RECALLS

PARASITOLOGY:

1.
HYMENOLEPIS DIMINUTA
Three pairs of hooklet in an
ovum

2.
STRONGYLOIDES
STERCORALIS
Parasite cause autoinfection in
immunocompromised patients
Nematode with alteration between
free-living and parasitic cycles

3.
PLASMODIUM FALCIPARUM
Cause of malignant malaria

4.
ACANTHAMOEBA
Parasitic acquired from contact
lenses

6.

MYCOLOGY AND VIROLOGY

COXSACKIE A

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RECALLS
Agent of hand, foot and mouth RHINOCLADIELLA VIRUS
disease of humans - Growth on the side and around Patients have syncytial multi
the tip nucleated cell what the virus
MICROSPORUM AUDOUNII cause?
- Antler hyphae
EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS
MALESSEZIA FURFUR Burkitt Lymphoma
- Tinea versicolor
- Requires oil or olive oil HEPATITIC C VIRUS RIBA
- Spaghetti and Meatballs Confirmatory test for Hepatitis C
appearance FECAL ORAL TRANSMISSION
‘’CRAP’’ What is the test of choice to
STOOL C – calcivirus (Norwalk) detect cytomegalovirus (CMV) in
- Specimen of choice for R - rotavirus babies?
Rotavirus A – adenovirus ANTIBODIES STUDIES
P – picornavirus (Hepatitis A)
STOOL ROTAVIRUS SCREENING 2 WEEKS INTERVAL
SCREENING TEST HERPES SIMPLEX AND HERPES Detection of immune rubella
- Enzyme Immunoassay for ZOSTER VIRUSES antibodies done by detecting IgG.
antigen - Viruses caused multiple IgG and IgM
CONFIRMATORY TEST nucleated Antibodies in rubella infections
- ELISA/IMMUNOELECTRON
GERM TUBE VIRUSES are best transported
- Used for detection of Candida and stored on ICE and in special
CMV IMMUNITY albican media that antibiotics and
- PCR DNA urine proteins such as serum, albumin
- IgG and IgM Titer HAIR PERFORATION TEST or gelatin.
POSITIVE NEGATIVE
MYCOSIS FUNGOIDES T.Mentagrophyt T. Rubrum
- Sezary syndrome is T cell e
lymphoma ACCEPTED
A Culture urine sample reached ABSORPTION TEST
BLASTOCONIDIA the laboratory 2 hours late Treponemal Highest sensitivity
- Beginning of pseudo hyphae (may be specificity) = FTA-ABS
RESPIRATORY SYNCTIAL (fluorescent Treponemal Antibody

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RECALLS

BACTERIOLOGY

LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA
Detection of antigen in urine
specimen can be used of
pneumonia infection

HAEMOPHILUS SPP
Requires X and V factor

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RECALLS
It could grow around colonies of Salmonella typhimurium Took a swab sample from a
staphylococcus aureus on CAP Vibrio parahaemolyticus wound and incubated on three
It release Hemin and NAD Providencia spp different media. Nothing grew,
Pseudomonas aeruginosa what happened
CLOSTRIDIUM PERFRINGENS
Double zone of hemolysis and STREPTOCOCCUS PYOGENES STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS
beta lactamase Following a throat infection, LATEX AGGLUTINATION
patient is having kidney problems - Protein A
REVERSE CAMP POSITIVE - Clumping Factor
Confirmation of double zone of BACTERIA HAS NO CELL WALL
hemolysis Patient has walking pneumonia STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS
and is prescribed penicillin. 2 Coagulase: POSITIVE
MYCOBACTERIUM GORDONAE weeks later, still sick? What STAPHYLOCOCCUS SPP
- Can acquire from tap water. happened Coagulase: NEGATIVE

VEILONELLA AURAMINE-RHODAMINE MICROCOCCUS SPP

Gram Negative Anaerobic Cocci FLUOROCHROME STAIN - Gram Positive arranged in
Common member of the mouth - The fluorochrome dyes used in tetrads
and intestinal flora of humans this stain complex to the mycolic - Colonies are yellow and none
Low incidence of pathogenicity acids in acid fast cell walls. hemolytic on SBA
After Jaw Surgery - detection of fluorescing cells is - Furazolidone Resistant
Reduce nitrate to nitrite enhanced by the brightness
Not ferment carbohydrates against a dark background
- Mycobacterium spp. Fluoresce ANAEROBES
AEROMONAS yellow to orange depending on Chopped meat agar (iron and
Gram Negative Straight rods the filter used glycerol
Beta Hemolytic POTASSIUM PERMANGANATE
Oxidase and Catalase Positive acts as a Quenching Agent and Y. Y. Pestis
TSI: A/A or K/AG reduces the background Enterocolitica
Isolated from wound fluorescence of cellular debris. ODC: Positive ODC: Negative
- prevents nonspecific
fluorescence
ONPG NEGATIVE
Neisseria gonorrhoeae 19. Difference between Yersinia
Swab material inhibited the All Yersinia are motile at 25°c but
Proteus vulgaris
sample. not at 37°C except
Proteus mirabilis

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RECALLS
27. Mycobacterium Xenopi = MR: Negative MR: Negative
EIKENELLA Associated with contamination of
- Bleach like odor the hot water system in large 33. How to differentiate different
institution such as hospitals species of enterobacter
CLOSTRIDIUM DIFFICILE 28. Beta hemolytic spore forming - Lysine
- Horse stable odor agent is = Bacillus spp “Box LYSINE + LYSINE -
car” GPB E. Aerogines E. cloacae
LEPTOSPIRA E. seikazaki Lactose
- Spiral form is seen in urine and 29. Fermenter
cultures on fletchers media Bacillus anthracis
Non Hemolytic 34. KLEBSIELLA SPP.
BANDS FOR LYME DISEASE Non=Motile INDOLE + INDOLE -
CDC requires at least 5 out of 10 Catalase Positive K. oxytoca K. pneumonia
bands to be positive. Spore Forming
Medusa Head Colonies 35.
KLEBSIELLA OXYTOCA Black Escher Ulcer Lactose fermenting
Mucoid Pink Colonies GPB enterobacteriaceae
Produce gas E. coli
Indole Positive 30. Klebsiella
TSI: A/A Enterobacteriaceae that Citrobacter
Methyl Red Negative Enterobacter
Enterobacter
PROTEUS VULGARIS Klebsiella 36.
Gram Negative Serratia Non-Lactose fermenting
PAD Positive enterobacteriaceae
Indole Positive 31. Citrobacter and E.coli Salmonella
Citrobacter E.coli Shigella
Citrate: Citrate: Yersinia
26. You see curved gram negative Negative Positive Morganella
bacilli. It was cultured from the GI Serratia
tract of a person with ulcers. What 32. Klebsiella and Enterobacter Edwardsiella
test would you do next to confirm Klebsiella Enterobacter Proteus
its identity? Non-Motile Motile Providencia
Urease Test Lactose Lactose
Fermenter Fermenter

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RECALLS
37. One of the NLF 42. Of the Pad Negative organism 47. Staphylococcus on
enterobacteriaceae which one is which one does not produce H2S Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)
non-motile = Yersinia - Staphylococci can tolerate the
- Shigella high salt concentration (7.5%) of
43. How to differentiate MSA
salmonella from Edwardsiella - Produces Yellow Colonies
38. How to differentiate shigella INDOLE + INDOLE -
species Edwardsiella Salmonella
- Mannitol
- Shigella dysenteriae is the 44. How to differentiate Yersinia
only one that ONPG positive spp.
ODC + ODC -
39. How to differentiate the PAD Y. enterocolitica Y. pestis
positive species Y. Pseudo TB
- Proteus is the only that is
H2S positive 45. How to differentiate Yersinia
Pestis and Yersinia PseudoTB 48. Different between
40. How to differentiate the PAD MOTILE 25°C NON-MOTILE Staphylococcus aureus and other
positive species 25°C staphylococcus spp
CITRATE + CITRATE - Y. Pseudo TB Y. pestis COAGULASE COAGULASE
Proteus vulgaris Proteus POSITIVE NEGATIVE
mirabilis Staphylococcus Other
46. Selective and differential aureus Staphylococcus
41. How to differentiate between medium for Yersinia Entercolitica
providencia and Morganella CIN Medium = Colonies will
CITRATE + CITRATE - ferment mannitol and absorb 49.
Proteus vulgaris Proteus the eye. MICROCOCCUS
mirabilis Clear colonies with pink Furazolidone Resistant
center Bacitracin Sensitive
- Providencia is citrate positive Non-hemolytic on SBA
-Providencia is citrate negative
- morganella cant cit with us
because she doesn’t have h2s

50.
STREPTOCOCCUS BOVIS /

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RECALLS
GALLOLYTICUS Rod-shaped bacteria or 59. Detection of denaturation
GROUP D ENTEROCOCCUS Slightly curved protein
Gram Positive Cocci in chains Containing metachromatic regions - Western blot
Alpha, Beta or Gamma hemolytic
Catalase Negative 60. Facultative aerobic
Positive for Bile Esculin Hydrolysis 53. - One that can live in the presence
Growth 6.5 NaCl ACINETOBACTER of oxygen.
Positive PYR reaction Oxidase Negative - But does not require it
GROUP D NON- Partially or NLF on MAC agar
ENTEROCOCCUS Antibiotic Resistant infection 61. Differentiate type of
Alpha, Beta or Gamma hemolytic streptococcus
54. - Hemolysis on blood agar
Positive for Bile Esculin Hydrolysis
No Growth 6.5 NaCl Bacteria cause abortion
Chlamydia abortus 62. Gram Negative coccobacilli
Negative PYR reaction
grow on chocolate agar not in
Brucella spp
blood.
51. Coxiella burnetti
- Haemophilus influenza
OPTOCHIN SENSITIVE Listeria spp
BACTERIA Leptospira spp
63. What specimen should be
Streptococcus pneumonia rechecked when sensitivity
Polysaccharide capsule 55. Level of biosafety for HIV cultures turned out Gentamicin
Lancet shaped diplococci - Biosafety Level 2 Resistant?
Enterococcus
56. Musty Basement Odor
52. This catalase positive, Gram - Nocardia & Streptomyces 64.
negative bacilli with diptheroid ACTINOMYCES
morphology is highly resistant to 57. Antibiotics resistance in
Thin-walled
Klebsiella
many antibiotics and associated Branching
Extended spectrum beta
with immunocompromised Filamentous
lactams
patients Carbapeneams
Corynebacterium diphtheria 65. Virulence factor of N.
58. Influenza sample gonorrhea
Nasopharyngeal swab 1. Pili
CORYNEBACTERIUM
2. Endotoxin
DIPTHERIA
3. Capsule
Non-spore forming

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RECALLS
66. Cystic Fibrosis ERYSIPELOTHRIX - Long chain fatty acids
- Pseudomonas Aeruginosa RHUSIOPATHIAE - Amino Acids
- Staphylococcus aureus - Oxidase and Catalase Negative - Carbon and Energy sources
- Burkholderia cepacia - H2S
67. Patient have cutaneous lesion - Ferment Glucose and Lactose 75.
on his palm and sole, it show - Pipe Cleaner incubated at 22 C FUSOBACTERIUM
spirochetes with corkscrew motion - Butchers - Long thin Gram Negative Rods
- Borrelia that are tapered (pointed) at the
72. ends.
68. ANAEROBES NUTRITIONAL
VIBRIO VULNIFICUS REQUIREMENTS
- Infection from eating raw oyster - Vitamin K
- Hemin 76.
- Yeast Extract BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS
69. - Causing of whooping cough
PSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA 73. - Positive Nitrite
Oxidase Positive ACID FAST STAINING - Positive Urease
TSI: K/K ZIEHL- KINYOUN - Positive Motility
Production in Mueller-Hinton NEELSEN STAIN
agar or Trypticase soy agar PRIMARY PRIMARY 77
Pyocyanin – Bright Bluid Carbolfuchsin Carbolfuchsin 19. Differentiating Test for
Pyoverdin – Green DECOLORIZING DECOLORIZING Citrobacter and Salmonella
Pyorubin – Red Acid alcohol Acid alcohol Lysine Decarboxylase and ONPG
Pyomelanin – Brown HEAT COLD STAIN
Ability to grow at 42°C COUNTER STAIN COUNTER STAIN
Methylen Blue Methylen Blue CLINICAL CHEMISTRY
70. Slides are examined using OIO on
MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE a light microscope for 15 minute, 1. Which increase first after a
Cause community acquired viewing a minimum of 300 fields myocardial infarction?
atypical pneumoniae before a slide is called negative Myoglobin
Often referred to as Walking
Pneumoniae 74. 2. Causes antibody against TSH
Lack of a cell wall TREPONEMA Graves’ Disease = TSHR
Resistant to all beta lactams Spirochetes can use antibody *Increase T3 and T4
71. - Carbohydrates *Decrease TSH

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RECALLS
3. Causes antibody against Related to Lewis 17. Blood product that has highest
Thyroglobulin and Thyroid cells capability of transmitting
Hashimotos = Anti- hepatitis: needle stick
thyroglobulin 9.
*Decrease T3 and T4 FASTING BLOOD SUGAR 18. The action of caffeine for
*Increase TSH 0-50 mg/dl Hypoglycemia Diazo reaction to measure
50-100 mg/dl Normal unconjugated bilirubin
4. Analytes is cofactor for most of 100-125 mg/dl Impaired
300 enzymes: >126 mg/dl Diabetes 19. Alkaline Phosphatase –
Magnesium (Zinc too) enzyme that uses p-
*Reference Range: 1.7-2.4 10. Increase in nitrophenylphosphate (pnp) as
mg/dl Pheochromocytoma = substrate @ pH of 9.6
Metanephrines in urines (24 is highest at Paget disease
5. Condition is the most common hours collection) (bone destruction disease)
cause of increase anion gap:
- Uremia (renal failure) 11. Sensitivity is TP/TP + FN x 20. Estriol – Estrogen increase in
- Lactic acidosis 100 pregnant women
- Ketoacidosis 12. Specificity is TN/TN+FP x
- Hypernatremia 100 21. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
- Ingestion of methanol increased right before ovulation
- Ethylene glycol or salicylate 13. Increased alkaline
(slumped) phosphatase (alp) in Obstruction 22. Oral contraceptives cause an
Jaundice increase in serum iron
6. In which case is magnesium (Post hepatic)
monitored? 23. Hashimoto lab and
Pre-eclampsia (eclampsia) 14. Lipoprotein that transport the antibodies
majority of cholesterol into cells - T3 and T4 decreased
7. Patient taking primidone LDL - TSH increased
showing toxicity, but blood levels 15. Procainamide metabolite - Most common cause of primary
normal, taking phenobarbital that need to be measured along hypothyroidism (TPOAb, TMAb,
level with procainamides NAPA TgAb present)
TMAbs = Thyroid anti-
8. 16. microsomal antibody
CA19-9 BENZOYLECGONINE TPOsAbs = Anti-thyroid
Pancreatic Cancer Main metabolite of cocaine Peroxidase Antibody
Gastrointestinal Cancer

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RECALLS
TgAbs = Anti-thyroglobulin the amount of fluorescence
Antibody 36. Why is albumin the first polarization to the amount of
protein to be detected in tests for fluorescence polarization. That is,
24. Adrenal Cushing Syndrome renal failure? The molecular size greater the concentration of
Decreased ACTH, Increased is smallest Fluorescence Polarized
cortisol immunoassay
37. Cortisol excess will result in
25. Apo lipoprotein A found on Hyperglycemia
HDL 44. Competitive inhibition:
38. Presence of rheumatoid factor Analyte the less the amount of
26. How is LDL is extracted from in blood may result in false polarized light detected
HDL = heparin manganese positive for what test? VDRL
45. Cardiac troponins =
27. What is the purpose of the 39. Disease associated with the ff regulates myocyte contraction
caffeine in bilirubin? Take the results: Pituitary Tumor
albumin - Increased TSH 46.
- Increased T3 Increase Total Bilirubin
28. Increased in cathecholamines - Increased Free T4 Liver Disease
in what disease Hemolysis
Pheochromocytoma 40. If excess PTH is released what HDFN
would you find in elevated Infants with >20mg/dl is
29. Liver cancer = AFP may be amounts in serum = Calcium kernicterus
significant in ovarian or testicular
cancer as well 41. Enzyme controls run on a 47.
machine give results around 3- Increase Direct/Conjugated
30. Breast cancer = CA 15-3 standard deviation. Samples run Bilirubin
31. Pancreatic Cancer = CA 19-9 on the same machine give the Liver Disease
32. Ovarian Cancer = CA 125 result of less than 1 SD. Obstructive jaundice
33. Colorectal Cancer = CEA = controls were left at room Excretion deficits:
34. Beta HCG marker of temperature for several days Dubin Johnson syndrome
malignancy = Beta subunit of Biliary Obstruction
HCG, Increase in trophoblastic 42. RAST test detects
tumors IgE to particular antigens
48.
Increase
35. Measure total igE 43. The amount of analyte in the
Indirect/Unconjugated
RIST: Radioimmunosorbent t test sample is inversely proportional to
Bilirubin

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RECALLS
Pre-hepatic Luteinizing Hormone Urine Urobilinogen Increase
Some hepatic Prolactin
Post-Hepatic Thyroid Stimulating Hormone 62. Inside of a reference electrode
Hemolysis ADH is filled with what solution?
Gilbert Syndrome Oxytocin KCL = Potassium Chloride
Crigler-Najjar
63. TIBC is measure of
55. Amylase breaks down starch Iron bound to transferrin

49. Pituitary gland produced by 56. Lipase breaks down fats 64. PRIMARY
ACTH HYPERALDOSTERONISM
57. LD is increased in High Sodium
50. Follicle Stimulating AMI (LD2>LD1 –not specific) Low Potassium
Hormone is sperm and ovum Hemolysis (LD1>LD2)
production 65. Jaffe Reaction in creatinine
58. Evaluating Wilson Disease End point of colimetric
51. ACTH is regulated by Diagnosis low values of plasma
corticotrophin-releasing hormone ceruloplasmin would 66. Decrease level of Tryptophan
from hypothalamus - Increased urine copper and Niacin
- Decreased serum copper Pellagra Disease
52.
LUTEINIZING HORMONE 59. Hormones increases plasma 67. AST Technique
Maturation of follicles glucose concentration by Kinetic
Ovulation converting glycogen to glucose
= Glucagon and Epinephrine 68. Tumor marker for SLE
Production of Estrogen
CA 19-9
Progesterone
60. Glycoproteins = Acute phase CEA
Testosterone
proteins generally fall into
Glycoproteins 69. opposite direction for
53. Prolactin regulates Lactation
-produce in anterior pituitary atherosclerosis
glands HDL
54. Pituitary glands activated by
hypothalamus produce
61. In hemolytic anemia, how do 70. Confirmatory for Iron
ACTH deficiency anemia?
Follicle Stimulating Hormone bilirubin levels change?
Unconjugated Bilirubin Ferritin
Growth Hormone
Increase

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RECALLS
71. Normal level in anion gap? 79.
10-18 mmol/l NEPHROTIC SYNDROME 86. AST will affect Hemolysis
Alpha 2 Macroglobulin
72. What enzyme is increased in URINALYSIS RESULT IN 87. Process of converting glucose
mumps? NEPHROTIC SYNDROME to oxalate – Glycolysis
- Salivary Amylase * Heavy proteinuria
* Oval Fat Bodies 88. Troponin
73. What plasma level is * Fat droplets - Specific marker for heart
decreased in hyperglycemia? *Fatty and Waxy casts
- Sodium 89. B-type natriuretic peptide
Hyperglycemia causes osmotic Levels are already used as
shifts of water from the 80. Delta check biomarkers for gender, severity of
intracellular space, causing a Significant change in patient lab symptoms or stage of heart failure
relative dilutional hyponatremia results compared to laboratory
results 90. Case about women who have
74. Enzyme elevated in bleeding ulcer with no iron in bone
hepatocellular? ALT 81. First step in the photometric marrow her results show
procedure to determine iron LOW: Iron, Ferritin, Hemoglobin,
75. What is the aim of creatinine concentration Hematocrit
clearance test? Acidification HIGH: TIBC
Used to assess the glomerular What is the best diagnosis: Iron
filtration rate (GFR) 82. Coronary infarction, muscle Deficiency Anemia
spasms and sudden death can be
76. BUN urease methods actually associated with the decrease of 91. Blood gases
measures -Magnesium HCO3: Normal
NAD CO2: Low
83. Cushing disease Ph: High
77. 4 sets of mean and SD. ACTH – Increase Respiratory Alkalosis
The value with the lowest Cortisol - Increase
coefficient of variation 92. Cardiac Infarction enzymes
(SD/Mean X 100) 84. Reproducibility - Troponin
- Precision - CK-MB
78. Action of caffeine benzoate in - CK
bilirubin determination 85. Accuracy - AST
Accelerator - Closeness of the measurement - LDH
of a true value

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RECALLS
93. Flow Cytometry Principle amplification -Phosphate levels rise while
- The basic principle of flow calcium levels fall
cytometry is based on the Branched-chain DNA assay
measurement of light scattered by employs the principle HYPOCALCEMIA WITH ELEVATED
particles and the fluorescence - Signal amplification PTH
observed when these particles are Points to causes having to do with
passed in a stream through a 99. HYPERCALCEMIA calcium metabolism
laser beam CHIMPS Example:
Cancer - Alkalotic states
94. Hyperthyroidism - Decreases Albumin
Immunohistochemistry (IHC) Iatrogenic causes - Low dietary CALCIUM
or Multiple myeloma - Lack of absorption of calcium
Fluorescence in situ Hyperparathyroidism from the gut
hybridization (FISH) Sarcoidosis - low vitamin D levels
- Method used to measure
HER2/Neu / Breast cancer HYPERCALCEMIA WITH LOW HYPOCALCEMIA WITH LOW PTH
PTH - Parathyroid gland dysfunction
95. Enzymes correlates with ALP - Points to primary calcium
= GGT metabolic causes and acidotic 101.
states FLUOROMETRY
96. Phenylalanine deaminase Photometric measurement of light
PPM IS POSITIVE HYPERCALCEMIA WITH HIGH emitted by a substance that has
Providencia PTH been previously excited by a
Proteus - Indicates parathyroid diseases source of UV light.
Morganella such as adenoma (most FLOURESCENCE
commonly) or carcinoma Is a process where atoms absorb
97. (uncommonly) energy at a particular wavelength
Thrombocytosis/ (excitation)
Thrombocythemia LONGER WAVELENGTH and
- Increased Platelet 100. HYPOCALCEMIA LOWER ENERGY than the
- Splenomegaly Hypocalcemia and exciting wavelength.
- Bleeding hyperphosphatemia in the face of
elevated BUN and Creatinine 102.
98. Indicative of renal disease Parameters Reference
- Branched DNA assay employs strongly suggest tubular failure Range
the principle of Signal pH 7.35 - 7.45

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RECALLS
pC02 35 – 45 mmHg glucose renal excretion
p02 80 – 100 mmHg - Normal or elevated plasma 5. Stomatocyte Blood
HC03 22 – 26 mmHg sodium and potassium Liver Disease
Total C02 23 – 27 mmHg - Slightly decrease bicarbonate
Base excess -2 TO +2 mEq/L - Elevated blood urea nitrogen 6. Iatrogenic anemia is due to
Oxygen 90 – 100 % and creatinine excessive blood draws
saturation - And an elevated osmolality
(greater than 320 mOsm/dl) 7. Sample taken from indwelling
Ketones are ABSENT catheter. Patient isn’t on any
103. anticoagulants yet PTT and TT are
HEMOLYTIC JAUNDICE way elevated.
- Negative Urine Bilirubin HEMATOLOGY Heparin contamination from
- Positive Urine Urobilinogen the catheter
1. RBC inclusion can be seen on
blood smear of a child who 8. It is a heparin Co-factor
104.
accidently ingested moth balls deficiency with thrombosis =
ESR
Heinz bodies Anti=Thrombin III
INCREASED ESR
Refrigerated sample not returned
2. Causes of decrease HBA1C 9. t (15:17) for
to room temperature
*Sickle cell ACUTE PROMYELOCYTIC
High Room Temperature
*Chronic hemolytic anemia LEUKEMIA = APL or M3
Tilted ESR tube
- Hyper granular
Vibration
3. Cells releases promyelocytes in bone
DECREASED ESR histamine/heparin Eosinophil marrow aspirate
Delay in testing and Basophil
Clotted blood sample 10. Retics stain with
Bubbles in ESR column New methylene blue and
Low Room Temperature 4. Burr cells blood Wrights (polychromatophilic)
Narrow ESR column diameter Uremia
11. Howell jolly bodies stain with
HYPEROSMOLAR COMA Wrights and new methylene
- Plasma glucose values blue
exceeding 1000 mg/dl (55
mmol/L) 12. Pappenheimer bodies stain
- there will be an overproduction with wrights, new methylene
of glucose and an impaired

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RECALLS
blue and confirm Prussian 17. Blood smear picture that look Affected by lipemia, Lipemia and
blue like Howell bodies the retic is 18% High WBCs could interfere with
the technologies should stain = the light used for measuring
13. Heinz bodies stain with new Heinz bodies staining MCHC
methylene blue, supravital
stain 19. The stain being too blue = 27. Howell-Jolly Bodies
Decrease pH buffer - DNA Fragments
14. Echinocyte vs. Acanthocyte - Usually pitted by splenetic cells
Echinocyte Acanthocyte 20. If there is a rouleaux - seen in alcoholism, post
- Equal - Crazy looking formation on the blood what will splenectomy, beta thalassemia,
- Burr cells - Spur cells you do? Saline replacement severe hemolytic anemia, and
- Renal Disease - Liver disease megaloblastic anemia
21. Not likely cause of abnormal
thrombin time (TT) = Aspirin 28. If you see eosinophils, did you
* Echinocyte may be commonly
included to your LAP score?
due to faulty drying during smear
22. A hemoglobin F with Nope
preparation.
concentration of 100% maybe
*Echinocyte attributable to pH
seen in which beta thalassemia: 28. Factor work for thrombin
changes, caused by faulty drying
- Delta beta thalassemia major Thrombin acts to convert
during smear preparation
Factor XI  XIa
Factor VIII  VIIIa
rist
23. PappenheImer bodies are Factor V Va
15. How to calculate LAP score
usually seen in patients who have Fibrinogen  Fibrin
and its importance
splenectomies
Increase LAP = leukomoid
29. CD Marker for CML
reaction
24. Order of draw: Blue, Red, - CD 13, CD 15, CD 33
Decrease LAP = CML
Green, Purple Gray (Other)
Reference Range: 13-130
CD Marker for CLL
25. At an alkaline pH which - CD 19, CD 5, CD 20 CD 23
16.
hemoglobin cannot be separated
PURE RED CELL APLASIA
from hemoglobin S and during 30. Most important in fibrinolysis
Normocytic
hemoglobin electrophoresis system? PLASMIN
Normochromic
Hg D
Normal Platelet 31. Someone has PTT prolonged
Retics 0.1% 26. MCHC what to do next?
- Mixing studies

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RECALLS

32. Does not correct the results 38. Vitamin b12 Deficiency 42. The presence of lyse-resistant
and there is no incidence of - Drop cells RBC can affect WBC count
heparin contamination. What test - Basophilic stippling
to do next? - Polychromasia 43. Beta-HCG is marker for
- drVVT -Hyper segmented neutrophils Testicular Cancer
An inhibitor is suspected
dRVVT can be used to detect 39. Used to monitorind heparin 44. Test to identify Hairy Cell
lupus anticoagulant Aptt Leukemia?
TRAP
33. PT, APTT and TT are all 40. Affected by Vitamin K
abnormal. What is most likely the - Factor X 45. D-dimer test is normal
cause? - Factor IX FDP is abnormal
- Afibrinogenemia - Factor VIII -Primary fibrigenolysis
- Dysfibrinogenemia - Factor II
- Heparin Contamination 46. Anemia of a severe burn
- Thrombin inhibitors 41. Aure rod seen I patient is caused HEMOLYSIS
- Myeloblast
34. Why is platelet poor plasma
important in coagulation testing? 42.
- Platelets can provide the Bands 6%
phospholipids surface for Lymphocyte 55%
activating clotting factors and Monocyte 4%
hence interfere with the Eosinophil 3%
laboratory diagnosis. Basophils 10% 47.
Neutrophils 40% FOLIC ACID with LIVER
35. CD Marker of plasma cell DISEASE
CD20 39. Visible with supravital stains Hemoglobin: 9.5 g/dL
- G6PD Deficiency MCV: 102
36. Hereditary Spherocytosis - Beta thalassemia Present in Stomatocytes and
- Increased in Osmatic Fragility - Hemoglobin H disease Target cells

37. Before read the coagulation 40. Mature and immature blood Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dl
test cells are best differentiated from MCV = 102
4 seconds each other using CHROMATIN Stomatocytes and target
CLUMPING cells are present

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RECALLS
- Folic Acid with Liver disease - Severe anemia Dysfibrinogenemias
(Usually normocytic) Factor X
48. - Reticulocytopenia Factor V
INTRAVASCULAR HEMOLYSIS - Normal WBC and Platelets Factor II
DECREASE PLASMA HAPTOGLOBIN counts
55.
49. Smears shows many RBC Diamond black fan anemia (DBA) Hemoglobin C disorder
crenated cells, bizarre forms of - Blackfan-Diamond syndrome A substitution of lysine for
monocytes, vacuole containing -Congenital Pure red cell aplasia glutamic acid at the same position
granulocytes. The MT made -Congenital hypoplastic anemia in the beta chain occurs
another smear but got the same Laboratory Findings
results. What could be cause? Use 52.
- Target cells
of Older/Incorrect/Expired ABNORMAL APTT
- Mild Hypochromia
anticoagulants such as oxalate. Associated with bleeding
Factor VIII
56.
49. Heparin acts by inhibiting Factor IX
ACUTE PROMYELOCYTIC
activated factor II Factor XI
LEUKEMIA
Not Associated with bleeding
(FAB M3)
50. Neutrophil Factor XII
Cytogenetically, M3 is
hypersegmentation Prekallikrein (PK)
characterizes by a balanced
Normal neutrophils contain 3- HMWK
reciprocal translocation between
5lobes that are separated by Lupus anticoagulant
chromosomes 15 and 17, which
filaments
results in the fusion between PML
Most associated with the 53.
gene and retinoic acid receptor a
megaloblastic anemias. ABNORMAL PT
(RARa)
Factor VII
Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia
2 causes of megaloblastic anemia
- t (15;17)
1. Vitamin B12 deficiency 54. - (q22;q21)
2. Folate deficiency ABNORMAL APTT AND PT - PML-RARA abnormality
Medical Conditions
51. Pure Red Cell Aplasia (PRCA) Anticoagulants
is a rare disorder of erythropoiesis 57.
DIC ANEMIA OF CHRONIC
characterized by a selective and Liver Disease
severe decrease in erythrocyte DISORDER
Vitamin K deficiency
precursors in an otherwise normal - Low Iron
Massive Transfusion
bone marrow - Low TIBC
Rarely

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RECALLS
- Normal Ferritin (Iron Stores) 7. Source for irradiation of blood 13. DAT positive indicate
products: Cesium 137 or Cobalt Hemolytic Disease of the
60 newborn
BLOOD BANKING
8. Group B3 is generally 14. If an individual is a
1. Patient receiving blood from a associated with a mixed field nonsecretor (sese) with Lewis
mother requires what type of reaction phenotype Le (a+b-) what antigen
blood? will be detected in his fluid?
Irradiated blood 9. If volume of fetal bleed is 62ml, Le a
*relatives might probably have how many vials of RhIG should be
similar HLA which will recognized given to the mother? 15. What blood group reagent
by the baby’s immune system as A. 2 deteriorates faster while in use?
same hence won’t be attacked. B. 3 MNS
*may cause Graft vs. Host
disease. Hence Leukocyte needs B. 3, one 300ml vial will 16. Enzymes enhances
to be irradiated protect against 30ml of D- ABO, Rh, Kidd, Lewis
positive fetal blood. Round up
2. Anti-I = Adult if >x.5 and add 1 dose, Round 17. Destroyed enhances
Anti-i = newborn/Cord cells down id >x.5 and add 1 dose MNS, Duffy, Xga
62/30 = 2.06
3. Antigens Lewis (Lea and Leb) 2+1 = 3 18. No effect
Is absorbed from the serum onto Kell
red cells 10. Best blood type of choice for
blood transfusion for new born 19. Apheresis is equal to how
4. Most severe cause of HDN? babies? many random platelet donor
ABO O negative cross matched units? 6-8 Units
with maternal blood
5. Purpose AHG 20. A group O individual has which
Detect immunoglobulin’s present 11. Patient JK (a-b-) what do I of the ff sets of isoagglutinatins?
on the surface of RBC and serum want to have in the serum - Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-A,B
JK3
6. How to determine true from 21. In testing a blood bank
false agglutination 12. Why do we use cross match? specimen Anti-IgG (+) and Anti-
= add normal saline See what Compatible is C3d (+). What should be done
next?
- Elution

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RECALLS
Over centrifugation
22. Blood group type expression 28. A mother has a high titer of Incorrect interpretation
of antigens is weakened or in anti-D and the baby has severe Recording of tests results
some cases negative during jaundice. The red cells have TECHNICAL AND CLERICAL
pregnancy already been coated. What would PROBLEMS (FALSELY
Lewis result? NEGATIVE)
False negative Rh typing Lack of specimen or reagents in
23. Patient has coagulation factor the test system
deficiency what we give him? 29. A patient’s blood reveals a An incorrect serum: Cell ratio
Fresh Frozen Plasma band in the A-S region in Under centrifugation or incorrect
hemoglobin electrophoresis. But incubation temperature
24. Permanent Deferral the patient is negative for sickling Old or otherwise inactive reagents
- Hepatitis test. The patient has Incorrect interpretation, such as
Hemoglobin D trait failure to recognize hemolysis as a
25. Minimum HCT for donation positive reaction or an error in the
- A level of 38% is considered the 30. recording of test results.
minimum needed for donating SUBGROUPS OF B
blood B3 – Mixed field agglutination with 32.
anti-B and/or anti-AB The H antigen is found in lowest
26. When giving recipient blood BX – Agglutination with anti-AB concentration A1B
transfusion, how much HCt % (wk/0 with anti-B) O > A2 > B > A2B > A1> B > A1B
increase  3% Bm – No agglutination with anti-B Greastest ---------------------
and anti-AB Lowest
Secretors demonstrates quantities
of B substances in saliva 33.
Bel – No agglutination with anti-B ADSORPTION-ELUTION
and anti-AB, Secretor contain only - Most helpful to confirm a weak
H substance and no B substance ABO subgroup
in saliva

27. 34.
31.
What is the purpose of adding GLYCOPROTEIN A
ABO GROUPING
D+ red cells in Rosette Test? - M/N
TECHNICAL AND CLERICAL
The indicator red cell will form GLYCOPROTEIN B
PROBLEMS (FALSELY POSITIVE)
agglutinates (rosettes) with the - S/s and U
- Contaminated reagent or dirty
fetal D-positive red cells. glassware.

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RECALLS
35. Lymph’s B cells infected, Tuberculosis
DOSAGE EFFECT T cells reactive Leprosy
Stronger agglutination when a red GVHD
cell antigen is expressed from 6. Lupus anticoagulant causes
homozygous increased risk of thrombosis 12. Anti-smooth muscle antibody
Chronic Hepatitis
36. 7. HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION 13. Type I Hypersensitivity
TYPE I = Anaphylactic Shock stimulated by IgE
IMS Bee Sting
1. HTLV Confirmatory test Hay Fever 13. Nucleolar pattern ANA is seen
Western blot Asthma in Scleroderma
Food Allergies
2. If RPR Test is positive and ABS- 14. SLE (Systematic Lupus
FTA Test is negative, what is the 8. HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION Erythematous)
interpretation of the results? TYPE II = Agglutination Butterfly rash
FALSE POSITIVE FOR RPR Transfusion Reaction
RPR = Positive HDFN
(SCREENIING) Hashimotos
ABS-FTA = Negative 15.
(CONFIRMATORY) 9. HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION
TYPE III = Agglutination
3. HBV disease marker found in Transfusion Reaction Measurement of fetal lung
individuals with a past infection? HDFN maturity
Life time marker Hashimotos Phosphatidyl glycerol
Anti-HBc
15. HIV-1 & HIV -2 combination
4. 10. HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION ELISA test is positive in a patient
What stage of hepatitis TYPE III = Immune Complex with symptoms of immune
Anti-HBe = Positive deficiency. Western blot was
Serum Sickness
Anti-HBc IgG = Positive inconclusive for HIV
SLE
Anti-HBs = Positive = does HIV-2 western blot
RA
Immunity to Hep B due to
previous infection 16. The prozone effect when
11. HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION
performing a screening titer is
TYPE IV = T Cell Dependent most likely to results in: False
5. Cell type is increased in
Contact dermatitis negatives
infectious mononucleosis?

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RECALLS
30. Rheumatoid factor marker in
17. The radioactive method used 22. CD8 cells are cytotoxic autoimmune disease for
to measure red cell survival uses Rheumatoid arthritis
Cr51 23. Autoantibody is antibodies
that react with self-antigens. 31.
18. Half-life HETEROPHILE ANTIBODIES
IgG 23 days 24. HLA type 1  CD8 (Cytotoxic INCREASES:
IgM and IgA 5-6 days T lymphocyte.) Infectious Mononucleosis
IgE 2-3 days Adult : 10% - 20%
Igd 2.8 days (1-3) 25. Hepatitis B marker shows Pedia: 50% with IM are
pervious infection? Heterophile negative
18. What is Flocculation? Anti-HBc 32.
Bridging and binding of MYASTHENIA GRAVIS
destabilized solids into larger 26. How does free to total PSA Autoimmune disease that affects
particles ratio show risk of prostate cancer? the neuromuscular junction
- When free/total PSA is equal or It is characterized by weakness
Differs from precipitation in that, less than % there is a 49-65% risk. and fatigability of skeletal
prior to flocculation, colloids are Greater than 25% there is a 9- muscles.
merely suspended in a liquid and 16% risk. ANTIBODY-MEDIATED DAMAGE TO
not actually dissolved in a solution THEACETHYCHOLINE RECEPTORS
27. HPV test is often done for in skeletal muscles leads to this
This is used in VDRL and RPR what condition? progressive muscle weakness.
tests. Genital warts
33.
19. True about Lupus 28. PASSIVE AGGLUTINATION
anticoagulant The binding site of an antibody Agglutination reaction where a
- Causes micro clot formation contains. particle with known antigen reacts
in blood vessels of SLE 1 light chain and 1 heavy with an antibody
patients. chain

20. Predominant cell type in CLL LAB MANAGEMENT

- B Cell 29. How to diagnose Fragile X 1. Biggest problem with PCR
- CLL is slow growing leukemia syndrome Contamination with
affecting developing B cells Southern Blot nucleotides
21. CD4 cells are Inducer 2.

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RECALLS
Quantitative (real time) PCR is 2. Causes agglutination in the
useful in detecting EBV (Epstein form of attached sperms, head to 8. We collect CSF in 3 Tube
Barr Virus) head, Tail to tailor head to tail 2-4 ml in each tube
Anti-sperm antibodies Tube 1 Chemistry and
3. What are the steps of PCR? Serology
1. Denaturation 3. Waxy cast found in urine Tube 2 Microbiology
2. Annealing indicates Tube 3 Hematology
3. Transcription End stage of degeneration
(renal failure) 9. Normal Cell Count for CSF?
4. Electrical fire is class C 0-5
4. Eosinophil’s in urine
5. Needed for PCR> Interstitial Nephritis 10. Acidic urine specimens are
- Thermostable DNA polymerase frequently seen in
- Primer High protein diet
- Denatured DNA 5. Lead poisoning = elevated
level of aminolevulinic acid in 11. What can make CSF to appear
6. urine cloudy?
10% SODIUM HYPOCHLORITE Crystals
This solution is used to effectively 6. Fiber strands in urine resemble
reduce/decontaminate nucleic what under the microscope The amount of protein and WBCs
acid from PCR? Hyaline Casts are normal

7. 12. Acidic urine, symptoms of

94°C 6. What test is used to confirm the severe liver disease
In PCR, The ideal temperature for Immunofixation Leucine Crystals
the denaturation process Electrophoresis
13. Biomarker of kidney function
Cystatin C
7. A 3 year-olds urine specimen
AUB shows: 14. Urine formed by
25 Renal Tubular /HPF - Filtration
1. Liquefaction time Granular Casts - Reabsorption
30-60 mins 3-5 WBCs - Secretion
Nitrate Negative
15. Turbidity or milky color of the
= Acute Tubular Necrosis urine caused

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RECALLS
- Bacteria minutes
- Crystals
- Fat 21.
- White blood cells AFFECTED BY
- Red Blood cells REFRACTOMETRY
- Mucus Thread *Glucose
*Protein
16. Normal random urine *Radiopaque dyes
4.5-8

17. Normal First morning pH is

slightly acidic 22.
5.0-6.0 RENAL GLUCOSURIA
Blood Glucose of 100mg/dl
18. There is a band anodal to Urinalysis : Positive Glucose strip
albumin in CSF electrophoresis.
This is should be reported as
Normal 23.
Pre-albumin is normally present in
PORTWINE URINE COLOR
CSF
Porphyrin
19.
Mucin clot test uses acetic acid

20.
SYNOVIAL FLUID
Viscosity comes from
polymerization of the hyaluronic
acid and is essential for the
proper joints lubrication.
VERY VISCOUS
May need to be pretreated by
adding 1 drop of 0.05%
HYALURONIDASE in phosphate
buffer per milliliter of fluid and
incubating at 37°C for 5