Rafael Gomes

Name: Instructor Key

1- Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect

A- distortion.
B- deep subsurface flaws.
*C- flaws on or near the surface.
Expl- Magnetic particle inspection is used to detect flaws in ferromagnetic material
on or near the surface. These flaws form north and south magnetic poles when the
part is magnetized. Iron oxide suspended in a fluid pumped over the part is attracted
to and held by the magnetism and it outlines the flaw.

2- Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be used on which of the following?

A- Ferrous metals and nonporous plastics.
B- Porous and nonporous plastics and nonferrous metals.
*C- Ferrous and nonferrous metals and nonporous plastics.
Expl- Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be used to detect faults that extend
to the surface on both ferrous and nonferrous metals and nonporous plastics.

3- Which of these nondestructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of

most metals, plastics, and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?
A- Eddy current inspection.
B- Magnetic particle inspection.
*C- Ultrasonic inspection.
Expl- Ultrasonic inspection uses high-frequency sound waves to detect faults in a
material. It can be used on a wide variety of materials such as ferrous and
nonferrous metals, plastics and ceramics. It can detect subsurface as well as surface
defects.

4- Which of the following defects are not acceptable for metal lines?
A- Scratches or nicks on the inside of a bend less than 10% of wall thickness.
B- Dents in straight section that are 10% of tube diameter.
*C- Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube diameter.
Expl- Scratches or nicks less than 10% of the wall thickness of the tube are
repairable if they are not in the heel of the bend, as are dents that are 10% of tube
diameter. A dent of more than 20% of the tube diameter is not acceptable.

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5- What nondestructive testing method requires little or no part preparation, is used

to detect surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to
separate metals or alloys and their heat-treated conditions?
*A- Eddy current inspection.
B- Ultrasonic inspection.
C- Magnetic particle inspection.
Expl- Eddy current inspection requires relatively little preparation of the part being
inspected. It induces a magnetic field into the part which causes eddy currents to
flow. Variations in the magnitude of the eddy currents affect this magnetic field, and
when it is analyzed electronically, it gives information regarding such structural
characteristics as flaws, discontinuities, thickness, and alloy or heat-treated condition
of the material. Eddy current inspection is used to locate defects both on the surface
and below the surface.

6- What method of magnetic particle inspection is used most often to inspect aircraft
parts for invisible cracks and other defects?
A- Residual.
B- Inductance.
*C- Continuous.
Expl- The continuous method of magnetic particle inspection is used for most aircraft
parts because it provides the strongest magnetic field to attract the oxide from the
fluid. In the continuous method of magnetic particle inspection, the part is either
placed between the heads of the magnetizing machine or held inside the solenoid
(coil). Magnetizing current flows while the fluid is pumped over the part. In the
residual method of magnetic particle inspection, used for some smaller parts, the
parts are magnetized and the magnetizing current is shut off. Only residual
magnetism is left in the part to attract the oxide.

7- Which of the following factors are considered essential knowledge for X-ray
exposure?
A- Processing of the film and its characteristics.
*B- Material thickness and density and the type of defect to be detected.
C- Processing of the film, characteristics of X-ray machine used, and film
characteristics.
Expl- The factors of radiographic exposure are so interdependent that it is necessary
to consider all factors for any particular radiographic exposure. These factors
include, but are not limited to, the following:
1. Material thickness and density.
2. Shape and size of the object.
3. Type of defect to be detected.
4. Characteristics of X-ray machine used.
5. The exposure distance.
6. The exposure angle.
7. Film characteristics.
8.Type of intensifying screen, if used.

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8- The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilizes a
ferromagnetic material that has
*A- high permeability and low retentivity.
B- low permeability and high retentivity.
C- high permeability and high retentivity.
Expl- The testing medium used to indicate the presence of a fault in magnetic
particle inspection is a finely ground iron oxide that has a high permeability and low
retentivity, and is nontoxic. It is usually suspended in a light oil such as kerosine.

9- Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing inspection method is true?

A- Subsurface discontinuities are made readily apparent.
B- It is used in practically all circular and longitudinal magnetizing procedures.
*C- It may be used with steels which have been heat treated for stressed
applications.
Expl- In the residual method of magnetic particle inspection, the part is magnetized
and removed from the magnetic field before the oxide-carrying fluid is pumped over
it. Steel that has a high retentivity (retains its magnetism after the magnetizing force
has been removed) can be inspected by the residual method. Steel that has been
heat-treated for stressed applications has a high retentivity and it can be inspected
by the residual method.

10- A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted
compound repair technique. What nondestructive testing method is used to
determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured?
A- Eddy current test.
*B- Metallic ring test.
C- Ultrasonic test.
Expl- After a bonded honeycomb repair has been made using the potted-compound
repair technique, the soundness of the repair can be tested by using the metallic ring
test. The repaired surface is tested by tapping it with the edge of a coin. If the repair
is sound, the tapping will produce a metallic ringing sound. If there is any void in the
material, the tapping will produce a dull, thudding sound.

11- What two types of indicating mediums are available for magnetic particle
inspection?
A- Iron and ferric oxides.
*B- Wet and dry process materials.
C- High retentivity and low permeability material.
Expl- The magnetic medium used for magnetic particle inspection can be applied
either as a dry oxide powder dusted over the surface or (as is more commonly done)
suspended in a light oil such as kerosine and pumped over the surface. The iron
oxide used as the indicating medium is often treated with a fluorescent dye that
causes it to glow with a green light when an ultraviolet light (black light) is shone on
it.

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12- Which of the following materials may be inspected using the magnetic particle
inspection method?
A- Copper alloys.
B- Aluminum alloys.
*C- Iron alloys.
Expl- In order for a part to be inspected by the magnetic particle method, it must be
magnetizable. The only magnetizable metals listed in the alternatives are iron alloys.

13- One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by
A- subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage ac.
*B- slowly moving the part out of an ac magnetic field of sufficient strength.
C- slowly moving the part into an ac magnetic field of sufficient strength.
Expl- A steel part is magnetized by holding it in a strong, steady magnetic field that
aligns all of the magnetic domains in the material. It is demagnetized by placing it in
an AC magnetic field that continually reverses its polarity. This causes the domains
to continually reverse their direction. As the domains are reversing, the part is slowly
moved from the field so the domains remain in a disoriented state when the
demagnetizing force is removed.

14- Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either
circular or longitudinal magnetization?
*A- 45°.
B- Longitudinal.
C- Transverse.
Expl- Longitudinal magnetization produces a magnetic field that extends lengthwise
in the material. It is used to detect faults that extend across the part, perpendicular to
the lines of magnetic flux. Circular magnetization produces a magnetic field that
extends across the material. It can detect faults that are oriented along the length of
the part. Either type of magnetization can detect a fault that runs at 45° to the length
of the part.

15- Which of the following methods may be suitable to use to detect cracks open to
the surface in aluminum forgings and castings?
*A- Dye penetrant inspection and eddy current inspection.
B- Dye penetrant inspection and magnetic particle inspection.
C- Magnetic particle inspection and metallic ring inspection.
Expl- Dye penetrant, eddy current, ultrasonic, and visual inspections may be used on
aluminum forgings and castings. Magnetic particle inspection can only be used on
ferrous metals, and the metallic ring inspection is used to check for delaminations in
bonded composite structural materials.

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16- To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires
A- that the developer be applied to a flat surface.
*B- a longer-than-normal penetrating time.
C- the surface to be highly polished.
Expl- The amount of penetrant that can enter a small crack is determined by both the
length of time the penetrant is allowed to remain on the surface and the temperature
of the part. When looking for very small cracks, the part can be heated (but not
enough to cause the penetrant to evaporate from the surface), and the penetrant can
be allowed to stay on the surface for a longer than normal time before it is washed
off.

17- Which of the following is a main determinant of the dwell time to use when
conducting a dye or fluorescent penetrant inspection?
*A- The size and shape of the discontinuities being looked for.
B- The size and shape of the part being inspected.
C- The type and/or density of the part material.
Expl- The dwell time (the time the penetrant is allowed to remain on the surface) is
determined by the size and shape of the discontinuity being looked for.

18- When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular
and longitudinal magnetization should be used to
*A- reveal all possible defects.
B- evenly magnetize the entire part.
C- ensure uniform current flow.
Expl- Since longitudinal magnetization detects faults that lie across a part, and
circular magnetization detects faults that lie parallel to its length, a complete
inspection that will show up all possible defects requires that the part be magnetized
twice, longitudinally and circularly, and given two separate inspections.

19- In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is perpendicular to the magnetic field
flux lines generally causes
*A- a large disruption in the magnetic field.
B- a minimal disruption in the magnetic field.
C- no disruption in the magnetic field.
Expl- In order to locate a defect in a part by the magnetic particle inspection method,
it is essential that the magnetic lines of force pass approximately perpendicular to
the defect. This causes the maximum disruption of the magnetic field and forms
magnetic poles which attract the indicating medium across the defect.

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20- If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable
cause is that the part
A- was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied.
B- has no appreciable damage.
*C- was not thoroughly washed before the developer was applied.
Expl- After the penetrant has been on the surface of a part for the correct dwell time,
the surface must be thoroughly washed to remove all traces of the penetrant. When
the surface is clean and dry, the developer is sprayed or dusted on. Any penetrant
left on the surface or in the pores of the material will stain the developer and faults
will not show up as sharp and clear marks.

21- (1) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force

from alternating current that is gradually reduced in strength.
(2) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by subjecting it to a magnetizing force from
direct current that is alternately reversed in direction and gradually reduced in
strength.
Regarding the above statements,
*A- both 1 and 2 are true.
B- only 1 is true.
C- only 2 is true.
Expl- Statement 1 is true. A part is demagnetized by placing it in an AC magnetic
field whose strength is gradually reduced while it continually reverses its polarity.
This leaves the domains in a disoriented state when the demagnetizing force is
removed. Statement 2 is also true. A DC magnetic field whose direction is continually
reversed and the strength is gradually reduced may be used to demagnetize an
aircraft part that has been inspected by the magnetic particle inspection method.

22- The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle buildup forming

A- a fernlike pattern.
B- a single line.
*C- parallel lines.
Expl- Inclusions are impurities trapped inside a piece of metal when it was cast.
When the part is inspected by magnetic particle inspection, the inclusion does not
show up as a clearly defined fault but the indication is fuzzy. Rather than sharply
defined poles, there are several sets of poles that cause the oxide to form in a series
of parallel lines.

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23- A part which is being prepared for dye penetrant inspection should be cleaned
with
*A- a volatile petroleum-base solvent.
B- the penetrant developer.
C- water-base solvents only.
Expl- It is important when performing a dye penetrant inspection that the surface of
the part be as clean as possible. Volatile petroleum-based solvents such as
Stoddard solvent and naphtha are widely used for cleaning parts to be inspected.

24- Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as having a fatigue
crack under which condition?
A- The discontinuity pattern is straight.
B- The discontinuity is found in a nonstressed area of the part.
*C- The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part.
Expl- Fatigue cracks usually show up in areas that have been subjected to high
concentrations of stresses. They are likely to form where the cross-sectional area of
the part changes sharply.

25- In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the developer

A- seeps into a surface crack to indicate the presence of a defect.
*B- acts as a blotter to produce a visible indication.
C- thoroughly cleans the surface prior to inspection.
Expl- To perform a dye penetrant inspection, the part to be inspected is thoroughly
cleaned and soaked in a liquid penetrant which seeps into any cracks or defects that
extend to the surface. After the part is soaked for the required dwell time, the
penetrant is washed from the surface, and the surface is covered with a developer
which, acting as a blotter, pulls the penetrant from the fault. The penetrant pulled out
by the developer shows up as a visible indication.

26- What defects will be detected by magnetizing a part using continuous

longitudinal magnetization with a cable?
*A- Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part.
B- Defects parallel to the long axis of the part.
C- Defects parallel to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part.
Expl- A part magnetized longitudinally by current flowing through a cable wrapped
around it will show up defects that are perpendicular (at right angles) to the long axis
of the part.

27- Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect which defects?

*A- Defects parallel to the long axis of the part.
B- Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part.
C- Defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part.
Expl- A part magnetized circularly by the magnetizing current flowing lengthwise
through it, will show up defects parallel to the long axis of the part.
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28- (1) In nondestructive testing, a discontinuity may be defined as an interruption in

the normal physical structure or configuration of a part.
(2) A discontinuity may or may not affect the usefulness of a part.
Regarding the above statements,
A- only 1 is true.
B- only 2 is true.
*C- both 1 and 2 are true.
Expl- Statement 1 is true. In nondestructive testing, a discontinuity may be defined
as an interruption in the normal physical structure or configuration of a part.
Statement 2 is also true. A discontinuity may or may not affect the usefulness of a
part.

29- What type of corrosion may attack the grain boundaries of aluminum alloys when
the heat treatment process has been improperly accomplished?
A- Concentration cell.
*B- Intergranular.
C- Fretting.
Expl- An aluminum alloy part is heat-treated by being heated in an oven and then
removed and immediately quenched in cold water. If there is a delay between the
time the part is removed from the oven and the time it is quenched, the grains in the
metal will grow. Because of this, there is a good probability that intergranular
corrosion will develop along the boundaries of the grains within the metal.

30- Which of the following describe the effects of annealing steel and aluminum
alloys?
*A- Decreasing internal stresses and softening of the metal.
B- Softening of the metals and improved corrosion resistance.
C- Improved corrosion resistance.
Expl- Steel and aluminum alloys may be annealed to decrease internal stresses and
soften the metal. Annealing does not improve corrosion resistance.

31- Which heat-treating process of metal produces a hard, wear-resistant surface

over a strong, tough core?
*A- Case hardening.
B- Annealing.
C- Tempering.
Expl- Case hardening is a heat treatment process for steel in which the surface is
hardened to make it wear resistant, but the inside of the metal remains strong and
tough. Annealing is a heat treatment process for either ferrous or nonferrous metal
that makes the metal softer. Tempering is a method of heat treatment in which some
of the hardness is removed from a hardened metal. Removing some of the hardness
makes the metal less brittle.

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32- Which heat-treating operation would be performed when the surface of the metal
is changed chemically by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?
A- Tempering.
B- Normalizing.
*C- Case hardening.
Expl- In case hardening, the surface of the metal is changed chemically by
introducing a high carbide or nitride content. The core is unaffected chemically.
When heat-treated, the surface responds to hardening while the core remains tough.

33- Normalizing is a process of heat treating

A- aluminum alloys only.
*B- iron-base metals only.
C- both aluminum alloys and iron-base metals.
Expl- Normalizing is a heat treating process in which an iron-base metal is heated to
a temperature above its critical temperature and allowed to cool in still air.
Normalizing reduces the stresses in the metal that were put there by the fabrication
process.

34- Which of the following occurs when a mechanical force such as rolling,
hammering, or bending is repeatedly applied to most metals at room temperature?
A- The metals become artificially aged.
B- The metals become stress corrosion cracked.
*C- The metals become strain or work hardened or cold worked.
Expl- When a mechanical force such as rolling, hammering, or bending is repeatedly
applied to most metals at room temperature, the metals become cold worked, strain,
or work hardened. They may become so hard and brittle that they break.

35- The reheating of a heat treated metal, such as with a welding torch
A- has little or no effect on a metal's heat treated characteristics.
B- has a cumulative enhancement effect on the original heat treatment.
*C- can significantly alter a metal's properties in the reheated area.
Expl- When a heat-treated metal is reheated with a welding torch there is no close
control of the temperature and the metal's properties in the reheated area may be
significantly altered.

36- Why is steel tempered after being hardened?

A- To increase its hardness and ductility.
B- To increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses.
*C- To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness.
Expl- Steel is tempered after it is hardened to remove some of the internal stresses
and make it less brittle. Tempering is done by heating it to a temperature quite a way
below its critical temperature and allowing it to cool in still air.

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37- What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no
hardening or tempering treatment?
*A- 3003-F.
B- 5052-H36.
C- 6061-O.
Expl- In the temper designations used with aluminum alloy, these letters have the
following meanings:
F means 'as fabricated.' There has been no control over its temper.
H36 means the metal is nonheat-treatable, but it has been strain-hardened and
stabilized to its 3/4 hard state.
O means the metal has been annealed.

38- Which material cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects?
A- Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form.
B- 6061-T9 stainless steel.
*C- Clad aluminum alloy.
Expl- Clad aluminum alloy sheets have a core of high-strength aluminum alloy onto
whose surface have been rolled a thin layer of pure aluminum. When clad sheets are
heated in the process of heat treatment, some of the pure aluminum diffuses into the
core alloy and weakens the sheet. The manufacturer of the aluminum specifies the
number of times clad sheets can be heat-treated. Typically, they allow the sheet to
be heat-treated only one to three times.

39- What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after it has been
annealed?
A- Rapid cooling; high strength.
*B- Slow cooling; low strength.
C- Slow cooling; increased resistance to wear.
Expl- Annealing of steel is accomplished by heating the metal to just above the
upper critical point, soaking at that temperature and cooling very slowly in the
furnace. Annealing of steel produces a fine-grained, soft, ductile metal without
internal stresses or strains. In the annealed state steel has its lowest strength.

40- Torque values for aircraft bolts normally consider

*A- the threads to be clean and dry.
B- tightening the bolt head.
C- lubricating the threads.
Expl- The amount of torque used to screw a nut onto a bolt is critical in determining
the integrity of a bolted joint. For torque to be uniform and to allow the torque
specified by the manufacturer to be duplicated in the field, the following rule applies:
Unless it is specified otherwise, the values given in a torque chart relate to clean, dry
threads.

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41- What is generally used in the construction of aircraft exhaust collectors, stacks,
and manifolds?
*A- Stainless steel.
B- Titanium.
C- Aluminum.
Expl- The material most generally used for firewalls, exhaust collectors, stacks, and
manifolds on aircraft is stainless steel at least 0.015 inch thick. Mild steel, at least
0.018 inch thick and protected from corrosion, terneplate at least 0.018 inch thick,
and Monel at least 0.018 inch thick may also be used.

42- Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that
the bolthead is
A- upward, or in rearward direction.
*B- upward, or in a forward direction.
C- downward, or in a forward direction.
Expl- An accepted rule of thumb for installing bolts in an aircraft structure is to have
the bolt head up, forward, or outboard. When the bolt is installed in this way, it is
least likely to fall out if the nut should ever back off.

43- Alclad is a metal consisting of

A- aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure aluminum core.
*B- pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core.
C- a homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy.
Expl- Alclad is the registered trade name for an aluminum alloy sheet that has pure
aluminum rolled onto its surfaces. The pure aluminum protects the alloy core from
corrosion.

44- A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is
A- under shear loading.
B- under tension loading.
*C- subject to rotation.
Expl- Fiber-type, self-locking nuts depend upon the fiber insert in the end of the nut
gripping the bolt threads tight enough to prevent the nut backing off. Since there is
no mechanical lock between the nut and the bolt, the FAA recommends that a fiber-
type self-locking nut not be used in any installation in which the fastener is subject to
rotation.

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45- The Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) and the American Iron and Steel
Institute use a numerical index system to identify the composition of various steels.
In the number '4130' designating chromium molybdenum steel, the first digit
indicates the
A- percentage of the basic element in the alloy.
B- percentage of carbon in the alloy in hundredths of a percent.
*C- basic alloying element.
Expl- In the SAE four-digit numbering system for identifying the composition of steel,
the first two digits identify the basic alloy, and the second two digits show the
percentage of carbon in hundredths of a percent.

46- (Refer to Figure 42.) Which of the bolthead code markings shown identifies an
AN corrosion resistant steel bolt?
A- 1
B- 2
*C- 3
Expl- The single dash on the head of a bolt identifies it as a standard bolt made of
corrosion-resistant steel. The cross on the head of a bolt identifies it as a standard
AN bolt made of nickel alloy steel. The cross inside a triangle identifies the bolt as an
NAS close-tolerance bolt.

47- Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on the bolthead are
A- made of aluminum alloy.
B- close tolerance bolts.
*C- standard steel bolts.
Expl- A cross or asterisk on the head of a bolt identifies it as a standard AN bolt
made of nickel alloy steel.

48- Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct?

A- When tightening castellated nuts on drilled bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not line
up, it is permissible to overtighten the nut to permit alignment of the next slot with the
cotter pin hole.
*B- In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the material thickness.
C- Alloy steel bolts smaller than 1/4-inch diameter should not be used in primary
structure.
Expl- Bolts for installation in an aircraft structure should be selected so that their grip
length (the length of the unthreaded shank) is equal to the thickness of the material
being joined.

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49- Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be

A- equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together, plus
approximately one diameter.
*B- equal to the thickness of the material which is fastened together.
C- one and one half times the thickness of the material which is fastened together.
Expl- Bolts for installation in an aircraft structure should be selected so that their grip
length (the length of the unthreaded shank) is equal to the thickness of the material
being joined.

50- When the specific torque value for nuts is not given, where can the
recommended torque value be found?
*A- AC 43.13-1B.
B- Technical Standard Order.
C- AC 43.13-2A.
Expl- A list of recommended torque values for nut-bolt combinations (without
lubrication) are found in AC 43.13-1B.

51- (Refer to Figure 43.) Identify the clevis bolt illustrated.

A- 1
*B- 3
C- 2
Expl- The bolt shown in View 3 is a clevis bolt. The bolt shown in View 1 is a drilled-
head, hex-head bolt. The bolt shown in View 2 is an eyebolt.

52- A particular component is attached to the aircraft structure by the use of an

aircraft bolt and a castle tension nut combination. If the cotter pin hole does not align
within the recommended torque range, the acceptable practice is to
A- exceed the recommended torque range by no more than 10 percent.
B- tighten below the torque range.
*C- change washers and try again.
Expl- When tightening castle nuts on bolts, the cotter pin holes may not line up with
the slots in the nuts at maximum recommended torque, plus friction drag. If the hole
and nut castellation do not align, change washers and try again. Exceeding the
maximum recommended torque is not recommended.

53- A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an

*A- AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt.
B- NAS standard aircraft bolt.
C- NAS close tolerance bolt.
Expl- An AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt is identified by a single raised dash on its
head.

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54- How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable terminal secured?
*A- With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but with no strain imposed on the fork
and safetied with a cotter pin.
B- With a castle nut tightened until slight binding occurs between the fork and the
fitting to which it is being attached.
C- With a shear nut and cotter pin or a thin self-locking nut tightened enough to
prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork.
Expl- When a clevis bolt is used to secure a fork-end cable terminal, a shear castle
nut should be used on the clevis bolt. The nut should be tightened until it is snug, but
there must be no strain on the fork. The nut is secured to the clevis bolt with a cotter
pin.

55- Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?

A- For tension and shear load conditions.
B- Where external tension loads are applied.
*C- Only for shear load applications.
Expl- A clevis bolt should be used only where the load to which the bolt is applied is
a shear load. A clevis bolt is not designed to take any type of tensile load. The
threaded portion of a clevis bolt is short and there is a groove between the threads
and the shank. The head of a clevis bolt has a screwdriver slot rather than flats for
the use of a wrench.

56- A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is classified as an

A- NAS standard aircraft bolt.
*B- NAS close tolerance bolt.
C- AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt.
Expl- An NAS close-tolerance bolt has a cross or an X inside a triangle on its head.
An NAS or an AN standard aircraft bolt has a raised cross or asterisk on its head. An
AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt has a single raised dash on its head.

57- The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is

*A- heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure
aluminum.
B- commercially pure aluminum, and the surface material is heat-treated aluminum
alloy.
C- strain-hardened aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure
aluminum.
Expl- Alclad 2024-T4 is a type of sheet metal that has a core of 2024-T4 solution-
heat-treated aluminum alloy. Commercially pure aluminum is rolled onto the surfaces
of the sheet for corrosion protection. The name Alclad is a registered trade name.

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58- The aluminum code number 1100 identifies what type of aluminum?
A- Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper.
B- Aluminum alloy containing zinc.
*C- 99 percent commercially pure aluminum.
Expl- Aluminum identified by the code number 1100 is 99 percent commercially pure
aluminum.

59- Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a

A- class 1 fit for the threads.
B- class 2 fit for the threads.
*C- class 3 fit for the threads.
Expl- A class-3 fit is a medium fit. It is used on almost all standard aircraft bolts. A
class-1 fit is a loose fit. This is used for coarse-thread stove bolts and square nuts. A
class-2 fit is a free fit. It is used on some machine screws.

60- In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates
*A- the major alloying element.
B- the number of major alloying elements used in the metal.
C- the percent of alloying metal added.
Expl- In the four-digit numbering system for identifying aluminum alloys, the first digit
shows the major alloy used with the aluminum. The 1000 series is commercially pure
aluminum. The 2000 series has copper as the main alloy. The 3000 series has
manganese as the main alloy. The 4000 series has silicon as the main alloy. The
5000 series has magnesium as the main alloy. The 6000 series has magnesium and
silicon in it. The 7000 series has zinc as the main alloy.

61- How is the locking feature of the fiber-type locknut obtained?

*A- By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert.
B- By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying section.
C- By making the threads in the fiber insert slightly smaller than those in the load
carrying section.
Expl- A fiber-type lock nut is held firmly on the threads of a bolt by pressure caused
by an unthreaded fiber insert locked into a recess in the end of the nut. When the
bolt is screwed through the nut, it forces its way through the unthreaded fiber. The
fiber grips the threads and applies a downward force between the threads in the nut
and those on the bolt. This force prevents the nut vibrating loose.

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62- Why should an aircraft maintenance technician be familiar with weld

nomenclature?
A- So that accurate visual (pictorial) comparisons can be made.
*B- In order to gain familiarity with the welding technique, filler material, and
temperature range used.
C- In order to compare welds with written (non-pictorial) description standards.
Expl- It is extremely important to make a weld repair equal to the original weld.
Identifying the kind of metal to be welded, identifying the kind of welding process
used in building the part originally, and determining the best way to make welded
repairs are of utmost importance.

63- (Refer to Figure 44.) Identify the weld caused by an excessive amount of
acetylene.
A- 4
B- 1
*C- 3
Expl- The weld in view 3 has been made with a flame that had an excess of
acetylene. There are bumps along the center of the bead and craters at the edge of
the weld. Cross checks are apparent where the body of the weld is sound. If this
weld were cross-sectioned, it would show pockets and porosity.
The weld in view 1 was made too rapidly. The long and pointed appearance of the
ripples was caused by an excessive amount of heat or by an oxidizing flame. If this
weld were cross-sectioned, it would probably show gas pockets, porosity, and slag
inclusions. The weld in view 2 has improper penetration and cold laps caused by
insufficient heat. It appears rough and irregular and its edges are not feathered into
the base metal.
The weld in view 4 has considerable variations in depth of penetration. It often has
the appearance of a cold weld.

64- (Refer to Figure 44.) Select the illustration which depicts a cold weld.
A- 3
*B- 2
C- 4
Expl- The weld in view 2 is a cold weld. It has improper penetration and cold laps
caused by insufficient heat. It appears rough and irregular and its edges are not
feathered into the base metal.

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65- Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding?

*A- To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal.
B- To increase the hardness of the weld.
C- To remove the surface scale formed during welding.
Expl- When a part is welded, it has expanded and been fused to another part. When
it cools, stresses inside it try to deform it. After a part has been welded, it should be
normalized by heating it to a temperature above its critical temperature and allowed
to cool in still air. This heating relieves the stresses in the metal, and the part is not
so likely to crack in service.

66- Holes and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be
taken?
A- Reweld the defective portions.
*B- Remove all the old weld, and reweld the joint.
C- Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect, and reweld all gaps/holes.
Expl- Blow holes and projecting globules are indications of a poor weld. All of the old
weld bead should be removed and the material rewelded.

67- Which condition indicates a part has cooled too quickly after being welded?
*A- Cracking adjacent to the weld.
B- Discoloration of the base metal.
C- Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions.
Expl- Heat causes metal to expand. Cooling causes it to contract. If a metal is cooled
too quickly after it is welded, it will contract unevenly and stresses will remain in the
metal. These stresses produce cracks adjacent to the weld.

68- Select a characteristic of a good gas weld.

A- The depth of penetration shall be sufficient to ensure fusion of the filler rod.
B- The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 inch above the base metal.
*C- The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal.
Expl- The bead of a gas weld that has good penetration and good fusion is uniform
and straight. It has a slightly crowned surface that tapers off smoothly into the base
metal.

69- One characteristic of a good weld is that no oxide should be formed on the base
metal at a distance from the weld of more than
*A- 1/2 inch.
B- 1 inch.
C- 1/4 inch.
Expl- When making a good weld, the heat should be concentrated in the area being
welded. The oxides that form on the base metal give an indication of the amount of
heat put into the metal. Oxides formed for a distance of much more than 1/2 inch
from the weld show that too much heat was put into the metal. The metal may have
been weakened.
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70- In examining and evaluating a welded joint, a mechanic should be familiar with
*A- likely ambient exposure conditions and intended use of the part, along with type
of weld and original part material composition.
B- the welding technique, filler material, and temperature range used.
C- the parts, proportions, and formation of a weld.
Expl- It is important when evaluating a welded joint that you are familiar with the
likely ambient conditions to which the part will be exposed, the intended use of the
part, the type of weld, and the material of which the part is made.

71- (Refer to Figure 45.) What type weld is shown at A?

A- Fillet.
*B- Butt.
C- Lap.
Expl- Weld A is a single butt weld.
Weld B is a double butt weld.
Welds C are both butt welds.
Weld D is a rosette weld.
Weld E is a fillet weld.
Weld F is an edge weld.
Welds G are lap welds.

72- (Refer to Figure 45.) What type weld is shown at B?

A- Butt.
*B- Double butt.
C- Fillet.
Expl- Weld B is a double butt weld. Both sides of the material have been ground in a
V and a bead is formed on both sides of the sheet.

73- (Refer to Figure 45.) What type weld is shown at G?

*A- Lap.
B- Butt.
C- Joint.
Expl- The two welds shown at G are lap welds. When both edges are welded as is
done here, the joint is called a double lap joint.

74- On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement includes what percentage(s) of the
base metal thickness?
A- 100 percent.
*B- 25 to 50 percent.
C- 60 to 80 percent.
Expl- A properly made fillet weld has a penetration of 25 to 50 percent of the
thickness of the base metal.

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75- Which tool can be used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of
rotation of a disk?
*A- Dial indicator.
B- Shaft gauge.
C- Protractor.
Expl- A dial indicator is used to measure the alignment of a rotor shaft. The dial
indicator is clamped to the structure, the contact finger is placed against the surface
of the shaft, and the indicator is zeroed. The shaft is rotated and the dial indicator
measures the amount the shaft is out of alignment. The plane of rotation of a disk
may also be measured with a dial indicator.

76- (Refer to Figure 46.) The measurement reading on the illustrated micrometer is
*A- 0.2851
B- 0.2911
C- 0.2901
Expl- The thimble has been screwed out more than 0.275 inch (the third mark
beyond the 2 is visible). The thimble has rotated just a bit more than ten hundredths
of the way around, as is shown by the line on the sleeve. It is just beyond the 10 on
the thimble. This means that 0.010 is added to the 0.275 on the sleeve. The vernier
line on the barrel for 1 is lined up with one of the marks on the thimble, and this
means that we add 0.0001 inch to the two other numbers we have. The total reading
of this vernier micrometer is 0.275 + 0.010 + 0.0001 = 0.2851 inch.

77- Identify the correct statement.

A- An outside micrometer is limited to measuring diameters.
B- Tools used on certificated aircraft must be an approved type.
*C- Dividers do not provide a reading when used as a measuring device.
Expl- Dividers do not provide a reading when they are used as a measuring device.
They are used by placing their points at the locations between which the
measurement is to be taken. Then the distance between the points is measured with
a steel machinist's scale.

78- (Refer to Figure 47.) What is the measurement reading on the vernier caliper
scale?
A- 1.411 inches.
*B- 1.436 inches.
C- 1.700 inches.
Expl- The zero on the vernier scale is beyond the 1. This shows the measurement is
more than 1 inch. It is beyond the 4. This shows it is more than 1.4 inch. It is beyond
the first 0.025 mark on the bar. This shows that it is more than 1.425 inch. The 11
line on the vernier scale lines up with one of the marks on the bar. This 0.011 is
added to the reading we have. The total reading is 1.425 + 0.011 = 1.436 inches.

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79- Which tool is used to measure the clearance between a surface plate and a
relatively narrow surface being checked for flatness?
A- Depth gauge.
*B- Thickness gauge.
C- Dial indicator.
Expl- A part is checked for flatness by putting it on a surface plate and sliding a
thickness gauge (a feeler gauge) between the part and the surface plate. The
thickness of the feeler gauge that will slip between the part and the surface plate is
the amount the part lacks being flat.

80- Which number represents the vernier scale graduation of a micrometer?

A- .00001
B- .001
*C- .0001
Expl- The vernier scale (the series of parallel lines on the sleeve) on a vernier
micrometer caliper is used to give an indication of one ten thousandth of an inch
(0.0001 inch) of spindle movement.

81- Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylindrical work?
*A- Combination set.
B- Dial indicator.
C- Micrometer caliper.
Expl- The center of a shaft or other circle can be found with the center head of a
combination set. A combination set consists of a steel scale that has three heads
that can be moved to any position on the scale and locked in place. The three heads
are a stock head that measures 90° and 45° angles, a protractor head that can
measure any angle between the head and the blade, and the center head that uses
one side of the blade as the bisector of a 90° angle. The center head is placed
against the circumference of the circle and a diameter is drawn along the edge of the
blade. The head is moved about a quarter of the way around the circle and another
diameter is drawn. The two diameters cross in the center of the circle.

82- (Refer to Figure 48.) What does the micrometer read?

A- .2974
*B- .3004
C- .3108
Expl- The thimble has been screwed out slightly more than 0.300 inch (the line by
the 3 is just barely visible). The thimble has rotated just a bit beyond the zero line on
the sleeve. The vernier line on the barrel for 4 is lined up with one of the marks on
the thimble, and this means that we add 0.0004 inch to the other numbers we have.
The total reading of this vernier micrometer is 0.300 + 0.0004 = 0.3004 inch.

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83- If it is necessary to accurately measure the diameter of a hole approximately 1/4

inch in diameter, the mechanic should use a
A- telescoping gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer
reading of the adjustable end of the telescoping gauge.
B- 0- to 1-inch inside micrometer and read the measurement directly from the
micrometer.
*C- small-hole gauge and determine the size of the hole by taking a micrometer
reading of the ball end of the gauge.
Expl- The diameter of a small hole is measured by placing a ball-type, small-hole
gauge in the hole and expanding it until its outside diameter is exactly the same size
as the inside diameter of the hole. Remove the small-hole gauge from the hole and
measure its outside diameter with a micrometer caliper.

84- (Refer to Figure 49.) The measurement reading on the micrometer is

A- .2758
B- .2702
*C- .2792
Expl- The thimble has moved out beyond two tenths of an inch (0.200 inch). It has
moved out to a point that is beyond the third twenty-five thousandths of an inch
mark. (0.075 inch.) The 4 mark on the thimble has just passed the scale on the
sleeve (0.075 + 0.004 inch = 0.079). The 2 line on the vernier scale lines up with a
number on the thimble. This adds 0.0002 inch. The total measurement is 0.2792
inch.

85- What tool is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension?

*A- Machinist scale.
B- Surface gauge.
C- Dial indicator.
Expl- Dividers are set with a machinist's scale. One of the points of the dividers is
placed at the one-inch mark on the scale. The other point is moved out until it
touches the mark for the distance you want between the points.

86- What tool is generally used to calibrate a micrometer or check its accuracy?
*A- Gauge block.
B- Dial indicator.
C- Machinist scale.
Expl- Micrometer calipers are checked for accuracy by using gauge blocks. A 0- to 1-
inch micrometer is checked with the thimble screwed down against the anvil. No
gauge block is used. A 1- to 2-inch micrometer uses a 1-inch gauge block. A 2- to 3-
inch micrometer uses a 2-inch gauge block.

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87- What precision measuring tool is used for measuring crankpin and main bearing
journals for out-of-round wear?
A- Dial gauge.
*B- Micrometer caliper.
C- Depth gauge.
Expl- A vernier micrometer caliper is used to measure a crankpin and a main bearing
journal for an out-of-round condition. Two measurements are made at right angles to
each other. The difference between the two readings is the amount the shaft is out-of
-round.

88- The side clearances of piston rings are measured with a

A- micrometer caliper gauge.
*B- thickness gauge.
C- dial gauge.
Expl- A thickness gauge is used to measure the side clearance of a piston ring in its
ring groove. The ring is installed in the groove and its outside edge is held flush with
the side of the piston. A thickness gauge is placed between the side of the piston
ring and the edge of the ring groove to measure the amount of clearance between
the ring and the groove.

89- How can the dimensional inspection of a bearing in a rocker arm be

accomplished?
A- Depth gauge and micrometer.
B- Thickness gauge and push-fit arbor.
*C- Telescopic gauge and micrometer.
Expl- A dimensional inspection of a bearing in a rocker arm can be made by
expanding a telescopic gauge inside the bushing (bearing) until its length is exactly
the same as the inside diameter of the bushing. Remove the gauge and measure it
with a vernier micrometer caliper. Measure the rocker arm shaft with the same
vernier micrometer caliper.
The difference between the diameter of the shaft and that of the hole is the fit of the
shaft in its bushing.

90- The twist of a connecting rod is checked by installing push-fit arbors in both
ends, supported by parallel steel bars on a surface plate. Measurements are taken
between the arbor and the parallel bar with a
A- dial gauge.
B- height gauge.
*C- thickness gauge.
Expl- Connecting rod twist is measured by fitting a feeler gauge (a thickness gauge)
between the ends of arbors and the parallel bars.

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91- What may be used to check the stem on a poppet-type valve for stretch?
A- Dial indicator.
*B- Micrometer.
C- Telescoping gauge.
Expl- The stem of a poppet valve is checked for stretch by using a vernier
micrometer caliper to measure the stem diameter in the center of the stem and at the
spring end. If the center diameter is less than the diameter at the spring end, the
valve stem has been stretched.

92- Which tool can be used to determine piston pin out-of-round wear?
A- Telescopic gauge.
*B- Micrometer caliper.
C- Dial indicator.
Expl- Piston pin out-of-round can be measured with a vernier micrometer caliper.
Measure each end of the pin in two directions at right angles to each other. The
difference in the two readings is the amount the pin is out-of-round.

93- What metal has special short-time heat properties and is used in the construction
of aircraft firewalls?
A- Stainless steel.
B- Chrome molybdenum alloy steel.
*C- Titanium alloy.
Expl- Titanium has some merit for short-time exposure up to 3,000 degrees F where
strength is not important. Aircraft firewalls demand this requirement.

94- Self-locking nuts may be used on aircraft provided that

A- the head of the bolt is safety wired.
B- they are installed with a lock washer.
*C- the bolt or nut is not subject to rotation.
Expl- Self-locking nuts are used on aircraft to provide tight connections which will not
shake loose under severe vibration. Do not use self-locking nuts at joints that subject
either the nut or bolt to rotation.

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