SSC CPO Paper 24th November

SSC CPO Tier 1 - 24 Nov 2020 Shift 1 English
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
Q.1
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Question ID : 8161616345
Status : Answered
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Q.2
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Q.10
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Q.13
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Q.14
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Q.15
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Q.16
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Q.20
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Q.21
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Marked For Review
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Q.22
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Chosen Option : 4
Q.23
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Q.24
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Q.25
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Q.26
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Q.27
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Q.28
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Q.29
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Q.30
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Q.31
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Q.32
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Q.33
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Q.34
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Q.35
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Q.36
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Q.37
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Status : Answered
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Q.38
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Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
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Q.39
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Status : Answered
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Q.40
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Status : Answered
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Q.41
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Not Attempted and
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Marked For Review
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Q.42
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Q.43
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Q.44
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Q.45
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Q.46
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Not Attempted and
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Marked For Review
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Q.47
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Not Attempted and
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Marked For Review
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Q.48
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.49
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Q.50
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Section : General Knowledge and General Awareness
Q.1 Which of the following Viceroys appointed the Hunter Commission in 1882?
Ans 1. Lord Mayo
2. Lord Ripon
3. Lord Lytton
4. Lord Minto
Chosen Option : --
Q.2 The ‘Kathasaritsagara’ is written by:
Ans 1. Kalidasa
2. Bhasa
3. Jayadeva
4. Somadeva
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.3 Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from ______ to ______.

Ans 1. 1947; 1989
2. 1947; 1962
3. 1947; 1971
4. 1947; 1958
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.4 Which of the following persons won the Sultan Padamsee Playwriting Award for his first
play ‘Larins Sahib’?
Ans 1. Ramchandra Guha
2. Gurcharan Das
3. Amitav Ghosh
4. Shashi Tharoor
Chosen Option : --
Q.5 The Silent Valley Movement was started in 1973 in the state of:
Ans 1. Odisha
2. Kerala
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Himachal Pradesh
Chosen Option : --
Q.6 Which among the following organisations releases Index of Economic Freedom?
Ans 1. Heritage Foundation
2. Fraser Institute
3. International Monetary Fund
4. World Bank
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.7 Viticulture refers to the:
Ans 1. commercial rearing of silkworm
2. growing of vegetables
3. breeding of fish
4. cultivation of grapes
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.8 The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is located at:

Ans 1. Bonn
2. Geneva
3. Dubai
4. Paris
Chosen Option : 2
Q.9 Who was the 24th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
Ans 1. C Rangarajan
2. YV Reddy
3. Urjit Patel
4. Bimal Jalan
Chosen Option : --
Q.10 The approximate period between two consecutive new moons is ______ days.
Ans 1. 15.5
2. 29.5
3. 14.5
4. 28.5
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.11 The Rig Veda is divided into ______ books or mandalas.

Ans 1. 12
2. 34
3. 8
4. 10
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.12 Which among the following is NOT true about a solution and the solute concerned?
Ans 1. The particles of the solute settle down at the bottom when the solution is kept
undisturbed.
2. The particles of the solute do not scatter a beam of light.
3. The particles of the solute cannot be seen with unaided eyes.
4. A solution is a homogeneous mixture.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.13 The tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah, inlaid with Pietra dura decoration, is located at:
Ans 1. Ajmer
2. Aurangabad
3. Agra
4. Alwar
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.14 In the context of Sri Lankan Civil War, what does the first ‘T’ in LTTE stand for?
Ans 1. Tamil
2. Tarantulas
3. Tigers
4. Triumph
Chosen Option : --
Q.15 According to the Groundnut Crop Survey Report 2018, which of the following states is the
largest producer of groundnuts?
Ans 1. Haryana
2. Gujarat
3. Bihar
4. West Bengal
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.16 The National Anthem of India, ‘Jana Gana Mana’ was first sung at the ______ Session of the
Indian National Congress.
Ans 1. Calcutta
2. Lahore
3. Belgaum
4. Tripuri
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.17 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is accorded annually by the:
Ans 1. Ministry of Human Resource Development, Govt. of India
2. Indian National Congress
3. Rajiv Gandhi Memorial Trust
4. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Govt. of India
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.18 The Goods and Services Tax (GST) – which has replaced the Central and State indirect
taxes such as VAT, excise duty and service tax in India – was implemented on:
Ans 1. 2 October 2017
2. 15 September 2017
3. 15 August 2017
4. 1 July 2017
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.19 The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) is located at which of the following places?
Ans 1. Bhilai
2. Jamshedpur
3. Durgapur
4. Rourkela
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.20 The princely state of Hyderabad was brought under the Indian Union in the year ______.
Ans 1. 1948
2. 1950
3. 1952
4. 1963
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.21 Who among the following did NOT belong to the Rajput kingdom of Marwar?
Ans 1. Rao Chanda
2. Rao Jodha
3. Rana Kumbha
4. Maldeva
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.22 Who among the following is the founder of the social activist organisation called ‘Global
March Against Child Labour’?
Ans 1. Baba Amte
2. Kailash Satyarthi
3. Kiran Bedi
4. Anna Hazare
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.23 Leukaemia is a cancer of the:

Ans 1. uterus
2. blood
3. lungs
4. skin
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.24 Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India prohibits employment of children
in factories etc.?
Ans 1. 31
2. 17
3. 24
4. 21
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.25 In which year did the first SAARC summit take place?
Ans 1. 1972
2. 1992
3. 1990
4. 1985
Chosen Option : --
Q.26 Who is the author of the book ‘We Are Displaced’?

Ans 1. Amrita Pritam
2. Malala Yousafzai
3. Arnab Goswami
4. Amrit Singh
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.27 Which among the following are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom?
Ans 1. Pteridophytes
2. Gymnosperms
3. Bryophytes
4. Liverworts
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.28 Which section of the RBI Act empowers the Central Government to supersede the RBI board
and issue directions considered to be ‘necessary in public interest’ to the RBI, after
consulting the Governor of the bank?
Ans 1. Section 5
2. Section 1
3. Section 3
4. Section 7
Chosen Option : --
Q.29 How many natural satellites does the planet Venus have?
Ans 1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 0
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.30 Part IV of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions on:

Ans 1. Citizenship
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Elections
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.31 Which part of the brain is instrumental in making it possible for a person to perform activity
such as picking up a pencil from the floor?
Ans 1. Cranium
2. Cerebellum
3. Cerebrum
4. Hypothalamus
Chosen Option : --
Q.32 ‘Bathukamma’ and ‘Bonalu’ are state festivals of:
Ans 1. Karnataka
2. Kerala
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Telangana
Chosen Option : --
Q.33 Kalinjar Fort, which was strategically important during medieval times, is located in:
Ans 1. Rajasthan
2. Sind
3. Punjab
4. Uttar Pradesh
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.34 With reference to the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals, which of the
following is SDG 10?
Ans 1. Reduced inequalities
2. Zero hunger
3. Climate action
4. Decent work and economic growth
Chosen Option : --
Q.35 1 horse power is equal to approximately ______ watts.

Ans 1. 500
2. 750
3. 1000
4. 250
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.36 With which sport would you associate the name Sathish Sivalingam?
Ans 1. Wrestling
2. Weightlifting
3. Boxing
4. Hockey
Chosen Option : --
Q.37 Which of the following persons was the recipient of the inaugural Infosys Prize for Social
Sciences – History, 2009?
Ans 1. Amlan Datta
2. Upinder Singh
3. Krishna Kumar
4. Hari Vasudevan
Chosen Option : --
Q.38 Which of the following terms is associated with the anatomy of the human heart?
Ans 1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Medulla
4. Aorta
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.39 The 90 degree East Meridian does NOT pass through:

Ans 1. Bangladesh
2. Sikkim
3. Bhutan
4. Meghalaya
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.40 What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of calcium bicarbonate?

Ans 1. 4
2. 0
3. 1
4. 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.41 Who was the coach of the Indian men’s football team at the Intercontinental Cup, 2019?
Ans 1. Stephen Constantine
2. Baichung Bhutia
3. Igor Stimac
4. Prasanta Banerjee
Chosen Option : --
Q.42 Vibration of which among the following produces only odd harmonics?
Ans 1. An air column in a closed organ pipe
2. A vibrating rod fixed at two ends
3. An air column in an open organ pipe
4. A vibrating string fixed at two ends
Chosen Option : --
Q.43 What is the meaning of the Greek origin word, ‘Elektron’?

Ans 1. Ebonite
2. Amber
3. Charge
4. Negative
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.44 Kamban wrote the Ramayana in which of the following languages?

Ans 1. Telugu
2. Malayalam
3. Kannada
4. Tamil
Chosen Option : --
Q.45 In respect of classification of algae, the members of Phaeophyceae are commonly called:
Ans 1. red algae
2. white algae
3. green algae
4. brown algae
Chosen Option : --
Q.46 Vailankanni (Velankanni) is a pilgrim centre located in the ______ district of Tamil Nadu.
Ans 1. Salem
2. Nagapattinam
3. Madurai
4. Theni
Chosen Option : --
Q.47 The Summer Olympic Games 2000 were held at:
Ans 1. Paris
2. Sydney
3. Seoul
4. Athens
Chosen Option : 4
Q.48 In which of the following places is the Govardhan Math located?

Ans 1. Puri
2. Dwarka
3. Sringeri
4. Badrinath
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.49 Who among the following is the only Indian shuttler to have won a Summer Olympics silver
medal?
Ans 1. Prakash Padukone
2. Pulela Gopichand
3. Saina Nehwal
4. PV Sindhu
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.50 Standing in an open ground on a cloudless day, at what time will your shadow be the
shortest?
Ans 1. 15:00
2. 07:00
3. 12:00
4. 09:00
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.2
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.3
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.4
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Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.5
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.6
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.7
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.8
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.9
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.10
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.11
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.12
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.13
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.14
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2.
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.15
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4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.16
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.17
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.18
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2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.19
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.20
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.21
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.22
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.23
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.24
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2.
3.
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.25
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2.
3.
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Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.26
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2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.27
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2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.28
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.29
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.30
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.31
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.32
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.33
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.34
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.35
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.36
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.37
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.38
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.39
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.40
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.41
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.42
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.43
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.44
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.45
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.46
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.47
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.48
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.49
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.50
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
MUSTER
Ans 1. disperse
2. convene
3. assemble
4. mobilize
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.2 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error.
You cannot lead a healthy life although you stop smoking.

Ans 1. a healthy life
2. although you
3. stop smoking
4. You cannot lead
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
Every year the family goes for a pilgrim to the temple at Tirupathi.
Ans 1. at the pilgrim
2. from the pilgrimage
3. on a pilgrimage
4. No substitution required
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
REVIVE
Ans 1. arouse
2. console
3. ruin
4. renew
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
SUMPTUOUS
Ans 1. bereft
2. meager
3. stingy
4. opulent
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’
The forecast predicts that there will be little rain in the month of July.
Ans 1. must be a little rain
2. would be few rain
3. should be many rain
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.7 Select the correctly spelt word.

Ans 1. vengance
2. wengence
3. vengeance
4. wengeance
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
I had to hold on to the wall to steady itself or I could have fallen.

Ans 1. I had to hold on
2. to the wall
3. to steady itself
4. could have fallen
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
She has been working tirelessly since hours.

Ans 1. been working
2. She has
3. since hours
4. tirelessly
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.10 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.
Second-hand furniture ______ here at reasonable prices.

Ans 1. are sold
2. were selling
3. has sold
4. is sold
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
______ of our success depends on our own efforts.

Ans 1. Few
2. Many
3. Less
4. Much
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Pocket an insult
Ans 1. bear an insult quietly
2. resent an affront
3. express true feelings
4. plan a revenge
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Make one’s mark

Ans 1. leave a clue
2. attain recognition
3. claim a right
4. sign a deal
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
I was sorry to be hearing of his misfortune.

Ans 1. sorry to
2. of his misfortune
3. I was
4. be hearing
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4

Ans 1. momentery
2. momentary
3. mommentary
4. momentory
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the
alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.
Necessity, they say, is the mother of invention. Dr Burjor P Banaji, pioneer of Lasik surgery in
India has (1)______ over a dozen surgical instruments. When (2)______ senior eye surgeon at
Max Eye Care started Lasik, there were (3)______ surgeons doing it worldwide and no (4)______
instruments were available either. "As I want things (5)______, I designed a whole slew of
instruments that made my surgery more efficient," says Banaji.
SubQuestion No : 16
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1.
Ans 1. founded
2. invented
3. recovered
4. discovered
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 17
Ans 1. those
2. the
3. they
4. these
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 18
Ans 1. more
2. little
3. any
4. few
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 19
Ans 1. specific
2. limited
3. exact
4. correct
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 20
Ans 1. punitive
2. prolific
3. popular
4. perfect
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Eggs are sold ______ the dozen.

Ans 1. at
2. to
3. by
4. in
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
GAUDY
Ans 1. simple
2. plain
3. proper
4. flashy
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
DESPISE
Ans 1. adore
2. admire
3. abhor
4. approve
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
WRENCH
Ans 1. supply
2. reject
3. deter
4. wrest
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.25 Select the most appropriate one-word substitution for the given group of words.
A person who is trained for travelling into space

Ans 1. scientist
2. pilot
3. physicist
4. astronaut
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
DEPREDATION
Ans 1. plunder
2. devastation
3. construction
4. pillage
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Harsh or discordant sound

Ans 1. monotony
2. harmony
3. cacophony
4. symphony
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
The dates when days and nights are of equal length

Ans 1. equinox
2. solstice
3. eclipse
4. stellar
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.29 Select the misspelt word.

Ans 1. beguile
2. bemoan
3. bereave
4. beseige
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
A large bedroom for a number of people in an institution

Ans 1. dormitory
2. auditorium
3. chamber
4. apartment
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.31 Select the misspelt word.

Ans 1. pursue
2. vicious
3. tyrrany
4. resistance
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
FASTEN
Ans 1. allow
2. affix
3. halt
4. hurry
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
______ you deserve credit for the success of the show.

Ans 1. No less
2. Such that
3. None but
4. Only if
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Arrangement of events according to the dates of occurrence

Ans 1. analogy
2. chronology
3. trilogy
4. theology
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

Ans 1. commotion
2. cammosion
3. camotion
4. comosion
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
MENACE
Ans 1. peril
2. threat
3. comfort
4. balance
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
A large swarm of dogs was blocking the way.

Ans 1. pack of
3. herd of
4. school of
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
One of the proposals received by us seem very interesting.

Ans 1. seem very interesting
2. received by us
3. the proposals
4. One of
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’
Have either of you been to the planetarium before?

Ans 1. Have everyone
2. Has either
3. Has both
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Rise to the occasion

Ans 1. take a big risk in order to succeed
2. assess a critical situation carefully
3. show you can deal with a situation successfully
4. challenge an opponent who is strong
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
The mare hurt its hooves when running to the forest.

Ans 1. while running through
2. with running across
4. when running into
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
______ of living life on his own terms, he made few compromises.

Ans 1. Desired
2. Desirous
3. Desiring
4. Desire
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Kith and kin

Ans 1. family relations
2. colleagues
3. distant enemies
4. neighbours
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Strike when the iron is hot

Ans 1. wait patiently for the results
2. sort out differences promptly
3. grab a favourable opportunity promptly
4. torture someone with a hot iron
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
DISTRACT
Ans 1. divert
2. beguile
3. clarify
4. perplex
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Greek religious traditions encompassed a large pantheon of gods, complex mythologies,

rituals and cult practices. Greece was a polytheistic society, and looked to its gods and
mythology to explain natural mysteries as well as current events. Religious festivals and
ceremonies were held throughout the year, and animal sacrifice and votive offerings were
popular ways to appease and worship the gods. Religious life, rituals and practices were one
of the unifying aspects of Greece across regions and poleis (cities, or city-states, such as
Athens and Sparta).
Greek gods were immortal beings who possessed human-like qualities and were represented
as completely human in visual art. They were moral and immoral, petty and just, and often
vain. The gods were invoked to intervene and assist in all matters large, small, private and
public.
City-states claimed individual gods and goddesses as their patrons. Temples and sanctuaries
to the gods were built in every city. Many cities became cult sites due to their connection with
a god or goddess and specific myths. For instance, the city of Delphi was known for its oracle
and sanctuary of Apollo, because Apollo was believed to have killed a dragon that inhabited
Delphi.
The history of the Greek pantheon begins with the primordial deities Gaia (Mother Earth) and
Uranus (Father Sky), who were the parents of the first of twelve giants known as Titans.
Among these Titans were six males and six females. The males were named Oceanus,
Hyperion, Coeus, Crius, Iapetus, and Kronos. The females were named Themis, Mnemosyne,
Tethys, Theia, Phoebe, and Rhea.
Kronos eventually overthrew Uranus and ruled during a mythological Golden Age. Over time,
he and Rhea had twelve children who would become the Olympian gods. However, Kronos
heard a prophecy that his son would overthrow him, as he did to Uranus. In an effort to avert
fate, he ordered Rhea to allow him to devour each of the children upon their birth.
Best known among the pantheon are the twelve Olympian gods and goddesses who resided
on Mt. Olympus in northern Greece. Zeus, the youngest son of Rhea and Kronos, was hidden
from his father, instead of being swallowed. Once he became a man, he challenged his
father’s rule, forcing Kronos to regurgitate the rest of his swallowed children. These children
were Zeus’s siblings, and together they overthrew Kronos, making Zeus the father of gods and
men.
SubQuestion No : 46
Q.46 Kronos devoured his children at birth because:
Ans 1. he was a titan who hated children
2. it was a cult practice to please the gods
3. his son was predicted to overthrow him
4. he did not have faith in his wife
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:

Athens and Sparta).
public.
Delphi.
men.
SubQuestion No : 47
Q.47 The twelve Olympian Gods and Goddesses were the children of:
Ans 1. Gaia and Uranus
2. Kronos and Rhea
3. Zeus and Phoebe
4. Hyperion and Theia
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:

Athens and Sparta).
public.
Delphi.
men.
SubQuestion No : 48
Q.48 How did Zeus bring back his siblings?
Ans 1. by making Kronos vomit the swallowed children
2. by worshipping the sanctuary of Apollo
3. by reviving them with an elixir
4. by challenging and slaying Crius
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:

Athens and Sparta).
public.
Delphi.
men.
SubQuestion No : 49
Q.49 Which of the following statements about Greek Gods is NOT true?
Ans 1. Some of them were immoral, petty and vain.
2. Greek Gods were mortals.
3. They possessed human qualities.
4. They were invoked to aid in all matters.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:

Athens and Sparta).
public.
Delphi.
men.
SubQuestion No : 50
Q.50 Animal sacrifices were made to Gods to:
Ans 1. pacify and worship them
2. understand nature’s mysteries
3. know about future events
4. enrage and challenge them
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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SSC CPO Tier 1 - 24 Nov 2020 Shift 1 English

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Section : General Knowledge and General Awareness

Q.3 Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from ______ to ______.

3. International Monetary Fund

Q.8 The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is located at:

Q.11 The Rig Veda is divided into ______ books or mandalas.

3. The particles of the solute cannot be seen with unaided eyes.

4. A solution is a homogeneous mixture.

2. Indian National Congress

3. Rajiv Gandhi Memorial Trust

4. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Govt. of India

Q.23 Leukaemia is a cancer of the:

Q.26 Who is the author of the book ‘We Are Displaced’?

Q.30 Part IV of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions on:

3. Directive Principles of State Policy

4. Decent work and economic growth

Q.35 1 horse power is equal to approximately ______ watts.

Q.39 The 90 degree East Meridian does NOT pass through:

Q.40 What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of calcium bicarbonate?

2. A vibrating rod ﬁxed at two ends

3. An air column in an open organ pipe

4. A vibrating string ﬁxed at two ends

Q.43 What is the meaning of the Greek origin word, ‘Elektron’?

Q.44 Kamban wrote the Ramayana in which of the following languages?

Q.48 In which of the following places is the Govardhan Math located?

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Section : English Comprehension

You cannot lead a healthy life although you stop smoking.

4. You cannot lead

2. from the pilgrimage

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

2. would be few rain

3. should be many rain

Q.7 Select the correctly spelt word.

I had to hold on to the wall to steady itself or I could have fallen.

4. could have fallen

She has been working tirelessly since hours.

Q.10 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

Second-hand furniture ______ here at reasonable prices.

Q.11 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

______ of our success depends on our own efforts.

Q.12 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

3. express true feelings

Make one’s mark

I was sorry to be hearing of his misfortune.

Q.15 Select the correctly spelt word.

Q.21 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

Eggs are sold ______ the dozen.

Q.22 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Q.23 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

A person who is trained for travelling into space

Q.26 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Harsh or discordant sound

The dates when days and nights are of equal length

Q.29 Select the misspelt word.

A large bedroom for a number of people in an institution

Q.31 Select the misspelt word.

Q.33 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.

______ you deserve credit for the success of the show.

Q.3 Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from to .