1.

The most common complications of a perianal abscess is

a. Anal fistula
b. Incontinence
c. Anal fissure
d. Hemorrhoids
e. Anal stricture
2. The surgical treatment for cushing’s disease includes:
a. Hyposphectomy
b. Unilateral adrenalectomy with partial nephrectomy
c. Unilateral adrenalectomy
d. Total adrenalectomy
e. Subtotal adrenalectomy
3. Successful take if full thickness or split skin graft depends on
a. Complete fixation
I b. Maintained immobilization
c. Steady but not excessive pressure
d. Clean, white fascia beneath the graft
Fee. Absence of blood clot beneath the graft
4. Skeletal changes in hyperparathyroidism include
a. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Single or multiocular bone cyst
d. Pathologic fractures
e. Osteoporosis
5. Postoperative complications in cancer patients include:
a. Infection
Ib. Wound dehiscence
c. Phlebitis
TA
d. Acute embolus
e. Hepatitis
6. Blood for transfusion should be stored at
a. -20 degree celcius
b. -4-0 degree celcius
c. 2 – 7 degree celcius
d. 10-14 degree celcius
e. 37 degree celcius
7. The common cause of postoperative fever in the first 48 hours is
a. Pneumonia
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Deep vein thrombosis
d. Wound infection due to beta-hemolytic streptococcus
e. Atelectasis
8. In severe hypovolemic shock the proportion of blood flow is decreased to
a. Kidneys
b. Liver
c. Heart
d. Skin

T e. Intestine

9. Infection caused by bacteroides fragilla responds better to which antimicrobial:

a. Gentamycin
b. Chloramphenicole
c. Erythromycin
d. Co-trimoxazole
e. Metronidazole
10. Which of the following in a burn patient requires urgent surgical measures
a. Deep dermal burn
b. Respiratory burn
c. Circumferential burn of the forearm
d. Charred hand
e. Superficial burn of the eye
11. Split thickness graft will take well in the following :
a. Periosteum
b. Perichondrium
c. Fascia
d. Bare cartilage
e. Muscle
12. Typical deformity in a case of unimpacted fracture of the neck of femur is:
a. Shortening of external rotation
b. External rotation only
c. Flexion, adduction and internal rotation
d. Flexion, adduction and external rotation
e. Extension, adduction and external rotation
13. Metastasis to regional lymph nodes is most seen in
a. Follicular CA of thyroid
b. Medullary Ca of thyroid
c. Papillary Ca of thyroid
d. Anaplastic ca of thyroid
e. Malignant lymphoma
14. The most reliable tool for the diagnosis of carcinoma od thyroid nodule preoperatively is
a. FNAC (Fine needle aspiration cytology)
b. USS
c. Isotope scanning
d. X-ray of the thoracic inlet
 e. T3 resin uptake
15. Charcoat’s triad may not include the following
a. Biliary stones
b. Jaundice
c. Right upper quadrant pain
d. Chills and high grade fever
e. Diverticulosis
16. In peritoneal abscesses occur least commonly
a. Pelvis
b. Right subphrenic spine
c. Left subphrenic spine
d. Lesser sac
e. Right puracolic gutter
17. Following splenectomy for trauma all of the following may be seen:
a. Leukocytosis and thrombocytosis
b. Left lower lobe atelectasis
c. Increased incidence of pulmonary embolism
d. Subphrenic abscess
e. Postoperative hemorrhage
18. Factors that produce acute pancreatitis include:
a. Alcohol
b. Primary hyperparathyroidism
c. Gall stones
d. Hemochromatosis
e. Eating red meat
19. All the following are true about blood stained discharge from the nipple:
a. Is associated with malignancy in 10-30% of the cases
b. Maybe due to duct papilloma or carcinoma
c. May be due to multiple lesion
d. Is treated by total mastectomy
e. Microdochetomy is useful except in cases of carcinoma
20. Which of the following pathologies is most often found in Cushing’s syndrome
a. Basophilic pituitary adenoma
b. Bilateral hyperplasia of adrenals
c. Adrenal adenoma
d. Acidophilic pituitary adenoma
e. Insulinoma
21. Comparing Crohn’s disease with ulcerative colitis:
a. Ulcerative colitis usually shows transmural involvement
b. Perianal fistulas are common with ulcerative colitis
c. Cancer is commonly seen in crohn’s disease
d. Toxic megacolon is frequently seen in the ulcerative colitis
 e. Total colectomy is done for Crohn’s disease
22. Which of the following colonic conditions is often associated with malignant potential?
a. Tubulovillous adenoma
b. Familial polyposis
c. Pseudopolposis
d. Gardener’s syndrome
e. Crohn’s disease
23. In paralytic ileus
a. Classically there is severe crampy abdominal pain
b. There is normal or increased bowel sounds
c. There is gas in the small intestine and colon
d. Can be resolved by giving enema
e. NGT suction makes it worse
24. Appendicitis
a. Can be caused by obstruction of the lumen
b. The initial periumbilical pain is because of irritation of parietal perineum
c. The complications in old age are higher
d. Pelvic appendix is the commonest
e. Retroceacal appendix may present with unusual physical findings
25. In gastric carcinoma
a. Achlorhydria and atrophic gastritis are predisposing factors
b. It is suspected with dyspepsia of old age
c. Signet cells are seen in leather bottle type
d. Patients with linitis plastic have good prognosis
e. Radiotherapy is useful for palliation only
26. In gastric ulcer
a. Most patients have normal or low acid output
b. The chances of malignancy may increase with achlorhydria
c. Suspect Zollinger Ellison syndrome if there are more than one
d. Cimetidine is useless
e. The ulcers are usually found on the greater curve
27. Regarding the airway of unconscious patient which of the following statements are correct?
a. It is not protected from aspiration of vomit in semiprone position
b. It is especially not at risk in injuries of the face and neck
c. It can be effectively protected from vomit by an oropharyngeal tube
d. It can be effectively be protected from aspiration of vomit by an endotracheal tube
e. Patient with tracheostomy cannot aspirate
28. Focal neurological deficits are mostly due to:
a. Linear skull fracture
b. Comminuted skull fracture
c. Depressed skull fracture
d. No fracture evidence
 e. All of the above
29. The commonest brain tumor is
a. Meningioma
b. Glioma
c. Pituitary
d. Posterior fossa tumor
e. Secondaries for lung tumor
30. Venous leg ulcers are treated by the following:
a. Elevation of the leg
b. Compression of veins by bandaging
c. Skin grafting
d. Correction of underlying varicosities
e. Venous bypass
31. Match each condition in list A with the appropriate condition in list B

A B
Paeu d’orange a. Gout
Tophi b. Cirrhosis of the liver
Spider naevi c. Neurofibromatosis
Café-au-lait patch d. Cancer of the skin
Hyperkeratosis e. Cancer of the breast
32. A tuberculous ulcer characteristically has
a. Undermined edges
b. Pale watery granulations
c. Surrounding induration
d. A discharge of yellow granules
e. Insensitivity to stimulation
33. Signs of brain conning or herniation are:
a. High blood pressure bradycardia and periodic respirations
b. Deterioration in level of consciousness
c. Restlessness with reduced level of consciousness
d. Low blood pressure and high pulse rate
e. Cerebrospinal fluid leaking through the ears
34. Glasgow coma scale assesses
a. Eye, motor and verbal response of a neurological patient
b. Intracranial hemorrhage
c. Intracranial hypertension
d. Focal brain injury
e. Motor paralysis of lower limb
35. An absolute ureteral calculus lying above the level of pelvic brim is best treated by
a. Lithotomy
b. Lithotripsy
c. Acid ash diet
 d. Ureteral basket
e. Instillation of solution G
36. Pheochromocytoma is best diagnosed by:
a. Methyepinephrine or VMA in urine
b. Provocative test with histamine
c. Phentolamine test
d. X-ray with retroperitoneal gas insufflation
e. Intravenous pyelogram
37. The following statements regarding a patient with lung abscess is
a. The abscess is more commonly located on the left
b. The appropriate initial antibiotic is gentamycin
c. An upper lobe abscess usually shows a more rapid clinical response than a lower abscess
d. The commonest sites are the superior and posterior segments of right lung
e. Drainage by underwater seal drain is essential
38. Which of the following statements are correct concerning esophageal diverticula is true?
a. They are usually asymptomatic
b. They are usually due to mediastinal inflammatory disease
c. Predisposes to malignancy
d. They cause vomiting usually
39. A flail chest is an injured patient
a. Demands that frequent blood gas analysis is undertaken
b. Does not usually require mechanical ventilation
c. Should be treated by skeletal fixation
d. Is infrequently complicated by myocardial or pulmonary contusion
e. Pneumothorax may complicate
40. A patient has pure mitral incompetence without congestive failure. Which of the following
features would be found on examination?
a. A systolic murmur at the apex
b. Accentuated first heart sounds
c. Congested and plethoric lung fields
d. Left ventricular hypertrophy on ECG
e. Hepatomegaly
41. The following are problems caused by cleft palate?
a. Speech
b. Feeding
c. Hearing
d. Recurrent upper airways infection
e. Recurrent vomiting
42. Acute infection of the frontal sinus may cause :
a. Spreading osteomyelitis of the skull
b. Meningitis
c. Orbital cellulitis
 d. Frontal lobe abscess
e. Subdural abscess
43. Match the syndrome with the correct syndrome

Syndrome Symptom
Paterson-Kelly a. Auralgia, deafness,
tinnitus and dysfunction
of the tempero-
mandibular joint
Treacher collin’s b. Noched lower eyelids,
dyplasia of the malar
bone and malformation
of the external and
middle ears
Menier’s c. Perceptice deafness,
tinnitus and vertigo
Costen’s d. Middle ear infection,
paralysis holoateral sixth
nerve and retro-orbital
pain
Gradonigo’s e. Iron deficiency anaemia,
smooth tongue, angular
stomatitis and dysphagia
44. Undescended testes are:
a. Commoner in prematures
b. Most commonly located in the abdomen
c. Best left untreated till the age of 9 years
d. Treated hormonally if bilateral
e. Are best left alone
45. Regarding hypospadias
a. In most cases the external meatus is distal
b. Circumcision should be performed before definitive surgery
c. Chordee cause curving of the penile shaft
d. The most common postoperative complication is fistula formation
e. The operation should be done after 21 years
46. Which of the following signs are typical of fracture of the malar complex of the face?
a. Periorbital hematoma
b. Infraorbital anesthesia
c. Partial facial nerve palsy
d. Trismus
e. Diplopia
47. Collapse of the cartilaginous nasal septum may be due to:
a. Syphilis
b. Trauma
 c. Septal abscess
d. Ethmoidal sinusitis
e. Rhinophyma
48. Early malignant tumors of the vocal cords:
a. Frequently present with neck gland metastasis
b. Are usually adenocarcinomas
c. Present with sever stridor
d. May present with a hoarse voice
e. Are effectively treated by cobalt therapy
49. Malignant teratoma of testis is best treated by
a. Radical surgery
b. Surgery, chemotherapy and radiotherapy
c. Chemotherapy alone
d. Surgery and chemotherapy
e. Radiotherapy alone
50. In rectal tuberculosis the kidney may be involved commonly
a. As part of generalized military spread
b. As a focal lesion representing hematogenous spread from distant site
c. There is always evidence of original focus at the active renal disease
d. Possibility if ascending infection from the lower urinary tract is well established
e. Hematuria is common