Booklet Mphil Addmission

Anthropology (1068)
1. Mutation as a theory of evolution was proposed by:

A) Hugo de Vries B) Dobzhansky C) Darwin D) Mendel
2. Neo-Darwinism is also known as:

A) Mendelian theory B) Catastrophism
C) Synthetic theory of evolution D) None of these
3. In India, Dryopithecus fossil primate was discovered from:

A) Nasik B) SaraiNahar C) Bhimbetka D) Siwalik Hills
4. The strongest support to organic evolution comes from the study of

A) Fossils B) Comparative anatomy
C) Embryology D) Taxonomy
5. The theory of Lamarck is based on:

A) Inheritance of acquired characters B) Natural selection
C) Isolation D) Mutation
6. Who amongst the following has written the book 'The Descent of Man'7
A) Charles Darwin B) Louis Dollo
C) Dr Robert Broom D) Raymond Dart
7. The driving force of natural selection is

A) Mutation B) Variation C) Genetic drift D) Natural selection
8. During mitosis the chromosomes begin to separate in______stage.

A) Metaphase B) Anaphase C) Prophase D) Telophase
9. A gamete cell containing a single genome is known as_____;___.

A) Haploid B) Triploid C) Tetraploid D) Polyploid
10. A complete set of chromosomes and nuclear genes carried by an individual is called
its_________.
A) Genome B) Gene amplification
C) Genetic code D) Gene
11. The ability of a gene to express itself phenotypically is called ________.

A) Expressivity B) Penetrance C) Reversion D) Lethality
12. The youngest phenomenon under the stratigraphy method is represented by

A) Lowest layer B) Topmost layer C) Middle layer D) None of these
13. The Pleistocene is an epoch which forms a part of the__________.

A) Tertiary period B) Quaternary period
C) Primary period D) None of these
14. Villafranchian flora and fauna on land include the ancestors of modern
A) Cow B) Elephant C) Horse D) All of these
15. The periods of high rainfall are called _________.

A) Glaciation B) Pluviation C) Interglaciation D) Interpluviation
16. Man started practicing agriculture in the ______ period.
A) Neolithic B) Chalcolithic C) Iron D) Mesolithic
17. Megaliths are:

A) Large stones B) Memorial stones or tomb
C) A special monument D) Artistic rock sculpture
18. The earliest cultural phase of Holocene is:

A) Mesolithic B) Neolithic C) Chalcolithic D) Iron age
19. Mesolithic Age succeeds:

A) Upper Palaeolithic B) Neolithic
C) Chalcolithic D) Iron Age
20. A genotype consisting of two identical genes for a given character is said to be:
A) Dominant B) Homozygous C) Recessive D) Heterozygous
21. Diastema is present on the;

A) Tooth B) Femur C) Fibula D) Dental arch
22. S.S- Sarkarin 1961 divided the Indian population into__ethnic elements.
A) 7 B) 6 C) 8 D) 5
23. The first well-preserved fossil of the Australopithecine group was first discovered by
Raymond Dart from:
A) Taung, South Africa B) Kimber 197, South Africa
C) Tuscany, Italy D)Siwalik, India
24. The evolution of man from ape-like creature to Homo sapiens was large accomplished in:
A) Holocene B) Pleistocene C) Pliocene D) Miocene
25. In mammals red blood corpuscles are:

A) Not present B) Nucleated circular discs
C) Non-nucleated circular discs D) None of these
26. The term 'folk society' was first used by:

A) Malinowski B) Robert Redfield C)Tylor D) Milton Singer
27. The term 'part society' for peasant society was first stated by: -
A) Kroeber B) George Foster C) Robert Redfield D) None of these
28. Who among the following is associated with Neo-evolutionism?
A) Margaret Mead B) Leslie A. White C) R. Linton D) E. B.Tylor
29. Among the following, who has been associated with studies on culture and personality?
A) Robert Redfield B) Eric Wolf C) R. Linton D) A.L. Kroeber
30. A rule according to which a couple after marriage goes to reside with the family of the
husband's maternal uncle is known as __________ residence.
A) Ambilocal B) Neolocal C) Amitalocal D) Avunculocal
31. _______ is a matrilineal society found in India.
A) Gonds of Madnya Pradesh B) Kadars of Malabar forest in South India
C) Khasis of Meghalaya D) Todas of South India
32. Marriage of one man with a woman and her several sisters is called;
A) Pratiloma B) Sororal polygyny C) Polyandry D) Levirate
33. Marriage within the caste is called:

A) Endogamy B) Incest rule C) Endogamy D) Hypergamy
34. Ego-centric groups are called:

A) Kindred B) Lineages C) Clans D) Phratries
35. Who gave the idea of classificatory and descriptive types of kinship terminology?
A) E.B. Tylor B) L.H. Morgan C) W.H.R. Rivers D) Frazer
36. Unilineal kin groups are characterized by:

A) Their size B) Their utility during emergency situations
C) Their amorphous character D) Their corporate character
37. Which amongst the following is considered as property in simple societies?

A) Land B) Tools and implements
C) Cattle D) All of these
38. Who amongst the following held the view that division of labour in modern societies is
the principal source of social cohesion or social solidarity?
A) Auguste Comte B) Max Weber
C) Emile Durkheim D) Herbert Spencer
39. In the absence of law, defined in terms of central authority, courts and constables, which
of the following help in maintaining social order in simple societies?
A) Folkways B) Customary Rules C) Mores D) All of these
40. A fundamental concept of social science, defined as the ability to make others act as per
one's own will or desire, is known as:
A) Authority B) Dispute C) Power D) None of these
41. A very simple, least complex system, found among hunters and gatherers, with
reciprocity as the dominant economic pattern, no concept of private ownership of
resources, egalitarian with no differentiation of wealth or power, are termed as:
A) Bands B) Tribes C) Chiefdoms D) Peasants
42. Who amongst the following gave the theory of Animism?

A) Robertson Smith B) E. B. Tylor C) R.R. Marrett D) Emile Durkheim
43. _____ was picked from the Polynesian tribal usage carrying a similar meaning in them
and is related to the theory known as Animalism.
A) Fetishism B) Mana C) Taboo D) Magic
44. Haimendorf did his major work in:

A) Central India B) South India C) North India D) North-East India
45. Which of the following refers to the movement of individuals or groups between different
levels of the social hierarchy?
A) Social change B) Social gathering C) Social mixing D) Social mobility
46. Functionalism is:

A) A study of cause-and-effect relationships
B) A study of the inter-relatedness of the parts of a whole
C) A holistic study conceptualising the whole only
D) None of these
47. Jajmani system indicates a set of

A) Contractual relations B) Political relations
C) Marital relations D) Economic relations
48. Which amongst the following is a corporate group?

A) A youth organisation B) Members of a political party
C) A neighbourhood group D) Joint family
49. Who first differentiated between 'social structure' and 'social organisation'?
A) Raymond Firth B) A.R. Radeliffe-Brown
C) Claude Levi-Strauss D) E. Evans-Pritchard
50. Which of the following is not an essential characteristic of a social group?

A) Physical proximity B) Common interest
C) Group norms D) A sense of belongingness
x-x-x
Bio-Chemistry(1068)
1. Similarities in the structure and function of two proteins indicate that they are members
of a family that share a common ancestor. If they are from different species, they are
called-
A) Homologs B) Paralogs
C) Orthologs D) Proteologs
2. Which of the following statements about the active site of an enzyme is correct?
A) It binds the substrate of the reaction it catalyses more tightly than it does the
transition state intermediate.
B) It binds the substrate of the reaction it catalyses less tightly than it does the
C) It binds the product of the reaction it catalyses more tightly than it does the
D) It is complementary to the substrate of the reaction it catalyses.
3. Which of the following statements about isoeletric focusing is correct?

A) Proteins separated by isoelectric focusing cannot be tested for biological activity.
B) Proteins separated by isoelectric focusing can be tested for biological activity
C) The separation of proteins by isoelectric focusing is only based on charge.
D) The separation of proteins by isoelectric focusing is only based on size.
4. Which of the following statements about membrane fluidity is correct?

A) Membrane fluidity is increased when there is a high proportion
of trans unsaturated fatty acids in the glycerophosphate molecules that make up
the bilayer.
B) Membrane fluidity is decreased when there is a high proportion of cis unsaturated
fatty acids in the glycerophosphate molecules that make up the bilayer.
C) Membrane fluidity is increased when there is a high proportion of cis unsaturated
fatty acids in the glycerophosphate molecules that make up the bilayer.
D) Membrane fluidity is increased when there is a high proportion of saturated fatty
acids in the glycerophosphate molecules that make up the bilayer.
5. Insulin and glucagon are two major hormones that regulate carbohydrate metabolism.
Which of the following statements correctly explains their action ?
A) During the post-absorptive phase, high insulin levels mediate glucose uptake in
muscles.
B) During emergency situations muscle uses its glycogen stores to increase blood
glucose levels.
C) During the post-absorptive phase, high glucagon levels mediate glucose uptake in
muscles.
D) During the post-absorptive phase, high insulin levels mediate glucose uptake in
the liver.
6. Which of the following statements about the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase is correct?
A) Lactate dehydrogenase catalyses the oxidation of pyruvate to lactate to regenerate
NAD+.
B) Lactate dehydrogenase ensures mitochondrial NADH is oxidised
C) Lactate dehydrogenase catalyses the reduction of pyruvate to lactate to regenerate
NADH.
D) Lactate dehydrogenase catalyses the reduction of pyruvate to lactate to regenerate
NAD+.
7. During fatty acid synthesis, acetyl groups are transported from the mitochondrion to the
cytosol as-
A) Citrate B) Malonyl CoA.
C) Acetyl CoA D) Acetylcarnitine
8. Which of the following reasons does not apply for conversion of proto-oncogene to
oncogene ?
A) Mutation in coding sequence B) Gene amplification
C) Mutation in non-coding sequence D) chromosome rearrangement
9. Which of the following method is extensively used for obtaining pluripotent stem cells
for somatic cell gene therapy?
A) Dispersal and culture of cells from morula
B) Collection of stem cells from adult tissues and their culture under specific
conditions
C) Isolation and culture of inner cell mass of a blastocyst
D) Collection and culture of primordial germ cells from a fetus
10. In an α-helical polypeptide, the backbone Hydrogen bonds are between-

A) NH of n and CO of n+4 amino acid
B) NH of n and CO of n+3 amino acid
C) CO of n and NH of n+3 amino acid
D) CO of n and NH of n+4 amino acid
11. Proofreading activity of DNA polymerase III corrects errors during replication by
recognizing incorrect bases at-
A) 3’end of growing chain and removing these by 3’-5’ exonuclease activity
B) 5’end of growing chain and removing these by 3’-5’ exonuclease activity
C) 3’end of growing chain and removing these by 5’-3’ exonuclease activity
D) 5’end of growing chain and removing these by 5’-3’ exonuclease activity
12. Cystic fibrosis is a disease which is caused by a mutation in cystic fibrosis
transmembrane conductance regulator(CFTR). CFTR is involved in the transport of
which of the following ions-
A) Calcium B) Bicarbonate
C) Chloride D) Phosphate
13. The regulation of transcription allows a bacterial cells to adapt to a changing

environment. Which of the subunits of RNA polymerase is the regulatory subunit?
A) Alpha B) Sigma
C) Beta D) Both beta and sigma
14. Collagen, an important extracellular matrix protein, requires post translational
hydroxylation for strengthening its triple helix structure. Which of the vitamin is required
for this essential hydroxylation reaction ?
A) Vitamin C B) Thiamine C) Vitamin E D) Biotin
15. What is the smallest number of molecules of ATP and GTP consumed in the synthesis of
a 50 residue peptide chain, starting from precursor amino acids. Assume that hydrolysis
of PPi is equivalent to the hydrolysis of ATP for this calculation.
A) 50 ATPs, 100GTPs B) 100 ATPs, 99 GTPs
C) 100 ATPs, 100 GTPs D) 100 ATPs, 200 GTPs
16. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for monitoring the alterations in the
levels of a serum protein using an antibody ?
A) Fluorescence activated cell sorting
B) Immunofluorescence microscopy
C) Western blotting
D) Enzyme linked Immunosorbent Assay
17. Lectins are used to identify the blood type in a clinical setting. Which motif does it
recognize and bind?
A) Carbohydrates B) Proteins
C) Lipids D) Nucleic acids
18. Which one of the following combinations must be present in a steroid receptor that is
located in the cytoplasm?
A) Nuclear export sequence, leucine zipper
B) Nuclear localisation sequence, leucine zipper
C) Nuclear export sequence, Zinc finger motif
D) Nuclear localization sequence, Zinc finger motif
19. What is the function of p53 which prevents the development of cancer?
A) It is a transcription factor.
B) It prevents the replication of cells with damaged DNA.
C) It helps in maintenance of telomere length.
D) It prevents cells from triggering apoptosis.
20. Which of the following signals is not coupled to G protein related signal transduction
pathway ?
A) Insulin B) Glucagon
C) Epinephrine D) Oxytocin
21. A PCR reaction that continues for 30 cycles will produce approximately how many PCR
products from a single template DNA molecule?
A) 64 B) 1,28,000
C) Approximately 1 million D) Approximately 1 billion
22. In an experiment to identify the post-translational modification of a protein, following

experimental data was obtained.
1. Protein move more slowly in an SDS PAGE.
2. Isoelectric focusing showed no change in pI.
3. Mass spectrometry analysis showed that the modification occurred on Serine
residue. The modification that protein undergoes is likely to be-
A) Phosphorylation B) Glycosylation
C) Ubiquitination D) ADP- ribosylation
23. Which of the following class of antibodies is involved in Type I hypersensitivity

reaction?
A) IgE B) IgA C) IgG D) IgM
24. A deletion of three consecutive bases in the coding region of a gene cannot result in-
A) Deletion of a single amino acid without any change in the protein
B) Replacement of a single amino acid without any change in protein function
C) Replacement of a single amino acid by another without any other alteration in the
sequence of a protein
D) Production of a truncated protein
25. Which of the following enzymes does not require a primer:

A) DNA dependent RNA polymerase B) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase D) Taq DNA polymerase
26. Zn is an essential cofactor for :

A) Transaminases B) Superoxide dismutase
C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase D) Glutamate dehydrogenase
27. Citrate has a positive allostearic effect on which one of the following-
A) Pyruvate kinase B) Acetyl CoA carboxylase
C) Phosphofructokinase D) Fatty acid synthase
28. The human genome project began as researchers mapped ------ and sites of cytogenetic
abnormalities-
A) RFLPs B) VNTRs
C) PCRs D) Lods
29. The catalytic efficiency of two enzymes can be compared by-
A) Molecular size of the enzymes B) Their optimum pH
C) Formation of product D) Km value
30. Which of the following statements about the competitive inhibition of an enzyme-
catalyzed reaction is correct?
A) A competitive inhibitor and substrate can bind simultaneously to the enzyme.
B) The Vmax and Km (Michaelis constant) for a reaction are unchanged in the
presence of a competitive inhibitor.
C) The Vmax for a reaction remains unchanged in the presence of a competitive
inhibitor.
D) The Km for a reaction remains unchanged in the presence of a competitive
inhibitor
31. Which of the following statements about Western Blotting is correct?

A) The detection of a particular protein by Western Blotting relies on the very
specific interaction between the protein and its antibody.
B) The detection of a particular protein by Western Blotting relies on labelling the
protein with a specific dye.
C) The detection of a particular protein by Western Blotting relies on labelling the
antibody with a specific dye.
D) The detection of a particular protein by Western Blotting relies on the
denaturation of the protein.
32. Which of the following statements about the mechanism of the Na+/K+ pump is correct?
A) The Na+/K+ ATPase uses energy to pump Na+ outside the cell and K+ inside.
B) The Na+/K+ ATPase uses energy to pump Na+ inside the cell and K+ outside.
C) The Na+/K+ ATPase uses energy to bind both Na+ and K+ in turn.
D) The phosphorylation of the Na+/K+ ATPase does not change its conformation.
33. Which of the following statements about food storage in the body is correct?
A) More glycogen is stored per unit mass in the muscles than in the liver.
B) Glycogen storage in the liver is unlimited.
C) Fat is a more efficient form of fuel storage than glycogen.
D) Proteins in muscle cells are a normal storage form of fuel.
34. Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is NOT correct?

A) Prostaglandins are eicosanoids made from unsaturated fatty acids.
B) Prostaglandins are eicosanoids made from saturated fatty acids.
C) Prostaglandins synthesized from arachidonic acid have a pain-relieving effect.
D) Prostaglandins synthesized from arachidonic acid have a fever-reducing effect.
35. A protein has one Tryptophan and two Tyrosine residues. What would be the molar
concentration of the protein if its absorbance at 280nm is 1.6 { Extinction coefficient of
Trp residue is 5000M-1cm-1 and for Tyr- 1500 M-1cm-1}.
A) 0.2mM B) 2mM C) 1.6mM D) 3.2mM
36. Koshland’s theory of enzyme action is called-

A) Lock and key theory B) Enzyme coenzyme theory
C) Zymogen theory D) Induced fit theory
37. Following are the steps in DNA fingerprinting –

i) Hybridisation with probe
ii) Isolation of DNA
iii) Digestion of DNA with restriction endonucleases
iv) Detection by autoradiography
v) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
vi) Transferring the fragments to synthetic membrane
Which is the correct order of the steps-
A) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi B) v,vi,i,iii,ii,iv C) ii,iii,v,vi,i,iv D) ii,iii,v,vi,i,iv
38. Following is the general structure of a glycerophospholipid. What is the common name
of the phospholipid if X is replaced by choline-
A) Cardiolipin B) Cephalins
C) Lecithin D) Plasmalogen
39. Phenylketonuria occurs due to deficiency of the enzyme:

A) Tyrosine hydroxylase B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C) Tyrosinase D) Homogentisate oxidase
40. Which of the following would have high content of triglycerides?

A) LDL B) Chylomicrons C) HDL D) VLDL
41. You have to determine the amino acid sequence of a peptide. You perform the following
steps using enzyme cleavage of your peptide (see table below):
Step 1: Treatment with trypsin yields three fragments with the following sequences (in
the order of their length): Trp-Gly-Ala , Ala-Gly-Thr-Lys, Tyr-Leu-Asp-Arg.
Step 2: Treatment with chymotrypsin gave the following three peptide fragments: Gly-
Ala, Leu-Asp-Arg-Trp, Ala-Gly-Thr-Lys-Tyr. What is the sequence of your peptide?
A) Ala-Gly-Thr-Lys-Tyr- Leu-Asp-Arg-Trp- Gly-Ala
B) Gly-Ala- Leu-Asp-Arg-Trp- Ala-Gly-Thr-Lys-Tyr
C) Trp-Gly-Ala- Ala-Gly-Thr-Lys-Tyr-Leu-Asp-Arg
D) Tyr-Leu-Asp-Arg- Ala-Gly-Thr-Lys- Trp-Gly-Ala
42. Tumor cells have a higher requirement for glutamine. Which out of the following is
NOT an appropriate reason for this metabolic pattern?
A) Serve as a precursor for urea synthesis
B) Serve as a source of energy production via conversion to Glutamate
C) Act as a source of N in purine and pyrimidine synthesis
D) Serve as a biosynthetic precursor for amino acids
43. The first reaction in the degradation of the majority of amino acids involves the
participation of which of the following enzymes-
A) NAD+ B) Pyridoxal phosphate
C) Thiamine pyrophosphate D) FAD
44. A 25 year old man undertakes a prolonged fast for religious reasons. Which of the
following metabolites will be elevated in his blood plasma after 24 hrs?
A) Glucose B) Glycogen
C) Ketone bodies D) Non esterified fatty acids
45. Allopurinol, a drug for the treatment of Gout, is a--------- inhibitor of xanthine oxidase.
A) Non-competitive B) Uncompetitive
C) Competitive D) Allostearic
46. Which of the following features of mature mRNA is thought to protect it against
degradation?
A) 3’ Poly C tail
B) Lariat structure
C) Special Post translational modifications
D) 5’-methyl Guanosine Cap
47. Select the one FALSE statement.

A) Chaperones often exhibit ATPase activity.
B) Protein disulfide isomerase anf peptidyl prolyl isomerase are involved in proper
folding of proteins.
C) Ubiquitin is a small protein involved in protein degradation by lysosomes.
D) Mitochondria contain chaperones.
48. Phase II reaction of xenobiotic metabolism include all of the following except-
A) Hydroxylation B) Glucuronidation
C) Sulfation D) Methylation
49. Which of the following statements do not apply to Puromycin?

A) It is a structural analog of tyrosinyl tRNA.
B) It is incorporated via the A site on ribosome.
C) It inhibits both eukaryotic and prokaryotic translation.
D) It inhibits only prokaryotic translation.
50. Which of the following groups of enzymes are unique to the Calvin cycle?
A) Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase, phosphoribulokinase, and sedoheptulose
1,7-bisphosphatase
B) Ribose 5-phosphate isomerase,epimerase, and aldolas
C) Pyruvate kinase, Pyruvate carboxylase, Phosphofructokinase
D) glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate dehydrogenase, Pyruvate kinase,
Phosphoenolcarboxykinase
x-x-x
BioPhysics(1068)
1. Transition temperature of membrane bilayer is dependent on
A) Presence of internal proteins
B) Presence of transmembrane proteins
C) Degree to which the fatty acyl chains of the phospholipids are unsaturated
D) Protein to lipid ratio
2. How many signals does the aldehyde (CH3)3CCH2CHO have in 1H NMR and 13C NMR?
A) Five 1H signals and six 13C signals.
B) Three 1H signals and four 13C signals.
C) Five 1H signals and four 13C signals.
D) Three 1H signals and six 13C signals.
3. ELISA stands for

A) Enzyme-Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay
B) Enzyme Immunoassay
C) Enzyme-Lagged Immuno Sorbent Assay
D) Enzyme-Linked Immuno Solution Assay
4. Fluorescence recovery after photo bleaching in live cells is used to determine

A) Co-localization of proteins.
B) Distance between two organelles
C) Diffusion of proteins
D) Nucleic acid compactness
5. Circular Dichromism spectroscopy is primarily used for

A) Primary structure determination in proteins
B) Primary structure determination in DNA
C) Secondary structure determination in proteins
D) Primary structure determination in lipids
6. The absorption coefficient of 511 keV gamma rays depends on the :

A) Nature of the medium only B) Density of the medium only
C) Path travelled in the medium D) Intensity of the gamma rays
7. In the helium-neon laser, which of the following is not true?

A) The laser transition occurs in helium atom
B) The purpose of the helium atom is to help achieve a population inversion in the
neon atoms
C) There is stimulated emission as well as spontaneous emission in the Neon atoms
D) The metastable state occur in both the Helium and Neon atoms.
8. A nanosecond is :
A) 10–6 sec B) 10–3 sec C) 10–12 sec D) 10–9 sec
9. Device that converts one form of signal into another form is called:
A) Transformer B) Transducer C) Amplifier D) Condenser
10. Intrinsic rhythm of heart is maintained by

A) SA node B) AV node C) Internodal fibres D) Purkinje fibres
11. The bond between first phosphate group attached to sugar molecule in a nucleotide is
A) Phosphoester B) Phosphodiester
C) Glycosidic D) Phosphoanhydride
12. In a 310 helical polypeptide, the backbone hydrogen bonds are between
A) NH of n and CO of n+4 amino acid
B) CO of n and NH of n+3 amino acid
C) CO of n and NH of n+4 amino acid
D) NH of n and CO of n+3 amino acid
13. In electron microscope, as compare to filament, the potential on shield is always

A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Random
14. HEPES buffer is used in :

A) Animal tissue culture medium B) Plant tissue culture medium
C) Bacterial nutrient medium D) Yeast nutrient medium
15. Frequency range of alpha rhythm in normal EEG

A) 8-13 Hz B) 18-30 Hz C) 1-3.5 Hz D) 4-7 Hz
16. The sedimentation velocity of a protein in a centrifuge does not depend on the :
A) Density of solution B) Density of protein
C) Charge on protein D) Shape of protein
17. Which of the following amino acids is not the part of glutathione?
A) Glutamate B) Cysteine C) Glutamine D) Glycine
18. For macromolecules, a model refined to an R factor less than ……. indicates a good fit
A) 35% B) 25% C) 15% D) 20%
19. Which of the following facts will distinguish whether a cell is prokaryotic or eukaryotic?
A) The presence or absence of a rigid cell wall
B) The presence or absence of internal membranes partitioning the cells
C) The presence or absence of Ribosomes
D) The presence or absence of DNA as the Genetic material
20. The first protein to be sequenced is :

A) Insulin B) Myosin C) Myoglobin D) Haemoglobin
21. Lipids are synthesized in:

A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi complex D) None of these
22. Antibodies are produced by:

A) T-cells B) NK-cells
C) Plasma cells D) B-cells
23. Genetically programmed cell death is called

A) Apoptosis B) Necrosis
C) Phagocytosis D) All of these
24. Which one of the following is not a type of connective tissue?

A) Blood B) Lymph C) Adipose tissue D) Muscle
25. The site of oxidation in a cell is the:

A) Mitochondrion B) Endoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi apparatus D) Ribosomes
26. Component of atom involved in study of structure with X-ray crystallography is:
A) Nucleus B) Electron C) Proton D) Neutrons
27. The structure of collagen is :

A) Triple helix B) Double helix C) Single helix D) Beta stranded
28. Mass spectroscopy is an analytical technique for identification of molecules by way of

measuring their:
A) Mass only B) Charge only
C) Mass to charge ratio D) Charge to mass ratio
29. At pH 10 which of the amino acid would function as a buffer:

A) Glycine B) Arginine C) Glutamine D) Lysine
30. Isoelectric focusing can be used to determine:

A) Molecular weight of a protein
B) The subunit conformation of a multimeric protein
C) The pH at which a protein is Zwitterion
D) The amino acid sequence of a protein
31. The bending of a beam of light when it passes obliquely from one medium to another is
known as _______.
A) Reflection B) Refraction C) Dispersion D) Polarization
32. The first bioinformatics database was created by

A) Pearson B) Richard Durbin
C) Michael J. Dunn D) Dayhoff
33. Extraction of 99mTc-MAG3 is by:

A) Active transport B) Glomerular filtration
C) Tubular secretion D) Facilitated diffusion
34. SI unit of radioactivity is:

A) Sieverts B) Ci C) Rutherford D) Bq
35. Which one of the following detectors cannot be used for the energy determination of
gamma rays ?
A) Ionization chamber B) Proportional counter
C) Geiger-Muller counter D) NaI(Tl) detector
36. Mucous, sweat, oil, and salivary glands are all ………..
A) Exocrine glands B) Endocrine glands
C) Paracrine glands D) Psedocrine glands
37. What is the rotational symmetry of a square

A) 360° B) 180° (C) 90° D) 45°
38. Name the snail shaped organ in the inner ear which is responsible for hearing
A) Vestibule B) Stapes C) Incus D) Cochlea
39. Which one of the following is a microwave generator

A) Cyclotron B) Magnetron C) DC Generator D) Alextron
40. ClustalW is a method that is used for:

A) Pairwise sequence alignment B) Homology Modeling
C) Multiple Sequence Alignment D) Introduction of gap penalty
41. In the 10-20 lead system in an EEG the number of electrodes applied are:
A) 19 B) 20 C) 21 D) 22
42. 50:50 mixture of L and D enantiomers rotate the plane of polarized light by:
A) 90° B) 180° C) 270° D) 0°
43. What is the resting membrane potential of a neuron?

A) -55 mV B) -65mV C) -80 mV D) -70mV
44. The number of cranial nerves in human body are

A) 16 B) 12 C) 8 D) 20
45. Nissl body originates from

A) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum B) Cytoplasm
C) Plasma Membrane D) Vacuole
46. MHC stands for

A) Major Histocompatibility complex B) Minor Histocompatibility complex
C) Major Hypersensitivity complex D) Minor Hypersensitivity complex
47. Absorption of light in the ultraviolet region is because of the :

A) Electronic transitions only B) Vibrational level transitions only
C) Rotational level transitions only D) Rotational and the vibrational transitions.
48. The normal glomerular filtration rate is close to:

A) 25 ml/min B) 50 ml/min C) 100 ml/min D) 125 ml/min
49. The power supply is used to perform gel electrophoresis because it:
A) Converts AC to DC B) Converts DC to AC
C) Converts AC to high power AC D) Does not affect current
50. S phase of cell cycle deals with:

A) Cell division B) Cell arrest
C) Duplication of DNA D) DNA repair
x-x-x
BioTechnology(1068)
1. In intrinsic pathway of apoptosis
A) Bcl2 inhibits apoptosis while Bax simulates apoptosis
B) Bcl2 stimulates apoptosis while Bax inhibits apoptosis
C) Both Bcl2 and Bax inhibits apoptosis
D) Both Bcl2 and Bax stimulates apoptosis
2. The antagonistic action to adenylate cyclase is shown by

A) cAMP B) ATP
C) Protein kinase D) Phosphodiesterase
3. While creating a knockout mouse using homologous recombination, why a viral

thymidine kinase gene is included in the vector outside of the region of homology
between the targeted chromosome and vector? It allows
A) Negative selection of cells where target sequence got integrated by
homologous recombination
B) Negative selection of cells where target sequence got integrated randomly
C) Positive selection of cells where target sequence got integrated by
homologous recombination
D) Positive selection of cells where target sequence got integrated randomly
4. In PCR reaction one should not go for more than about 30 amplification cycles
because
A) Taq polymerase has a half-life of 30 min at 95oC
B) dNTPs got denatured
C) dNTPs get exhausted
D) Primers get exhausted
5. Real time PCR is a method used for

A) Qualitative amplification of DNA
B) Qualitative amplification of RNA
C) Quantitative analysis of mRNA expression
D) Qualitative analysis of mRNA expression
6. Canning of vegetables and fruits is a

A) Heat process B) Cold process
C) Irradiation process D) Microwave process
7. The mother and father of Rajesh (male child) and Ritu (female child) have normal
vision. Both maternal and paternal grand fathers of Rajesh were colour blind. What
is the probability of getting colour blindness in case of Ritu?
A) 100% B) 50%
C) 25% D) 0%
8. Down syndrome is a diseases caused due to

A) Nondisjunction of chromosome B) Linkage
C) Crossing over D) Sex linked inheritance
9. The best wavelength associated with UV spectroscopy is
A) 1nm -400µm B) 190nm-1nm
C) 380nm-190nm D) 750nm-380nm
10. Proteins are separated by SDS page on the basis of

A) Change B) pI
C) Shape D) Size
11. Fluorosecnt spectroscopy utilizes the presence of intrinsic fluorescence by

A) Tyrosine B) Phenylalanine
C) Tryptophan D) Alanine
12. MTT assay is a colorimetric assay for assessing cell metabolic activity. It is based
on the ability of cellular oxidoreductase enzymes
A) To oxidize the tetrazolium dye formazan to its insoluble form MTT
B) To reduce the tetrazolium dye formazan to its insoluble form MTT
C) To oxidize the tetrazolium dye MTT to its insoluble formazan
D) To reduce the tetrazolium dye MTT to its insoluble formazan
13. iTRAQ is
A) An isobaric labeling method used in quantitative proteomics
B) An isobaric labeling method used in quanlitative proteomics
C) Method for quantitative analysis of gene expression
D) Method for qualitative analysis of gene expression
14. Genomic imprinting is

A) Genes are incorrectly silenced due to DNA methylation, resulted in altered
phenotypes
B) Only one of a pair of genes is expressed, the other being methylated and
silenced
C) DNA methylation patterns in a genome are passed on to the next generation
D) DNA methylation is altered allowing for genes to be expressed that should be
silenced
15. Which one is not a gene expression database

A) Bodymap B) GeneBank
C) SeedGenes D) Flyview
16. A unique small segment/cDNA of an active gene is known as

A) ESTs B) SNPs
C) Contigs D) hnRNA
17. Structural genomics is

A) DNA sequencing followed by gene annotation
B) DNA sequencing followed by genome annotation
C) DNA sequencing followed by protein annotation
D) RNA sequencing followed by gene annotation
18. The question that can be answered using subtractive hybridization?

A) What genes are required for basic cellular functions?
B) What genes are expressed by the tissue?
C) What genes are expressed in stem but not in root?
D) What genes are expressed in both stem and root ?
19. A protein is coded by 366 nucleotides including start and stop codons. What will be
the length of peptide?
A) 120 B) 121 C) 122 D) 366
20. What is the complementary sequence of 5’ ATGCCGTCGAAGC 3' ?

A) 5’ ATGCCGTCGAAGC 3' B) 3’ ATGCCGTCGAAGC 5'
C) 5’ TACGGCAGCTTCG 3’ D) 3’ TACGGCAGCTTCG 5’
21. pUC plasmid has N-terminus 146 aminoacids of β-galactosidase.. What is the
rationale behind this?
A) For replication of plasmid
B) For screening of E. coli having plasmid
C) For screening of E. coli having plasmid with insert
D) For proper ligation of gene
22. A continuous bioreactor in which only the flow rate is used to control the rate of
cell or products productivity is called
A) Chemostat B) Physicostat
C) pH stat D) Temperature
23. In yeast two hybrid system a reporter gene is

A) Always GFP
B) Fused with activation domain of transcription factor
C) Expressed only when interaction of tested protein occurs
D) Expressed only when tested protein are not interacting
24. phred score is

A) Is a measure of the quality of the identification of the nucleobases generated
by automated DNA sequencing
B) Is a measure of the quality of PCR product in real time PCR
C) Is a measure of the quantity of PCR product in real time PCR
D) Is a measure of the quantity of the identification of the nucleobases generated
by automated DNA sequencing
25. Which one is not a remedy for property rights infringement?
A) Profit accounting B) Specific performance
C) Damages D) Injunction
26. Registration of certification mark can be done in

A) DBT B) Trademark Registry
C) Certification Board D) MHRD
27. A graft between members of different species is known as

A) Allograft B) Xenograft
C) Autograft D) Isograft
28. In monoclonal antibody production by hybridoma technology

A) B cell and myeloma cells is fused
B) B cell lacking HGPRT and myeloma cells is fused
C) B cell and myeloma cells lacking HGPRT is fused
D) B cell and myeloma cells lacking HGPRT and producing antibody is fused
29. QTL
A) Determines quality of a loci
B) Determines quantity of a loci
C) Is a section of DNA (the locus) which correlates with variation in a phenotype
D) Is a section of DNA (the locus) which correlates with variation in a genotype
30. Bromodomain recognizes

A) Methylated lysine residues
B) Acetylated lysine residues
C) Phosphorylated lysine residues
D) Ubiqutinated lysine residues
31. In Crysper-cas9 system, crisper sequence is recognized by

A) Messenger RNA B) Transfer RNA
C) Ribosomal RNA D) Guide RNA
32. A competitive inhibitor :
A) Increases both Km and Vmax
B) Decreases both Km and Vmax
C) Decreases Vmax
D) Increases Km without affecting Vmax
33. RNA interference (RNAi) or Post-Transcriptional Gene Silencing (PTGS) is a

conserved biological response to
A) double-stranded RNA
B) DNA- RNA hybrid
C) Methylated double stranded DNA
D) Single stranded DNA
34. Reversed phase HPLC utilizes

A) A hydrophobic stationary phase and a polar mobile phase
B) A hydrophobic stationary phase and a non-polar mobile phase
C) A hydrophilic stationary phase and a non-polar mobile phase
D) A hydrophilic stationary phase and a polar mobile phase
35. The model organism widely used for genetic studies

A) Neurospora
B) Drosophila melanogaster
C) Danio rerio
D) Bacillus subtilis
36. A protein domain is

A) The α-helical portion of a protein
B) the β-pleated sheet portion of a protein
C) An independent region of polypeptide chain having self-contained three-
dimensional structure
D) A globular proteins
37. BOD is a measure of :

A) Extent to which water is polluted with organic compounds
B) Carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin
C) Wastes poured into water bodies
D) Amount of oxygen needed by green plants during day
38. Artificial seeds are

A) Seeds produced in lab conditions
B) Seeds encapsulated in a gel
C) Somatic embryos encapsulated in a gel
D) Zygotic embryos encapsulated in a gel
39. An esterase has been purified from inclusion bodies in the presence of urea. The
protein has been refolded by serial dilution method. Which technique can be used to
determine if protein has been refolded properly?
A) NMR
B) Spectrophotometric analysis
C) SDS-PAGE
D) CD spectroscopy
40. High levels of mRNA for the enzymes of the E. coli lac operon will be synthesized
in presence of
A) High glucose, high lactose B) No glucose, high lactose
C) Low glucose, low lactose D) High glucose, low lactose
41. The heat inactivation of serum in animal cell culture is carried out?
A) To inactivate complement system
B) To activate growth hormones
C) To inactivate any bacteria present
D) To remove unwanted proteins
42. The hnRNA of a gene is 8800 ribonucleotide long. The mature mRNA is 2172
ribonucleotide long. This size difference is due to the
A) Splicing B) Deletion
C) Cleavage of RNA D) Removal of tail
43. A gene for protein X was cloned in pET28a vector followed by transformation in
DH5α E. coli strain. Upon induction with IPTG, expression of gene was not
observed. The problem in expression is due to the
A) Codon biasing
B) Very Strong promoter
C) Degradation of expressed protein
D) Host selection
44. The resonance in protein structure is responsible for:

A) The partial double bond character of the side chain-alpha carbon bond
B) The prevention of rotation about the alpha carbon
C) The planar nature of the peptide bond
D) The ability of cochlear cells to detect sound waves by mechanotransduction
45. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the genoypte frequency of heterozygotes,

if the frequency of the two alleles at the gene being studied are 0.6 and 0.4, will be:
A) 0.80 B) 0.64
C) 0.48 D) 0.32
46. GRAIL algorithm is used for searching genes in DNA sequence

A) Neural network B) Wide network
C) Rule based system D) Hidden markov model
47. Very long DNA can be separated by

A) Acrylamide gel electrophoresis
B) Agarose gel electrophoresis
C) Paper chromatography
D) Pulse field gel electrophoresis
48. One of the first reports of transgenic animals involved in transfer of growth
hormone gene fused to the promoter for the
A) T7 B) T5
C) Mettalothionine D) GST
49. The term “prey” is associated with

A) AD hybrid B) DBD hybrid
C) Yeast hybrid D) Reverse two hybrid
50. Which type of biosafety facility is required to work with HIV?

A) BSL0 B) BSL1
C) BSL2 D) BSL3
x-x-x
Botany (1068)
1. Which of the following is not an extinct member of pteridophytes?

A) Lepidodendron B) Sphenophyllum
C) Phylloglossum D) Calamites
2. Which of the following terms is used for the harvestable growth of ecosystem?
A) Biomass B) Primary productivity
C) Ecological yield D) Standing crop
3. Which of the following is commonly known as “Skeleton fern”?

A) Tmesipteris elongate B) Pteris pedatum
C) Psilotum nudum D) Hymenophyllum denticulatum
4. Spores of the fern plants germinate to form…….

A) Embryo B) Prothallus C) Protonema D) Zygospore
5. Category III of IUCN Protected Area pertains to the……..

A) Natural Monument B) National Park
C) Wilderness Area D) Strict Nature Reserve
6. Which of the following best describes the concept of a metapopulation?

A) A population in an urban area
B) A population of different species living in the same geographic area at the same time
C) A population that has become spatially subdivided
D) A network of distinct and non-interacting species
7. Which of the following terms is used for the populations showing reversible phenotypic
variations induced upon environmental gradient?
A) EcotypeB) Ecophene C) Ecotope D) Ecotone
8. Leaves are involved in the vegetative reproduction in which of the following plants?
A) Solanum nigrum B) Brassica campestris
C) Bryophyllum daigremontianum D) Opuntia articulata
9. The only natural habitat of the endangered Manipur Brow-Antlered deer is……..
A) Keibul Lamjao National Park B) Keoladeo National Park
C) Great Himalayan National Park D) Kudremukh National Park
10. Golden rice is a genetically modified variety of rice that contains a gene from …….
A) Sunflower B) Lotus C) Daffodil D) Marigold
11. Recombinant DNA was first developed in the year…….

A) 1974 B) 1973 C) 1972 D) 1971
12. Caryopsis is the fruit in family………
A) Asteraceae B) Chenopodicaeae C) Poaceae D) Apiaceae
13. Which of the following is an example of drupe?

A) Avocado B) Buttercup C) Olive D) Pear
14. Which of the following was the theme of the International Day of Forests 2018?
A) Forests and Sustainable Cities B) Forests and Energy
C) Forests and Water D) Forests | Climate | Change
15. Chemically, ephedrine is a/an…….

A) Saponin B) Polyphenol C) Alkaloid D) Diterpene
16. Rattans are the type of ……..

A) Climbing Pines B) Climbing Palms
C) Climbing Ferns D) Woody Ferns
17. Which of the following is true about bird-pollinated plants?

A) Plants tend to have red flowers and are rarely scented
B) Plants tend to have red flowers and are always scented
C) Plants tend to have blue flowers and are always scented
D) Plants tend to have blue flowers and are rarely scented
18. The change in allele frequency from one generation to the next is known as……
A) Gene flow B) Genetic drift C) Gene transfer D) Gene migration
19. The term gene was coined by

A) C.H. Morgan B) Hugo de Vries
C) William Bateson D) Wilhelm Johannsen
20. Which of the following terms is used for the hard and porous cell wall of diatoms?
A) Frustule B) Lorica
C) Extra cellular matrix D) Coccolith
21. India’s seed vault for protecting the seeds especially of crops is located at……
A) Kaza (Lahaul and Spiti) B) Kalpa (Kinnaur)
C) Chang La (Ladakh) D) Kargil (Ladakh)
22. Bull Kelp is the common name of ………..

A) Laminaria hyperborean B) Durvillaea antarctica
C) Ascophyllum nodosum D) Macrocystis pyrifera
23. Which of the following is not a C4 plant?

A) Maize B) Barley C) Sugarcane D) Sorghum
24. Drooping junipers are the characteristic trees of ………..

A) Littoral and Swamp forests B) Moist tropical forests
C) Alpine forests D) Sub-tropical forests
25. Which of the following members of oomycetes is used as a biocontrol agent?

A) Pythium oligandrum B) Saprolegnia mixta
C) Aphanomyces euteiches D) Plasmopara viticola
26. Which of the following green algae is responsible for causing the phenomenon of watermelon snow?
A) Chlorella vulgaris B) Chlamydomonas nivalis
C) Volvox aureus D) Chara elegans
27. Die natürlichen Pflanzenfamilien is related to…….
A) Bentham and Hooker B) Engler and Prantl
C) Takhtajan D) Hutchinson
28. Which of the following is an example of leafy liverwort?

A) Porella B) Riccia C) Nothoceros D) Marchantia
29. Which of the following contains inverted cortical vascular bundles?

A) Sunflower B) Nyctanthes C) Boerhavia D) Bougainvillea
30. Replum is found in the ovary of……..

A) Mustard B) Sunflower C) Petunia D) Pea
31. Which of the following species of Amanita is commonly known as “Death Cap”?
A) Amanita bisporigera B) Amanita ocreata
C) Amanita phalloides D) Amanita verna
32. Which of the following diseases of potato is associated with the famines that occurred in Europe in 1840s?
A) Potato Scab B) Late Blight of Potato
C) Early Blight of Potato D) Brown Rot of Potato
33. Which of the following viroids was the first to be identified?

A) Avocado Sun Blotch Viroid B) Eggplant Latent Viroid
C) Potato Spindle Tuber Viroid D) Peach Latent Mosaic Viroid
34. Who among the following is known as the father of taxonomy?

A) de Candolle B) Linnaeus C) Mayr D) Theophrastus
35. Which of the following is the botanical name of Ajwain?

A) Cuminum cyminum B) Ferula communis
C) Foeniculum vulgare D) Trachyspermum ammi
36. Amber is a type of ……

A) Fossilized tree resin B) Inflorescence
C) Fruit D) Woody climber
37. Which of the following parts of clove is used as flavouring material?
A) Dried leaves B) Dried seeds C) Floral buds D) Young fruits
38. A mutation that changes a codon specifying a different amino acid to one of the stop codons is
known as…..
A) Leaky mutation B) Nonsense mutation
C) Missense mutation D) Null mutation
39. Fuelgen reaction is a specific test to check the presence of……..

A) RNA B) Proteins C) Fats D) DNA
40. Which of the following refers to the recognition site in promoter region of a lac operon?
A) Pribnow box B) TATA box C) CRP box D) Cga box
41. Which of the following amino acids is aromatic in nature?

A) Tryptophan B) Glycine C) Glutamic acid D) Alanine
42. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves

A) Both PS I and PS II B) Either PS I or PS II
C) PS II only D) PS I only
43. Which of the following is true about Nastic movements?

A) Non-directional only
B) Reversible only
C) Both reversible and non-directional
D) Neither reversible nor non-directional
44. Which of the following is the symbol for net reproductive rate?
A) R0 B) lx C) λ D) mx
45. Type I error in statistical hypothesis testing is also known as………

A) Standard error B) False neutral
C) False negative D) False positive
46. Which of the following is the full form of DOI – a serial code for electronic documents?
A) Digital Object Index B) Digital Object Identifier
C) Data Operating Indicator D) Data object Identifier
47. Sulphur shower relates to……
A) Pinus B) Picea C) Abies D) Ginkgo
48. Fern Acrostichum aureum is well adapted to .................

A) Salt marshes B) Heathlands
C) Open exposed areas D) Xerophytic conditions
49. Long fibre of cotton seed is known as…….

A) Coir B) Fuzz C) Flax D) Lint
50. Medicinally important Ginseng, a slow growing perennial plant belongs to which of the following
genera?
A) Panicum B) Pandanus C) Panax D) Papaver
x-x-x
Chemistry(1068)
1. The rotational spectrum of a rigid diatomic rotor consists of equally spaced lines with
spacing equal to:
A) 2B B) 3B/2 C)B/2 D)B
2. Consider an endothermic reaction A B with Eb and Ef as activation energies for

the backward and forward reactions respectively, then:
A) Eb > Ef
B) Eb < Ef
C) Eb = Ef
D) There is no definite relation between Eb and Ef
3. For a cyclic process:

A) Both ∆U=0 and ∆H=0 B) ∆H=0
C) ∆U=0 D) ∆U=0 and ∆H≠0
4. ‘It is only the radiation actually absorbed by the reacting system that is effective in
producing a chemical reaction’.
A) Lambert law B) Grothus-Draper Law
C) Lambert-Beer law D) Einstein-Stark Law
5. The temperature at which the average speed of H2 equal that of O2 at 320 K:

A) 10K B) 20K C) 30K D)40K
6. The second lower state of particle in a cubic box is:

A) Non-degenerate B) Doubly degenerate
C) Six fold degenerate D) Triply degenerate
7. In polarography:
A) E1/2 varies with concentration B) E1/2 is always zero
C) Migration current is not suppressed D) Diffusion current varies with concentration
8. The correct point group for SF6 is:

A) Oh B)Td C) D6h D) C2h
9. The crystal system of a compound with unit cell dimensions a=0.387, b=0.387, c= 0.504
nm and α=β= 900 and γ=1200 is:
A) Cubic B) Orthorhombic C) Rhombohedral D) Hexagonal
10. For an aqueous solution at 25oC, the Debye-Huckel limiting law is given by:
A) logγ± = 0.509|Z+Z-|√µ B) logγ± = 0.509|Z+Z-|µ 2
C) logγ± = -0.509|Z+Z-|√µ D) logγ± = 0.509|Z+Z-|µ ±
11. The standard electrode potential E0 at a fixed temperature and in a given medium is
dependent on
A) Only the electrode composition
B) The electrode composition and the extent of the reaction
C) The extent of the electrode reaction only
D) The electrode reaction and the electrode composition
12. A wave function (ψ) is not acceptable when:

A) When first derivative of ψ is continuous B) When ψ is single valued
C) When ψ is infinite D) When ψ vanish at infinite
13.
The given wave function graph in one-dimensional box of length, a, corresponds to

energy equal to (where, m is mass of particle):
A) 3h2/8ma2 B) 2h2/8ma C) 9h2/8ma2 D) 2h/8ma2
14. Soap essentially form a colloidal solution in water and remove the greasy matter by:
A) Coagulation B) Emulsification C) Adsorption D) Absorption
15. The lowest allowed energy is equal to zero for

A) The hydrogen atom B) A rigid rotor
C) A harmonic oscillator D) A particle in a 3-dimentional box
16. At high altitudes, the boiling point of water gets lowered because
A) Temperature is low B) Atmospheric pressure is low
C) Atmospheric pressure is high D) High vapour pressure
17. The cell constant of a conductivity cell:

A) Changes with change of electrolyte
B) Changes with temperature of electrolyte
C) Remains constant for a cell
D) Changes with change of concentration of electrolyte
18. Among the following the one which is EPR active is:
A) Ni(CO)4 B) [Cu(C2O4)]2- C) Mo(CO)6 D) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
19. Generally octahedral clusters are formed by:

A) Se, Y, La B) Zn, Cd, Hg C) Mo, Nb, Ta D) Mo, Nb, Tl
20. Cerium oxide containing special variety glass, which cuts off ultraviolet rays, is known
as:
A) Crookes glass B) Jena glass C) Flint glass D) Pyrex glass
21. The ion that gets readily hydrolysed is:

A) Dy B) Nd C) Eu D) Er
22. Which is thermodynamically unstable and also kinetically labile?

A) [Co(H2O)6]3+ B) [Co(H2O)6]2+ C) [Co(NH3)6]3+ D) [Co(NH3)6]2+
23. d-p mixing occurs in:
A) Tetrahedral complexes only B) Octahedral complexes only
C) Complexes with no centre of symmetry D) Complexes with centre of symmetry
24. Which transition metal is present in carbonic anhydrase?

A) Cobalt B) Nickel C) Zinc D) Manganese
25. Magnetic moment of Cr (Z=24), Mn+ (Z=25) and Fe2+ (Z=26) are x, y, z. They are in the
order
A) x < y < z B) z < x = y C) x = y = z D) x = y < z
26. Which of the following is the first chemical compound of the noble gases?
A) Xe[PtF6] B) Rn[PtF6] C) Ar[PtF6] D) Kr[PtF6]
27. Cold solution of barium nitrite on mixing with sulphuric acid produces:
A) BaSO4 + NO2 B) BaSO4 + HNO3
C) BaSO4 + HNO2 D) BaSO4 + N2 + O2
28. Nitric oxide is paramagnetic in:

A) Gaseous state B) Liquid state C) Solid state D) Polymeric state
29. The styx code for diborane is:

A) 2020 B) 2200 C) 2002 D) 0220
30. Microcosmic salt when heated strongly, a transparent bead is formed which is used in
identification of:
A) ZnO B) Al2O3 C) Fe2O3 D) SiO2
31. Which has the least molar solubility in H2O?

A) LiCl B) NaCl C) KCl D) CsCl
32. The shape of XeOF5- ion is:

A) Octahedral B) Distorted octahedral
C) Pentagonal pyramidal D) Pentagonal bipyramidal
33. From molecular orbital configuration of CO and NO+, we would predict:
A) Both have a Bond order of 3
B) Both are paramagnetic
C) Both will readily lose an electron to form CO+ or NO2+
D) Both CO and NO+ should not exist
34. Among the following diatomic molecules, which one will show EPR signal?
A) Li2 B) B2 C) C2 D) N2
35. What is the main factor on which chemical shift depends in Mossbauer spectra?
A) Electron density B) Transition energy
C) Intensity of light D) All of these
36. Assign R / S configuration at C-1, C-2 and C-5 in the following compounds.
CH3
5
1
OH
2
H3 C CH3
A) 1R,2S,5R B) 1R,2R,5R C) 1S,2S,5R D) 1R,2S,5S
37. Singlet and triplet carbene can be distinguish by reaction with :

A) Cyclobutane B) cis-Butene C) iso-Butane D) n-Butane
38. Predict the product X of the following reaction:
39. The major product formed by reaction of benzene withy isobutyl alcohol in presence of
con.H2SO4 is:
A) sec.-Butyl benzene B) n-Butyl benzene
C) iso-Butyl benzene D) tert.-Butyl benzene
40. The major product X in the following reaction is:

A) o-Nitro anisole B) p-Nitroanisole
C) m-Nitroanisole D) p-Nitro phenyl acetate
41. Elimination addition mechanism of aromatic nucleophilic substitution involves the

intermediacy of:
A) Carbanion B) Carbocation C) Free radical D) Benzyne
42. Reduction of cyclopene-2-ene-1-one with sodium borohydride in methanol and CeCl3

results in formation of:
43. The best reagent for conversion of 1-butene to 1-butanol is:

A) H2O / H2SO4 B) H2O2
C) Hg(OAc)2 / NaBH4 D) B2H6 / H2O2 -NaOH
44. Product Y in the following sequence of reaction is:
A) Cyclohexanol B) Cyclohexanone
C) Cyclohex-2-ene-1-one D) Cyclohex-3-ene-1-one
45. Which of aldehyde will not response to Cannizarro reaction:
A) Bezaldehyde B) Fomaldehyde
C) Trimethyl acetaldehydel D) Phenyl acetaldehyde
46. Base catalyzed condensation of two molecules of ester result in formation of:
A) α-Keto ester B) β-Keto ester
C) γ-Keto ester D) α-diketone
47. The selective reagent for selective oxidation of primary alcohol to aldehyde is:
A) CrO3 /H2SO4 B) CrO3 /Pyridine
C) MnO2 D) DMSO-(COCl)2 / Et3N
48. How many products are possible in case of free radical bromination of 1-butene ?
A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4
49. Relative intensity of M+, M++2 and M++4 peaks in mass spectra of 1,3-dibromopropane
is:
A) 1:2:1 B) 4:6:1 C) 2:6:1 D) 3:6:1
50. The following reaction is an example of:
A) [1,3]sigmatropic shift B) [4,3]sigmatropic shift

C) [2,3]sigmatropic shift D) [3,3]sigmatropic shift
x-x-x
Environment Studies (1068)
1. With reference to organic farming, which of the following has become India’s first fully
organic state?
A) Assam B) Arunachal C) Gujarat D) Sikkim
2. Noise level of 50 dB corresponds to sound intensity of

A) 10−5 Wm−2 B) 10−7 Wm−2 C) 10−3 Wm−2 D) 10−9 Wm−2
3. Which of the following is an eco-friendly food preservative, acts as a disinfectant and is a

tropical grass which is considered as a sacred material in Vedic scriptures?
A) Bamboo B) Darbha C) Lemon D) Bermuda
4. Consider the following statements:

1. Thermal power plants are major contributors of fly ash.
2. ESP’s are used to capture fly ash.
3. Flyash bricks are low in strength but eco-friendly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) 1 & 2 D) 1, 2 &3
5. The local people, in a particular region in India, train the roots of living trees into robust
bridges across the streams. As These unique 'living root bridges' are found in
A) Himachal Pradesh B) Jharkhand C) Meghalaya D) Tamil Nadu
6. 'Bio Carbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes' is managed by the
A) World Bank
B) Asian Development Bank
C) International Monetary Fund
D) United Nations Environment Programme
7. Which one of the following is the best description of the term 'ecosystem'?
A) A community of organisms interacting with one another.
B) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live
C) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms.
D) The flora and fauna of a geographical area
8. With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements:
1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by fungal inoculums.
2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are
released into the atmosphere.

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2
9. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

A) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
B) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
C) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
D) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
10. Consider the following States:

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
In which of the above States do 'Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests' occur?
A) 1 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3
11. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following
is/are not a participant/ participants?
1. Bangladesh
2. Cambodia
3. China
4. Myanmar
5. Thailand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A) 1 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2, 3 and 4 D) 1, 2 and 5
12. Consider the following statements

1. The winds which blow between 30o N and 60o S latitudes throughout the year
are known as Westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India
are part of westerlies.
13. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following?
1. Gravitational force of the Sun
2. Gravitational force of the Moon
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth
14. "Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as
the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with
thunder and lightning. But rain is soon over." Which of the following regions is described
in the above passage?
A) Savannah B) Equatorial C) Frigid D) Mediterranean
15. Which one of the following best describes the main objective of 'Seed Village Concept'?
A) Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm seeds and discouraging them to buy
the seeds from others
B) Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make
available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost
C) Earmarking some villages exclusively for the production of certified seeds
D) Identifying the entrepreneurs in village and providing them technology and finance to
set up seed companies
16. Which of the following has/have been accorded 'Geographical Indication' status?
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu
17. Siderite is an ore of

A) Nickel B) Chromium C) Molybdenum D) Iron
18. Which one of the following pair of States of India indicates the easternmost and
westernmost State?
A) Assam and Rajasthan B) Assam and Gujarat
C) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan D) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
19. The primitive atmosphere of earth consisted of

A) CO2, NO2, NH3, SO2 B) H2, NH3, CH4, H2O
C) CO, N2O3, SO3, H3N D) He, Ne, Ar, Kr
20. The sound power from a voice shouting is 0.001 Watt. The sound level in dB is
A) 120 dB B) 90 dB C) 60 dB D) 30 dB
21. Consider the following pairs:

Place of Pilgrimage: Location
1. Srisailam : Nallamalai Hills
2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
22. With reference to 'dugong', a mammal found in India, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. It is herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
1972.
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 1 and 3 D) 3 only
23. With reference to the use of nano-technology in health sector, which of the following
statements is/ are correct?
1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology.
2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy.
A) 1 only B) 2 Only C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
A) Saltwater crocodile B) Olive ridley turtle
C) Gangetic dolphin D) Gharial
25. Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest,
evergreen forest and deciduous forest?
A) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh B) South-West Bengal
C) Southern Saurashtra D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
26. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the
use of ozone-depleting substances?
A) Montreal Protocol B) Kyoto Protocol
C) Nagoya Protocol D) Bermuda Protocol
27. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?

A) It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change
B) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological
Diversity
C) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
D) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
28. Which of the following statements regarding 'Green Climate Fund' is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation
practices to counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and
World Bank.
29. A small amount of UV B radiation is essential for

1. Synthesis of Vitamin D
2. Acts as a germicide
3. Can cause cancer
4. Inhibit metabolism
A) 1only B) 1 & 2 only C) 3 only D) 3 & 4 only
30. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

A) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics
B) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows
C) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides
D) It is used for phyto- remediation
31. Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority
(NGRBA)’?
1. River basin is the unit of planning and management.
2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.
3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States through which the Ganga flows
becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis.
Select the correct Answer using the code given below.
A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1,2 and 3
32. Puga valley, one of the most promising geothermal fields in India is situated in which of
the following?
A) Himachal Pradesh B) Jammu & Kashmir
C) Sikkim D) Arunachal Pradesh
33. The Himalayan mountain range is a classic example of which type of plate boundary?
A) Divergent B) Convergent C) Transform D) Translucent
34. Formation of sedimentary chalcopyrite requires

A) High pH High Eh B) High pH Low Eh
C) Low pH Low Eh D) Low pH High Eh
35. What test statistic is used for a global test of significance?

A) F-test B) Z-test C) t- Test D) Chi-Square Test
36. The quantity of water that can be withdrawn annually and also the rate at which this
withdrawal could be made without adversely affecting the inventory of the aquifer is
called
A) Annual yield B) Percent yield C) Operational yield D) Monthly yield
37. Which of the following is a false statement regarding the Environment Impact
Assessment is?
A) Schedule I - List of projects requiring EIA
B) Schedule II - Application Forms
C) Schedule III - Procedure for public hearing
D) All of the above
38. The environmental planning is:

A) The analysis of how we can prevent the poaching of environment
B) The analysis of how people impact natural resources
C) The analysis of how we can preserve our biodiversity
D) The supply of management tool to conserve our environment
39. Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the
Government of India?
1. Incorporating environment al benefits and costs into the Union and State
Budgets thereby implementing the `green accounting’
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to
ensure food security to one and all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a
combination of adaptation and mitigation measures
A) 1 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3
40. Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because
of:
1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. The photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the oceans.
3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 only C) 2 and 3 D) 3 only
41. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power
crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and
carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat
generation but not in internal combustion engines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
42. What is the theme of World Environment day, 2018?

A) Beat Plastic Pollution B) Connecting people to nature
C) Conserve natural resources D) Recycle aluminium
43. Which of the following is 10 discontinuity between mantle and core?

A) Mohorovicic B) Gutenberg- Weichert
C) NiFe D) Conrad
44. Red soil is rich in which of the following mineral

A) Magnesium B) Iron C) Phosphorus D) Aluminium
45. The largest ocean on earth is

A) Pacific Ocean B) Atlantic Ocean C) Antarctic Ocean D) Arctic Ocean
46. X ray films are a source of which of the following gas?

A) SO2 B) CO2 C) NO2 D) SO3
47. Which one of the following is responsible for broncho spasm?

A) SO3 B) SO4 C) CO2 D) SO2
48. Maximum biological damage is caused by

A) X-Rays B) Gamma – Rays C) Beta- Rays D) Alpha-Rays
49. Green Blocks refers to

A) Bio-bricks B) Pro-biotic curd C) Green Ministry D) Green Cover
50. The noble gas used for the treatment of cancer

A) Argon B) Radon C) Krypton D) Helium
x-x-x
Geology(1068)
1. Liquefaction commonly occurs in an area of
A) Abandoned mines B) Sand and silts
C) Carbonates D) Evaporites
2. Grouting is carried out to

A) Improve rock strength B) Improve building strength
C) Fill in the reservoir D) Empty the reservoir
3. Which one of the following faults is more common in the Himalaya?

A) Normal B) Transform C) Strike-slip D) Thrust
4. Listric fault is a type of

A) Strike-slip fault B) Normal dip-slip fault
C) Reverse dip-slip fault D) Overthrust fault
5. A dipping formation has a true dip of 70° due North. What will be the amount of apparent dip
due N45°W?
A) 20° B) 25° C) 30° D) 35°
6. Which one of the following cannot be measured using only a clinometers compass?
A) Strike of a plane B) Amount of plunge of a line
C) Direction of plunge of a line D) Pitch of a line
7. Which one of the following stratigraphic units is NOT part of Gondwana formations?
A) Maleri B) Panchmarhi C) Patcham D) Panchet
8. Which one of the following stratigraphic formations is Eocene in age?

A) Subathu B) Chingi C) Nagri D) Kasauli
9. Eparchean unconformity divides the geological units of

A) Archaean from Proterozoic B) Proterozoic from Palaeozoic
C) Late Palaeozoic from Mesozoic D) Late Archaean from Early Archaean
10. Which one of the following granites are characterised by riebeckite and arfvedsonite?
A) Peraluminous B) Strongly peraluminous
C) Strongly peralkaline D) Metaluminous
11. Which one of the following is not a lamprophyre?

A) Polzenite B) Vogsite C) Spessartine D) Minette
12. Name the rock of the upper primitive mantle that undergoes partial melting to generate
basaltic rocks.
A) Dunite B) Lherzolite C) Harzburgite D) Wherlite
13. The rare earth elements (REE) pattern of an igneous rock that largely constitutes cumulus
plagioclase will show a
A) Positive Eu anomaly B) Negative Eu anomaly
C) Positive Gd anomaly D) Negative Gd anomaly
14. A cohesive and foliated fault rock containing 50-90% matrix is called
A) Protomylonite B) Protocataclasite
C) Mesomylonite D) Mesocataclasite
15. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

A) Hornblende-plagioclase-garnet : Amphibolite facies
B) Hornblende-plagioclase-clinopyroxene : Hornblende-hornfels facies
C) Orthopyroxene-clinopyroxene-plagioclase : Pyroxene-hornfelds facies
D) Pyrope-omphacite-rutile : Eclogite facies
16. The rock in which the calc-silicates are formed as a result of reaction of carbonates and hot,
silica-rich waters from the pluton is called
A) Bastite B) Tactite C) Tectonite D) Coronate
17. The fauna Gigantopithecus-Hystrix-Coelodonta-Tragocerus characterises

A) Lower Siwaliks B) Upper Siwaliks C) Lower Murrees D) Upper Murrees
18. First land plants appeared in

A) Carboniferous B) Cretaceous C) Devonian D) Silurian
19. Which one of the following depositional environments is indicated by a brachiopod-bearing

sandstone?
A) Deep brackish water B) Shallow brackish water
C) Shallow marine D) Deep marine
20. Which one of the following minerals is an oxide in the Mohs scale of hardness?
A) Gypsum B) Topaz C) Corundum D) Apatite
21. When the colour of a mineral is due its chemical composition, it is known as
A) Idiochromatic B) Allochromatic C) Pseudochromatic D) isochromatic
22. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

A) X2SiO4 : Olivine
B) X3Y2Si3O12 : Garnet
C) X(Al,Si)2O8 : Feldspar
D) X2Y3Si3O12(OH) : Epidote
23. Which one of the following statements related to uniaxial minerals is NOT correct?
A) They crystallise with monoclinic, orthorhombic or triclinic symmetry
B) The optical indicatrix of an uniaxial mineral is an ellipsoid of rotation
C) If the extraordinary ray is slower, the mineral is said to be optically positive
D) If the extraordinary ray is faster, the mineral is said to be optically negative
24. Change in refractive index with wave length is called
A) Retardation B) Birefringence C) Dispersion D) Optic orientation
25. Prod marks are formed due to

A) Erosion B) Sediment recycling
C) Gravitational settling D) Slumping
26. Which one of the following processes will form chert?

A) Erosion of olivine grains B) Erosion of mica grains
C) Precipitation of dissolved silica D) Precipitation of dissolved clays
27. Sedimentary clasts of the grain size between 0.004 mm and 0.062 mm, are termed as
A) Clay B) Sand C) Silt D) Granule
28. A mud-supported carbonate rock that contains greater than 10% grains is known as
A) Wackestone B) Grainstone C) Packstone D) Mudstone
29. The oldest rock in world is located at

A) Jack Hills B) Itsaq Gneiss Complex
C) Acasta Gneiss Complex D) Nuvvuagittuq Greenstone Complex
30. Dolins are formed in

A) Karst B) Desert C) River D) Playa
31. The age of rocks of ocean floor is usually < 200 Ma because of
A) Ocean-floor metamorphism B) Hydrothermal alteration of oceanic basalts
C) Continuous subduction of oceanic crust D) Occurrence of ophiolites
32. The Eastern Ghat mobile belt is characterised by

A) Backarc sediments B) Forearc sediments
C) Granulites and khondalites D) Tidal to fluvial successions
33. Which one of the following folds can be used to deduce larger structures?
A) Chevron B) Drag C) Piercing D) Supratenous
34. The carbonated-hosted Pb-Zn deposits are associated with
A) Collisional tectonics B) Back-arc basins
C) Fore-arc basins D) Rift-related sedimentary basins
35. The Agnigundala lead deposits occur in the rocks of

A) Cuddapah Supergroup B) Vindhyan Supergroup
C) Dharwar Supergroup D) Marwar Supergroup
36. Which one of the following mineral deposits is located at Bhavnagar?

A) Dolomite B) Bentonite C) China clay D) Vermiculite
37. Noamundi iron mines are located in

A) Maharashtra B) Madhya Pradesh C) Jharkhand D) Bihar
38. Which one of the following conditions is favourable for the formation of bauxite deposits?
A) There should be maximum rainfall in the area
B) The rocks should be with low permeability
C) The parent rocks should contain K-bearing minerals
D) The area should have short period of tectonic stability
39. Mineral deposit occurring at an alteration of pinches and swells is called

A) Reef B) Lode C) Stock D) Pocket
40. 127N decays to 126C by

A) Alpha decay B) Negatron decay
C) Positron decay D) Electron capture
41. Which of the following isotopic methods is best suited to date biotite?
A) Rb-Sr & Sm-Nd B) K-Ar & Rb-Sr
C) Ar-Ar & Sm-Nd D) U-Pb and Sm-Nd
42. Which of the following isotopes are radioactive?

A) 147Sm & 148Sm B) 147Sm &150 Sm C) 148Sm & 150Sm D) 147Sm & 152Sm
43. Eötvös correction is necessary if gravity is measured

A) In a moving vehicle B) In a stationary vehicle
C) Below sea level D) Above sea level
44. For an oceanic profile, the Bouger anomaly is more strongly

A) Positive at the axis of ridge
B) Positive at distances beyond 1000 km from the ridge
C) Negative at the axis of ridge
D) Negative at distances beyond 1000 km from the ridge
45. What percentage of water on Earth is potable?
A) 20 % B) 78 % C) 8 % D) Less than 1 %
46. What are the three components of hydraulic head?

A) Gravitational energy+ Static energy+ Elevation energy
B) Thermal energy + Static energy+ Elevation energy
C) Kinetic energy + Pressure energy + Elevation energy
D) Elastic potential energy+ Pressure energy + Elevation energy
47. The change in the head per unit distance is called

A) Hydraulic gradient B) Hydraulic conductivity
C) Specific yield D) Specific storage
48. What is the maximum permissible level for nitrates in drinking water?
A) 45 ppm B) 45 ppb C) 10 ppm D) 10 ppb
49. The interaction of the electromagnetic radiation produced with a specific wave length to
illuminate a target on the terrain for studying its scattered radiance, is called
A) Passive remote sensing B) Active remote sensing
C) Neutral remote sensing D) Normal remote sensing
50. The changes in the reflectivity/emissivity with time, is called

A) Temporal variation B) Temporary variation
C) Spectral variation D) Spatial variation
x-x-x
Home Science(1068)
1. Vegetables are blanched

A) To sterilise them B) To prevent spoilage
C) To store them D) To inactivate the enzymes
2. Which one of the following is not a traditional Japanesecostume

A) Tatami B) Kimono C) Zanshi D) Yukata
3. Which is the first order of the development of play amongst children

A) Solitary play B) Dual play C) Parental play D) Peer play
4. Which of the following foods is rich in omega 3 fatty acids

A) Olive oil B) Rice bran oil C) Almonds D) Walnuts
5. The bobbin in a sewing machine is fixed on the

A) Oscillating hook B) Pressure foot C) Feed dog D) Thread lever
6. A gluten free diet is given to patients with

A) Crohn’s disease B) Celiac disease
C) Irritable bowel syndrome D) Liver disease
7. A kantha embroidery ceremonial bedspread is known as

A) Sujani B) Suber C) Sangli D) Sainchi
8. A situation in which all the participants are involved in the discussion of a problem is
known as
A) Symposium B) Debate C) Public speaking D) Brainstorming
9. Releasing pent up emotional energy is

A) Emotional catharsis B) Emotional breakdown
C) Emotional control D) Emotional security
10. Sociometry is a tool which measures a child’s

A) Knowledge about society B) Knowledge about sociology
C) Intelligence quotient D) Relationship with peers
11. The addition of black colour to any colour is known as

A) Chroma B) Shade C) Tint D) Colour intensity
12. The limiting amino acid in pulses is

A) Lysine B) Tryptophan C) Methionine D) Arginine
13. Which of the following is a neutral colour

A) Beige B) Red C) Green D) White
14. The human developmental pattern is

A) Non specific B) Predictive C) Haphazard D) Indefinite
15. The Act which governs the consumer disputes redressal forum is
A) Consumer Redressal Act B) Consumer Protection Act
C) Consumer Merchandise Act D) BIS Act
16. Several garments can be finished together by which of the following finishes
A) Firm press B) Buck press C) Die press D) Tunnel press
17. Inner time clock changes refer to

A) Digestion B) Growth C) Maturation D) Learning
18. Concept of Family Resource Management is

A) Attaining goals by optimum use of resources
B) Attaining goals by fulfilling responsibilities
C) Attaining goals by hard work
D) Attaining goals by delegating responsibilities
19. Enuresis is associated with

A) Spitting B) Bed wetting C) Biting D) Mental retardation
20. Lesions at the corners of the mouth occur in deficiency of

A) Vitamin E B) Iron C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin B
21. Right to survival of children is

A) Right to express B) Right to education
C) Right to entertainment D) Right to health and nutrition
22. Which of the following is not a principle of textile design

A) Light B) Harmony C) Rhythm D) Balance
23. Which of the following comes under the three tier system of Panchayati Raj
A) Self Help Groups B) Mahila Mandals
C) Village Panchayats D) Anganwadis
24. Which of the following principles mean that development takes place from head to toe
A) Proximodistal B) Continuous C) Linear D) Cephalocaudal
25. Tube feeding is also known as

A) Oral nutrition B) Nasal nutrition C) Enteral nutrition D) Parenteral nutrition
26. A bland diet easy to chew and digest is

A) Soft diet B) Semi solid diet C) Fluid diet D) Full fluid diet
27. Which of the following is not a correct layout for garment cutting of unidirectional
fabrics
A) Double fold B) Lengthwise fold C) Cross fold D) Open
28. International Literacy day is observed on

A) 8th October B) 8th September C) 7th October D) 7th September
29. The term Golden Rectangle refers to

A) Lines B) Geometric pattern C) Proportion D) Form
30. All chemical reactions occurring in the body are termed as

A) Oxidation B) Catabolism C) Anabolism D) Metabolism
31. The function of EGO is based on
A) Reality principle B) Pleasure principle C) Reflex action D) Dreams
32. Design repeat does not happen in

A) Mirror B) Drop C) Satin D) Rotary
33. HDL is synthesised and secreted from
A) Muscle B) Heart C) Pancreas D) Liver
34. Chi square is applied

A) When the data is in frequencies
B) To check accuracy of data
C) When there are several groups for comparison
D) When the data is qualitative
35. Which is the lowest scale of measurement

A) Interval scale B) Ordinal scale C) Nominal scale D) Ratio scale
36. Food borne intoxication is caused by

A) E. Coli B) Lactobacillus
C) Clostridium botulinum D) Salmonella
37. Which of the following does not promote language development in children
A) Solitary play B) Story telling C) Social interaction D) Peer play
38. The quality of any research can be assessed by

A) The duration of research B) The objectives of research
C) The total expenditure on research D) The title of the research
39. A mentally challenged child who can be educated has an IQ of

A) 0-25 B) 25-50 C) 50-75 D) 75-100
40. Vanaspati is an adulterant in

A) Biscuits B) Milk C) Dhesi Ghee D) Samosas
41. Organisation chart is also known as

A) Management Tree Chart B) Flow Chart
C) Power Chart D) Action Chart
42. Which is the chemical used for ripening of fruits

A) Benzene B) Gun Powder
C) Potassium Bisulphite D) Calcium Carbide
43. Which of these is not a symptom of kidney failure
A) Polyuria B) GFR 20ml or less / minute
C) Oliguria D) Oedema
44. PEM in early stages in children can be assessed by

A) Biochemical Tests B) Anthropometry
C) Pathological Tests D) Clinical Examination
45. Anemia caused by Vitamin B12 deficiency is

A) Megaloblastic B) Sickle Cell C) Pernicious D) Microblastic
46. Reading disability is called

A) ADD B) Dysgraphia C) Dyslexia D) Aphasia
47. Under National Mission for Empowerment for Women the centres created at village level
are called
A) Mahila Vigyaan Kendra B) Poorna Shakti Kendra
C) Rashtriya Mahila Kendra D) Mahila Vikas Kendra
48. Which of the following is not a cool colour

A) Bluish Green B) Yellow Orange C) Blue D) Green
49. The method of research used for conducting census every ten years is
A) Case Study B) Headcount C) Interview D) Survey
50. Which of the following does not reflect the use of knowledge and abilities acquired
through non formal education
A) Personal Development B) Involvement in community activities
C) Competency in doing similar work D) Increased self employment opportunities
x-x-x
Human Genomics(1068)
1. DNA contains information in form of bases, A, T, G, C. Proportion of G=C, A=T. Which
of the following strand of the DNA will have maximum information content?
A) Length 1000 bases with 10% G content
B) Length 2000 bases with 10% A content
C) Length 2000 bases with 40% T content
D) Length 1000 bases with 25% C content
2. Beating of cilia is regulated by

A) Actin B) Myosin C) Cofilin D) Nexin
3. The main difference between normal and transformed cells are

A) Immortality and contact inhibition
B) Shorter generation time and cell mobility
C) Apoptosis and tumor suppressor gene hyperfunction
D) Inactivation of oncogenes and shorter cell cycle duration
4. When bacteria are grown at 20 C and warmed at 37 C, they are most likely to synthesize
membrane lipids with
A) Short chain saturated fatty acids B) Short chain unsaturated fatty acids
C) Long chain saturated fatty acids D) Long chain unsaturated fatty acids
5. Which of the following combinations must be present in a steroid receptor located in

cytoplasm?
A) Nuclear export sequence (NES) and leucine zipper
B) NES and zinc finger motif
C) Nuclear localization sequence (NLS), zince finger motif
D) NLS and leucine zipper
6. The most commonly tool used for phylogenetic analysis involves sequencing of
A) Mitochondrial DNA B) Mitochondrial RNA
C) Ribosomal RNA D) Ribosomal DNA
7. A researcher wants to monitor changes in the level of a serum protein for which an
antibody is available. which technique he will use
A) Immunofluorescence microscopy B) Fluorescence in situ hybridization

C) ELISA D) FACS
8. A cell line deficient in salvage pathway for nucleotide biosynthesis was fed with medium
containing 15N labelled amino acids. Purines were then extracted. Treatment with which
one of the following amino acids is likely to produce 15N labelled purines?
A) Aspartic acid B) Proline
C) Tryptophan D) Histidine
9. Enzymes accelerate a reaction by which one of the following strategies?

A) Decreasing energy required to form the transition state
B) Increasing kinetic energy of the substrate
C) Increasing the free energy difference between substrate and the product
D) Increasing the turn over number of enzymes
10. A film projector and microscope give equal magnification. But a film projector is not
used to see living cells because
A) A living cell cannot be placed in a film projector
B) The viewer’s eye is close to a microscope whereas it is far away from the
projector’s screen.
C) A microscope produces a virtual image whereas a projector produces a real image.
D) A microscope has greater resolving power than a projector
11. The ionic strength of a 0.2 M Na2HPO4 solution will be

A) 0.2 M B) 0.4 M C) 0.6 M D) 0.8 M
12. The genome of a bacterium is composed of a single DNA molecule which is 109bp long.
How many moles of genomic DNA is present in the bacterium? [Consider Avogadro
No.=6 x 1023 ]
A) 1/6 x 10-23 B) 1/6 x 10-14 C) 6 x 1014 D) 6 x 1023
13. It takes 40 minutes for a typical E. coli cell to completely replicate its chromosome.
Simultaneous to the ongoing replication, 20 minutes of a fresh round of replication is
completed before the cell divides. What would be the generation time of E. Coli growing
at 37°C in complex medium?
A) 20 minutes B) 40 minutes C) 60 minutes D) 30 minutes
14. Which one of the following chemicals is a DNA intercalator?

A) 5-bromouracil B) Ethyl methane sulfonate
C) Acridine orange D) UV
15. An antibiotic that resembles the 3’end of a charged tRNA molecule is:
A) Streptomycin B) Puromycin C) Sparsomycin D) Tetracycline
16. In a heterozygous individual for a given gene, if a crossing over has occurred between the
gene locus and the centromere of the chromosome, the segregation of the two alleles of
the given gene will occur during meiosis at
A) Either anaphase-I or anaphase-II B) Anaphase-I only
C) Anaphase-II only D) Both anaphase-I and II
17. Which among the following is the simplest method to estimate the concentration of
glycerol in an aqueous solution of glycerol?
A) UV absorption spectroscopy B) pH measurement
C) Gas chromatography D) Viscosity measurement
18. A gene expressing a 50 kDa protein from an eukaryote was cloned in an E. coli plasmid
under the lac promoter and operator . Upon addition of IPTG, the 50 kDa protein was not
detected. Which one of the following explains the above observation?
A) The cloned sequence lacked the Kozak sequence
B) E. Coli does not make proteins larger than 40 kDa
C) Differences in codon preference
D) 50 kDa protein contains a nuclear localization signal
19. For identification of three proteins moving together (as a single band) upon loading in a
single lane of a SDS-PAGE gel, the best method is:
A) One step western blotting
B) NMR spectroscopy
C) Western blott followed by stripping and reprobing
D) UV spectroscopy
20. Which one of the following techniques will you use to identify more than 1000
differentially expressed genes in normal and tumor tissues in one single experiment?
A) RAPD B) Genome sequencing
C) ChIP assay D) Transcriptome analysis
21. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) In all L-amino acids, only the Cα carbon atom is chiral
B) Deoxyribose is optically inactive
C) The specific rotation of sucrose will be the sum of the specific rotations of D- glucose
and D-fructose
D) Phosphatidyl choline isolated from biological membranes is optically active
22. You have labelled DNA in a bacterium by growing cells in medium containing either 14
N nitrogen or the heavier isotope, 15 N. Furthermore, you have isolated pure DNA from
these organisms, and subjected it to CsCl density gradient centrifugation leading to their
separation of light (14N) and heavy (15N) forms of DNA to different locations in the
centrifuge tube. In the next experiment, bacteria were grown first in medium containing
15N, so that all the DNA made by cells will be in heavy form. Then these cells were
transferred to medium containing only 14N and allowed the cells to divide for one
generation. DNAs were extracted and centrifuged as above in the CsCl gradient. A hybrid
DNA band was observed at a position located between and equidistant from the 15N and
14N DNA bands. Based on the above observation, which one of the following
conclusions is correct?
A) Replication of DNA is conservative
B) Replication of DNA is semi conservative
C) Replication of DNA is dispersive
D) Replication of DNA is by rolling circle method
23. Two siblings who inherit 50% of the genome from the mother and 50% from the father
show lot of phenotypic differences. Which one of the following events during
gametogenesis of the parents will maximally contribute to this difference?
A) Mutation B) Recombination
C) Independent assortment D) Environment
24. Of the following, which one of the individuals will NOT necessarily carry the allele
responsible for the mentioned trait?
A) A woman in a family where an autosomal dominant trait is segregating and her
mother and son are affected
B) A daughter of a man who is affected by an X-linked dominant trait
C) A father of a child who is affected with an autosomal recessive trait
D) A father of a boy affected with X-linked recessive trait
25. If the probability of being blood type A is 1/8 and the probability of blood type O is ½,
what is the probability of being either blood type A or O?
A) 5/8 B) 1/8 C) 1/2 D) 1/16
26. If two proteins have overall sequence identity of 50%, then the overall similarity will be
A) Less than 50% B) More than 50%
C) Cannot be more than 50% D) Can be less or more than 50%
27. Histone deacytalase (HDAC) catalyses the removal of acetyl group from N-terminal of
histones. Which amino acid of histone is involved in this process?
A) Lysine B) Histidine C) Aspargine D) Glutamate
28. The effective strength of hydrogen bonds will be

A) Unaffected by water molecules B) Strengthened by water molecules
C) Weakened by water molecules D) Totally destroyed by water molecules
29. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A) Quantitative inheritance results in a range of measurable phenotypes for a polygenic
trait
B) Polygenic traits often demonstrate continuous variation.
C) Certain alleles of quantitative trait loci (QTL) have an additive effect on the
character/trait
D) Alleles governing quantitative traits do not segregate and assort independently
30. Which of the following is not a unit of structure found in proteins?

A) β sheets B) α helices C) Loop regions D) γ loops
31. A mouse carrying two alleles of insulin –like growth factor II (IgF2) is normal in size;
whereas a mouse that carries two mutant alleles lacking the growth factor is dwarf. The
size of a heterozygous mouse carrying one normal and one mutant allele depends on the
parental origin of the wild type allele. Such pattern of inheritance is known as
A) Sex- linked inheritance B) Genome imprinting
C) Gene environment interaction D) Cytoplasm inheritance
32. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A) Loss of genetic variation occurs within a small population due to genetic drift.
B) The number of deleterious alleles present in the gene pool of a population is called the
genetic load.
C) Genetic erosion is a reduction in levels of homozygosity
D) Inbreeding depression results from increased homozygosity for deleterious alleles.
33. Which one of the following statements is correct for amplified -fragment length
polymorphism (AFLP)?
A) PCR using a combination of random and gene specific primers
B) PCR amplification followed by digestion with restriction enzymes
C) Digestion of DNA with restriction enzymes followed by one PCR step
D) Digestion of DNA with restriction enzymes followed by two PCR steps
34. Telomerase, a RNA- protein complex which completes the replication of telomeres
during DNA synthesis ,is a specialised
A) RNA dependent DNA polymerase B) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
C) DNA dependent RNA polymerase D) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
35. One amino acid among following usually breaks an alpha helix
A) Proline B) Glycine C) Leucine D) Valine
36. Which of the following mutagens is most likely to result in a single amino acid change in
a gene product?
A) Acridine orange B) X-rays C) EMS D) Ethidium bromide
37. Which one of the following analytical techniques does NOT involve an optical
measurement?
A) ELISA B) Microarray
C) Flow cytometry D) Differential scanning calorimetry
38. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg model?

A) Population mates at random with respect to the locus in question
B) Selection is not acting on the locus in question
C) One allele is dominant and the other is recessive at this locus
D) The population is effectively infinite in size
39. If one has to think of conducting a charge, which molecule is useful in principle?
A) Proteins only B) DNA only
C) RNA only D) DNA and RNA both
40. Coomassie brilliant blue binds to

A) Proteins specifically B) Nucleic acids non specifically
C) Proteins nonspecifically D) Nucleic acids specifically
41. DNA mehtylation is involved in

A) Replication B) Transcription C) Imprinting D) Recombination
42. Evolution is NOT a:

A) Process directed to a goal B) Process which is ongoing
C) Random process D) Process which involves natural selection
43. Biological membranes are associated with all of the following except:
A) Free movement of proteins and nucleic acids across the membrane
B) Sites for biochemical reactions
C) Release of protons when damaged
D) Prevention of free diffusion of ionic solutes
44. Side chain of serine can act as

A) An electrophile B) A nucleophile
C) Both as a nucleophile and electrophile D) Neither as a electrophile or nucleophile
45. The van der Waals radius of an atom is

A) A measure of the size of an atom B) A measure of the bond that atom forms
C) A measure of its charge D) A measure of its electric filed
46. The only genetically encoded amino acid without a stereoisomer is:
A) Glycine B) Glutamate C) Glucose D) Galactose
47. Binomial distribution gives

A) The probability of events with binary outcomes
B) The measurement of event in binary digits
C) Precision of the measurement in binary digits
D) Accuracy of the measurement in binary digits
48. Which of the following is not a process governed by molecular recognition?

A) Active transport B) Passive diffusion
C) Translation by the ribosome D) Transcription by RNA polymerase
49. Palindromes are

A) Inverted repeat sequences B) Triplet repeats
C) Nucleosomes D) Double repeats
50. Which of the following is involved in the process of translation?

A) EF-Mu B) EF-C C) EF-D D) RF-3
x-x-x
Medical Physics
1. Which of the following is not an example of compressed data

A) Data array
B) Frequency distribution
C) Histogram
D) Ogive
2. The relationship between A.M., G.M. and H.M. is

A) G.M. = (A.M.) × (H.M.)
B) (G.M.)2 = (A.M.) × (H.M.)
C) G.M. = (A.M. × H.M.)2
D) (G.M.)2 = (A.M.)2 × (H.M.)2
3. Sampling distribution is usually the distribution of

A) Parameter
B) Variance
C) Mean
D) Statistics
4. The interval estimate of a population mean with large sample size and known standard
deviation is given by
A) ̅ ± / ̅
B) ̅ ± / ̅
C) ̅ ± / ̅
D) ̅ ± / ̅
5. If two regression lines are x + 3y + 7 = 0 and 2x + 5y = 12, then ̅ and are, respectively
A) 2, 1
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4
6. Which of the following statements regarding electromagnetic radiation is false?
A) Travel at the speed of light (3 × 108 m/second).
B) Have a photon energy proportional to frequency.
C) Travel at a speed proportional to frequency.
D) The product of frequency and wavelength is constant.
7. X-ray tube output is increased most strongly by increasing the
A) Voltage across the tube (kVp)
B) Anode diameter
C) Atomic number (Z) of the target
D) Tube current (mA)
8. The heel effect is more pronounced

A) at larger distances from the focal spot
B) with a larger target (anode) angle
C) with a smaller anode angle
D) at the cathode edge of the x-ray field
9. Which interaction dominates for 45 keV photons in water?

A) Photoelectric effect
B) Coherent scatter
C) Photodisintegration
D) Pair production
10. The attenuation coefficient for diagnostic x-ray photons in soft tissue
A) decreases to about 25 keV, then rises again
B) increases continuously with increasing energy
C) exhibits discontinuities at 69.5 keV
D) decreases continuously with increasing energy
11. The reason 12:1 grids are seldom used with portable radiography is because
A) low voltage used is unable to penetrate grids
B) accurate grid alignment is too difficult
C) scatter is not important in portable x-rays
D) air gaps are preferred to eliminate scatter
12. How many 5 MeV alpha particles are required to deposit total energy of 1 J?
A) 1.25 × 1012 alpha particles
B) 1.25 × 10-13 alpha particles
C) 6.5 × 10-13 alpha particles
D) 6.25 × 1012 alpha particles
13. The alpha particles with energy of 5.5 MeV are fully stopped in a gas with W-value of 30
eV/ion pair and a Fano factor of 0.15. The expected average number of ion pairs no produced
in the gas is
A) 1.6 × l034 ion pairs
B) 6.1 × l034 ion pairs
C) 1.83 × l05 ion pairs
D) 3.81 × l05 ion pairs
14. The scintillation efficiency of anthracene if 1 MeV of particle energy loss creates 20300
photons with average wavelength of 447 nm are
A) 7.65 %
B) 5.63 %
C) 3.65 %
D) 5.68 %
15. Which scintillation material is most efficient at converting the energy of a 2 MeV electron
into light?
A) BaF2
B) HPGe
C) NaI(Tl)
D) LaBr3(Ce)
16. The long-wavelength limit of the sensitivity of a photocathode layer with work function of
1.5 eV is
A) 2250 Angstroms
B) 1250 Angstroms
C) 8270 Angstroms
D) 7250 Angstroms
17. The acceleration voltage required for a hybrid photomultiplier tube using a silicon diode to
have a charge gain of 5000 is about
A) 27.3 keV
B) 17.9 keV
C) 12.6 keV
D) 13.0 keV
18. If the energy resolution of a particular NaI(Tl) scintillation detector is 7% for 137Cs gamma
rays (0.662 MeV), estimate its energy resolution for the 1.28 MeV gamma rays from 22Na
A) 0.0503
B) 0.0305
C) 0.5032
D) 0.2035
19. If the energy resolution of a scintillator is 8.5% at 662 KeV, the standard deviation (in energy
units) of the Gaussian curve that would be a fit to the photopeak at that energy is
A) 39.2 keV
B) 29.3 keV
C) 33.9 keV
D) 23.9 keV
20. The typical energy resolution for surface barrier detectors worsen as the surface area of the
detector increases because of
A) Resistance
B) Capacitance
C) Magnetic field
D) Electric field
21. Assume that the Fano factor in germanium were half the currently assumed value. Both the
FWHM and energy resolution are
A) increased by √2
B) increased by 2
C) decreased by √2
D) decreased by 2
22. An incident fast neutron is moderated and then diffuses total path length of 10 cm before
being captured in the BF3 tube of a long counter. The time delay between the time of neutron
incidence and the leading edge of the output pulse is
A) 55.5 micro seconds
B) 45.5 micro seconds
C) 25.5 micro seconds
D) 15.5 micro seconds
23. The stages required in a successive approximation ADC to achieve a conversion gain of 4096
channels is
A) 8 ADC steps
B) 24 ADC steps
C) 12 ADC steps
D) 96 ADC steps
24. A Wilkinson type ADC has a conversion gain of 2048 channels and a maximum conversion
time of 25µs. The oscillator must operate at frequency is
A) 98.1 MHz
B) 81.9 MHz
C) 48.0 MHz.
D) 25.9 MHz.
25. The modulation transfer function (MTF) is not:

A) A description of any imaging system resolution performance
B) The ratio of image to subject contrast at each spatial frequency
C) Equal to the unity when the spatial resolution is perfect
D) Fifty percent at half the limiting spatial resolution
26. The DICOM standard does not specify the image's

A) Reimbursement rate
B) Matrix size
C) Bit depth
D) Display settings
27. Breast imaging using MRI would not use

A) Fat-suppression techniques
B) Special breast coils
C) Iodine contrast
D) Three-dimensional imaging techniques
28. Which of the following is not a radiopharmaceutical localization mechanism?

(A) Diffusion
(B) Phagocytosis
(C) Capillary blockage
(D) Elution
29. An x-ray exposure of 1 mGy (100 mR) results in all of the following except
A) equivalent dose of 1 mSv (100 mrem) in bone
B) absorbed dose of 4 mGy (400 mrad) in bone
C) equivalent dose of 1 mSv (100 mrem) in tissue
D) absorbed dose of 1 mGy (100 mrad) in tissue
30. Positron emission tomography (PET) scanners generally make use of all of the following
except
A) Short-lived radionuclides such as 15O
B) Cyclotrons
C) Directly detected positrons
D) Filtered-back projection reconstruction algorithms
31. The chronic x-ray threshold dose for radiation-induced cataracts is about
A) 5 mGy (0.5 rad)
B) 50 mGy (5 rad)
C) 1 Gy (100 rad)
D) 5 Gy (500 rad)
32. Which of the following artifacts does not appear in CT images?

A) Motion artifacts
B) Phase-encoding artifacts
C) Streak artifacts
D) Ring artifacts
33. Absorption of a 30 keV photon by a screen with a 10% conversion efficiency will emit how
many blue 3 eV light photons?
A) 10
B) 1
C) 100
D) 1000
34. An ultrasound beam travelling through tissue cannot be

A) Absorbed
B) Amplified
C) Scattered
D) Refracted
35. Blastoma is a cancer involving which tissue

A) Bone
B) Connective tissue
C) Epithelial tissue
D) Embryonic tissue
36. Which enzyme is produced by kidney when blood pressure falls?
A) Secretin
B) Relaxin
C) Renin
D) Melanin
37. Which is the correct order of cellular radiosenstivity

A) Eyrthroblasts > Intestinal crypt cells > Spermatids > Chondrocytes
B) Intestinal crypt cells > Spermatids > Eyrthroblasts > Chondrocytes
C) Spermatids > Eyrthroblasts > Chondrocytes > Intestinal crypt cells
D) Spermatids > Eyrthroblasts > Intestinal crypt cells > Cchondrocytes
38. A typical in vitro mammalian cell survival curve for low-LET radiations is characterised by
A) Exponential curve
B) Continuosly curving survival curve
C) Initial shoulder followed by an exponential part
D) Bell curve
39. Lateral resolution in ultrasound imaging would most likely be improved by

A) Increasing transducer focusing
B) Imaging in the Fraunhofer zone
C) Reducing the pulse length
D) Increasing the frequency
40. For most tissues, which of the following is false?

A) T1 and T2 often increase with malignancy.
B) T2 is relatively independent of field strength.
C) T1 increases as field strength increases.
D) T1 is of the order of a few seconds
41. Electron capture does not

A) result in the emission of a neutrino
B) can compete with positron emission
C) Result in internal conversion electron emission
D) result in characteristic x-ray emission
42. The largest ultrasound reflections occur between

A) Kidney and Water
B) Fat and Kidney
C) Brain and Water
D) Water and Muscle
43. How long will it take to receive the ultrasound echo from an object 10 cm away?
A) 1.3 µs
B) 13 µs
C) 130 µs
D) 13 ms
44. 13. Which of the following does not concern itself with radiation risk estimates?
A) ICRP
B) UNSCEAR
C) BEIR
D) ICRU
45. If an ultrasound beam is attenuated by 99%, the attenuation is

(A) 3 dB
(B) 1 dB
(C) 20 dB
(D) 10 dB
46. What fraction of ultrasound is reflected from a liver (Z = 1.55) and soft tissue (Z = 1.65)
interface?
A) 1/1000
B) 1/100
C) 1/10
D) 1/2
47. Increasing the width of the computed tomography (CT) image display window will reduce
A) quantum mottle
B) displayed contrast
C) section thickness
D) image brightness
48. Chemical shift artifacts are caused by differences in the

A) T1 relaxation time
B) T2 relaxation time
C) Spin density
D) Larmor frequency
49. The continuous spectrum obtained from X-ray tubes is due to

A) Transitions of atomic electrons from higher to lower energy levels
B) Deceleration of electrons when they hit the target
C) Conversion of electrons to electromagnetic energy
D) Thermionic emission
50. Which of the following is not a unit of energy?

A) Erg
B) Joule
C) Watt
D) British thermal unit (BTU)
x-x-x
Microbial Biotechnology (1068)
1. The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was adopted in 2000 and entered into force by
A) August, 2002 B) August, 2000
C) September, 2001 D) September, 2003
2. A diagnosis of diptheria is confirmed by

A) Isolation of typical organisms from materials such as blood agar
B) Isolation of a typical colony on Tinsdale’s agar
C) Demonstration of toxin production by suspicious isolate
D) Microscopic appearance of organisms stained with methylene blue
3. The kingdom Protista contains

A) Prokaryotic unicellular autotrophic organisms
B) Eukaryotic unicellular photosynthetic/non-photosynthetic organisms
C) Prokaryotic multicellular heterotrophic organisms
D) Eukaryotic multicellular heterotrophic organisms
4. Which of the following statements about a plot of V versus substrate concentration for an
enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics is false
A) Km is the substrate concentration at which V=1/2 Vmax
B) The shape of the curve is a hyperbola
C) As substrate concentration increases, the initial velocity of the reaction, V also
increases
D) At very high substrate concentration, the velocity curve becomes a horizontal line that
intersects the y-axis at Km
5. Evidence indicating the chloroplasts were originally free-living prokaryotes that

subsequently evolved a symbiotic relationship with a eukaryotic host includes all of the
following except
A) Similarities of rRNA sequences between chloroplasts and free-living prokaryotes.
B) Similarities of structures between chloroplasts and some contemporary free-living
prokaryotes
C) Presence of circular DNA in chloroplasts and in free-living prokaryotes
D) Ability of chloroplasts to synthesize all their own proteins.
6. Electron acceptor in anaerobic conditions in prokaryotes is

A) Fatty acids B) Glucose, fructose, maltose
C) SO4, NO3-, CO2 D) Antioxidants such as vitamin K
7. The wavelengths of visible light are shorter than the wavelength of

A) Infrared B) Ultraviolet C) x-rays D) Gamma rays
8. 2,4-dinitrophenol uncouples electron transport from ATP synthesis in mitochondria by
A) Causing dissipation of the proton gradient generated by the electron transport
B) Allowing the proton translocating function of ATP synthase while inhibiting its ATP
synthesizing activity
C) Activating a second proton pump that sends back the protons into the mitochondrial
matrix
D) Neutralizing the proton gradient by absorbing the protons generated during the
electron transport
9. What do you mean by “NA” in mass transfer?

A) Rate of oxygen transfer per unit volume of fluid
B) Rate of oxygen transfer per unit volume of gas
C) Avogadro number
D) Rate of oxygen transfer per unit mass of solid
10. Which type of forces stretch and distort the bubbles?

A) Shear forces B) Strain forces
C) Surface tension D) Frictional forces
11. Which of the following statements about meiosis is not true?

A) Kinetochores of sister chromatids attach to opposite poles in Meiosis I
B) Kinetochores of sister chromatids attach to opposite poles in Meiosis II
C) Chiasma is formed in Prophase I
D) Homologous chromosomes are segregated in Meiosis I
12. If a proteasome inhibitor is added to synchronously cycling human cells in G2 phase,

which one of the following events is likely to happen?
A) Induce re-replication of DNA B) Arrest cells in G2 phase
C) Arrest cells in anaphase D) Block chromatin condensation
13. Which of the following is a correct hierarchial sequence for classifying a living
organism?
A) Domain-Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
B) Kingdom-Domain-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
C) Domain-Kingdom-Phylum- Order -Class -Family-Genus-Species
D) Kingdom -Domain -Phylum-Order- Class -Family-Genus-Species
14. After activation of a promoter by the DNA binding activity of a transcription factor, a co-
activator is recruited at the region targeted for transcription which in turn creates a
binding site for a chromatin remodeling complex. Which one of the following activities
of the co-activator is responsible for the recruitment of chromatin remodeling complex?
A) Histone deacetylase activity B) Histone methyl transferase activity
C) Histone acetyl transferase activity D) DNA methyl transferase activity
15. The S wave of normal human ECG originates due to

A) Septal and left ventricular depolarization
B) Late depolarization of the ventricular walls moving back towards the AV junction
C) Left to right septal depolarization
D) Repolarization of atrium
16. What phenotype would you predict for a mutant mouse lacking one of the genes required
for site-specific recombination in lymphocytes?
A) Decrease in T cell count B) Immunodeficient
C) Increase in T cell count D) Increase in B cell count
17. Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) is known to regulate the
transport of which ion?
A) Ca2+ B) Mg2+ C) HCO3- D) Cl-
18. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the genotype frequency of heterozygotes, if the

frequency of the two alleles of the gene being studied are 0.6 and 0.4, will be
A) 0.80 B) 0.64 C) 0.48 D) 0.32
19. Major stimulus for spore formation in bacteria is

A) Nutrition limitation B) Heat stress
C) Cold stress D) pH stress
20. Which one of the following combinations of secondary metabolite biosynthetic pathways
result in the biosynthesis of terpenes?
A) Mevalonic acid and MEP pathways
B) Malonic acid and MEP pathways
C) Shikimic acid and Malonic acid pathways
D) Shikimic acid and Mevalonic acid pathways
21. Insulin increases facilitated diffusion of glucose in muscle cells by

A) Phosphorylation of glucose transporters
B) Translocation of glucose transporter containing endosomes into the cell membrane
C) Inhibition of the synthesis of mRNA for glucose transporters
D) Dephosphorylation of glucose transporters
22. A culture medium contains two carbon sources, one is preferred carbon source (glucose)
and the second is a non-preferred source (lactose). Which one of below is correct
regarding the nature of growth curve of E. coli cultured in this medium?
A) Growth curve will be same as when grown in presence of only glucose
B) Growth curve will be same as when grown in presence of only lactose
C) A lag phase will be observed between the two exponential phases
D) Two lag phases will be observed between the two exponential phases
23. The major disadvantage of using liposome as a targeted drug delivery vehicle is that
A) It gets internalized by phagocytosis inside lysosomes
B) It is very unstable and has low shelf-life
C) It gets intercalated in cell membranes
D) Its drug entrapment efficiency is very low
24. Phosphatidyl serine, an important component of biological membrane, is located in

A) The outer leaflet but flip flops to inner leaflet under specific conditions
B) Both the leaflets
C) The middle of the bilayer
D) The inner leaflet but flip flops to outer leaflet under specific conditions
25. If the core body temperature of a human rises above normal, which of the following
processes would be initiated sequentially for thermo-regulation?
A) Peripheral vasodilation, increased rate of respiration, tachycardia
B) Peripheral vasodilation, increased rate of respiration, bradycardia
C) Peripheral vasodilation, decreased rate of respiration, tachycardia
D) Peripheral vasodilation, decreased rate of respiration, bradycardia
26. Which of the following is not a characteristic of phylum chordata?

A) Pharyngeal slits B) Amniotic egg
C) Postanal tail D) Notochord
27. After isolating and purifying to homogeneity a small enzyme (110 amino acids long)
from a culture of bacteria, you are confused as to whether you grew wild-type bacteria or
mutant strain that produced the enzyme with a valine residue at position 66 instead of the
glycine found in the wild-type strain. For quick determination of nature of protein you
will use
A) Mass spectroscopy B) Ion exchange chromatography
C) SDS-PAGE D) HPLC
28. Sequence tagged sites have which of the following properties?

A) They are present only once within a genome and possess an RFLP site
B) They are present only once within a genome and their sequence is known
C) Their sequence is known and they must contain repetitive DNA sequences
D) They must contain the sequences of a gene and no repetitive DNA sequences can be
present
29. Life-history characteristics associated with k-selected organisms include

A) Rapid reproduction rates, short generation times and large body size
B) Repeated reproduction, few progeny and large body size
C) Inhabiting early successional state communities, rapid mutation rates and numerous
large offsprings
D) Inhabiting climax communities, many small offsprings and short life span
30. An X-linked recessive gene produces red-green color blindness in humans. A woman
with normal color vision whose father was colorblind marries a colorblind man. What is
the probability that their son will be colorblind?
A) 0 B) 1/ 4 C) ½ D) 3/ 4
31. Which of these descriptions could be associated with the luteal phase of the uterine
cycle?
A) Decrease in LH, increase in progesterone, corpus luteum present, secretory uterine
lining
B) Decrease in LH, decrease in progesterone, corpus luteum present, secretory uterine
lining
C) Increase in LH, increase in progesterone, corpus luteum present, endometrium
released
D) Low FSH, high estrogen, developing follicle, increase in endometrium
32. Which of the following statement provides a true example of both photomorphogenesis
and phototropism?
A) Phototropism is a growth towards blue light, and photomorphogenesis is a growth
towards red light
B) Phototropism is a growth towards blue light, and photomorphogenesis is a
developmental process triggered by near-red light
C) Phototropism is a growth towards red light, and photomorphogenesis is a germination
triggered by blue light
D) Phototropism is a movement towards blue light that does not involve growth and
photomorphogenesis is a movement towards red light that does involve growth
33. Some viruses can undergo latency, the ability to remain inactive for some period of time.
Which of the following is an example?
A) Influenza, a particular strain of which returns every 10-20 years
B) Herpes simplex viruses whose reproduction is triggered by physiological or emotional
stress in the host
C) Koposi’s sarcoma, which causes a skin cancer in people with AIDS, but rarely in
those not infected by HIV
D) The virus that causes a form of the common cold, which recurs in patients many times
in their lives
34. Advantages of the oral polio vaccine compared with the killed polio vaccine are all of the
following except that it
A) Elicits IgA as well as IgG synthesis
B) Induces cellular as well as humoral immunity
C) Induces secretion of protective mucosal neutralizing antobodies
D) Is safer to give to immunosuppressed children
35. What accounts for antibody switching (i.e. the switch of one B-cell from producing one
class of antibody to another antibody class that is responsive to the same antigen)?
A) Mutation in the genes of that B-cell, induced by exposure to the antigen
B) The rearrangement of V region genes in that clone of responsive B-cells
C) A switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune
response
D) The shuffling of exons for one C region type to another attached to the V-J transcript
36. Cholera is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholera. How does the
cholera toxin (CTX) dysregulate the G-protein coupled receptor signaling in the host
cells?
A) CTX modifies the Gsα-subunit which is unable to hydrolyze the bound GTP resulting
in increased cAMP level
B) CTX modifies the Gsα-subunit which is unable to hydrolyze the bound GTP resulting
in decreased cAMP level
C) CTX modifies the Giα-subunit which is unable to hydrolyze the bound GTP resulting
in increased cAMP level
D) CTX modifies the Giα-subunit which is unable to exchange GDP resulting in
increased cAMP level
37. Assuming that the level of glucose is low, a mutation in the repressor associated with the
lac operon of E. coli which prevents binding of the repressor to allolactose should result
in
A) Constitutive expression of the lac operon genes
B) Lack of expression or reduced expression of the lac operon genes under all
circumstances
C) Expression of the genes only when lactose is present
D) Expression of the genes only when lactose is absent
38. A bacterial culture was diluted 1000 fold and 0.1 ml of this diluted sample was spread
per plate on nutrient agar. In a triplicate run, the number of colonies formed is 121, 93
and 86. The number of colony forming units/ ml in the original bacterial culture is
A) 106 B) 105 C) 103 D) 102
39. Which of the following statements about the Rb (retinoblastoma) tumor suppressor
protein is correct?
A) Rb is activated when phosphorylated by Cdk
B) Rb binds the transcription factor E2F and thus prevents the cell from entering S-phase
until a mitogenic signal is received
C) Rb is a transcription factor
D) A mitogenic signal is received, Rb binds the transcription factor E2F and thus
stimulates the cell to enter S-phase
40. In which of the following situations would cells die by necrosis, not apoptosis?
A) Removal of cells with damaged DNA that cannot be repaired
B) Removal of developing neurons that fail to make profitable connections with other
cells
C) Removal of heart muscle cells damaged by oxygen depletion following cardiac
infarction
D) Removal of virus infected cells
41. Which of the following statement about ribozymes is false?

A) Ribozymes are capable of self-replication but cannot catalyze other types of reactions
B) Manfred Eigen found that RNAs could replicate themselves in solution without the aid
of proteins
C) In Tetrahymena thermophila, an intron was found that carried out its own excision
and splicing
D) A tRNA-processing enzyme containing RNA was found in which the RNA portion
provided the catalysis
42. An example of competitive inhibition of enzyme is the inhibition of

A) Succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
B) Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
C) Hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
D) Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
43. A set of microfuge tubes containing DNA, RNA and protein samples have lost their
labels. Which of the following strategies will you adopt to distinguish and relabel them?
A) Measuring their absorption at 260 nm and 280 nm
B) Measuring their absorption at 240 nm, 260 nm and 280 nm
C) Measuring their absorption at 260 nm and 280 nm at 30oC and 80oC
D) Measuring their absorption at 240 nm, 260 nm and 280 nm at 30oC and 80oC
44. When hemoglobin is converted from the deoxy form to oxyhemoglobin?

A) It becomes more acidic and releases protons
B) Carbamino formation is promoted
C) Binding of BPG is favored
D) Bound NO is transferred to glutathione
45. Which of the following virus is not used in gene therapy?

A) Papillomavirus B) Retrovirus
C) Adenovirus D) Herpes simplex virus
46. What is an MPR rating on air filters?

A) Magnitude performance rating B) Micro-particle performance rating
C) Macro-particle performance rating D) Moles per rate
47. What do you mean by the low Ks value?

A) Low affinity for the limiting substrate
B) Medium affinity for the limiting substrate
C) High affinity for the limiting substrate
D) No affinity for the limiting substrate
48. What do you mean by “Idiophase”?

A) Production of waste materials B) Production of topical products
C) Production of primary metabolites D) Production of secondary metabolites
49. Which of the following condition is of reverse phase chromatography?

A) The mobile phase is non-polar and stationary phase is polar
B) The mobile phase is polar and stationary phase is non-polar
C) Both the mobile phase and stationary phase are organic
D) Both the mobile phase and stationary phase are inorganic
50. What is the function of microcarrier beads?

A) To give the cells the shape of beads B) It provides non-buoyancy condition
C) It helps in the lysis of cells D) It provides protection and surface area
x-x-x
Microbiology (1068)
1. Who demonstrated that open tubes of broth remained free of bacteria when air was
free of dust
A) Francesco Redi B) Louis Pasteur
C) John Tyndall D) Lazzaro Spallanzani
2. The term bacteriophage was coined by
A) De’Herelle B) F.W. Twort
C) Beijernick D) D . I wanosky
3. Several flagella at one end of the organ is called as
A) Monotrichate B) Amphitrichate
C) Lophotrichate D) Peritrichate
4. The interval period between HIV infection and appearance of antibodies in serum is
called
A) Intrinsic period B) Incubation period
C) Window period D) None of these
5. The surgical asepsis was first demonstrated by
A) Louis Pasteur B) Robert Koch
C) Joseph Lister D) Edward Jenner
6. The famous experiment using goose neck flasks to disapprove the theory of spontaneous
generation of microorganisms was demonstrated by
A) Robert Koch B) John Needham
C) H. Schroeder D) Louis Pasteur

7. L-form bacteria were isolated by
A) Emmy Klieneberger-Nobel B) Louis Pasteur
C) Joseph Lister D) Robert Koch
8. The pigment present in red algae is
A) Rhodochrome B) Fucoxanthin
C) Chlorophyll only D) Chlorophyll + phycoerythrin
9. Rancidity of stored foods is due to the activity of
A) Toxigenic microbes B) Proteolytic microbes
C) Saccharolytic microbes D) Lipolytic microbes
10. Alginic acids and its salts are obtained from the wall of
A) Red algae B) Brown algae
C) Green algae D) Red and brown algae
11. Which is the largest bacterium
A) Thiomargarita namibiensis B) Bacillus licheniformis
C) Mycoplasma genitalium D) Bacteroides thetaiotaomicron
12. Which is the largest virus by size
A) Mamavirus B) Mimivirus
C) Megavirus chilensis D) Pithovirus sibericum
13. For acetic acid production the methods followed are

A) Orleans process B) Rapid process
C) Submerged process D) All of these
14. The process of enhancement of virulence of a microorganism is called
A) Activation B) Hyper-activation
C) Exaltation D) Attenuation
15. Which of the following is absent in gm+ bacteria
A) Cell wall B) Teichoic acid
C) Murein D) Outer membrane
16. Which of the following processes is not exhibited by eukaryotic microorganisms
A) Decomposition B) Fermentation
C) Nitrogen Fixation D) Causing disease
17. The transfer of plasmid from one bacterium to a different strain/ species is called as
A) Horizontal gene transfer B) Vertical gene transfer
C) Homozygous gene transfer D) Heterozygous gene trasfer
18. The utilization of elemental carbon by microorganisms during geochemical cycling is known as
A) Immobilization B) Mineralization
C) Decomposition D) Dissimilation
19. Which scientist first disproved spontaneous generation of microorganisms by boiling the meat
infusions and using the hermetical sealing
A) Francesco Redi B) Theodor Schwann
C) Louis Pasteur D) Lazzaro Spallanzani

20. Which scientist disproved spontaneous generation of microorganisms by supplying the air to
boiled meat infusion after passing through a coiled tube heated to a very high temperature
A) Francesco Redi B) Lazzaro Spallanzani
C) Theodor Schwann D) Louis Pasteur
21. In anaerobic respiration by microorganisms the terminal electron acceptor is
A) Oxygen B) Hydrogen
C) Nitrate D) Nitrogen
22. The acquisition of energy as a result of glucose fermentation requires
A) Substrate level phosphorylation B) Electron transport chain
C) The enzyme glucose oxidase D) Oxidative phosphorylation
23. Which of the following groups of the microorganisms contain unique coenzymes such as
coenzyme M and coenzyme F420
A) Methanogens B) Methanotrophs
C) Acetogens D) Sulphate reducing bacteria
24. When acetate is used as the sole source of carbon for some microorganisms the pathway used is
A) Glycolytic pathway B) Pentose phosphate pathway
C) Glyoxalate pathway D) Oxaloacetate pathway
25. On which day the World Intellectual property Day is celebrated
A) April 26 B) May 22
C) June 5 D) December 1
26. Which immunoglobulin class is the most efficient to produce agglutination reaction?
A) IgG B) IgM
C) IgA D) IgE
27. Which of the Following is selective medium for Streptococcus pyogenes?
A) Blood agar B) Crystal Violet blood agar
C) Potassium tellurite blood agar D) Chocolate agar
28. Draughtsman colony is a characteristic feature of:

A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Enterococcus facecalis D) Viridans streptococci
29. Which is the selective medium used for isolation of C. diphtheriae?

A) Tellurite blood agar B) Loeffler’s serum slope
C) Lowenstein-Jensen medium D) Chocolate agar
30. Which of the following toxins is the most toxic?

A) Botulinum toxin B) Tetanus toxin
C) Diphtheria toxin D) Cholera toxin
31. Sereny test is used for the identification of :

A) EPEC B) ETEC
C) IEC D) EHEC
32. The most important specimen for isolation of Salmonella typhi in first week of enteric
fever is:
A) Blood B) Faeces
C) Urine D) Pus
33. Accessory growth factor/s required by Haemophilus influenzae is/are:

A) X factor B) V factor
C) Both X and V factors D) Neither X nor V factor
34. Culture of Mycobacterium tuberculosis may be positive even if number of bacteria in the
specimen is:
A) As few as 1-2 per ml B) As few as 6-10 per ml
C) As few as 10-100 per ml D) As few as 3-5 per ml
35. Extensively drug resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) due to Mycobacterium tuberculosis

strains are resistant to all the following except
A) Any fluoroquinolone B) Isoniazid and rifampicin
C) At least one of three injectable second line D) Beta-lactams
(capreomycin,kanamycin and amikacin)
36. The following characteristics are true for viruses except:

A) Obligate intracellular infective agents B) Contain either DNA or RNA
C) Do not multiply by binary fission D) Both DNA and RNA
37. Which of the following is a diploid cell line ?
A) Hela B) WI-38
C) McCoy D) BHK-21
38. In which of the following processes, bacteriophage may act as carrier of genes from one
bacterium to another ?
A) Transformation B) Transduction
C) Conjugation D) Transposition
39. On which day, the WHO announced the global eradication of small pox?
A) May 8, 1970 B) May 8, 1975
C) May 8, 1980 D) May 8, 1985
40. Which vaccine is employed in pulse polio immunisation programme?

A) Salk vaccine B) Sabin vaccine
C) BCG D) Variola vaccine
41. Which of the following drugs may be given for chemoprophylaxis during epidemic of
influenza virus A?
A) Amantadine B) Acyclovir
C) Ribavirin D) Ganciclovir
42. The transgenic crops rich in vitamin A are:

A) Golden rice B) Pink rice
C) Yellow rice D) Orange rice
43. All of the following antirabies vaccine are inactivated vaccines except:
A) Human diploid cell strain vaccine B) Purified chick embryo cell
culture vaccine
C) Purified vero cell vaccine D) Chick embryo vaccine
44. Which of the following markers when positive indicate high infectivity of hepatitis B
virus?
A) HBsAg B) HBeAg
C) HBcAg D) HBAg
45. The following may cause teratogenic infections except?

A) Toxoplasma B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Rubella virus D) Trypanosoma
46. Lepromin test is an example of :

A) Type I hypersensitivity reaction B) Type II hypersensitivity
reaction
C) Type III hypersensitivity reaction D) Type IV hypersensitivity
reaction
47. DTH reaction may be demonstrated in the following except

A) Tuberculosis B) Salmonellosis
C) Gas gangrene D) Contact dermatitis
48. During PAGE gel formation, acrylamide is activated by free radicals formed by
A) Ammonium persulphate B) TEMED
C) Oxygen D) SDS
49. The difference between a simple tandem array and a compound tandem array is :
A) The frequency of different sequences B) The direction of sequences face
(left or right)
C) The number of different sequences involved D) The number of repetitions of
sequences
50. Protein secondary structures such as a-helices and B-sheets are stabilized mainly by:
A) Dipole moment B) Disulfide bond formation
C) Vander Waals force D) Hydrogen bond formation
x-x-x
Nuclear Medicine (1068)
1. When the half life increases
A) Decay constant remains unchanged
B) Decay constant increases
C) Decay constant decreases
D) Decay constant changes
2. A Cyclotron is used to
A) cause heavy nuclei to fission spontaneously
B) cause isomeric transitions exclusively
C) cause charged particles to collide into a target material
D) cause heavy nuclei to fission spontaneously
3. What is the mass equivalent of 70keV photon?

A) 1.25 x 10-31 Kg B) 11.2 x 10-15 Kg
C) 1.25 x 10-27 Kg D) 11.2 x 10-31 Kg
4. Which of the following is not a processing artifact in the reporting film?

A) Dirty rollers B) Roller marks
C) Kink marks D) Chemical fog
5. What is the dynamic range of the nuclear medicine digital imaging system?
A) 28 B) 210 C) 212 D) 214
6. During which phase radiation induced chromosome damage is analyzed

A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase
7. LET and RBE of 1MeV beta particles is

A) 0.3 and 0.9 B) 3.0 and 1.0 C) 30 and 10 D) 300 and 20
8. Which of the following is not a radiation cytogenetic effect

A) Single hit chromosome aberration
B) Multihit chromosome aberration
C) Reciprocal translocations
D) Thrombocytopenia
9. What does a low D37 value indicates

A) Radio-resistance cell B) Radio-sensitive cell
C) Highly radio-resistant cell D) Highly radio-sensitive cell
10. Which factors will you least consider in calculating a shielding barrier thickness?
A) Workload B) Corridor Distance
C) Patient position D) Controlled area
11. Which of the following is present on the label of a transport package.

A) Name of the consignee B) Name of the consigner
C) Name of the institute D) Name of the radionuclide
12. Which number should be present on a poisonous, flammable solid radioactive material.
A) 4 B) 7 C) 6 D) Both 6 and 7
13. Which is a mock standard?

A) I-125 B) Co-57 C) Cs-137 D) I-129
14. Random errors affects

A) Accuracy B) Variance C) Precision D) Reproducibility
15. Which process solves the impurity problem in detectors.

A) Pure sampling process B) Energy-selective counting process
C) Lithium doping process D) Thallium doping process
16. TVT in lead (mm) of I-131

A) 1.7 B) 3.1 C) 6.3 D) 7.7
17. Townsend avalanche process occurs in

A) Charged particle spectroscopy B) Pocket dosimetry
C) Survey meter D) Mass spectroscopy
18. Baseline shift occurs in which electronic instrument

A) Resistor and capacitor B) Amplifier
C) ADC D) Coincidence circuit
19. As per the guidelines, ALI is calculated assuming how much of air is breathed per
minute?
A) 1x 104 ml B) 2 x 104 ml C) 3 x 104 ml D) 4 x 104 ml
20. How much sewer concentration is allowed for 99mTc.

A) 0.01 µCi/mL B) 0.1 µCi/mL C) 1.0 µCi/mL D) 1.1 µCi/mL
21. Sequential Steps to follow in dealing with a radioactive spill

A) Contain, inform and decontaminate B) Inform, decontaminate and contain
C) Closure, inform and decontaminate D) Inform, contain and decontaminate
22. Laboratory monitors are

A) Regularly operated B) Contamination monitors
C) Used to detect all types of radiations D) Placed at fixed locations.
23. A positron is an antiparticle of

A) Ordinary proton B) Ordinary electron
C) Negative electron D) Ordinary neutron
24. Which process does not transform an “odd-odd” nucleus to “even-even” nucleus.
A) Beta decay B) Positron decay C) Alpha decay D) EC
25. Pick the renal cortical agent?

A) DTPA B) DMSA C) EC D) MAG3
26. Pseudolesions are result of

A) Patient movement B) Respiration motion
C) Mis-registered PET to CT D) Inaccurate SUV
27. Leiomyosarcomas doesn’t occur in

A) Pancreas B) Bladder C) Uterus D) Prostate
28. In MDCT the numer of x-ray projections available for interpolation decreases with
increasing pitches because
A) Z window filter is decreasing B) Z window filter is increasing
C) Z window filter is absent D) Z window filter is fixed
29. Dose calibrator readings are not affected by

A) Volume of the dose B) Location of dose in well
C) Radionuclide half life D) Shape of the dose container
30. In which condition the PHA window will not count the 140 keV gamma photons
A) In increased HV setting
B) In increased amplifier gain
C) In decreased either HV or amplifier gain setting
D) In increased either HV or amplifier gain setting
31. What could be the reason for the variation less than expected in a chi-square test
performed on a scintillation counter?
A) RF interference B) Random electrical noise
C) Temperature changes D) Drifting power supply
32. What could not be the reason for a cold spot in the gamma image?
A) Coins/buckles B) PMT failure
C) Cotton swab D) Collimator damage
33. If Rg represents collimator resolution, then its large value means

A) Good resolution B) Worse resolution
C) Better resolution D) High resolution
34. How can you prevent temporary crystal damage in a gamma camera
A) Avoid temperature fluctuations B) Avoid hitting the crystal
C) Avoid contamination of the crystal D) Avoid cleaning the crystal
35. Radiotracer used to measure cerebral dynamics

A) 99mTc-DTPA B) 99mTc-DMSA C) 18F-FDG D) 18F-Choline
36. During labeling of RBC’s by 99mTc, the valency of the 99mTc should change to
A) +7 B) +5 C) +1 D) -1
37. How does smoothing affects the image

A) Reduces noise in static image B) Increases imaging time
C) Reduces pixel values D) Increases injecting dose
38. Angina pectoris is the pain cause by ………. and treated by………..
A) Myocardial infarct and calcium antagonists
B) Myocardial infarct and adenosine
C) Myocardial ischemia and adenosine
D) Myocardial ischemia and calcium antagonists
39. What does “track” means on disk drive

A) Pie shaped centers B) Discrete positions
C) Data blocks D) Concentric rings
40. Plummers disease is same as

A) TMG B) GD C) Toxic adenoma D) Hyperthyroidism
41. In dual gastric scintigraphy which combination of the radionuclides is preferred.

A) 99mTc and 201 Tl B) 99mTc and 67Ga
C) 99mTc and 131 I D) 99mTc and 18F
42. Opiod drug morphine causes constriction of
A) Gall bladder B) Spinter of oddi
C) Pancreatic duct D) Common bile duct
43. During 14C-carbon breath tests, 1mmol of CO2 will be trapped by

A) 0.1 mmol of hyamine hydroxide B) 0.5 mmol of hyamine hydroxide
C) 1.0 mmol of hyamine hydroxide D) 5.0 mmol of hyamine hydroxide
44. Which statement is not true for perchlorate salt studies

A) It is rapidly absorbed and metabolized by the body
B) It is rapidly taken up by the thyroid gland
C) It is rapidly eliminated by the body in urine
D) It is used to prevent technetium uptake in the body
45. What would be the transmission factor for a weekly dose equivalent of 59.7 µSv and
occupancy factor of 1, in a PET-CT room.
A) 59.7 B) 0.017 C) 0.34 D) 1.0
46. Which of the following tests should be performed to evaluate quantitative accuracy of
SPET syatem?
A) Tomographic uniformity B) Tomographic resolution
C) Tomographic contrast D) Tomograpphic linearity
47. What is the meaning of “historical waste”

A) Are raw or partially treated B) Have incomplete traceability
C) Mixed with waste stream D) Have complete history
48. Two complementary approaches for the nano-particles are

A) Top and bottom approach B) Top-up and bottom-up approach
C) Top-down and bottom-down approach D) Top-down and bottom-up approach
49. Select the correct sequence of time needed by the radiopharmaceutical for stopping breast
feed
A) 67Ga-citrate>201TlCl>99mTc-TCo4>99mTc-MAA
B) 201TlCl>67Ga-citrate >99mTc-TCo4>99mTc-MAA
C) 67Ga-citrate>201TlCl>99mTc-MAA >99mTc-TCo4
D) 201TlCl >67Ga-citrate >99mTc-MAA >99mTc-TCo4
50. Select the correct sequence of radiopharmaceuticals providing highest organ absorbed
radiation dose to lower one.
A) MAA(lungs), HIDA(GB), MIBI(GB) B) MAA(lungs),MIBI(GB), HIDA(GB)
C) MIBI(GB), MAA(lungs), HIDA(GB) D) HIDA(GB), MIBI(GB), MAA(lungs)
x-x-x
Optometry (1068)
1. Endothelial cell density is

A) 1000 cells/mm2 at birth
B) 2000-3000 cells/mm2 at birth
C) 3000-4000 cells /mm2 at birth
D) 6000-7000 cells/mm2 at birth
2. True about cornea is

A) Refractive index is 1.376
B) Maximum refraction occurs at cornea –aqueous interface
C) Central cornea is 3D flatter than the periphery
D) Central corneal thickness is 420-480 micron
3. Corneal topography can be useful in detecting which of these conditions?

A) Dry eye
B) Staphylococcal marginal keratitis
C) Fuch’s corneal dystrophy
D) Megalocornea
4. Which of the following statements regarding acanthemoeba is false?

A) Two potentially infectious forms of acanthoameba exist: the motile trphozoite and the
dormant cyst.
B) Acanthamoeba can be grown on buffered charcoal yeast extract agar.
C) Acanthamoeba can be visualized with chalcofluor white, acridine orange, or the giemsa stain.
D) Acanthamoeba keratitis can appear as a pseudodendriteinits course.
5. Patients who complain of increased symptoms first thing in the morning could have any of the
following conditions except?
A) Anterior basement membrane dystrophy
B) Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy
C) Floppy lid syndrome
D) Keratoconjunctivitissicca
6. All of the following conditions commonly cause glare except:

A) Iritis B) Corneal scarring
C) Posterior subcapsular cataract D) Albinism
7. All are risk factors for cataract formation except –

A) Age B) Genetic propensity
C) Type A personality D) Smoking
8. Callisto eye for Toric IOL is in ?

A) Lenstar B) I trace C) IOL master D) Verion
9. What direction of gaze is included in the 6 cardinal positions?

A) Upgaze B) Primary gaze C) Downgaze D) Right gaze
10. False about Femtosecond lasers is?
A) Involves Photodisruption B) Wavelength is 1043 nm
C) Pulse is in nanoseconds D) Infrared laser
11. For a trifocal glasses, if the lensometer reads

-1.00/-1.00X180 in the distance portion
+0.50/-1.00X180 in the intermediate portion
+1.50/-1.00X180 in the near portion
What is the near add?
A) +1.50 D B) +0.50 D C) +2.00 D D) +2.50 D
12. All the following pairs are matched correctly except:

A) Diopter-reciprocal meter B) Prism diopter- centimeters per meter
C) Wavelength – nanometers D) Frequency-cycles per degree
13. When a lens material has a higher index of refraction, all of the following are true except:
A) The velocity of light is increased in this material
B) The spectacle lens made from this material can be thinner
C) Its value of n is higher
D) It has a greater ability to refract light
14. The Airy disk image on the retina is larger when

A) The wavelength of light is shortened
B) The focal length of the eye is shorter
C) The pupil size decreases
D) Macular degeneration is present
15. Corneal haze secondary to corneal edema is primarily caused by

A) Reflection B) Light scattering C) Refraction D) Diffraction
16. Candela is a unit of measure for which of the following?

A) Luminous intensity B) Luminous flux
C) Illuminance D) Luminance
17. The far point of the non-accommodated myopic eye
A) And the fovea are corresponding points
B) Is posterior to the eye, optically speaking
C) Is nearer to the eye than the point of focus of the fully accommodated eye
D) Cannot be moved by placing a lens in front of the eye
18. In which type of astigmatism do the focal lines straddle the retina?
A) Mixed astigmatism
B) Compound myopic astigmatism
C) Compound hyperopic astigmatism
D) Simple myopic astigmatism
19. 19 An angle of 45 degrees corresponds to how many prism diopters

A) 45 B) 22.5 C) 90 D) 100
20. You fit a toric soft contact lens on a patient with a refractive error of - 2.50 D -1.50 x 175.The trial
lens centers well, but the lens mark at the 6 o'clock position appears to rest at the4 o'clock position
when the lens is placed on the patient's eye. What power contact lensshould you order?
A) -2.50 D - 1.50 x 175 B) -2.50 D - 1.50 x 115
C) - 2.50 D - 1.50 x 55 D) -2.50 D - 1.00 x 175
21. Compared with spectacles, contact lenses

A) Increase the accommodative requirements of myopic eyes
B) Increase the accommodative requirements of hyperopic eyes
C) Increase the convergence demands of hyperopic eyes
D) Decrease the convergence requirements of myopic eyes
22. The power of an in traocular lens (IOL) should be increased

A) As the power of the cornea increases and the axial length increases
B) As the power of the cornea decreases and the axial length increases
C) As the power of the cornea increases and the axial length decreases
D) As the power of the cornea decreases and the axial length decreases
23. In bifocal design, image jump may be minimized by

A) Placing the optical center of the segment as close as possible to the top of the segment
B) Placing the top of the segment as close as possible to the distance optical center
C) Using a smaller bifocal segment
D) Using a blended bifocal segment having no visible line of separation
24. The interface at the surface of the cornea is responsible for approximately what percentage of the
refractive power of the human eye?
A) 25% B) 33% C) 50% D) 66%
25. Which of the rectus muscles inserts closest to the limbus?
A) Lateral rectus B) Medial rectus C) Superior rectus D) Inferior rectus
26. Which of the following localregional anesthetic agents has the longest duration ofeffect?
A) Lidocaine B) Procaine C) Bupivacaine D) Mepivacaine
27. Factors that influence drug penetration of the cornea include all of the following except:
A) Concentration B) Drop volume C) pH D) Vehicle
28. Which of the following series correctly depicts the relative duration of drug action?
A) Atropine>homatropine>scopolamine>cyclopentolate>tropicamide
B) Atropine>scopoiamine>homatropine>cydopentolate>tropicamide
C) Cyclopentolate>tropicamide>scopolamine>homatropine>atropine
D) Homatropine>cyclopentolate>tropicamide>scopolamine>atropine
29. Which of the following best characterizes a person with "low vision"?
A) A bitemporal hemianopia
B) Best-corrected visual acuity of 20/70 or worse
C) Myopia greater than - 20 D
D) A disability related to visual dysfunction
30. Proper distance visual acuity testing for a low vision patient includes all of the following except:
A) Testing chart with an equal number of symbols on each line
B) Non-standardized room illumination
C) A Snellen visual acuity chart at 20 ft
D) A test distance of 10 ft
31. The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is:
A) Yellow B) Blue C) Green D) Royal blue
32. Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing:

A) Dry eye B) Infective keratitis C) Watering eyes D) Horner’s syndrome
33. All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except:

A) Superior rectus B) Ciliary muscle C) Inferior oblique D) Superior oblique
34. In concomitant squint:

A) Primary deviation > Secondary deviation
B) Primary deviation < Secondary deviation
C) Primary deviation = Secondary deviation
D) Primary and secondary deviation are variable
35. In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary deviation in the gaze of
direction of the paralytic muscle:
A) Increases B) Decreases
C) Remains the same D) Depends on the muscle involved
36. Dense scar of cornea with incarceration of iris is known as:

A) Adherent Leucoma B) Dense leucoma
C) Ciliary staphyloma D) Iris bombe
37. Which one of the following is the gas mixer used in modern excimer lasers?
A) CO2 B) N2O C) ArF D) XeF
38. A polarizing ophthalmic lens should be oriented so as to eliminate:

A) A vertical vibrating wave B) Horizontal vibrating wave
C) Oblique vibrating wave D) All vibrating wave
39. An aphake is refracted at a distance of 13 mm and is found to require a +10.00 D lens. Assuming
again, that the contact lens does not change the refraction of the eye, what is the final contact lens
power:
A) +11.00 D B) +11.50 D C) +12.00 D D) +12.50 D
40. Velocity of sound in Silicon Oil

A) 980 m/s B) 1280 m/s C) 1530 m/s D) 1632 m/s
41. Post keratoplasty keratometery shows vertically oval (elongated) mires. Which meridian sutures
should be removed to reduce astigmatism?
A) 90 B) 180 C) 45 D) No suture removal
42. You fit a patient who has - 3.50 D of myopia with an RGP contact lens that is steeper than K. If the
patient's average K reading is 7.80 mm and you fit a lens with a base curve of 7.60 mm, what is the
shape of the tear lens?
A) Plano B) No tear lens C) Concave D) Convex
43. What is the power of a prism that displaces an image 10 cm at a distance of 50 cm?
A) 10 ∆ B) 20 ∆ C) 25 ∆ D) 40 ∆
44. When a +/- 0.50 JCC is placed on a lensometer with red axis at 0 and 180 degree, the lensometer will
read the power as:
A) -0.50/+1.00x90 B) -0.50/+1.00x180 C) 0 D) +0.50
45. Which one of the following is true regarding accommodative esotropia (strabismus) and amblyopia in
children?
A) Strabismus is caused by dysfunction of the ocular muscles, which pull the eye out of
alignment.
B) Treatment for accommodative esotropia usually consists of miotic eye drops.
C) The earlier amblyopia is detected and treated, the better the outcome.
D) Stereopsis and binocularity develop independently of eye alignment.
46. Protanomaly referred as:

A) Green weakness B) Red weakness
C) Yellow weakness D) Blue weakness
47. In corneal topography Q value signifies

A) Corneal hyteresis B) Corneal asphericity
C) Corneal aberration D) Corneal thickness progression
48. In wave front analysis Z0₄ stands for:

A) Coma B) Spherical aberrations
C) Trefoil D) Tetrafoil
49. Kappa angle is the angle between:

A) Visual axis and optical axis
B) Papillary axis and optical axis
C) Optical axis and fixation point at the centre of rotation of the eye ball
D) Visual axis and pupillary axis
50. Satellite nodule on corneal ulcer is seen due to :

A) Bacterial B) Viral C) Fungal D) Mycoplasma
x-x-x
Physics
1. In the N dimensional space, the number of different components in a skew-symmetric

tensor of second-order are
(A) +
(B) −
(C) !
(D) −
2. ∞
The value of !
is
(A) "
4
(B) "
2
(C) Zero
(D) "
3. If φ = % + % + %
−3 , then expression for Div (grad φ ) is
(A) + +3
(B) 3 + +
(C) 3 + +
(D) 6 + +
4. At the transition temperature in a first order phase transition, the specific heat of the system
(A) Diverges and its entropy has finite discontinuity
(B) Remains unchanged and its entropy exhibits finite discontinuity
(C) Has finite discontinuity and its entropy diverges
(D) Diverges and its entropy remains the same
5. A particle moves along the curve = 2 ; = − 4 , = 3 − 5; where t is time. The

component of its acceleration at time t=1 in the direction of ( +̂ − 3-̂+2./ ) is
2
−
(A)
√14
1
−
(B)
√14
2
−
(C)
√7
2
−
(D)
√5
Fourier transform of 2 3
4⁄
6. is
(A) loge (k2)
(B) 2 3 6 4
(C) 2 36 4 ⁄
(D) 2 36 4
7. Compton shift in wavelength of a photon scattered at angle, θ , from the electron (mass m)
is given by
ℎ
1 + 9: ;
(A)
89
(B) ℎ
1 + 9: ;
89
(C) ℎ
1 − 9: ;
89
ℎ
1 − 9: ;
(D)
89
8. The capacitance of two concentric spherical metal shells with radii a and b is
>?
4"<=
(A)
>+?
>?
4"<=
(B)
?−>
>?
8"<=
(C)
?−>
>?
8"<=
(D)
>+?
9. The electrostatic energy of a uniformly charged spherical shell of total charge q and radius
R is
(A) 1 A
4"<= B
(B) 1 A
4"<= B
(C) 1 A
4"<= B
(D) 1 A
8"<= B
10. Transition temperature Tc and critical field Hc for a superconductor are related as
(A) G
CD = C= E1 + F H I
GD
(B) G
CD = C= E1 − F H I
GD
(C) G %
CD = C= E1 − F H I
GD
(D) G
CD = C= E1 − I
GD
2 4
11. The eigenvalues of J K are
3 3
(A) -1, 6
(B) 1, 6
(C) 2, 8
(D) 3, 4
M4 4
12. The Fourier series expansion of function L = − in the interval (-π,π).
N O
(A) 1 sin 2 sin 3
Psin − + − ⋯ …V
2 2 3
(B) 1 cos 2 cos 3
Pcos − + − ⋯ …V
2 2 3
(C) 1 sin 2 sin 3
P1 + sin − + − ⋯ …V
2 2 3
(D) ∞ −1 Z
Y1+ \: [
2[
]
13. The ratio of electrical conductivity σ to thermal conductivity κ is proportional to

temperature T. According to Wiedemann – Franz law, the ratio σ/ κT
(A) Is a constant called the Landau ratio
(B) Varies from metal to metal.
(C) Changes slowly with temperature and is called Debye constant.
(D) Is the same for all metals, and is called the Lorentz number.
14. An electron in classical electrodynamics is best described as

(A) A point charge particle.
(B) A particle with a radius comparable to its Compton wavelength.
(C) A particle of radius e2/mc2
(D) A wave.
15. The paramagnetic susceptibility of a solid varies with temperature (t) as

(A) T2
(B) T0
(C) T
(D) T-1
16. The form of the internal time-base signal in a common oscilloscope (CRO) is
(A) Square wave
(B) Sine wave
(C) Saw-tooth wave
(D) Piece-wise sine wave.
17. The simplified form of the Boolean expression ̅ ^ .^ ^ is

(A) ^
(B) .^
(C) +^
(D) +^
18. Which of the following is a pseudoscalar

(A) à. ba
(B) |à × ba|
(C) à × ba . à
(D) e a × ^ fa g. \a
19. A plane travelling wave has a peak electric field Eo of 15V/m. The medium is lossless with
hi = 1 >[ ji = 12, the impedance of the medium is
(A) ~ 109 Ω
(B) ~ 377Ω
(C) ~34 Ω
(D) ~ 4524 Ω
20. According to Nilsson model, the shell model h11/2 neutron orbital in a weakly oblate
nucleus (ε2 ~ 0.04) splits into orbitals having
(A) Ω = 9/2, 7/2, 5/2, 3/2, 1/2 with decreasing order of energy.
(B) Ω = 9/2, 5/2, 1/2 with decreasing order of energy.
(C) Ω = 7/2, 3/2 with decreasing order of energy.
(D) Ω = 1/2, 3/2, 5/2, 7/2, 9/2 with decreasing order of energy.
21. The oblate nuclear shapes are defined as spheroid with

(A) two axes equal which are smaller ones, and negative quadrupole moment
(B) two axes equal which are larger ones, and negative quadrupole moment
(C) two axes equal which are smaller ones, and positive quadrupole moment
(D) two axes equal which are larger ones, and positive quadrupole moment
22. The spin magnetic moment of neutron and its spin angular momentum are
(A) at right angles to each other
(B) cannot be defined as spin magnetic moment of neutron is zero
(C) opposite to each other
(D) in same direction
23. Shell model predicated spin-parity of 16S33 nucleus is

(A) 5/2+
(B) 3/2+
(C) 3/2-
(D) 1/2+
l4
24. The Lagrangian of a particle moving in one dimension is given by k = − m . V(x) is
static one. The Hamiltonian is given by
(A) 1
b+m
2
(B) b+m
1
b +m
(C)
2
(D) 1
b+m
2
25. The potential of a diatomic molecule as a function of the distance r between the atoms is
n p
given by m ` = − i o + i q4 . The values of the equilibrium separation and the potential at
equilibrium separation between the atoms, respectively, are
p / 3n4
r n s ; Np
(A)
p /t 3n4
rns ;
(B)
Np
p /t 3n4
rns ;
(C)
p
p /t 3n
rns ;
(D)
Np
26. Given u , = + − is the real part of an analytical function L of

complex variable = + v , then imaginary part of L will be
(A) +1
(B) +1
(C) +1
(D) +1
27. If the input to the following circuit is sinusoidal signal of amplitude 5 V and frequency
(1000/2π) Hz , then amplitude of the output in volts will be
1K
-6
1K 10 F
Vout
Vin
(A) 5√2
(B) 5
2√2
(C) 5
√2
(D) 5
Two zener diodes, A and B, are connected to a 10 V a.c power supply. Diode A is has
28. Zener voltage (Vz) = 3 V and Diode B has Vz = 5 V. The cut-in voltage ( Vγ) for diodes A
is 0.7 V and that for diode B is 0.3 V. The peak-to-peak voltage across the zener diode
combination will be
10 V
(A) +5.3 V and -3.7 V
(B) -5.7 V and +3.3 V
(C) +5.7 V and -3.3 V
(D) -5.3 V and +3.7 V
29. Asymmetry energy correction in liquid-drop model formula for nuclear binding energy is
(A) Negative and proportional to w3 x 4
w
(B) w3 x 4
Positive and proportional to
w
(C) wZx 4
Negative and proportional to
w
(D) Negative and proportional to w3x 4
w
30. The energy En of ‘n’ level of an atom consisting of positron and electron that orbit each
other will be given by (R is Rydberg constant for hydrogen atom)
(A) B
[
(B) 2B
[
(C) 3B
2[
(D) B
2[
31. The commutator y , b z is

(A) vħ b + b
(B) 2vħ b + b
(C) 2vħ +b
(D) 4vħ b
32. Which of the following is Lorentz invariant

(A) {|fa . ^
fa {
(B) {|fa { {^
fa { − {|fa {
(C) {|fa { − {^ fa {
(D) {|fa { {^
fa {
33. Consider a system having three energy levels with energies 0, 2ε and 3ε, with respective
degeneracies of 2, 2 and 3. Four bosons of spin zero have to be accommodated in these
levels such that the total energy of the system is 10ε. The number of ways it can be done is
(A) 12
(B) 8
(C) 24
(D) 18
%
34. The possible values of the resultant angular momentum for two electrons; one with } =
~
and other with } = are
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1
(B) 4ħ, 3ħ, 2ħ, 1ħ
(C) √20ħ, √12ħ, √6ħ, √2ħ
(D) 1, 4
35. The atom with configuration (ns) (n’p); n and n’ represent principal quantum numbers, s
and p are subshells. The possible ground state terms for (ns) (n’p) configuration are
(A) 1S0, 1P1, 3P1, 3P2
(B) 3S1, 1P1, 3P1, 3P2
(C) 3P0, 3P1, 3P2, 1P1
(D) 3P0, 3P1, 3P2, 1D2
36. Consider a system of 3 Fermions which can occupy 4 available energy states with equal
probability. The entropy of the system is
(A) kB Ln 8
(B) kB Ln 12
(C) 2kB Ln 2
(D) kB Ln 16
37. For two electron system, possible electronic state is 3P2. Angle between €a and k
fa in this
state is
(A) 0o
(B) 60o
(C) 30o
(D) 90o
38. Lande’s g factor and total magnetic moment for 2P3/2 state are
2 2
• = ; h = − √15 h‚
(A)
3 3
4 2
• = ; h = − √15 h‚
(B)
3 3
4
• = ; h = −√15 h‚
(C)
3
1
• = ; h = √15 h‚
(D)
3
39. % Z
The Λ value of Σƒ state is
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) -1
(D) +1
40. One can study rotational structure of O2 molecule using

(A) Infrared spectroscopy
(B) Raman spectroscopy
(C) Visible absorption spectroscopy
(D) Microwave absorption spectroscopy
41. Total degeneracy of n=3 state of H atoms is

(A) 9
(B) 3
(C) 14
(D) 18
42. The field carriers in the weak interactions that are responsible for ordinary beta decays
(A) W± bosons
(B) Gluons
(C) Z0 boson
(D) electrons
43. The field carriers in the strong interactions between quarks are
(A) Gluons, which are massless and travel with speed of light
(B) Z0 bosons, which a have 97 times mass of proton
(C) W± bosons, which have 85 times mass of proton
(D) Gluons, which are have 85 times mass of Au nucleus
44. Maximum, energy that can be transferred from a charged particle of mass m with kinetic
energy E to an electron of mass mo in a single collision is
(A) |8= ⁄8
(B) 4|8= ⁄8
(C) 2|8= ⁄8
(D) 8|8= ⁄8
45. A 12 bit ADC is used to convert analog voltage of 0 to 10 V into digital. The resolution is
(A) 24.4 mV
(B) 24.4 µV
(C) 2.44 mV
(D) 1.22 mV
46. In GM counter experiment, the measured data is 4900, the statistical error quoted
with 68 % confidence level will be will be
(A) 50
(B) 70
(C) 140
(D) 210
47. The vacuum of the order of 10-6 torr can be produced and measured using
(A) rotary pump and pirani gauge, respectively.
(B) diffusion pump and pirani gauge, respectively.
(C) adsorption pump and thermocouple gauge, respective
(D) diffusion pump and penning gauge, respectively.
48. Phonons propagate in a solid with

(A) Velocity of light
(B) Velocity of sound
(C) Root mean square velocity of the atoms in the solid
(D) Fermi velocity
49. In a degenerate n type semiconductor material, the Fermi level is

(A) very near valence band
(B) at the centre in between valence and conduction bands
(C) in conduction band
(D) In valence band
50. The maximum proportion of volume available in face-centered cubic lattice of spheres is
(A) 52%
(B) 26%
(C) 32%
(D) 68%
x-x-x
Statistics (1068)
1. Two unbiased dice are tossed simultaneously. The probability that the sum of the numbers on
the upper faces of both is either a multiple of three or a multiple of 4 is
A) 1/3 B) ¼ C) 7/12 D) 5/9
2. Let A1, …, An be n events in the sample space. Let be compliment of At, t= 1, …,n. Then
A) P(A1∩…..∩ ≥ 1- ∑] † B) P(A1∩…..∩ ≥ 1- ∑] †
C) P ( ∩…..∩ )≥ 1- ∑] † D) P ( ∩…..∩ )≤ 1- ∑] †
3. Graphic method to check the normality assumption of error in a linear model is to draw the
graph of:
A) Residuals versus predicted values B) Residuals versus observed values
C) Q-Q plot of predicted values D) Q-Q plot of residuals
4. Let ‡ˆ be the estimate of β in the Gauss Markov linear model Y =Xβ +ε, where X is a nxk matrix
with rank k and n>k. Then the distribution of YtY - ‡ˆt XtY is
A) F(n, n-k) B) Chi-square with n-k df
C) Chi-square with k df D) F(n-k, n).
5. Let Y = ( Y1, …, Yn ), where Yis are independent and normally distributed. Then for the matrix A,
the distribution of YtAY is chi square if and only if
A) |A| ≠ 0 B) |A| ≠ 0 C) AAt =I D) A = A2
6. The set of all feasible solutions to a linear programming problem forms a :

A) Concave set B) Convex set C) Orthogonal set D) Optimal set
7. The value of k for which the function f(x.y) = k on the support RXY = {(x,y): 0<x<y, 0<y<1} and
zero otherwise is the joint probability density function will be:
A) 2 B) ½ C) 1 D) ¼
8. The characteristic function of a discrete random variable X is (.25+ .75 et)4. The value of P[X≥1]
is:
A) .0468 B) .0156 C) .9532 D) .9844
9. Let the square matrix A be partitioned as A=[ ] . Then |A| is equal to

3 3
A) |A11||A11 - A12 A21| B) |A22||A11 - A12 A21|
3 3
C) |A22||A22 - A12 A21| D) |A22||A11 - A21 A12|
10. The test statistic obtained from likelihood ratio criterion to test the hypothetical value of mean
vector of a multivariate normal distribution, on the basis of a random sample of size N, is :
A) Mahalanobis D2 B) Hotelling T2
C) F D) Multivariate t- distribution
11. Let the p-dimensional random vector X follow multivariate distribution Np( μ, T). Let
Y = AX , where A is a qxp matrix of rank q (q<p). Then the distribution of Y is:
A) Np( Aμ, ATAt) B) Np( Aμ, ATAt)
C) Nq( Aμ, T) D) Nq( Aμ, ATAt)
12. Let the p-dimensional random vector X follow multivariate distribution Np( μ, Σ). Let X and Σ be
‰ ‰
‰ ‰
partitioned as X = ( X(1), X(2))t and Σ=[ ] respectively, where X(1) has first q components
of X. Then X(1) and X(2) – W X(1) are uncorrelated if W is equal to:
A) ‰ 3 B) Σ12‰ 3 C) Σ21‰ 3 D) Σ21‰ 3
13. A random variable X may assume four values with probabilities (1+3x)/4, (1-x)/4, (1+2x)/4 and
(1-4x)/4. The value(s) of x for which this is a probability distribution is:
A) x<1 B) -1/3≤x≤1/4 C) 0≥ x≥ -1/2 D) ¼ ≤x ≤0
14. A random variable X is uniformly distributed over the interval [ 1-1/√3, 1+1/√3]. The exact value
of P[ |X-E(X)|≥ 3/2Šm>` ‹ z is :
A) .44 B) .64 C) .134 D) √3/2
15. Let ‹ be the mean of a random sample of size n from a continuous distribution with mean μ and
variance σ2 . Suppose the asymptotic distribution of ‹ is normal with mean μ and variance σ2 /n
. Then the variance of the asymptotic distribution of a continuous function H(‹ is:
A) H(μ) σ2/n B) C Œ h /[ C) yC Œ h z2 D) yC Œ h z2/n
Here H` (.) denotes the derivative.
16. Let f(x) and F(x) be the pdf and cdf, respectively, of a continuous random variable X. Let the
interval [a, b] be in the support of X . For any t ε [a, b] , the pdf when truncated to left at a and
to the right b, will be:
A) f(t)/[ F(b)-F(a)] B) f(t)/[ 1- F(b)] C) f(t)/[1-F(a)] D) f(t)
17. Let random variable X follows binomial distribution with parameters n and p. Then the
distribution of random variable Y= n-X is:
A) Geometric B) Binomial with parameters n and p
C) Binomial with parameters n and 1-p D) Poisson with parameter np.
18. Let f(x,y) be the joint pdf of a continuous random vector (X,Y). Define the random variables U =
(X2+Y2)1/2 and V =X. The Jacobean of this transformation is:
A) xy B) y(x2+y2)-1/2 C) -y(x2+y2)-1/2 D) xy(x2+y2)-1/2
19. Let X1, …, Xn be a random sample from a two parameter exponential distribution with location
parameter μ and scale parameter θ. The MLEs of μ and θ respectively are X(1)= min (X1, …, Xn)
and S = ∑ ] ‹ − ‹ )/n. An unbiased estimator of θis:
A) X(1) –S/n B) X(1) C) S D) nS/(n-1)
20. The interval of the real line on which the function f(x) = 1/(1+x2) will be concave is:
A) (0, ∞) B) (0, 1/√3 ) C) (-1/√3 , 0) D) (-1/√3 , 1/√3) .
21. 25% of the values of a data set are less than 30 and 25% are more than 60. The coefficient of
quartile deviation is:
A) 15 B) 30 C) 1/3 D) 1/15
22. Let random variable X follow binomial distribution with parameters n and p (0<p<1). An upper
bound on P[X>nα], using Markov’s inequality for p=.5 and α=.75 is:
A) 3/8 B) ¾ C) ½ D) 2/3
23. The most appropriate non-parametric test for testing the stochastic dominance between two
distribution functions is:
A) Median test B) Mann-Whiteny U-test
C) Run test D) Mood’s test
24. A system of 5 identical units consists of two parts A and B which are connected in series. Part A
has 2 units connected in parallel and Part B has 3 units connected in parallel. All the five units
function independently with probability of failure ½. The probability that the system functions
is:
A) 31/32 B) 11/32 C) 1/32 D) 21/3244
25. The radius of a circle is measured with an error of measurement which is normally distributed
with mean 0 and variance . Let X1,…,Xn be n measurements on the radius. Let and
= 3 ∑ − be the sample mean and sample variance respectively. Then an unbiased
estimate of the area of the circle is:
M
A) " B) " J ∑ − K C) ∑ D) "e − g
26. For which of the following set of values will a balanced incomplete block design with parameters
v, b, r, k, λ exists:
A) v=11, b=7, r=4, k= 4, λ=2 B) v=21, b=4, r=4, k= 21, λ=4
C) v=7, b=7, r=4, k= 4, λ=2 D) v=11, b=7, r=3, k= 4, λ=4
27. To examine whether two different skin creams, A and B, have different effect on human body, n
randomly chosen persons were enrolled in a clinical trial. Then cream A was applied to one of
the randomly chosen arms of each person, cream B to the other arm. The design used is:
A) CRD B) LSD C) Youden Square D) RBD
28. A random variable X takes values-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2 with probability .1, .2, .2, .1, .3, .1
respectively. Let Y = ǀ Xǀ. Then E(Y) is:
A) .5 B) 1.3 C) 1.4 D) 0
29. Let random variable X denote the number of tosses before the first appearance of a 6 when a
balanced die is tossed repeatedly and independently. Then for k= 0,1,2,… the value of P[X= k] is:
A) (1/6)k B) ½ C) (5/6)k D) 5k/6k+1
30. If P(B) = 1/3 and P(A/Bc)=1/4. The value of P(AUB) is:

A) 1/2 B) 2/3 C) 3/4 D) 5/6
31. Let X and Y be iid 0, . Define V = X + Y and S = X – Y. Then the conditional distribution of V
given S = s is:
A) Uniformrh − , h + s B) 0,2
C) 0, D) , )
32. Let X be a binomial random variable with parameters n = 11, p = 1/3. The value(s) of k at which
P[X = k] maximized is:
A) k = 1, 2 B) k = 3, 4 C) k=5 D) k=6
33. Let X1,…,Xn be a random sample from a distribution with probability density function
L = • , 0 < 0 < < ;. An unbiased estimator of ; is:
A) (sample mean) B) max(X1,…,Xn) /(n+1)
Z
C) min (X1,…,Xn)/n D) y8> ‹ , … , ‹ z
34. Suppose persons A and B draw random samples of sizes 18 and 24 respectively from
h, , > 0 for testing C! : h = 5 against C : h > 5 In both the cases the observed sample
means and sample standard deviations are same with values = = 1.8, = = . Both
of them use usual t-test and state p-values as pA and pB respectively. Then
A) bw > b‚ B) bw = b‚ C) bw < b‚ D) bw + b‚ = 1
35. Suppose X1, X2 … is an iid sequence of random variables with common variance > 0. Let
‘ = ∑ ] ‹ 3 , ’ = ∑ ] ‹ . Then the asymptotic distribution (as n →∞) of √[ ‘ −’
is:
A) N(0,1) B) 0, C) 0,2 D) Degenerate at 0
36. In a CRD the four treatments A,B, C, D are repeated 6,9,11, 8 times respectively. The error
degrees of freedom (df)will be:
A) 3 B) 25 C) 33 D) 30
37. In an RBD there are four treatments A,B,C and D each is to be repeated 5 times. The number of
blocks required is:
A) 5 B) 4 C) 1 D) 3
38. Let ‹ , … , ‹ be iid random variables from uniform distribution over the interval 0, ; , ; > 1.
Define ‘ = 1 if ‹ > 1 and zero otherwise. Let ‘ = ∑ ‘ . The method of moments estimator
of ; is:
A) ‘ B) 1 − ‘ C) “ D) 3“
39. A person selects a simple random sample with replacement of size 3 from a lot containing 5
good and 3 bad items. The probability of getting 2 good and 1 bad item in the sample is:
A) 75/512 B) 15/28 C) 225/512 D) 15/64
40. Let f(x)=1 if x = c and zero otherwise, where c is a positive constant. The value
”
of 3” 2 3 L is :
A) 0 B) 2 3D C) ∞ D) 1
–—
41. Let ‹ , … , ‹ be iid gamma random variables. Define ‘ = ∑˜ , i=1,…,n. The distribution of ‘
—™q –—
is:
A) Uniform B) Beta (first kind) C) Exponential D) Pareto
42. Let ‘ = h + < , } = 1, … , [ , v = 1, … , ., where < ~ › 0, ∀v, }. Let ‘ = ∑ —
] ‘ ,v =
—
1, … , .. For any sets of constants > , … , >6 and ? , … , ?6 the covariance between∑ > ‘ and
∑ ? ‘ is zero if:
np
A) ∑ > ? = 0 B) ∑ [ > ? = 0 C) ∑ > = 0 D) ∑ — — = 0
—
43. Let the error degrees of freedom in the ANOVA table of an RBD is 63 and degrees of freedom for
the between sum of squares is 7. Then the block size is:
A) 8 B) 9 C) 10 D) 7
44. Let random variable X follows uniform distribution over the interval (0, 2).The value of E[X|X>.5]
is:
A) .9375 B) 1.25 C) 1.875 D) 1.5
45. Let X1, …, Xn be independent Poisson random variables such that the mean of Xi is μi , i = 1, …, n.
The joint distribution of X1, …, Xn given X1 +…Xn is :
A) Beta ( first kind) B) Binomial C) Hyper Geometric D) Multinomial
46. If A1 and A2 are two events such that † ∪ =† +† = 1.Then events A1 and A2
are:
A) Independent B) Mutually exclusive
C) Mutually exclusive and independent D) Mutually exclusive and exhaustive.
47. Let x = 10 be an observation on the hyper geometric random variable X with probability mass
ž Ÿ3ž
r sr s
function †y‹ = z= Ÿ
3
, = 0,1, … , min ¡, [ and n-x<N-M. Let M = 40, n = 30 and N
r s
is an unknown. The maximum likelihood estimate of N is:
A) 120 B) 75 C) 60 D) Not unique
48. Let ‹ , … , ‹ be independent and identically distributed (iid) Bernoulli (p) random variables,
0<p<1. The distribution of ‘ = ∑ ‹ is:
A) Chi-square with n degrees of freedom B) N(np, np (1-p))
C) Binomial (n, p) D) Poisson (np)
49. Let ‹~ 0,1 , ‘~ 1,2 . Then

“
†y‹ > 0z = †y‘ > 1z B) †y‹ > 0z = † J > 1K
C) †y‹ > 0z = † J‘ > K D) †y‹ > 0z = †y‘ > 0z

√
50. The time interval between arrivals of two buses at a bus stop is exponentially distributed with
mean 5 minutes. Then the probability that no bus arrives in 5 minutes is:
A) e B) 1/2 C) 1/5 D) 1/e
x-x-x
System Biology & Bioinformatics (1068)
1. All the molecules listed below are used as spin label probes for studying biomolecules by
electron paramagnetic resonance spectroscopy technique, except one;
A) 1-piperidinyloxy 2,2,6,6-tetramethyl (TEMPO)
B) 5-nitroxyl oxazolidine
C) 4-isothiocyanato-TEMPO
D) 2 ,2 ,6 ,6 -nitroxyl oxazolidine
2. During electrophoretic mobility shift assay specific protein binding to DNA could be
identified by which of the following result;
A) Appearance of supershifted band upon addition of antibody
B) Appearance of fast moving band upon addition of antibody
C) Disappearance of all types of bands upon addition of antibody
D) Appearance of thick band on bottom of gel upon addition of antibody
3. Following mentioned is the list of tools used for quality assessment of Protein secondary
and tertiary structure prediction, except one;
A) PROCHECK B) VERIFY 3D C) WHAT IF D) VMD
4. All of the following are examples of transposons, identify which one of the following
does not possess reverse transcriptase activity;
A) LINEs (long interspersed nuclear elements)
B) SINEs (short interspersed nuclear element)
C) LTR (Long terminal repeats)
D) DNA transposons
5. A gene that will be expressed only if there are two identical copies of it is called as;
A) Psuedogene B) Syngenic C) Recessive gene D) Dominant gene
6. A typical BLAST output shows all of the following important properties, except;
A) Value of E decreases exponentially with increasing S value.
B) The size of database searched can influence the likelihood of particular alignment output
C) The size of query can be detrimental to the alignment outputs
D) The expected score for alignment of a pair of amino acids cannot be determined
7. The Laser beams are used in image analysis, DNA sequencing and so many other
techniques. The abbreviation Laser stands for;
A) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
B) Light amplification by stimulated excitation of radiation
C) Light absorption by stimulated emission of radiation
D) Light absorption by stimulated excitation of radiation
8. Identify which of the following metacharacters match to the descriptions for the beginning
of a line, the end of a line and any non digit descriptions in the Perl Programs;
A) ^, $ and \ d respectively B) ^, $ and \ D respectively
C) >, $ and \ d respectively D) >, $ and \ D respectively
9. Urea is a protein denaturant. All of the following statements are true for it, except;
A) It is a net uncharged molecule
B) It is polar in nature
C) It can interrupt hydrogen bonding between amide and carbonyl groups.
D) It can disrupt disulfide linkages in proteins10.
10. A Bioinformatics program used to convert raw DNA sequences input to an ordered list of
base identities and quality scores is called;
A) Chromatogram B) Reads C) Contigs D) Base caller
11. The yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is an attractive model organism for many reasons.
Which one of the following is not true about it;
A) It contains about 13Mb of DNA in 16 chromosomes.
B) Its genome has high gene density.
C) Its genome has been completely sequenced.
D) Its physical and genetic maps have not been unified.
12. The simplest and best way to navigate Entrez search space is mentioned below. Identify
the correct answer;
A) Use of individual search terms
B) Use of individual search terms coupled together by special characters
C) Use of individual search terms coupled together by Boolean operators
D) Use of individual search terms coupled together by special characters and Boolean
operators
13. To evaluate the phylogenetic analysis data and robustness of trees, all of the following
methods, except one, are used for tree evaluation;
A) Randomised trees B) Boot strapping
C) Likelihood ratio test D) Star decomposition
14. The homology modeling approach consists of steps i-iv, listed as below. Identify the
correct order of steps followed;
i. Identification of homologous sequences in a protein structure database
ii. Optimization of side chains, atoms and loops
iii. Build a framework structure
iv. Refinement of entire model
A) i, ii, iii followed by iv B) i, iii, ii followed by iv
C) i, iv, iii followed by iii D) i, ii, iv followed by iii
15. To get the DNA sequencing data using Sanger dideoxynucleotide technique which of the
following vector systems is used to obtain large amounts of single stranded DNA;
A) Bacteriophage lambda B) Bacteriophage P
C) M13 Bacteriophage D) L13 Bacteriophage
16. The mapping of protein – protein interaction can be done by all of the following
mentioned experimental approaches, except one, identify;
A) Yeast two hybrid B) GST pull Down
C) Immunoprecipitation D) BIOGRID
17. To perform gel electrophoresis Acryl amide is polymerized to form polyacrylamide gel.
Which of the following statement represents correct polymerization reaction;
A) Polymerization is initiated by TEMED and catalysed by persulfate radicals
B) Polymerization is initiated by persulfate radicals and catalysed by TEMED
C) Polymerization is initiated and catalysed by per sulfate radicals
D) Polymerization is initiated and catalysed by TEMED
18. In addition to autosomes and sex chromosomes, humans have a mitochondrial genome
also. Following mentioned are properties of mitochondrial genome, except;
A) They are in high copy number
B) The mutation rate is higher than in nuclear DNA
C) They have paternal lineage
D) They are mostly followed in molecular phylogeny studies to find earliest human
ancestor
19. The X-rays are high energy radiations, which of the following statements is true about
these rays;
A) These have long wavelengths and low frequency
B) These have long wavelengths and high frequency
C) These have short wavelengths and high frequency
D) These have short wavelengths and low frequency
20. The relationship between sedimentation coefficient and molecular mass is represented by;
which of the following notations;
A) Snedberg B) Sredberg C) Svedberg D) Sledberg
21. Which one of the following statement is not true for two-dimensional gel electrophoresis;
A) Several thousand proteins can be resolved simultaneously
B) It can detect less than one nanogram protein per spot on the gel
C) Only the most abundant proteins are usually detected
D) It is possible to process many samples in parallel on same gel
22. In oligonucleotide based arrays and cDNA based arrays how many samples can be
processed on a single chip;
A) 1 and 2, respectively B) 2 and 1, respectively
C) 1 in both types of chips D) 2 in both types of chips
23. Cholera toxin stimulates Adenylate cyclase in signal transduction cascade by activating
which type of G proteins;
A) Gsα B) Giα C) Gtα D) Goα
24. In the nucleotide polymerization process catalyzed by DNA polymerases all of the
following are true, except;
A) Leading strand is synthesized continuously
B) Lagging strand is not synthesized continuously
C) Short RNA primers are required for lagging strand initiation
D) Short RNA primers are not required for lagging strand initiation
25. In the mitotic division of a somatic cell, during telophase stage which of the following
process will take place;
A) Nuclear process reassembly
B) Contractile rings form cleavage furrow
C) Chromosomes are aligned in a equatorial plate
D) Kinetochore assembly takes place
26. Majority of soluble ER resident proteins carry a signature sequence, what is this signature
and where is it located on the protein;
A) KDEL sequence at N-terminal B) KDEL sequence at C-terminal
C) KDEGL sequence at N-terminal D) KDEGL sequence at C-terminal
27. One of the following mentioned enzymes is not a serine protease enzymes, identify the one;
A) Trypsin B) Cocoonase C) Subtilisin D) Lysozyme
28. Radioactive isotopes emitting β-type of radiations have been listed below. Identify which
one of the following isotope has been listed incorrectly;
A) 3H B) 32P C) 35S D)125I
29. Hexokinase enzyme catalyzes the first reaction of glycolytic pathway. The substrates for
this enzyme are Mg2+-ATP and_________;
A) D-Glucose , D-Mannose and D-Fructose
B) D-Glucose , L-Glucose and D-Fructose
C) L-Glucose , L-Mannose and L-Fructose
D) L-Glucose , D-Mannose and D-Fructose
30. In a protein sequencing reaction by Edman degradation the terminal amino acid reacts
with a chemical to generate its derivative, identify the correct answer;
A) First amino acid on N-terminal reacts with phenylthiocyanate
B) First amino acid on C-terminal reacts with phenylthiocyanate
C) First amino acid on N-terminal reacts with phenylisothiocyanate
D) First amino acid on C-terminal reacts with phenylisothiocyanate
31. Metabolic flux by glycolysis in muscles is controlled primarily by which of thefollowing

enzyme;
A) Phosphofructokinase
B) Glucokinase
C) Enolase
D) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
32. Lipinski’s rule states that a probable drug candidate should not violate the following
criteria, except;
A) It should have molecular mass less than 500 daltons
B) It should not have more than 10 hydrogen bond donors
C) It should not have more than 10 hydrogen bond acceptors
D) The octanol –water partition coefficient log P should not exceed 5
33. Which of the statements is not true for suicide inhibitors;

A) They are activated by enzyme catalyzed reactions
B) They react irreversibly with the enzyme
C) They form a covalent bond with the enzyme active site once activated
D) They self destruct as result of enzyme catalysis
34. An agonist molecule stays bound to a receptor for a long period, this results in
Phosphorylation of the receptor molecule. This effect will lead to a phenomenon termed as;
A) Tolerance of the receptor B) Sensitization of the receptor
C) Desensitization of the receptor D) Destruction of the recptor
35. Which of the following statistical approaches is not used for clustering of high throughput
techniques generated datas?
A) K-means clustering B) Self organizing maps
C) Multivariate analysis D) Principal component analysis
36. Which of the following statements is not true for effective drug – target interactions;
A) Desolvation is an energy requiring step to remove water molecules from polar
functional groups prior to a drug binding to its active site.
B) Water molecules surround a hydrophobic region to generate an ordered layer with
reduction in entropy
C) Water molecules removal for nonpolar regions of drug and target interaction lead
to a lowering the value of ∆ G
D) An increase in entropy at any point of drug target interaction resulting in a higher
value of ∆ G leads to greater chance of drug-target binding
37. You were asked to perform polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The outcome of this
experiment showed multiple bands upon electrophoresis inspite of very specific primer
sequences used for amplification. What could be the probable reason for such an effect;
A) Annealing temperature 3-5 degree less than Tm of primers
B) Very high concentration of magnesium ion in the reaction
C) Very high annealing temperature
D) Low concentration of Magnesium ion used in the reaction
38. In both protein and DNA sequences there may be regions that contain highly repetitive
sequences. These regions are known as;
A) High density regions B) Low density regions
C) High complexity regions D) Low complexity regions
39. A bioinformatics analytical tool may yield false positive results, which will be the best
definition of false positive values;
A) A false positive result is when analysis indicated negative but true status is positive
B) A false positive result is when analysis indicated positive but true status is negative
C) A false positive result is when analysis indicated positive but true status is also
positive
D) A false positive result is when analysis indicated negative but true status is also
negative
40. In the events of excessive exercise, muscles undergoing high rates of glycolysis, tissues are
insufficiently aerobic to oxidize all of the NADH generated, hence to maintain overall
electron balance these tissue will do which of the following activities;
A) Stop the glycolytic cycle B) Stop generation of NADH selectively
C) Start alcoholic fermentation D) Start lactic acid fermentation
41. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency;

A) Percentile B) Quartile
C) Standard deviation D) Mode
42. A number of inhibitors of prokaryotic translation are also effective in eukaryotes. Some
of the example of such inhibitors are listed below, except one, identify ;
A) Puromycin B) Tetracycline C) Pactamycin D) Diphtheria toxin
43. Heparin is a natural anticoagulant , which binds strongly to blood proteins to inhibit
clotting process. Heparin itself is a____.
A) Highly sulfated Protein molecule
B) Highly sulfated glycoprotein molecule
C) Highly sulfated glycosyl amino acid molecule
D) Highly sulfated glyosylaminoglycan molecule
44. A family tree diagram that shows how a particular genetic trait or diseases has been
inherited is called as;
A) Phylogenetic tree B) Pedigree
C) Cladogram D) Dendrogram
45. In R language for the input statement >1:6 the correct output would be;
A) [1] 1 2 3 4 5 6 B) [1] 1 1 1 1 1 1 C) [6] 1 2 3 4 5 6 D) [6] 1 1 1 1 1 1
46. The Structural parameters of few of the polypeptide structures are represented as
Structure Type ------------Residue/turn--------------phi and psi angles (0)
from below identify the incorrect dataset out here;
A) 310 Helix……………………3.0……………….……..-49 and -26
B) 3.613 Helix………………… 3.6……………….……..-57 and +47
C) 4.416 Helix………………… 4.4……………….……..-57 and -70
D) Parallel β sheet…………….. 2.0……………….……..-119 and +113
47. Which of the following is not basic data type in programming in C?

A) Char B) Long C) Float D) Double
48. The metabolically activated form of glucose for glycogen synthesis is;
A) UDP-glucose B) Glucose -1-phosphate
C) Glucose -6-phosphate D) Glucose -1,6-phosphate
49. Out of the six major classes of enzymes, four have been mentioned here, but one data is
erroneous, identify which one;
A) Isomerases B) Oxidoreductases C) Ribozymes D) Lyases
50. What is the fundamental unit of execution in C;

A) Expression B) Subexpression C) Statement D) Function
x-x-x
Zoology (1068)
1. In an experiment it was observed that if the eye of shrimp, Palinurus, was removed it
developed not an eye but an antenna like structure. This phenomenon is known as
A) Autotomy B) Super regeneration
C) Morphallaxis D) Heteromorphosis
2. Which of the following acts as DNA scissors

A) UV light B) DNA ligases
C) Restriction enzymes D) Lasers
3. In regeneration of salamander limb the cells beneath the wound surface undergo
extensive de- differentiation so that a zone of indistinguishable cells is formed. This is
called
A) Apical ectodermal cap B) Wound epidermis
C) Regeneration Blastema D) Progress Zone
4. Cell adhesion molecules that require calcium ions for their functioning are
A) Cadherins B) Immunoglobulin super family
C) Gap junctions D) Laminin
5. The cortical granule reaction is a mechanism involved in

A) Fast block to polyspermy B) Slow block to polyspermy
C) Activation of sperm D) Activation of egg
6. An interesting feature of the cleavage pattern in annelids is that the cleavage furrows are
oblique and give rise to a blastula that
A) Has a normal blastocoel and is called stereoblastula.
B) Has no blastocoel and is called stereoblastula.
C) Has a normal blastocoel and is called morula.
D) Has no blastocoel and is called morula.
7. Polar lobe is formed during cleavage in

A) Echinoderms and contains a prominent nucleus
B) Molluscs and contains morphogenetic determinants
C) Amphibians and contains a multilobed nucleus.
D) Birds and contains yolk.
8. The chromatin seen on the nuclear envelope of a normal XX female is

A) Euchromatin called Barr body B) Heterochromatin called Barr body
C) Glycoprotein called Barr body D) Nucleoprotein called Barr body
9. The organism of choice for studies in developmental biology is

A) Paleomon B) Drosophila
C) Caenorhabditis elegans D) Rhodinius prolixus
10. P granules in Caenorhabditis elegans are associated with
A) Founder cells B) Somatic cells
C) Germ cells D) Polar lobe
11. Which of the following is not associated with insect metamorphosis

A) Corpus cardiacum B) Corpus allatum
C) Corpus striatum D) Ring gland
12. A population pyramid with a narrow base and broad top is characteristic of
A) Population with more percentage of individuals of older age
B) Population with zero growth rate
C) Population with more percentage of individuals of younger age
D) Population with more percentage of females
13. Trisomy of chromosome 21 causes

A) Cri du chat syndrome B) Downs syndrome
C) Marfan syndrome D) ABCD syndrome
14. In which phase is heat period experienced by mammals exhibiting estrous cycle
A) Proestrous B) Metastrous C) Diestrous D) Anestrous
15. A piece of nucleic acid used to find a gene by forming a hybrid with it is called
A) Probe B) Vector
C) Restriction sequence D) Retrovirus
16. A type of muscle contraction during which the muscledoes not shorten in length during
contraction. This is called
A) Isotonic contraction B) Isometric contraction
C) Tetanization D) Stair case effect
17. Sugars that differ with respect to configuration around one specific carbon atom are
A) Enantiomers B) Epimers C) Anomers D) Amphoteric
18. Which of the following is a protein

A) Cellulose B) Chitin C) Keratin D) Inulin
19. The repeat unit of telomere is

A) TTATTC B) TGATTG C) TTAGGG D) TTAGCG
20. What does ping pong mechanism refer to ?

A) Hydrolysis of carbohydrates in the gut
B) Mechanism of breakdown of fats by bacteria
C) Enzymatic activity in which enzyme is temporarily modified
D) Feedback inhibition.
21. Deficiency of which vitamin causes Xerophthalmia
A) VitaminA B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D
22. Which hormone is released into the AC usually in response to acidity

A) Epinephrin B) Norepinephrin C) Secretin D) Insulin
23. The blood sample of an individual contains agglutinins anti A and anti B in the plasma.
His blood group will be
A) O B) AB C) A D) B
24. Which of the following factors does not influence cardiac output
A) Calcium ions B) Venous return
C) Temperature D) Metabolism
25. Which organ is referred to as thermostat of the body

A) Liver B) Hypothalamus C) Thyroid D) Pineal
26. Cyanosis refers to

A) Poisoning due to potassium cyanide
B) Fumigation of stored products with HCN to kill insect pest
C) Bluing of nails and lips
D) Colour of blood due to haemocyanin
27. The first heart sound appears during which of the following phases of the cardiac cycle:
A) Isovolumic relaxation B) Isovolumic contraction
C) Ejection D) Rapid ventricular filling
28. Number of ganglia present in the ventral nerve cord of Musca is

A) Ten B) Eight C) Five D) One
29. The Johnstons organ in insects is related to which of the following senses
A) Touch B) Taste C) Hearing D) Smell
30. In the respiratory system of an insect only the last pair of abdominal spiracles are open.
This type of respiratory system is called
A) Apneustic B) Perineustic C) Metapneustic D) Propneustic
31. Philadelphia chromosome is found in patients suffering from

A) Hepatitis B) Myelocytic leukaemia
C) Albinism D) Muscular dystrophy
32. In the pupae of some insects the mandibles are powerful, sclerotized and used by the
pharate adult to escape from the cocoon. This type of pupa is
A) Decticous B) Adectious C) Coarctate D) Obtectadecticous
33. Which of the following is not an organo phosphate insecticide

A) Quinalophos B) Phorate C) Malathion D) Endosulphan
34. Which of the following is not a coleopteran pest of stored grains
A) Tribolium B) Rhizopertha C) Corcyra D) Bruchus
35. Trypanosoma is vectored by which of the following

A) Tsetse fly B) Sand fly C) Horse fly D) Flea
36. Which of the following is not produced by honey bees

A) Royal jelly B) Wax C) Venom D) Pollen
37. Which of the following characteristics is used to identify Cobra:

A) Flat tail B) Enlarged ventral shields
rd
C) 3 supra labial shield D) Hexagonal mid-dorsal vertebral scales
38. Which of the following helps in digestion of cellulose in termites
A) Giardia B) Monocystis C) Trichonympha D) Balantidium
39. Which of the following lake is originated by wind action

A) Sambhar lake B) Wular lake C) Anchar lake D) Nainital lake
40. The condition in which maximum organisms a habitat can have under least favourable,
yet tolerable conditions is known as
A) Biotic Potential B) Standing crop
C) Carrying Capacity D) Yield
41. Eutrophication is caused by addition of ……… in a water body

A) Heavy metals B) Detergents
C) Fertilizers D) Detergents and fertilizers
42. According to Hutchinsons classification, the lake with water temperature above 40 C and
with rare periods of turnover at irregular intervals is known as
A) Cold Monomictic B) Oligomictic
C) Polymictic D) Warm monomictic
43. Labyrinthine organ is present in which of the following

A) Notopterus notopterus B) Synbranchus marmoratus
C) Anabas testudineus D) Monopterus cuchia
44. Complement is a part of

A) Innate immune system B) Adaptive immune response
C) Hypersensitivity D) CMI
45. Farmers lung disease is

A) Type1 hypersensitivity B) Type 2 hypersensitivity
C) Type 3 hypersensitivity D) Type 4 hypersensitivity
46. Which of the following is passive immunisation

A) Vaccine for snake venom B) Polio vaccine
C) Tetanus vaccine D) Hepatitis vaccine
47. Silver carp primarily feeds on

A) Benthos B) Phytoplankton C) Small fish D) Small insects
48. Homologous genes in different organisms that encode proteins with same function and
have evolved by direct vertical descent are called
A) Paralogs B) Orthologs C) Analogs D) Homologs
49. LOD scores are used to predict

A) Cross over frequencies B) Gene sequencing
C) Gene linkage D) Number of genes in genome
50. Antibodies in the blood can be detected by

A) TEM B) SEM C) ELISA D) RT-PCR
x-x-x

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Anthropology (1068)

1. Mutation as a theory of evolution was proposed by:

2. Neo-Darwinism is also known as:

3. In India, Dryopithecus fossil primate was discovered from:

4. The strongest support to organic evolution comes from the study of

5. The theory of Lamarck is based on:

7. The driving force of natural selection is

8. During mitosis the chromosomes begin to separate in______stage.

9. A gamete cell containing a single genome is known as_____;___.

11. The ability of a gene to express itself phenotypically is called ________.

12. The youngest phenomenon under the stratigraphy method is represented by

13. The Pleistocene is an epoch which forms a part of the__________.

15. The periods of high rainfall are called _________.

17. Megaliths are:

18. The earliest cultural phase of Holocene is:

19. Mesolithic Age succeeds:

21. Diastema is present on the;

25. In mammals red blood corpuscles are:

26. The term 'folk society' was first used by:

A) Robert Redfield B) Eric Wolf C) R. Linton D) A.L. Kroeber

33. Marriage within the caste is called:

34. Ego-centric groups are called:

36. Unilineal kin groups are characterized by:

37. Which amongst the following is considered as property in simple societies?

42. Who amongst the following gave the theory of Animism?

44. Haimendorf did his major work in:

46. Functionalism is:

47. Jajmani system indicates a set of

48. Which amongst the following is a corporate group?

50. Which of the following is not an essential characteristic of a social group?

3. Which of the following statements about isoeletric focusing is correct?

4. Which of the following statements about membrane fluidity is correct?

10. In an α-helical polypeptide, the backbone Hydrogen bonds are between-

13. The regulation of transcription allows a bacterial cells to adapt to a changing

22. In an experiment to identify the post-translational modification of a protein, following

23. Which of the following class of antibodies is involved in Type I hypersensitivity

25. Which of the following enzymes does not require a primer:

26. Zn is an essential cofactor for :

31. Which of the following statements about Western Blotting is correct?

34. Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is NOT correct?

36. Koshland’s theory of enzyme action is called-

37. Following are the steps in DNA fingerprinting –

A) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi B) v,vi,i,iii,ii,iv C) ii,iii,v,vi,i,iv D) ii,iii,v,vi,i,iv

39. Phenylketonuria occurs due to deficiency of the enzyme:

40. Which of the following would have high content of triglycerides?

47. Select the one FALSE statement.

49. Which of the following statements do not apply to Puromycin?

3. ELISA stands for

4. Fluorescence recovery after photo bleaching in live cells is used to determine

5. Circular Dichromism spectroscopy is primarily used for

6. The absorption coefficient of 511 keV gamma rays depends on the :

7. In the helium-neon laser, which of the following is not true?

10. Intrinsic rhythm of heart is maintained by

13. In electron microscope, as compare to filament, the potential on shield is always

14. HEPES buffer is used in :

15. Frequency range of alpha rhythm in normal EEG

20. The first protein to be sequenced is :

21. Lipids are synthesized in:

22. Antibodies are produced by:

9. A gamete cell containing a single genome is known as___;_.