Republic of the Philippines

DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION
Region VII – Central Visayas
Schools Division of Bohol

DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN EARTH SCIENCE

SY 2022-2023

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Directions: Read and understand each item and choose the letter of the
correct answer. Use a separate answer sheet of paper.
1. Which among the factors that make a planet habitable influence how quickly atoms and
molecules move?
A. Atmosphere
B. Energy
C. Nutrients
D. Temperature
2. Complete the sentence.
On Earth, nutrients are cycled through the _________________ and plate tectonics
(volcanism).
A. decomposition
B. hydrologic cycle
C. nitrogen cycle
D. photosynthesis
3. What is the relationship between a planet’s greenhouse gases in the atmosphere and its
temperature?
A. The amount of greenhouse gases has nothing to do with the planet’s temperature.
B. The greater the amount of greenhouse gases, the higher the temperature.
C. The greater the amount of greenhouse gases, the lower the temperature.
D. The lesser the amount of greenhouse gases, the higher the temperature.
4. Rebecka is fond of using commercialized fertilizer for her plants to grow faster and
appear to be more presentable. Which subsystem will later be most affected by the
excessive use of fertilizer?
A. Atmosphere
B. Biosphere
C. Hydrosphere
D. Lithosphere
5. What do you call to the quality and intensity of reflected light exhibited by the mineral?
A. Color
B. Habit
C. Luster
D. Streak
6. What do you call to minerals containing halogen elements combined with one or more
elements?
A. Carbonates
B. Halides
C. Native elements
D. Oxides
7. Mineral L was subjected to a hardness test using fingernail, copper penny, and a nail.
Only the penny left a mark. What is the rating of the mineral’s hardness according to the
Moh’s scale of hardness?
A. 1: very soft

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 B. 2: soft
C. 3: soft
D. 4: semi-hard
8. What do you call to rocks formed when minerals from a mineral supersaturated waters
start to crystallize at the bottom of the solution?
A. Bioclastics
B. Carbonates
C. Evaporites
D. Precipitates
9. A metamorphic rock has the presence of layering. What type of texture does it have?
A. Conglomerate
B. Foliated
C. Non-foliated
D. Stratified
10. Under what conditions can you classify an igneous rock if it contains 55-65% silica?
A. Andesitic
B. Felsic
C. Mafic
D. Ultramafic
11. What do you call to rock volumes containing selected elements in sufficient
concentration and quantity that they can be extracted economically?
A. Mineral aggregate
B. Mineral deposits
C. Mineral occurrence
D. Ore deposits
12. What type of mineral resource are tin and nickel?
A. Fuel
B. Metallic
C. Nonmetallic
D. None of the above
13. Which of the following minerals is used as additive for different cosmetic materials like
face powder?
A. Charcoal
B. Coal
C. Rock Salt
D. Talc
14. Tooth extraction leaves an empty gum that affects an individual’s speaking and eating
ability. To address this problem, dentists use light metallic mineral to implant tooth on the
affected gum. What metallic mineral is used by the dentists?
A. Aluminum
B. Calcium
C. Titanium
D. Uranium
15. What method of mining involves digging?
A. Deep-mining
B. Open-pit mining
C. Surface mining
D. Underground mining
16. Which of the following process involved crushing and grinding of mineral ore?
A. Analysis
B. Comminution
C. Dewatering
D. Sampling
17. Which arrangement of mineral processing is correct?
A. Comminution, Analysis, Sampling, Concentration, Dewatering
B. Dewatering, Concentration, Comminution, Analysis, Sampling
C. Sampling, Analysis, Concentration, Comminution, Dewatering
D. Sampling, Analysis, Comminution, Concentration, Dewatering
18. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

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 I. Surface and underground mining use explosives.
II. Underground mining is cheaper than surface mining.
III. Open pit mining is the most common type of surface mining.

A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. I and III

19. Fossils fuels an important source of energy for ______
A. homes B. transport C. industries D. all of them
20. Why do fossil fuels generate more power than wood for use in machines?
A. Fossil fuels are drier.
B. Fossil fuels are easier to light.
C. Fossil fuels are easier to transport.
D. Fossil fuels have a higher concentration of carbon and hydrogen.
21. Coal, common fossil fuel, is formed from which of the following types of organic matter?
A. bodies of dead animals
B. freshwater algae
C. marine organisms
D. tree trunks, leaves and freshwater plants
22. What energy used when humans generate electricity by using the heat of the Earth?
A. Biomass
B. Hydroelectric Energy
C. Geothermal Energy
D. Radiation
23.Which of the following is correct about geothermal energy?
A. Geothermal energy makes no pollution.
B. Geothermal energy relies on the power of the sun.
C. Geothermal energy works everywhere on the Earth.
D. All of these.
24. How does hydroelectric energy work?
A. It uses the power of the sun to turn work.
B. The water heats up and it turns into water vapor to power.
C. Water is collected and stored and led downward through penstocks to produce
electricity.
D. All of these.
25. Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?
A. Availability of water
B. Large catchment area
C. Rocky land
D. Sedimentation
26. What is the largest reservoirs of water in the world?
A. lake B. ocean C. river D. stream
27. Where is most of fresh water on Earth located?
A. in polar ice and glaciers C. river
B. lake D. sea
28. Why can the depth of a water table be high in some places and low in other?
A. The depth changes due to precipitation, drought or overuse of wells.
B. There is too much leaking occurring in certain spots.
C. Sedimentation occurs.
D. All of the above.
29. Which of the following is not considered an issue pertaining to water resources in the
future?
A. Desalination will exacerbate dwindling freshwater supplies.
B. Growing populations will continue to exploit water resources.
C. Pollution will limit the water-resource base.
D. Regional drought will increase pressure on groundwater resources.
30. Which of the following is a potential source of groundwater pollution?
A. disposal sites

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 B. pesticides and fertilizers
C. septic tanks
D. All of the above
31. How does the depletion of aquifer directly affect human lives?
A Deterioration of water quality
B. Increased pumping cost
C. Land subsidence
D. Totally dry perennial streams
32. Which of the following is NOT an effect of human activities on soil?
A. Increasing soil organic content
B. Keeping the soil surface vegetated
C. Prevented soil compaction
D. Reducing soil erosion
33. How does mining affect the quality of soil?
A. It can cause acid drainage
B. It cause soil deterioration
C. It cause soil loss
D. It renews the soi
34. Which of the following human activities affect the quality of soil?
A. Animal grazing
B. Groundwater extraction
C. Mining
D. Ploughing
35. It causes the loss of topsoil and nutrients in the soil. It is indeed the most visible effect of
soil degradation. Which of the following is Human Activities Degrade Soil Quality is being
described?
A. Desertification
B. Intensive Agriculture
C. Soil Compaction
D. Soil Erosion
36. Which of the following statements is NOT included in the conservation of Soil Resource?
A. Avoiding excessive tillage
B. Increasing soil organic matter
C. Preparation of plot for gardening
D. Promoting crop rotation
37. Watering the plants is beneficial to soil because it prevents _____
A. Compaction
B. Erosion
C. Eutrophication
D. Sedimentation
38. Which of the following are best reasons for doing soil conservation methods?
I. To ensure a secure food supply at reasonable prices.
II. To improve wildlife habitat.
III. To maintain an adequate amount of organic matter and biological life
IV. To save farmers from the effect of climate change

A. I and II only
B. II and II only
C.I, II and III only
D. II, III and IV only
39. E-waste is being sent to landfill at three times the rate of general waste. What types of
appliances make up the greatest percentage of e-waste?
A. copper wirings
B. Electrical wires and plugs
C. cellphone, cases, and gadgets

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 D. Washing machines & air conditioners
40. What does reduce mean?
A. less waste
B. save the Earth
C using less
D. using more
41.How does your community normally dispose large volume of waste?
A. Incineration
B. Ocean dumping
C. Recycling
D. Sanitary landfill
42.Why burning waste is not an acceptable practice of solid waste management?
A. Because it causes several environmental issues.
B. Because it is very costly.
C. Because it requires a lot of space.
D. Because it requires modern technologies.
43.Solid waste has high concentration of Methane, it is fatal when ignited or absorb, thus it
is_
A. corrosive.
B. ignitable
C. reactive.
D. toxic.
44. The factors which are solely responsible for the high increasing rate of solid waste _____
A. Failure of Municipal Ordinance on SWM
B. Lack of Technology, Population Growth
C. Population growth, Urbanization
D. Urbanization, Economic growth
45. Cholera, an infectious and often fatal bacterial disease of small intestines is due to
______
A. contracted from infected water supplies and causing severe vomiting and diarrhea
B. methane
C. soil contamination
D. none of the above
46. The following are importance of Landfills in a certain Municipality EXCEPT
A. design to minimize the effects of trash on human health and environment
B. disposal of solid waste
C. production of high concentration of Methane
D. reduce the soil and water contamination
47. Which from the following preventive measures that you should do as a resident of a
municipality?
A. generation of waste should be decreasing
B. have a proper solid waste management
C. increase the level of Municipality service regarding on solid waste management
D. promote use of plastic recycling
48. Which of the following is the least adverse effect of landfill to environment?
A. climatic change
B. contamination of soil and water
C. health risks on nearby community
D. spreading of infectious waste

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ANSWER KEY

No. of Correct No. of Incorrect

Responses Responses

1.D

2.B

3.B

4.D

5.C

6.B

7.C

8.D

9.B

10.A

11.D

12.B

13.D

14.C

15.D

16.B

17.D

18.D

19.D

20.D

21.D

22.C

23.A

24.C

25.D

26.B

27.A

28.A

29.A

30.D

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 31.A

32.D

33.A

34.C

35.D

36.C

37.B

38.C

39.D

40.C

41.A/D

42.A

43. D

44.C

45.A

46.C

47.B

48.B

Prepared by:

NICOLIE CHRISTA G. LAMORIN

CHRISTIAN MAE P. CAEL
MIRIAM A. ACTUB
JOY A. CANTONES