyl butane and n-hexane
C) 2, 2-dimethyl butane and 2-methyl petane
D) 2, 3-dimethyl butane and 2-methylpentane
4. Which of the following pairs of compounds are not isomers
OH
OH CH3
A) and B) and
CH3 CH3 OH OH
CH3
OH CH3
CH2
C) and D) and
OCH3 HO CH3
OH
5. Maximum number of carbon atoms arranged linearly in the molecule CH 3 C C CH CH 2 is
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
6. Which of the following acids has the lowest value of acidic strength
A) CH3 CH COOH B) CH2 CH2 COOH
F F
C) CH2 CH2 COOH D) CH3 CH COOH
Br Br
7. Which among the following compounds is most stable
A) Ethene B) 1-butene
C) cis-2-butene D) 2, 3-dimethyl but-2-ene
8. Alkyl groups are orthopara directing because of
A) Inductive effect
B) Electromeric effect
C) Resonance
D) Hyperconjugation
9. The C–C single bond length in propene is less than 1.54 A0. This shrinkage is due to
A) Resonance
B) hyper conjugation
C) Inductive effect
D) Electromeric effect
10. The C – Cl bond length is shortest in
A) CH2 CH Cl B) CH3 – Cl
C) C6H5 – CH2 – Cl D) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl
11. Which among the following statements are true with respect to electronic displacements in a
covalent bond
1) Inductive effect operates through bonds
2) Resonance effect operates through bonds
3) Inductive effect operates through bond
4) Resonance effect operates through bond
5) Resonance and inductive effect operates through bond
A) 3 & 4 B) 1 & 2 C) 2 & 4 D) 1 & 3
12. The C–C bond length in benzene is
A) 1.54 A0 B) 1.34 A0 C) 1.20 A0 D) 1.39 A0
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13. Resonance is not observed in
CH2
A)
B) CH2 CH CH2
C) CH2 CH NH3
D)
14. Which of the following exhibit electromeric effect
A) Alkanes B) aldehydes C) alkyl halides D) alkyl amines
15. The order of decreasing stability of the following cations is
CH3 CH CH 3 CH3 CH O CH3 CH3 CH2
I II
III
A) III > II > I B) I > II > III C) II > I > III D) I > III > II
16. Which among the following is the second most stable carbocation?
CH2 CH CH3
A) B) C) D)
17. Which of the following intermediate have complete octect of electrons around the central carbon
atom?
A) Carbocation B) Carbanion C) Free radical D) Carbene
18. The most stable carbanion is
(-)
CH2CH2 CH2
A) B)
(-) (-)
C) CH3O CH2 D) O2N CH2
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19. Match the following :
A) C P) Triplet carbene
B) C Q) Singlet carbene
C) Magnetic moment R) sp2 hybridization
D) Ground state of carbene S) sp hybridization
A B C D A B C D
A) B)
(Q, R) (P,S) P R (P,S) (Q, R) P P
A B C D A B C D
C) D)
(P,S) (Q, R) P R (Q, R) (P,S) P P
20. Most stable carbene is :
H Cl
C C
A) B)
H Cl
NH2 NH2
C) C D) C
NH2 H
21. In nitrating mixture nitric acid acts as
A) Electrophile
B) Nucleophile
C) Acid
D) Base
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
22. In the following reaction
C
N
con H 2SO4
“X”. The structure of the major product “X” is
conc HNO3
O O
NO 2
C NO2
N C
A) B) N
H H
O O
C C
C) N D) NO2 N
H NO 2 H
23. Which is wrong statement?
A) SN2 mechanism proceeds through T.S
B) SN1 mechanism proceeds through carbonium ion
C) SN1 mechanism is a two step mechanism
D) SN1 mechanism results in complete inversion
24. SN1 reaction at an optically active halide leads to
A) a single stereo isomer
B) racemisation with slight excess of inversion product
C) complete inversion
D) Complete retention
25. SN2 reactivity is maximum in
A) CH3Br B) CH3I
C) CH3 CH2 Br D) (CH3)3C Cl
26. Chlorination of toluene in presence of sunlight is an example of
A) Free radical substitution
B) Electrophilic substitution
C) Nucleophilic substitution
D) Nucleophilic addition
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
27. The most reactive of the following towards nucleophilic addition is
CHO CHO CHO
CHO
A) B) C) D)
NO2 Cl CH3 O CH3
28. Dichlorocarbene is generated by the action of potassium t-butoxide on chloroform. This is an example
of
A) -elimination B) -elimination C) -elimination D) -elimination
29. The main product of the reaction CH3 CH CH2 CH3 + KOH (alc) Product is
Cl
A) CH2 – CH2 – CH = CH2 B) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
C) CH3 CH CH2 CH3 D) HO CH2 CH CH2 CH3
OH Cl
CH3
30. + CH3 CH CH2 Cl
AlCl
P . ‘P’ is
3
CH3 CH3
CH2 CH CH3 CH3 C CH3
A) B)
CH2 CH3
CH3
C) D)
CH3
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31. Which of the following statement is correct?
(i) and are chain isomers
Cl
(ii) Cl Cl and are position isomers
Cl
O OH
(iii) and are tautomers
(iv) Benzyl alcohol and o-cresol are functional isomers
A) (i) & (iv) B) (ii) & (iv) C) (ii) & (iii) D) all are correct
32. The decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution of the following compounds is
Cl NO2 CH3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 B) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2 C) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3 D) 4 > 2 > 1 > 3
33. Which of the following is most stable carbonium ion ?
A) B) C) D)
34. In which step of the following reaction, sp3 carbon changes to sp2 carbon?
H E
H
+ E+
Step1
E
Step 2
A) Step 1
B) Step 2
C) Both 1 & 2
D) reverse reaction of step (2)
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35. The decreasing order of electron density on the ring is
O
CH3 NH C CH3
C
1) NH 2)
O
H2N CH2 C CH3
3)
A) 3 > 2 > 1 B) 2 > 3 > 1 C) 1 > 3 > 2 D) 3 > 1 > 2
36. Number of electrons in conjugation for these compounds
N & will be respectively
N O
A) 8, 6, 6, 6 B) 6, 4, 6, 6 C) 6, 6, 6, 6 D) 8, 4, 2, 3
37. The correct stability order for the following species is
I) II)
O
III) IV)
O
A) II > IV > I > III B) I > II > III > IV C) II > I > IV > III D) I > III > II > IV
38. The increasing order of stability of the following free radicals is :
A) (CH3)2CH < (CH3)3C < (C6H5)2CH < (C6H5)3C
B) (C6H5)3C < (C6H5)2 CH < (CH3)3 C < (CH3)2 CH
C) (C6H5)2 CH < (C6H5)3 C < (CH3)3 C < (CH3)2 CH
D) (CH3)2CH < (CH3)3C < (C6H5)3C < (C6H5)2 CH
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CH3
39. Which of the following is the rearranged most stable carbocation of the given carbocation
CH3 CH3
A) B)
CH3 CH3
C) D)
40. The correct order of stability of the following free radicals is :
A) III > I > II > IV B) I > II > IV > III
C) IV > II > I > III D) I > III > II > IV
LEVEL-IV
H Cl
41. The type of reaction CHCl3 : CCl3 : CCl 2
is :
Dichlorocarbene
A) elimination B) elimination
C) elimination D) elimination
42. Which is not the position isomer of following compound?
CH2Cl
CH3
A) B)
CH2Cl Cl
CH3 CH3
C) D)
Cl Cl
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
43. Which of the following is the least stable carbocation?
A) B) C) D)
More than one correct answer type
44. Which of the following statements are correct for butadiene
1 2 3 4
C H2 C H C H C H2
A) The C1 – C2 and C3 – C4 bonds are larger than carbon-carbon double bond
B) The C1 - C2 and C3 – C4 bonds are shorter than carbon-carbon double bond
C) The C2 – C3 bond is shorter than C–C bond
D) The C2 – C3 bond is slightly larger than C=C bond
45. Which of the following aromatic rings have greater electron density than
H
CH3 C CH3
H
NH2 O
C
A) B)
CH3 C2H5
C) D)
46. Which of the following statement are correct
A) Polarprotic solvent favours SN1 mechanism
B) Reactivity of alkyl halide in E1 and E2 reaction is in the order 30 > 20 > 10
C) CH3 – gp is orthopara directing and activating due to +R effect
D) Rate of SN2 reaction in polar aprotic solvent are higher than in polar protic solvent
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
47. Column I Column II
CH CH3
A) P) stable due to resonance
B) CH3 O CH2 Q) Destabilised due to inductive effect
C) (CH3)3C– R) Stabilised by hyperconjugation
D) H 3C C H CH 3 S) A secondary cation
A) A – P,R,S; B – P; C – Q; D – R,S
B) A-P,Q; B-S; C-R;D-P,S
C) A-Q,R;B-R; C-P;D-P,R
D) A-Q,S;B-Q;C-P;D-Q,S
Numerical type questions
48. How many position isomers are possible for dichlorobenzene
49. Ratio of vapour density to the number of cyclic isomers are possible for the molecular formula C3H6O
(only structural)
50. The number of structural isomers on monochlorination of diphenyl methane is:
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CHAPTER -11
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES-PART-III
(PURIFICATION)
QUESTIONS
1. In the Lassaigne’s test, organic compound is fused with metallic sodium in order to
A) Increase the reactivity of organic compound
B) Decrease the melting point of organic compound
C) Convert the elements of the compound to ionic form
D) Increase the solubility of the organic compound
2. A compound which decomposes before its boiling point can be purified by
A) Simple distillation B) Fractional distillation
C) Distillation under reduced pressure D) Steam distillation
3. AgNO 3 solution is added to the sodium fusion extract prepared with excess of sodium of
chlorosulphanilic acid. The precipitate formed is
A) AgCl only B) AgCN only C) Ag2S only D) All of these
4. Lassaigne’s test for halogen will be negative in case of
Cl Cl F F
A) B) C) D)
Cl Cl
5. The formula of the blood red coloured compound, formed when sodium fusion extract of a compound
containing both N and S is treated with FeCl3
A) Fe(CNS)3 B) Fe(CNS)2
C) Fe(CNO)3 D) Fe(CNSO)
6. Estimation of which element is possible by Carius method?
A) Halogen B) Sulphur C) Phosphorous D) All of these
7. In Dumas method nitrometer contains
A) KOH solution B) Water C) HCl D) dil.H2SO4
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. Carbon and hydrogen are estimated by
A) Liebigs method B) Lassaignes test C) Dumans method D) Kjeldahl’s method
9. 40 ml nitrogen gas was collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure while estimating nitrogen
by Dumas method from 0.2 gm organic compound. Calculate the percentage proportion of ntirogen in
organic compound. (aqueous tension of water of 300 K = 15 mm)
A) 17.5% B) 20.95% C) 33.5% D) 42%
10. Sodium fusion extract is heated with conc. HNO3 before adding AgNO3 while detecting halogens to
A) Convert X2 into HX
B) Make the solution acidic
C) Release X2 from the compound
D) Destroy any NaCN or Na2S formed due to the presence of N and S as they interfere with the test
11. Stationary phase in paper chromatography is
A) Silica gel B) Organic solvent C) Water D) Al2O3
12. Naphthalene can be purified by
A) Distillation B) Vacuum distillation C) Steam distillation D) Sublimation
13. 0.36 gm BaSO4 is obtained from 0.26 gm organic compound. Find the percentage of sulphur in organic
compound
A) 19% B) 26% C) 9.9% D) 31%
14. A sample of 0.50 g of an organic compound was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The ammonia
evolved was absorbed in 50 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4. The residual acid required 60 ml of 0.5 M solution of
NaOH for neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
A) 36% B) 56% C) 40% D) 28%
15. Latest technique for purification, isolation and separation of organic compound is
A) Chromatography B) Steam distillation C) Crystallisation D) Vaccum distillation
16. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen cannot be tested by Lassaigne’s test?
A) C6H5NHNH2 B) NH2NH2 C) NH2CONH2 D) Ph–CONH2
17. Statement-I : A mixture of camphor and benzoic acid cannot be separated by sublimation
Statement-II : Camphor on heating sublimes but benzoic acid does not
A) Statement-I and II are correct
B) Statement-I is correct but not statement-II is incorrect
C) Both are incorrect
D) Statement-II correct I incorrect
18. Identify the incorrect statement
A) Lassaigne’s test can be used to detect nitrogen in hydrazine
B) During fusion with sodium metal, nitrogen and carbon of an organic compound combine to form
sodium cyanide
C) Nitrogen cannot be estimated in nitrobenzene by Kjeldahl’s method
D) Essential oils are purified by steam distillation
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
19. If the percentage of nitrogen in an organic compound is 12.5, the volume of N2 gas at STP, that may be
obtained from 0.56 g of the compound by Dumans method is
A) 112 ml B) 56 ml C) 11.2 ml D) 22.4 ml
20. In Lassaigne’s test for N, sometimes the colour appears green instead of prussian blue, because of
A) presence of Fe3+ B) Fe2+ salt C) Both A and B 4DExcess of NaCN
21. 20 ml H2SO4 was required to neutralise, ammonia produced by Kjeldahlisation of 0.6 g urea. The
normality of H2SO4 was
A) 1 B) 0.5 C) 0.25 D) 1.25
22. An organic compound is separated from its aqueous solution by
A) Distillation B) Solvent extraction
C) Steam distillation D) Distillation uder reduced pressure
23. Choose the incorrect statements
A) Oxidation number of Fe in nitroprusside ion is +2
B) I2O5 is oxidising agent used in Aluise method
C) Fluorine cannot be detected by Beilstein’s test
D) Paper chromatography is adsorption chromatography
24. 0.156 g of an organic compound on heating with excess of fuming nitric acid and silver nitrate produced
0.235 g of silver iodide. The percentage of iodine is
A) 29.5 B) 81.41 C) 75.2 D) 52.6
25. In Carius method of estimation of halogens, 250 mg of an organic compound gave 141 mg of AgBr.
The percentage of bromine in the compound is
A) 24 B) 26 C) 48 D) 60
26. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl’s method and the
M
evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 ml of sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 20 ml of
10
M
sodium hydroxide for complete neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
10
A) 3% B) 5% C) 6% D) 10%
27. 0.5 g of an organic substance containing phosphorous was heated with conc.HNO3 in the Carius
tube. The phosphoric acid thus formed was precipitated with magnesia mixture (MgNH4PO4) which
on ignition gave a residue of 1g of magnesium pyrophosphate (Mg2P2O7). The percentage of
phosphorous in the organic compound is
A) 55.85% B) 29.72% C) 19.18% D) 20.5%
28. 0.2 gram Mg2P2O7 is obtained during estimation of 0.5 g organic compound by Carius method. Then
calculate the percentage of phosphorous
A) 13.96% B) 15.75% C) 11.17% D) 23%
29. An organic compound containing sulphur is estimated by Carius method in which fuming HNO3 is
used to convert S into
A) SO32 B) SO 24 C) SO3 D) SO2
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
30. In Dumas method for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound, nitrogen is determined in the
form of
A) Gaseous nitrogen B) Sodium cyanide
C) Ammonium sulphate D) Gaseous ammonia
31. Two volatile and miscible liquids can be separated by fractional distillation into pure components
under the conditions
A) They have low boiling points
B) The difference in their boiling points in large
C) The boiling points of the liquids are close to each other
D) They donot form azeotropic mixture
32. Azeotropic mixture
A) Boils at different temperature B) Is mixture of solids
C) Is constant boiling mixtures D) None of these
33. In steam distillation the vapour pressure of the volatile organic compound is
A) Equal to atmospheric pressure B) Less than atmospheric pressure
C) More than atmospheric pressure D) None of these
34. Aniline has high boiling point, high vapour pressure at 100°C and is insoluble in water. Aniline is therefore,
separated by
A) Steam distillation B) Simple distillation
C) Distillation at low pressure D) Sublimation
35. An organic compound contains 40% C, 6.66% H and rest oxygen. Its vapour density is 30. Molecular
formulae of the compound is
A) CH2O B) C2H4O2 C) C2H6O2 D) C2H6O
36. 0.76g of the silver salt of a dibasic acid was ignited, it gave 0.54 g of pure silver. Molecular mass of the
organic acid is
A) 90 B) 80 C) 75 D) 95
37. The reagent that can distinguish between a carboxylic acid and phenol is
A) NaOH B) dil.HCl C) NaHCO3 D) Na2CO3
38. Unsaturation in an organic compound is detected using
A) NaOH B) dil.H2SO4 C) Br2 water D) Tollen’s reagent
39. Correct pair of compounds which gives blue colouration /precipitate and white ppt respectively: when
their Lassaigne’s test is separately done is
A) NH2NH2HCl and ClCH2COOH B) NH2CSNH2 and PhCH2Cl
H Me
N COOH
Cl
C) NH2CH2COOH and NH2CONH2 D) and
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
40. Empirical formula of a compound is CH2O and its molecular mass is 90. The molecular formula of the
compound is
A) C3H6O3 B) C2H4O2 C) C6H12O6 D) CH2O
41. 0.0833 mole of a carbohydrate of empirical formula CH2O contains 1g of hydrogen. The molecular
formula of the carbohydrate is
A) C5H10O5 B) C3H4O3 C) C12H22O11 D) C6H12O6
More than one correct answer type questions
42. The purity of an organic compound is determined by its
A) M.P. B) B.P. C) Crystalline state D) Colour
43. Select the organic compunds, which will give red colour in Lassaigne’s test?
A) NaCN B) H2N C NH2
C) NH2 C NH2 D) H2N SO3Na+
44. Phosphorous can be estimated by the following methods
A) Carius method B) Messenger’s method
C) Molybdate method D) Duma’s method
45. Which of the following statements is/are wrong?
A) Sulphur is estimated by Carius method as BaSO4
B) Victor-Meyer’s method is used for the determination of molecular mass of a non-volatile compound
C) Kjeldahl’s method is used for all nitrogen-containing organic compounds
D) Phosphorous is estimated by Carius method as Mg(NH4)PO4
46. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) Leibig’s method is used for the quantitative estimation of both C and H
B) Duma’s method is used for the quantitative estimation of N in all nitrogen containing organic
compound
C) In Liebig’s combustion method, ordinary CuO is used
D) Silver salt method is a chemical method for the determination of equivalent mass of organic acids
Interger type question
47. How many of the following are purified by sublimation?
Naphthalene, benzoic acid, Camphor, hexachloroethane, anthracene
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
48. Amongst the following Kjeldahl’s method can’t be used for
I) Ph–NO2 II) Ph–N = N–Ph III) Ph–NHCOPh
IV) V) VI) Ph–NH2
N N
VII) Acetone VII) Urea
49. Amonst the following, the total number of compound which give Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen
NH2
I) II) H2N–CH2–COOH III) NH2NH2 IV) H2N–OH
NO2
V) Ph–N=N–Ph VI) NH2–CO–NH2 VII) CH2N2 VIII)
Matrix match type questions
50. Match the organic compound in column-I with the Lassaigne’s test results in column-II approximately
Column-I Column-II
A) Aniline i) Red colour with FeCl3
B) Benzene sulphonic acid ii) Violet colour with sodium nitroprusside
C) Thiourea iii) Blue colour with hot and acidic solution of FeSO4
A) A ii; B i; C iii B) A iii; B ii; C i
C) A ii; B iii; C i D) A iii; B i; C ii
51. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Column-I (Compounds) Column-II (Reagents/Tests)
A) 1° aromatic amine p) Ceric ammonium nitrate
B) Alcohol q) Borsche’s reagent
C) Carboxylic acid r) Dye test
D) Aldehyde s) NaHCO3
A) A q; B r; C s; D p B) A r; B s; C p; D q
C) A r; B p; C s; D q D) A r, q; B p,s; C s; D q
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Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 12
HYDROCARBON
QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following represents the correct general formula of alkanes?
A) CnH2n B) CnH2n+2 C) CnH2n–2 D) CnHn
2. Methane, ethane and propane are said to form a homologous series because all are
A) hydrocarbon B) saturated compounds
C) aliphatic compounds D) differ from each other by a CH2 group
3. The number of chain isomers possible for the hydrocarbon C5H12 is
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
4. Sodium salt of carboxylic acids on heating with soda lime give alkanes containing .......... than the
carboxylic acid
1) Sodium salts of carboxylic acids on heating with soda lime give alkanes containing ................. than
the carboxylic acid
A) one carbon more B) one carbon less C) two carbon less D) Either a or b
5. Which one of the following has the least boiling point?
A) 2, 2-dimethylpropane B) n-butane
C) 2-methyl propane D) n-pentane
6. Which of the following represents the correct reaction?
A) CH 4 2H 2 O
Ni
CO 2 4H 2 B) CH 4 H 2 O
Ni
CO 3H 2
C) CH 4 H 2 O
Ni
CH 3CHO H 2 D) CH 4 H 2 O
Ni
HCHO 2H 2
7. How many conformations are possible for ethane?
A) 2 B) 3 C) infinite D) one
8. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is
A) 2-methyl propene B) 2-butene C) 2-methyl-2-butene D) propene
9. The major product formed when 2-bromobutane is treated with alcoholic KOH is
A) 2-Butanol B) 1-Butene C) 1-Butanol D) Trans-2-butene
153
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
10. When hydrochloric acid gas is treated with propene in presence of benzoyl peroxide, it gives
A) 2-chloropropane B) Allyl chloride C) No reaction D) n-Propyl chloride
11. When one mole of an alkene on ozonolysis produces 2 moles of propanone, the alkene is
A) 3-methyl-1-butene
B) 2,3-dimethyl-1-butene
C) 2,3-dimethyl-2-pentene
D) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
12. H3C CH CH CH2 + HBr A . A (predominantly) is
CH3
Br
CH3 C CH2 CH3
A) CH3 CH CH2 CH2Br B)
CH3
CH3
C) CH3 CH CH CH3 D) CH3 CH CH CH3
Br CH3 CH3 Br
13. A reagent used to test unsaturation in alkene is
A) Ammonical Cu2Cl2 B) Ammonical AgNO3
C) Solution of Br2 in CCl4 D) conc. H2SO4
14. Ethyl hydrogen sulphate is obtained by reaction of H2SO4 on
A) Ethylene B) Ethane C) Ethyl chloride D) Ethanol
15. One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde having a molecular
mass of 44 u. The alkene is
B) Propene B) 1-butene C) 2-butene D) ethene
16. The correct order towards bond length is
A) C–C < C=C < C C B) C C < C = C < C–C
C) C = C < C C < C – C D) C = C < C –C < C C
17. Calcium carbide when treated with water gives
A) Ethylene B) Methane C) Acetylene D) Ethane
18. Which of the following will be the final product when C2H2 reacts with HCl
CH CH3 CHCl
A) CHCl B) CHCl2 C) CHCl D) None of these
154
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
19. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is
A) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 C CCH 2 CH 2 CH 3
B) CH 3CH 2 C CH
C) CH 3CH CHCH3
D) CH 3CH 2 C CCH 2 CH 3
20. When acetylene is passed over heated iron tube, the product obtained is
A) C2H2 B) C4H4 C) C6H6 D) C8H8
21. But-2-yne on chlorination gives
A) 1-chlorobutane
B) 1,2-dichlorobutane
C) 1,1,2,2-tetrachlorobutane
D) 2,2,3,3-tetrachlorobutane
22. When propyne reacts with aqueous H2SO4 in the presence of HgSO4, the major product is
A) Propanal B) Propyl hydrogen sulphate
C) Acetone D) Propanol
23. In the given reactions
CH 3C CH
A
CH 3CBr2 CHBr2
CH 3C CH
B
CH 3CBr2 CH 3
2
CH3C CH
Hg / H
333 K
C
2
HC CH
Hg /H
333 K
D
A, B, C and D are respectively
A) HBr, Br2, CH3COCH3, CH3CHO
B) Br2 , HBr, CH 3COCH 3 , CH 3CHO
C) HBr, HBr, CH 3COCH 3 , CH 3CHO
D) Br2 , HBr, CH 3CH 2CHO, CH 3CHO
24. Benzene was discovered by
A) Ramsay B) Dalton C) Faraday D) Priestley
25. The ring structure of benzene was proposed by
A) Faraday B) Davy C) Kekule D) Wohler
155
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
26. Aromatic compounds burn with sooty flame because
A) they have a ring structure of carbon atoms
B) they have a relatively high percentage of hydrogen
C) they have a relatively high percentage of carbon
D) they resist reaction with oxygen of air
COONa
NaOH CaO
27.
The product A is
A) Benzene B) Benzaldehyde C) Toluene D) Benzoic acid
28. Chlorobenzene is o, p-directing in electrophilic substitution reaction. The directing influence is explained
by
A) +M of Ph B) +I of Cl C) +M of Cl D) +I of Ph
29. For the formation of toluene by Friedel Craft reaction, reactants used in presence of anhydrous AlCl3
are
A) C2H2 and CCl4 B) CH4 and CaCN2 C) C6H6 and CH3Cl D) C2H5OH and Zn
30. Which of the following is not formed by the reaction of Cl2 on CH4 is sunlight
A) CHCl3 B) CH3Cl C) CH3CH3 D) CH3CH2CH3
31. A reaction between methyl magnesium bromide and ethyl alcohol gives
A) Methane B) Ethane C) Propane D) Butane
32. A liquid hydrocarbon can be converted to gaseous hydrocarbon by
A) Cracking
B) Hydrolysis
C) Oxidation
D) Distillation under reduced pressure
33. Normal butane convert into isobutane by
A) LiAlH4 B) AlCl3 C) NaBH4 D) Zn/HCl
34. When 3, 3-dimethyl-2-butanol is heated with H2SO4 the major product obtained is
A) cis and trans isomers of 2, 3-dimethyl-2-butene
B) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene
C) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
D) 2,3-dimethyl-1-butene
35. The intermediate during the addition of HCl to propene in the presence of peroxide is
A) CH 3 C HCH 2 Cl B) CH 3 C HCH 3 C) CH 3CH 2 C H 2 D) CH 3CH 2 C H 2
156
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
36. Which of the following carbides can give hydrocarbon on reaction with water?
A) SiC B) CaC2 C) Be2C D) Al4C3
37. Which is/are correct statements about oxymercuration-demercuration?
A) Here rearrangement takes place
B) In the IInd step demercuration occurs that is NaBH4 reduces - HgOAc2 group to hydrogen
C) The net reaction is addition of water according to Markovnikoff rule
D) In the 1st step oxymercuration occurs that is water and Hg(OAc)2 add to double bond
38. Which of the following is/are correct statements concerning the mechanism for hydroboration oxidation?
A) A three-centered two electron bond joins two C atoms and one B atom as borane bonds to the
alkene
B) Three alkene molecules react with one borane
C) Borane forms a complex with the alkene
D) Addition takes place according to Markownikoff’s rule
39. Butane on vapour phase nitration can give
1) 2-nitrobutane 2) nitro methane 3) nitro propane 4) nitro ethane
40. Anti-Markownikov’s addition of HBr is/are observed in
1) Propene 2) But-1-ene 2) But-2-ene 4) Pent-3-ene
Matrix match type questions
41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Reaction) List-II (Reagent)
A) CH 3 CH CH 2 CH 3 CHBr CH 3 1) HBr
B) CH 3 CH CH 2 CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Br 2) NBS
C) CH 3 CH CH 2 BrCH 2 CH CH 2 3) Br2/CCl4
D) CH 3 CH CH 2 CH 3 CHBr CH 2 Br 4) HBr (peroxide)
A) A 2; B 1; C 3; D 4 B) A 3; B 2; C 4; D 1
C) A 1; B 4; C 2; D 3 D) A 4; B 3; C 1; D 2
Integer/Numerical type questions
42. How many moles of methane can be liberates when one mole of the compound reacts with CH3MgI
(excess)
CH3 CH CH2
HC C OH
COOH
157
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
43. Among H2O, C2H5OH, C2H5NH2, CH3COOH and how many compound will liberate methane
on treatment with CH3MgBr?
44. How many different products are obtained by reductive ozonolysis of o-xylene?
45. Moles of CH4 formed on hydrolysis of one mole of aluminium carbide?
46. Identify number of reactions that can give benzene as major product
OH
Zn ,
a) 3H C C H
Fe or CO
b)
Cl COOH
NaOH CaO
c)
NaBH 4
d)
N N
e) H3PO2
47. Each of the compounds shown below has two aromatic ring, labled as A and identify number of
compounds in which ring B is more active than ring A for electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction.
158
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
48. Match the column-I with column-II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column-I Column-II
A) Alkyl halide + sodium in presence of dry ether i) Sulphonation
B) Arene + Acid halide in presence of AlCl3 ii) Wurtz reaction
C) Arene + fuming sulphuric acid iii) Catalytic hydrogenation
D) Arene + Hydrogen in presence of Ni iv) Friedel-Crafts reaction
A) A i; B iii; C ii; D iv B) A iv; B ii; C iii; D i
C) A iii; B i; C iv; D ii D) A ii; B iv; C i; D iii
49. Match the columns
Column-I Column-II
A) CH 2 CH 2 CH3 CH 3 p) H2, Zn, H+
B) CH 3Cl CH 4 q) NaOH, CaO
C) CH 3 Br CH 3CH 3 r) H2, Pt/Pd
D) CH3COONa CH4 s) Na, Dry ether
A) A r; B p; C s; D q B) A p; B s; C r; D q
C) A s; B q; C p; D r D) A q; B p; C s; D r
50. Match the columns
Column-I Column-II
A) CH 4 O 2
Cu /523K /100 atm
p) HCHO
B) CH 4 O 2
Mo2 O3
q) (CH3)3COH
2 2
CH COO Mo
C) C2 H 6 O 2
r) CH3OH
D) (CH 3 ) 2 CH
KMnO4
oxidation
s) CH3COOH
A) A s; B p; C r; D s B) A q; B p; C s; D r
C) A r; B p; C s; D q D) A p; B q; C r; D s
159
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
CHAPTER - 13
ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following gases is not a green house gas?
A) CO B) O3 C) CH4 D) H2O vapour
2. Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. One of the following is not amongst
the components of photochemical smog, identify it.
A) NO2 B) O3
C) SO2 D) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
3. Which of the following statements is wrong?
A) Ozone is not responsible for green house effect.
B) Ozone can oxidise sulphur dioxide present in the atmosphere to sulphur trioxide.
C) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer present in stratosphere.
D) Ozone is produced in upper stratosphere by the action of UV rays on oxygen.
4. Sewage containing organic waste should not be disposed in water bodies because it causes major
water pollution. Fishes in such a polluted water die because of
A) Large number of mosquitoes.
B) Increase in the amount of dissolved oxygen.
C) Decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in water.
D) Clogging of gills by mud.
5. The gaseous envelope around the earth is known as atmosphere. The lowest layer of this is ex-
tended upto 10 km from sea level, this layer is _________.
A) Stratosphere B) Troposphere C) Mesosphere D) Hydrosphere
6. The pollutants which come directly in the air from sources are called primary pollutants. Primary
pollutants are sometimes converted into secondary pollutants. Which of the following belongs to
secondary air pollutants?
A) CO B) Hydrocarbon
C) Peroxyacetyl nitrate D) NO
7. Ozone depletion is pollution of
A) Stratosphere B) Ionosphere C) Mesosphere D) Troposphere
160
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
8. Which is incorrectly matched pair
A) Tolarable unit of pH in drinking water - 5.5 – 9.5
B) Maximum concentraction of Cd in drinking water - 0.005ppm
C) Methemoglobinemia - NO3–
D) Minamata disease - F–
9. The tolerable limit of fluoride in drinking water (in ppm) is
A) 1ppm B) 2 ppm C) 4.5 ppm D) 6 ppm
10. The process of Eutrophication is due to
A) Increase in concentration of insecticide in water
B) Increase in concentration of fluoride ion in water
C) The reduction in concentration of the dissolved oxygen in water due to phosphate pollution in
water.
D) Attack of a younger leaves of a plant by peroxyacylnitrate
11. Which of the following statements about sewage treatment is false :
A) In primary treatment large sized particles are filtered and residual water is subjected to
sedimentation.
B) Secondary treatment involves aerobic digestion of organic waste
C) In tertiary treatment the waste water is treated with lime to remove phosphate
D) Coagulation can be carried out by passing ozone through waste water
12. News paper contains a toxic material like :
A) Cadmium B) Lead C) Manganese D) Mercury
13. One of the metal used as a catalyst in automobiles catalytic converter is :
A) Palladium B) Copper C) Radium D) Iron
14. Lung diseases are about four times more in urban areas as compared to rural areas. This is due
to the presence of which of the following in atmosphere :
A) CO 2 B) NO 2 C) O2 D) N2
15. London smog is formed in :
A) Summer during daytime B) Summer during early morning
C) Winter during early morning D) Winter during day time
16. Negative soil pollution refers to :
A) Reduction in soil productivity due to over use and soil erosion
B) Reduction in soil productivity due to dumping of industrial waste
C) Conversion of fertile land into barren land by dumping ash, sludge etc
D) Conversion of fertile land into barren land by dumping ash, sludge etc
17. The fuel obtained from plastic waste is
A) green fuel B) Plastic fuel C) Waste fuel D) Organic fuel
161
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
18. The PAN in environmental chemistry
A) Peroxy acryl nitrate B) Peroxy acetyl nitrate
C) Peroxy acetyl nitride D) Phenyl amide nitrate
19. Addition of phosphate fertilizers into water leads to
A) Increased growth of decomposers B) Reduced algal growth
C) Increased algal growth D) Neutrient enrichment (eutrophication)
20. Presistent particles such as DDT pass into food chain and increase in amount per unit weight of
organisms due to their accumulation in fat. This phenomenon is called
A) Biodegradation B) Biomagnification
C) Biosynthesis D) Dcomposition
21. Photochemical smog is related to pollution of
A) Air B) Water C) Soil D) All the above
22. Cadmium pollution causes
A) Black foot disease B) Itai-itai disease
C) Blue-baby syndrome D) Minamata disease
23. Carbon dioxide content in atmosphere is
A) 0.0034% B) 0.034 % C) 0.34% D) 3.4%
24. Pollutant of automobile exhausts that affects nervous system and produces mental diseases is
A) Hg B) Pb C) CO2 D) NO
25. BOD is connected with
A) Organic matter B) Microbes
C) Microbes and organic matter D) None of these
26. Which is incorrect regarding Acid rain?
A) rain water has normal pH of 5.6 which when decreased is more acidic
B) it is caused by the presence of oxides of sulphur & nitrogen in the atmosphere
C) it is toxic to vegetation & equatic life
D) mist, smoke, fumes and dust are non - Viable particulates
27. Pneumoconiosis is caused by:
A) inhalation of small particulates B) CO2 C) NO2 D) SO2
28. Acid deposition in soils can be controlled by adding
A) CaCl2 B) CaSO4 C) Ca (OH)2 D) Ca F
29. Positive soil pollution is :
A) Reduction in soil productivity due to erosion and over use
B) Reduction in soil productivity due to addition of pesticides, fertilizers, and industrial waste
C) Converting fertile land into barren land by dumping ash, garbage, etc.
D) Reduction in soil productivity due to over drainage
162
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
30. Classical smog occurs in places of
A) Excess concentration of NO2
B) Low temperature
C) High temperature
D) Excess concentration of ammonia
31. Which of the following gases is not a green house gas?
A) CO B) O3 C) CH4 D) H2O vapour
32. Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. One of the following is not amongst the
components of photochemical smog, identify it.
A) NO2 B) O3 C) SO2 D) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
33. Which of the following statements is not true about classical smog?
A) Its main components are produced by the action of sunlight on emissions of automobiles and
factories
B) Produced in cold and humid climate
C) It contains compounds of reducing nature
D) It contains smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide
34. Biochemical Oxygen Demand, (BOD) is a measure of organic material present in water. BOD value
less than 5 ppm indicates a water sample to be ..................
A) Rich in dissolved oxygen B) Poor in dissolved oxygen
C) Highly polluted D) Not suitable for aquatic life
35. Which of the following statements is wrong?
A) Ozone is not responsible for green house effect
B) Ozone can oxidise sulphur dioxide present in the atmosphere to sulphur trioxide
C) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer present in stratosphere
D) Ozone is produced in upper stratosphere by the action of UV rays on oxygen
36. Sewage containing organic waste should not be disposed in water bodies because it causes major
water pollution. Fishes in such a polluted water die because of
A) Large number of mosquitoes
B) Increase in the amount of dissolved oxygen
C) Decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in water
D) Clogging of gills by mud
37. Which of the following statements about photochemical smog is wrong?
A) It has high concentration of oxidising agents
B) It has low concentration of oxidising agent
C) It can be controlled by controlling the release of NO2, hydrocarbons, ozone etc
D) Plantation of some plants like pinus helps in controlling photochemical smog
163
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
38. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Ozone hole is a hole formed in stratosphere from which ozone oozes out
B) Ozone hole is a hole formed in the troposphere from which ozone oozes out
C) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer of stratosphere at some places
D) Ozone hole means vanishing of ozone layer around the earth completely
39. Which of the following practices will not come under green chemistry?
A) If possible, making use of soap made of vegetable oils instead of using synthetic detergents
B) Using H2O for bleaching purpose instead of using chlorine based bleaching agents
C) Using bicycle for travelling small distances instead of using petrol/diesel based vehicles
D) Using plastic cans for neatly storing substances
40. Match the terms given in Column-I with the compounds given in Column-II
Column-I Column-II
i) Acid rain a) CHCl2 – CHF2
ii) Photochemical smog b) CO
iii) Combination with haemoglovin c) CO2
iv) Depletion of ozone layer d) SO2
e) Unsaturated hydrocarbons
A) i c, d; ii e, d; iii b; iv a
B) i d; ii c; iii a; iv b
C) i a; ii b; iii c; iv d
D) i b; ii a; iii d; iv c
41. Match suitably and choose the correct answer.
List I List II
i) viable particulate a) workers in Textile industry
ii) Nonviable particulate b) Bacteria, fungi etc.
iii) Black lung disease c) smoke, dust etc.
iv) white lung disease d) workers in coal mines
v) Beryllosis e) BeSO4, BeCl2 etc.
A) (i) - c, (ii) - a, b, (iii) - d, (iv) - a, (v) - b
B) (i) - a, (ii) - c, d, (iii) - b, (iv) - d, (v) - e
C) (i) - b, (ii) - c, e, (iii) - d, (iv) - a, (v) - e
D) (i) - a, (ii) - d, e, (iii) - b, (iv) - c, (v) - a
164
Class(XI)[JC & JW-2024 Module-II]
42. Column -I (pollutant of air/water ) Column-II (Threshold limit)
A) CO in air P) 50ppm
B) CO2 in air Q) 40ppm
C) Flurides in water R) 5000ppm
D) Nitrates in water S) less than 1ppm
E) BOD of pure water T) 1ppm
A) A P, B R,C Q, D S, E T
B) A Q, B R,C T, D P, E S
C) A S, B Q,C R, D T, E P
D) A T, B R,C P, D S, E Q
Integer type questions
43. The maximum prescribed concentration of Cd in drinking water (in mg/dm3)
44. Total number of green house gases from the following
a) methane b) ozone c) water vapour d) nitrous oxide
e) ozone f) CFC g) CO2 h) NO2 i) HNO3
45. Total number of nitrogen atom present in peroxy acyl nitrate
46. The maximum limit of nitrate in drinking water is (in ppm)
47. The pH of normal rain water is
48. Total number of fluorine atom present in fluoropatite is
49. How many of the following is/are the products of photochemical smog
i) PAN ii) Acrolein iii) Formaldehyde iv) Benzene
v) NO2 vi) CFC
50. In cold water, dissolved oxygen (DO) can reach up to ................. ppm
165
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