KOTEBE UNIVERSITY OF EDUCATION

DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE AND

TECHNOLOGY

Model exit exam – [2nd Round]

Target Group: Computer Science Graduating class
students

May, 2024
1. __________ implements the same function name, but different parameters.
A. Abstraction
B. Overriding
C. Overloading
D. Encapsulation
Answer: C

2. Which of the following syntax is incorrect for the class definition?

A. student class{ };
B. class student{ student(int a){} };
C. class teacher{ public: teacher(int a){ } };
D. None of the mentioned
Answer: A

3. Which one of the following is false about abstract classes and abstract methods?
A. We can create instances of abstract classes using the new operator
B. Implementation of abstract methods is provided by the subclasses
C. A class that contains abstract methods must be defined as abstract
D. Abstract methods are defined without implementation in the superclass
Answer: A

4. Which of the following is true?

A. There can be a maximum of one public class in a package.
B. If C1 is a sub class of C2, then all except private members of C2 are members of C1.
C. We can make an outer class private.
D. We can have a maximum of one public class in a java program file.
E. None
Answer: D

5. What is the process of defining data and method in a class?

A. polymorphism
B. Encapsulation
C. Method overloading
D. Static method
Answer: B
6. Which one of the following is true?
A. Constructors have a return type
B. Constructors have the same name with the class name
C. Constructors needs to invoke explicitly for execution
 D. Constructors have the same function with methods
Answer: B

7. The relation between class and object is _________.

A. class is blue print of obeject
B. class is Attribute of obeject
C. object is operation of class
D. object is method of class
Answer: A

8. A child class Motorcycle extends a parent class Vehicle. Each class constructor requires
one String argument. The Motorcycle class constructor can call the Vehicle class constructor
with the statement ___________.
A. Vehicle (“Honda”)
B. Motorcycle(“Harley”)
C. Super(“Suzuki”)
D. None
Answer: C
9. _________contains set of statements where an exception can occur?
A. try block
B. catch block
C. throw block
D. throws block
Answer: A
10. Given that the java program:
class C1{
private int x;
void m1( ) {}
protected void m2( ){}
public void m3( ){}
}
public class C2 extends C1{}
Which members of C1 would be accessible in C2 if C1 was a public class?
A. x,m1(),m2() & m3()
B. x& m2()
C. m1(),m2() & m3()
D. m2() & m3()
Answer: C
11. Which of the following is not type of polymorphism in Java?
A. Compile time polymorphism
B. Execution time polymorphism
 C. Dynamic polymorphism
D. Multilevel polymorphism
Answer: D

12. What is the purpose and objective of the Three-Level database architecture?
A. User's view is affected by changes made in other views.
B. Internal structure of database should be unaffected by changes to physical aspects of
storage.
C. Users need to know physical database storage details.
D. DBA should not be able to change conceptual structure of database without affecting all
users.
Answer: B
13. One of the following is not an example of Record-based data model.
A. Entity-relationship (ER) data model
B. Relational data model
C. Network data model
D. Hierarchical data model
Answer: A

14. Which one of the following is not the primary purpose of Database management system (DBMS) ?
A. To store and retrieve large amounts of data efficiently.
B. To manage the database and its users.
C. To maintain and control access to the database.
D. To design graphic interfaces.
Answer: D
15. Which of the following is not a database constraint?
A. NOT NULL
B. UNIQUE
C. PRIMARY KEY
D. SORT
Answer: D
16. Which of the following is a valid SQL statement to add a column to an existing table?
A. UPDATE TABLE table_name
ADD column_name datatype;
B. ADD to TABLE table_name
ADD column_name datatype
C. ALTER TABLE table_name
ADD column_name datatype
D. CHANGE TABLE table_name
ADD column_name datatype
Answer: C

17. Which SQL command is used to retrieve data from a database?

 A. GET
B. RETRIEVE
C. SELECT
D. EXTRACT
Answer: C

18. What is normalization in the context of database design?

A. The process of minimizing redundancy and dependency by organizing fields and table of a
database
B. The process of denormalizing a database
C. The process of converting data into a binary format
D. The process of indexing the database
Answer: A

19. What is the inconsistency occurred in the Database Management System (DBMS) during the
operations performed on the relational table.
A. Normalization
B. Anomaly
C. Denormalization
D. Indexing
Answer: B

20. Consider the following table named ‘student’ and answer the question following it.
Name Sex Dept. Date-of-birth
Abebe M Comp 12-01-2010
Kebede M Civil 19-05-1990
Chala M Elec 05-06-1980

Which of the following SQL query will be used to change the data type of column
‘Date-of-birth’ from dd-mm-yyyy to only yyyy?
A. ALTER TABLE student
ALTER COLUMN Date-of-birth year
B. CHANGE TABLE student
UPDATE COLUMN Date-of-birth year
C. UPDATE TABLE student
ALTER COLUMN Date-of-birth year
D. ALTER TABLE student
CHANGE COLUMN Date-of-birth year
Answer: A

21. In SQL, which keyword is used to sort the result-set?

A. SORT BY
B. ARRANGE BY
C. ORDER BY
D. GROUP BY
Answer: C
22. What is a view in SQL?
A. A table containing summarized data.
B. A virtual table based on the result-set of an SQL statement.
C. E-R diagram
D. A physical copy of data
Answer: B
23. Why the following statement is erroneous SQL statement?
SELECT dept_name, ID, avg (salary)
FROM instructor
GROUP BY dept_name;
A. Dept_id should not be used in group by clause
B. Group by clause is not valid in this query
C. Avg(salary) should not be selected
D. None
Answer: A
24. Identify the false statement about object-oriented database and relational database systems
A. Unlike relational databases, defining primary key in OO database is optional
B. Unlike SQL which produces relations, Object Query Language (OQL) produces
collection as a query output
C. Object RDBMS is more extensible than Object Oriented DBMS and RDBMS
D. In object-oriented model the heart of the system is object but for object relational
database it is the relation
Answer: C
25. Which of the following type system is supported both by relational database and object oriented
database systems
A. Primitive type
B. Structure type
C. collection type
D. Reference type
Answer: A
26. Query execution plan is the output of the __________ step of query processing
A. Scanning and parsing
B. Query code generator
C. Runtime database processor
D. Query optimization
Answer: D
27. Which one of the following ordering of operation provides a more efficient query execution
plan?
A. Join…projection… selection
B. Join…selection…projection
C. selection…join…projection
D. Projection…selection …join
 Answer: D

28. Identify the false statement about COMMIT and ROLLBACK in

A. COMMIT statement makes changes durable in the database
B. ROLLBACK statement aborts changes and restores the database
C. If a program reaches to its end successfully, it is equivalent to say COMMIT
D. Some ROLLBACK of a transaction is possible after it COMMIT
Answer: D
29. Which one of the following transaction states sequence is not valid?
A. Active … Partially committed … Committed … Terminated.
B. Active … Partially committed … Committed … Failed.
C. Active … Partially committed … Failed … Terminated.
D. Active … Failed … Terminated.
Answer: C

30. Considering two transactions (1 & 2) over read(R) and write (W) operations over two data
items X and y , identify the non-conflicting pair of operations.
A. R1(X) and W2(X)
B. W1(Y) and W2(Y)
C. R2(X) and W2(X)
D. W2(X) and R1(X)
Answer: C

31. Identify the false statement about database recovery under WAL protocol
A. Undo all transactions active at time of crash
B. Redo all transactions that committed since the last checkpoint
C. Redo all transactions active at time of crash
D. No undo required for transactions committed before the checkpoint
Answer: C

32. If the shadowing approach is used for flushing a data item back to disk, then:
A. The item is written to disk before the transaction commits.
B. The item is written to a different location on disk.
C. The item is written to disk only after the transaction commits.
D. The item is written to the same disk location from which it was read.
Answer: B

33. The write ahead logging (WAL) protocol basically states that:
A. The log never needs to be written to disk.
B. The writing of a data item should be done ahead of any logging operation.
C. All log records should be written before a new transaction begins execution.
D. The log record for an operation should be written before the actual data is written.
Answer: D

34. Which of the following is a characteristic of a stack data structure?

 A. Elements are added and removed from the same end
B. Elements are added from one end and removed from the other end
C. Elements can be accessed randomly
D None of the above
Answer: A

35. What is the time complexity of pushing an element onto a stack?

A. O(log n)
B. O(n)
C. O(1)
D. O(n log n)
Answer: C
36. Which of the following is a common application of a stack?
A. Reversing a string
B. Implementing a queue
C. Maintaining a directory structure
D. All of the above
Answer: D

37. Which of the following is a characteristic of a queue data structure?

A. Elements are added and removed from the same end
B. Elements are added from one end and removed from the other end
C. Elements can be accessed randomly
D. None of the above
Answer: B
38. What is the time complexity of enqueuing an element into a queue?
A. O(log n)
B. O(n)
C. O(1)
D. O(n log n)
Answer: C
39. What is the main difference between a singly linked list and a doubly linked list?
A. Singly linked lists can only be traversed in one direction, while doubly linked lists can be traversed in
both directions.
B. Singly linked lists are more efficient in terms of memory usage, while doubly linked lists are more
efficient in terms of time complexity.
C. Singly linked lists can only store one type of data, while doubly linked lists can store multiple data types.
 D. Singly linked lists are only used for specific applications, while doubly linked lists are more versatile.
Answer: A
40. What is the time complexity of inserting an element at the beginning of a singly linked list?
A. O(n log n)
B. O(n)
C. O(log n)
D. O(1)
Answer: D
41. What is the main purpose of a circular linked list?
A. To implement a queue
B. To implement a stack
C. To create a continuous loop of elements
D. To create a more memory-efficient data structure
Answer: C
42. What is the time complexity of searching for an element in a binary search tree?
A. O(1)
B. O(log n)
C. O(n)
D. O(n log n)
Answer: B
43. A single linked list allows efficient insertion and deletion at the:
A. Middle
B. Beginning
C. End only
D. Any position
Answer: B

44. What is the main purpose of an operating system?

A. To manage computer hardware resources and provide services to application programs
B. To run application programs directly on the hardware
C. To provide a graphical user interface (GUI)
D. To store files on the hard disk
Answer: A
45. Which of the following is not a function of an operating system?
A. Process management
B. Memory management
C. File management
D. Compiling application programs
Answer: D

46. What is the purpose of CPU scheduling in an operating system?

A. To maximize CPU utilization
B. To minimize response time
C. To provide a fair allocation of CPU time
 D. All of the above
Answer: D

47. Which of the following is an example of a real-time operating system?

A. Windows 10
B. Linux
C. VxWorks
D. macOS
Answer: C
48. What is the purpose of the command interpreter in an operating system?
A. To provide a user interface for executing system commands
B. To manage memory allocation for application programs
C. To schedule CPU time for running processes
D. To handle file system operations
Answer: A
49. What is the difference between a process and a thread?
A. A process is a program in execution, while a thread is a unit of execution within a process
B. A process has its own memory space, while a thread shares memory with other threads in
the same process
C. A process can run concurrently with other processes, while a thread runs sequentially
within a process
D. Both a and b
Answer: D
50. What is the purpose of virtual memory in an operating system?
A. To provide more memory than is physically available
B. To improve system performance by caching frequently used data
C. To isolate processes from each other's memory
D. All of the above
Answer: D
51. What is the purpose of a file system in an operating system?
A. To manage files and directories
B. To provide a user interface for accessing files
C. To allocate and deallocate storage space for files
D. All of the above
Answer: D
52. What is the purpose of a semaphore in an operating system?
A. To synchronize access to shared resources
B. To allocate memory to processes
C. To schedule CPU time for running processes
D. To handle interrupts
Answer: A
53. What is the purpose of a deadlock in an operating system?
A. A situation where two or more processes are waiting for each other to release resources
B. A situation where a process is waiting for an I/O operation to complete
C. A situation where a process is waiting for a signal from another process
 D. A situation where a process is waiting for a timer to expire
Answer: A
54. What is the purpose of a communication protocol in data networks?
A. To ensure that all devices use the same programming language.
B. To define the format and order of messages exchanged between devices.
C. To prevent unauthorized access to the network.
D. To optimize network performance.
Answer: B
55. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for logical addressing and routing?
A. Data Link Layer
B. Network Layer
C. Transport Layer
D. Physical Layer
Answer: B
56. What type of communication allows both devices to send and receive data, but not
simultaneously?
A. Simplex
B. Full Duplex
C. Half Duplex
D. Multiplex
Answer: C

57. Which protocol is responsible for dividing messages into packets at the source and
reassembling them at the destination?
A. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
B. UDP (User Datagram Protocol)
C. IP (Internet Protocol)
D. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
Answer: A

58. What component of data communication ensures that each packet is sent to its proper
destination?
A. Sender
B. Receiver
C. Transmission Medium
D. IP (Internet Protocol)
Answer: D

59. What is a computer network?

A. A device used to display information on a computer screen.
B. A collection of interconnected computers and devices that can communicate and
share resources.
C. A type of software used to create documents and presentations.
 D. The physical casing that protects a computer’s internal components.
Answer: B
60. Which one of the following is a data link protocol?
A. Point-to-point protocol (PPP)
B. High-Level Data Link Control
C. Ethernet
D. All of these answers
Answer: D

61. The transmission data rate is decided by which layer of the OSI model?
A. Transport Layer
B. Network Layer
C. Data Link Layer
D. Physical Layer
Answer: D

62. An Ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE 802.3 minimum length of 64 octets is called:
A. Short frame
B. Small frame
C. Mini frame
D. Runt frame
Answer: D

63. Which of the following protocols is an application layer protocol that establishes, manages,
and terminates multimedia sessions?
A. Session Maintenance Protocol
B. Real-time Streaming Protocol (RTSP)
C. Real-time Transport Control Protocol (RTCP)
D. Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)
Answer: D

64. Which one of the following is defined as a station in the cellular radio service intended for
use while in motion at unspecified locations?
A. Base station
B. Mobile Station
C. Mobile Switching Center
D. Control Channel
Answer: B

65. One is not the disadvantages of wireless network?

A. Limited band width
 B. Prone to interference
C. Lack of flexibility
D. Cost

Answer: C

66. Which one of the following refers to an ability to communicate with person/system who moving?
A. Mobile Communication
B. Mobile
C. Communication
D. Channel
Answer: A

67. Which one of the following is incorrect?

A. Wireless is a word that is commonly used to describe portable devices.
B. The coverage area of a wireless network is minimal.
C. in wireless communication the transmission and reception of signals is accomplished
with Antennas.
D. Wireless is anywhere anytime connection
E. Mobile software is a program that runs on mobile hardware.
Answer: A
68. Choose the wrong statement among the following?
A. Wi-Fi internet is a low powered wireless electronic network.
B. Bluetooth technology was originally designed to be a replacement for physical cables.
C. Cellular network requires a router connection
D. Cellular networks can be used to broadcast a Wi-Fi signal
Answer: C
69. What is the shape of the cell present in the cellular system?
A. Circular
B. Square
C. Hexagonal
D. Triangular
Answer: C

70. The primary purpose of ________________ is to allow shared file and printer access
among multiple computers in a network.
A. Real Time Operating System
B. Network Operating System
C. Distributer Operating System
D. Time-Sharing Operating System
Answer: B
71. One of the following provides a single point of administration of resources (devices, users,
domains etc).
A. Active Directory
B. Client Server
C. TCP/IP
D. DHCP
Answer: A

72. One of the following is not considered as the responsibilities of a system administrator.
A. Install and configure software, hardware and networks.
B. Ensure security of IT infrastructures
C. Router Configuration
D. Monitor system performance and troubleshoot issues
Answer: C
73. ______________ is an active directory role that is used to monitor users, computers and
policies.
A. AD Certificate services
B. AD Federation Services
C. AD Right Management Services
D. AD Domain Services
Answer: D

74. One among the following is not a responsibility of a system administrator.

A. Approving budget
B. Performa backups
C. Add users
D. Remove users
Answer: A
75. Find what default group has the right to log on locally, start and stop services, perform
backup and restore operations, format disks, create or delete shares, and even power down
domain controllers?
A. Server Operators
B. Schema Operators
C. Enterprise Admins
D. Backup Operators
Answer: A

76. What is the appropriate time to shut down a server?

A. When failure occur
B. When maintenance and upgrade required
C. Based on regular schedule
D. All
Answer: D
77. If a user is given a read only access to all the resources of a product, then the user will not
have the privilege to__________.
A. Configure
B. Edit
C. Delete
D. All
Answer: D

78. _______________ is used to translate domain name into IP address.

A. DHCP
B. WEB
C. DNS
D. FTP
Answer: C

79. Which of the following remote access is the most secure?

A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. Rlogin
D. FTP
Answer: B
80. What is meant by agent’s percept sequence?
A. Used to perceive the environment
B. Complete history of actuator
C. Complete history of perceive things
D. Both a & b
Answer :C
81. In which agent does the problem generator is present?
A. Learning agent
B. Observing agent
C. Reflex agent
D. None of the mentioned
Answer: A

82. Which element in agent are used for selecting external actions?
A. Perceive
B. Performance
C. Learning
D. Actuator
 Answer: B

83. What of the following is considered to be a pivotal event in the history of AI?
A. 1949, Donald O, The organization of Behavior.
B. 1950, Computing Machinery and Intelligence.
C. 1956, Dartmouth University Conference Organized by John McCarthy
D. 1961, Computer and Computer Sense.
Answer: C
84. Who is considered to be the "father" of artificial intelligence?
A. Fisher Ada
B. John McCarthy
C. Allen Newell
D. Alan Turning
Answer: B

85. What is the expansion if PEAS in task environment?

A. Peer, Environment, Actuators, Sense
B. Perceiving, Environment, Actuators, Sensor
C. Performance, Environment, Actuators, Sensors
D. None of the mentioned
Answer: C
86. In general, which of the following environments is the least challenging for agents?
A. Fully accessible, discrete, episodic, static
B. Static, non-episodic, continuous, partially accessible
C. Inaccessible, episodic, dynamic, continuous
D. Deterministic, non-episodic, dynamic, continuous
Answer: A
87. _________________ are mathematical problems defined as a set of objects whose state
must satisfy several constraints or limitations.
A. Constraints Satisfaction Problems
B. Uninformed Search Problems
C. Local Search Problems
D. All of the mentioned
Answer: A
88. The truth values of traditional set theory is ____________ and that of fuzzy set is
__________
A. Either 0 or 1, between 0 & 1
B. Between 0 & 1, either 0 or 1
 C. Between 0 & 1, between 0 & 1
D. Either 0 or 1, either 0 or 1
Answer: A
89. Which of the Following problems can be modeled as CSP?
A. 8-Puzzle problem
B. 8-Queen problem
C. Map coloring problem
D. All of the mentioned
Answer: D

90. Which AI system can be “trained” to recognize patterns?

A. Expert system
B. Neural network
C. Genetic algorithm
D. Intelligent agent
Answer: A

91. Which HTML tag is used to create a hyperlink?

A. <link>
B. <href>
C. <a>
D. <hyperlink>
Answer: C

92. Which of the following programming languages is commonly used for server-side scripting
in web development?
A. HTML
B. CSS
C. JavaScript
D. PHP
Answer: D

93. Why are Images often used on the webpage?

A. To create graphical buttons or links to other pages
B. To help the webpage load efficiently
C. Webpage cannot run/be displayed without at least one image
D. Because webpage doesn’t support pure text
Answer: A
94. What are Forms in web programming?
A. They are matrices on web page
 B. They are used to create Table data and its information
C. They allow you to enter data which can be processed to servers
D. They are the information filled by the server-side
Answer: C
95. Which of the following property is used to control the space between the border and content in a
table?
A. Border
B. Padding
C. Margin
D. Resize
Answer: B
96. When does JavaScript code appear inline within an HTML file?
A. Between or Outside the “script” tag
B. Between the header tag
C. Outside the “script” tag
D. Between the “script” tag
Answer: D
97. What is the purpose of the event handlers in the JavaScript?
A. Adds inner HTML page to the code
B. Allows JavaScript code to alter the behaviour of windows
C. Performs handling of exceptions and occurrences
D. Change the server location
Answer: C
98. What is the purpose of JavaScript in web development?
A. To define the structure and content of web pages
B. To add interactivity and behavior to web pages
C. To style and format web pages
D. To manage server-side data and databases
Answer: B
99. What is the correct syntax of doctype in HTML5?
A. </doctype html>
B. <doctype html>
C. <doctype html!>
D. <!doctype html>
Answer: D

100. In which part of the HTML metadata is contained?

A. head tag
B. title tag
C. html tag
D. body tag
Answer: A