LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25

CLAT MOCK
TR ID.

(In Figures)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 120
1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader (OMR) 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for shading
Response Sheet is supplied along with this the circles. Indicate only the most appropriate
Questions Booklet and the carbon copy has to be answer by shading from the options provided. The
detached and taken by the candidates. answer circle should be shaded completely
2. In case of any discrepancy in the question booklet without leaving any space.
(QB), please request the invigilator for 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected on
replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. Do the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have to take
not use the previous OMR response Sheet for a necessary precautions before marking the
fresh booklet so obtained. appropriate circle.
3. Candidates will not be given a second blank OMR 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card duly
response Sheet under any circumstance. Hence, Signed by the invigilator, as the same has to be
OMR response Sheet shall be handled carefully. produced at the time of Admission.
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do not
sought on the Questions Paper fold.
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. the space provided on the OMR response Sheet.
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall Candidate should sign in the space provided on the
result in the cancellation of his/her examination. OMR response Sheet.
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No., and sign
prosecuted. in the space/column provided in the attendance
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law sheet.
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response Sheet to
multiple Choice Questions. the invigilator after the examination.
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple choice 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR
objective type questions. 0.25 marks will be response Sheet other than the details required and
deducted for every wrong answer or where in the spaces provided for
candidates have marked more than one response.
10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
response Sheet.

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 SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): I am Steve Jobs, and my third story is about death. When I was 17, I read a quote that went
something like: "If you live each day as if it was your last, someday you'll most certainly be right." It made an
impression on me, and since then, for the past 33 years, I have looked in the mirror every morning and asked myself:
"If today were the last day of my life, would I want to do what I am about to do today?"
And whenever the answer has been "No" for too many days in a row, I know I need to change something.
Remembering that I'll be dead soon is the most important tool I've ever encountered to help me make the big choices
in life. Because almost everything — all external expectations, all pride, all fear of embarrassment or failure - these
things just fall away in the face of death, leaving only what is truly important. Remembering that you are going to
die is the best way I know to avoid the trap of thinking you have something to loose. You are already naked. There
is no reason not to follow your heart.
About a year ago, I was diagnosed with cancer. I had a scan at 7:30 in the morning, and it clearly showed a tumor on
my pancreas. I didn't even know what a pancreas was. The doctors told me this was almost certainly a type of cancer
that is incurable, and that I should expect to live no longer than three to six months. My doctor advised me to go
home and get my affairs in order, which is the doctor's code for ‘prepare to die’. It means to try to tell your kids
everything you thought you'd have the next 10 years to tell them in just a few months. It means making sure
everything is buttoned up so that it will be as easy as possible for your family. It means to say your goodbyes.
I lived with that diagnosis all day. Later that evening my wife, who was there, told me that when they viewed the
cells under a microscope, the doctors started crying because it turned out to be a very rare form of pancreatic cancer
that is curable with surgery. I had the surgery, and I'm fine now.
This was the closest I have been to facing death, and I hope it's the closest I get for a few more decades. Having lived
through it, I can now say this to you with a bit more certainty than when death was a useful but purely intellectual
concept: No one wants to die. Even people who want to go to heaven don't want to die to get there. And yet death is
the destination we all share. No one has ever escaped it. That is as it should be because Death is very likely the single
best invention of Life. It is Life's change agent.
It clears out the old to make way for the new. Right now, the new is you, but someday not too long from now, you
will gradually become the old and be cleared away. Sorry to be so dramatic, but it is quite true. Your time is limited,
so don't waste it living someone else's life. Do not be trapped by dogma — which is living with the results of other
people's thinking. Don't let the noise of others' opinions drown out your own inner voice. In addition, most
important, have the courage to follow your heart and intuition. They somehow already know what you truly want
to become. Everything else is secondary. Success is going to be yours as it is linked with me these days.
1. What is the mood/tone of Steve jobs in the passage? (d) Death clears out the old to make way for the
(a) Didactic (b) Gloomy new.
(c) Sarcastic (d) poignant 4. ‘Remembering that you are going to die is the best
way I know to avoid the trap of thinking you have
2. Why is description of experience of ‘death’ so something to loose.’ The sentence contains an error.
important for the passage? Choose the option that would make the sentence
(a) Everyone would instinctively relate to it.
grammatically sound.
(b) Death is most dreaded and everyone would be (a) Replace ‘best’ with ‘better’
forced to understand it. (b) Replace ‘of’ with ‘off’
(c) People understand the value of time only when (c) Replace’ thinking’ with ‘think’
they are short of it. (d) Replace ‘loose’ with ‘lose’
(d) Inevitability of death can be a motivating factor
for everyone. 5. Suggest a suitable title for the passage.
(a) Interconnection in death and success.
3. Which statement is not relevant to the end of an (b) How do I get success?
individual’s life? (c) If today were the last day of my life.
(a) Death is a common destination for all human (d) Listen to your intuition before you die.
beings.
(b) No one has ever escaped death.
(c) Death defines the purpose of living for all.

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6. Choose the word that is the closest synonym to (a) Treatable (b) Terminal
“incurable”. (c) Temporary (d) Manageable
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): As the number of garlic farmers increased, the air above the square grew increasingly pungent.
Dark clouds roiled above the downcast farmers, who began to grumble and swear. Zhang Kou, the blind minstrel,
stood atop a rickety oxcart, strumming his erhu and chanting loudly in his raspy voice, froth bubbling at the corners
of his mouth. His song plucked the heartstrings of everyone within earshot; Gao Yang couldn’t speak for the others,
but he felt sad one moment and angry the next, with a measure of hidden fear mixed in. He had a premonition that
trouble was brewing that day, for there, in a nearby lane, some people – he couldn’t tell who – were taking pictures
of the square. He wanted to turn his wagon around and put some distance between him and this dangerous spot,
but was hemmed in.
County government compound was on northern side of boulevard, running past public square. Place was as grand
as imperial palace. Traffic on May First Boulevard was blocked by the carts and wagons and their loads of garlic.
Impatient drivers honked their horns, but their sonorous complaints were ignored. Noticing the carefree looks on
others’ faces, Gao Yang relaxed. Why worry? He thought. The worst that can happen is I lose my load of garlic.
The heavy wrought-iron gate was shut tight. Well-dressed office workers peeked through windows to watch the
goings-on in the square, where hundreds of people were massed before the gate. A cry went up: “Come out, County
Administrator! Come out here, Zhong Weimin! If your name really means ‘Serve the People,’ then do it!”
Fists and clubs pounded the gate, but the compound remained still as death – not a person in sight, until an old
caretaker came out to secure the gate with a huge padlock. While he was about his business, phlegm and spittle
rained down on his clothes and face. Not daring to say a word, he turned and darted inside.
7. What is the general setting of the passage? (c) Observation (d) Incomprehension
(a) Pleasant and chirpy
11. What does the author mean by saying that impatient
(b) Invigorating and motivating
(c) Tense and jittery drivers honked their horns, but their sonorous
complaints were ignored?
(d) Sad and morose
(a) The drivers wanted to move away from the
8. “His song plucked the heartstrings of everyone thoroughfare but they couldn’t move because of
within earshot” Which of the following figures of traffic
speech is used in the line? (b) The garlic farmers were making sounds to
(a) Metaphor (b) Metonymy attract customers but to no avail
(c) Idiom (d) Litotes (c) The drivers were trying to get closer to listen to
Zhang Kou, the blind minstrel
9. Which of the following can be inferred from the (d) The garlic farmers were wanting for their
above passage?
concerns to be heard but they were falling on
(a) Gao Yang reached the thoroughfare to protest
deaf ears
against the authorities
(b) The government compound failed to fulfil the 12. What seems to be the most reasonable outcome as
demands of the garlic farmers per the information provided by the author?
(c) Zhang Kou was trying to agitate the crowd to (a) The crowd gained more momentum until they
get rowdy finally barged into the government compound
(d) Both (A) & (B) (b) The crowd started fighting amongst themselves
leading to a ruckus in the street
10. Which of the following words would be the most (c) The crowd peacefully deserted the street and
appropriate antonym for the word ‘premonition’ in returned back to their jobs
the context of the passage? (in bold) (d) The government officials came out and agreed
(a) Foreboding (b) Apprehension to the demands of the garlic farmers

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 Passage (Q.13-Q.18): In the Khyber valley of Northern Pakistan, three large boulders sit atop a hill commanding a
beautiful prospect of the city of Mansehra. A low brick wall surrounds these boulders; a simple roof, mounted on
four brick pillars, protects the rock faces from wind and rain. This structure preserves for posterity the words
inscribed there: 'Doing good is hard - Even beginning to do good is hard.'
The words are those of Ashoka Maurya, an Indian emperor who, from 268 to 234 BCE, ruled one of the largest and
most cosmopolitan empires in South Asia. These words come from the opening lines of the fifth of 14 of Ashoka's
so-called 'major rock edicts', a remarkable anthology of texts, circa 257 BCE, in which Ashoka announced a visionary
ethical project. Though the rock faces have eroded in Mansehra and the inscriptions there are now almost illegible,
Ashoka's message can be found on rock across the Indian subcontinent - all along the frontiers of his empire, from
Pakistan to South India.
The message was no more restricted to a particular language than it was to a single place. Anthologised and
inscribed across his vast empire onto freestanding boulders, dressed stone slabs and, beginning in 243 BCE, on
monumental stone pillars, Ashoka's ethical message was refined and rendered in a number of Indian vernaculars,
as well as Greek and Aramaic. It was a vision intended to inspire people of different religions, from different regions,
and across generations.
'This Inscription on Ethics has been written in stone so that it might endure long and that my descendants might act
in conformity with it,' Ashoka says at the end of the fifth edict. In the fourth, he speaks of his ethical project
progressing 'until the end of the world', though one year later in the next edict he offers a sobering qualification; the
project can succeed only as long as it is taken up and continued - 'if my sons, grandsons and, after those, my posterity
follow my example, until the end of the world’.
As it turns out, Ashoka 's influence did outlast the short lived Mauryan empire. Along with Siddhartha Gautama, the
Buddha, whose religion Ashoka did much to establish as a global phenomenon, Ashoka was one of the first pan-
Asian influences. King Devanampiya Tissa of Sri Lanka (c247-207 BCE) wanted to emulate him, as did Emperor Wu
of China (502-549 CE); Empress Wu Zetian (623/625-705 CE) even wanted to outdo him. And on 22 July 1947, days
before India achieved formal independence from Great Britain, Jawaharlal Nehru, soon to be the country's first
Prime Minister, proposed to the Constituent Assembly of India that the independent nation adopt an Ashokan
emblem - the wheel of a chariot - for its new flag.
13. Why do you think Ashoka changed his words in the (d) He is remembered for the Ashoka pillars and
fifth edict which were mentioned in the fourth edict? edicts and for sending Buddhist monks to Sri
(a) He realised his descendants might not be Lanka.
capable enough to continue his legacy.
(b) He realised that something can only sustain 15. What was the method used to try to preserve the
words mentioned on the Stone pillars for longer
when it is fully adopted by first his immediate
successors and then the world. time?
(c) He realised that the stone pillars might not (a) Pillars might be carved using a technique unique
to that time.
survive till the end of the world.
(b) Pillars are made of a special brick which is
(d) He might have realised then that future
strong and durable, protecting the writings on
generation will have different opinion from now.
the pillars.
14. Which of the following argument corresponds with (c) Pillars are surrounded by stone walls on the
the author's statement: "Ashoka's influence did sides.
outlast the short lived Mauryan empire"? (d) There is a roof mounted on four brick pillars
(a) The four animals on the Lion capital of Ashoka which protects the rock faces from wind and
i.e. elephant, horse, bull and lion symbolize rain.
power, courage, confidence and pride
16. Which of the following is true about Ashoka's
respectively.
(b) The pillar of Ashoka appeared to have been message on the stone pillars?
deliberately destroyed at some point. (a) Those messages or teachings are not relevant in
(c) Independent India adopted an Ashokan emblem today's times.
- the wheel of a chariot - for its new flag. (b) The message was written in one language and
translated to other languages.

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 (c) The message was inscribed in more than one 18. What could be possible reason(s) why king Ashoka
place across his kingdom. inscribed following words on the stone pillars i.e.
(d) The message was written in many languages 'Doing good is hard - Even beginning to do good is
other than Greek and Aramaic. hard.'?
(a) He appears to be a supporter of good deeds but
17. According to the passage, what was Ashoka's
discourage people to follow him.
intention behind erecting the inscribed stone (b) He appears to believe in doing good but not
pillars? always as it is hard to be good always.
(a) He will be remembered by the world even after (c) He appears to know how difficult it is to do what
he is gone. is right and good and he might have faced same
(b) He believed the inscription might endure long as
situation in his life.
it was written on stone. (d) He is a calm man who believes that doing good
(c) Both (b) and (d) is something that must be done.
(d) He believed that his descendants might act
according to the values mentioned on the
inscription.
Passage (Q.19-Q.24): The Centre’s move to allocate 2 crore coronavirus vaccine doses for universal coverage of all
teaching and non-teaching staff in schools by Teachers’ Day (September 5) adds a measure of confidence that
resumption of face-to-face classes from September is not fraught with high risk. Several States are preparing to
reopen schools, mostly for Class 9 and higher, next month. Some, including Haryana, Telangana and Gujarat, have
announced that they will allow offline classes even for younger children. Amidst fears of a third wave of the
pandemic, epidemiologists, academicians and policymakers have been wrestling with the question of a low-risk
trade-off, balancing protection from the virus with some bridging of the learning deficit caused by prolonged school
closures that are crippling future prospects of millions of children. It is encouraging that half of the 97 lakh teachers
in the country have already been immunised, by official estimates, making it feasible to reach the rest by September
5. The risk of infection to children in schools remains, however, and must be addressed with utmost seriousness,
particularly with fast-transmitting virus variants present in all States. This calls for a coherent response that
incorporates the best learnings from epidemiology and decentralises decision-making to the districts based on local
circumstances. It is, of course, a step forward that a vaccine, the three-dose ZyCoV-D, has been approved for the 12-
18 age group, but this is to be administered only from October. The reversion to physical classes will, therefore, have
to be carefully calibrated.
Vaccination of children over 12 years of age has been allowed in some countries, but the pandemic’s course has
remained unpredictable. In Israel, one of the most vaccinated countries with an estimated 78% coverage of the over-
12 population, the Delta variant swiftly caused a spike in infections as distancing norms, the mask mandate and
travel bans were eliminated. In one instance, an entire class of students was infected by one unvaccinated child who
had been on vacation. This cautionary tale serves to emphasize the importance of priority vaccination of children,
starting with those who may have other health conditions, maintaining safety protocols, and adopting low-cost non-
pharmaceutical interventions such as good classroom ventilation and open-air instruction wherever feasible.
Credentialed studies in the U.S. indicate that these are effective measures, along with vaccination. It is vitally
important for the Centre to share information on the school reopening experience with all States and issue alerts in
real time to enable decision-making. An empirical approach will also enable organisations such as the National
Institute of Disaster Management collate useful insights. Parents must be convinced by transparent official measures
that the health and education prospects of their children are in safe hands.
19. “Amidst fears of a third wave of the pandemic, (c) Specialists assessing patterns and effects of
epidemiologists, academicians and policymakers diseases of children.
have been wrestling with the question of a low-risk (d) Specialists studying and analysing public health
trade-off…” What can be derived from the word concerning a given population.
‘epidemiologists?
(a) Specialists studying the mental make of school 20. Which of the following reflects the tone of the passage?
going children during Pandemic. (a) Thought-provoking and Prescribing
(b) Specialists studying the emotional impact of (b) Condescending and demeaning
diseases and environmental toxins. (c) Vituperative and incendiary
(d) Circumventing and Insouciant

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21. The author uses the example of Israel in order to (d) gives qualified approval to the decision by the
(a) caution against arbitrary decision to discard the government to open the schools with prescribing
necessary precautions. certain precautionary measures.
(b) caution against the Delta variant that is
recalcitrant to the vaccination. 23. Which of the following idiomatic expression/phrases
would also serve as the title of the passage?
(c) give a node to the decision by the government to
open opens with all due precautions. (a) Throw caution to the wind.
(d) fend off unnecessary rumours about the Delta (b) Age of discretion.
variant being a non-pervasive virus. (c) Tread on the side of discretion.
(d) On red alert.
22. We can understand from the passage that the author
24. The reversion to physical classes will, therefore,
is
(a) censuring the step taken by the government of have to be carefully calibrated. The highlighted
reopening of schools before the expected third word belongs to which part of speech?
wave of pandemic. (a) Noun
(b) circumspect about the government’s decision of (b) Verb
opening schools amid the fear of third wave of (c) Adverb
(d) Conjunction
pandemic gripping the children.
(c) embraces the decision by the government to open
the school as he feels that the future of millions of
children is at stake.

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 SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Passage (Q.25-Q.30): Who is Masoud Pezeshkian, Iran’s New President?

Wildcard candidate Masoud Pezeshkian will become Iran's [x] reformist president in almost two decades, after he
defeated hardliner Saeed Jalili in a run-off election on Friday.
The 69-year-old former heart surgeon and health minister campaigned on promises to moderate Iran’s conservative
outlook and improve relations with the West. He criticised the country’s notorious morality police and called for
negotiations over a renewal of the faltering 2015 nuclear deal.
But analysts remain sceptical about his ability to enact meaningful change within an establishment dominated by
ultraconservatives.
When Mr Pezeshkian's name was confirmed on the ballot four weeks ago, following the death of hard-line President
Ebrahim Raisi in a helicopter crash, even his most loyal supporters were shocked that he had made it past the
Guardian Council.
The powerful body of clerics and jurists which vets candidates' religious and revolutionary credentials had barred
many prominent reformists and moderates from standing in recent elections, including Mr Pezeshkian himself for
the last presidential poll in 2021.
But once his candidacy was approved this time, Mr Pezeshkian carefully balanced promises of change with
declarations of loyalty to Iran’s Supreme Leader, Ayatollah Ali Khamenei, who holds ultimate authority in the
country.
https://www.bbc.com
25. Consider the following statements: 27. During which war did Masoud Pezeshkian organize
1. Masoud Pezeshkian criticized the Iranian medical assistance for wounded soldiers?
government's treatment of protesters after the (a) The Gulf War
2009 presidential election. (b) The Iran-Iraq War
2. He has served as a deputy speaker in the Iranian (c) The Afghanistan War
parliament from 2016 to 2022. (d) The Syrian Civil War
Which of the following is correct?
28. What has been redacted in [x]?
(a) Only statement 1 is correct.
(a) fourth (b) third
(b) Only statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. (c) second (d) first
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. 29. Iran has extensive oil reserves, but its economy has
been hit hard by a trade ban imposed by the _____
26. What might be inferred about the political climate in
Iran from Masoud Pezeshkian's allowed candidacy since the shah was ousted in 1979.
(a) United States (b) Russia
and public statements?
(c) France (d) Iraq
(a) The government is moving towards more
conservative policies. 30. Iran's government is controlled by a religious figure
(b) The Supreme Leader might be seeking to soften called the supreme leader, who is appointed by a
the government's stance on some issues. group of Islamic clerics called the ______.
(c) The government is becoming increasingly hard- (a) Experts of the World
line. (b) Assembly of Experts
(d) There is no significant change in the (c) Assembly of Kavir
government's stance. (d) None of these

Passage (Q.31-Q.36): Global IndiaAI Summit 2024

Reaffirming the Government of India’s unwavering commitment to the responsible development, deployment, and
adoption of artificial intelligence, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology is organizing the ‘Global
IndiaAI Summit’ on [1], 2024, in New Delhi. The summit aims to foster collaboration and knowledge exchange,
underscoring India’s dedication to the ethical and inclusive growth of AI technologies.
The summit will provide a platform for leading international AI experts from science, industry, civil society,
governments, international organizations, and academia to share insights on key AI issues and challenges. The event
underscores the Government of India’s dedication to the responsible advancement of AI, fostering collaboration and
knowledge exchange among global AI stakeholders. Through the Global IndiaAI Summit 2024, India aspires to

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 establish itself as a global leader in AI innovation, ensuring that AI benefits are accessible to all and contribute to
the nation's socio-economic development.
The IndiaAI Mission aims to build a comprehensive ecosystem that fosters AI innovation by democratizing
computing access, enhancing data quality, developing indigenous AI capabilities, attracting top AI talent, enabling
industry collaboration, providing startup risk capital, ensuring socially impactful AI projects, and promoting ethical
AI. This mission drives responsible and inclusive growth of India's AI ecosystem through the following [z] pillars
which will be the key focus of Global IndiaAI Summit.
https://pib.gov.in
31. IndiaAI mission drives responsible and inclusive (d) To build a scalable AI computing ecosystem
growth of India's AI ecosystem through how many
pillars? 34. When was the Global IndiaAI Summit held?
(a) Seven (b) Nine (a) June 3rd and 4th, 2024
(c) Three (d) Five (b) July 3rd and 4th, 2024
(c) May 3rd and 4th, 2024
32. Consider the following statements regarding the (d) September 3rd and 4th, 2023
IndiaAI Mission:
1. The mission aims to create a scalable AI 35. Who is the current union Minister of Electronics and
computing ecosystem with over 10,000 GPUs. Information Technology?
2. The mission only focuses on AI applications in (a) Ashwini Vaishnaw
the healthcare sector. (b) Jyotiraditya M. Scindia
(c) Bhupender Yadav
Which of the above statements is correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) Jual Oram
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 36. The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence
(GPAI) is a multi-stakeholder initiative which aims
33. Which of the following is a primary goal of the
IndiaAI FutureSkills pillar? to bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI
by supporting cutting-edge research and applied
(a) To fund AI startups
(b) To increase the number of AI courses at various activities on AI-related priorities. Launched in
_______.
educational levels
(a) June 2022 (b) June 2020
(c) To develop AI regulations
(c) July 2021 (d) September 2023
Passage (Q.37-Q.40): Air India Welcomes First A320 Neo Aircraft
Tata Group's Air India on Thursday announced the operation of India’s first narrow body aircraft on the Delhi-
Bengaluru route. The aircraft features new cabin interiors and livery, said the airline in a press release.
The Airbus A320neo aircrafts, with registration mark [x], arrived in Delhi from Airbus Headquarters in Toulouse on
7 July.
The first commercial flight with the new aircraft was AI813, which flew from Delhi to Bengaluru. The airline is
scheduled to operate three more A320neo flights on the same route through the day. The new A320neo aircraft will
progressively cover more routes within India.
The aircraft has three cabins that include Business, Premium Economy and Economy. The aircraft has three cabins
that include Business, Premium Economy and Economy.
Business class cabin features eight seats, each offering 40 inches of seat pitch and 7 inches of recline, leg rest,
footrest, movable armrest, 4-way adjustable headrest, an extendable tray table, and a personal electronic device
holder, a USB charging port and AC power outlets.
The Premium Economy cabin comes equipped with 24 extra legroom seats arranged in a 3-3 configuration across
four rows, each with upholstery, a 4-way adjustable headrest, 32 inches of seat pitch with 4 inches of recline, PED
holder.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com
37. What is the registration number of the new Airbus (a) VT-RTM (b) VT-RTN
A320 Neo added to the Air India fleet? (c) VT-RTS (d) VT-RTL

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38. Consider the following statements regarding the (a) Only economy class seats
new Airbus A320 Neo added to the Air India fleet: (b) A two-class configuration
1. The aircraft has a three-class configuration. (c) Luxury business class seats
2. The aircraft was delivered from the Airbus (d) No premium economy seats
facility in Hamburg, Germany.
40. Who out of the following is the Current CEO of AIR
Which of the above statements is correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 India?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Jorge Mas (b) Gerardo Martino
(c) Chris Allan (d) Campbell Wilson
39. Which of the following is a feature of the new Airbus
A320 Neo added to the Air India fleet?

Passage (Q.41-Q.46): Rabindra Jayanti 2024

Rabindranath Tagore is an international icon. He is a versatile poet, songwriter, playwright, novelist, author and a
philosopher. His contribution to the literary space is lauded and appreciated by generations. His life and works are
studied over generations, and he is still interpreted to be one of the greatest poets to have lived. Born in the heart
of West Bengal, Tagore wrote in Bengali and reached the homes of millions all over the world. He also established
Visva-Bharati University in Santiniketan, a town tucked in the Bankura district of West Bengal.
Rabindranath Tagore is worshipped, loved and lauded in West Bengal. His birth anniversary, lovingly referred to as
Rabindra Jayanti, is celebrated in the homes of Bengalis with poetry, songs and drama. As we gear up to celebrate
the special day, here's what you need to know.
As per Gregorian calendar, Rabindra Jayanti falls on [a]. However, as per the Bengali calendar, Rabindra Jayanti will
be observed on May 8 this year.
https://www.hindustantimes.com
41. In which year was Rabindranath Tagore's 163rd 44. Which of the following reasons is NOT given for why
birth anniversary be observed? Rabindranath Tagore is revered around the world?
(a) 2024 (b) 2023 (a) His contribution to literature, music and art
(c) 2022 (d) 2021 (b) His role as a political leader
(c) His establishment of Visva-Bharati University
42. When does the Rabindra Jayanti observed as Per (d) His Nobel Prize in Literature
Gregorian Calendar?
(a) 8 May (b) 7 May 45. In which of the following year, Rabindranath Tagore
(c) 1 July (d) 8 July won the Nobel Prize in Literature?
(a) 1913 (b) 1915
43. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) 1917 (d) 1911
Rabindranath Tagore:
1. He wrote the national anthems for three 46. Which of the following activities is NOT mentioned
countries. as part of the celebrations for Rabindranath Tagore's
2. He was the first non-European to win the Nobel 163rd birth anniversary in Bengal?
Prize in Literature. (a) Singing his songs
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) Performing dramas written by him
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Reciting his poetry
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Screening his movies

Passage (Q.47-Q.52): Maharashtra Wins Best Agriculture State Award 2024

Maharastra has won the Best Agriculture State Award for 2024. The announcement was made by the 15th
Agriculture Leadership Awards Committee, headed by [x], former Chief Justice of India and Governor of Kerala.
Chief Minister Eknath Shinde received the award on 10 July 2024 at a function in New Delhi. "I am extremely proud
of this award and dedicate it to the farmers of Maharashtra. It was possible because of the decisions that we have
taken since our government came into power. In the recent budget, several benefits and innovative schemes for the
farmers were announced," he said.
Maharashtra was chosen for this award for its innovative agricultural and rural initiatives.
The award recognises the Maharashtra government's innovative policies and high-impact developmental initiatives,
which have led to the advancement of agricultural and rural prosperity in the state.

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 The award acknowledged Maharashtra's sustainable development policies focusing on environmental protection
and food security.
In the recent budget, the Maharashtra government announced plans to establish a green belt spanning 1.20 lakh
acres in the Nandurbar district in collaboration with the Central and state governments.
The Maharashtra government has also set a target to enhance irrigation capabilities across approximately 17 lakh
hectares through the execution of 123 projects.
https://www.timesnownews.com
47. Which of the following can be redacted by [x]? (c) Dedication of farmers, progressive policies,
(a) Justice P Sathasivam institutional interventions, and innovations by
(b) Justice Kamal Narain Singh startups
(c) Justice Madhukar Hiralal Kania (d) International investments
(d) Justice Lalit Mohan Sharma
51. What is the primary objective of the Agriculture
48. Consider the following statements regarding the Leadership Awards initiated by the magazine?
Agriculture Leadership Awards: (a) To promote international trade in agricultural
1. The awards are conferred biennially across products
various categories. (b) To honour and incentivize individuals and
2. The selection process involves a two-tier system organizations for exemplary leadership in
to ensure integrity. agriculture
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) To increase government subsidies for
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 agriculture
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) To provide funding for agricultural research
49. In which year were the Agriculture Leadership 52. Which of the following sector is NOT explicitly
Awards first instituted? mentioned as being driven by stakeholders in the
(a) 2000 (b) 2005 new agricultural revolution in India?
(c) 2008 (d) 2010 (a) Value-added transformation
(b) Progressive policies
50. What are the key factors driving the new revolution
(c) Tourism development
in India's agriculture sector?
(d) Innovative solutions by startups
(a) Only progressive government policies
(b) Only innovative solutions by startups

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 SECTION-C : LEGAL REASONING
Passage (Q.53-Q.58): Setting aside the conviction of a person in a murder case, the Supreme Court recently held
that merely because a person revealed the hideout of the victim to the murderous mob, he cannot be presumed to
share the common object of the unlawful assembly.
A bench comprising Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul and MM Sundresh struck a word of caution by observing that the
Courts must guard against the tendency of convicting mere passive onlookers of the crime using the medium of
Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code for sharing the common object of the unlawful assembly.
The Court observed: "The Court must guard against the possibility of convicting mere passive onlookers who did
not share the common object of the unlawful assembly. There must be reasonable direct or indirect circumstances
which lend assurance to the prosecution case that they shared common object of the unlawful assembly. Not only
should the members be part of the unlawful assembly but should share the common object at all stages. This has to
be based on the conduct of the members and the behaviour at or near the scene of the offence, the motive for the
crime, the arms carried by them and such other relevant considerations". An assembly of five or more persons is
designated an “unlawful assembly”, if the common object is to do an unlawful act under section 141 of IPC. For
deciding the liability of a person one should be the member of such assembly followed by whether that person share
common object or not.
https://enalsar.informaticsglobal.com:
53. Some people were protesting outside the gate of him, but it all went into vain. Suddenly Z got the idea to
parliament against few bills which were passed by the burn the house of the VC; Z got the petrol and lighter
parliament in the ongoing winter session. X was also but as soon as he prepared to throw it over the gate,
furious by the new bills and decided to throw a grenade police arrived and arrested him. Police wants to book Z
in the parliament campus to showcase the angst of the and his friends under section 149 of IPC. Determine
people protesting outside. X asked his friend Y to assist their liability.
him in purchasing a grenade from dark web, and Y (a) They are not liable since no offence has been
obliged. The following day, Y also dropped X outside committed by the group.
the gate of the parliament and thereafter went to his (b) They are liable because they gathered outside
college. Soon, X executed his plan, but was caught by the VC’s residence illegally and hurled abused at
the police. Determine Y’s liability under section 149 of him.
the IPC. (c) They are not liable since the ingredients under
(a) He is not liable because he was not a member of section 149 are not satisfied.
the unlawful assembly. (d) They are liable because there was a common
(b) He is not liable because he did not share a object and intention amongst the group to burn
common objective with anyone. down the VC’s house.
(c) He is liable because he satisfies all the
56. Suppose in the previous question, the police failed to
ingredients under section 149 of IPC.
arrive on time and the VC’s house was burnt to
(d) He is liable because he contributed directly in
the commission of the crime. ground, with severely injuring the VC. With the rest
of the facts remaining the same, would your answer
54. Suppose in the previous question, as soon as Y to the previous question change?
dropped off X, his bike got punctured and thus he (a) Yes, the group will be liable under section 149 of
stayed with X until a mechanic arrived. With the rest the IPC.
of the facts remaining the same, would your answer (b) No, the group will be liable under section 149 of
to the previous question change? the IPC.
(a) Yes, he is liable under section 149 of IPC. (c) Yes, the group will not be liable under section
(b) No, he is liable under section 149 of IPC. 149 of the IPC.
(c) Yes, he is not liable under section 149 of IPC. (d) No, the group will not be liable under section
(d) No, he is not liable under section 149 of IPC. 149 of the IPC.
55. Z and his friends failed in the final semester of their 57. P took some money from Q but failed to return them
college. They were furious and demanded a re-check of even after several warnings; infuriated by the same
their answer sheets, but the administration denied. Q along with few other friends, went to P’s house to
Agitated by the same they gathered outside the threaten him. When Q reached P’s house, everyone
residence of the vice-chancellor and started abusing threatened and abused P but Q also slapped him

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 multiple times. P filed a police complaint against Q 58. Suppose in the previous question, when Q was
and his friends, and the police wants to book them slapping P, another friend R also got incited and
under section 149 of IPC. Determine their liability. kicked P repeatedly and so did his other friends.
(a) They are liable because they have satisfied all With the rest of the facts remaining the same, would
the ingredients of section 149. your answer to the previous question change?
(b) They are not liable because they have not (a) Yes, the group will be liable under section 149 of
satisfied all the ingredients of section 149. the IPC.
(c) They are liable because they all shared a (b) No, the group will be liable under section 149 of
common objective and acted in the furtherance the IPC.
of the same. (c) Yes, the group will not be liable under section
(d) They are not liable because there was no 149 of the IPC.
common objective to assault P. (d) No, the group will not be liable under section
149 of the IPC.
Passage (Q.59-Q.63): The Contract Act was enacted in 1872, when the communication of offer and acceptance
happened via postal services etc. Now we have the concept of paperless contracts through e-mails, fax etc. The
Contract Act, 1872 does not provide anything about electronic contracts but the Information Technology Act, 2000
throws light on electronic contracts. Section 10-A provides:
10-A. Validity of contracts formed through electronic means .—Where in a contract formation, the communication of
proposals, the acceptance of proposals, the revocation of proposals and acceptances, as the case may be, are
expressed in electronic form or by means of an electronic record, such contract shall not be deemed to be
unenforceable solely on the ground that such electronic form or means was used for that purpose.
Thus, the empty vessel of the Contract Act, is filled by the IT Act and shall work concurrently. Further, Section 13 of
the IT Act provides as to time and place of dispatch and receipt of electronic record, since time and place are
important for conclusion of contract. Under the Contract Act it follows the rule of posting of letter when two parties
are at distance. In the case of telephonic contract, both the parties come in direct communication of each other as if
both are present before each other. The contract is made at the place where the acceptance is received. But this rule
does not apply to contracts made by e-mail or electronic records, section 13 governs the same. In absence of any
agreement between the parties, section 13 of IT Act has laid down the following rules for deciding the validity,
time, place of dispatch and receipt of electronic record.
a) The dispatch of electronic record occurs when it enters a computer resource outside the control of the
originator.
b) The time of receipt of electronic record occurs at the time when the electronic record enters the designated
computer recourse of the addressee.
c) An electronic record is deemed to be dispatched at the place where the originator has his place of business, and
is deemed to be received at the place where the addressee has his place of business. This shall apply
notwithstanding that the place where the computer resource is located may be different from the place where
the electronic record is deemed to have been received
As per section 4 of the Contract Act, the communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge
of the person to whom it is made. The communication of an acceptance is complete, — as against the proposer,
when it is put in a course of transmission to him so as to be out of the power of the acceptor; as against the acceptor,
when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
Source: E-CONTRACTS: CONCEPT AND PROVISIONSby Suman Lata Chaudhary, SCC Online (2013) PL November 70
Based on the passage above, answer the following questions.
59. Pradeep and Kushal have entered into a contract of Court. On which of the following laws should
sale via fax, where the contract provides for supply Pradeep rely upon?
of software necessary for creation of violent games (a) Information Technology Act
apps like counter strike, PUBG etc. However, on the (b) Indian Contract Act
date of making of the contract, the Government (c) Both (a) and (b)
introduced a policy to ban any such online game (d) He can either proceed under (a) or (b), at his
which promotes violence. Pradeep wants to own discretion.
challenge the legality of the contract before the

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60. Reshma wrote an email to Aradhna at 5:53 PM, from products. Since ONGC Ltd is a government company,
Delhi making an offer to sell her jewellery for INR it has to follow the Rules laid down by the central
50,000. However, due to slow internet connection, government for completion of contracts. One of the
the mail reached Aradhna at 6 PM, in Mumbai. To the terms of the Rules was that even if a contract is made
said mail, Aradhna gave her acceptance at 11:30 PM electronically, it shall not be a valid contract until it
on the same day, which was received by Reshma at is put in writing and registered with the required
11:31 PM. Decide the time of offer and acceptance ministry. ONGC Ltd and Swapan Oil Ltd entered into
against Reshma. a contract completely through email only. Is it a valid
(a) Time of offer: 5:53 PM, Time of acceptance: 11:30 contract?
PM (a) It is a valid contract as per Section 10A of IT Act
(b) Time of offer: 6:00 PM, Time of acceptance: 11:30 (b) It is not a valid contract under Contract Act
PM (c) It is not a valid contract for failing to comply with
(c) Time of offer: 6:00 PM, Time of acceptance: 11:31 requirements of law
PM (d) It is a valid contract under both Contract Act and
(d) Time of offer: 5:53 PM, Time of acceptance: 11:31 IT Act
PM
63. Suresh wrote an email to Mahesh, from Delhi,
61. Dholu and Bholu are recent graduates from IIT, making an offer to purchase a customized watch as a
Dholakpur. On graduating from IIT, Dholu joined his gift for his wife’s 30th birthday. Though wrote all the
dad’s business of selling computers and its requirements in the mail itself, yet Mahesh called
accessories, whereas Bholu joined a famous IT Firm. him, from Banaras, to confirm the requirements. On
Dholu sent an email from Delhi, expressing his offer being informed about the requirements, Mahesh
to sell 100 Laptops at 30% discount to Bholu’s IT gave his consent to deliver the watch as mentioned
Firm, which is located in Mumbai. One of the in the email. Additionally, Mahesh also wrote an
conditions was that for all purposes and events, the email regarding the confirmation of the same.
contract shall be deemed to have been made in Decide the place where the contract has been made,
Mumbai. The offer was accepted by Bholu from provided that Mahesh’s place of business is Mumbai.
Mumbai. In light of the same, decide the place where (a) Contract is made in Delhi
the contract is formed. (b) Contract is made in Banaras
(a) Delhi (b) Mumbai (c) Contract is made in Mumbai
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Contract is partially made in Delhi and partially
at Mumbai.
62. ONGC Ltd and Swapan Oil Ltd are two major
companies dealing in petroleum and petroleum
Passage (Q.64-Q.68): The tort of false imprisonment is, in essence, only an infringement of a person's right to
freedom of movement granted by law, which is a prerequisite of all civilized living. This freedom is inherent in
article 21 of the Indian Constitution when it declares that: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty
except according to procedure established by law.
By article 22 it has been made obligatory that a person under arrest should know the grounds of his arrest as soon
as possible and should be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours and should not be kept under
custody any longer without an order of remand from the magistrate excluding time for travel. The frequent instances
of police atrocities in India prompted the apex court to issue certain guidelines in D. K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
to be followed in all cases of arrest. The court held that failure to comply with the instructions would entail not only
departmental action but also punishment for contempt of court. The Indian Constitution provides for writs like
habeas corpus, which may be resorted to by the petitioner. An Indian judge who orders arrest or imprisonment
without having jurisdiction to do so is protected by the Judicial Officers Act of 1850 provided he believes, in good
faith, that he has jurisdiction to do so. The Act also gives protection to ministerial officers of the court, who execute
lawful warrants and orders of the court. But if the warrant is unlawful or irregular at the outset no such protection
is given. Statutory protection, usually in a lesser degree, is given to executive officers. The Preventive Detention Act
of 1950 gives immunity to officers if the arrest or detention is affected in good faith and in pursuance of the Act. But
if the statute is declared ultra vires the executive officer may be sued for false imprisonment.
(Source:https://www.nascollege.org/e%20cotent%2010-4-
20/dr%20chandan%20uadhyay/Law%20of%20Torts.pdf)

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64. On the 20th February 2021 at about 8 p. m. the Sub- (c) The accused will not be held liable as he enjoys
Inspector of Police, Jamnagar, while he was on his immunity under the Preventive Detention Act of
rounds with a police party, arrested one culprit on 1950.
suspicion and sent him to the police station under (d) Accused not acted maliciously, thus cannot claim
the escort of a constable. When the rest of the police immunity under the Preventive Detention Act of
party was proceeding towards Paulo Street in 1950.
Jamnagar, they noticed the chuck coming in the
opposite direction pushing a bicycle. He was stopped 66. What can be construed as essential requirement for
on suspicion and on search, it was found that he was the commission of the tort of false imprisonment
in possession of RDX in a bag. The Sub-Inspector of with reference to article 21?
I. To form false imprisonment, there must
Police arrested the petitioner and was escorting him
to the Police station with the help of a Head- essentially be an intention to cause an unlawful
constable and two other constables. When they were arrest, confinement or imprisonment on the part
of the defendant to be held guilty.
proceeding, on the way 40 or 50 villagers formed
themselves into an unlawful assembly with the II. The defendant must have willfully caused the
action.
object of rescuing the Chuck and pushed the head
constable and the constables who were escorting the III. Imposition of total restraint is necessary on a
petitioner, whereupon chuck made good his escape person’s liberty to constitute false
imprisonment.
and joined the crowd. The crowd began to attack the
head constable and the constables with deadly IV. The detention must not have a solid legal
justification or any rational logic behind it, it
weapons. Soon thereafter, the petitioner who had
should be entirely unlawful.
earlier escaped from the police custody came up
with a stick and assaulted the head constable on his (a) I and III (b) III and IV
shoulders, with the result that the head constable fell (c) II and III (d) Only IV
down. The said crowd will be held liable for? 67. What can be viewed as a good example of false
(a) Violating the personal freedom guaranteed imprisonment?
under article 21 of the head constable and the (a) After his acquittal, a plaintiff was taken down to
other constables escorting Chuck. the cells and detained there for a brief period for
(b) The crowd will be held liable for committing the interrogation under Preventive Detention Act.
tort of false imprisonment. (b) The plaintiff’s release from jail after completion
(c) The crowd shall be held accountable for of the tenure of his sentence was delayed by a
wrongful imprisonment and for infringing on few minutes due to the negligence of the officer
the head constable's and other constables' rights concerned in not completing the due paperwork
to personal liberty guaranteed by article 21 of on time.
the constitution of India. (c) A schoolmaster in a conversation with mother
(d) The head constable and others will be held liable say will not allow school boy to go to with her
for false imprisonment in the chuck's case. unless the mother paid an amount alleged to be
due from him.
65. The applicant, in this ease, made a complaint before
the First Class Magistrate of Malegaon against the (d) The plaintiff, an employee of the defendant
opponent for unlawful arrest, who is a Sub-Inspector company on the suspicion of stealing goods was
of Police, charging him with having, as a public made to wait in the waiting room. The reason
given to him was that he would be investigated
servant, framed incorrect documents with intent to
about the theft of goods that have happened in
cause injury to the complainant and to save real
the Office. The police which came later arrested
culprit from punishment. He alleged that the Sub-
Inspector had deliberately taken incorrect the man. On his release, he filed a suit for false
statements of witnesses in an investigation made by imprisonment against the defendant.
the Sub-Inspector in a theft case. What would be the 68. Lakhsman, a mine-worker descended a coal mine at
proper decision if you were given the following set 9:30am for work. He had a right to be lifted to the
of facts to consider? surface after his shift that would get over at 4pm. He
(a) The applicant is permitted to seek redress refused to complete a task assigned to him at work
through a writ of habeas corpus and requested to be lifted up at 11 a.m. He said he
(b) The accused will be held liable under preventive wanted to come up since he wasn't feeling good.
detention act of 1950. Many workers have also complained that it is

201
 impossible for them to work since they (c) It will not amount to false imprisonment as
face breathing difficulties at times. His employer, lakshman had given his consent to or agreed to
Ram denied his request. Will this amount to false abide by the conditions on which he could go out
imprisonment? of the mine.
(a) Lakshman was detained inside the coal mine (d) Since his contract of service stated 4pm as the
against his will; it did not amount to false time when he would come out of the mine, he
imprisonment. was not detained wrongfully.
(b) It is unlawful at the part of the employer to not
lift the workers up who face breathing issues
while working under the mines.
Passage (Q.69-Q.73): The principle of the Doctrine of Agency of Necessity originates from a situation where an
agent exceeds his authority by acting on behalf of the principal in an emergency situation. This occurs when one
party, the agent, is faced with an emergency which poses an imminent threat to the interests or the property of 3 rd
party or the Principal, and there is insufficient time or means for the agent to seek for the Principal's directions or
authority regarding the matter. There are three essentials for the application of this doctrine, viz., there must be a
genuine necessity, it must be impossible for the agent to get the principal's instruction, and the agent must have
acted bona fide. Historically, the Doctrine of Agency of Necessity was applicable only to the carriage of goods by the
sea which involved the captain's action to save a ship in the course of a voyage, or the cargo it might be carrying in
threatening situations. Gradually, similar cases that involved comparable carriage of goods on land and some other
forms of agent-principal relations came about to be in the ambit of the Doctrine. Historically, the Common law
principles did not require pre-existing contractual relations for the doctrine of agency of necessity to be applicable
which impacted persons who has not appointed them thus this loophole is over come under Indian law. However
Indian law mandates for a contractual relation to be present between the principal and agent for the doctrine to be
applicable as stated in Section 189 of The Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(Source: https://www.lawctopus.com/academike/review-doctrine-agency-necessity/)
69. Which of the following could be the purpose behind 71. A was the captain of a ship and was carrying cargo
the Indian law mandating the existence of owned by various persons with him. The ship lost its
contractual relationship for the application of the way due to bad weather and the crew was stranded
doctrine of agency by necessity? on it for weeks. As there was a shortage of food on
(a) Protection of the agent from liability of acts done the ship, A opened one of the cargo boxes and the
outside of the scope of his agency. crew ate the items in it. The cargo that was
(b) Protection of the principal from incurring consumed was owned by B, who sued A for
liability for acts done by his agents outside of conversion of his property. A pleads the defence of
their authority. agency of necessity. According to the position of
(c) Protection of persons from incurring liability for English common law, will A be successful in his
acts done by others who are not their agents. defence?
(d) Encouraging people to enter into contracts of (a) Yes, as no contractual relation is required for the
agency. application of the doctrine.
(b) Yes, as there was an imminent threat of
70. Which of the following can be said to be the principle starvation to the crew.
underlying the fact that a principal is liable to the (c) No, as the captain of the ship cannot be an agent
agent if the agent makes any provisions or spends of the owner of the goods that he is carrying.
any money in emergency situations for protecting (d) No, as the act done by A was not for protection
the interests of such principal? of interests of the principal or a third party.
(a) A person acting bona fide for another.
(b) No person should be made liable for an act 72. A was the agent of P and was sent to another country
committed by his agent. to buy some cloth on behalf of his principal.
(c) The principal is vicariously liable to third parties However, after he had bought the cloth and before
for all the acts done by his agent. he could come home, a war broke out between the
(d) Principal's liability is co-extensive with the two countries. A tried to contact P to seek directions
liability of the agent in emergency situations. as to what was to be done with the cloth, but the
communications were disconnected. After waiting
for a year for the war to end, he started selling the

202
 cloth because its value was appreciating. After the the workers at the dock were on strike, due to which
war ended, P sued A for exceeding his authority. the unloading of the cargo was delayed by three
Does the doctrine of agency of necessity apply in this days. Considering that the journey from Matheranto
case? Nagpur would take another day, B decided to sell the
(a) Yes, as it was impossible for A to get the P's tomatoes in Mumbai itself. Which of the following
directions. facts would not support the application of the
(b) No, as there was no imminent threat to the cloth. doctrine of agency by necessity in B's favour?
(c) No, as the A should have waited for P to give (a) That there was no contract of agency between A
instructions. and B.
(d) Yes, as the A acted in good faith in order to (b) That there was no channel of communication to
increase the profit for P. contact B instantly.
(c) That A honestly believed that the tomatoes
73. B was tasked with carrying A's cargo containing would be spoiled in another day.
tomatoes from Connor to Matheranand then to
(d) That the tomatoes would have been spoilt in less
Nagpur. After reaching Matheranand, B found that than a day.
Passage (Q.74-Q.78): One of the historic judgment by the five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court in
reading down the provisions of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code and decriminalizing consensual same sex
relations. We talk to queer people and lawyers in Bengaluru to find out what their reactions were to the Navtej Singh
Johar judgment, whether things have changed in the last year, and what needs to be done next.
After the slew of verdicts by the Supreme Court, on Triple Talaq, Section 377 IPC, Adultery, and the Sabarimala
temple, a prominent cartoonist adapted the famous “Road to Homo Sapiens” picture to depict the Supreme Court
Justice as a barber who cleans up the barbarous Neanderthal to make him a modern human.
India, at present, is going through a deep crisis in which the mission of deepening democracy, and protecting and
advancing social freedoms is placed solely upon the judiciary. On the one hand there is a complete abnegation of the
role of the legislature, and on the other there is a dichotomy between social morality and judicial morality. Both are
dangerous tendencies.
The Supreme Court verdicts have curiously become a spectator sport on primetime television with a great amount
of anticipation about the judgments in pending cases. The same curiosity is missing about parliamentary
bills/debates, which are absolutely vital to a parliamentary democracy. One example would suffice. Earlier this year,
the government amended the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act to retrospectively legalise political donations
from foreign companies and individuals since 1976. This move, with potentially catastrophic ramifications for
Indian democracy was pushed through without discussion in Parliament and hardly any debate in the public sphere.
If the judiciary has assumed the role of the single most important pillar of India’s parliamentary democracy, built
on separation of powers, it is mainly because of the degradation and abuse of the roles of the legislature and the
executive. Parliament, the supreme venue representing the people, has become a shadow of what it should be.
Parliament, instead of representing the highest democratic ethos, panders to electoral majorities, leaving it
incapable of challenging barbaric social/religious practices enforced by dominant interests. That is why it took 70
years for Section 377 to be partially struck down.
Is it then surprising that the Supreme Court steps into this dangerous void left by the executive and the legislature?
But the task of democratizing society cannot be left to the judiciary, an unelected body, the higher echelons of which
self-appoint their members through the collegium system (itself a result of the executive trying to muzzle the
independence of judiciary). Instead, it must be through social and political struggles from the bottom, and not
through judicial diktats from above.
(Source: Section 377 judgment on same sex relations: One year later, has anything changed?, The Hindu)
74. According to the passage, what kind of deep crises, (b) The role of the legislature is in complete denial
Indian democracy is going through? and also there is complete separation between
(a) The Indian politics is controlled by political the social morality and judicial morality.
parties who follows only one ideology, thus (c) There is economical crises as the growth rate of
there is threat that there will be dominance of the country is declining which results into crisis
that ideology only. of the Indian democracy.

203
 (d) Criminalisation of politics is the big threat to (a) The work load upon judiciary is immense as
Indian Democracy and its sustainability. there are number of the cases that are pending
in the Indian Courts.
75. What instances does the author include in the (b) The number of judges in the judiciary is quite
passage that demonstrate the abuse of the legislative less and also there is less appointments judges
and executive roles?
in the Indian Courts.
(a) To legalize the donations to the political parties, (c) Judiciary is not an elected body like legislature
amending the Foreign Contribution Regulation and at the higher level the appointment of the
Act retrospectively. judges is made among themselves through the
(b) The curiosity for the parliamentary debates collegium system.
/bills is absent.
(d) All of the above.
(c) Parliament being superior place representing
the people, incapable of challenging the cruel 78. According to the passage, why a famous cartoonist
religious practices which were enforced by the referred in the passage, depicted Supreme Court
dominating masses. justice as a barber who cleans up the barbarous
(d) All of the above. Neanderthal by adapting the “Road to Homo
Sapiens”?
76. After legally analyzing the theme of the passage, the
(a) Supreme Court judges are considered as the
responsibility to protect the interests of the people superior in the whole judicial system of the
has come upon whose shoulder?
country and thus their decisions can’t be
(a) Due to the degradation and abuse of the challenged.
legislative and executive responsibilities, (b) Judiciary is working without any corruption and
authority has now been transferred to the
biasness, thus it is more credible than legislature
judiciary.
and executive.
(b) It must be fulfilled by bottom-up social and
(c) Because the Supreme Court Justices are passing
political fights, not top-down judicial diktats.
the judgments to abolish the social evils and
(c) Its judiciary, which has been saddled with the targeting the centuries old rituals which are not
job of democratizing society.
relevant in current times.
(d) The parliament, since it embodies the finest
(d) The Supreme Court Justice is portrayed as a
democratic ideals. barber who cleans up the savage Neanderthal in
77. According to the author opinion, why the judiciary order to transform him into a contemporary
can’t be given the work of the democratizing the person.
society?
Passage (Q.79-Q.84): Sedition has broadly been understood by many as an offence against public tranquility and
being connected in some way or the other with public disorder. It is a criminal offence under Section 124A of the
Indian Penal Code, 1860. The Supreme Court being the custodian of fundamental rights has the duty to strike down
any legislation that violates any fundamental rights, including those that affect freedom of speech and expression
which is an essential condition of a democratic Government. However, freedom of speech and expression does have
certain restrictions. A citizen can use his freedom of expression to criticize the Government, as long as the citizen
does not incite people to violence against the Government, which is considered as a reasonable restriction imposed.
The Delhi High Court in the case of Pankaj Butalia v. Central Board of Film Certification and Ors.12 reiterated the
fact that while examining any offence under Section 124A, the intention with which the language of the seditious
statement is made has to be looked at holistically and fairly without focusing on isolated passages. When evaluating
whether a speech or words would be seditious, ‘the words, signs or representations must bring the Government
into hatred or contempt or must cause or attempt to cause disaffection, enmity or disloyalty to the Government and
the words/signs/representation must also be an incitement to violence or must be intended or tend to create public
disorder or a reasonable apprehension of public disorder; words, signs or representations against politicians or
public servants by themselves do not fall in this category unless the words/signs/representations show them as
representative of the Government; Comments expressing disapproval or criticism of the Government with a view to
obtaining a change of government by lawful means without any of the above are not seditious under Section 124A.

20
4
79. P was going to watch a newly released movie, while (a) S will be liable for sedition, since his action led to
he was on the way he saw a rally of the ruling party a disruption in public order.
for asking votes in the upcoming elections. This led (b) S will be liable for sedition, since he tried to
to a huge traffic jam on the road due to which P spread false rumors against the government.
reached the theatre 25 minutes late. Annoyed by (c) S will not be liable for sedition, since he acted in
this, he went back to the place where the rally was good faith.
going on and said a lot of awful things about the (d) S will not be liable for sedition, since he had
government and how they should not make it to the freedom of speech and expression.
next election to which no one paid any heed. One of
the protestors from the ruling party sued him for 82. Z was a representative of the ruling party who
wished to travel to Thailand for a family vacation. He
sedition. Decide.
(a) P will be liable for sedition as he caused violence applied for the visa but the date of issue was behind
against the incumbent government. his schedule. He then visited to the visa application
(b) P will be liable for sedition as the requisites of office and tried to bribe the officer to speed up the
the same are being fulfilled. process. Aggrieved by this, the other applicants
(c) P will not be liable for sedition as the requisites started yelling at him, calling him a corrupt person.
To this, Z filed a suit against the other applicants for
of the same are not being fulfilled.
(d) P will not be liable for sedition as he has an inciting disaffection against the government.
Determine the liability.
absolute right of freedom of speech and
expression. (a) The other applicants are liable as they tried to
bring disaffection against the government.
80. K was an obedient citizen of the country. He used to (b) The other applicants are not liable since they did
regularly cast his vote and abide by the rules and not try to bring any disaffection against the
regulations of the constitution. Once, when he went government.
to cast his vote, he was not allowed by the election (c) The other applicants are liable as their act led to
officers to enter the election booth. They did not disruption of public order.
provide him any explanation for the same. The next (d) The other applicants are not liable since Z
morning, he lodged a complaint on the online portal committed a wrongful act.
of the Election Commission of India. The officers-in-
charge sued him for sedition as he accused them of 83. The incumbent government had recently introduced
the new Tax regime, to be applicable in the country
mismanagement. Is K liable?
from the new financial year. This was covered by all
(a) K is not liable as the requisites of Section 124A
major news channels. L, the famous editor of 'The
of the IPC are not being satisfied.
India' newspaper published an article, wherein he
(b) K is liable as the requisites of Section 124A of the
IPC are being satisfied. explained all the nitty-gritty of it. He also, listed some
of the major drawbacks on the government's part
(c) K is liable as he tried to cause disloyalty and
while introducing the new system. When the finance
disaffection against the government.
(d) K is liable as he tried to criticize the government minister came to know about it, he filed a suit against
L, charging him for sedition. Decide for liability.
without any valid reason.
(a) L is liable for sedition since he tried to incite
81. S studied in PQR Government Law College where to public disaffection against the government.
pass each semester, every student in the college was (b) L is not liable for sedition since he was merely
required to have 85% attendance. She could not expression his opinion.
fulfill the criteria for some personal emergency so S (c) L is not liable for sedition as all the requisites of
requested her teacher to let her sit for the next Section 124A are not fulfilled.
semester as she had an emergency but all went in (d) L is liable for sedition as all the requisites of
vain. The next day, she stuck posters everywhere Section 124A are fulfilled.
around the college alleging that all the colleges run
by the government did not care about their students,
are corrupted, greedy, and should be banned with
immediate effect. This raised an alarm in people's
minds and they started pelting stones outside the
government offices. They sued S for sedition.
Decide?

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84. Choose the correct statement as per your (c) Comments against the government or criticizing
understanding of the passage. it in an effort to overthrow it through legal ways
(a) A citizen may utilize his freedom of expression with an attempt to cause disaffection, enmity or
to criticize the government as long as he does disloyalty to the government is not considered
not urge people to violence against the seditious.
government, which is regarded an illegitimate (d) Unless the words, signs, or representations
restriction imposed. reveal the target to be a representative of the
(b) The motive behind the words of the seditious government, words, signs, or representations
statement must not be considered equitably and against politicians or public officials by
holistically when considering any offence under themselves do not come under sedition.
Section 124A, rather should focus on individual
parts.

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 SECTION-D : LOGICAL REASONING
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): Coming as the oxygen much needed to resuscitate the economy of Punjab is the land
allotment for Tata Steel’s secondary plant in Ludhiana. High hopes of help lifting Punjab out of the doldrums on the
Rs 2,600-crore project, touted to be the Tata conglomerate’s biggest such unit. That the company chose to celebrate
the 163rd birth anniversary of Sir Dorabji Tata with this investment bodes well as it underscores its commitment
to this deal. The business venture should serve as an impetus for other investors waiting in the wings. The Punjab
Government’s efforts in the past few years to rope in companies through programmes like ‘Progressive Punjab’ have
not yielded much to tom-tom about. More recently, the state’s plan of a textile park near Ludhiana came a cropper
– at least for the time being – as it clashed with the bigger need of protecting the Mattewara forest reserve.
Undoubtedly, the government must press all buttons to improve the ease of doing business. Facilitating established
industries and startups should be a priority as it is the path to a rosy future through the creation of more
employment opportunities. Given the all-round despondency in Punjab – be it the agriculture crisis, lack of jobs,
prevalence of drugs – it is not surprising that hordes of people are in the race to migrate, looking for greener pastures
abroad. Youngsters prefer the education route, many a time by putting at stake every family asset. The elders,
including well-off ones, too, are not far behind. This sadly bursts the bubble of contentment and pride coming from
being in one’s native land. It has come to the fore that many government employees, in violation of service rules,
have slyly obtained permanent residencies of foreign countries. The corrupt among them use this status to escape
the Vigilance Bureau net or other inquiries against them. It is imperative to arrest the depletion of precious human
resources and restore the lost glory of Punjab by creating aspirational conditions in the state.
85. Out of the following, which of the following has most 88. The information in the passage suggests that the
likely contributed the least towards the lost glory of author would appreciate which of the following
Punjab? steps?
(a) Corrupt officials slyly obtain permanent residencies (a) Rules regarding ease of doing business should
abroad. be reformed for the better.
(b) The prevalence of drugs in Punjab. (b) More schemes like ‘Progressive Punjab’ should
(c) Youngsters leaving for greener pastures in foreign be introduced in the state.
countries. (c) The Vigilance Bureau should use excessive
(d) The agricultural crisis in Punjab. resources to nab the defaulters.
86. The author’s central message is best represented by (d) The problems of corruption and drug trafficking
which of the following options? should be dealt with before soliciting big
(a) An investment like that of Tata in Punjab holds companies to invest.
the promise of arresting the slide in the 89. ‘It is imperative to arrest the depletion of precious
economy. human resources and restore the lost glory of Punjab by
(b) Punjab must do more to improve its tainted creating aspirational conditions in the state.’ Which of
image on the national stage. the following is the assumption underlying the passage?
(c) Antisocial elements like the prevalence of drugs (a) The creation of aspirational conditions relies on
and gang culture need to be done away with. the restoration of the lost glory of Punjab.
(d) Punjab needs to arrest its uncontrolled outflow (b) Depletion of precious human resources and
of citizens to turn aspirations into reality. restoration of the lost glory of Punjab is dependent
87. Which statement cannot be concluded from the on the creation of aspirational conditions in the
information given in the passage? state.
i. If not for the investment by the Tatas, Punjab’s (c) The creation of aspirational conditions in Punjab
economy would have been damaged beyond may not prevent human resource depletion and
recovery. restore Punjab’s lost glory.
ii. The investment by the Tatas in the Punjab city of (d) The creation of aspirational conditions in Punjab
Ludhiana is its biggest investment in recent will prevent human resource depletion and restore
years. Punjab’s lost glory.
iii. The Punjab government's efforts in recent years
to rope in investment have not yielded results.
(a) Only i and ii (b) Only ii and iii
(c) Only iii (d) All i, ii and iii

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90. Which of the following would most directly (b) Government employees who acquire foreign
challenge the assertion that "the corrupt among residencies are subject to the same scrutiny and
[government employees] use this status to escape legal processes as those who remain in the country.
the Vigilance Bureau net or other inquiries"? (c) The number of government employees
(a) The Vigilance Bureau has successfully acquiring foreign residencies has decreased
prosecuted several government employees who due to stricter enforcement of residency laws.
were found to have obtained foreign (d) Many government employees in Punjab have
residencies illegally. obtained foreign residencies legally for personal
and professional reasons unrelated to avoiding
legal scrutiny.
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): Monsoon rainfall over India is 8% more than what is usual for this time of the year. While
this might bode well for agriculture in some regions, it also means floods and concentrated downpours with
devastating consequences. At least 25 people were killed over the weekend as torrential rains triggered flash floods
and landslides in Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Himachal Pradesh met with a similar fate. While death and
damage to property are the surface manifestation of these rains, there are a range of secondary effects with long-
term downstream impact. The monsoon compresses India’s annual rainfall into four months and unevenly waters
the country’s highly diverse terrain. It is, therefore, inevitable that some spots are far more vulnerable and bear a
disproportionate impact of climate fury. While hill States have certain unique challenges, the threats from the
vagaries of climate are not unique to them. Monsoon rain patterns are being disrupted leading to a rise in
cloudburst-like events as well as a rise in the frequency of high-energy cyclones and droughts. One strategy adopted
by the government has been to improve the system of early warning forecasts. The India Meteorological Department
now provides fortnightly, weekly and even three-hourly weather forecasts to districts. However, not all of these are
accurate and often, they are not provided early enough for authorities to prepare themselves. In recent years,
improvements in early warnings for incoming cyclones have helped state agencies evacuate and rehabilitate the
most vulnerable, but such success has not been observed for floods. While the inherent risks of infrastructure
development in hills and unstable terrain is well understood, these are often elided by authorities in the name of
balancing the demands of the people for better infrastructure and services. The increased risk and cost to such
projects and infrastructure should be factored in when they are tendered out by the government, and scientific
advice regarding development ought to be strictly adhered to.
91. The passage’s central idea is best represented by 93. Which piece of evidence would strengthen the
which of the following options? author’s arguments in the passage?
(a) The development of mountain areas over the i. Schools and transport immediately get put out of
years has upset the ecological balance. action due to increased rains.
(b) India’s weather forecast system needs to be ii. Cattle and saplings are left to perish, destroying
improved to prevent ecological disasters. livelihoods and debilitating family finances.
(c) It is about time the authorities recognise that iii. According to a research study, it is estimated
‘natural’ disasters are not purely natural. that the anthropological impact on rainfall
(d) Better warning systems can decrease the patterns is on the decline.
number of fatalities that natural disasters create. (a) Only i (b) Only i and ii
(c) Only ii and iii (d) Only i and iii
92. If the information in the passage is correct, select the
option that could be inferred from the passage. 94. According to the passage, what can be said about the
(a) Property damage is the last thing that unusual rains strategy adopted by the government to improve the
result in. system of early warning forecasts?
(b) The IMD does not pay enough heed to the (a) This system has worked wonders for India, and
suggestions by the government. improvements have been witnessed.
(c) The demands of the people for better (b) Early warning systems are still not enough to
infrastructure and services cannot supersede evacuate the people in time.
the dangers arising out of it. (c) Even though an early warning system has its
(d) The IMD tends to pay overwhelming attention to positives, it is not foolproof.
the demands of the public, and almost negligible (d) This system is solely used for evacuating and
to the demands of nature. rehabilitating vulnerable people.

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95. Given the information in the passage, what could be (a) The immediate benefits of increased rainfall for
a logical course of action according to author? agriculture are outweighed by the long-term
(a) New technologies are employed to improve the damage caused by floods and landslides.
accuracy of early weather forecasts. (b) Increased monsoon rainfall provides consistent
(b) The family members of people deceased due to benefits to agricultural production and
heavy rainfall are compensated accordingly. infrastructure development.
(c) The terrain of hill states is changed to ensure (c) The rise in rainfall has led to a decrease in the
that natural calamities are reduced significantly. frequency of high-energy cyclones and
(d) The people of districts vulnerable to monsoon droughts.
vagaries should be shifted to the plains for the (d) The focus on early warning improvements has
period of monsoon. mitigated all secondary impacts of the
increased monsoon rainfall.
96. Which of the following best captures the secondary
impacts of increased monsoon rainfall as described
in the passage?
Passage (Q.97 – Q.102): The Supreme Court’s call for “brevity, simplicity and clarity”, while setting aside an
“incomprehensible” judgment of the Himachal Pradesh high court, should apply not just to the judiciary but every
arm of the state. The HC division bench verdict is dotted with gems such as these: “ the ire res-controversia, erupting
interse the litigants, appertains, to findings, adversarial, to the workman” and “contra therewith, became adduced,
by him, hence became enjoined, to dispel the factum”. The language of governance was deliberately made complex
by governing classes in pre-modern societies. This survived well into what’s called the advent of modernity. It’s only
over the last two decades or so that a movement to modernise and simplify the language of justice, law and
administration began in some Western democracies. It hasn’t been successful everywhere. In the US, for example,
scholars of law-making regularly highlight opaque language and jargon in laws that also run into scores of pages.
But India hasn’t even tried. It’s high time it did. From cops writing FIRs and preparing charge sheets to the executive
drafting laws, to judges writing verdicts – it’s almost impossible to find clarity, brevity and simplicity. A democratic
state exists for the citizen and not vice versa. It naturally follows that how the state communicates is critical. In the
75th year of its Independence, the language of the Indian state is still stuck in a colonial time warp. English, which
despite the illogical grumbling of many, is a necessary and widely used language of governance, has evolved radically
over decades. But drafters of laws, for example, persist with archaic expressions and tortuous sentence
constructions. The general aim seems to be to befuddle the reader, not illuminate the subject for him.
97. What is the most critical message in the passage? 99. Suggest a logical title for the passage from the given
(a) An incomprehensible judgement does not serve options.
its purpose. (a) Stating truth in simple terms
(b) Citizens could be communicated in (b) Is the truth so complicated?
comprehensible language of governance. (c) Keeping the communications more simple
(c) Judiciary shall change its approach with (d) Unnecessity of voluble judgements
modernity.
100. The author would most likely to agree with –
(d) Only professionals can understand the complex
language of some judgements. (a) The way the Indian state communicates has no
resemblance to how Indians communicate.
98. Which of the following can be assumed about the (b) Judiciary and the Indian state have a perception
judges on the high court bench? that does not suit to public’s perception.
(a) They adopted an astute professional approach in (c) The language of governance has been globally
writing the judgement. outdated in its complexity.
(b) The judges did not care about the language of the (d) The judgment of the Himachal Pradesh high
judgement. court is unprecedented.
(c) The judges were more concentrated on the
101. Why has the author called some legal texts ‘tortuous
content of the judgement.
(d) The judges were apathetic to the plight of the sentence constructions’?
citizens. (a) Due to their irrelevance.
(b) Due to negativity linked with them.
(c) Due to their abstruse nature.
(d) Due to their classifications.

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102. Which of the following would most directly address (b) Revising historical legal documents to make
the issue of complex legal language in Indian them more accessible without changing the
governance? underlying legal principles.
(a) Introducing mandatory training programs for (c) Implementing a comprehensive review process
legal and administrative professionals to to identify and update archaic expressions and
enhance their skills in drafting clear and simple convoluted sentence structures in legal texts.
documents. (d) Increasing public awareness campaigns about
the complexities of legal language and its
impact on citizen understanding.
Direction (Q.103 – Q.108): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow-
Analyzing past epidemics shows us that actual endings are long, drawn-out and contested. Societies must grapple
not just with the medical realities of the disease, harms and treatments but the political and economic fallout from
emergency measures and disputes over who has the authority to declare an end and what should be measured to
guide this process. This is why there is so much uncertainty about the current state of Covid-19: different groups
have vastly different experiences of the medical, political and social aspects of the epidemic, and different ideas of
what an ending may look like.
Research demonstrates that the end of an epidemic involves more than disease rates (the medical en(d) . Instead,
the end also encompasses the end of the crisis and regulations (the political en(d) , and the return to normalcy (the
social en(d) . These endings are related, but they are different – and they can be at odds with one another. Analyzing
a variety of past epidemics reveals that it is more accurate to identify multiple endings to an epidemic, taking these
different sorts of endpoints into account.
The history of recent epidemics such as H1N1 (swine flu) or HIV/Aids bears this out. Most epidemics end not with
the disappearance of disease but when case rates no longer result in a medical crisis – a point in which rates reach
what is defined as normal, expected, or locally acceptable levels. In August 2010, for example, the WHO declared
that the 2009 H1N1 pandemic was in its “post-pandemic period”. This did not mark the end of H1N1 cases; instead,
the WHO explained that cases and outbreaks were still expected to occur but following normal seasonal patterns of
influenza. This raises the question of what is a normal, acceptable or manageable level in a given place – particularly
for a new disease. Differences of opinion over responses to Covid-19 disease rates – whether to maintain or reinstate
public health measures and when to relax them – demonstrate debates as to what is an acceptable level of infection,
as well as who should decide this.
103. Which of the following can be concluded (c) A cautious approach is imminent as pandemics
conveniently from the passage? are unpredictable in their recurrence.
(a) Medical treatment transforms epidemics from (d) The end of the pandemic shall be evident for all,
highly publicised killers into manageable, when the mud settles and water becomes clear.
chronic conditions.
105. What lessons can be taken from the history of
(b) History tells us that the end of a deadly outbreak
isn’t just about medical data – it’s about political epidemics?
and social changes. (a) Pandemics come back to haunt society.
(c) Different forms of authority negotiate and (b) Emergency measures shall be lifted in a phased
manner.
compete with one another, often debating
(c) Epidemics are stubborn.
fundamental social, economic and political
(d) Almost all epidemics follow the same pattern.
priorities as much as medical data.
(d) All of the following. 106. Which of the following can be assumed based on the
104. What is the most prominent suggestion of the author
reading of the passage?
in the passage? (a) With time, diseases change in their intensity.
(a) Post pandemic period cannot be considered the (b) The medical end precedes the social end for
epidemics.
end of the pandemic.
(c) Congruence of medical data, social regulations
(b) The political establishment has reasons to
and political commitment can only decide the
declare the end of the pandemic, different from
end of a pandemic.
social reasons.

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 (d) H1N1 and Covid are similar in their inception (a) “The Final Countdown: When Do Epidemics
and end. Truly End?”
(b) “Epidemic Endgames: Navigating Medical,
107. What is the approach of the author in the passage?
Political, and Social Conclusions”
(a) Reflective (b) Vigilant (c) “From Crisis to Calm: The Unseen Layers of
(c) Amplifying (d) Obscure
Epidemic Resolution”
108. Which of the following titles best encapsulates the (d) “Epidemic Endings: The Intersection of Disease
approach to understanding the end of an epidemic Rates, Regulations, and Social Norms”
as discussed in the passage?

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 SECTION-E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.109-Q.114): Study the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
In a senior secondary school, every class is divided into six sections A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 50 students in each
section of the class. In the sections A, B and C of class 10th, the girl to boy ratio is 2 : 3, while in sections D and E, the
girl to boy ratio is 3 : 7. On the other hand, there are equal number of boys and girls in the section F of class 10th.
The number of boys in the sections A and B of class 12th is 80% and 90% of the number of boys in the sections A
and B of class 10th. While, the number of girls in the other sections of class 12th is 60% of the number of boys in the
respective sections of the class 10th.
109. What is the boy to girl ratio in the section F of class 112. How many boys are there in the section A of class
12th? 12th?
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (a) 20 (b) 24
(c) 5 : 3 (d) 7:3 (c) 28 (d) 30
110. How many total number of boys are there in the 113. How many total number of girls are there in the
sections D and E of class 12th? sections A, B and C of class 10th?
(a) 21 (b) 58 (a) 30 (b) 45
(c) 35 (d) 42 (c) 60 (d) 75
111. How many girls are there in the section C of class 114. What is the sum of the total number of boys in
12th? sections E of classes 10 and 12?
(a) 12 (b) 15 (a) 45 (b) 60
(c) 18 (d) 20 (c) 64 (d) 75
Directions (Q.115-Q.120): Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions accordingly.
In a company, there are 4 departments. In department X, 81 employees are working, and the ratio of engineers to
non-engineers is 5 : 4. In department Y, 90 employees are working and the ratio of engineers to non-engineers is 3
: 2. In department Z, 72 employees are working and the ratio of engineers to non-engineers is 7 : 5. In department
W, 60 employees are working and the ratio of engineers to non-engineers is 2 : 3.
115. Find the total number of non-engineers working in 118. Find the ratio of the total number of engineers
department –X and department –Z together. working in department –X to department –Z.
(a) 32 (b) 42 (a) 15:14 (b) 2:3
(c) 66 (d) 72 (c) 5:4 (d) 3:5
116. The total number of engineers in department Y and 119. Total number of employees in all the departments is
department W together are approximately what what percentage more than the total number of all
percent of the total number of employees in these engineers.
departments together? (a) 50% (b) 70.6%
(a) 66% (b) 56% (c) 83.6% (d) 79.6%
(c) 72% (d) 52%
120. What is the difference between number of Engineers
117. Find the average number of employees in all the in department X to number of Non – Engineers in
departments. department Y?
(a) 75 (b) 75.75 (a) 9 (b) 18
(c) 76.25 (d) 76 (c) 12 (d) 16

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