CODE 3.

3 30/40

CATEPATH:81

In certain parts of the world, particularly India and China, air pollution is an ever-growing public health
concern. This may be especially true for India, which reportedly surpassed China earlier this year in the
overall amount of fine particulate matter pollution its citizens are exposed to. A new paper has added to
the growing body of research indicating that India’s air pollution has become a matter of life and death.
The increase in people dying in India from air pollution will outpace the rate of such deaths in China, as
India drags its heels over environmental rules while opening more coal mines, the head of a U.S. research
group said on Thursday.

"India's situation is getting worse at a much faster speed than China," Dan Greenbaum, president of
Boston-based Health Effects Institute (HEI), told Reuters in Beijing. "It is definitely the case because
India has not taken as much action on air pollution."

HEI and a group of Chinese and Indian universities recently said that over half of world's air pollution-
related deaths were in China and India. In China, coal-fired plants have been the worst source of
pollution. But India has lagged behind in implementing stringent environment policies for coal emission.

From now until 2020, China aims to cut coal output by 500 million tons, or about 19 percent of its current
annual output, and reduce emission of major pollutants in the power sector by 60 percent. By contrast,
India has just only launched an emission standard for coal-fired power plants this year.

India is also ramping up coal production as Prime Minister Narendra Modi races to meet election
promises to provide electricity to a population of 1.3 billion. "Chinese actions to control emissions from
coal power plants and from industries are considerably stronger than the ones in India," Greenbaum said.

Indian Coal Secretary Anil Swarup did not immediately respond to a request for comment. He has
previously said India is setting a higher target for renewable energy and growing more trees than are
being uprooted by coal mining. He has also said coal can't be wished away because it is the cheapest form
of energy in a country where millions of people still go without electricity.

1. What does the word “its” in paragraph 1 refer to?

A. India

B. Air pollution

C. China

D. U.S

2. Why is India’s situation becoming worse much faster than China’s?

A. Because India has more people.

B. Because China is much richer.

C. Because India has not had much action on this problem.

D. Because India is a poor country.

3. Until 2020, China aims to reduce approximately _______ of its current annual emission of major
pollutants.

A. 500 million tons

B. 19 percent

C. 60 percent

D. All of these above

4. According to HEI, ________ world’s death related to pollution were in China and India.

A. A half of

B. Over fifty percent of

C. 50 percent of

D. One- third of

5. Which has been considered the most serious source of pollution in China?

A. mines

B. environmental policies

C. emission

D. coal-fired plants

6. The word “ones” in paragraph 5 refers to.

A. Coal production

B. Electricity

C. Chinese actions to control emissions

D. Power plants and industries

7. Which of the following words does the word “launched” have closest meaning to?
A. Carried out

B. Took off

C. Put away

D. Got in

8. What is the Greenbaum’s attitude towards actions to control emission from coal power plants and
industries?

A. He thinks that China will be more successful in doing these things.

B. He believes that China has stronger actions than India.

C. He is disappointed about these actions.

D. He doesn’t believe that China has more effective actions than China.

9. What is the writer’s purpose?

A. To support developing coal mines.

B.To warn people against coal emission.

C. To compare the actions towards coal emission of China and India.

D. To prevent coal emission in China and India.

10. What does Anil Swarup imply about coal?

A. It is an extremely essential kind of energy in India at present.

B. It is very harmful to people.

C. It is a kind of renewable energy.

D. It is very expensive at present.

CATEPATH:82

People generally use spices every day when preparing meals. Most of these spices are readily available in
local supermarkets. However, in the 15th and 16th centuries, spices were available as gold or diamonds.
Spices are small plants or parts of plants, such as ginger, pepper, vanilla, and cinnamon, which are used to
add flavor to our food. In those times, spices also helped keep meat from spoiling. Such a use for spices
actually goes all the way back to Roman times. The Roman used spices such as cumin and coriander to
help preserve food.
The spices came to Europe from countries to the east, such as the islands in the East Indies, Sri Lanka,
and India. For centuries, Arab traders had carried the spices over land and sold them to European
countries. Because of the long journeys involved, they were very expensive.

European sailors began to look for routes to these countries themselves in order to bring back the spices
by sea. In 1498, a Portuguese explorer named Vasco da Garma reach an East Indies island called Calicut .
Six years earlier, Spanish explorer Christopher Columbus had been looking for spices when he discovered
America. In 1519, another Spanish explorer, Ferdinand Magellan, found a new trade route by sailing
west across the Atlantic Ocean, around the southern tips of both South America and Africa, and back to
Europe.

For the next four centuries, Western countries raced each other for control of the spice trade in these new
countries, which they called the “New World”. Portugal was the leader until the end of the 16th century.
Spain was in control during much of the next 100 years. Then, Holland, took over. The Dutch controlled
the East Indies, but, in 1780, England defeated them in a famous war. The English then moved from the
islands to India. They treated the people there badly a.nd made them submit to the British government.

India finally became independent from Britain in the 1940s. Today, it is still called “the land of spices”.
In fact, at present India produces 2.5 million tons of spices each year and produces more types of spices
than any other countries. Though they might not be as available today as gold or diamonds, spices are still
big business around the globe.

11. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to.

A. Arab traders

B.The spices

C. European countries

D. The long journeys

12. When were spices as available as gold or diamonds?

A. In the 15th century

B. In the 16th century

C. Both A and B

C. None of them
13. How long did Spain control the spice trade in “New World”?

A. One century

B. 16 centuries

C. In 1780

D. 6 years

14. What was the name of an East Indies island reached by Vasco da Gama?

A. Sri Lanka

B. India

C. Calicut

D. America

15. What does paragraph 3 mainly discuss?

A. The purpose of spices

B. The European search for sea-trading routes

C. Arab control of the spice trade

D. The European battle to control the spice trade

16. What functions of spices are not mentioned in the passage?

A. Make the food more tasteful.

B. Prevent food from spoiling.

C. Make contribution to protect food.

D. Help to increase nutrients.

17. What does the word “them” in paragraph 4 refer to?

A. The Dutch

B. The English

C. The people

D. The British
18. What is the writer’s purpose?

A. To warn and prevent the use of spices.

B. To report the results of a research paper.

C. To support the use of spices.

D. To present the history of spices.

19. Which of the following could best replace the word “submit” in paragraph 4?

A. Surrender authority

B. Kneel

C. Join the army

D. Give spices

20. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence
in the passage?

A.Ferdinand Magellan, an explorer from Spain, sailed between South America and Africa in1519.

B.Spices were discovered in South America and Africa by the Spanish explorer Magellan.

C.Seeking new trade routes, Magellan sailed back to Spain in 1519.

D. In 1519, the Spanish explorer Magellan sailed all the way around the world in search of new spice
trade routes.

CATEPATH:83

Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course, there
are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has
opened up a wide range of internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical
expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of webmaster.
However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and
responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a webmaster to perform.

To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software that the
website the webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require
different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally
(at the firm itself) or externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the
responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently , or
whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can
create and accurate webmaster job description.

Webmaster is one type of internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer
applications. However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high
demand. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media”.

The term “new media” is difficult to define because it encompasses a constantly growing set of new
technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes websites, email, internet telephony, CD-ROM, DVD,
streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer
illustration, video games, virtual reality and computer artistry.

With many companies having to downsize in tough economic times, the outsourcing and contracting of
freelance workers online has become common business practice. The internet provides an infinite pool of
buyers from around the world with whom freelancers can contract their services. An added benefit to such
online jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own country of
residence.

How much can a person make in these kinds of careers? As with many questions related to today’s
evolving technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with
technical internet skills salaries well above 70,000 dollars a year. Generally, webmasters start at about
30,000 dollars per year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been known
to make between 40,000 dollars to 70,000 dollars per year.

21. What do the qualifications and responsibilities of a webmaster depend on?

A. the growth of new media

B. a minimal level of technical expertise

C. one basic job description

D. tasks a particular organization needs a webmaster to perform

22. What does the word “them” in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. companies

B. new job opportunities

C. hardware and software

D. webmasters

23. What does passage 2 mainly discuss?

A. the factors which involve in the process of specifying the job description

B. the job description

C. the qualifications of a webmaster

D. the tasks for doing of a webmaster

24. The word “identify” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. name

B. estimate

C. discount

D. encounter

25. According to the passage, which of the following is true about webmasters?

A. They never work independently.

B. They require a minimal level of expertise.

C. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.

D. They do not support software products.

26. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT

A. There are online jobs available for workers with minimal computer skills.

B. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.

C. Online workers cannot free themselves from the office.

D. “New media” is not easy to define.

27. What is the purpose of this passage?

A. to inform people about the tasks and role of a webmaster

B. to inform people about the computer industry

C to inform people about employment related to the internet

D. to explain why webmasters make a lot of money

28. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in
the passage?

A. The term “new media” is hard to state because it covers so much skill and

technology.

B. The ever-expanding set of new technology and the knowledge based on that

technology make the exact meaning of “new media” difficult to specify.

C. Because it is constantly growing, the skills for “new media” are difficult to

encompass.

D. Because technology and skills for that technology are always encompassing more

fields, the expression “new media” is impossible to specify.

29. The word “infinite” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by which of the following?

A. confined

B. measurable

C. bounded

D. unlimited

30. What can be inferred from the passage?

A. Online workers can work full time online.

B. Only skilled workers make good money.

C. It is easy to become a webmaster.

D. Workers with limited computer skills cannot work online.

CATEPATH:84

In the course of history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy
available for use for each person. Primitive people in cold regions burned animal dung to heat their caves,
cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was
taken when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fat in lieu of gathered or cut
wood. Charcoal gave off a more intensive heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic
fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into
extensive use until the Industrial Revolution.

In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and
other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as
wood, water streams, domesticated animal labour and wind. These were predominantly locally available
supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and
European countries was obtained from wood. However, at the beginning of the 20th century, coal became
a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions and
climate zones wood was more accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of
energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as main source of fuel because they are lighter
and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, a
very important consideration in the early 1900s, automobiles arrived on the scene.

By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels such as oil, coal and natural gas provided over 82 percent of the
commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear
fission and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perceptual and renewable fuels, such as
biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy to
electricity. The energy derived from non-renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one
location and transported to another, as in the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private
rather than public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite
resource that will have to be replaced.

Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples. The
extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labour
consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur and nitrogen rich, and large-scale extractions are
presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is
complex. Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that carry
them, and modern technology is not sufficiently versatile for a large-scale removal of the material.
However, both sources of fuels may eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and
limitations in fossil fuel availability make alternative deposits more attractive.

31. What does the word “their” in paragraph 1 refer to?

A. human inventions

B. primitive people

C. cold regions

D. animals
32. According to the passage, the sources of fossil fuels will have to be replaced because

A. They need to be transported.

B. They are not efficient.

C. Their use is centralized.

D. Their supply is limited.

33. The phrase “in lieu” is closest in meaning to

A. spite

B. in place

C. in every day

D. in charge

34. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Applications of various fuels.

B. Natural resources and fossil fuels

C. History of energy use

D. A historical overview of energy rates

35. The author implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were

A. used for commercial purposes

B. used in various combinations

C. not derived from mineral deposit

D. not always easy to locate

36. The word “prohibitive” is closest in meaning to

A. prohibited

B. provided

C. too expensive
D.Too expedient

37. According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?

A.It was a concentrated source of energy.

B.It was lighter and cheaper than coal.

C.It replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.

D.It could be converted to automobile fuel.

38. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th century energy was obtained

primarily from

A. fossil fuels.

B. nuclear fission

C. hydraulic and solar sources

D. burning biomass

39. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that

A. Coal mining was essential for primitive peoples.

B. The Greeks used coal in industrial production.

C. The development of efficient fuels was a gradual process.

D. The discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental.

40. The author implies that alternative sources of fuel are currently

A.being explored

B. being used for consumption

C. available in few locations

D. examined on a large scale

Last

PASSAGE 1 – QUESTIONS 1-10

25/40

CBRE: VN to benefit from TPP

update 08:50 | 31/10/2015

VietNamNet Bridge – As the least developed of the Trans-Pacific Partnership member nations, Viet Nam
is most likely to become the biggest beneficiary of the agreement with an increase in GDP, FDI and
exports of manufactured goods, lower cost of imports, and higher productivity due to more external
competition, a global property consultancy has claimed.

The TPP was expected to add US$46 billion to Viet Nam's GDP of $200 billion in 10 years, a report from
CBRE (Vietnam) Co said. The sectors that would benefit the most are garment and textile, fisheries, and
agriculture. The current tax of 17-20 per cent slapped on Viet Nam's garments and textiles in the US
would go once the deal became effective. Japan was also committed to eliminating tariffs on 66 per cent
of fish and seafood import items and 32 per cent of agricultural imports.

Other tariffs would be reduced or eliminated gradually over the next 20 years. Australia, Malaysia and
New Zealand would also scrap more than 90 per cent of their agricultural tariffs immediately. "Although
we believe the impact of TPP on the local real estate market is not as significant as the industries
mentioned above, real estate-related sectors like industrial parks, warehouses, and logistics may observe a
certain boost in demand resulting from increasing foreign investment.”

What it means for VN real estate

Regardless of the long term impact of TPP, real estate stakeholders still had a very positive attitude
towards the deal.

Industrial land and warehouse: The TPP will spur more investments into Viet Nam, especially from
countries that are big importers of Viet Nam's products like the US and Japan. US investment in Viet
Nam remains modest compared to South Korea and Japan. American companies will increase
manufacturing activities in Viet Nam and reimport made-in-Viet Nam products thanks to the country's tax
exemption on major products such as garment and textile. They will likely target industrial land in the
southern provinces of Viet Nam, where a number of existing garment and textile factories are located.

Logistics: Increasing trade flow will result in higher demand for logistics services. There will be greater
need for infrastructure, including roads, railways, seaports and airports to facilitate the logistics sector.

Office and Accommodation: Increasing foreign investment and growing demand for foreign companies to
set up in Viet Nam will drive up demand for international standard office space. Given the limited supply
of high-quality space in both Ha Noi and HCM City, future office developers might want to review their
development plans to speed up the office development process.

Land price: Although it might be too early to conclude the possibility of land prices increasing, growing
demand for industrial land and limited supply of quality land are the two factors that will drive the price
of land, especially in areas most sought after by textile and garment manufacturers like Binh Duong,
Dong Nai, and Long An.
The TPP, a deal by 12 Pacific Rim countries including Viet Nam on October 5 after five years of
negotiations, will cut trade barriers and set common standards for member countries that comprise 40 per
cent of the world's economy and over half of global production. The 12 countries are Brunei, Malaysia,
Singapore, Viet Nam, Japan; Canada, Chile, Mexico, Peru, USA; Australia and New Zealand.

1. Vietnam will become the biggest beneficiary of TPP because …

A. it is the smallest country

B. it is the least developed country

C. it has the giggest population

D. it has skillful workers

2. What is the main reason for Vietnam to have a higher productivity after joining in TPP?

A. external competition

B. cheap labour force

C. lower cost of imports

D. skilled workers

3. In 10 years from now, Vietnam’s GDP may reach …

A. $46 billion

B. $200 billion

C. $300 billion

D. $246 billion

4. Which of the following sectors is not mentioned in the text as one that would benefit the most?

A. Garment and texttile

B. Fisheries

C. Automobile

D. Agriculture

5. The underlined word ‘eliminating’ has the cloest meaning to “…”

A. forbidding

B. removing

C. increasing

reducing

6. Which of the following is not listed as one of the real estate-related sectors?
 A. Industrial parks

B. Warehouses

C. Logistics

D. Hotels

7. The underline pronoun ‘They’ refers to …

A. US investment

B. South Korean companies

C. American companies

D. Japanese companies

8. The underlined sentence is closest in meaning to ‘…’

A. Although the supply of high-quality space in Ha Noi and Ho Chi Minh is limited, future office
developers might want to review their development plans to speed up the office development
process.

B. Because the supply of high-quality space in Ha Noi and Ho Chi Minh is limited, future office
developers might want to review their development plans to speed up the office development
process.

C. If the supply of high-quality space in Ha Noi and Ho Chi Minh is limited, future office
developers might want to review their development plans to speed up the office development
process.

D. No matter the supply of high-quality space in Ha Noi and Ho Chi Minh is limited, future
office developers might want to review their development plans to speed up the office
development process.

9. The TPP countries take …

A. two fifths of the world’s economy. 2/5

B. one third of the world’s economy.

C. two thirds of the world’s economy.

D. one fourth of the world’s economy.

10. According to the passge, when joining TPP, …

A. Viet Nam will have a lot of difficulties.

B. Viet Nam will become more developed than other countries in TPP.

C. Viet Nam will double its GDP in 10 years.

D. Viet Nam will benefit a lot.

PASSAGE 2 – QUESTIONS 11-20

A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than 20 years ago
and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes.

The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very
obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-
protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.

There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving
signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or
television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is
enough to tempt any burglar.

Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the
doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the
intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet,
desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any potential criminal from
approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your house.

But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided to
target your home? Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows
provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe.
Before going to bed you should double-check that all windows and shutters are locked. No matter how
small your windows may be, it is surprising what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get
through. For extra security, fit window locks to the inside of the window.

What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have
top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a
burglar alarm if you can afford it as another line of defence against intruders.

A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of
breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and,
particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure.
When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you are absolutely sure they are
genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.

If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an
intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. Far better to telephone the police and wait
for help.

11. The underlined word ‘burgled’ is closest in meaning to …

A. sold

B. bought
 C. broken into

D. destroyed

12. A well-protected house …

A. is less likely to be burgled.

B. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals.

C. is a lot of bother to maintain.

D. is very unlikely to be burgled.

13. According to the writer, we should …

A. avoid leaving our house empty.

B. only go out when we have to.

C. always keep the curtains closed.

D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.

14. When you go out, you should do the following to keeping burglars away EXCEPT …

A. leave at least one light on

B. turn on the TV

C. move the computer to the window

D. close the curtains

15. When at home, what should you do to prevent burglars from entering your house?

A. lock all the windows, shutters and doors

B. leave the shutters open

C. leave the patio door open

D. leave the window open

16. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot …

A. is a predictable place to hide it.

B. is a useful place to hide it.

C. is imaginative.

D. is where you always find a spare key.

17. Gaining entry to a house through a small window …

A. is surprisingly difficult.
 B. is not as difficult as people think.

C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door.

D. is tried only by very determined burglars.

18. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms …

A. cost a lot of money but are worth it.

B. are good value for money.

C. are luxury items.

D. are absolutely essential items.

19. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole …

A. will prevent your home being burgled.

B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.

C. is only necessary for elderly people.

D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.

20. The underlined sentence is closest in meaning to …

A. you should approach the intruder.

B. you should not come close to the intruder.

C. you shoud fight the intruder.

D. you should arrest the intruder.

PASSAGE 3 – QUESTIONS 21-30

England's highest main-line railway station hangs on to life by a thread: deserted and unmanned since
it was officially closed in 1970. Dent, situated high in the hills of Yorkshire, wakes up on six summer
weekends each year, when a special charter train unloads walkers, sightseers and people who simply
want to catch a train from the highest station, on to its platforms.

But even this limited existence may soon be brought to an end. Dent station is situated on the Settle to
Carlisle railway line, said to be the most scenic in the country. But no amount of scenic beauty can
save the line from British Rail's cash problems. This year, for the sake of economy, the express trains
which used to pass through Dent station have been put on to another route.

It is now an open secret that British Rail sees no future for this railway line. Most of its trains
disappeared some time ago. Its bridge, built on a grand scale a century ago, is falling down. It is not
alone. Half-a-dozen railway routes in the north of England are facing a similar threat. The problem is a
worn out system and an almost total lack of cash to repair it. Bridges and tunnels are showing their age,
the wooden supports for the tracks are rotting and engines and coaches are getting old.

On major lines between large cities, the problem is not too bad. These lines still make a profit and cash
can be found to maintain them. But on the country branch line, the story is different. As track wears
out, it is not replaced. Instead speed limits are introduced, making journeys longer than necessary and
discouraging customers.

If a bridge is dangerous, there is often only one thing for British Rail to do: go out and find money from
another source. This is exactly what it did a few months ago when a bridge at Bridlington station was
threatening to fall down. Repairs were estimated at £200.000 - just for one bridge - and British Rail was
delighted, and rather surprised, when two local councils offered half that amount between them.

21. The underlined phrase ‘hangs on to life by a thread’ is closest in meaning to ‘…’

A. is in a good situation.

B. is hung on.

C. no longer exists.

D. is in a difficult situation.

22. The underlined word ‘unmanned’ is cloest in meaning to ‘…’

A. inhumane.

B. non-human.

C. without operating people.

D. without passengers.

23. Since 1970 Dent Station has been used …

A. only for a part of each year.

B. only in some years.

C. only by local people.

D. only by hill walkers.

24. Of all the railway routes in Britain the one which passes through Dent …

A. is the most historic.

B. passes through the most attractive countryside.

C. is the most expensive to maintain.

D. carries the greatest number of tourists.

25. The underlined phrase ‘for the sake of economy’ is closest in meaning to ‘…’
 A. in order to save money

B. in order to raise money

C. in order to attract tourists

D. in order to widen the railway system

26. The underlined word ‘its’ refers to …

A. Dent station.

B. Yorkshire

C. British Rail.

D. railway line.

27. The most urgent problem for many country railway lines is that of…

A. rebuilding bridges.

B. repairing engines.

C. renewing coaches.

D. repairing stations.

28. The people most affected by the difficulties facing British Rail would appear to be …

A. business men.

B. organised groups of holiday makers.

C. inter-city travellers.

D. occasional and local travellers.

29. In order to improve the financial situation of country railway lines British Rail should…

A. introduce speed limits.

B. reduce the scale of maintenance.

C. increase fares.

D. appeal to local councils.

30. The prospect the country railway lines might close is viewed by the author with …

A. anger.

B. approval.

C. regret.

D. surprise.
PASSAGE 4 – QUESTIONS 31-40

Our first surprise when we arrived at our holiday destination in the Dordogne in France was the welcome
we received from the artists who owned the cottage we had rented. We went to pick up the key from them
and were sat down in their garden and given wine and biscuits and made to feel very much at home.

Our second surprise, on being taken to our holiday house two miles away, was to find a delightful 17th
century cottage — complete with antique furniture - very different from the basic houses we have stayed
in on previous French holidays.

The beautiful cottage was in a village 20 miles east of Bergerac and about three miles from the busy little
town of Lalinde. The Dordogne is a very popular part of France for English tourists and one cannot go far
without meeting another English car. However, in the little hillside village of Couze we felt truly in
France. One of my pleasures in the morning was to wander up the road to the baker's, exchanging
comments with the locals, most of whom had been born in the village. They were all very welcoming and
happy to chat.

The attractions of the Dordogne are well-known, but they deserve their reputation. Towns such as Sarlat
and Domme are incredibly beautiful with their medieval stone buildings, and the view from the heights of
Rocamadour is breath-taking. In all the popular towns it is easy to escape from the main roads, which
have been commercialised, and wander in the flower-filled back streets.

Castles and fortified towns built by both the French and the English are a constant reminder of the
Hundred Years' War — now seeming attractive rather than threatening. There are many riverside beaches
and lakes where one can swim. Boats can be hired for a journey down the Dordogne river and sightseeing
everywhere is cheap, with low charges for entrances to castles and caves and few car parking charges.

The many restaurants are also an attraction of the area with their specialties of pale, duck and goose, and
regional wines. You can pay anything from about £4.50 each for a full though basic meal, but you can
have a good meal with wine for an average of 9 each. There are, of course, some superb - and delightful -
restaurants where for £20-£30 per person you can have a feast!

We have booked our holiday through Vacances who have a most attractive selection of properties
throughout France, ranging from seaside cottages in Brittany to farmhouses in the Ardeche.

By Liz Oliver.

Liz Oliver obviously enjoyed her stay at Le Chateau (D19) in the Dordogne - and now we'd like to hear
your account of an enjoyable Vacances holiday. The best article, which should be no longer than 400
words, will be published in a following issue of Vacances News and there's a prize of two bottles of
champagne.

31. When the writer first arrived in the Dordogne she was surprised …

A. to find the owners of their holiday cottage were artistic.

B. to find the owners also rented other holiday cottages.

 C. by the wine and food left in the holiday cottage by the owners.

D. by the friendliness of the owners of their holiday cottage.

32. Which of the following welcoming actions by the owners is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. to invite the writer to sit down in their garden

B. to offer the writer some wine

C. to offer the writer biscuits

D. to invite the writer to have dinner

33. The cottage which the writer had rented was …

A. two miles away from a house they had previously rented.

B. next door to the bakery.

C. situated on a hillside in a small village.

D. twenty miles away from the nearest village.

34. Each morning when the writer took a walk, she …

A. saw English cars along the road.

B. got into conversation with the local inhabitants.

C. spent a long time talking to the local baker.

D. admired the flowers in the back streets.

35. Dordogne is famous for the following attractions EXCEPT …

A. beautiful buildings

B. good view from the heights of Rocamadour

C. modern houses

D. streets full of flowers

36. The underlined word ‘breath-taking’ is closest in meaning to ‘…’

A. out of breath.

B. impressive.

C. tiring.

D. ugly.

37. The only criticism the writer makes of the area is …

A. the constant reminders of the Hundred Years' War.

 B. the lack of car parks.

C. the high cost of the food.

D. the effects of tourism on some town centres.

38. The underlined word ‘feast’ is closest in meaning to ‘…’

A. buffet

B. barbecue

C. big meal

D. dinner

39. The holiday company asks readers to …

A. take part in a competition.

B. book a holiday at Le Chateau in the Dordogne.

C. buy the next issue of Vacances News.

D. write and ask for two free bottles of champagne.

40. The underlined word ‘account’ is closest in meaning to ‘…’

A. bank

B. description

C. opinion

D. voice

Minh.

CATEPATH:81 32/40
JAKARTA, 10 November 2015 – Italy is seeking to further deepen its relationship with
ASEAN and will work with other Members of the European Union to further promote
ASEAN-EU Dialogue Relations. President of the Italian Republic, Honourable Sergio
Mattarella, conveyed this message today when he made an official visit to the ASEAN
Secretariat and met with Secretary-General of ASEAN, H.E. Le Luong

Secretary-General Minh welcomed the President and noted that it was the first visit to the
ASEAN Secretariat by a Head of State of an EU Member State. He recalled Italy's
successful hosting of the 10th Asia-Europe (ASEM) Summit in October 2014 in Milan,
which contributed to advancing dialogue and cooperation among countries in Asia and
Europe.

S.G. Minh acknowledged the important role Italy is playing to promote ASEAN-EU
Dialogue Relations. He recalled the agreement reached between ASEAN and the EU to
intensify efforts towards further deepening the relations, including the possibility of
establishing an ASEAN-EU Strategic Partnership. He further cited the decision made by
ASEAN and EU in March 2015 to resume region-to-region Free Trade Agreement
(FTA) negotiations after the launch of the ASEAN Community at the end of this year.

President Mattarella acknowledged the excellent relationship Italy has with ASEAN and
its Member States, and expressed the confidence that his visit to the countries in the
region would contribute to advancing the existing mutually beneficial ties, in which vast
potentials have yet to be tapped. He sees similarity in the integration process in the EU
and ASEAN, which have been instrumental in forging peace, stability and economic
development. He assured of Italy's contributing role and support towards to the goals and
objectives of ASEAN Community. He firmly believed in future of ASEAN-EU strategic
partnership and expressed Italy's strong commitment to working with ASEAN in areas
such as political and security, trade and investment and connectivity. He strongly
supported the resumption of a region-to-region FTA.

Secretary-General Minh informed that ASEAN is moving steadily towards realising an

integrated, well-connected, and people-oriented Community. He added that ASEAN will
adopt ASEAN Community 2025 vision to guide the Community's integration process
over the next 10 years. In this connection, he said that the continued support extended to
ASEAN by its external partners, including the EU and EU Member States such as Italy,
is of high importance to ASEAN's success and achievements.

Former Prime Minister of Italy, H.E. Enrico Letta, who accompanied President
Mattarella, took the opportunity to announce the establishment of the Forum Italia-
ASEAN, which would serve as a platform to provide greater awareness for Italian private
sector and businesses on the trade and investment opportunities in ASEAN.

1. What does “this message” in the first paragraph refer to?

A. Italy wants to further deepen its relationship with ASEAN and will promote
EU-ASEAN Dialogue Relations.
B. Italy wants to further deepen its relationship with ASEAN.
 C. Italy will promote EU-ASEAN Dialogue Relations.
D. Italy is seeking for business in ASEAN countries.
2. According to the passage, how many times have ASEAN Secretaritat been visited
by a Head of State of an EU Member State?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Three times
D. Four times
3. Which country hosted the 10th Asia-Europe (ASEM) Summit?
A. Vietnam
B. France
C. Singapore
D. Italy
4. What contributed to advancing dialogue and cooperation among countries in Asia
and Europe?
A. President Mattarella’s visit
B. The ASEAN Community
C. The 10th ASEM Summit
D. Italy’s success
5. When will the ASEAN Community be launched?
A. In January 2015
B. In August 2015
C. In December 2015
D. In February 2016
6. What was NOT mentioned by S.G. Minh in paragraph 3?
A. Establishment of ASEAN-EU Strategic Partnership
B. Italy’s promotion of ASEAN Community
C. Italy’s role in ASEAN-EU Dialogue Relations
D. Resumption of Free Trade Agreement (FTA) negotiations
7. Which has closest meaning to the word “resume” in paragraph 3?
A. continued
B. transferred
C. began
D. expected
8. What does President Mattarella’s attitude towards S.G. Minh’s suggestions?
A. He strongly agrees with Mr. Minh.
 B. He strongly disagrees with Mr. Minh.
C. He doesn’t pay attention to Mr. Minh.
D. He agrees with some of Mr. Minh’s suggestions.
9. What is the best title for the reading passage?
A. S.G. Minh and President Mattarella
B. ASEAN and Italy relations
C. Italy to Further Deepen Relationship with ASEAN
D. Future Relationship Between ASEAN and Italy
10. What is the purpose of this reading passage?
A. To persuade readers of good relationship between ASEAN and Italy
B. To explain the current relationship of ASEAN and Italy
C. To report a meeting lời văn của tác giả
D. To express a personal opinion
CATEPATH:82
Based on fossils retrieved from South Africa’s Rising Star cave, two teams of researchers
reconstructed the moving habits of Homo naledi – the mysterious human ancestor. With
funding from National Geographic, one took a close look at 107 foot bones, the other at
26 bones from a nearly complete right hand.

In most respects, the H. naledi foot looks surprisingly like a modern human’s. Its ankle
joint, parallel big toe and wide heel bone belong to a striding biped, a creature fully
adapted to efficiently walking upright on two legs. But its lower arch and curved toe
bones are more ape-like. The hand, with its curved fingers, indicates that H. naledi were
strong climbers—and yet the long, strong thumb and shock-absorbing wrist could also
have been capable of manipulating tools (though no tools have been found yet). It’s a mix
of features scientists hadn't seen clearly yet in the genus Homo, to which modern humans
belong.

“H. naledi had a unique form of movement for a member of the genus Homo,” says study
author William Harcourt-Smith of CUNY’s Lehman College.

When, in the course of human evolution, did our ancestors climb down from the trees and
begin striding across the land?

It’s hard to say. Lucy and other very early human ancestors, known as australopithecines,
walked upright at least four million years ago, yet were certainly climbers and may have
also been using stone tools.
But evidence for tree-climbing within the Homo lineage is rare. Scientists suspect that
Homo habilis, the "handy man," may have retained climbing abilities around two million
years ago—but that view is based on just a few fragmentary fossils. Now, the hands of H.
naledi tell us that despite its incredibly modern foot and striding steps, the species also
retained ape-like tree-climbing abilities.

For most of human evolution, our ancestors mixed walking and climbing skill, and this
was part of what made them so successful at adapting to change, says Stony Brook
University’s Bill Jungers. “H. naledi is no exception.”

Because the bones from Rising Star have yet to be dated, it’s still not clear where H.
naledi fits into the bigger picture of human evolution. Based on its morphology alone, it
appears to be near the base of the Homo genus. If H. naledi is that old—around 2 or 2.5
million years—this would mean some features in the hand facilitating tool-use appeared
earlier than scientists thought, says study author Tracy Kivell of the University of Kent.

If, on the other hand, H. naledi ends up being relatively perhaps 100,000 years old—then
characteristics, like curved fingers, were retained (or developed independently) in a
hominin that co-existed with modern humans. “Both scenarios are very interesting,”
Kivell says.

11. What is a Homo naledi ?

A. A type of ape
B. An ancient tribe
C. A human ancestor
D. A pre-historic mystery
12. Who sponsored the two teams of researchers ?
A. South Africa’s Rising Star
B. National Geographic
C. The two teams of researchers
D. The government
13. What respects of the Homo naledi does NOT look like human ?
A. Foot
B. Ankle joint
C. toe and heel bone
D. lower arch and toe bones
14. What does “which” in the passage refer to?
A. The researchers
 B. Modern human
C. the genus Homo
D. Homo naledi
15. “Striding” in the passage has closest meaning to….
A. Running
B. Walking
C. Climbing
D. Swimming
16. According to the passage, Lucy is…
A. A researcher
B. An ape
C. A human ancestor
D. A Homo naledi
17. According to the passage, the fossil of H. naledi’s hand is…
A. the first nearly complete hand of a Homosapien.
B. an evidence for tree-climbing ability of human ancestors.
C. very similar to modern human’s.
D. the only complete fossil of ancient human.
18. What is the main idea of the reading passage?
A. New human ancestor walked like modern human but climbed like apes.
B. New human ancestor was found to climb like ape.
C. Researchers found new human ancestor.
D. New human ancestor was found in South Africa.
19. Why does the author mention Homo habilis?
A. To list evidence of human ancestors
B. To prove that human ancestors climbed trees
C. To compare it with H. naledi
D. To emphasize the importance of H. naledi discovery.
20. What does Bill Jungers imply by “H. naledi is no exception”?
A. H. naledi is the oldest human ancestor.
B. H. naledi climbed trees and walked, like other human ancestors.
C. H. naledi climbed trees and strided, unlike other human ancestors.
D. H. naledi had modern foot, like other human ancestors.
CATEPATH:83
The most important requirement for life is the presence of liquid water, not only as part
of the chemical reactions of life, but also as a medium to transport nutrients and wastes
within the organism.

The water requirement automatically eliminates many worlds in our solar system. The
moon is airless, and although some data suggest ice frozen in the soil at its poles, it has
never had liquid water on its surface. Mercury too is airless and cannot have had liquid
water on its surface for long periods of time. Venus has some traces of water vapor in its
atmosphere, but it is much too hot for liquid water to survive.

The inner solar system seems too hot, and the outer solar system seems too cold. The
Jovian planets have deep atmospheres, and at a certain level, they have moderate
temperatures where water might condense into liquid droplets. But it seems unlikely that
life could begin there. The Jovian planets have no surfaces were oceans could nurture the
beginning of life, and currents in the atmosphere seem destined to circulate gas and water
droplets from regions of moderate temperature to other levels that are much too hot or too
cold for life to survive.

A few of the satellites of the Jovian planets might have suitable conditions for life.
Jupiter's moon Europa seems to have liquid-water ocean below its icy crust. Nevertheless,
Europa is not a promising site to search for life because conditions may not have
remained stable for the billions of years needed for life to evolve beyond the microscopic
stage. If Jupiter's moons interact gravitationally and modify their orbits, Europa may have
been frozen solid at some points in history.

Saturn's moon Titan may have oceans of liquid methane and ethane on its surface. The
chemistry of life that might crawl or swim on such a world is unknown, but life there may
be unlikely because of the temperature. The surface of Titan is a deadly -173°C (-290°F).
Chemical reactions occur slowly or not at all at such low temperatures, so the chemical
evolution needed to begin life may never have occurred on Titan.

Mars is the most likely place for life in our solar system. The evidence, however, is not
encouraging. Meteorite ALH84001 was found on the Antarctic ice in 1984. It was
probably part of debris ejected into space by a large impact on Mars. ALH84001 is
important because a team of scientists studied it and announced in 1996 that it contained
chemical and physical traces of ancient life on Mars.

Scientists were excited too, but being professionally skeptical they began testing the
results immediately. In many cases, the result did not confirm the conclusion that life
once existed on Mars. Some chemical contamination from water on Earth has occurred,
and some chemicals in the meteorite may have originated without the presence of life.
The physical features that look like fossil bacteria may be mineral formations in the rock.

We are left to conclude that, so far as we know, our solar system is bare of life except for
Earth. Consequently, our search for life in the universe takes us to other planetary
systems.

21. The word “automatically” in the passage is closest in meaning to..

A. partially
B. actually
C. occasionally
D. naturally
22. Which of the following statements about the water on Venus is true?
A. The war evaporated because of the high temperatures.
B. The water became frozen in the polar regions.
C. Only a little water is left in small lakes on the surface.
D. Rain does not fall because there is no atmosphere.
23. The word “it” in the passage refers to…
A. ice
B. soil
C. moon
D. solar system
24. What can be inferred from the passage about the Jovian planets?
A. Some of them may have conditions that could support life.
B. Jupiter is classified as one of the Jovian planets.
C. Europa is the largest of the moons that revolve around Jupiter.
D. The orbits of the Jovian planets have changed over time.
25. The word “stable” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. visible
B. active
C. constant
D. strong
26. According to paragraph 5, why would life on Titan be improbably?
A. It does not have an ocean.
B. It is not a planet.
C. It is too cold.
D. It has a low atmosphere.
27. Why does the author mention the meteorite “ALH84001” in the passage?
 A. Because it was found in Antarctica about 50 years ago
B. Because it was evidence of a recent impact on Mars
C. Because scientists thought that it contained evidence of life on Mars
D. Because the meteorite probably came from Mars a long time ago
28. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted
statement in the passage?
A. Life on Mars was found as a result of research in many cases.
B. The evidence did not demonstrate that there was life on Mars in the past.
C. Many cases of life were concluded in the history of Mars.
D. The conclusion was that only one instance of life on Mars was verified.
29. The word “originated” in the passage is closest in meaning to…
A. turned
B. changed
C. begun
D. disappeared
30. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the author’s opinion
about life in our solar system?
A. Life is probably limited to planets in the inner solar system.
B. There is a large body of evidence supporting life on Mars.
C. There is little probability of life on other planets.
D. We should explore our solar system for conditions that support life.
CATEPATH:84
Taken together, income, occupation, and education are good measures of people's social
standing. Using a layered model of stratification, most sociologists describe the class
system in the United States as: upper, upper middle, middle, lower middle, and lower
class. The different classes are arranged along a continuum with those with the most
money, education, and prestige at the top and those with the least at the bottom.

In the United States, the upper class owns the major share of corporate and personal
wealth; it includes those who have held wealth for generations as well as those who have
recently become rich. Only a very small proportion of people actually constitute the
upper class, but they control vast amounts of wealth and power in the United States.
Those in this class exercise enormous control throughout society.

Despite social myths to the contrary, the best predictors to future wealth is the family into
which you are born. Each year, the business magazine Forbes publishes a list of the 400
wealthiest families and individuals in the country. Of all the wealth represented on the
Forbes 400 list, most is inherited. Those in the upper class with newly acquired wealth
are known as the nouveau riche. Luxury vehicles, high-priced real estate, and exclusive
vacations may mark the lifestyle of the newly rich.

The upper middle class includes those with high incomes and high social prestige. They
tend to be well-educated professionals or business executives. It is difficult to estimate
exactly how many people fall into this group because of the difficulty of drawing lines
between the upper, upper middle, and middle classes. Indeed, the upper middle class is
often thought of as "middle class" because their lifestyle sets the standard to which many
aspire, but this lifestyle is actually unattainable by most.

The middle class is hard to define, in part because being "middle class" is more than just
economic position. A very large portion of Americans identify themselves as middle
class even though they vary widely in lifestyle and in resources at their disposal. But the
idea that the United States is an open-class system leads many to think that the majority
have a middle-class lifestyle.

The lower middle class includes workers in the skilled trades and low income
bureaucratic workers, many of whom may actually define themselves as middle class.
This class includes blue collar workers and many service workers such as secretaries, hair
stylists, food servers, police, and firefighters. The term lower in this class designation
refers to the relative position of the group in the stratification system, but it has a
pejorative sound to many people, especially to people who are members of this class.

The lower class is composed primarily of the displaced and poor. People in this class
have little formal education and are often unemployed or working in minimum-wage
jobs. Six per cent of all working people now live below the poverty line. The concept of
the underclass has been added to the lower class. The underclass includes those who are
likely to be permanently unemployed and without means of economic support. Rejected
from the economic system, those in the underclass may become dependent on public
assistance or illegal activities.

31. The word “those” in the passage refers to…

A. characteristics
B. groups
C. classes
D. continuum
32. The word “enormous” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. very large
B. very new
 C. very early
D. very good
33. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted
statement in the passage?
A.Although it is not generally accepted, your family provides the best prediction
of your future wealth.
B. You can achieve great future wealth in spite of the family in which you may
have been born.
C. It is not true that your family will restrict the acquisition of your future wealth
and level of social status.
D. Social myths are contrary to the facts about the future wealth and social status
of your family.
34. Why does the author mention the “Forbes 400” in paragraph 3?
A. To explain the meaning of the listing that appears every year
B. To support the statement that most wealthy people inherit their money
C. To cast doubt on the claim that family income predicts individual wealth
D. To give examples of successful people who have modest family connections
35. The word “exclusive” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. long
B. expensive
C. frequent
D. relaxing
36. In paragraph 4, the author states that business and professional people with
educational advantages are most often members of the
A. lower middle class
B. upper middle class
C. nouveau riche
D. upper class
37. According to paragraph 5, why do most people identify themselves as middle
class in the United States?
A. They have about the same lifestyle as everyone else in the country.
B. They prefer not to admit that there are class distinctions in the United States.
C. They don’t really know how to define their status because it’s unclear.
D. They identify themselves with the majority who have normal lifestyles.
38. According to paragraph 7, why has the underclass emerged?
A. The new term was necessary because the lower class enjoyed a higher lifestyle
than it had previously.
 B. The increase in crime has supported a new class of people who live by
engaging in illegal activities.
C. Changes in the economy have caused an entire class of people to survive by
welfare or crime.
D. Minimum-wage jobs no longer support a class of people at a standard level in
the economic system.
39. What can be inferred about the lower class in the United States?
A. They are often not able to find entry-level jobs.
B. They work in jobs that pay minimum wage.
C. They are service workers and manual laborers.
D. They are considered lower class.
40. All of the following are indicators of prestige in the United States EXCEPT
A. the level of education that a person has achieved
B. the amount of money that an individual has acquired
C. the type of employment that someone pursues
D. the hard work that a person does on a consistent basis.

thy
CODE 2.11
30/40
CATEPATH:81

THE HUGS THAT KEEP ON GIVING

Every weekend over the past 10 months, Nguyen Bao Ngoc has been walking
around the Sword Lake in Hanoi, dressed up as Doraemon, a popular Japanese comic
book character that is half cat half robot. Stretching his arms out, he tries to hug as
many strangers as possible. Some stop to hug him back before putting money into one
of the boxes that his friends are holding. Some others walk faster and avoid eye contact
with him. Ngoc, 23, says he started the “Hug Me” (Om toi di) campaign in February,
inspired by the Free Hugs social movement in Australia. The difference is his hugs are
not free, because he wants to raise money to help children in poor and remote areas
around the country. A
The senior college student who is studying to become a TV reporter has been doing
charity work for three years. In one of his most successful attempts, he worked as a xe
om motorbike taxi driver in his free time and donated all the money he could earn
to poor families in his hometown in Quang Binh Province. But “Hug Me,” Ngoc says, is
 his favorite because with it, he can get the attention of his peers. “Young people my age
have been more into social media than real life. We may cry over a sad story on
Facebook but when we witness the same story in real life, we can be indifferent". B
As hugging in public is not very common in Vietnam, Ngoc said he puts on costume so
that strangers will not feel uncomfortable. Doraemon the cat is in fact famous for its
friendliness and kindness. Sometimes, for a change, he also dresses as a bee or a
puppy. C
Many students who gave him a hug donated more than VND5,000, which is what he
hopes to receive, allowing the campaign to earn between $50 and $200 each week.
Some also brought old clothes and books. Ngoc has organized two trips to bring gifts
and food to children in Quang Binh and the northern mountainous province of Yen Bai
this year. The third has been planned for December.
Ngoc has been diagnosed with first stage bone marrow cancer but he says his condition
is "stable." He says he does not want to be defined by his illness. Having cancer is not
the motivation for him to help others. “I’d do it anyway. I want people to see me as a
student doing charity work, not a cancer patient doing charity work." D
1. Why does Ngoc start the "Hug Me" campaign?
A. to initiate a social movement in Australia
B. to offer free hugs
C. to raise money for charity
D. to pay for his tuition fee at college
2. The word "some" in paragraph 1 refers to
A. friends
B. children
C. strangers
D. boxes
3. The word "senior" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. last-year
B. superior
C. advanced
D. leading
4. The word "indifferent" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
 A. uncaring
B. concerned
C. dissimilar
D. responsive
5. What character might probably not represent a costume that Ngoc dresses?
A. a cat
B. a bee
C. a puppy
D. a panda
6. How much is the "Hug Me" campaign expected to earn a month?
A. VND5,000
B. $50 and $200
C. $200 and $800
D. free
7. The word "third" in paragraph 4 refers to
A. province
B. campaign
C. trip
D. month
8. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
"“I want to live and love in the real world, not the virtual world.” He added.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
9. What does Ngoc mean when he said "I want people to see me as a student doing charity
work, not a cancer patient doing charity work"
A. having cancer motivates him to do charity work
B. he does not like being remembered by his illness
 C. any student with such illness can do more to help other people
D. he is a student who helps cancer people
10. In which paragraph does the author mention the bad health condition of Nguyen Bao
Ngoc?
A. paragraph 1
B. paragraph 2
C. paragraph 4
D. paragraph 5

CATEPATH:82
MY FIRST BIKE
My biking beginnings can be summed up in two words: teenage love. My first
girlfriend was small with short blonde hair, and I was mad about her. Our romance
came to an abrupt end, however, when she started going out with another guy in my
hometown, Crieff. He rode a 50 cc road motorbike first and then a 125. And whereas I
had always walked my girlfriend home, suddenly she was going back with this guy.
I was nearly sixteen by then and already heartbroken. Then one day, on the way
back from a shopping trip to Perth with my mum, we passed Buchan’s, the local bike
shop. There was a light blue 50 cc bike on display right at the front of the shop. I didn’t
know what make it was, or if it was any good. Such trivialities were irrelevant to me. All
I knew was that I could get it in three months’ time when I was sixteen and allowed to
ride it. Maybe I could even get my girlfriend back.
I’d ridden my first bike when I was about six. My father organised a tiny red
Honda 50 cc and we headed off to a field that belonged to a family friend. I clambered
on and shot off. I thought it was just the best thing. Just one large heap of straw. I
thought I would have a go. I came racing towards the adults, shot right through the gap
in the straw. I was thrilled to hear the adults scream and elated that it had frightened
them. It was my first time on a motorbike. It was exciting and I wanted more.
So when I looked through Buchan’s window in Perth that day, it suddenly all
made sense to me. I can’t remember whether it was to win back my ex-girlfriend’s heart
or not, but more than anything else it meant that, instead of having to walk everywhere,
I could ride my motorbike to school and the games fields at the bottom of Crieff and
when I went out at weekends.
 I started to fantasise about it. I spent all my waking hours thinking about getting
on and starting up the bike, putting on the helmet and riding around Crieff. I couldn’t
sleep. Driven to desperation by my desire for a bike, I made a series of promises to my
mum: I won’t leave town. I’ll be very safe. I won’t take any risks. I won’t do anything
stupid. But, in fact I was making the promises up – I never thought about keeping them.
Crieff is a small town and my whole childhood was spent walking around the
town. It was great, but I was getting to that age when children become aware of the
possibilities of venturing further afield. Unless, like us, you went everywhere by
bicycle. With so many beautiful places nearby, the idea of getting a motorbike was too
much to resist.

11. The word "romance" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by:

A.love affair
B. fascination
C. charm
D. lover
12. Why did Ewan's relationship with his first girlfriend finish?
A. She didn't enjoy walking
B.She met someone with a motorbike
C. He was upset by her behavior
D. He made her angry
13. What does “such trivialities” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. his mother’s attitude to the bike
B. the bike’s size and colour
C. the bike’s price
D. the bike’s quality and its manufacturer
14. Why didn't Ewan buy the bike immediately?
A. He couldn't afford it
B. He wasn't old enough to ride it.
C. He hadn't learnt how to ride it.
D. He didn't know if his girlfriend would like it.
15. The adults were frightened the first time Ewan rode a motorbike because they
thought
A. the bike was too noisy.
B. the bike was too fast.
C. he was going to have an accident.
D. the bike was too big for him.
16. What was Ewan's main reason for buying the motorbike?
A. It was less expensive than a car.
B. It would help his relationship with his girlfriend.
C. It was good for his image.
D. It was a useful means of transport.
17. How did Ewan’s desire for the bike affect his behaviour?
A. He couldn’t think about anything else.
B. He spent more time talking to his mother.
C. He invented reasons for buying the bike.
D. He spent a lot of time riding a friend’s bike.
18. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refer to
A. the bike
B. the helmet
C. his hometown Crieff
D. his desperation
19. What does Ewan mean by saying “venturing further afield”? in the last paragraph?
A. taking greater risks
B. becoming more independent
C.travelling to more distant places
D. living somewhere different
20. Who, according to the whole passage, was most against Ewan getting a motorbike?
A. his first girlfriend
B. his father
 C. his mother
D. his friends

CATEPATH:83
THE BEATLES
The Beatles became the most popular group in rock music history. This quartet
of extraordinarily talented musicians generated a phenomenal number of pieces that
won gold records. They inspired a frenzy that transcended countries and economic
strata. While all of them sang, John Lennon and Paul McCartney wrote the majority of
their songs. Originally, Lennon and five others formed a group called the Quarrymen in
1956, with McCartney joining them later that year. George Harrison, John Lennon, and
Paul McCartney, together with Stuart Sutcliffe, who played the bass guitar, and Pete
Best on the drums, performed together in several bands for a few years, until they finally
settled on the Silver Beatles in 1960. American rock musicians, such as Chuck Berry
and Elvis Presley, influenced Lennon’s and McCartney’s music, whose first hits
consisted of simple tunes and lyrics about young love, “Love Me Do” and “Please,
Please Me”. The Beatles’s U.S tour propelled them to stardom and led to two movies A
Hard Day’s Night and Help!, filmed in 1964 and 1965. The so-called British invasion of
the United States was in full swing when they took the top five spots on the singles
charts, followed by the release of their first film.
During the 1960s, their music matured and acquired a sense of melody. The
lyrics of their songs became deeper and gained in both imagination and meaning. Their
popularity continued to grow as the Beatles turned their attention to social problems and
political issues in “Nowhere Man” and “Eleanor Rigby.” Loneliness and nostalgia come
through in their ballads “Michelle” and “Yesterday,” which fully displayed the group’s
professional development and sophistication. Lennon’s sardonic music with lyrics
written in the first person, and McCartney’s songs that created scenarios with off beat
individuals, contributed to the character of the music produced by the group . In addition
to their music, the Beatles set a social trend that popularized long hair, Indian music,
and mod dress.
For a variety of reasons, the musicians began to drift apart, and their last concert
took place in San Francisco in 1966. The newspapers and tabloids publicized their
quarrels and lawsuits, and the much idolized group finally disbanded in 1970. However,
their albums had outsold those of any other band in history. Although all of the Beatles
continued to perform solo or form new rock groups, alone, none could achieve the
recognition and success that they had been able to win together.
21: What does the passage mainly discuss?
 A. . The history and music of the Beatles
C. The history and milestone of rock music
B. The fashion and music popular in the 1960s
D. The creation and history of a music group
22: According to the passage, how many members were in the band, formed in 1956?
A. four
B. five
C. six
D. seven
23: According to the passage, which of the Beatles had the greatest musical talent?
A. John Lennon and Paul McCartney
B. George Harrison and John Lennon
C. Stuart Sutcliffe and Pete Best
D. John Lennon, Paul McCartney, and George Harrison
24: The author of the passage implies that the Beatles_____________.
A. competed with American musicians
B. wrote their music as a group
C. became popular relatively quickly
D. were active in social movements
25: According to the passage, the Beatles’s fame grew as a result of_____________.
A. Chuck Berry’s involvement
B. their American tour
C. two movies made in the U.S
D. their first two hits
26: The author of the passage implies that over time, the music and lyrics by the
Beatles _____________.
A. became more complex than at the beginning of their career
B. declined in quality and political significance
C. were dedicated to women named Eleanor and Michelle
 D. made them the richest musician in the world
27: The word “acquired” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. imparted
B. attached
C. imprinted
D. attained
28: According to the passage, when did the Beatles experience their greatest success?
A. In the late 1950s
B. After their break-up in 1970
C. During the early and mid-1960s.
D. Throughout their lifetimes.
29: The word “scenarios” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____________.
A. sceneries
B. situations
C. life stories
D. love themes
30: The word “disbanded” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____________.
A. separated
B. slipped
C. reveled
D. bonded

CATEPATH:84
THE UNITED NATIONS
When the United Nations was first formed in 1945, only 51 countries were
members. Now, however, the United Nations is truly a world organization. In fact, today
almost every nation in the world is a member of the UN. The main goal of the United
Nations is to bring different nations together to promote peace and justice in the world.
The UN also works to make the world a safe and secure place.
 It is important to remember that the UN is not a "world government". This means
that the UN does not make laws for different countries to follow. It also does not enforce
laws made by governments. However, the UN does hold regular votes on global policies
and issues. Also, like a government, the UN is divided into different branches, or
sections. Considering that the UN is such a large organization, it makes sense that
it needs to be separated into different pieces to be effective. There are six
branches in the United Nations. Below, the first three branches of the UN are
discussed. In a later chapter, the other three divisions will be explained.
The main branch is called the "General Assembly". In this branch, all members of
the United Nations are represented. Each member country has one vote. These votes
are counted when the UN has meetings about world issues. For example, if there is a
problem in a certain area of the world or in a particular country, the UN will vote on how
to best solve the problem. At least two-thirds of all member countries, that is 67
percent, must agree on how to resolve the problem in order for the UN to take
action. If less than two-thirds of the voting countries agree, no immediate action is
taken.
Another branch of the UN is the Security Council. A The main purpose of this
department is to maintain international peace and keep the world secure. B In this
branch, there are only fifteen members. Five of these members are permanent. The
permanent members are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom (Britain), and the
United States. C The other ten members are elected by the General Assembly for two-
year terms. D
The third important branch of the UN is the Economic and Social Council. This
branch works to help monitor the world economy. It also works to resolve social issues
around the world. For example, issues of concern for the Economic and Social Council
are violations of human rights, the fight against international crime such as selling illegal
drugs, and destruction of the environment. There are 54 government representatives
serving on this council. These members are elected by the General Assembly to serve
for three-year terms. Council members are elected to represent certain areas of the
world, so the council has fourteen members from Africa, eleven from Asia, ten from
South America, and nineteen from Europe and North America.
31. The word “branches” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. growing parts
B. locations
C. divisions
D. places of separation
32. The word “maintain” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. hold on to
 (B. preserve
C. develop
D. argue
33. The pronoun "it" in paragraph 5 refers to
A. the world economy
B. the general assembly of the UN
C. the monitors
D. the Economic and Social Council.
34. In paragraph 2, why does the writer mention the highlighted sentence?
"Considering that the UN is such a large organization, it makes sense that it
needs to be separated into different pieces to be effective."
A. To defend the reasoning behind separating the UN into different sections
B. To argue for the UN as a world government
C. To say that there are a total of six branches in the UN
D. To explain how the voting works in the UN
35. How does the author argue that the UN is a true global organization?
A. There are 51 nations involved.
B. It allows each country to vote.
C. It includes almost all countries in the world.
D. It acts as a global government.
36. According to the passage, where does the largest percentage of representatives on
the Economic and Social Council come from?
A. Europe and North America
B. Asia
C. South America
D. Africa
37. According to the passage, how many members of the Security Council are elected /
on a rotating basis?
A. 15
 B. 5
C. 20
D. 10
38. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in paragraph 3?
At least two-thirds of all member countries, that is 67 percent, must agree on how
to resolve the problem in order for the UN to take action
A. The United Nations cannot take action right away because the General
Assembly always has to meet together and vote.
B. At least 66 percent of the General Assembly votes whenever the UN is asked
to take action.
C. A certain number of members must vote the same way in order for the
assembly to do something.
D. Countries that vote in General Assembly of the UN seldom agree, so
immediate action on issues is not taken.
39. Where would the following sentence best fit in paragraph 4?
If the Council feels that international peace is being threatened, the fifteen
members will try to outline a way to resolve the situation in a peaceful manner.
A. Paragraph 4, line 1
B. Paragraph 4, line 2
C. Paragraph 4, line 4
D. Paragraph 4, line 5
40. What does the author imply when he explains that the UN is not a world
government?
A. The UN would probably work better if it did function as a government.
B. Some larger countries would like the UN to be a government.
C. Many people mistakenly think that the UN is really a type of government.
D. Countries do not like governments.