IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Question No. 1

According to the provisions of CPC the Court which passed a decree may, on the application of the decree holder,

send it for execution to another Court of competent jurisdiction________

Options :

1. If the person against whom the decree is passed actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business

within the local limits of the jurisdiction of such other Court

2. If the decree directs the sale or delivery of immovable property situate outside the local limits of the

jurisdiction of the Court which passed it

3. If the Court which passed the decree considers for any other reason, which it shall record in writing, that

the decree should be executed by such other Court

4. Either a or b or c

5. Either a or b

Answer : Either a or b or c

Question No. 2

What is the validity period of a Shelf Prospectus as per the Companies Act?

Options :

1. 6 months

2. 1 year

3. 2 years

4. 3 years

5. 5 years

Answer : 1 year

Question No. 3

Which Act lays down provisions related to KYC norms?

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Options :

1. Banking Regulation Act

2. Reserve Bank of India Act

3. Prevention of Money Laundering Act

4. Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act

5. None of the above

Answer : Prevention of Money Laundering Act

Question No. 4

Which statement best describes a temporary injunction?

Options :

1. It is a permanent legal order issued by the court

2. It is a final decision made by the judge after a trial

3. It is typically issued at the end of a legal proceeding

4. It is a directive given by the plaintiff to the defendant

5. It restrains a party from doing the specified act and aims to preserve the status quo

Answer : It restrains a party from doing the specified act and aims to preserve the status quo

Question No. 5

Which statement about a designated partner in the context of a Limited Liability Partnership is not true?

Options :

1. At least two designated partners must be individuals

2. At least two designated partners shall be resident in India

3. Designated partners can be appointed based on the LLP agreement

4. Every designated partner must obtain a Designated Partner Identification Number

5. The term "resident in India" refers to a person who has stayed in India for at least 120 days during the

financial year as per section 7 of the LLP Act

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Answer : At least two designated partners shall be resident in India

Question No. 6

As per the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act a complaint, in relation to any goods sold or delivered or

agreed to be sold or delivered or any service provided or agreed to be provided, may be filed with a District

Commission by______________

Options :

1. Only by a recognized consumer association

2. Only by the consumer who purchased the goods or services

3. By one or more consumers with similar interests, with the permission of the District Commission

4. By the Central Government, Central Authority, or State Government

5. All of the above

Answer : All of the above

Question No. 7

What does "Indorsement without recourse" mean?

Options :

1. The indorser is not liable to pay in case of default by the indorser

2. The indorser is fully liable for any default by the indorser

3. The indorser is entitled to a refund from the intermediate indorsers

4. The indorser has the right to enforce the payment against all intermediate indorsers

5. Either c or d

Answer : The indorser is not liable to pay in case of default by the indorser

Question No. 8

A promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque drawn or made in India and made payable in, or drawn upon any

person resident in, India shall be deemed to be an _________

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Options :

1. Instrument

2. Inland instrument

3. Foreign instrument

4. Negotiable instrument

5. Either a or b or c or d

Answer : Inland instrument

Question No. 9

"Wrongful gain" is defined as __________ under IPC

Options :

1. Gaacquired by lawful means of property to which the person gaining is legally entitled

2. Gain acquired by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is legally entitled

3. Gain acquired by lawful means of property to which the person gaining is not legally entitled

4. Gain acquired by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is not legally entitled

5. None of the above

Answer : Gain acquired by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is not legally entitled

Question No. 10

What is the definition of "wrongful loss" as per IPC?

Options :

1. Gain by lawful means of property to which the person gaining it is legally entitled

2. Loss by lawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled

3. Loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled

4. Gain by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining it is legally entitled

5. Loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is not legally entitled

Answer : Loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled
IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Question No. 11

What does the term "amicus curiae" refer to in legal proceedings?

Options :

1. The judge presiding over the case

2. A party directly involved in the case

3. The lawyer representing the defendant

4. An expert witness called by the prosecution

5. A person or entity providing assistance or expertise to the court

Answer : A person or entity providing assistance or expertise to the court

Question No. 12

The period of limitation is regulated by the ________for disputes required to be referred to arbitration

Options :

1. Indian Contract Act, 1872

2. Indian Evidence Act, 1872

3. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996

4. Provisions of the Limitation Act, 1963

5. An agreement between the parties

Answer : Provisions of the Limitation Act, 1963

Question No. 13

As per section 9 of the Limitation Act what happens to the limitation period once it has started running?

Options :

1. It stops upon any subsequent disability or inability to file a suit or make an application

2. It continues to run despite any subsequent disability or inability to file a suit or make an application

3. It restarts upon any subsequent disability or inability to file a suit or make an application
IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

4. It gets extended for a certain period upon any subsequent disability or inability to file a suit or make an

application

5. It terminates upon any subsequent disability or inability to file a suit or make an application

Answer : It continues to run despite any subsequent disability or inability to file a suit or make an application

Question No. 14

What is the limitation period for enforcing payment of money secured by a mortgage?

Options :

1. Five years

2. Seven years

3. Ten years

4. Twelve years

5. Fifteen years

Answer : Twelve years

Question No. 15

What does "tort" mean?

Options :

1. Civil wrong

2. Criminal act

3. Legal remedy

4. Legal procedure

5. Contractual agreement

Answer : Civil wrong

Question No. 16

What powers does the Supreme Court possess as a court of record?

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Options :

1. The power to grant pardons

2. The power to issue warrants for arrest

3. The power to punish for contempt of itself

4. The power to impose fines for traffic violations

5. The power to conduct trials in criminal cases

Answer : The power to punish for contempt of itself

Question No. 17

Which Article of the Constitution lays down provisions related to protection against arrest and detention?

Options :

1. Article 20

2. Article 22

3. Article 25

4. Article 32

5. Article 42

Answer : Article 22

Question No. 18

What are the key elements of the true test of Partnership according to the Partnership Act?

Options :

1. Mutual Agency

2. Profit Sharing

3. Joint ownership of property

4. All a, b & c

5. Both a & b

Answer : Both a & b

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Question No. 19

If an indorser signs and adds a direction to pay the amount mentioned in the instrument to, or to the order of, a

specified person, the indorsement is said to be____________

Options :

1. In blank

2. In full

3. Special

4. Restrictive

5. None of the above

Answer : In full

Question No. 20

Which of the following are public documents as per the Evidence Act?

Options :

1. Documents certified by public servant

2. Documents attested by public servants

3. Public records kept in any State of private documents

4. Documents not forming the acts, or records of the acts, of the sovereign authority

5. All a, b, c & d

Answer : Public records kept in any State of private documents

Question No. 21

Who bears the burden of proof in a legal proceeding when establishing the existence of facts?

Options :

1. The jury

2. The judge
IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

3. The defendant

4. The prosecutor

5. The party asserting the facts

Answer : The party asserting the facts

Question No. 22

No fact of which the Court will take ________ need be proved

Options :

1. Notice

2. Actual notice

3. Imputed notice

4. Judicial notice

5. Constructive notice

Answer : Judicial notice

Question No. 23

What can be registered at any time?

Options :

1. Will

2. Court orders

3. Birth certificates

4. Marriage certificate

5. Documents with optional registration

Answer : Will

Question No. 24

What is a contingent contract?

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Options :

1. A contract that is binding only if both parties agree to its terms

2. A contract that is automatically terminated if one party fails to fulfill its obligations

3. A contract that depends on the occurrence or non-occurrence of a specific event

4. A contract that is legally enforceable without any conditions

5. A contract that can be modified at any time by either party

Answer : A contract that depends on the occurrence or non-occurrence of a specific event

Question No. 25

What does "net proceeds" mean as per Article 279 of the Constitution?

Options :

1. The total revenue generated from a tax or duty

2. The revenue from a tax or duty minus the expenses incurred in collecting it

3. The amount of tax or duty owed by individuals or entities

4. The interest accrued on tax payments

5. The penalties imposed for non-payment of taxes or duties

Answer : The revenue from a tax or duty minus the expenses incurred in collecting it

Question No. 26

Which of the following actions constitutes forgery?

Options :

1. Making a document or electronic record with the intent to cause damage or injury to the public or any

person

2. Making a document or electronic record with the intent to support any claim or title

3. Making a document or electronic record with the intent to cause any person to part with property

4. Making a document or electronic record with the intent to enter into any express or implied contract

5. All of the above

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Answer : All of the above

Question No. 27

What is a partner obligated to do in case of wilful neglect in conducting the firm's business?

Options :

1. Seek legal advice

2. Indemnify the firm for the loss

3. Terminate the partnership agreement

4. Compensate the partner who suffered the loss

5. Ignore the situation and continue business as usual

Answer : Indemnify the firm for the loss

Question No. 28

A trade practice which, for the purpose of promoting the sale, use or supply of any goods or for the provision of

any service, adopts any unfair method or unfair or deceptive practice is known as ___________

Options :

1. Unfair trade practice

2. Restrictive trade practice

3. Deceptive trade practice

4. Either a or b or c

5. Either a or b

Answer : Unfair trade practice

Question No. 29

In consumer cases, the limitation period for filing a complaint is____________

Options :
IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

1. 2 years

2. 3 years

3. 5 years

4. 7 years

5. 9 years

Answer : 2 years

Question No. 30

According to CrPC the right of an arrested person to meet an advocate of his choice is ______________

Options :

1. After interrogation

2. During interrogation

3. Throughout interrogation

4. At the discretion of the Court

5. Both b & c

Answer : During interrogation

Question No. 31

Under which section does the police officer has the power to arrest without warrant in cognizable?

Options :

1. Section 30

2. Section 31

3. Section 40

4. Section 41

5. Section 51

Answer : Section 41
IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Question No. 32

Based on the definition of foreign exchange under the FEMA Act, which of the following is not considered as

foreign exchange?

Options :

1. Drafts payable in foreign currency

2. Deposits, credits and balances payable in any foreign currency

3. Drafts drawn in Indian currency but payable in any foreign currency

4. Bills of exchange drawn by banks outside India, but payable in Indian currency

5. Bills of exchange drawn by institutions outside India, but payable in foreign currency

Answer : Bills of exchange drawn by institutions outside India, but payable in foreign currency

Question No. 33

Under which Act is payment system regulation primarily governed in India?

Options :

1. Banking Regulation Act, 1949

2. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

3. Payment and Settlement Act, 2007

4. Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992

5. None of the above

Answer : Payment and Settlement Act, 2007

Question No. 34

Which statute governs insolvency professionals?

Options :

1. Income Tax Act, 1961

2. Companies Act, 2013

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

3. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

4. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016

5. Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992

Answer : Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016

Question No. 35

According to the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, how long can a banking company hold immovable

property acquired by it?

Options :

1. Five years

2. Seven years

3. Ten years

4. Twelve years

5. Nine years

Answer : Seven years

Question No. 36

In suits against the Government, when a decree is passed against the Union of India, execution shall not be issued

on such decree until___________

Options :

1. Four months from the date of the decree

2. Three months from the date of the decree

3. Two months from the date of service of notice of the decree on the government

4. One month from the date of service of notice of the decree on the government

5. Twenty-five days from the date of service of notice of the decree on the government

Answer : Three months from the date of the decree

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Question No. 37

Under which Act is the legal framework for the recovery of debts by banks and financial institutions governed?

Options :

1. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934

2. Banking Regulation Act, 1949

3. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

4. Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992

5. Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993

Answer : Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993

Question No. 38

What is a contingent interest in the context of property transfer according to the Transfer of Property Act?

Options :

1. An interest dependent on the consent of the transferee

2. An interest that becomes immediately vested upon transfer

3. An interest created based on the fulfilment of a specified uncertain event

4. An interest that cannot be transferred to another party

5. An interest that automatically expires after a certain period

Answer : An interest created based on the fulfilment of a specified uncertain event

Question No. 39

What can a company formed under the Companies Act, which has no significant accounting transactions and is

intended for a future project or asset holding, do?

Options :

1. It can continue its operations as usual

2. It must dissolve and wind up its affairs

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

3. It can transfer its assets to another company

4. It must merge with another active company

5. It can apply to the Registrar to obtain the status of a dormant company

Answer : It can apply to the Registrar to obtain the status of a dormant company

Question No. 40

As per CPC provisions _________ shall lie from every decree passed by any Court exercising original jurisdiction to

the Court authorized to hear appeals from the decisions of such Court

Options :

1. Revision

2. An appeal

3. Notice of motion

4. Either a or b or c

5. None of the above

Answer : An appeal

Question No. 41

When is the offence of abetment considered complete as per the provisions of IPC?

Options :

1. When a person instigates any person to do that thing

2. When a person engages with one or more other persons in any conspiracy for the doing of that thing

3. When a person intentionally aids, by act or illegal omission, the doing of that thing

4. All a, b & c

5. Both a & c

Answer : All a, b & c

Question No. 42
IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

What does the term "asset reconstruction" refer to?

Options :

1. Reallocation of assets within a bank or financial institution

2. Realization of financial assistance by a bank or financial institution

3. Transfer of assets from an asset reconstruction company to a bank or financial institution

4. Acquisition of assets by a bank or financial institution from an asset reconstruction company

5. Acquisition by an asset reconstruction company of any right or interest of a bank or financial institution in

financial assistance for realization purposes

Answer : Acquisition by an asset reconstruction company of any right or interest of a bank or financial institution in

financial assistance for realization purposes

Question No. 43

Under the SARFAESI Act, which forum primarily handles matters related to enforcement of security interest?

Options :

1. High Court

2. District Court

3. Supreme Court

4. Consumer Court

5. Debt Recovery Tribunal

Answer : Debt Recovery Tribunal

Question No. 44

What is the right of foreclosure?

Options :

1. The right to enforce a mortgage

2. The right to recover mortgage-money

3. The right to transfer property ownership

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

4. The right to obtain compensation for mortgage default

5. The right to obtain a decree debarring the mortgagor's right to redeem

Answer : The right to obtain a decree debarring the mortgagor's right to redeem

Question No. 45

A continuing guarantee may at any time be revoked by the surety_____________

Options :

1. By the death of the surety

2. As to future transactions, by notice to the debtor

3. As to future transactions, by notice to the creditor

4. All a, b & c

5. Both a & c

Answer : Both a & c

Question No. 46

According to the Sale of Goods Act, when is a seller deemed to be an "unpaid seller"?

Options :

1. When the buyer fails to take delivery of the goods

2. When the buyer disputes the quality of the goods received

3. When the seller refuses to provide a warranty for the goods

4. When the buyer delays the payment beyond the due date

5. When the whole of the price has not been paid or tendered to the seller

Answer : When the whole of the price has not been paid or tendered to the seller

Question No. 47

Which of the following is not considered a corporate person under Indian law?
IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Options :

1. Housing company

2. Banking company

3. Partnership firm

4. Limited Liability Partnership

5. All of the above

Answer : Partnership firm

Question No. 48

What does the term Counterfeit mean?

Options :

1. Making a genuine copy of an item

2. Creating a similar item for lawful purposes

3. Distinguishing between two identical objects

4. Identifying original items for authentication purposes

5. Producing a replica with the intention to deceive or knowing it might cause deception

Answer : Producing a replica with the intention to deceive or knowing it might cause deception

Question No. 49

A says— "Z is an honest man; he never stole B's watch"; intending to cause it to be believed that Z did steal B's

watch. This is an example of which offense?

Options :

1. Forgery

2. Allegation

3. Defamation

4. Criminal insult

5. Conspiracy
IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Answer : Defamation

Question No. 50

According to the Right to Information Act, what is the duty of every Central Public Information Officer or State

Public Information Officer?

Options :

1. To deny all requests for information if they are deemed reasonable

2. To only provide information if it is in the best interest of the government

3. To deal with requests from persons seeking information and render reasonable assistance to them

4. To only provide information if approved by the First Appellate Authority

5. All b, c & d

Answer : To deal with requests from persons seeking information and render reasonable assistance to them

Question No. 51

Under the Right to Information Act, which of the following types of information is exempted from disclosure?

Options :

1. Information harming the competitive position of a third party

2. Information, causing a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature

3. Cabinet papers, including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers

4. Information relating to personal information that would cause unwarranted invasion of privacy

5. All of the above

Answer : All of the above

Question No. 52

The directors of a company can borrow money exceeding paid up share capital and free reserves by

____________

Options :
IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

1. Board resolution

2. Passing a special resolution

3. Passing an ordinary resolution

4. Informing the other directors

5. Both a & d

Answer : Passing a special resolution

Question No. 53

Which of the following is the correct timing for stamping a document, as per the Stamp Act?

Options :

1. After registration

2. Within 90 days of execution

3. Within 30 days of execution

4. At any time before execution

5. Before the instrument is put to use

Answer : Before the instrument is put to use

Question No. 54

The Industrial dispute Act fourth schedule lays down provisions relating to ___________

Options :

1. Matters within the jurisdiction of Labour Courts

2. Matters within the jurisdiction of Industrial Tribunals

3. Conditions of service for change of which notice is to be given

4. Industries which may be declared to be public utility services under sub-clause (vi) of clause (n) of section

5. None of the above

Answer : Conditions of service for change of which notice is to be given

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Question No. 55

Which of the following describes a judgment-debtor?

Options :

1. Someone who is filing an appeal

2. Someone who is enforcing a decree

3. Someone who owes money to the court

4. Someone against whom suit is dismissed

5. Someone against whom a decree has been passed

Answer : Someone against whom a decree has been passed

Question No. 56

What type of resolution is required to be passed by a one-person company in order to borrow money?

Options :

1. Board resolution

2. General resolution

3. Ordinary resolution

4. Executive resolution

5. Shareholder resolution

Answer : Board resolution

Question No. 57

Under the Hindu Succession Act, if an intestate has left no qualified heir to succeed to their property, what

happens to the property?

Options :

1. It remains unclaimed

2. It is auctioned off to the highest bidder

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

3. It is transferred to the state government

4. It is distributed among distant relatives

5. It is divided equally among all the neighbors

Answer : It is transferred to the state government

Question No. 58

The instrument of transfer of shares is required to be_________

Options :

1. Signed by witnesses

2. Duly stamped and executed by or on behalf of the transferor

3. Duly stamped and executed by or on behalf of the transferee

4. Duly stamped, dated and executed by or on behalf of the transferor and the transferee

5. None of the above

Answer : Duly stamped, dated and executed by or on behalf of the transferor and the transferee

Question No. 59

As per the Competition Act there shall be an abuse of dominant position if an enterprise or a group

_______________

Options :

1. Directly or indirectly, imposes unfair or discriminatory condition in purchase or sale of goods or service

2. Directly or indirectly, imposes unfair or discriminatory price in purchase or sale (including predatory price)

of goods or service

3. Limits or restricts production of goods or provision of services or market therefor

4. All a, b & c

5. Both a & b

Answer : All a, b & c

IBPS SO Law Mains 2023 Previous Year Paper

Question No. 60

As per the Banking Regulation Act which of the following statements relating to the acquisition of qualification

shares by managing directors of a banking company is true?

Options :

1. Managers of banking companies are required to acquire shares immediately upon appointment

2. Managers of banking companies are exempted from holding qualification shares

3. Managers of banking companies must acquire shares within one month of appointment

4. Managers of banking companies must acquire shares within six months of appointment

5. Managers of banking companies must acquire shares within one year of appointment

Answer : Managers of banking companies are exempted from holding qualification shares

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