OYM - JCT - For NEET - UT-06 - 03-08-2024 - Key & Solutions

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03/08/2024 A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

UNIT TEST SERIES


MM : 720 for
( NEET - 2425) Time : 3.20 Hrs.
TEST- 06
Answers Key

Physics

SECTION-A

1. (3) 19. (3)

2. (2) 20. (1)

3. (2) 21. (2)

4. (3) 22. (3)

5. (2) 23. (1)

6. (4) 24. (3)

7. (2) 25. (2)

8. (4) 26. (2)

9. (2) 27. (2)

10. (2) 28. (2)

11. (4) 29. (2)

12. (2) 30. (3)

13. (1) 31. (2)

14. (3) 32. (4)

15. (3) 33. (4)

16. (4) 34. (3)

17. (2) 35. (2)

18. (3)

SECTION-B

36. (4) 44. (4)

37. (3) 45. (2)

38. (4) 46. (1)

39. (4) 47. (2)

40. (4) 48. (2)

41. (4) 49. (2)

42. (1) 50. (1)

43. (1)

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

Chemistry

SECTION-A

51. (3) 69. (2)

52. (1) 70. (3)

53. (3) 71. (2)

54. (3) 72. (3)

55. (2) 73. (4)

56. (3) 74. (4)

57. (1) 75. (3)

58. (4) 76. (3)

59. (2) 77. (2)

60. (1) 78. (1)

61. (2) 79. (1)

62. (1) 80. (2)

63. (1) 81. (4)

64. (1) 82. (1)

65. (3) 83. (4)

66. (4) 84. (2)

67. (4) 85. (2)

68. (3)

SECTION-B

86. (1) 94. (3)

87. (1) 95. (2)

88. (2) 96. (1)

89. (2) 97. (1)

90. (3) 98. (1)

91. (3) 99. (1)

92. (4) 100. (1)

93. (3)

Botany

SECTION-A

101. (3) 119. (2)

102. (1) 120. (2)

103. (3) 121. (1)

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

104. (1) 122. (2)

105. (2) 123. (2)

106. (3) 124. (4)

107. (1) 125. (1)

108. (3) 126. (3)

109. (3) 127. (2)

110. (4) 128. (2)

111. (2) 129. (2)

112. (3) 130. (1)

113. (2) 131. (2)

114. (3) 132. (4)

115. (1) 133. (4)

116. (2) 134. (3)

117. (1) 135. (2)

118. (4)

SECTION-B
136. (3) 144. (4)

137. (3) 145. (1)

138. (3) 146. (4)

139. (1) 147. (2)

140. (4) 148. (4)

141. (3) 149. (2)

142. (4) 150. (3)

143. (2)

Zoology

SECTION-A

151. (3) 169. (2)

152. (3) 170. (2)

153. (3) 171. (1)

154. (1) 172. (4)

155. (1) 173. (2)

156. (1) 174. (4)

157. (4) 175. (2)

158. (1) 176. (3)

159. (1) 177. (1)

160. (4) 178. (4)

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

161. (3) 179. (2)

162. (3) 180. (2)

163. (1) 181. (4)

164. (2) 182. (1)

165. (3) 183. (4)

166. (2) 184. (2)

167. (3) 185. (3)

168. (1)

SECTION-B

186. (3) 194. (4)

187. (2) 195. (2)

188. (4) 196. (4)

189. (1) 197. (1)

190. (4) 198. (3)

191. (4) 199. (2)

192. (1) 200. (1)

193. (4)

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

Hints and Solutions

Physics

SECTION-A

(1) Answer : (3)


(2) Answer : (2)
Solution:
B 1.5
μ = = = 0.167
H 9

(3) Answer : (2)

(4) Answer : (3)


Solution:
The magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance is negative and very slightly less than one and it is independent
of temperature.

(5) Answer : (2)


Solution:
Beyond Curie temperature, a ferromagnetic substance behaves as a paramagnetic substance.

(6) Answer : (4)


Solution:
Magnetic lines are not normal to surface of magnet.

(7) Answer : (2)


(8) Answer : (4)
Solution:
The energy lost per unit volume of a substance in a complete cycle of magnetisation is equal to area of hysteresis loop.
(9) Answer : (2)
Solution:
Coercivity can be defined as property which resist demagnetization. An electromagnet must have low coercivity in order
to function properly as electromagnetic substance should be able to magnetize and demagnetize quickly whenever
required.
Retentivity can be defined as the property of a substance to resist magnetization. An electromagnet must have low
retentivity in order to function properly as electromagnetic substance should be able to magnetize and demagnetize
quickly whenever required.
(10) Answer : (2)
Solution:
n = 500 turn/m
H = n × I = 500 × 1 = 500 Am–1
μr = 1 + x ∴ x = (μr – 1) = (500 – 1) = 499
μ = xH = 499 × 500
= 2.495 × 105 ≃ 2.5 × 105 Am–1

(11) Answer : (4)


Solution:

−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
2 2 2
Mnet = √M +M + 2M cos 120°

Mnet = M = mL

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

(12) Answer : (2)


(13) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Here, d = 20 cm = 1/5 m, m = 40 A m,
H = ?, B = ?
1 m×1 1×7 40 −1
H = = × = 79.54 A m
2 2
4π d 4×22 (1/5)

B = μ0H = 4 π × 10–7 × 79.54 = 10–4 Wb m–2

(14) Answer : (3)


Solution:
ml
M =
2

(15) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Susceptibility of ferromagnetic material is much greater than 1
(16) Answer : (4)

(17) Answer : (2)


Solution:
H = nI
= 2000 × 4 = 8 × 103 A/m
The magnetic field B = μrμ0 H
= 400 × 4π × 10–7 × 8 × 103
≈4T

(18) Answer : (3)


Solution:
−−−−
T I
t = = π√
4 4M B

(19) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Hint and Sol. : Magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic substance does not depend on temperature

(20) Answer : (1)


Solution:
I = χH

= (6 × 10–4) (8 × 10–4)
I = 48 × 10–8 A/m

(21) Answer : (2)


Solution:
For diamagnetic material
0 ≤ μr < 1 and εr > 1

(22) Answer : (3)


Solution:
For diamagnetic materials, μd = 0

(23) Answer : (1)

(24) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Diamagnetic – Weakly repelled
Paramagnetic – Weakly attracted
Ferromagnetic – strongly attracted
(25) Answer : (2)
Solution:
Diamagnetic materials are slightly repelled by a magnetic field. In these materials all electrons are paired so there is no
permanent net magnetic moment per atom.

(26) Answer : (2)


Solution:

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

m → pole strength
M → magnetic moment
M m
M

= and m

=
2 2

∵ m ∝ A and M ∝ ml

(27) Answer : (2)


Solution:
μ0 2M μ0 M
B = =
axial 4π d
3
2πd
3

(28) Answer : (2)


Solution:
= 2 × 10–7 T
μ0
B1 = 4π
×
2M

3
= 10
−7
×
2×1

3
r 1

= 10–7 T
μ
B2 = 0
×
M
= 10
−7
×
1

4π r3 1
3

−−−−−−−

B= √B
2
1
+B
2
2
= √5 × 10
−7
T

(29) Answer : (2)

(30) Answer : (3)

(31) Answer : (2)


Solution:
∵ τ = N B sin θ

⇒ 0.032 = M × 0.16 × sin(30°)

2
⇒ M = 0.4 Am

(32) Answer : (4)


Solution:
Baxial 2
=
Bequatorial 1

(33) Answer : (4)


Solution:
M=m×l
M' = m × 2R

πR = l ∴ M

M
=
2r

% age change = =
M −M 2−π
× 100 ( ) × 100
M π

(34) Answer : (3)


Solution:
W = 2 µB
= 2 × 10 × 10–5
= 2 × 10–4 J

(35) Answer : (2)


Solution:

→ →

ˆ ˆ
τ = M × B = 50 î × (0.5 î + 3 j ) = 150k N m

SECTION-B

(36) Answer : (4)


Solution:
Material of permanent magnet has high retentivity and high coercivity

(37) Answer : (3)


Solution:
dipole moment
Magnetization =
volume

10 –24

= 4× 10 ×3× 10

–18
1×10

= 12 × 104 = 1.2 × 105 Am–1

(38) Answer : (4)


Solution:
W = – MB [cos θ1 – cos θ2]

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

= – MB [cos 0° – cos θ]
= MB [cosθ – 1]
(39) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Soft iron has high permeability and low hysteresis loss.

(40) Answer : (4)

(41) Answer : (4)


Solution:
Ui = – MB
MB
Uf = −
2

−M B
W = +MB
2

MB
W =
2

τ = MB sin 60°
√3
= 2W ×
2


= √3 W

(42) Answer : (1)


Solution:
For paramagnetic material
1
χ ∝
T

(43) Answer : (1)


(44) Answer : (4)
Solution: D
(45) Answer : (2)
Solution:
1
F∞
4
d

(46) Answer : (1)


Solution:
Magnetic field lines outside the bar magnet are from north to south pole while inside the bar magnet they are from south
to north pole.
(47) Answer : (2)

(48) Answer : (2)


Solution:


If θ = tan
−1
( √2)


tanθ = ( √2)

1 1
tan α = tanθ =
2 √2


cotα = √2

tan(90° − α) = √2

90 – α = θ
α + θ = 90°
β = 90°

That is, Magnetic field is perpendicular to magnetic moment.


(49) Answer : (2)
Solution:
Antiparallel to magnetic moment.
(50) Answer : (1)

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

Solution:
Diamagnetism is universal property of all magnetic substances.

Chemistry

SECTION-A

(51) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Ionization isomers produced different ions on ionization.

(52) Answer : (1)


Solution:
CSFE = [−0. 4 ( nt2g ) + 0. 6 ( neg )] Δ0

CFSE = – 6 × 0.4 Δ0 + 0 = –2.4 Δ0

(53) Answer : (3)


Solution:

(54) Answer : (3)


Solution:
[Ni(NH3)4] [NiCl4] ⇒ Tetraamminenickel (II) tetrachloridonickelate (II)

(55) Answer : (2)


Solution:
Two geometrical isomers.

(56) Answer : (3)


Solution:
In K2[Ni(CN)4]; oxidation number of Ni is +2.

(57) Answer : (1)


Solution:
Complexes in which a metal is bound to more than one kind of donor groups, are called as heteroleptic complexes.
(58) Answer : (4)
Solution:
[Zn(CN)4]2– has tetrahedral geometry.

(59) Answer : (2)


Solution:

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

[Cr(NH3)6]2+ is less stable than [Cr(NH3)6]3+


[FeF6]3– : (Fe3+ : [Ar] 3 d5) has 5 unpaired electrons.

COO
⎛ ⎞
Oxalate ion ⎜| is anionic ligand.

⎝ – ⎠
COO

AB4 does not show G.I.

(60) Answer : (1)


Solution:
Due to the presence of positive charge, synergic bonding from metal to carbonyl ligand will decrease. Hence, M – C
bond length will increase and C – O bond length will decrease.

(61) Answer : (2)


Solution:
CO is π-acid ligand which causes synergic bonding in metal carbonyls.

(62) Answer : (1)


Solution:

Spectrochemical series : CO > CN > NH 3 > H2 O

(63) Answer : (1)


Solution:
en : ethane-1,2-diamine

(64) Answer : (1)


Solution:
EAN = 21 + 2 × 6 = 33.

(65) Answer : (3)


Solution:
The strength of ligands is : CN– > NH3 > Cl–

(66) Answer : (4)


Solution:
[Mn(H2O)6]2+ has five unpaired electrons
∴ It is paramagnetic in nature.
(67) Answer : (4)
(68) Answer : (3)
Solution:
t2g : dxy + dyz + dzx

(69) Answer : (2)


Solution:
Ligands which can ligate through two different atoms is called ambidentate ligand.
(70) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Both ‘en’ and ‘ox’ are bidentate ligands.
(71) Answer : (2)
Solution:
Interchange of ligands between cationic and anionic entities of different metal ions present in a complex leads to
coordination isomerism.

(72) Answer : (3)


Solution:

⎡ ⎤

⎢ ⎥
+ 4−
K4 ⎢Fe (CN) ⎥ ⇌ 4 K + [Fe (CN) ]
⎢ 6⎥ 6
⎢ ⎥ └−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−┘
⎣ ⎦
5 ions

(73) Answer : (4)

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

Solution:
cis – [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl

(74) Answer : (4)

(75) Answer : (3)

(76) Answer : (3)


Solution:
[FeF6]3– is sp3d2 hybridised
It has 5 unpaired electron.

(77) Answer : (2)


Solution:
1 5 3+ 0 3
C r 4s 3d ⇒ Cr 4s 3d
24

∴ d
3
configuration weak field 3
t
2g
o
eg

(78) Answer : (1)


Solution:
−−−−−− −
Magnetic moment, μ = √n(n + 2) BM (where n = number of unpaired electrons)
Complex No. of unpaired electron(s) μ(BM)
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– 1 1.73

(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 5 5.92

(c) [Fe(CN)6]4– 0 0

(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ 4 4.90

(79) Answer : (1)


Solution:
Complex ion having highest splitting energy will absorb wavelength of least value.
(80) Answer : (2)
Solution:
9
Δ0 = Δt
4

(81) Answer : (4)


Solution:
Higher the number of ions, greater will be ionic conductivity.
∴ [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 will exhibit maximum ionic conductivity.

(82) Answer : (1)


Solution:
d5 in weak field ligand is t2g3 eg2
∴ CFSE = (– 0.4 × 3 + 0.6 × 2) = zero

(83) Answer : (4)


Solution:

EDTA can donate maximum 6 electron pairs, so its maximum number of coordination sites is 6.

(84) Answer : (2)

(85) Answer : (2)


Solution:

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

Isomers differ in water molecules inside and outside the coordination sphere.

SECTION-B
(86) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Double salt loses their identify in aqueous state

(87) Answer : (1)


Solution:
One bidentate ligand like en and ox forms one ring.
(88) Answer : (2)

(89) Answer : (2)


Solution:

A and B are nonsuperimposable mirror images hence they are enantiomers


(90) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Complex Hybridisation
[Fe(H2O)6]3+ sp3d2

[Mn(H2O)6]2+ sp3d2

[Fe(CN)6]3– d2sp3

[Zn(NH3)5Cl]+ sp3d2

(91) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Absence of d-d transition or the absence of charge transfer is the reason of colourless ions.
(92) Answer : (4)
Solution:

Due to absence of lone pair in NH4 ion, it cannot act as ligand.

(93) Answer : (3)


Solution:
[Ma3b3] complexes shows facial and meridional isomerism.

(94) Answer : (3)


Solution:
The secondary valency or CN of cobalt in CoCl3.6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3 and CoCl3.4NH3 is equal to 6.

(95) Answer : (2)


Solution:
d is used in square planar complexes.
x2 − y2

(96) Answer : (1)


Solution:
25 × 2 + x + 2 × 10 = 2 × 36
x = 2 etc
Hence one metal-metal bond is present
(OC)5Mn – Mn(CO)5

(97) Answer : (1)


Solution:

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

K2[PtCl2Br2]
Potassium dibromidodichloridoplatinate(II)

(98) Answer : (1)


Solution:
EDTA4– flexidentate ligand.

(99) Answer : (1)


Solution: Answer (1)
(100)Answer : (1)
Solution:
NO is an ambidentate ligand and has two donor site i.e., N and O. it can show linkage isomerism.


2

Botany

SECTION-A

(101)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Start codon is AUG. GUG is ambiguous codon. UGG codes for amino acid Tryptophan.
Nonsense codon is stop codon, i.e., UAG.
(102)Answer : (1)
Solution:
In transcription unit, the terminator in transcription unit is located towards 3' end (downstream) of the coding strand.
(103)Answer : (3)
Solution:
23S rRNA acts as peptidyl transferase in prokaryotes and 28S rRNA acts as peptidyl transferase in eukaryotes.
(104)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Regulation of gene expression is not exerted at replication level.

(105)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Anticodons are present on tRNA and codons on mRNA. Complementary of 3' UUC 5' is 5' AAG 3'

(106)Answer : (3)
Solution:
George Gamow, a physicist argued that the genetic code should constitute a combination of bases.
(107)Answer : (1)
Solution:
After AUG, a stop codon i.e. UGA is present and thus only one amino acid will be formed.
(108)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Blotting is transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes.
(109)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Transcription unit starts from a promoter region and ends with terminator region in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

(110) Answer : (4)


Solution:
Genetic code is non-overlapping in nature.
…[1 Mark]
(111) Answer : (2)
Solution:
HGP was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called bioinformatics.

(112) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Development of personalised medicine is an application of human genome project.

(113) Answer : (2)


Solution:
In capping, an unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to 5’- end of hnRNA.

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

(114) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Many times the translation can begin much before the mRNA is fully transcribed in bacteria.
(115) Answer : (1)
Solution:
A cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide. The structural gene in a transcription unit could be said as
monocistronic (mostly in eukaryotes) or polycistronic (mostly in bacteria).

(116) Answer : (2)


Solution:
Less than 2% of human genome codes for proteins.

(117) Answer : (1)


Solution:
Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate.

(118) Answer : (4)


Solution:
In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II catalyse the transcription of hnRNA. rRNAs are transcribed by both RNA polymerase
I and III.

(119) Answer : (2)


Solution:
Due to deletion, frameshift mutation will occur after deletion point, while before deletion point codons will remain
unaltered.
(120)Answer : (2)
Solution:
BAC – Bacterial artificial chromosome
(121)Answer : (1)
Solution:
There are no tRNAs for stop codons.
(122)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The process of splicing represents the dominance of RNA world.
(123)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Splicing is the process of removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order.

(124)Answer : (4)
Solution:
UTRs are present at 5′ end before start codon and at 3′ end after stop codon in a transcript.
(125)Answer : (1)
Solution:
The sequence of mRNA strand will be 5' U A C G U A G C 3'.

(126)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Repressor protein of lac operon is synthesised by lac i gene and referred to as negative regulation.

(127)Answer : (2)
Solution:
(i) SNPs are the source of variations in our population.
(ii) Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single base differences occur in humans.
(128)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The blind approach of simply sequencing the whole set of genome that contained all coding and non-coding sequence
and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions is referred to as sequence annotation.
(129)Answer : (2)
Solution:
hnRNA is processed in the nucleus and after processing it is called mRNA that contains exons only.
The intervening sequences in between coding regions are called introns. Exons are coding regions of genes.
Therefore, eukaryotic genes are split genes.

(130)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Except for mitochondria and protozoa, genetic code, codes for same amino acid in all organisms.
Genetic codes are nearly universal in nature, i.e., UUU would code for phenylalanine in all organisms.

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

(131)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Post transcriptional modifications are absent in prokaryotes.

(132)Answer : (4)
(133)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Dystrophin gene is located on X-chromosome.
(134)Answer : (3)
Solution:
In DNA fingerprinting, characteristic pattern of DNA bands differ from individual to individual except in monozygotic or
identical twins.

(135)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Isolation of DNA → Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases → Electrophoresis → Blotting → Hybridization using
labelled VNTR probe → Autoradiography

SECTION-B

(136)Answer : (3)
Solution:
In the first phase of the translation, amino acids are activated in the presence of the ATP and linked to their cognate
tRNA, a process commonly called as charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA.

(137)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Less than 2% of human genome codes for proteins. Satellite DNA which is major portion of human DNA normally does
not code for any protein.

(138)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Severo Ochoa enzyme is polynucleotide phosphorylase and it is template independent.

(139)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Structural genes of lac-operon synthesise enzymes required for breakdown of lactose (catabolic process).
Structural genes are luxury or non-constitutive genes.
Being a prokaryote E. coli has polycistronic structural gene.
(140)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Primary transcript is very similar to coding strand regarding polarity and nucleotide sequence except uracil at the place
of thymine in coding strand.
Since, 5'UAACCAUAGCU3' is a sequence of newly synthesized primary transcript, the sequence in coding strand of
DNA would be as follows-

(141)Answer : (3)
Solution:
When the small subunit of ribosomes encounters an mRNA, the process of translation of the mRNA to protein begins.

(142)Answer : (4)
Solution:
During termination, GTP dependent release factor is required.

(143)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The UTRs of m-RNA increases the efficiency of translation. The human genome has approximately 30,000 genes.
(144)Answer : (4)
Solution:
For evolution and speciation polymorphism play very important role.
If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high frequency, it is referred to as DNA polymorphism

(145)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Both statements are true

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

(146)Answer : (4)
Solution:
For synthesis of protein, attachment of large subunit to small subunit of ribosome is required and initiator tRNA comes
at the P-site. Then, aminoacylated tRNA matching with codon of the A-site, joins the mRNA. And then, peptide bond
forms between amino acids attached to the tRNA of P and sit. By relocation, peptidyl tRNA complex moves from A site
to P-site.

(147)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Operon model in bacteria was given by Jacob and Monod.

(148)Answer : (4)
Solution:
RNA polymerase also facilitates opening of the helix and continues elongation.
(149)Answer : (2)
Solution:
UTRs are required for efficient translation process.

(150)Answer : (3)
Solution:
TDF gene is the smallest gene with 14 bases present on Y-chromosome.

Zoology

SECTION-A

(151)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Exopthalmic goitre (Graves’ disease) is a form of hyperthyroidism. Thyroid hormones play an important role in the
regulation of the basal metabolic rate. These hormones also support the process of red blood cell formation. Thyroid
hormones control the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance is
also influenced by thyroid hormones.
(152)Answer : (3)
Hint:
Secretion of corticoids
Solution:
Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) is a peptide hormone secreted by anterior pituitary, it influences structure and
functioning of adrenal cortex and secretion of corticoid hormones.

(153)Answer : (3)
Hint:
Deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes mellitus.
Solution:
Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone in humans which increases uptake of glucose into cells from blood. Glucagon,
thyroxine and growth hormone can result in hyperglycemia.
(154)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Pars nervosa receives and stores oxytocin.
Solution:
Neuronal cell bodies in paraventricular nucleus in hypothalamus synthesize and secrete oxytocin. It is stored and
released by posterior pituitary.

(155)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Secreted by diffused tissues/cells also.
Solution:
Hormones are non nutrient chemicals which act as intercellular messenger and are produced in trace amounts.

(156)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone while glucagon is a hyperglycemic hormone.

(157)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Progesterone, testosterone and estrogen are steroid hormones which interact with intracellular receptors.

(158)Answer : (1)
Solution:

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

JG cells of kidney secrete erythropoietin hormone.


(159)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Thymosin is responsible for T-cell differentiation.

(160)Answer : (4)
Solution:
An impairment affecting synthesis or release of ADH results in a diminished ability of the kidney to conserve water
leading to water loss and dehydration.
(161)Answer : (3)
Solution:
GnRH acts on pituitary gland and stimulates the synthesis and release of gonadotrophins from it.

(162)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Anti-diuretic hormone functions to prevent diuresis i.e. increased production of urine.
ADH is produced from hypothalamus and secreted by posterior pituitary and it prevents diuresis by stimulating
reabsorption of water from the distal regions of nephrons.

(163)Answer : (1)
Solution:
ADH (vasopressin) helps in the reabsorption of water from the later part of DCT and collecting duct.

(164)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Pars distalis i.e. anterior pituitary secretes six hormones, which include GH, PRL, LH, FSH, TSH and ACTH. Melanocyte
stimulating hormone is released by pars intermedia.
(165)Answer : (3)
Hint:
This disease is related to low blood Ca2+ level.
Solution:
Acromegaly is caused due to hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults. Cretinism is caused due to deficiency of
thyroid hormone whereas exopthalmic goitre is caused due to excessive secretion of thyroxine. Diabetes mellitus is
caused by deficiency of insulin while diabetes insipidus is caused by deficiency of ADH.

(166)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Endocrine gland present in neck region.
Solution:
Thyroid gland is the largest endocrine gland in humans. It secretes mainly hormones like thyroxine or T4, T3 and
thyrocalcitonin(TCT).
(167)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Graves’ disease is caused due to hyperthyroidism.

(168)Answer : (1)
Solution:
The mucosa of the pyloric region of the stomach synthesises and secretes the hormone gastrin.
(169)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The thyroid gland is the largest endocrine gland which is butterfly shaped or H-shaped. It is composed of two lateral
lobes which are located on either sides of the trachea and are connected by isthmus.
(170)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals secreted by glands without ducts. They are present in both vertebrates and
invertebrates.

(171)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Cortisol produces anti inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune response.

(172)Answer : (4)
Hint:
This hormone is known as stress hormone.
Solution:
Adrenaline is derived from tyrosine and functions during emergency conditions such as fear, fight and flight
(173)Answer : (2)
Solution:

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

Steroid hormones are cortisol, estradiol, testosterone, progesterone, etc.

(174)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Hypoparathyroidism leads to hypocalcemia which may cause spasm in skeletal muscles called tetany.
(175)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The nervous system has direct connection with most parts of the body.
The endocrine system receives and sends information in the form of chemicals called hormones which require blood
for their passage. Hence they are slow compared to fast and short-lived responses of neural system.
(176)Answer : (3)
Hint:
Early onset of puberty is precocious puberty
Solution:
Higher than required levels of estrogen may lead to enlargement of breasts in males called gynaecomastia.

(177)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Ateliosis is a deficiency disorder of pituitary gland.

(178)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Answer (4)

(179)Answer : (2)
Solution: B

(180)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Pancreas is a heterocrine or composite gland, acts as both exocrine and endocrine gland.
Pineal, parathyroid and pituitary gland are endocrine glands.
(181)Answer : (4)
Solution:
CCK is released in response to the presence of proteins and fats in duodenum.
CCK stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion and contraction of gall bladder. And, also it relaxes sphincter of Oddi,
which allows both bile and pancreatic juice to flow into the intestinal lumen.

(182)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Pituitary gland is lodged in a depression of sphenoid bone called sella turcica or hypophyseal fossa.

(183)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Insulin is a lipid insoluble hormone.

(184)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Glucocorticoids promote lipolysis.

(185)Answer : (3)
Hint:
Vasopressin is released in response to fall in blood pressure.
Solution:
ADH (vasopressin) and aldosterone increase the blood pressure. ACTH, i.e., adrenocorticotrophic hormone is secreted
by anterior pituitary. ANF (atrial natriuretic factor) is secreted from wall of heart and decreases blood pressure.

SECTION-B

(186)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The juxtaglomerular cells of kidney produce a hormone called erythropoietin which stimulates erythropoiesis (formation
of RBCs) in bone marrow.

(187)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Reduced immunity is seen due to atrophy of this gland
Solution:
The functional portion of thymus is reduced considerably by the time a person reaches maturity. In old age, the
functional portion weighs only 3 gms resulting in weakened immune responses.

(188)Answer : (4)
Solution:

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One Year Medical - 2425 Unit Test-06 (CODE-A) - Answers & Solutions

Second messengers are molecules or ions that relay signals received by cell surface receptors to effector proteins.

(189)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Adrenal gland hormone
Solution:
In emergency condition, adrenaline / epinephrine is released from adrenal medulla into the blood which acts on heart
and increases the heart beat, resulting in supply of more oxygen to the muscles and thereby decreases the flow of
blood to the digestive system.

(190)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Secretin stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonates from exocrine parts of pancreas. CCK acts on pancreas to
release pancreatic enzymes.
(191)Answer : (4)
Solution:
PTH is a hypercalcemic hormone and it is antagonistic to TCT.

(192)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Somatostatin is secreted by hypothalamus.

(193)Answer : (4)
Hint:
It secretes adrenaline.
Solution:
Our body has one pair of adrenal gland, one at the anterior part of each kidney.
(194)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid that mainly controls the electrolytes and water balance in the body.

(195)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Thyroid hormones are iodothyronines.
(196)Answer : (4)
Solution:
FSH stimulates growth and development of the ovarian follicles in females but LH causes ovulation.
In males, FSH and androgens regulate spermatogenesis.
(197)Answer : (1)
Solution:
CCK acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and stimulate them to release pancreatic juice and bile respectively.
(198)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Steroidal hormones can directly act on DNA through intracellular receptors.

(199)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Hyperthyrodism is characterised by enlargement of the thyroid gland, protrusion of the eyeballs, increased BMR and
weight loss.

(200)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Parathormone is a hypercalcemic hormone which can cause osteoporosis when secreted in high amounts.

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