SPECIALIZATION A. an interrogative C.

a reflexive
B. an intensive D. a reciprocal
ENGLISH
A REVIEWER FOR LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS 9. Which of the following sentences does NOT observe
correct subject-verb agreement?
STRUCTURE A. The mayor as well as his brothers is going to prison.
B. Neither of the two traffic lights is working.
1. The underlined verbs in the following sentences are C. My assets were wiped out in the depression.
classified as _____. D. Neither the plates nor the serving bowl go on that
The time is now.
shelf.
The world became flesh.
We remain silent.
10. The underlined word in this sentence functions as
A. intransitive C. transitive _____.
B. reflexive D. ascriptive “We elected him chairman.”
A. direct object
2. The word “just” in the sentence below indicates ___. B. indirect object
“She has just eaten.” C. objective complement
A. an action that was true in the past and is still D. predicate nominative
relevant to the present
B. a recently completed action 11. Why do most fathers prefer a son ___ a daughter
C. an action which was completed before another past for his first-born child?
action A. to C. from
D. an action continuing at a given point in time B. than D. over

3. What type of mood is indicated in this sentence? 12. Which sentence has error in punctuation?
“How did you come to know about that tragic event?” A. “You’re a great friend,” Jose said.
A. indicative C. imperative B. Judith, my best friend went to a concert last Friday.
B. subjunctive D. directive C. I have a lot of work to do; as such, I left for work a
few minutes early.
4. Which of the following is a gradable adjective? D. According to the radio, surface streets were the best
A. absolute C. complete alternative to the congested freeways.
B. clear D. impossible
13. Unprepared for such a strong rebuttal, _____.
A. the lawyer’s attempt won the case
5. Which sentence has ditransitive verb?
B. the lawyer’s attempt failed but still win the case
A. Those guys are highly intelligent group of engineers.
C. the lawyer failed to win the case
B. Those mean boys tried to throw a rock through our
D. the lawyer failed in his attempt to win the case
windows.
C. Nobody will believe a ruffian like you.
14. ______ on the MTRCB to take action.
D. My mother gave me this cardigan for Christmas.
A. Whenever television is denounced by viewers for its
violence, they call
6. Which approach to language teaching is based on B. Whenever television is denounced for it violence,
the behaviorist’s belief that language is the acquisition viewers call
of a set of correct language habits and whose goal is to C. Whenever viewers denounce television for its
use the target language communicatively, overlearn it, violence, they call
so as to be able to use it automatically. D. Whenever a denunciation of television is voiced,
A. Direct Method they call
B. Communicative Approach
C. Suggestopedia 15. The following are true about Communicative
D. Audio-Lingual Method Competence Language Teaching EXCEPT:
A. Language is seen as a social tool that speakers use
7. The following contain operator verbs EXCEPT: to make meaning.
A. My father approves your marriage proposal. B. Diversity is recognized and accepted as part of
B. Will your father approve my marriage proposal? language development.
C. My father won’t approve your marriage proposal. C. A fixed set of techniques and methodology is
D. Your father will approve my marriage proposal, prescribed.
won’t he? D. More than one variety of a language is recognized
as a viable model for learning and teaching.
8. The President himself promised to stop the war. The
underlined word is ______ pronoun.
16. Which of the following statements about sentence
structure is NOT correct? 23. Which of the following types of words does NOT fit
A. Two words that belong to the same category can into the category of determiners?
substitute each other in a sentence. A. articles C. prepositions
B. There are restrictions on how the words can B. possessives D. demonstratives
combine to form grammatical phrases.
C. Lexical categories can expand into bigger strings of 24. The following used “off” as adverb EXCEPT:
words called “phrasal categories.” A. march off C. shut off the engine
D. The distribution of a word in a sentence structure B. dozed off D. two miles off shore
determines its function.
25. What preposition is NOT properly used in the
17. If I ____ that learning Russian was going to be so following sentences?
difficult, I _____ that course. A. I will wait in the car.
A. had known / would never take B. The man in the boat is a fugitive.
B. knew / would never take C. Few guys in the train are rowdy.
C. had known / would never have taken D. I slept 8 hours on the ship.
D. knew / would never have taken
LINGUISTICS
18. By the end of the course the students _________
the most important grammar structures. 1. Which of the following sentences is “syntactically
A. have mastered C. have been mastering ambiguous”?
B. will have mastered D. are mastering A. Call him by his nickname.
B. Give him a good treat.
19. Which adjective is predicative in this sentence “The C. Give them the accommodation they want.
crispy green mangoes as a souvenir gift by my favorite D. Call me a cab.
cousin really look delicious”?
A. green C. favorite 2. They view the language as a system of related
B. crispy D. delicious elements or “building blocks” for the encoding of
meaning, the elements being phonemes (sounds),
20. The conjuncts in this sentence are _____. morphemes (words), tagmemes (phrases, sentences,
“Binoy is a man who does not have money but clauses).
who wants to travel the world.” A. structuralists
A. sentences C. relative pronouns B. transformationalists
B. relative clauses D. independent clauses C. functionalists
D. interactionalists
21. Which of the following sentences is prescriptively
correct because it is easy to handle? 3. Which of the following sounds are produced by
A. Every student submitted his or her research paper bringing the articulators near each other such that the
on time. flow of air is impeded but not completely blocked. The
B. Everyone submitted their projects on time. air flow through the narrow opening creates friction.
C. Every student submitted his/her research paper on A. p,b,t,d,k,g
time. B. f,v,Ɵ,ð,s,z,š,ẑ,h
D. All the students submitted their projects on time. C. m,n,ŋ
D. l,r
22. Grammar may be taught in two main ways – by
experience with discourse that entails the varieties of 4. Which is the study of larger linguistic units, such as
word forms and sentence construction, or by analyzing conversational exchanges or written texts?
dummy sentences and diagramming parts. Plentiful B. Stylistics
discursive experience is what really teaches grammar, C. Genre Analysis
for it exercises judgment and provides language intake, D. Discourse Analysis
whereas formal grammar study has been proved E. Pragmatics
irrelevant. Politics more than pedagogy retards the
changing of the curriculum to fit this truth. 5. Which of the following is an example derivational
A. using language in a wide variety of situations morpheme?
improves grammar A. helpful
B. good judgment can be improved by studying the B. stays
rules of formal grammar C. eaten
C. analyzing and diagramming provide exercise in D. longest
logical thinking
D. formal study of grammar improves writing ability
6. What is made use in this example “I told Paul to D. maximizes the use of his first language and the
close the door and he did so”? target language
A. homonymy
B. anaphora 13. The following are the areas of knowledge and skills
C. deixis of communicative competence EXCEPT _____
D. hyponymy A. grammatical competence
B. sociolinguistic competence
7. What category of illocutionary act is demonstrated in C. discourse competence
the following example? D. structural competence
“Recession will worsen in Europe in the next five
years.” 14. Speaker A’s final remark functions as _____.
A. representative Speaker A: That’s the telephone.
B. commissive Speaker B: I’m in the bath.
C. directive Speaker A: OK.
D. expressive
A. a request to answer the phone
8. What conversation maxim seems to have been B. an excuse for not complying
violated in the following example? C. acceptance of an excuse
A: How was the LET? D. sarcasm
B: Well, the proctor is my former college professor.
A. maxim of quantity 15. What is strategy is used by the second language
B. maxim of quality learner in the following situation”
C. maxim of relation “The student forgot the English term “train station”. He
D. maxim of manner used the phrase “the place for trains” instead.
A. inference
9. This type of language is used to describe the kind of B. paraphrase
language a learner uses at a given time, that is, his C. generalization
version of a given language, which deviates in certain D. adaptation
ways from the language of a mature speaker.
A. dialect 16. Which theory of language origin claims that a
B. native language number of words in any language are onomatopoeic?
C. holophrastic speech A. Divine Source Theory
D. interlanguage B. Natural-Sound Source Theory
C. Oral-Gesture Source Theory
10. According to cognitivists, errors in second language D. Glossogenetics Theory
learning is considered _____.
A. basis for testing 17. Which of the following best describes a “phrase”?
B. part of learning process A. a sequence of words that does not express a
C. as proofs of unsystematic way of learning complete thought
D. not part of natural progression in acquisition of B. a sequence of words that can function as a
English sentence constituent
C. a sequence of words that contains only a subject
11. What aptly describes “universal grammar”? and no predicate
A. language used for communication by people who D. a sequence of words that contains only a predicate
speak different first languages and no subject
B. rules applicable to all human languages
C. language with the same vocabulary, grammar, and 18. The following can function as “intensive verbs”
pronunciation EXCEPT:
D. rules of grammar that distinguish one language from A. seem
the others B. become
C. remain
12. If the second language learner “assimilates”, then D. make
he _____.
A. maintains its own life style and values and rejects 19. Which of the following is the most accurate
those of the target language group statement about the language acquisition process of
B. adapts to the life style and values of the target young children?
language group but maintains its own life style and A. Young children understand full sentences at a
values for the intragroup use. relatively late stage in language development.
C. gives up his own life style and values and adopts B. Young children exhibit random, highly variable
those of the target language group errors in sentence construction.
C. Young children infer the underlying rules of D. How is she coping with the difficult situation?
language to which they are exposed.
D. Young children require planned early instructional ESP
intervention to master the grammar of the English
language. 1. Which of the following words qualifies as slang?
A. spyware
20. Which of the following pair of words demonstrate B. scrub suit
that different letter combinations can represent the C. phat
same speech sound? D. chat
A. church…chorus
B. bow…bow 2. Which of the following linguists introduced the term
C. hot…cold “register” in 1956?
D. phone…laugh A. Thomas Bertram Reid
B. M.A.K. Halliday
21. How many phonemes are in the word “shed”? C. Henry Widdowson
A. one D. Robert lado
B. two
C. three 3. Which of the following is a jargon of academe?
D. four A. pedagogy
B. leveraging
22. An ESL teacher is designing a listening lesson for C. bureaucracy
sixth-grade intermediate-level English language D. deficit
learners. Which of the following guidelines should the
teacher follow in order to align the lesson with the 4. Which is an example of course for English for
comprehensible input hypothesis? Occupational Purposes (EOP)?
A. Use a familiar aural selection appropriate for A. English for Medical Studies
beginning-level students. B. English for Research Writing
B. Choose an aural selection that is slightly above the C. English for Social Advocacy
students' comprehension level. D. English for Technicians
C. Provide a difficult aural selection along with a written
script to which students can refer. 5. Who defined ESP by identifying its absolute and
D. Locate an aural selection that comes with a written variable characteristics?
translation in the students' primary language. A. Tony Dudley-Evans
B. Tom Hutchinson
23. Which of the following is true about semantics? C. Peter Strevens
A. Semantics will sharpen the effect and meaning of a D. David Nunan
text
B. Semantics refers to the meaning expressed when 6. What is an “argot”?
words are arranged in a specific way A. an inferior dialect resulting from corrupting a
C. Semantics is a vocabulary instruction technique particular language
D. Semantics is representing spoken language through B. an euphemistic expression used by a particular
the use of symbols group of individuals
C. an informal specialized vocabulary related to a
24. Which generalization in the area of phonology can hobby, job, sport, etc.
be drawn from the following linguistic data: table, D. an invented language resulting from geographical
attack, can, paper, space, and accordion? isolation
A. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it begins a syllable of
a stressed vowel. 7. What type of ESP syllabus is appropriate for a
B. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it follows a stressed course in writing business letters or a course in
vowel. presenting business reports?
C. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it is in between a A. content-based syllabus
consonant and a tense vowel. B. skill-based syllabus
D. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it is in between a C. method-based syllabus
stressed vowel and a voiced consonant. D. language skill-based syllabus

25. Lexical ambiguity is best exemplified by which of 8. The following stages are necessary in course
the following sentences? designing in ESP EXCEPT:
A. Is the bank okay? A. needs assessment
B. Where did he place my knapsack? B. determining goals and objective
C. What is the commotion about? C. content conceptualization
 D. role and task specification D. Both A and B

9. What type of syllabus would be the most appropriate 5. What does the author want to portray in this stanza?
for Chinese nationals who came to the Philippines to
enhance their Basic Interpersonal Communications Do not go gentle into that good night,
Skills in English? Old age should burn and rave at close of day;
A. skills-based syllabus Rage, rage against the dying of the light.
B. method-based syllabus -Do Not Go Gentle into That Good Night, Dylan Thomas

C. content-based syllabus
D. knowledge-based syllabus A. Don’t be afraid of the dark.
B. Old people could hardly sleep at night.
10. This type of scoring in ESP tests aims to evaluate C. Defy death.
the students’ overall performance. D. The aged are wiser than the young.
A. analytic scoring
B. discreet-point scoring 6. In discussing the various aspects of studies, Francis
C. holistic scoring Bacon employs what is known as the “balanced style.”
D. objective scoring In this given argument, the word crafty likely pertains to
_____.
ENGLISH LITERATURE “Crafty men condemn studies; simple men
admire them, and wise men use them; for they teach
not their own use, but that is wisdom without them and
1. What is the rhyme scheme or sound pattern of these
above them, won by observation.”
poetic lines?
A. wicked people who corrupted the minds of the
young
How do I love thee? Let me count the ways.
B. people who prefer practical knowledge and skills
I love thee to the depth and breadth and height.
-Sonnets from the Portuguese (Sonnet 43), Elizabeth Browning C. the mini-sectors or the scholars of the society
D. the philosophers who study ideas about truth and
A. anapestic hexameter meaning of life
B. iambic pentameter
C. trochaic pentameter 7. The following are writers and poets who wrote about
D. spondaic tetrameter queen Elizabeth or dedicated their works to her
EXCEPT:
2. Analyzing the lines of the sonnet, “thee” refers to __. A. Henry Fielding
A. the Little Portuguese B. Alexander Pope
B. Elizabeth’s dead brother C. Both A and B
C. Elizabeth’s husband-to-be D. Neither A nor B
D. the sonneteer’s mother
8. He created the character of Scrooge in “A Christmas
3. The repetition of the poetic unit “I love the” at the Carol” as a way of raising the issue of whether wealth
beginning of the lines is an evidence of _____. really brought true happiness.
A. George Eliot
I love thee to the depth and breadth and height. 2 B. Charles Dickens
I love the to the level of everyday’s 5 C. Lewis Carroll
I love thee freely, as men strive for right; 7 D. Thomas Hardy
I love thee purely, as they turn from praise. 8
I love thee with a passion put to use 9 9. The following are writers of the Romantic Period
I love thee with a love I seemed to lose. 11 EXCEPT _____.
-Sonnets from the Portuguese (Sonnet 43), Elizabeth Browning A. Charlotte Bronte
B. William Wordsworth
A. the use of anaphora C. Samuel Taylor Coleridge
B. the use of anastrophe D. William Blake
C. the repetition of phrases
D. the omission of rhythmic pattern 10.The word “renaissance” is ______.
A. French for rebirth
4. Which of this portrays a development of love and B. Latin for new idea
relationship between the poet or poetess and his or her C. German for freedom
partner? D. Old English for revival
A. Wordsworth’s She Was a Phantom of Delight
B. Browning’s Sonnets from a Portuguese 11. How much did William Shakespeare write?
C. Jane Austen’s Pride and Prejudice A. 1 play, 38 sonnets, and 154 epic narrative poems
B. 54 plays, 5 sonnets, and 38 epic narrative plays
C. 54 plays, 38 sonnets, and 5 epic narrative poems 19. She was a Victorian era writer who wrote the novel
D. 38 plays, 154 sonnets, and 2 epic narrative poems “Aurora Leigh” which criticized society’s treatment of
women.
12. Which of these phrases appears on William A. Emily Bronte
Shakespeare’s gravestone? B. Charlotte Bronte
A. May the great author rest in peace. C. Elizabeth Browning
B. He wrote so much that man will take years to D. Doris Lessing
understand everything.
C. He arrived on this earth with nothing. When he died, 20. Mary Ann Evans whose pen name was George
he left everything to us. Eliot wrote her famous work which deals with the
D. Curst be he that moves my stones. predicament of the intelligent, idealistic woman
struggling to find meaningful expression in a
13. In Shakespeare’s historical narratives, which king community where the options are claustrophobically
of England has been portrayed as a hunchbacked traditional.
monster of unparalleled villainy? A. Murder on the Orient
A. Edward VI B. Sense and Sensibility
B, Henry VI C. Frankenstein
C. Edward V D. Middlemarch
D. Richard III
21. From what essay of Francis Bacon is this line
14. All of the following novels were written in the 19th taken?
century EXCEPT _______. “If a man will begin with certainties, he shall
A. Pride and Prejudice end in doubts; but if he will be content to begin with
B. Hard Times doubts, he shall end in certainties.”
C. Gulliver’s Travels A. Of Studies
D. Lorna Doone B. Of marriage and single Life
C. Of Marriage and Single Life
15. Who is responsible for the now immortal line D. Advancement of Learning
“Beauty is truth, truth beauty – that is all / Ye know on
earth, and all ye need to know”? 22. He is a novelist and essayist noted for his
A. John Keats “Midnight’s Children” and “The Satanic Verses” which
B. Lord Byron prompted Iran’s Ayatollah Khomeini to issue a fatwa
C. William Shakespeare against him, because Muslims considered the book
D. William Wordsworth blasphemous.
A. Thomas Paine
16. He was the champion of the “art for art’s sake” B. William Bradford
philosophy, which means, roughly, that the aesthetic (or C. Washington Irving
beauty) operates independently of any other D. H.G. Wells
consideration.
A. Robert Louis 23. The following writers wrote romance and adventure
B. Oscar Wilde stories EXCEPT _____.
C. Robert Browning A. Robert Louis Stevenson
D. Charles Dickens B. Rudyard Kipling
C. Lewis Carroll
17. It is one-verse poem composed by Alfred Tennyson D. George Bernard Shaw
which consists of forty-nine lines and illustrates the
fluidity of life. It also speaks about how change is
constant, and therefore life is filled with small deaths She never told her,
until the whole of life completely dies. But let concealment, like a worm I’th’ bud,
A. All Things Will Die Feed on her damask cheek. She pined in thought,
B. Nothing Will Die And with a green and yellow melancholy
C. The Unknown Citizen She sat like patience on a monument,
D. The Builders Smiling at grief. Was not this love indeed?

18. The “Illustrious Theater of Paris” _____. 24. The passage was written by _____.
A. presented pantomimes and pastiches A. Christopher Marlowe
B. was founded by Moliere B. William Shakespeare
C. featured elaborate sets and costumes C. Ben Johnson
D. emphasized the classics and Shakespeare D. John Webster
 Is shining in the sky.
25. Who wrote this line “Where ignorance is bliss, it is
folly to be wise”? She lived unknown, and few could know
a. Robert Browning When Lucy ceased to be;
But she is in her grave, and oh,
b. William Shakespeare The difference to me!
c. Rudyard Kipling
d. Edgar Allan Poe 32. The use of the imagination is evident in the poem
through the employment simply of _____.
26. What nationality was Robert Louis Stevenson, A. synecdoche and metonymy
writer of “Treasure Island”? B. personification and hyperbole
A. English C. allusion and litotes
B. Welsh D. simile and metaphor
C. Irish
D. Scottish 33. Which stanza implies that Lucy is an interesting
woman?
27. Which Bronte writer authored “Jane Eyre”? A. 1
A. Charlotte B. 2
B. Emily C. 3
C. Cristina
D. Anne 34. In the context of the poem, the emphasis is on ___.
A. curfew
28. In which century were Geoffrey B. fear
Chaucer’s Canterbury Tales written? C. work
A. 14th D. loneliness
B. 15th
C. 16th The curfew tolls the knell of parting day,
D. 17th The lowing herd wind slowly o’er the lea,
The plowman homeward plods his weary way,
29. What literary piece which opens with the line ‘All And leaves the world to darkness and to me.
children, except one grew up’? -Thomas Gray’s Elegy written In A Country Churchyard
A. The Jungle Book
B. Tom Sawyer 35. The narrator of this passage is _____.
C. Peter Pan A. Victor
D. The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn C. the monster
B. Elizabeth
30. Who was the author of the famous storybook D. the author
‘Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland’?
A. H.G. Wells But how was I direct myself? I knew that I must
B. Lewis Carroll travel in a southwesterly direction to reach my destination,
C. Mark Twain but the sun was only guide. I did not know the names of the
D. E.B. White towns that I was to pass through, nor could I ask information
from a single human being; but I did not despair. From you
only could I hope for succor, although towards you I felt no
31. What work contains these lines: “There hurls in at sentiment but that of hatred. Unfeeling, heartless creator! You
the hall-door an unknown rider . . . Half a giant on earth had endowed me with perceptions and passions and then
I hold him to be.” cast me abroad an object for the scorn and horror of
A. Sir Gawain and the Green Knight mankind. But on you only had I any claim for pity and
B. Morte D’arthur redress, and from you I determined to seek that justice which
C. Piers Plowman I vainly attempted to gain from any other being that wore the
D. Canterbury Tales human form. -Frankenstein, Mary Shelley

She Dwelt Among the Untrodden Ways 36. “A part of its orb was at length hid, and I waved my
William Wordsworth brand; it sank, and with a loud scream I fired the straw,
and heath, and bushes, which I had collected.”
She dwelt among the untrodden ways -Frankenstein by Mary Shelley
Beside the springs of Dove, Which of the following is a correct restatement of the
A maid whom there were none to praise above?
And very few to love:
A. When my branding iron sank, I screamed and shot
A violet by a mossy stone at the bushes.
Half hidden from the eye! B. When the moon set, I screamed and burned the
Fair as a star, when only one cottage.
C. When I could not find the orb, I screamed and the author’s own impressions of the barbarous colonial
kicked at the straw and the bushes. frontier?
D. I waited until the sun set, then I screamed and set A. Philip Freneau’s “On Mr. Paine’s Rights of Man”
fire to the forest. B. Henry Wadsworth Longfellow’s “Blind Bartimeus”
C. Ebenezer Cooke’s “The Sot-Weed Factor”
AMERICAN LITERATURE D. William Cullen Bryant’s “Thanatopsis”

1. Some critics say that Arthur Miller’s Death of a Ebenezer Cooke’s “The Sot-Weed Factor”
Salesman challenges the traditional definition of describes the outlandish food and eating habits, the
tragedy because _____. excessive drinking and fighting, and the admixture of
A. it ends in tragic death of the protagonist law with violence, as well as the intellectual poverty
B. its protagonist is human, not superhuman and lack of education, that characterized this time.
C. the struggle is against human, not superhuman
antagonists 8. Which of the following is NOT a character in Mark
D. it is a modern play Twain’s “Adventures of Huckleberry Finn”?
A. Widow Douglas
2. Widely acclaimed as the father of free verse, he B. Pap
disturbed many literary critics with his “frankness of C. Tom Canty
expression.” D. Jim
A. Washington Irving
B. James Cooper 9. “We paused before a house that seemed A swelling
C. Walt Whitman of the ground; The roof was scarcely visible, The
D. John Milton cornice but a mound.”
In the above passage from Emily Dickinson’s
3. In his Inaugural Address, how does John F. Kennedy “Because I Could Not Stop for Death,” the word
set the tone of his speech? “house” in the first line depicts which of the following?
A. by gloating in his victory over Nixon A. The house the speaker grew up in
B. by opening with comments on renewal and change B. A church
C. by humorous remarks about the weather C. A school that burned down
D. by threatening a show of force if attacked D. The speaker’s tomb

4. In the same speech, what expression does he use 10. “The Philosophy of Composition” was Edgar Allan
with respect to dealing with the Soviet Union? Poe’s follow-up essay detailing the creation of which of
A. “let both sides…” his works?
B. “the evil empire…” A. “Annabel Lee”
C. “ask not what we can do...” B. “The Raven”
D. “the sleeping giant…” C. “The Fall of the House of Usher”
D. “To Helen”
5. How does John F. Kennedy end his Inaugural
Address? 11. The famous line “The mass of men leads lives of
A. by threatening a show of force if attacked quiet desperation” was written by _____.
B. with a call to work together for freedom A. Ralph Waldo Emerson
C. by saluting the flag B. Nathaniel Hawthorne
D. by leaving a message of thanks for the electoral C. Henry David Thoreau
support D. Henry Wadsworth Longfellow

12. The novel “Catch 22” by Joseph Heller examines

6. Which of the following works provides a Loyalist _____.
interpretation of the Revolution? A. ironic nature of the people’s attitude
A. Increase Mather’s “Case of Conscience” B. insanity of war itself
B. Thomas Jefferson’s “A Summary View of the Rights C. people’s hostilities
of British America” D. women’s plight
C. Patrick Henry’s “Give Me Liberty or Give Me Death”
D. Joseph Galloway’s “Historical and Political 13. F. Scott Fitzgerald explored the consequences of
Reflections on the Rise and Progress of the trying to live the American dream, and questioned
American Rebellion” society’s definition of success and progress in his novel
_____.
7. Which of the following poems is one of the earliest A. The Great Gatsby
examples of debunking and disillusionment, reflecting B. The Grapes of Wrath
C. Watching God
 D. The Portrait of a Lady D. Invisible Man

Ships at a distance have every man’s wish on I saw the best minds of my generation
board. For some they come in with the tide. For others, destroyed by madness, starving hysterical naked,
they sail forever on the horizon, never out of sight, dragging themselves through the negro streets at dawn
never landing until the Watcher turns his eyes away in looking for an angry fix, angel-headed hipsters burning
resignation, his dreams mocked to death by Time. That for the ancient heavenly connection to the starry
is the life of men. dynamo in the machinery of night.
Now, women forget all those things they don’t
want to remember, and remember everything they 19. The lines above are from a poem by _____.
don’t want to forget. The dream is the truth. Then they A. Theodore Roethke
act and do things accordingly. B. Gwendolyn Brooks
C. Anne Sexton
14. In the passage above from Zora Neale Hurston’s D. Allen Ginsberg
Their Eyes Were Watching God, the narrator implies
that men and women are different because of their 20. Two versions of Robert A. Heinlein’s novel
_____. “Stranger in a Strange Land” have been published: the
A. interest in pleasing others edited version first published in 1961 and the original
B. acceptance of social expectations full-length (60,000 words longer) published
C. ability to work together to attain their dreams posthumously in 1991. From what does the title derive?
D. readiness to influence the course of their dreams A. The play “Antony and Cleopatra” by William
Shakespeare
15. Which novel, eventually published in 1945, was B. The Old Testament Book of Exodus
rejected by a New York publisher stating ‘it is C. The novel “Gulliver’s Travels” by Jonathan Swift
impossible to sell animal stories in the USA’? D. The book “Utopia” by Sir Thomas More
A. Animal Farm
B. Black Beauty MYHTOLOGY
C. Watership Down
D. The Tale of Peter Rabbit 1. This is the attribution of a human form, human
characteristics, or human behavior to nonhuman
16. ‘The Good Earth’ was rejected fourteen times, things, e.g. deities in mythology and animals in
before being published and going on to win the Pulitzer children’s stories.
Prize. Who was the author? A. Anthropomorphism
A. Pearl S. Buck B. Ethereal
B. John Steinbeck C. God-like
C. Edith Wharton D. Anthropocentrism
D. Henry Miller
2. In Greek mythology, she was the most beautiful
17. Who is alluded to as Captain in the following lines woman in the world. A daughter of the god Zeus, she is
from Whitman’s poem? best known for the part she played in causing the
O captain! My captain! Our fearful trip is done, Trojan War.
The ship has weather’d every rack, the prize we sought A. Penelope, queen of Ithaca
is won. B. Persephone, queen of the underworld
C. Helen of Troy
A. Abraham Lincoln D. Hera, queen of Olympus
B. George Washington
C. John F. Kennedy 3. When Paris abducted Helen to Troy, all the Greek
D. Thomas Jefferson princes were bound by the oath to help Menelaus
recover Helen. Athena and Hera who were not chosen
The action of _____ appears to stop short of by Paris sided with the Greeks who sent one thousand
World War II, but the narrator’s meditation in his ships to Troy. What does this indicate?
underground cellar must be imagined to include this A. Serious decisions have serious consequences.
period, which served in part to crystallize the search for B. Paris was wrong in choosing Aphrodite as winner.
significant advances in black civil rights and economic C. Hera and Athena harbored ill feelings.
opportunity. D. Zeus ordered the goddesses to take side in the war.

18. The novel discussed above is _____. 4. He is called “the most Greek of all the gods.” He is
A. Jazz also called the lord of silver bow and the archer-god.
B. The Autobiography of an Ex-Coloured Man A. Mars
C. Cane C. Jupiter
 B. Neptune
D. Apollo 12. Which of these does not comprise the four
essential functions of mythology as viewed by Joseph
5. According to this theory of mythopoeic thought, the Campbell?
ancients tend to view things as persons, not as mere A. Eliciting and supporting a sense of awe before the
objects; thus, they describe natural events as acts of mystery of
personal gods, and giving rise to myths. being
A. Allegory B. Supporting the current social order to integrate the
B. Personification individual
C. Myth-ritual Theory organically with his group
D. Euhemerism C. Initiating the individual into the order of realities of
his own psyche
6. In what mythology a cosmic truth that “all things are D. Exploring religious experience through reproducing
simply a part of a greater whole one” is held? the conditions of the mythical age
A. Hindu Mythology
B. Egyptian Mythology 13. According to the epic poem Enuma Elish, this
C. Celtic Mythology Mesopotamian god leads the new gods in a battle
D. Mesopotamian Myth against the oldgods. After defeating the gods of chaos
and gaining power of a supreme god, he creates the
7. In the study of Scandinavian mythology, this text sky and earth, as wellas the first human beings.
composed in the 13th century by Snorri Sturluson is a A. Tiamat
prosemanual for producing skaldic poetry which utilizes B. Kingu
alliterative verse, kennings, and various metrical forms. C. Marduk
A. Prose Edda D. Nabu
B. Attila the Hun
C. Gesta Danorum 14. In Hindu mythology, he is traditionally depicted with
D. Heimskringla four heads, four faces and four arms. He also
symbolizes the supreme eternal deity whose essence
pervades the entire universe.
8. She is often shown seated on a lotus. She is A. Brahma
worshipped by many modern Hindus, usually in the B. Vishnu
home everyFriday and on the festival days throughout C. Shiva
the year. D. Sarasvati
A. Lakshmi
B. Parvati 15. He is a symbol of strength, perseverance, devotion,
C. Durga and energy in Hinduism.
D. Kali A. Hanuman
B. Vanara
9. In Hindu tradition, Vishnu is regarded as C. Ganesh
the preserver of the universe, while Shiva as_____. D. Kali
A. The supreme eternal deity
B. the conqueror 16. In Norse mythology, dwarfs often act as earthen
C. The destroyer smiths whereas beings described as jotnar, thursar,
D. the monkey god and troll areglossed as_______.
A. Elves
10. In Canaanite mythology, he is said to be in charge B. Perching Hawks
of rain and weather, and that man’s survival is C. Deities
dependent upon his provision. D. Giants
A. Baal
B. ElB 17. In Egyptian mythology, he is the god of the dead
C. Dagan and the ruler of the underworld.
D. Mot A. Shu
B. Ra
11. He is considered as the Mesopotamian great hero C. Osiris
and son of goddess Ninsun whose stories are told in D. Amun
Sumerianand Babylonian poems.
A. Gilgamesh 18. He is the youth loved and accidentally killed by
B. Enkidu Apollo who memorializes him with a flower growing
C. Enuma Elish from the youth’s blood.
D. Anu A. Adonis
 B. Hyacinthus
C. Narcissus 26. Zeus’s breastplate was the _____, his bird was the
D. Apollo eagle, his tree the oak, and his oracle Dodona.
A. thunderbolt
19. She is a Phoenician princess carried off by Zeus in B. lightning
the form of a white bull, and the mother of Minos, C. aegis
Rhadamanthus and Sarpedon. D. majestic shield
A. Cassiopeia
B. Hera 27. Poseidon was commonly called _____ and was
C. Europa always carrying his trident, a three-pronged spear.
D. Demeter A. the great ocean wave
B. the sea monster
20.A monster shaped half like a man and half like a C. the mighty
bull, confined in the labyrinth built by Daedalus for D. the earth-shaker
Minos, andgiven a periodic tribute of youths and
maidens as food until slain by Theseus: 28. She was the daughter of Zeus alone because no
A. Gorgon mother bore her. Full grown and in full armor, she
B. Cyclops sprang from his head.
C. Centaur A. Aphrodite
D. Minotaur B. Athena
C. Demeter
21. He is the brother of Prometheus; a scatterbrained D. Persephone
person who follows his first impulse, and gives all the
best giftsto the animals. 29. He was one of the great heroes in Trojan War and
A. Epimetheus was held to be the real founder of Rome.
B. Polyphemus A. Achilles
C. Telemachus B. Odysseus
D. Hercules C. Aeneas
D. Hector
22. A fleet-footed huntress who challenges her suitors
to a race and is defeated by Hippomenes when she 30. In Trojan War, he asked Achilles’ armor for he
stops to pick up three golden apples he has dropped: believed that if the enemies thought he were Achilles,
A. Arethusa the Trojans may pause and the worn-out Greeks would
B. Artemis have breathing space.
C. Atalanta A. Patroclus
D. Eurydice B. Ajax
C. Agamemnon
23. In Odyssey when a priest and a poet fell on their D. Menelaus
knees before Odysseus, praying him to spare their
lives, the hero _____ the priest without a thought, but 31. Whose wily mind thought of the stratagem of the
_____ the poet. wooden horse that is often alluded to have caused the
A. imprisoned – freed Trojans’ defeat against the Greeks?
B. freed – imprisoned A. Achilles
C. killed – saved B. Aeneas
D. saved - killed C. Menealus
D. Odyssey
24. He was an ancient writer who was a compendium
of mythology. Most of the books about the stories of 32. She, who was a princess and could foretell the
classical mythology depend chiefly upon him. future, echoed Laocoon’s warning and suggestion to
A. Ovid destroy the wooden horse but no one ever listened to
B. Hesoid her.
C. Pindar A. Cassandra
D. Aeschylus B. Psyche
C. Dido
25. The following belong to the twelve Olympians D. Galatea
EXCEPT _____.
A. Ares 33. He was the strongest man on earth and was
B. Athena considered as equal with the gods.
C. Hephaestus A. Atlas
D. Cupid B. Prometheus
 C. Hercules 41. This is a collection of stories and fables from
D. Achilles Arabia, Egypt, India, and Persia that were compiled
from oral tales that had been passed down through
34. He was nephew and pupil of Daedalus. He these cultures for generations.
invented the saw and the compass. Daedalus became A. The Pachantantra
jealous of him and killed him, and Minerva, pitying him, B. A Thousand and One Nights
changed him into s partridge. C. One Night with the Arabians
A. Perdix D. Alibaba and His Magics
B. Pelias
C. Minos 42. She was a Greek mythological character who
D. Orpheus chose to bury her own brother, Polyneices, against the
order of Creon who was in control of Thebes. This
35. He accidentally killed his own grandfather, Acrisius, caused her death.
in a discus-throwing contest. The discus struck him. A. Ismene
The blow was fatal and he died once. B. Antigone
A. Oedipus C. Electra
B. Perseus D. Naiad
C. Apollo
D. Telemachus 43. He believed his mother was vile for she killed his
own father. Later, he was acquitted by Athena because
according to Apollo he killed at his command.
36. He was a sculptor who fell in love, deeply, A. Orestes
passionately in love with the thing he had made. B. Agamemnon (his father who was killed by his
A. Pyramus mother)
B. Orpheus C. Eteocles (Oedipus’ son)
C. Ceyx D. Polyneices (Oedipus’ son)
D. Pygmalion
44. He successfully get rid of the Sphinx by correctly
37. He attempted to ride Pegasus up to Olympus for he solving its riddle “What creature goes on four feet in the
believed he could take his place with the immortals. morning, on two feet at noonday, and on three feet in
A. Endymion the evening?”
B. Bellerophon A. Jason
C. Peleus B. Orestes
D. Orpheus C. Oedipus
D. Minos
38. He was the architect who had contrived the
labyrinth for the minotaur in Crete, and showed Ariadne 45. Greeks made their gods and goddesses _____.
how Theseus could escape from it. A. based on the characters of the ancient stories
A. Icarus B. in their own images
B. Cadmus C. in their own ideas of best forms of divinities
C. Daedalus D. based on the stories handed to them by their
D. Tantalus ancestors

39. Since Perseus had no gift to offer king Polydectes, 46. As used by Joseph Campbell, this refers to the
he told him he _____ fundamental structure of all folklore of olden days.
A. would go off and kill his one thousand enemies A. monomyth
B. would kill the Sphinx and bring back his head as a B. monomythical
gift C. monomythic
C. would behead Medusa and bring her head to him. D. monomythicizer
D. would set a fighting contest to honor him
47. The “body” (line 3) is the body of _____.
40. He wrote the book “The Hero with a Thousand And on the slope above the sea
Faces” which discussed his theory of the journey of the The hard-handed peasants go their round
archetypal hero found in world mythologies. Turning the soil, blind to the body
A. Carl Jung Ambitious and viable, whose pride
B. Euhemerus Will leave no trace in the quenching tide.
C. Hesoid
D. Joseph Campbell A. Ulysses
B. Achilles
C. Icarus
 D. Priam TEACHING LITERATURE

“The daughter of Minos, _____ provided the 1. Of the literary listed below, which is used in the
hero _____ with a ball of string that allowed him to poem?
trace his way back to the light of day after slaying the You see this gentle stream, that glides,
Minotaur in the labyrinth.” Shoved on, by quick-succeeding tides:
Try if this sober stream you can
48. Which of the following will correctly complete the -Proof to No Purpose
sentence?
A. Helen…Paris A. metaphor and allusion
B. Andromeda…Perseus B. paradox and antithesis
C. Eurydice…Orpheus C. apostrophe and hyperbole
D. Adriane…Theseus D. personification and alliteration

49. Philosophical-religious belief in reincarnation is 2. The following are examples of metonymy EXCEPT:
based on which mythical character? A. The controversial couple are living under the same
A. Orpheus roof.
B. Paris B. The Malacaňang declared full support for child-
C. Achilles friendly campaigns.
D. Agamemnon C. Empty pocket never held anyone back. Only empty
heads and empty hearts can do that.
50. In the Middle Ages and Renaissance, it was D. This land belongs to the crown.
commonly described as symbol of purity and grace,
which could only be captured by a virgin. 3. What figure of speech is used in the following lines
A. Troll from Carl Sandburg’s “Jazz Fantasia”?
B. Dragon Drum on your drums, batter on your banjos, sob
C. Kappa On the long cool winding saxophones.
D. Unicorns Go to it, O jazzmen.

51. He was a fearless warrior and king who one day A. assonance
saw the emptiness of his life and turned his back on it, B. consonance
becoming a wanderer and sadhu. He refused to return C. alliteration
to the world that is why he is often alluded to as having D. repetition
refused the responsibility.
A. King Minos 4. Which of the following is not classified as figure of
B. King Muchukunda speech?
C. King Rama A. “Holding wonder like a cup”
D. Jason B. “Life has loneliness to sell”
C. “Eyes that love you, arms that hold”
52. The story of Cupid and Psyche depicts undying D. “Buy it and never count the cost”
love and devotion. What was Psyche’s mistake that
according to Cupid was a betrayal? 5. What figure of speech is used in the given lines?
A. Psyche got infatuated with Zeus. Fair daffodils, we weep to see
B. Psyche believed her sisters persuasion that her You haste away so soon;
lover was an ugly beast and would kill her. - Robert Herrick
C. Psyche disobeyed her husband when she
enlightened his face in the middle of the night. A. apostrophe
D. Psyche left the house without her husband B. metonymy
permission. C. personification
D. synecdoche
53. Philippine mythology and superstitions are very
diverse. It includes a collection of tales and “We don’t care a fig for her,” writes unknown
superstitions about magical creatures and entities like correspondent with a pretty little hand-writing and a
_____. pink seal to her note. “She is fade and insipid,” and
A. kapre, aswang, matruculan, duwende, tiyanak, etc. adds some more kind remarks in this strain, which I
B. sirena, syokoy, dugong, etc. should never have repeated at all, but that they are in
C. cherubs, Seraphims, Cherubims, thrones, guardian truth prodigiously complimentary to the young lady
angels, etc. whom they concern.
D. Malakas at Maganda, Maria Makiling, etc.
6. Which of the literary devices is used to describe the B. Sonnet
remarks of the “unknown correspondent”? C. Iambic Pentameter
A. irony D. Couplet
B. metaphor
C. paradox 13. What term refers to the passage in a drama in
D. personification which a character expresses his thoughts or feelings
aloud while alone upon the stage or with the other
7. Assonance is a poetic device where: actors keeping silent?
A. The vowel sound in a word matches the same A. Stream of Consciousness
sound in a nearby word, but the surrounding B. Soliloquy
consonant sounds are different. C. Oration
B. The initial sounds of a word, beginning either with a D. Speech
consonant or a vowel, are repeated in close
succession. “Her warm thanks offering for all.
C. The words used evoke meaning by their sounds. Lord, clear my misted sight that I may hence view Thy
D. The final consonant sounds are the same, but the divinity,
vowels are different. Some sparks whereof thou up dost hasp
Within this little downy wasp
8.“Reading maketh a full man, conference a ready In whose small corporation we
man, and writing an exact man” is an example of which A school and a schoolmaster see”
type of figurative language?
A. Euphemism 14. How can the poem best be described based on this
B. Bathos excerpt?
C. Parallelism A. A devotional poem
D. Irony B. A biographical poem
C. A ballad
With shivering heart the strife we saw D. A poem about authority
Of passion with eternal law;
And yet with reverential awe 15. What play or dramatic structure is described in this
We watched the fount of fiery life line “The hero has won or lost; issues are resolved;
Which served for the Titanic strife. order is restored”?
-Memorial Verses, Matthew Arnold A. resolution
B. denouement
9. What figure of speech is used in the poem? C. conclusion
A. synecdoche D. all of the above
B. litotes
C. metonymy 16. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a
D. allusion folktale?
A. Considered true among various societies
B. A hero on a quest
10. In a tragedy, the protagonist recognizes a C. Good versus evil
fundamental error or sin, known as _____. D. Adventures of animals
A. hamartia
B. evil 17. Which of the following is true of the visible shape of
C. harambis poetry?
D. faithlessness I. Forced sound repetition may underscore the
meaning.
11. The resolution of a tragedy, which elicits pity and II. It was a new rule of poetry after poets began to feel
fear in the audience and results in a purging of those constricted by rhyming conventions.
aroused emotions is called _____. III. The shaped reflected the poem’s theme.
A. falling action IV. It was viewed as a demonstration of ingenuity.
B. relief
C. déjà vu A. I and II only
D. catharsis B. II and IV only
C. III and IV only
D. IV only
12. What is the name given to a pair of rhyming lines of
verse that are self-contained in grammatical structure Beauty is but a flower
and meaning? Which wrinkles will devour;
A. Quatrain Brightness falls from the air,
 Queens have died young and fair, which a few years will inevitably tarnish. It is quite
Dust hath closed Helen’s eye. edifying to hear women speculate upon the
I am sick, I must die. worthlessness and the duration of beauty.
Lord, have mercy on us.
-Thomas Nashe, Adieu, Farewell Earth’s Bliss But through virtue is a much finer thing, and
those hapless creatures who suffer the misfortune of
18. “A flower” in line 1 relates to _____. good looks ought to be continually put in mind of the
A. time fate which awaits them. -Thackeray’s Vanity Fair
B. love
C. personality 23. The organizational pattern used by the narrator to
D. appearance make his main point is best described as _____.
A. cause and effect
The Aged Lover Renounceth Love B. definition
C. process analysis
For age with stealing steps D. comparison and contrast
Hath clawed me with his crutch,
And lusty life away she leaps It was the best of times, it was the worst of
As there had been none such. times, it was the age of wisdom, it was the age of
foolishness, it was the epoch of belief, it was the epoch
19.“Lusty life” as a characteristic in lines 3-4, of the of incredulity, it was the season of light, it was the
poem seems _____. season of Darkness, it was the spring of hope, it was
A. uncaring the winter of despair, we had everything before us, we
B. happy had nothing before us, we were all going direct to
C. illusion heaven, we were all going direct the other way – in
D. deceptive short, the period was so far like the present period, that
some of its noisiest authorities insisted on its being
20. In the paragraph, “a bit of a romantic” suggests that received, for good or for evil, in the superlative degree
Willa Cather ____. of comparison only. – Charles Dickens, A Tale of Two
A. condemned the evils of slavery Cities
B. favored the past over the present
C. disliked writing about life in the 1030s 24. The phrase “in short” is significant because it ____.
D. denounced certain aspects of the 19th-century life A. marks the change in structure
B. is a misuse of an absolute
My tale was heard and yet it was untold C. negates the speaker’s meaning
My fruit is fallen and yet my leaves are green, D. contrasts times and periods
My youth is spent and yet I am not old,
I saw the world and yet I was not seen; 25. What is the effect of the change in the subject
My thread is cut and yet it is not spun, pronoun in line 4?
And now I live, and now my life is done. A. It has no real effect.
-Elegy, ChidiockTichborne
B. It emphasizes superiority of the narrator’s time.
21. Which of the following words best summarizes the C. It shifts the tone from impersonal to personal.
speaker’s view of his life? D. It affects the characterization of the narrator.
A. confused E. It diminishes the sense of connection of the times.
B. inconsequential
THEATER ARTS
C. unfulfilled
D. imitative 1. The word theater is derived from the Greek word “theatron”
which means _____.
22. The line, "Under the bludgeonings of chance, my A. gathering around
head is bloody but unbowed“, depicts the person's B. assembly
_____. C. forum
a. optimism D. seeing place
b. confidence
c. courage 2. The minimal requirements for a theater building are _____.
A. curtains, seats, and lobby
d. determination B. s stage and backstage
C. a place to act and a place to watch
What is there in a pair of pink cheeks and blue D. good acoustics and clean restrooms
eyes forsooth? These dear Moralists ask, and hint
wisely that the gifts of genius, the accomplishments of 3. The aspects of theater as an occupation are _____.
the mind, …and so forth, are far more valuable A. work, art, impersonation, and performance
endowments for a female, than those fugitive charms B. script, rehearsal, performance, and reviews
 C. contracts, publicists, and agents C. when critics review it
D. time, dedication, and inspiration D. when it is published

4. The work of producing theater is involved with _____. 14. _____ is not one of Aristotle’s components of a tragedy.
A. the script and rehearsals A. theme
B. all of the financial and legal aspects of the show B. stage
C. developing rapport with the actors C. music
D. making sure the coffee is fresh D. spectacle

15. The fundamental demand of a play’s characters is that

5. Designing is the process of _____. they _____.
A. mapping the visual and auditory aspects of the show A. support the plot
B. building the sets and the costumes B. make the audience care
C. ensuring the show has historical authenticity C. are realistic
D. getting all the “tech” stuff together D. are fully detailed

6. Building a production involves _____. 16. _____ are the agreements between audience and actor
A. a lot of rehearsals wherein the audience willingly suspends belief and accepts
B. the actors working after rehearsal the play as new or temporary “reality.”
C. fielding legal matters A. Traditions
D. translating the design into reality B. Theatrical conventions
C. Dramatic protocols
7. Crewing a production is the activity in which _____. D. Aristotilean elements
A. people row in a small boat on the river
B. technicians execute sequential cues and maintain 17. The four identifiable structural elements in almost every
properties and costumes play are _____.
C. people who did not get cast as actors do their work in the A. exposition, conflict, climax, and denouement
theater B. opening, intensification, confrontation, and resolution
D. rehearsals are carefully organized C. beginning, middle, extension, and conclusion
D. thesis, sub-thesis, post-thesis, and antithesis
8. The problems of actor-character separation were resolved
in the ancient world through _____. 18. _____ continue to dominate the modern theater.
A. strenuous exercise A. “Postmodern” dramatic structures
B. masks B. Documentary dramas
C. broad gestures C. Ironic faces
D. powerful speech D. Aristotelian dramatic forms

9. Performance can be defined as _____. 19. The playwright is the _____ of nearly every production.
A. an action or series of actions done for someone else’s A. historical basis
benefit B. final authority
B. a strictly private conversation between two people C. point of origin
C. showing off in order to impress someone D. ultimate interpreter
D. a ritualized creation involving repetitive action
20. The most common perception of the playwright’s role
10. The two general modes of performance are _____. since the age of romanticism is _____.
A. live and taped. A. as theater co-worker and mentor
B. ancient and modern B. an isolated observer and social critic
C. presentational and representational C. usually as the director or producer
D. good and bad D. the resident authority and dramaturge

11. The act of feeling for and identifying with characters in a

play is known as _____. 21. The playwright works with two fundamental tools:
A. sympathy A. words and sentences
B. empathy B. scenes and acts
C. understanding C. dialogue and physical action
D. synchronicity D. narration and conversation

12. As opposed to other forms of performance, theater is 22. Which of the following is NOT a demand of credibility?
always ______. A. Characters act instinctively.
A. directed by single artist B. Characters are internally consistent.
B. scripted C. Characters always use good diction.
C. rehearsed D. Characters are like human beings.
D. performed live

13. The play most fully exists _____. 23. A common fault of beginning playwright is _____.
A. in the text A. shortness of action
B. in its performance B. lines that lacks speakability
 C. too much detail D. verbal and sexual playfulness
D. unclear plot
34. Which of the following is NOT a genre of theater
24. When a play truly satisfies us, we say it endowed with developed in the pre-modern era of theater?
_____. A. history play
A. active characters B. interlude
B. intricate detail C. mystery play
C. richness of detail D. absurdist play
D. intensity of will
35. A form that serves as a bridge between the two major
25. Depth of characterization requires characters to be ___. genres is called _____.
A. independent, sensible, reasonable, and worthwhile A. tragicomedy
B. correct, honest, and understandable B. dark comedy
C. funny and tragic C. serio-comedy
D. expressive, emotional, excitable, and enlightened D. melodrama

26. The term “Gravity and Pertinence” refer to a script’s ___. 36. After World-War II, the genre that dominates the theater
A. use of props and stage design is called _____.
B. seriousness of theme and relevance to contemporary A. absurdism
society B. serio-comedy
C. development of its characters C. dark comedy
D. grave and serious tone of dialogue D. comic reality

27. A play is all of the following EXCEPT _____. 37. This genre utilizes authentic evidence as its basis for
A. a presentation with characters that can serve as role portraying recent historical events.
models A. historical
B. an animated piece of life B. melodrama
C. a meaningful representation of human struggles C. documentary
D. a discourse on morality D. farce

28. Historically speaking, a full-length play lasts _____. 38. The primary demands of a plot are traditionally _____.
A. less than one hour A. surprise and resolution
B. between one and two hours B. logic and suspense
C. between two and three hours C. good and evil
D. between three and four hours D. action and reaction
39. Dramatic intensity results from _____.
29. A serious play with a theme of universal human import, A. the skillful use of compression in a script
which describes a struggle against insurmountable odds B. the playwright’s care with a play’s economy
usually ending in death or downfall is a _____. C. the careful development of character interactions and
A. comedy goals
B. drama D. All of the answers are correct.
C. tragedy
D. serio-theater 40. A play that tells the story of thirty years in only two hours
is an example of _____.
30. The central character in a drama is called the _____. A. historicity
A. protagonist B. intensity
B. leading man C. compression
C. antagonist D. All of the answers are correct.
D. hero
41. A script’s structure can determine the success of its ___.
31. The father of dramatic criticism is _____. A. thematic development
A. Sophocles B. credibility
B. Plato C. sense of intrigue
C. Socrates D. All of the answers are correct.
D. Aristotle
42. Three strong building blocks in the process of playwriting
32. Tragedy should _____ us. are ____.
A. sadden A. dialogue, conflict, and structure
B. delight B. plot, theme, and characterization
C. burden C. story, idea, and textuality
D. ennoble D. action, re-action, and climax

33. Which of the following is NOT generally an ingredient of 43. The dialogue in David’s Mamet’s plays is famous for its
comedy? _____.
A. interpersonal conflicts A. classical aphorisms
B. topical issues B. inclusion of multiple languages
C. fate, suffering and death C. use of fragmented everyday speech
 D. silence D. Meyerhold

44. The Pulitzer Prize and Tony Award winner and author of 54. The Actor Studio was made famous by _____.
Angels in America and Homebody/Kabul is _____. A. Theodule Ribot
A. David Henry Hwang B. Sanford Meisner
B. Tony Kushner C. Lee Strasberg
C. Neil LaBute D. Stella Adler
D. David Mamet
55. The craft of acting includes these two fundamental
45. The playwright who is called “Chicago” playwright is ___. features _____.
A. Edward Albee A. mind and body
B. Susan Lori Parks B. speaking and singing
C. David Mamet C. an expressive voice and a supple body
D. Neil LaBute D. good intellect and strong emotions

46. _____ was rated “as exciting as any new play from a 56. The third acting ingredient is _____.
young American since Tony Kushner’s Angels in America.” A. mind
A. The Sinners’ Place B. emotion
B. M. Butterfly C. presence
C. Homebody/Kabul D. the ability to cry on demand
D. Topdog/Underdog
57. Contemporary actor training has two distinct phases
47. David Hwang’s M. Butterfly interweaves _____. which are _____.
A. Western romanticism A. studying the text and analyzing the context
B. Asian theater B. feeling the emotions and expressing the actions
C. Chinese opera C. the development of the actor’s instrument and the method
D. All of the answers are correct. of approaching a role
D. conditioning the body and the mind
48. Who was the first known actor?
A. Hermes 58. The basic elements of voice for the actor are _____.
B. Thespis A. articulation, pronunciation, and phrasing
C. Oedipus B. speaking, singing, and shouting
D. Sophocles C. mind, body, and spirit
D. breathing, phonation, and resonance
49. The form of acting that begins with the instructional
process, lessons, and drills is _____. 59. After vocal training, the second element of the actor’s
A. classical physiological instrument is _____.
B. representational A. movement
C. planned B. singing
D. external C. stage combat training
D. dance
50. The kind of acting where the actor feels the characters is
____. 60. Which of the following is NOT part of actor’s
A. internal psychological instrument?
B. presentational A. imagination and willingness to use it
C. intense B. discipline
D. romantic C. stage fright
D. creates role uniquely
51. The Roman poet Horace said in order to move the
audience, first you must _____. 61. The actor’s zadacha means the character’s _____.
A. show your emotions A. character
B. play serious characters B. goal
C. be moved yourself C. lines
D. by physically interesting D. cues

52. The Frenchman who said actors must play from thought 62. The actor’s professional routine consists of _____.
was _____. A. agents, contracts, and salaries
A. Moliere B. auditions, rehearsals, and performances
B. Jean Paul Belmondo C. lines, memorization, and performing
C. Denis Diderot D. blocking, mounting, and polishing
D. Beaumarchais
63. For an actor, the rehearsals of a play are _____.
53. The acting teacher who said the actor must seek to solve A. boring repetitions to be endured
the “character’s problem” was _____. B. a time to get everything right
A. Stanislavsky C. a time for creative experimentation
B. Tchaikovsky D. when the director controls everything
C. Chekhov
64. Fine acting demands _____. A. checklists
A. being in the union B. standardized tests
B. acting for its own sake C. rubrics
C. knowing nothing but acting D. informal reading inventories
D. an open mind
9. The most useful type of assessment for classroom
teachers is _____.
65. The first known comedies were written by _____ who set A. day-to-day observation
the recipe for future comedies. B. an informal reading inventory
A. Sophocles C. a diagnostic test
B. Aristophanes D. a standardized achievement test
C. Euminides
D. Euripedes 10. Written accounts of specific classroom incidents are
called _____.
TEACHING READING A. informal reading inventories
B. portfolios
1. A technique that encourages students to think deeply C. anecdotal records
about words _____. D. running records
A. writing the words ten times each
B. looking up dictionary definitions 11. Portfolio assessment _____.
C. filling out workbook exercises related to the words A. uses samples of student’s work
D. class discussion B. is useful for assigning grades in percentages
C. is based on standardized test scores
2. Concepts can be learned through ______. D. does all of these
A. vicarious experiences
B. concrete experiences 12. A type of test that gives percentile ranks is a/an _____.
C. both and A and B A. running record
D. neither A nor B B. standardized test
C. informal reading inventory
D. criterion-referenced test
3. Vocabulary instruction should take place _____.
A. only in reading and language arts classes
B. only once a week 13. The characteristics of literature-based and
C. throughout the day in all classes language-integrated series include _____.
D. all of these A. primarily short excerpts from well-written stories
B. heavy focus on skill development
4. Classifying words into categories supplied by the teacher C. high-quality literature selections
is doing _____. D. all of these
A. closed-ended sorts
B. open-ended sorts
C. both A and B 14. In literature logs, students record _____.
D. neither A nor B A. personal interpretations
B. questions that arise from reading
5. What is true of a rubric? C. both A and B
A. It provides specific criteria for describing student D. neither A nor B
performance.
B. It gives frustration, instructional, independent, and capacity 15. At the heart of a literature-based reading program are __.
levels. A. language experience stories
C. It is a norm-referenced test. B. workbooks
D. It measures skill mastery. C. trade books
D. none of these
6. All of the following tests can be constructed by the
classroom teacher EXCEPT _____. 16. Students may respond to literature through the following
A. oral reading checklist EXCEPT:
B. norm-referenced test A. group discussions
C. informal reading inventory B. sentence diagram
D. sight vocabulary test C. creative dramatics
D. literature logs
7. Methods for identifying the difficulty of texts include ___.
A. cloze tests 17. The teacher can evaluate students’ progress in
B. text leveling literature-based programs _____.
C. readability tests A. by listening to the children’s book talks
D. all of these B. through a portfolio approach
C. with checklists of important reading behaviors
8. Alternative assessment includes all of the following D. all of these
EXCEPT:
18. Which of the following are good types of words to teach A. never use complete sentences in notes
as sight words? B. copy every of the section of each reference used
A. extremely useful words C. include bibliographic references with each note
B. irregularly spelled words D. none of these
C. Words which are meaningful to children.
D. all of these 29. In outlines, levels of subordination are indicated by using
of the following EXCEPT:
19. To use a dictionary, a student must know _____. A. spaces
A. alphabetic order B. indention
B. how to use guide words C. numerals
C. how to interpret the pronunciation D. letters
D. all of these
30. When using databases, students _____.
20. One recommended technique to encourage students to A. collect and organize data
read voluntarily is _____. B. decide on key words to access the data
A. providing them array of reading materials C. pose questions
B. allowing them to read only when they like to read D. all of these
C. showing them videos about the importance of reading
books 31. Teaching study skills is the responsibility of _____.
D. setting aside a time for them to read daily from freely A. the primary-grade teacher
selected material B. the intermediate-grade teacher
C. A only
21. Children’s Choices is a list of _____. D. both A and B
A. best-selling books for children
B. books liked by children, compiled by 10, 000 children 32. Activities that help develop readiness for outlining include
C. children’s classics _____.
D. books recommended by librarians for children A. categorization activities
B. forming arrays for stories
22. Which of the following is true of journal writing? C. B only
A. Teachers correct spelling in journals. D. both A and B
B. Teachers grade journals.
C. Writers may choose their own topics. 33. Comprehension monitoring should be taught through
D. None of theses _____.
A. the cloze procedure
23. During readers’ theater, students _____. B. worksheets
A. read aloud dramatically from a script C. teacher modeling
B. memorize a script and then play their parts D. none of these
C. improvise a scene from a familiar story
D. rewrite a story into play form 34. The reading act is composed of the following two main
parts _____.
24. The first stage in a writing workshop is _____. A. visual and tactile aspects
A. a minilesson B. visual and auditory aspects
B. the status-of-the-class conference C. the reading process and the reading product
C. group share D. none of these
D. writing
35. The following are aspects of the reading process
25. In the drafting stage of the writing process, writers _____. EXCEPT:
A. make revisions A. associational aspects
B. carefully observe the rules of grammar and spelling B. structural aspects
C. confer with their peers C. experience aspects
D. search for the topic D. perceptual aspects

26. The retention of ideas in materials is helped by the 36. All of the following are effective aspects of the reading
following EXCEPT _____. process EXCEPT:
A. discussing the material A. attitude
B. reading all materials as rapidly as possible B. hearing
C. assigning purposes for reading C. self-concept
D. giving the students time to reflect on the materials D. interest

27. All of the following is helpful in using reference books 37. Children are likely to develop positive attitudes toward
EXCEPT _____. reading EXCEPT:
A. The ability to use guide words A. when their peers view reading in a positive way
B. Knowledge of alphabetical order B. when parents read in the home
C. The ability to interpret the scale of a map C. when parents provide them with reading materials
D. The knowledge of the structural analysis and context clues D. when parents are formally educated and can afford to
provide children reading materials
28. An appropriate guideline for note taking is to _____.
38. The refinement of a person’s reading skills should _____. C. takes much labor out of editing and revising
A. end after high school D. all of these
B. end after sixth grade
C. end after third grade 49. Students or pupils _____.
D. never end A. have no valid reasons to use the Internet
B. can use the Internet to collect material for unit studies
39. The teacher is responsible for the following EXCEPT: C. can use the Internet with complete confidence in the
A. understanding the range of technology available material posted to Web sites
B. evaluating technological applications D. none of these
C. integrating technology into the classroom
D. designing new technological systems 50. Students or pupils can use email to _____.
A. interact with adult mentors (for example, university
40. Teachers need to ask which of the following about each students)
potential application of technology in the curriculum EXCEPT: B. interact with authors of children’s books
A. Is it cost effective? C. hold discussions with students in other parts of the world
B. Is it easy to implement? D. all of these
C. Is it instructionally sound?
D. Is it simple and easy to execute? 51. The sentence “Jane has her dog with her” includes a/an
_____.
41. Basic kinds of CAI currently used for reading instruction A. restrictive clause
include _____. B. anaphoric relationship
A. drill and practice C. figurative expression
B. tutorial D. relative clause
C. both A and B
D. neither a nor B 52. You can tell a fact from an opinion by whether _____.
A. you agree with it
42. Database programs _____. B. it appears in print
A. require few reading skills C. it is verifiable
B. are too difficult for elementary students to use D. it is in quotes
C. ask students to provide keywords for efficient data access
D. none of these 53. Anticipation guides _____.
A. are designed to stimulate thinking
43. Instructional transparencies _____. B. are useful in prereading devices
A. provide an efficient way to present some class materials C. both A and B
B. are useful only to artistic teachers D. neither A nor B
C. are outdated and have no value in today’s classrooms
D. none of these 54. Relating new vocabulary to students’ experiences ____.
A. is not feasible in the classroom
44. Instructional television programs _____. B. detracts from the acquisition of vocabulary
A. are generally a waste of class time C. enhances the acquisition of vocabulary
B. can serve as a basis for note taking and report writing D. has no effect on the acquisition of vocabulary
C. have few literacy applications
D. none of these 55. All of the following are context clues to word meaning
EXCEPT:
45. Audio and videotapes _____. A. definition clues
A. have value for assessment purposes B. appositive clues
B. are useful for recording class presentations C. punctuation clues
C. require equipment that is rarely available in classrooms D. comparison and contrast clues
D. all of these
56. Which of the following is an example of analogy?
46. CD-ROMs can _____. A. the wind spoke softly into her ear
A. store large amounts of text, audio, and video information in B. the girl was as pretty as a picture
relatively little space C. soft is to hard as good is to bad
B. provide high-quality images and sound D. none of these
C. be assessed in nonlinear fashion
D. all of these 57. The following can help children discover the meanings of
unfamiliar words EXCEPT:
47. Use of spelling and grammar checkers _____. A. context clues
A. encourages sloppy work B. phonics clues
B. involves a critical reading activity C. structure clues
C. is basically rote learning D. none of the above
D. none of these
58. Which of the following aspects related to readers affect/s
48. Word-processing software _____. comprehension?
A. often encourages students to write longer pieces than they A. attitudes
do with pencil and paper B. schemata
B. can be used with the language experience approach C. sensory and perceptual abilities
 D. all of these 68. Which of the following strategies are most appropriate for
helping students comprehend new vocabulary in nonfiction
59. The reading situation involves the _____. texts?
A. importance of the reading task for the reader I. Writing sentences on the board for the students to copy
B. audience for the reading II. Studying examples of texts that use the new vocabulary in
C. purposes for the reading context
D. all of these III. Activating the student’s prior knowledge to develop a
framework for the new vocabulary
60. The following are special problems in reading IV. Providing frequent opportunities for the students to use
mathematics EXCEPT: their new vocabulary words
A. interpreting abbreviations V. Having the students look up definitions in the dictionary
B. understanding a different symbol system and write them several times
C. interpreting story problems
D. understanding the words in the math problems A. I, II, II
B. II, IV, V
61. In comparison to content-area texts, basal readers ___. C. I, III, V
A. contain large numbers of graphic aids D. II, III, IV
B. are more difficult to read
C. include more planned repetition of new vocabulary JOURNALISM
D. are high in idea density
1. Which phrase describes a feature?
61. The content of language arts block includes _____. A. A hard news story
A. writing
B. reading
B. Any story that informs the reader
C. speaking C. A soft news story
D. all of these D. Any short newspaper article

62. Which of the following statements about study guides 2. What is a lead?
is/are true? A. The main idea of a feature story
A. They provide purposes for reading the assignments B. A piece of information that attracts and keeps the
B. All members of the class should use the same one. reader interested
C. They should contain only literal-level questions. C. A point in the story where the reader loses interest
D. none of these
D. The angle of a story
63. Of the following words, the one that contains a soft c
sound is _____. 3. A summary lead contains _____.
A. cent A. A direct quote
B. cannon B. Instructions on how to read the story
C. cat C. The most important facts of the story
D. cute D. A list of all the sources quoted in the story
64. Which of the following statements about the directed 4. What is soft news?
reading-thinking activity is/are true?
A. It encourages children to think while they read.
A. News that’s based on opinions, not facts
B. It can be used with basal reader stories. B. News that’s entertaining or interesting
C. It can be used with basal reader stories. C. News that’s circulated on the Internet, not on paper
D. all of these D. Advice columns

65. A single vowel preceding an r _____. 5. What is hard news?

A. usually has a long sound A. News that covers hard to understand topics
B. usually has a short sound B. News that’s based on opinions, not facts
C. is sounded but is neither long or short C. News that affects an everyone
D. is not sounded
D. The only kind of news there is
66. To understand literary passages, children need to be able
to recognize and analyze _____. 6. What do profile stories focus on?
A. themes A. A group’s behavior
B. plots B. An individual
C. characterization C. Celebrity interviews only
D. all of these D. Current events
67. To develop thematic content units, teachers must ___. 7. What is meant by balance in a news story?
A. gather related materials
B. choose instructional procedures and related activities
A. Having several authors write a story
C. decide on goals and objectives B. Getting a lawyer’s opinion before writing an article
D. all of these C. Giving the same amount of space to every
paragraph
D. Covering all sides of an issue as fairly as possible invoking “state secrets.”
D. The new President vowed change and roared about
8. Your choice of a source should depend on “the fierce urgency of now”.
A. The source’s expertise
B. The source’s popularity 13. What is an editorial?
C. The source’s availability A. An opinion piece that uses the pronoun "I"
D. The source’s height and weight B. The process when an editor works with unfinished
story
9. What does a direct quotation look like? C. A part of the writing process
A. The new President teased his wife saying that she D. The job that reporter's get when they are promoted
was an only good with kids when playing poker with
them. 14. What is libel?
B. “He loves to buckle,” the TV host declared in a July. A. Publishing a false statement that damages
“The new President is not going to give us real someone’s reputation
change.” B. A tendency to do something
C. The President has asserted the authority to C. Publishing private information about a person
assassinate Philippine terror suspects and has tried D. Use of outside editors
to block court challenges of that authority by
invoking “state secrets.” 15. What is defamation?
D. The new President vowed change and roared about A. Publishing unflattering reports about someone
“the fierce urgency of now”. B. An invasion of privacy
C. A clearly labeled personal opinion
10. What does a paraphrase look like? D. An untruthful accusation that lowers someone’s
A. The new President teased his wife saying that she reputation
was an only good with kids when playing poker with
them. 16. At the prewriting stage, the reporters should
B. “He loves to buckle,” the TV host declared in a July. a. identify a central point and have a good kicker in
“The new President is not going to give us real mind.
change.” b. identify a central point and prepare a brief outline.
C. The President has asserted the authority to c. prepare a brief outline and select the quotations to
assassinate Philippine terror suspects and has tried use.
to block court challenges of that authority by d. have the story completely drafted in their head.
invoking “state secrets.”
D. The new President vowed change and roared about 17. The central point of a news story is
“the fierce urgency of now”. a. a justification for running the story on the front page
or the beginning of a news broadcast.
11. What does a partial quotes look like? b. the identity of the most important figure of the story.
A. The new President teased his wife saying that she c. to get readers to read the rest of the newspaper or
was an only good with kids when playing poker with viewers to watch the rest of the news broadcast.
them. d. a one- or two-sentence summary of what the story is
B. “He loves to buckle,” the TV host declared in a July. about and why it is newsworthy.
“The new President is not going to give us real
change.” 18. The reason for constructing a brief outline for a
C. The President has asserted the authority to news story is to
assassinate Philippine terror suspects and has tried a. help decide where the various pieces of information
to block court challenges of that authority by the reporter has collected belong in the story.
invoking “state secrets.” b. enable the reporter to guess how long the finished
D. The new President vowed change and roared about story will be.
“the fierce urgency of now”. c. enable the layout editor to guess how long the
finished story will be.
12. What does an orphan quote look like? d. let the managing editor know that the reporter has a
A. The new President teased his wife saying that she story in progress.
was an only good with kids when playing poker with
them. 19. Research has shown that 75 percent of readers are
B. “He loves to buckle,” the TV host declared in a July. able to understand sentences that average ___
“The new President is not going to give us real a. 20 words in length.
change.” b. 40 words in length.
C. The President has asserted the authority to c. 60 words in length.
assassinate Philippine terror suspects and has tried d. 80 words in length.
to block court challenges of that authority by
20. Reporters strive to
a. eliminate all long sentences from their writing. 27. The race or ethnicity of people involved in news
b. combine short and long sentences in a manner that stories should be included
would be pleasing if read aloud. a. in all instances because it helps readers visualize
c. keep all sentences to 10 words or fewer. the people.
d. keep all sentences to 15 words or more. b. only when it is clearly relevant to the story.

21. The problem with phrases like “dead body” and

“unexpected surprise” is that they are ___
a. short.
b. clichés.
c. redundant.
d. too descriptive.

22. Because newspapers use small type and narrow

columns, reporters strive to write
a. without paragraph breaks.
b. stories with no more than three paragraphs.
c. paragraphs that are no more than one sentence in
length.
d. short paragraphs.

23. For journalists, being objective means that the

reporter
a. remains completely emotionless about all aspects of
the story.
b. incorporates an equal number of quotations from
Republicans and Democrats.
c. makes clear his or her opinion about the events
covered.
d. is not an advocate for a point of view or a participant
in the events covered.

24. Good reporters strive to

a. let readers draw their own conclusions about the
story.
b. let readers know what their opinions are about the
story.
c. tell readers what they should think about the story.
d. tell readers what public officials want them to think
about the story.

25. “Ageism” is the practice of

a. stereotyping the elderly as rich, greedy and
unconcerned about the problems of younger
people.
b. portraying older people as more experienced and,
therefore, more knowledgeable than others.
c. stereotyping the elderly as lonely, inactive,
unproductive, poor, passive, weak and sick.
d. portraying older people as being able to perform any
task younger people can perform.

26. Including in news stories descriptions of the

appearance and dress of women but not doing so for
men is an example of _____.
a. sexism.
b. good news judgment.
c. attention to detail.
d. carelessness.