Sunya Ias Test 1 To 19 @upsc - Test - 2024

FOR PRELIMS
pPLT-1 (Polity 1.0)

(QUESTION PAPER)
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T.B.C.: SU-2024-pPLT Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT-1 (Polity 1.0) A
Time Allowed: 1 Hours Maximum Marks :100
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BRAHMASTRA | PRELIMS - 2024 | Pplt-1
1. Consider the following statements 3. Consider the following important parts of
1. Most of the Fundamental rights do not the constitution and the subject that they
deal with:
require any legislation for their
1. Part V: The States
implementation whereas directive 2. Part IV: Fundamental Rights
principles require legislation for their 3. Part XI: Relations between the Union
implementation. and the States
2. Fundamental rights are negative as How many of the statements given above
are correct?
they prohibit the state from doing (a) Only one
certain things whereas directive (b) Only two
principles are positive as they require (c) All three
the State to do certain things to be in (d) None
line with the concept of the ‘Welfare
4. 69th Constitutional Amendment Act is related
State’. to:
Which of the above statements is/are (a) Granting Representative form of
incorrect? government for the NCT of Delhi
(b) Disqualification on grounds of
(a) 1 only
defection
(b) 2 only (c) Constitutional status and protection to
(c) Both 1 and 2 cooperative societies
(d) Granting statehood to Nagaland and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Arunachal Pradesh
2. Consider the following provisions need the 5. Consider the following statements.
consent of states for amendment in the 1. The Constitution has mandated a
constitution? federal balance wherein independence
of a certain required degree is assured
1. Election of the President and its to the State Governments.
manner 2. A balanced federal structure mandates
2. Power of Parliament to amend the that the States enjoy freedom without
any unsolicited interference from the
Constitution and its procedure
Central Government with respect
3. Representation of states in Parliament matters which exclusively fall within
How many of the statements given above State’s domain.
are correct? Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 only
(c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Copy is ENCRYPTED and for personal use ONLY| www.sunyaias.com |BRAHMASTRA-2024| PRELIMS-2023-24 Page. 1
6. Which one of the following is not an Indian 8. Which of the following pair[s] is/are
form of Socialism? correctly matched?
(a) Nehruvian Socialism Provision Source
(b) Democratic Socialism 1. Ideals of Liberty, Soviet Union
(c) Radical Socialism Equality
(d) Communitarian Socialism 2. Fundamental Duties France

3. Amendment of South Africa
Constitution
7. Consider the following statements
How many of the given pairs above are
regarding Indian Councils Act, 1861.
correct?
1. It initiated the process of
(a) Only one
decentralization by restoring the
(b) Only two
legislative powers to the Bombay and
(c) All three
Madras Presidencies.
(d) None
2. It empowered the Viceroy to issue
ordinances without the concurrence of
9. The notion of ‘Freedom’, in a society,
the legislative council during an
implies which of the following below:
emergency.
1. Absence of external constraints
3. It provided for the establishment of
2. Expanding the ability of people to
new legislative councils for Bengal,
develop their creativity and capabilities
North-Western Frontier Province
3. All decisions are made collectively
(NWFP) and Punjab.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
10. Consider the following statements 12. With reference to the Government of India
regarding Regulating Act, 1773
Act of 1919, the system of ‘dyarchy’
1. It prohibited the servants of the
company from engaging in any private implied that
trade.
(a) Certain subjects were devolved to the
2. It made the governors of Bombay,
Madras and Bengal presidencies Indian members of the Viceroy’s
independent of one another. executive council and certain others to
3. It introduced, for the first time, local
representation in the Indian (Central) the British members of the executive
Legislative Council. council
4. It provided for the establishment of a
(b) Both Centre and provincial legislatures
Supreme Court at Delhi.
How many of the statements given above had the power of legislate in their own
are incorrect?
spheres.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) Both the British Parliament and the
(c) Only three
Central Legislature had the right to
(d) All four
make laws for India
11. Consider the following statements with
(d) Division of the subjects delegated to
regard to National Emergency:
1. The President can declare a National the provinces into two categories.
Emergency when there is a threat to
the security of India due to war,
external aggression, or internal 13. Which Act enabled the Governor General
disturbance.
to associate representatives of the Indian
2. Enforcement of Article 20 and 21 can
never be suspended during the People with the work of legislation by
National Emergency. nominating them to his expanded council?
Which of the above statements is/are
correct? (a) Government of India Act, 1858
(a) 1 only (b) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Government of India Act, 1935
14. Match these schedules of Constitution to 16. Consider the following are devices of direct
what they contain. democracy?
1. Recall
1. First Schedule – List of names of All
2. Citizen’s Initiative
States and Union Territories
3. Referendum
2. Second Schedule – Powers of
4. Plebiscite
President, Governor and Judges
3. Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats are correct?
in Rajya Sabha (a) Only one
(b) Only two
4. Seventh Schedule – Division of powers
(c) Only three
between Legislative, Executive and
(d) All four
Judiciary
How many of the statements given above 17. “It shall be the endeavour of every state
are correct? and every local authority within the state to
(a) Only one provide adequate facilities for instruction in

the mother-tongue at the primary stage of
(b) Only two
education to children belonging to
(c) Only three
linguistic minority groups.” This is a
(d) All four
1. Part of Fundamental rights under Part
III of the Constitution
15. A Democratic constitution would lose its 2. Provision made under an Act of
credibility if Parliament
3. Justiciable in courts if not implemented
(a) It is heavily based on the Constitution
by the Government of India
of another nation.
(b) It is not based on secular ideas. are correct?
(c) There is no redressal for breach of (a) Only one
fundamental rights (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) It centralizes power from the federal
(d) None
units into the Union government.
18. With reference to the procedure for the 20. Consider the following statements.
amendment of the Constitution as laid 1. The idea of a constituent assembly for
down in Article 368, consider the following India was first put forward by
statements. Jawaharlal Nehru
1. An amendment of the Constitution can 2. The Constituent assembly was
constituted in 1943 after the approval
be initiated only in the Parliament.
of the Cripps Proposals.
2. The bill can be introduced only by a
minister and not by a private member. correct?
3. Prior permission of the president is not (a) 1 only
required for the introduction of the bill. (b) 2 only
4. The ratification by the state legislature (c) Both 1 and 2
is not required. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
are incorrect? 21. Which of these is against the ethos of
(a) Only one Indian democracy and constitution?
(b) Only two (a) Proportional Representation
(c) Only three (b) Separation of powers between different
organs government
(d) All four
(c) Religious intolerance
(d) Scientific interpretation of Indian
19. What purposes does the constitution of a
traditions
nation necessarily serve?
1. It may allow better coordination in the 22. Consider the following statements.
nation amongst individuals. 1. The Preamble to the Indian
2. Specify who has the power to make Constitution is based on the Objective
decisions in a society. Resolution.
3. Set some limits on what a government 2. The 44th constitutional amendment
can impose on its citizens. added three new words—socialist,
secular and integrity to preamble.
4. It allows people to ban autocracy and
3. Preamble is a source of power to
adopt democracy.
legislature.
are correct?
are correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) All three
(d) All four (d) None
23. Which of the following is/are the demerits 26. Consider the following statements.
of the Parliamentary System?
1. Constitutionalism denotes the principle
1. Government by Amateurs
2. Not conductive to administrative that the government derives its
efficiency authority from a body of fundamental
3. Separation of Powers
law and is limited by it.
are correct? 2. Fundamental Rights in Indian
(a) Only one Constitution helps in enforcing the
(b) Only two
(c) All three philosophy of Constitutionalism.
(d) None Which of the above statements is/are
24. Consider the following elements is/are the correct?

basic structure of Indian Constitution? (a) 1 only
1. Harmony between Union and State
2. Freedom and dignity of the individual (b) 2 only
3. Free and fair elections (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
27. The Indian model of government is also
(c) All three
(d) None called as the “Westminster‟ model of
government because
25. Consider the following from the
Constitution of India is/are especially (a) Indian constitution was modeled very
relevant to Social Justice and closely on the lines of the British
Empowerment?
constitution
1. Preamble
2. First Schedule (b) Indian constitution was made with the
3. Third Schedule assistance of the British
4. Fundamental Rights
5. Directive Principles of State Policy (c) India follows parliamentary form of
How many of the statements given above government
are correct?
(d) The members of the parliamentary
(a) Only two
(b) Only three house are elected through adult
(c) Only four franchise
(d) All five
28. Consider the following statements is/are 30. Consider the following statements.
the features of Federalism? 1. The Indian Constitution embodies the
1. Different tiers of government govern positive concept of secularism.
the same citizens, but each tier has its 2. A democratic polity, as stipulated in
the Preamble, is based on the doctrine
own jurisdiction.
of popular sovereignty.
2. The existence and authority of each
3. The term ‘democratic’ used in the
tier of government generally is
Preamble, embraces only political and
constitutionally guaranteed. social democracy.
3. Each tier of government must draw all How many of the statements given above
its financial resources independent of are correct?
the other tier. (a) Only one
How many of the statements given above (b) Only two
(c) All three
are correct?
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
31. In context of the doctrine of separation of
(c) All three
power, examine the following statements:
(d) None 1. The doctrine of separation of power is
part of the basic structure of the Indian
29. Consider the following were the Constitution.
suggestions made by Swaran Singh 2. The doctrine of separation of power is
Committee to be included as Fundamental mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
Duties? 3. Doctrine of separation of power
implies that the three pillars of
1. Duty to pay taxes
democracy, namely the executive,
2. Family Planning
judiciary and legislature, perform
3. Casting vote separate functions and act as separate
How many of the statements given above entities.
are correct? How many of the statements given above
(a) Only one are correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
32. Consider the following Statements are the 34. Consider the following statements
manifestations of the democratic character regarding Republic.
of the Indian Polity: 1. In a republic, the head of the state is
1. Universal adult franchise elected directly.
2. Periodic elections 2. It means vesting of political
3. Rule of Law sovereignty in the people.
4. Independence of judiciary 3. Absence of any privileged class.

are correct?
are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) Only three
(d) None
(d) All four
35. Consider the following statements.

33. Consider the following statements:
1. Distributive justice is the combination
1. The Constitution of India empowers
of social justice and economic justice.
the Parliament to enact a law to
2. The ideal of justice—social, economic
provide for matters relating to
and political has been taken from the
citizenship.
Russian Revolution.
2. The Constitution confers the freedom
3. Justice is secured through various
to manage religious affairs only to the
provisions of Fundamental Rights and
citizens of India and denies the same to
Directive Principles.
aliens.
Select the correct answer code: are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
36. Consider the following statements: 38. Consider the following statements.
1. According to Constitution of India, the 1. The Constitution of India provides for
State while granting aid to educational a parliamentary form of government,
institutions, shall not discriminate both at the Centre and in the States.
against any educational institution on 2. The Parliamentary system of
the ground that it is under the government in India is part of the basic
management of a minority. structure of the Constitution.
2. The right to get government aid for an 3. In the Presidential System of
educational institution run by a
Government, the executive is
minority community, is a fundamental
responsible to the legislature for its
right.
policies and acts.
Select the correct answer code:
(a) 1 only
are correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) Only one
(c) Both 1 & 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
(d) None
regarding Article 17 39. Which of the following statement regarding
1. The Constitution does not provide a ‘State’ in the Indian Constitution is/are
definition for the term 'untouchability'. correct?
2. The scope of Article 17 extends to the 1. The definition of "State" is crucial in
social boycott or exclusion of deciding the scope of application of
individuals from religious services.
fundamental rights.
3. In a ruling, the Supreme Court
2. The definition of "State" helps in
declared that the right guaranteed
determining the remedies available to
under Article 17 of the Constitution
citizens in case of a violation of their
can be exercised against private
fundamental rights.
individuals.
correct?
are correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
40. Which of the following statement regarding 42. What do you understand by the term
preventive detention is correct: ‘Transformative Constitutionalism’?
1. Only parliament can make preventive (a) Approach to transform the Constitution
detention laws.
to align with morality in the society
2. In preventive detention the protection
under article 22 shall not be available (b) Practical approach to achieve specific
to detainees. goals
3. Such detainees can have no right of (c) Approach to make political and social
personal liberty guaranteed by article transformation with people of India as
19 or 21. a crucial aspect.
4. Preventive custody would be three
(d) Approach in which Constitution's core
months at first instances and cannot be
structure and substance will never
extended.
How many of the statements given above change, but it will continue to adapt to
are correct? the requirements of society.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 43. Citizenship is a relationship between an
(c) Only three
individual and a state to which the
(d) All four
individual owes allegiance. Citizenship
41. Consider the following statements: implies full and equal members of a
1. Habeas Corpus is a writ issued by the political community. Which of the
court to bring before the court a person following are the key ideas or principles
from illegal custody. inherent in the citizenship of a democratic
2. By using the writ of Mandamus, the state?
court may order the public officials to
1. Equality of rights and status is one of
perform their legal duties.
the basic rights of citizenship.
3. By the writ of Quo Warranto, the court
may strike off an order passed by any 2. Civil rights of a citizen include the
official of the government, local body right to refuge as a global citizen.
or a statutory body. 3. Citizenship enables an individual to
4. Certiorari is a writ issued to a person participate in the process of the state’s
who authorized to occupy a public governance.
office to step down from that office.
are correct? are correct?
44. Consider the following Case and Judgment 46. Consider the following statements about
related to it Constitutional Government:
1. Shankari Prasad Case: Supreme Court 1. The core principle of constitutional
government is the control of power by
held that Parliament can amend the
its distribution among different state
Fundamental rights under article 368 organs or offices.
2. Waman Rao Case: Any Constitutional 2. Constitutional government allows for
Amendment Act can't change the basic peaceful transfers of power through
structure of the constitution, would free and fair elections.
apply to the amendments after April 3. A constitution is not necessary for a
constitutional government to function
24, 1973
effectively.
3. IR Coelho Case: If any laws in the How many of the statements given above
Ninth Schedule were inconsistent with are correct?
Part III, they are liable to be struck (a) Only one
down by the Court (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
are correct?
(a) Only one 47. Consider the following statements
(b) Only two regarding Indian citizenship:
(c) All three 1. Parliament shall have the power to
(d) None make any provision with respect to the
acquisition and termination of Indian
citizenship.
45. Consider the following statements. 2. Naturalised citizen who has rendered
1. Indian territory can be ceded to a distinguished service to the science,
foreign state only by amending the philosophy, art, literature, world peace
Constitution under Article 368. or human progress may not take an
oath of allegiance to the Constitution
2. Settlement of a boundary dispute
of India.
between India and another country 3. The Constitution prohibits dis-
does not require a constitutional crimination against any citizen on
amendment. grounds of religion, race, residence,
Which of the above statements is/are caste, sex or place of birth.
correct? How many of the statements given above
are incorrect?
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
regarding Fundamental Rights guaranteed 50. Consider the following statements.
by the Constitution. 1. The term ‘Minority’ is not defined in
1. Fundamental Rights are available the Indian Constitution.
against the arbitrary action of the State 2. The Constitution of India recognizes
and against the action of private religious, linguistic and ethnic
individuals. minorities.
2. The Parliament cannot curtail or repeal Which of the above statements is/are
them. correct?
3. The six rights guaranteed by Article 19 (a) 1 only
can be suspended when emergency is (b) 2 only
declared on the grounds of armed (c) Both 1 and 2
rebellion.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
49. With reference to Right to Constitutional

Remedies guaranteed under Article 32,
consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court has ruled that it is
a basic feature of the constitution.
2. Fundamental rights and other statutory
rights can be enforced under it.
3. The Supreme Court has both exclusive
and original jurisdictions in case of
enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
4. Article 32 cannot be invoked to
determine the constitutionality of an
executive order or a legislation unless
it directly infringes on any
Fundamental Rights.
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
*******
FOR PRELIMS
pPLT-1 (Polity 1.0)

(SOLUTIONS & EXPLANATIONS)
pPLT-1 (Polity 1.0)
1. Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Fundamental rights (FR) do not require any legislation for their implementation.
They are the fundamental for an individual’s mental, emotional and spiritual development. Contained in Part 3
of the Indian Constitution they are guaranteed to every Individual. They are automatically enforced while
Directive Principles of State Policies (DPSP) require legislation for their implementation.
• Statement 2 is correct: Most of the Rights are Negative Obligations on the State (E.g. Article 14), with
certain exceptions (E.g. Article 21A). The fundamental rights put restriction on the State to do something that
hurts or curtails people’s rights, hence knows and Negative obligations. Whereas Directive principles are in
the nature of instruments of instructions to the government of the day for having a positive impact on the
society. They also aim at establishment of a welfare state by securing social and economic justice.
2. Answer: (C) All three Statements are correct.

Explanation:
• Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by
a special majority of the Parliament and the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. The
following provisions can be amended in this way:
o Election of the President and its manner. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
o Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
o Supreme Court and High courts.
o Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
o Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
o Representation of states in Parliament. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
o Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself). Hence Statement 2
is correct.
3. Answer: (A) Only one statement is correct.

Explanation:
Parts and Subject Articles
Part I – The Union and its Territories 1–4
Part II – Citizenship 5 -11
Part III – Fundamental Rights 12 – 35
Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy 36 – 51
Part IV A – Fundamental Duties 51A
Part V – The Union (Incorrect) 52 – 151
Part VI – The States (Incorrect) 152 – 237
Part VII – The States in Part B of First Schedule 238 [Repealed]
Part VIII – The Union Territories 239 – 242
Part IX – The Panchayats 243 – 243O
Part IXA – The Municipalities 243P – 243ZG
Part IXB – The Co-operative Societies 243ZH – 243ZT
Part X – The Scheduled and Tribal Areas 244 – 244A
Part XI – Relation between the Union and the States (Correct) 245 – 263
Part XII – Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits 264 – 300A
Part XIII – Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the territory of India 301 – 307
Part XIV – Services Under the Union and the States 308 – 323
Part XIVA – Tribunals 323A – 323B
Part XV – Elections 324 – 329A
Part XVI – Special provisions relating to certain classes 330 – 342
Part XVII – Official language 343 – 351
Part XVIII – Emergency Provisions 352 – 360
Part XIX – Miscellaneous 361 – 367
Part XX – Amendment of the Constitution 368
Part XXI – Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions 369 – 392
Part XXII – Short Title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in Hindi and Repeals 393 – 395
4. Answer: A
Explanation:
• The 69th Constitutional Amendment passed in 1991 through which Article 239 AA was added to the
Constitution. The amendment envisioned a representative form of government for the NCT of Delhi which
until then was just known as Delhi administration, with officers reporting directly to the lieutenant governor
(LG). It was only after the 1991 constitutional amendment was passed that Parliament enacted the NCT of
Delhi Act 1991 based on the constitutional mandate.
• The 52nd constitution amendment act on anti-defection was passed in 1985 and the 10th Schedule was added
in the Indian Constitution. It provided for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and the state
legislatures on the grounds of defection.
• The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies. In this
context, it made the following three changes in the constitution. It made the right to form cooperative societies
a fundamental right (Article 19). It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of
cooperative societies (Article 43B). It added a new Part IX-B in the constitution, which is entitled “The
Cooperative Societies” (Article 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
• The 51st Amendment Act of 1984 provided for the reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha for Scheduled Tribes
in Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram as well as in the Legislative Assemblies of
Meghalaya and Nagaland.
5. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Federalism means division of powers between more than one tiers of the
Government. Federalism is one of the pillars of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. The Seventh Schedule
of the Constitution contains three lists that distribute power between the Centre and states (Article 246).
Hence, there is division of powers among both the state government and Central government are divided and
have their autonomy in their respective subjects. For example, law and order is purely a state subject and falls
under exclusively jurisdictions of State government.
• Statement 2 is correct: A balanced federal structure mandates that the Union does not usurp all powers and
the States enjoy freedom without any unsolicited interference from the Central Government with respect
matters which exclusively fall within their domain as to maintain its federal balance and give regional
autonomy. A Written Constitution, Supremacy of Constitution, Rigidity of the Constitution, Division of
Powers, and Independent Judiciary ensures the states domain is not impeded by the Central Government.
6. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Nehruvian Socialism: Under the direction of India's first Prime Minister, the nation created an innovative
"Mixed Economy Model of Development" that combined aspects of both socialism and capitalism(A
Capitalist Economy is a system where private entities control the factors of production like labour, natural
resources or capital goods. A Socialist Economy is an economic system where the factors of production like
labour, natural resources or capital goods are under the control of the government). This model is commonly
referred to as the "Nehruvian Model of Development" and is named after India's first Prime Minister.
• Democratic Socialism: Democratic socialism is a political philosophy that advocates for political democracy
within a socially owned economy, with a focus on economic democracy, workplace democracy, and worker
self-management within a market socialist economy or an alternative form of a decentralised planned socialist
economy.
• Radical Socialism: Radical socialism is a socialist system with no tolerance for capitalism. It might still be
democratic, but the “means of production” can no longer be owned, and are considered the collective property
of the people who use them. Hence, option C is correct as India did not follow this type of socialism.
• Communitarianism Socialism: Communitarianism is a philosophy that emphasizes the connection between
the individual and the community. Its overriding philosophy is based upon the belief that a person's social
identity and personality are largely molded by community relationships, with a smaller degree of development
being placed on individualism. It aims to preserve the balance between individual rights and social
responsibilities, the moral integrity of a caring society, and the unique character of mutual trust between
patients and health care personnel

Explanation:
Features of the ACT
• Statement 1 is correct: Indian Councils Act, 1861: It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the
legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It thus reversed the centralising tendency that
started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833.
• Statement 2 is correct: It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the
legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months.
• Statement 3 is correct: It provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-
Western Frontier Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897 respectively.
• Some of the main provisions of the Act are as follows:
o For the executive functions of the Council, a fifth member was added. Now there were five members for
home, military, law, revenue and finance. (A sixth member for public works was added in 1874.)
o Lord Canning, who was the Governor-General and Viceroy at the time, introduced the portfolio system.
In this system, each member was assigned a portfolio of a particular department.
o For legislative purposes, the Governor-General’s Council was enlarged. Now, there were to be between 6
and 12 additional members (nominated by the Governor-General).
o There were appointed for a period of 2 years. Out of these, at least half of the additional members were to
be non-official (British or Indian).
o Their functions were confined to legislative measures.
o Lord Canning nominated three Indians to the Council in 1862 namely, the Raja of Benares, the Maharaja
of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.
o Any bill related to public revenue or debt, military, religion or foreign affairs could not be passed without
the Governor-General’s assent.
o The Viceroy had the power to overrule the council if necessary.
o The Governor-General also had the power to promulgate ordinances without the council’s concurrence
during emergencies.
o The Secretary of State for India in Britain could also dissolve any act passed by the Governor-General’s
Council.
o This Act restored the legislative powers of the Governor-in-Councils of the Presidencies of Madras and
Bombay (which was taken away by the Charter Act of 1833).
o The legislative council of Calcutta had extensive power to pass laws for the whole of British India.
o There was provision made for the formation of legislative councils in other provinces. New provinces
could also be created for legislative purposes and Lieutenant Governors be appointed for them.
Legislative councils were formed in other provinces in Bengal in 1862, North-West Frontier Province in
1886 and Punjab and Burma in 1897.
8. Answer: (A) Only one pair is correctly matched.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The ideals of liberty and equality originated from the French Revolution, which
took place in France in the late 18th century. These ideals were enshrined in the French Constitution and later
inspired similar provisions in many other constitutions around the world including the Indian Constitution.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Part IVA of the Constitution of India incorporates the Fundamental Duties, which
were influenced by the Russian Constitution of the former USSR. Although these duties cannot be enforced
by law, they are regarded as essential for promoting responsibility and awareness among citizens.
• Statement 3 is correct: The South African Constitution provided guidelines for amending the Constitution
and the method of electing members of the Rajya Sabha
9. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 & 2 are Correct: As per Classic Liberals Freedom is absence of constraints. Freedom is said to
exist when external constraints on the individual are absent. In terms of this definition an individual could be
considered free if he/she is not subject to external controls or coercion and is able to make independent
decisions and act in an autonomous way. However, absence of constraints is only one dimension of freedom.
As per the Neo Liberals, Freedom is also about expanding the ability of people to freely express themselves
and develop their potential. Freedom in this sense is the condition in which people can develop their creativity
and capabilities. Both these aspects of freedom — the absence of external constraints as well as the existence
of conditions in which people can develop their talents — are important.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: In order to be free, an individual should be able to make decisions individually,
with a support of collective decision-making in which no one individual dominates the others.
The features of Neo-liberalism include the following:
• Minimalist and night watchman state
• Priority to economic liberty - economic liberty includes political liberty (Friedman, Nozick)
• Liberty as absence of coercion
• No relationship between liberty and equality or justice
• No welfare state
10. Answer: (C) Only three Statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or
accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives’.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the
governor general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Charter act of 1853 introduced the local representation in Indian (Central)
Legislative Council. There were six new members are appointed in Governor-General's council. Four
members were appointed by the local governments of Bengal, Madras, Bombay, and Agra.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising
one chief justice and three other judges.
Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the
East India Company in India.
Main Features of the Act
• It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council
of four members to assist him. The first such Governor-General was Lord Warren Hastings
• Creation of Executive Council to Assist the Governor-General: the Executive Council of four members was
created to assist the Governor-General.
• Reforms to curb corruptions: This act brought prohibition on the servants of the company from engaging in
any private trade or accepting bribes and gift from the local people. The directors of the company were to be
elected for a period of five years and one-fourth of them used to retire every year. There was no procedure for
re-election available.
• The Contribution of the Act:
o For the first time, the political and administrative functions of the company were recognized.
o This act also laid down the foundation of the Central Administration in the country.
11. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The President can declare National Emergency on grounds of war, external aggression,
and armed rebellion. Due to the vagueness of the term Internal disturbance, 44th Amendment Act 1978 substituted
it with Armed Rebellion. This amendment was intended to make the language in the Constitution more precise
and clearer and to prevent the National Emergency provisions from being utilized in a way that would potentially
violate people' rights and freedoms.
Statement 2 is correct: During a National Emergency, certain fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution
may be suspended or restricted, subject to the conditions and procedures specified in the Constitution. However, it
is important to note that the enforcement of Article 20 and Article 21 of the Constitution can never be suspended,
even during a National Emergency. These articles provide protection to citizens against ex post facto laws, double
jeopardy, and arbitrary deprivation of life or personal liberty, and are considered to be fundamental and inviolable
rights that cannot be compromised under any circumstances.
12. Answer: D
Explanation:
• The 1919 Act relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and
provincial subjects. The central and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective
list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be centralised and unitary. It further
divided the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved. The transferred subjects were to be
administered by the governor with the aid of ministers responsible to the legislative Council. The reserved
subjects, on the other hand, were to be administered by the governor and his executive council without being
responsible to the legislative Council. This dual scheme of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’.
13.Answer: B
Explanation:
• Indian Councils Act, 1861, made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the
lawmaking process. It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members
of his expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative
council—the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.

Explanation:
▪ First Schedule -- Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction; Names of the Union Territories and
their extent. Hence statement 1 is correct.
▪ Second Schedule -- Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of President,
Governor, Judges etc. hence statement 2 is incorrect.
▪ Third Schedule --- Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for MPs, Ministers, Constitutional functionaries etc.
▪ Fourth Schedule - Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
▪ Fifth Schedule - Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
▪ Sixth Schedule - Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram.
▪ Seventh Schedule - Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List
II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List). Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
▪ Eighth Schedule - Languages recognized by the Constitution.
▪ Ninth schedule – Acts & regulation of states dealing with the land reforms & abolition of zamindari system
and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to
protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.
However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are
now open to judicial review.
▪ Tenth schedule – Anti-defection provisions
▪ Eleventh schedule – powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayat
▪ Twelfth schedule - powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities
15. Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Constitution will "lose its importance" if there is no redressal for breach of fundamental rights, such as
right to life and fair trial, of the citizens by private individuals who are performing state actions, Fundamentals
rights such as right to life and equality and freedom of speech enshrined under the Constitution are
enforceable against the State and its instrumentalities. It is for this reason that, at the end of the day, the
Constitution, a charter of liberation, is fundamentally about rights. It is only after guarantee to all the full sum
of humanity, dignity, equality, and freedom promised by the Constitution,
16. Answer: (D) All four Statements are correct.

Explanation:
• Democracy is of two types—direct and indirect. In direct democracy, the people exercise their supreme
power directly. There are four devices of direct democracy, namely, Referendum, Initiative, Recall and
Plebiscite. In indirect democracy, on the other hand, the representatives elected by the people exercise the
supreme power and thus carry on the government and make the laws. This type of democracy, also known as
representative democracy, is of two kinds—parliamentary and presidential.
• Plebiscite: It is the direct vote of all the members of an electorate on an important public question such as a
change in the constitution. The plebiscite, a vote by the people of an entire country or Region to decide on
some issue, such as for independence or annexation by another power or national policy. Plebiscites are seen
as a way for a government to go directly to the people, bypassing intermediaries such as political parties.
• Initiative: It is the power or opportunity to act or take charge before others do. Any proposed law can, with
sufficient backing, be put on the ballot in an election. For this, petitions have to be signed by a certain portion
of the electorate, or voters. If the petitions are approved, the proposal can be voted on. If it passes, it becomes
law.
• Referendum: It is a vote in which all the people in a country or an area are asked to give their opinion about
or decide an important political or social question. A referendum is a vote on a question. A referendum can be
started by a citizen or by the government. If a person is enrolled to vote, he/she can vote in a referendum.
• Recall: It is a procedure by which voters can remove an elected official from office through a direct vote
before their term has ended. The recall is dated back a very long time in history. In the United States, several
states allow for recall on specific grounds.
17. Answer: (D) None of the Above Statements are correct.

Explanation:
• It is a part of Article 350 A, apart from the Directives included in Part IV, there are some other Directives
contained in other Parts of the Constitution. They are
• Claims of SCs and ST to Services: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in
the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or a State
(Article 335 in Part XVI).
• Instruction in mother tongue: It shall be the endeavour of every state and every local authority within the state
to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children
belonging to linguistic minority groups (Article 350-A in Part XVII).
• Development of the Hindi Language: It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi
language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the
composite culture of India (Article 351 in Part XVII).
• The above Directives are also non-justiciable in nature. However, they are also given equal importance and
attention by the judiciary on the ground that all parts of the constitution must be read together.
18. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
• The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution is laid down in Article 368:
• Statement 1 is correct: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill
for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member.
• Statement 3 is correct: It does not require prior permission of the president.
• The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent)
of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and
voting.
• Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no
provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be
ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the
House present and voting.
• After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the
bill is presented to the president for assent.
• The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill
for reconsideration of the Parliament.
• After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act.
19. Answer: (C) Only three Statements are correct.

Explanation:
Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
The function of a constitution is to
o Provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
o Specify who has the power to make decisions in a society.
o It decides how the government will be constituted.
o Set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the
sense that government may never trespass them.
o Enable the government to fulfill the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.
o Ensure that a dominant group does not use its power against other less powerful people or groups.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Every society is prone to this tyranny of the majority. The Constitution usually
contains rules that ensure that minorities are not excluded from anything that is routinely available to the
majority. A constitution does not always specify for a democracy. Syrian constitution is an example.
20. Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: MN Roy had put forth the idea of a Constituent assembly of India in 1934.
Later the INC at Lucknow session in April 1936 presided by Jawaharlal Nehru demanded it.
• Statement 2 are incorrect: The Constituent assembly was formed in 1946 on the basis of the cabinet
mission plan. During the Second World War, this assertion for an independent Constituent Assembly formed
of Indians only gained momentum and this was convened in December 1946. Between December 1946 and
November 1949, the Constituent Assembly drafted a constitution for independent India.
• Additional information: The Cripps Mission was a failed attempt in late March 1942 by the British
government to secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II. The mission was
headed by a senior minister Stafford Cripps. Cripps belonged to the left-wing Labour Party, which was
traditionally sympathetic to Indian self-rule, but he was also a member of the coalition War Cabinet led by
British Prime Minister Winston Churchill, who had long been the leader of the movement to block Indian
independence. (Hence, second statement can be easily eliminated)
21. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Option 1: Proportional Representation is being followed in Rajya Sabha and Presidential elections.
• Option 2: Even though powers are not strictly separated between legislature and executive, there is some
separation of powers in the functioning the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.
• Option 3: Religious intolerance is not only against freedom of expression but also tends to threaten
secularism. Religious intolerance, rather, occurs when a person or group (e.g., a society, a religious group, a
non-religious group) specifically refuses to tolerate the religious convictions and practices of a religious
group or individual.
• Option 4: The constitution encourages building of scientific temper under fundamental duties. This provision
can be interpreted with respect to everything including Indian Traditions.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objective Resolution’,
drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Preamble has been amended only once by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
(1976), which added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the
powers of legislature.

Explanation:
• Options 1 and 2 are correct: The parliamentary system is not conductive to administrative efficiency as
the ministers are not experts in their fields. The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of
ministers; his choice is restricted to the members of Parliament alone and does not extend to external
talent. Hence, it can also be called as Government by Amateurs and this results in decreased administrative
efficiency.
• Option 3 is incorrect: In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and
inseparable. The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive.

Explanation:
• From the various judgements, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or elements /
components / ingredients of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:
o Supremacy of the Constitution
o Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
o Secular character of the Constitution
o Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
o Federal character of the Constitution
o Unity and integrity of the nation
o Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
o Judicial review
o Freedom and dignity of the individual hence (Statement 2 is correct).
o Parliamentary system
o Rule of law
o Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
o Principle of equality
o Free and fair elections hence (Statement 3 is correct).
o Independence of Judiciary
o Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
o Effective access to justice
o Principle of reasonableness
o Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32.
• Harmony between Union and State is not a part of basic structure of constitution. (Statement 1 is
incorrect).
25. Answer: (B) Only three Statements are correct.
Explanation:
• In Preamble: The words “JUSTICE, social, economic and political; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and
integrity of the Nation”. Statement 1 is correct.
First Schedule: It talks about Indian states and Indian territory. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Third Schedule: It contains forms of Oaths and affirmations for office holders. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Fundamental Rights: Statement 4 is correct.
➢ A 23- Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced Labour (Talks about social justice)-C
➢ A 24- Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. (Talks about social justice)
Directive Principles of State Policy: Statement 5 is correct.
➢ A38. State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people.
➢ A39 (only first part) - The State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing – (a) that the citizens,
men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
26. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Constitutionalism refers to the concept wherein a country or state works within the
limitation of the Constitution. A constitution is a ruling document within a country that defines the specific
rules and behaviors to govern and run the country. They work in favour of the people to ensure the protection
of their human rights. It is a philosophy that restricts the government to some extent to run the country
properly. (Constitutionalism is the doctrine often associated with the political theories of John Locke.)
• Statement 2 is correct: The rights of the individual shall be at the highest pedestal for constitutionalism to
thrive. The constitutional setup in India gives these rights the importance that they deserve by engraving them
in Part III of the Constitution. They put limitation on the power of Sate. These individual rights have not only
been protected by the courts but have also been interpreted in a manner where their effect and implementation
has broadened.
27. Answer: C
Explanation:
• The Westminster system or Westminster model is a type of parliamentary government that incorporates a
series of procedures for operating a legislature. This concept was first developed in England. Key aspects of
the system include an executive branch made up of members of the legislature, and that is responsible to the
legislature; the presence of parliamentary opposition parties; and a ceremonial head of state who is different
from the head of government. The Westminster system is often contrasted with the presidential system that
originated in the United States or with the semi-presidential system, based on the government of France.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and
administration; for e.g. in India states legislate in matters of police, and Centre legislates in areas of national
security as a whole.
• Statement 2 is correct: Existence of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed. The Constitution
originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union Government or what we call the Central
Government, representing the Union of India and the State government. The Constitution originally provided
for a two-tier system of government, the Union Government or the Central Government, representing the
Union of India or centre power of government and therefore the State governments. Later, a third tier of
federalism was also added within the form of Panchayats and Municipalities. Just like any federation, these
different tiers enjoy separate jurisdiction. These can be guaranteed by several features like Supremacy of the
Constitution, Written Constitution, Rigidity of the Constitution, Independence of Judicary, etc.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The concept Federalism does not involve financial independence. Tax Devolution
are made for distributing the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the states as both share revenue.
29. Answer: (A) Only one Statement is correct.

Explanation:
Swaran Singh Committee Recommendations
• A separate chapter under the name Fundamental Duties was recommended for inclusion in the Indian
Constitution. Citizens will be aware of their responsibilities while still exercising their fundamental rights.
• This recommendation was adopted by the government, and a new article, Article 51A, was added to the Indian
Constitution, which previously included ten basic obligations.
• The administration also stated that the failure to incorporate the fundamental duties at the time was a mistake
made by the original authors of the Indian Constitution.
• The committee proposed eight Fundamental Duties, but the 42nd amendment included ten. Not every
recommendation was approved out of the whole set of recommendations.
• Furthermore, it was suggested that the country's parliament evaluate numerous separate rules governing the
inhabitants of India, and that sanctions be implemented if someone fails to comply with these legislative
regulations.
• Non-compliance with these obligations may be punished or penalised by the Parliament if it is deemed
appropriate.
• Such a punishment or law will not be challenged in a court of law for the enforcement of fundamental rights
or if it results in a fundamental rights violation.
• The statute that focuses on the aforementioned ideas should be beyond the scope of any Judicial Review. If
there is a violation, appropriate action should be taken against the individual.
• Aside from the aforementioned ideas, it was also suggested that from then on, the duties of paying taxes
should be recognised as mandatory and regarded as a Fundamental Duty of the residents of the country.
Recommendations of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, which were not included in the final Amendment.
• The Parliament may provide for the imposition of such penalty or punishment as may be considered
appropriate for any non-compliance with or refusal to observe any of the duties.
• No law imposing such penalty or punishment shall be called in question in any court on the ground of
infringement of any of Fundamental Rights or on the ground of repugnancy to any other provision of the
Constitution.
• Duty to pay taxes should also be a Fundamental Duty of the citizens. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Family Planning and Casting vote were also not recommended by Swaran Singh Committee to be incorporated as
fundamental duties hence option 2 and 3 are also incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism ie, all religions
in our country (irrespective of their strength) have the same status and support from the state. The state treats
all religions equally.
• Statement 2 is correct: The principle of popular sovereignty denotes that the source of governmental power
or the sovereignty lies with the people. The concept of the social contract is the base of this principle as it
believes that the government should work for the benefit of the people governed. A democratic polity, as
stipulated in the Preamble, is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, that is possession of supreme
power by the people.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not
only political democracy but also social and economic democracy. It also embodies the concept of Justice,
Equality, Liberty and Fraternity.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine of separation of power is a part of the basic structure of the Indian
Constitution as supreme court of india upheld this in many of it's judgments time to time, since
keshavanandabharti case. Although, we do not follow a strict Separation of Powers between various organs of
the Government, the Indian Constitution balances it with Checks and Balances.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The doctrine of separation of power is not specifically mentioned in the
constitution but constitution inherently reflects this in many of it's provisions like federal lists particularly.
• Statement 3 is correct: It implies that the three pillars of democracy, namely the executive, judiciary and
legislature, perform separate functions and act as separate entities. One of the features of the doctrine is that
one arm of the state should not interfere in the functioning of the other organs or exercise a function of
another organ.

Explanation:
• Universal adult franchise, periodic elections, rule of law, independence of judiciary, and absence of
discrimination on certain grounds are the manifestations of the democratic character of the Indian polity.
Universal adult franchise: The universal Adult Franchise refers that all citizens who are 18 years and above
irrespective of their caste or education, religion, color, race, and economic conditions are free to vote. In a
democracy, a universal adult franchise is important, as it is based on the idea of equality.
Periodic elections: Elections are a corner stone to a Democracy. Selection of representatives of the people
through universal adult franchise and free and fair elections conducted in a periodically stipulated manner.
Periodic elections ensure sustained democracy. Without it power will be concentrated in the hands of few for a
longer time and would diminish the accountability of the elected representatives to the people.
Rule of law: The rule of law reiterates the opinion that the law holds the supreme authority. This prescribes that
the state or the nation must take into account the extreme supremacy of the law, and ought not to be guided or
governed by any other autocratic powers. No individual can be treated in an uncivilized manner. The violators of
the law can be penalized. The ideologies of rule of law are-
➢ The law beholds the supreme power , all the citizens and strata are accountable to the law.
➢ The law provides everyone equal rights and liberty.
➢ It opposes the possession of any autocratic power or implementation of any autocratic rule.
Independence of Judiciary: Independence of Judiciary is sine qua non of democracy. In a democratic polity, the
supreme power of state is shared among the three principal organs. The constitutional task assigned to the
Judiciary is no way less than that of other functionaries, legislature and executive. Judicial independence ensures,
in particular, that judges are free to conclude that actions taken, or decisions made by the Government (or even by
others) are in breach of the law, and that they are in particular in breach of individual's rights which can be
fundamental or human rights - and to decide upon. The Judiciary is the protector of the Constitution and the
Guarantor of the Fundamental Rights of the Individuals and its Independence is necessary for it to function.
33. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. Article
11 empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to
citizenship. The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies
the same to aliens).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 26 of the Constitution of India gives every religious group a right to
establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, manage its affairs, properties as per
the law.
The Rights available to Only Citizens are:
1. Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
2. Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
3. Article 19 – Protection of six rights related to freedom – (a) of speech and expression; (b) to assemble
peaceably and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to move freely throughout the territory of
India; (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and (f) to practice any profession, or to carry
on any occupation, trade or business.
4. Article 29 – Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
5. Article 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: In a republic, the head of the state is always elected, be it directly or indirectly for a
fixed period. Therefore, the term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the
president. India and USA are both Republics but, in India the President is elected indirectly, whereas in USA
the President is elected directly by people.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct: A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political sovereignty
in the people and not in a single individual like a king; second, the absence of any privileged class and hence
all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Distributive justice is concerned with the measurements that should be used to
allocate the resources of the society. It also decides fair distribution of the burdens and benefits of social
cooperation among persons with various needs and claims. The term ‘justice’ in the Preamble embraces three
distinct forms—social, economic and political, secured through various provisions of Fundamental Rights and
Directive Principles. A combination of social justice and economic justice denotes what is known as
‘distributive justice’.
• Statement 2 is correct: The concept of Justice - social, economic, and political has been taken from the
Russian Revolution. The Russian Revolution was a period of political and social revolution across the
territory of the Russian Empire, commencing with the abolition of the monarchy in 1917. It was led by
Vladimir Lenin.
• Statement 3 is correct: Justice means that each individual be treated fairly, and given the same opportunities.
Justice refers to the fact that all Indian citizens should receive social, economic, and political justice. Since the
dawn of human civilization, the concept of justice has been central. These are secured through various
provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. The Fundamental Rights ensure political justice
and DPSP ensures economic and social justice.
36. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 correct: Article 30(2) states that on the ground that an institution is under the management of a
minority, whether based on religion or language, grant of aid to that educational institution cannot be
discriminated against, if other educational institutions are entitled to receive aid.
• Statement 2 incorrect: The right of an institution, whether run by a majority or minority community, to get
government aid is not a fundamental right. Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) ruled that government aid to an
institution is a matter of policy and it is not a fundamental right. Article 30 of the Constitution of India
(dealing with rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions) is subject to its own
restrictions being reasonable.
Aid not a Fundamental Right: The right of an institution, whether run by a majority or minority community, to
get government aid is not a fundamental right. Both have to equally follow the rules and conditions of the aid.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’ and forbids its practice in any form. The
enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with
law. The term ‘untouchability’ has not been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act. However, the
Mysore High Court held that the subject matter of Article 17 is not untouchability in its literal or grammatical
sense but the ‘practice as it had developed historically in the country’.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 17 of the Constitution of India prohibits the practice of untouchability in
any form. However, it is important to note that the provision only covers untouchability practices in public
places. This means that any form of discrimination based on caste, religion, race, or sex in public places is
strictly prohibited and punishable by law. However, the article does not extend to social boycott of individuals
or their exclusion from religious services. These issues are not covered under Article 17, and hence, the law
does not provide protection against them.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court held that the right under Article 17 is available against private
individuals, and it is the constitutional obligation of the State to take necessary action to ensure that this right
is not violated. According to the court's ruling, private citizens are also subject to the prohibition on
untouchability practices, which does not just apply to actions conducted by the government or its agents. This
implies that any act of untouchability, whether it is carried out by a public official or a private individual, is
deemed to be unlawful and is subject to legal challenge.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, both at
the Centre and in the States. Articles 74 and 75 deal with the parliamentary system of government at the
Union level and Articles 163 and 164 contain provisions with regard to the States.
• Statement 2 is correct: Basic Structure of Constitution: Parliamentary System of Government is part of the
basic structure of the Constitution. This system forms a core of our Governance and hence cannot be
amended.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: In a Presidential system the executive is not responsible to the legislature for its
policies and acts, and is constitutionally independent of the legislature in respect of its term of office.
Accountability of the Executive to Legislature is a feature of the Parliamentary form of Government.
39. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The definition of "State" is important in deciding the scope of purpose of
fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution because it helps to determine the limits of the State's authority in
relation to citizens' rights. However, these rights are enforceable only against the State and its agencies, not
against private individuals or organizations. Therefore, the definition of "State" plays a vital role in deciding
the scope of application of fundamental rights. It helps to establish which acts of the government are subject
to constitutional scrutiny and which are not.
• Statement 2 is correct: Constitution provides for various remedies depending on whether the violation is by
the State or by private individuals. The definition of "State" is important in determining the remedies available
to citizens in case of a violation of their fundamental rights. It helps to differentiate between violations by the
State and violations by private individuals, and accordingly, determine the appropriate legal remedy.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: - Preventive detention laws are in the concurrent list so both centre and state can
make laws on this subject. Therefore statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct: Rights under Article 22 may not be provided to the detainees under preventive
detention whereas under punitive detention rights may be provided like right to be informed about grounds of
arrest, detainee must be presented before the magistrate within 24 hours excluding the journey time etc. so
that the statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct: These detainees can have no right of personal liberty guaranteed by article 19 or 21
as it may not be necessary while considering the security of state or public order or any other ground.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Preventive custody may be extended beyond 3 months period on the approval of an
advisory board which is 3-member body constituted by state govt. specially for these cases. Member are duly
qualified to be the high court judges.
• ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: Preventive detention refers to the detention of a person who has not yet
committed a crime but is deemed a threat to law and order by authorities. Preventive detention existed in India
even during British rule. The Bengal State Prisoners Regulation of 1818 and the Defence of India Act of 1939
both allowed for preventive detention. There are many central and state laws are made for preventive
detention like national security act, public safety act, supplies of essential commodities act etc.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court, as the guardian of the Fundamental Rights, has the power to
issue writs, such as Habeas Corpus, Quo Warranto, Prohibition, Certiorari and Mandamus. Habeas Corpus is a
writ issued by the court to bring before the court a person from illegal custody. The court can decide the
legality of detention and release the person if detention is found to be illegal. It is known as the bulwark of
Individual liberty.
• Statement 2 is correct: Mandamus can be issued-
o To enforce the performance of a statutory duty where the public officer has got a power conferred by the
Constitution or a statute. The Court may issue a mandamus directing him to exercise the power in case he
refuses to do it.
o To compel a court or judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it.
o To direct a public official or the government not to enforce a law that is unconstitutional.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The writ of prohibition literally means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a
lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it
does not possess. Thus, unlike the mandamus that directs activity, prohibition directs inactivity. In simple
terms, this writ is issued by a higher court (High Court or Supreme Court) when a lower court has considered
a case going beyond its jurisdiction.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Certiorari means “to be certified”. The higher court issues a writ of certiorari to a
lesser court to overturn any erroneous order. This writ is both curative and preventative. Certiorari is a distinct
type of writ when compared to other Writs. This Writ is corrective in nature, which means that the purpose of
this Writ is to correct an error on the records.
42. Answer: D
Explanation:
• Transformative constitutionalism entails instilling principles such as equality, liberty, fraternity, and dignity
into society. It tries to give paramount significance to Constitutional morality rather than what constitutes
morality in society, according to one interpretation. Another interpretation is that the Constitution's core
structure and substance will never change, but it will continue to adapt to the requirements of society. The
constitution is transformational, and there is an unambiguous focus throughout the constitution on our
commitment to changing relationships, both between individuals and between individuals and between
individuals. Transformative Constitutionalism is an idealistic approach to achieving specific goals by
protecting people's fundamental rights and opportunities. The judiciary is a crucial aspect of Transformative
Constitutionalism. It acts as a tool for social and political change, and the courts act as a catalyst for change
because they are sworn to interpret and administer the law. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution guarantees equality of rights and status to all citizens regardless of
their religion, caste, gender, or place of birth. This principle is enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution
which states that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws
within the territory of India. This principle of equality is fundamental to the Indian democracy and is also
reflected in other provisions of the Constitution such as Articles 15, 16, and 21.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Citizenship is limited to a nation-state and is the relationship of one nation with an
individual. Civil rights protect the individual’s life, liberty and property. Civil rights of a citizen do not
include the right to refuge as a global citizen.
• Statement 3 is correct: Citizenship enables an individual to participate in the process of the state’s
governance. These rights enable the individual to participate in the process of governance. Example Right to
Vote
44. Answer: (C) All three Statements/pairs are correct.

Explanation:
• Shankari Prasad Case (1951): In, Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India, the Hon'ble Supreme Court
held that the power to amend the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights is conferred under Article
368, and the word 'Law' as mentioned under Article 13(2) does not include an amendment of the Constitution.
• Waman Rao Case (1981): (Validity of 9th Schedule and demarcarting the date of 24th april 1973)the
Waman Rao case (1981), the Supreme Court held that the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ would apply to
constitutional amendments enacted after April 24, 1973 which is the date of the judgement in the
KesavanandaBharati case.
• I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu: The Coelho Case, also known as the Ninth Schedule Case is a landmark
case that established the authority of the judiciary to review laws about fundamental rights. If any laws in the
Ninth Schedule were inconsistent with Part III, they are liable to be struck down by the Court. It established
the significance of judicial review and the judiciary's powers in this regard.
45. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state
(under Article 3) does not cover the cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian territory
can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368.
• Statement 2 is correct: In light of the various judgements of the Supreme Court, it can be concluded that a
settlement of boundary dispute does not amount to cession of territory. A boundary dispute only arises in
cases where the territory is disputed and there are no absolute geographical demarcations to ascertain the
country the disputed territory belongs to. Further, a disputed land is also not recognised to belong to one
specific country in the international community and law Settlement of a boundary dispute between India and
another country does not require a constitutional amendment. It can be done by executive action as it does not
involve cession of Indian territory to a foreign country.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution—which may
be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of
the polity—that effectively controls the exercise of political power. The essence of constitutionalism is the
control of power by its distribution among several state organs. In a constitutional government, power is not
concentrated in a single individual or group, but rather is distributed among various branches of government,
such as the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary. This distribution of power is often referred to as
"separation of powers" or "checks and balances" and is intended to prevent any one branch of government
from becoming too powerful or from abusing its power.
• Statement 2 is correct: A constitutional government is one that operates within the framework of a
constitution, which sets out the fundamental principles, institutions, and procedures of the government. One of
the key features of a constitutional government is the peaceful transfer of power through free and fair
elections.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: It is not possible for a constitutional government to function effectively without a
constitution. A constitution provides the basic framework for how the government operates, including the
powers and limitations of different branches of government, the rights of citizens, and the procedures for
decision-making and conflict resolution. A constitution serves as a source of legitimacy for the government
and provides a means of checks and balances.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Parliament shall have the power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition
and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship (Article 11).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Government of India may waive all or any of the conditions for naturalisation
in the case of a person who has rendered distinguished service to the science, philosophy, art, literature, world
peace or human progress. Every naturalised citizen must take an oath of allegiance to the Constitution of
India.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence. This means that the
state can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters that do not come within the
purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian citizens. For example, a state may offer
concession in fees for education to its residents.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Most of the rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few
exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. When the rights
that are available against the State’s action only are violated by the private individuals, there are no
constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Parliament can curtail or repeal Fundamental Rights only by a constitutional
amendment act. Moreover, this can be done without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. They
can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20
and 21.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Further, the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended only when
emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (i.e., external emergency) and not on the
ground of armed rebellion (i.e., internal emergency).

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct – The Right to Constitutional Remedies enables citizens to approach the Supreme
Court or High Courts to seek enforcement of their fundamental rights. It is considered to be a cornerstone of
the Indian Constitution and a safeguard against the violation of fundamental rights by the state or any other
entity. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be
abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the Constitution.
• Statement 2 is incorrect- Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under
Article 32 and not any other right like non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights
and so on.
• Statement 3 is incorrect - In case of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court is original but not exclusive. It is concurrent with the jurisdiction of the high court under Article 226.
• Statement 4 is correct- Article 32 of the Indian Constitution provides the right to constitutional remedies to
individuals in case of a violation of their Fundamental Rights. However, it cannot be invoked to determine the
constitutionality of an executive order or legislation unless it directly infringes on any Fundamental Rights.
This means that a petitioner must prove that their Fundamental Rights have been violated by the executive
order or legislation in question in order to seek relief under Article 32.
50. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Constitution does not define the term "minority". The Constitution does
use the term "minorities" in certain provisions; the Constitution does provide for the protection of the rights
and interests of minorities, particularly religious and linguistic minorities, through various provisions such as
Articles 29, 30, 350A, and 350B, but it does not provide a clear definition of what constitutes a minority.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India recognizes religious and linguistic minorities. Article 29
provides for the protection of the interests of minorities, and states that any section of citizens with a distinct
language, script or culture has the right to conserve the same. Article 30 recognizes the right of minorities to
establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Articles 350A and 350B relate to the
safeguarding of the interests of linguistic minorities, and not ethnic minorities. However, there is no specific
mention of ethnic minorities in the Indian Constitution.
******
FOR PRELIMS
pPLT-2 (Polity 2.0)

(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT-2 (Polity 2.0) B
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR
TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number
and Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or
discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response you want to mark on the
Answer sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your response on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as penalty.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.
1. Consider the following statements 3. Consider the following statements
regarding the powers of Governor of a regarding the Chief Minister:
State in India: 1. A person must prove his/her majority
1. She/he can send messages to the in the State Legislative Assembly
Legislative Assembly with respect to before she/he is appointed as the Chief
Bill pending in the Assembly. Minister of that State.
2. She/he can summon, prorogue and 2. The Governor of a State can appoint a
dissolve the Legislative Assembly. person as minister who is not
3. She/he, after consultation with the recommended by the Chief Minister of
President, can give assent to a Bill to that State.
curtail the powers of the State High 3. To become a Chief Minister of any
Court. state, a person should be at least 30
years of age or more.
are incorrect?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None
2. Consider the following statements: 4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Legislative Council of a state in 1. The Governor can promulgate an
India can be larger in size than half of ordinance with respect to subjects
the Legislative Assembly of that mentioned in List II only.
particular state. 2. Governor's ordinance which is
2. The Chief minister of a state nominates repugnant to a Union law related to a
the Chairman of Legislative Council of concurrent subject will prevail if the
that particular state. ordinance has been made on the
Which of the statements given above is/are instructions of the President.
correct? Select the correct answer code:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. With reference to the removal of Vice 7. Consider the following statements with
President of India, consider the following reference to the Public Account of India:
statements: 1. Public Account of India accounts for
1. The Vice President can be removed by flows for those transactions where the
a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed Union government acts as a banker.
by simple majority and agreed to by 2. State provident funds and small
the Lok Sabha. savings deposits are outside the
2. No ground has been mentioned in the preview of Consolidated Fund of India.
constitution for his removal. 3. Expenditures from Public Account of

India require the approval of the
parliament.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
are correct?
(c) Both 1 & 2
(a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
(c) All three
6. Consider the following with reference to (d) None
the Money bill in India:
1. Only those financial Bills which 8. With regards to the Rule 256 of the Rajya
receive the speaker's certificate are Sabha's Rules of Procedure, examine the
Money Bills. following statements:
2. Speakers decision whether a financial 1. Under this, an MP can be suspended
bill is a money bill or not can be for disregarding the authority of the
challenged. Chair or willfully abusing the rules or
3. Money Bill can be introduced by a obstructing the business of the house.
minister and a private member. 2. The power to suspend an MP is vested

in house and not the chairman alone.
are correct? Select the correct answer code:
(c) All three (c) Both 1 & 2

9. Consider the following statements with 11. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Department Related regards to the Joint Parliamentary
Standing Committees (DRSC): Committee (JPC):
1. The Department-Related Standing 1. The membership and subjects are all
Committees (DRSC) are reconstituted decided by the speaker of Lok Sabha.
every year by both the Presiding 2. JPC is set up by a motion passed in one
Officers of Parliament in consultation house of Parliament and agreed to by
with the respective parties and the the other.
government. 3. JPC recommendations are binding in
nature on the government.
2. The committees of the Lok Sabha are
4. The government is required to report
more in number than Rajya Sabha.
on the follow-up action taken on the
3. In the DRSC, member are only from
basis of the recommendations of the
Lok Sabha. JPC.
How many of the statements given above How many of the statements given above
are incorrect? are correct?
(c) All three (c) Only three
(d) None (d) All four
10. Consider the following statements: 12. Consider the following statements in
1. In Lok Sabha and State Legislatures, context of Parliamentary Privileges:
the President and Governor 1. Parliamentary Privileges are certain
respectively sets the date for the rights and immunities enjoyed by
election of the Speaker. members of Parliament collectively
2. The Constitution specifies that the and not individually.
Speaker should be elected within 6 2. The Speaker or Rajya Sabha
months from the formation of new chairperson is the first level of scrutiny
Government. of a privilege motion.
3. Usually, the Speaker comes from the 3. The parliamentary privileges do not
ruling party. extend to the President, who is an
integral part of the Parliament.
are correct?
are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None
respect to the ordinance making power of reference to the Joint Sitting of the
the President:
1. The President cannot issue an Parliament:
ordinance if either of the two Houses 1. It is an innovative parliamentary tool
of Parliament is not in session.
with its origin in the Rules of
2. The ordinance making power of the
President is a parallel power of Procedure of Lok Sabha to resolve the
legislation that of the Parliament. legislative deadlock.
3. The ordinance making power of the
2. It is presided over by the Speaker of
President is beyond judicial review.
4. The ordinance making power of the the Lok Sabha and in his absence by
President is a discretionary power. the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
5. The ordinance promulgated by the
President cannot be retrospective in 3. New amendments cannot be proposed,
nature. to the bill at a Joint sitting of the two
How many of the statements given above houses of the Indian Parliament.
are incorrect?
(a) Only two How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(b) Only three
(a) Only one
(c) Only four (b) Only two
(d) All five (c) All three
(d) None
14. In which of the following cases the
President of India can exercise his or her 16. In context of the passage of budget,
discretionary powers:
1. When the President sends back the Consider the following statements:
advice given by the Council of 1. Amendments can be proposed to the
Ministers and have discretion in
Appropriation Bill by Lok Sabha.
advising them.
2. When the President choses to take on 2. The Finance bill deals with the
action in case of ordinary bills. withdrawal of amount from the
3. While appointing the Prime Minister
Consolidated Fund of India.
during Hung Parliament/no majority.
4. When the President gives assent to the 3. The passing of Finance bill completes
constitutional amendment bills. the process of Budget enactment.
(a) Only one are correct?
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
17. With reference to Parliamentary 19. Consider the following statements with
Proceedings, consider the following respect to The Anti-defection law.
statements: 1. The law does not provide a timeframe
1. A starred question requires a written within which the presiding officer
answer and cannot be followed by needs to decide a defection case.
supplementary questions. 2. The Anti-defection law was included
2. An unstarred question requires an oral in the Original Constitution of India.
answer and hence supplementary 3. The members disqualified under the
questions can follow. law can contest elections from any
3. Short Notice Questions needs oral political party for a seat in the same
answer at the notice of less than 10 House.
days. How many of the statements given above
How many of the statements given above are correct?
are correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) All three (d) None
(d) None
18. Consider the following statements: regarding the Delimitation Commission.
1. Right to decent environment including 1. The Delimitation Commission is
pollution free water is part of Article appointed by the President of India and
21. works in collaboration with the
2. Development of inter-state rivers, Election Commission of India.
water supplies, irrigation and canals 2. It aims to determine the number and
come under the Union List. boundaries of constituencies to make
3. Parliament may by law provide for the population of all constituencies nearly
adjudication of any dispute with equal.
respect to the use, distribution and 3. The order of Delimitation Commission
control of waters of any inter-state can be questioned only before Supreme
river and river valley. Court of India.
are correct? are incorrect?
(d) None (d) None
21. Consider the following statements 23. Consider the following statements with
regarding the term Floor Test. regards to the Pardoning Powers of
1. It is a term used for the test of the Governor according to the Constitution of
majority in the House of Parliament or India:
State Legislature. 1. The Governor cannot Pardon a Death
2. It is compulsory to Members of the Sentence.
house to take part and vote in floor 2. The Governor cannot grant pardon in
test. respect to punishment or sentence by a
court-martial.
3. The Governor cannot pardon the
(a) 1 only
sentence of any person convicted of
(b) 2 only
any offence against any law relating to
(c) Both 1 and 2
a matter to which the executive power
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of the state extends.
22. On which of the following constitutional are correct?
(a) Only one
grounds, the Members of the Legislative
(b) Only two
Assembly can be disqualified: (c) All three
1. A member can be disqualified if he is (d) None
of unsound mind and stands so 24. Consider the following statements in
declared by a court. regards to abrogation of provisions of
2. A member can be disqualified if he is Article 370:
not a citizen of India or has voluntarily 1. It led to the automatic abrogation of
acquired the citizenship of a foreign article 35A.
state. 2. Article 370 empowered the State of
3. A member can be disqualified if he is Jammu and Kashmir with special
convicted for promoting enmity powers allowing it to have its own
between different groups or for the Constitution and state infantry.
offence of bribery. 3. People of Ladakh could not elect
How many of the statements given above MLAs anymore.
(a) Only one are incorrect?
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) All three
(d) None
25. Consider the following statements: 27. Consider the following statements
1. The Council of Ministers is based on a regarding the office of Vice President of
three-tier system, with the Cabinet
India:
Ministers at the top, the Deputy
Ministers at the middle and the 1. Article 64 and 89(1) of the constitution
Ministers of the State at the bottom. of India provides that the Vice
2. The Cabinet acts as the connecting link President of India shall be the ex-
between the executive and the
officio chairman of the Council of
legislative.
states and shall not hold any other
3. The Minister of State attends the
Cabinet meetings only when specially office of profit.
invited to do so in connection with the 2. There is no such office as that of the
subject that he/she is given charge of.
vice president of India in other
are correct? parliamentary systems governments in
(a) Only one Commonwealth countries.
(b) Only two
(c) All three 3. The election of vice president is held in
(d) None accordance with the system of
proportional representation by means
26. Consider the following statements about
clemency power of the President of India: of the Single Transferable Vote.
1. The President may reject a petition for 4. The Vice-President assumes the office
mercy but after hearing it. of president, when it falls vacant, and
2. The President can use his/her judicial
remains president for the unexpired
powers in all cases where the
punishment or sentence is by a Court term of his predecessor.
Martial. 5. Electoral college of Vice president
3. The President may exercise such consists of Elected members of the
powers in all cases where punishment
Parliament & State Legislatures.
or sentence is for an offence against
any law falling within the executive How many of the statements given above
power of the Union. are incorrect?
How many of the statements given above (a) Only two
are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only three
(b) Only two (c) Only four
(c) All three
(d) None (d) All five
28. Consider the following statements: 30. Consider the following statements in context
1. In case of a territory (not included in any of the Centre-State relations in India:
State), Parliament has the power to make a 1. The Governor of a state may with the
law even with respect to a matter in State
consent of the central government,
list.
2. Parliament has the exclusive power of
entrust to that government any of the
making any law imposing a tax not executive function of the state.
mentioned in either State list or 2. The President can entrust the executive
Concurrent List. function of the centre to a state with its
3. The Government of India may by consent.
agreement with the Government of any
3. The distribution of executive power in
territory (not being part of the territory of
India) undertake judicial functions vested
general follows the distribution of
in the Government of such territory. legislative powers.
How many of the statements given above are How many of the statements given above
correct? are correct?
(d) None (d) None
29. Consider the following statements in regards 31. Consider the following statements:
of Motions' are one of the parliamentary tools 1. During a national emergency, the
to control the actions of the government in executive power of the Centre extends
power:
to directing any state regarding the
1. The purpose of Privilege motion is to
censure the concerned minister for the
manner in which its executive power is
breach of parliamentary privileges. to be exercised.
2. Rajya Sabha cannot make use of 2. The laws made by Parliament on the
Adjournment motion as it involves an state subjects during a National
element of censure against the Emergency would exist until repealed
government. by State Legislature or Parliament.
3. Censure motion can be moved against an
3. When a proclamation of national
individual minister & its passing means
defeat of the government. emergency is made, under Article 358
4. The no confidence motion against the the six Fundamental Rights under
Council of Ministers should state the Article 19 are automatically
reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. suspended.
incorrect? are correct?
32. Consider the following statements with 34. Consider the following statements about
regards to the Union-State relations in President’s Rule in the Indian context:
India: 1. It is also known as ‘National
1. The Parliament may legislate on the Emergency’.
State Subjects in some special cases. 2. Upon the imposition of this rule, the
2. Even without the request of two or State administration will run without
more states, the Parliament can Council of Ministers.
legislate on the State Issue. 3. A proclamation of President‘s Rule
3. The President and Center enjoy an may be revoked by the President at any
indirect command of Bills pertaining to time by a subsequent proclamation.
State legislature. How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(d) None
(d) None

reference to the Financial Emergency: 35. Consider the following statements with
reference to the financial powers of the
1. For the continuation of Financial
Union and the states:
Emergency a proclamation has to be
passed by the Parliament after every 6 1. There is concurrent jurisdiction in the
months. matter of taxation among the Union
2. The Money Bills can be reserved for and the states.
the consideration of the President 2. Taxes on the residual subjects are
before they are passed by the exclusively under the Union's
Legislature of the state. jurisdiction.
3. During a Financial Emergency, the 3. The purchase and storage of water and
salaries of all public servants, except electricity by the Union are free from
the Supreme Court judges, can be taxation of a state.
reduced. How many of the statements given above
are incorrect? (a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(d) None (d) None
36. With regards to the Zonal Councils, 38. Consider the following statements with
examine the following statements: respect to the Inter-State Council:
1. 5 Zonal Councils were established as 1. The Inter-State Council has the power
per the States Reorganisation Act, to inquire into and advise upon the
1956. disputes which have arisen between the
2. There is one fixed Vice Chairman for states.
this council who completes 5 years of 2. The Inter-State Council has been
term. provided by the Constitution.
3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands and 3. The Standing Committee of the Inter-
Lakshadweep are not members of any State Council is headed by the Union
of the Zonal Councils. Home Minister.
are incorrect? are correct?
(b) Only two
(d) None
37 Consider the following provisions
corresponds to the Inter-State River Water
Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2019: 39. Consider the following statements with
1. It provides for Dispute Resolution respect to the nature of a Federation:
Committee to resolve the dispute 1. The Union of States by conquest
amicably by negotiations. cannot be called a Federal Union.
2. It provides for establishment of 2. A voluntary Union/Federation is
multiple Inter-State River Water possible only in a democratic
Disputes Tribunals by the central framework.
government. 3. In actual practice, not all-federal states
3. It removes the requirement of have been born through the Union of
publication of decision in the official the Sovereign States.
gazette How many of the statements given above
(a) Only one
(d) None (d) None
40. Article 301 to 307 in Part 13 of the 43. With regards to Leader of the Opposition in
constitution deal with which of the either House of the Parliament of India,
following below: consider the following statements:
(a) Emergency Provisions
1. The position of Leader of the
(b) Administrative relations between state
Opposition received statutory
and center
recognition through the Salary and
(c) trade, commerce and intercourse
within the territory of India Allowances of Leaders of Opposition
(d) Administration of Union territories in Parliament Act, 1977
2. When no party in the Lok Sabha
41. Which one of the following in Indian polity secures required seats to form an
is an essential feature that indicates that it opposition party and to designate a
is federal in character: Leader of opposition, the matter is then
(a) The independence of judiciary is
decided by the President of India.
safeguarded.
(b) The Union Legislature has elected
representatives from constituent units. (a) 1 only
(c) The Union Cabinet can have elected (b) 2 only
representatives from regional parties. (c) Both 1 & 2
(d) The Fundamental Rights are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
enforceable by Courts of Law.
44. What is the primary objective of including

42. Which of the following is/are the features
of Parliamentary Form of Government: the feature of Separation of Powers in the
1. Majority party rule Constitution of India?
2. Dissolution of the lower House (a) To help judiciary in providing
3. Collective responsibility of the complete justice to the weaker sections
executive to the legislature of the society.
4. Membership of the ministers in the (b) Division of Labor and Functional
legislature
specialization of tasks.
(c) Provide Checks and Balances to
are correct?
(a) Only one prevent the misuse of power.
(b) Only two (d) Swift decision making by limiting the
(c) Only three encroachment of powers between the
(d) All four branches.
45. With reference to ‘asymmetric federalism’, 47. Which one of the following suggested that
consider the following statements: the Governor should be an eminent person
from outside the State and should be a
1. It is a condition where one state
detached figure without intense political
possess more power than the other. links or should not have taken part in
2. Article 371 of the Constitution of India politics in the recent past?
provides for asymmetric federalism. (a) First Administrative Reforms
Commission (1966)
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
correct? (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(a) 1 only (d) National Commission to Review the
(b) 2 only Working of the Constitution (2000)
(c) Both 1 and 2

48. With reference to the powers of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Parliament to reorganize the States,
1. It includes the power to form a new
46. When the legislatures of two or more states
state or union territory by uniting a part
pass resolutions requesting the Parliament of any state to any other union
to enact laws on a matter in the State List. territory.
With reference to such laws made, consider 2. A bill for such a purpose can be
the following statements: - introduced in the Parliament only with
the prior recommendation of the
1. A law passed by the Parliament is President.
applicable to only those states which 3. The President has to refer such a bill to
have passed the resolution. the state legislature concerned for
expressing its views mandatorily
2. A law made by the Parliament can be
within six months.
repealed or amended by the Parliament
4. The President or Parliament is not
as well as the states. bound by the views of the state
Which of the statements given above is/are legislature and may either accept or
reject them.
correct?
(a) 1 only are correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All four
49. Consider the following statements 50. Consider the following bills can be
regarding various grants provided to states: introduced in the Parliament only on the
1. Statutory grants are made compulsorily recommendation of the President?
for every state but discretionary grants 1. Constitutional amendment bills
are not. 2. A bill which varies the meaning of the
2. Statutory grants are made by the expression “agricultural income” for
Parliament, whereas discretionary Indian Income tax.
grants are made by the Central 3. Finance bill –II under Article 117 (3)
government. 4. A bill diminishing the area of state
3. Specific grants needed for promoting 5. A bill imposing any surcharge on a tax
the welfare of Scheduled Tribes in a for the purpose of centre.
state are considered as discretionary How many of the statements given above
grants. are correct?
How many of the statements given above (a) Only two
are incorrect? (b) Only three
(a) Only one (c) Only four
(b) Only two (d) All five
(c) All three
(d) None
FOR PRELIMS
pPLT-2 (Polity 2.0)

pPLT-2 (Polity 2.0)
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Governor can send messages to the Legislative Assembly with respect to
Bill pending in the Assembly. It is one of the executive power of governor.
• Statement 2 is correct: Governor can summon, prorogue and dissolve the Legislative Assembly. It
is one of the governor's legislative power. (Note: But on only aid and advice of Chief Ministers and
his council of ministers.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Governor cannot give assent to a Bill to curtail the powers of the State
High Court.
About Governor:
• A governor is a nominal head of a state, unlike the Chief Minister who is the real head of a state in
India.
• According to 7th Constitutional Amendment Act 1956, the same person can be the Governor of two
or more states.
▪ Appointment: The governors and lieutenant-governors are appointed by the president.
▪ Removal: The term of governor's office is normally 5 years but it can be terminated earlier by:
Dismissal by the president (on the advice of the prime minister of the country), at whose pleasure the
governor holds office or Resignation by the governor.
▪ Thus, the term is subject to pleasure of the president.
▪ There is no provision of impeachment, as it happens for the president.
▪ Some discretionary powers are as follows:
➢ Can dissolve the legislative assembly if the chief minister advices him to do following a vote of
no confidence. Following which, it is up to the Governor what he/ she would like to do.
➢ Can recommend the president about the failure of the constitutional machinery in the state.
➢ Can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for president's assent.
➢ Can appoint anybody as chief minister If there is no political party with a clear-cut majority in
the assembly.
➢ Determines the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral
exploration.
➢ Can seek information from the chief minister with regard to the administrative and legislative
matters of the state.
➢ Can refuse to sign to an ordinary bill passed by the state legislature.
2. Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total
strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40 (with some exceptions).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the council itself
from amongst its members.
Legislative council- Basis of Formation:
➢ India has a bicameral system of legislature.
➢ Just as Parliament has two Houses, the states can also have a Legislative Council in addition to
the Legislative Assembly through Article 169 of the Constitution.
➢ Six States having a Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Maharashtra, Karnataka.
➢ In 2020, Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly passed the resolution for abolition of the
Legislative Council. This resolution is yet to be cleared by the Parliament of India to finally
abolish the council.
➢ In 2019, the Jammu & Kashmir Legislative Council was abolished through the J&K
Reorganisation Bill, 2019, which reduced the State of J&K to the Union Territories of J&K and
Ladakh.
• Article 169 (Creation and Abolition):
➢ The Parliament can abolish a Legislative Council (where it already exists) or create it (where it
does not exist) by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of each House present
and voting, if the legislative assembly of the concerned state, by a special majority, passes a
resolution to that effect.
• Special majority implies: A majority of the total membership of the assembly and A
majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the assembly present and voting.
• Composition: Under Article 171 of the Constitution, the Legislative Council of a state shall
not have more than one-third of the total strength of the State Assembly, and not less than 40
members.
• Like the Rajya Sabha, the legislative council is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a
permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. The tenure of a Member of the Legislative
Council (MLC) is six years, with one-third of the members retiring every two years.
• Manner of Election: One-third of the MLCs are elected by the state’s MLAs, another 1/3rd
by a special electorate comprising sitting members of local governments such as
municipalities and district boards, 1/12th by an electorate of teachers and another 1/12th by
registered graduates.
• The remaining members are appointed by the Governor for distinguished services in various
fields namely, literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
3. Answer: (C) All three Statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in
the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint
him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a
reasonable period.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The governor appoints only those persons as ministers who are
recommended by the Chief Minister.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The age criteria for becoming a CM is 25yrs or more.
• Appointment: The Chief Minister is appointed by the governor.
• Article 164 of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief
Minister at its hand to aid and advise the governor.
Who can be a Chief Minister?
• After general election to the State Legislative Assembly, the party or coalition group which secures
majority in this House, elects its leader and communicates his name to the Governor. The Governor
then formally appoints him as the Chief Minister and asks him to form his Council of Ministers.
• When no party gets a clear majority in the State Legislative Assembly, the Governor normally asks
the leader of the single largest party to form the government.
Tenure:
• Theoretically, the Chief Minister holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. However, in
actual practice the Chief Minister remains in office so long as he continues to be the leader of the
majority in the State Legislative Assembly.
• The Governor can dismiss him in case he loses his majority support.
• The State Legislative Assembly can also remove him by passing a vote of no-confidence against
him.
Powers and Functions of the Chief Minister:
• To Aid and Advice, the Governor.
• The Chief Minister is at the Head of the Council of Ministers.
• He is the Leader of the House.
• He has to communicate to the Governor all the decisions of the council of ministers relating to the
administration of the states.
• All the policies are announced by him on the floor of the house.
• He recommends dissolution of legislative assembly to the Governor.
• He advises the Governor regarding summoning, proroguing the sessions of State Legislative
Assembly from time to time
4. Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Governor can promulgate an ordinance with respect to subjects
mentioned in List II and List III. The score of his powers are coextensive with the legislative powers
of the state legislature.
• Statement 2 is correct: Governor's ordinance which is repugnant to a Union law related to a
concurrent subject will prevail if the ordinance has been made on the instructions of the President.
• The Governor can promulgate an ordinance with respect to subjects mentioned in List II and List III.
The score of his powers are co-extensive with the legislative powers of the state legislature. But
governor's ordinance which is repugnant to a Union law related to a concurrent subject will prevail if
the has been made on the instructions of the President.
• However, the peculiarity of his ordinance making power is that he cannot make ordinance without
the instruction of the President in 3 cases
• If a bill containing the same provisions would have required, the previous sanction of the President
for its introduction into the state legislature.
• If he would have deemed it necessary to reserve a bill containing the same provisions for the
consideration of the President.
• If an act of the state legislature containing the same provisions would have been invalid without
receiving the President's assent.
• Ordinance Making Power of President & Governor:
➢ Article 123 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during
recess of Parliament and Article 213 of the Constitution of India empowers Governors to
promulgate ordinances when the legislature is not in session.
➢ Ordinance-making powers are the same at both levels for the Governors and the President who
issue ordinances for immediate action but must lay the ordinances before the legislature when the
central or state legislature reconvenes.
➢ The President/Governor should frame an Ordinance only when he is satisfied that the conditions
necessary to take immediate action exist in that particular territory.
➢ Such an Ordinance shall expire six weeks after the reassembly of Parliament or a State Assembly
and the maximum life of an Ordinance may be six months and six weeks because six months is
the maximum interval between two sittings of Parliament.
➢ The President/Governor can only issue an ordinance when both the Houses of Parliament or state
legislature is not in session [or] when either of the two Houses of Parliament or state legislature
is not in session.
➢ We can observe here that the power of the President or Governor to legislate by ordinance is not
a parallel power of legislation.
➢ Ordinances can only be issued on matters on which Parliament or the Legislature can make laws
and are subject to the same limitation as Parliament/Legislature to make laws.
➢ The President/Governor can also revoke an Ordinance at any time but his power to make/revoke
an Ordinance is not discretionary, and he can promulgate or revoke an Ordinance only on the
advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the prime minister in the parliament or Council of
Ministers headed by the chief minister in the assembly
❖ The Governor of a State cannot make an ordinance without the reference of the President in
the following cases:
➢ Bills that have similar provisions require the prior approval of the President to introduce the Bill
in the Assembly.
➢ Bills contain similar provisions, where the Governor has already considered reserving the Bills
for consideration of the President.
➢ Bills contain the same provisions, where those provisions should require the assent of the
President.
➢ An Ordinance promulgated by the President/Governor may be retrospective, meaning it may
come from an earlier date and may amend or repeal any Act or Ordinance already in force.
➢ An Ordinance issued by the President/Governor shall not take away any fundamental rights, shall
not be issued to amend the Constitution, and shall not affect the basic structure of the
Constitution.
• The President’s ordinance-making power has nothing to do with national emergence and is
issued even in the absence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion. The Constitution
affirms that the power to make ordinances is designed to enable the executive to deal with a
situation arising suddenly and immediately When the Parliament/Assembly is not in session.
5. Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Vice - President can be removed from the office before completion of his
term. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal. He can be removed by a resolution of
the Rajya Sabha passed by an Effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha
• Statement 2 is correct: Unlike President, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for the
removal of Vice- President.
• The Vice-President of India
• Article 63: The Vice-President of India There shall be a Vice-President of India.
• Article 64: The Vice-President to be exofficio Chairman of the Council of States
➢ The Vice-President shall be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any
other office of profit:
➢ Provided that during any period when the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the
functions of the
➢ President under article 65, he shall not perform the duties of the office of Chairman of the
Council of States and shall not be entitled to any salary or allowance payable to the Chairman of
the Council of States under article 97.
➢ Article 65: The Vice-President to act as President or to discharge his functions during casual
vacancies in the office, or during the absence, of President
▪ (1) In the event of the occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the President by reason of this
death, resignation or removal, or otherwise, the Vice-President shall act as President until the date on
which a new President elected in accordance with the provisions of this Chapter to fill such vacancy
enters upon his office.
▪ (2) When the President is unable to discharge his functions owing to absence, illness or any other
cause, the Vice-President shall discharge his functions until the date on which the President resumes
his duties.
▪ (3) The Vice-President shall, during, and in respect of, the period while he is so acting as, or
discharging the functions of, President have all the powers and immunities of the President and be
entitled to such emoluments, allowances and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law
and, until provision in that behalf is so made, such emoluments, allowances and privileges as are
specified in the Second Schedule.
➢ Article 66: Election of Vice-President
▪ (1) The Vice-President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the
members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of a single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by
secret ballot.
▪ (2) The Vice-President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the
Legislature of any State, and if a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the
Legislature of any State be elected Vice President, he shall be deemed to have vacated his seat in
that House on the date on which he enters upon his office as Vice-President.
▪ (3) No person shall be eligible for election as Vice-President unless he –
i. Is a citizen on India;
ii. Has completed the age of thirty-five years; and
iii. Is qualified for election as a member of the Council of States.
▪ (4) A person shall not be eligible for election as Vice-President if he holds any office of profit
under the Government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other
authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments.
Explanation: For the purposes of this article, a person shall not be deemed to hold any office of profit
by reason only that he is the President of Vice President of the Union or the Governor of any State or is a
Minister either for the Union or for any State.
Article 67: Term of office of Vice-President
The Vice-President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office:
Provided that –
(a) A Vice-President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
(b) Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a
majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People; but no
resolution for the purpose of this clause shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been
given of the intention to move the resolution.
(c) A Vice-President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his
successor enters upon his office.
• Article 68: Time of holding election to fill vacancy in the office of Vice President and the term of
office of person elected to fill casual vacancy.
➢ An election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of Vice-President shall be
completed before the expiration of the term.
➢ An election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice-President occurring by reason of his death,
resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as soon as possible after the occurrence of the
vacancy, and the person elected to fill the vacancy shall, subject to the provisions of article 67, be
entitled to hold office for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
• Article 70: Discharge of President's functions in other contingencies Parliament may make such
provision as it thinks fit for the discharge of the functions of the President in any contingency not
provided for in this Chapter.
❖ Removal of Vice-President of India: Constitution, Article 67(b): A Vice-President may be
removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the then
members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People; but no resolution for the purpose
of this clause shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to
move the resolution.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Only those financial Bills which receive the speaker's certificate are Money
Bills.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Speakers decision whether a financial bill is a money bill or not is final
and cannot be challenged
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Money Bill can only be introduced by a Minister
Article 110 deals with Money Bill in India:
➢ The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
➢ The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government
➢ The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of
money into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund
➢ The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India
➢ Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the
amount of any such expenditure
➢ The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India
or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state
➢ Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.
Bill is not a Money Bill when it provides for:
➢ Imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties;
➢ Demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered;
➢ Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for
local purposes
What is a Money bill?
• A money bill is defined by Article 110 of the Constitution, as a draft law that contains only
provisions that deal with all or any of the matters listed therein. These comprise a set of seven
features, broadly including items such as the imposition or regulation of a tax; the regulation of the
borrowing of money by the Government of India; the withdrawal of money from the Consolidated
Fund of India; and so forth.
In the event a proposed legislation contains other features, ones that are not merely incidental to the
items specifically outlined, such a draft law cannot be classified as a money bill. Article 110 further
clarifies that in cases where a dispute arises over whether a bill is a money bill or not, the Lok Sabha
Speaker’s decision on the issue shall be considered final.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Public Account of India accounts for flows for those transactions where the
government is merely acting as a banker. This fund was constituted under Article 266 (2) of the
Constitution.
• Statement 2 is correct: These funds are a part of Public Account of India. Examples of those are
provident funds, small savings and so on. They belong to
• Statement 3 is incorrect: They have to be paid back at some time to their rightful owners. Because
of the nature of the fund, expenditures from it are not required to be approved by the
Parliament.
The Indian government's funds are kept in three parts, which are listed below:
❖ Consolidated Fund of India This term derives its origin from the Constitution of India. Under Article
266 (1) of the Constitution of India.
'Consolidated Fund of India' for the Union Government include:
➢ All revenues (for example tax revenue from personal income tax, corporate income tax, customs,
and excise duties as well as nontax revenue such as license fees, dividends, and profits from
public sector undertakings, etc.) received by the Union government.
➢ All loans raised by the issue of treasury bills, internal and external loans and all money received
by the Union Government in repayment of loans.
➢ Similarly, under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India, a Consolidated Fund of State (a
separate fund for each state) has been established where all revenues (both tax revenues and non-
tax revenues such as user charges levied by State governments) received by the State government
as well as Funds of Government of India.
➢ All loans raised by the issue of treasury bills, internal and external loans and all money received
by the State Government in repayment of loans shall form part of the fund.
➢ The Comptroller and Auditor General of India audit these Funds and reports to the Union/State
legislatures when proper accounting procedures have not been followed.
➢ The government meets all its expenditure from this fund.
➢ The government needs parliamentary approval to withdraw money from this fund.
(2) Contingency Fund of India
➢ The Contingency Fund of India is established under Article 267(1) of the Indian Constitution. It
is in the nature of an imprest (money maintained for a specific purpose). Accordingly, Parliament
enacted the contingency fund of India Act 1950.
➢ The fund is held by the Finance Secretary (Department of Economic Affairs) on behalf of the
President of India and it can be operated by executive action. The Contingency Fund of India
exists for disasters and related unforeseen expenditures.
➢ In 2005, it was raised from Rs. 50 crores to Rs 500 crore.
➢ Approval of the Parliament of India for such expenditure and for withdrawal of an equivalent
amount from the Consolidated Fund is subsequently obtained to ensure that the corpus of the
Contingency Fund remains intact.
➢ Similarly, the Contingency Fund of each State Government is established under Article 267(2) of
the Constitution - this is in the nature of an imprest placed at the disposal of the Governor to
enable him/her to make advances to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization
by the State Legislature.
➢ Approval of the Legislature for such expenditure and for withdrawal of an equivalent amount
from the Consolidated Fund is subsequently obtained, whereupon the advances from the
Contingency Fund are recouped to the Fund.
➢ The corpus varies across states and the quantum is decided by the State legislatures.
(3) Public Accounts of India
❖ This is constituted under Article 266(2) of the Constitution. All other public money (other than those
which are credited to the Consolidated Fund of India) received by or on behalf of the Government of
India shall be credited to the Public Account of India.
This is made up of:
➢ Bank savings account of the various ministries/departments
➢ National small savings fund, defense fund
➢ National Investment Fund (money earned from disinvestment) National Calamity & Contingency
Fund (NCCF) (for Disaster Management)
➢ Provident fund, Postal insurance, etc.
➢ The government does not need permission to take advances from this account.
❖ The audit of all the expenditure from the Public Account of India is taken up by the CAG
8. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statements 1 is correct: Under this, an MP can be suspended for disregarding the authority of the
Chair or willfully abusing the rules or obstructing the business of the house
• Statements 2 is correct: The power to suspend an MP is vested in house and not in Chairman alone
as Unlike the Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend
a Member as the House must adopt a motion suspending the Member from the service of the House
for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session. Hence, it shall not be the decision of the
Chairman alone.
Suspension of MPs:
➢ Rule 255 of the General Rules of Procedure of the Rajya Sabha deals with Suspension of Rajya
Sabha MP’s.
➢ Under Rule 255 ('Withdrawal of member') of the General Rules of Procedure of the Rajya Sabha,
"The Chairman may direct any member whose conduct is in his opinion grossly disorderly to
withdraw immediately from the Council and any member so ordered to withdraw shall do so
forthwith and shall absent himself during the remainder of the day's meeting."
How is suspension under Rule 255 different from Suspension under Rule 256?
➢ Rule 256 provides for 'Suspension of Member'; whereas Rule 255 provides for lesser punishment.
➢ Under Rule 256, "the Chairman may, if he deems it necessary, suspend a member from the service of
the Council for a period not exceeding the remainder of the Session.
Rules of parliamentary etiquette:
MPs are required to adhere to certain rules of parliamentary etiquette.
➢ For example, the Lok Sabha rulebook specifies that MPs are not to interrupt the speech of others,
maintain silence and not obstruct proceedings by hissing or making running commentaries during
debates.
➢ Newer forms of protest led to these rules being updated in 1989.
➢ Now, members should not shout slogans, display placards, tear up documents in protest, and play a
cassette or a tape recorder in the House.
➢ Rajya Sabha has similar rules. To conduct the proceedings smoothly, the rulebook also gives certain,
similar powers to the presiding officers of both Houses.
Differences in powers of Speaker and Chairman of Rajya Sabha:
• Like the Speaker in Lok Sabha, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is empowered under Rule Number 255
of its Rule Book to "direct any Member whose conduct is in his opinion grossly disorderly to
withdraw immediately" from the House.
Procedure to be followed for suspension of Rajya Sabha MPs:
➢ The Chairman may "name a Member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of
the Council by persistently and willfully obstructing" business.
➢ In such a situation, the House may adopt a motion suspending the Member from the service of the
House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session.
➢ The House may, however, by another motion, terminate the suspension.
What are the terms of Suspension?
➢ The maximum period of suspension is for the remainder of the session.
➢ Suspended members cannot enter the chamber or attend the meetings of the committees.
➢ He will not be eligible to give notice for discussion or submission.
➢ He loses the right to get a reply to his questions.
9. Answer: (A) Only one statement is incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statements 1 is correct: The Department-Related Standing Committees (DRSC) are reconstituted
every year by both the Presiding Officers of Parliament in consultation with the respective parties
and the government.
• Statements 2 is correct: The committees of the Lok Sabha are more in number than Rajya Sabha.
• Statements 3 is incorrect: There are 24 Department-related Standing Committees (DRSCs). Each of
these committees have 31 members - 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.
What are Standing Committees?
➢ Standing Committee is a committee consisting of Members of Parliament.
➢ It is a permanent and regular committee which is constituted from time to time according to the
provisions of an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business.
➢ The work done by the Indian Parliament is not only voluminous but also of a complex nature, hence
a good deal of its work is carried out in these Parliamentary Committees for making tedious job
easier.
➢ DRC’S: After experiencing the working of the DRSC system for over a decade, the system was
restructured in July,2004 wherein the number of DRSCs was increased from 17 to 24. These
members are to be nominated by the Speaker of Lok Sabha or the Chairman of Rajya Sabha
respectively. The term of office of these committees does not exceed one year. These committees are
serviced either by Lok Sabha secretariat or the Rajya Sabha secretariat depending on who has
appointed the chairman of that committee
Standing Committees are of the following kinds:
❖ Financial Standing Committees (FSC)
❖ Department Related Standing Committees (DRSC)
❖ Others Standing Committees (OSC)

Explanation:
• Statements 1 is correct: In Lok Sabha and state legislatures, the President and Governor
respectively sets the date for the election of the Speaker.
• Statements 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not specify that the Speaker should be elected
within 6 months from the formation of new Government. The Maharashtra Legislative Assembly has
been without a Speaker for most of this year. The Constitution specifies offices like those of the
President, Vice President, Chief Justice of India, and Comptroller and Auditor General of India, as
well as Speakers and Deputy Speakers. Article 93 for Lok Sabha and Article 178 for state
Assemblies state that these Houses "shall, as soon as may be", choose two of its members to be
Speaker and Deputy Speaker. The Constitution neither sets a time limit nor specifies the process
for these elections. It leaves it to the legislatures to decide how to hold these elections. In Lok Sabha
and state legislatures, the President/Governor sets a date for the election of the Speaker. The
legislators of the respective Houses vote to elect one among themselves to these offices.
• Statements 3 is correct: Usually, the Speaker comes from the ruling party. In the case of the
Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, the position has varied over the years.
Criteria:
➢ The Constitution of India requires the Speaker should be a member of the House.
➢ Although there are no specific qualifications prescribed for being elected the Speaker, an
understanding of the Constitution and the laws of the country is considered a major asset for the
holder of the Office of the Speaker.
➢ Usually, a member belonging to the ruling party is elected Speaker. The process has evolved over
the years where the ruling party nominates its candidate after informal consultations with leaders
of other parties and groups in the House.
➢ This convention ensures that once elected, the Speaker enjoys the respect of all sections of the
House.
• Voting: The Speaker (along with the Deputy Speaker) is elected from among the Lok Sabha
members by a simple majority of members present and voting in the House. Once a decision on the
candidate is taken, his/her name is normally proposed by the Prime Minister or the Minister of
Parliamentary Affairs.
• Term of Office of the Speaker: The Speaker holds Office from the date of his/her election till
immediately before the first meeting of the next Lok Sabha (for 5 years). The speaker once elected is
eligible for re-election. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office
and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets.
Role and Powers of Speaker:

• Interpretation: He/She is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India, the
Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha and the parliamentary precedents,
within the House. In matters regarding interpretation of these provisions, he/she often gives
rulings which are respected by members and are binding in nature.
• Joint Sitting of Both Houses: He/She presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of
Parliament. Such a sitting is summoned by the President to settle a deadlock between the two
Houses on a bill.
• Adjournment of Sitting: He/She can adjourn the House or suspend the meeting in absence one-
tenth of the total strength of the House (called the quorum).
• Casting Vote: The speaker does not vote in the first instance but in the case of a tie; when the
House is divided equally on any question, the Speaker is entitled to vote. Such a vote is called a
Casting Vote, and its purpose is to resolve a deadlock.
• Money Bill: He/She decides whether a bill is a money bill or not and his/her decision on this
question is final.
• Disqualifying Members: It is the speaker who decides the questions of disqualification of a member of
the Lok Sabha, arising on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. The 52nd
amendment to the Indian Constitution vests this power in the Speaker. In 1992, the Supreme Court
ruled that the decision of the Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.
• Chairing the IPG: He/She acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group
(IPG) which is a link between the Parliament of India and the various parliaments of the world.
• He also acts as the ex-officio chairman of the conference of presiding officers of legislative
bodies in the country.
• Constitution of Committees: The Committees of the House are constituted by the speaker and
function under the speaker’s overall direction.
• The Chairmen of all Parliamentary Committees are nominated by him/her.
• Committees like the Business Advisory Committee, the General Purposes Committee and the
Rules Committee work directly under his Chairmanship.
• Privileges of the House: The Speaker is the guardian of the rights and privileges of the House,
its Committees and members. It depends solely on the Speaker to refer any question of privilege
to the Committee of Privileges for examination, investigation and report.

Explanation:
• Statements 1 is incorrect: The committee's members are decided by Parliament.
• Statements 2 is correct: JPC is set up by a motion passed in one house of Parliament and agreed to
by the other.
• Statements 3 is incorrect: JPC recommendations are not binding in nature on the government.
• Statements 4 is correct: The government is required to report on the follow-up action taken on the
basis of the recommendations of the JPC.
What is a JPC? (Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC)

➢ A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is set up to examine a particular bill presented before the
Parliament, or for the purpose of investigating cases of financial irregularities in any government
activity.
➢ The JPC is an ad-hoc body.
➢ It is set up for a given period of time and is aimed at addressing a specific issue.
➢ Composition:
➢ In order to set up a JPC, a motion is passed in one House and supported by the other House.
➢ The committee's members are decided by Parliament.
➢ The number of members can vary. There are twice as many Lok Sabha members as the Rajya Sabha.
Powers and Functions:

➢ A JPC is authorized to collect evidence in oral or written form or demand documents in connection
with the matter.
➢ The proceedings and findings of the committee are confidential, except in matters of public interest.
➢ The government can take the decision to withhold a document if it is considered prejudicial to the
safety or interest of the State.
➢ The Speaker has the final word in case of a dispute over calling for evidence.
➢ The committee can invite interested parties for inquiry and summon people to appear before it.
➢ The committee gets disbanded following the submission of its report to Parliament.
Parliamentary Committees
• In a parliamentary democracy, Parliament has broadly two functions, which are: Lawmaking and
Oversight of the executive branch of the government.
Committees are an instrument of Parliament for its own effective functioning.
Constitutional provisions: Parliamentary committees draw their authority from:
➢ Article 105 (on privileges of Parliament members) and Article 118 (on Parliament’s authority to
make rules for regulating its procedure and conduct of business).
➢ The Constitution of India makes a mention of these committees at different places, but without
making any specific provisions regarding their composition, tenure, functions, etc.
➢ All these matters are dealt by the rules of the two Houses.
➢ Accordingly, a parliamentary committee means a committee that:
➢ Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker /Chairman.
➢ Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman
➢ Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman
➢ Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha.
Types of parliamentary committees:

Broadly, parliamentary committees are of two kinds:
➢ Standing Committees - They are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a
continuous basis.
➢ Ad Hoc Committees - They are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to
them. For instance, to deliberate on a particular bill.
Explanation:
• Statements 1 is incorrect: Parliamentary Privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by
members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can "effectively discharge their
functions".
• Statements 2 is correct: The Speaker or Rajya Sabha chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a
privilege motion.
• Statements 3 is correct: The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President, who is an
integral part of the Parliament.
What are Parliamentary Privileges?

➢ Parliamentary Privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament,
individually and collectively, so that they can "effectively discharge their functions".
➢ Article 105 of the Constitution expressly mentions two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in
Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings.
➢ Apart from the privileges as specified in the Constitution, the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
provides for freedom from arrest and detention of members under civil process during the
continuance of the meeting of the House or of a committee thereof and forty days before its
commencement and forty days after its conclusion.
Motion against breaches:

➢ When any of these rights and immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege
and is punishable under law of Parliament.
➢ A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held
guilty of breach of privilege.
Role of the Speaker/Rajya Sabha (RS) Chairperson:

➢ The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion.
➢ The Speaker/Chairman can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the
privileges committee of Parliament.
➢ If the Speaker/Chair gives consent under relevant rules, the member concerned is given an
opportunity to make a short statement.
Applicability:
➢ The Constitution also extends the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak
and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees. These include the
Attorney General of India.
➢ The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the
Parliament. Article 361 of the Constitution provides for privileges for the President.
13. Answer: (D) All five Statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The President can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of
Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is void. Thus, the
power of the President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court of India ruled that the decision of the President to
issue an ordinance can be questioned in a court on the ground that the President has prorogued one
House or both Houses of Parliament deliberately with a view to promulgate an ordinance on a
controversial subject, so as to bypass the parliamentary decision and thereby circumventing the
authority of the Parliament.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The President exercises his Ordinance making power on the advice of the
council of ministers
• Statement 5 is incorrect: Like any other law, the ordinance can also be retrospective in nature and
may come into force
What is the meaning of the Ordinance?
❖ Ordinances are like a law but not enacted by the Parliament but rather promulgated by President of
India when Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha or either of those is not in session. Union Cabinet's
recommendation is a must for an ordinance to be promulgated. Using ordinances, immediate
legislative actions can be taken. Article 123 deals with the ordinance making power of the President.
President has many legislative powers and this power is one of them.
Features of an ordinance:
➢ He can only promulgate the ordinance under these circumstances: When both the houses or either of
the house is not in session; Circumstances occur where the President thinks it necessary to act
without waiting for houses to assemble.
➢ An ordinance can be retrospective in nature.
➢ An ordinance rolled out when both the houses are in session is void in nature.
➢ The Parliament has to approve the ordinance within six weeks from its reassembly.
➢ Acts, done and completed under the ordinance before it lapses, remains fully active.
➢ It has no connection with the President's power to proclaim a national emergency.
➢ The power of ordinance making is not to be taken as a substitute for the legislative power. Only
under special circumstances, ordinances can be rolled out.
➢ President's power to roll out ordinance is justiciable on the ground of malafide.
What are the limitations of an ordinance making power of President?
➢ President can promulgate an ordinance only when both the houses are not in session or only one
house is in session.
➢ For an ordinance to be promulgated, such circumstances should be there which deem it necessary for
President to legislate through the ordinance.

Explanation:
• Statements 1 is correct: President can use his discretionary powers. President can seek information
from Prime Minister: Under article 78 the President enjoys the right to seek information from the PM
regarding the administration of the affairs of the union. Under the established convention, the
President has the right to warn or encourage the Council of Minister (CoM) in the exercise of its
power.
• Statements 2 is correct: In case of an ordinary bill, there are three courses of action the President
can do. Inaction on any bill amounts to Pocket veto which is a discretionary action.
➢ Give his assent: the bill then becomes an act.
➢ Withhold his assent: the bill ends there and does not become as act.
➢ Return the bill for reconsideration: The Houses may make changes or not to the bill and return it
to the President after which he is obliged to give his assent.
Hence, here also President enjoys certain amount of discretionary powers.
• Statements 3 is correct: Case of no majority: When no political party or coalition of parties enjoy
the majority in Lok Sabha, then the President has discretion in inviting the leader of that party or
coalition of parties who in his opinion is able to form a stable government. Case of no-confidence
with CoM- dissolving Loksabha: It is for the president to decide if he should dissolve Loksabha or
not when CoM loses the majority in Lok Sabha. (Note: The President can dissolve Lok Sabha only
on the advice of CoM but the advice is binding only if the government is a majority government.)
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Once a constitutional amendment bill is passed by both houses of the
parliament then the President has to give his assent.
Cases of discretionary powers are:
➢ Suspensive Veto: The President has discretionary power when he exercises suspensive veto ie. when
he returns a bill (not money bill) for reconsideration of the parliament. However, if the bill is passed
again by the Parliament with or without amendments and presented again to the President, it is
obligatory for him to give his assent to the bill.
➢ Pocket Veto: This is not a provision mentioned in the Indian constitution, but this is a possible
situation when the President of India can use his discretionary power. In this case, the President
neither ratifies nor reject nor return the bill, but simply keeps the bill pending for an indefinite
period. As the time limit within which the President has to take the decision with respect to a bill
presented to him for assent, has not been mentioned in the constitution, in effect the inaction of the
President stops the bill from becoming an act.
➢ Case of no sitting of both houses: Under Article 85, the President can summon each House of
Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, to ensure that six months shall not
intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its sitting in the next
session.
➢ Case of no-confidence with CoM- dissolving CoM: A caretaker government does not enjoy the
confidence of Lok Sabha and hence it is not expected to take major decisions but only to make the
day-to-day administrative decisions. It is for the President to decide the day to-day decisions.
15. Answer: (D) None of the Statements are correct.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution
(Article 108) to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill. A deadlock is
deemed to have taken place under any one of the following three situations after a bill has been
passed by one House and transmitted to the other House, if the bill is rejected by the other House; if
the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill; or if more than six
months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other House without the bill being
passed by it.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses
and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting, the
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as may be
determined by the members present at the joint sitting, presides over the meeting. It is clear that the
Chairman of Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint sitting as he is not a member of either House
of Parliament
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution has specified that at a joint sitting, new amendments to
the bill cannot be proposed except in two cases: those amendments that have caused final
disagreement between the Houses; and those amendments that might have become necessary due to
the delay in the passage of the bill.
Joint sitting of the Parliament - Historical Background Provision of joint sitting of both the Houses
of Parliament is borrowed from Government of India Act 1935. Also, we find similar provisions in
the constitution of the US, Canada, Britain, Ireland etc.
Objectives & provisions
Joint Sitting of Parliament – Objectives and The Key Provisions
Joint sitting is an extraordinary tool provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between the Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha over a passage of a bill.
Article 108 of the Constitution empowers the President to summon a joint session of both houses ―for
the purpose of deliberating and voting on the Bill‖.
However, there are three caveats: a joint session can be called if,
Whenever one house of Parliament passes a bill and the other House rejects it, there is a standoff, or
There is a stalemate whenever one house of Parliament passes a bill and the other rejects it, or The bill
was sent to the other House and sat there for more than six months before it was passed. When the house
is prorogued or adjourned for more than four days in a row, those days are not taken into account when
calculating the six-month period.
Who Presides the Joint Sitting?

➢ Joint Sitting is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence by the Deputy
Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence, the Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
➢ In no case, the joint sitting is presided over by the chairman of the Rajya Sabha Quorum Required
for Joint Sitting.
➢ The Quorum required for a joint sitting is one-tenth of the total number of members of the two
houses. Joint Sitting is governed by the rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha and not by Rajya Sabha.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: No such amendment can be proposed to the appropriation bill in either
house of the Parliament that will have the effect of varying the amount oral tering the destination of
any grant voted, or of varying the amount of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of
India. Other minor amendments can be proposed.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Appropriation Act authorizes the withdrawal of amount from the
Consolidated Fund of India.
• Statement 3 in correct: After the Appropriation Act, passage of finance bill completes the process
of Budget enactment.
▪ Budget and Constitutional Provisions
According to Article 112 of the Indian Constitution, the Union Budget of a year is referred to as the
Annual Financial Statement (AFS).
➢ It is a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government in a financial year
(which begins on 01 April of the current year and ends on 31 March of the following year). In
addition to it, the Budget contains:
➢ Estimates of revenue and capital receipts,
➢ Ways and means to raise the revenue,
➢ Estimates of expenditure,
➢ Details of the actual receipts and expenditure of the closing financial year and the reasons for any
deficit or surplus in that year, and
➢ The economic and financial policy of the coming year, i.e., taxation proposals, prospects of revenue,
spending programme and introduction of new schemes/projects.
In Parliament, the Budget goes through six stages:
1. Presentation of Budget.
2. General discussion.
3. Scrutiny by Departmental Committees.
4. Voting on Demands for Grants.
5. Passing of Appropriation Bill.
6. Passing of Finance Bill.
The Budget Division of the Department of Economic Affairs in the Finance Ministry is the nodal body
responsible for preparing the Budget.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: A starred question requires an oral answer and hence supplementary
questions can follow.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written reply and
hence cannot be followed by supplementary questions.
• Statement 3 is correct: A member may give a notice of question on a matter of public importance
and of urgent character for oral answer at a notice less than 10 days prescribed as the minimum
period of notice for asking a question in ordinary course. Such a question is known as Short Notice
Question.
Question Hour: The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for this. During this time, the
members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers. The questions are of three kinds,
namely, starred, unstarred and short notice.
▪ A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary
questions can follow.
▪ An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary
questions cannot follow.
▪ A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered
orally.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 & 3 are correct: Right to decent environment including pollution free water and air
and protection against hazardous industries is part of Article 21.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: While water supplies, irrigation and canals, drainage and embankments
and storage fall in the State List, issues like development of inter-state rivers come under the Union
List.
• Statement 3 is correct: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute with
respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
Inter State River Water Dispute-Constitutional Provisions
➢ Entry 17 of State List deals with water i.e. water supply, irrigation, canal, drainage, embankments,
water storage and water power.
➢ Entry 56 of Union List empowers the Union Government for the regulation and development of
inter-state rivers and river valleys to the extent declared by
➢ Parliament to be expedient in the public interest.
According to Article 262, in case of disputes relating to waters:
➢ Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the
use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley.
➢ Parliament may, by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise
jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as mentioned above.
➢ Mechanism for Inter-State River Water Disputes Resolution
➢ The resolution of water dispute is governed by the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.
According to its provisions, if a State Government makes a request regarding any water dispute and
the Central Government is of opinion that the water dispute cannot be settled by negotiations, then a
Water Disputes Tribunal is constituted for the adjudication of the water dispute.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The decision on questions as to disqualification on ground of defection are
referred to the Chairman or the Speaker of such House, which is subject to Judicial review. However,
the law does not provide a timeframe within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection
case. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Tenth Schedule – popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act – was
included in the Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Statement 3 is correct: The members disqualified under the law can stand for elections from any
political party for a seat in the same House. Recently Maharashtra Government went through the
crisis of Party Split and formation of new government by defection of MLAs of Shiv sena Party.
Provisions Under the Anti-Defection Law
Grounds for disqualification: A member can be disqualified if:
➢ A member of a house belonging to a political party Voluntarily gives up the membership of his
political party, or Votes, or does not vote in the legislature, contrary to the directions of his political
party (Whip). However, if the member has taken prior permission, or is condoned by the party within
15 days from such voting or abstention, the member shall not be disqualified.
➢ An independent candidate joins a political party after the election.
➢ A nominated member joins a party six months after he becomes a member of the legislature.
Power to Disqualify:
✓ The decision on disqualification questions on the ground of defection is referred to the Speaker or
the Chairman of the House, whose decision is final.
✓ If a complaint is received regarding the defection of the Chairman or the Speaker, a member of the
House who must be elected within the House, shall take the decision.
✓ All proceedings in relation to disqualification under this Schedule are considered to be proceedings
in Parliament or the Legislature of a state as is the case.
Advantages and Issues with the Anti-Defection Law:
Advantages
➢ It prevents the menace of political party members from shifting their allegiances.
➢ Ensures party loyalty among the elected members.
➢ Provides for a stable and secure Government at both national and state levels.
Exceptions
➢ If two-thirds of the elected members of a political party decide to merge into another party, neither
the members who decide to join nor the ones who stay with the original party will face
disqualification.
➢ Any person elected as Chairman or a Speaker can resign from his party, and rejoin the party if he
abandons that post.
➢ Earlier, the splitting of political parties was permitted, but currently, it is not allowed.
➢ Nominated members who are not members of any party can choose to join a party within six months;
after which they are treated as a party member or an independent member.
Issues
➢ Reduces the accountability of the Government by preventing shifting of allegiances.
➢ By curbing dissent among the party members, it intrudes upon the members’ right to freedom of
speech and expression.
➢ This Law also undermines the member’s potential to be an effective legislator.
➢ The issuance of party whips reduces a member of the legislature to a mere voting entity in the House.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Delimitation is carried out by an independent Delimitation Commission.
The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with
the Election Commission of India.
• Statement 2 is correct: he Commission is supposed to determine the number and boundaries of
constituencies in a way that the population of all seats, so far as practicable, is the same. The
Commission is also tasked with identifying seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes; these are where their population is relatively large.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution mandates that Delimitation Commission's orders are
final and cannot be questioned before any court.
Delimitation Commission:
➢ Under Article 82, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census.
➢ Under Article 170, States also get divided into territorial constituencies as per Delimitation Act after
every Census.
➢ Once the Act is in force, the Union government sets up a Delimitation Commission.
➢ The first delimitation exercise was carried out by the President (with the help of the Election
➢ Commission) in 1950-51.
➢ The Delimitation Commission Act was enacted in 1952.
➢ Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times — 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 under the Acts
of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
➢ There was no delimitation after the 1981 and 1991 Censuses.
➢ The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with
the Election Commission of India.
Composition:
❖ Retired Supreme Court judge
❖ Chief Election Commissioner
❖ Respective State Election Commissioners
Functions:
❖ To determine the number and boundaries of constituencies to make population of all constituencies
nearly equal.
❖ To identify seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, wherever their population is
relatively large.
❖ In case of difference of opinion among members of the Commission, the opinion of the majority
prevails.
❖ The Delimitation Commission in India is a high power body whose orders have the force of law and
cannot be called in question before any court.
Current Position of Delimitation:
❖ In the 2009 General elections, 499 out of total 543 Parliamentary constituencies were newly
delimited constituencies.
❖ This affected the National Capital Region of Delhi, The Union territory of Puducherry and all other
states except J&K, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Jharkhand, Manipur and Nagaland.
21. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: It is a term used for the test of the majority in the House of Parliament or
State Legislature.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Some legislators may be absent or choose not to vote. The numbers are
then considered based only on those MLAs who were present to vote.
What is a Floor Test?
➢ It is a term used for the test of the majority. If there are doubts against the Chief Minister (CM) of a
State, he/she can be asked to prove the majority in the House.
➢ In case of a coalition government, the CM may be asked to move a vote of confidence and win a
majority. In the absence of a clear majority, when there is more than one individual staking claim to
form the government, the Governor may call for a special session to see who has the majority to
form the government.
What are the Constitutional Provisions related to the Governor in calling for a Floor Test?
➢ Article 174 of the Constitution authorizes the Governor to summon, dissolve and prorogue the state
legislative assembly. Article 174(2)(b) of the Constitution gives powers to the Governor to dissolve
the Assembly on the aid and advice of the cabinet. However, the Governor can apply his mind when
the advice comes from a Chief Minister whose majority could be in doubt.
➢ According to Article 175(2), the Governor can summon the House and call for a floor test to prove
whether the government has the numbers.
➢ However, the Governor can exercise the above only as per Article 163 of the Constitution which says that
the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
➢ When the House is in session, it is the Speaker who can call for a floor test. But when the Assembly
is not in session, the Governor‘s residuary powers under Article 163 allow him to call for a floor test.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 2 is correct: A member can be disqualified if he is of unsound mind and stands so
declared by a court.
• Statement 2 is correct: A member can be disqualified if he is not a citizen of India or has
voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: He must not have been convicted for promoting enmity between different
groups or for the offence of bribery.
Under the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as and for being a Member
of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a state:
➢ if he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any
other office exempted by state legislature),
➢ if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court,
➢ if he is an undischarged insolvent,
➢ if he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under
any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state, and
➢ if he is so disqualified under any law made by the Parliament.
Accordingly, the Parliament has prescribed a number of additional disqualifications in the
Representation of People Act (1951). These are similar to those for Parliament. These are
mentioned here:
➢ He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections.
➢ He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years.
But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification.
➢ He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time.
➢ He must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
➢ He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the
government has at least 25 per cent share.
➢ He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the state.
➢ He must not have been convicted for promoting enmity between different groups or for the offence
of bribery.
➢ He must not have been punished for preaching and practising social crimes, such as untouchability,
dowry and sati.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Governor Cannot Pardon a Death Sentence. Only The President can
grant pardon in all cases where the sentence given is the sentence of death but the pardoning power
of the Governor does not extend to death sentence cases.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Governor cannot grant pardon in respect to punishment or sentence by a
court-martial. Court Martial: Only The power of the President to grant pardon extends in cases
where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial but Article 161 does not provide any such
power to the Governor.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Governor can pardon the sentence of any person convicted of any
offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the state extends.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
➢ Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) held that the Governor's power to pardon overrides Section 433A
of Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). SC held that the Governor of a State can pardon prisoners,
even before they have served a minimum 14 years of prison sentence.
➢ The Governor's power to pardon overrides a provision in the CrPC Section 433A which mandates
that a prisoner's sentence can be remitted only after 14 years of jail.
➢ Section 433A states that where a sentence of imprisonment for life is imposed on conviction of a
person for an offence for which death is one of the punishments provided by law, or where a
sentence of death imposed on a person has been commuted under section 433 into one of
imprisonment for life, such person shall not be released from prison unless he had served at least
fourteen years of imprisonment.
➢ Section 433-A cannot and does not in any way affect the constitutional power conferred on the
President/Governor to grant pardon under Articles 72 or 161 of the Constitution.
Power Exercised by State Government:
▪ The court noted that the sovereign power of a Governor to pardon a prisoner under Article 161 is
actually exercised by the State government and not the Governor on his own.
▪ The advice of the appropriate government binds the Head of the State.
Order of Commutation:
✓ The action of commutation and release can thus be pursuant to a governmental decision and the
order may be issued even without the Governor's approval. However, under the Rules of Business
and as a matter of constitutional courtesy, it may seek approval of the Governor, if such release is
under Article 161 of the Constitution.
✓ The state government can frame a policy of grant of remissions either under Section 432 of the CrPC
or under Article 161 of the Constitution.
✓ If a prisoner has undergone more than 14 years of actual imprisonment, the state government, as an
appropriate Government, is competent to pass an order of premature release.
✓ Section 432 of the Code of Criminal Procedure empowers the Government to remit sentence.
Governor's Pardoning Power: Article 161:
❖ The Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of
punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence
against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
KEY TERMINOLOGIES:
➢ Pardon: It removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from
all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.
➢ Commutation: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For
example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be
commuted to a simple imprisonment.
➢ Remission: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a
sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year.
➢ Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some
special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
➢ Reprieve: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary
period. Its purpose is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or commutation.
24. Answer: (A) Only one Statement is incorrect.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: President of India in "concurrence" with the "Jammu and Kashmir
government" promulgated Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019 which
states that provisions of the Indian Constitution are applicable in the State. This effectively means
that all the provisions that formed the basis of a separate Constitution for Jammu and Kashmir stand
abrogated. With this, Article 35A is scrapped automatically.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 370 had "temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu
and Kashmir" which gave special powers to the state allowing it to have its own Constitution.
However, there was no such provision regarding maintenance of state infantry.
• Statement 3 is correct: With the bifurcation, Ladakh will cease to be a part of Jammu and Kashmir.
The region will now be a Union Territory without legislature. Ladakh will continue to vote in
parliamentary elections but not for MLAs.
Abrogation of Article 370:
❖ The Constitution (Implementation to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019 was issued on 5 August 2019
by the President of India in the exercise of the powers conferred by Clause (1) of Article 370 of the
Indian Constitution, and the special status granted to Jammu and Kashmir was repealed, through the
Abrogation of Article 370.
Legislative powers of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir:
➢ The legislature may make laws for the entire or any a part of the Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir with reference to any of the matters enumerated within the state list except on subjects
―public order‖ and ―police‖ which can remain within the domain of the Centre vis-a-vis the LG.
➢ In case of inconsistencies between laws made by Parliament and laws made by the legislature, earlier
law shall prevail and law made by the legislature shall be void.
➢ The role of the Chief Minister is going to be to speak to the L-G all decisions of the Council of
Ministers concerning the administration of affairs of the Union Territory and proposals for
legislation and to furnish such information concerning the administration of affairs because the L-G
may involve.
Role and powers of the Lieutenant Governor:
➢ The Bill specifies that the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and therefore the Union Territory
of Ladakh will have a standard elected official.
➢ L-G appointment in Ladakh: The President shall appoint the L-G under article 239. The L-G is going
to be assisted by advisors appointed by the Centre since the Union Territory won't have a legislature.
➢ In the case of Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, the L-G shall ―act in his discretion‖ on issues
which fall outside the purview of powers conferred on the Legislative Assembly, during which he's
required to exercise any judicial functions, and/or matters associated with All India services and
therefore the Anti-Corruption Bureau
➢ The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the L-G who also will appoint other ministers with the help
of the CM. The L-G shall also administer the oath of office and of secrecy to ministers and therefore
the CM.
➢ The L-G will have the facility to promulgate ordinances which shall have an equivalent force and
effect as an act of the legislature assented by the L-G.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: A three tier system of the ministry was established: with the Cabinet
Ministers at the top, the Ministers of the State at the middle and the Deputy Ministers in the lowest
rank.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Cabinet acts as the connecting link between the executive and the
legislative.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Minister of State attends the Cabinet meetings only when specially
invited to do so in connection with the subject that he/she is given charge of.
• The term 'Cabinet' is used interchangeably with that of the Council of Ministers. But they are
different. The Council of Ministers, or the Ministry, consists of different categories of ministers. At
the time of independence, there was no such institution as a Cabinet in India. What existed then was
the Executive Council. On 15th August, 1947, the Executive Council was transformed into a
Ministry or Council of Ministers, that is responsible to the Parliament.
• The term Cabinet was added to the Constitution by 44th Constitutional Amendment.
• The term 'Cabinet' was used thereafter as an alternative to the Council of Ministers. At this stage, all
the members of the Ministry or the Cabinet, except the Prime Minister, had the same status. But, the
situation changed once junior ministers were appointed to the Council of Ministers. In 1950, based
on the recommendations of the Gopal swamy Ayyangar' s Report
• The Cabinet, composed of the 'senior most ministers', whose responsibilities transcended
departmental boundaries into the entire field of administration, is a smaller body and the most
powerful body in the government.
The Cabinet serves three major functions:
❖ It is the body which determines government policy for presentation to the Parliament;
❖ It is responsible for implementing government policy; and
❖ It carries out interdepartmental coordination and cooperation.
▪ The Cabinet meets regularly, as it is a decision-making body. It is assisted by the Cabinet Secretariat,
that is headed by a senior member of the Civil Services, the Cabinet Secretary. To manage the
volumes and complexities of work that comes before it, the Cabinet members have developed
Standing and Ad hoc Committees.
▪ The Ministers of State, who hold independent charge of individual ministries and perform the same
functions and exercise the same powers as a Cabinet Minister.
▪ The only difference between such a Minister of State and a Cabinet Minister is that he/she is not a
member of the Cabinet, but attends the Cabinet meetings only when specially invited to do so in
connection with the subject that he/she is given charge of. There are other Ministers of State who
work directly under the Cabinet Ministers.
At the bottom of the hierarchy are the Deputy Ministers, who do not have any specific administrative
responsibilities. But, their duties include:
(i) Answering of the questions in the Parliament on behalf of the ministers concerned and helping to
pilot Bills,
(ii) Explaining the policies and programmes to the general public and maintaining liaison with the
members of the Parliament, political parties and the press, and
(iii) Undertaking special study or investigation of particular problems, which may be assigned to them
by particular minister. From the above, it is clear that the Cabinet is the nucleus of the Council of
Ministers. Precisely because of this reason Walter Bagehot calls the Cabinet 'the greatest committee
of the legislature'. It is the 'connecting link between the executive and the legislative power'.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The President while exercising the pardoning power, does not sit as a
court of appeal. So he need not hear a petition for mercy before rejecting it.
• Statement 2 and 3 are correct: Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant
pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of any offence in all cases where the:
➢ Punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union Law;
➢ Punishment or sentence is by a court martial (military court); and
➢ Sentence is a sentence of death
Pardoning Power of the President in India:
• Under Article 72 of the Constitution, the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves,
respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person
convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death.
Limitation:
• The President cannot exercise his power of pardon independent of the government. In several cases,
the Supreme Court (SC) has ruled that the President has to act on the advice of the Council of
Ministers while deciding mercy pleas. These include Maru Ram vs Union of India in 1980, and
Dhananjoy Chatterjee vs State of West Bengal in 1994.
Procedure:
• Rashtrapati Bhawan forwards the mercy plea to the Home Ministry, seeking the Cabinet's advice.
The Ministry in turn forwards this to the concerned state government; based on the reply, it
formulates its advice on behalf of the Council of Ministers.
Reconsideration:
• Although the President is bound by the Cabinet's advice, Article74 (1) empowers him to return it for
reconsideration once. If the Council of Ministers decides against any change, the President has no
option but to accept it.
27. Answer: (A) Only two Statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: There is no such emoluments for the vice president in that capacity. He
draws his salary in his capacity as the ex officio chairman of the RajyaSabha, only the US vice
president acts as the chairman of the Senate.
• Statement 2 is correct: There is no such office as that of the vice president of India in other
parliamentary systems governments in Common wealth countries.
• Statement 3 is correct: The election of vice president is held in accordance with the system of
proportional representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote and voting is by secret ballot.
The members of LokSabha and RajyaSabha participate in his election.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The vice president of India does not assume the office of president when it
falls vacant for the unexpired term. He merely serves as an acting President and till the new
President assume charge.
• Statement 5 is incorrect: electoral college of Vice - President consists of both elected and
nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of president, only elected members). It does not
include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members
of the state legislative assemblies are included).
How the Vice President is elected in India?
• There is no direct election for the Vice-President of India however, he/she is indirectly elected by an
Electoral College. The election process is quite similar to that of the President of India but the
electoral college that elects President is different from the electoral college responsible for the
election of Vice-President of India.
The difference between the electoral college that elects President and the one electing Vice-
President of India is given below:
• In electoral college for Vice President, both elected and nominated members of both the Houses of
Parliament take part. In presidential elections, nominated members are not a part of the electoral
college.
• For Vice President's elections, states have no role to play unlike in President's elections where state
legislative assemblies' elected members are a part of the electoral college.
Who is qualified to become Vice President of India?
• An Indian Citizen who has completed 35 years of age is qualified to become the Vice-President of
India given, he is also qualified to be a Rajya Sabha member. However, he should not be a member
of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha and if he is elected as Vice President when he has a seat in either
of the house, he is deemed to have vacated that seat on his first day in the office. He also is not
allowed to hold any office of profit under union government, state government, public authority and
local authority. The following people are also qualified to become the Vice President of India:
Sitting President of India; Sitting Vice President of India; Governor of State; MPs/MLAs
What is the term of office of Vice President?
• From the date, he enters his office, Vice President holds the position for five years. However, he can
resign before five years by handing over his resignation to the President. The other ways where a
vacancy is created in the office of Vice President are given below: When he completes his term of
five years; When he resigns; When he is removed; On his death; When his election is declared void
Is Vice President also impeached as President of India?
• No, unlike President of India who can be impeached formally; there is no formal impeachment for
Vice President. Rajya Sabha simply can pass a resolution with a majority and Lok Sabha can pass it.
Also, unlike President of India who can be impeached on the ground of 'Violation of Constitution,'
there is no ground mentioned in the constitution for the removal of Vice President of India. Supreme
Court decides election disputes related to the office of Vice President.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Parliament has power to make laws with respect to any matter for any part
of the territory of India not included [in a State] notwithstanding that such matter is a matter
enumerated in the State List.
• Statement 2 is correct: Parliament has the exclusive power of making any law imposing a tax not
mentioned in either State list or Concurrent List. (Parliament has exclusive powers to levy residuary
taxes)
• Statement 3 is correct: The Government of India may by agreement with the Government of any
territory not being part of the territory of India undertake any executive, legislative or judicial
functions vested in the Government of such territory, but every such agreement shall be subject to,
and governed by, any law relating to the exercise of foreign jurisdiction for the time being in force.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Privilege motion is concerned with the breach of parliamentary privileges
by a Minister by giving wrong or distorted facts. Its purpose is to censure the concerned minister.
• Statement 2 is correct: Adjournment motion is introduced to draw the attention of the house to a
definite matter of urgent public importance. It involves an element of censure against the government
and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Censure motion can be moved against an individual Minister or group of
ministers for the entire Council of Ministers. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of
Ministers do not have to resign from the office.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: No confidence motion need not have to state the reasons for its adoption
in Lok Sabha. If it is passed in the Loks abha, the Council of Ministers must resign from the office.
➢ No-Confidence Motion: Article 75 of the Constitution says that the council of ministers shall be
collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. It means that the ministry stays in office so long as it
enjoys confidence of the majority of the members of the Lok Sabha. In other words, the Lok Sabha
can remove the ministry from office by passing a no-confidence motion. The motion needs the
support of 50 members to be admitted.
➢ Privilege Motion: It is concerned with the breach of parliamentary privileges by a minister. It is
moved by a member when he feels that a minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House
or one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts.
Its purpose is to censure the concerned minister.
➢ Motion of Thanks: The first session after each general election and the first session of every fiscal
year is addressed by the president. In this address, the president outlines the policies and programmes
of the government in the preceding year and ensuing year. This address of the president, which
corresponds to the 'speech from the Throne in Britain', is discussed in both the Houses of Parliament
on a motion called the 'Motion of Thanks'. At the end of the discussion, the motion is put to vote.
This motion must be passed in the House. Otherwise, it amounts to the defeat of the government.
This inaugural speech of the president is an occasion available to the members of Parliament to raise
discussions and debates to ex-amine and criticize the government and administration for its lapses
and failures.
➢ Calling Attention Motion: It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of a
minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an authoritative statement from him on
that matter. Like the zero hour, it is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has
been in existence since 1954. However, unlike the zero hour, it is mentioned in the Rules of
Procedure.
➢ No-Day-Yet-Named-Motion: It is a motion that has been admitted by the Speaker but no date has
been fixed for its discussion. The Speaker, after considering the state of business in the House and in
consultation with the leader of the House or on the recommendation of the Business Advisory
Committee, allots a day or days or part of a day for the discussion of such a motion.
➢ Censure Motion: It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. It can be moved
against an individual minister or a group of ministers or the entire council of ministers. It is moved
for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. If it is passed in the Lok
Sabha, the council of ministers need not resign from the office.
➢ Special Mention: A matter which is not a point of order or which cannot be raised during question
hour, half-an hour discussion, short duration discussion or under adjournment motion, calling
attention notice or under any rule of the House can be raised under the special mention in the Rajya
Sabha. Its equivalent procedural device in the Lok Sabha is known as 'Notice (Mention) Under Rule
377.
➢ Adjournment Motion: When there is an urgent matter of public importance then a member may
propose that the business of the house be adjourned for discussing that matter. This motion can be
moved only with the consent of the Speaker. Generally, such motions are discussed in the afternoon
at 4.00 p.m.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Governor of a state may with the consent of the central government,
entrust to that government any of the executive function of the state.
• Statement 2 is correct: The President can entrust the executive function of the centre to a state with
its consent.
• Statement 3 is correct: The distribution of executive power in general follows the distribution of
legislative powers.
Centre-State Relations
➢ The distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the states is rigid. Consequently, the
Centre cannot delegate its legislative powers to the states and a single state cannot request the
Parliament to make a law on a state subject.
➢ The distribution of executive power in general follows the distribution of legislative powers. But,
such a rigid division in the executive sphere may lead to occasional conflicts between the two.
Hence, the Constitution provides for inter-government delegation of executive functions in order to
mitigate rigidity and avoid a situation of deadlock.
➢ Accordingly, the President may, with the consent of the state government, entrust to that government
any of the executive functions of the Centre.
➢ Conversely, the governor of a state may, with the consent of the Central government, entrust to that
government any of the executive functions of the state.
➢ This mutual delegation of administrative functions may be conditional or unconditional.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to
directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. In normal
times, the Centre can give executive directions to a state only on certain specified matters
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The laws made by Parliament on the state subjects during a National
Emergency become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased to operate. Notably,
while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the President can issue ordinances on the
state subjects also, if the Parliament is not in session
• Statement 3 is correct: According to Article 358, when a proclamation of national emergency is
made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. No separate order
for their suspension is required
Effects of national emergency
Effects on the centre-state relations: While a proclamation of Emergency is in force, the normal fabric of
the Centre- State relations undergoes a basic change. This can be studied under three heads:
Executive: Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on 'any' matter
Legislative: The parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state
list, the president can issue ordinances on State subjects also, if the parliament is not in session. The laws
made on state subjects by the parliament become inoperative six months after the emergency has ceased
to be in operation.
Financial: The president can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the centre and
the states.
Effect on the life of the Lok Sabha and State Assembly:
➢ While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok Sabha may be
extended beyond the normal term for one year at a time. However, this extension cannot continue
beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.
➢ Similarly, the Parliament may extend the normal tenure of a state Legislative Assembly by one year
each time during a national emergency, subject to a maximum period of six months after the
emergency has ceased to operate.
Effect on fundamental rights: Articles 358 and 359 describes the effect of a National Emergency on the
Fundamental Rights:
➢ Suspension of Fundamental rights under Article 19: According to Article 358, when a proclamation
of National Emergency is made, the six fundamental rights under article 19 are automatically
suspended. Article 19 is automatically revived after the expiry of the emergency.
➢ The 44th Amendment Act laid out that Article 19 can only be suspended when the National
Emergency is laid on the grounds of war or external aggression and not in the case of armed
rebellion.
➢ Suspension of other Fundamental Rights: Under Article 359, the President is authorised to suspend,
by order, the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National
Emergency. Thus, remedial measures are suspended and not the Fundamental Rights.
➢ The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the
Presidential Order.
➢ The suspension could be for the period during the operation of emergency or for a shorter period.
➢ The Order should be laid before each House of Parliament for approval.
➢ The 44 Amendment Act mandates that the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for
the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 20 and 21.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The Parliament may legislate on the State Subjects in some special
cases. Parliament's Power to Legislate on State List: Though under ordinary circumstances the
Central Government does not possess power to legislate on subjects enumerated in the State List, but
under certain special conditions the Union Parliament can make laws even on these subjects.
➢ In the National Interest (Art.249): If the Rajya Sabha declares by a resolution supported by not less
than 2/3 of its members present and voting, that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest
that the Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List
(Art.249). After such a resolution is passed, Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of
the territory of India. Such a resolution remains in force for a period of 1 year and can be further
extended by one year by means of a subsequent resolution.
➢ Under Proclamation of National Emergency (Art.250): Parliament can legislate on the subjects
mentioned in the State List when the Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation. However,
the laws made by the Parliament under this provision shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a
period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate, except as respects things done or
omitted to be done before the expiry of the said period.
➢ By Agreement between States (Art. 252): The Parliament can also legislate on a State subject if the
legislatures of two or more states resolve that it is lawful of Parliament to make laws with respect to
any matter enumerated in the State List relating to those State. Thereafter, any act passed by the
Parliament shall apply to such states and to any other state which passes such a resolution. The
Parliament also reserves the right to amend or repeal any such act.
➢ To Implement Treaties (Art. 253): The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of the
territory of India for implementing any treaty, international agreement or convention with any other
country or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body.
Any law passed by the Parliament for this purpose cannot be invalidated on the ground that it relates
to the subject mentioned in the State list.
➢ Under Proclamation of President's Rule (Art.356): The President can also authorize the
Parliament to exercise the powers of the State legislature during the Proclamation of President's Rule
due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state. But all such laws passed by the Parliament
cease to operate six months after the Proclamation of President's Rule comes to an end.
• Statement 3 is correct: Center's control over State Legislation: The Constitution empowers the
centre to exercise control over the state's legislature in following ways: The governor can reserve
certain types of bills passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President. The
President enjoys absolute veto over them. Bills on certain matters enumerated in the State List can
be introduced in the state legislature only with the previous sanction of the President as imposing
restrictions on freedom of trade and commerce. The President can direct the states to reserve money
bills and other financial bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration during a financial
emergency.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: As sub-clause (c)shall cease to operate at the expiration of 2 months,
unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both the
Houses of the Parliament Provided that if any such Proclamation is issued at a time when the
House of the People has been dissolved or the dissolution of the House of the People takes place
during the period of 2 months referred to in sub-clause (c), and if a resolution approving the
Proclamation has been passed by the Council of States, but no resolution with respect to such
Proclamation has been passed by the House of the People before the expiration of that period, the
Proclamation shall cease to operate at the expiration of 30 days from the date on which the House of
the People first sits after its reconstitution, unless before the expiration of the said period of 30 days
a resolution approving the Proclamation has been also passed by the House of the People.
During the period any such Proclamation, as is mentioned in clause (1), is in operation, the executive
authority of the Union shall extend to the giving of the directions to any state to observe such canons
of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions, and to the giving of such other directions
as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Money Bills can be reserved for the consideration of the President
before they are passed by the Legislature of the state.
• Financial Emergency: Article 360 If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby
the financial stability or credit of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, he may,
by a Proclamation, make a declaration to that effect.
A Proclamation issued under clause (1)
(a)may be revoked or varied by a subsequent Proclamation;
(b)Shall be laid before each House of the Parliament;
(ii)a provision requiring all Money Bills or other Bills, to which the provisions of Article 207 apply, to
be reserved for the consideration of the President, after they are passed by the Legislature of the state;
• Statement 3 is incorrect: (a)any such direction may include at the time Financial emergency:
(i)a provision requiring the reduction of the salaries and the allowances of all or any class of persons
serving in connection with the affairs of a state.
(b)it shall be competent for the President during the period any Proclamation issued under this Article is
in operation to issue the directions for the reduction of the salaries and the allowances of all or any class
of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the judges of the Supreme
Court and the High Courts.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: This emergency is imposed due to failure of the constitutional machinery.
It is known as President’s rule, state emergency, or ‘Constitutional emergency’. The constitution
does not use the term emergency in this context though it implies the same meaning.
• Statement 2 is correct: Upon the imposition of this rule, there would be no Council of Ministers.
Parliament can delegate the power to make laws for the state to the President or to any other authority
specified by him in this regard Parliament or in case of delegation. The president or any other specified
authority can make laws conferring powers and imposing duties on the centre or its officers and authorities.
Hence, the State administration runs even without Council of Ministers and legislators.
• Statement 3 is correct: A proclamation of President’s Rule may be revoked by the President at any
time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.
Emergency Provisions
Emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the constitution, from articles 352 to 360
These provisions have been included to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity and security of the
country, the democratic political system and the constitution
During emergency, central government becomes all powerful and states are in the complete control of
the union.
The federal structure becomes unitary without a formal amendment to the constitution
Types of classification under Constitution:
Article 352: An emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion. This is famously
referred to as National Emergency. However, the constitution refers to this using the expression
proclamation of emergency’ to denote an emergency like this
Article356: This emergency is imposed due to failure of the constitutional machinery. It is known as
President’s rule, state emergency, or ‘Constitutional emergency’
Article 360: This is imposed when there is a threat to the financial stability or credit of India. (Financial
emergency)
President Rule: Article 355 imposes a duty on the centre to ensure that the government of every state is
carried out in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. It is to fulfill this duty that centre takes
over the administration of a state under article 356 in case of failure of constitutional machinery in state
President’s rule under article 356 can be imposed on two grounds:
Article 356 empowers the President of India to issue a proclamation if he is satisfied that administration
of a state cannot be carried out in the present circumstance under the constitutional framework.
Notably, while issuing such a proclamation, the President can act based upon a report of the governor or
also without any receipt of such a report of the governor
Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from
centre, it will be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of
the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution.
Parliamentary approval and duration
Proclamation related to this must be approved by both the houses of parliament within two months
from the date of its issue. If the LS is not in session or has been dissolved then the proclamation
continues until 30 days from the first sitting of the LS after its reconstitution, provided RS has approved
it in the meantime
➢ If the proclamation is approved, then it continues for six months. It can extend for a period of three
years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months
➢ Every resolution approving the proclamation and its extension should be passed by a simple
majority.
➢ Beyond one year, the President’s rule can be extended by six months at a time only when the
following conditions are met: (Introduced by 44th amendment act)
➢ A proclamation of national emergency should be in operation in the whole of India, or in the whole
or any part of the state; and
➢ Election Commission must certify that the general elections to the legislative assembly of the
concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties.
➢ President can discontinue the proclamation by issuing another proclamation to this effect. No
parliamentary approval is required for that.
Powers acquired by the President during this time:
✓ He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other
executive authority in the state.
✓ He can declare that the powers of the state legislature could be exercised by the parliament.
✓ He can suspend constitutional provisions relating to anyone or authority in the state.
✓ During the imposition of this emergency, the council of minister headed by Chief Minister is
dismissed, while the state legislative assembly could either be suspended or dissolved.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Constitution makes a distinction between the power to levy
taxes and the power to appropriate them. There is no concurrent jurisdiction in the matter of
taxation.
• Statement 2 is correct: There is no concurrent jurisdiction in the matter of taxation. Taxes on the
residual subjects are exclusively under the Union's jurisdiction. This is a major imbalance in
federalism.
• Statement 3 is correct: Like the legislative and the executive powers, the financial powers are
divided between the Union and the states in such a detailed and complicated way that most
commentators on the Indian federal system have chosen to use the phrase 'financial relations', rather
than the 'division of financial power'. This is mainly due to two reasons. Politically speaking, the
revenues of the Union are far greater than the revenues of the states, making the states dependent on
the federal subsidies.
The properties of the Union, and the purchase and storage of water and electricity by the Union
are free from taxation of a state. The properties and income of a state is, on the other hand, free from
Union taxation. Any tax imposed by a state on a Union property, before the commencement of the
Constitution, would continue to be collected by the state, until the Parliament otherwise provides.
Further, the Parliament, by law, may provide for the imposition of tax on a trade or business carried on
by a state.
Financial Relations between Centre and State Art. 268 to 293
• The Indian Constitution has elaborate provisions regarding the distribution of revenues between the
Union and the States. Article 268 to 293 in Part XII deal with the financial relations. The financial
relations between the Union and the States can be studied under the following heads:
➢ Taxes and duties levied by the Union, but collected and appropriated by the States: Stamp duties and
duties of excise on medical and toilet preparations are levied by the Government of India, but
collected and appropriated by the States, within which such duties are leviable, except in the Union
Territories, where they are collected by the Union Government (Art. 268).
➢ The proceeds of these duties levied within any State are assigned to that State only and do not form a
part of Consolidated Fund of India.
➢ Service tax levied by the Centre, but collected and appropriated by the Centre and the States: Taxes
on services are levied by the Centre, but their proceeds are collected and appropriated by both the
Centre and the States. Principles of their collection and appropriations are formulated by the
Parliament.
Some Taxes which are levied and collected by the Union, but assigned to the States within which
(Art.269):
▪ Succession duty in respect of property, other than agricultural land.
▪ Estate duty in respect of property, other than agricultural land.
▪ Terminal taxes on goods or passengers carried by railways, sea or air.
36. Answer: (A) Only one Statement is incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: 5 Zonal Councils were established as per the States Reorganisation Act,
1956.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-
Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year
at a time.
• Statement 3 is correct: 3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep are not members of any
of the Zonal Councils.
Zonal councils
Statutory bodies established under the States Reorganization Act 1956 and not constitutional bodies.
They are only deliberative and advisory bodies.
Aim: to promote inter state cooperation and coordination.
There are 5 five Zonal councils namely:
➢ The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu &
Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh.
➢ The Central Zonal Council,comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and
Madhya Pradesh.
➢ The Eastern Zonal Council,comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, and West Bengal.
➢ The Western Zonal Council,comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union
Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
➢ •The Southern Zonal Council,comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka,
Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
The North Eastern States i.e. (i)Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v)
Mizoram(vi) Meghalaya (vii) Sikkim and (viii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils and
their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North
Eastern Council Act, 1972.
Composition:
➢ Chairman - The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.
➢ Vice Chairman - The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of
the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.
➢ Members- Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the
States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone.
➢ Advisers- One person nominated by the Planning Commission (which has been replaced by NITI
Ayog now) for each of the Zonal Councils, Chief Secretaries and another officer/Development
Commissioner nominated by each of the States included in the Zone. Union Ministers are also
invited to participate in the meetings of Zonal Councils depending upon necessity.
The main objectives of setting up of Zonal Councils are:
➢ Bringing out national integration.
➢ Arresting the growth of acute State consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic tendencies.
➢ Enabling the Centre and the States to co-operate and exchange ideas and experiences.
➢ Establishing a climate of co-operation amongst the States for successful and speedy execution of
development projects.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The bill provides for Dispute Resolution Committee (DRC)to be
established by the Central Government before referring dispute to the tribunal, to resolve the
Dispute amicably by negotiations within one year (extendable by six months).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The bill provides for establishment of a single Inter-State River Water
Disputes Tribunal by the Central Government, which can have multiple benches.
• Statement 3 is correct: Under the 1956 Act, the decision of the Tribunal must be published by the
central government in the official gazette. This decision has the same force as that of an order of the
Supreme Court. The amendment bill removes the requirement of publication of decision in the
official gazette. It adds that the decision of the Bench of the Tribunal will be final and binding on the
parties involved in the dispute.
• Under the act, Disputes Resolution Committee (DRC) will be setup to resolve the inter-state river
water disputes through negotiations, within one year (which can be extendable by 6 months). The
DRC will submit its report to the union government. If the dispute is not settled by the DRC, the
union government will refer the matter to the Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal.
Features of the bill
• Disputes Resolution Committee: The Bill requires the central government to set up a Disputes
Resolution Committee (DRC), for resolving any inter-state water dispute amicably. The DRC will
get a period of one year, extendable by six months, to submit its report to the central government.
Members of DRC: Members of the DRC will be from relevant fields, as deemed fit by the central
government.
Tribunal:
• The Bill proposes to setup an Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal, for adjudication of water
disputes, if a dispute is not resolved through the DRC. This tribunal can have multiple benches. All
existing tribunals will be dissolved and the water disputes pending adjudication before such existing
tribunals will be transferred to this newly formed tribunal.
Composition of the Tribunal: The tribunal shall consist of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and not
more than six nominated members (judges of the Supreme Court or of a High Court), nominated by the
Chief Justice of India.
Provisions related to interstate river water disputes:
• Entry 17 of State List deals with water i.e. water supply, irrigation, canal, drainage, embankments,
water storage and water power.
• Entry 56 of Union List empowers the Union Government for the regulation and development of
inter-state rivers and river valleys to the extent declared by Parliament to be expedient in the public
interest.
Article 262: In the case of disputes relating to waters, it provides
➢ Clause 1: Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with
respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter- State river or river valley.
➢ Clause 2: Parliament may, by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall
exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as mentioned above.
38. Answer: (C) Only two Statements are correct.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Presidential Notification to form the Inter- State Council has made the ISC
as a recommendatory body. It has not given the power to the ISC to inquire into and advise upon the
disputes which may have arisen between the states.
• Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 263 of the Constitution - If at any time it appears to the
President that the public interests would be served by the establishment of a Council. The Inter-State
Council (ISC) was formed by a Presidential Notification in 1990.
• Statement 3 is correct: A standing committee of the council was setup in 1996 for continuous
consultation and processing of matters for the consideration of the council. The chairman of this
standing committee is Union Home Minister.
According to Article 263 of the Constitution –
If at any time it appears to the President that the public interests would be served by the establishment of a
Council charged with the duty of
➢ Inquiring into and advising upon the disputes which may have arisen between the states;
➢ Investigating and discussing the subjects in which some or all of the states, or the Union and one or
more of the states, have a common interest; or
➢ Making recommendations upon any such subject and, in particular, recommendations for the better co-
ordination of the policy and action with respect to that subject, It shall be lawful for the President by
order to establish such a Council, and to define the nature of the duties to be performed by it and its
organization and procedure.
➢ The Presidential Notification to form the Inter-State Council has made the ISC as a recommendatory
body. It has not given the power to the ISC to inquire into and advise upon the disputes which may have
arisen between the states.
Inter-State Council
❖ Art 263 contemplates the establishment of an inter-state council to effect coordination between the
states and between centre and states
❖ The President can establish such a council at any time it appears to him that public interest would be
served by its establishment. He is also authorized to define the nature of duties to be performed by such
a council and its organization and procedure
❖ Constitution also defines certain duties for the council Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which
may arise between the states
❖ Investigation and discussing subjects in which the states or the centre and the states have a common
interest
❖ Making recommendation on any subject for the better co-ordination of policy and action
Composition of the council
➢ PM as chairman
➢ CM of all the states
➢ CM of UTS having legislative assemblies
➢ Administrators of UTs not having legislative assemblies Governors of states under President's rule
➢ Six Central cabinet ministers, including the home minister, to be nominated by the PM
➢ Five ministers of the cabinet rank are permanent invitees of the council
The council meeting is supposed to be held thrice a year and its decisions on all questions are decided by
consensus.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Union of States by conquest cannot be called a Federal Union.
Federalism is a form of government in which the sovereign authority of political power is divided
between various units. A Federal State is a state brought into being through a Contractual Union of
the Sovereign States. The Union of States by conquest cannot be called a Federal Union.
• Statement 2 is correct: A voluntary Union/Federation is possible only in a democratic framework.
A Federation is basically formed on the basis of the principles of a contract. It means that the
Sovereign Units, the Union, the states or the local units, form a Federation on the basis of mutual
and voluntary agreement. This kind of voluntary Union/ Federation is possible only in a democratic
framework. It also means that the extent of the Union is limited. The contracting parties never
surrender their complete authority/power.
• Statement 3 is correct: In actual practice, not all-federal states have been born through the Union
of the Sovereign States. In actual practice, however, not all Federal States have been born through
the Union of the Sovereign States. Many of them have been the products of the devolution of the
powers by a centralized authority of a Union Government to the lower units. The Indian Federation
in one such example.
40. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Option (C) is Correct: Article 301 to 307 in Part 13 of the constitution deal with the trade,
commerce and intercourse within the territory of India. Article 301 declares that trade, commerce
and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free. The freedom afforded by this applies
to between the states and also within the state
However, article 302-305 imposes some restrictions on the above. These restrictions are:
➢ Restriction can be imposed by the Parliament to safeguard public interest. However, no
discrimination can be made between states while imposing restrictions
➢ Legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom afforded by Art 301 to
safeguard public interest. But, a bill for this purpose can only be introduced in the legislature with
the prior recommendation of the president of India
➢ Legislature of a state can impose tax on import of goods and services from other states in those cases
where similar taxes are imposed by the state on their goods and services
➢ Freedom under Art 301 can be curtailed subject to nationalization laws. Both Parliament and state
can make laws in this regard
➢ Parliament has been authorized to appoint an appropriate authority for carrying out the purposes of
the above provisions relating to Art 301.
• The Constitution aimed to promote free trade and commerce in India because it was fully understood
that the country’s economic integration and unity served as the primary stabilizing force for the
advancement of its political and cultural unity and that it should operate as a single economic unit
free from restrictions on internal trade. One of India’s fundamental goals is for its people to be united
economically, and the constitution of India makes it a priority to guarantee the accomplishment of
the goal.
41. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Option 1 is correct: The federal character of the Indian Polity is indicated by following features:
Written Constitution, Supremacy of the Constitution, Rigid Constitution, Division of Powers,
Independent Judiciary, Bicameral Legislature, Dual Government Polity, etc.
➢ Federalism is a midpoint between unitarism which has a supreme centre, to which the States are
subordinate, and confederalism wherein the States are supreme, and are merely coordinated by a
weak centre.
➢ The idea which lies at the bottom of federalism is that each of the separate States should have
approximately equal political rights and thereby be able to maintain their non-dependent
characteristics within the larger union.
➢ An integral requirement of a federal state is that there be a robust federal judicial system which
interprets this constitution, and therefore adjudicates upon the rights of the federal units and the
central unit, and between the citizen and these units.
➢ The federal judicial system comprises the Supreme Court and the High Court in the sense that it is
only these two courts which can adjudicate the rights.
➢ Dr. B.R. Ambedkar stated in the Constituent Assembly: “The Indian Federation though a dual polity
has no dual judiciary at all. The High Courts and the Supreme Court form one single integrated
judiciary having jurisdiction and providing remedies in all cases arising under the constitutional law,
the civil law or the criminal law.”
Explanation:
The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
• The nominal executive is the head of state e.g. President while the real executive is the Prime Minister,
who is the head of government. In such a system, the role of president or monarch is primarily
ceremonial and the Prime Minister along with the cabinet wields effective power. Articles 74 and 75 deal
with the parliamentary system of government at the Union level and Articles 163 and 164 contain
provisions with regard to the States.
➢ Majority Party Rule: The political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government.
The leader of that party is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President; other ministers are appointed by the
President on the advice of the prime minister. However, when no single party gets the majority, a coalition of
parties may be invited by the President to form the government.
➢ Collective Responsibility: This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers are
collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They
act as a team, and swim and sink together. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok
Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e. council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by
passing a vote of no confidence.
➢ Political Homogeneity: Usually members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party,
and hence they share the same political ideology. In case of coalition government, the ministers are
bound by consensus.
➢ Double Membership: The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive. This
means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of the Parliament. The Constitution
stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months’
ceases to be a minister.
➢ Leadership of the Prime Minister: The Prime Minister plays the leadership role in this system of government.
He is the leader of council of ministers, leader of the Parliament and leader of the party in power. In these
capacities, he plays a significant and highly crucial role in the functioning of the government.
➢ Dissolution of the Lower House: The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by
the President on recommendation of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime minister can advise
the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections. This means
that the executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary system.
➢ Secrecy: The ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and cannot divulge information
about their proceedings, policies and decisions. They take the oath of secrecy before entering their office.
The oath of secrecy to the ministers is administered by the President.
43. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The LOP is leader of the largest party that has not less than one-tenth of the
total strength of the house. t is a statutory post defined in the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of
Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
• Statement 2 is incorrect The Act says that LoP is the Leader in that House of the party in
opposition to the Government having the greatest numerical strength and recognized as such by the
Chairman/Speaker of the House. In Lok Sabha, total strength is 545 members so any party that has
55 members can get the post as recognized as such by the speaker/chairman.
• Importance of Leader of opposition(LoP): The shadow PM The Westminster model that India
follows the opposition is a recognizable entity and the LoP is referred to as the 'shadow Prime
Minister'. The LoP also plays an important role in bringing cohesiveness and effectiveness to the
opposition's functioning in policy and legislative work.
Selection Procedure for recognising the leader of the opposition is well laid down.
➢ On a request being made by the numerically largest party in the opposition, its designated leader be
recognised as the leader of the opposition.
➢ After the request is examined by her or his secretariat, the speaker/chairman accords recognition to
that person.
Legal position of 10% Formulation:
❖ The point to note here is that the statute gives the numerically largest party in the opposition the
right to have a leader recognised as leader of the opposition by the speaker.
❖ Former Deputy Chairman of RS P.J. Kurien pointed that legally the party is entitled to the position.
The 10% formulation is inconsistent with the law 'the salary and allowances of leaders of opposition
in Parliament Act, 1977' which only says that the largest opposition party should get the post.
❖ The "10%" rule was in fact brought in 1985 by the then LS Speaker Balram Jakhar to deny the
position to a party from then Andhra Pradesh.
44. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement A is incorrect: Article 142 of the constitution provides that apex court might pass some
orders or decrees as is necessary for doing complete justice in any case pending before it. This
sometimes leads to Supreme Court overreaching itself into powers of Executive or Legislature and
hence it sometimes goes against the principle of Separation of Power.
• Statement B is incorrect: Although the Separation of Power provides for Division of Labor and
Functional Specialization, it isn’t the basic philosophy behind including the doctrine in the
constitution.
• Statement C is correct. Separation of Powers provides for checks and balances by each organ
(Legislative, Executive, Judiciary) of the government on the other two. It prevents tyranny of the
government. It ensures that justice done is free of any fear or favor.
• Statement D is incorrect: Separation of power rather provides the conditions for Checking and
balancing the decisions of the other organs. Although it prevents encroachment of power by other
organs, this isn’t the fundamental reason for its inclusion.
➢ Although the Constitution of India provides for the three organs of the government with well-
defined functions, it does not advocate a rigid separation of powers. There is an equal emphasis on
ensuring an effective balance of powers between the organs of the government. The purpose of the
system of checks and balances is to prevent the arbitrary or capricious use of power.
➢ Articles 121 and 211 restrict the Parliament and the State Legislature from discussing the Judicial
conduct of a judge of the Supreme Court and the High Court unless the resolution of removal of the
judge is under consideration.
➢ Article 361 provides immunity to the President or the Governor from being answerable to any court
for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.
45. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Asymmetric federalism is found in a federation in which different
constituent states possess different powers. Under this one or more of the sub-states has considerably
more autonomy than the other sub-states, although they have the same constitutional status. Unlike
the constitutional symmetry of American federalism, Indian federalism has been constitutionally
asymmetric.
• Statement 2 is correct: Asymmetric federalism is provided in India by introducing the Article 371
concerning North-East. Despite this unitary bias of the Indian Constitution, there are important
constitutionally embedded differences between the legal status and prerogatives of different sub-
units within the same federation. To meet the specific needs and requirements of some sub-units,
asymmetric federalism was always part of the original design to have a unique relationship with
them or to give them special status. Under Article 371A, the privilege of special status was also
accorded to the North-Eastern State of Nagaland.
46. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 249 of the Constitution of India, when the legislature of two
or more states passes resolutions requesting the parliament to enact laws on a matter in the state list,
then the parliament can make laws regulating the matter. A law passed by parliament is applicable to
only those states which have passed the resolution. However, any other state may adopt it afterwards
by passing a resolution to that effect in its legislature.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: States cannot amend or repeal such acts made by the Parliament. The
effect of passing a resolution under the above provision is that the Parliament becomes entitled to
legislate with respect to a matter for which it has no power to make a law. On the other hand, the
state legislature ceases to have the power to make a law with respect to that matter. The resolution
operates as abdication or surrender of the power of the state legislature with respect to that matter
and it is placed entirely in the hands of Parliament which alone can then legislate with respect to it.
47. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Sarkaria Commission was constituted by the Government of India in 1983 to look after the situation on
various matters, the most important being centre-state relations. The important recommendation of the
Sarkaria Commission was -
i. Setting up a permanent inter-state council
ii. Article 356 should be used sparingly
iii. Institution of all-India service should be strengthened
iv. Residuary power should remain with the parliament
v. Reasons should be communicated to the state when state bills are vetoed by the President
vi. Centre should have powers to deploy its armed forces, even without the consent of states.
However, it is desirable that the states should be consulted
vii. Procedure of consulting the chief minister in the appointment of the state governor should be
prescribed in the constitution itself
viii. The Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State
ix. Governor should be a detached figure without political links or should not have taken part
in politics in the recent past
x. Governors should be allowed to complete their term of five years
xi. Commissioner for linguistic minorities should be activated

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct.: Article 3 of the Constitution of India authorises the Parliament to:
➢ form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of
states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
➢ increase the area of any state;
➢ diminish the area of any state;
➢ alter the boundaries of any state; and
➢ alter the name of any state.
• Further, the power of Parliament to form new states includes the power to form a new state or union
territory by uniting a part of any state or union territory to any other state or union territory.
• Statement 2 is correct: The bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the
Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.
om
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the
state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period and not mandatorily
l.c
within six months.

• Statement 4 is correct. The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state
ai
legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
gm
❖ Article 3 authorises the Parliament to: (a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state
or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state,
34
(b)increase the area of any state, (c) diminish the area of any state, (d) alter the boundaries of any
state, and (e) alter the name of any state.
2
12

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect; Article 275 of Constitution of India provides for statutory grants to those
ea
states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state. Moreover, different sums are
re
charged for different states. Discretionary grants are the grants provided by the centre and states
under Article 282 for any public purpose even if it is not in their legislative competence. The centre
sh
is under no obligation to give this grant to states, rather it is center’s discretion to allocate this grant.
Thus, both statutory and discretionary grants are not compulsorily given to all states.
• Statement 2 is correct: Statutory grants are made by the Parliament on the recommendation of
Finance Commission. While the Discretionary grants are made by the Centre as well as by the states
on their discretion.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Specific grants needed for promoting the welfare of Scheduled tribes in a
state are considered as statutory grants. Moreover, grants for raising the level of administration of
the scheduled areas in a state including in the state of Assam is also considered in the category of
statutory grants.
Explanation:
• Option 1 is incorrect: Constitutional amendment bills do not require prior permission of President
for its introduction in Parliament.
• Option 2 is correct: A bill which varies the meaning of the expression “agricultural income” for the
purpose of enactment relating to Indian Income tax requires prior permission of President.
• Option 3 is incorrect. Financial Bills-I under Article 117 (1) are like money bills which requires
prior permission of President for its introduction in the Parliament. While Financial Bills-II under
Article 117 (3) do not require prior permission of President for its introduction in the Parliament.
However, the only special feature of this bill is that it cannot be passed by either House of
Parliament unless the President has recommended to that House the consideration of the bill.
• Option 4 is correct: A bill to form the new state, to increase or diminish the area of state, to alter
the boundaries of state, or to change the name of the state require prior permission of President for
its introduction in the Parliament.
• Option 5 is correct: A bill imposing any surcharge on a tax for the purpose of Centre also require
prior permission of President for its introduction in the Parliament.
Other bills which require prior permission of President for its introduction in the Parliament.
❖ A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which the states are interested
❖ A bill which affects the principles on which money are or may be distributable to states
******
FOR PRELIMS
pPLT-3 (Polity 3.0)

(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT-3 (Polity 3.0)
C
INSTRUCTIONS
D
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer
Sheet liable for rejection.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response you want to mark on the Answer sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your response on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away
with you the Test Booklet.
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPER.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii)If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
1. With regard to curative petition, consider 3. Which of the following conditions qualify a
the following statements:
person to be appointed as judge of a High
1. It is filed after the review plea against
the final conviction is dismissed. Court?
2. It is mentioned under the Indian 1. He is a citizen of India or Nepal.
constitution.
2. He has held a judicial office in the
3. It is accepted only when the bench of
territory of India for ten years.
five senior-most judges approves it.
How many of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the code
are correct? given below.
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) All three
(d) None (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

reference to Judge of the Supreme Court of
4. With reference to the Family Courts Act
India:
1. The Constitution has not fixed the 1984, consider the following statements:
tenure of the judge of the Supreme 1. The act makes it obligatory on the
Court. States Government to set up family
2. Any question regarding the age of the
court in every city or town with a
judge of the Supreme Court shall be
population exceeding ten lakhs.
determined by the President.
3. He can be removed by the president on 2. The appeal against the judgment of the
the recommendation of the judiciary Family Court lies to the District court.
itself.
How many of the statements given above correct?
are incorrect? (a) 1 only
(a) Only one (b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
1
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Page
5. Consider the following statements: 7. It is set up for the administration of a small
1. The power to increase the strength of the
judges of the Supreme Court lies with the
town. It is a semi-municipal authority and is
President. entrusted with a limited number of civic
2. While transferring the judge of the High
functions. It is created by a separate act of a
Courts the Chief justice of India should
consult with a collegium of two judges of state legislature. Its composition, functions
the Supreme Court only.
and other matters are governed by the act. It
3. The constitution provides that the President
can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court may be wholly elected or wholly nominated
as an acting Chief Justice of India.
by the state government or partly elected
How many of the statements given above are
correct? and partly nominated. The above
(a) Only one
description refers to which of the following
(b) Only two
(c) All three types of urban local bodies?
(d) None
(a) Notified Area Committee
6. Consider the following statements with (b) Town Area Committee
reference to the power of Gram Sabha under the
PESA (Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension (c) Township
to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 Act:
(d) None
1. Every Gram Sabha shall be competent to
safeguard and preserve the traditions and
customs of the people, their cultural
identity, community resources and the
8. With reference to the Rajya Sabha Forum on
customary mode of dispute resolution. Panchayat Raj, consider the following
2. Every Gram Sabha shall be responsible for
statements:
the identification of beneficiaries under the
poverty alleviation and other programmes. 1. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the
3. The recommendations of the Gram Sabha
or the Panchayats at the appropriate level
President of the Forum.
shall be mandatory for grant of prospecting 2. The Forum shall consist of not more
license or mining lease for major minerals
in the Scheduled Areas. than 15 members of the Rajya Sabha.
How many of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(b) Only two
(c) All three (b) 2 only
(d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2
Page
9. Consider the following statements with 11. With reference to the Metropolitan
reference to Central Council of Local Planning Committee under Part IX-A of the
Government: Constitution, consider the following
1. It was constituted by an act of the
statements:
Parliament following the provisions
under Article 263 of the Indian 1. It prepares a draft development plan for
Constitution. the Metropolitan area as a whole.
2. It deals with both urban as well as rural
local governments. 2. Two-thirds of the members of a
3. The Union Minister of Urban metropolitan planning committee
Development acts as the chairman of should be elected by the elected
the council.
members of the municipalities and
are correct? chairpersons of the panchayats in the
(a) Only one metropolitan area from amongst
(b) Only two themselves.
(c) All three Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) None correct?
(a) 1 only
10. Consider the following statements with (b) 2 only
reference to the election of members and
(c) Both 1 and 2
chairpersons mentioned 73rd Amendment
Act of 1992 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. All the members of panchayats at the
village, intermediate and district levels 12. With reference to the North-Eastern Council
shall be elected directly by the people.
(NEC), which of the following statements
2. The chairperson of panchayats at the
is/ are correct?
intermediate and district levels shall be
elected indirectly by and from amongst 1. It comprises both Governors and Chief
the elected members thereof. Ministers of all North Eastern States as
its members.
3. The chairperson of a panchayat at the
2. The Union Minister of Home Affairs is
village level shall be elected directly by the Vice Chairman of NEC.
the people. Select the correct answer given below:
(a) 1 only
are correct?
(b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None
3
Page
13. Considers the following statement with 15. Which one of the following statements is
reference to Municipal Corporations: incorrect about the Panchayat Raj
1. They are established in the states by the Institution?
acts of the concerned state legislatures, (a) The Mandals/Blocks are to be
and in the union territories by the acts of mandatorily constituted in the smaller
the Parliament of India states.
2. A Municipal Corporation has usually (b) At the apex is the Zila Panchayat
three authorities, namely, the council, covering the entire rural area of the
the standing committees and the District.
commissioner.
(c) The Gram Sabha comprise of all the
3. All the councilors of the council are
adult members registered as voters in
directly elected by the people.
the Panchayat area.
are correct? (d) If the Panchayat is dissolved before the
(a) Only one end of its five years’ term, fresh
(b) Only two elections must be held within six
(c) All three months of such dissolution.
(d) None

14. Considers the following statement with
1. The district judge possesses original
reference to Cantonment board:
and appellate jurisdiction only in
1. It is set up as a statutory body.
criminal matters.
2. It consists of partly elected and partly
2. The district judge has supervisory
nominated members
powers over all the subordinate courts
3. The executive officer of the cantonment
in the district.
board is appointed by the Governor of
3. The session’s judge does not have the
the concerned state.
power to impose capital punishment.
are correct?
are incorrect?
(d) None (d) None
4
Page
17. Reference to the Special Leave to appeal by optional provision for the constitution of
the Metropolitan Planning Committee in all
the Supreme Court, consider the following
the metropolitan areas by the State
statements: Governments.
1. The Supreme Court is authorized to 2. The Government of West Bengal was the
grant in its discretion special leave to first to constitute the Kolkata Metropolitan
appeal from any judgment in any matter Planning Committee (KMPC) in the
passed by any court or tribunal in the
country.
country excluding military tribunal and
court martial. 3. The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal
2. It is a discretionary power. ministry to oversee the implementation of
Which of the statements given above is/are 74th Constitution Amendment Act in the
correct? states and the Union Territories.
(a) 1 only How many of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only correct?
(a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two
(d) None
18. Consider the following statements about 20. What was the intention behind inclusion of
Judicial Review: Articles 371 to 371-J in the Constitution of
India?
1. 'Judicial review' is explicitly stated in
1. To meet the aspirations of the people of
the Constitution.
backward regions of the states
2. 'Judicial review' was borrowed concept 2. To deal with the disturbed law and order
from Russia. condition in some parts of the states
3. To deal with the border issues with
neighboring countries in North-Western
correct?
India.
(a) 1 only
4. To protect the cultural and economic
(b) 2 only interests of the tribal people of the states
(c) Both 1 and 2 How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one
19. Consider the following statements: (b) Only two
1. Under the Constitution (Seventy- Fourth (c) Only three
Amendment) Act, 1992, there is an (d) All four
5
Page
reference to the special provisions regarding reference to the District Planning
Manipur:
Committee (DPC) in India:
1. The President can create a committee of the
Manipur Legislative Assembly consisting 1. It consolidates the plans prepared by
of the members elected from the Hill Areas both panchayats and municipalities in
of the Manipur.
the district.
2. It is the responsibility of Parliament to
submit an annual report regarding the 2. The provisions of the composition of
administration of the hill areas of Manipur such committees are made by the
to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are respective State legislature.
correct? 3. 30 per cent of the members of DPC are
(a) 1 only
nominated by the Governor of the
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 respective state.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the statements given above
are incorrect?
22. Consider the following Committees and their (a) Only one
key recommendations with reference to
(b) Only two
Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India:
Committee Recommendation (c) All three
1. Balwant Rai - Creation of Mandal (d) None
Mehta Panchayat
Committee
24. Which among the following are the sources
2. Ashok Mehta - Three-tier system
Committee- of income for the Urban Local Bodies
3. G.V.K. Rao - Creation of post of (ULBs) in India?
Committee District
1. Property Tax
Development
Commissioner 2. Payment for Public Utilities
4. L M Singhvi - Constitutional 3. Loan from financial institutions
Committee Recognition to
4. Excise Duty
Panchayats
How many of the above given pairs are How many of the statements given above
correctly matched? are correct?
(c) Only three (c) Only three
(d) All four
(d) All four
6
Page
25. With reference to local self-governance in 27. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth
India, consider the following statements: Schedule of the Constitution of India, which
1. The constitution does not confer any one of the following statements best reflects
inherent taxation powers on the local the consequence of it?
bodies. (a) This would prevent the transfer of land
2. The subject of Local governance falls of tribal people to non-tribal people.
under the Concurrent legislative (b) This would create a local self-
jurisdiction under the Seventh Schedule governing body in that area.
of the Constitution.
(c) This would convert that area into a
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha
Union Territory.
are clearly mentioned in the
(d) The State having such areas would be
Constitution.
declaring a Special Category State.
are correct?
(a) Only one 28. With reference to the lawsuits by or against
(b) Only two the government, consider the following
(c) All three statements:
(d) None 1. While filing a court case against
government, the Central government
26. Which of the following are the mandatory should be referred to as the
provisions under the 73rd Constitutional
‘Government of India’.
Amendment Act, 1992?
2. A lawsuit can be filed against the
1. Constitution of a State Finance
government by an organization for
Commission after every five years.
2. Indirect elections to the post of breaching of contractual liabilities.
chairperson of panchayats at the district 3. The Government in India can be sued
levels
for civil wrongs committed by its
3. Giving representation to members of
the Parliament in the panchayats officials while performing the non-
How many of the statements given above sovereign functions.
are correct?
(a) Only one
are correct?
(d) None
7
Page
29. Consider the following statements with 31. With reference to the Fifth Schedule of the
reference to the Model Panchayat Citizen Constitution, consider the following
Charter framework: statements:
1. It has been released by Ministry of 1. A region is declared as a Scheduled
Rural Development in collaboration Area by the President but any change in
with National Institute of Rural its area can be done only by the
Development. Governor of respective State.
2. It aims to align the delivery of public 2. The executive power of a State does not
services with Sustainable Development
extend to the Scheduled Areas.
Goals at panchayat level.
3. The President can direct to establish a
3. Under this framework, draft of Citizen Tribes Advisory Council in states
Charters for panchayats needs the without Scheduled Areas.
approval of the respective Gram Sabha. 4. A Governor can make a regulation to
How many of the statements given above repeal any act of the state legislature in
are correct? Scheduled Areas, with President’s
(a) Only one assent.
(b) Only two
(c) All three are correct?
(d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
30. With reference to the ‘District Councils’ for (c) Only three
Tribal Areas of some states, consider the (d) All four
following statements:
1. Each Autonomous district has a fully
32. The Indian Constitution prescribes
elected district council.
mandatory reservation for Scheduled Caste
2. Laws made on village administration by
and Scheduled Tribes in which of the
these Councils require the assent of the
following bodies?
Governor.
1. Lok Sabha
3. The Governor is empowered to dissolve
the district council on recommendation 2. Rajya Sabha
of the State Government. 3. Legislative assembly of a state
How many of the statements given above 4. All three levels of panchayat bodies
are correct? 5. Chairpersons of Urban Local Bodies
(a) Only one How many of the statements given above
(b) Only two are correct?
(c) All three (a) Only two
(d) None (b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
8
Page
33. Consider the following statements with 35. Which of the following statements is
reference to the ‘Control of the Union over incorrect regarding Public Interest
the Administration of Scheduled Areas and Litigation.
the Welfare of Scheduled Tribes’: 1. Any citizen can file PIL only in
Supreme Court and High court
1. According to the Constitution, the
2. A PIL may be filed against state
Parliament must appoint a Commission
government, central government,
to report on the administration of the municipal authority but not against
Scheduled Areas. private party.
2. Union has executive power to give 3. PIL is not defined in any statute or in
directions to a State for the welfare of any act.
the Scheduled Tribes in the State. How many of the statements given above
are incorrect?
3. First commission regarding the
(a) Only one
administration of Scheduled Areas and (b) Only two
the Welfare of STs was appointed under (c) All three
DB Kalelkar. (d) None
are correct? 36. With reference to the Indian judiciary,
(a) Only one
1. Chief Justice can himself decides to
(b) Only two
open the bench of Supreme Court
(c) All three
anywhere in India.
(d) None
2. A High Court in India has the power to
review its own judgment as the
34. For which among the following States, there Supreme Court does.
are the provisions for the administration of 3. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court
Tribal Areas under the Sixth Schedule of the of India can be called back to sit and act
Constitution? as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief
Justice of India with the prior
(a) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Tripura,
permission of the President of India.
Manipur
(b) Assam, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram are correct?
(c) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram (a) Only one
(d) Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, (b) Only two
Tripura, Mizoram (c) All three
(d) None
9
Page
37. Consider the following statements in 39. Which of the following are the positive
regards to Benches of Supreme Court impacts of 'judicial activism':
1. A Constitution Bench is a bench of the 1. The idea of rights gets expanded.
Supreme Court having at least seven or 2. Democratisation of the judicial system.
more judges on it.
3. Blurred the line of distinction between
2. Presently, Constitution Benches are set
the legislature, executive and judiciary.
up on an ad hoc basis as and when the
need arises. are incorrect?
3. A bench of two judges is called a (a) Only one
division bench and a bench of three or (b) Only two
five judges is called full bench. (c) All three
How many of the statements given above (d) None
are correct?
(a) Only one
40. Consider the following pairs:
(b) Only two
(c) All three 1. The Doctrine of : Federalism
(d) None Harmonious
Construction
38. In context of Review petition, examine the 2. The Doctrine of : The Lists of
following statements: Pith and Substance the Seventh
1. As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Schedule
Supreme Court Rules, only aggrieved 3. The Doctrine of : Limits the
person by a ruling can seek a review Colourable legislature
within 1 week of judgment or order Legislation capacity to
pronounced. enact laws
2. The court has the power to review its which are
rulings to correct both "patent error" outside its
and "minor mistakes of inconsequential
competence
import.
Select the correct answer code: are correct?
10
Page
41. Which of the following are the essential 43. Which of the following statements are
aspects of natural justice: correct regarding Administrative Tribunals?
1. Right to fair hearing. 1. In pursuance of the Article 323A, the
2. Judges recusing themselves in case of Parliament has passed the
vested interests. Administrative Tribunals Act in1985.
3. Judgments given by the courts should 2. There will be a Chairman, Vice-
be well-reasoned. Chairman and 25 members in the
4. Judicial review of the laws. Central Administrative Tribunal along
5. Access to cheap justice. its branches.
How many of the statements given above 3. The Chairman will be appointed by the
are correct? Ministry of Home, GOI
(a) Only two
4. The members of the State
(b) Only three
Administrative Tribunals are appointed
(c) Only four
by the President after consultation with
(d) All five
the concerned State Chief Minister’s.
42. Consider the following statements regarding
are incorrect?
tribunals in India: (a) Only one
1. The word Tribunals" is nowhere (b) Only two
mentioned in the Indian Constitution. (c) Only three
2. Tribunals under Article 323 can only be (d) All four
established by Parliament unlike 323A
which can also be established by State 44. In context of Anticipatory bail in India,
Legislature examine the following statements:
3. There is no question of the hierarchy of 1. It can be obtained by a person who
tribunals under Article 323 A whereas anticipates arrest.
in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals may be 2. It is issued only by the Supreme Court
created. and High Court.
How many of the statements given above Select the correct answer code:
are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 & 2
(c) All three
11
Page
45. Consider the following statements regarding the 2. It violates the independence of the
Supreme court of India: Judiciary.
3. It recognizes the equality of the other two
1. The Constitution authorizes the President
branches with the judiciary.
to appoint places other than Delhi as seat of
the Supreme Court. correct?
2. All proceedings in the Supreme court (a) Only one
should be in English, but petitions can be (b) Only two
allowed in Hindi along with English. (c) All three
(d) None
correct? 48. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the
(b) 2 only Supreme Court of Indian cannot be rejected
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the
(c) Both 1 and 2
Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives
details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and
46. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the
Supreme Court of India.
which of the following statements is/are
3. The process of impeachment of the Judges
correct?
of the Supreme Court of India is given in
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
only civil cases and not criminal cases. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a
2. The Act allows local social activists as Judge is taken up for voting, the law
mediators/ reconciliators. requires the motion to be backed by each
House of the Parliament and supported by
Select the correct answer using the code given
a majority of total membership of that
below.
(a) 1 only House and by not less than two-thirds of
total members of that House present and
(b) 2 only
voting.
(c) Both 1 and 2 How many of the statements given above are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
47. Consider the following statements regarding (a) Only one
‘judicial restraint’: (b) Only two
1. It is against the concept of balance of (c) Only three
power. (d) All four
12
Page
49. With reference to Lok Adalat, which of the 50. Which of the following is/are regarded as
following statements is correct? Criminal Contempt of Court?
1. When Judicial acts are criticized in a
(a) Lok Adalat have the jurisdiction to
newspaper even in a fair and reasonable
settle the matters at pre-litigative stage way.
and not those matters pending before 2. An act which interferes with due course
any court. of judicial proceedings.
3. Commenting on administrative side of
(b) Lok Adalat deals with matters which
Judiciary.
are civil and not criminal in nature.
4. Innocent publication and discussion of
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either matters of court.
serving or retired judicial officers only. 5. Willful disobedience of any judgment
of court.
(d) The Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987 provides for the establishment of
are incorrect?
Permanent Lok Adalat. (a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
******
13
Page
FOR PRELIMS
pPLT-3 (Polity 3.0)

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: About Curative Petition: The concept of the curative petition first evolved
by the Supreme Court in Rupa Ashok Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra & another case (2002) on the question
whether an aggrieved person is entitled to any relief against the final judgment/order of the Supreme
Court, even after the dismissal of a review petition.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It is based on interpretation of Article 137, which provides that in the
matter of laws and rules made under Article 145, Supreme Court has the power to review any
judgment pronounced (or order made) by it. Thus, it is not mentioned in the question directly. Its
objective is to avoid miscarriage of justice and to prevent abuse of process.
Procedure
● Statement 3 is incorrect: A curative petition may be filed after a review plea against the final
conviction is dismissed. It can be entertained if the petitioner establishes that there was a violation
of the principles of natural justice, and that he was not heard by the court before passing an order.
⮚ A curative petition must be first circulated to a Bench of the three senior-most judges, and
the judges who passed the concerned judgment, if available. Only when a majority of the judges
conclude that the matter needs hearing should it be listed before the same Bench.
⮚ A curative petition is usually decided by judges in the chamber unless a specific request for an
open- court hearing is allowed.
⮚ In the event of the Bench holding at any stage that the petition is without any merit, it may
impose a penalty on the petitioner.
2. Answer: (B) Only two statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any question regarding
his age is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: He can resign his office by writing to the President.
⮚ He can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament.
⮚ The President can issue the removal order only after an address by Parliament has been
presented to him in the same session for such removal.
⮚ The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (i.e., a
majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the
members of that House present and voting). The grounds of removal are two—proved
misbehavior or incapacity.
3. Answer: B
Explanation:
Qualifications to Become a High Court Judge: A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court should
have following qualifications:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: He should be a citizen of India;
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● Statement 2 is correct: He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years
or
⮚ He should have been an advocate of high court(s) for ten years.
⮚ There is no minimum age fixed for high Court judges, and unlike in Supreme Court, there is no
provision
⮚ For the appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court.
4. Answer: A
Explanation:
⮚ The Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments
in consultation with the High Court’s with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy
settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.
● Statement 1 is correct: It is mandatory for the State Government to set up a Family Court for every
area in the State comprising a city or a town whose population exceeds one million.
Features of the Act:
⮚ The Family Courts are free to evolve their own rules of procedure, which override the rules of
procedure contemplated under the Code of Civil Procedure.
⮚ Special emphasis is put on settling the disputes by mediation and conciliation, when the matter
is solved by an agreement between both the parties; it reduces the chances of any further conflict.
⮚ The cases are kept away from the trappings of a formal legal system, which can be a very
traumatic experience for the families and lead to personal and financial losses that can have a
devastating effect on human relations as well.
⮚ A Family court has jurisdiction in both civil and criminal matters under the act.
⮚ Under civil matters, it can deal with any suit and proceeding related to matrimonial issues,
spousal property, the legitimacy of any person, maintenance, guardianship of the person or
custody of or access to any minor.
⮚ Under criminal matters, it has jurisdiction over orders related to maintenance of wife, children
and parents described under Chapter IX of Criminal Procedure Code (Cr. P. C.).
⮚ The act provides that parties to a dispute before a Family court shall not be entitled right to be
represented by some legal practitioners. However, the court in the interest of justice seek the
assistance of a legal practitioner as amicus curiae.
⮚ Family Court is free to consider any evidence if it assists effectively in dealing with a dispute
despite its admissibility under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
⮚ The proceedings before the Family Court are first referred to conciliation and only when the
conciliation proceedings fail to resolve the issue successfully, the matter taken up for trial by
the Court. The act provides for the social welfare agencies, counselors during the conciliation
stage and to secure the service of medical and welfare experts.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: An appeal against the judgment or order passed by the Family Court can
be filed in High Court preferably within 30 Days.
Page. 2
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Few years ago, Parliament passed the legislation to increase the sanctioned
strength of the Supreme Court from 31 to 34 including the Chief Justice of India.
⮚ Constitutional provisions Originally, under Article 124 of the Indian Constitution the strength
of Supreme Court was fixed at eight (one chief justice and seven other judges).
⮚ Article 124 (1) provides the power to the Parliament to increase the number of judges if it
deems necessary.
⮚ The Parliament through The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956 increased strength
of Supreme Court to ten.
⮚ At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-one judges (one chief justice and thirty other
judges).
Transfer of Judges from one High Court to another High Court:
It is made by the President after consultations with the Chief Justice of India under Article 222 (1) of the
Constitution.
The Supreme Court derives its power to select, appoint and transfer judges from its verdicts in Three
Judges Cases.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: CJI should consult with four senior-most Supreme Court judges and the
chief justice of two high courts (one from which the judge is being transferred and the other receiving
him) to form his opinion on judicial appointments and transfers.
● Statement 3 is correct: Article 223 and 126 states that the President can appoint a judge of a high
court as acting chief justice of the high court when:
⮚ The office of chief justice of the high court (or the Supreme Court) is vacant; or
⮚ The chief justice of the high court (or the Supreme Court) is temporarily absent; or
⮚ The chief justice of the high court (or the Supreme Court) is unable to perform the duties of his
office.
6. Answer: (B) Only two statements are correct.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The features (or the provisions) of the PESA Act are as follows:
⮚ State legislation on the Panchayat in the Scheduled Areas shall be in consonance with the
customary law, social and religious practices and traditional management practices of
community resources.
⮚ A village shall ordinarily consist of a habitation or a group of habitations or a hamlet or a group
of hamlets comprising a community and managing its affairs in accordance with traditions and
customs.
⮚ Every village shall have a Gram Sabha consisting of persons whose names are included in the
electoral rolls for the Panchayat at the village level.
⮚ Every Gram Sabha shall be competent to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of
the people, their cultural identity, community resources and the customary mode of dispute
resolution.
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● Statement 2 is correct: Every Gram Sabha shall—
⮚ Approve of the plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development before
they are taken up for implementation by the Panchayat at the village level; and
⮚ Be responsible for the identification of beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other
programmes.
⮚ Every Panchayat at the village level shall be required to obtain from the Gram Sabha a
certification of the utilization of funds for the above plans, programmes and projects.
⮚ The reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas in every Panchayat shall be in proportion to the
⮚ Population of the communities for whom the reservation is sought to be given under Part IX of
the Constitution.
⮚ However, the reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one-half of the total
number of seats. Further, all seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved
for the Scheduled Tribes.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the
appropriate level shall be mandatory for grant of prospecting license or mining lease for minor
minerals (not major) in the Scheduled Areas.
7. Answer: B
Explanation:
● A Town Area Committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal
authority and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street
lighting, and conservancy. It is created by a separate act of a state legislature. Its composition,
functions and other matters are governed by the act. It may be wholly elected or wholly nominated
by the state government or partly elected and partly nominated. Hence option (b) is the correct
answer.
● Notified Area Committee: A notified area committee is created for the administration of two types
of areas- a fast developing town due to industrialization, and a town which does not yet fulfill all the
conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is considered
important by the state government. It is called so because it is created by notification and unlike the
municipality, it is an entirely nominated body, i.e. all members, including the Chairman, are
nominated by the state government. Thus, it is neither a statutory body (created by law) nor an elected
body.
● Township: This type of urban government is established by the large public enterprises to provide
civic amenities to its staff and workers who live in the housing colonies built near the plant. The
enterprise appoints a town administrator to look after the administration of the township. It has no
elected members.
● Port Trust: The port trusts are established in the port areas like Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and so
on for two purposes: (a) to manage and protect the ports; and (b) to provide civic amenities. A port
trust is created by an Act of Parliament. It consists of both elected and nominated members. Its
chairman is an official. Its civic functions are more or less similar to those of a municipality.
8. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Hon'ble Chairman, Rajya Sabha constituted the Rajya Sabha Forum
on Panchayati Raj on 6th February 2016 with the Hon'ble Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha, as the ex-
Page. 4
officio President of the Forum and the Minister of Panchayati Raj as the ex-officio Vice-President
of the Forum.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Forum shall consist of not more than 15 members of Rajya Sabha, to
be nominated by the Hon'ble Chairman, Rajya Sabha, from amongst members who have special
knowledge or keen interest in the subject. The term of the members in the Forum shall be co-terminus
with their membership of the Rajya Sabha. Besides, experts in the field of Panchayati Raj may be
associated as Special Invitees who may share their views/present papers during the meetings of the
Forum.
Objectives of the Rajya Sabha Forum on Panchayati Raj:
The Forum shall-
⮚ Identify problems and have focused deliberations relating to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs);
⮚ Discuss strategies to strengthen PRIs; and
⮚ Provide a platform to Parliamentarians for exchange of ideas, views, experiences, expertise and
Best practices in relation to functioning and strengthening of PRIs.
⮚ The Forum will not interfere with or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned
Ministry/Department or Department related Parliamentary Standing Committee.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Central Council of Local Government was set up in 1954. It was
constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution of India by an order of the President of India.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Originally, it was known as the Central Council of Local Self-
Government. However, the term ‘self- government’ was found to be superfluous and hence was
replaced by the term ‘government’ in the1980s. Till 1958, it dealt with both urban as well as rural
local governments, but after 1958 it has been dealing with matters of urban local government only.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Council is an advisory body. It consists of the Minister for Urban
Development in the Government of India and the ministers for local self-government in states. The
Union Minister of Urban Development acts as the chairman of the council.
The Council performs the following functions with regard to local government:
⮚ Considering and recommending the policy matter
⮚ Making proposals for legislation
⮚ Examining the possibility of cooperation between the Centre and the states
⮚ Drawing up a common programme of action
⮚ Recommending Central financial assistance
⮚ Reviewing the work done by the local bodies with the Central financial assistance

Explanation:
Features of 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 related to Election of Members and
Chairpersons:
● Statement 1 is correct: All the members of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels
shall be elected directly by the people.
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● Statement 2 is correct: The chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels shall
be elected indirectly—by and from amongst the elected members thereof.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: However, the chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be
elected in such manner as the state legislature determines.
Composition of Panchayats. -
Subject to the provisions of this Part, the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions with respect
to the composition of Panchayats:
⮚ Provided that the ratio between the population of the territorial area of a Panchayat at any level and
the number of seats in such Panchayat to be filled by election shall, so far as practicable, be the same
throughout the State.
⮚ All the seats in a Panchayat shall be filled by persons chosen by direct election from territorial
constituencies in the Panchayat area and; for this purpose, each Panchayat area shall be divided into
territorial constituencies in such manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency
and the number of seats allotted to it shall, so far as practicable, be the same throughout the Panchayat
area.
11. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Every metropolitan area shall have a metropolitan planning committee to
prepare a draft development plan for the Metropolitan area.
The state legislature may make provisions with respect to the following:
⮚ The composition of such committees;
⮚ The manner of election of members of such committees;
⮚ The representation in such committees of the Central government, state government and other
organizations.
⮚ The functions of such committees in relation to planning and coordination for the metropolitan
area;
⮚ The manner of election of chairpersons of such committees.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Act lays down that two-thirds of the members of a metropolitan
planning committee should be elected by the elected members of the municipalities and chairpersons
of the panchayats in the metropolitan area from amongst themselves. The representation of these
members in the committee should be in proportion to the ratio between the population of the
municipalities and the panchayats in that metropolitan area.
12. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: North Eastern Council (NEC)NEC was constituted as a statutory body under
the NEC Act 1971. It was constituted for securing the balanced development of North Eastern Areas
comprising of seven states -Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram,
Tripura. The NEC Act 1971 was amended in 2002. The 'North-Eastern Areas' now means the area
comprising the eight states of Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh,
Sikkim, and Mizoram. Thus NEC comprises eight states. The Council comprises of Governors and
Page. 6
Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members to be nominated by the President as per
Clause (iii) of Section 3 of the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 1971.The North Eastern
Council is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region,
Composition
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Chairperson -Union Home Minister (ex-officio)
Vice Chairperson -Minister of State (Independent Charge) Ministry of Development of North Eastern
Region (DoNER)
Members: Governor and Chief Minister of eight states.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Municipal corporations are created for the administration of big cities like
Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore and others. They are established in the states by the
acts of the concerned state legislatures, and in the union territories by the acts of the Parliament of
India.
● Statement 2 is correct: A municipal corporation has three authorities, namely, the council, the
standing committees and the commissioner. Hence
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Council is the deliberative and legislative wing of the corporation. It
consists of the Councilors directly elected by the people, as well as a few nominated persons having
knowledge or experience of municipal administration.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for the
civilian population in the cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act
of 2006—legislation enacted by the Central government.
● Statement 2 is correct: It works under the administrative control of the defense ministry of the
Central government. Thus, unlike the above four types of urban local bodies, which are created and
administered by the state government, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the
Central government. A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members.
The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-
officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the
president of India. He implements all the resolutions and decisions of the board and its committees.
He belongs to the central cadre established for the purpose.
15. Answer: A
Explanation:
● All States now have a uniform three tier Panchayati Raj structure: At the base is the ‘Gram
Panchayat’. A Gram Panchayat covers a village or group of villages.
● Option A is incorrect: The intermediary level is the Mandal (also referred to as Block or Taluka).
These bodies are called Mandal or Taluka Panchayats. The intermediary level body need not be
constituted in smaller States.
● Option B is correct: At the apex is the Zila Panchayat covering the entire rural area of the District.
Page. 7
● Option C is correct: The amendment also made a provision for the mandatory creation of the Gram
Sabha. The Gram Sabha would comprise of all the adult members registered as voters in the
Panchayat area. Its role and functions are decided by State legislation.
● Option D is correct: The term of each Panchayat body is five years. If the State government
dissolves the Panchayat before the end of its five-year term, fresh elections must be held within six
months of such dissolution. This is an important provision that ensures the existence of elected local
bodies. Before the 73rd amendment, in many States, there used to be indirect elections to the district
bodies and there was no provision for immediate elections after dissolution.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He
possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters. In other words,
the district judge is also the session’s judge. When he deals with civil cases, he is known as the
district judge and when he hears the criminal cases, he is called as the session’s judge.
● Statement 2 is correct: The district judge exercises both judicial and administrative powers. He also
has supervisory powers over all the subordinate courts in the district. Appeals against his orders and
judgments lie to the High Court.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The session’s judge has the power to impose any sentence including life
imprisonment and capital punishment (death sentence). However, a capital punishment passed by
him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not. Below the District
and Sessions Court stands the Court of Subordinate Judge on the civil side and the Court of Chief
Judicial Magistrate on the criminal side. The subordinate judge exercises unlimited pecuniary
jurisdiction over civil suits. The chief judicial magistrate decides criminal cases which are punishable
with imprisonment for a term up to seven years.
17. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court is authorized to grant in its discretion special leave to
appeal from any judgment in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except
military tribunal and court martial).
This provision contains the four aspects as under:
● Statement 2 is correct: It is a discretionary power and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
● It can be granted in any judgment whether final or interlocutory.
● It may be related to any matter—constitutional, civil, criminal, income tax, labour, revenue
advocates, etc.
● It can be granted against any court or tribunal and not necessarily against a high court (except a
military court).
What is a Special Leave Petition (SLP)?
● Generally, an appeal to the Supreme Court is made after an unsatisfactory judgment by the High
Court, but under certain special circumstances, an appeal may lie directly to the Supreme Court from
any Court in India under Article 136 of the Constitution. According to Article 136, an appeal can be
made to the Supreme Court directly from any order, decision, decree, judgment, etc given by any
court or tribunal in India.
Page. 8
18. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Judicial Review: The phrase 'judicial review' is not explicitly provided
in the Constitution. However, the judiciary draws the power of judicial review from various
provisions of the Constitution (e.g., Articles 13, 32, 131, etc.).
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed in the USA. It
was propounded by John Marshall, the then chief justice of the American Supreme Court, for the
first time in the famous case of Marbury V. Madison (1803)
WHAT IS JUDICAL REVIEW?
● Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of executive orders and
legislative enactments of both the State and Central governments. If, after this examination, they are
found to be violative of the Constitution, they can be declared as unconstitutional, illegal, and invalid
(null and void) by the judiciary. The power of judicial review is itself conferred by the Constitution
on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts) in India. Furthermore, the judiciary
has declared the power of judicial review as a basic feature of the constitution or an element of the
basic structure of the Constitution. Hence, even by a constitutional amendment, the power of judicial
review cannot be excluded or curtailed.
● On three grounds, the Constitutional validity of an executive order or a legislative enactment can be
challenged in the Supreme Court or in the High Court. These are: firstly, it infringes the Fundamental
Rights; secondly, it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and lastly, it is
repugnant to the constitutional provisions. This clearly shows how the scope of judicial review in
India is narrower than what exists in the USA. This is because the American system provides for
‘due process of law’ whereas the Indian Constitution provides for ‘procedure established by law’.
The basic difference between these two is that in ‘due process of law’ the reasonableness, policy
implications, or suitability of law is kept in mind whereas in ‘procedure established by law’ the law
is examined substantively without taking into account the reasonableness, policy implications, or
suitability.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Constitution (Seventy- Fourth Amendment) Act, 1992, there is
a mandatory provision for the constitution of the Metropolitan Planning Committee in all the
metropolitan areas by the State Governments. As per the Constitution Amendment Act, the
Metropolitan Area‖ means an area having a population of 10 lakh or more, comprised in one or more
districts and consisting of two or more municipalities or Panchayats or other contiguous areas
specified and notified by the State Government to be a Metropolitan Area for this purpose.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Government of West Bengal was the first to constitute the Kolkata
Metropolitan Planning Committee (KMPC) in the country.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs is the nodal ministry to
oversee the implementation of 74th Constitution Amendment Act in the states and the Union
Territories.
Page. 9
20. Answer: (C) Only three statements are correct.
Explanation:
● Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct: Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the constitution contain
special provisions for twelve states viz., Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra
Pradesh, Telangana, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Karnataka. Originally, the
constitution did not make any special provisions for these states. They have been incorporated by the
various subsequent amendments made in the context of reorganization of the states or conferment of
statehood on the Union Territories. The intention behind adding special provisions to the constitution
are following:
I. To meet the aspirations of the people of backward regions of the states
II. To protect the cultural and economic interests of the tribal people of the states
III. To deal with the disturbed law and order condition in some parts of the states
IV. To protect the interests of the local people of the states.
Hence statement 1, 2 and 4 is correct.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: To deal with border issues in North-Western India is not one of the reasons
behind providing special provisions to these states. If we see the states that are provided for the
special provisions under the part, only a part of Gujarat can be considered as part of North-Western
India. But in Gujarat also the rationale behind providing such special provision is to ensure equitable
development throughout the state, not to deal with border issue.
21. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Article 371-C makes the special provisions for Manipur to meet the
aspirations of the people of backward regions of the states. Under article 371-C the President is
authorized to provide for the creation of a committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly consisting
of the members elected from the Hill Areas of the state. The President can direct that the Governor
shall have special responsibility to secure the proper functioning of that committee. The President
may, by order made with respect to the State of Manipur, provide for the constitution and functions
of a committee of the Legislative Assembly of the State consisting of members of that Assembly
elected from the Hill Areas of that State, for the modifications to be made in the rules of business of
the Government and in the rules of procedure of the Legislative Assembly of the State and for any
special responsibility of the Governor in order to secure the proper functioning of such committee.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Under article 371-C the Governor has responsibility to submit an annual
report to the President regarding the administration of the Hill Areas of Manipur. The Central
Government can give directions to the State Government as to the administration of the Hill Areas.
22. Answer: (B) Only two pairs are correct.

Explanation:
● To fulfill the vision of Article 40 i.e. ‘organization of village panchayats’; the government took
several steps including constituting various committees to give panchayats a structure. This
ultimately culminated in the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment, establishing Panchayati Raj
Institutions (PRIs) in India.
● Pair 1 is incorrect: In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to examine
the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service
(1953) and to suggest measures for their better working. The chairman of this committee was
Page. 10
Balwant Rai G Mehta. It recommended establishment of a three-tier panchayati raj system–gram
panchayat at the village level, panchayat samiti at the block level and zila parishad at the district
level. Mandal Panchayat was recommended by Ashok Mehta committee.
● Pair 2 is incorrect: In December 1977, the Government appointed a committee on Panchayat Raj
Institutions under the chairmanship of Ashok Mehta. Its key recommendation was that the three-tier
system of Panchayat raj should be replaced by the two-tier system, that is, zila Parishad at the district
level, and below it, the mandal panchayat consisting of a group of villages with a total population of
15,000 to 20,000.
● Pair 3 is correct: The Committee to review the existing Administrative Arrangements for Rural
Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes under the chairmanship of G.V.K. Rao was
appointed by the Planning Commission in 1985. One of its key recommendations was the creation
of the post of District Development Commissioner. And he should act as the chief executive officer
of the Zila Parishad and should be in charge of all the development departments at the district level.
● Pair 4 is correct: In 1986, Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept
paper on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the
chairmanship of L.M. Singhvi. It recommended that the Panchayati Raj institutions should be
constitutionally recognised, protected and preserved. For this purpose, a new chapter should be added
in the Constitution of India. This will make their identity and integrity reasonably and substantially
inviolate. It also suggested constitutional provisions to ensure regular, free and fair elections to the
Panchayati Raj bodies.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The formation of District Planning Committees (DPCs) is mandated by the
Article 243ZD of the 74th Amendment of the Constitution. District Planning Committees serve as a
link between Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies. District Planning Committees (DPCs) consolidate
the plans prepared by panchayats and municipalities in the district, and to prepare a draft
development plan for the district as a whole. Every District Planning Committee in preparing the
draft development plan, deals with matters of common interest between the Panchayats and the
Municipalities including spatial planning, sharing of water and other physical and natural resources,
the integrated development of infrastructure and environmental conservation. It also discusses the
extent and type of available resources whether financial or otherwise.
● Statement 2 is correct: It is the State legislature that may make provisions with respect to the
composition of district planning committees. Furthermore, state legislature can also make provisions
with respect to the manner of election of members of such committees, the functions of such
committees in relation to district planning and the manner of the election of the chairpersons of such
committees.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The four-fifths of the members of a district planning committee are elected
by the elected members of the District Panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst
themselves. (Through this we can say that, the governor does not nominate 30% of the members to
DPC). The representation of these members in the committee is in proportion to the ratio between
the rural and urban populations in the district.

Explanation:
● Option 1 is correct: Property tax is the amount that is paid by the landowner to the municipal
corporation or the local government for his/her area. The tax must be paid every year. Property,
Page. 11
office buildings, and residential homes that are rented out to third parties are considered real estate
assets. Property tax is charged by the government on all tangible real estate that an individual owns.
These real estate assets could include residential homes, office buildings and premises rented out to
third parties. It also known as house tax.
● Option 2 is correct: The non-tax revenue for local government comes from municipal properties,
fees and fines, royalty, profits and dividends, interest, user charges and miscellaneous receipts. The
user charges (i.e., payment for public utilities) include water charges, sanitation charges, and
sewerage charges and so on.
● Option 3 is correct: The urban local bodies raise loans from the state government as well as financial
institutions to meet their capital expenditure. They can borrow from the financial institutions or other
bodies only with the approval of the state government.
● Option 4 is incorrect: Excise duty was a form of indirect tax that was levied by the Central
Government of India for the production, sale, or license of certain goods prior to GST. However,
Excise duty charges continue to be in force for alcohol and narcotics which are collected by state
governments and not local government.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Panchayat raj system (system of local governance) was given
constitutional sanction, through the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992. While
the constitution makes some provisions mandatory for all panchayats in all states, some provisions
are voluntary and have been left to the discretion of the state legislatures to decide as they see fit, for
panchayats in their area. One such matter is the matter of Finances of a Panchayat. The constitution
does not confer any particular tax raising powers on the Panchayats. It is for the state legislatures to
decide which taxes the panchayats in that state are eligible to levy and collect.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: India is a federal polity in its working. This means there is a distribution
of power among various levels of governance - like national, state, and local. So, to clarify the roles,
responsibilities, authorities and limits of various levels of government, our constitution divided
various subjects which could be legislated upon into 3 lists - Union, State & Concurrent, placed in
the 7th Schedule to the constitution. The 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment acts of 1992,
placed local governance in the State (not the Concurrent) List. Thus, matters related to local
governance (both rural and urban) are placed under the legislative competence of the state (i.e., that
the State Legislature makes laws on matters deciding about various issues related to local
government). Hence this statement is incorrect.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The act provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayat raj
system. It is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within
the area of Panchayat at the village level. Thus, it is a village assembly consisting of all the registered
voters in the area of a panchayat. It may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the
village level as the legislature of a state determines. Empowering the Gram Sabha could have been
a powerful weapon for transparency, accountability and for involvement of the marginalized
sections. However, a number of the State Acts have not spelt the powers of Gram Sabha nor have
any procedures been laid down for the functioning of these bodies or penalties for the officials.
Page. 12
Explanation:
● Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The 73rd Amendment Act was passed in 1992 and came into effect
on 24th April 1993 which inserted Part IX consisting of Article 243 to 243-O, and the Eleventh
Schedule enumerating 29 functional items. The Act gave certain powers to the state government to
constitute gram panchayats at a local level and provide them with all the necessary assistance to
operate as a unit of self-governance.
● The compulsory (obligatory or mandatory) provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
(1992) or the Part IX of the Constitution are:
I. Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
II. Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
III. Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
IV. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district
levels.
V. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.
VI. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all
the three levels.
VII. Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at
all the three levels.
VIII. Fixing tenure of five years for Panchayat at all levels and holding fresh elections within six
months in the event of supersession of any Panchayat.
IX. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the Panchayat.
X. Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial
position of the Panchayat.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses)
and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their
constituencies are the voluntary provisions under 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act.
27. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control
of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Governor can make regulations for the peace and good
government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribe's advisory council. Such regulations may
prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by tribal to non-tribal members or among members of the
scheduled tribes, regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes.
● Option b is incorrect: According to the provisions of Paragraph 4, under Article 244(1) of Fifth
Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) shall be established in
each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so directs, also in any State having
Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas. Tribal advisory council is an advisory body, not a
governing body.
● Option c is incorrect: Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of
India does not convert the area into a Union Territory.
● Option d is incorrect: Bringing any particular area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of
India does not get declared as a Special Category State.
Page. 13

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Article 300 of the Indian Constitution, an individual or
organization can file a lawsuit in the High Court or Supreme Court against the central government
by the name of the Union of India not by the Government of India, and in case of the Government
of a State, it's by the name of the State by sending 2 months’ prior notice under Section 80 of the
CPC.
● Statement 2 is the correct: As per the exercise of its executive power, the Union or a state can enter
into contracts for the acquisition, holding and disposal of property, or to carry on any trade or
business, or for any other purpose with any organization. But any breach of the contract does not
immunize the government from a contractual liability, making the government suable in contracts.
This means that the contractual liability of the Union government and the state governments is the
same as that of an individual under the ordinary law of contract. Hence the government in India can
be sued by the organization on breach of contract from their part.
● Statement 3 is the correct: As per the ruling in the P and O Steam Navigation Company case (1861)
it was stated that the government (Union or states) in India can be sued for civil wrongs done by the
government officials only in the exercise of its non-sovereign functions but not in the sovereign
functions like administering justice, constructing a military road. Commandeering goods during war,
etc. It was reaffirmed by the Supreme Court in the post-independence era in the Kasturi Lal case
(1965).

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Citizen Charters is voluntary and written document that spells out the
service provider’s efforts taken to focus on their commitment towards fulfilling the needs of the
citizens/customers. A Model Panchayat Citizens Charter/ framework for delivery of the services
across the 29 sectors of 11th Schedule of Constitution, aligning actions with localised Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs). Model Panchayat Citizens Charter framework has been prepared by the
Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) (not the Ministry of Rural Development) in collaboration with
National Institute of Rural Development &Panchayati Raj (NIRDPR). NIRDPR is an autonomous
organization under the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
● Statement 2 is correct: Model Panchayat Citizens Charter framework has been developed for the
delivery of the services across the 29 sectors (mentioned under schedule 11 of the Constitution for
Panchayats), and it aims to align the delivery of these public services with Sustainable Development
Goals at panchayat level.
● Statement 3 is correct: Panchayats would be utilizing this framework, and with the due approval of
Gram Sabha, would draw up a Citizens Charter, detailing the different categories of services rendered
to the citizen by the Panchayat, the conditions for such service and also the time limit for such service.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30 members,
of whom four are nominated by the Governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult
franchise. The elected members hold office for a term of five years and nominated members hold
Page. 14
office during the pleasure of the Governor. Each autonomous region also has a separate regional
council.
● Statement 2 is correct: The district and regional councils administer the areas under their
jurisdiction. They can make laws on certain specified matters like land, forests, canal water, shifting
cultivation, village administration, inheritance of property, marriage and divorce, social customs and
so on. The district council can establish, construct or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets,
ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district. It can also make regulations for the control of money
lending and trading by non-tribals. But all such laws require the assent of the Governor.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Governor can appoint a commission to examine and report on any
matter relating to the administration of the autonomous districts or regions. Governor may dissolve
a district or regional council on the recommendation of the commission.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Scheduled Areas are defined in the Fifth Schedule are inhabited by
‘aboriginals’ who are socially and economically rather backward and special efforts need to be made
to improve their condition. The President is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. He
can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh
orders for such re-designation on an area in consultation with the Governor of the state concerned.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The executive power of a state extends to the Scheduled Areas. But the
Governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. He has to submit a report to the President
regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the President. The
executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the administration
of such areas.
● Statement 3 is correct: Each state having Scheduled Areas has to establish a tribe's advisory council
to advice on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes. A similar council can also be
established in a state having scheduled tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein, if the President so
directs. It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the
scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly.
● Statement 4 is correct: The Governor have several powers in respect to the Scheduled Areas. He
may make a regulation to repeal or amend any act of Parliament or the state legislature, which is
applicable to a scheduled area. But all such regulations require the assent of the President.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 and 3 is correct: Article 330 and 332 of the Indian constitutions provides for the
Reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the House of the people (Lok Sabha)
and legislative assemblies of the states respectively. The Constitution provided for the reservation of
seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the house of people and assembly of each state on
the basis of population ratios. Parliament in 2019 passed a Constitutional amendment bill to extend
quota to SCs and STs in Lok Sabha and state assemblies by another 10 years. Reservation for
members of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs), given for the past 70 years in Lok
Sabha and state assemblies was due to end on January 25, 2020.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian constitution does not prescribe the reservation of seats for
scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in Rajya Sabha.
Page. 15
● Statement 4 is correct: 73rd constitutional amendment act of 1992 has provided for the reservation
of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in every panchayat (I.e., at all the three levels) in
proportion of their population to the total population in the panchayat area. The state legislature shall
provide for the reservation of offices of chairperson in the panchayat at the village or any other level
for the SCs and STs.
● Statement 5 is incorrect: The 74th constitutional amendment act provides for the reservation of
seats for the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes in every municipality in proportion of their
population to the total population in the municipal area. The offices of Chairpersons in the
Municipalities shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and women in such
manner as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide. Hence reservation for chairpersons of
urban local bodies is based on the discretion of State Legislatures and not mandatory as per the
constitution.
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 339 of Indian constitution extends the Control of the Union over
the administration of Scheduled Areas and the welfare of Scheduled Tribes. The President (not the
Parliament) may at any time appoint a Commission to report on the administration of the Scheduled
Areas and the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the States. He can appoint such a commission at
any time but compulsorily after ten years of the commencement of the Constitution. The order may
define the composition, powers and procedure of the Commission and may contain such incidental
or ancillary provisions as the President may consider necessary or desirable.
● Statement 2 is correct: The executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions
to a State as to the drawing up and execution of schemes specified in the direction to be essential for
the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the State.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Two commissions were appointed by the President regarding the
administration of Scheduled Areas and the welfare of Scheduled Tribes. First commission was
appointed in 1960. It was headed by U.N. Dhebar (not DB Kalelkar) and submitted its report in
1961.The second commission was appointed in 2002 under the chairmanship of Dilip Singh Bhuria.
It submitted its report in 2004.
34. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option C is correct: The Constitution, under Sixth Schedule, contains special provisions for the
administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram.
The Tribal Areas under Sixth Schedule include:
⮚ Assam - North Cachar Hills District, KarbiAnglong District and Bodoland Territorial Areas
District.
⮚ Meghalaya - Khasi Hills District, Jaintia Hills District and Garo Hills District.
⮚ Tripura - Tripura Tribal Areas District.
⮚ Mizoram - Chakma District, Mara District and Lai District.
● In Assam, the Statutory Autonomous Councils are constituted for Social, Economic, Educational,
Ethnic and Cultural advancement of the Scheduled Tribe (ST) communities living in Core Areas as
Page. 16
well as in Satellite Areas covering many districts of Assam. There are six Statutory Autonomous
Councils:
I. RabhaHasong Autonomous Council
II. Mising Autonomous Council
III. Tiwa Autonomous Council
IV. Deori Autonomous Council
V. ThengalKachari Autonomous Council
VI. SonowalKachari Autonomous Council.
The tribes in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, still have their roots in their own culture, customs
and civilization. These areas are, therefore, treated differently by the Constitution and sizeable amount of
autonomy has been given to these people for self-government.
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Any citizen can file a public interest litigation by filing a petition: Under
Art 32 of the Indian Constitution, in the Supreme Court Under Art 226 of the Indian Constitution, in
the High Court Under 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code, in a Magistrate ‘s Court
● Statement 2 is incorrect: A PIL may be filed against state government, central government,
municipal authority, private party. Also, private person may be included in PIL as ‗Respondent ‘,
after concerned of state authority. Foreg. Aprivate factory in Mumbai which is causing pollution then
PIL can be filed against the government of Mumbai, state pollution central board including that
private factory of Mumbai.
● Statement 3 is correct: PIL is not defined in any statute or in any act. PIL gives a wider description
to the fundamental rights to equality, life and personality, which is guaranteed under part III of the
Constitution of India. It also functions as an effective instrument for changes in the society or social
welfare. Any public or person can seek remedy on behalf of the oppressed class by introducing a
PIL. Before 1980s the judiciary and the Supreme Court of India entertained litigation only from
parties affected directly or indirectly by the defendant. It heard and decided cases only under its
original and appellate jurisdictions. It is the chief instrument through which judicial activism has
flourished in India. It is suited to the principles enshrined in Article 39A[a] of the Constitution to
protect and deliver prompt social justice with the help of law.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 130, The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other
place or places, as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time
to time.
● Statement 2 is correct: Being a Court of Record, the High Court can review its own judgments
under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. Similarly, under Article 137, the Supreme Court shall
have the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it.
● Statement 3 is correct: As per Article128 of Indian Constitution, the Chief Justice of India may at
any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person to sit and act as a Judge of
the Supreme Court with the following qualifications:
⮚ Who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
⮚ Who has held the office of a Judge of a High Court and is duly qualified for appointment as a
Judge of the Supreme Court.
Page. 17
● Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu, M.K. Stalin recently reiterated the State’s request for establishing a
Regional Bench of the Supreme Court in Chennai and allowing Tamil to be used in the Madras High
Court as one of its official languages.
Constitutional Provisions for Judicial Review
⮚ There is no direct and express provision in the constitution empowering the courts to invalidate
laws, but the constitution has imposed definite limitations upon each of the organs, the
transgression of which would make the law void.
⮚ The court is entrusted with the task of deciding whether any of the constitutional limitations has
been transgressed or not. Some provisions in the constitution supporting the process of judicial
review are:
⮚ Article 372 (1) establishes the judicial review of the pre constitution legislation.
⮚ Article 13 declares that any law which contravenes any of the provisions of the part of
Fundamental Rights shall be void.
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Constitution bench is the name given to the benches of the Supreme Court
of India which consist of at least five judges of the court which sit to decide any case “involving a
substantial question of law as to the interpretation” of the Constitution of India or "for the purpose
of hearing any reference" made by the President of India under Article 143.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution Benches are set up on an ad hoc basis and when the need
arises. Constitution Bench is constituted in rare cases to decide important questions of fact or legal
and/or constitutional interpretation.
● Statement 3 is correct: A bench of two judges is called a division bench and a bench of three or
five judges is called full bench. Recently, Justice Uday Umesh Lalit, 49th Chief Justice of India
(CJI), assured there will be at least one Constitution Bench functioning throughout the year in the
Supreme Court.
Circumstances for Constitutional Bench to Exist:
● Article 145(3) provides, ―The minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding
any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the
purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be five.
38. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any
person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review. This implies that it is not necessary that only
parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment.
A Review Petition has to be filed within 30 days of the date of judgment or order.
In certain circumstances, the court can condone the delay in filing the review petition if the petitioner can
establish strong reasons that justify the delay.
● (Note: It needs to be noted that judgment is a final decision in a case whereas order is an interim
ruling that is subject to its final judgment)
● Grounds for Considering Review Petition
● It needs to be noted that the Court does not entertain every review petition filed. It exercises its
discretion to allow a review petition only when it shows the grounds for seeking the review.
The Supreme Court has laid down three grounds for seeking a review of a verdict it has delivered:
Page. 18
✔ The discovery of new and important matter or evidence which, after the exercise of due diligence,
was not within the knowledge of the petitioner or could not be produced by him;
✔ Mistake or error apparent on the face of the record; or
✔ Any other sufficient reason that is analogous to the other two grounds.
● Procedure in the Court
⮚ Review petitions are ordinarily being entertained without oral arguments by lawyers. Thus, it is
heard “through circulation” by the judges in their chambers.
⮚ However, in exceptional cases, the court allows an oral hearing. In a 2014 case, the Supreme Court
held that review petitions in all death penalty cases will be heard in open court by a Bench of three
judges.
⮚ Review petitions are also heard by the same combination of judges who delivered the original
order or judgment that is sought to be reviewed.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The court has the power to review its rulings to correct a "patent error"
and not "minor mistakes of inconsequential import". That means the Court is allowed not to take
fresh stock of the case but to correct grave errors that have resulted in the miscarriage of justice.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Benefits of Judicial Activism Through the Public Interest Litigation
(PIL), the court has expanded the idea of rights. For example, Clean air, unpolluted water, decent
living, etc., are the rights for the entire society. Following its constitutional obligation, the Indian
judiciary has actively defended individuals’ fundamental rights whenever necessary from the state’s
unjust, unreasonable, and unfair actions or inactions through this powerful tool.
● Statement 2 is correct: Through PIL and judicial activism of the post-1980 period, the judiciary has
also shown readiness to take into consideration the rights of those sections who cannot easily
approach the courts. It has democratized the judicial system by giving not just to the individuals, but
also the groups access to the courts.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Judicial activism has blurred the line of distinction between the executive
and the legislature on one hand and the judiciary on the other. The court has been involved in
resolving questions which belong to the executive. It has overburdened the courts.
The Disadvantage of Judicial Activism
⮚ Violation of Separation of Powers: Judicial Activism violates the principle of separation of
powers as it may result in the judiciary encroaching upon the functions of the executive and
legislative branches of the government. The judiciary is not elected and should not take
decisions that should be left to elected representatives.
⮚ Judicial Overreach: It may result in judicial overreach, where the courts take decisions that
are beyond their competence or legal expertise.
⮚ Delayed Justice: Judicial activism may lead to delays in the administration of justice, as the
courts may take time to deliberate and reach decisions. This can result in justice being denied to
those who are in urgent need of it.
⮚ Lack of Accountability: It reduces the accountability of the judiciary as there is no oversight
mechanism to check the decisions of the judiciary.
Difference between Judicial Review and Judicial Activism:
Page. 19
Judicial review and Judicial Activism are two related concepts in the field of law and governance. While
they both refer to the role of courts in interpreting and applying the law, they have different implications
and outcomes.
⮚ Judicial Review: If a legislation, policy, or action taken by the government or another public
authority is deemed to be unlawful, the judiciary has the authority to evaluate it and invalidate it.
This power is based on the doctrine of separation of powers, which holds that each branch of
government must act within its own constitutional limits.
⮚ Judicial Activism: It refers to the role of the judiciary in interpreting and enforcing the law in a
way that promotes social justice and protects fundamental rights. Judicial activism involves judges
taking an active role in the legal and policy-making process, rather than just interpreting and
applying existing laws.

Explanation:
● Pair 1 is incorrect: The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction is judicial approach interpretation of
differing conflicting statutes or laws. If two or more provisions of the same statute are repugnant to
each other, then in such a situation the court, if possible, will try to construe the provisions in such a
manner as to give effect to both the provisions by maintaining harmony between the two. The
question that the two provisions of the same statute are overlapping or mutually exclusive may be
difficult to determine.
● Pair 2 is correct: The Doctrine of Pith and Substance: The basic purpose of this Doctrine is to
determine under which head of power or field, i.e., under which List (given in the Seventh Schedule)
a given piece of legislation falls. Pith means 'true nature' or 'essence of something' and Substance
means 'the most important or essential part of something'. The Doctrine of Pith and Substance says
that where the question arises of determining whether a particular law relates to a particular subject
(mentioned in one List or another), the court looks to the substance of the matter. Thus, if the
substance falls within Union List, then the incidental encroachment by the law on the State List does
not make it invalid.
● Pair 3 is correct: The Doctrine of Colourable Legislation tests the competence of the legislature
against an enacted law. This Doctrine is based upon the Latin maxim "Quandoaliquidprohibetur ex
directo, prohibetur et per obliquum", which means "you cannot do indirectly what you cannot do
directly", and based on the Doctrine of Separation of Powers.
● Doctrine of the sovereignty of the Parliament: The British system is based on the doctrine of the
sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and
restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental
rights
● Doctrine of Legal Precedent: Doctrine of Legal precedent declares that cases must be decided the
same way when their material facts are the same.
● Doctrine of Eclipse: The doctrine of Eclipse is applied in relation to a pre constitutional law which
was valid when it was enacted. Subsequently when the Constitution came into force a shadow falls
on it because it is inconsistent with the Constitution. The act is eclipsed.
● Doctrine of severability: Under the doctrine of severability, only the offending provision of the act
would be declared void and not the whole act. In other words, there is no need to nullify the whole
act if only a part of it violates fundamental rights. Only the offending part needs to be nullified.
Page. 20
Explanation:
Essential aspects of natural justice:
● Statement 1 is correct: Right to fair hearing. Audi Alteram Partem (Rule of Fair Hearing) In simple
words, this rule states that both parties must have the chance to represent their viewpoints, and
authorities should conduct a fair trial accordingly.
● Statement 2 is correct: Recusal: It is the act of abstaining from participation in an official action
such as a legal proceeding due to a conflict of interest of the presiding court official or administrative
officer. (Note: Judges recusing themselves in case of vested interests is a Natural Justice.)
Reason for Recusal:
⮚ When there is a conflict of interest, a judge can withdraw from hearing a case to prevent creating
a perception that he carried a bias while deciding the case.
⮚ The conflict of interest can be in many ways such as:
⮚ Having a prior or personal association with a party involved in the case.
⮚ Appeared for one of the parties involved in a case.
⮚ Ex parte communications with lawyers or non-lawyers.
⮚ An appeal is filed in the SC against a judgment of a High Court (HC) that may have been
delivered by the SC judge when he was in the HC.
⮚ In a matter of a company in which he holds shares unless he has disclosed his interest and there
is no objection to it.
⮚ The practice stems from the cardinal principle of due process of law that nobody can be a judge
in her own case.
⮚ Any interest or conflict of interest would be a ground to withdraw from a case since a judge has
a duty to act fair.
● Statement 3 is correct: Judgments given by the courts should be well-reasoned. They ensure that
the decision-making process, which affects any individual, adheres to certain minimum requirements
and is fair. Presenting one's case must be given to an individual before condemning him to
undesirable consequences. (Reasoned decisions must be given by any authority while proceeding
against anyone. Reasoned decisions ensure that the decisions are not arbitrary and also facilitate
judicial review of the decisions.
● Statement 4 and 5 are incorrect: Judicial review of the laws and access to cheap justice are not the
part of natural justice.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Tribunals are institutions established for discharging judicial or quasi-
judicial duties. The objective may be to reduce the caseload of the judiciary or to bring in subject
expertise for technical matters. The original constitution did not contain provisions with respect to
tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part
is entitled 'Tribunals' and consists of only two Articles- Article 323 A dealing with administrative
tribunals and Article 323B dealing with tribunals for other matters. The word tribunal is mentioned
in the Constitution.
Page. 21
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 323A vs 323B. Tribunals under Article 323A can only be
established by parliament whereas Tribunals under 323B can be established both by Parliament and
State Legislature.
● Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 323 B a hierarchy of tribunals may be created. But a tribunal
under 323A is exclusive to the centre or a State or a set of States. Hence no hierarchy can be created.
● Difference between 323-A and 323-B
⮚ Article 323-A deals with Administrative Tribunals.
⮚ Article 323-B deals with tribunals for other matters.
▪ Under Article 323 B, the Parliament and the state legislatures are authorised to provide for the
establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters:
● Taxation
● Foreign exchange, import and export
● Industrial and labour
● Land reforms
● Ceiling on urban property
● Elections to Parliament and state legislatures
● Food stuff
● Rent and tenancy rights
Articles 323 A and 323 B differ in the following three aspects:
✔ While Article 323 A contemplates the establishment of tribunals for public service matters only,
Article 323 B contemplates the establishment of tribunals for certain other matters (mentioned
above).
✔ While tribunals under Article 323 A can be established only by Parliament, tribunals under
Article 323 B can be established both by Parliament and state legislatures with respect to matters
falling within their legislative competence.
✔ Under Article 323 A, only one tribunal for the Centre and one for each state or two or more
states may be established. There is no question of the hierarchy of tribunals, whereas under
Article 323 B a hierarchy of tribunals may be created.
43. Answer: (C) Only three statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies empowered with judicial powers that
deals with different disputes. The provision for tribunals was not present in the Constitution
originally. Article 323A authorizes the Parliament to provide for tribunals. Administrative Tribunals
was set-up by an act Parliament, Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985. It owes its origin to Article
323 A of the Constitution. It adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and
conditions of service of persons appointed to the public service and posts in connection with the
affairs of the Union and the States.
The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 provides for three types of tribunals:
✔ The Central Government establishes an administrative tribunal called the Central Administrative
Tribunal (CAT).
✔ The Central Government may, upon receipt of a request in this behalf from any State
Government, establish an administrative tribunal for such State employees.
Page. 22
✔ Two or more States might ask for a joint tribunal, which is called the Joint Administrative Tribunal
(JAT), which exercises powers of the administrative tribunals for such States.
There are tribunals for settling various administrative and tax-related disputes, including:
⮚ Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), Customs, Excise
and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal (CESTAT), National Green Tribunal (NGT), Competition
Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT) and Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT), among others.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: CAT is a multi-member structure. It consists of a chairperson and
members. There are 19 Benches and 19 Circuit Benches in the Central Administrative Tribunal all
over India. The Government of India has notified 215 organizations including Ministries and
Departments of Central Government, under section 14 (2) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
to bring them within the jurisdiction of the Central Administrative Tribunal, from time to time. In
addition, the Central Administrative Tribunal, Principal Bench is dealing with the matters of Govt.
of National Capital Territory of Delhi. The Central Administrative Tribunal is headed by Hon'ble
Chairman Sh. Justice Ranjit Vasantrao More, retired Chief Justice, Meghalaya High Court. There
are 69 Hon'ble Members in various Benches of the Tribunal out of which 34 are Judicial Members
and 35 are Administrative Members. Subject to other provisions of the Act, a Bench consists of one
Judicial Member and one Administrative Member. There will be a Chairman, Vice-Chairman and
25 members in the Central Administrative Tribunal along its branches The Central Administrative
Tribunal has been established as a specialist body comprising of Administrative Members and
Judicial Members who by virtue of their specialized knowledge are better equipped to dispense
speedy and effective justice.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The chairman of both Central, as well as State Tribunals, is appointed by
the President. However, only the Chief Justice of India is consulted for the appointment of Chairman
of Central Administrative Tribunal.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: Members of State tribunals are appointed by the President in consultation
with the Governor of the concerned state.
Page. 23
44. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Anticipatory bail can be obtained by a person who anticipates arrest. Hence,
anticipatory bail is a direction to release a person on bail, even before the person is arrested.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It is issued only by the Sessions Court and High Court.
The concept of anticipatory bail
● The Supreme Court has resolved a dichotomy in approach of high courts and ruled that Courts in
""extraordinary circumstances"" have the discretion to grant protection from arrest to accused even
while denying them anticipatory bail, but the power cannot be exercised in an untrammeled manner,
and the order will have to be a reasoned one.
The Supreme Court ruling:
⮚ HCs and SC are given powers to grant anticipatory bail to the accused because of the premium
that the Constitution places on the right to liberty guaranteed under Article 21.
⮚ The grant or rejection of an application under CrPC has a direct bearing on the right to life and
liberty of an individual. Therefore, the provision needs to be read liberally, and considering its
beneficial nature. The courts must not read in restrictions that the legislature has not explicitly
provided for.
⮚ In doing so, the court may also exercise its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution to pass
such an order.
Need for such protection:
Page. 24
● An accused, besides being an accused, may also be the primary caregiver or sole breadwinner of the
family. His arrest may leave his loved ones in a state of starvation and neglect. In the 1980 Gurbaksh
Singh Sibbia vs State of Punjab case, a five-judge Supreme Court bench led by then Chief Justice Y
V Chandra chud ruled that 438 (1) is to be interpreted in the light of Article 21 of the Constitution
(protection of life and personal liberty).
The concept of anticipatory bail:
● The provision of anticipatory bail under Section 438 was introduced when CrPC was amended in
1973.As opposed to ordinary bail, which is granted to a person who is under arrest, in anticipatory
bail, a person is directed to be released on bail even before arrest is made.
● Time limit: The Supreme Court (SC) in Sushila Aggarwal v. State of NCT of Delhi (2020) case
delivered a significant verdict, ruling that no time limit can be set while granting anticipatory Bail
and it can continue even until the end of the trial.
45. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of Supreme court. The
Constitution authorises the Chief Justice of India and not the President to appoint places other than
Delhi as seat of the Supreme Court. But yes, he can take decision in this regard only with the approval
of President.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Unless the Parliament provides otherwise, all proceedings of Supreme
Court should be in English. And as the Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi,
So Supreme court allows only those petitions or appeals which are in English only as of now.
46. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Gram Nyayalayas are established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008
for speedy and easy access to justice system in the rural areas. The Act came into force from 2
October 2009. They can try criminal cases as well as civil suits, claims or disputes which are
specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule of the Act.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Act explicitly provides for mediation by social workers. The Gram
Nyayalaya shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High
Court.
● ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
● Composition:
⮚ The Gram Nyayalayas are presided over by a Nyayadhikari, who will have the same power, enjoy
same salary and benefits of a Judicial Magistrate of First Class.
⮚ Such Nyayadhikari are to be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the
respective High Court.
● Jurisdiction:
⮚ A Gram Nyayalaya have jurisdiction over an area specified by a notification by the State
Government in consultation with the respective High Court.
⮚ The Court can function as a mobile court at any place within the jurisdiction of such Gram
Nyayalaya, after giving wide publicity to that regards.
⮚ They have both civil and criminal jurisdiction over the offences.
Page. 25
⮚ The pecuniary jurisdiction of the Nyayalayas are fixed by the respective High Courts.
⮚ Gram Nyayalayas has been given power to accept certain evidences which would otherwise not
be acceptable under Indian Evidence Act.
● Procedure to be followed:
⮚ Gram Nyayalayas can follow special procedures in civil matters, in a manner it deems just and
reasonable in the interest of justice.
⮚ Gram Nyayalayas allow for conciliation of the dispute and settlement of the same in the first
instance.
● Appeals:
⮚ Appeal in criminal cases shall lie to the Court of Session, which shall be heard and disposed of within
a period of six months from the date of filing of such appeal.
⮚ Appeal in civil cases shall lie to the District Court, which shall be heard and disposed of within a
period of six months from the date of filing of the appeal.
● Significance:
The setting up of Gram Nyayalayas is considered as an important measure to reduce arrears and is a part
of the judicial reforms. It is estimated that Gram Nyayalayas can reduce around 50% of the pendency
of cases in subordinate courts and can take care of the new litigations which will be disposed within
six months.

Explanation:
● Judicial Restraint is a theory of judicial interpretation that encourages judges to limit the exercise of
their own power. It asserts that judges should hesitate to strike down laws unless they are obviously
unconstitutional. Judicially-restrained judges respect stare-decisis, the principle of upholding
established precedent handed down by past judges.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: While delivering a judgment in December 2007, the Supreme Court of
India called for judicial restraint and commented that judicial restraint is consistent with and
complementary to the balance of power among the three independent branches of the state.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Supreme Court has stated that judicial restraint tends to protect the
independence of the judiciary. When courts encroach into the legislative or administrative fields
almost inevitably voters, legislators, and other elected officials will conclude that the activities of
judges should be closely monitored. If judges act like legislators or administrators, it follows that
judges should be elected like legislators or selected and trained like administrators. This would be
counterproductive. The touchstone of an independent judiciary has been its removal from the
political or administrative process. Even if this removal has sometimes been less than complete, it is
an ideal worthy of support and one that has had valuable effects.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court has mentioned that judicial restraint recognizes the
equality of the other two branches (Legislature and Executive) with the judiciary. Judicial restraint
also fosters that equality by minimizing inter-branch interference by the judiciary.
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: According to provisions of Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, the motion to
impeach a judge of the Supreme Court of India can be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Page. 26
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not define or give details of what
constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the
removal of a judge of the Supreme Court by the process of impeachment. It states that a removal
motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of Rajya
Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/ Chairman.
● Statement 4 is correct: If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law
requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of
total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House
present and voting. After the motion is passed by each House of Parliament, an address is presented
to the president for removal of the judge. Finally, the president passes an order removing the judge.
49. Answer: D
Explanation:
1. Statement A is incorrect: Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a
forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/
compromised amicably. There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat. If a
matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalats and is settled subsequently, the court
fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties.
2. Statement B is incorrect: Lok Adalats can take cognizance matters that are both civil or criminal
in nature, but any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under any law cannot be decided
by the Lok Adalat even if the parties involved therein agree to settle the same. It not only deals with
those persons who are entitled to avail free legal services but of all other persons also, be they women,
men, or children and even institutions.
3. Statement C is incorrect: Every State Authority or District Authority or Supreme Court Legal
Services Committee or every High Court Legal Services Committee or Taluk Legal Services
Committee may organize Lok Adalats. Lok Adalats are to consist of three members – a sitting or
retired judicial officer, a member of the legal profession (advocate, law officer, and law teacher) and
a social worker, preferably women. The Act and regulations require the secretary of the legal services
authority or committee to associate students, social activists and voluntary organisations in the
community for facilitating the successful conduct of ‘Lok Adalats’.
4. Statement D is correct: Permanent Lok Adalats are organized under Section 22-B of The Legal
Services Authorities Act, 1987. Permanent Lok Adalats have been set up as permanent bodies with
a Chairman and two members for providing compulsory pre-litigative mechanism for conciliation
and settlement of certain cases. These cases are relating to Public Utility Services like transport,
postal, telegraph etc. Here, even if the parties fail to reach to a settlement, the Permanent Lok Adalat
gets jurisdiction to decide the dispute, provided, the dispute does not relate to any offence. Further,
the Award of the Permanent Lok Adalat is final and binding on all the parties. The jurisdiction of the
Permanent Lok Adalats is upto Rs. 10 Lakhs.
50. Answer: (C) Only four statements are incorrect.
Explanation:
Contempt of court can be of two kinds:
Page. 27
⮚ Civil, that is the willful disobedience of a court order or judgment or willful breach of an
undertaking given to a court.
Criminal Contempt of court means publication of any matter which:
⮚ Scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court.
⮚ Prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding.
⮚ Interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice
in any other manner.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Fair and reasonable criticism of judicial acts do not amount to Contempt
of court.
● Statement 2 is correct: An act which interferes or prejudices with due course of judicial proceedings
is regarded as Criminal Contempt of court.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Commenting on administrative side of Judiciary do not amount to
Contempt of court.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: Innocent publication and discussion of matters of court also don’t come
in the category of Contempt of court.
● Statement 5 is incorrect: Disobeying willfully any judgment of court comes in the category of Civil
Contempt (not criminal) of court.
Provisions for Court with respect to enforcement of this concept:
✔ Article 129 and 215 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and High Court
respectively to punish people for their respective contempt. Article 142 of the Indian Constitution
also empowers the court to punish for its contempt.
✔ Section 10 of The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971 defines the power of the High Court to punish
contempt’s of its subordinate courts.
✔ The Constitution also includes contempt of court as a reasonable restriction to the freedom of speech
and expression under Article 19, along with elements like public order and defamation.
(NOTE: The Constitution does not provide a definition of “contempt of court.”)
******
Page. 28
FOR PRELIMS
pPLT-4 (Polity 4.0)

(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT-4 (Polity 4.0)
D
Time Allowed: 1 Hours
D
Maximum Marks :100
INSTRUCTIONS
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and
Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at
the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the
Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response you want to mark on the Answer
sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions
in the Answer Sheet.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
1. Consider the following Statements 4. Which of the following provisions relating
regarding individuals are deprived of their to electoral laws is/are dealt by
Right to Vote in India?
Representation of the People Act, 1951:
1. Under-Trial Prisoners
2. Prisoners 1. Delimitation of Constituencies
3. Detainees under Preventive Detention 2. Disqualifications for membership of
4. Persons out of jail on bail
Parliament
are correct? 3. Disputes regarding elections
(c) Only three
(d) All four (a) Only one
(b) Only two
2. Which articles require amendments for the (c) All three
successful implementation of simultaneous
elections in India? (d) None
1. Dissolution of Lok Sabha by the
president
5. With reference to recognized National
2. Duration of state legislatures
3. President's Rule Parties, consider the following statements:
How many of the statements given above 1. Seven parties in India have got the
are correct? recognition as a National Party.
(a) Only one
2. The conditions for being listed as a
(b) Only two
(c) All three national or a state party are specified
(d) None under the Representation of the People
Act, 1951.
3. In association with Model Code of Conduct
3. Recognition as a state party in at least
Relating to Elections, select the correct
option: four states is one of the condition for
(a) Ministers shall not sanction grants / getting recognition as a national party.
payments out of discretionary funds
from the time elections are announced
by the Election Commission. are correct?
(b) Ministers shall not enter any polling (a) Only one
station or place of counting except in
their capacity as a candidate or voter or (b) Only two
authorized agent. (c) All three
(c) Both A and B
(d) None
(d) None of the above
6. Recently, the Election Commission of India 8. In context of the official language, examine
has introduced new guidelines to facilitate the following statements:
the process of postal ballot paper voting for
1. Hindi written in Devanagari script is to
Absentee voters of essential services.
Consider the following statements in this be the official language of the Union.
regard: 2. The Official Languages Act was
1. The Representation of the People Act, enacted by Parliament in 1965.
1950 allows heads of states and those
3. Official Languages Act provides for
serving in the armed forces to vote
through postal means. the continued use of English (even
2. Senior citizens of more than 80 years after 1965), in addition to Hindi, for all
of age and Persons with Disability official purposes, of the Union and also
electors will have choice of voting as for the transaction of business in
absentee vote.
Parliament.
3. The Election Commission has
approved the officials of the Delhi How many of the statements given above
Metro Rail Corporation as absentee are correct?
voters. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
are correct?
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None
7. What are the features of Electronically 1. Political parties in India are extra-
Transmitted Postal Ballot System constitutional institutions.
(ETPBS): 2. In India, the Election Commission of
1. ETPBS is developed by Election India recognizes the political parties
Commission of India with the help of
and provides certain benefits to them
Centre for Development of Advanced
Computing (CDAC). based on their recognition of
2. It is a fully secured system, having two State/National party.
layers of security. 3. The right to form political parties is a
3. Service Voter and the wife of a Service fundamental right under Article 19.
Voter who ordinarily resides with him
is eligible for ETPBS. How many of the statements given above
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None
10. Consider the following statements regarding 12. Consider the following statements with
National Commission for Protection of Child respect to Lokpal:
Rights (NCPCR)
1. The Lokpal has jurisdiction over only
1. It works under the administrative control
the public servants.
of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. Under the CPCR Act, 2005 The Child is 2. Only a sitting or retired judge of the
defined as a person in the 0 to 15 years’ Supreme Court can become a
age group. Chairperson of the Lokpal.
3. This commission has a chairperson and 3. The Lokpal has the power of
six members of which at least two should superintendence and direction over any
be women.
central investigation agency for the
4. The Commission can inquire into any
cases referred to them by the
matter which is pending before a State
Commission or any other Commission ombudsman.
duly constituted under any law for the How many of the statements given above
time being in force. are correct?
How many of the statements given above are (a) Only one
correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) Only three (d) None
(d) All four
13. With regards to the Attorney General of
11. Consider the following statements: India, consider the following statements:
1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of 1. He holds office for a period of six
India shall only be removed from the
years or upto the age of 65 years,
office in like manner and on like grounds
as a Judge of the Supreme Court. whichever is earlier.
2. The Comptroller and Auditor-General 2. He may quit his office by submitting
shall be eligible for further office either his resignation to the Prime Minister.
under the Government of India or under 3. The remuneration of the Attorney
the government of any state, after he has General of India is fixed by the
ceased to hold his office.
Constitution for establishing
3. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of
India is the chair of the INTOSAI
independence.
Committee on Knowledge Sharing and How many of the statements given above
Knowledge Services. are incorrect?
How many of the statements given above are (a) Only one
correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None
respect to the Chief Information reference to the National Human Rights
Commissioner (CIC): Commission (NHRC):
1. The terms of service of the Chief 1. To visit jails and detention places to study
Information Commissioner are similar the living conditions of inmates and make
recommendations thereon.
to that of the Chief Election
2. To review the factors including acts of
Commissioner.
terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of
2. The term of the office of the Chief human rights and recommend remedial
Information Commissioner is 5 years measures.
from the date he enters the office. 3. To inquire into any violation of human
3. After a Supreme Court inquiry, which rights or negligence in the prevention of
has recommended the removal of the such violation by a public servant,
CIC on the grounds of proved however, only on a petition presented to it
misbehaviour or incapacity, the CIC or on court order but not suo motu.
can be removed from the office by the 4. To study treaties and other international
Prime Minister. instruments on human rights and make
How many of the statements given above recommendations for their effective
implementation.
are incorrect?
(a) Only one correct?
(d) None (c) Only three
(d) All four
15. In context of the Finance Commission,
examine the following statements: 17. Which of the following features of Central
1. The qualifications for the members for Vigilance Commission?
the Finance Commission are laid down 1. Initially, It was a non-statutory body
in the Constitution. established by an executive order.
2. The procedure for the removal of the 2. Central Vigilance Commissioner is
members of the Finance Commission appointed by the President by warrant
under his hand and seal.
are the same as that of the Supreme
3. Central Vigilance Commissioner is not
Court judges.
eligible for further employment under the
3. The centre and the states have equal Central or a state government.
say in appointing the members of the 4. It submits its report to the Prime Minister
Finance Commission. annually.
How many of the statements given above 5. The salary, allowances and other
are correct? conditions of service of the Central
(a) Only one Vigilance Commissioner are similar to
(b) Only two those of the Chairman of UPSC.
(c) All three How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(d) None
(a) Only two (b) Only three
(c) Only four (d) All five
18. What are the features of the National 20. In regards to the office of Comptroller &
Commission for Schedule Tribes: Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider
1. Measures to be taken over conferring the following:
ownership rights in respect of minor 1. He/She has more freedom with regard
to the audit of expenditure than the
forest produce to STs living in forest
audit of receipts, stores and stock.
areas
2. He/She can look into the accounts of
2. Measures to be taken to promote the Consolidated Fund of State but not
traditional practice of shifting Contingency Fund of State.
cultivation 3. He/She has absolutely no control over
3. Measures to be taken to safeguard the issue of money from the
rights of the tribal communities over Consolidated Fund of India.
water resources How many of the statements given above
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three
(d) None 21. In context of Union Public Service
Commission (UPSC), examine the
19. In context of State Human Rights following statements:
Commission, examine the following 1. The UPSC presents, annually, to the
statements: President a report on its performance.
1. State Human Rights Commission is a 2. An individual Ministry or Department
has power to reject the advice of the
constitutional body
UPSC.
2. The chairperson and members of State
3. The UPSC is not concerned with the
Human Rights Commission are classification of services, pay and
appointed by the President. service conditions, cadre management
3. State Human Rights Commission and training.
review the constitutional and other 4. The emergence of the Central
legal safeguards for the protection of Vigilance Commission (CVC) affected
human rights. the role of the UPSC in disciplinary
matters.
are correct?
are correct?
22. In context of the National Commission for 24. With reference to the National Commission
Women, select the correct statement(s): for Backward Classes (NCBC), examine
1. It is a Constitutional body & was the following statements:
established in 31 January 1992. 1. National Commission for Backward
2. It do not have the power to take up Classes is a non-constitutional body
suo-moto but only by specific under the Ministry of Social Justice
complaints of matters relating to and Empowerment.
deprivation of women's rights. 2. The commission was the outcome of
3. Among the five members of the Indra Sawhney & Ors. Vs. Union of
commission at least one Member each India.
shall be from amongst persons
3. The commission have the same powers
belonging to the Scheduled Castes and
as a High Court.
Scheduled Tribes respectively.
are correct?
are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(d) None (d) None
23. With reference to Solicitor General for 25. With reference to the National Security
India (SG), consider the following Council, examine the following statements:
statements: 1. It is a three-tiered organization that
1. Article 76 mentions the term solicitor oversees political, economic, energy
general and additional solicitor and security issues of strategic
general. Thus, making it a concern.
constitutional position. 2. Prime Minister of India presides over
2. The Solicitor General assists the the council with Defense Minister as a
Attorney General in the fulfillment of co-chair always.
his official responsibilities only. 3. The Ministers of Home Affairs,
3. Appointment of Solicitor General for External Affairs and Finance are its
India is done by the Ministry of Home only members.
Affairs.
are correct?
are incorrect?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
26 In regards to official Indian Languages, 28. Consider the following statements:
select the correct statements: 1. The 102nd constitutional amendment
1. The 8th Schedule to the Indian
was related to giving constitutional
Constitution includes 22 official
languages of India. status to the National Minority
2. According to Census 2011, Tamil is Commission (NMC).
the 2nd most spoken language in India 2. According to the Constitution of India,
after Hindi.
some clauses of article 15 and 16
3. The 8th schedule has been amended 4
times and last was in 2003 when 3 confer power on a state to identify and
languages were added by 92nd declare the list of socially backward
Amendment Act. classes only.
3. The 127th Amendment Bill is designed
are incorrect?
to clarify that the states can maintain
(a) Only one
(b) Only two the "state list" of OBCs.
(c) All three How many of the statements given above
(d) None are correct?
(a) Only one
27. With regards to the Competition
Commission of India (CCI), examine the (b) Only two
following statements: (c) All three
1. It is a non-statutory body of the (d) None
Government of India.
2. It is responsible for promoting
competition throughout India and to 29. Consider the following statements with
prevent activities that have an respect to National Council for
appreciable adverse effect on Transgender Persons:
competition in India.
1. It is a statutory body constituted by the
3. It has the power to carry out
investigations if any e-commerce Transgender Persons (Protection of
company use their dominant position Rights) Act, 2019.
to stifle competition.
2. The Union Minister of Women and
4. It promotes the policy of predatory
Children will be Chairperson.
pricing.
How many of the statements given above Select the correct answer code:
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All four (d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. Consider the following statements 32. Consider the following statements about
regarding Special Officer for Linguistic State Election Commission:
Minorities: 1. The State Election Commissioner is
1. The Constitution originally included appointed by the Governor on the
the provision for the office of the recommendation of a collegium,
Special Officer for Linguistic comprising the Chief Minister, the
Minorities. Speaker of the State Legislative
2. The Constitution specifies the Assembly and the Leader of
procedure for removal of the Special Opposition in the Legislative
Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Assembly.
3. The office falls under the Ministry of 2. According to the Constitution, states
Home Affairs. are mandated to provide for a separate
4. It submits annual reports to the independent and permanent Secretariat
Ministry of Law and Justice. for the State Election Commissions to
How many of the statements given above ensure autonomy, and free and fair
are incorrect? local body election.
(a) Only one 3. The Election Commission of India
(b) Only two does not have the power to issue
directions to the State Election
(c) Only three
Commission for the discharge of its
(d) All four
functions.
31. With regard to Election Commission, are correct?
consider the following:
(a) Only one
1. The Constitution has prescribed
(b) Only two
qualifications and terms of the
(c) All three
members of the Election Commission.
(d) None
2. The service conditions and tenure of
office of the election commissioners is
decided by Parliament. 33. Consider the following statements:
3. Retiring election commissioners are 1. The constitution and composition of
debarred from any further appointment the Tribes Advisory Council is
by the government. provided under the Fifth Schedule of
4. It conducts the elections to President, the Constitution of India.
Parliament, Panchayats and Office of 2. Any State, not having any notified
Vice President. Scheduled Area, can also constitute
How many of the statements given above Tribes Advisory Council.
are incorrect? Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) Only three (b) 2 only
(d) All four (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. Consider the following statements with 36. Consider of the following statements about
reference to the National Investigation National Disaster Management Authority
Agency: (NDMA):
1. It is a statutory body that came into 1. It is also the apex body to lay down
establishment after the Mumbai Terror policies, plans and guidelines for
attack in 2008. Disaster Management to ensure a
2. It has the authority to investigate offences timely and effective response to
that are committed even outside the Indian disasters.
Territory.
2. It is headed by the Minister of Home
3. NIA can investigate the offences related to
Affairs.
counterfeit currency or bank notes among
others. 3. It covers both natural as well as
manmade disaster in its ambit.
4. It can declare individuals as terrorists.
35. Consider the following statements regarding 37. Consider the following statements
the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): regarding National Commission for
1. CBI is also exempted from the purview of Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR):
the Right to Information (RTI) Act like 1. National Commission for Protection of
IB, RAW, NIA and the Enforcement Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory
Directorate. body under the administrative control
2. It can investigate the crime in states of the Ministry of Women & Child
without seeking ‘specific consent’ of the Development.
state government but only if it has
2. The Commission’s mandate to ensure
direction from Supreme court or High
that only few Laws, Policies and
Court.
Programmes are in consonance with
3. When a ‘general consent’ is withdrawn by
UN Convention on the Rights of the
a state and the ‘specific consent’ is not
Child.
granted, CBI cannot investigate the matter
regarding the case. 3. The Commission considers a ‘child’ as
4. CrPC allows search and investigation in a a person who is in between the age
state by outside agency but it has to group 0-16 years.
happen through a local court. How many of the statements given above
How many of the statements given above are are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(d) All four
38. Which one of the following authorities 40. Consider the following statements with
makes recommendation to the Governor of reference to the Anti-Defection Law:
1. Petition can be given by a member of
a State as to the principles for determining
the House to disqualify another
the taxes and duties which may be member on grounds of defection.
appropriated by the Panchayats in that 2. The decision taken by presiding officer
particular State? regarding disqualification arising out
of defection, is not subject to Judicial
(a) District Planning Committees
review.
(b) State Finance Commission 3. The law does not specify a time-period
(c) Finance Ministry of that State for the Presiding Officer to decide on a
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State disqualification of members.
are correct?
39. Consider the following statements with (a) Only one
reference to the State Election (b) Only two
Commissioner: (c) All three
(d) None
1. He/She is consulted by state
Government during the formation of
Election Tribunal. 41. Consider the following statements with
2. The conditions of service and tenure of reference to the By-Elections in India:
his office are determined by the State 1. By-election to the house of Parliament
or a state legislature must be held
Legislature.
within three months of occurrence of
3. He/She cannot be removed from the the vacancy.
office except in the manner prescribed 2. By-elections may not be held if the
for the removal of a judge of the High remainder of the term of the member
whose vacancy is to be filled is less
Court.
than one year.
How many of the statements given above Which of the statements given above is/are
are correct? correct?
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None
42. Which of the following are the roles and 44. Consider the following statements with
duties of Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in reference to the ‘Board of Multi-State Co-
India? operative Societies’:
1. He ensures arrangements at election 1. A Minister in the Centre or State
booths and demonstration of Electronic Government can be elected as the
Voting Machines (EVMs) in every Chairperson of the Board.
district.
2. The conduct of elections to such a
2. He reviews the law-and-order situation
Board is the responsibility of Election
in the state during elections.
Commission of India.
3. He allocates symbols to the contesting
3. A person is not eligible to hold the
candidates.
office of chairperson of more than two
4. He scrutinizes the nomination forms of
contesting candidates. such Boards at the same time.
reference to the Home Minister’s Advisory National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Committees of the Union Territories: (NCSC):
1. These are constituted only for those
1. It has been given constitutional status
Union Territories that do not have
by 89th Constitutional Amendment
legislature.
Act.
2. They consist of nominated members
2. NCSC has to investigate all matters
from civil society.
relating to the constitutional and other
3. They are consulted for the matters
legal safeguards for the Anglo-Indian
related to internal security.
community.
are correct? Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Consider the following statements: 49. Consider the following statements with
1. The Executive Power of the Union of reference to the electoral reforms implemented
India is vested in the Prime Minister. in recent years:
2. The Prime Minister is the ex Officio 1. If the number of votes polled for None of
Chairman of the Civil Services Board as the Above (NOTA) option is more than
he is the Head of the Government. that polled for any candidate, then the
Which of the statements given above is/are polls are re-conducted.
correct? 2. The political parties cannot receive more
(a) 1 only than ₹2,000 as cash donations from an
(b) 2 only individual at a time.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Corporate contributions to political parties
cannot be more than 7.5 per cent of the net
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
profit of a company’s past three financial
years.
47. Which of the following details are to be 4. Foreigners can contribute funds to the
mandatorily given by every candidate, through political parties by purchasing the
a legal declaration, who is contesting electoral bonds.
parliamentary elections?
1. All criminal and civil cases pending incorrect?
against him/her.
2. Details of assets and liabilities of his/her
(c) Only three (d) All four
family
3. Educational qualifications
4. Details of his past political affiliations
reference to the State Information
How many of the statements given above are Commission:
correct?
1. The State Chief Information
(a) Only one Commissioner and the State Information
(b) Only two Commissioners are appointed as well as
(c) Only three removed from office by the Governor.
(d) All four 2. The State Information Commissioner is
eligible for appointment as State Chief
48. With reference to the reservation of seats for Information Commissioner but cannot
Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes hold office for more than a total of five
(STs) in Parliament, consider the following years including his term as State
statements: Information Commissioner.
1. Seats are reserved for SCs and STs only in 3. The salary, allowances and other service
Lok Sabha and not in Rajya Sabha. conditions of the State Chief Information
2. Equal number of seats are reserved for Commissioner are similar to those of an
SCs and STs in Parliament from each Election Commissioner.
state. How many of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only (b) Only two
(b) 2 only (c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
FOR PRELIMS
pPLT-4 (Polity 4.0)

Explanation:
• Statement 1 and 2 is correct: Based on Section 62(5) of the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951 -
No person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of
imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful custody of the police: Provided that
nothing in this sub-section shall apply to a person subjected to preventive detention under any law
for the time being in force.

Explanation:
• All of the given options require amendments for the successful implementation of simultaneous
elections in India.
• The following articles require amendments to facilitate simultaneous elections in India:
o Article 83 regarding the duration of Houses of Parliament
o Article 85 on the dissolution of Lok Sabha by the President
o Article 172 relating to the duration of state legislatures.
o Article 174 regarding the dissolution of state assemblies
o Article 356 on President's Rule
• To ensure stability of tenure for both parliament and assemblies, the Representation of People Act,
1951 must be amended. This amendment should include the following essential components:
o Restructuring the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India (ECI) to facilitate
necessary procedures for simultaneous elections.
o Addition of a definition of simultaneous elections to section 2 of the 1951 act.
3. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Once the Election Commission announces the commencement of elections,
ministers and other authorities are prohibited from sanctioning grants or payments from discretionary
funds. This measure is in place to prevent favoritism towards a particular group or class, as
governments are prone to announcing populist schemes during this time.
• Statement 2 is correct: During an election, ministers of both the central and state governments are
prohibited from entering any polling station or place of counting, unless they are there in their
capacity as a candidate, voter, or authorized agent. The Election Commission (EC) issues a set of
guidelines called the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) to regulate political parties and candidates
prior to elections. Essentially, the code outlines the rules and regulations that must be followed
during the election period.
o The Election Commission's Model Code of Conduct is not statutory but expected to be observed
by political parties, candidates, and polling agents in matters like election manifestos, speeches,
and conduct. Mandated by Article 324 of the Constitution, it remains effective from the
announcement of the poll schedule until the process is concluded.
MCC contains eight provisions dealing with:
• General Conduct: Criticism of political parties must be limited to their policies and programmes,
past record and work. Activities such as using caste and communal feelings to secure votes,
criticising candidates on the basis of unverified reports, bribing or intimidation of voters, etc. are
prohibited.
• Meetings: Parties must inform the local police authorities of the venue and time of any meeting in
time to enable the police to make adequate security arrangements.
• Processions: If two or more candidates plan processions along the same route, organisers must
establish a contact in advance to ensure that the processions do not clash. Carrying and burning
effigies representing members of other political parties is not allowed.
• Polling Day: All authorised party workers at polling booths should be given suitable badges or
identity cards. Identity slips supplied by them to voters shall be on plain (white) paper and shall not
contain any symbol, name of the candidate or the name of the party.
• Polling Booths: Only voters, and those with a valid pass from the EC are allowed to enter polling
booths.
• Observers: The EC will appoint observers to whom any candidates may report problems regarding
the conduct of the election.
• Party in power: The MCC incorporated certain restrictions in 1979, regulating the conduct of the
party in power.
o Ministers must not combine official visits with election work or use official machinery for the
same.
o The party must avoid advertising at the cost of the public exchequer or using official mass
media for publicity on achievements to improve chances of victory in the elections.
o Ministers and other authorities must not announce any financial grants, or promise any
construction of roads, provision of drinking water, etc.
o Other parties must be allowed to use public spaces and rest houses and these must not be
monopolised by the party in power.
• Election manifestos: Added in 2013, these guidelines prohibit parties from making promises that
exert an undue influence on voters, and suggest that manifestos also indicate the means to achieve
promises.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Delimitation commission or Boundary commission of India is a
commission established by the Government of India under the provisions of the Delimitation
Commission Act. The main task of the commission is redrawing the boundaries of the various
assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based on a recent census. The representation from each State
is not changed during this exercise. However, the number of SC and ST seats in a state are changed
in accordance with the census. The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis
of 2001 census under the provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002.
• Statement 2 is correct: It specifies the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of the
Houses.
It lays down the procedure for settling doubts and disputes arising out of elections. There are two RP
Acts: Representation of the People Act, 1950 and the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
The Representation of the People Act, 1950, was enacted to provide for the allocation of seats in the
House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of States. It
includes:
o Electoral Rolls for Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies
o Electoral Rolls for Council Constituencies
o Manner of filling seats in the Council of States to be filled by Representatives of Union
Territories
• Statement 3 is correct: The Representation of the People Act, 1951 was enacted containing
provisions for the actual conduct of elections to the Houses of Parliament and to the House or
Houses of the Legislature of each State, the qualifications and disqualifications for the membership
of these Houses, the corrupt practices and other election offences, and the decision of election
disputes.
Key Provisions of the Representation of the People Act (RPA),1951
o It regulates the actual conduct of elections and by-elections.
o It provides administrative machinery for conducting elections.
o It deals with the registration of political parties.
o It specifies the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of the Houses.
o It provides provisions to curb corrupt practices and other offences.
o It lays down the procedure for settling doubts and disputes arising out of elections.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: In June 2019 National People's Party became the eighth party to get that
recognition – after Congress, BJP, BSP, NCP, CPI, CPI(M) and Trinamool Congress and The
National People’s Party (NPP) has been recognised as the eighth national party by the Election
Commission of India, making it the first regional party of the north-east to be accorded the status.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The conditions for being listed as a national or a state party are specified
under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Election Commission lists political parties as "national party", "state
party" or "registered (unrecognized) party". For recognition as a national party, the conditions
specified under Paragraph 6B of the 1968 Order are: any one of four conditions needs to be
satisfied.
Conditions to be satisfied as a nation party:
o 6% vote share in the last Assembly polls in each of any four states, as well as four seats in the last
Lok Sabha polls; or
o 2% of all Lok Sabha seats in the last such election, with MPs
o elected from at least three states; or
o recognition as a state party in at least four states.
For recognition as a STATE PARTY, any one of five conditions needs to be satisfied:
➢ Two seats plus a 6% vote share in the last Assembly election in that state; or
➢ One seat plus a 6% vote share in the last Lok Sabha election from that state; or
➢ 3% of the total Assembly seats or 3 seats, whichever is more; or
➢ One of every 25 Lok Sabha seats (or an equivalent fraction) from a state; or
➢ An 8% state-wide vote share in either the last Lok Sabha or the last Assembly polls.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Any person mentioned in clause (a) of S.60 of the R P Act 1951 i.e.
o A member of the armed forces of the union.
o Members of a force to which the provisions of the Army Act,1950 (46 of 1950) have been made
applicable.
o Members of an armed forces of a state serving outside their state
o Persons who are employed under the GOI on a part outside India. E.g. Ambassadors of India.
(Overseas Electors)
• Statement 2 is correct: As per the latest regulations two categories of voters- senior citizen of more
than 80 years of age and PwD electors marked in the electoral roll -will have now choice of voting
either as absentee voter or as a regular voter on the poll day.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Election Commission has authorized officials of Delhi Metro Rail
Corporation, Northern Railway Services, and authorized media personnel as essential service
absentee voters. These officials can vote through postal ballots if they are on duty on the day of the
poll and unable to be present at the polling station.
7. Answer: (D) None of the Statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: ETPBS enables the entitled service voters to cast their vote (on
electronically received postal ballot) from their preferred location, which is outside their originally
assigned voting constituency. ETPBS is developed by Election Commission of India with the help
of Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC).
• Statement 2 is correct: It is a fully secured system, having two layers of security.
• Statement 3 is correct: Service Voter and the wife of a Service Voter who ordinarily resides with
him is eligible for ETPBS. The Election Commission of India's Electronically Transmitted Postal
Ballot System has recorded a highest service voter turnout ratio during Lok Sabha election 2019.
Extra information:
• Service voters:
o Individuals working in central forces under arms act and government officials deployed in
embassies outside the country are classified as service voters and are provisioned for online
enrolment.
• Eligibility
o Classified service voters, other than those who opt for proxy voting.
o The wife of a service voter who ordinarily resides with him.
o Overseas voters Features.
• Flexibility: Service voters can avail this service from anywhere outside their assigned constituency.
• Database: System facilitates creation of service voter electoral roll data.
• Secure: It is a secure system, having two layers of security:
o OTP (one-time password) is required to download encrypted electronically transmitted postal
ballot files.
o PIN is required to decrypt, print and deliver ETPB.
• Less time consuming: Time constraint involved in dispatch of postal ballot has been addressed
using this system, as it sends postal ballots electronically to eligible service voters.
• No duplication: Secrecy is maintained and no duplication of cast ETPB is possible due to the unique
quick response code.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Hindi written in Devanagari script is to be the official language of the
Union. The Constitution contains the following provisions in respect of the official language of the
Union.
o Hindi written in Devanagari script is to be the official language of the Union. But the form of
numerals to be used for the official purposes of the Union has to be the international form of
Indian numerals and not the Devanagari form of numerals.
o However, for a period of fifteen years from the commencement of the Constitution (i.e., from
1950 to 1965). the English language would continue to be used for all the official purposes of
the Union for which it was being used before 1950.
o Even after fifteen years, the Parliament may provide for the continued use of English language
foe the specified purposes.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Parliament enacted the Official Languages Act in 1963.
• Statement 3 is correct: Official Languages Act provides for the continued use of English (even after
1965), in addition to Hindi, for all official purposes, of the Union and also for the transaction of
business in Parliament.
o Notably, this act enables the use of English indefinitely (without any time-limit); Further. this
act was amended in 1967 to make the use of English, in addition to Hindi, compulsory in
certain cases.
o For the time being, the official language of the Union (i.e., English) would remain in link
language for communications between the Union and the states or between various states.
o The Official Languages Act (1963) lays down that English should be used for purposes of
communication between the Union and the non-Hindi states (that is, the states that have not
adopted Hindi as their official language).

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Political parties in India are extra-constitutional institutions. The right to
form political parties is not mentioned in the Constitution of India.
• Statement 2 is correct: A recognised party (national or state) has the right to certain privileges like
allocation of the party symbols, provision of time for political broadcasts on the state-owned
television and radio stations and access to electoral rolls.
o These parties are allowed to have 40 “star campaigners” during the time of elections (the
registered-unrecognized parties are allowed to have 20 “star campaigners”).
o Every national party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use throughout the
country. Even in the states where it is not contesting elections.
o For a state party, the allotted symbol is exclusively reserved for its use in the state/s in which it
is so recognised.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: A political party is an organized group of citizens who hold common
views on governance and act as a political unit that seeks to obtain control of government with a
view to furthering the agenda and policy they profess. The right to form co-operative societies is a
fundamental right under Article 19 (1)(c), but the right to form political parties is not.
o Section 29A (5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 is the only major statutory
provision dealing with political parties in India Political parties in India.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women &
Child Development.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Under this Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005 The
Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years’ age group.
• Statement 3 is correct: Composition: This commission has a chairperson and six members of which
at least two should be women. All of them are appointed by the Central Government for three years.
The maximum age to serve in commission is 65 years for Chairman and 60 years for Members.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: As per the provision of the act, under chapter III, Clause 13(2), The
Commission shall not inquire into any matter which is pending before a State Commission or any
other Commission duly constituted under any law for the time being in force.
About NCPCR: Set up in March 2007 under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act,
2005.The Commission’s Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative
Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of
India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
Under the RTE Act, 2009, the NCPCR can:
o Inquire into complaints about violation of the law.
o Summon an individual and demand evidence.
o Seek a magisterial enquiry.
o File a writ petition in the High Court or Supreme Court.
o Approach the government concerned for prosecution of the offender.
o Recommend interim relief to those affected.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: There shall be a Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, who shall be
appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal, and shall only be removed from the
office in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
o Every person appointed to be the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India shall, before he
enters upon his office, make and subscribe before the President or some person appointed in
that behalf by him, an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the
Third Schedule.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Comptroller and Auditor- General shall not be eligible for further
office, either under the Government of India or under the government of any state, after he has
ceased to hold his office.
• Statement 3 is correct: The International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI)
operates as an umbrella organization for the external government audit community. The INTOSAI is
an autonomous, independent, and non- political organization. The Comptroller and Auditor-General
of India is the chair of the INTOSAI Committee on Knowledge Sharing and Knowledge Services
(KSC) and its Steering Committee.
The INTOSAI has four main Committees, which are the vehicles for the achievement of its four
strategic goals.
These Committees are:
o Professional Standards Committee (PSC)
o Capacity Building Committee (CBC)
o Knowledge Sharing and Knowledge Services Committee (KSC)
o Policy, Finance and Administrative Committee (PFAC)
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG
• The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India (CAG). He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and is
one of the bulwarks of the democratic system of government in India.
• He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both
the levels–the Centre and the state.
• His duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and laws of Parliament in the field of financial
administration.
Constitutional Provisions for Office of CAG
• Article 148broadly deals with the CAG appointment, oath and conditions of service.
• Article 149deals with Duties and Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
• Article 150 says that the accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as the
President may, on the advice of the CAG, prescribe.
• Article 151says that the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the
accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before
each House of Parliament.
• Article 279–Calculation of ―net proceeds‖ is ascertained and certified by the Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India, whose certificate is final Appointment.
Term & Removal
• The CAG is appointed by the President of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.
• The CAG holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65years, whichever is earlier.
• He can resign any time from his office by addressing the resignation letter to the president.
• He can also be removed by the president on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the
Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the president on the basis of a resolution
passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of
proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Independence.
The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independence of CAG:
• He is provided with the security of tenure and can be removed by the president only in accordance
with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure
of the president, though he is appointed by him.
• He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he
ceases to hold his office.
• His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament. His salary is equal to that
of a judge of the Supreme Court.
• Neither his salary nor his rights in respect of leave of absence, pension or age of retirement can be
altered to his disadvantage after his appointment.
• The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances and
pensions of persons serving in that office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and are
not subject to the vote of Parliament.
• No minister can represent the CAG in Parliament (both Houses) and no minister can be called upon
to take any responsibility for any actions done by him.
Duties of CAG
• CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India,
Consolidated Fund of each state and UT having a legislative assembly.
• CAG audits all expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as
well as the Contingency Fund and Public Account of each state.
• CAG audits all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts, balance sheets and other subsidiary
accounts kept by any department of the Central Government and the state governments.
• CAG audits the receipts and expenditure of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the
Central or State revenues; government companies; other corporations and bodies, when so required
by related laws.
• He ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty and his certificate is final on the
matter.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Lokpal has the jurisdiction to inquire into the allegations of
corruption against anyone who is or has been the Prime Minister, or a minister in the Union
Government, or a member of the Parliament, as well as the officials of the Union Government under
Groups A, B, C and D. Also covered are the Chairpersons, members, officers and directors of any
board, corporation, society, trust or autonomous body, either established by an Act of the Parliament,
or wholly or partly funded by the Union or the state government. It also covers any society or trust or
body that receives foreign contribution above ?10 lakh (approx. US$ 14,300, as of 2019).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Lokpal is headed by a Chairperson. The Chairperson can be any
person who is or has been a Chief Justice of India, or is or has been a judge of the Supreme Court, or
an eminent person who fulfils the criteria of other members for non-judicial member can become a
chairperson of the Lokpal.
• The criteria for the non-judicial member of the Lokpal:
As a member, other than a judicial member, if he is a person of impeccable integrity and outstanding
ability, having special knowledge and expertise of not less than 25 years in the matters relating to the
anti-corruption policy, public administration, vigilance, finance, including insurance and banking,
law and management.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Lokpal will have the power of superintendence and direction over any
central investigation agency, including the CBI, for the cases referred to them by the Ombudsman.
Lokpal Act of 2013:
• The Act allows setting up of anti-corruption ombudsman called Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayukta
at the State-level.
• Composition: The Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a maximum of eight members.
• Applicability: The Lokpal will cover all categories of public servants, including the Prime Minister.
But the armed forces do not come under the ambit of Lokpal.
• The Act also incorporates provisions for attachment and confiscation of property acquired by corrupt
means, even while the prosecution is pending.
• The States will have to institute Lokayukta within one year of the commencement of the Act. The
Act also ensures that public servants who act as whistleblowers are protected.
Lokpal Powers:
• The Lokpal will have the power of superintendence and direction over any investigation agency
including CBI for cases referred to them by the ombudsman.
• As per the Act, the Lokpal can summon or question any public servant if there exists a prima facie
case against the person, even before an investigation agency (such as vigilance or CBI) has begun the
probe. Any officer of the CBI investigating a case referred to it by the Lokpal, shall not be
transferred without the approval of the Lokpal.
• An investigation must be completed within six months. However, the Lokpal or Lokayukta may
allow extensions of six months at a time provided the reasons for the need of such extensions are
given in writing.
• Special courts will be instituted to conduct trials on cases referred by Lokpal.
Ambit of the Lokpal:
• For a wide range of public servants from the PM, ministers and MPs, to groups A, B, C and D
employees of the central government various rules are in place.
• If a complaint is filed against the PM, the Act says, ―Lokpal shall inquire or cause an inquiry to be
conducted into any matter involved in, or arising from, or connected with, any allegation of
corruption made in a complaint‖.
• However, certain conditions will apply. The Act does not allow a Lokpal inquiry if the allegation
against the PM relates to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic
energy and space.
• Also, complaints against the PM are not to be probed unless the full Lokpal bench considers the
initiation of an inquiry and at least two-thirds of the members approve it.
• Such an inquiry against the Prime Minister (if conducted) is to be held in camera and if the Lokpal
comes to the conclusion that the complaint deserves to be dismissed, the records of the inquiry are
not to be published or made available to anyone.
• Lokpal itself is also subjected to the Law: The Act also includes the Lokpal‘s own members
under the definition of ―public servant.
• The Chairperson, Members, officers and other employees of the Lokpal shall be deemed, when
acting or purporting to act in pursuance of any of the provisions of this Act to be public servants.
• It shall apply to public servants in and outside India.It clarifies that a complaint under this Act shall
only relate to a period during which the public servant was holding or serving in that capacity.
13. Answer: (C) All three statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Attorney General (AG) of India is a part of the Union Executive. AG
is the highest law officer in the country. Article 76 of the Constitution provides for the office of AG
of India. Term of the Office: Not fixed by the Constitution.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Removal: Procedures and grounds for the removal of AG are not stated in
the Constitution. He/She holds office during the pleasure of the President. He can quit by submitting
his resignation only to the President. Since he is appointed by the President on the advice of the
Council of Ministers, conventionally he is removed when the council is dissolved or replaced.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Remuneration of the Attorney General of India is not fixed by the
Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the President may determine.
Appointment and Eligibility:
• AG is appointed by the President on the advice of the government.
• S/he must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court, i.e. s/he must
be a citizen of India and must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of
some high court for ten years or eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President.
Duties and Functions:
• To give advice to the Government of India (GoI) upon such legal matters, which are referred to
her/him by the President.
• To perform such other duties of a legal character that are assigned to her/him by the President.
• To appear on behalf of the GoI in all cases in the Supreme Court or in any case in any High Court in
which the GoI is concerned.
• To represent the GoI in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143
(Power of the President to consult the Supreme Court) of the Constitution.
• To discharge the functions conferred on her/him by the Constitution or any other law. Rights and
Limitations:
• S/he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or
their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which s/he may be named a member, but
without a right to vote.
• S/he enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.
• S/he does not fall in the category of government servants. S/he is not debarred from private legal
practice.
• However, s/he should not advise or hold a brief against the GoI. Solicitor General of India and
Additional Solicitor General of India assist the AG in fulfillment of the official responsibilities.
Corresponding Office in the States: Advocate General (Article 165).
14. Answer: (C) All three statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The conditions of service, which were earlier similar to the Chief Election
Commissioner, have been made based on the rules made by the government.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the terms of the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019: (1) The term
of the office of the CIC has been reduced from 5 years to 3 years.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Removal of the CIC: The Chief Information Commissioner or any
Information Commissioner shall be removed from his office only by the order of the President on the
ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by
the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Chief Information Commissioner or any Information
Commissioner, as the case may be, ought on such ground be removed.
Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
Establishment:
The CIC was established by the Central Government in 2005, under the provisions of the Right to
Information Act (2005). It is not a constitutional body.
Members: It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information
Commissioners.
Appointment: They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of
the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet
Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
Jurisdiction: The jurisdiction of the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities.
Tenure: The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner shall hold office for
such term as prescribed by the Central Government or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is
earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.
Power and Functions of CIC:
• To receive and inquire into a complaint from any person regarding information requested under RTI,
2005.
• It can order an inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power).
• While inquiring, the Commission has the powers of a civil court in respect of summoning, requiring
documents etc.
15. Answer: (D) None of the Statements are correct.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Parliament may, by law, determine the qualifications which shall be
requisite for the appointment as the members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall
be selected.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Commission has chairman and four members appointed by the president.
Their term is decided by the president and they are eligible for re appointment. Thus removal is also
done by the president and does not have the impeachment process as seen with judges.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Qualifications: Constitution authorises parliament to decide qualification
of members. Parliament specifies chairman to be a person of experience in public affairs. Other
members should be selected from amongst following:
1) Judge of HC or one qualified to be appointed as one.
2) Person with specialised knowledge of finance and accounts.
3) Person with experience in financial matters and administration.
4) Person with specialised knowledge of economics.
The Finance Commission - Article 280 of the Constitution deals with the Finance Commission.
o The Parliament may, by law, determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for the
appointment as the members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected.
Functions: It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to:
• the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or
may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such
proceeds;
• the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the
Consolidated Fund of India;
• the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the
Panchayats and Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance
Commission of the State;
• any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance. The
Commission determines its procedure and have such powers in the performance of their functions as
Parliament may by law confer on them.
Appointment & Qualification:
• The Finance Commission is appointed by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution. As per
the provisions contained in the Finance Commission [Miscellaneous Provisions] Act, 1951 and The
Finance Commission (Salaries & Allowances) Rules, 1951, the Chairman of the Commission is
selected from among persons who have had experience in public affairs, and the four other members
are selected from among persons who:
o are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court; or
o have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of Government; or
o have had wide experience in financial matters and in administration; or
o have special knowledge of economics
Explanation:
• Statement 1, 2 and 4 are correct: It can visit any jail or any other institution under the control of
the State Government to see the living conditions of the inmates and to make recommendations
thereon. It can review the safeguards provided under the constitution or any law for the protection of
the human rights and can recommend appropriate remedial measures. To study treaties and other
international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective
implementation.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: NHRC investigates grievances regarding the violation of human rights
either suo moto or after receiving a petition.
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
• NHRC of India is an independent statutory body established on 12 October, 1993 as per provisions
of Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, later amended in 2006.
• NHRC has celebrated its Silver Jubilee (25 years) on October 12, 2018. Its headquarter is located in
New Delhi.
• It is the watchdog of human rights in the country, i.e. the rights related to life, liberty, equality and
dignity of the individual guaranteed by Indian Constitution or embodied in the international
covenants and enforceable by courts in India.
• It was established in conformity with the Paris Principles, adopted for the promotion and protection
of human rights in Paris (October, 1991) and endorsed by the General Assembly of the United
Nations on 20 December, 1993.
What are Human Rights?
• As per UN definition these rights are inherent to all human beings, regardless of race, sex,
nationality, ethnicity, language, religion, or any other status.
• Human rights include the right to life and liberty, freedom from slavery and torture, freedom of
opinion and expression, the right to work and education, and many more.
• These are entitled to everyone, without any discrimination.
Structure of the Commission
• NHRC is a multi-member body which consists of a Chairman and seven other members. Out of the
seven members, three are ex-officio member.
• President appoints the Chairman and members of NHRC on recommendation of high-powered
committee headed by Prime Minister.
• The Chairperson and the members of the NHRC are appointed for 5 years or till the age of 70 years,
whichever is earlier.
• They can be removed only on the charges of proved misbehavior or incapacity, if proved by an
inquiry conducted by a Supreme Court Judge.
• Commission also has five Specialized Divisions i.e. Law Division, Investigation Division, Policy
Research & Programmes Division, Training Division and Administration Division.
Functions and Powers of NHRC
• NHRC investigates grievances regarding the violation of human rights either suo moto or after
receiving a petition.
• It has the power to interfere in any judicial proceedings involving any allegation of violation of
human rights.
• It can visit any jail or any other institution under the control of the State Government to see the living
conditions of the inmates and to make recommendations thereon.
• It can review the safeguards provided under the constitution or any law for the protection of the
human rights and can recommend appropriate remedial measures.
• NHRC undertakes and promotes research in the field of human rights.
• NHRC works to spread human rights literacy among various sections of society and promotes
awareness of the safeguards available for the protection of these rights through publications, media,
seminars and other means.
• The Commission takes an independent stand while providing opinions for the protection of human
rights within the parlance of the Constitution or in law for the time being enforced.
• It has the powers of a civil court and can grant interim relief.
• It also has the authority to recommend payment of compensation or damages.
• It can recommend to both the central and state governments to take suitable steps to prevent the
violation of Human Rights. It submits its annual report to the President of India who causes it to be
laid before each House of Parliament.
Limitations of NHRC
• NHRC does not have any mechanism of investigation. In majority cases, it asks the concerned
Central and State Governments to investigate the cases of the violation of Human Rights
• It has been termed as 'India's teasing illusion' by Soli Sorabjee (former Attorney-General of India)
due to its incapacity to render any practical relief to the aggrieved party.
• NHRC can only make recommendations, without the power to enforce decisions.
• Many times NHRC is viewed as post-retirement destinations for judges and bureaucrats with
political affiliation moreover, inadequacy of funds also hampers it’s working.
• A large number of grievances go unaddressed because NHRC cannot investigate the complaint
registered after one year of incident.
• Government often out rightly rejects recommendation of NHRC or there is partial compliance to
these recommendations.
• National Human Rights Commission powers related to violations of human rights by the armed
forces have been largely restricted.
17. Answer: (C) Only four Statements are correct.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Initially, neither constitutional nor statutory body; Gained Statutory Status
under Prevention of corruption act; Acts as main agency for prevention of Corruption in Central
Govt; Recommended by Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption>
• Statement 2 is correct: Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed by the President by warrant
under his hand and seal.
Central Vigilance Commission
• Composition: Chairman as Central Commissioner; Members as Vigilance commissioners
• Appointment: By President- on Recommendations of Prime Minister+ Home Minister+ Leader of
Opposition (LS)
• Tenure: Till 65yrs or 4yrs [NHRC & CIC- 5yrs term]
• Removal: By President on Grounds of bankruptcy, unsound mind, infirmity of body or mind,
sentenced to imprisonment for a crime, or engages in paid employment or has acquired financial or
other interest that might affect his judgment| for proved misbehaviour or incapacity if SC inquiry
finds him guilty.
• Resignation: In writing to President
• Statement 3 is correct: Central Vigilance Commissioner is not eligible for further employment
under the Central or a state government.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: to present annually to the President a report on its performance, which is
laid before each house of the parliament
• Statement 5 is correct: The salary, allowances and other conditions of service of the Central
Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC.
Purpose:
• To receive written complaints for disclosure on any allegation of corruption or misuse of office &
recommend appropriate action Functions: To inquire on a reference made by Centre with respect to
Corruption charges on Government official under Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 Government
Officials like Members of AIS, group A officers & specialised officers at Centre; To exercise
superintendence over CBI u/PoC Act
• CBI has to take prior approval before investigating an official ranking Joint Secretary & above;
• To tender advice to Centre on the matters referred to them;
• To exercise superintendence over the vigilance administration in the ministries of the Central
Government or its authorities;
• To inquire into complaints received u/Public Interest Disclosure & Protection of Informers'
Resolution and recommend appropriate action;
• CVC is consulted by centre with respect to making rules & regulation with respect to disciplinary
matters for Central and All-India Services.
• CVC is chairman of committees with respect to appointment of director to CBI.
Jurisdiction:
• Members of All India Services serving in connection w/ the affairs of the Union and Group A
officers of the Central Government;
• Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks;
• Officers in Grade D and above in Reserve Bank of India, NABARD and SIDBI;
• Chief Executives and Executives on the Board and other officers of E-8 and above in Schedule 'A'
and 'B' Public Sector U/takings; Also of E-7 and above in Schedule 'C' and 'D' Public Sector
U/takings;
• Managers and above in General Insurance Companies;
• Officers drawing salary of Rs 8700/- p.m. and above on Central Govt D.A. pattern, as on the date of
the notification and as may be revised from time to time in Societies and other Local Authorities.
Working
• All the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character;
• Call for information or report from the Central Government or its authorities so as to enable it to
exercise general supervision over the vigilance and anti-corruption work in them;
Limitations:
• Only an advisory body and not binding;
• Cannot direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer of the level of Joint Secretary and above on
its own;
• Does not have powers to register criminal case but only deals only w/vigilance or disciplinary cases.
• Only supervisory powers over CBI, no power to call for a filer or direct CBI to investigate cases.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Measures to be taken over conferring ownership rights in respect of minor
forest produce to STs living in forest areas
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Measures to be taken to reduce and ultimately eliminate the practice of
shifting cultivation by tribals that lead to their continuous disempowerment and degradation of land
and the environment
• Statement 3 is correct: Measures to be taken safeguard rights of the tribal communities over
mineral resources, water resources etc. as laid down by law.
National Commission for Schedule Tribes
National Commission for Schedule Tribes
Formation: NCST was set up with effect from 19th February, 2004 by amending Article 338 and by
inserting a new article 338A in the Constitution through the 89th Constitution Amendment Act, 2003.
Hence, it is a constitutional body.
Objective: Article 338A inter-alia gives powers to the to NCST oversee the implementation of various
safeguards provided to STs under the Constitution or under any other law for time being in force or
under any other order to the Government and to evaluate the working of such safeguards.
Composition: It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and 3 other Members who are appointed
by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
o At least one member should be a woman.
o The Chairperson, the Vice-Chairperson and the other Members hold office for a term of 3 years.
o The members are not eligible for appointment for more than two terms.
o The Chairperson has been given the rank of Union Cabinet
o Ministers, the Vice Chairperson has the rank of a Minister of State and other Members have the rank
of a Secretary to the Government of India.
In 2005, the President specified the following functions of the Commission in relation to the
protection, welfare and development and advancement of the STs:
i. Measures to be taken over conferring ownership rights in respect of minor forest produce to STs
living in forest areas
ii. Measures to be taken to safeguard rights of the tribal communities over mineral resources, water
resources etc., as per law
iii. Measures to be taken for the development of tribals and to work for more viable livelihood
strategies
iv. Measures to be taken to improve the efficacy of relief and rehabilitation measures for tribal
groups displaced by development projects
v. Measures to be taken to prevent alienation of tribal people from land and to effectively
rehabilitate such people in whose case alienation has already taken place
vi. Measures to be taken to elicit maximum cooperation and involvement of tribal communities for
protecting forests and undertaking social afforestation
vii. Measures to be taken to ensure full implementation of the Provisions of Panchayats (Extension to
the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
viii. Measures to be taken to reduce and ultimately eliminate the practice of shifting cultivation by
tribals that lead to their continuous disempowerment and degradation of land and the
environment.
Schedule Tribes:
• As per Census-1931, Schedule tribes are termed as "backward tribes" living in the "Excluded" and
"Partially Excluded" areas. The Government of India Act of 1935 called for the first time for
representatives of "backward tribes" in provincial assemblies.
• The Constitution does not define the criteria for recognition of Scheduled Tribes and hence the
definition contained in 1931 Census was used in initial years after independence.
• However, Article 366(25) of the Constitution only provides process to define Scheduled Tribes:
"Scheduled Tribes means such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within such tribes or
tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of this
Constitution."
• 342(1): The President may with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a State, after
consultation with the Governor, by a public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or
part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or
Union Territory.
• There are over 700 tribes which have been notified.
• The largest number of tribal communities (62) are found in Odisha.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: State Human Rights Commission is a Non-constitutional body.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights Commission are
appointed by the Governor but they can be removed only by the President (and not by the Governor).
• Statement 3 is correct: State Human Rights Commission review the constitutional and other legal
safeguards for the protection of human rights. It can enquire into violation of human rights only in
respect of subjects mentioned in the state list and concurrent list.
State Human Rights Commission

• Composition: It consists of a Chairman and two members. The chairperson and members are
appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Chief Minister
as its head.
• Appointment: The chairman should be retired Chief Justice of High Court or a member who should
be serving or retired judge of the high court for the district judge in the state with a minimum of 7
years’ experience as a district judge and a person having knowledge of practical experience with
respect to human rights.
• Tenure: The chairperson and members hold office for a term of 3 years or until they attend the age
of 70.
• Role and Function
o It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character.
o It is empowered to utilise the services of any officer of State government for the purpose of
investigating complaints of human rights violation.
o It can look into a matter within one year of its occurrence, i.e the Commission is not empowered
to inquire into any matter after the expiry of one year from the date on which the act constituting
violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed.
o The functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature.
o It has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award any relief including
monetary relief to the victim.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The CAG has more freedom with regard to audit of expenditure than with
regard to audit of receipts, stores and stock. In relation to expenditure, he decides the scope of audit
and frames his own audit codes and manuals whereas he has to proceed with the approval of the
Executive government in relation to rules for the conduct of the other audits.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated
Fund of India, Consolidated Fund of each state and UT's having a legislative assembly. He audits all
expenditure from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the
Contingency Fund and Public Account of each state.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution of India visualizes the CAG to be Comptroller as well as Auditor
General. However, in practice, the CAG is fulfilling the role of an Auditor-General only. In other words,
the CAG has no control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund and many departments are
authorized to draw money by issuing cheques without specific authority from the CAG.
Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG) of India
• The CAG is an agent of the Parliament and conducts audit of expenditure on behalf of the
Parliament. Therefore, he is responsible only to Parliament.
• The role of CAG is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of
financial administration. The accountability of the Executive (i.e., Council of Ministers) to
Parliament in the sphere of financial administration is secured through audit reports of the CAG.
• In addition to the legal and regulatory audit, the CAG can also conduct the propriety audit, that is, he
can look into the 'wisdom faithfulness and economy' of government expenditure and comment on the
wastefulness and extravagance of such expenditure. The CAG has to ascertain whether money
shown in the accounts as having been disbursed was legally available for and applicable to the
service or the purpose to which they have been applied or charged and whether the expenditure
conforms to the authority that governs it.
CAG derives its audit mandate from different sources like–
• Constitution (Articles 148 to 151)
• The Comptroller and Auditor General’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971
• Important Judgments
• Instructions of Government of India
• Regulations on Audit & Accounts-2007
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The UPSC presents, annually, to the President a report on its performance.
The President places this report before both the Houses of the Parliament, along with a memorandum
explaining the cases where the advice of the Commission was not accepted and the reasons for such
non-acceptance. All such cases of non-acceptance must be approved by the Appointments
Committee of the Union Cabinet. An individual ministry or department has no power to reject the
advice of the UPSC.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Only the appointments committee of the cabinet can reject advice of ministry but
it must give reasons for non-acceptance. Individual ministries or departments can’t reject it.
• Statement 3 is correct: It is not concerned with the classification of services, pay and service
conditions, cadre management, training, and so on. These matters are handled by the Department of
Personnel and Training-one of the three departments of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances
and Pensions. Therefore, the UPSC is only a central recruiting agency, while the Department of
Personnel and Training is the central personnel agency in India.
• Statement 4 is correct: The emergence of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) in 1964
affected the role of the UPSC in disciplinary matters. This is because both are consulted by the
government while taking disciplinary action against a civil servant. The problem arises when the two
bodies tender conflicting advice. However, the UPSC, being an independent constitutional body, has
an edge over the CVC, which is created by an executive resolution of the Government of India and
conferred a statutory status in 2003.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in
January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 (Act No. 20 of 1990 of Govt.of
India) review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women; recommend remedial legislative
measures; facilitate redressal of grievances and advise the Government on all policy matters
affecting women
• Statement 2 is correct: The Commission shall look into complaints and can take suo moto notice of
matters relating to: - deprivation of women's rights; non-implementation of laws enacted to provide
protection to women and also to achieve the objective of equality and development. Non-compliance of
policy decisions, guidelines or instructions aimed at mitigating hardships and ensuring welfare and
providing relief to women, and take up the issues arising out of such matters with appropriate authorities
• Statement 3 is correct: The Commission shall consist of a Chairperson, committed to the cause of
women, to be nominated by the Central Government; five Members to be nominated by the Central
Government from amongst persons of ability, integrity and standing who have had experience in law
or legislation, trade unionism, management of an industry potential of women, women's voluntary
organizations (including women activist ), administration, economic development, health, education
or social welfare; Provided that at least one Member each shall be from amongst persons belonging
to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes respectively.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Only the office of the Attorney General is created by the Constitution.
Article 76 does not mention about the solicitor general and additional solicitor general. The Solicitor
General of India (SGI) is subordinate to the Attorney General for India. They are the second-highest
law officer of the country, assists the Attorney General, and is assisted by Additional Solicitors
General of India (Addl. SGIS). The SGI and the Addl. SGIs advise the Government and appear on
behalf of the Union of India in terms of the Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1972.
However, unlike the post of Attorney General for India, which is a Constitutional post under Article
76 of the Constitution of India, the posts of the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors
General are merely statutory.
• Statement 2 is correct: In addition to the AG, there are other law officers of the Government of
India. They are the solicitor general of India and additional solicitor general of India. They assist the
AG in the fulfillment of his official responsibilities.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) recommends the
appointment and officially appoints the Solicitor General. The proposal for appointment of Solicitor
General and Additional Solicitor General is generally moved at the level of Joint secretary (or Law
Secretary) in the Department of Legal Affairs and after obtaining the approval of the Minister of
Law & Justice, the proposal then goes to ACC and then President.
Solicitor General- Key facts:
• Solicitor General is the second highest law officer in the country.
• He is subordinate to the Attorney General of India, the highest law officer and works under him.
• He also advises the government in legal matters.
• Solicitor general is appointed for period of three years by Appointment Committee of Cabinet
chaired by Prime Minister.
Duties:
• To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, and to perform such other duties of a
legal character, as may from time to time, be referred or assigned to him by the Government of India.
• To appear, whenever required, in the Supreme Court or in any High Court on behalf of the
Government of India in cases (including suits, writ petitions, appeal and other proceedings) in which
the Government of India is concerned as a party or is otherwise interested.
• To represent the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court
under Article 143 of the Constitution.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body
(123rd constitutional amendment bill 2017 and 102nd amendment 2018 in constitution to make it
constitutional body) (Article 338B of the Indian Constitution) under Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment established on 14 August 1993
• Statement 2 is correct: The commission was the outcome of Indra Sawhney & Ors. Vs. Union of
India.In Indra Sawhney case of 1992, Supreme Court had directed the government to create a
permanent body to entertain, examine and recommend the inclusion and exclusion of various
Backward Classes for the purpose of benefits and protection.
o In pursuant to these directions parliament passed National Commission for Backward Classes
Act in 1993 and constituted the NCBC.
o 123rd Constitution Amendment bill of 2017 was introduced in Parliament to safeguard the
interests of backward classes more effectively.
o The bill got the President assent in August 2018 and provided the constitutional status to NCBC.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: NCBC has to discharge such other functions in relation to the protection,
welfare and development and advancement of the socially and educationally backward classes as the
President may, subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, by rule specify. It has all the
powers of a civil court while trying a suit.
Structure of NCBC
• The Commission consists of five members including a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and three
other Members appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
• The conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other
Members is determined by President.
Constitutional Provisions
• Article 340 deals with the need to, inter alia, identify those "socially and educationally backward
classes", understand the conditions of their backwardness,
• and make recommendations to remove the difficulties they face.
• 102nd Constitution Amendment Act inserted new Articles 338 B and 342 A.
• The amendment also brings about changes in Article 366.
• Article 338B provides authority to NCBC to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding
socially and educationally backward classes.
• Article 342 A empowers President to specify socially and educationally backward classes in various
states and union territories. He can do this in consultation with Governor of concerned State.
However, law enacted by Parliament will be required if list of backward classes is to be amended.
Powers and Functions
• The commission investigates and monitors all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the
socially and educationally backward classes under the Constitution or under any other law to
evaluate the working of such safeguards.
• It participates and advises on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally
backward classes and to evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and any State.
• It presents to the President, annually and at such other times as the Commission may deem fit,
reports upon the working of those safeguards. The President laid such reports before each House of
Parliament.
• Where any such report or any part thereof, relates to any matter with which any State Government is
concerned, a copy of such report shall be forwarded to the State Government.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The National Security Council (NSC) of India is a three-tiered organization
that oversees political, economic, energy and security issues of strategic concern. It operates within
the executive office of the prime minister of India, liaising between the government’s executive
branch and the intelligence services, advising leadership on intelligence and security issues. The
National Security Council comprises the Strategic Policy Group, the National Security Advisory
Board and a secretariat from the Joint Intelligence Committee.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: PM can chair the meeting of NSC (for eg - PM chaired the meeting of
NSC Post Pulwama to discuss heightened tension with Pakistan). Other members may be invited to
attend its monthly meetings, as and when it is required.
But maximum number of times it is headed by National security advisor.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Ministers of Home Affairs, Defence, External Affairs and Finance are
its members. Besides the National Security Advisor (NSA), Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), the
Deputy National Security Advisors, the Ministers of Defence, External Affairs, Home, Finance of
the Government of India, and the Vice Chairman of the NITI Aayog are members of the National
Security Council.
Three tier Structure:
• NSC comprises the three tier structure- Strategic Policy Group (SPG), the National Security
Advisory Board (NSAB) and the National Security Council Secretariat.
• The SPG chaired by the Cabinet Secretary is the principal forum for inter-ministerial coordination
and integration of the relevant inputs.
• The NSAB undertakes long-term analysis and provides perspectives on issues of national security.
Mission and Vision of National Security Council
The mission of NSC is to –
o Advise the President on national security-related matters,
o Provide supervision and guidance over the NICA and general supervision over the intelligence
community, and
o Coordinate the national government efforts in the pursuit of the national security goals and
strategic objectives.
The vision of NSC –
The National Security Council envisions the national security institution that is responsive to the
changing challenges and opportunities, within and outside the country and a policy advisory body that
will effectively contribute to the provision of an enabling environment that will enhance socio-economic
development and national governance.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: he Eighth Schedule to the constitution of India lists the official languages of
India. Although there are hundreds of languages spoken across the country, the eighth schedule
recognises a total of 22 languages as the official languages.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Census 2011, top 5 Scheduled Languages spoken in India are:
Hindi (43.63%), Bengali (8.30%), Marathi (7.09%), Telugu (6.93%) Tamil (5.89%). Thus, Bengali is
the second most spoken language in India after Hindi
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The 8th Schedule has been amended only 3 times 967, Sindhi was added
by 21st CAA | 1992, Konkani, Manipuri & Nepali was added by 71st CAA 2003, Santhali, Maithali
& Bodo was added by 92nd CAA
Why in news
• A private member's bill was introduced in the ongoing Winter Session of the Parliament to give all
22 languages mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution the stature of national official
languages.
22 Official Languages
• The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages: (1) Assamese, (2)
Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9)
Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil,
(17) Telugu,(18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
• Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution.
• Sindhi language was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967.
• Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992.
• Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
Eighth Schedule and related Constitutional Provisions
• Part XVII of the Indian constitution deals with the official languages in Articles 343 to 351.
• Article 344: Article 344(1) provides for the constitution of a Commission by the President on
expiration of five years from the commencement of the Constitution.
• Article 351: It provides for the spread of the Hindi language to develop it so that it may serve as a
medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Competition Commission of India is the competition regulator in India. It
is a statutory body of the Government of India responsible for enforcing The Competition Act, 2002
and promoting competition throughout India and to prevent activities that have an appreciable
adverse effect on competition in India.
• Statement 2 is correct: To eliminate practices having adverse effects on competition, promote and
sustain competition, protect the interests of consumers and ensure freedom of trade in the markets of
India.
• Statement 3 is correct: It has the power to carry out investigations if any e-commerce company use
their dominant position to stifle competition. For example, In January 2020, it had launched an
investigation into Amazon and Flipkart for abusing their dominant positions and carrying out
acquisitions with the aim to stifle competition and for using predatory pricing tactics.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: It Protect against market distortions: The need for competition law arises
because markets can suffer from failures and distortions, and various players can resort to anti-
competitive activities such as cartels, abuse of dominance etc. which adversely impact economic
efficiency and consumer welfare.
Formation of CCI:
• The CCI was established under the provisions of the Competition act 2002.
• The Competition Act, 2007, was enacted after amending Competition Act, 2002, that led to the
establishment of the CCI and the Competition Appellate Tribunal.
• The government replaced the Competition Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT) with the National
Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in 2017.
• A Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by the Central Government.
Functions and Role of CCI:
• To eliminate practices having adverse effects on competition, promote and sustain competition,
protect the interests of consumers and ensure freedom of trade in the markets of India.
The Competition Commission of India takes the following measures to achieve its objectives:
• Consumer welfare to make the markets work for the benefit and welfare of consumers.
• Ensure fair and healthy competition in economic activities in the country for faster and inclusive
growth and development of the economy.
• Implement competition policies with an aim to effectuate the most efficient utilization of economic
resources.
• Develop and nurture effective relations and interactions with sectoral regulators to ensure smooth
alignment of sectoral regulatory laws in tandem with the competition law.
• Effectively carry out competition advocacy and spread the information on benefits of competition
among all stakeholders to establish and nurture competition culture in Indian economy.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The 102nd constitutional amendment (Inserted Articles 338B and 342 A
after Article 342) was related to giving constitutional status to the National Commission of
Backward Classes and interpretation of this constitutional amendment effectively struck a blow to
the authority of state governments in identifying backward classes and provide them with reservation
benefits.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the Constitution of India, Articles 15(4), 15(5) and 16(4)
confer power on a state to identify and declare the list of socially and educationally backward
classes. As a matter of practice, separate OBC lists are drawn up by the Centre and each state
concerned.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution 127th Amendment Bill, 2021 was passed with unanimous
support in Lok Sabha, recently. The 127th Amendment Bill is designed to clarify that the states can
maintain the "state list" of OBCs as was the system prior to the Supreme Court judgment. Articles
366 (26c) defines socially and educationally backward classes. The "state list" will be completely
taken out of the ambit of the president and will be notified by the state Assembly as per the proposed
Bill.
29. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: It has been established under the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights)
Act, 2019 Five representatives of the transgender community are the members of this body. The
main aim of this is to mainstream the transgender community’s concerns, focusing on livelihood
issues as well as to raise awareness about the trans community, so that transpersons are accepted
within families and in the larger society.
COMPOSITION
• Statement 2 is incorrect: In exercise of the powers conferred by section 16 of the Transgender
Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 (40 of 2019), the Central Government has constituted a
National Council for Transgender Persons vide notification dated 21st August, 2020. The Union
Minister of Social Justice & Empowerment will be Chairperson (ex-officio) and Union Minister of
State for Social Justice & Empowerment will be Vice-Chairperson.
• It will also consist of: Representatives from five states or Union Territories (one each from the north,
south, east, west and northeast regions), on a rotational basis.
• Five members of the transgender community (one each from the north, south, east, west and
northeast regions). The tenure of the community members shall be three years.
The National Council for Transgender Persons shall perform the following functions:
i. To advise the central government on the formulation of the policies, programmes, legislation and
projects with respect to the transgender persons;
ii. To monitor and evaluate the impact of the policies and programmes designed for achieving
equality and full participation of the transgender persons;
iii. To review and co-ordinate the activities of all the departments of the government, and other
governmental and nongovernmental organizations, which are dealing with the matters relating to
the transgender persons;
iv. To redress the grievances of the transgender persons; and
v. To perform such other functions as may be prescribed by the central government."
Definition of a Transgender Person:
• The Act defines a transgender person as one whose gender does not match the gender assigned at
birth. It includes trans-men and trans-women, persons with intersex variations, gender-queers, and
persons with socio-cultural identities, such as kinnar and hijra.
• Certificate of Identity: The Act states that a transgender person shall have the right to self-
perceived gender identity. A certificate of identity can be obtained at the District Magistrate's office
and a revised certificate is to be obtained if sex is changed.
30. Answer: (D) All four statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The States Reorganization Commission (SRC) 1956, recommended for
creation of a mechanism to address the grievances of the Linguistic Minorities. Based on the
recommendations of the SRC, 7th Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1957 was enacted, whereby
Articles, 350 A & B were included in the Constitution. Article 350-B provides for a Special Officer
for Linguistic Minorities, who is known as the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities in India
(CLM) to investigate all the matters relating to the Safeguards provided for the linguistic minorities
in India under the Constitution and reporting to the President upon those matters at such intervals as
the President may direct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and
allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The office falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: He/she would report to the President upon those matters at such intervals
as the President may direct. The President should place all such reports before each House of
Parliament and send it to the governments of the states concerned. It must be noted here that the
Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions,
and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Vision:
Streamlining and strengthening implementation machinery and mechanism for effective implementation
of the Constitutional safeguards for the Linguistic Minorities, thereby ensuring protection of the rights of
speakers of the minority languages so as to provide them equal opportunities for inclusive and integrated
development. The Commissioner launched a 10-point Programme to lend fresh impetus to Governmental
efforts towards the preservation of the language and culture of linguistic minorities.
Objectives:
• To provide equal opportunities to the linguistic minorities for inclusive development and national
integration.
• To spread awareness amongst the linguistic minorities about the safeguards available to them. To
ensure effective implementation of the safeguards provided for the linguistic minorities in the
Constitution and other safeguards, which are agreed to by the states / UTs.
• To handle the representations for redress of grievances related to the safeguards for linguistic
minorities.
What is a Linguistic Minority?
• Before we go into detail on what is a Special Officer for a Linguistic Minority, one must know the
definitions of linguistic minority.
• A linguistic minority is a class of people whose mother tongue is different from that of the majority
in the state or part of a state. the constitution provides for the protection of the interests of linguistic
minorities.
• About 36.3 million of India’s 1.2 billion strong population (as per the Census of 2011) speak an
“absolute minority language”, a language which in every of India’s 28 States forms a minority.
31. Answer: (D) All four statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: A wide discretion has been given to the Government under the
Constitution to appoint the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners. They are
appointed under Article 324 of the Constitution by the President of India. However, no qualifications
or eligibility conditions have been laid down in the Constitution for their appointment. Article 324
merely states that the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election
Commissioners shall, subject to the provisions of any law made in that behalf by Parliament, be
made by the President.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election
commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners
from any further appointment by the government.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Article 324 of the constitution provides that the power of superintendence,
direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and
the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Panchayat elections
are held by State Election Commission.
Election Commission
The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for
administering Union and State election processes in India.
• The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies in
India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
• Constitution
• Art 324- Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission.
• Art 325- No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special, electoral
roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
• Art 326- Elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on
the basis of adult suffrage.
• Art 327- Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to Legislatures.
• Art 328- Power of Legislature of a State to make provision with respect to elections to such
Legislature.
• Art 329- Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters.
Structure of the Commission
• Originally the commission had only one election commissioner but after the Election Commissioner
Amendment Act 1989, it has been made a multi-member body.
• The secretariat of the commission is located in New Delhi.
• At the state level election commission is helped by Chief Electoral Officer who is an IAS rank
Officer.
Procedure of Removal
• Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court, CEC, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) may be
Removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of 'Proven misbehaviour
or incapacity'.
• Removal requires special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50%
of the total strength of the house.
• The Constitution does not use the word 'impeachment', for the removal of the judges, CAG, CEC.
• The term 'Impeachment' is only used for removing the President which requires the special majority
of 2/3rd members of the total strength of both the houses which is not used elsewhere.
Functions
• Election Commission of India superintendents, direct and control the entire process of conducting
elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-
President of India.
• The most important function of the commission is to decide the election schedules for the conduct of
periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye-elections.
• It prepares electoral roll, issues Electronic Photo Identity Card (EPIC).
• It decides on the location polling stations, assignment of voters to the polling stations, location of
counting centers, arrangements to be made in and around polling stations and counting centers and
all allied matters.
• It grants recognition to political parties & allot election symbols to them along with settling disputes
related to it.
• The Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of
sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
• It issues the Model Code of Conduct in election for political parties and candidates so that the no one
indulges in unfair practice or there is no arbitrary abuse of powers by those in power.
• It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties, and also monitors the
same.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral
rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election
Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
However, 2nd ARC recommended that the State Election Commissioner (SEC) should be appointed
by the Governor on the recommendation of a collegium, comprising the Chief Minister, the Speaker
of the State Legislative Assembly and the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the Indian Constitution, it is not mandatory for the
governments to provide for a separate independent and permanent Secretariat either for ECI or for
the State Election Commissions. However, Law Commission 255th Report on Electoral Reforms: It
recommended, adding a new sub-clause to Article 324 of the Constitution to provide for a separate
independent and permanent Secretariat for the Election Commission of India (ECI) along the lines of
the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha Secretariats under Article 98 of the Constitution.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Election Commission of India does not have the power to issue
directions to the State Election Commission for the discharge of its functions. Under article 243K:
Elections to the Panchayats The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral
rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election
Commission.
33. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 244(1) of the Constitution, Paragraph 4 of the Fifth
Schedule provides for the constitution of the Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) in each State having
Scheduled Areas.
o COMPOSITION: Tribes Advisory Council shall consist of not more than 20 members of
whom, as nearly as may be, three-fourths shall be representatives of Scheduled Tribes in State
Legislative Assembly provided that if number of representatives of STs in State Assembly is less
than number of seats in TAC to be filled by such representatives, remaining seats shall be filled
by other members of those tribes.
• Statement 2 is correct: Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) have been constituted in 10 states having
Scheduled Areas therein namely Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal
Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan. Further, the States of
West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Uttarakhand not having any notified Scheduled Area also have
Tribes Advisory Council constituted therein. Accordingly, there is no State (mandated to establish
TAC), which have not constituted TAC.
34. Answer: (D) All four statements are correct.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The National investigation agency is the central counter terrorism law
enforcement agency in the country. It was created in 2008 after the Mumbai Terror attack the
same year. NIA functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Recently Ministry has directed
the National Investigation Agency to take over the investigation into Udaipur case. NIA
investigates terror attacks, waging war against country, offences on nuclear offences etc.
• Statement 2 is correct: The NIA (Amendment) act 2019 was passed by the parliament and
received the presidential assent in July 2019. This act has made a few major changes to the
original NIA Act of 2008. One among them was the expansion of jurisdiction of the NIA. Now it
has the authority to investigate offences that are committed outside Indian Territory subject to
International Treaties and domestic laws of other nations.
• Statement 3 is correct: The schedule to the Act specifies a list of offences which are to be
investigated and prosecuted by the NIA. These include offences under Acts such as the Atomic
Energy Act, 1962, and the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, 1967. The Amendment Bill seeks
to allow the NIA to investigate the following offences, in addition: (i) human trafficking, (ii)
offences related to counterfeit currency or bank notes, (iii) manufacture or sale of prohibited
arms, (iv) cyber-terrorism, and (v) offences under the Explosive Substances Act, 1908.
• Statement 4 is correct: Earlier NIA had the authority to declare organizations as terrorist
organizations, now for the first time we have given authority to NIA to declare organizations as
well as individuals as terrorists.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: It is exempted from the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act.
• Statement 2 is correct: The CBI manual says, “The central government can authorize CBI to
investigate such a crime in a state but only with the consent of the concerned state government. The
Supreme Court and High Courts, however, can order CBI to investigate such a crime anywhere in
the country without the consent of the state.”
• Statement 3 is incorrect:
Types of Consent: There are two types of consent for a probe by the CBI. These are: general and
specific.
o When a state gives a general consent to the CBI for probing a case, the agency is not required to
seek fresh permission every time it enters that state in connection with investigation or for every
case.
o When a general consent is withdrawn, CBI needs to seek case-wise consent for investigation
from the concerned state government. If specific consent is not granted, the CBI officials will not
have the power of police personnel when they enter that state.
o There are few states at present which have withdrawn general consent to the CBI requiring the
agency to seek case-specific permission.
If the general consent is withdrawn:
o The CBI continues to probe in old cases until specifically taken back by the state government.
Further, it continues to investigate cases that were given to it by a court order. The CBI can
challenge the decision in a court showcasing its progress of investigation in the case. It can
approach a local court for a search warrant and conduct investigation
• Statement 4 is correct: There is a provision in the CrPC that allows search and investigation in a
state by outside agency but it has to happen through a local court or Higher Judicial Courts.
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
• The CBI came into being during the World War II, when the colonial government felt the need to
probe cases of corruption in the War and Supply Department. A law came in 1941. It became the
DSPE Act in 1946.
• The Act to set up CBI was not passed by Parliament. It was created by an executive order of the
government. In that sense, the CBI is not a statutory body.
• The CBI investigates three types of cases through three specialised wings. The Anti- Corruption
Division that probes cases of corruption against public servants. The Economic Offences Division
probes crimes of financial malfeasance, bank frauds, money laundering, black money operations, and
the like. However, the CBI usually transfers cases of money laundering to the Enforcement
Directorate (ED). There is a Special Crimes Division to investigate cases of violence such as murder,
crimes related to internal security such as espionage, narcotics and banned substances, and

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: It is the apex body to lay down policies, plans and guidelines for Disaster
Management to ensure a timely and effective response to disasters.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
• Statement 3 is correct: Its primary purpose is to coordinate the response to natural or man-made
disasters and for capacity-building in disaster resiliency and crisis response.
National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
• The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the apex body for Disaster Management in
India. Prime Minister heads NDMA. It is a statutory body created under the Disaster Management
Act 2005.
Organizational Structure
• The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA.
• The Cabinet Minister is the Vice- Chairman.
• The NDMA Secretariat, headed by a Secretary, is responsible for providing secretarial support and
continuity.
• Along with this, NDMA has 8 Ministers of State as its Members.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was set
up in March 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005, an Act
of Parliament (December 2005). National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a
statutory body under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development,
Government of India. One of the Core Mandates of the Commission is to inquire into complaints of
violations of child rights. The commission is also required to take suo moto cognizance of serious
cases of violation of child rights and to examine factors that inhibit the enjoyment of rights of
children.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Commission’s Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies,
Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective
as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.
Composition of the Commission:
• The National Commission for the Protection of Children’s Rights is mandated by Section 3 of the
Act, and as a result, the Central Government shall create a body to be known as the National
Commission for the Protection of Children’s Rights by notification. The commission’s members are
as follows:
• A Chairperson who is a prominent leader who has worked constantly to improve the welfare of
children; and
• Six members, at least two of whom must be women, will be nominated by the Central Government
from among individuals of eminence, talent, honesty, status, and experience in the following fields:
i. Education;
ii. Child health, care, welfare, or development;
iii. Juvenile justice or the care of neglected or marginalized children or children with disbilities;
iv. The abolition of child labor or the protection of children in distress;
v. Child psychology or sociology; and
vi. Child laws.
FUNCTION:
• The Commission is further mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012;
• Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
• Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
• In one of the functions laid down under Section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005, the Commission has
been assigned with the function to examine and review the safeguards provided by or under any law
for the time being in force for the protection of child rights and recommend measures for their
effective implementation.
NOTE: The Commission also has the powers of Civil Court trying a suit under Section 14 of CPCR Act,
2005 and Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
38. Answer: B
Explanation:
• Under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the governor of a state is required to constitute a
Finance Commission every five years. A State Finance Commission reviews the financial position of
the panchayats in a state and makes recommendations to the Governor about the principles that
should govern the distribution of tax proceeds – taxes, duties, levies, toll fee collected by the state
between the state and its Panchayati Raj Institutions at all three levels – village level, block level and
district level.
It also recommends the following:
i. Taxes, levies and fees levied or appropriated by Panchayats themselves.
ii. Grants-in-aid to Panchayati Raj Institutions from the consolidated fund of a state.
iii. Ways to improve the financial position of the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
iv. Measures for the overall improvement of Panchayat’s finances.
Under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution, the governor of a state ensures the laying of a State
Finance Commission’s recommendations to the table of the state legislature. It also includes a
memorandum of action taken by the government on the Commission’s report.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution of India vests in the State Election Commission, consisting
of a State Election Commissioner, the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of
electoral rolls for, and the conduct of all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities under the
Articles 243K, and 243ZA.Some of the states have provided for a provision to setup an Election
Tribunal at the State level to take up election related disputes. In this regard, for example in Punjab,
an Election Tribunal is constituted by the State Government in consultation with the State Election
Commissioner for each district or part thereof, at the District or Sub-Divisional Headquarters.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The conditions of SEC’s service and tenure of office are determined by
the governor. His conditions of service cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his/her
appointment.
• Statement 3 is correct: The State Election Commissioner has the status, salary and allowance of a
Judge of a High Court and cannot be removed from office except in like manner and on the like
grounds as a Judge of a High Court. The provisions of Article 243K of the Constitution, which
provides for setting up of SECs, are almost identical to those of Article 324 related to the Election
Commission.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down
the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer
of a legislature. The anti-defection law sought to prevent political defections. Legislators may be
disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by
any other member of the House.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Originally, the anti-defection law provided that the decision of the
presiding officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, in Kihoto Hollohan Case
(1993), the Supreme Court declared this provision as unconstitutional on the ground that it seeks to
take away the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts. Hence the decision taken by
presiding officer of the house is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fides.
• Statement 3 is correct: The anti-defection law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding
Officer to decide on a disqualification of members. The courts can intervene only after the Presiding
Officer has decided on the matter, the petitioner seeking disqualification has no option but to wait for
this decision to be made.
41. Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, by elections is held in one or a few constituencies due to the
death or resignation of candidates. However, it can also be held if an elected member resigns or gets
disqualified under parliamentary law. A member of a legislative assembly often leaves his position
vacant on various grounds, especially when he/she becomes inept. It could be the person’s untimely
death or a criminal conviction, which makes him ineligible to continue in office. In India by-
elections to the house of Parliament or a state legislature must be held within six months (not three
months) of occurrence of the vacancy. By-election is held with a definite purpose, which is to fill a
political office that has become vacant.
• Statement 2 is correct: By-elections are not mandatorily conducted where the remainder of the term
of the member whose vacancy is to be filled is less than one year. Also, when the Election
Commission in consultation with the Central Government, certifies that it is difficult to hold the by-
elections within the said period then By-elections can be deferred.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: In India, the Election machinery is operated effectively by the Election
Commission of India, Chief Electoral Officer, Returning Officer, Electoral Registration Officer,
Presiding officers and the Observers. The Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) ensres arrangements at
election booths and demonstration of EVMs in every district. He also looks out the proper sealing of
EVM and election papers.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) reviews the law-and-order situation in
the state and makes a detailed assessment to ensure that timely measures are taken. His role is to
maintain inter-state coordination and sealing of borders as needed. He ensures whether the security
deployment plan is in compliance with the Election Commission of India’s directives and also
ensures that Helpline and the Complaint Cell are functioning at different levels in the state.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: A Returning Officer (not CEO) who oversees the election in a
constituency or sometimes in two constituencies, as directed by the Election Commission is
responsible for allotting symbols to the contesting candidates.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The Returning Officer (not CEO) examines the nomination papers and
decide all objections which may be made to any nomination and may, either on such objection or on
his own motion, after such summary inquiry, if any, as he thinks necessary, or reject any nomination.
43. Answer: (C) All three statements are correct.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961,
Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for all matters of Union Territories relating to
legislation, finance and budget, services and appointment of Lt. Governors and Administrators. The
5 UTs without legislature (Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Daman & Diu and Dadra &
Nagar Haveli, Lakshadweep and Ladakh) have the forum of Home Minister’s Advisory Committee
(HMAC)/Administrator’s Advisory Committee (AAC).
• Statement 2 is correct: While Home Minister’s Advisory Committee is chaired by the Union Home
Minister, Administrator’s Advisory Committee is chaired by the Administrator of the concerned
UTs. The Advisory Committees have the following members:
a. Administrator of the UT
b. Member of Parliament representing the UT
c. Representatives of the District Panchayats and Municipal Council of the respective UTs
d. Nominated members from the civil society.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Advisory Committee shall be consulted in the matters related to:
a. General issues relating to social and economic development of the UTs.
b. All legislative proposals concerning UT in regard to the matters in the State List.
c. Internal security related matters.
d. Such matters related to Annual Financial Statement of the Union in so far as it concerns the
UT.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: No member of a board shall be eligible to be elected as the chairperson or
president or vice-chairperson or vice-president of a multi-state cooperative society if such member is
a Minister in the Central Government or a State Government.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the provisions of MSCS ACT 2002, the conduct of elections to the
board of a multi-state cooperative society shall be the responsibility of the existing board (not the
Election Commission of India). The recent amendment bill to MSCS ACT 2002 suggests a
Cooperative Election Authority to ensure that elections are held in a fair, free and timely manner.
This, in turn, will help reduce incidents of complaints and malpractices. There is a provision to debar
offenders for three years to bring in more electoral discipline.
• Statement 3 is correct: No person shall be eligible to hold, at the same time, office of a president or
chairperson or vice-president or vice-chairperson on the board of more than two multistate
cooperative societies.
Aims and its formation:
• The multi state cooperative society directly comes under Department of Agriculture and
Cooperation, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Right now, a new ministry by the name
of Ministry of cooperation has been formed for handling all matters related to cooperative societies
falling under mscs act 2002.
• In certain cases, when the ministry of agriculture authorizes the state registrars to inspect the records
of the multi state cooperative society, the states can conduct their inspection.
• The major advantageous point which differentiates a multistate cooperative society from state
cooperative society is that there is no empanelment of returning officer for elections and chartered
accountant for auditing of society from the side of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
This smoothens the work of cooperative societies registered under MSCS Act, 2002 as they can
work without much headache and hurdles
45. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 bifurcated the existing combined
National Commission for SCs and STs and constituted a separate National Commission for Scheduled
Tribes. It further amended Article 338 and inserted a new Article 338A in the Constitution.
• Statement 2 is correct: The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is an Indian constitutional
body established with a view to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and
Anglo Indian communities to promote and protect their social, educational, economic and cultural
interests, special provisions were made in the Constitution. Article 338 of the Indian constitution
deals with National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
46. Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: All executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in the
name of President. He can make rules specifying the manner in which the orders and other
instruments made and executed in his name shall be authenticated. He also can make rules for more
convenient transaction of business of the Union government, and for allocation of the said business
among the ministers. Thus, the executive power of the Union of India is not vested in the Prime
Minister, but in the President.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Cabinet secretary (not Prime Minister) is the ex-officio chairman of the
Civil Services Board. The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The
administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of
the Civil Services Board. The business allocated to Cabinet Secretariat under Government of India
(Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 includes (i) Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and Cabinet
Committees; and (ii) Rules of Business.

Explanation:
• As per the Representation of People’s Act of 1951, every person who wishes to contest a
parliamentary election has to make a legal declaration giving full details of:
o Serious criminal cases pending against the candidate (and not civil cases). Hence
Statement 1 is incorrect.
o Details of the assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family, hence Statement 2
is correct.
o Educational qualifications of the candidate. This information has to be made public to
provide an opportunity to the voters to make their decision on the basis of the information
provided by the candidates. hence Statement 3 is correct.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: as the candidate does not have to furnish any information regarding his
past political affiliations.
• NOTE: Failure to furnish information or filing false information in the affidavit is a penal offence
under Section 125A of the Representation of People’s Act, 1951 which prescribes a penalty of
maximum six months or fine or both. However, unlike conviction for offences like bribery,
conviction under Section 125A does not result in disqualification of candidate.
48. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Some constituencies are reserved for people who belong to the Scheduled
Castes [SC] and Scheduled Tribes [ST] only in the Lok Sabha elections. There is no constitutional
provision for reservation of any kind in the council of states or Rajya Sabha, which has members
elected by the State Assemblies as distinct from the directly elected Lok Sabha. In a Scheduled Caste
reserved constituency only someone who belongs to the Scheduled Castes can stand for election.
Similarly, only those belonging to the Scheduled Tribes can contest an election from a constituency
reserved for ST. Currently, in the Lok Sabha, 84 seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes and 47
for the Scheduled Tribes (as on 26th January, 2019).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The constituencies reserved for SCs and STs in Lok Sabha are not spread
evenly over the entire country. The reserved constituencies for SCs and STs depend upon their
population in a state hence the number varies with population of the state.
o Article 334 of Indian Constitution provides for reservation of seats and special representation of
SC/STs in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
o The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Sixth Amendment) Act extended the reservation for SCs
and STs in the Lok Sabha and State assemblies for a period of 10 years up to January 25, 2030.

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Even if the number of electors opting for None of the Above (NOTA)
option is more than the number of votes polled by any of the candidates, the polls are not re-
conducted. And the candidate who secures the largest number of votes has to be declared elected.
• Statement 2 is correct: In 2017 budget, the limit for anonymous cash donations by any individual to
a political party has been lowered from ₹20,000 to ₹2,000. However, they are not required to inform
the Election Commission of India the details of persons who donate under ₹2,000.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: In 2017 budget, the limit on corporate contributions of 7.5 per cent of the
net profit of a company’s past three financial years has been removed. Further, the obligation of the
company to report such donations in its profit and loss account has also been lifted.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any
Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of State Bank of India. The
citizen or corporate can then donate the same to any eligible political party of his/her choice. The
electoral bonds may be purchased by a citizen of India or entities incorporated or established in
India. It is not an instrument for foreign political funding.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: They are appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee and
removed by the Governor on multiple grounds.
• Statement 2 is correct: The State Information Commissioner is eligible for appointment as State Chief
Information Commissioner but cannot hold office for more than a total of five years including his term as
State Information Commissioner.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 provided that the salary,
allowances and other service conditions of the State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information
Commissioner shall be such as prescribed by the Central Government. Before this amendment, the salary,
allowances and other service conditions of the State Chief Information Commissioner were similar to those of
an Election Commissioner and that of a State Information Commissioner were similar to those of the Chief
Secretary of the state government. State Information Commission
• The Right to Information Act of 2005 provides for the creation of not only the Central Information
Commission but also a State Information Commission at the state level. The State Information Commission is
a high-powered independent body which inter-alia looks into the complaints made to it and decide the
appeals. It entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions, public sector
undertakings, etc., under the concerned state government.
COMPOSOTION AND APPOINTMENT:
• The Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than 10 State Information
Commissioners. They are appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the
Chief Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly and a State Cabinet
Minister nominated by the Chief Minister.
• The State Chief Information Commissioner and a State Information Commissioner shall hold office for such
term as prescribed by the Central Government or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
They are not eligible for reappointment.
TENURE:
• The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 provided that: The State Chief Information Commissioner
and a State Information Commissioner shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central
government. Before this amendment, their term was fixed for 5 years.
• The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State Chief Information Commissioner and a State
Information Commissioner shall be such as prescribed by the Central Government. Before this amendment,
the salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State Chief Information Commissioner were similar
to those of an Election Commissioner and that of a State Information Commissioner were similar to those of
the Chief Secretary of the state government.
REMOVAL:
• The Governor can remove the State Chief Information Commissioner or any State Information Commissioner
from the office
o if he is adjudged an insolvent;
o or if he has been convicted of an offence which (in the opinion of the Governor) involves a moral
turpitude;
o or if he engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or if
he is (in the opinion of the Governor) unfit to continue in office due to infirmity of mind or body;
o or if he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his official
functions.
o In addition to these, the Governor can also remove the State Chief Information Commissioner or any
State Information Commissioner on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
FOR PRELIMS
(BATCH 3.0)
pPLT-5 (CURRENT AFFAIRS)
(JAN'23 TO FEB'23)
(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
CURRENT AFFAIRS
pPLT-5 (JAN'23-FEB'23)
A
D
Maximum Marks :100
INSTRUCTIONS
BOOKLET.
Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at
the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the
Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions
in the Answer Sheet.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
regarding the Smart Cities and Academia regarding Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose:
Towards Action & Research (SAAR) 1. The Central Government has declared
Program: January 23rd as 'Parakram Diwas' to
1. The program aims to enhance the commemorate the birth anniversary of
quality of life in Indian cities by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
learning through best practices. 2. The declassification of the Netaji files
2. SAAR is a joint initiative of the by the Central Government has put to
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs rest all the controversies surrounding
and NITI Aayog. his death.
3. The program is being conducted in all 3. The West Bengal Government has
100 smart cities under the Smart Cities announced plans to construct a 'Netaji
Mission at present. Memorial' at the Victoria Memorial in
How many of the statement(s) given above Kolkata.
is/are incorrect? How many of the statement(s) given above
(a) Only one is/are correct?
(d) None
regarding Adi Shankaracharya: 4. Consider the following statements about
1. The Union Ministry of Culture has Living Root Bridges:
announced a project to develop the Adi 1. The Indian government has allocated
Shankara Cultural Centre in Tamil funds to Assam to preserve and
Nadu. promote Living Root Bridges as a
2. Adi Shankaracharya was a philosopher cultural and ecological heritage site.
and theologian who contributed to the 2. Living Root Bridges are found in the
development of Advaita Vedanta. Khasi Hills of Meghalaya in India.
3. Adi Shankaracharya was born in the 3. Living Root Bridges are threatened by
7th century CE in present-day Tamil deforestation and climate change,
Nadu. which could affect their structural
How many of the statement(s) given above stability.
(d) None
5. Consider the following statements about 7. Consider the following statements about
the potential impact of 5G technology on the India-China border dispute:
airline safety: 1. The border dispute between India and
1. 5G technology can interfere with the China has been ongoing for several
radar altimeters used by airplanes decades, but tensions have escalated
during takeoff and landing. since a deadly clash in the Galwan
2. The Federal Aviation Administration Valley.
of USA has issued a warning to 2. The border dispute is primarily over
airlines about the potential dangers of the Aksai Chin region, which is
5G technology. currently controlled by India but
3. The implementation of 5G technology claimed by China.
near airports has started in India. 3. The two countries have made progress
How many of the statement(s) given above towards a final resolution of the border
is/are correct? dispute through high-level talks.
(a) Only one How many of the statement(s) given above
(b) Only two is/are correct?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(d) None (b) Only two
(c) All three
6. Consider the following statements about (d) None
India's Gaganyaan mission:
1. Gaganyaan is India's first-ever crewed 8. Consider the following statements about
space mission. the African and Asiatic cheetah:
2. Gaganyaan is a collaboration between 1. The Asiatic cheetah is found only in
the Indian Space Research Iran, while the African cheetah is
Organisation and the Russian Space distributed across various sub-Saharan
Agency. African countries.
3. The primary objective of the 2. Habitat loss, poaching, and human-
Gaganyaan mission is to study the wildlife conflict are the primary threats
effects of microgravity on the human to both African and Asiatic cheetah
body. populations.
How many of the statement(s) given above Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are incorrect? is/are correct?
9. Consider the following statements about Zero- 11. Consider the following statements
budget Natural Farming (ZBNF):
regarding Small Satellite Launch Vehicle
1. ZBNF is a farming method that eliminates
the use of chemical fertilizers and (SSLV):
pesticides, and relies on natural inputs
such as cow dung and urine.
1. SSLV is designed to launch satellites
2. ZBNF has been adopted by several Indian weighing more than 500 kg.
states, including Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka, and Himachal Pradesh, as a
2. SSLV will be a completely reusable
means of reducing input costs and launch vehicle.
improving soil health.
3. The practice of ZBNF has been shown to
Which of the statement(s) given above
result in higher yields and better quality is/are incorrect?
produce compared to conventional
farming methods. (a) 1 only
4. Despite its numerous benefits, the (b) 2 only
adoption of ZBNF has been limited due to
a lack of awareness among farmers and (c) Both 1 and 2
limited government support. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only one 12. Consider the following statements
(b) Only two
(c) Only three regarding the Omisure Kit recently in the
(d) All four news:
1. It is an RT-PCR kit used for COVID-
10. Consider the following statements about the
Internet of Things (IoT): 19 testing in India.
1. IoT refers to the interconnected network 2. The kit has been developed by the
of devices, vehicles, buildings, and other
objects that are embedded with sensors, Indian Council of Medical Research
software, and connectivity enabling them and the National Institute of Virology.
to collect and exchange data.
2. One of the major challenges of IoT is 3. The kit has been validated by the
ensuring the security and privacy of the World Health Organization.
data collected and transmitted.
3. The deployment of 5G networks is 4. The kit has a longer turnaround time
essential for the widespread adoption of compared to other RTPCR kits.
IoT due to their high latency and ability to
connect a large number of devices How many of the statement(s) given above
simultaneously. is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
regarding the Sixth Mass Extinction: regarding Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and
1. It is an ongoing event that is caused by Spiritual Heritage Augmentation Drive
human activities such as deforestation, (PRASHAD):
pollution, and climate change. 1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of
2. The rate of extinction is higher than the Culture to create world-class
rate of speciation. infrastructure for pilgrims and tourists
3. The extinction of keystone species can visiting India's religious places.
lead to cascading effects that affect 2. The scheme aims to promote tourism
many other species and ecosystem in India and enhance the religious
functions. tourism circuit, especially in the
How many of the statement(s) given above Himalayan region.
is/are correct? 3. The PRASHAD scheme covers all the
(a) Only one major pilgrimage centers, irrespective
(b) Only two of religion.
(c) All three How many of the statement(s) given above
(d) None is/are incorrect?
(a) Only one
14. Consider the following statements (b) Only two
regarding the World Health Organisation (c) All three
(WHO): (d) None
1. The WHO has launched the "Global
Diabetes Compact", aimed at 16. Consider the following statements
preventing and treating diabetes, as regarding the Dark Genome:
well as ensuring equitable access to 1. It is a term used to describe the parts of
care and medicine. the human genome that are still not
2. The WHO has recently declared a well understood by scientists.
global health emergency for the Ebola 2. The Dark Genome includes sections of
outbreak in Guinea. DNA that do not code for proteins but
3. WHO's Framework Convention on may still have important biological
Tobacco Control aims to promote and functions.
protect public health by reducing 3. The Dark Genome may play a role in
tobacco use. the development of certain diseases.
How many of the statement(s) given above How many of the s statement(s) given
is/are incorrect? above is/are correct?
(d) None (d) None
17. Consider the following statements 19. Consider the following statements regarding
regarding the sugar mills in India: Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-
1. The Indian government has set a target SIBs) in India:
to increase ethanol production from 1. D-SIBs are banks that are considered to be
of systemic importance for the financial
sugarcane juice to 1 billion liters by
stability of the country.
2025.
2. Reserve Bank of India designates banks as
2. Uttar Pradesh is the leading sugarcane D-SIBs based on their size,
producing state in India. interconnectedness, complexity, and
3. The Indian government has recently substitutability.
approved the increase in the Minimum 3. There are eleven banks in India designated
Selling Price of sugar. as D-SIBs by the RBI.
4. Bagasse-based cogeneration is used to 4. D-SIBs are subject to lower capital
generate electricity in Indian sugar requirements and more stringent
regulatory requirements compared to non-
mills.
D-SIB banks.
is/are correct? is/are correct?
(d) All four (d) All four
regarding the National Commission for the 'Hyderabad Declaration':
Safai Karamcharis (NCSK): 1. It was adopted during the National
Conference on e-Governance held in
1. It was established to promote welfare
Hyderabad.
and safeguard the rights of Safai
2. The declaration emphasizes the need for
Karamchari. the adoption of emerging technologies like
2. It can investigate complaints regarding AI, blockchain, and IoT in governance.
the non-implementation of laws and 3. The declaration recognizes the importance
schemes relating to Safai Karamcharis. of ensuring data privacy and security in e-
3. It has the power to summon and governance initiatives.
enforce the attendance of witnesses 4. The declaration recommends the creation
and compel the production of of a National e-Governance Service
Delivery Assessment framework to assess
documents.
the impact of e-governance initiatives.
regarding BrahMos missile: the recent decision by the Election
Commission of India (ECI) to restore the
1. It is a hypersonic cruise missile jointly maximum limit on star campaigners:
developed by India and Russia. 1. ECI has set a limit of 40 star campaigners
2. It has a range of around 3000 km. for recognized national and state parties
and 20 for unrecognized parties.
3. The missile can be launched from
2. The limit on the number of star
submarines, ships, aircraft, or land-
campaigners is aimed at reducing election
based platforms. expenditure and ensuring a level playing
How many of the statement(s) given above field for all candidates.
is/are incorrect? 3. The star campaigners are chosen by the
political parties and the star campaigners
(a) Only one
are well-known personalities only who are
(b) Only two expected to attract voters to their rallies
(c) All three and meetings.
(d) None How many of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
22. Consider the following statements about (b) Only two
the Chips to Startup (C2S) Programme: (c) All three
1. It was launched by the Ministry of (d) None
Electronics and Information Technology.
24. Consider the following statements related to
2. It aims to support startups working in
Green Bonds:
the field of electronics design and 1. Green Bonds are fixed-income financial
manufacturing. instruments that are issued to finance
3. It is part of the government's efforts to environmentally friendly projects.
boost domestic manufacturing and 2. The proceeds from Green Bonds are
earmarked for specific green projects and
reduce dependence on imports.
verified by independent third-party
4. Centre for Development of Advanced assessors.
Computing is the nodal agency for the 3. The Indian government announced its plan
C2S program’s implementation. to issue its first-ever sovereign Green
Bond to fund renewable energy and other
green projects.
is/are correct? How many of the statement(s) given above
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) All four
(d) None
25. Consider the following statements 27. Consider the following statements related to
regarding India as a net security provider in Quantum Key Distribution (QKD):
the Indian Ocean Region: 1. It is a secure method of sharing secret
encryption keys between two parties based
1. India has been increasing its presence
on the principles of quantum mechanics.
in the region through bilateral and
2. In QKD, the information is transmitted via
multilateral agreements with various quantum bits which are either polarized
countries. photons or superconducting circuits.
2. India has been successful in countering 3. The security of QKD is based on the fact
piracy in the region through its that any attempt to intercept the qubits
coordinated efforts with other navies. will alter their state, making them
detectable.
3. India has taken a neutral stance on
4. The Indian Space Research Organisation
disputes between countries in the recently announced the successful
region. demonstration of QKD between two
How many of the statement(s) given above ground stations using a satellite-based
is/are correct? QKD system.
is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) All four
regarding Dugong: 28. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Dugong is a marine mammal the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial
commonly found in the Indian Ocean Telecommunication (SWIFT):
1. It is a global messaging network used by
and the western Pacific Ocean only.
financial institutions for secure
communication and exchange of financial
2. The IUCN Red List categorizes information.
dugongs as "critically endangered" 2. Recently, SWIFT has partnered with
globally. Ripple to explore the potential of
3. India has recently launched the blockchain technology in cross-border
Dugong conservation project to protect payments.
3. SWIFT provides a centralized platform for
and conserve the species.
cryptocurrency transactions.
4. The major threat to dugongs is 4. SWIFT has been accused of being
poaching for their meat, oil, and bones. vulnerable to cyber-attacks in the past.
How many of the statement(s) given above How many of the statement(s) given above
(c) Only three
(c) Only three
(d) All four
(d) All four
29. Consider the following statements regarding 31. Consider the following statements
Nanoplastics regarding taxation on virtual digital assets:
1. Nanoplastics are increasingly being found 1. The Central Board of Direct Taxes has
in the environment, including in oceans, clarified that profits earned on
rivers, and soils. cryptocurrency transactions will be
2. These particles are not a major cause of taxable under the Income Tax Act.
concern as they do not pose any threat to 2. The CBDT has proposed a tax rate of
human health. 30% on profits from virtual digital
3. Nanoplastics have the ability to penetrate assets.
cells and could have negative impacts on 3. The tax liability on virtual digital
marine life, including disrupting food
assets will be calculated based on the
chains.
fair market value at the time of sale or
4. The use of biodegradable plastics can transfer.
effectively tackle the problem of
4. The tax on virtual digital assets will be
nanoplastics in the environment.
applicable only to Indian residents and
not to foreign investors.
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
is/are incorrect?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) Only three
(b) Only two
(d) All four
(c) Only three
(d) All four
the Donetsk and Luhansk regions:
1. Donetsk and Luhansk are two regions in 32. Consider the following statements
Russia that have been in conflict with the regarding Marine Heat Waves (MHWs):
Ukrainian government.
2. These regions have declared themselves as 1. MHWs are prolonged periods of
independent republics but are not unusually warm ocean temperatures
recognized by any other country. that can cause mass coral bleaching
3. The conflict in these regions has resulted and alter ocean ecosystems.
in the displacement of thousands of people 2. MHWs are caused only by natural
and a significant number of casualties. factors such as El Niño and La Niña.
4. Recently, Ukraine signed an agreement
with Russia to allow a humanitarian 3. The frequency and intensity of MHWs
corridor for the people in the Donetsk and have increased in recent decades due to
Luhansk regions. human-induced climate change.
33. Consider the following statements 35. Consider the following statements related to
regarding the Unified Payments Interface the One Ocean Summit:
1. The One Ocean Summit was organized by
(UPI)
UNESCO to address the need for greater
1. UPI is a real-time payment system protection of the world's oceans.
developed by the National Payments 2. The pledge to map 80% of the seabed was
Corporation of India. made by the International Seabed
Authority.
2. UPI transactions can only be initiated
3. The mapping of the seabed will help to
through a mobile banking app. identify potential sites for offshore wind
3. UPI transactions can be done 24/7, farms and carbon capture and storage.
including weekends and holidays. 4. The lack of detailed maps of the seabed
has hindered the discovery of new marine
species and the identification of potential
is/are correct? hazards to shipping.
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) All four
regarding Nuclear Fusion technology: 36. Consider the following statements related to
Hoysala Temples:
1. It involves the merging of atomic
1. The temples are known for their unique
nuclei to form a heavier nucleus, architectural style that blends Dravidian,
releasing energy in the process. Western Chalukya, and Nagara styles.
2. Nuclear Fusion technology is currently 2. The Hoysala Temples are nominated to
the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list by
being used commercially to produce
India.
electricity on a large scale. 3. The Hoysala Temples were mainly built
Which of the statement(s) given above as Buddhist monasteries and later
is/are incorrect? converted into Hindu temples.
(a) 1 only
is/are correct?
(d) None
37. Consider the following recent statements 39. Consider the following statements about Prime
regarding "Nord Stream 2": Minister’s Development Initiative for North-
1. Nord Stream 2 is a pipeline project that East (PM-DeVINE):
aims to transport natural gas from 1. PM-DeVINE is a centrally sponsored
scheme aimed at boosting the economic
Russia to Germany via the Black Sea.
development of the North-Eastern region.
2. The project will increase Europe's 2. PM-DeVINE scheme will be implemented
dependence on Russian gas. by the Ministry of Rural Development
3. The pipeline is expected to provide through North Eastern Council.
complete energy security to European 3. The initiative focuses on improving
countries. infrastructure, connectivity, and digital
How many of the statement(s) given above services in the North-Eastern states.
is/are incorrect?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None
38. Consider the following statements 40. Consider the following statements about
regarding Green Ammonia: "Param Pravega super-computer"
1. The production of Green Ammonia is a 1. Param Pravega is one of the most
sustainable alternative to traditional powerful supercomputers in the country
fossil fuel-based hydrogen and and the largest in an Indian academic
ammonia. institution.
2. It has been developed by the Centre for
2. Green Ammonia can be produced by
Development of Advanced Computing in
using renewable sources of energy like
collaboration with the Indian Institute of
wind and solar. Technology Bombay.
3. India has set a target of producing 5 3. The supercomputer has a peak
million tonnes of Green Ammonia by performance of 4.6 petaflops, which is six
2030. times faster than the previous
4. Recently, Indian Oil Corporation supercomputer.
announced the signing of an MoU with 4. The Param Pravega supercomputer is
a UK firm for the production of Green expected to boost research and
Hydrogen. development in areas such as weather
forecasting, drug discovery, and artificial
How many of the statement(s) given above intelligence.
(c) Only three (b) Only two
(d) All four (c) Only three
(d) All four
41. Consider the following statements about 43. Consider the following statements about Asset
the Chauri Chaura Incident that completed Monetisation:
its 100 years recently: 1. The Indian government has announced its
plan to monetize assets worth ₹10 trillion
1. Chauri Chaura incident was a violent
over the next four years.
clash between Indian police and
2. Asset Monetisation is a process of
protesters during the Non-Cooperation unlocking the value of public sector assets
Movement, led by Mahatma Gandhi in by either selling them or leasing them out
1922. to private players.
2. As a result of the Chauri Chaura 3. The objective of Asset Monetisation is to
incident, Mahatma Gandhi called off generate revenue for the government,
the Non-Cooperation Movement. improve efficiency, and bring in private
sector participation.
3. The Chauri Chaura incident was a
4. The assets to be monetized include
turning point in India's struggle for
airports, railway stations, highways,
independence as it highlighted the need power transmission lines, and gas
for non-violence and peaceful protest. pipelines.
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) All four
(d) None
44. Consider the following recent statements about
42. Consider the following statements Angadias:
regarding "Havana Syndrome": 1. Angadias are informal banking service
1. Havana Syndrome is a mysterious set providers who are widely used in India to
of symptoms experienced by US transport valuables and cash.
diplomats and intelligence officers, 2. The Reserve Bank of India has recently
issued a circular warning against the use
including hearing loss, dizziness, and
of Angadias for the transfer of high-value
cognitive difficulties. cash.
2. The major cause of Havana Syndrome 3. The use of Angadias is prevalent in the
is exposure to a chemical or biological state of Gujarat, where they are often used
agent. to transport diamonds and other precious
Which of the statement(s) given above stones.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
45. Consider the following statements about the 47. Consider the following statements
QUAD: regarding freebies by political parties:
1. The QUAD is a strategic grouping of four 1. The provision of freebies by political
countries, namely India, Japan, Australia, parties during elections is legal as long
and the United Kingdom, aimed at as it does not violate the Model Code
promoting a free and open Indo-Pacific. of Conduct.
2. The QUAD countries have recently agreed
2. Freebies such as cash transfers,
to cooperate on developing and
laptops, and waivers of loans have
distributing COVID-19 vaccines to
been offered by political parties during
countries in the Indo-Pacific region.
elections in India.
3. Recently, India became a member of the
AUKUS, a trilateral security pact in the 3. The Supreme Court of India has ruled
Indo-Pacific region. that freebies offered by political parties
How many of the statements given above is/are are unconstitutional and undermine
incorrect? democracy.
(c) All three
46. Consider the following statements related to (d) None
the Groundwater Extraction Guidelines issued
by the Central Ground Water Authority 48. Consider the following statements
(CGWA) in India:
regarding ASEAN:
1. CGWA is a statutory body constituted
1. ASEAN is India’s second largest
under the Water (Prevention and Control
trading partner with Free Trade
of Pollution) Act,1974.
Agreements in both goods and
2. The guidelines have made it mandatory
for groundwater users to obtain a no- services.
objection certificate before installing a 2. ASEAN and India have adopted a joint
new borewell or tube well. statement announcing the elevation of
3. The guidelines apply only to the states of the existing Strategic Partnership to
Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, and Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.
Uttar Pradesh. 3. India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral
4. The new guidelines have completely Highway and the Kaladan Multimodal
banned the use of groundwater for Project are joint connectivity projects
commercial purposes. between India and ASEAN.
How many of the statements given above is/are How many of the statement(s) given above
incorrect? is/are correct?
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) All four
(d) None
regarding the Saffron Bowl Project: regarding Services e-Health Assistance and
1. The Saffron Bowl Project is aimed at Teleconsultation (SeHAT):
promoting the cultivation of saffron in 1. SeHAT is a digital health initiative
India. launched by the Ministry of
2. The project is being implemented Electronics and Information
under the National Saffron Mission by Technology to provide telemedicine
the Ministry of Agriculture and services to remote and underserved
Farmers Welfare. areas of India.
3. The project was launched in the state 2. SeHAT is operational in only a few
of Himachal Pradesh to help the states of India and has not yet been
farmers to increase their income. rolled out nationwide.
How many of the statement(s) given above 3. The SeHAT platform provides
is/are correct? teleconsultation services as well as
(a) Only one access to health records and e-
(b) Only two pharmacy services.
(c) All three 4. SeHAT is available only to the
(d) None beneficiaries of government health
schemes and is not accessible to the
general public.
is/are incorrect?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
*****
FOR PRELIMS
(BATCH 3.0)
pPLT-5 (CURRENT AFFAIRS)
(JAN'23 - FEB'23)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct.
• The SAAR program aims to enhance the quality of life in Indian cities through research and development.
• This programme was launched to capture learnings from the best practices undertaken by the urban
planning and development of smart cities. The SAAR programme will also provide opportunities for
engagement on urban development projects to students and enable an information flow between urban
practitioners and academia. The main aim of this initiative is to expand the urban knowledge base and
better understand the development plans that will be launched.
• SAAR is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and National Institute of Urban
Affairs (NIUA).
• As part of the Azadi Ka Amrut Mahotsav (AKAM) celebrations, the Ministry of Housing and Urban
Affairs (MoHUA) launched the SAAR programme under the Smart Cities Mission. It is a joint initiative of
MoHUA, National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) and some of the leading academic institutions in
India.
• The programme includes 15 premier planning institutions and 47 smart cities that will participate in 75
case studies. The institutes will work with the smart cities to document landmark projects undertaken as
part of the Smart Cities Mission. This will help understand the practices and methods undertaken in the
mission and help adopt the best practice for further projects.
Under the SAAR programme, initially, a compendium of 75 landmark urban projects in India under the Smart
Cities Mission will be prepared. These projects are innovative, multi-sectoral and implemented across
geographies. The 75 projects are spread across 47 smart cities. MoHUA and NIUA will facilitate the
linkage between the institutions and the smart cities. A team of students and mentors from the institutions will
visit the 47 smart cities selected and document the outcome of the projects and their impact on the lives of
citizens.
The workflow of the compendium launch is as follows:

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
• The Union Ministry of Culture has announced a project to develop the Adi Sankara Cultural Centre in
Kalady, Kerala, to promote and disseminate the philosophy and teachings of Adi Shankaracharya.
Statement 2 is correct:
• Adi Shankara was an Indian philosopher and theologian who expounded the doctrine of Advaita Vedanta.
He renounced the worldly pleasures at a very young age.
• Shankaracharya amalgamated the ideologies of ancient ‘Advaita Vedanta’ and also explained the basic ideas
of Upanishads. He advocated the oldest concept of Hinduism which explains the unification of the soul
(atman) with the Supreme Soul (Nirguna Brahman).
• Though he is best known for popularizing ‘Advaita Vedanta’, one of Shankaracharya’s most important
works is his efforts to synthesize the six sub-sects, known as ‘Shanmata.’ ‘Shanmata’, which literally
translates to ‘six religions,’ is the worship of six supreme deities. Shankaracharya explained the existence of
one Supreme Being (Brahman) and that the six supreme deities are part of one divine power.
• He also founded ‘Dashanami Sampradaya,’ which talks about leading a monastic life. While
Shankaracharya was a firm believer in ancient Hinduism, he condemned the ‘Mimamsa school of
Hinduism’ which was purely based on ritual practices. Throughout the course of his journey,
Shankaracharya discussed his ideas with various other philosophers and fine-tuned his own teachings from
time to time. Shankaracharya founded four monasteries (mathas) that continue to spread his teachings.
• Adi Shankaracharya was actually born in the 8th century CE in Kalady, Kerala, and not in present-day
Tamil Nadu.
• Shankara, as he was known before becoming a great teacher, was born into a poor Brahmin family at
Kaladi, present day Kerala, India.
• His parents, Sivaguru and Aryamba, offered their prayers to Lord Shiva, requesting the deity to bless them
with a child. Their prayers were soon answered in the form of a baby boy.
• A few theories suggest that Aryamba had a dream in which Lord Shiva himself promised her that he would
be taking birth as her child. Hence, many consider Shankara as a reincarnation of Shiva. Shankara was
educated by his mother as he lost his father when he was just seven. Aryamba played a key role in teaching
Vedas and Upanishads to a young Shankara.
• There is a lot of confusion regarding the birth-date of Shankara as different sources have proposed several
different dates. The most accepted birth-date places him as a scholar from the first half of the 8th century
CE.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct
• Netaji’ was born on January 23, 1897, in Cuttack in Odisha. He acquired a degree in philosophy and was
later selected for the Indian Civil Services. He refused to join as he did not want to serve the British
Government.
• Netaji joined the Indian National Congress in 1921.
• He had written a book called “The Indian Struggle”. The book covers the Indian Independence movement
between 1920 and 1942.
• The term “Jai Hind” was coined by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
• With the slogan “Give me blood and I will give you freedom”, he awakened the country towards fighting
against the British.
• In order to honour and remember Netaji's indomitable spirit and selfless service to the nation, the Central
government decided to celebrate his birthday on the 23rd day of January every year as Parakram Diwas to
inspire people of this country, especially the youth, to act with fortitude in the face of adversity as Netaji
did, and to infuse in them a spirit of patriotic favour.
Statement 2 is incorrect
• The controversy surrounding Netaji's death remains unresolved, despite the declassification of the Netaji
files by the Central Government.
• The freedom fighter is widely believed to have died in a plane crash in Taiwan. The complete
declassification of the Netaji files was an attempt by the government to close the chapter on the mystery
surrounding his demise.
• The West Bengal Government has announced plans to construct a 'Netaji Memorial' at the iconic Victoria
Memorial in Kolkata.

Explanation:
• In 2022, the Indian government allocated funds to the Meghalaya state government to preserve and promote
Living Root Bridges as a cultural and ecological heritage site.
• Living Root Bridges are found in the Khasi Hills of Meghalaya, India.
• The Living Root Bridges of Meghalaya showcase the close-knit relationship between the Khasi tribes and
nature.
• In March 2022, the Living Root Bridge Cultural Landscapes of Meghalaya were included in the tentative
list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites. Although the primary reasons behind the construction of these
bridges were mainly accessibility and connectivity, today, they have evolved into a symbol of beauty,
heritage, identity, and hope for a greener and more sustainable future.
• Believed to have been built by the Khasi tribe of Meghalaya, using locally available natural resources like
tree branches, trunks, and roots, these bridges have been ingeniously planned and constructed over time.
• Living Root Bridges are threatened by deforestation and climate change, which could affect their
structural stability. In recent years, there have been concerns about the impact of increased tourism and
pollution on the bridges.

Explanation:
• 5G technology can interfere with the radar altimeters used by airplanes during takeoff and landing.
• The radio waves emitted by 5G networks can cause interference with the altimeters, which measure the
distance between the airplane and the ground.
• There is a major risk that 5G telecommunications systems in the 3.7–3.98 GHz band will cause harmful
interference to radar altimeters on all types of civil aircraft—including commercial transport airplanes;
business, regional, and general aviation airplanes; and both transport and general aviation helicopters. If
there is no proper mitigation, this risk has the potential for broad impacts to aviation operations in all the
regions where the 5G network is being implemented next to the 4.2-4.4 GHz frequency band.
• The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) of USA has issued a warning to airlines about the potential
dangers of 5G technology.
• In January 2022, the FAA urged airlines to take precautions when flying near 5G base stations, citing
potential safety risks.
• Telecom operators including Jio and Airtel are rolling out their 5G network coverage across India. 5G is
now available in many Indian cities including Delhi, Mumbai, Varanasi and many others.
• But, despite residing in 5G-enabled cities, people living in nearby areas of Airport may have to wait for 5G
a little longer. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has asked telcos to not install 5G base
stations near airports.
Explanation:
• Gaganyaan is India's first-ever crewed space mission, and it was scheduled to launch in December 2022.
However, there have been delays in the project due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Gaganyaan is a mission by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• Under the Gaganyaan schedule (to be launched in 2023):
o Three flights will be sent into orbit.
o There will be two unmanned flights and one human spaceflight.
• The Gaganyaan system module, called the Orbital Module will have three Indian astronauts, including a
woman.
• It will circle Earth at a low-earth-orbit at an altitude of 300-400 km from earth for 5-7 days.
• Gaganyaan is not a collaboration between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Russian
Space Agency.
• While ISRO has signed several agreements with Russia for technology transfer and training of Indian
astronauts, the Gaganyaan project is entirely being led by ISRO.
• In June 2019, the Human Space Flight Centre of the ISRO and the Russian government-owned
Glavkosmos signed a contract for the training, which includes Russian support in the selection of
candidates, their medical examination, and space training.
o The candidates will study in detail the systems of the Soyuz manned spaceship, as well as be trained in
short-term weightlessness mode aboard the Il-76MDK aircraft.
o The Soyuz is a Russian spacecraft. The Soyuz carries people and supplies to and from the space
station.
o The Il-76MDK is a military transport plane specially designed for parabolic flights of trainee
astronauts and space tourists.
• The crew for Gaganyaan is being selected and trained by ISRO. Several Indian Air Force pilots are
undergoing training at various facilities around the world in preparation for the mission.
ISRO will perform four biological and two physical
science experiments related to micro-gravity during the
Gaganyaan mission.
The Gaganyaan Programme envisages undertaking the
demonstration of human spaceflight to Low Earth
Orbit (LEO) in the short term and will lay the
foundation for a sustained Indian human space
exploration program in the long run.
The objective of the Gaganyaan program is to
demonstrate the indigenous capability to undertake a
human space flight mission to LEO.
As part of this program, two unmanned missions and
one manned mission are approved by the Government
of India.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The border dispute between India and China has been ongoing for several decades, but
tensions have escalated since a deadly clash in 2020 in the Galwan Valley. The two countries have since
engaged in several rounds of talks to try and resolve the dispute. Both India and China have been increasing their
military presence along the border, with India deploying additional troops and China constructing new
infrastructure. This has led to concerns about the possibility of further clashes between the two sides.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The border dispute is primarily over the Aksai Chin region, which is currently
controlled by China but claimed by India. However, there are also disputes over other parts of the border, such as
the Doklam plateau.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While the two countries have engaged in high-level talks to try and resolve the border
dispute, there has been little progress towards a final resolution. The most recent round of talks in 2021 ended
without any major breakthroughs
8. Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Asiatic cheetah is found only in Iran, while the African cheetah is distributed across
various sub-Saharan African countries.
The Asiatic Cheetah is a big cat found in Iran and is the only cheetah subspecies indigenous to Asia. While the
Asiatic Cheetah resembles the African cheetah, the two are different subspecies with the Asiatic cheetah being
slightly smaller than its African counterpart.
• In Iran, efforts are underway to increase the number of Asiatic cheetahs in the wild through a captive
breeding program. As of September 2021, there were fewer than 50 Asiatic cheetahs left in the wild, and
the Iranian government has been working to breed cheetahs in captivity and release them into the wild in
protected areas.
Statement 2 is correct: Habitat loss, poaching, and human-wildlife conflict are the primary threats to both
African and Asiatic cheetah populations. In Africa, cheetahs are often killed by farmers and ranchers who view
them as a threat to their livestock, while in Iran, the Asiatic cheetah is threatened by habitat loss and poaching for
their skins.
• In Africa, there is a successful program that aims to improve cheetah habitat and reduce human-wildlife
conflict through the involvement of local communities. The program, called the Cheetah Conservation
Fund, has been working with farmers and ranchers to reduce livestock predation by cheetahs and provide
alternative income sources, such as ecotourism. The program has also been conducting research on cheetah
ecology and habitat requirements to inform conservation efforts.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. ZBNF is a farming method that eliminates the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides,
and relies on natural inputs such as cow dung and urine.
• Subhash Palekar an Indian agriculturist who practiced and has written many books about ZBNF (Zero
Budget Natural Farming. He practised Zero Budget Natural Farming without using chemical fertilizers or
pesticides to cultivate. He was awarded India’s fourth highest civilian award the Padmashri in 2016.
Statement 2 is correct. ZBNF has been adopted by several Indian states, including Andhra Pradesh, better
quality produce compared to conventional farming methods. Government has been promoting organic farming
under the dedicated scheme of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) which encourages all kinds of
chemical-free farming systems including Zero Budget Natural Farming.
Statement 3 is correct. Despite its numerous benefits, the adoption of ZBNF has been limited due to a lack of
awareness among farmers and limited government support.
While ZBNF has definitely helped preserve soil fertility, its role in boosting productivity and farmers’
income isn’t conclusive yet. ZBNF advocates the need of an Indian breed cow, whose numbers are declining at a
fast pace.
Statement 4 is correct. The practice of ZBNF has been shown to result in higher yields and government has
launched several initiatives to promote ZBNF, including the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana and the
Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana, more needs to be done to raise awareness among farmers and provide them with
the necessary support to adopt this method.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. IoT refers to the interconnected network of devices, vehicles, buildings, and other
objects that are embedded with sensors, software, and connectivity enabling them to collect and exchange data.
• The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to the interconnectivity of physical devices, vehicles, home
appliances, and other items embedded with electronics, software, sensors, and connectivity which
enables these objects to connect and exchange data.
• The ultimate goal of IoT is to offer advanced connectivity of devices, systems, and services that goes
beyond machine-to-machine communications and covers a variety of protocols, domains, and
applications.
• There are various types of challenges in front of IoT has the potential to revolutionize industries such as
healthcare, agriculture, and manufacturing by enabling real-time monitoring and data analysis.
Statement 2 is correct. One of the major challenges of IoT is ensuring the security and privacy of the data
collected and transmitted. As IoT devices collect and transmit sensitive data, such as personal health information
or financial data, ensuring the security and privacy of this data is crucial.
• Privacy concerns refer to issues related to the collection, storage, use, and sharing of personal information.
This can include concerns about who has access to personal information, how it is being used, and whether
it is being protected from unauthorized access or misuse. In the digital age, privacy concerns have become
increasingly important as personal information is being collected and stored on an unprecedented scale.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The deployment of 5G networks is essential for the widespread adoption of IoT due to
their high speed, low latency, and ability to connect a large number of devices simultaneously. 5G networks
provide the necessary infrastructure to support the large number of devices that make up an IoT network, as well
as enabling the high-speed data transmission and low latency required for real-time monitoring and analysis.
11. Answer: C
Explanation:
The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is being developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO) to provide a cost-effective solution for launching small satellites.
The SSLV seeks to serve the rapidly growing market for the launch of small satellites into the LEO (Earth’s low
orbits) which has emerged in recent times to serve the requirements of the developing nations,
universities/institutions for small satellites, and private firms.
• ISRO’s SSLV is capable of carrying satellites weighing less than or equal to 500 kg.
• The launch vehicle will carry the small satellites into 500 km LEO (Low Earth Orbit).
• Manufacturing of SSLV is the responsibility of the commercial arm of ISRO i.e. NSIL (New Space India
Limited).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Although SSLV is a cost-effective launch vehicle, it is not designed to be a
completely reusable launch vehicle. SSLV is ISRO’s lightest launch vehicle, weighing around 110 tons.
Contrary to PSLV’s 70 days’ time to get integrated, the SSLV takes only 72 hours. SSLV needs only 6 people to
integrate it. SSLV of ISRO is a three stage launch vehicle. The launch vehicle uses solid fuel in all its stages of
flight. The vehicle also features both vented and closed interstage.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct - Omisure Kit is a RT-PCR kit used for COVID-19 testing in India. It has been developed
by ICMR and NIV and has recently gained approval from the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
(CDSCO) for commercial use in India.
Statement 2 is correct - The Omisure Kit has been developed by ICMR and NIV, both leading research
institutes in India for medical sciences and virology. The Omicron variant underwent several mutations in the S-
gene, the SGTF strategy checks and indicates it in patients who are detected Covid positive. 'S' Gene, ORF, 'N'
gene, Rdrp, 'E' gene are viral genes that are targeted to detect Covid-19 virus.
Statement 3 is correct - The Omisure Kit has been validated by the WHO through its Emergency Use Listing
(EUL) procedure, which is a process of assessing the quality, safety and efficacy of medical products during
public health emergencies.
Statement 4 is incorrect - While the Omisure Kit has a shorter turnaround time compared to few other RT-PCR
kits.This RT-PCR kit is manufactured by Tata Medical and Diagnostics. It uses S-Gene Target Failure (SGTF)
strategy. Currently, Omicron patients are detected only after genome sequencing. However, the Omisure test kit
helps to eliminate this step and detects the Omicron variant of SARS-CoV2 in the nasopharyngeal/
oropharyngeal specimens during the RT-PCR tests.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct. The Sixth Mass Extinction is an ongoing event caused by human activities such as
deforestation, pollution, and climate change. These activities have led to habitat loss, fragmentation, and
degradation, which has affected the survival of many species.
Statement 2 is Correct. The rate of extinction is higher than the rate of speciation. According to scientists, the
current rate of extinction is 100 to 1,000 times higher than the natural rate of extinction.
Statement 3 is Correct. The extinction of keystone species has the most significant impact on the ecosystem. Keystone
species are those species that have a disproportionately large impact on their ecosystem. Their loss can lead to cascading
effects that affect many other species and ecosystem functions.
The Sixth Mass Extinction is expected to have a significant impact on human society. Many species provide
ecosystem services such as pollination, nutrient cycling, and water filtration that are essential for human well-
being. The loss of these species can lead to food shortages, the spread of diseases, and other negative
consequences for human societies.
14. Answer: (D) None of the statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. In April 2021, the WHO launched the "Global Diabetes Compact" aimed at preventing and
treating diabetes, as well as ensuring equitable access to care and medicine.
• Responding to the increasing burden of diabetes around the world, the World Health Organization has launched
the Global Diabetes Compact. The launch coincides with the 100th anniversary of the discovery of insulin.
• The WHO Global Diabetes Compact has the vision of reducing the risk of diabetes, and ensuring that all people
who are diagnosed with diabetes have access to equitable, comprehensive, affordable and quality treatment and
care. The work undertaken as part of the Compact will also support the prevention of type 2 diabetes from obesity,
unhealthy diet and physical inactivity.
Statement 2 is correct. In February 2021, the WHO declared a global health emergency for the Ebola outbreak in
Guinea. On 19 June 2021, the Ministry of Health (MoH) of Guinea declared the end of the Ebola outbreak that
affected Nzérékoré Prefecture, Nzérékoré Region, Guinea. This was the first Ebola outbreak in Guinea since the large
outbreak that affected West Africa in 2014-2016.
Statement 3 is correct. The WHO's Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (FCTC) aims to promote and
protect public health by reducing tobacco use. The FCTC is an evidence-based treaty that provides a framework for
countries to implement tobacco control measures.
The WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (WHO FCTC) is the first global public health treaty. It is an
evidence-based treaty that reaffirms the right of all people to the highest standard of health.
The WHO FCTC was developed by countries in response to the globalization of the tobacco epidemic. It aims to
tackle some of the causes of that epidemic, including complex factors with cross-border effects, such as trade
liberalization and direct foreign investment, tobacco advertising, promotion and sponsorship beyond national borders,
and illicit trade in tobacco products.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The PRASHAD scheme was launched in 2014 by the Ministry of Tourism to create
world-class infrastructure for pilgrims and tourists visiting India's religious places. The scheme provides
financial assistance to the State governments/Union Territories for the development of tourism infrastructure
such as last-mile connectivity, drinking water facilities, toilets, and other amenities at the pilgrimage sites.
Statement 2 is correct. The scheme aims to promote tourism in India and enhance the religious tourism circuit,
especially in the Himalayan region. The scheme also aims to create employment opportunities in the tourism
sector and promote the socio-economic development of the regions around the pilgrimage centers.
Harness pilgrimage tourism for its multiplier and direct effect on employment generation and economic
development. Follow pro-poor tourism concept and community-based development in the development of
the pilgrimage destinations. Leveraging public expertise and capital. Enhance tourist attractiveness
sustainably by developing world-class infrastructure in religious destinations. Create awareness amongst the
local communities about the importance of tourism for them in terms of improved living standards, increase in
sources of income and overall development of the area. Promote local culture, arts, cuisine, handicrafts, etc.,
to generate livelihood in the identified places.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The PRASHAD scheme covers 25 major pilgrimage centers, including all the major
pilgrimage centers of Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh, and Jain religions in India. However, it does not cover the
pilgrimage centers of other religions.
The projects identified under this scheme shall be implemented through the identified agencies by the respective
State/ Union Territory Government.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct - The Dark Genome is a term used to describe the parts of the human genome that are
still not well understood by scientists, and are often referred to as "junk DNA."
Statement 2 is correct - The Dark Genome includes sections of DNA that do not code for proteins but may still
have important biological functions, such as regulating the activity of other genes.
• The human genome is conventionally divided into the “coding” genome, which generates the ~20,000
annotated human protein coding genes, and the “dark” genome, which does not encode proteins.
• The dark genome is a vast space, accounting for the ~98.5% of genomic space where repeat elements,
enhancers, regulatory sequences, and non-coding RNAs reside.
Statement 3 is correct - While research has suggested that the Dark Genome may play a role in the development
of certain diseases, it is still an area of active investigation and not yet fully understood.
This “dark genome” may generate proteins that are vital for brain development but also increase a person’s risk
of schizophrenia or bipolar disorder.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian government has set a target of producing 1 billion liters of ethanol from
sugarcane juice by 2025. This is being done to reduce India's dependence on fossil fuels and promote the use of
renewable energy sources.
o Government of India, with the aim to enhance India’s energy security, reduce import dependency on fuel,
save foreign exchange, address environmental issues and give a boost to domestic agriculture sector, has
been promoting the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme.
o The ‘National Policy on Biofuels’ notified by the Government in 2018 envisaged an indicative target of
20% ethanol blending in petrol by year 2030. However, considering the encouraging performance, due to
various interventions made by the Government since 2014, the target of 20% ethanol blending was
advanced from 2030 to 2025-26.
Statement 2 is correct: Uttar Pradesh is the leading sugarcane producing state in India. Other major sugarcane
producing states include Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Gujarat. Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and
Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka produces 80% of total quantity of Sugarcane produced in the country.
Statement 3 is correct: The Indian government has recently approved the increase in the minimum selling price
of sugar to Rs. 33 per kilogram. This was done to help sugar mills pay arrears to sugarcane farmers.
Statement 4 is correct: The use of sugarcane waste to generate electricity has been a common practice in Indian
sugar mills. This process, known as bagasse-based cogeneration, not only helps sugar mills become self-
sufficient in terms of energy requirements but also generates surplus electricity that can be supplied to the grid.

Explanation:
The Union Cabinet has approved the extension of the tenure of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis
(NCSK) for three years beyond 31st March, 2022.
• The major beneficiaries would be the Safai Karamcharis and identified manual scavengers in the country.
• Manual scavenging is defined as “the removal of human excrement from public streets and dry latrines,
cleaning septic tanks, gutters and sewers”.
Statement 1 is correct. The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) was established under the
National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act, 1993 to promote the welfare and safeguard the rights of
Safai Karamcharis.
o The NCSK was established in the year 1993 as per the provisions of the NCSK Act 1993 to give its
recommendations to the Government regarding specific programmes for welfare of Safai Karamcharis. The
NCSK Act ceased to have effect from 29th February, 2004. After that the tenure of the NCSK has been
extended as a non-statutory body from time to time through resolutions.
Statement 2 is correct. The NCSK can investigate specific complaints with respect to the non-implementation
of the laws and safeguards provided for Safai Karamcharis under the Constitution or any other law. It studies and
evaluates the existing welfare programmes for Safai Karamcharis, investigates cases of specific grievances etc.
• As per the provisions of the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act,
2013, the NCSK has been assigned the work to monitor the implementation of the Act, tender advice for its
effective implementation to the Center and State Governments and enquire into complaints regarding
contravention/non-implementation of the provisions of the Act.
• The Chairperson and Members of the Commission undertake extensive touring of the country to study the
socio-economic and living conditions of Safai Karamcharis and their dependents.
• The Commission calls for the factual reports in connection with these complaints/petitions from the
concerned authorities and impress upon them to redress the grievances of the affected Safai Karamcharis.
Statement 3 is correct. The NCSK has the power to summon and enforce the attendance of witnesses, receive
evidence, and compel the production of documents.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: D-SIBs are banks that are considered to be of systemic importance for the financial
stability of the country. These banks are deemed "too big to fail" and their failure could have significant
implications for the overall stability of the financial system.
Due to their economic and national importance, the banks need to maintain a higher share of risk-weighted assets
as Tier-I equity. SBI, since it is placed in bucket three of D-SIBs, has to maintain Additional Common Equity
Tier 1 (CET1) at 0.60 percent of its Risk-Weighted Assets (RWAs).
Statement 2 is correct. In India, the RBI designates banks as D-SIBs based on their size, interconnectedness,
complexity, and substitutability.
They are classified into five buckets, according to their importance to the national economy. In order to be listed
as a D-SIB, a bank needs to have assets that exceed 2 percent of the national GDP. The banks are then further
classified on the level of their importance across the five buckets.
Statement 3 is incorrect. As of 2022, there are three banks in India designated as D-SIBs by the RBI: State
Bank of India, ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank.
Statement 4 is incorrect D-SIBs are subject to higher capital requirements and more stringent regulatory
requirements compared to non-D-SIB banks. This is because the failure of a D-SIB can have far-reaching
consequences for the economy and financial system. The RBI imposes additional capital buffers on D-SIBs to
ensure that they have sufficient capital to absorb losses and continue to function even under stressed conditions.
• Should such a bank fail, there would be significant disruption to the essential services they provide to the
banking system and the overall economy.
• The too-big-to-fail tag also indicates that in case of distress, the government is expected to support these
banks.
• Due to this perception, these banks enjoy certain advantages in funding. It also means that these banks have
a different set of policy measures regarding systemic risks and moral hazard issues.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct, as the 'Hyderabad Declaration' was adopted during the 24th National Conference on
e-Governance held in Hyderabad.
The Conference has unanimously adopted the Hyderabad declaration outlined below after intensive deliberations
during the sessions held over two days.
The Conference resolved that Government of India and State Governments shall collaborate to:
1. To bring citizens and government closer through digital platforms.
2. Transform citizen services through use of technology by leveraging the artifacts of India Stack that include
Aadhaar, UPI, DigiLocker, UMANG, e Sign and consent framework.
3. Fast track the implementation of the national level public digital platforms in key social sectors viz. Health,
Education, Agriculture, etc by adopting open interoperable architecture for joined up connected services.
4. Operationalize the data governance framework to facilitate data sharing within Government entities as also
make available all data on data.gov.in except for a negative list. Enable protocols for data collection, data
harvesting, data privacy, data anonymization, data security, and data preservation that can help build a data
economy.
5. Foster responsible use of emerging technology such as Artificial Intelligence, Machine Learning,
Blockchain, 5G, Augmented Reality, Virtual Reality, etc for Social Empowerment.
6. Make India the global hub for emerging technology through creation of large pool of skilled resources on
futuristic technologies
7. Ensure resilient Government Infrastructure with robust technological solutions to withstand pandemic like
disruptions.
8. Foster a spirit of research and development and process reengineering in ongoing government services
9. Uplift good governance to higher level through healthy competition among States and UTs and among
Central Ministries by benchmarking services.
10. NeSDA 2021 to be adopted in collaboration with MeITY for improving e-Governance landscape.
11. Integration of all State/District portals with CPGRAMS for seamless Redressal of Public Grievances
12. Replication of awarded projects under National Awards for e-Governance 2020 – 21 and their nomination
for dissemination of best practices through Regional conferences
13. Adoption of e-office version 7.0 in all ministries and departments
14. Use technology for propagating end to end service delivery without human interference to the citizen at the
grass root level
15. Make “digital” the primary aspect of government service design and delivery and provide requisite
infrastructure to achieve that.
Statement 2 is correct, as the declaration emphasizes the need for the adoption of emerging technologies like
artificial intelligence (AI), blockchain, and Internet of Things (IoT) in governance.
Statement 3 is correct, as the declaration recognizes the importance of ensuring data privacy and security in e-
governance initiatives.
Statement 4 is incorrect, as the declaration recommends the creation of a National e-Governance Architecture
(NeGA) and not NeSDA to provide a common framework and standards for e-governance initiatives across the
country.
NeSDA 2021 covers services across seven sectors – Finance, Labour & Employment, Education, Local
Governance & Utility Services, Social Welfare, Environment and Tourism sectors. The assessment covered 56
mandatory services for each States & UTs and 27 services for the focus Central Ministries. The second edition of
NeSDA added eight State / UT level services and four Central Ministry services. Five of the State / UT level
services assessed in NeSDA 2019 are now offered through Central Ministries and hence were not considered for
the 2021 assessment.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile being developed by BrahMos Aerospace, a
joint venture between Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India and NPO
Mashinostroeyenia (NPOM) of Russia.
• The missile can be launched against ships and land-based targets. The missile is named after two rivers, the
Brahmaputra in India and the Moskva in Russia.
• Advanced satellite navigation systems from Russia’s Kh-555 and Kh-101 strategic long-range cruise
missiles, and GPS-GLONASS technology were added to the existing doppler-inertial platforms of BrahMos
missiles.
Statement 2 is incorrect. BrahMos missile has a range of around 450 km.
Statement 3 is correct. BrahMos missile can be launched from submarines, ships, aircraft, or land-based
platforms. BrahMos missile is named after the Brahmaputra River in India and the Moskva River in Russia.

Explanation:
The Chips to Startup (C2S) Programme was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology (MeitY) in January 2022.
The Chips to Startup (C2S) Programme aims to train 85,000 high-quality and qualified engineers in the area
of very-large-scale integration (VLSI) and Embedded System Design as well as result in the development of 175
ASICs (Application Specific Integrated Circuits), Working Prototypes of 20 System on Chips (SoC) and IP Core
repository over a period of 5 years.
• The C2S Programme aims to support startups working in the field of electronics design and manufacturing.
• The programme would be implemented at about 100 academic institutions/R&D Organisations across the
Country (including IITs, NITs, IIITs, Government/Private Colleges and R&D Organisations). Startups and
MSMEs can also participate in the programme by submitting their proposals under Academia- Industry
Collaborative Project, Grand Challenge/ /Hackathons/RFP for development of System/SoC/IP Core(s).
• The C2S Programme addresses each entity of the value chain in electronics viz. quality manpower training,
research and development, hardware IPs design, System design, application-oriented R&D, Prototype
design and deployment with the help of academia, industry, start-ups and R&D establishments.
• Under the Programme, based on the Institutions’ expertise, Technology Readiness Level (TRL) and design
experience acquired during earlier SMDP Programmes, proposals are invited in three different categories,
i.e., Design and Development of Systems/SoCs/ASICs/Reusable IP Core(s), Development of Application
Oriented Working Prototype of IPs/ASICs/SoCs, and Proof of Concept Oriented Research and
Development of ASICs/FPGAs.
The C2S Programme is part of the government's efforts to boost domestic manufacturing and reduce dependence
on imports.
Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) is the nodal agency for the C2S program’s
implementation. C-DAC is a scientific organisation working under MeitY (Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology).

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as the ECI has set a limit of 40 star campaigners for recognized national and state parties
and 20 for unrecognized parties.
Star campaigners are the people nominated by parties to campaign in a given set of constituencies. They are
usually prominent and popular faces within the party. A recognised (mainstream party) can field a maximum
number of 40-star campaigners while unrecognized political parties can field up to 20 campaigners.
The list of star campaigners is declared to the Election Commission within a week from the date of notification
of an election.
Statement 2 is correct as the limit on the number of star campaigners is aimed at reducing election expenditure
and ensuring a level playing field for all candidates.
The expenditure on rally and travel by the star campaigner is borne by the candidate in the following manner:
1. A candidate shares the stage with a star campaigner in a rally.
2. There are posters of star campaigners along with photos of other candidates displayed.
3. If the name of the candidate is mentioned by the star campaigner during a rally or any other event.
4. In the event that is more than one candidate sharing the stage, or there are posters with their photographs,
then the expenses are equally divided among all such candidates.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the star campaigners are not necessarily well-known personalities, but can be any
person chosen by the political parties who is expected to attract voters to their rallies and meetings.
The star campaigners are chosen by the political parties.
A Star Campaigner, by standard definition, is a candidate chosen by a political party to contest in a given
constituency.
He/she is chosen usually on the basis of popularity but there is no specific definition under Indian law and the
Election Commission (EC).

Explanation:
Green Bonds are financial instruments that are specifically designed to raise funds for environmentally friendly
projects.
• A green bond is a type of fixed-income instrument that is specifically earmarked to raise money for climate
and environmental projects. These bonds are typically asset-linked and backed by the issuing
entity’s balance sheet, so they usually carry the same credit rating as their issuers’ other debt obligations.
• Dating back to the first decade of the 21st century, green bonds are sometimes referred to as climate bonds,
but the two terms are not always synonymous. Climate bonds specifically finance projects that reduce
carbon emissions or alleviate the effects of climate change, while green bonds represent a broader category
of instruments related to projects with a positive environmental impact.
The proceeds from Green Bonds are allocated to specific green projects and are verified by independent third-
party assessors.
• In 2022, the Indian government announced its plan to issue its first-ever sovereign Green Bond to finance
renewable energy and other green projects.
• While the Green Bond market has faced challenges, such as a lack of standardization and transparency in
reporting, it has continued to grow in recent years.
• Indian government's first ever green bonds will focus on funding solar power projects, followed by wind
and small hydro projects, as Asia's third largest economy attempts to tap the domestic debt market to
finance clean projects.
• The proceeds from green bonds will not be used to fund hydropower plants larger than 25 MW, nuclear
projects and any biomass-based power generation with biomass originating from protected areas

Explanation:
A Net Security Provider is one that tackles its own security concerns by enhancing the mutual security of more
than one country. This is done by addressing common security concerns, including dealing with transnational
piracy, or responding to disasters, etc.
In the Indian context the term net security provider was first used by the Americans. While speaking at
the Shangri-La Dialogue in 2009, the then U.S. Secretary of Defense, Robert Gates.
India has signed various agreements with countries in the Indian Ocean Region to increase its presence in the
region.
• India has provided assistance in capacity-building, humanitarian aid, and disaster relief efforts in the
region. The IOR is very critical to India’s security and economy – the blueing of its economy, with her
trade to GDP Ratio (Openness Index) recording a decadal average of 40%.
• What has inhibited us since the 70’s has been limited capabilities and the fact that other States were
providers of security in the area. Now that both those limiting factors are changing, our approach and
behaviour should change in defence of our interests.
• The need for regional stability is informed by a number of reliable studies that show political instability in
one’s neighboring countries has a powerful and frequently adverse effect upon one’s own national
economy. This happens through a variety of channels such as:
• Space-time-and-cost disruptions of external trade
• Sharp spurts in military expenditure to insulate one’s own country from the malaise of instability affecting
proximate countries.
• Increased uncertainty and risk in a region dissuades investors from investing in any part of the region.
• It is this requirement for regional stability that provides the context of India being perceived both externally
and, increasingly, internally as well as a net provider of security in the Indian Ocean and beyond.
• India’s reputation as a benign power has convinced some of the IOR littorals that the Indian Navy is the
suitable agency to facilitate regional maritime security in the IOR as a net security provider. Such an
arrangement would be cost effective especially for small nations such as Maldives.
• The net security provider arrangement also helps the Indian Armed forces maintain their operational agility
in different theatres and helps prepare them for any contingency.
• Concerns about whether India has the military capability to play the role of a net security provider for the
region is based on an outdated view that security issues can be addressed only militarily, often ignoring
the human security angle that India is currently engaged in.
India has been successful in countering piracy in the region through coordinated efforts with other navies.
Indian Navy has been a noteworthy contributor to the international patrols against piracy in the Gulf of Aden
(more specifically, in the 910-kilometre-long Internationally Recommended Transit Corridor), having
successfully prevented about 40 pirate attacks in the IOR.
India sees the IOR as its “sphere of influence,” and vows to maintain peace and stability in the region. As a
result, its image as a protector and benefactor in the eyes of littoral states becomes a matter of national interest.
India has taken a clear stance on territorial disputes in the region and has supported countries like Vietnam and
Japan in their disputes with China.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Dugong is a marine mammal found in the Indian Ocean, the western Pacific Ocean,
and the waters around northern Australia.
• Dugongs are herbivorous marine mammals that feed exclusively on underwater seagrass meadows which
abound in the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay region. The region is presently facing threats of climate change
apart from destructive fishing practices and industrial pollution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The IUCN Red List categorizes dugongs as "vulnerable" globally. The IUCN
watchlist revealed that the population of Dugongs in East Africa and New Caledonia has entered the Red List as
"critically endangered" and "endangered” respectively.
Statement 3 is correct. India has recently launched the Dugong conservation project to protect and conserve
the species.
1. The “Dugong Conservation Reserve” is going to be established in the Palk Bay region to protect the
endangered Dugong species and its marine habitats in Tamil Nadu.
2. Currently, there are approx 240 Dugongs in India and most of them are found on the Tamil Nadu Coast.
3. Protecting Dugongs would help improve and save the seagrass beds that are also the breeding and feeding
grounds for many fishes and marine fauna.
Statement 4 is correct. The major threat to Dugongs is the degradation of seagrass habitat, poaching for their
meat, oil, hides, bones and teeth, pollution, water transport traffic and fishing. The presence of thriving
population of Dugongs indicates healthy Seagrass Habitat in the marine system.
The primary threats to this species are poaching in New Caledonia and the unintentional capture of fishing gear
in East Africa.

Explanation:
QKD is a secure method of sharing secret encryption keys between two parties based on the principles of
quantum mechanics.
• QKD, also called Quantum Cryptography, is a mechanism to develop secure communication.
• It provides a way of distributing and sharing secret keys that are necessary for cryptographic protocols.
o Cryptography is the study of secure communications techniques that allow only the sender and intended
recipient of a message to view its contents.
o Cryptographic algorithms and protocols are necessary to keep a system secure, particularly when
communicating through an untrusted network such as the Internet.
• The conventional cryptosystems used for data-encryption rely on the complexity of mathematical
algorithms, whereas the security offered by quantum communication is based on the laws of Physics.
• In the QKD, encryption keys are sent as ‘qubits’ (or quantum bits) in an optical fibre.
o Qubits -- the equivalent of bits in a binary system.
o Optical fibers are capable of transmitting more data over longer distances and faster than other
mediums. It works on the principle of total internal Reflections.
• QKD implementation requires interactions between the legitimate users. These interactions need to be
authenticated. This can be achieved through various cryptographic means.
o QKD allows two distant users, who do not share a long secret key initially, to produce a common,
random string of secret bits, called a secret key.
• The end-result is that QKD can utilize an authenticated communication channel and transform it into a
secure communication channel.
• It is designed in a way that if an illegitimate entity tries to read the transmission, it will disturb the qubits –
which are encoded on photons.
• This will generate transmission errors, leading to legitimate end-users being immediately informed.
The security of QKD is based on the fact that any attempt to intercept the qubits will alter their state, making it
detectable.QKD allows two distant users, who do not share a long secret key initially, to produce a common,
random string of secret bits, called a secret key.
• The end-result is that QKD can utilize an authenticated communication channel and transform it into a
secure communication channel.
• It is designed in a way that if an illegitimate entity tries to read the transmission, it will disturb the qubits –
which are encoded on photons.
• This will generate transmission errors, leading to legitimate end-users being immediately informed.
Recently, a joint team of scientists from Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Indian
Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi, for the first time in the country successfully demonstrated Quantum Key
Distribution link between Prayagraj and Vindhyachal in Uttar Pradesh, a distance of more than 100 kilometres.
• With this success, the country has demonstrated indigenous technology of secure key transfer for
bootstrapping military grade communication security key hierarchy.
• Earlier, China’s satellite Micius had sent light particles to Earth to establish the world’s most secure
communication link.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: SWIFT is indeed a global messaging network used by financial institutions for secure
communication and exchange of financial information.
• It doesn’t settle any money itself, but provides instruction messages for just how to give and receive
specific funds.
• It is controlled by the central banks of the G10 countries, the European Central Bank, and the National
Bank of Belgium.
• It was established in 1973 and is based in Belgium.
• The Group of Ten is made up of eleven industrial countries (Belgium, Canada, France, Germany, Italy,
Japan, the Netherlands, Sweden, Switzerland, the United Kingdom and the United States) which consult and
co-operate on economic, monetary and financial matters.
• Prior to SWIFT, the only reliable means of message confirmation for international funds transfer was Telex.
• SPFS (System for Transfer of Financial Messages) is a Russian equivalent of the SWIFT financial
transfer system, developed by the Central Bank of Russia. It was established by the Russian central bank
after the 2014 invasion of Crimea.
• The financial messaging system of the Bank of Russia (FMS) forms an alternative electronic financial
messaging channel which is often called a ‘SWIFT analogue’.
• The FMS guarantees the uninterrupted transmission of financial messages within the country.
• China also has an alternative to SWIFT called the Cross-Border Interbank Payment System (CIPS).
Statement 2 is incorrect: SWIFT has not partnered with Ripple to explore the potential of blockchain
technology in cross-border payments. However, both SWIFT and Ripple are working on improving cross-border
payments through different approaches.
Statement 3 is incorrect: SWIFT does not provide a centralized platform for cryptocurrency transactions. It only
facilitates traditional financial transactions between banks and financial institutions.
Statement 4 is correct: SWIFT has been accused of being vulnerable to cyber-attacks in the past. In fact, several
high-profile cyber-attacks on banks have been attributed to weaknesses in the SWIFT network's security
protocols.

Explanation:
As per recent news reports, which state that nanoplastics are small plastic particles that are increasingly being
found in various environments.
• The particles have also been found in the placentas of pregnant women, and in pregnant rats they pass
rapidly through the lungs into the hearts, brains and other organs of the foetuses.
• In general, babies and young children are more vulnerable to chemical and particle exposure.
Recent studies have shown that nanoplastics can pose a threat to human health.
• They can latch on to the outer membranes of red blood cells and may limit their ability to transport oxygen.
• They cause damage to human cells in the laboratory and air pollution particles are already known to enter
the body and cause millions of early deaths a year.
• Nanoplastics can penetrate cells and cause harm to marine life.
• Nanoplastic particles are even more toxic to living organisms as they are more likely to be absorbed through
the walls of digestive tracts and thereby transported into the tissues and organs.
• Consequently, such plastic particles can interfere with various physiological processes, from
neurotransmission to oxidative stress and immunity levels of freshwater and marine organisms.
Biodegradable plastics can also break down into nanoplastics, thus not effectively tackling the problem. Some
steps to handle this problem are:
• Elimination of Single Use Plastic: In 2019, the Prime Minister of India pledged to eliminate all single-use
plastic in the country by 2022, with an immediate ban in urban Delhi.
• Important Rules: Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 state that every local body has to be
responsible for setting up infrastructure for segregation, collection, processing, and disposal of plastic
waste.
Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2018 introduced the concept of Extended Producer
Responsibility (EPR).
• Un-Plastic Collective: Un-Plastic Collective (UPC) is a voluntary initiative launched by the UNEP-India,
Confederation of Indian Industry and WWF-India.
• The Collective seeks to minimise externalities of plastics on the ecological and social health of our planet.
• Global Partnership on Marine Litter (GPML): The GMPL was launched at the Earth Summit in 2012 in
response to a request set out in the Manila Declaration.
• London Convention, 1972: The 1972 Convention on the Prevention of Marine Pollution by Dumping
Wastes and Other Matter was signed to control all sources of marine pollution and prevent pollution of the
sea through regulation of dumping into the sea of waste materials.
• Plastic Pacts: The Plastics Pacts are business-led initiatives to transform the plastics packaging value chain
for all formats and products.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Donetsk and Luhansk regions in eastern Ukraine have been in conflict with
the Ukrainian government since 2014.
The Donbass region, comprising the Donetsk and Luhansk
oblasts of Ukraine, has been at the centre of the conflict since
March 2014 when Moscow (Russia) invaded and annexed the
Crimean Peninsula.
• In April, pro-Russia rebels began seizing territory (with
Russia supporting them through hybrid warfare) in Eastern
Ukraine and in May 2014, the rebels in the Donetsk and
Luhansk regions held a referendum to declare
independence from Ukraine.
• Since then, these predominantly Russian speaking
regions (more than 70% speak Russian) within Ukraine
have been witnessing shelling and skirmishes between
the rebels and Ukrainian forces leading to the loss of over
14,000 lives by most estimates, creating around 1.5 million
registered Internally Displaced Persons (IDPs) and
destruction of the local economy.
Statement 2 is correct. These regions have declared themselves independent republics but are not recognized as
independent by any other country.
Statement 3 is correct. The conflict in these regions has resulted in the displacement of thousands of people and
a significant number of casualties.
Statement 4 is correct. In February 2022, Ukraine signed an agreement with Russia to allow a humanitarian
corridor for the people in the Donetsk and Luhansk regions.

Explanation:
The CBDT has clarified that profits earned on cryptocurrency transactions will be taxable under the Income Tax
Act.
The CBDT has proposed a tax rate of 30% on profits from virtual digital assets.
Income from transfer of cryptocurrencies will be taxed at the rate of 30%
• Deduction –No deduction of any expenditure except for cost of acquisition will be allowed
• Set off/ Carry forward of losses – No set off of losses against any income is allowed as well as carry
forward of losses in this respect is also not allowed
The tax liability on virtual digital assets will be calculated based on the fair market value at the time of sale or
transfer.
The tax on virtual digital assets will be applicable to both Indian residents and foreign investors.

Explanation:
Marine Heat Waves are prolonged periods of unusually warm ocean temperatures that can cause mass coral
bleaching and alter ocean ecosystems.
▪ These events are linked to coral bleaching, seagrass destruction, and loss of kelp forests, affecting
the fisheries sector adversely. Study showed that 85% of the corals in the Gulf of Mannar near the Tamil
Nadu coast got bleached after the marine heatwave in May 2020.
Recent studies have shown that MHWs are not just caused by natural factors but also by human-induced climate
change.
• Due to increased greenhouse gas emissions, extended periods of extreme warming in seas and oceans have
increased in frequency by 50% in the past 10 years and are becoming more severe.
The frequency and intensity of MHWs have increased in recent decades due to human-induced climate change.
• These Marine Heat Waves (MHWs) threaten marine biodiversity and ecosystems, make extreme weather more
likely, and negatively impact the fisheries, aquaculture and tourism industries.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. UPI is a real-time payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI).
UPI allows users to transfer money between bank accounts instantly using a mobile device.
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile
application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant
payments into one hood. It also caters to the “Peer to Peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as
per requirement and convenience.
Statement 2 is incorrect. UPI transactions can be initiated through various channels such as mobile banking
apps, websites, and even messaging platforms like WhatsApp.
Benefits of UPI:
• Immediate money transfers through mobile device round the clock 24*7 and 365 days.
• Single mobile application for accessing different bank accounts.
• Single Click 2 Factor Authentication – Aligned with the Regulatory guidelines, yet provides for a very
strong feature of seamless single click payment.
• Virtual address of the customer for Pull & Push provides for incremental security with the customer not
required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number; IFSC etc.
• QR Code
• Best answer to Cash on Delivery hassle, running to an ATM or rendering exact amount.
• Merchant Payment with Single Application or In-App Payments.
• Utility Bill Payments, Over the Counter Payments, QR Code (Scan and Pay) based payments.
• Donations, Collections, Disbursements Scalable.
• Raising Complaint from Mobile App directly.
34. Answer: B
Explanation:
• Nuclear fusion is the process by which two light atomic nuclei combine to form a single heavier one while
releasing massive amounts of energy.
• Fusion reactions take place in a state of matter called plasma — a hot, charged gas made of positive ions
and free-moving electrons with unique properties distinct from solids, liquids or gases.
• The sun, along with all other stars, is powered by this reaction. To fuse in our sun, nuclei need to collide
with each other at extremely high temperatures, around ten million degrees Celsius. The high temperature
provides them with enough energy to overcome their mutual electrical repulsion.
• Once the nuclei come within a very close range of each other, the attractive nuclear force between them
will outweigh the electrical repulsion and allow them to fuse. For this to happen, the nuclei must be
confined within a small space to increase the chances of collision. In the sun, the extreme pressure
produced by its immense gravity creates the conditions for fusion.
• Nuclear fusion technology is still in the experimental stage and is not currently being used commercially
to produce electricity on a large scale.
• Nuclear fusion and plasma physics research are carried out in more than 50 countries, and fusion reactions
have been successfully produced in many experiments, albeit without so far generating more energy than
what was required to start the reaction process.
• Experts have come up with different designs and magnet-based machines in which fusion takes place,
like stellarators and tokamaks, but also approaches that rely on lasers, linear devices and advanced fuels.
• How long it will take for fusion energy to be successfully rolled out will depend on mobilizing resources
through global partnerships and collaboration, and on how fast the industry will be able to develop,
validate and qualify emerging fusion technologies.

Explanation:
The One Ocean Summit was organized by UNESCO to address the need for greater protection of the world's
oceans.
• The summit was organised by France in Brest, France in cooperation with the United Nations and
the World Bank.
• The summit was addressed by various other Heads of State and Governments from countries like Germany,
the United Kingdom, South Korea, Japan, Canada among others.
UNESCO worked closely with the Government of France to coordinate the scientific programme for the Summit
and ensure it addressed the major challenges and emerging knowledge trends when it comes to unlocking ocean
solutions for sustainable development. The Summit was instrumental to further increased the momentum of the
UN Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development Ocean Decade, 2021-2030, at the beginning of its
second year.
• The goal of the One Ocean Summit is to raise the collective level of ambition of the international
community on marine issues.
o Commitments will be made towards combating illegal fishing, decarbonising shipping and
reducing plastic pollution.
o Will also focus on efforts to improve governance of the high seas and coordinating international
scientific research.
• Around 80 per cent of the world’s ocean floors will be mapped by 2030, pledged the United Nations
Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) on February 10, 2022. At present, only 20 per
cent seabed has been mapped and studied.
• Data gathered from this survey will help understand seismic and tsunami risks, sustainable fisheries
resources, ways to deal with oil spills, air crashes and shipwrecks as well as potential for offshore
infrastructure, according to UNESCO. “They also have a major role to play in assessing the future effects of
climate change, whether it be temperature increases or sea level rise.”
• The UN agency called for mobilisation of the 150 member states of its Intergovernmental Oceanographic
Commission (IOC) and the private sector to carry out this exercise.
Mapping the seabed will help to identify potential sites for offshore wind farms and carbon capture and storage.
It will help in:
• Location of ocean faults
• Workings of ocean currents and tides
• Transport of sediments
The lack of detailed maps of the seabed has hindered the discovery of new marine species and the
identification of potential hazards to shipping.
UNESCO also launched a repository of educational content for policymakers and curriculum developers for a
holistic approach towards strengthening ocean research. It also advocated the use of traditional knowledge along
with modern science to achieve this goal.
Explanation:
The Hoysala Empire was a prominent South Indian dynasty that ruled from the 11th to the 14th century CE,
covering parts of present-day Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 1 is correct. Hoysala Temples are known for their unique architecture that blends the Indian
Dravidian, Western Chalukya, and Nagara styles. They are characterized by intricately carved sculptures,
detailed carvings of Hindu deities, and ornate pillars.
India has finalised the Hoysala Temples in Karnataka as its nominations for consideration in the World
Heritage Sites List for 2022-23. The Hoysala temples in Belur and Halebeedu in Hassan district and
Somanathapura in Mysuru district have been nominated. They were finalized by the Union Ministry of Culture
and Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
Statement 3 is incorrect. Hoysala Temples were originally built as Hindu temples and not as Buddhist
monasteries.
In addition to supporting both Shaivite and Vaishnavite sects of Hinduism, the Hoysala rulers gave court
recognition and status to Jainism, a religion that prescribes a path of non-violence and self-control as paths to
spiritual liberation and emphasizes the equality of all beings.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Nord Stream 2 is a pipeline project that aims to transport natural gas from Russia to
Germany via the Baltic Sea.
• Nord Stream 2 follows the route laid down by the Nord Stream pipeline and runs through the Baltic Sea
from the St Petersburg region (Russia) to Baltic Coast in north-east Germany.
• It will supply gas from the vast natural gas field of Bovanenkovo in Northern Russia’s Yamal Peninsula,
which is estimated to have 4.9 trillion cubic metres (Tcm) of gas reserves.
• The pipeline makes a landing near Greifswald close to the German coast and has no intermediate
compressor station.
• The route traverses the territorial waters through the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of five countries
including Russia, Finland, Sweden, Denmark and Germany.
Statement 2 is correct. The project has faced opposition from the United States and several European
countries, who fear it will increase Europe's dependence on Russian gas and give Moscow too much
influence over the continent's energy security.
• The 1,200km pipeline comprises twin-parallel lines running offshore on the bed of the Baltic Sea. With a
total capacity of 55bcm of natural gas a year, the pipeline will be able to cover one-third of the new gas
imports required in the next two decades.
• According to environmentalists, it does not fit in with German efforts to cut dependence on fossil fuels and
fight climate change.
Despite the opposition, the pipeline has recently been completed and is awaiting regulatory approval to begin
operations.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While the pipeline is expected to increase the capacity of the existing Nord Stream
pipeline, it is not expected to completely provide energy security to European countries.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Green Hydrogen/Green Ammonia is produced using renewable sources of energy,
making it a sustainable alternative to traditional fossil fuel-based hydrogen and ammonia.
• Hydrogen and Ammonia are envisaged to be the future fuels to replace fossil fuels. Production of these fuels
by using power from renewable energy, termed as green hydrogen and green ammonia, is one of the major
requirements towards environmentally sustainable energy security of the nation.
• Government of India is taking various measures to facilitate the transition from fossil fuel / fossil fuel based
feed stocks to green hydrogen / green ammonia.
Statement 2 is correct: Green Hydrogen/Green Ammonia can be produced by using renewable sources of
energy like wind and solar.
Renewable Energy (RE) will be the basic ingredient in making green hydrogen. This in turn will help in meeting
the international commitments for clean energy.
Statement 3 is correct: India has set a target of producing 10 million tonnes of Green Hydrogen/Green
Ammonia by 2030.
▪ National Hydrogen Mission launched in 2021 aims to aid the government in meeting its climate targets
and making India a green hydrogen hub.
▪ Production target has also been raised five times from 1 million tonnes (m) to 5 mt by 2030.
▪ In October, 2021 it was announced that India is targeting initially around 1 million tonnes annual green
hydrogen production by 2030.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) recently announced the signing of a memorandum of
understanding (MoU) with an Israeli firm to collaborate on the production of Green Hydrogen.
India's largest oil firm IOC will build the nation's first 'green hydrogen' plant at its Mathura refinery, as it aims to
prepare for a future catering to the growing demand for both oil and cleaner forms of energy.

Explanation:
• The Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North East Region (PM-DeVINE) Scheme was announced
as a new Central Sector Scheme in the Union Budget 2022-23.
• PM-DeVINE is an initiative of the Indian government aimed at boosting development in the North-Eastern
region of the country.
• The Scheme with 100% Central funding, will have a total outlay of Rs. 6,600 crores for the 4-year period
from 2022-23 to 2025-26 (remaining years of the 15th Finance Commission period).
• PM-DeVINE scheme will be implemented by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region
(MDoNER) through North Eastern Council or Central Ministries/agencies or State Government agencies.
• To limit construction risk of time and cost overrun falling on the Government, projects would be
implemented on Engineering-Procurement-Construction (EPC) basis, to the extent possible. To ensure
sustainability of PM-DeVINE projects, adequate arrangements for Operation and Maintenance (O&M) of
the assets will be made.
• It will be ensured that there is no duplication of project support with any of the other schemes of MDoNER
or those of any other Ministry/Department.
• The initiative focuses on improving infrastructure, connectivity, and digital services in the North-Eastern states.
• The objectives of PM-DevINE are to: (i) Fund infrastructure convergently, in the spirit of PM GatiShakti;
(ii) Support social development projects based on felt needs of the North Eastern Region (NER); (iii) Enable
livelihood activities for youth and women; and (iv) Fill the development gaps in various sectors.
• PM-DevINE will not be a substitute for existing Central and State Schemes. It will lead to creation of
infrastructure, support industries, social development projects and create livelihood activities for youth and
women, thus leading to income and employment generation.

Explanation:
Under the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM), the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) has installed and
commissioned Param Pravega, one of the most powerful supercomputers in the country, and the largest in an
Indian academic institution.
It has been designed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC). A majority of the
components used to build this system have been manufactured and assembled within the country, along with an
indigenous software stack developed by C-DAC, in line with the Make in India initiative.
The system, which is expected to power diverse research and educational pursuits, has a total supercomputing
capacity of 3.3 petaflops (1 petaflop equals a quadrillion or 1015 operations per second).
The Param Pravega system at IISc is a mix of heterogeneous nodes, with Intel Xeon Cascade Lake processors for
the CPU nodes and NVIDIA Tesla V100 cards on the GPU nodes. The hardware consists of an ATOS
BullSequana XH2000 series system, with a comprehensive peak compute power of 3.3 petaflops. The software
stack on top of the hardware is provided and supported by C-DAC. The machine hosts an array of program
development tools, utilities, and libraries for developing and executing High Performance Computing (HPC)
applications.
Statement 4 is correct: The Param Pravega supercomputer is expected to boost research and development in
areas such as weather forecasting, drug discovery, artificial intelligence, R&D activities, including developing
platforms for genomics and drug discovery, studying urban environmental issues, establishing flood warning and
prediction systems, and optimising telecom networks.

Explanation:
• Chauri Chaura incident was a violent clash between Indian police and protesters during the Non-
Cooperation Movement, led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1922.
• On 2 February 1922, Non-cooperation Movement was led by a retired Army soldier Bhagwan Ahir against
high food prices and liquor sale. The protestors were beaten by the local police and several leaders were
imprisoned at the Chauri Chaura police station.
• In response to this incident, around 2,000 to 2,500 protesters assembled at Chauri Chaura, Gorakhpur
district of the United Province, British India (present-day Uttar Pradesh, India) and began marching towards
the market on 4 February 1922. They picketed a liquor shop following which their leader was beaten and
imprisoned.
• A group of protestors gathered in front of the local police station, demanding the release of their
leader while another group continued marching towards the market and raised anti-government slogans.
• In an attempt to disperse the protestors, the police fired shots in the air which worsened the situation
as protestors began throwing stones at the police.
• To control the situation, the sub-inspector in charge ordered the police to open fire on the advancing crowd-
- killing three and injuring others. In the ensuing chaos, the heavily outnumbered police get back to the
police station while the angry mob advanced and set the police station ablaze, killing all of its
occupants. The incident resulted in the death of 22 policemen.
• On 12 February 1922, reacting upon the incident, Mahatma Gandhi halted the non-cooperation movement at
the national level. In connection with the incident, Mahatma Gandhi was also arrested and sentenced to six
years of imprisonment. However, he was later released on grounds of ill health in February 1924.
• A total of 228 people were brought to trial on charges of 'rioting and arson' in relation to the Chauri Chaura incident.
Out of the said number, 6 people died in police custody while 172 were sentenced to death by hanging.
• This led to widespread protests and Indian Communist leader M.N. Roy termed it as 'legalised
murder' and called for a general strike of the Indian workers.
• On 20 April 1923, the Allahabad High Court reviewed the death verdicts. 19 death sentences were
confirmed by the Court while 110 were sentenced imprisonment for life and others were sentenced to long
jail terms.
• The Chauri Chaura incident was a turning point in India's struggle for independence as it highlighted the
need for non-violence and peaceful protest.
• The Chauri Chaura incident and the reaction of Mahatama Gandhi give a deep insight into the workings of
Gandhi’s mind and his ideology.
42. Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Havana Syndrome is a set of symptoms experienced by US diplomats and intelligence
officers, including hearing loss, dizziness, and cognitive difficulties.
The term "Havana Syndrome" refers to a specific incident in 2016, in which US diplomats in Cuba were
targeted with a mysterious sonic weapon.
Since the 2016 incident, similar symptoms have been reported by US officials in other countries, including
China and Russia.
• Researchers investigating the condition have stated that Havana syndrome, which was initially dismissed as
mass hysteria or a reaction caused by psychosomatic causes such as stress, may be a result of microwave
weaponry.
• Symptoms are similar to those of a concussion or mild head injury and have mostly been reported by
diplomats, intelligence officers, military personnel, and their family members deployed on foreign soil.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The cause of Havana Syndrome is still unknown, although some theories suggest it
could be the result of directed energy attacks or exposure to some form of chemical or biological agent.
Initially, experts suspected that Havana syndrome may be caused by either accidental or deliberate exposure to a
toxic chemical, pesticide, or drug. No traces of such agents, however, were found in affected people or their
homes.
The most likely cause of Havana syndrome is assumed to be some type of a mechanical device that emits
ultrasonic or microwave energy:
• Such radiofrequency energy exposure through highly specialized bioweaponry could potentially create
microbubbles in the fluid inside a person’s ear. When those bubbles travel through the blood into the brain,
they can cause minute air emboli that result in cell damage, similar to decompression sickness (disorder that
deep-sea divers develop if they surface too quickly),
• Another explanation is that symptoms may be due to direct penetration of radiofrequency waves into the
skull, which disrupts electrical and chemical activity in the brain and rewires certain neural pathways. This
rewiring may be the reason that the symptoms seem profound and have long-lasting sequelae.
Although debilitating, Havana syndrome is not fatal, and all afflicted individuals are still alive.

Explanation:
• The government has announced an ambitious programme of asset monetisation. It hopes to earn ₹6 trillion
in revenues over a four-year period. At a time when the government’s finances are in bad shape, that is
money the government can certainly use. Getting asset monetisation right is quite a challenge, though.
• Creation of National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) is Government of India’s pioneering initiative to
establish a medium-term pipeline along with a roadmap for “monetisation ready” assets.
• Developed in the backdrop of the unprecedented Covid-induced economic and fiscal shocks, NMP lists out
assets and asset classes, under various infrastructure ministries, which will be monetised over a period of
time.
Asset Monetisation is a process of unlocking the value of public sector assets by either selling them or leasing
them out to private players.
• In asset monetisation, the government parts with its assets — such as roads, coal mines — for a specified
period of time in exchange for a lump sum payment.
• At the end of the period, the assets return to the government. Unlike in privatisation, no sale of
government assets is involved.
• By monetising assets it has already built, the government can earn revenues to build more infrastructure.
• Asset monetisation will happen mainly in three sectors: roads, railways and power.
• Other assets to be monetised include: airports, ports, telecom, stadiums and power transmission.
The objective of Asset Monetisation is to generate revenue for the government, improve efficiency, and bring in
private sector participation.
• It is an ambitious 4 year period ₹6 lakh-crore National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) that
included unlocking value in brownfield projects by involving private firms across infrastructure sectors
from passenger trains and railway stations to airports.
• As per the plan, private firms can invest in projects for a fixed return using the Infrastructure
Investment Trusts (InvIT) route as well as operate and develop the assets for a certain period
before transferring them back to the government agency.
• Union Budget 2021-22 has identified monetisation of operating public infrastructure assets as a key means
for sustainable infrastructure financing.
• Land will not be monetised under National Monetisation Plan only brownfield assets to be monetised.
• The government has stressed that these are brownfield assets, which have been “de-risked” from execution
risks, and therefore should encourage private investment.
• The funds will then be used to build new infrastructure assets, helping boost economic growth in the
country.
• The plan is in line with Prime Minister’s strategic divestment policy, under which the government will
retain presence in only a few identified areas with the rest tapping the private sector.
The assets to be monetized include airports, railway stations, highways, power transmission lines, and gas
pipelines.
• The top five sectors by value under the government’s asset monetization programme are roads (27%),
railways (25%), power (15%), oil and gas pipelines (8%) and telecom (6%).

Explanation:
• Angadias are informal courier service providers who are widely used in India to transport valuables and
cash.
• Angadias operate without any formal documentation or regulations, making them vulnerable to theft
and fraud.
• Angadia system is a century-old parallel banking system in India. in this, traders send cash from one state to
another through a person called Angadia. Angadia stands for courier. In this system, huge cash is involved.
It becomes the responsibility of Angadia to transfer cash from one state to another. For this purpose,
Angadia charges a nominal fee.
• Angadia system works largely on trust as huge sums are involved. Usually, traders have the same Angadias
for decades together. If a trader from one state wants to pay a trader from other state, he will send an
Angadias to deliver money within 24 hours. They also have fixed trains. To verify authenticity, the trader
gives some number to Angadia and provide the number to the recipient as well. After recipient confirms the
number, Angadia hands over the money to him. After making the payment, the Angadias return to their
place same day.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently not issued a circular warning against the use of Angadias for the
transfer of high-value cash.
• While the Angadia system per se is legal, there hangs a cloud over the activity as it is suspected that a lot of
times it is used to transfer unaccounted money.
• There have been suspicions that it is also used for transfer of black money like the hawala transaction which
is generally used across countries.
The use of Angadias is particularly prevalent in the state of Gujarat, where they are often used to transport
diamonds and other precious stones.
This system is mostly used in jewellery business for which, Mumbai – Surat is the most popular route because
they are two ends of the diamond trade. Usually, it is the Marwari, Gujarati, and Malbari community, that are
involved in the business.

Explanation:
The Quad is a strategic grouping of four countries, namely India, Japan, Australia, and the United States,
aimed at promoting a free and open Indo-Pacific.
• It is the grouping of four democracies –India, Australia, the US, and Japan.
• All four nations find a common ground of being democratic nations and also support the common interest of
unhindered maritime trade and security.
• The Quad is billed as four democracies with a shared objective to ensure and support a “free, open and
prosperous” Indo-Pacific region.
• The idea of Quad was first mooted by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007. However, the idea
couldn’t move ahead with Australia pulling out of it, apparently due to Chinese pressure.
• Finally, in 2017, India, Australia, the US and Japan, came together and formed this “quadrilateral” coalition.
The Quad countries have recently agreed to cooperate on developing and distributing COVID-19 vaccines to
countries in the Indo-Pacific region.
The Quad has been criticized by China, which views it as an attempt to contain its growing influence in the
region.
AUKUS, also styled as Aukus, is a trilateral security pact between Australia, the United Kingdom, and the
United States, announced on 15 September 2021 for the Indo-Pacific region.
Under the pact, the US and the UK will assist Australia in acquiring nuclear-powered submarines.

Explanation:
• Central Ground Water Authority is a statutory body constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in
the country.
• The Authority is having All India jurisdiction. In exercise of powers conferred upon the Authority, CGWA
performs various regulatory functions for regulation of ground water development in the country. With
more areas coming under the purview of regulatory regime due to depleting ground water resources, the role
of CGWA is becoming more and more important and requires adequate manpower and infrastructure to
fulfill its mandate.
• The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has issued new guidelines for groundwater extraction
with an aim to regulate the groundwater extraction and promote sustainable water management practices.
• As per the new guidelines, it has become mandatory for all groundwater users to obtain a no-objection
certificate (NOC) from the CGWA before installing a new borewell or tube well.
• It prescribes a minimum environmental compensation of ₹1 lakh on industrial, mining and infrastructure
users for extracting groundwater without a No objection certificate (NOC).
• The new guidelines are applicable to all states and Union Territories of India, not just the five mentioned
states.
• The new guidelines have not completely banned the use of groundwater for commercial purposes, but
they have imposed stricter regulations on industries, mining and construction activities, and other
commercial uses of groundwater to promote sustainable usage.

Explanation:
The provision of freebies during elections is legal as long as it does not violate the model code of conduct.
However, the Election Commission has issued guidelines to ensure that such promises do not influence voters or
disrupt the level playing field.
Political parties have been known to offer freebies such as cash transfers, laptops, and waivers of loans during
elections in India. This practice is often criticized as being populist and aimed at garnering votes.
While it is often believed that freebies promised by political parties have a positive impact on voters' decision-
making process, several studies have shown that such promises do not necessarily translate into electoral
victories. Moreover, offering freebies is often criticized as being short-sighted and not conducive to long-term
development.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Supreme Court has not ruled that freebies offered by political parties are
unconstitutional. However, the court has stated that such promises should not violate the principles of a free and
fair election and that it is the responsibility of the Election Commission to ensure that the model code of conduct
is enforced.

Explanation:
• ASEAN is India’s 4th largest trading partner. India signed an FTA (Free Trade Agreement) in goods in
2009 and an FTA in services and investments in 2014 with ASEAN.
• ASEAN and India have also adopted a joint statement announcing the elevation of the existing Strategic
Partnership to Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.
• India and ASEAN countries recently gave a new vigour to their ties by establishing a comprehensive
strategic partnership at the 19th ASEAN-India Summit in Cambodia.
• Connectivity: India has been undertaking several connectivity projects like India-Myanmar-Thailand
Trilateral (IMT) Highway and the Kaladan Multimodal Project.
• India is also trying to establish a Maritime Transportation Agreement with ASEAN and also Plans for a
Railway link between New Delhi in India to Hanoi in Vietnam.
• Peace and Security: The two sides reaffirmed the importance of maintaining and promoting peace,
stability, maritime safety, and overflight freedom in the Indo Pacific.
• Financial Assistance: India provides financial assistance to the ASEAN nations through various
mechanisms like ASEAN-India Cooperation Fund and ASEAN-India Green Fund.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Saffron Bowl Project is aimed at promoting the cultivation of saffron in India. The
saffron cultivation in India is limited to Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh. The project aims to
expand the saffron cultivation in the country.
Statement 2 is correct: The project is being implemented by the National Saffron Mission under the Ministry of
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The National Saffron Mission was launched in 2010 to promote the saffron
cultivation in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The project was launched in 2021 in the Pulwama district of Jammu and Kashmir. The
project was launched by the Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir, Manoj Sinha. The project is expected
to help the farmers to increase their income.

Explanation:
• The Ministry of Defence (MoD) has launched services for home delivery of medicines for veterans and
serving military personnel services under an online medical consultation platform named Services e-
Health Assistance and Teleconsultation (SeHAT).
• It is the tri-services teleconsultation service of the MoD designed for all entitled personnel and their
families.
• As part of the Government’s commitment to Digital India and e-Governance, the Defence Minister
launched SeHAT in May 2021.
• It aims to provide healthcare services to patients in their homes.
• SeHAT Stay Home OPD is based on the lines of eSanjeevani a similar free OPD service run by the
MoHFW (Ministry of Health and Family Welfare) for all citizens.
• SeHATOPD is a patient to doctor system where the patient can consult a doctor remotely through the
internet.
Statement 2 is incorrect. SeHAT is operational in several states across India and has been used extensively
during the COVID-19 pandemic to provide teleconsultation services to patients.
Since its launch, there have been more than 10,000 successful teleconsultations on SeHAT, with a strong team of
2000 plus doctors onboard. The feedback from the environment has been extremely heart-warming.
Statement 3 is correct. The SeHAT platform provides teleconsultation services as well as access to health
records and e-pharmacy services.
• SeHAT stay home OPD is a patient-to-doctor system where the patient can consult a doctor remotely
through the internet using his Smartphone, laptop, Desktop or Tablet. The consultation occurs through
video, audio and chat at the same time.
• It aims to provide quality healthcare services to patients from the comfort of their homes. Safe and
structured video-based clinical consultations between a doctor in a hospital, and a patient within the
confines of his or her home anywhere in the country, have been enabled.
Services e-Health Assistance and Teleconsultation (SeHAT) is the tri-services teleconsultation service of the
MoD designed for all entitled personnel and their families.
FOR PRELIMS
(Batch- 3.0)
pPLT-6 (ECONOMY 1.O)
(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT-6 (ECONOMY 1.0)
A
INSTRUCTIONS
Maximum Marks :100
D
BOOKLET.
Test Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO S
1. Consider the following : 3. With reference to ‘Gross Domestic Product
1. Reduction in inequality (GDP)’, consider the following statements:
1. It includes both the quantitative and
2. Reduction in poverty
qualitative aspects of the goods and
3. Reduction in unemployment services produced.
How many of the above would necessarily 2. The national income estimates of GDP
happen as a result of higher economic are only released annually by the
National Statistics Office (NSO).
growth?
3. If the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of
(a) Only one a country is growing, it must be
(b) Only two experiencing an expansion of the share
of manufacturing vis-à-vis other sectors
(c) All three
in the GDP.
(d) None
are correct?
2. In the context of poverty estimation in India, (a) Only one
consider the following statements : (b) Only two
(c) All three
1. Adoption of calorie consumption-based
(d) None
poverty estimation.
2. A uniform poverty line basket (PLB) 4. Consider the following items :
across rural and urban India. 1. Government transfer payments to
3. Incorporation of private expenditure on residents of the country.
2. Transfer of used (Second hand) good by
health and education while estimating
the residents of the country.
poverty.
3. Illegal Activities done by the residents
4. Using Mixed Reference Period based of the country.
estimates. 4. Indian company manufactures and sells
How many of the above were the its motor vehicles in Europe.
How many of the above items are excluded
recommendations of the Tendulkar
from Gross National Product (GNP)
Committee? measurement?
(c) Only three
(c) Only three
(d) All four
(d) All four
Copy is ENCRYPTED and for personal use ONLY| www.sunyaias.com |BRAHMASTRA-2024| PRELIMS-2023-24 1
5. Consider the following statements with 8. Consider the following pairs:
reference to the Net National Product (NNP): Goods and Type of Goods
1. Net national product (NNP) is the market Services
value of a nation's goods and services
1. Food and clothing Consumer Good
(GNP) minus depreciation.
2. It is always lower than NDP. 2. Recreation Consumer Goods
3. NNP is expressed in the currency of the 3. Tools, implements Capital Goods
nation it represents. and machinery
How many of the statements given above are 4. TV sets, Intermediate
correct? automobiles and Goods
(a) Only one laptops
(b) Only two 5. Steel sheets and Final Goods
(c) All three copper
(d) None
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
6. Which of the following concepts is used to
find the value by which the cost of a good has (a) Only two
risen from its cost in the base year? (b) Only three
(a) GDP Deflator (c) Only four
(b) Real Gross Domestic Product (d) All five
(c) Nominal Gross Domestic Product
(d) Gross Value Added (GVA)
9. With reference to different methods of
‘National Income Accounting’, consider the
7. With reference to ‘Poverty Line’, consider
1. Measurement of aggregate value of
1. In India, the accepted average calorie
requirement for a person in rural areas spending received by the firms for final
is higher than in urban areas. goods and services which they produce is
2. The estimates of poverty line were called expenditure method.
surveyed from time to time by the 2. Measurement of aggregate value of final
National Sample Survey Organization goods and services produced by all the
(NSSO). firms is called income method.
3. In a given year in India, official poverty
3. Measurement of the sum total of all factor
lines are higher in some states than
others because poverty rates vary from payments is called product method.
state to state. How many of the statements given above are
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
10. With reference to National Disposable 12. Both Physical and Human Capital are
Income, consider the following statements: forms of capital formation that result from
1. It is the sum total of Net National conscious investment decisions. With
Product at market prices and other reference to this, consider the following
current transfers from the rest of the statements:
world.
1. Human Capital formation is mainly an
2. The maximum amount of goods and
economic and technical process.
services that the domestic economy has
2. Physical Capital formation is partly a
at its disposal can be determined
social process and partly a conscious
through National Disposable Income.
decision of the possessor of the human
correct? capital.
(a) 1 only 3. Unlike Human Capital, physical
(b) 2 only capital is tangible and can be easily
(c) Both 1 and 2 sold in the market.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the statements given above
are correct?
11. Consider the following pairs : (a) Only one
Type of Description (b) Only two
unemployment (c) All three
1. Cyclical Mismatch in the (d) None
unemployment skill requirement
and skill
13. Which of the following statements correctly
availability
describe a ‘circular economy’?
2. Underemployment A PhD graduate
doing a peon job (a) An economic system aimed at
3. Structural Associated with eliminating waste and the continual use
unemployment the country’s of resources.
economic cycle (b) It is similar to closed economy where
How many of the above pairs are correctly capital keeps on circulating within the
matched? same economy.
(a) Only one (c) It signifies a complete cycle of all the
(b) Only two four stages of an economy.
(c) All three (d) An economy assumed to be exogenous
(d) None that is independent of national income.
14. ‘It calculates the same national income from 17. With reference to ‘Incremental Capital
the supply side. It does so by adding up all Output Ratio (ICOR)’, consider the
the value added across different sectors. By following statements:
looking at its growth one can understand 1. It shows the relationship between the
which sector of the economy is robust and level of investment made in the
which is struggling.’
economy and the resultant rising
Which of the following economic indicators
GDP.
has been correctly described above?
2. A higher value of ICOR indicates a
(a) Net Domestic Product (NDP)
more efficient production process.
(b) Gross Value Added (GVA)
3. Delay in the completion of
(c) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
infrastructure projects can lead to a
(d) Gross National Product (GNP)
rise in ICOR.
15. Which of the following indicators is not
are correct?
used in the calculation of the ‘Human
Development Index’? (a) Only one
(a) Gross national income (based on (b) Only two

purchasing power parity) (c) All three
(b) Infant mortality rate (d) None
(c) Life expectancy at Birth
(d) Expected and mean years of schooling 18. Consider the following statements :
1. When an economy is in ‘depression’,
16. Consider the following statements regarding the employment avenues start to shrink
the “e-SHRAM Portal” forcing the unemployment rate to grow
1. It was launched to create a National fast.
Database of Organized Workers. 2. When an economy is in ‘depression’, an
2. The database is seeded with Aadhaar extremely low aggregate demand in the
and for the age group between 18-60
economy causes activities to decelerate.
years.
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
19. Consider the following statements with 21. Consider the following assets:
reference to demand in the economy: 1. Machinery and equipment
1. A demand elasticity, measures how 2. Construction of buildings and other
infrastructure
demand responds to a change in price or
3. Intellectual property rights
income.
How many of the above are part of gross
2. Factors influencing the demand fixed capital formation?:
elasticity of goods and services are (a) Only one
income level and available substitutes. (b) Only two
(c) All three
3. Common examples of products with
(d) None
high elasticity are utilities, prescription
drugs, and tobacco products.
How many of the statements given above ‘Periodic Labour Force Survey’:
are correct? 1. It is conducted quinquennially.
(a) Only one 2. It is conducted for both rural and urban
labour force.
(b) Only two
3. It collects data for urban labour on a
(c) All three quarterly basis.
(d) None How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
20. Consider the following statements :
(b) Only two
1. Economic growth may only benefit a
(c) All three
small section of people. (d) None
2. Economic development occurs when
there is increase in real per capita 23. Consider the following statements :
income. 1. Marginal productivity of labour is zero
in the case of disguised unemployment.
3. Economic development is not possible
2. If 'Employment Elasticity' is
without economic growth. decreasing, it can indicate the decline in
How many of the statements given above labour productivity.
are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
24. Consider the following statements regarding 26. World Bank has introduced the concept of
'living wage' and 'minimum wage': ‘Learning Poverty’ which is defined as:
1. The living wage is based on labor (a) Percentage of youth aged 18 and above
productivity and skill sets. who cannot read and write a simple text
2. The minimum wage is the minimum (b) Percentage of the children aged 8 and
income necessary to pay for basic needs
above who are not enrolled in any kind
based on the cost of living in a specific
of school education
community.
(c) Percentage of 10-year-old children who
3. The living wages are indexed to
cannot read and understand a simple
inflation.
text
(d) Percentage of 12-year-old children who
are incorrect?
cannot read and write a simple text
(a) Only one
(b) Only two

27. Consider the following statements in the
(c) All three
context of 'Capitalist System of Economy':
(d) None
1. 'Production for profit' and 'minimal
25. The term ‘ASEEM’ is most appropriately government intervention' are its
related to which of the following? important characteristics.
(a) Online delivery of government services 2. India has adopted this form of economy.
(b) An online portal for procurement of Which of the statements given above is/are
goods by MSMEs correct?
(c) Online platform for procurement of (a) 1 only

defence items (b) 2 only
(d) A digital portal to map skills of workers (c) Both 1 and 2
with jobs.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Consider the following statements regarding 30. In the context of K-shaped economic
Code on Social Security, 2020: recovery, consider the following statements:
1. For the first time, provisions of social
1. It occurs after a recession, following
security will also be extended to
uniform recovery across sectors,
agricultural workers also.
2. The code extends social security industries, or groups of people.
benefits to all employees and workers 2. K shape recovery in India reflects that
irrespective of belonging to the upper-income households have
organised or unorganised sector.
benefitted from higher savings.
3. The code does not include gig and
platform workers.
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None
29. Consider the following statements regarding 31. Consider the following cases:
capital goods in an economy : 1. Price of the substitute of the good
1. The substitution of steel for wooden increases
ploughs in agriculture is an example of
2. Price of the good which complements it
capital-augmenting technological
progress. increases
2. It will have no impact on the production 3. The income of the consumers increases
of goods and services. 4. The price of the good decreases
3. Laptop, being used by you for solving
How many of the above cases would lead to
this test paper, is an example of capital
good. an increase of demand for an inferior good
How many of the statements given above when all other things remain unchanged?
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) All four
(d) None
32. Consider the following statements about 34. Which of the following is the most
‘Closed Economy’: appropriate definition of “unemployment
rate” in an economy?
1. A strictly closed economy is a self-
(a) Number of people who are not working
sufficient economy, with no imports or
divided by the population
exports from international trade.
(b) Number of people who are not working
2. A socialist economy is definitely a divided by the total number of people
closed economy. who are working or looking for jobs
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Number of people who are not working
and are looking for jobs divided by the
correct?
population
(a) 1 only
(d) Number of people who are not working
(b) 2 only and are looking for jobs divided by the
(c) Both 1 and 2 total number of people who are working
or looking for jobs
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Consider the following statements: the GDP Deflator :
1. The economic wealth of a country is 1. It does not include the prices of
solely decided by the possession of imported goods.
natural resources. 2. It measures the changes in prices for all

the goods and services produced in an
2. Countries that possess lesser or no
economy.
natural resources cannot have a wealthy
3. It measures the changes in prices on
economy. year-on-year basis, thus does not need
Which of the statements given above is/are to establish any base year.
correct? How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
36. Consider the following attributes : 38. Consider the following statements:
1. The benefits of public goods are not 1. Inequality is measured using the
Kuznets Curve.
limited to one particular consumer.
2. When the value of the Gini Coefficient
2. The consumption of public goods by
is 1, it indicates perfect equality.
several individuals creates competition
among consumers. correct?
3. There exists a free rider problem in the (a) 1 only
provision of public goods. (b) 2 only
How many of the above are features of (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
“Public Goods”?
(a) Only one

(b) Only two
1. If technological growth is high in a
(c) All three nation and capital depreciation is high
(d) None then there will be a progressively lesser
difference between Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) and Net Domestic
37. The term “Golden Handshake” is related to
Product (NDP).
which one of the following?
2. An increase in the absolute and per
(a) Collaboration between two blue-chip capita real GNP does not indicate a
companies. higher level of economic development,
(b) A generous severance package to those if poverty and unemployment increase.

who lose their job.
incorrect?
(c) Collaboration between investors and
(a) 1 only
owners of a company.
(b) 2 only
(d) An economically favourable trade deal (c) Both 1 and 2
between the two countries. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Which one of the following best describes 42. Consider the following statements about
the term “intermediate goods”? “Green GDP”:
(a) Goods in transit from one nation to 1. Green GDP is an index of economic
another as a part of the trade growth that factors in the environmental
(b) Goods transferred from the stocks of consequences of economic growth.
one year to another in a firm 2. Achieving Sustainable Development
(c) Goods used as raw materials to produce Goals will enable countries to increase
their Green GDP.
final goods.
3. India has been measuring Green GDP in
the last decade and NITI Aayog releases
the data annually.
41. India observed the world's highest reduction
in multidimensional poverty between 2006
are correct?
and 2016 as per the Oxford-UN data. Still,
(a) Only one
India has a large section of the population in
(b) Only two
poverty. In light of this, consider the
(c) All three
following actions/initiatives taken by the
(d) None
Government of India :
1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
43. Special Report on sustainable recovery,
Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
seen sometimes in news, is jointly released
2. Essential Commodities Act, 1955
by
3. Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
(a) International Energy Agency and Niti
(PM-JAY)
Aayog
4. Geographical Indication tags given to
(b) World Economic Forum and The
various local products
Energy & Resource Institute (TERI)
How many of the above steps will help to India
substantially reduce poverty in the next (c) OECD (Organization for Economic
decade? Cooperation and Development) and
(a) Only one Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
(b) Only two (d) International Energy Agency and The
(c) Only three Energy & Resource Institute (TERI)
(d) All four India
44. ‘There exist a few sellers having large 46. What is meant by the term “‘Social
market shares in a market. The firms are commerce” with reference to the Indian
producing homogenous or differentiated economy?
products. Firms under this market are (a) The process of selling products and
interdependent and the fall in price of one services directly through social media.
firm affects the profits of all firms in the (b) The networks of relationships among
industry’. people who live and work in a particular
Which of the following markets is best society, enabling that society to
described by the above paragraph? function effectively.
(a) Oligopoly (c) It is a policy of minimum governmental

interference in the economic affairs of
(b) Monopolistic Competition
individuals and society.
(c) Monopoly
(d) The economic organisations
(d) Perfect Competition
traditionally refer to the set of
associations, cooperatives, mutual
45. Consider the following assets :
organisations, and foundations whose
1. Goods produced for self-consumption activity is driven by values of solidarity.
2. Windfall gains (lottery income)
3. Work done by housewives 47. Consider the following statements:
4. Rent estimate of self-occupied property 1. An inferior good is one whose demand
5. Sale and purchase of used/old goods drops when people's incomes rise.
6. Intermediate Goods 2. A Giffen good is one whose demand
7. Transfer payments (gifts, allowances, decreases with increase in its price.
donations, etc.) 3. A Veblen good is a good for which
How many of the above are not included in demand increases as the price increases.
the national income? How many of the statements given above
(a) Only three are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only four
(b) Only two
(c) Only five
(c) All three
(d) Only six
(d) None
48. Situational Poverty can be correctly defined 50. Consider the following statements with
as: reference to the ‘Gig Economy’:
(a) Poverty is generally caused by a sudden 1. China and the United States are the top
crisis or loss and is often temporary. two ranked countries with the highest
(b) Poverty that persists because of internal number of gig workers.
psychological factors driven by 2. According to NITI Aayog’s ‘India’s
financial issues. Booming Gig and Platform Economy’
(c) Poverty that is caused by a violent and Report, there will be about 4.3 crore gig
unhealthy environment because of workers in India by 2030.
overcrowding. 3. Education sector has seen about 15%
(d) Poverty due to less job opportunities, growth in gig work in the pandemic
less access to services, less support for years.
disabilities and quality education How many of the statement/s given above
opportunities. are incorrect?
(a) Only one
49. Consider the following statements regarding (b) Only two
the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (c) All three
(PMKVY) scheme? (d) None
1. It was launched under Pradhan Mantri
Kaushal Vikas Yojana
2. It aims at vocational training and *****
certification of Indian youth for a better
livelihood.
3. PMKVY is implemented by the
National Skills Development
Corporation (NSDC).
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
FOR PRELIMS
(Batch- 3.0)
1. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Economic Growth means the increase in the level of GDP of the country. It can be possible only when all the
factors of production are applied in the right manner i.e., land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship. Economic
growth widens opportunities and provides the resources needed to invest in human development. This also
encourages people to send their children, including girls to schools in the hope of getting better economic returns
from investing in education.
● Option 1 is incorrect: Economic growth means an increase in national income but economic growth may not
reduce income inequality because
⮚ Economic growth often creates the best opportunities for those who are highly skilled and educated.
⮚ Modern economies are creating an increased number of part-time/flexible service sector jobs. In these
sectors, wages have been lagging average earnings.
● Option 2 is incorrect: Economic growth does not necessarily reduce poverty. Economic growth leads to
poverty reduction only when it is accompanied by equitable income distribution as well. Suppose there is a
disparity in income distribution and a wide gap between the income earned by the top and bottom income strata.
In case of income inequality, economic growth will lead to concentration of income in the hands of the few rich;
the level of poverty might increase.
● Option 3 is incorrect: Economic growth will not necessarily solve problem of unemployment. For example,
growth cannot solve structural and frictional unemployment; this is unemployment caused by lack of skills and
geographical immobility.
2. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Tendulkar committee (2009) was chaired by Suresh Tendulkar and gave the following recommendations -
● Statement 1 is incorrect: A shift away from calorie consumption-based poverty estimation was the
recommendation.
● Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct as they were recommendations of the Tendulkar committee.
⮚ A uniform poverty line basket (PLB) across rural and urban India
⮚ Incorporation of private expenditure on health and education while estimating poverty.
⮚ The Committee recommended using Mixed Reference Period based estimates, as opposed to Uniform
Reference Period based estimates that were used in earlier methods for estimating poverty.
⮚ A change in the price adjustment procedure to correct spatial and temporal issues with price adjustment
Why Poverty Estimation in India is Important?
Poverty estimation in India is essential for the following reasons-
▪ It’s a Constitutional Requirement – The Indian Constitution promises an equitable society, and poverty
estimation in India is an effective method for building such a society.
▪ Part of a Poverty Elimination of Plan – After poverty estimation, it comes to the conclusion that most people in
India live under the poverty line. This will help the government formulate new strategies and plans to eliminate
society’s poverty.
▪ To Measure the Welfare Schemes’ Impact – The estimation of poverty will help to track the successes, failures,
and other impacts of the schemes by the government. Getting the estimation of the poor in society will help
them to monitor the shortcomings of such schemes.
3. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: Gross domestic product (GDP) is the monetary value of all the finished goods and
services produced within a country’s borders in a specific time period. GDP includes all private and public
consumption, government outlays, investments, private inventories, paid-in construction costs and the foreign
balance of trade (exports are added, imports are subtracted). Gross Domestic Product focuses only on
quantitative aspects and not on qualitative aspects. GDP is a ‘quantitative’ concept and its volume/size
indicates the ‘internal’ strength of the economy. When we use the term ‘a growing’ economy, it means that the
economy is adding up its income, i.e., in quantitative terms.
● Statement 2 is not correct: The national income estimates of GDP are released quarterly by the National
Statistics Office (CSO). The NAD (National Accounts Division) is responsible for the preparation of national
accounts, which includes Gross Domestic Product, Government, and Private Final Consumption Expenditure,
Fixed Capital Formation, and other macroeconomic aggregates.
● Statement 3 is not correct: GDP is the total value of goods and services produced within a year at market
prices. It considers production by all three sectors – primary, secondary, and tertiary. Manufacturing activity is
a part of the secondary sector. Even if the GDP is expanding, it does not mean that manufacturing must be
expanding as well. The increase can come from either services or agricultural sectors too.
4. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Gross National Product is the value of all goods and services produced by a country’s residents. The items
that are to be excluded from GNP measurement are as follows:
o 1 is correct. Government transfer payments: Because it is one sided payment made by the government
to the household & firm without rendering any production services. E.g. Scholarship, old age Pension etc.
o 2 is correct. Transfer of used (Second hand) goods: Because it is already counted at the time of production
and hence it will lead to double counting.
o 3 is correct: Illegal Activities: Income generated through unlawful activities is also not included because
its production is unreported and unaccounted since; it is not valid as per law. E.g. Smuggling, Gambling
etc.
o Buying and selling of security: Because it is merely transfer of paper from one person to another and it
does not rather add to any production services.
o Private transfer payments: Because it is one sided payment made by the parents to their children without
rendering any productive services. E.g. Pocket money given by the parent to their children.
o Non-market goods and services: Because it is not bought and sold into the market and thus it is not
included.
o The value of leisure: Because leisure does not refer any productive services and its value cannot be
measured in monetary Terms.
● 4 is correct: GNP is what the people of the nation produce not only domestically, but also abroad. For
example, Tata, an Indian company, manufactures and sells its motor vehicles throughout Europe will
increase India’s GNP.
5. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Net national product (NNP) is gross national product (GNP), the total value of finished
goods and services produced by a country's citizens overseas and domestically, minus depreciation. NNP is
often examined on an annual basis as a way to measure a nation's success in continuing minimum production
standards.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: If the NFIA: (Net Factor Income from Abroad is positive), that is, the inflow of factor
income from abroad is more than the outflow; NNP will be more than NDP. Conversely, if NFIA is negative,
NNP will be less than NDP and it would be equal to NDP in case the NFIA is zero. The formula for NNP is:
NNP = Market Value of Finished Goods + Market Value of Finished Services – Depreciation Alternatively,
NNP can be calculated as: NNP = Gross National Product – Depreciation It can also be found out by adding the
NFIA (National Factor Income from Abroad) to the NDP. If the NFIA is positive, that is, the inflow of factor
income from abroad is more than the outflow; NNP will be more than NDP. Conversely, if NFIA is negative,
NNP will be less than NDP and it would be equal to NDP in case the NFIA is zero
● Statement 3 is correct: NNP provides an expression of the net value of the goods and services a nation has
produced during a specific time, often examined on an annual basis as a way to measure a nation's success in
continuing minimum production standards. The NNP is expressed in the currency of the nation it represents.
Net National Product (NNP)
⮚ NNP is often examined on an annual basis as a way to measure a nation's success in continuing minimum
production standards. It can be a useful method to keep track of an economy as it takes into account all its
citizens, regardless of where they make their money, and acknowledges the fact that capital must be spent
to keep production standards high.
⮚ The NNP can be extrapolated from the GNP by subtracting the depreciation of any assets. The depreciation
figure is determined by assessing the loss of the value of assets attributed to normal use and aging.
⮚ The relationship between a nation's GNP and NNP is similar to the relationship between its gross domestic
product (GDP) and net domestic product (NDP).
6. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: GDP Deflator is the ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP. It gives us the value by which the
cost of a good or service has risen from its cost in the base year. It is a measure of inflation. This ratio helps
show the extent to which the increase in gross domestic product GDP has happened on account of higher prices
rather than increase in output. Nominal GDP differs from real GDP as the former doesn’t include inflation,
while the latter does. As a result, nominal GDP will most often be higher than real GDP in an expanding
economy.
The formula to find the GDP deflator:
GDP deflator = (nominal GDP ÷ real GDP) x 100
7. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: While determining the poverty line in India, a minimum level of food requirement,
clothing, footwear, fuel and light, educational and medical requirement, etc., are determined for subsistence.
These physical quantities are multiplied by their prices in rupees. The present formula for food requirement
while estimating the poverty line is based on the desired calorie requirement. Food items, such as cereals,
pulses, vegetables, milk, oil, sugar, etc., together provide these needed calories. The calorie needs vary
depending on age, sex and the type of work that a person does. The accepted average calorie requirement
in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban
areas. Since people living in rural areas engage themselves in more physical work, calorie requirements in
rural areas are considered to be higher than in urban areas.
● Statement 2 is correct: The poverty line is estimated periodically (normally every five years) by
conducting sample surveys. These surveys are carried out by the National Sample Survey Organisation
(NSSO). However, for making comparisons between developing countries, many international organisations
like the World Bank use a uniform standard for the poverty line: minimum availability of the equivalent of
$1.90 per person per day (2011, ppp).
● Statement 3 is not correct: Methodology for estimating poverty at national and state level vary from State
to State because of interstate price differentials for different commodities. So, in a given year in India, official
poverty lines are higher in some states than in others because price levels vary from State to State and
not because poverty rates vary from State to State.
8. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: Option 1 and 2 are correctly matched. Goods like food and clothing, and services like
recreation that are consumed when purchased by their ultimate consumers are called consumption goods or
consumer goods.
● Option 3 is also correctly matched: Tools, implements and machines are capital goods and they gradually
undergo wear and tear, and thus are repaired or gradually replaced over time. These goods form a part of capital,
one of the crucial factors of production in which a productive enterprise has invested, and they continue to
enable the production process to go on for continuous cycles of production.
● Option 4 is incorrectly matched: Television sets, automobiles or home computers, although they are for
ultimate consumption. They are also durable and known as consumer durables.
● Option 5 is incorrectly matched: Steel sheets used for making automobiles and copper used for making
utensils are intermediate goods, mostly used as raw material or inputs for production of other commodities.
These are not final goods.
9. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Measuring the aggregate value of spending that the firms receive for the final goods
and services which they produce is called the expenditure method.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: If the flow of income is measured by measuring the aggregate value of final goods
and services produced by all the firms, it is called the product method.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Measuring the sum total of all factor payments is called income method. Purchase
of consumer goods and services by residents and households (C)
▪ Government expenditure on goods and services (G)
▪ Business enterprises’ expenditure on capital goods and stocks (I)
▪ Net exports (exports-imports) (NX)
▪ Hence, according to the expenditure method: ■ National Income = C + G + I + NX
▪ Consumption of raw materials
▪ Consumption of capital
▪ Net indirect taxes
The expenditure method of calculating national income focuses on expenditures. Now expenditure refers to all the
purchases made by residents, government, or business enterprises. The expenditure method takes the following
elements into consideration:
⮚ The value-added method or product method of calculating national income focuses on the value added to a
product at each stage of production. To calculate the national income using this method, we will have first to
calculate the net value added at factor cost (NVAfc). And to calculate the (NVAfc), we will have to deduct the
net indirect taxes. Usually, this method involves dividing the economy into various industries such as
agriculture, fishing, transport, communication, and so on.This method concentrates on the net value added by
each component; we would need to exclude or subtract the following elements from the output of each
enterprise:
⮚ The Income Method measures national income from the side of payments made to the primary factors of
production in the form of rent, wages, interest and profit for their productive services in an accounting year.
Thus, national income is calculated by adding up factor incomes generated by all the producing units located
within the domestic economy during a period of account.
10. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: National Disposable Income = Net National Product at market prices + Other
current transfers from the rest of the world.
● Statement 2 is correct: The idea behind National Disposable Income is that it gives an idea of what is the
maximum amount of goods and services the domestic economy has at its disposal.
11. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is incorrect: Cyclical unemployment refers to the unemployment which is caused by the changes in
business cycles, that is economic upturn or downturn. Cyclical unemployment is a component of overall
unemployment and is affected by the economic recession or expansion.
● Pair 2 is correct: Underemployment: That unemployment which arises due to imperfections in the labour
market. It arises due to movement of labour from one industry to another or from one place to another. It is of
temporary nature and vanishes with the removal of market imperfections.
● Pair 3 is incorrect: Structural unemployment is a category of unemployment caused by differences between
the skills possessed by the unemployed population and the jobs available in the market. Structural
unemployment is a long-lasting condition that is caused by fundamental changes in the economy.
12. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: Decision regarding investment in physical capital is taken on the basis of one’s
knowledge in this regard. The entrepreneur possesses knowledge to calculate the expected rates of return to a
range of investments and then rationally decides which one of the investments should be made. The
ownership of physical capital is the outcome of the conscious decision of the owner — the physical capital
formation is mainly an economic and technical process.
● Statement 2 is not correct: A substantial part of the human capital formation takes place in one’s life when
she/he is unable to decide whether it would maximise her/his earnings. Children are given different types of
school education and health care facilities by their parents and the society. The peers, educators and society
influence the decisions regarding human capital investments even at the tertiary level, that is, at the college
level. Moreover, the human capital formation at this stage is dependent upon the already formed human capital
at the school level. Human capital formation is partly a social process and partly a conscious decision of
the possessor of the human capital.
● Statement 3 is correct: Physical capital is tangible and can be easily sold in the market like any other
commodity. Human capital is intangible; it is endogenously built in the body and mind of its owner. Human
capital is not sold in the market; only the services of the human capital are sold and, hence, there arises the
necessity of the owner of the human capital to be present in the place of production. The physical capital is
separable from its owner, whereas, human capital is inseparable from its owner.
13. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: Recently, NITI Aayog has given the “Status Paper and Way Forward on Resource
Efficiency & Circular Economy”. To make recommendations for enhancing the resource-use efficiency in the
Indian economy, develop indicators for monitoring progress, and create an ecosystem for minimizing
environmental impacts. A circular economy (often referred to simply as "circularity") is an economic system
aimed at eliminating waste and the continual use of resources. Circular systems employ reuse, sharing, repair,
refurbishment, remanufacturing and recycling to create a closed-loop system, minimizing the use of resource
inputs and the creation of waste, pollution and carbon emissions. This regenerative approach is in contrast to
the traditional linear economy, which has a 'take, make, dispose' model of production.
Some of the major recommendations identified as priority areas are
○ Formulation of a National Policy on Resource Efficiency (RE)/Circular Economy (CE)
○ Establishment of Bureau of Resource Efficiency (BRE)
○ Mainstreaming RE & CE in existing flagship missions
○ A Modern Recycling Industry with level playing between primary and secondary producers
○ Development and promotion of skill and capacity building programmes for informal sector
14. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option (b) is correct: The same national revenue is calculated using the supply side by the Gross Value Added
(GVA). It accomplishes this by totalling the value contributed across all industries. The GVA of a sector is
determined by subtracting the value of its intermediate inputs from the sector's product, according to the RBI.
The two main production elements, labour and capital, share this "value added." One can tell which areas of the
business are doing well and which are having difficulties by looking at the GVA growth.
● By examining the GVA statistics, the GDP can be calculated.
● The following equation relates the GDP and GVA:
o GDP is equal to GVA plus federal taxes (Subsidies provided by the government)
● As a result, the GDP will be greater than GVA if the government collects more taxes than it spends on subsidies.
● The GDP data is more helpful when examining annual economic development and when comparing a country's
current economic growth to its growth in the past or to that of another nation.
15. Answer B
● Option B is correct: The Human Development Index (HDI) is a statistical composite index of life expectancy,
education, and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human
development. It was developed by economist Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen. It is released by UNDP.
16. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: It was launched to create a National Database of Unorganized Workers (UWs).
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The database is seeded with Aadhaar and for the age group between 16-59 years
17. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The incremental capital output ratio (ICOR) for an economy refers to the units
of capital needed to drive one unit of growth. It explains the relationship between the level of investment
made in the economy and the consequent increase in GDP. For example, if 10% additional capital is
required to push the overall output by a percent, the ICOR will be 10.
● Statement 2 is not correct: A lower value of ICOR indicates a more efficient production process. ICOR
reflects how efficiently capital is being used to generate additional output. So a country with ICOR of 3 is
better than a country with an ICOR of 5. As per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), India’s ICOR is about 4.5.
● Statement 3 is correct: Delays in the completion of projects, lack of complementary investments in related
sectors and the non-availability of critical inputs can all lead to a rise in ICOR. The ICOR in India has
increased from 3.8 in 2016-17 to 4.9 in 2018-19 and is expected to further deteriorate to 6.9 in 2019-20.
18. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct: Depression in an economy can be characterised by:
⮚ An extremely low aggregate demand in the economy causing activities to decelerate;
⮚ The inflation being comparatively lower;
⮚ The employment avenues start shrinking forcing unemployment rate to grow fast;
⮚ To keep the business going, production houses go for forced labour-cuts or retrenchment (to cut down
production cost and be competitive in the market,) etc
● A depression is a severe and prolonged downturn in economic activity. In economics, a depression is commonly
defined as an extreme recession that lasts three or more years or leads to a decline in real gross domestic product
(GDP) of at least 10 percent.
19. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Demand elasticity, also known as the elasticity of demand, gauges how consumers
react to changes in price or income. An elastic good is defined as one where a change in price leads to a
significant shift in demand and where substitutes are available for an item, the more elastic the good will
be.
● Statement 2 is correct: The price elasticity of demand is calculated by dividing the percentage change in
quantity demanded by the percentage change in price. Factors influencing the demand elasticity of goods
and services such as income level and available substitutes.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Luxury goods and consumer discretionary items, like a particular brand of cereal
or candy bars, are typical instances of products with high elasticity. Food items can be readily swapped out,
and budget-friendly alternatives can easily take the place of name brands.
20. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Economic growth may only benefit a small section of people. For instance, the
production of cars by a company would only bring profit to that company rather than any impact on the
larger interest of the society. It can be called as a non inclusive growth.
● Statement 2 is correct: Economic development occurs when there is increase in real per capita income.
This per capita income transcends into increase in spending on education, health etc and as a result improves
the quality of life.
● Statement 3 is correct: Economic growth helps in achieving the developmental goals. As the economic
growth is basically about the monetary increase in the income levels. This increase is necessary for seeking
any improvement in the development of the country.
21. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option C is correct : Gross Capital Formation = Gross Fixed Capital Formation (machinery + equipment +
building + cultivated biological resources + intellectual property) + Valuable Metals + Change in
stock/inventory Cultivated biological resources is defined as animal resources yielding repeat products and tree,
crop and plant resources yielding repeat products whose natural growth and regeneration are under the direct
control, responsibility and management of institutional units. The term ‘Gross fixed capital formation’ is
interchangeably used as “gross investment” as valuable metals and change in stock/inventory is less than 1%.
22. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option B is correct: Employment and Unemployment Surveys (EUS) conducted by NSSO were the primary
source of labour market data at National and State level in India. Regular EUS were conducted quinquennially
(after every five years) since 1972. Considering the importance of availability of labour force data at more
frequent intervals, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation constituted a committee on
Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS). Now, National Statistics Office (NSO) is conducting PLFS to produce
annual statistics of employment and unemployment characteristics for both rural and urban areas, along with
quarterly estimates for urban areas. The first annual report based on the data collected in PLFS during July
2017- June 2018 was published in May 2019.
The PLFS is designed with two major objectives for measurement of employment and unemployment.
⮚ The first was to measure the dynamics in labour force participation and employment status in the short time
interval of three months for only the urban areas.
⮚ The second was for both rural and urban areas, to measure the labour force estimates on key parameters on
an annual basis such as labour force participation rate, worker population ratio etc.
23. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Disguised unemployment arises because more labourers work in the factory/land than
are required. Hence, marginal productivity of labour is zero.
● Statement 2 is correct: Employment Elasticity is a measure of the percentage change in employment
associated with a 1 percentage point change in economic growth. If employment elasticity is decreasing means
with per percentage increase in GDP, employment is not increasing which again implies that more output/GDP
is getting produced with the same labour. So, productivity of labour is increasing.
24. Answer- B
Explanation
The Union Labour Ministry is currently thinking of shifting from minimum wages to living wages in a bid to bring
more people out of poverty in the country.
● The minimum wage is based on labor productivity and skill sets.
● It is the lowest amount of money a laborer can earn as mandated by the law.
● The living wage is determined by the average cost to live comfortably, while the minimum wage is the fixed
amount set by the government.
● The living wage is the theoretical income level that enables an individual or family to afford adequate
shelter, food, healthcare, and other basic necessities.
● It is the minimum income that helps support a satisfactory standard of living and prevents individuals from
falling into poverty.
● Living wages are indexed to inflation.
● The difference between the minimum wage and the living wage can range between 10 and 25 percent based on
the cost of living in a specific place.
25. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is correct: ASEEM is an AI-based digital platform to bridge demand-supply gap of skilled workforce
across sectors. The portal will map details of workers based on regions and local industry demands. ASEEM
will be used as a match-making engine to map skilled workers with the jobs available. The portal and App will
have provision for registration and data upload for workers across job roles, sectors and geographies. The skilled
workforce can register their profiles on the app and can search for employment opportunities in their
neighbourhood. Through ASEEM, employers, agencies and job aggregators looking for skilled workforce in
specific sectors will also have the required details at their fingertips. It will also enable policymakers take more
objective view of various sectors.
26. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option C is correct: World Bank has introduced the concept of ‘Learning Poverty’, in coordination with the
UNESCO Institute for Statistics. Learning poverty means being unable to read and understand a simple text by
age 10. World Bank believes that all children should be able to read by age 10. Reading is a gateway for learning
as the child progresses through school—and conversely, an inability to read slams that gate shut. Beyond this,
when children cannot read, it’s usually a clear indication that school systems aren’t well organized to help
children learn in other areas such as math, science, and the humanities. And although it is possible to learn later
in life with enough effort, children who don’t read by age 10—or at the latest, by the end of primary school—
usually fail to master reading later in their schooling career. There is an urgent need for a society-wide
commitment to invest more and better in people. If children cannot read, all education SDGs are at risk.
Eliminating learning poverty is as important as eliminating extreme monetary poverty, stunting, or hunger.
27. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Profit Motive: The driving force behind any capitalist economy is the profit motive.
All companies wish to produce and sell their products to maximize their profits. This also induces healthy
competition in the economy.
✔ Freedom of Enterprise: In capitalism, every individual is free to make his own economic choices without any
intervention.This includes both the consumer and the producers. So a producer is free to produce any goods or
services. And the consumer is free to buy whatever he desires and from whomever, he wants without restrictions.
✔ The Capitalistic Form of Economy has its origin in the famous work of Adam Smith-Wealth of Nations. Adam
Smith, the Scottish philosopher-economist professor at the University of Glasgow, whose writings formed the
basis of classical economics, had stressed certain fine ideas which were to take fancy among some of the western
countries and finally capitalism took birth.
✔ The decisions of what to produce, how much to produce and at what price to sell are taken by the market, by
the private enterprises in this system, with the state having no economic role.
Capitalist Economy
⮚ Capitalism is the most prominent in our current global economic system. Its main characteristic is that it
most means of production and property are privately owned by individuals and companies. The government
has a limited role in such an economy limited to management and control measures.
⮚ So a capitalist economy is a liberal economy. This means only the free market will determine the supply,
demand, and prices of the products. There is no direct government intervention other than to control
monopolistic practices in the economy.
⮚ As we said earlier a capitalist economy is the most predominant in the current global economy. USA, UK,
Germany, Japan, Singapore all are classic examples of capitalist economies.
Features of a Capitalist Economy
▪ Right to Private Property: This is the essence of capitalism. This right means that private property such as
property, factories, machines, plants etc. can be owned under private individuals and companies. The three
things covered under this right are:
▪ Every individual can acquire any amount of property, He can use these properties as he wishes, He also has the
right of inheritance. So he can inherit the property from his forefathers. And he can also pass it on to his
successors on his death.
▪ Price Mechanism: Price mechanism is like an invisible hand that controls the workings of a capitalist economy.
The forces of supply and demand will determine the prices and the level of productions in the economy. The
government will not have any interference in this matter.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: India had the choice to have a capitalist or a socialist economy after gaining
independence. The leaders of independent India, however, chose to adopt the mixed economy approach because
they wanted to prioritize both the public and private sectors. The economy of India is a developing mixed
economy. In a mixed economy, public and private sector exist side by side. Both price mechanism and central
planning authority decide what, how and for whom to produce. India is a mixed economy.
28. Answer- B
Explanation:
The Code on Social Security, 2020 subsumes nine central labour legislations.
● For the first time, provisions of social security will also be extended to agricultural workers also.
● The objective of the Code on Social Security, 2020 is to amend and consolidate the existing labour laws relating
to social security with the wider goal of extending social security benefits to all employees and workers
irrespective of belonging to the organised or unorganised sector.
● The code is applicable to both gig and platform workers.
● Schemes for gig workers and platform workers will be funded through contributions from the central
government, state governments and aggregators.
29. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Labor augmenting is technology that increases skills and productivity of existing labor
force (example – teaching people how to use the computer). Capital augmenting technology increases
productivity of existing capital goods. In this case, replacement of wooden by steel increases the productivity
of plough.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Economists and businesses pay special attention to capital goods because of the role
they play in improving the productive capacity of a company or country. In other words, capital goods make it
possible for companies to produce at a higher level of efficiency. For example, consider two workers digging
ditches. The first worker has a spoon and the second worker has a tractor equipped with a hydraulic shovel. The
second worker can dig much faster because they have the superior capital good. Hence, it definitely has an
impact on production of goods and services.
Capital Goods
⮚ Capital goods are any tangible asset used by one business to produce goods or services that then become an
input for other businesses to produce consumer goods. They are also known as intermediate goods, durable
goods or economic capital. The most common capital goods are property, plant, and equipment
⮚ (PPE), or fixed assets such as buildings, machinery and equipment, tools and vehicles.
⮚ Capital goods are different from financial capital, which refers to the funds companies use to grow their
businesses. Natural resources not modified by human hands are not considered capital goods, although both
are factors of production.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Laptop, being used by you for solving this test paper, is an example of consumer
durable good. On the other, laptop used by Sunya IAS for making this test paper is a capital good because then
the laptop is used in the production of a service.
30. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: A K-shaped
recovery occurs when, following a recession,
different parts of the economy recover at
different rates, times, or magnitudes. It
describes the path of different disaggregated
economic variables, such as income across
different segments of society or employment
in different industries, relative to one another.
● Statement 2 is correct: In India, households
at the top of the pyramid are likely to have
seen their incomes largely protected, and
savings rates forced up during the lockdown.
Meanwhile, households at the bottom are
likely to have witnessed permanent hits to
jobs and incomes. COVID has triggered an
effective income transfer from the poor to the
rich, this will be demand-impeding because
the poor have a higher marginal propensity to
consume (i.e) they tend to spend (instead of saving) a much higher proportion of their income.
31. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: When the price of a substitute for a good increase, the demand for the good may
increase. The demand is directly proportional to the price of the substitute of the good.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: If the price of the complementary good increases, the demand for the good might
decrease along with it. For example, if the price of ice-cream increases, the demand for fudge sauce decreases
as more money goes into buying the ice-cream than earlier. Also, some people might not even buy the ice-cream
after the increase in price.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The demand for an inferior good may decrease if income increases as people opt for
superior goods when there is an increase in their disposable income. The demand for a normal good may increase
if income increases.
● Statement 4 is correct: Self-explanatory.
32. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: A closed economy is one that has no trading activity with outside economies. The
closed economy is therefore entirely self-sufficient, which means no imports come into the country and no
exports leave the country.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Even for socialist economy, if they lack resources, then they have to be dependent
on imports.
⮚ When an economy is closed it does not interact with the rest of the world.
⮚ An open economy is one that trades with other nations in goods and services and, most often, also in
financial assets. Indians, for instance, enjoy using products produced around the world and some of our
production is exported to foreign countries.
⮚ In a socialist society the government decides what goods are to be produced in accordance with the needs
of society. It is assumed that the government knows what is good for the people of the country and so the
desires of individual consumers are not given much importance. The government decides how goods are to
be produced and how they should be distributed. In principle, distribution under socialism is supposed to
be based on what people need and not on what they can afford to purchase.
⮚ Unlike under capitalism, for example, a socialist nation provides free health care to all its citizens. Strictly,
a socialist society has no private property since everything is owned by the state.
⮚ But Most economies are mixed economies, i.e. the government and the market together answer the three
questions of what to produce, how to produce and how to distribute what is produced. In a mixed economy,
the market will provide whatever goods and services it can produce well, and the government will provide
essential goods and services which the market fails to do.
33. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The economic wealth, or well-being, of a country does not necessarily depend on the
mere possession of resources. Infact the resource rich Africa and Latin America have some of the poorest
countries in the world, whereas many prosperous countries have scarcely any natural wealth.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The essential point is how even a minimum availability of natural resources is used
in generating a flow of production and how, as a consequence, countries with less natural resources can generate
income and wealth. One of the pioneers of the subject we call economics today, Adam Smith, named his most
influential work – An Enquiry into the Nature and Cause of the Wealth of Nations. It is not that countries which
are endowed with a bounty of natural wealth– minerals or forests or the most fertile lands – are naturally the
richest countries.
34. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is correct: The unemployment rate is defined as the number of unemployed people as percent of the
labor force. The labor force includes the people who are either employed or unemployed, i.e. who don't have a
job but are actively looking for one.
NOTE: According to CMIE (Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy)the employment rate is the best measure
of the health of the Indian economy as it measures the proportion of the working age population that are
employed.
35. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 and 2 are correct: GDP deflator measures the changes in prices for all goods and services
provided in an economy. It does not include the prices of imported goods.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: GDP deflator measures the changes in prices by establishing a base year by
comparing current prices to prices in the base year. The GDP price deflator factor the impact of inflation or
rising prices into its results. It does it by showing the effect of price changes on GDP, first by establishing a
base year and by comparing current prices to prices in the base year.
36. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Public goods are commodities or services that benefit all members of society, and
which are often provided for free through public taxation. Hence, they are not limited to one particular
consumer.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Non-rivalrous means that when one person uses a good, it does not prevent others
from using it. Hence, it does not create competition among consumers.
● Statement 3 is correct: The free rider problem refers to the tendency for individuals to benefit from a public
good or service without contributing to the cost of providing it. This can occur when the benefits of a good or
service are non-excludable, meaning that it is not possible to prevent someone from using or enjoying the good
or service, regardless of whether or not they have paid for it.
❖ There are two major differences between public goods and private goods.
❖ One, the benefits of public goods are available to all and are not only restricted to one particular consumer.
❖ For example, if a person eats chocolate or wears a shirt, these will not be available to others. It is said that
this person’s consumption stands in rival relationship to the consumption of others. However, if we consider
a public park or measures to reduce air pollution, the benefits will be available to all.
❖ One person’s consumption of a good does not reduce the amount available for consumption for others and
so several people can enjoy the benefits, that is, the consumption of many people is not ‘rivalrous’.
❖ Two, in the case of private goods anyone who does not pay for the goods can be excluded from enjoying
its benefits.
❖ If you do not buy a ticket, you will not be allowed to watch a movie at a local cinema hall. However, in
case of public goods, there is no feasible way of excluding anyone from enjoying the benefits of the good.
That is why public goods are called non-excludable.
❖ Even if some users do not pay, it is difficult and sometimes impossible to collect fees for the public good.
These non paying users are known as ‘free-riders’.
❖ Consumers will not voluntarily pay for what they can get for free and for which there is no exclusive title
to the property being enjoyed. The link between the producer and consumer which occurs through the
payment process is broken and the government must step in to provide for such goods.
37. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option B is correct: A golden handshake is a stipulation in an employment agreement which states that the
employer will provide a significant severance package if the employee loses their job. It is usually provided to
top executives in the event that they lose employment because of retirement, layoffs or for negligence. However,
payment can be made in several ways, such as cash or stock options.
38. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: In economics, a Kuznets curve graphs the hypothesis that as an economy develops,
market forces first increase and then decrease economic inequality. Kuznets believed that inequality would
follow an inverted "U" shape as it rises and then falls again with the increase of income per-capita. But Gini
coefficient index is used in measuring inequality. Gini Coefficient is calculated using the Lorenz Curve.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Gini Coefficients can be used to compare income distribution of a country over time
as well. Its value varies anywhere from zero to 1, zero indicating perfect equality and one indicating the perfect
inequality.
Lorenz Curve
⮚ The Lorenz curve is to represent inequality in wealth distribution. In other words, it is a graphical
representation of the distribution of income or wealth.
⮚ The Lorenz curve is represented by a straight diagonal line, which represents perfect equality in income or
wealth distribution; the Lorenz curve lies beneath it, showing estimated distribution.
⮚ The area that is between the straight line and the curved line is the Gini coefficient.
⮚ The Gini Coefficient itself is expressed as a representation of the scalar measurement of inequality.
⮚ In the Lorenz Curve, the Gini Coefficient is expressed as the ratio of the area under the straight line
Laffer curve
⮚ The Laffer curve shows how tax revenues change when the tax rate is either increased or decreased.
Typically, it has an inverted-U shape.
⮚ Phillips curve
⮚ The Phillips curve is an economic concept stating that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse
relationship.
⮚ The theory claims that with economic growth comes inflation, which in turn should lead to more jobs and
less unemployment.
39. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: NDP = GDP – depreciation. Depreciation is caused by wear and tear of capital or
poor technological growth that fails to cut down depreciation levels. The lower the depreciation, the lesser
will be the difference between GDP and NDP. So, if technological growth is high in a nation and capital
depreciation is low (not high) then there will be a progressively lesser difference between Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) and Net Domestic Product (NDP).
● Statement 2 is correct: GNP is quantitative but development is a qualitative change which is always a positive
value. Thus, development cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing
conditions. Development occurs when positive growth happens. However, even positive growth does not
always lead to development if poverty and unemployment increase.
40. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option C is correct: Goods which are used up during the process of production of final goods are termed as
intermediate goods.
⮚ Of the total production taking place in the economy a large number of products don’t end up in final
consumption and are not capital goods either.
⮚ Such goods may be used by other producers as material inputs.
⮚ Examples are steel sheets used for making automobiles and copper used for making utensils. These are
intermediate goods, mostly used as raw material or inputs for production of other commodities. These are
not final goods.
⮚ Net contribution made by a firm in the process of production is defined as, Value of production – Value of
intermediate goods used
41. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 provides
livelihood security. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 aims at enhancing
the livelihood security of people in rural areas by guaranteeing hundred days wage employment in a financial
year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
● Statement 2 is correct: Essential commodities act, 1955 provides, in the interest of the general public, for the
control of the production, supply and distribution of, and trade and commerce, in certain commodities ensuring
food availability.
● Statement 3 is correct: PM-JAY is the world’s largest health insurance/ assurance scheme fully financed by
the government. It provides a cover of Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year for secondary and tertiary care
hospitalization across public and private empanelled hospitals in India. Over 12 crore poor and vulnerable
entitled families (approximately 55 crore beneficiaries) are eligible for these benefits. PM-JAY provides
cashless access to health care services for the beneficiary at the point of service, that is, the hospital. PM-JAY
envisions to help mitigate catastrophic expenditure on medical treatment which pushes nearly 6 crore
Indians into poverty each year. It covers up to 3 days of pre-hospitalization and 15 days post-hospitalization
expenses such as diagnostics and medicines. There is no restriction on the family size, age or gender.
● Statement 4 is correct: Geographical Indication tags given to local products Prevents unauthorised use of a
Registered Geographical Indication by others. It provides legal protection to Indian Geographical Indications
which in turn boost exports. It promotes economic prosperity of producers of goods produced in a geographical
territory.
● The global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is an international measure of acute multidimensional
poverty covering over 100 developing countries. It complements traditional monetary poverty measures by
capturing the acute deprivations in health, education, and living standards that a person faces simultaneously.
42. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Green Gross Domestic Product, or Green GDP is an indicator of economic growth
with environmental factors taken into consideration along with the standard GDP of a country.
● Statement 2 is correct :The 17 Sustainable Development Goals are framed taking into account all the three
spheres of earth thus ensuring environmental sustainability. Achieving the targets increases green GDP of a
country.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: India is still under the process of measuring Green GDP in a concrete manner due
to the challenges in calculating the same.
❖ Green GDP factors biodiversity losses and costs attributed to climate change. Physical indicators like “carbon
dioxide per year or “waste per capita” may be aggregated to indices like the “Sustainable Development Index”
❖ Green GDP is calculated by subtracting net natural capital consumption from the standard GDP. This includes
resource depletion, environmental degradation and protective environmental initiatives.
❖ These calculations can alternatively be applied to the net domestic product (NDP), which subtracts the
depreciation of capital from GDP. In every case, it is required to convert any resource extraction activity into
a monetary value since they are expressed in this manner through national accounts In September 2015,
the UN General Assembly adopted the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development that includes 17
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Building on the principle of “leaving no one behind”, the new
Agenda emphasizes a holistic approach to achieving sustainable development for all.
43. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is Correct: The International Energy Agency (IEA), in collaboration with NITI Aayog, presented
the Special Report on sustainable recovery. It is a part of IEA’s flagship World Energy Outlook series. The
report proposes a number of actions that could be taken over the next three years to revitalize economies and
boost employment while making energy systems cleaner and more resilient. According to the report,
Investments in the Sustainable Recovery Plan can achieve a range of significant outcomes. The report brings
out key areas for creating jobs in the sectors like electricity, transportation, buildings, industry and sustainable
bio-fuels and innovations. A combination of policy actions and targeted investments will offer huge benefits to
the economy and lead to job creation
44. Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: An Oligopoly refers to a market situation in which there are a few firms selling homogeneous
or differentiated products. In India, markets for automobiles, cement, steel, aluminium, etc., are examples of
oligopolistic markets.
45. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Assets 1 and 4 are included in National Income: National Income of any country means the complete value
of the goods and services produced by any country during its financial year. It is thus the consequence of all
economic activities that are running in any country during the period of one year. It includes wages, interest,
rent, profit, received by factors of production like labour, capital, land and entrepreneurship of a nation. The
goods produced for self-consumption and the rent estimate of self-occupied property are included in the
national income.
● Assets 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 are not included in National Income: Windfall gains (lottery income), Work done
by housewives, Sale and purchase of used/old goods, Intermediate Goods, Transfer payments (gifts,
allowances, donations, etc.), are not included in the national income accounting.
46. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: Social commerce is a subset of E-commerce transactions where buyers and sellers interact
through social media platform with each other before concluding a purchase is called as social commerce.
According to a report, social commerce in India (in terms of gross merchandise value) was estimated at ~ US$
2 billion in 2020 and is projected to reach US$ 16-20 billion by 2025 and US$ 60-70 billion by 2030. Social
commerce differs from traditional social media marketing strategies where shoppers view a brand’s content and
visit their website to start shopping. Instead, social platforms like Facebook Shops and Instagram Shops act as
virtual storefronts. Social commerce is booming because social media usage is. Research shows the typical
social media user now spends about 15% of their waking life on social platforms.
47. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: An inferior good is one whose demand drops when people's incomes rise. The demands
for inferior goods move in the opposite direction of the income of the consumer. This is because when the
income of the consumer increases, he will substitute these goods with superior goods.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: A Giffen good is a low income, non-luxury product that defies standard economic
and consumer demand theory. Demand for Giffen goods rises when the price rises and falls when the price falls.
● Statement 3 is correct: A Veblen good is a good for which demand increases as the price increases. Veblen
goods are typically high-quality goods that are made well, are exclusive, and are a status symbol. Examples of
Veblen goods include designer jewellery, yachts, and luxury cars.
48. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: Situational poverty is a period wherein an individual falls below the poverty line because
of a sudden event. Situational poverty can be caused by a range of factors, such as: a divorce, death of the family
head, illness, a natural disaster or loss of job. These are uncontrollable and often unpredictable events that can
escalate until the person finds themselves without material possessions or an income source.
On the basis of social, economical and political aspects, there are different ways to identify the type of Poverty:
1. Absolute poverty.
2. Relative Poverty.
3. Situational Poverty.
4. Generational Poverty.
5. Rural Poverty.
6. Urban Poverty.
● Absolute poverty: Also known as extreme poverty or abject poverty, it involves the scarcity of basic food,
clean water, health, shelter, education and information. Those who belong to absolute poverty tend to struggle
to live and experience a lot of child deaths from preventable diseases like malaria, cholera and water-
contamination related diseases. Absolute Poverty is usually uncommon in developed countries.
● Relative Poverty: It is defined from the social perspective that is living standard compared to the economic
standards of population living in surroundings. Hence it is a measure of income inequality.
● Situational Poverty: Explained above
● Generational Poverty: It is handed over to individual and families from one generation to the one. This is
more complicated as there is no escape because the people are trapped in its cause and unable to access the tools
required to get out of it.
● Rural Poverty: It occurs in rural areas with population below 50,000. It is the area where there are less job
opportunities, less access to services, less support for disabilities and quality education opportunities. People
are tending to live mostly on the farming and other menial work available to the surroundings.
● Urban Poverty: It occurs in the metropolitan areas with population over 50,000. These are some major
challenges faced by the Urban Poor:
⮚ Limited access to health and education.
⮚ Inadequate housing and services.
⮚ Violent and unhealthy environment because of overcrowding.
⮚ Little or no social protection mechanism.
49. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Skill India Mission was launched by the government in 2015 under which the flagship
scheme Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is run.
● Statement 2 is correct: It aims at vocational training and certification of Indian youth for a better livelihood as
it can create better employment opportunity.
● Statement 3 is correct: PMKVY is implemented by the National Skills Development Corporation (NSDC)
under the guidance of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Recognition of Prior
Learning (RPL), introduced as a component of PMKVY, largely refers to an assessment process used to evaluate
a person’s existing skill set, knowledge and experience gained either by formal, non-formal or informal learning
and not under the National Skill Development Program.
● AS on DATE: PMKVY has been implemented in 3 version. As on date PMKVY 3.0 is ongoing.
● Coverage: Launched in 717 districts, 28 States/eight UTs, PMKVY 3.0 is a step towards ‘Atmnanirbhar
Bharat’.
● Implementation: It will be implemented in a more decentralized structure with greater responsibilities and
support from States/UTs and Districts. District Skill Committees (DSCs), under the guidance of State Skill
Development Missions (SSDM), shall play a key role in addressing the skill gap and assessing demand at the
district level.
● Features:
⮚ It envisages training of eight lakh candidates over a scheme period of 2020-2021 with an outlay of Rs.
948.90 crore.
⮚ It will be more trainee- and learner-centric. The focus is on bridging the demand-supply gap by promoting
skill development in areas of new-age and Industry 4.0 job roles.
⮚ It will be a propagator of vocational education at an early level for youth to capitalize on industry-linked
opportunities.
⮚ The National Educational Policy 2020 also puts focus on vocational training for holistic growth and
increased employability.
⮚ By taking the bottom-up approach to training, it will identify job roles that have demand at the local level
and skill the youth, linking them to these opportunities (Vocal for Local).
⮚ It will encourage healthy competition between states by making available increased allocation to those states
that perform better.
50. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The United States has the highest global market for gig workers, followed by China
but India, Indonesia, Australia, and Brazil are rapidly growing, strong markets.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: According to NITI aayog’s ‘India’s Booming Gig and Platform Economy’ report.
About 77 lakh workers were engaged in the gig economy in 2020-21 which is likely to increase to 2.35 crores
by 2029-30. The gig workers comprised 1.5 percent of the total workforce in India in 2020-21 which may
account for 4.1 per cent of the total livelihood in India by 2029-30
● Statement 3 is incorrect:. Education sector has seen a 51 per cent increase in gig work.
What is the Gig Economy?
● A gig economy is a free market system in which temporary positions are common and organisations contract
with independent workers for short-term engagements. According to a report by Boston Consulting Group,
India’s gig workforce comprises 15 million workers employed across industries such as software, shared
services and professional services. According to a 2019 report by the India Staffing Federation, India is the fifth
largest in flexi-staffing globally, after the US, China, Brazil and Japan.
What is the overall Potential of India's Gig Sector?
⮚ An estimated 56% of new employment in India is being generated by the gig economy companies across both
the blue-collar and white-collar workforce.
⮚ While the gig economy is prevalent among blue-collar jobs in India, the demand for gig workers in white-collar
jobs such as project-specific consultants, salespeople, web designers, content writers and software developers
is also emerging.
⮚ The gig economy can serve up to 90 million jobs in the non-farm sectors in India with a potential to add 1.25%
to the GDP over the "long term".
⮚ As India moves towards its stated goal of becoming a USD 5 trillion economy by 2025, the gig economy will
be a major building block in bridging the income and unemployment gap.
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
B
D
INSTRUCTIONS
BOOKLET.
the Answer Sheet.
question.
PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2024| pPLT- 7
1. Greenhouse Horticulture which is also 3. How many of the following can result in the
known as Protected cropping results in, depreciation of the domestic currency in
comparison to foreign currency?
1. Increase in Production capacity by
1. Excess of imports over exports
reducing crop time.
2. Excess inflow of Foreign Direct
2. Rising entrepreneurship in horticulture Investment
due to government intervention. 3. Excess outflow of Foreign Portfolio
3. Uniformity in plant growth with good Investment
4. Purchase of foreign currency by RBI
Vigour.
from the domestic banks
How many of the statements given above 5. Signing currency swap agreements with
is/are correct? countries that have large foreign
(a) Only one currency reserves
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Only two
given below:
(c) All three
(a) Only two
(d) None (b) Only three
(c) Only four
2. The total money supply in an economy (d) All five
includes how many of the following?
1. Deposits of households in banks with a
Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime in
maturity of up to one year India:
2. Deposits of households in banks with a 1. GST is a value-added taxation system.
maturity greater than one year 2. GST is a destination-based taxation
system.
3. Borrowings of banks from Non-
3. All goods and services are now part of
Depository Financial Institutions
the GST system.
4. Banker's deposits with RBI 4. GST Council has representation from
5. Other deposits with RBI the Centre as well as states, and both
have equal weightage while voting to
take decisions.
given below:
(a) Only two is/are correct?
(b) Only three (a) Only one statement
(c) Only four (b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All five
(d) All the statements
Copy is ENCRYPTED and for personal use ONLY| www.sunyaias.com |PRELIMS - 2024 Page. 1
5. Which of the following is not a likely 8. Consider the following statements with
consequence of making the capital account respect to the Human Development Index
freely convertible in India? (HDI):
(a) More frequent inflow of investment into 1. HDI is calculated as the arithmetic
the financial markets mean of the indices representing health,
(b) Stability in the value of the Rupee in the education, and standard of living.
international market 2. The education component under HDI is
(c) More exposure to global economic calculated as the geometric mean of the
shocks indices representing mean years of
(d) More frequent outflow of investment schooling and expected years of
towards foreign financial markets schooling.
4. HDI is released annually by United
6. An increase in the quantity of high-powered
Nations Development Programme
money followed by a more than usual
(UNDP).
multiplication of money is likely to result in
which of the following? How many of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
(a) Increase in money supply in the
economy with higher than usual levels (a) Only one
of inflation (b) Only two
(b) Decrease in money supply in the (c) All three
economy with lower than usual levels (d) None
of inflation
(c) Money supply remains unaltered 9. With respect to the monetary tools of RBI to
(d) Money supply increases without any control inflation, consider the following
impact on the levels of inflation in the statements:
economy
1. While banks earn interest on CRR
deposits with RBI, no such interest is
7. With reference to the Indian economy,
paid by RBI to banks on SLR deposits.
2. CRR is required to be maintained only
1. If exports of essential consumption
by the public sector banks under the
goods are restricted, inflation can be
RBI Act, 1934.
controlled.
2. Unanticipated inflation benefits the 3. A 50 basis point decrease in SLR would
government because the government is have an inflationary impact on the
a large debtor. economy.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are How many of the statement(s) given above
correct? is/are correct?
10. Consider the following statements: 12. Recently, the fuel tax regime in India has
1. Under the repo transaction, banks can ignited the debate regarding the progressive
borrow short-term funds from RBI by and regressive taxation. With reference to
pledging government securities from this, consider the following statements:
the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) 1. A progressive tax is one, in which the
quota. average rate of tax increases as income
2. Under the Marginal Standing Facility decreases.
(MSF), banks can borrow short-term 2. A regressive tax is the one, in which the
funds by pledging government average rate of tax decreases as income
securities only from the non-SLR quota. increases.
3. MSF rate is always greater than the repo 3. Income Tax system in India is a
rate. progressive one.
4. E-Kuber portal is the core banking How many of the above statement(s) is/are
solution of RBI for conduction repo correct?
transactions. (a) Only one
How many of the statement(s) given above (b) Only two
is/are correct? (c) All three
(a) Only one (d) None
(b) Only two
(c) Only three 13. With reference to the Fiscal Responsibility
(d) All four and Budget Management (FRBM) Act,
11. With reference to Crypto Tax in India, 1. The FRBM Act prohibits the
consider the following statements: borrowings by the government from the
1. Any income from the transfer of any RBI.
virtual digital asset is taxed at the rate of 2. The Government cannot move away
30% with deductions or exemptions. from the path of fiscal consolidation
2. This taxation regime would apply to the mandated under the Act.
gifting of digital assets as well. 3. Effective revenue deficit has now
3. Till now, there is no law in India to become a new fiscal parameter due to
define the term “virtual digital asset”. the Act.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are How many of the statement(s) given above
correct? is/are incorrect?
(d) None (d) None
14. Consider the following statements about 16. Consider the following statements
“Deficit” in the Annual Financial Statement: regarding Zero-based budgeting:
1. Effective Revenue Deficit signifies that 1. This concept emphasizes identification
amount of capital receipts that are being of a task and funding of costs
used for actual consumption irrespective of the current structure of
expenditure of the government. expenditure.
2. A shrinking primary deficit indicates 2. This form of budgeting puts pressure on
spenders to justify expenses each time,
progress towards fiscal health.
and reduce costs.
3. Fiscal Deficit equals the money which
3. In India, this method was adopted by the
government needs to borrow during the
department of science and technology
year. in1983.
How many of the statement(s) given above How many of the above statement(s) is/are
is/are incorrect? correct?
(d) None (d) None
15. With reference to Green Budgeting, 17. With reference to the Direct Tax Code in
consider the following statements: India, consider the following statements:
1. It means using the tools of budgetary 1. It was drafted by Akhilesh Ranjan task
policy-making to help achieve force.
environmental goals. 2. A tax is said to be buoyant if the tax
2. It requires environmental impact revenues increase more than
assessments to accompany new budget proportionately in response to a rise in
measures. national income or output when it is
3. The Paris Collaborative, a buoyant.
multidisciplinary platform for research 3. Physical tax assessments can pose a
and analysis on Green Budgeting is challenge in implementation of Direct
convened by G20. Tax Code in India.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are How many of the above statement(s) is/are
correct? correct?
(d) None (d) None
18. Consider the following statements: 20. Consider the following statements regarding
1. The only industries which are reserved human capital:
1. It is endogenously built in the body and
for the public sector after the
mind of the owner.
Liberalisation policy reforms of 1991
2. Human capital is not sold in the market
are defence equipment, atomic energy only the services of Human capital are sold
generation and railway transport. in the market.
2. In 1991, to resolve the balance of 3. Human capital creates both private and
payments crisis, the rupee was devalued social benefit whereas physical capital
creates only private benefits.
against foreign currencies which led to
How many of the above statement(s) is/are
an increase in the inflow of foreign
correct?
exchange. (a) Only one
Which of the above statement(s) is/are (b) Only two
correct regarding Liberalisation in India? (c) All three
(a) 1 only (d) None
(b) 2 only
21. Regarding National Food for Work Programme
(c) Both 1 and 2
(NFFWP), consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It was launched in 150 most backward
districts of the country, identified by the
19. Consider the following statement with planning commission in consultation with
the Ministry of Rural Development and the
regard to Planning in Indian Economy:
State Governments.
1. In 1951, the Planning Commission was 2. The scheme was 100% centrally sponsored
set up with the Prime Minister as its and was open to all rural poor who were in
Chairperson need of wage employment and wanted to
2. The goals of the five-year plans were: do manual and unskilled work.
3. The approach of NFFWP is based on the
growth, modernisation, self-reliance
trickledown theory of economic
and equity.
development.
3. The second plan was designed by 4. The selection of members belonging to
Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis. Monitoring Committee, is to be done
How many of the above statement(s) is/are through the Gram Sabha.
How many of the above statement/s is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
22. Churning poor’ is a category of poor defined 24. How many of the following are quantitative
as: tools used by RBI to control/regulate
(a) People who are always or usually poor monetary policy?

1. Bank Rate Policy
but may sometimes have a little more
2. Open Market Operations
money
3. Cash Reserve Ratio
(b) People who regularly move in and out
4. Margin requirements
of poverty
(c) People who are rich most of the times
given below:
but may sometimes have a patch of bad
(a) Only one
luck (b) Only two
(d) None of the above (c) Only three
(d) All four
23. With respect to the General Agreement on
Tariffs and Trade (GATT), consider the 25. Consider the following statements regarding
following statements: relation of India with World Bank Group:
1. The General Agreement on Tariffs and 1. India is not a member of International

Centre for Settlement of Investment
Trade (GATT) was created after World
Disputes and Multilateral Investment
War II to aid global economic recovery
Guarantee Agency.
by reconstructing and liberalizing
2. India is one of the founding members of
global trade.
both International Development
2. The Council for Trade in Goods (Goods Association and International Finance
Council) is responsible for the GATT Corporation.
and consists of representatives from all 3. The International Finance Corporation
WTO member countries. was established to promote the growth
Which of the above statement/s is/are of the private sector.

Select the correct answer using the codes
incorrect?
given below:
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
26. Consider the following statements in this 28. Which of the following statements is
regarding Capital Adequacy Ratio incorrect with regard to the provisions of
requirements for Banks in India: Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
1. BASEL III norms advocate for Management Act, 2003?
maintaining the capital adequacy ratio (a) It made it mandatory for the Central
of 8%. government to take measures to reduce
2. Reserve Bank allows maintaining fiscal deficit in subsequent years.
capital adequacy ratio between 9-12% (b) It allows for the actual deficits to exceed
for scheduled commercial banks and the specified targets only on grounds of
public sector banks in India.
national security.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(c) It has been amended based on their
correct?
commendations of NK Singh
(a) 1 only
committee.
(b) 2 only
(d) It mandates the central government to
(c) Both 1 and 2
not borrow from the Reserve Bank of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
India except by way of advances to
meet temporary excess cash
27. With reference to Economic Capital disbursement over cash receipts.
Framework (ECF), consider the following
statements:
29. With reference to the Interim Budget,
1. Economic Capital is the risk capital that
a central bank must have to cover all its
1. The Interim Budget is a budget which is
risks related to its assets and ongoing
presented in an election year and is
activities.
applicable for the entire financial year.
2. The RBI holds risk capital under the
ECF to ensure sufficient financial 2. Usually, the Interim Budget does not
resilience to give effect to its policy contain the Finance Bill, but includes
actions. the Vote-On-Account.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Which of the statement(s) given above is
correct? /are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
30. How many of the following measures is/are 33. Consider the following statements about the
likely to be taken by the government as part World Poverty Clock:
of the Fiscal Stimulus Policy?
1. Decrease in the tax rates 1. It has been developed by the World
2. Cut down the government expenditure Bank.
3. Provide higher tax exemptions 2. It provides real time poverty estimates
Select the correct answer using the code until 2030 for almost every country of
given below:
the world.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(c) All three correct?
(d) None (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
31. How many of the following Central taxes
form part of the Central Divisible Pool of (c) Both 1 and 2
taxes for the Finance Commission? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Corporate Tax
2. Income Tax
3. Integrated GST 34. Consider the following statements:
4. Surcharge/Cess collected by the Centre 1. The National Skill Development
Select the correct answer using the code Corporation (NSDC) has exclusively
given below:
been set up to evaluate the schemes
(a) Only one
(b) Only two related to skills and improve their
(c) Only three efficacy.
(d) All four 2. The National Skill Development
Agency (NSDA) implements various
32. How many of the following factors led to the
failure of the Third Five-Year Plan? schemes, such as the Pradhan Mantri
1. Chinese aggression Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) and
2. Severe drought the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Kendra
3. Indo-Pakistan War (PMKK), etc.
4. Lack of coordination between Centre
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
and State
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below: (a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) only three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All four (d) Neither 1 nor 2
35. Consider the following statements about 37. How many of the following conditions
ports in India: supports/support the quantitative restrictions
1. Major ports are under the administrative regime followed by India to protect the
control of the Ministry of Ports, domestic industries?
Shipping and Waterway. 1. Reduction of tariffs
2. The major ports of the country are 2. Imposition of import licensing
regulated by the Indian Ports Act, 1908. 3. Removal of export duties
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
(d) None of the
(d) None

38. How many of the following statements
Digital Communications Commission:
regarding Quantitative Easing is/are
1. The Chief Executive Officer, NITI
correct?
Aayog has been nominated as a part-
1. It is an instrument of expansionary
time member of the Digital
monetary policy to stimulate demand.
Communications Commission.
2. It can lead to higher future inflation.
2. It responsible for preparing the budget
3. It can be used when the rate of interest
Department Telecommunications for
is already close to Zero.
each financial year.
Select the correct option using the codes
given below:
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Consider the following statements regarding 41. Consider the following statement with
the types of Intellectual Property rights regard to Indian Economy on the Eve of
discussed under World Intellectual Property Independence:
Organization: 1. Agriculture productivity became low
1. Copyright is a legal term used to though, in absolute terms, but sector
describe the rights that creators have experienced some growth.
over their literary and artistic works. 2. The most important characteristics of
2. A patent is an exclusive right granted India’s foreign trade throughout
for an invention. colonial period were the generation of
3. A trademark is a sign capable of export surplus.
distinguishing the goods or services of
3. The share of services sector in the
one enterprise from those of other
workforce was higher than the
enterprises.
manufacturing sector.
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None

1. 100% FDI is allowed under automatic 42. What will be the effect of sterilization done
route in the digital media sector. by Reserve Bank of India on the High
2. DIPAM is the nodal department for FDI powered money supply and total money in
policy formulation. the economy?
3. Digital Media comes under the purview of (a) Increase the High-powered money
Ministry of Information and supply and total money supply
Broadcasting. (b) Reduce the stock of High-powered
How many of the above statements is/are money supply and total money supply
correct? (c) The stock of High-powered money and
(a) Only one total money supply remain unchanged
(b) Only two (d) High powered money supply will
(c) All three remain same whereas total money
(d) None supply will increase.
43. With reference to Indian economy, consider 45. Consider the following statements regarding
the “Regenerative Agriculture”:
Types of Component included while
deficits calculating the deficit 1. It improves soil health through practices
1. Fiscal Includes all the capital that increase soil organic matter.
deficit receipts of the central
government. 2. It essentially requires zero-tillage
2. Revenue Includes profits accrued by farming practices.
Deficit the Central Public Sector
Undertakings (CPSUs). 3. It encourages continuous grazing by
3. Effective Includes grants given by the animals on a particular land to improve
Revenue Central government to State
Deficit Governments to create soil productivity.
capital assets.
How many pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair is/ are correct?
(b) Only two pairs (a) Only one
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the above (b) Only two
(c) All three
44. Consider the following pairs of government
(d) None
schemes for tribal welfare and the
corresponding information:
Government Related Information
46. With reference to Gig Economy, consider
Schemes
1. Vanbandhu It covers all tribal the following statements:
Kalyan Yojana people and all the areas 1. It refers to the labour market
with tribal population
characterized by the prevalence of
across the country.
2. Pradhan It aims to establish short-term contracts or freelance work.
Mantri Van tribal clusters to 2. It only includes jobs that require high
Dhan Yojana promote
entrepreneurship. levels of education and technical skills.
3. TRIFOOD It aims to promote value
3. The Gig Economy is limited to the
addition to Minor
Forest Produce in all the technology industry.
areas notified under
Schedule V of the How many of the statement(s) given above
Constitution. is/are correct?
How many of the pair(s) given above is/ are
correctly matched? (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None
47. Consider the following taxes: 50. The central bank digital currency (CBDC)
1. Tobacco Tax. and Mobile Money are two different
2. Tax on plastic bags. payment systems that have gained
3. Carbon Emission Tax. popularity in recent times. In this context,
4. Basic Custom Duty.
how is Central Bank Digital Currency
How many of the above tax(es) is/are
(CBDC) different from Mobile Money?
examples of Pigouvian Tax?
(a) Only one 1. CBDC is issued by the governments,
(b) Only two whereas Mobile Money is generated in
(c) Only three a decentralized manner through a
(d) All four process known as ―mining.
2. CBDC is a direct liability of the central
48. Where do proceeds from disinvestment of
public sector enterprises credited into? bank, whereas mobile money is the
(a) Consolidated Fund of India liability of commercial banks.
(b) Contingency Fund of India 3. Unlike Mobile money, CBDC cannot
(c) National Investment Fund
be used by the consumers for
(d) None of these
performing retail payments.
49. In context of Hybrid Annuity Model How many of the statements given above
(HAM), examine the following statements: is/are correct?
1. HAM is a mix of BOT Annuity and
(a) Only one
EPC models.
2. As per the design, the government will (b) Only two
contribute to60% of the project cost in (c) All three
the first five years through annual
payments (annuity). (d) None
3. Under HAM, Revenue collection would
be the responsibility of the National
Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
How many of the above statements is/are
correct:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
*******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2024 | Pplt-7
1. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Advantages of containers in greenhouse production:
• Increase in production capacity by reducing crop time.
• High quality of the greenhouse product
• Uniformity in plant growth with good vigour.
• Provide quick take off with little or no transplanting shock.
• Easy maintenance of sanitation in greenhouse
• Easy to handle, grade and shift or for transportation.
• Better water drainage and aeration in pot media.
• Easy to monitor chemical characteristics and plant nutrition with advanced
irrigation systems like drips.
● Statement 2 is correct: According to Outlook Digital, as of September 2021, India produces around 326
million tons of horticultural products. Furthermore, the government of India is taking various initiatives for
doubling farmers’ income by 2022. Development of new greenhouses is heavily subsidised in India by the
government. This is supporting farmers and horticulturists for growing safe food products. Greenhouse
horticulture provides entrepreneurs with lucrative opportunities for achieving higher production per square
meter and gives higher returns. These initiatives by the government are expected to raise entrepreneurship
under horticulture.
● Statement 3 is correct: In the cultivations made in the controlled environments, the nutrients and minerals required
for the plant growth are provided regularly in the appropriate proportion. Also, it is very easy to have the track
record of the crops and also it is easy to remove infected plants before the disease spreads. Along with this the pests
can be controlled when they are at starting level itself. This enables increasing the production capacity of plants by
reducing crop time and promotes uniformity in plant growth with good vigour.
2. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option c is Correct: Money supply refers to the total quantity of money held by public in various forms at
any point of time in an economy. The main components of money supply are currency held by the public
and net-demand deposits held by the commercial banks. It is measured in 5 ways such as M1, M2, M3, M4
and M0. The RBI takes into account the M3 measure of money supply for macroeconomic policy
formulation. Hence the Total money Supply in the Economy is the components of M3 measure. M3 =
Currency (notes and coins) with the public + Demand deposits + other deposits held with the Reserve Bank
of India + Time deposits of all commercial banks and cooperative banks. The M3 measure of money supply
doesn’t include Banker’s deposit with RBI. So, Option (c) is correct.
CONCEPTS OF MONEY SUPPLY
▪ M1 = Currency (notes and coins) with the public + Demand deposits + other deposits held with the
Reserve Bank of India.
▪ M2 = M1 + Post Office saving deposits.
▪ M3 = M1 + Time deposits of all commercial banks and co-operative banks
▪ M4 = M3 + Total deposits with the Post Office Saving Organisation
▪ M1 is referred to as narrow measure and M3 the broader measure of money supply.
▪ M1 is most liquid whereas M4 is least liquid.
High Powered Money (M0)

▪ ➢ The High-Powered Money refers to the currency held by the public (C), cash reserves of banks (R) and
other deposits of the R.B.I. High Powered Money is produced by the R.B.I. and the Government of India
and held by the public and the banks.
▪ ➢ It is also known as monetary base or Reserve Money.
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LIQUIDITY AGGREGATES
▪ L1 = M3 + All Deposits of Post Office Savings Banks excluding National Savings
▪ Certificates (NSCs)
▪ L2 = L1 + Term Deposits with Term Lending Institutions ad Refinancing Institutions
▪ (FIs) + Term borrowing by FIs + Certificates of Deposit issued by FIs
▪ L3 = L2 + Public Deposits of Non-banking Finance Companies (NBFCs)
Money Multiplier
▪ (Mb) The money multiplier is the ratio between Broad money (M3) and Reserve Money (M0)
▪ M=M3/M0
3. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Excess imports over exports may lead to a trade deficit that has the opposite effect on
currency exchange rates; domestic currency demand in international trade is lowered. Lower demand for the
currency in the international market will decrease its value leading to the depreciation of the domestic currency.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The inflow of Foreign Direct Investment increases when the domestic currency is
under depreciation due to the lower cost of capital and reduced production cost. An increase in FDI will increase
the demand for domestic currency and raise its exchange rate leading to an appreciation of the domestic
currency.
● Statement 3 is correct: The excess outflow of Foreign Portfolio Investment will weaken the value of the
domestic currency as investors pull out the money from the economy leading to the depreciation of the domestic
currency.
● Statement 4 is correct: RBI intervenes periodically in foreign exchange markets. If the RBI purchases foreign
currency, this will increase demand for foreign currency and the supply of rupees, leading to an decrease in the
value of the rupee against the foreign currency. Thus domestic currency depreciates.
● Statement 5 is incorrect: The signing of currency swap agreements between two countries is to hedge the
exchange rate risk that may arise over a period of time, so this will not affect the value of the domestic currency,
as the countries have agreed in advance to pay the principal amount and interest rate in predetermined rates.
4. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: GST is a single tax on the supply of goods and services, right from the manufacturer
to the consumer. Credits of input taxes paid at each stage will be available in the subsequent stage of value
addition, which makes GST essentially a tax only on value addition at each stage. The final consumer will thus
bear only the GST charged by the last dealer in the supply chain, with set-off benefits at all the previous stages.
● Statement 2 is correct: Destination-based tax or consumption tax is levied where goods and services are
consumed. GST is a destination based tax that will be collected at the state where the goods are sold instead of
the manufacturing states.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Goods and services are divided into five different tax slabs for collection of tax: 0%,
5%, 12%, 18% and 28%. But exempt supply under GST means supplies that do not attract goods and service
tax like alcoholic liquor for human consumption, electricity and petroleum products -(may notify by GST
council later), etc.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: Good and Services Tax Council is a constitutional body under Article 279A (1),
headed by the Union Finance Minister and has the Union Minister of State for Finance and the Finance Ministers
or any other ministers appointed from the state governments as members but the central government’s vote
counts as one-third of the total votes, while the weightage of the states’ total votes is two-third.
5. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option (a) is correct: Full capital account convertibility opens up the country’s markets to global players
including investors, businesses, and trade partners. This allows easy access to capital for different businesses
and sectors, which enables more frequent inflow of investment into the financial markets.
● Option (b) is incorrect: A rising, unregulated rupee makes Indian exports less competitive in the international
markets. Export oriented economies like India and China prefer to keep their exchange rates lower to retain the
low-cost advantage. Once the regulations on exchange rates go away, India risks losing its competitiveness in
the international market. Therefore, it never creates stability of the currency in the international market rather
Rupee becomes highly unstable because of the huge in and outflow of capital.
● Option (c) is correct: Amid a lack of suitable regulatory control and rates subject to open markets with a large
number of global market participants, high levels of volatility, devaluation, or inflation in forex rates may
happen, challenging the country’s economy and making it more prone to Global economic Shocks.
● Option (d) is correct:At present, any Indian individual or business would need permission from authorities to do so.
After full convertibility, there will be no limits on the amounts exchanged and no need for approvals. And so there will
be more frequent outflow of investment towards foreign financial markets as well as foreign assets.
6. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: Reserve money represents the base level for money supply or it is the high-powered
component of the money supply which includes Currency in Circulation + Bankers’ Deposits with RBI + Other
deposits with RBI. High Powered Money is produced by the R.B.I. and the Government of India and held by
the public and the banks. It is denoted by M0. This high-powered money and the money multiplier effect has
an inverse relationship. Money multiplier is calculated by M3/M0. Here M3 refers to the broad money. The
money multiplier calculates the additional money created in the economy by the cycle of lending and borrowing.
It tells us how many times the initial loan made in the economy will multiply by the cycle of spending and re-
deposition in the economy. The given condition provides us a situation, where the money held by the public
and the banks are high and money multiplier is also high. Then there will be high demand for goods in
the economy which will lead to high inflation. According to the quantity theory of money, if the amount of
money in an economy double through high powered money followed by money multiplication, all else equal,
price levels will also double. This means that the consumer will pay twice as much for the same amount of
goods and services. This increase in price levels will eventually result in a rising inflation level; inflation is a
measure of the rate of rising prices of goods and services in an economy.
7. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Recently, the Government of India banned the export of Wheat and Sugar to control
inflation status in the country, as one of its fiscal measures. If exports of essential commodities are restricted, it
will create a balance between demand and supply chain in the market, because uncontrolled exports would lead
to scarcity of domestic stocks which will result in a spike in prices, especially during festive seasons.
● Statement 2 is correct: Unanticipated Inflation is inflation that is not expected but will redistribute income and
wealth.One important redistribution of income and wealth that occurs during unanticipated inflation is the
redistribution between debtors and creditors. Debtors gain from this Inflation because they repay creditors that
are worth less in terms of purchasing power. This inflation benefits the government because the government is
a large debtor and also government gains tax revenue as nominal income increases.
● A rise in the general level of prices; a sustained rise in the general level of prices; persistent increases in the
general level of prices; an increase in the general level of prices in an economy that is sustained over time; rising
prices across the board —is inflation. If the price of one good has gone up, it is not inflation; it is inflation only
if the prices of most goods have gone up
Types Low Inflation
Low Inflation:
⮚ Such inflation is slow and on predictable lines, which might be called small or gradual. This is a comparative
term that puts it opposite to the faster, bigger, and unpredictable inflations.
⮚ Low inflation takes place over a longer period and the range of increase is usually in ‘single digit’. Such inflation
has also been called ‘creeping inflation’.
Galloping Inflation
⮚ This is a ‘very high inflation’ running in the range of double-digit or triple-digit (i.e.,20 percent, 100 percent, or
200 percent in a year). Contemporary journalism has given some other names to this inflation—hopping
inflation, jumping inflation, and running or runaway inflation.
Hyperinflation
⮚ This form of inflation is ‘large and accelerating’ which might have annual rates in million or even trillion. In
such inflation not only the range of increase is very large, but the increase takes place in a very short period,
and prices shoot up overnight.
8. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Human Development Index (HDI) provides a single index measure to capture
three key dimensions of human development: a long and healthy life, access to knowledge and a decent standard
of living. The HDI utilizes four key metrics as given in the diagram below. The HDI is calculated as the
geometric mean (equally-weighted) of life expectancy, education, and GNI per capita. Mean years of schooling
is defined as the “Average number of years of education received by people aged 25 and older, converted from
education attainment levels using official durations of each level”. Expected years of schooling are defined as
the “Number of years of schooling that a child of school entrance age can expect to receive if prevailing patterns
of age-specific enrolments persist throughout the child’s life.”
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The education dimension is the arithmetic mean of the two education indices (mean
years of schooling and expected years).
● Statement 3 is correct: The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has been releasing the annual
Human Development Report since 1990.
ADDITIONALINFORMATION:
❖ About According to UNDP, “The Human Development Index (HDI) is a summary measure of average
achievement in key dimensions of human development: A long and healthy life, being knowledgeable and
having a decent standard of living. The HDI is the geometric mean of normalized indices for each of the three
dimensions.” The Human Development Index was developed by Mahbub ul Huq and Amartya Sen.
▪ The HDI was created to emphasize that people and their capabilities should be
▪ The ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country, not economic growth alone.
▪ The HDI can be used to question national policy choices, asking how two
▪ These contrasts can stimulate debate about government policy priorities.
▪ The HDI simplifies and captures only part of what human development entails.
9. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Every commercial bank is required to keep a certain proportion of its total deposits
with the RBI, which is known as Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). In contrast, a Statutory Liquidity Ratio or SLR is
a minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold or
other securities. It is the reserve requirement that banks are expected to keep themselves (Not with RBI) before
offering credit to customers.
● RBI does not pay any interest on the CRR balances maintained by Scheduled Commercial Bank. Whereas,
under SLR requirements, banks are supposed to invest in liquid assets like central and state government
securities/bonds. These bonds provide some interest to the banks.RBI act reads, "Every scheduled bank (Public,
Private and Foreign Banks) shall maintain in India with the Reserve Bank, an average daily balance, the amount
of which shall not be less than four percent of the bank's total NDTL in India as on the last Friday of the second
preceding fortnight.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The extent of provisions in this regard as applicable to
❖ All Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) (including Regional Rural Banks),
❖ Small Finance Banks (SFBs),
❖ Payments Banks,
❖ Local Area Banks (LABs),
❖ Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks (UCBs),
❖ State Co-operative Banks and
❖ District Central Co-operative Banks (DCCBs).
● Statement 3 is correct: The government uses the SLR to regulate inflation and liquidity. Increasing the SLR
will control inflation in the economy while decreasing it will cause economic growth. Basis point (bps) is a
measuring unit to represent percentage variation in the value of financial instruments. Thus, a 50 basis points
decrease in SLR would have an inflationary impact on the economy because there will be more liquidity
available with the banks to lend, which increases the Money supply and thus inflation in the economy.
10. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The repo rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends money to
commercial banks to help these lenders meet their short-term liquidity needs. Some banks sell their securities
to the RBI to borrow money, followed by a repurchase agreement. The repurchase agreement states that the
bank will repurchase the securities from the Reserve Bank of India at a later date at a price decided in advance.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The MSF or Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate is the rate at which RBI lends
funds overnight to scheduled banks against government securities. RBI has introduced this borrowing scheme
to regulate short-term asset liability mismatch more effectively. Lending at repo rates involves selling the bank's
securities as collateral to RBI and a repurchase agreement. Loans given at MSF rates involve providing
government securities as collateral. The difference between the MSF and repo rate is that as MSF, banks are
allowed to use the securities that come under the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) in the process of availing
loans from RBI. So, under Repo operations, SLR bonds are not used, whereas, in MSF, banks can use bonds
under the SLR quota to get short-term loans from the RBI.
● Statement 3 is correct: The current MSF is maintained at 23 base points higher than the repo rate. MSF
provides a greater liquidity cushion. The higher the MSF rate, the more expensive borrowing is for banks,
corporate borrowers, and individuals. RBI uses it to control the money supply in the country's financial system.
● Statement 4 is correct: Government Securities are issued through auctions conducted by RBI under its Open
Market Operations. Auctions are conducted on the electronic platform called the E-Kuber, the Core Banking
Solution (CBS) platform of RBI. Commercial banks, scheduled UCBs, Primary Dealers, insurance companies
and provident funds, who maintain funds accounts and securities accounts with RBI, are members of this
electronic platform. All members of E-Kuber can place their bids in the auction through this electronic platform.
Core Banking Solutions (CBS) can be defined as a solution that enables banks to offer a multitude of customer-
centric services on a 24x7 basis from a single location, supporting retail as well as corporate banking activities.
11. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Finance Bill 2022 states that any income earned from the transfer of digital assets would
be taxed at 30 percent with no deductions or exemptions.
● Statement 2 is correct: This would apply to the gifting of digital assets as well.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: As per the Finance Bill 2022, a virtual digital asset means any information or code
or number or token, generated through cryptographic means.
Crypto Tax in India:
● In Budget 2022, introduced a tax on all virtual digital assets. The law states that any income earned from the
transfer of digital assets would be taxed at 30 percent with no deductions or exemptions. This would apply to
the gifting of digital assets as well.
● As per the new clause i.e. Clause 47A of Section 2 of the Finance Bill 2022, a virtual digital asset is proposed
to mean any information or code or number, or token (not being Indian currency or any foreign currency),
generated through cryptographic means.
● In India, 30 percent income tax is levied on income earned from the transfer of VDAs, including NFTs.
“Taxpayers cannot set off losses arising from one VDA with the income from another VDA. The current income
tax laws allow taxpayers to set off their long-term losses against long-term capital gains. Additionally, it was
also proposed a Tax Deduction at Source (TDS) on payment made in relation to the transfer of virtual digital
assets at 1% above a monetary threshold.
12. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Progressive tax is the one where the tax rate increases with the taxpayer’s income.
The correct interpretation is that the tax liability for a taxpayer increases with his income in terms of proportion
of income and in absolute amount.
● Statement 2 is correct: In the case of regressive tax, the tax rate decreases with increase in income. Here, the
tax liability of the taxpayer decreases with increase in his income.
● Statement 3 is correct: Income tax, corporate tax, surcharge, estate tax, dividend distribution tax, securities
transaction tax, fringe benefit tax, and wealth tax, etc. some of the types of progressive tax. However, the fuel
tax, GST, etc. are generally considered as regressive tax in India.
13. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Act prohibits borrowing by the government from the Reserve Bank of India,
thereby, making monetary policy independent of fi scal policy. The Act bans the purchase of primary issues of
the Central Government securities by RBI after 2006, preventing monetization of government deficit. The Act
also requires the government to lay before the parliament three policy statements in each financial year namely
Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement; Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement and Macroeconomic Framework
Policy Statement.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: FRBM Act provides a legal institutional framework for fiscal consolidation. It is now
mandatory for the Central government to take measures to reduce the fi deficit, eliminate revenue deficit and
generate revenue surplus in the subsequent years. The Government can move away from the path of fiscal
consolidation only in case of natural calamity, national security and other exceptional grounds that Central
Government may specify.
● Statement 3 is correct: The concepts of the “Effective Revenue Deficit” and “Medium Term Expenditure
Framework” statement are the two important features of the amendment to the FRBM Act in the direction of
expenditure reforms. Effective revenue deficit has now become a new fiscal parameter. The “Medium-term
Expenditure Framework” statement will set forth a three-year rolling target for expenditure indicators.
14. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Effective Revenue Deficit is the difference between revenue deficit and grants for the
creation of capital assets.
● Statement 2 is correct: A shrinking primary deficit indicates progress towards fiscal health.
● Statement 3 is correct: Fiscal Deficit equals the money the government needs to borrow during the year.
● Fiscal Deficit is the gap between the government’s expenditure requirements and its receipts. This equals the
money the government needs to borrow during the year. A surplus arises if receipts are more than expenditures.
Fiscal Deficit = Total expenditure –(Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts)Effective Revenue
deficit
● Effective Revenue deficit is a term introduced in the Union Budget 2011- 12. While revenue deficit is the
difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure, the present accounting system includes all grants
from the Union Government to the state governments/ Union territories/other bodies as revenue expenditure,
even if they are used to create assets. An effective revenue deficit excludes those revenue expenditures (or
transfers) in the form of grants for the creation of capital assets. Gross Primary Deficit is Gross Fiscal Deficit
minus Net interest liabilities.
● Net Primary Deficit is Net Fiscal Deficit minus net interest payments. The net interest payment is interest paid
minus interest receipt. A shrinking primary deficit indicates progress towards fiscal health.
15. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Green Budgeting is environmentally responsive or green budgeting means using the
tools of budgetary policy-making to help achieve environmental goals. This includes evaluating environmental
impacts of budgetary and fiscal policies and assessing their coherence towards the delivery of national and
international commitments. Green budgeting can also contribute to informed, evidence-based debate and
discussion on sustainable growth. Incorporating environmental dimensions into fiscal frameworks, including
the annual budget document, evaluation of tax and expenditure policies and long-term sustainability analysis,
will help governments to become more accountable for their environmental commitments and support them in
transforming towards sustainable and resilient societies.
● Statement 2 is correct: Green budgeting will support governments in achieving environmental goals by:
▪ Evaluating environmental impacts of budgetary and fiscal policies
▪ Assessing their coherence towards the delivery of national and international commitments
▪ Contributing to informed, evidence-based debate and discussion on sustainable growth
▪ Green budgeting tools help gather evidence on how budget measures impact environmental and climate
objectives.
The tools may include:
⮚ Green budget tagging – Classifying budget measures according to their environmental and/or climate
impact
⮚ Environmental impact assessments – Requiring environmental impact assessments to accompany new
budget measures
⮚ Ecosystem services, including carbon pricing – Putting a price on environmental externalities, such as
greenhouse gas emissions, often through taxes and emissions trading systems, to facilitate achievement of
national environmental and climate goals Green perspective to spending review – Incorporating
consideration of the impact of measures on national environmental and climate goals alongside
considerations of efficiency
⮚ Green perspective in performance setting – Integrating performance objectives related to national
environmental and climate goals
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Paris Collaborative on Green Budgeting (PCGB), launched in 2017, is convened
by the OECD and serves as a multi-disciplinary platform for focused research and analysis to help governments
at all levels embed consideration of climate and environmental goals within their budget frameworks.
16. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Zero-based budgeting as the name suggests, zero-based Budget refers to planning and
preparing the Budget from scratch or ‘zero base’. It is different from a traditional Budget that is based on
previous Budgets. The process of zero-based budgeting involves review and justification of each and every
ministry’s expenditure in order to receive funding at the beginning of each financial year. In zero-based Budget,
no balances are carried forward, or there are no pre-committed expenses. Simply put, it is a procedure for
preparing a Budget with zero prior bases. This concept emphasizes identification of a task and funding of costs
irrespective of the current structure of expenditure. Zero-based Budget is built around what is needed for the
upcoming period, regardless of whether each Budget is higher or lower than the previous one.
● Statement 2 is correct: Under zero-based Budget, all budgeting begins from a ‘zero base’ every year; that is,
expenses must be justified afresh each year, no matter what was spent in the year before. While traditional
budgeting calls for incremental increases over the previous year and tends to perpetuate waste, this form of
budgeting puts pressure on spenders to justify expenses each time, and reduce costs.
● Statement 3 is correct: In India, the ZBB was adopted by the department of science and technology in 1983.
In 1986, the Indian government implemented ZBB as a system for determining Expenditure Budget. The
government made it compulsory for all ministries to review their activities and programmes and prepare their
expenditure estimations based on the concept of ZBB. In the seventh Five-Year Plan, the ZBB system was
promoted. However, not much progress could take place later.
17. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Akhilesh Ranjan headed task force to review the Income Tax Act, 1961 submitted a
draft Direct Tax Code to government of India. The direct tax code seeks to consolidate and amend the law
relating to all direct taxes, so as to establish an economically efficient, effective and equitable direct tax system
which will facilitate voluntary compliance and help increase the tax-GDP ratio (i.e. higher tax buoyancy).
Another objective is to reduce the scope for disputes and minimize litigation.
● Statement 2 is correct: A tax is said to be buoyant if the tax revenues increase more than proportionately in
response to a rise in national income or output. Tax buoyancy is an indicator to measure efficiency and
responsiveness of revenue mobilization in response to growth in the Gross domestic product or National income.
A tax is said to be buoyant if the tax revenues increase more than proportionately in response to a rise in national
income or output. A tax is buoyant when revenues increase by more than, say, 1 percent for a 1 percent increase
in GDP. Usually, tax elasticity is considered a better indicator to measure tax responsiveness.
● Statement 3 is correct: In India, the assessment process is physical which leads to the allegation of harassment
by tax officials often referred to as tax terrorism. This is a major roadblock in compliance and increasing the tax
base.
18. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Deregulation of Industrial Sector. In India, regulatory mechanisms were enforced in
various ways industrial licensing under which every entrepreneur had to get permission from government
officials to start a firm, close a firm or to decide the amount of goods that could be produced private sector was
not allowed in many industries. Some goods could be produced only in small scale industries and controls on
price fixation and distribution of selected industrial products. The reform policies introduced in and after 1991
removed many of these restrictions. Industrial licensing was abolished for almost all but product categories —
alcohol, cigarettes, hazardous chemicals industrial explosives, electronics, aerospace and drugs and
pharmaceuticals. The only industries which are now reserved for the public sector are defence equipment,
atomic energy generation and railway transport. Many goods produced by small scale industries have now been
de-reserved. In many industries, the market has been allowed to determine the prices.
● Statement 2 is correct: The first important reform in the external sector was made in the foreign exchange
market. In 1991, as an immediate measure to resolve the balance of payments crisis, the rupee was devalued
against foreign currencies. This led to an increase in the inflow of foreign exchange. It also set the tone to free
the determination of rupee value in the foreign exchange market from government control. Now, more often
than not, markets determine exchange rates based on the demand and supply of foreign exchange. Trade and
Investment Policy Reforms Liberalisation of trade and investment regime was initiated to increase international
competitiveness of industrial production and also foreign investments and technology into the economy. The
aim was also to promote the efficiency of the local industries and the adoption of modern technologies. In order
to protect domestic industries, India was following a regime of quantitative restrictions on imports. This was
encouraged through tight control over imports and by keeping the tariffs very high. These policies reduced
efficiency and competitiveness which led to slow growth of the manufacturing sector. The trade policy reforms
aimed at: dismantling of quantitative restrictions on imports and exports, reduction of tariff rates and removal
of licensing procedures for imports. Import licensing was abolished except in case of hazardous and
environmentally sensitive industries. Quantitative restrictions on imports of manufactured consumer goods and
agricultural products were also fully removed from April 2001. Export duties have been removed to increase
the competitive position of Indian goods in the international markets.
19. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: India would be a ‘socialist’ society with a strong public sector but also with private
property and democracy; the government would ‘plan’ for the economy with the private sector being encouraged
to be part of the plan effort. The ‘Industrial Policy Resolution’ of 1948 and the Directive Principles of the Indian
Constitution reflected this outlook. In 1950, the Planning Commission was set up with the Prime Minister as its
Chairperson. The era of five-year plans had begun.
● Statement 2 is correct: The goals of the five-year plans are: growth, modernisation, self-reliance and equity.
This does not mean that all the plans have given equal importance to all these goals.
● Statement 3 is correct: Planning, in the real sense of the term, began with the Second Five Year Plan. The
Second Plan, a landmark contribution to development planning in general, laid down the basic ideas regarding
goals of Indian planning; this plan was based on the ideas of Mahalanobis. In that sense, he can be regarded as
the architect of Indian planning. It was made for the duration of 1956 to 1961.
20. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Physical capital is tangible and can be easily sold in the market like any other
commodity. Human capital is intangible; it is endogenously built in the body and mind of its owner.
● Statement 2 is correct: Human capital is not sold in the market; only the services of human capital are sold
and hence the necessity of the owner of the human capital to be present in the place of production. The physical
capital is separable from its owner, whereas, human capital is inseparable from its owner. The two forms of
capital differ in terms of mobility across space. Physical capital is completely mobile between countries except
for some artificial trade restrictions.
● Statement 3 is correct: In the case of human capital, depreciation takes place with ageing but can be reduced,
to a large extent, through continuous investment in education, health, etc. This investment also facilitates the
human capital to cope with change in technology which is not the case with physical capital. Nature of benefits
flowing from human capital is different from that of physical capital. Human capital benefits not only the owner
but also the society in general. This is called external benefit. An educated person can effectively take part in a
democratic process and contribute to the socio-economic progress of a nation.
21. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The objective of the programme was to provide additional resources apart from the
resources available under the Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY) to 150 most backward districts of
the country so that generation of supplementary wage employment and providing food security through creation
of need based economic, social and community assets in these districts are further intensified.
● Statement 2 is correct: The scheme was 100 percent centrally sponsored. The programme has since been
subsumed in NREGA which has come in force in 200 identified districts of the country including 150 NFFWP
districts. The Act provides 100 days of work guarantee to every rural household whose members volunteer to
do unskilled manual work. Target group: The NFFWP is aimed at “all rural poor who are in need of wage
employment and desire to do manual and unskilled work”.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: In contrast to the trickledown theory of economic development, the approach of
NFFWP is based on the Keynesian model of employment where the state lakes proactive steps generating
employment opportunities by way of tackling demand deficiency.
● Funding: The NFFWP is 100% centrally funded. Food grains are provided free of cost to the states. States are
supposed to cover transportation costs, handling charges and taxes. Permissible works: These include water
conservation; drought proofing (including afforestation and tree plantation) and land development, flood
control/protection (including drainage in water logged areas); rural connectivity in terms of all-weather roads.
Other similar works can also be undertaken.
● Statement 4 is correct: Monitoring Committee: For each work there will be a monitoring committee
comprising of 5-9 nominated members including at least one SC/ST candidate and a women’s representative.
The selection of the committee members is to be done through the Gram Sabha. A work cannot start until the
monitoring committee has been formed. The monitoring committee is also supposed to send its report along
with the completion certificate. Schedule of Inspection: 10% of panchayats to be inspected by district level
officers and 2% of panchayats by state level officers. 􀀄 Food grains were given as part of wages under the
NFFWP to the rural poor at the rate of 5 kg per man per day and the remaining portion may be given in cash.
More than 5 kg food grains can be given to the labourers under this programme in exceptional cases subject to
a minimum of 25 % of wages to be paid in cash. The programme has now been subsumed in National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act, which has come in force in 200 identified districts of the country including 150
NFFWF districts.
22. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option B is correct: There are many ways to categorise poverty. In one such way people who are always poor
and those who are usually poor but who may sometimes have a little more money (example: casual workers)
are grouped together as the chronic poor. Another group are the churning poor who regularly move in and out
of poverty (example: small farmers and seasonal workers) and the occasionally poor who are rich most of the
time but may sometimes have a patch of bad luck. They are called the transient poor. And then there are those
who are never poor and they are the non-poor
23. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), signed on Oct. 30, 1947, by 23
countries, was a legal agreement minimizing barriers to international trade by eliminating or reducing quotas,
tariffs, and subsidies while preserving significant regulations. The GATT was intended to boost economic
recovery after World War II through reconstructing and liberalizing global trade. The General Agreement on
Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was created after World War II to aid global economic recovery by reconstructing
and liberalizing global trade. The GATT went into effect on Jan. 1, 1948. Since that beginning it has been
refined, eventually leading to the creation of the World Trade Organization (WTO) on January 1, 1995, which
absorbed and extended it. By this time 125 nations were signatories to its agreements, which covered about 90%
of global trade. The aim behind the GATT was to form rules to end or restrict the most costly and undesirable
features of the pre-war protectionist period, namely quantitative trade barriers such as trade controls and quotas.
The agreement also provided a system to arbitrate commercial disputes between nations, introducing a
framework that enabled a number of multilateral negotiations for the reduction of tariff barriers.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Council for Trade in Goods (Goods Council) is responsible for the GATT and
consists of representatives from all WTO member countries. The council has 10 committees that address
subjects including market access, agriculture, subsidies, and anti-dumping measures. The GATT was regarded
as a significant success in the post-war years. One of its key achievements was that of trade without
discrimination. Every signatory member of the GATT was to be treated as equal to any other. This is known as
the most-favoured-nation (MFN) principle and has been carried through into the WTO. A practical outcome of
the MFN clause was that once a country had negotiated a tariff cut with some other countries (usually its most
important trading partners), this same cut would automatically apply to all GATT signatories. Escape clauses
did exist, however, meaning countries could negotiate exceptions if their domestic producers would be
particularly harmed by tariff cuts.
24. Answer: C
Explanation:
The government through the reserve bank of India employs the monetary policy as an instrument of achieving the
objectives of general economic policy. The quantitative measures of credit control are:
● Bank Rate Policy: The bank rate is the Official interest rate at which RBI rediscounts the approved bills held
by commercial banks. For controlling the credit, inflation and money supply, RBI will increase the Bank Rate.
Current Bank Rate is 6%.
● Open Market Operations: OMO The Open market Operations refer to direct sales and purchase of securities
and bills in the open market by Reserve bank of India. The aim is to control volume of credit.
● Cash Reserve Ratio: Cash reserve ratio refers to that portion of total deposits in commercial Bank which it has
to keep with RBI as cash reserves. The current Cash reserve Ratio is 6%.
● Statutory Liquidity Ratio: It refers to that portion of deposits with the banks which it has to keep with itself
as liquid assets (Gold, approved govt. securities etc.), the current SLR is 25%.
● If RBI wishes to control credit and discourage credit it would increase CRR & SLR.
● Qualitativemeasures: Qualitative credit is used by the RBI for selective purposes. Some of them are:
● Margin requirements: This refers to difference between the securities offered and amount borrowed by the
banks.
● Consumer Credit Regulation: This refers to issuing rules regarding down payments and maximum maturities
of installment credit for purchase of goods.
● Guidelines: RBI issues oral, written statements, appeals, guidelines, warnings etc. to the banks.
● Rationingof credit:The RBI controls the Credit granted / allocated by commercial banks.
● Moral Suasion:psychological means and informal means of selective credit control.
● DirectAction: This step is taken by the RBI against banks that don’t fulfill conditions and requirements. RBI
may refuse to rediscount their papers or may give excess credits or charge a penal rate of interest over and above
the Bank rate, for credit demanded beyond a limit.
● Option 4 is incorrect: Margin requirements is a qualitative tools.
25. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: India is a member of Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency. The Multilateral
Guarantee Agency (MIGA) insures lenders and investors against political risk such as war.
● Statement 2 is correct: India is a member of four of the five constituents of the World Bank Group viz.,
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), International Development Association
(IDA), International Finance Corporation (IFC) and Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA). India
is not a member of ICSID (International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes).
● Statement 3 is correct: India is one of the founding members of IBRD, IDA and IFC. The International Finance
Corporation (IFC) was established in 1956 as an affiliate of the World Bank, but as a separate entity, to promote
the growth of the private sector which would Contribute to the economic development of its member countries.
26. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: CRAR is also known as Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR). It is the ratio of a bank’s
capital to its risk. CRAR is decided by central banks and bank regulators in accordance with globally accepted
norms generally BASEL III norms in order to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and
becoming insolvent in the process.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Basel III norms stipulates a capital to risk-weighted assets of 8% while in India,
scheduled commercial banks are required to maintain a CAR of 9% while Indian public sector banks are
emphasized to maintain a CAR of 12%. CAR is calculated by dividing the capital of the bank with aggregated
risk-weighted assets for credit risk, market risk, and operational risk. CRAR of a bank is regulated and watched
over by RBI to ensure that the bank can absorb a reasonable amount of loss and complies with statutory Capital
requirements. The higher the CRAR of a bank the better it can fight monetary fluctuations within an economy.
27. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Economic Capital is the risk capital that a central bank must have to cover all its risks
related to its assets and ongoing activities, such as market risk, operational risk, etc. It is expressed as
contingency fund plus revaluation reserve and some other minor components, such as an asset-development
fund etc.
● Statement 2 is correct: The RBI holds risk capital under the Economic Capital Framework (ECF) for the
following reasons:
⮚ To ensure that the RBI has sufficient financial resilience to give effect to its policy actions and use themes
financial stability safeguard in times of a crisis.
⮚ To contribute in international transactions as a trustworthy counterparty in times of stress since it has
very high levels of financial resilience globally.
28. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: FRBM Act provides a legal institutional framework for fiscal consolidation. It is now
mandatory for the Central government to take measures to reduce fiscal deficit, to eliminate revenue deficit and
to generate revenue surplus in the subsequent years. The Act binds not only the present government but also the
future Government to adhere to the path of fiscal consolidation.
● Option B is incorrect: The actual deficits may exceed the targets specified only on grounds of national security
or natural calamity or such other exceptional grounds as the central government may specify.
● Option C is correct: In 2017, the FRBM Review Committee headed by NK Singh said that the exceptional
circumstances cited in the FRBM Act, 2003 were defined opaquely and were liable to misuse. In 2018, based
on the recommendations of NK Singh committee, the FRBM Act was amended to specify three conditions upon
which the escape clause (refers to a contract provision that specifies the conditions under which a party can be
freed from an obligation) can be invoked. The escape clause under the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
Management) Act details a set of events in which the Central government can deviate from fiscal deficit targets.
⮚ First, over-riding considerations of national security, acts of war, and calamities of national proportion
and collapse of agriculture severely affecting farm output and incomes.
⮚ Second, far-reaching structural reforms in the economy with unanticipated fiscal implications.
⮚ Third, a sharp decline in real output growth of at least 3 percentage points below the average for the
previous four quarters.
● Option D is correct: The central government shall not borrow from the Reserve Bank of India except by way
of advances to meet temporary excess of cash disbursements over cash receipts.
29. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Interim Budget is essentially a budget which is announced in an election year by
the incumbent government. The Interim Budget would be applicable until the new government takes over after
the General Elections. Hence, unlike the Union Budget, the Interim Budget would be applicable for a part of
the financial year.
● Statement 2 is correct: Even though the words ‘Interim Budget’ and ‘Vote-on-Account’ are used
interchangeably, they are not same. The government needs approval from the Parliament to withdraw money
from the Consolidated Fund of India to meet its dayto- day expenses. Hence, the incumbent government presents
the Vote-on-Account in order to seek approval from the Parliament for withdrawing money to meet its
expenditure needs until the new government takes over. However, the Interim Budget is an estimate of both the
receipts and the expenditure of the government. Thus, while the Vote-on- Account deals only with the
expenditure of the government, the Interim Budget deals with both the revenue and the expenditure.
30. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending and tax policies to influence
economic conditions, especially macroeconomic conditions. These include aggregate demand for goods and
services, employment, inflation, and economic growth. During a recession, the government may lower tax rates
or increase spending to encourage demand and spur economic activity. Conversely, to combat inflation, it may
raise rates or cut spending to cool down the economy. Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending
and tax policies to influence economic conditions.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: As part of the Fiscal Stimulus Policy, the government tries to revive the economy by
injecting more money. In order to do so, the government reduces the tax rates, provides higher tax exemptions
and enhances its expenditure.
● Statement 3 is correct: Fiscal policy is largely based on ideas from British economist John Maynard Keynes.
Keynes argued that governments could stabilize the business cycle and regulate economic output rather than let
markets right themselves alone. An expansionary fiscal policy lowers tax rates or increases spending to increase
aggregate demand and fuel economic growth.
31. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: Divisible pool refers to the taxes of the central government that it should share with the
sub national or state governments in accordance with the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
Surcharge/Cess imposed and collected by the Centre does not form part of the Central Divisible Pool of
taxes. The distribution of the Integrated GST between the Centre and States is decided by the GST
Council and not by the Finance Commission.
● Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Corporation tax and income tax is collected by the Centre and has a major
share in the Divisible Pool of taxes for the Finance Commission.
32. Answer: D
Explanation:
● All: The Third Plan (1961 - 66) – (Target Growth: 5.6%; Actual Growth: 2.8%) – At its conception, it was felt
that the Indian economy has entered a “take-off stage”. Therefore, its aim was to make India a 'selfreliant' and
'self-generating' economy. Based on the experience of the first two Plans (Agricultural production was seen as
the limiting factor in India’s economic development), agriculture was given top priority to support exports and
industry. The Plan was a thorough failure in reaching the targets due to unforeseen events - Chinese
aggression (1962), Indo-Pak War (1965) and severe drought (1965-66). Due to conflicts, the approach
during the later phase was shifted from development to defenseman development. Lack of coordination
between the federal and state governments was also one of the main reasons for failure of 3rd five year plan.
33. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a tool to monitor progress against poverty globally and regionally, created by an
NGO, World Data Lab. It takes into account household surveys and projections of economic growth from the
International Monetary Fund's World Economic Outlook.
● Statement 2 is correct: The World Poverty Clock – The World Poverty Clock provides real time poverty
estimates through 2030 for nearly every country in the world. It monitors progress against Ending Extreme
Poverty, which is the UN's first SDG (Sustainable Development Goal). The escape rate calculates the current
rate of poverty reduction in the world.
34. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a not-for-profit public
limited company incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956. The NSDC was set up by the Ministry of Finance
on the Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. The Government of India holds 49% of the share capital of the
NSDC, while the private sector has the balance 51% of the share capital.
The primary objectives of NSDC are as follows:
▪ Train and develop skills considering international standards by involving trainees in significant industries.
▪ Create essential frameworks for curriculum, quality assurance and standards for training.
▪ Support, amplify and synchronise private sectors enterprises for skill development with the help of relevant
Public-Private Partnership models.
▪ Endeavour for crucial financial and operational involvement in skill development initiatives from private
sectors.
▪ Bring financing as a market maker, especially in sectors having fewer market mechanisms.
▪ Prioritise initiatives having a catalytic or multiplier effect rather than a one-off impact.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The NSDC also implements the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
and the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Kendra (PMKK). The National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) – It is an
autonomous body under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship that anchors the National Skill
Qualifications Framework and allied quality assurance mechanisms for synergizing skill initiatives in the
country.
The Role of the National Skill Development Agency –
⮚ Nodal agency for state SDMs;
⮚ Evaluate the existing schemes to improve their efficacy and suggest improvements;
⮚ Ensure that the skilling needs of the marginalized sections are taken care of.
35. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: There are 12 major ports and 200 non-major ports (minor ports) in the country. While
the major ports are under the administrative control of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterway, the non-
major ports are under the jurisdiction of the respective State Maritime Boards/ State Government. All the 12
major ports are functional. Out of the 200 non-major ports, around 65 ports are handling cargo and the others
are “Port Limits”, where no cargo is handled and these are used by the fishing vessels and by the small ferries
to carry passengers across the creeks etc.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: All the 12 major ports are governed under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963 and all
the non-major ports (minor ports) are governed under the IPA Act, 1908, which consists of 69 Sections and two
Schedules, and regulates the berths, stations, anchoring, fastening, mooring and unmooring of the vessels.
Besides fixing the rates to be paid in a port other than the major port for use of such mooring belonging to the
government. It also regulates the catamarans plying or hire, and deals with regulating the use of fires and light
within any such port. According to the Constitution of India, the ports, other than those declared by or under
the law made by the Parliament or existing law to be major ports, fall in the Concurrent List of the Constitution.
36. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct:The Chief Executive Officer, NITI (National Institution for Transforming India) Aayog
has been nominated as a (part-time) Member of the Digital Communications Commission.
● The Digital Communications Commission consists of a Chairman, four full time members, who are ex-officio
Secretaries to the Government of India in the Department of Telecommunications and four part time members
who are the Secretaries to the Government of India in the concerned Departments. The Secretary to the
Government of India in the Department of Telecommunications is the ex-officio Chairman of the Digital
Communications Commission. The full-time Members of the Digital Communications Commission are
Member (Finance), Member (Production), Member (Services) & Member (Technology). The part-time
Members of the Digital Communications Commission are Cheif Executive Officer, NITI (National Institution
for Transforming India) Aayog, Secretary (Department of Economic Affairs), Secretary (Ministry of Electronics
& Information Technology) and Secretary (Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion).
● Statement 2 is correct:
The Digital Communications Commission is responsible for:
⮚ Formulating the policy of Department of Telecommunications for approval of the Government;
⮚ Preparing the budget for the Department of Telecommunications for each financial year and getting it
approved by the Government;
⮚ Implementation of Government's policy in all matters concerning telecommunication.
37. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: In order to protect the domestic industries, India was following a regime of quantitative
restrictions on imports. This was encouraged through tight control over imports and by keeping the tariffs very
high. These policies reduced the efficiency and competitiveness, which led to slow growth of the manufacturing
sector. The trade policy reforms aimed at:
⮚ Dismantling of the quantitative restrictions on imports and exports;
⮚ Reduction of tariff rates; and
⮚ Removal of licensing procedures for imports. Import licensing was abolished, except in the case of
hazardous and environmentally sensitive industries. Quantitative restrictions on imports of manufactured
consumer goods and agricultural products were also fully removed from April, 2001. Export duties have
been removed to increase the competitive position of the Indian goods in the international markets.
38. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Quantitative easing is a massive expansion of the open market operations of a central
bank. It’s used to stimulate the economy by making it easier for businesses to borrow money. The bank buys
securities from its member banks to add liquidity to capital markets. This has the same effect as increasing the
money supply. In return, it the central bank issues credit to the banks’ reserves to buy the securities. The purpose
of this type of expansionary monetary policy is to lower interest rates and spur economic growth. Lower interest
rates allow banks to make more loans. Bank loans stimulate demand by giving businesses money to expand.
They give shoppers credit to purchase more goods and services. There are risks. First, a central bank can lose
money on its purchases, money that will ultimately have to be underwritten by taxpayers either with higher
future taxation or by the central bank creating more money and risking higher future inflation.
● Statement 2 is correct: Going too far with creating and spending money and you will destroy the value of the
currency. Inflation or even hyperinflation is the result.
● Statement 3 is correct: If a descent into QE destroys confidence in an economy rather than gives reassurance
that the authorities are on the case it can be counter-productive. When interest rates are close to zero there is
another way of affecting the price of money: Quantitative Easing (QE). The aim is still to bring down interest
rates faced by companies and households and the most important step in QE is that the central bank creates new
money for use in an economy.
39. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Copyright is a legal term used to describe the rights that creators have over their literary
and artistic works. Works covered by copyright range from books, music, paintings, sculpture and films, to
computer programs, databases, advertisements, maps and technical drawings.
● Statement 2 is correct: A patent is an exclusive right granted for an invention. Generally speaking, a patent
provides the patent owner with the right to decide how – or whether - the invention can be used by others.
● Statement 3 is correct: A trademark is a sign capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one enterprise
from those of other enterprises. Trademarks date back to ancient times when artisans used to put their signature
or “mark” on their products.
40. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Government has permitted 26 per cent FDI under Government approval route in
digital media.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The DPIIT is the nodal Department for formulation of policy of the Government on
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI). FDI in Digital Media Information and Broadcasting Ministry has requested
compliance of policy on FDI in digital media within a month. The Ministry today issued a public notice to
facilitate eligible entities involved in uploading and streaming of news and current affairs through digital media,
to comply with the decision of Government, which had permitted 26 per cent FDI under Government approval
route. The entities having foreign investment below 26 per cent may furnish intimation to the Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting within one month. They have to provide details of the company, entity and its
share holding pattern along with the names and addresses of its Directors and shareholders. The Ministry said,
entities which, at present, have an equity structure with foreign investment exceeding 26 per cent will give
similar details to the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting within one month. It said, any entity which
intends to bring fresh foreign investment in the country has to seek prior approval of the Central Government,
through the Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal of DPIIT.
● Statement 3 is correct: In a recent move, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has brought all kinds
of Digital/Online Media including Over the Top (OTT) Platforms under its ambit.
41. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Agricultural productivity became incrementally low though, in absolute terms, the
sector experienced some growth due to the expansion of the aggregate area under cultivation. This stagnation
in the agricultural sector was caused mainly because of the various systems of land settlement that were
introduced by the colonial government.
● Statement 2 is correct: The most important characteristic of India’s foreign trade throughout the colonial period
was the generation of a large export surplus. But this surplus came at a huge cost to the country’s economy.
Several essential commodities—food grains, clothes, kerosene etc. — became conspicuous by their acute
scarcity in the domestic market. Furthermore, this export surplus did not result in any flow of gold or silver into
India. Rather, this was used to make payments for the expenses incurred by an office set up by the colonial
government in Britain, expenses on war, again fought by the British government, and the import of invisible
items, all of which led to the drain of Indian wealth.
● Statement 3 is correct: The agricultural sector accounted for the largest share of workforce, which usually
remained at a high of 70-75 per cent while the manufacturing and the services sectors accounted for only 10
and 15-20 per cent respectively. Another striking aspect was the growing regional variation.
42. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option C is correct: Suppose due to future growth prospects in India investors from across the world increase
their investments in Indian bonds which under such circumstances, are likely to yield a high rate of return. They
will buy these bonds with foreign currency. Since one cannot purchase goods in the domestic market with
foreign currency, a person who sells these bonds to foreign investors will exchange her foreign currency holding
into rupee at a commercial bank. This increased money supply may not altogether be good for the economy’s
health. If the volume of goods and services produced in the economy remains unchanged, the extra money will
lead to increase in prices of all commodities.
● People have more money in their hands with which they compete each other in the commodities market for
buying the same old stock of goods. As too much money is now chasing the same old quantities of output, the
process ends up in bidding up prices of every commodity – an increase in the general price level, which is also
known as inflation.
● RBI often intervenes with its instruments to prevent such an outcome. In the above example, RBI will undertake
an open market sale of government securities of an amount equal to the amount of foreign exchange inflow in
the economy, thereby keeping the stock of high powered money and total money supply unchanged. Thus, it
sterilises the economy against adverse external shocks. This operation of RBI is known as sterilisation. Money
supply is, therefore, an important macroeconomic variable. Its overall influence on the values of the equilibrium
rate of interest, price level and output of an economy is of great significance.
43. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is the correct: Deficit refers to the shortage of money for expenditure. The gap between the receipts
and expenditure is called deficit. Following are the various types of deficits incurred by the Government in the
process of receiving/spending money from/for the public.
● Pair 1 is incorrect: Fiscal deficit is the difference between total expenditure and total receipts except
borrowings and other liabilities and it does not include capital receipts received through borrowings. Fiscal
deficit = Total expenditure - (Capital receipts other than borrowings and other liabilities + Revenue receipts)
● Pair 2 is correct: Revenue deficit is the difference between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts. It
includes profits accrued by the Central Public sector Undertakings (PSUs) as such revenues are part of revenue
receipts of the Government.
● Pair 3 is incorrect: Effective Revenue deficit (ERD) does not include given by the Central government to State
Governments to finance Capital expenditure of States. Even though such grants are not considered as part of
Capital expenditure of the Central Government, the capital assets created by this grant contribute to the
development of Nation. Thus, to capture such grants a new measure called effective revenue deficit was
introduced. ERD = Revenue deficit - Grants in aid for creation of capital assets. Thus ERD excludes grants in
aid for creation of capital assets.
44. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is correct: The Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY) covers all tribal people and all the areas with tribal
population across the country. It aims to create an enabling environment for need based and outcome oriented
holistic development of tribal population. It aims to ensure that all the benefits under various central/ state
government schemes actually reach the target group. Different components of VKY deals with education,
employment, health, irrigation, drinking water etc. The Scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Tribal
Affairs.
● Pair 2 is correct:Under Van Dhan Vikas Yojana, the Government aims to establish Van Dhan Vikas Clusters.
These clusters consist of a group of around 15 Van Dhan Vikas Kendras. Each cluster is likely to have around
300 forest dwellers. This aims to provide economies of scale, livelihood and market linkages as well as
entrepreneurship opportunities to tribal forest gatherers. TRIFED (Tribal Co-Operative Marketing Development
Federation of India Limited) is the central coordinating agency for this scheme. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(MoTA) is the nodal ministry under this scheme. MoTA bears 100% cost of setting up of the Vikas Kendras.
● Pair 3 is incorrect: Under TRIFOOD scheme, a value addition center has been proposed to be set up only in
two areas- Jagdalpur in Chhattisgarh and Raigad in Maharashtra. It will not be set up in all the Schedule V
areas. It is a joint initiative of Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Ministry of Food Processing Industry. Various
commodities to be processed include- Amla, Mahua, Jamun, Custard Apple, Cashew, Fruits and Vegetables
etc.
45. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Regenerative agriculture is a holistic farming system that focuses on soil health, food
quality, biodiversity improvement, water quality and air quality. It improves soil health through practices that
increase soil organic matter, biota and biodiversity. It also aims at enhancing water holding capacity and carbon
sequestration.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Regeneration International,regenerative agriculture methods include
minimizing the ploughing of land. Absolute prohibition on tillage or zero tillage is not a precondition. Reduced
tillage will help keep CO2 in the soil, improve its water absorbency and leave vital fungal communities in the
soil undisturbed.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: As per the European Academies‘ Science Advisory Council‘s report (the
Regenerative agriculture in Europe report), continuous grazing by animals on the same piece of land can also
degrade soil. So regenerative agriculture methods include moving grazing animals to different pastures. In
other words, this method encourages integrated livestock/ grazing practices (silvopasture), but discourages
continuous grazing on the same piece of land.
● According to the World Economic Forum (WEF), more than half of the world‘s agriculture land has been
degraded. This leads to productivity losses of $400 billion a year and is a risk to food security in the future. In
this regard, Regenerative agriculture is an evolution of conventional agriculture, reducing the use of water and
other inputs, and preventing land degradation and deforestation. It protects and improves soil, biodiversity,
climate resilience and water resources while making farming more productive and profitable.
46. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Gig
Economy is a term used to
describe a labour market in
which temporary, short-term
contracts or freelance work is
prevalent, as opposed to
permanent jobs.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It
includes jobs that require a wide
range of education and technical
skills, from low-skilled manual
labour to high-skilled
professional services.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: This
type of work is typically found in
the service and technology
industries, but can also be found
in other areas such as
construction, transportation, healthcare etc.
47. Answer; C
Explanation:
● Option C is correct: A Pigouvian tax, named after 1920 British economist Arthur C. Pigou, is a tax on a market
transaction that creates a negative externality, or an additional cost, borne by individuals not directly involved
in the transaction. Externality is an activity that creates a negative effect on others in a society but not
necessarily the person who does that activity. Example- Pollution is an externality, for example. Drivers of
non-compliant vehicles don't suffer immediately from their exhaust, but everyone behind them does. Their
exhaust also increases pollution for everyone in the community. The government imposes Pigouvian taxes on
non-compliant vehicles to impose a higher cost on the drivers to compensate for the suffering they cause.
● Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Tobacco tax, Tax on plastic bags and Carbon Emission Tax are examples
of Pigouvian tax because they create negative externality for society.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: Basic Custom Duty is not Pigouvian tax as it does not create negative externality on
the society.
48. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option C is correct: The term privatization is used for a stake sell in which there is a transfer of 51% or more
equity to the private players. In disinvestment, the government sells only a part of the equity which is essentially
less than 51% and in a manner so that ownership and management rights can be hold by the Government itself.
Government had constituted the National Investment Fund (NIF) in November, 2005 into which the proceeds
from disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises were to be channelized.
49. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) hasbeen introduced by the Government to revive PPP
(Public Private Partnership) in highway construction in India. At present, three different models -PPP Annuity,
PPP Toll and EPC(Engineering, Procurement and Construction) were followed by the government while
adopting private sector participation. Launch of the new model is due to many problems encountered as
associated with the existing ones. Large number of stalled projects are blocking infrastructure projects and at
the same time adding to Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) of the banking system. In this context, the government
has introduced Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) to rejuvenate PPP. HAM is a mix of BOT Annuity and EPC
models.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM): In India, the new HAM is a mix of BOT Annuity
and EPC models. As per the design, the government will contribute to 40% of the project cost in the first five
years through annual payments (annuity). The remaining payment will be made on the basis of the assets created
and the performance of the developer.
● Statement 3 is correct: Under HAM, Revenue collection would be the responsibility of the National Highways
Authority of India (NHAI).In financial terminology hybrid annuity means that the government makes payment
in a fixed amount for a considerable period and then in a variable amount in the remaining period. This hybrid
type of payment method is called HAM in the technical parlance.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION AND FEATURES OF HAM:
⮚ By features the HAM is a mix between the existing two models - BOT Annuity and EPC. Hence to understand
the HAM, the basic features of the existing PPP models are elucidated first.
⮚ The Build Operate and Transfer(BOT) Annuity Model Under BOT annuity, a developer builds a highway,
operates it for a specified duration and transfers it back to the government. The government starts payment to
the developer after the launch of commercial operation of the project. Payment will be made on a six-month
basis.
⮚ BOT Toll Model: In this toll-based BOT model, a road developer constructs the road and he is allowed to
recover his investment through toll collection. This toll collection will be over a long period which is nearly 30
years in mostcases. There is no government payment to the developer as he earns his money invested from tolls.
⮚ Engineering, Procurement and Construction (EPC) Model Under this model, the cost is completely borne by
the government. Government invites bids for engineering knowledge from the private players. Procurement of
raw material and construction costs are met by the government. The private sector's participation is minimum
and is limited to the provision of engineering expertise. A difficulty of the model is the high financial burden
for the government.
50. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: CBDC is a national digital currency issued by the central bank that is expected to
replace or coexist with fiat money and hold the same value. Mobile money, on the other hand, utilizes existing
commercial banking-based accounting to manage customer wallet balances based on exchange with cash or
lines of credit and loans. Units of cryptocurrency (not mobile money) are created through a process called
mining, which involves using computer power to solve complicated mathematical problems that generate
coins.
● Statement 2 is correct: CBDC is a direct liability on the central bank as it is the main issuer of the currency,
whereas mobile money is the liability of commercial banks and other authorized financial institutions. Although
some implementation approaches propose that CBDC can be implemented in either an indirect or hybrid form,
its liability still remains on the central bank.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Both CBDC and mobile money wallets are meant to facilitate domestic retail
payments. While CBDC is a digital version of fiat currency issued by the central bank, and mobile money is a
digital payment system that allows users to perform financial transactions using their mobile devices, both are
designed to facilitate digital payments within a country's domestic economy.
ADDITONAL INFORMATION:
● Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is a digital version of a country's fiat currency that is issued and backed
by the country's central bank. It is a form of digital cash that can be used for payments and transactions. Mobile
money refers to the use of mobile devices and tele-communication networks to make financial transactions. It
is a digital payment system that allows users to send, receive, and store money using their mobile devices.
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT-8 (ECONOMY 3.0) C
INSTRUCTIONS
D
BOOKLET.
the Answer Sheet.
question.
PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2024 | pPLT-8
1. Consider the following statements about 3. The 'Atal Jyoti Yojana' recently seen in the
Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro news is related to:
food processing Enterprises (PM-FME):. (a) Installation of solar street lights in
1. It has been launched under the
electricity deficient areas.
Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
(b) Achieving universal household
2. It primarily focuses on the unorganized
electrification.
segment of the food processing
industry. (c) Providing energy efficient LED tube
3. It envisages enhancing minor forest lights and fans to people at subsidized

produce in the tribal districts. rates.
How many of the statements given above (d) Providing incentives to local bodies for
are correct? setting up waste to energy generation
(a) Only one plants.
(b) Only two
(c) All three
4. With reference to National Industrial
(d) None
Corridor Development Corporation
(NICDC) Limited, consider the following
statements.
1. To mobilize borrowings at low cost
1. It has been formed by renaming Delhi
while keeping the risks at prudent
levels. Mumbai Industrial Development
2. To maintain a stable and sustainable Corporation Limited after the

debt structure so as to ensure financial expansion of its mandate.
stability. 2. The Government of India and Japan
3. Development of a well-functioning Bank for International Cooperation are
domestic bond market. its shareholders.
How many of the above are the objectives of Which of the statements given above is/are
the Debt Management Strategy of
correct?
Government of India?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
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balance of payment: reference to the World Trade Organisation
1. A country is said to be in balance of (WTO):
payment equilibrium when the current 1. It recognizes those countries as the least
account deficit is balanced by capital developed countries which have been
account. designated as such by the World Bank.
2. An autonomous international economic 2. The WTO has not defined the criteria
transaction is made independent of the for defining countries as “developed”
state of balance of payment. and “developing” countries.
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following characteristics :

8. Consider the following measures :
1. Hedge exposure to exchange-rate risk.
1. Appreciation of exchange rate
2. Used to predict the direction of a
2. Tight monetary policy
currency.
3. Removing bottlenecks in the supply
3. Reduce the cost of borrowing in a
chain
foreign currency.
How many of the above measures can help
How many of the above are the benefits of
reduce the current account deficit?
currency-swap?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(d) None (d) None
9. Which of the following correctly describes 11. In which one of the following groups are all
‘The Flying Geese model’ in economics? the four countries members of the Asian
(a) A model wherein a group of countries Infrastructure Investment Bank?
develop economically by following a
(a) Mexico, Japan, United States America,
country with capital, technology and
managerial knowhow. India
(b) A model wherein a group of countries (b) Canada, Mexico, Netherlands, Pakistan
develop economically by specializing (c) Netherlands, Japan, United States
in the avionics sector.
America, India
(c) A model which provides a solution to
(d) New Zealand, India, Afghanistan,
rapidly rising inflation.
Netherlands
(d) A model which provides a solution to
deflation through non repayable money
transfer from central bank to 12. Consider the following statements regarding
government. the Special Economic Zone (SEZ):
1. It is set up under the provisions of

10. Headquartered in Geneva, the body was
Foreign Trade Policy:
established in 1964. Its objectives are to
maximize the trade, investment and 2. Both central and state governments
development opportunities of developing have the power to establish SEZ.
countries and assist them in their efforts to 3. It is deemed to be foreign territory for
integrate into the world economy on an
the purpose of trade operations, duties
equitable basis.
and tariffs.
Which of the following organizations is
being referred to in the given passage? How many of the statements given above
(a) United Nations Commission on are correct?

International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) (a) Only one
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade
(b) Only two
and Development (UNCTAD)
(c) All three
(c) United Nations Economic and Social
Council (ECOSOC) (d) None
(d) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
13. Which of the following correctly gives the 15. Consider the following scenarios :
definition of “hot money”?
1. Ever-greening of Loans
(a) It refers to funds that are controlled by
2. Undercapitalization of Banks
investors who actively seek short-term
returns. 3. Increased defaults by borrowers
(b) It refers to the domestic currency which benefitting from forbearance

is under enough pressure of How many of the above are the impacts of
depreciation.
prolonged forbearance policy on banks and
(c) It is the international currency in which
borrowers?
the highest faith is shown and is needed
by every economy. (a) Only one
(d) It refers to the most volatile shares in (b) Only two

the stock market.
(c) All three
(d) None
14. With reference to Consumer Price Index
(CPI), consider the following statements:
1. Rise in Housing Prices does not have 16. When the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) cuts
any effect on the Rural CPI (Consumer
interest rates it leads to
Price Index).
1. Increase in bond price
2. Labour Bureau computes CPI-IW with
2012 as the base year. 2. Increase in inflation
3. Increase in the prices of fuel and food Select the correct answer using the code
increases the CPI core inflation rate.
given below.
(a) 1 only
are correct?

(d) None
17. Consider the following funds : 19. Consider the following statements with
respect to recent changes in the regulatory
1. National Adaptation Fund for Climate
regime of Urban Cooperative Banks
Change (UCBs):
1. The overall priority sector lending
2. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund
target for UCBs has been increased to
3. Tribal Development Fund 75 % of Adjusted Net Bank Credit
(ANBC) by 2024.
4. National Clean Energy Fund
2. The Reserve Bank of India has been
How many of the above are associated with given powers of approval for the
appointment and removal of the
the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Chairman of UCBs.
Development (NABARD)? 3. UCBs can raise capital by issuing
(a) Only one equity in the stock market.
(c) Only three (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(d) All four
(c) All three
(d) None
18. Consider the following measures :

1. Encouraging Foreign Capital outflows 1. National Housing Bank (NHB) is a
wholly-owned subsidiary of the
2. Accumulation of forex reserves by RBI
Reserve Bank of India.
3. Sale of Government Securities 2. NHB launched the NHB Residex index
to track the movement in prices of
How many of the above actions can be taken
residential properties in 50 cities in
to prevent a large appreciation of Rupee? India.
(a) Only one
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
21. With reference to the National Savings 23. Consider the following statements with
Certificate (NSC) scheme, consider the reference to the Digital Banking Units
following statements: (DBUs) :
1. It is a fixed-income investment 1. It is a specialized fixed point business
initiative of the Reserve Bank of India. unit housing a certain minimum digital
2. Non-Resident Indians cannot purchase infrastructure for delivering digital
NSC certificates. banking products and services.
3. Collections from the NSC scheme are 2. All Commercial banks with past digital
credited to the National Small savings banking experience are permitted to
fund, which is established in the public
open DBUs.
account of India.
3. The specific financial services to be
provided by the DBUs include savings,
are correct?
credit, investment and insurance.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
are correct?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
22. With reference to the Coal Controller (c) Only three

Organisation, consider the following (d) All four
statements:
1. It ensures that coal mining companies 24. With respect to banking structure in India,
deliver the coal to end users in the consider the following statements :
prescribed time. 1. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are set
2. It functions as the Commissioner of up under the RRB Act, 1976 with equal
Payment to settle the claim cases of capital contributions from Union and
colliery owners of the pre- State governments.
nationalization period.
2. BASEL-III norms are not applicable to
3. It releases the 'Coal Directory of India'. the Small Finance Banks and Payment
4. It regulates the disposal of stock of coal Banks in India.
or the expected output of coal in the
Which of the following statements given
colliery.
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
are correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) Only one
(c) Only three (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All four
25. Consider the following statements with 27. In the context of Indian banks, consider the
reference to Reserve Funds of State following statements:
Governments:
1. RBI triggers Prompt Corrective Action
1. Consolidated Sinking Fund (CSF) is an
amortization fund created to meet (PCA) when a bank’s Return on Assets
repayment obligations of the State becomes less than 0.25%.
Government.
2. Prompt Corrective Action applies only
2. Guarantee Redemption Fund (GRF) is
being provided to State Governments to commercial banks and certain
by RBI against the collateral of their NBFCs.
investments in marketable securities.
3. The PCA framework will impose
3. CSF and GRF are reserve funds
maintained by State Governments with restrictions only on the expansion of a
the Reserve Bank of India. bank’s high risk-weighted assets.
are correct?
are incorrect?
(a) Only one
(d) None
(c) All three
26. Which of the following statements is (d) None

incorrect regarding the Capital Expenditure
of the budget of the Government of India?
28. Which of the following statements best
(a) While interest payments are not a part
of capital expenditure, the loans given describes the concept of crowding-in effect
by the central government are a part of in the context of government expenditure?
it.
(a) Government expenditure resulting in
(b) While capital expenditure is usually
benefits to a large number of people
associated with the creation of assets, it
may sometimes result in the creation of (b) Government expenditure to address the
liability also. problem of excess population growth
(c) The money spent on building
(c) Government expenditure to tackle the
infrastructures such as roads, railways
and airports is part of the capital downsides of rural-urban migration
expenditure. (d) Government expenditure resulting in a
(d) Capital expenditure is expected to have
further inflow of private investment
a greater multiplier effect on the
economy than revenue expenditure.
29. Consider the following statements: 31. Which of the following statements describes
1. Twin deficit syndrome is a term used to the term ‘Headline Inflation’?
denote a situation when both current
account deficit and fiscal deficit are (a) It is the change in value of all goods in
high. the basket excluding food and fuel
2. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) based
exchange rates are calculated by items.
comparing the prices of the same basket (b) It is less volatile than the core inflation.
of goods and services in different
countries. (c) It is the change in value of all goods in
3. Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) the basket including food and energy
takes into account the impact of
domestic inflation while calculating the items.
exchange rate between the domestic (d) It is reported through the Wholesale
currency and a basket of other major
currencies. Price Index.
are correct?
32. With reference to the Securities and
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Exchange Board of India (SEBI), consider
(c) All three the following statements:
(d) None
1. The SEBI was originally constituted as
30. Consider the following statements with a non-statutory body in 1988 through a
reference to NBFCs in India?
resolution of the Government of India.
1. All NBFCs registered with the Reserve
Bank are entitled to accept deposits. 2. Registration and regulation of the
2. NBFCs cannot offer interest rates working of venture capital funds is kept
higher than the ceiling rate prescribed
by RBI. outside the purview of SEBI.
3. NBFCs cannot offer gifts/incentives or Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
additional benefits to the depositors.
correct?
4. Deposit Insurance facility is available to
depositors in RBI-registered NBFCs. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
are correct?
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only three
(d) All four
33. Consider the following statements : 35. With reference to Investment Trusts in
India, consider the following statements :
1. To directly or indirectly lend, invest, or
1. Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs)
attract investments for infrastructure
and Infrastructure Investment Trusts
projects located entirely or partly in (InvITs) were launched in India by the
India Reserve Bank of India.
2. InviTs and REITs are similar to mutual
2. To organize and facilitate foreign
funds that pool money from investors,
participation in infrastructure projects which helps in long-term capital
3. To facilitate the development of the appreciation.
3. InvITs are more liquid compared to
market for bonds, loans, and derivatives
REITs.
for infrastructure financing How many of the statements given above
How many of the above are the roles of the are correct?
newly constructed National Bank for (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Financing Infrastructure and Development
(c) All three
(NBFID), the fifth All India Financial
(d) None
Institution?
(a) Only one 36. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Debt Recovery Tribunal
(b) Only two
(DRT):
(c) All three 1. DRT can look into cases for expeditious
(d) None adjudication and recovery of debts due
to the bankruptcy of individuals.
2. DRT has powers of the District Court
34. Which of the following is the nodal for any claims before it relating to the
implementing agency for Fisheries and recovery of debts.
3. DRTs are regulated by the Companies
Aquaculture Infrastructure Development
Act of 1956.
Fund? 4. Corporate bodies can access DRT for
(a) National Fisheries Development Board cases above 20 lakhs.
(b) National Bank for Agriculture and How many of the statements given above
are correct?
Rural Development
(a) Only one
(c) National Cooperatives Development (b) Only two
Corporation (c) Only three
(d) All four
(d) NITI Aayog
37. During times of high inflation caused by 39. Which of the following is correct with respect
to the Certificate of Deposit?
supply-side bottlenecks, which of the
1. Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a negotiable
following measures, if undertaken by the money market instrument and issued
against funds deposited at a bank for a
government, is likely to be specified time period.
counterproductive? 2. CDs can be issued by Scheduled
Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks
(a) Releasing buffer stocks into the market and Local Area Banks.
3. The minimum deposit that could be
(b) Taking strict action against hoarding of
accepted from a single subscriber should
goods not be less than Rs.5 lakh.
(c) Raising indirect tax correct?
(d) Waiving of import duty on items in (a) Only one

(b) Only two
short supply (c) All three
(d) None
38. Consider the following statements: 40. With respect to terms related to the stock
market, consider the following statements:
1. While exporters create demand for
1. Venture capital is a long-term start-up
foreign exchange, importers act as the capital provided to new entrepreneurs by
professional investors.
main suppliers of foreign exchange.
2. A convertible note is an instrument issued
2. A rise in the price of foreign exchange by a start-up company, in which the
investor has the option of converting debt
leads to a reduction in demand for into equity shares, as per the instrument,
within a period not exceeding six months
imported products.
from the date of issue.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Depositary Receipt (DR) is an instrument
used by domestic companies to raise
correct? money in the foreign market.
correct?
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
41. Consider the following statements about 43. If external debt vis-à-vis internal debt in
Chit fund: government's total debt increases, its likely
1. It falls under the jurisdiction of the RBI impact on the Indian economy would be :
and is a legal entity under the Chits 1. It may bring down the interest that the
Fund Act of 1982 of the Central
government pays on its debt.
government.
2. In the short term, it may lead to the
2. Cost of borrowings under Chit Funds is
rupee depreciating against the dollar.
decided under an agreement, at the
beginning. 3. It may have a negative impact on the
Which of the statements given above is/are ‘Make in India’ initiative.

correct? 4. It can hamper countries' ability to invest
(a) 1 only in social and physical infrastructure.
(b) 2 only How many of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 only are correct?
(d) None of the above (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
respect to MGNREGA Eligibility Criteria :
(d) All four
1. Must be Citizen of India to seek
MGNREGA benefits.
2. Job seeker has completed 18 years of 44. Consider the following statements regarding
age at the time of application. Convertible Paper Money :
3. The applicant must be part of a local 1. It has significantly less intrinsic value
household (i.e. application must be than its face value.
made with local Gram Panchayat). 2. It is backed by a physical commodity
4. Applicants must volunteer for unskilled instead of a country’s government.
labour.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(d) All four (d) None of the above
45. Consider the following statements regarding 47. In ‘Atma Nirbhar Bharat’, the economy has
‘Bad Banks’: to move from ‘command and control’ to
1. ‘Bad Bank’ would be set up as a ‘plug and play’. In this statement, ‘plug and
separate entity that would buy the Non- play’ refers to:
Performing Asset from other banks to (a) Government will be playing a leading
free up their books for fresh lending. role in the economic growth process
2. The Public Sector Asset Rehabilitation (b) Government will provide policy and
Agency (PARA) colloquially called other support to pull-in private sector
‘Bad Bank’ deals with the recovery of (c) Government will provide red carpet for
the bad loans. foreign investors
Which of the above statements is/are (d) Government will provide digital
correct? infrastructure for the economy
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 48. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) Both 1 and 2 the various inflation indices published in the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 country :
1. Wholesale Price Index (WPI) does not
46. In regards to the Asian Development Bank represent the inflation in services
(ADB), consider the following statements : 2. Consumer Price Index (CPI) represents
1. ADB has more than 60 member nations. the inflation in goods and services
2. India is the fourth largest shareholder in 3. CPI and WPI represent the inflation of
ADB imported goods also
3. ADB is an official United Nations 4. CPI does not represent the inflation in
Observer. capital and intermediate goods.

49. Consider the following statements regarding 50. Consider the following statements regarding
Forex Reserves: the ‘National Monetization Pipeline’?
1. The country’s Forex Reserves fully 1. Plans for monetization of core assets of
covers the external debt of India central government and central PSUs
2. The country’s Forex Reserves fully 2. The pipeline has been developed by
covers its one-year of imports Dept. of Investment and Public Asset
Which of the statements given above is/are Management in consultation with
correct? Infrastructure ministries
(a) 1 only 3. Focuses on privatization of brown-field
(b) 2 only projects
(c) Both 1 and 2 How many of the statements given above
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)

1. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statements 1 is Correct : Launched under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan, the Pradhan Mantri Formalisation
of Micro food processing Enterprises (PM-FME) Scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme.
● Statement 2 is Correct : It aims to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises in the
unorganized segment of the food processing industry and promote formalization of the sector and provide
support to Farmer Producer Organizations.
Its objectives are:
⮚ Increase in access to finance by micro food processing units,
⮚ Increase in revenues of target enterprises,
⮚ Enhanced compliance with food quality and safety standards,
⮚ Strengthening capacities of support systems,
⮚ Transition from the unorganized sector to the formal sector,
⮚ Special focus on women entrepreneurs and Aspirational districts,
● Statement 3 is correct: Encourage Waste to Wealth activities and focus on minor forest produce in Tribal
Districts.
2. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Public debt management plays an important role in the macro-economic policy of a
country. Productive use of public debt contributes to the economic growth and welfare of society at large. At
the same time, public debt because of its size, if not managed well, could become a source of financial instability.
Thus, establishing and executing a strategy for managing the Government's debt in order to raise the required
amount of funds at low cost over the medium to long-run, consistent with a prudent degree of risk is essential.
Objectives of the Debt Management Strategy (DMS):To mobilize borrowings at low cost over the medium to
long-term subject to prudent levels of risk in debt portfolio.
● Statement 2 is correct: To maintain a stable and sustainable debt structure so as to ensure financial stability
across time periods.
● Statement 3 is correct: To support the development of a well-functioning, vibrant, deep and liquid domestic
bond market which helps in pricing the Government debt efficiently.
To promote deep and liquid financial markets while providing benchmarks for pricing financial assets and
maintain consistency with other macro-economic policies including monetary policy.
● About 93 percent of the outstanding public debt of the Government of India is domestic and within this, a very
large part consists of marketable debt. Accordingly, the major focus of DMS is on the active element of domestic
debt of the Central Government, i.e., marketable debt. Government Small Savings Schemes, which have started
playing a major role in financing a significant portion of borrowing requirements of Government, are also now
covered under DMS.
3. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is the Correct : The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) had launched the Atal Jyoti
Yojana (AJAY) to illuminate dark regions across five states through solar power. It is a sub scheme under off –
grid and decentralized solar application scheme of Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), Govt. of
India. The objective of the Atal Jyoti Scheme in India is to install solar energy-based street lights in those areas
where there is a shortage of electricity. The rural, semi-urban and urban areas that face less than 50% grid
connectivity in Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Jharkhand, and Odisha will be illuminated with solar LED street
lights. MNRE will provide 75% of the cost of street lights and remaining 25% will come from Member of
Parliament Local Area Development funds (MPLADS), Panchayat funds or Municipalities and other Urban
Local Bodies (ULBs) Funds.
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4. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: National Industrial Corridor Development Programme is India's most ambitious
infrastructure programme aiming to develop new industrial cities as "Smart Cities" and converging next
generation technologies across infrastructure sectors. Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor Development
Corporation (DMICDC) Limited, a special purpose company, was incorporated to establish, promote and
facilitate development of Delhi Mumbai Industrial Corridor Project. Further, after announcement of other
Industrial Corridor Projects, the mandate of DMICDC Ltd. Has been expanded to develop and implement all
Industrial Corridor Projects in the country and accordingly, the name has been changed to National Industrial
Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC) Limited. NICDC is mandated to undertake project development
activities for Investment Regions/Industrial Areas/ Economic Regions / Industrial Nodes and Township etc.
● Statement 2 is correct: The shareholding of NICDC is as follows :
 Government t of India – 49%
 Japan Bank for International Cooperation – 26%
 Housing and Urban Development Corporation Ltd – 19.9%
 India Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd – 4.1%
 LIC – 1%
5. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Balance of trade (BOT) is the difference between the value of a country's exports and
the value of a country's imports for a given period. Balance of trade is the largest component of a country's
balance of payments (BOP). Sometimes the balance of trade between a country's goods and the balance of trade
between its services are distinguished as two separate figures. Thus the situation in the first state statement 19
may imply a balance of trade, but not a balance of payment equilibrium.
● Statement 2 is correct: The balance of payments (BOP) is a statement of all transactions made between entities
in one country and the rest of the world over a defined period of time, such as a quarter or a year. The balance
of payments includes both the current account and capital account. The current account includes a nation's net
trade in goods and services, its net earnings on cross-border investments, and its net transfer payments. The
capital account consists of a nation's transactions in financial instruments and central bank reserves. The sum
of all transactions recorded in the balance of payments should be zero; however, exchange rate fluctuations and
differences in accounting practices may hinder this in practice. Sometimes the capital account is called the
financial account, with a separate, usually very small, capital account listed separately.
6. Answer: C
Explanation:
● All statements are correct: A currency swap is a transaction in which two parties exchange an equivalent
amount of money with each other but in different currencies. The parties are essentially loaning each other
money and will repay the amounts at a specified date and exchange rate. The purpose could be:
 to hedge exposure to exchange-rate risk,
 to speculate on the direction of a currency, or
 to reduce the cost of borrowing in a foreign currency.
The parties involved in currency swaps are usually financial institutions, trading on their own or on behalf of a
non-financial corporation.
7. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The WTO recognizes as least-developed countries (LDCs) those countries which
have been designated as such by the United Nations. There are currently 47 least-developed countries on the
UN list, 36 of which to date have become WTO members. Developing countries comprise a majority of the
WTO membership. They are grouped as “developing countries” and “least developed countries”, in accordance
with the criteria set out below.
● Statement 2 is correct: There are no WTO definitions of “developed” and “developing” countries. Members
announce for themselves whether they are “developed” or “developing” countries. However, other members
can challenge the decision of a member to make use of provisions available to developing countries.
What are the advantages of a “developing country” status?
● Developing country status in the WTO brings certain rights. There are for example provisions in some WTO
Agreements which provide developing countries with longer transition periods before they are required to fully
implement the agreement and developing countries can receive technical assistance. That a WTO member
announces itself as a developing country does not automatically mean that it will benefit from the unilateral
preference schemes of some of the developed country members such as the Generalized System of Preferences
(GSP). In practice, it is the preference giving country which decides the list of developing countries that will
benefit from the preferences.
8. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: A current account deficit occurs when the value of imports (of goods/services/inv.
incomes) is greater than the value of exports. Policies to reduce a current account deficit involve: o Devaluation
of the exchange rate (make exports cheaper – imports more expensive) o Reduce domestic consumption and
spending on imports (e.g. tight fiscal policy/higher taxes) o Supply-side policies to improve the competitiveness
of the domestic industry and exports. Devaluation of exchange rate: This involves reducing the value of the
currency against others. (e.g. selling pounds would cause the value of the Pound to fall). If there is a devaluation
of the currency, the price of imported goods increases, and therefore the quantity demanded of imports falls.
Exports will become cheaper, and there will be an increase in the number of exports.
● Statement 2 is correct: Tight monetary policy involves increasing interest rates. Higher interest rates will
increase the cost of debt and mortgage repayments and leave people with less money to spend. Therefore, this
will reduce their consumption of imports, improving the current account.
● Statement 3 is correct: Supply-side policies can improve the competitiveness of the economy and help make
exports more attractive. This can improve the current account position, but it may take considerable time to
have an effect. For example, if the government pursued a policy of privatization and deregulation it may help
to increase the efficiency of the economy because of the profit motive in the private sector. This increased
efficiency would translate into lower costs of production and more exports.
9. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option is A correct: “Wildgeese flying
model” was formulated by Japanese
economist Kaname Akamatsu during the
1960s. The first Asian country to enter the
export market for Network Products was
Japan followed by a number of East and
Southeast Asian countries. Japan, the lead
goose, provided capital, technology and
managerial knowhow to “follower geese”
countries in East and Southeast Asia. Wild
geese fly in orderly ranks forming an
inverse V, just as airplanes fly in a
formation. The export market participation
of several of the Asian countries, over the
years, depicts an “inverted V” pattern.
10. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option B is correct: The United Nations General Assembly is the parent organisation of the United Nations
Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). Moreover, UNCTAD is a permanent body of the United
Nations. United Nations Conference for Trade and Development (UNCTAD) deals with trade issues,
investments and other matters concerning development.
United Nations Conference Trade and Development goals are:
▪ The development opportunities, investments and trade of developing countries are to be maximized. The efforts
of developing countries to integrate into the world economy on an equitable basis would be assisted by
UNCTAD
UNCTAD Objectives
 Framing policies in various domains such as trade, technology, finance, aid, and transport is the most
important priority of UNCTAD. Geneva is the permanent secretariat of UNCTAD and the conference
ordinarily meets once in four years.
 UNCTAD collects data and conducts research and analyses policies.
 UNCTAD, with its work in the national and global levels, aims to help countries to:
 Understand options to address macro-level development challenges.
 Acquire beneficial integration into the international trading system.
 Reduce the dependency on commodities by diversifying the economies.
 Decrease their exposure to debt and financial volatility.
 Increase development-friendliness by attracting more investments.
 Increase technologies related to the digital domain.
 Give more thrust to innovation and entrepreneurship.
11. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is correct: The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank with
a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia. Headquartered in Beijing, we began operations in
January 2016 and have now grown to 103 approved members worldwide. By investing in sustainable
infrastructure and other productive sectors in Asia and beyond, we will better connect people, services and
markets that over time will impact the lives of billions and build a better future. Mexico, Japan, and the United
States have no immediate intention to participate.
12. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: India was one of the first in Asia to recognize the effectiveness of the Export
Processing Zone (EPZ) model in promoting exports, with Asia's first EPZ set up in Kandla in 1965. With a view
to overcome the shortcomings experienced on account of the multiplicity of controls and clearances; absence of
world class infrastructure, and an unstable fiscal regime and with a view to attract larger foreign investments in
India, the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) Policy was announced in April 2000. This policy intended to make
SEZs an engine for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure complemented by an attractive fiscal
package, both at the Centre and the State level, with the minimum possible regulations. SEZs in India functioned
from 1.11.2000 to 09.02.2006 under the provisions of the Foreign Trade Policy and fiscal incentives were made
effective through the provisions of relevant statutes. After the enactment of SEZ Act in 2005, Special Economic
Zones operate under the provisions of the act,
● The main objectives of the SEZ Act are:
Generation of additional economic activity o promotion of exports of goods and services o promotion of
investment from domestic and foreign sources o creation of employment opportunities o development of
infrastructure facilities.
● Approval mechanism:
The developer submits the proposal for the establishment of SEZ to the concerned State Government. The State
Government has to forward the proposal with its recommendation within 45 days from the date of receipt of
such proposal to the Board of Approval. The applicant also has the option to submit the proposal directly to the
Board of Approval.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Board of Approval has been constituted by the Central Government in exercise
of the powers conferred under the SEZ Act. Once an SEZ has been approved by the Board of Approval and
Central Government has notified the area of the SEZ, units are allowed to be set up in the SEZ. Thus, it is clear
that power to establish SEZ lies with the Central government and not with the state government.
● Statement 3 is correct: SEZ is a specifically delineated duty free enclave and deemed to be a foreign territory
for the purpose of trade operations, duties and tariffs.
13. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Option A is the correct: These investors scan the market for short-term, high-interest rate investment
opportunities. A typical short-term investment opportunity that often attracts "hot money" is the certificate of
deposit.
Heated currency: It refers to the domestic currency which is under enough pressure of depreciation. It is due
to the hard currency’s tendency to exiting the economy. It is also known as currency under heat or under
hammering.
 Hard currency refers to money that is issued by a nation that is seen as politically and economically stable.
Hard currencies are widely accepted around the world as a form of payment for goods and services and may be
preferred over the domestic currency.
A hard currency is expected to remain relatively stable through a short period of time, and to be highly liquid
in the forex or foreign exchange (FX) market. The most tradable currencies in the world are the U.S. dollar
(USD), European euro (EUR), Japanese yen (JPY), British pound (GBP), Swiss franc (CHF), Canadian dollar
(CAD) and the Australian dollar (AUD). All of these currencies have the confidence of international investors
and businesses because they are not generally prone to dramatic depreciation or appreciation. A soft currency
denotes the currency that is easily available in any economy in its forex market.
14. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Consumer price index (CPI) inflation is the headline measure used by the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI) for the conduct of monetary policy. In terms of the provisions of the RBI Act, the target for
headline inflation is 4 per cent with a tolerance band of +/- 2 per cent. Rural and Urban CPI indices are varied
in their rates and basket of goods. for example Food has a weight of 54.18% in the CPI rural index and only
36.29% in the urban index. Also, the urban index takes into consideration housing prices that are not a part of
the rural index.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The CPI-IW is compiled and disseminated by the Labour Bureau on a monthly basis.
It measures changes in the retail prices of a fixed basket of goods and services being consumed by an average
working-class family. Recently, the Ministry of Labour and Employment released the new series of Consumer
Price Index for Industrial Worker (CPI-IW) with base year 2016. The new series of CPI-IW with base 2016 has
replaced the existing series with base 2001.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: When food and energy prices are omitted from the CPI, the remaining basket is
commonly referred to as the core CPI. The overall measure of CPI, which includes food and energy, is often
referred to as the headline CPI. Hence increase in food and energy prices does not increase CPI Core inflation
rates.
15. Answer: C
Explanation:
● All statements are correct: Forbearance is a temporary postponement of mortgage payments. It is a form of
repayment relief granted by the lender or creditor in lieu of forcing a property into foreclosure. Forbearance
provides the borrower time to repay delinquent mortgage sums. This is advantageous to the struggling borrower,
but offering forbearance also benefits the loan owner, such as a bank, which frequently loses money on
foreclosure after paying the fees associated with the process. But a prolonged forbearance policy can be
associated with negative consequences.
ADVERSE IMPACT OF FORBEARANCE ON BANK PERFORMANCE AND LENDING
 Undercapitalization of Banks: A policy of prolonged forbearance has the effect of overstating the actual
capital and creating a false sense of security. Viewed differently, forbearance lets undercapitalized banks operate
without raising capital. Thus, forbearance could impact banks adversely.
 Ever-greening of Loans: One way of ever-greening loans is lending a new loan to a borrower on the verge of
default, near the repayment date of an existing loan, to facilitate its repayment. Such transactions go undetected
as banks are not required to disclose them, unlike restructurings that warrant disclosures. Forbearance resulted
in increased lending to firms with poor fundamentals and higher lending to inefficient projects and a larger part
of the credit seems to have been used to keep dead loans alive by ever-greening.
 Weakening of Corporate Governance in Borrowers benefitting from forbearance: The forbearance regime
witnessed a significant increase in credit supply to corporate with poor operating metrics and a simultaneous
decrease in their investment-to-debt ratio. This suggests that the increased credit supply was not used
productively by firms. This credit was instead diverted for the private benefit of the incumbent management.
 Deterioration in performance of borrowers benefiting from forbearance: As a consequence of the
weakened governance, the impacted firms’ performance deteriorated. Firms benefitting from restructuring
during the forbearance regime, on average, turned loss-making.
 Increased defaults by borrowers benefitting from forbearance: Subsequent to the deterioration in their
fundamentals, restructured firms in the forbearance window also witnessed a decrease in their credit ratings.
The average credit rating for a firm deteriorated by 7.7% upon restructuring during the forbearance regime. The
forbearance regime also accompanied an increase in defaults by restructured firms when compared to a decrease
in the same in the pre-forbearance era. Restructuring in the pre-forbearance era seems to have helped distressed
and defaulting borrowers repay their debt and undo their defaulter tag. However, firms benefitting from
restructuring during the forbearance window, on average, started defaulting more.
16. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: A bond is a debt instrument. It can be traded in financial markets like equities and other
commodities. It is used by governments and corporates to raise capital in order to fund development projects.
Bonds issue coupons, which are interest payments made in part to the repayment of the capital that was
borrowed. Unlike equities, which are vulnerable to the vagaries of the stock market, investing in bonds is a
relatively safer proposition since the capital is returned on maturity. However, the returns on bonds may not be
comparable to those of equities. Bond holders are free to sell their bonds before maturity. The returns accrued
by holders are measured by the yield, which is the rate of interest paid as coupons. Yield is calculated as the
coupon divided by the value of the bond. It is multiplied by 100 to be expressed in percentage. In effect, yield
= (coupon/value)*100) Bond yields are significantly affected by monetary policy. When interest rates are low,
bond prices increase because investors are seeking a better return. For example, when the RBI slashes the repo
rate from 4% to 2%. If there's a bond trading on the market that's paying 4%, that's suddenly going to be a lot,
and everyone's going to want it. So, an increase in the demand increases the bonds' price.
 Statement 2 is correct: Bond yield is inversely proportional to its current value. The greater the yield, the lower
the current market price of the bond. In the above case, because one is paying more for the bond, its yield
becomes less. The increased demand for the bond results in rising bond prices and falling yields. Inflation refers
to the rate at which prices for goods and services rise. In general, when interest rates are low, the economy
grows and inflation increases. Conversely, when interest rates are high, the economy slows and inflation
decreases.
17. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Option C is correct: 1, 2 and 3 (National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change, Rural Infrastructure
Development Fund, Tribal Development Fund) are associated with the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD).
 The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) was established in August, 2015 to meet the
cost of adaptation to climate change for the State and Union Territories of India that are particularly vulnerable
to the adverse effects of climate change. The projects under NAFCC prioritizes the needs that builds climate
resilience in the areas identified under the NAPCC (National Action Plan on Climate Change). NABARD has
been designated as National Implementing Entity (NIE) for implementation of adaptation projects under
NAFCC.
In addition NABARD is also supporting other projects many of which can be classified under climate finance.
Over 28% of NABARD’s cumulative disbursements have links with climate change adaptation and mitigation.
 Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF): The Government of India in 1995-96, set up the Rural
Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF), to be operationalized by NABARD towards financing of the ongoing
rural infrastructure projects in irrigation sector.
 Tribal Development Fund (TDF): NABARD created the Tribal Development Fund (TDF) with a corpus of
Rs. 50 crore to promote sustainable participatory livelihood program which inter alia, aim at economic uplift
through sustainable agriculture, social empowerment, improvement in quality of life including health and
women development, in tribal predominant areas.
 The National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) is a fund created in 2010-11 using the carbon tax - clean energy
cess - for funding research and innovative projects in clean energy technologies of public sector or private sector
entities, upto the extent of 40% of the total project cost. The Fund is designed as a non lapsable fund under
Public Accounts and with its secretariat in Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
18. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Option B is the correct: Currency appreciation means an increase in the value of the domestic currency against
foreign currency, in other words, it can buy more units of the foreign currency than earlier. On the other side
currency depreciation means a fall in the value of the domestic currency against foreign currency and domestic
currency can buy less units of the foreign currency than earlier. If the Rupee appreciates on a large scale, imports
become cheaper and exporters earn less. It may exacerbate the Current Account Deficit of the country. Hence
judicious interventions in forex markets and monetary policy are required to prevent a large one-sided
appreciation in the rupee. Some of the interventions can be
 Accumulation of forex reserves by RBI: To ensure that we remain competitive the Centre and the RBI may have
decided not to allow further rupee appreciation and the central bank started absorbing the huge dollar inflows. This
increases the demand for the dollar in the market which helps in preventing the appreciation of the rupee.
 Following expansionary Monetary Policy: It increases rupee currency supply without a corresponding
increase in the supply of dollars and as a result the dollar will strengthen, Indian rupee can be prevented from
appreciation.
 Sale of Government securities will decrease the rupee currency supply in the market. It results in the
strengthening of the Indian rupee which leads to appreciation. Similarly encouraging foreign capital outflows
result in a decrease in the dollar supply. As a result, the dollar will strengthen and results in rupee depreciation.
19. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The term Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs) refers to primary cooperative banks
located in urban and semi-urban areas. These banks, till 1996, were allowed to lend money only for non-
agricultural purposes. This distinction does not hold today.
The following regulatory measures have been taken with regard to UCBs:
 Revision in the target for priority sector lending: To promote financial inclusion, the overall priority sector
lending target for Urban Co-operative Banks has been increased from the present level of 40 per cent of
adjusted net bank credit (ANBC) to 75 per cent of ANBC by March 31, 2024.
 All co-operative banks have been advised of their inclusion as Eligible Lending Institutions under the
'Interest Subvention Scheme (ISS) for MSMEs 2018' of the Government.
 Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) with assets of `500 crore and above were brought under the CRILC
reporting framework. UCBs shall report credit information on all borrowers having aggregate exposures of
`5 crores and above with them to CRILC.
The Banking Regulation Act has been amended by the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020. The key
changes are:
 Statement 2 is correct: The Reserve Bank has been given powers over the management of the UCBs, including
approval for appointment and removal of Chairman/MD/CEO.
 Statement 3 is correct: Provisions of the revised Act will enable UCBs to raise capital by issue of equity/
preference/special shares and debentures/bonds/like securities subject to such conditions as the Reserve Bank
may specify. The Reserve Bank has been empowered to supersede the Board of Directors of a UCB.
20. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: National Housing Bank was set up in July, 1988 under the National Housing Bank Act,
1987. NHB is the apex financial institution for housing. It was once a wholly-owned subsidiary of Reserve Bank of
India (RBI). Now it is wholly owned by Government of India after Govt. of India bought the complete stake in NHB.
 Statement 2 is correct: NHB RESIDEX, India’s first official housing price index (HPI), was launched in July,
2007, to track the movement in prices of residential properties in select cities on quarterly basis, taking 2007 as
the base year. It captures two housing price indices viz. HPI at Assessment Prices for 50 cities and HPI at
Market Prices for Under Construction Properties for 50 cities. This index is used to be computed taking FY2012-
13 as base year and is updated up to March 2018. With effect from April 2018, a new series with FY2017-18 as
new base year has been published and is updated up to the current quarter.
21. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: National Savings Certificates (NSC) are savings bonds offered under the India Post office
small saving schemes and are fixed-income investment schemes. It works under the Department of Economic Affairs,
Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Hence it is not an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India.
 Statement 2 is correct: The government has promoted the National Savings Certificate as a savings scheme for
individuals. Hence, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) and trusts cannot invest in it. Furthermore, even non-resident
Indians (NRI) cannot purchase NSC certificates. The scheme is open only to individual Indian resident citizens.
 Statement 3 is correct: All deposits or collections from small savings schemes are credited to the 'National
Small Savings Fund (NSSF), established in the Public Account of India, which came into force in 1999. All
withdrawals by the depositors are made out of the accumulations in this Fund. The balance in the Fund is
invested in special Government securities as per norms decided from time to time by the Central Government.
22. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Coal India Limited (CIL) is an Indian central public sector undertaking under the
ownership of the Ministry of Coal, Government of India. It is headquartered in Kolkata. It was established in
1916, as one of the oldest offices in the Indian Coal sector. It aimed to adequately have Government control to
meet the coal requirement during First World War. But this organization's role does not ensure that coal mining
companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.
 Statement 2 is correct: Coal Controller functions as the Commissioner of Payment to settle the claim cases of
colliery owners (Owner of a coal mine and its connected buildings) of the pre-nationalization period under the
Coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) act, 1972, the Non-coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973 and
also for the Schedule-I Coal Mines as per the Coal Mines (Special Provision) Act, 2015.
 Statement 3 is correct: Coal Controller’s Organisation released some reports are:
 Annual Coal & Lignite survey
 Provisional Coal Statistics
 Coal Directory of India
● Statement 4 is correct: The role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO) is to regulate the disposal of
stock of coal or the expected output of coal in the colliery as per the Colliery Control Rules, 2004.
 Commercial coal mining is permitted, and 50 blocks will be available to the private sector.
 The government will relax entry requirements due to eliminating the rule requiring "washed" coal for power plants.
 Instead of being a fixed cost, coal blocks would be made available to private businesses on a revenue-
sharing basis.
 The income share will be reduced as an incentive for coal gasification or liquefaction.
 The central government will create rights to extract coal bed methane (CBM) from coal mines owned by
Coal India for auction.
23. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: To accelerate and widen the reach of digital banking services, the concept of Digital
Banking Units (DBUs) has been introduced by the Reserve Bank of India. Digital Banking Units (DBUs) is a
specialised fixed point business units/hubs housing certain minimum digital infrastructure for delivering digital
banking products & services as well as servicing existing financial products & services digitally, in both self-
service and assisted modes, to enable customers to have cost-effective/ convenient access and enhanced digital
experience to/ of such products and services in an efficient, paperless, secured and connected environment with
most services being available in self-service mode at any time, all year round.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Scheduled Commercial Banks (other than RRBs, PBs and LABs) with past digital banking
experience are permitted to open DBUs in Tier 1 to Tier 6 centres, unless otherwise specifically restricted, without
needing to take permission from the Reserve Bank of India in each case. Thus, Commercial Banks like Regional Rural
Bank, Local Area Bank and Payments Banks are not allowed to open Digital Banking Units.
 Statement 3 is correct: DBUs will act as an enabler in the digital ecosystem and improve customer experience
by facilitating seamless banking transactions. Also, it augments our efforts to promote financial inclusion by
providing banking services in a paperless, efficient, safe and secure environment. DBUs will provide a variety
of digital banking facilities to people such as opening savings accounts, balancecheck, print passbooks, transfer
of funds, investment in fixed deposits, loan applications, stop-payment instructions for cheques issued, applying
for credit/debit cards, view statement of account, pay taxes, pay bills, make nominations ,insurance etc. On the
credit delivery front, the DBUs will provide end-to-end digital processing of small ticket retail, and MSME
loans, starting from online applications to disbursals. They will also provide services related to certain
government-sponsored schemes.
24. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in 1975 under the provisions of
the Ordinance promulgated on 26th September 1975 and Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976 with a view to
developing the rural economy by providing, for the development of agriculture, trade, commerce, industry and
other productive activities in the rural areas, credit and other facilities, particularly to small and marginal
farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans and small entrepreneurs, and for matters connected. According to the
2014 amendment to the act in an RRB, 50% shall be held by the central government, 15% by the concerned
state government and 35% by the sponsor bank. At present, there are 43 RRBs sponsored by a dozen commercial
banks. The Regional Rural Bank Amendment Act 2015 enabled these banks to access the capital market outside
their current shareholders — the central government, sponsor banks and the respective state governments —
which hold shares in each RRB in the ratio of 50:35:15
 Statement 2 is correct: BASEL Norms were introduced to strengthen the international banking system and to
coordinate banking regulations across the globe. At the same time, the objective of Basel Norms III is to increase
banks' liquidity and decrease bank leverage which applies to all Commercial Banks in India except Small
Finance Banks, Payment Banks, Regional Rural banks and Local Area Banks in India.
25. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: CSF is a reserve fund created to meet the repayment obligations of the Government.
The interest accrued and accumulated in the Fund is utilized towards the redemption of outstanding liabilities
of the Government.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The State Governments constitute GRF to meet their obligations arising from
guarantees issued on behalf of State level bodies. Collected Funds can be utilized only for payment of guarantees
issued by the Government in respect of bonds issued/ other borrowings by their State level undertakings/ other
bodies. Whereas a Special Drawing Facility (SDF) is being provided to State Government by RBI against the
collateral of their investment in marketable securities issued by the Government of India.
 Statement 3 is correct: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages two reserve funds on behalf of State
Governments to meet their contingent liabilities;
 Consolidated Sinking Fund (CSF)
 Guarantee Redemption Fund (GRF)
26. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Option B is the incorrect answer: Capital Expenditures of the Government result in the Creation of physical
or financial assets or a reduction in financial liabilities, whereas Loans given by the Central Government to state
government are called capital expenditures. Capital payments consist of capital expenditure on ➢ the acquisition
of assets like land, buildings, machinery, and equipment,
 As also investments in shares, loans and
 Creation of assets like schools, colleges, hospitals, roads, bridges, dams, railway lines, airports and seaports
 The Central Government grants advance to state and union territory governments, government
companies, corporations and other parties.
 Option (a) and (c) is correct: Revenue Expenditure is expenditure incurred for purposes other than the Creation
of physical or financial assets of the central Government. Whereas Interest payment is considered Revenue
expenditure as it does not create any asset.
 Option (b) is incorrect: Capital expenditure leads to the Creation of assets and allows the economy to generate
revenue for many years by adding or improving production facilities and boosting operational efficiency. Along
with the Creation of assets, Loan repayment is also capital expenditure, as it reduces liability. Capital
Expenditure always leads to the Creation of Assets or reduction of liabilities, as it does not create any liability.
 Option (d) is correct: The multiplier effect is an economic term referring to the proportional increase or
decrease in final income resulting from an injection or withdrawal of capital. The finance minister said that
every Rs 1 spent on CAPEX multiplies Rs 2.45 in the immediate year and Rs 3.14 worth of effect in the
following years. In contrast, Every Rs 1 spent on revenue expenditure gives a 45-paise multiplier effect in the
immediate year, and in the year next, it gives an additional 10-paisa multiplier. So, the amount sent on CAPEX
has a better multiplier effect than revenue expenditure.
27. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: RBI triggers the Prompt Corrective Action when banks breach certain regulatory
requirements like minimum capital, return on asset, and quantum of non-performing assets. The process or mechanism
under which such actions are taken is known as Prompt Corrective Action or PCA. The trigger points are,
 Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio
 Non-Performing Assets of the bank (NPA)
 Leverage or Total debt level
 Profitability - Return on Assets.
According to RBI's new guidelines, Capital, Asset quality, and Leverage will be the three key areas for
monitoring in the revised framework. RBI removes Profitability as the criteria for the regulations under PCA.
 Statement 2 is correct: Reserve Bank of India introduced a PCA for Scheduled Commercial Banks in 2002
and the same has been reviewed from time to time based on the experience gained and developments in the
banking system. As NBFCs have been growing in size and have substantial interconnectedness with other
segments of the financial system in 2021, RBI decided to put in place a PCA Framework for NBFCs to further
strengthen the supervisory tools applicable to NBFCs. It will be applicable for all deposit-taking NBFCs —
excluding government NBFCs, primary dealers, and housing finance companies — and other non-deposit-
taking NBFCs in the middle, upper, and top layers.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The mandatory actions that will be taken by the RBI if PCA is imposed on the banks are,
 Submission and implementation of the capital restoration plan
 Restriction on the expansion of risk-weighted assets
 Restriction on entry into new lines of business
 Paying off costly deposits and CDs
 Reduction/suspension of dividend payment
Likewise, the discretionary actions are,
 Ordering of recapitalization
 Reduction in stake in subsidiaries
 Shedding risky business
 Restrictions on borrowings from the interbank market
 Revision of credit/investment strategy and control
There are various actions and not just one as mentioned in the statement.
28. Answer: D
Explanation:
 Option D is correct: Crowding-in is a phenomenon that occurs when higher government spending leads to an
increase in economic growth and therefore encourages firms to invest due to the presence of more profitable
investment opportunities. The crowding-in effect is observed when there is an increase in private investment
due to increased public investment, for example, through the construction or improvement of physical
infrastructures such as roads, highways, water and sanitation, ports, airports, railways, etc.
Crowding in effect:
 The macroeconomic theories such as chartalism and Post-Keynesian posit that government borrowing, in a
modern economy operating significantly below capacity, can actually increase demand by generating
employment, thereby stimulating private spending as well. This process is often referred to as "crowding in."
 The crowding in theory has gained some currency among economists in recent years after it was noted that,
during the Great Recession of 2007–2009, massive spending on the part of the federal government on bonds
and other securities had the effect of reducing interest rates.
Crowding out effect:
 The crowding out effect is an economic theory arguing that rising public sector spending drives down or even
eliminates private sector spending.
 There are three main reasons for the crowding out effect to take place:
 Economics
 Social welfare, and
 Infrastructure
29. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Twin deficit refers to the fiscal and current account deficit.Fiscal deficit means higher
expenditure over income. The gap between expenditure and income is bridged through borrowing from market.
The term current account deficit is derived from current account balance. According to the OECD, the current
account balance of payments is a record of a country's international transactions with the rest of the world. The
current account includes all the transactions (other than those in financial items) that involve economic values
and takes place between resident and non-resident entities. Current Account Deficit (Trade deficit) and Fiscal
Deficit often reinforce each other, i.e., a high fiscal deficit leads to higher CAD and vice versa.
 Statement 2 is correct: Purchasing power parity is defined as the number of units of a country’s currency
required to buy the same amount of goods and services in the domestic market as one dollar would buy in the
US. The technique of purchasing power parity allows us to estimate what exchange between two currencies is
needed to express the accurate purchasing power of the tow currencies in the respective countries. Under PPP,
we measure the GDP of India by measuring how much milk Rupee can purchase in India and One Dollar can
purchase in the US. In case, one dollar in the US can purchase one liter of milk whereas Rs 30 can purchase one
liter of milk in India. $ 1 = Rs 30 This is the purchasing power parity exchange rate we obtained. PPP method
compares different countries' currencies through a "basket of goods" approach. Purchasing power parity (PPP)
allows economists to compare economic productivity and living standards between countries.
 Statement 3 is correct: REER is the real effective exchange rate (a measure of the value of a currency against a
weighted average of several foreign currencies) divided by a price deflator or index of costs. The weights are determined
by comparing the relative trade balance of a country's currency against that of each country in the index. An increase in
a Nation's REER is an indication that its exports are becoming more expensive and its imports are becoming cheaper.
It is losing its trade competitiveness. A nation's nominal effective exchange rate (NEER), adjusted for inflation in the
home country, equals its real effective exchange rate (REER). Therefore REER takes into account the impact of
domestic inflation while calculating exchange rate between two countries.
30. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: All Non-Banking Financial Companies are not entitled to accept public deposits.
Only those NBFCs to which the Bank had given a specific authorization and have an investment grade rating
are allowed to accept/ hold public deposits to a limit of 1.5 times of its Net Owned Funds.
i. The NBFCs are allowed to accept/renew public deposits for a minimum period of 12 months and a maximum
period of 60 months. They cannot accept deposits repayable on demand.
 Statement 2 is correct: ii. NBFCs cannot offer interest rates higher than the ceiling rate prescribed by RBI
from time to time. The present ceiling is 12.5 percent per annum. The interest may be paid or compounded at
rests not shorter than monthly rests.
 Statement 3 is correct: iii. One of the salient features of NBFCs is, they cannot offer gifts/incentives or any
other additional benefit to the depositors.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: iv. The deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee
Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in the case of banks, and therefore, the depositors
of NBFCs are neither insured nor guaranteed.
 A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 o engaged in the
business of loans and advances, o acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or
local authority o or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, o chit business
But does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase
or sale of any goods (other than securities), or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of the immovable
property. A non-banking institution which is a company and has the principal business of receiving deposits under any
scheme or arrangement in one lump sum or installments by way of contributions or in any other manner is also a non-
banking financial company (Residuary non-banking company).
Difference with banks

 NBFCs lend and make investments and hence their activities are akin to that of banks; however, there are a few
differences as given below:
i. NBFC cannot accept demand deposits;
ii. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves;
iii. The deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to
depositors of NBFCs, unlike in the case of banks.
31. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Option C is correct: Headline inflation refers to the change in value of all goods in the basket. Core inflation
excludes food and fuel items from headline inflation. Since the prices of fuel and food items tend to fluctuate
and create ‘noise’ in inflation computation, core inflation is less volatile than headline inflation. Headline
inflation is the raw inflation figure reported through the Consumer Price Index (CPI) that is released monthly
by the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS).
32. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The Securities and Exchange Board of India was constituted as a non-statutory body
on April 12, 1988 through a resolution of the Government of India and later Securities and Exchange Board of
India was established as a statutory body in the year 1992 and the provisions of the Securities and Exchange
Board of India Act, 1992 (15 of 1992) came into force on January 30, 1992. So presently it is a statutory body.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: SEBI performs the function of registration and regulation of the working of venture
capital funds and collective investment schemes including mutual funds. SEBI Board consists of a Chairman
and several other whole-time and part-time members. SEBI is a quasi-legislative and quasi-judicial body which
can draft regulations, conduct inquiries, pass rulings and impose penalties. It also works for promoting and
regulating self-regulatory organizations and prohibiting fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to
securities markets. By Securities Laws (Amendment) Act, 2014, SEBI is now able to regulate any money
pooling scheme worth Rs. 100 cr. or more and attach assets in cases of noncompliance.
33. Answer: C
Explanation:
 All statements are correct: NBFID has been set up as a corporate body with authorised share capital of one
lakh crore rupees. Shares of NBFID may be held by:
I. Central Government,
II. Multilateral Institutions,
III. Sovereign Wealth Funds,
IV. Pension Funds,
V. Insurers,
VI. Financial Institutions,
VII. Banks
VIII. Any other institution prescribed by the central government. Initially, the central government will own
100% shares of the institution which may subsequently be reduced up to 26%.
 NBFID will have both financial as well as developmental objectives:
Financial objectives will be to directly or indirectly lend, invest, or attract investments for infrastructure projects
located entirely or partly in India. Central government will prescribe the sectors to be covered under the
infrastructure domain. Developmental objectives include facilitating the development of the market for bonds,
loans, and derivatives for infrastructure financing.
Functions of NBFID include:
 extending loans and advances for infrastructure projects,
 taking over or refinancing such existing loans,
 attracting investment from private sector investors and institutional investors for infrastructure projects,
 organising and facilitating foreign participation in infrastructure projects,
 facilitating negotiations with various government authorities for dispute resolution in the field of
infrastructure financing, and
 providing consultancy services in infrastructure financing.
● NBFID may raise money in the form of loans or otherwise both in Indian rupees and foreign currencies, or
secure money by the issue and sale of various financial instruments including bonds and debentures. NBFID
may borrow money from:
 central government,
 Reserve Bank of India (RBI),
 scheduled commercial banks,
 mutual funds, and
 multilateral institutions such as World Bank and Asian Development Bank.
 NaBFID shall be regulated and supervised as an All India Financial Institution (AIFI) by the Reserve Bank
under Sections 45L and 45N of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. It shall be the fifth AIFI after EXIM Bank,
NABARD, NHB and SIDBI.
34. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Option A is correct: Government of India encourages private entrepreneurs and fish farmers in creation of
fisheries infrastructure facilities. In order to achieve 20 million tonnes of fish production by 2022-23, Fisheries
and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund (FIDF) was created with an estimated fund outlay of
Rs7522.48 Crore.
 FIDF provides concessional finance to the Eligible Entities (EEs), including State Governments/Union
Territories and State entities for development of identified fisheries infrastructure facilities through Nodal
Loaning Entities (NLEs) namely:
o National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD),
o National Cooperatives Development Corporation (NCDC) and
o All scheduled Banks–All the Private Beneficiaries/ Private Entrepreneurs.
● Under the FIDF, the Department of Fisheries provides interest subvention up to 3% per annum for providing
the concessional finance by the NLEs at the interest rate not lower than 5% per annum. Loan lending period
under FIDF is five years from 2018- 19 to 2022-23 and maximum repayment period of 12 years inclusive of
moratorium of 2 years on repayment of principal. National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB), Hyderabad
is the Nodal Implementing Agency for FIDF Scheme.
35. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) and Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)
were launched in India by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not by the Reserve Bank of India.
 Statement 2 is correct: Real Estate Investment Trusts or REITs and Infrastructure Investment Trusts or InvITs
are similar to mutual funds that pool investors’ money and offer a regular income (dividends) which helps in
long-term capital appreciation. Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) and Infrastructure Investment Trusts
(InvITs) are traded over the stock exchange. Recently, SEBI, a market regulator, amended REITs and InvITs
regulations, as the trading lot size of REITs has been reduced from around 200 units to 1 unit. Hence, it makes
easy entry and brings in more liquidity through increased trading volumes, allowing retail investors to access
investment options easily. And smaller minimum trading quantities (no minimum amount that is needed to trade
in the stock market) make REITs more liquid than InvITs.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) is alarge trading lots (refers to the number
of shares bought in one transaction), and the higher unit price of InvITs, makes them less liquid. REITs are more
liquid since they have a lower unit price than InvITs. Therefore, InvITs are not more liquid compared to REITs.
36. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Debt Recovery Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body formed under the Recovery of Debts
Due to Banks and Financial Institutions (RDDBFI) Act, 1993 to facilitate the recovery of loans by banks and
financial institutions to the customers. The act provides for the establishment of Tribunals for expeditious
adjudication and recovery of debts due to banks and financial institutions [insolvency resolution and bankruptcy
of individuals and partnership firms] and matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The Act aims to
safeguard the interest of banks and financial institutions as lenders, while not discouraging borrowers.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Tribunal has all the powers vested with the District Court. DRT follows the legal
procedure by emphasizing speedy disposal of the cases and fast implementation of the final order.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Debt Recovery Tribunals are not companies, as we know that Tribunals in India
could be established only through an act of Parliament, which specifies the purpose of each and DBT is also
regulated by the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interests
Act (SARFAESI Act), 2002. Hence they are not regulated by the Companies Act of 1956.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: The Central government has raised "the pecuniary limit from Rs 10 lakh to Rs 20
lakh for applying recovery of debts in the Debts Recovery Tribunals by banks and financial institutions. As a
result, any bank or financial institution or a consortium of banks or financial institutions cannot approach DRTs
if the amount due is less than Rs 20 lakh. Whereas the corporate bodies have access to National Company Law
Tribunal under the Insolvency Bankruptcy Code rather than the DRT to solve their discrepancies.
37. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Option A is incorrect: Supply-side inflation is defined as because of less supply, the overall price level
increases due to higher production costs, which reflects increased prices of goods and commodities. Buffers
may act as one of the reasons for inflation when there is a disruption in the supply side. When the hidden buffer
stocks are released into the economy, it acts as an effective measure by the Government against the inflation
caused by the supply-side bottleneck.
 Option B is incorrect: The severity of supply chain bottlenecks increases when behavioral change occurs on
the part of supply chain participants. At different stages of the supply chain, goods hoarding occurs due to
anticipation of shortages that exacerbate the bottleneck—taking strict action by the Government against the
hoarding of goods acts as an effective measure in times of inflation.
 Option C is correct: Raising indirect taxes like sales tax leads to an increase in the price of the products that
will further burden the consumers at the time of inflation, so this measure by the Government may be
counterproductive.
 Option D is incorrect: At the time of inflation, waiving any taxes or import duty on the products for the short
supply will reduce the product's price and control the inflation. So, this measure by the Government is
considered productive.
ADDITONAL INFORMATION:
38. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Foreign Exchange Rate (also called Forex Rate) is the price of one currency in terms
of another. It links the currencies of different countries and enables comparison of international costs and prices.
Generally, the demand for foreign currency arises from the traders who have to make payments for imported
goods. For example, if a person wants to invest his capital in a foreign country, he requires the currency of that
country. Likewise, the supply of foreign currency arises from the exporters who have exported goods and
services to foreign countries.
 Statement 2 is correct: People demand foreign exchange because they want to purchase goods and services
from other countries, they want to send gifts abroad and, they want to purchase financial assets of a certain
country. A rise in the price of foreign exchange will increase the cost (in terms of rupees) of purchasing a foreign
good. This reduces demand for imports and hence the demand for foreign exchange also decreases (while other
things remaining constant).
39. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a negotiable money market instrument issued in
dematerialized form or as a Promissory Note against funds deposited at a bank or other eligible financial
institution for a specified time period. Guidelines for the issue of CDs are presently governed by various
directives issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as amended from time to time.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Certificate of Deposits (CDs) may be issued by,
⮚ Scheduled Commercial Banks
⮚ Regional Rural Banks and
⮚ Small Finance Banks but not by the Local Area Banks
⮚ CDs issued by the All India Financial Institution shall be guided by the Directions contained in RBI
guidelines, as amended from time to time.
● Statement 3 is correct: CDs shall be issued only in dematerialized form and held with a depository registered
with the Securities and Exchange Board of India. CDs shall be issued in a minimum denomination of ₹5 lakh
and multiples of ₹5 lakh thereafter. The tenor of a CD at issuance shall not be less than seven days and shall not
exceed one year. Thus, Minimum deposit should not be less than 5L from the single subscriber
40. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Venture capital is a type of private equity investing that involves investment in earlier-
stage businesses that require capital. In return, the investor will receive an equity stake in the business in the
form of shares.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: A convertible note is an instrument issued by a start-up company evidencing receipt
of money initially as debt, which is repayable at the option of the holder, or which is convertible into a such
number of equity shares of such start-up company within a period not exceeding five years from the date of
issue of the convertible note, upon the occurrence of specified events as per the other terms and conditions
agreed to and indicated in the instrument. Thus, the maximum period for conversion is not exceeding 5 years
from the date of issue, which is not 6 months.
 Statement 3 is correct: Depositary Receipt (DR) is an instrument used by domestic companies to raise money
outside the country. Some of its examples are American Depositary Receipts (ADRs) and Global Depositary
Receipts (GDR).
41. Answer: D
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: A chit fund is a close-ended group lending scheme. It is called ‘Chit Fund’ as a piece
of paper is used for writing a bid amount, known as a chit. It doesn’t fall under the jurisdiction of the RBI but
is a legal entity, registered with and regulated by, the state governments under the Chit Funds Act of 1982.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The cost of borrowing and the return to savers depend on the bidding process, it is
uncertain, varies for each participant, and can be calculated only ex-post. It is calculated as the winning bid plus
the commission of the chit fund intermediary, which is currently around 5% of the full lump-sum amount,
divided by the number of participants.
42. Answer: D
Explanation:
 Option D is correct: The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), also
known as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MNREGS) is Indian legislation
enacted on August 25, 2005. The MGNREGA provides a legal guarantee for one hundred days of employment
in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled
manual work at the statutory minimum wage. The Ministry of Rural Development (MRD), Govt of India is
monitoring the entire implementation of this scheme in association with state governments. This act was
introduced with an aim of improving the purchasing power of the rural people, primarily semi or un-skilled
work to people living below poverty line in rural India. It attempts to bridge the gap between the rich and poor
in the country. Roughly one-third of the stipulated work force must be women.
 Adult members of rural households submit their name, age and address with photo to the Gram Panchayat. The
Gram Panchayat registers households after making enquiry and issues a job card.
 The job card contains the details of adult member enrolled and his /her photo. Registered person can submit an
application for work in writing (for at least fourteen days of continuous work) either to Panchayat or to
Programme Officer.
 The Panchayat/Programme officer will accept the valid application and issue dated receipt of application, letter
providing work will be sent to the applicant and also displayed at Panchayat office. The employment will be
provided within a radius of 5 km: if it is above 5 km extra wage will be paid.
Eligibility Criteria
 Must be Citizen of India to seek MGNREGA benefits.
 Job seeker has completed 18 years of age at the time of application.
 The applicant must be part of a local household (i.e. application must be made with local Gram Panchayat).
 Applicant must volunteer for unskilled labour.
Key facts
 MGNREGA guarantees hundred days of wage employment in a financial year, to a rural household whose
adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. Individual beneficiary oriented works can be taken
up on the cards of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, small or marginal farmers or beneficiaries of
land reforms or beneficiaries under the Indira Awaas Yojana of the Government of India. Within 15 days
of submitting the application or from the day work is demanded, wage employment will be provided to the
applicant. Right to get unemployment allowance in case employment is not provided within fifteen days of
submitting the application or from the date when work is sought.
 Receipt of wages within fifteen days of work done.
 Variety of permissible works which can be taken up by the Gram Panchayaths.
 MGNREGA focuses on the economic and social empowerment of women.
 MGNREGA provides “Green” and “Decent” work.
 Social Audit of MGNREGA works is mandatory, which lends to accountability and transparency.
 MGNREGA works address the climate change vulnerability and protect the farmers from such risks and
conserve natural resources.
 The Gram Sabha is the principal forum for wage seekers to raise their voices and make demands.
 It is the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat which approves the shelf of works under MGNREGA and
fix their priority.
43. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Sovereign borrowing means raising the money from foreign markets by issuing
government bonds by the government/central bank of a country. Global interest rates are at historic lows, so the
government should tap the potential and allocate needed money for country’s growth and development.
Borrowing in dollars is expected to be cheaper, and hence, bring down the interest that the government pays on
its debt.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It may lead to the rupee appreciating against the dollar, at least in the short-run. When
the bonds are sold and the dollars (or any other foreign currency for that matter) are brought back to India, they
will have to be converted into rupees. This will push up the demand for rupees and eventually lead to the rupee
appreciating in value against the dollar.
 Statement 3 is correct: In the short-term, an appreciating rupee will hurt India's exports, which are struggling
already. It will make imports cheaper and hurt domestic producers competing against them. Government of
India had launched “Make in India” scheme to promote manufacturing in India. But with the appreciation of
rupee, imports will be cheaper and it may impact the make in India initiative.
 Statement 4 is correct: Excessive levels of foreign debt can hamper countries' ability to invest in their economic
future—whether it be via infrastructure, education, or health care—as their limited revenue goes to servicing
their loans. This thwarts long-term economic growth.The United Nations has also linked high levels of foreign
debt and a government's dependency on foreign assistance to human rights abuses. Economic distress causes
governments to cut social spending, and reduces the resources it has to enforce labour standards and human
rights, the U.N. says.
44. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Convertible Paper Money refers to the currency notes which are freely convertible
into full-bodied money (gold or silver) at any time at the option of the holder. The individuals can get their
paper money converted into cash. However, 100% backing of gold or silver is not desired as all the notes in
circulation are not simultaneously presented for conversion and it is freely convertible money that is the intrinsic
value is equal to its face value.
 Statement 2 is correct: The paper money is backed by gold and silver reserves. But, on the assumption that all
the currency notes are not simultaneously presented by the public for encashment and the value of metallic
reserves is less than the value of the notes issued. The reserves comprise of (i) metallic portion containing gold,
silver and standard coins, and (ii) fiduciary portion containing approved securities. Generally, the public gets
gold and silver in exchange for paper money for making foreign payments.
45. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The concept of bad bank was pioneered at the Pittsburgh-headquartered Mellon Bank
in 1988. Bad Bank would set up as a separate entity that would buy the Non- Performing Asset from other banks
to free up their books for fresh lending. It is focused on the task of recovery.
 Statement 2 is correct: The Public Sector Asset Rehabilitation Agency (PARA) colloquially called “Bad Bank”
is a proposed agency to assume the Non-Performing Assets (NPA) of public sector banks in India and to deal
with the recovery of the bad loans. This agency has been proposed in Economic Survey 2016-17. The main
function of PARA would be to take. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has initiated Prompt Corrective Action
(PCA) against public sector lender Allahabad Bank, owing to its high net Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) and
negative Return on Assets (RoA) for two consecutive years. The action would contribute to the overall
improvement in risk management, asset quality, profitability, efficiency of the bank.
46. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: ADB is a regional development bank established on 19th December 1966. ADB now
has 68 members, 49 from within Asia. ADB is headquartered in Manila, Philippines.
 Statement 2 is correct: India is a founding member of ADB and the bank's fourth largest shareholder. Since
commencing operations in 1986, ADB has aligned its operations in the country to the government's developing
priorities. This approach will be pursued through the forthcoming country partnership strategy, 2023–2027.
 Statement 3 is correct: ADB is an official United Nations Observer. : Asian Development Bank. It aims to
promote social and economic development in Asia. ADB is committed to achieving a prosperous, inclusive,
resilient, and sustainable Asia and the Pacific, while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty..
Recently, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) has provided a $1.5 billion loan to India to fund India's
immediate response to the Covid-19 pandemic. Earlier, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) had assured Indian
government of $2.2 billion (about Rs 16,500 crore) supports to fight against the Covid-19 pandemic.
47. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option B is correct: “Command and Control”: In the period from 1950 to 1990, the Central Govt. used to plan
everything regarding how much production of major items (steel, cement, coal etc..) will be done, what should
be the capacity of the plant, on which technology the plant will be based and accordingly government used
decide almost everything from top to down. Decisions were not based on market forces of demand and supply
rather were controlled/commanded by the Central Govt. This started easing out after 1991 LPG Reforms. “Plug
and Play”: Plug and Play in literal sense is used to describe devices that work with a computer system as soon
as they are connected. For example, a video card or hard drive may be a Plug and Play device, meaning the
computer will recognize it as soon as it is installed. Government’s interpretation regarding “Plug and Play” is
that it will provide all the supporting materials/ policy support/ land and Infrastructure and the private
businessmen will have to just set up their business and start activity without any red tape or bureaucratic
hurdles/control.
48. Answer: D
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Services are not traded/transacted in the wholesale markets. So, WPI data does not
include the inflation due to services
 Statement 2 is correct: CPI includes inflation in services and goods both.
 Statement 3 is correct: When goods are imported in India, first they move to the wholesale mandis and then they come
in the retail markets. So, wholesale prices and retail prices both get impacted because of the imported goods.
 Statement 4 is correct: The goods purchased by consumers in the retail market do not represent all the goods
produced in the country (like inputs, intermediates and capital goods are purchased by the companies), so CPI
does not include these items but WPI takes into account of all such goods.
49. Answer: D
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The country’s forex reserves as on end March 2023 stood at $560 billion, while
India’s external debt stood at $610.5 billion as on end Sept. 2022. So, if we want to pay of the complete external
debt, it is not possible as forex reserves are less than the external debt.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The country’s one-year import of goods and services for FY 2021-22 is around $750
billion. So, our forex reserves will not be able to cover the entire one-year imports.
50. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The objective of this initiative is to enable ‘Infrastructure Creation through
Monetization’ wherein the public and private sector collaborate, each excelling in their core areas of
competence, so as to deliver socio-economic growth and quality of life to the country’s citizens.NMP estimates
aggregate monetization potential of Rs 6.0 lakh crores through core assets of the Central Government and
Central Public Sector Enterprises, over a four-year period, from FY 2021-22 to FY 2024-25.Considering that
infrastructure creation is inextricably linked to monetization, the period for NMP has been decided so as to be
co-terminus (end together) with balance period under National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP).The various sectors
under NMP are roads, ports, airports, railways, warehousing, gas & product pipeline, power generation and
transmission, mining, telecom, stadium, hospitality, and housing
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The pipeline has been developed by NITI Aayog, in consultation with infrastructure
line ministries.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The strategic objective of the program is to unlock the value of investments in brown-
field public sector assets by tapping institutional and long-term patient capital, which can thereafter be leveraged
for further public investments. Modality of such unlocking is envisaged to be by way of structured contractual
agreements (PPP agreements/concessions) as against complete privatization and through Infrastructure
Investment Trusts (InvIT). Assets would be handed back to the Govt. at the end of the contract/transaction
period. NMP consists of brown-field assets, which have been de-risked from execution risks. Monetization
through disinvestment and monetization of non-core assets have not been included in the NMP. Asset
Monetization needs to be viewed not just as a funding mechanism, but as an overall paradigm shift in
infrastructure operations, augmentation and maintenance considering private sector’s resource efficiencies and
its ability to dynamically adapt to the evolving global and economic reality.
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT-9 - CA- March'23 & April'23

(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
B
D
Maximum Marks :100
INSTRUCTIONS
BOOKLET.
the Answer Sheet.
question.
PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2024 | pPLT - 9
the Paika Rebellion: the Mekedatu Dam Project:
1. The Paikas were peasant militias of the 1. The Mekedatu Dam project is being
Gajapati rulers of Odisha who offered constructed across the Cauvery River in
military services to the kings while Karnataka.
taking up cultivation during peacetime. 2. The project has been opposed by the
2. The rebellion was led by Bakshi state of Kerala, which claims that it will
Jagabandhu Bidyadhar, a military affect its water supply.
commander in the army of the King of
3. The project is expected to generate 500
Khurda.
MW of hydroelectric power.
3. It was the first ever armed rebellion
4. The Union government has approved
against Company rule in India in 1817.
the project despite objections from the
4. The rebellion was against the
state government of Tamil Nadu.
extortionist land revenue policy of the
East India Company in Odisha. How many of the statements given above
(b) Only two (c) Only three
(d) All four
2. Consider the following statements regarding regarding Bank Recapitalisation:
the Disaster Management Plan of the 1. It is a process through which the
Ministry of Panchayati Raj: government infuses capital into public
1. It aims to strengthen the capacity of sector banks.
Panchayati Raj Institutions to manage 2. The recent Bank Recapitalisation plan
disasters at the local level. was announced by the Reserve Bank of
2. It has been implemented in all the states India in its monetary policy statement.
and Union Territories in India. 3. The aim of Bank Recapitalisation is to
3. It includes a framework for developing strengthen the balance sheets of banks
community-based disaster management and enable them to increase lending.
plans.
4. It is a one-time exercise and doesn't
4. It is primarily focused on mitigating the
require any follow-up action.
impact of natural disasters only.
are correct?
are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
5. Consider the following the statements about 7. Consider the following statements regarding
the space debris. the Manas National Park:
1. The Space Debris Monitoring and 1. It is the located in the state of Assam
Mitigation System has been developed by and is the one of the UNESCO World
the Indian Space Research Organization Heritage Site in India.
to track space debris. 2. The Park has recently seen a significant
2. The space debris issue has become more rise in the population of the flagship
critical with the increase in satellite species, the Bengal Tiger.
launches by private companies.
3. Manas National Park is home to the
3. The Inter-Agency Space Debris
only population of wild water buffalo in
Coordination Committee is responsible
India.
for coordinating space debris mitigation
efforts among space agencies.
are correct?
4. The Kessler Syndrome refers to the
decrease in Space Debris in the low (a) Only one
Earth. (b) Only two
How many of the statements given above are (c) All three
correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 8. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) Only three MSMEs:
(d) All four 1. The Government of India has launched
a new scheme called ‘MSME Prerana’
6. Consider the following statements related to to provide free-of-cost handholding and
the National Digital Tourism Mission: technical support to MSME
1. It was launched by the Ministry of entrepreneurs.
Tourism to promote digitalization in the 2. The government has proposed a
tourism industry. ₹50,000 crore equity infusion into the
2. The mission focuses solely on promoting MSME sector in the Union Budget
domestic tourism and does not include 2022-23.
any provisions for international tourism 3. As per the latest amendments to the
for now. MSMED Act, enterprises with an
3. The mission is being implemented in annual turnover of up to Rs. 100 crores
collaboration with the Ministry of are classified as micro, small, and
Electronics and Information Technology. medium enterprises.
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
the Sariska Tiger Reserve: respect to IPCC’s Sixth Assessment Report:
1. The Sariska Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan 1. The report has concluded that it is
has reported the highest tiger density unequivocal that human influence has
warmed the atmosphere, oceans, and
among India's 50 tiger's reserves.
land.
2. Recently, tigers have been relocated
2. The report predicts that the sea level rise
from Ranthambore National Park and could exceed 2 meters by the end of the
other reserves to increase the genetic century if greenhouse gas emissions are
diversity of the population. not reduced.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The report states that there is no need
correct? for immediate action to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only two
(c) All three
10. Consider the following statements regarding (d) None
Genome Editing:
1. Genome editing is a technique that 12. Consider the following statements regarding
allows scientists to make precise Tapi, Par, Narmada River Interlinking
Project:
changes to an organism's DNA.
1. The project aims to interlink rivers Tapi
2. Recently, scientists have used genome
and Par in Gujarat, and rivers Narmada
editing to develop a gene therapy to and Tapi in Maharashtra.
treat genetic diseases like sickle cell 2. The project is expected to benefit the
anaemia. farmers in the drought-prone areas of
3. The use of genome editing in Gujarat and Maharashtra.
agriculture has been widely accepted 3. The project has been approved by the
globally. central government and is currently
under implementation.
are correct?
are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(d) None (d) None
13. Consider the following statements regarding 15. Consider the following statements on
‘One Nation One Election’: Uniform Civil Code (UCC):
1 The UCC is a proposal to replace the
1. It refers to holding elections for all
personal laws based on religious
states and Lok Sabha at the same time. scriptures and customs with a common
2. The implementation of the concept set of civil laws for all citizens of India.
would require amendments to the 2. The UCC has been a part of the Directive
Principles of State Policy in the Indian
Constitution of India.
Constitution since its inception in 1950.
3. The Election Commission of India has 3. The UCC has been implemented in India
already implemented the One Nation through the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
One Election concept in the country. and the Special Marriage Act, 1954.
How many of the statements given above 4. The implementation of UCC will
eliminate discrimination against women
are correct?
and marginalized sections in matters of
(a) Only one marriage, divorce, inheritance, and
(b) Only two adoption.
(c) All three How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(b) Only two
14. Consider the following statements regarding (c) Only three
the Black Sea: (d) All four
1. Georgia and Bulgaria also border the
16. Consider the following statements related to
Black Sea.
Nari Shakti Puraskar:
2. It is connected to the Mediterranean Sea 1. The Nari Shakti Puraskar is an annual
through the Bosporus Strait. award conferred by the Ministry of
3. The sea's ecosystem is being threatened Women and Child Development.
2. The award recognizes exceptional work
by oil spills and pollution from
towards women's empowerment and
agricultural and industrial runoff. gender equality.
4. The sea has high salinity levels 3. In 2022, the award was given to women
compared to other seas of the same size. who made significant contributions to the
field of sports.
are correct?
correct?
(d) None
(d) All four
17. Consider the following statements regarding 19. Consider the following statements related to
Bucharest Nine (B9): the practice of wearing hijab:
1. It is a political forum which brings 1. The European Court of Human Rights
together nine countries of Central and has ruled that the wearing of hijab is not
Eastern Europe that are members of an essential religious practice.
NATO. 2. France has banned the wearing of hijab
in public places.
2. Ukraine is a part of Bucharest 9.
3. The United States has also banned the
3. The main objective of the B9 is to
wearing of hijab in public places.
promote regional security, stability, and
cooperation among its members. are correct?
4. Recently, India has expressed interest in (a) Only one
joining the B9 as an observer country. (b) Only two
How many of the statements given above (c) Only three
are correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 20. Consider the following statements related to
(c) Only three the Hornbill Nest Adoption Program
(HNAP):
(d) All four
1. It is a conservation program initiated by
the Government of India to protect the
habitat of Hornbills.
Bamiyan Buddhas:
2. It involves individuals and
1. Bamiyan Buddhas are located in organizations adopting hornbill nests
Tajikistan. and providing a safe environment for
2. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. the birds to breed and thrive.
3. The restoration work of Bamiyan 3. It is only focused on a particular species
Buddhas has been completed by the of hornbill found in the Western Ghats.
Indian government with the support of 4. It has been successful in increasing the
UNESCO and other international population of hornbills in India.
partners. How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) Only three
(b) Only two
(d) All four
(c) All three
(d) None
21. Consider the following statements regarding 23. Consider the following statements regarding the
Indian Wolf: Net neutrality:
1. It is the principle that Internet service
1. It is classified as "endangered" on the
providers must enable access to all content
IUCN Red List. and applications regardless of the source.
2. It is found only in the forests of the 2. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of
Western Ghats. India has issued regulations upholding net
neutrality in India.
3. It is considered a keystone species in its
3. The Federal Communications Commission
ecosystem
in the United States repealed net neutrality
How many of the statements given above regulations in 2017.
are correct? 4. The European Union has no regulations
(a) Only one protecting net neutrality.
(b) Only two
correct?
(c) Only three
22. Consider the following statements about the (d) All four
Olive Ridley Turtles:

1. India and Bangladesh have signed an Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH):
MoU for the conservation of Olive 1. RBIH has been established to promote
Ridley Turtles under the BIMSTEC. innovation across the financial sector
2. Olive Ridley turtles are listed as ecosystem and facilitate effective
communication between regulatory bodies
endangered on the IUCN Red List of
and other stakeholders.
Threatened Species. 2. RBIH aims to develop technology-based
3. The major nesting sites for Olive Ridley solutions to enhance financial inclusion
turtles in India are located along the and strengthen risk management.
eastern coast of Odisha. 3. The RBIH initiative is part of the
government's Digital India campaign.
4. Olive Ridley turtles primarily feed on
4. The RBIH initiative is a joint venture
jellyfish. between the Reserve Bank of India and the
How many of the statements given above National Payments Corporation of India.
are correct? How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
GSAT 7B: the "Kisan Bhagidari Prathamikta Hamari"
campaign launched by the Government of
1. GSAT 7B is a communication satellite
India:
launched by India.
1. The campaign aims to improve the
2. It was launched to enhance the productivity and income of farmers
communication capabilities of the through partnership and participation.
Indian Armed Forces. 2. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers
3. The satellite was launched by ISRO's Welfare and associated Ministries
launched the campaign.
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle.
3. The campaign seeks to promote the use
4. GSAT 7B is equipped with advanced of technology and innovation in
communication technologies such as agriculture.
Ku-band and Ka-band transponders. 4. The campaign provides direct financial
How many of the statements given above assistance to farmers for crop cultivation
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
patent filing:
the Bagdogra Airfield:
1. A patent is a legal document that grants
1. It is a civil enclave airport operated by the inventor the exclusive right to make,
the Indian Air Force in Odisha. use, and sell an invention for a certain
2. It acts as a gateway to the hill stations period of time.
of Darjeeling and Gangtok. 2. In India, a patent is granted if the
invention meets the requirements of
3. Bagdogra Airfield is primarily used as a
novelty, inventive step, and industrial
military base by the Indian armed applicability.
forces. 3. A provisional patent application is a
How many of the statements given above complete patent application that has not
are correct? yet been examined by the patent office.
(a) Only one
correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(d) None
Mariupol: the Counter-Cyclical Capital Buffer
1. Mariupol is a city in western Ukraine, (CCCB):
located on the northern coast of the Sea
1. It is a capital buffer maintained by
of Azov.
2. It is an important industrial centre, with banks to withstand cyclical downturns.
a large steel and iron industry. 2. It is implemented as a percentage of a
3. Mariupol was under the control of pro- bank's risk-weighted assets.
Russian separatists from 2014, before 3. It is a permanent buffer and cannot be
being retaken by the Ukrainian
released even during periods of
government.
economic downturn.
4. The conflict in Mariupol began when
Russia annexed Crimea in 2014. How many of the statements given above
(a) Only one
are correct?
(d) All four

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):
the Main Airframe Fatigue Test (MAFT):
1. It is primarily used to determine the 1. AIM is a flagship initiative of the NITI
maximum number of flight cycles an Aayog to promote entrepreneurship and
aircraft can safely undergo before it innovation in India.
requires maintenance. 2. AIM launched the AIM-iCREST
2. It is conducted on a full-scale airframe
initiative to promote innovation and
of an aircraft to simulate the stress and
strain experienced during the actual entrepreneurship among school
flight conditions. students.
3. It was first conducted by ISRO in the Which of the statements given above is/are
1960s. correct?
(a) 1 only
are correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) Only one
(d) None
Kalinga Temple Architecture: GAGAN:
1. It is characterized by the use of 1. It is a satellite-based navigation system
sandstone and khondalite rocks in the developed jointly by the Indian Space
construction of temples. Research Organization and NASA.
2. It broadly corresponds to the Vesara 2. It uses GPS and satellite-based
style of temple architecture. augmentation system to provide
3. The tower is called jagmohan and the accurate and reliable navigation
hall is called deul. services.
4. Lingaraj Temple is built in the Kalinga 3. It is presently operational and is used by
style of Temple Architecture. several airlines operating in India.
34. Consider the following statements about the 36. Consider the following statement regarding
Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
Kwar Hydroelectric Project:
1. FATF's recommendations are
1. The Kwar Hydroelectric Project is a
recognized as the global anti-money
proposed run-of-the-river hydroelectric
laundering and counter-terrorist
power plant located on the Ravi river.
financing standards.
2. The project is being developed by the
2. It was established by the G20 countries.
National Hydroelectric Power
3. Pakistan was recently removed from the
Corporation and has a proposed
FATF's grey list.
capacity of 1 Giga Watt.
37. Consider the following statements regarding 39. Consider the following statements about Olive
the Punjab-Haryana dispute over river waters: Ridley turtles and Indian tent turtles:
1. The dispute is primarily over the sharing 1. Olive Ridley turtles are critically
of waters from the Sutlej-Yamuna Link endangered, while Indian tent turtles are
2. (SYL) canal, which was supposed to of least concern.
transport water from Punjab to Haryana. 2. The main threats to Olive Ridley turtles
are habitat loss and human activity, while
3. The SYL canal is partially built but has
Indian tent turtles are threatened by
remained incomplete due to
illegal trade and overexploitation for
disagreements between the two states. food.
4. The Supreme Court ruled in favour of 3. Both Olive Ridley and Indian tent turtles
Punjab and directed Haryana to complete are protected under the Wildlife
the construction of the SYL canal. Protection Act of India and Convention
How many of the statements given above are on the Conservation of Migratory Species
correct? of Wild Animals.
(a) Only one How many of the statements given above are
(b) Only two correct?
(a) Only one
(c) Only three
(b) Only two
(d) All four
(c) All three
(d) None
Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA)
in North East India:
'Tree City of the World' (TCW) program:
1. AFSPA was first enacted to control 1. The TCW tag is awarded to cities that
insurgency and maintain law and order in prioritize urban forestry and sustainable
the North East. development.
2. Under AFSPA, security forces have the 2. The TCW program is led by the United
power to search and arrest individuals Nations Environment Programme
without a warrant, (UNEP).
3. The security forces can use force, even to 3. Indore became the first Indian city to
the point of causing death, in certain receive the TCW tag in 2021.
situations. 4. The TCW tag has no specific criteria and
4. The central government has recently is awarded based on a city's self-reported
removed AFSPA from Nagaland. data.
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
41. Consider the following statements about 43. Consider the following statements about the
Green Hydrogen: Bernardinelli-Bernstein Comet:
1. It is produced using renewable energy 1. It was discovered by astronomers at the
sources and has no carbon emissions.
Dark Energy Survey at an astronomical
2. The cost of producing Green Hydrogen
observatory in Chile.
is rising rapidly in recent years despite
advances in renewable energy 2. The comet has been travelling towards
technology and economies of scale. the sun for over a million years and it is
3. Green Hydrogen is not likely to replace believed to have originated in the Oort
fossil fuels in transportation and Cloud.
industry applications. 3. It poses a potential threat to Earth in the
How many of the statements given above near future.
are correct?
(a) Only one
are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(c) All three
Intelligent Transportation Systems (ITS):
1. ITS is a set of technologies that use 44. Consider the following statements regarding
communication and information
the Current Account Deficit (CAD):
systems to improve transportation
1. India's CAD widened to 3% of GDP in
safety and efficiency.
2. The deployment of ITS has been slow the third quarter of the fiscal year 2021-
due to the high cost of implementing 22.
these systems. 2. The increase in CAD is primarily due to
3. The use of ITS is limited to developed rising crude oil prices and a decrease in
countries with advanced infrastructure. services exports.
4. The COVID-19 pandemic has 3. Relying too heavily on foreign capital
accelerated the adoption of ITS
to finance CAD can increase a country's
technologies in the transportation
vulnerability to external shocks.
sector.
the Standing Deposits Facilities (SDF): United Nations Population Fund’s (UNFPA)
1. It is a tool for absorbing liquidity in the State of World Population 2022:
banking system without any collateral. 1. The report highlights the importance of
investing in sexual and reproductive
2. It is introduced by the Reserve Bank of
health and rights to achieve gender
India to enable banks to park their equality and sustainable development.
surplus funds with the RBI and earn 2. According to the report, the global
interest on it. population is expected to reach 12 billion
3. The SDF is only available to scheduled by 2050.
commercial banks in India. 3. The report highlights that gender-based
4. The interest rate on SDF is lower than violence is one of the major barriers to
the reverse repo rate. achieving gender equality and sexual and
How many of the statements given above reproductive health and rights.
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
Perseverance Rover: the draft rules for Online Gaming:
1. Perseverance Rover is a robotic Mars 1. The rules require online gaming
exploration mission that was launched platforms to verify the age and identity of
by the European Space Agency. users before allowing them to play.
2. The rover has a primary mission of 2. The rules mandate that gaming
companies must set up a grievance
astrobiology, including the search for
redressal mechanism for user complaints.
signs of ancient microbial life on Mars.
3. The rules impose a limit on the amount of
3. The rover carries the first helicopter to money that can be deposited by users into
fly on another planet, called Ingenuity. their gaming accounts.
4. The rover's landing site is in the Jezero 4. The rules require online gaming
Crater, which is believed to be an companies to store user data in servers
ancient lakebed. located within India.
How many of the statements given above How many of the statements given above are
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) Only three
(d) All four
(d) All four
the draft rules for the European the Steel Slag Road:
Organization for Nuclear Research 1. The use of Steel Slag increases both
(CERN): carbon emissions and energy
1. CERN is an intergovernmental consumption during the construction
organization that operates the world's process.
largest particle physics laboratory. 2. It is not a sustainable alternative to
2. The draft rules have been proposed to traditional road construction materials
ensure that scientists from all countries like asphalt and concrete.
can participate in CERN’s research 3. It has been successfully used in the
activities. construction of the Delhi-Mumbai
3. The proposed rules would require Expressway.
member states to guarantee the free How many of the statements given above
movement of people and goods related are correct?
to CERN’s research activities. (a) Only one
4. India is not a member state of CERN. (b) Only two
How many of the statements given above (c) All three
are correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
*******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)

PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2024 | Pplt-9
1. Solution: (D) All four statements are correct.

Explanation:
● The Paika Rebellion took place in Odisha during the year 1817. Statement 1 is Correct.
● The Paikas were peasant Militia of the Gajapati rulers of Odisha who offered military services to the
kings while taking up cultivation during peacetime.
● Statement 2 is Correct: The rebellion was led by Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar, a military commander
in the army of the King of Khurda.
● Statement 3 and 4 is Correct. It was the first ever armed rebellion against Company rule in India in 1817.
The rebellion was against the extortionist land revenue policy of the East India Company in Odisha.
2. Solution: (C) Only three statements are correct.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The Disaster Management Plan of Ministry of Panchayati Raj aims to strengthen
the capacity of PRIs to manage disasters at the local level. The plan recognizes the crucial role played by
PRIs in managing disasters as they are closest to the communities that are affected by disasters. The plan
seeks to build the capacity of PRIs to plan, respond, and recover from disasters by providing them with
the necessary tools, resources, and training.
Statement 2 is correct. The Disaster Management Plan of Ministry of Panchayati Raj was launched in
2017. It has been implemented in all the states and Union Territories in India.
Statement 3 is correct. The plan includes a framework for developing community-based disaster
management plans. The plan recognizes the importance of involving local communities in disaster
management and encourages the development of community-based disaster management plans to ensure
that the specific needs and vulnerabilities of each community are addressed.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Disaster Management Plan of Ministry of Panchayati Raj is focused on
managing disasters in general, not just natural disasters. The plan recognizes that disasters can be caused
by a variety of factors, including natural hazards, technological accidents, and human-induced events, and
seeks to build the capacity of PRIs to manage all types of disasters.
3. Solution: (A) Only one statement is correct.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The Mekedatu Dam project is being constructed across the Cauvery River in
Karnataka.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The state of Tamil Nadu has been opposing the project, claiming that it will
affect its water supply.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The project is expected to generate 400 MW of hydroelectric power, provide
irrigation facilities to around 50000 hectares of land, and meet drinking water requirements of the region.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Union government has given in-principle approval for the project, but the
final clearance is subject to several conditions, including the sharing of the Cauvery water between the
two states.
4. Solution: (B) Only two statements are correct.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Bank Recapitalisation is a process through which the government infuses capital
into public sector banks to strengthen their balance sheets and enable them to increase lending.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The recent Bank Recapitalisation plan was announced by the Ministry of
Finance, not the Reserve Bank of India, in order to support public sector banks in meeting regulatory
capital norms.
Statement 3 is correct. The aim of Bank Recapitalisation is to strengthen the balance sheets of banks and
enable them to increase lending. This helps to improve the flow of credit in the economy, which is essential
for economic growth.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Bank Recapitalisation is not a one-time exercise and may require follow up
action depending on the situation of the banks. The government may need to infuse capital into banks
multiple times to maintain their solvency and ensure that they meet regulatory requirements

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The Space Debris Monitoring and Mitigation System (SDMM) has been
developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) to track space debris. This system helps to
identify and track space debris objects in low Earth orbit, which helps to mitigate the risk of collisions
with operational spacecraft.
Statement 2 is correct. The space debris issue has become more critical with the increase in satellite
launches by private companies. With the advent of commercial space activities, the number of objects in
space has increased dramatically, which has increased the risk of collisions and created more debris.
Statement 3 is correct. The Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee (IADC) is responsible
for coordinating space debris mitigation efforts among space agencies. This committee is composed of
representatives from various space agencies around the world and works to develop best practices for
space debris mitigation.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Kessler Syndrome refers to a theoretical scenario in which the density of
objects in low Earth orbit is so high that collisions between objects could cause a cascade of collisions,
leading to the destruction of most satellites in orbit.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The National Digital Tourism Mission was launched by the Ministry of Tourism
in January 2021 to promote digitalization in the tourism industry The mission aims to create a
comprehensive digital ecosystem for the tourism sector, including digital payments, online booking
systems, and other digital services to enhance the tourist experience.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The National Digital Tourism Mission focuses on promoting both domestic and
international tourism through digital means. It seeks to provide a seamless and hassle-free experience for
tourists across all stages of their journey, from pre-travel to post-travel.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Digital Tourism Mission is being implemented in collaboration with
the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology to leverage its expertise in the digital domain and
provide the necessary technological infrastructure for the mission's success.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Manas National Park is indeed located in the state of Assam and is one of the
UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India. It is known for its unique biodiversity and natural beauty.
Statement 2 is correct. According to recent news, the population of Bengal tigers in Manas National Park
has indeed seen a significant rise. This is a result of successful conservation efforts and increased
protection measures.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Manas National Park is home to the wild water buffalo in India. However they
are also found in other national parks like the Kaziranga National Park.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The government of Uttar Pradesh has launched a new scheme called "MSME
Prerana" to provide free-of-cost handholding and technical support to MSME entrepreneurs.
Statement 2 is correct. In the Union Budget 2022-23, the government has proposed a Rs. 50,000 crore
equity infusion into the MSME sector to support the growth of small and medium-sized enterprises. The
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act was enacted in 2006 to facilitate the
promotion and development of MSMEs in the country.
Statement 3 is correct. As per the latest amendments to the MSMED Act, enterprises with an annual
turnover of up to Rs. 100 crores are classified as micro, small, and medium enterprises.
9. Solution: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect - Uttarakhand Jim Corbett National Park has reported the highest tiger density
among India's 50 tiger's reserves. Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in the state of Rajasthan, India.
Statement 2 is correct - Additionally, tigers have been relocated from Ranthambore National Park and
other reserves to increase the genetic diversity of the population As per the latest tiger census in 2022, the
reserve now has a population of 17 tigers, up from 14 in 2018.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Genome editing is a technique that allows scientists to make precise changes to
an organism's DNA.
Statement 2 is correct. Recently, scientists have used genome editing to develop a gene therapy to treat
genetic diseases like sickle cell anemia. CRISPR/Cas9 is a commonly used genome editing tool.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While the use of genome editing in agriculture is a topic of ongoing debate and
discussion, it has not been widely accepted globally.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The IPCC’s Sixth Assessment Report has concluded that it is unequivocal that
human influence has warmed the atmosphere, oceans, and land. Statement 2 is correct. The report
predicts that the sea level rise could exceed 2 meters by the end of the century if greenhouse gas emissions
are not reduced.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The report emphasizes the need for immediate action to reduce greenhouse gas
emissions in order to limit the temperature rise to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The project aims to interlink Tapi and Narmada rivers in Gujarat, not Tapi and
Par rivers. The project aims to interlink Tapi and Narmada rivers in Gujarat, not Narmada and Tapi rivers
in Maharashtra.
Statement 2 is correct. The project aims to benefit the farmers in the drought-prone areas of Gujarat and
Maharashtra by providing irrigation water and increasing groundwater recharge.
Statement 3 is correct. The project has been approved by the central government and is currently under
implementation.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: One Nation One Election is a concept that aims to hold simultaneous elections to
Lok Sabha and all State Legislative Assemblies of the country. Statement 2 is correct: The
implementation of the One Nation One Election concept would require amendments to the Constitution of
India as it affects the terms and provisions of State Legislative Assemblies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Election Commission of India has not implemented the One Nation One
Election concept in the country yet.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The Black Sea is an inland sea bordered by Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Turkey,
Bulgaria, and Romania.
Statement 2 is correct. The Black Sea is connected to the Mediterranean Sea through the Bosporus Strait,
which is located in Turkey.
Statement 3 is correct. The Black Sea's ecosystem is being threatened by oil spills, pollution from
agricultural and industrial runoff, and overfishing, among other factors. Statement 4 is incorrect. The
Black Sea has low salinity levels compared to other seas of the same size, with an average salinity of
around 18 parts per thousand, which is less than the Mediterranean Sea's average salinity of around 38
parts per thousand.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The Uniform Civil Code aims to create a common set of laws governing personal
matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption, replacing the diverse and often
discriminatory personal laws based on religion or custom. Statement 2 is correct. The UCC has been a
part of the Directive Principles of State Policy since the adoption of the Indian Constitution in 1950.
However, it is a non-justiciable directive and is not legally enforceable
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Hindu Marriage Act and the Special Marriage Act are not considered as
the implementation of the Uniform Civil Code. These laws deal with specific issues related to marriage
and not with the comprehensive personal law code envisaged under the UCC.
Statement 4 is incorrect. While the UCC aims to eliminate discrimination against women and
marginalized sections, its implementation is a matter of debate and is likely to face resistance from some
religious and community groups.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Nari Shakti Puraskar is an annual award conferred by the Ministry of Women
and Child Development to individuals and institutions who have made exceptional contributions towards
the empowerment of women and gender equality in India.
Statement 2 is correct: The award recognizes exceptional work towards women's empowerment and
gender equality across various fields, including social work, education, economic empowerment, and
women's health.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In 2022, the Nari Shakti Puraskar was awarded to women who made significant
contributions in the field of social work, not sports.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Bucharest Nine (B9) is a political forum created in 2014 which brings together
nine countries of Central and Eastern Europe (CEE) that are members of NATO. It aims to facilitate
dialogue and cooperation among its members, with a focus on regional security.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The countries that are part of B9 are Romania, Bulgaria, Hungary, Poland,
Czech Republic, Slovakia, Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania. These countries are members of both NATO
and the European Union (EU).
Statement 3 is correct: The main objective of the B9 is to promote regional security, stability, and
cooperation among its members. The B9 also works to strengthen NATO's eastern flank and supports
NATO's collective defense and deterrence posture.
Statement 4 is incorrect: There has been no recent news about India expressing interest in joining the B9
as an observer country. However, India has participated in B9 meetings in the past as a guest country, and
there have been calls for India to deepen its engagement with the B9 countries to counter growing Chinese
influence in the region.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Bamiyan Buddhas are located in Bamiyan province of Afghanistan.
Statement 2 is correct. which is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The Bamiyan Buddhas were destroyed
by the Taliban in 2001, who considered them to be idolatrous. The destruction of Bamiyan Buddhas was
widely condemned by the international community, including the United Nations and UNESCO.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The restoration work of Bamiyan Buddhas has been carried out by the Afghan
government with the support of UNESCO and other international partners.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The ECHR has ruled that the wearing of hijab is not an essential religious practice
and that the ban on wearing hijab in public places is not a violation of religious freedom.
Statement 2 is correct. France has banned the wearing of face-covering veils, which includes the burqa
and niqab, in public places, not specifically the hijab.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The United States does not have a federal law banning the wearing of hijab in
public places, and such a ban would likely be considered a violation of the First Amendment's protection
of religious freedom.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The Hornbill Nest Adoption Program (HNAP) is a conservation program initiated
by the Government of India to protect the habitat of hornbills.
Statement 2 is correct. HNAP involves individuals and organizations adopting hornbill nests and
providing a safe environment for the birds to breed and thrive.
Statement 3 is incorrect. HNAP is focused on several species of hornbills found in different regions of
India, not just the Western Ghats.
Statement 4 is correct. HNAP has been successful in increasing the population of hornbills in India by
providing a safe breeding habitat for the birds

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian Wolf is classified as "critically endangered" on the IUCN Red List.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian Wolf is found in the arid and semi-arid regions of India. Indian Wolf is
found in the arid and semi-arid regions of India, including the states of Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya
Pradesh. Indian Wolf is a social animal that lives in packs of 6-8 individuals, with a dominant breeding
pair and their offspring.
Statement 3 is correct: Indian Wolf is considered a keystone species in its ecosystem as they play an
important role in regulating the population of prey species and controlling the spread of diseases.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: India and Bangladesh have signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) for
the conservation of Olive Ridley Turtles under the Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and
Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC). Statement 2 is correct: Olive Ridley turtles are listed as endangered
on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Statement 3 is correct: The major nesting sites for Olive Ridley turtles in India are located along the
eastern coast of Odisha.
Statement 4 is correct. It is true that Olive Ridley turtles primarily feed on jellyfish.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Net neutrality is the principle that Internet service providers must enable access
to all content and applications regardless of the source, and without favoritism or bias towards particular
websites or services.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2018, the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) issued regulations
upholding net neutrality in India. These regulations prohibit Internet service providers from discriminating
against certain types of content or charging different prices for access to different websites or services.
Statement 3 is correct: The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) in the United States repealed
net neutrality regulations in 2017
Statement 4 is incorrect: The European Union has regulations protecting net neutrality, including rules
that prohibit Internet service providers from blocking or slowing down traffic to certain websites or
services.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH) has been set up to promote innovation
across the financial sector ecosystem and facilitate effective communication between regulatory bodies
and other stakeholders.
Statement 2 is correct: RBIH aims to develop technology-based solutions to enhance financial inclusion
and access, efficient banking and payment systems, and to strengthen risk management.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The RBIH initiative is not a part of the government's Digital India campaign,
but is an independent initiative of the Reserve Bank of India.
Statement 4 is correct: The RBIH initiative is a joint venture between the Reserve Bank of India and the
National Payments Corporation of India to promote innovation in the payment and settlement systems.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. GSAT 7B is a communication satellite launched by the Indian Space Research
Organization (ISRO).
Statement 2 is correct. GSAT 7B was launched to enhance communication capabilities of the Indian
Armed Forces, particularly in remote areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The satellite was launched by ISRO's Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle
(GSLV-F08).
Statement 4 is incorrect. GSAT 7B is equipped with Ku-band and UHF-band transponders, but not Ka-
band transponders.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Bagdogra Airfield is located in the state of West Bengal, India. Bagdogra
Airfield is a civil enclave airport operated by the Indian Air Force.
Statement 2 is correct. It is the gateway to the hill stations of Darjeeling, Gangtok, Kurseong, Kalimpong,
Mirik, Bagdogra Airfield primarily serves the city of Siliguri and nearby areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Bagdogra Airfield is not primarily used as a military base by the Indian armed forces.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The "Kisan Bhagidari Prathamikta Hamari" campaign aims to improve the
productivity and income of farmers through partnership and participation. The campaign encourages
farmers to be actively involved in decision-making processes and provides them with the necessary support
to enhance their farming practices and increase their income.
Statement 2 is correct: The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare of the Government of India
launched the campaign in 2021.
Statement 3 is correct: The "Kisan Bhagidari Prathamikta Hamari" campaign seeks to promote the use
of technology and innovation in agriculture. The campaign aims to provide farmers with access to the
latest farming techniques and practices.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The "Kisan Bhagidari Prathamikta Hamari" campaign does not provide direct
financial assistance to farmers for crop cultivation. The campaign is focused on improving the productivity
and income of farmers through partnership and participation, rather than providing direct financial
assistance.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A patent is a legal document that grants the inventor the exclusive right to make,
use, and sell an invention for a certain period of time. The inventor can prevent others from making, using,
selling, or importing the invention without permission. Patent filing is a process of submitting an
application for a patent to the patent office of a country. The application must contain a detailed description
of the invention and how it is useful and new.
Statement 2 is correct: In India, a patent is granted if the invention meets the requirements of novelty,
inventive step, and industrial applicability. The invention must be new and not obvious to a person skilled
in the relevant field, and must be capable of industrial application.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A provisional patent application is not a complete patent application. It is a
temporary and relatively inexpensive way to establish a filing date for the invention, which gives the
inventor a priority date for the invention and time to develop the invention further. A provisional patent
application is not examined by the patent office and does not result in a granted patent.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Mariupol is a city in eastern Ukraine, located on the northern coast of the Sea
of Azov. It is the largest city in the Donetsk Oblast region.
Statement 2 is correct: It is an important industrial center, with a large steel and iron industry. The city
has a number of factories, including a large metallurgical plant that is one of the largest in Ukraine.
Statement 3 is correct: Mariupol was under the control of pro-Russian separatists from 2014 to 2014
before being retaken by the Ukrainian government in June 2014. However, there have been ongoing
conflicts and tensions in the region.
Statement 4 is correct: The conflict in Mariupol is part of the wider conflict between Ukraine and Russia.
The conflict began in 2014 when Russia annexed Crimea, and has since involved separatist movements in
eastern Ukraine that are supported by Russia.

Explanation:
The Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) has commenced the Main Airframe Fatigue Test (MAFT) of
the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Mk1 airframe at the Ground Test Centre of the Aircraft Research and
Design Centre (ARDC), Bengaluru.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The MAFT is not primarily used to determine the maximum number of flight
cycles an aircraft can safely undergo before it requires maintenance. Rather, it is used to evaluate the
durability and safety of the airframe under extreme conditions. Maintenance requirements are determined
based on a variety of factors, including the aircraft's operating conditions, usage, and age. The Main
Airframe Fatigue Test (MAFT) is a test conducted to evaluate the durability of an aircraft under extreme
conditions. The test is used to simulate the stress and strain experienced by the airframe during the actual
flight conditions.
Statement 2 is correct: The test is conducted on a full-scale airframe of an aircraft to simulate the stress
and strain experienced during the actual flight conditions. The MAFT is an important tool used in the
development of new aircraft designs and to certify that the aircraft is safe to fly.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The MAFT was first conducted by the National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA) in the 1960s. The test was initially conducted to evaluate the durability of the
wings of the F-111 aircraft.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Counter-Cyclical Capital Buffer (CCCB) is a capital buffer maintained by
banks to withstand cyclical downturns. The CCCB is a type of macro-prudential policy aimed at preventing
or mitigating the adverse effects of economic cycles on the financial system.
Statement 2 is correct: The CCCB is implemented as a percentage of a bank's risk-weighted assets. The
amount of the buffer that a bank must maintain depends on the level of systemic risk and the phase of the
economic cycle. The CCCB is implemented by national authorities in response to cyclical trends in the
economy. The purpose of the buffer is to ensure that banks have sufficient capital to absorb losses during
economic downturns, thereby reducing the risk of systemic instability.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The CCCB is not a permanent buffer and can be released during periods of
economic downturn. The release of the buffer is at the discretion of national authorities and is based on an
assessment of the economic and financial conditions at the time. The buffer is intended to be a
countercyclical tool, meaning that it should be increased during periods of economic expansion and
reduced during periods of contraction.
32. Solution: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: AIM is a flagship initiative of the NITI Aayog launched in 2016 to promote
entrepreneurship and innovation in India. AIM aims to create and support a network of world-class
innovation hubs and start-ups across the country.
AIM provides various schemes, including Atal Tinkering Labs (ATL), Atal Incubation Centers (AIC), and
Atal Community Innovation Centers (ACIC), to foster innovation and entrepreneurship.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2021, AIM launched the AIM-iCREST initiative to promote innovation and
entrepreneurship among school students.

Explanation:
The Indian temples are broadly divided into Nagara, Vesara, Dravida and Gadag styles of architecture.
However, the temple architecture of Odisha corresponds to altogether a different category for their unique
representations called Kalinga style of temple architecture.
Statement 1 is correct: Odisha Temple Architecture is characterized by the use of sandstone, laterite, and
khondalite rocks in the construction of temples.
Statement 2 is incorrect: This style broadly comes under the Nagara style. The temples are built on a
raised platform, and the main temple is surrounded by smaller temples and shrines.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In Kalinga Architecture, basically a temple is made in two parts, a tower and a
hall. The tower is called deul and the hall is called jagmohan. o The walls of both the deul and the jagmohan
are lavishly sculpted with architectural motifs and a profusion of figures. o The most repeated form is the
horseshoe shape, which has come from the earliest times, starting with the large windows of the chaitya-
grihas.
o It is the deul or deula which makes three distinct types of temples in Kalinga Architecture. The temples
are decorated with intricate carvings of deities, animals, and floral designs.
Statement 4 is correct: Konark Sun Temple, Lingaraj Temple, and Jagannath Temple are some of the
famous temples built in the Odisha Temple Architecture style.

Explanation:
FATF is an intergovernmental organization that aims to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
Statement 1 is correct: FATF's recommendations are recognized as the global anti-money laundering
(AML) and counter-terrorist financing (CFT) standards.
Statement 2 is incorrect: FATF was established in 1989 by the G7 countries and later expanded to include
over 200 countries and jurisdictions.
Statement 3 is correct: Pakistan was recently removed from the FATF's grey list.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: GAGAN is an Indian satellite-based navigation system developed jointly by
the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and Airports Authority of India (AAI).
Statement 2 is correct: GAGAN uses GPS and satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS) to provide
accurate and reliable navigation services. GAGAN provides precision navigation services to the aviation
industry in India and the region.
Statement 3 is correct: GAGAN has been operational since 2013 and is currently used by several airlines
operating in India.
36. Solution: D
Explanation:
Recently, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has granted environmental
clearance for the Kwar Hydroelectric Project.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Kwar Hydroelectric Project is a proposed run-of-the-river hydroelectric
power plant located on the Chenab river in Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The project is being developed by the National Hydroelectric Power
Corporation (NHPC) and has a proposed capacity of 540 MW. The project has faced opposition from
environmentalists and local residents who are concerned about the impact of the project on the ecosystem
and the displacement of people living in the area.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The dispute between Punjab and Haryana is primarily over the sharing of waters
from the Sutlej-Yamuna Link (SYL) canal.
Statement 2 is correct: The canal was supposed to transport water from Punjab to Haryana, but
disagreements over the sharing of waters have led to the canal remaining incomplete.
Statement 3 is correct: The SYL canal was partially built in the 1980s but has remained incomplete due
to disagreements between the two states.
Statement 4 is incorrect: In 2016, the Supreme Court ruled in favor of Haryana and directed Punjab to
complete the construction of the SYL canal. However, Punjab has refused to comply with the court's order,
arguing that it does not have enough water to share with Haryana. The dispute has been ongoing for several
decades, there have been protests and violence in both states.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: AFSPA was first enacted in 1958 to control insurgency and maintain law and
order in the North East.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Under AFSPA, security forces have the power to search and arrest
individuals without a warrant, and to use force, even to the point of causing death, in certain situations.
AFSPA has been controversial, with critics arguing that it has led to human rights abuses and violations.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The central government has recently extended AFSPA in Nagaland, despite
opposition from civil society groups.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Olive Ridley turtles are vulnerable, and Indian tent turtles are classified as of
least concern. Both Olive Ridley and Indian tent turtles are found in the coastal regions of India.
Statement 2 is correct. Habitat loss and human activity are indeed major threats to Olive Ridley turtles,
while illegal trade and overexploitation for food are among the main threats to Indian tent turtles.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While both species are protected under the Wildlife Protection Act of India,
Olive Ridley turtles are also protected under international agreements such as the Convention on the
Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The TCW tag is awarded to cities that demonstrate a strong commitment to urban
forestry and sustainable development, including the planting and care of trees, and the protection of green
spaces.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The TCW program is led by the Arbor Day Foundation, a US-based non-profit
organization, in partnership with the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Bengaluru, also known as Bangalore, became the first Indian city to receive the
TCW tag in 2021.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The TCW program has specific criteria that cities must meet in order to be
awarded the tag, including having a tree board or department, having a community forestry program,
spending at least $2 per capita on urban forestry, and holding an annual Arbor Day celebration. Cities
must also submit data to support their application, which is verified by the TCW program before the tag
is awarded.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Green Hydrogen is produced using renewable energy sources and has no carbon
emissions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The cost of producing Green Hydrogen has been falling rapidly in recent years,
driven by advances in renewable energy technology and economies of scale. Many countries, including
Australia and Japan, are investing heavily in the development of Green Hydrogen to reduce their carbon
emissions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Green Hydrogen has the potential to replace fossil fuels in many applications,
including transportation and industry.
42. Solution: (C) Only three statement are correct.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as ITS refers to the use of advanced technologies such as sensors, wireless
communication, and data analytics to improve the safety and efficiency of transportation systems
Statement 2 is correct as the high cost of implementing ITS has been a barrier to its widespread
deployment, although costs have been declining in recent years.
Statement 3 is incorrect as ITS technologies are used in both developed and developing countries, and
are seen as a key tool to address transportation challenges in emerging economies.
Statement 4 is correct as the COVID-19 pandemic has indeed led to increased interest in ITS
technologies, particularly in the areas of contactless payment, real-time passenger information, and remote
monitoring of transportation systems. However, the pandemic is not the only driver of ITS adoption and
the technology has been in development for several years prior to the outbreak.

Explanation:
It was discovered in November 2010 and has been intensively studied since. The Bernardinelli-Berstein
comet follows a 3-million-year-long elliptical orbit and has an estimated temperature of minus 348 degrees
Fahrenheit. It is warm enough to sublimate carbon monoxide (CO) from the surface to produce the dusty
coma.
Statement 1 is correct. The comet was discovered by astronomers Pedro Bernardinelli and Gary Bernstein
in archival images from the Dark Energy Survey at an astronomical observatory in Chile.
Statement 2 is correct. The comet has been travelling towards the sun for over a million years and it is
believed to have originated in the Oort Cloud. Oort Cloud is a distant region of the solar system that is
predicted to be the source of most comets. The Oort Cloud is still only a theoretical concept as the comets
that constitute it are too faint and distant to be directly observed. It was first hypothesised by Dutch
astronomer Jan Oort in 1950. The orbit of the Bernardinelli-Bernstein Comet indicates that it originated
from outside our solar system, making it an interstellar object.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The comet's orbit does not currently pose a threat to Earth, and its trajectory
suggests that it will remain far from our planet.
Explanation:
CAD occurs when a country's total imports exceed its total exports. In other words, it represents the net
outflow of foreign exchange from a country's economy.
Statement 1 is incorrect: India's CAD widened to 1.3% of GDP in the third quarter of the fiscal year
2021-22. This represents an increase from the 0.4% CAD recorded in the same quarter of the previous
fiscal year.
Statement 2 is correct: The increase in CAD is primarily due to rising crude oil prices and a decrease in
services exports. India is a net importer of crude oil, and higher oil prices increase the country's import
bill. Additionally, the COVID-19 pandemic has led to a decrease in demand for services exports such as
IT and tourism.
Statement 3 is correct: While attracting foreign capital can help finance CAD, it is not the only way to
do so. Other measures that can be taken include increasing exports, reducing imports, and increasing
remittances. Additionally, relying too heavily on foreign capital to finance CAD can increase a country's
vulnerability to external shocks.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is a tool for managing liquidity in the banking
system. In 2018, the amended Section 17 of the RBI Act empowered the Reserve Bank to introduce the
Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) – an additional tool for absorbing liquidity without any collateral.
Statement 2 is correct: It is introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to enable banks to park their
surplus funds with the RBI and earn interest on it.
Statement 3 is correct: The SDF is only available to scheduled commercial banks in India. This facility
is not available to cooperative banks or regional rural banks. Statement 4 is incorrect: The interest rate
on SDF is higher than the reverse repo rate. As of March 2023, the interest rate on SDF is 3.5% while the
reverse repo rate is 3.15%.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: NASA’s Perseverance Rover is a robotic Mars exploration mission that was
launched by NASA in July 2020.
Statement 2 is correct: The rover has a primary mission of astrobiology, including the search for signs
of ancient microbial life on Mars.
Statement 3 is correct: The rover carries the first helicopter to fly on another planet, called Ingenuity.
Statement 4 is correct: The rover's landing site is in the Jezero Crater, which is believed to be an ancient
lakebed that may contain evidence of ancient life on Mars.

Explanation:
The United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) released its State of World Population 2022 report, titled
“The Time is Now: Accelerating Action for Gender Equality and Sexual and Reproductive Health and
Rights.”
Statement 1 is correct: The report highlights the importance of investing in sexual and reproductive
health and rights to achieve gender equality and sustainable development. It mentions that investing in
such health services can generate substantial economic benefits and help reduce poverty and inequality.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the report, the global population is expected to reach 9.8 billion
by 2050, not 12 billion.
Statement 3 is correct: The report highlights that gender-based violence is one of the major barriers to
achieving gender equality and sexual and reproductive health and rights. It further states that the COVID-
19 pandemic has worsened the situation, leading to increased cases of gender-based violence globally.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The draft rules require online gaming platforms to verify the age and identity of
users before allowing them to play in order to prevent underage gambling and fraud.
Statement 2 is correct: The rules mandate that gaming companies must set up a grievance redressal
mechanism for user complaints to address issues such as disputes over winnings and loss of virtual items
or currency.
Statement 3 is correct: The rules impose a limit on the amount of money that can be deposited by users
into their gaming accounts in order to prevent addiction and excessive spending on online gaming.
Statement 4 is correct: The draft rules require online gaming companies to store user data in servers
located within India to ensure the protection of user privacy and prevent unauthorized access and misuse
of data.

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: CERN is an intergovernmental organization that operates the world's largest
particle physics laboratory located in Geneva, Switzerland.
Statement 2 is correct: The draft rules have been proposed to ensure that scientists from all countries can
participate in CERN’s research activities.
Statement 3 is correct: The proposed rules would require member states to guarantee the free movement
of people and goods related to CERN’s research activities.
Statement 4 is incorrect: India is an associate member state of CERN since 2017 and has been
collaborating with CERN for several years.

Explanation:
Steel Slag Road is a road construction material made from steel slag, a byproduct of the steel industry.
Steel slag is produced when iron ore is processed into steel, and is often dumped in landfills Recently, the
Indian government has announced plans to promote the use of Steel Slag Road in road construction
projects across the country. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has issued guidelines for the
use of Steel Slag Road, and has encouraged state governments and road construction agencies to adopt the
technology.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The use of Steel Slag Road reduces carbon emissions and energy consumption
during the construction process.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Steel Slag Road is a more sustainable and eco-friendly alternative to traditional
road construction materials like asphalt and concrete. Steel slag is a waste material that can be recycled
and reused, reducing the amount of waste that ends up in landfills.
Statement 3 is correct: Steel Slag Road has been successfully used in various road projects across India,
including the construction of the Delhi-Mumbai Expressway. The use of Steel Slag Road has been found
to reduce the cost of road construction and maintenance, as well as improve the durability and performance
of the roads.
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT – 10 (Environment 1.0)

(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT-10 (Environment 1.0)
A
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
penalty.
question.
1. Consider the following impact of light on 4. Consider the following facts with respect to
plant growth: a type of biome.
1. Extremely high intensity of light
1. It is also called the sclerophyll
favours shoot growth.
2. Red light results in elongated plants ecosystem.
than blue light 2. Leaves are stiff and hard and the stems
Which of the following statement/s is/are have thick barks.
correct?
3. Species of mastic trees are able to close
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only their stomata during dry summer
(c) Both 1 and 2 season.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Mule Deers, rodents and antelopes are
fairly common fauna.
1. Dieback is the process where the leaf Which type of biome is being described
dies from the stem up. here?
2. It is an adaptive mechanism to lack of (a) Boreal
soil moisture.
(b) Steppes
3. Both the roots and shoots die in this
(c) Temperate Deciduous
process of dieback.
How many of the statements given above (d) Savanna
are correct?
(a) Only one 5. Which of the following statements
(b) Only two
regarding aquatic organisms and their zone
(c) All three
(d) None of occurrence is true?
(a) Neuston organisms are found in the
3. Consider the following statements: deepest parts of the ocean.
1. Only photosynthesis takes place in the
(b) Periphyton organisms are commonly
euphotic zone.
2. Only respiration takes place in the found in shallow streams and rivers.
aphotic zone. (c) Nekton organisms are capable of
Choose the correct statement/s: independent horizontal movement in
(a) 1 only
the water.
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 both (d) Benthos organisms are always found on
(d) Neither 1 nor 2. the surface of the water.
Tundra biome:
respect to ecology of any area:
1. Mosses, lichens are largely found on bare
1. Biosphere is structural and functional rocks.
unit of an ecosystem. 2. Animals found in this region include
Reptiles and amphibians like Hyla
2. If one part of the ecosystem is damaged
3. Coastal lowlands support growth of
or disappears, it has a direct impact on reindeer moss which provides the only
other species. pasturage for reindeers.
4. Plants like arctic willow are highly
Which of the following statement(s) is/are
resistant against extreme cold conditions
INCORRECT? and need no special modifications.
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) Only one
(c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All four
7. Which of the following elements circulate 9. With respect to the productivity of an

ecosystem, consider the following statements:
via means of sedimentary cycle?
1. The Gross primary productivity of an
1. Phosphorous ecosystem is the rate of production of
2. Carbon organic matter during photosynthesis.
2. Eutrophication leads to increase in the
3. Calcium
primary productivity of the water body.
4. Magnesium 3. The stable biological community shows
5. Sulphur large variation in productivity from year
to year.
4. Mangroves have higher productivity than
are correct? oceans, grasslands and lakes.
(a) Only two How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(b) Only three (a) Only one
(c) Only four (b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All five
(d) All four
10. Consider the following statement with 12. Consider the following statements regarding
respect to Ecotone: nitrogen:
1. It surrounds an ecosystem and acts like 1. Nitrogen constitutes nearly 40% by
a buffer zone for its protection. weight of all the proteins in living
2. It contains some entirely different tissue.

2. Nitrogen has become a pollutant
organisms from the adjoining
because the amount of Nitrogen fixed
ecosystem.
by man through industrial process has
3. It may have population density of some
far exceeded the amount fixed by the
species greater than the adjoining
Natural Cycle.
ecosystem.
3. Thunderstorms can convert
How many of the statements given above atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
are correct? which is then used by plants.
(c) All three
Bioremediation:
1. It causes complete destruction of target
food web in an ecosystem:
pollutants
1. It increases the instability in an
2. Its advantage is that it can be used
ecosystem.
against both biodegradable and non-bio
2. It improves the adaptability and
degradable compounds. competitiveness of organisms.
3. It takes longer time than other treatment 3. The food web gets disturbed by the
processes. removal of one group of organisms.
(d) None (d) None
14. Consider the following statement/s in 16. Consider the following:
context of Eutrophication: 1. Nudation
1. It happens when the nutrients in the lake
2. Migration
reduces than its requirement
2. It is primarily caused by leaching of 3. Stabilization
phosphate and nitrate containing 4. Reaction
fertilizers. Which one of the following is correct
3. Eutrophication leads to increase in sequential phase in the successional
biodiversity as the nutrient supply is
development of a vegetation community in
enough to maintain increased
biodiversity. a habitat?
How many of the statements given above (a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
are correct? (b) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
(a) Only one
(c) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
(b) Only two
(d) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
(c) All three
(d) None
17. Which of the following are possible impacts
15. Consider the following statements: of Overgrazing?
1. Bio-amplification is an increase in
1. Reduced vulnerability to water and
concentration of a pollutant from the
environment to the first Organism in a wind erosion.
food chain. 2. Increased of water infiltration into the
2. Bioaccumulation is an increase in soil.
concentration of a pollutant from one 3. Increase in the invasion of xerophytic
link in a food chain to another.
plants and burrowing animals.
3. Bio-concentration is the intake and
retention of a substance in an organism 4. Breakdown of the biogeochemical
entirely by respiration from water in cycles of water and nitrogen.
aquatic ecosystems or from air in How many of the statements given above
terrestrial ones.
are correct?
(a) Only one
are correct?
(b) Only two (c) Only three
(c) All three (d) All four
(d) None
18. Which of the following statements about 20 Consider the following statements with
rainforests are true? respect to habitat and environment:
1. Epiphytes are a type of plant found in 1. Life must exist both in the habitat and
rainforests that grow on the trunks and the environment.
branches of trees, having a unique 2. A habitat is always an environment but
ability to absorb nutrients and moisture an environment is not always a habitat.
from the air. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
2. The high level of biodiversity found in INCORRECT?
(a) 1 only
the rainforest ecosystems is critical for
(b) 2 only
maintaining the balance of the global
(c) Both 1 and 2
ecosystem.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. All Forest fires help maintain the health
of the rainforest ecosystem by creating
21. Which of the following is considered a
a nutrient-rich layer of ash that helps to
functional unit of nature, where living
fertilize the soil and promote new
organisms interact among themselves and
growth.
also with the surrounding physical
environment?
are correct?
(a) Niche
(a) Only one
(b) Biosphere
(b) Only two
(c) Ecosystem
(c) All three (d) Biome
(d) None
22. What does the term, ‘buffering capacity of
19. Consider the following statements: the Earth’, imply?
1. Freshwater ecosystems are lotic (a) Ability to maintain a moderate
ecosystems while marine ecosystems temperature in the atmosphere during
are lentic ecosystems. day and night
2. Mangroves and estuarine ecosystems (b) Ability to resist negative effects of solar
are classified as freshwater ecosystems. magnetic rays
Choose the INCORRECT statement/s: (c) Capacity of the Earth to resist pH
(a) 1 only change in soil and water
(b) 2 only (d) Capacity to absorb excessive Green
(c) 1 and 2 both House Gases (GHGs) from the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 atmosphere over time
23. Which of the following statements is/are 25. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the adaptation of desert plants incorrect?
of various species? 1. Acclimatization refers to small changes
1. Thick cuticles on the leaf that take place in the body of a single
2. Stomata are arranged on the surface of organism over short periods.

2. Speciation is a process in which
the leaf
organisms diversify from an ancestral
3. The photosynthetic function is done by
species into a multitude of new forms
the stems
when the environment creates new
challenges.
are correct?
Select the correct code to answer:
24. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly 26. Consider the following statements with
matched? regard to the grazing food chain:
Characteristic : Vegetation 1. The first link in the grazing food chain
features is made up of the consumers who use

plants or parts of plants as food.
1. Canopy : Taiga
2. The primary pathway for energy flow in
Vegetation
an aquatic ecosystem is the grazing
2. Spines : Desert
food chain
Vegetation
3. In a terrestrial ecosystem, the grazing
3. Needle-like leaves : Tropical
food chain is the major conduit for
Vegetation energy flow.
How many pairs are correct which is given How many of the statements given above
below?
are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
27. Consider the following statements with 29. With reference to the effect of sunlight on
regard to the detritus food chain: the growth of plants, which of the following
1. The detritus food chain is a type of food pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
chain that releases energy and nutrients Light : Impact
to the ecosystem. 1. Red light : Elongation of
2. The detritus food chain is very large plant cells
while the grazing food chain is small. 2. Violet and : Dwarfism
3. The detritus food chain helps to fix Ultraviolet
inorganic nutrients. 3. Blue light : Long stem
How many of the statements given above How many given pairs are correctly
are correct? matched:
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
30. Which of the following is /are temperate

28. Consider the following statement(s):
grasslands?
1. Eurythermal organisms are those that
1. Pustaz
are survive in a wide range of
2. Downs
temperatures.
3. Marg
2. Stenohaline organisms are those that
4. Selvas
can survive within a narrow range of
salinity. 5. Campos
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are How many of the statements given above
(a) 1 only (a) Only two
(b) 2 only (b) Only three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only four
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All five
31. Consider the following statements rgarding 34. Consider the following statements:
Desert biome?
1. Aquatic organisms have a broader
1. Seeds have thin coatings to reduce
water requirements. temperature tolerance limit than
2. Cactus plant has deep tap roots to get terrestrial organisms.
access to groundwater.
2. Oxygen is less soluble in warm water,
3. Leaves grow upward in some plants to
increase water availability. and it also enhances decomposer
How many of the statements given above activity.
are correct?
(a) Only one 3. Photosynthetic activity is confined to
(b) Only two the photic zone.
(c) All three
(d) None
are correct?
32. Which of the following adaptations by (a) Only one
desert animals is not correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Camels have broad hooves to prevent
them from sinking in the sand. (c) All three
(b) Desert foxes have large ears to aid in the
(d) None
dissipation of excess body heat during
hot days.
(c) Panting is done to get more air for 35. Which of the following is/are features of a
breathing.
wetland ecosystem?
(d) Some animals undergo aestivation for
survival. 1. Hydric Soil
2. Hydrophytes
33. Which of the following adaptations help
3. Insufficient oxygen in the soil
desert flora to conserve water?
1. Leaves are absent or reduced in size How many of the statements given above
2. Leaves and stems are succulent
are correct?
3. Seeds germinate in winter season
How many of the statements given above (a) Only one
are correct? (b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None
36. Consider the following statements with 38. In which of the following regions, Four-
regard to the lake ecosystem: horned antelope (or Chousingha) is/are
1. It is mainly a lentic ecosystem and is found?
also known as a lacustrine ecosystem.
1. Himalayan Foothills
2. Most life forms in this environment are
2. Central India
poikilothermic, meaning their internal
3. Nilgiris
body temperatures are determined by
their surroundings.
are correct?
3. The diurnal and seasonal temperature
changes are generally very narrow. (a) Only one
are correct? (c) All three

(b) Only two
(c) All three 39. Consider the following statements with
(d) None
regard to the Namdapha flying squirrel:
1. It is found only in the Namdapha

37. Which of the following is/are the
National Park.
characteristics of oligotrophic lakes?
2. Namdapha is situated in the catchment
1. They have a low proportion of oxygen.
area of the Noa- Dihing River and on
2. They contain little biological material.
3. Cold-water fish such as trout, steelhead, the western slope of the Patkai Range.
whitefish, and salmon inhabit them. Which of the above statement(s) is/are

(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None
40. Consider the following statements with 42. Consider the following pairs:
regard to the hangul: State : State Animal
1. It is a subspecies of South Asian Brown 1. Tamil Nadu : Nilgiri Tahr
deer.
2. Madhya Pradesh : Tiger
2. It is found primarily in the Dachigam
3. Manipur : Sangai
National Park located in Kashmir.
How many above pair(s) is/are correctly
3. It is a critically endangered species as
matched?
per IUCN Red List.
(a) Only one
are correct? (b) Only two

(c) All three
(d) None 43 Consider the following statements with
regard to the Sangai deer:
1. It is a subspecies of Eld’s Deer found in
regard to the Red Panda:
South and Southeast Asia.
1. It is found in Sikkim, Arunachal
2. It is also known as a dancing deer and is
Pradesh, and the northern districts of
West Bengal. found only at the Keibul Lamjao
2. It is the state animal of Arunachal National Park.
Pradesh. 3. Phumdis are a series of floating islands,

3. It feeds mainly on bamboo shoots and exclusive to the Loktak Lake in
leaves, as well as on fruits and Manipur state.
blossoms. How many of the statements given above
are correct?
are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None
regard to the Red Sanders: regard to the Pyrostria Laljii:

1. This species is usually found in
1. It is mainly found in tropical dry
Madagascar.
deciduous forests of Southern India. 2. The first record of the genus Pyrostria
2. Its IUCN Red List status is endangered. in India has been discovered in the
3. Santalin, a red pigment used as a dye Lakshadweep Islands.

3. It belongs to the genus of the coffee
and colourant is extracted from it.
family.
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
regard to Avicennia marina, commonly
45. Identify the following invasive species:
known as the grey mangrove or white
“It is an aquatic plant native to the Amazon
mangrove tree:
basin. It is a highly invasive species outside 1. It is one of the most prominent
its native range. It is also known as the terror mangrove species found in India.
2. It can excrete 40 percent of the salt
of Bengal as it drains oxygen from water
through the salt glands in the leaves.
bodies resulting in the mass killing of
3. It has the capacity to exclude salt entry
fishes.” to the roots.
(a) Parthenium How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(b) Lantana camara
(a) Only one
(c) Water hyacinth
(b) Only two
(d) Alligator weed (c) All three
(d) None
48. Which of the following plants are classified 50. Consider the following statements with
as Insectivorous Plants? regard to the pitcher plants:
1. Waterwheel Plant 1. They can perform photosynthesis to
2. Sundews synthesize glucose.
3. Fire Corals 2. It is usually associated with nitrogen-
How many of the statements given above deficient soils.
are correct? 3. It is found in the high-rainfall hills and
(a) Only one plateaus of the northeastern region.
(b) Only two How many of the statements given above
(c) All three are correct?
(b) Only two
49. Which of the following plants/trees can be (c) All three
helpful in treating wastewater if planted (d) None
near the wastewater reservoirs?
1. Eucalyptus Tree
2. Water Hyacinth
3. Green Algae
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT – 10 (Environment)
1. Answer: (B)
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Extremely high intensity of light favors root growth. It leads to increased
transpiration, short stem, smaller, thicker leaves. Generally speaking, plants grown in low light tend to be
spindly with light green leaves. A similar plant grown in very bright light tends to be shorter, better branches,
and have larger, dark green leaves.
● Statement 2 is correct: Plants grown in blue light are small. Red Light results in elongation of cells.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Dieback is characterized by progressive death of twigs, branches, shoots, or roots,
starting at the tips. It is NOT from stem up, but from the tips.
● Statement 2 is correct: Dieback is both a disease and an adaptive mechanism. Plants like Red Sanders suffer
from dieback so that they can survive when the moisture is low.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The roots do NOT die in dieback. Instead, the leaves dry up and protect the roots
from lack of moisture, so that the plants require less moisture to remain alive. Hence it is an adaptive
mechanism.
3. Answer: (B)
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Photic (or “euphotic”) zone is the portion that extends from the lake surface down
to where the light level is 1% of that at the surface. The depth of this zone depends on the transparency of
water. Photosynthetic activity is confined to the photic zone. Both photosynthesis and respiration activity
takes place.
● Statement 2 is correct: Aphotic zone is the lower layer of the aquatic ecosystems, where light penetration
and plant growth are restricted forms the aphotic zone (profundal zone). Only respiration activity takes place
in this zone. The aphotic zone extends from the end of the photic zones to bottom of the lake.
4. Answer: (C)
Explanation:
● Temperate Deciduous biome or Mediterranean biome
● The Mediterranean biome is also called as sclerophyll ecosystem or biome because of the develop-ment of
special feature and characteristic in the domi-nant trees and shrubs to adapt to the typical environ-mental
conditions of the Mediterranean climates (dry summer and wet winter).
● The structure of the Mediterranean vegetations is such that they can withstand the aridity of the summer
season. Conse-quently, the leaves have developed sclerophyllous characteristics wherein they are stiff and
hard and the stems have thick barks.
● Flora ranges from Mediterranean mixed evergreen forests (in the coastal lands immedi-ately bordering the
seas and the oceans) to woodland, dwarf forest and scrubs.
● The Fauna of Californian and Chilean regions include mule deer (in California), rodents such as rabbits,
coyotes, Antelopes and Mule Deer.
5. Answer: (C)
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect. Neuston organisms are those that live in the interface between air and water, such
as surface films, surface tension waves, and floating debris. These organisms are found in the uppermost layer
of water bodies and not in the deepest parts of the ocean.
● Statement 2 is incorrect. Periphyton organisms are those that live attached to underwater surfaces such as
rocks, plants, and other substrates. They are commonly found in slow-moving or stagnant water bodies like
ponds, lakes, and wetlands.
● Statement 3 is correct. Nekton organisms are those that can swim and move independently in the water.
Examples of nekton include fish, squids, and turtles.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: Benthos organisms are those that live on or in the bottom sediment of a water body.
They can be found in both shallow and deep water bodies and are not limited to the surface of the water.
6. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: An ecosystem is defined as a structural and functional unit of biosphere consisting
of community of living beings and the physical environment, both interacting and exchanging materials
between them.
● Statement 2 is correct: Everything that lives in an ecosystem is dependent on the other species and elements
that are also part of that ecological community. If one part of an ecosystem is damaged or disappears, it has an
impact on everything else.
7. Answer: (C) Only four statements are correct.

Explanation:
Based on the nature of the reservoir, there are two types of cycles namely Gaseous and sedimentary cycle. Gaseous
Cycle – where the reservoir is the atmosphere or the hydrosphere. E.g., Water cycle, Nitrogen cycle, carbon cycle.
Sedimentary Cycle – where the reservoir is the earth’s crust. Phosphorus, calcium, sulphur and magnesium
circulate by means of the sedimentary cycle. The element involved in the sedimentary cycle normally does not
cycle through the atmosphere but follows a basic pattern of flow through erosion, sedimentation, mountain
building, volcanic activity and biological transport through the excreta of marine birds. Hence statement 1,3,4 and
5 are correct.

Explanation:
● There are two types of tundra – arctic and alpine.
● Alpine tundra occurs at high mountains above the tree line. E.g. High ranges of the Himalayas, Andes, Alps
etc.
● There are no trees in the tundra (due to permafrost). The lowest form of vegetation like mosses, lichens are
sparsely found on bare rocks. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
● Coastal lowlands reindeer moss which provides the only pasturage for reindeers. Hence Statement 3 is
correct.
● In the summer, birds migrate north to prey on the numerous insects which emerge when the snow thaws.
● Insects have short life cycles which are completed during the favourable period of the year. Animals like the
reindeer, arctic fox, wolves, musk-ox, polar bear, lemming, arctic hare, arctic willow live in tundra region.
Reptiles and amphibians are almost absent. Cold-blooded animals like reptiles cannot survive in the Tundra.
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
● Most of the plants have long life, e.g., arctic willow has a life span of 150 to 300 years.
● They are protected from chillness by the presence of thick cuticle and epidermal hair or fur. Mammals have a
large body size and small tail and ear to avoid the loss of heat from the surface. Hence Statement 4 is correct.

Explanation:
Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period
by plants during photosynthesis. The rate of biomass production is called productivity. It can be divided into gross
primary productivity (GPP) and net primary productivity (NPP).
● Statement 1 is correct: The Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic
matter during photosynthesis. A considerable amount of GPP is utilised by plants in respiration. Gross primary
productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP): GPP – R = NPP. Net primary
productivity is the available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).
● Statement 2 is correct: Eutrophication, or hypertrophication, is when a body of water becomes overly
enriched with minerals and nutrients which induce excessive growth of algae. This process may result in
oxygen depletion of the water body. It leads to increase in the primary productivity of the water body or
'bloom' of phytoplankton. Eutrophication can also occur outside water bodies. For example, soils can be
eutrophic when they have high levels of nitrogen, phosphorous or other nutrients
● Statement 3 is incorrect: An ecological community is defined as a group of species that are commonly found
together. Ecological communities may be animal or plant assemblages with similar habitat requirements and
contain species that may influence each other or rely on similar processes in their environment. In order to
survive, individuals of any one species depend on individuals of different species with which they actively
interact in several ways. The characteristics of a stable community are:
a. It should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year.
b. It must be either resistant or resilient to occasional disturbances (natural or man-made).
c. It must also be resistant to invasions by alien species.
● Statement 4 is correct: Productivity is the rate of production of organic matter or biomass. Average ocean
productivity is about 50 grams of carbon per square meter per year; whereas, the average land productivity is
160 grams of carbon per square meter per year. Salt marshes and mangroves have the highest productivity of
3300–6000 grams of carbon per square meter per year. So, the correct order of ecosystem in decreasing order
of productivity is: Mangroves > Grasslands > Lakes > Oceans.

Explanation:
Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. For e.g. the mangrove forests represent an
ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem. Other examples are – grassland, estuary and river bank.
Characteristics of Ecotone
● It may be very narrow or quite wide.
● It has the conditions intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems. Hence it is a zone of tension. And act as buffer
zone. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
● It is linear as it shows progressive increase in species composition of one in coming community and a
simultaneous decrease in species of the other outgoing adjoining community.
● Well-developed ecotones contain some organisms which are entirely different from that of the adjoining
communities. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
● Sometimes the number of species and the population density of some of the species is much greater in this
zone than either community. This is called edge effect. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Explanation:
Advantages of bioremediation
● Useful for the complete destruction of a wide variety of contaminants.
● The complete destruction of target pollutants is possible. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
● Less expensive.
● Environment friendly
Disadvantages of bioremediation
● Bioremediation is limited to those compounds that are biodegradable. Not all compounds are susceptible to
rapid and complete degradation. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
● Biological processes are often highly specific.
● Bioremediation often takes longer time than other treatment process. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
12. Answer: B
Explanation:
Nitrogen is an essential constituent of protein and is a basic building block of all living tissue. It
constitutes nearly 16% by weight of all the proteins. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Nitrogen fixation on earth is accomplished in three different ways:
● By microorganisms (bacteria and blue-green algae)
● By man using industrial processes (fertilizer factories) and
● To a limited extent by atmospheric phenomenon such as thunder and lighting
The amount of Nitrogen fixed by man through industrial process has far exceeded the amount fixed by the Natural
Cycle. As a result, Nitrogen has become a pollutant which can disrupt the balance of nitrogen. It may lead to Acid
rain, Eutrophication and Harmful Algal Blooms.
The periodic thunderstorms convert the gaseous nitrogen in the atmosphere to ammonia and nitrates which
eventually reach the earth’s surface through precipitation and then into the soil to be utilized by plants. Hence
Statement 2 and 3 are correct.
13. Solutions: B
Explanation:
● The Food Chain can be said as the single straight pathway, through which there is a flow of energy from the
lower trophic level to the higher trophic level. Food Web can be defined as the complex interconnection of
numerous food chains through which the energy flow in the ecosystem.
● Food Chain consists of only one straight chain, while food web has numbers of interconnected food chains.
● In comparison to the food web, there is a lot of instability in the food chain, and this is due to increasing
number of separate and confined food chains. Whereas in food web there is stability and it increases due to
the presence of the complex food chains. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
● In food web, stability of the ecosystem increases by the presence of complex food webs. organisms while
more complex food webs improve the adaptability and competitiveness of the organisms. Statement 2 is
incorrect.
● As in food chain, there are 4-6 trophic levels only of different species, and any disturbance at any level may
disturb the whole chain. On the other hand, in food web there in the involvement of numerous trophic level
of the different population of a species and so it does not affect the food web if there is a removal of any group
of organisms at any trophic level. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Explanation:
● Eutrophication is a syndrome of ecosystem, response to the addition of artificial or natural nutrients such as
nitrates and phosphates through fertilizer, sewage, etc. That fertilize the aquatic ecosystem. Hence Statement
1 is incorrect.
● Eutrophication is when a lake gets too many nutrients, causing blue-green algae growth. Sewage from towns
and cities causes explosive growth of blue-green algae, and waste from factories can wash into the lakes and
pollute them.
● It is primarily caused by the leaching of phosphate and - or nitrate containing fertilizers from agricultural
lands into lakes or rivers. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
● Similar nutrient enrichment of lakes at an accelerated rate is caused by human activities (discharge of waste
waters or agricultural runoff) and the consequent ageing phenomenon is known as ‘cultural eutrophication’.
● Some algae and blue-green bacteria thrive on the excessions and a population explosion covers almost entire
surface layer is known as algal bloom. This growth is unsustainable, however. As Algal Bloom covers the
surface layer, it restricts the penetration of sunlight. Diffusion of gas from atom Oxygen is required by all
respiring animals in the water and it is replenished by diffusion and photosynthesis of green plants.
● The oxygen level is already low because of the population explosion and further oxygen is taken up by
microorganisms which feed off the dead algae during decomposition process.
● Due to reduced oxygen level, fishes and other aquatic organism suffocate and they die.
● The anaerobic conditions can promote growth of bacteria which produces toxins deadly to aquatic organisms,
birds and mammals.
● All this eventually leads to degradation of aquatic ecosystem and death of its organisms. Hence Statement 3
is incorrect.
● It often leads to change in animal and plant population & degradation of water & habitat quality.
Effects of Eutrophication
● Changes in ecosystem
● Decreased biodiversity
● Toxicity
● Loss of coral reef
● Decrease in water transparency
● Increase in inedible toxic phytoplankton, etc.

Explanation:
Bioaccumulation
● It refers to how pollutants enter a food chain.
● In bioaccumulation there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the first
organism in a food chain. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Bio-magnification (Bio-amplification)
● Biomagnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to
the next. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
● Thus, in bio-magnification there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to
another.
Bio-concentration
● Bio-concentration is the intake and retention of a substance in an organism entirely by respiration from water
in aquatic ecosystems or from air in terrestrial ones. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
16. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option (b) is correct: The correct sequential phase in the successional development of a vegetation
community in a habitat is Nudation, Migration, Reaction and Stabilization.:
o Nudation is the initial process, which involves the development of naked areas by the glacial recession,
erosion, submergence, or other climatic changes.
o Migration includes germules leaving their parent area into the new bare area Geomorphic agents like
wind, air, water help in the migration process.
o In the reaction stage, there is a change in the area through interaction between vegetation and habitat.
o After the initial competition and reaction, some species of the plant remain least affected by climatic and
environmental changes and become stable. This step is called the Stabilization stage.
o The climax is the final stage succeeding Stabilization.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Overgrazing leads to loss of structure of the soil and the soil is easily washed away
by rains and wind making it more vulnerable to water and wind erosion. Moreover, the soil is pulverized
(reduced to fine particles) by the hoofs of animals and thus proves detrimental to topsoil when heavy showers
fall on it. Soil erosion due to overgrazing is a common sight in the hilly areas. Thus, Overgrazing makes
grasslands vulnerable to Soil Erosion.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Due to heavy grazing pressure, the quality of grasslands deteriorates rapidly, the
mulch cover of the soil reduces, microclimate becomes more dry and is readily invaded by xerophytic plants.
Due to absence of humus cover, mineral soil surface is heavily trampled when wetness produces puddling of
the surface layer. In turn, it reduces the infiltration of water into the soil and accelerates its run-off, resulting
in soft erosion. These changes contribute to the reduction of energy flow, and the disruption of the
stratification and periodicity of the primary producers.
● Statements 3 and 4 are correct: The overgrazed grassland becomes prone to invasion of xerophytic plants
and burrowing animals. The clearance of vegetative cover/grass cover due to overgrazing takes out the good
nutrients in the soil and may result in the breakdown of the biogeochemical cycles of water and nitrogen.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Epiphytes are a type of plant found in rainforests that grow on the trunks and branches
of trees. They absorb nutrients and moisture from the air, making them an important source of food and shelter
for animals.
● Statement 2 is correct: Rainforests are home to the majority of the world's plant and animal species. The
high level of biodiversity found in these ecosystems is critical for maintaining the balance of the global
ecosystem.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: While some fires in the Amazon rainforest are natural, the recent increase in fires
is largely due to human activities, such as deforestation and slash-and-burn agriculture. These fires can have
devastating effects on the rainforest ecosystem, including loss of biodiversity, soil erosion, and increased
19. Answer: (C)

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Freshwater ecosystems are those which have a salt content less than 5 ppt. They
are of two types: Lotic or running water (streams and rivers) and Lentic or Stillwater ecosystems (ponds and
lakes)
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Mangroves and estuarine ecosystems are classified as brackish ecosystems. The
bodies with salt content between 5 to 35pppt are classified as brackish water ecosystems. Ex: Salt marshes,
mangroves and estuarine ecosystems.
20. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Environment:
o It is the natural component in which biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) factors interact among
themselves and with each other.
o In the biological sense, the environment consists of the physical (nutrients, water, and air), biological
(biomolecules, organisms), and chemical (chemical cycles - carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle, etc.) variables
that have an impact on an organism or a group of organisms.
● Habitat:
o Habitat is the physical environment in which an organism lives (address of an organism).
o Many habitats make up the environment.
▪ A single habitat may be common for more than one organism which has similar requirements.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct.
● The presence of life is a characteristic in a habitat but not in an environment. As a result,
o The habitat is a defined place or area of the environment according to the requirements of a
particular life form.
o Therefore, a habitat is always an environment but not vice versa.
o One species will always prefer a certain habitat.
o Multiple species may prefer one environment, which may gradually turn into many habitats.
o Habitat characteristics are typically governed by the environment rather than the other way around.
21. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Ecosystem is a geographic area where plants, animals, and other organisms, as well as weather and landscape,
work together to form a bubble of life.
● Abiotic variables, or nonliving components, coexist with biotic components in ecosystems.
o Plants, animals, and other species are biotic factors.
● An ecosystem can be thought of as a functional unit of nature in which living things (producers, consumers,
and decomposers) engage in mutual interaction as well as physical environment interaction.
● An ecosystem can be of any size, but it typically contains a small number of distinct species.
● Through nutrient cycles and energy flows, biotic and abiotic elements of the ecosystem are connected to one
another.
22. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The buffering capacity of the earth reveals how well soil and ocean can withstand pH changes.
● The pH scale quantifies the number of hydrogen ions present in the soil solution.
● Hydrogen ions can be found in the soil, both in the soil solution and adsorbed onto the soil surfaces.
● Due to the earth's ability to act as a buffer, the soil and water are kept at a neutral pH (pH of 7).
● Living things can survive and thrive in an environment with a neutral pH.

Explanation:
● Desert plants have several different ways of adapting to their dry habitat.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct:
● To reduce water loss through transpiration, many desert plants have thick cuticles on their leaf surfaces and
deep pits for their stomata.
o Some desert plants, like Opuntia, have no leaves; instead, they have spines, and the flattened stems
perform the photosynthetic process (few leaves mean less area is available for transpiration).
● Stomata are not arranged on the surface of the leaf in desert plants.
● Desert plants with little leaves help to prevent moisture loss during photosynthesis.
● Less evaporative surface per leaf results from smaller leaves.
● Furthermore, a smaller leaf in the sun won't heat up as much as a large one.
24. Answer: (A) Only one pair is correctly match.

Explanation:
Pair (2) is correctly matched:
● Many desert plants have thick cuticles on their leaf surfaces and stomata arranged in deep pits to minimize
water loss through transpiration.
● Some desert plants like Opuntia, have no leaves – they are reduced to spines, and the photosynthetic function
is taken over by the flattened stems (few leaves mean less area is available for transpiration).
Pairs (1) and (3) are incorrectly matched:
● Features of other vegetation:
○ Sloping branches (prevent accumulation of snow) and needle-like leaves (reduce transpiration): Taiga
vegetation.
○ Canopy: the characteristic feature of tropical forests like rainforests, deciduous forests, etc
25. Answer: (A)
Explanation:
● Small changes that take place in the body of a single organism over short periods, to overcome small problems
due to changes in the surroundings, are called acclimatisation.
● It is the process in which an individual organism adjusts to a change in its environment allowing it to maintain
fitness.
○ E.g. The body compensates for low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production,
decreasing the binding capacity of haemoglobin, and increasing breathing rate.
● Adaptive radiation is a process in which organisms diversify from an ancestral species into a multitude of
new forms when the environment creates new challenges or opens new environmental niches.
○ It is a rapid increase in the number of species with a common ancestor, characterized by great ecological
and morphological diversity.
○ The driving force behind it is the adaptation of organisms to new ecological contexts.

Explanation:
● The first link in the grazing food chain is made up of the consumers who use plants or parts of plants as
food.
○ In a terrestrial ecosystem, for instance, a caterpillar consumes grass, which is then consumed by a lizard,
and so on is consumed by a snake.
● The primary pathway for energy flow in an aquatic ecosystem is the grazing food chain.
● In the aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton (primary producers) are eaten by zooplankton which is eaten by
fishes and fishes are eaten by pelicans.
● In terrestrial ecosystem settings, a large amount of energy flows through the detritus food chain.
● Detrivores or decomposers are creatures that feed on dead organic stuff or detritus.

Explanation:
● Detritus food chain is a type of food chain that starts with dead organic matter.
● Generally, dead organic matter is decomposed by detritivores such as microorganisms.
● Detritivores or decomposers are organisms that feed on dead organic matter. Later, predators eat detritivores.
● However, the most significant feature of the detritus food chain is that it releases energy and nutrients to
the ecosystem.
● Dead and decaying organic matter serves as the primary source of energy in the detritus food chain while
plants serve as the primary energy source in the grazing food chain.
● Usually, the detritus food chain is small while the grazing food chain is large.
● Detritus food chain releases energy and nutrients to the ecosystem while grazing food chains fix energy and
nutrients from the ecosystem.
● The Detritus food chain helps to fix inorganic nutrients while the grazing food chain adds energy to other
trophic levels.
● The detritus food chain contains soil bacteria, fungi, invertebrates, etc. as detritivores while the grazing food
chain contains livestock as primary consumers.
28. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The term "eurythermal" refers to organisms that can survive in a wide range of temperatures.
o Examples include humans, goats, sheep, cows, and monkeys.
● The vast majority of them are stenothermal or limited to a small range of temperatures.
o Penguins, pythons, crocodiles, crabs, insects, etc. are examples of stenothermal animals.
● Stenohaline organisms can endure a small range of salinities.
o They are unable to tolerate sudden changes in the salt content.
o Examples of stenohaline organisms include goldfish, sea turtles, haddock, and several other marine
creatures.
● Euryhaline organisms are able to adapt to a wide range of salinities.
o An example of a euryhaline fish is the molly (Poecilia sphenops) which can live in freshwater, brackish
water, or salt water.
o The green crab (Carcinus maenas) is an example of a euryhaline invertebrate that can live in salt and
brackish water.

Explanation:
Pairs (1) and (2) are correctly matched:
● Of the visible part of the spectrum, only blue, red and violet are effective in photosynthesis.
● Red light results in the elongation of cells (etiolated plants).
● Plants grown in ultraviolet and violet light are dwarf.
● Plants grown in blue light are small.
30. Answer: (B) Only three statements are correct.

Explanation:
● Pustaz is a temperate grassland in Central Europe (Hungary).
● Downs is a temperate grassland in Australia.
● Marg is a temperate grassland in Jammu and Kashmir.
● Selvas are Amazon rainforests. Hence Statement 4 is incorrect.
● Campos are Brazilian Tropical Grasslands. Hence Statement 5 is incorrect.
Explanation:
● Seeds of many species of grasses and herbs have thick, tough skins with thick coatings to protect them while
they lie dormant.
● Cactus species, Giant Saguaro cactus, in particular, has shallow roots, which enables it to soak up rain and
dew before it evaporates.
● Some plants like mugma tree have upward growing small leaves which acts as a funnel when it rains. This
improves its water availability.
o The funnel-like leaves direct the rain water to the base of the tree, where it’s soaked up by shallow roots.
o Generally, this adaptation guarantees that the tree will get a lot of water when rain falls.
32. Answer: C.
Explanation:
Option A is correct:
● Broad hooves lead to the better positioning of the leg by a camel on the sand.
Option B is correct:
● Large ears provide more surface area for heat loss thus cooling down temperature of foxes.
Option C is incorrect:
● Animals in desert biomes have developed adaptations such as panting to minimize heat.
Option D is correct:
● Aestivation is done to reduce heat wastage and energy requirement by desert biome animals.

Explanation:
● Leaves are absent or reduced in size to reduce evaporation loss.
● Leaves and stems are succulent i.e., thickened, fleshy, and engorged, usually to retain water in arid climates
or soil conditions.
● The seeds wherever present germinate, bloom and reproduce only during the short rainy season, and not in
summer and winter to maximize water utilization for growth.

Explanation:
● Since water temperatures are less subject to change, aquatic organisms have a narrow temperature tolerance
limit.
○ As a result, even small changes in water temperature are a great threat to the survival of aquatic organisms
when compared to the changes in air temperatures in terrestrial organisms.
● In freshwater the average concentration of dissolved oxygen is 10 parts per million by weight.
○ This is 150 times lower than the concentration of oxygen in an equivalent volume of air.
○ The amount of dissolved oxygen retained in water is also influenced by temperature.
● Oxygen is less soluble in warm water.
○ Warm water also enhances decomposer activity.
○ Therefore, increasing the temperature of a water body increases the rate at which oxygen is depleted
from the water.
○ When the dissolved oxygen level falls below 3-5 ppm, many aquatic organisms are likely to die.
● The photic zone, euphotic zone, epipelagic zone, or sunlight zone is the uppermost layer of a body of water
that receives sunlight, allowing phytoplankton to perform photosynthesis.
○ It undergoes a series of physical, chemical, and biological processes that supply nutrients to the upper
water column.
○ Photic (or "euphotic") zone is the portion that extends from the lake surface down to where the light
level is 1% of that at the surface.
○ The depth of this zone depends on the transparency of the water.
● Photosynthetic activity is confined to the photic zone. Both photosynthesis and respiration activities take
place in this zone.
Explanation:
● A wetland is an area of land that is either covered by water or saturated with water.
○ The water is often groundwater, seeping up from an aquifer or spring.
○ A wetland’s water can also come from a nearby river or lake.
○ Seawater can also create wetlands, especially in coastal areas that experience strong tides.
● A wetland is entirely covered by water for at least part of the year.
○ The depth and duration of this seasonal flooding vary.
○ Wetlands are transition zones. They are neither totally dry land nor totally underwater; they have
characteristics of both.
● However, when soil is flooded, water fills the pores and prevents the flow of air.
○ This creates a lack of oxygen, called anaerobic conditions
● The saturation of wetland soil determines the vegetation that surrounds it. Plants that live in wetlands are
uniquely adapted to their watery (hydric) soil.
○ Wetland flora are called hydrophytes.
○ Seasonally dry wetlands or wetlands with slow-moving water can often support trees and other sturdy
vegetation.
○ More frequently flooded wetlands have mosses or grasses as their dominant hydrophytes. Hence
Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct.

Explanation:
● Lake ecosystem or lacustrine ecosystem includes biotic (living) plants, animals and micro-organisms, as
well as abiotic (non-living) physical and chemical interactions.
○ Lake ecosystems are a prime example of lentic ecosystems (still water), which include ponds, lakes and
wetlands, and much of this article applies to lentic ecosystems in general.
● Lentic ecosystems can be compared with lotic ecosystems, which involve flowing terrestrial waters such as
rivers and streams.
○ Together, these two ecosystems are examples of freshwater ecosystems.
● Since most life forms in lentic environments are poikilothermic, meaning their internal body temperatures
are determined by their surroundings, the temperature is an essential abiotic component.
● Radiation at the surface and conduction to or from the air and surrounding substrate can heat or cool water.
● Diurnal and seasonal temperature changes can be significant in these systems.
○ A constant temperature gradient from warmer waters at the surface to cooler waters at the bottom is
common in shallow ponds.
○ Large lakes have significantly varied temperature regimes.

Explanation:
● The chemical-biological changes within a lake’s history offer a fine example of ecological succession.
● In the early stages, a lake contains little organic material and has a poorly developed littoral zone.
● Particularly in temperate zones, such conditions favour a plentiful oxygen content, and the lake is said to
be oligotrophic.
● An oligotrophic lake or water body is one which has relatively low productivity and little biological
material due to the low nutrient content in the lake.
○ The waters of these lakes are usually quite clear due to the limited growth of algae in the lake.
○ The waters of such lakes are of high-drinking quality.
● Such lakes support aquatic species that require well-oxygenated, cold waters such as lake trout,
steelhead, whitefish, and salmon.
○ Oligotrophic lakes are usually found in the cold regions of the world where the mixing of nutrients is
rare and slow due to the low temperatures of the lake waters.

Explanation:
● The four-horned antelope, or chousingha, is a small antelope found in India and Nepal.
● The range in India covers a vast expanse, from the foothills of the Himalayas in the north to the Deccan
Plateau in the south , including Central India.
● Most of the existing population lives in India, and lower numbers are in adjoining Nepal.
● They are found in Gir National Park, Gujarat.
39. Answer: C
Explanation:
Both Statements are correct:
● The Namdapha flying squirrel (Biswamoyopterus biswasi ) is an arboreal, nocturnal flying squirrel endemic
to Arunachal Pradesh in northeast India, where it is known from a single specimen collected in Namdapha
National Park in 1981.
● The known habitat of the Namdapha flying squirrel is tall Mesua ferrea jungles, often on hill slopes in the
catchment area of the Noa-Dihing River, particularly on the western slope of the Patkai range in
northeastern India.
● Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot, at
altitudes of between 100 and 350 meters above sea level.
Explanation:
● The Kashmir stag, also called hangul, is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer endemic to Kashmir and
surrounding areas.
● It is found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of Jammu and Kashmir and northern
Himachal Pradesh.
● In Kashmir, it is found primarily in the Dachigam National Park where it receives protection, and elsewhere
it is more at risk.
● The IUCN status of Kashmir stag/hangul is Critically Endangered.
● It was the State animal of erstwhile Jammu and Kashmir.

Explanation:
● The red panda is a small arboreal mammal found in the forests of India, Nepal, Bhutan, and the northern
mountains of Myanmar and southern China.
● In India, this elusive species is found in Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Darjeeling, and Kalimpong districts of
West Bengal.
● It is the state animal of Sikkim.
● Listed as ‘Endangered’ in the IUCN red list of Threatened Species and under the Schedule I of the Indian
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the red panda has the highest legal protection.
● WWF India has been working since 2005 in the eastern Himalayan region to conserve this species.
● The red panda inhabits coniferous forests as well as temperate broadleaf and mixed forests, favouring
steep slopes with dense bamboo cover close to water sources.
● It is solitary and largely arboreal. It feeds mainly on bamboo shoots and leaves, but also on fruits and blossoms.

Explanation:
Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
State State Animal
Tamil Nadu Nilgiri Tahr
Madhya Pradesh Barasingha (hard-ground swamp deer)
Karnataka Elephant
Manipur Sangai
Nagaland Gayal
Uttar Pradesh Barasingha (hard-ground swamp deer)

Explanation:
● The sangai is an endemic and ‘endangered’(IUCN) subspecies of Eld's deer found only in Manipur, India.
○ It is also the state animal of Manipur.
○ It is also known as a dancing deer.
● Its original natural habitat is the floating marshy grasslands of the Keibul Lamjao National Park,
○ It is the world’s largest floating national park.
○ The national park is located in the southern parts of the Loktak Lake, which is the largest freshwater
lake in eastern India.
o Phumdis are a series of floating islands, exclusive to the Loktak Lake in Manipur state, in
northeastern India. Hence All statements are correct.
Explanation:
● Red Sanders is native and endemic to India and can only be found in the southern parts of the Eastern Ghats.
○ It is a small tree that grows to 5-8 meters in height and has a dark grayish bark.
● Red Sanders (Red Sandalwood) has fallen back into the ‘endangered’ category in the International Union for
Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List.
○ The species is endemic to a distinct tract of forests in Andhra Pradesh. It was classified as ‘near
threatened’ in 2018 and has now joined the ‘endangered’ list once again in 2021.
● The red sandalwood timber is highly demanded domestically and internationally, and especially in East Asian
countries.
○ Red Sandalwood timber is used for carvings, furniture, poles, and house posts.
○ The rare “wavy” grain variant is highly valued in Japan for its acoustic properties and is used to make
musical instruments.
In addition, the timber is also exploited for the extraction of santalin (a red pigment used as dye and colourant),
medicine and cosmetics. Hence All statements are correct.
45. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Water hyacinth is a free-floating and flowering invasive aquatic plant originating from Amazon Basin, South
America.
○ It has spread mainly to the tropics and subtropics since the 1800s. Water hyacinth has been considered
an invasive aquatic plant
● It is known as the ‘terror of Bengal’ due to its invasive growth tendencies.
○ Water hyacinth grows and reproduces quickly, so it can cover large portions of ponds and lakes.
● Water hyacinth could affect the photosynthesis of phytoplankton, submerged plants, and algae by water
environment quality and inhibit their growth.
● The decay process depletes dissolved oxygen in the water, often killing fish.

Explanation:
● Pyrostria laljii, a 15-meter-tall tree that belongs to the genus of the coffee family has recently been discovered
in the Andaman Islands by a team of researchers from India and the Philippines. Hence Statement 2 is
incorrect.
● The new species, Pyrostria laljii, is also the first record of the genus Pyrostria in India.
● The tree is distinguished by a long stem with a whitish coating on the trunk, and oblong-obovate leaves with
a cuneate base.
● Its IUCN Red List Status is Critically Endangered.

Explanation:
● Avicennia Marina is a highly salt-tolerant & salt-secreting true-mangrove species.
● As with other mangroves, it occurs in the intertidal zones of estuarine areas.
● It is one of the most prominent mangrove species found in all mangrove formations in India.
● It is a salt-secreting and extraordinarily salt-tolerant mangrove species that grows optimally in 75% seawater
and tolerates >250% seawater.
● It is among the rare plant species, which can excrete 40% of the salt through the salt glands in the leaves,
besides its extraordinary capacity to exclude salt entry to the roots. Hence All statements are correct.
Explanation:
● Aldrovanda vesiculosa, commonly known as the waterwheel plant, is the sole extant species in the
flowering plant genus Aldrovanda of the family Droseraceae.
● The plant captures small aquatic invertebrates using traps similar to those of the Venus flytrap.
● Drosera, which is commonly known as the sundews, is one of the largest genera of carnivorous plants, with
at least 194 species.
○ These members of the family Droseraceae lure, capture, and digest insects using stalked mucilaginous
glands covering their leaf surfaces.
○ These plants feed on insects.
○ Mosquitoes are abundant in the sundews' preferred habitat and can make up a significant portion of their
diet in these locations.
○ Sundews can kill a trapped insect in about 15 minutes but may digest it over a few weeks.
● Fire corals are a genus of colonial marine organisms (and not a plant) sounds that exhibit physical
characteristics similar to that of coral.
● The name coral is somewhat misleading, as fire corals are not true corals but are instead more closely related
to Hydra and other hydrozoans, making them hydro corals.

Explanation:
● Raw sewage contains complex organic and inorganic materials, including proteins, urea, amines, cellulose,
fats, carbohydrates, and soap.
● The treated waste has usually been discharged into the nearest lake or river with little thought of the
consequence, today, however, the growing world population and increasing demand for an improved
environment make better disposal mandatory.
● Some aquatic weeds, such as duckweed and water hyacinth, were found to possess the ability to purify
organic pollutants and take up inorganic nutrient salts such as nitrogen and phosphorus compounds.
● These aquatic plants, duckweed, water hyacinth and green algae (Chlorella vulgaris), enhance the removal
of pollutants by absorbing them in the form of plant nutrients.
○ Plants are capable of decreasing all tested indicators of water quality to levels that permit the use of
purified water for irrigation.
● It has been suggested that we should plant eucalyptus trees all along sewage ponds. These trees absorb all
surplus wastewater rapidly and release pure water vapour into the atmosphere. Hence All options are correct.

Explanation:
● Pitcher plant is green and contains chlorophyll.
● It can perform photosynthesis to synthesise glucose.
● These insectivorous plants grow in nitrogen-deficient soils.
○ So, they feed on insects to obtain nutrients such as nitrogen.
● Pitcher plants belong to the family Nepenthaceae.
● The members of the family are commonly known as ‘pitcher plants’ because their leaves bear jar-like
structures.
Distribution:
Confined to the high rainfall hills and plateaus of the northeastern region, at altitudes ranging from 100-1500
m, particularly in Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills of Meghalaya. Hence All statements are correct.
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)

(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
B
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
penalty.
question.
1. Consider the following sites is/are located 3. Consider the following statements regarding
within the Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve? biodiversity hotspots:

1. It must contain at least 1,500 species of
1. Pin Valley National Park
vascular plants.
2. Renuka Lake
2. It must have lost at least 70% of its
3. Chandratal Lake natural vegetation.
How many of the statement(s) given above 3. There are three major biodiversity
hotspots in India.
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
is/are correct?

(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
2. Identify the following site in India: 4. Consider the following statements with regard
“It derives its name from the abundance of to the biodiversity hotspots:
red silk cotton trees growing in the area. The 1. Australia and Oceania region do not
have any biodiversity hotspots.
park is home to the Bengal tiger, Asian
2. Biodiversity hotspots are located only
elephant, gaur, and chausingha. Hadgarh
in the tropical countries.
Wildlife Sanctuary and Kuldiha Wildlife 3. Assam is a part of the Indo-Burma
Sanctuary are located within this biosphere biodiversity hotspot.
reserve.” How many of the statement(s) given above

is/are incorrect?
(a) Bhitarkanika Biosphere Reserve
(a) Only one
(b) Seshachalam Hills Biosphere Reserve
(b) Only two
(c) Simlipal Biosphere Reserve (c) All three
(d) Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve (d) None
Copy is ENCRYPTED and for personal use ONLY| www.sunyaias.com | PRELIMS-2024
Page. 1
5. Which of the following accurately defines 7. Which of the following site(s) is/are
the term ‘Biodiversity coldspots’? designated as Natural World Heritage sites
(a) Areas which provide excellent in India by UNESCO?

1. Great Himalayan National Park
examples of ongoing ecological and
Conservation Area
biological evolutionary processes.
2. Keoladeo National Park
(b) Areas where the fitness of at least one
3. Jim Corbett National Park
of the two species is determined by
4. Kaziranga National Park
interactions with the other.
5. Kanha National Park
(c) Regions with high species richness and
a high degree of endemism. is/are correct?
(d) All of the above (a) Only two
(b) Only three
6. Which of the following is/are the criteria for (c) Only four
any sites to be declared as Natural World (d) All five
Heritage sites by UNESCO?
1. They furnish outstanding examples of 8. Consider the following statements with
regard to Project Tiger:
the Earth's record of life or its geologic
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of
processes.
the Ministry of Environment, Forests,
2. They provide excellent examples of
and Climate Change.
ongoing ecological and biological
2. It is administered by the National Board
evolutionary processes. of Wildlife.
3. They contain natural phenomena that 3. National Tiger Conservation Authority
are rare, unique, superlative, or of has recommended setting up a Tiger
outstanding beauty. Protection Force under Project Tiger to
How many of the statement(s) given above combat poachers.

is/are correct?
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None
Page. 2
regard to the National Tiger Conservation regard to the Greenhouse effect:
Authority: 1. Solar radiation is long-wave radiation
1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry that passes through the Earth's
of Environment, Forests and Climate atmosphere
Change. 2. The energy re-emitted from the Earth is
2. Prime Minister of the country is the ex- short-wave radiation in the infrared
officio chairperson of NTCA. spectrum.
3. It is responsible for implementing 3. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
MSTrIPES in tiger reserves. absorb a significant portion of the short-
How many of the statement(s) given above wave energy.
(a) Only one is/are incorrect?
(d) None
10. Consider the following site(s) is/are the tiger
reserves under Project Tiger? 12. Consider the following gases which of the
1. Valmiki National Park gases given above is/are greenhouse gases?
2. Bhitarkanika National Park 1. Nitrous Oxide
3. Silent Valley National Park 2. Ozone
4. Simlipal National Park 3. Nitrogen Dioxide
How many of the statements given above How many of the statement(s) given above
Page. 3
13. Consider the following statements which 15. Arrange the following gases in ascending
processes produces black carbon? order of their Global Warming Potential
1. Incomplete fossil fuel combustion (GWP):

1. Nitrous Oxide
2. Forest Fires
2. Sulphur hexafluoride
3. Rocket Launches
3. Methane
4. Hydrofluorocarbons
is/are correct?
(a) Only one given below:
(b) Only two (a) 1-3-2-4
(c) All three (b) 3-1-2-4
(d) None (c) 3-1-4-2
(d) 1-3-4-2

regard to black carbon:
regard to the Greenhouse Gas Protocol:
1. Soot is a form of particulate air
1. The Greenhouse Gas Protocol is a
pollutant, produced from the
collaborative work of UNEP and
incomplete combustion of
UNFCCC.
hydrocarbons.
2. It is an international accounting tool for
2. Black Carbon disrupts cloudiness and government and business leaders to
monsoon rainfall. understand, quantify and manage
3. Himalayan glaciers are melting faster greenhouse gas emissions.
than the global average ice mass due to 3. It creates globally standardized
black carbon. frameworks for measuring and

managing greenhouse gas emissions.
is/are incorrect?
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(d) None (d) None
Page. 4
17. Consider the following Statements with 19. Consider the following statements with
regards to the effects of increased regard to the Green Climate Fund (GCF):
Greenhouse Gases? 1. The Green Climate Fund was

established by the UN Framework
1. Ocean acidification
Convention on Climate Change.
2. Thermal expansion of seawater and sea
2. It is an operating entity of the financial
level rise
mechanism to assist developing
3. Increase in the amount of arable land in countries in adaptation practices only.
high-latitude regions 3. It was established under the Cancún
How many of the statement(s) given above Agreements.

is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None
18. The term Karakoram Anomaly was in news 20. Consider the following statements with
recently. What does it imply? regard to the Loss and Damages Fund:
(a) The speed of glacier melting in the 1. It is established at the COP27 of

UNFCCC at Sharm el-Sheikh.
Karakoram Range is much higher than
2. Any country can seek compensation
in the Himalayas.
from this fund for any climate-related
(b) Glaciers in Karakoram are not getting
losses.
affected by Climate Change. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(c) Excessive settlement of black carbon in incorrect?
the Karakoram Range. (a) 1 only
(d) Emergence of many freshwater lakes in (b) 2 only
the region due to climate change. (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page. 5
21. Consider the following with regards to the 23. Consider the following statements with
substances contribute to ozone depletion? regard to the National Adaptation Fund for
Climate Change (NAFCC):
1. Nitrogen Oxides
1. National Bank for Agriculture and
2. Methyl Bromide
Rural Development is the National
3. Halons Implementing Entity for this scheme.
How many of the statement(s) given above 2. It funds concrete adaptation
is/are correct? programmes aligned with the relevant
(a) Only one Missions under National Action Plan on
Climate Change.
(b) Only two
3. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
(c) All three
(d) None is/are incorrect?
(a) Only one
1. Under the Montreal Protocol, countries (c) All three

(d) None
agreed to phase out the production and
consumption of certain chemicals that
deplete ozone.
regard to the Nagar Van Yojana (NVY):
2. The Vienna Convention and Montreal 1. It is launched by the Ministry of
Protocol are the first and only global Housing and Urban Affairs.
environmental treaties to achieve 2. Warje urban forest in Pune is
universal ratification. considered a role model for the scheme.
3. Kigali amendment to Montreal Protocol 3. It is being implemented from the funds
under Compensatory Afforestation
is a non-legally binding agreement.
Fund Management and Planning
Authority.
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
Page. 6
regard to Desertification and Land regard to the National Wildlife Action Plan
Degradation: launched in 2017:
1. India aims for the restoration of 30 1. It is released by the Ministry of
million hectares of degraded land by Environment, Forests, and Climate
2030 under UNCCD. Change for the period 2017-2031.
2. Jharkhand has more than 50% of its 2. This is the first time that a wildlife
land area undergoing desertification or action plan has acknowledged the
degradation. impact of climate change on wildlife.
3. At least 45% of India’s total 3. It stipulated for the first time that land
geographical area is under the category falling within 10 km of the boundaries
of ‘degraded land’. of national parks should be declared as
How many of the statement(s) given above eco-fragile zones.
(d) None
26. Which of the following statements are
correct with regard to Forest Landscape 28. Consider the following statements with
Restoration (FLR)? regard to the National Afforestation and
1. The term forest landscape restoration Eco-development Board (NAEB):
was coined by IUCN and the WWF. 1. National Afforestation Programme is a
2. FLR aims to restore a whole landscape flagship initiative of the NAEB.
to meet present and future needs along 2. The NAEB's primary role is to develop
with multiple benefits and land uses. methods for the ecological restoration
3. The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to of degraded forest areas.
bring 350 million hectares of degraded 3. NAEB offers physical and capacity-
& deforested land into restoration by building assistance to Forest
2025. Development Agencies.
(d) None (d) None
Page. 7
29. Consider the following statements with 31. Consider the following subjects are covered
regard to the Compensatory Afforestation under the Wild Life (Protection) Act of
Fund Management and Planning Authority 1972:
(CAMPA): 1. Establishment of sanctuaries and
1. It is constituted under the Environment national parks
(Protection) Act, 1986. 2. Establishment of State wildlife advisory
2. National Compensatory Afforestation boards
Fund falls under the Public Account of 3. Establishment of reserved forests
India. 4. Regulations for trade in wild animals
correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All four

regard to the Joint Forest Management
regard to the Wildlife (Protection)
(JFM):
Amendment Act 2022:
1. The concept of JFM was first
1. This amendment seeks to implement the
introduced through the Indian Forest
trade-related provisions of CITES.
Act of 1927.
2. It removes the schedule for vermin
2. It aims at rehabilitating degraded
forestlands with the help of forest species and reduces the total number of
protection committees. schedules to four.
3. Village communities are given 3. It provides for each state government to

responsibility for the management and designate a State Management
preservation of the surrounding forests Authority, which grants export or
under JFM. import permits for the trade of
How many of the statement(s) given above specimens.
(d) None
Page. 8
regard to the Wildlife (Protection) regard to the Forest (Conservation) Act of
Amendment Act 2022: 1980:
1. The Act entrusts the Chief Wild Life 1. Under the act, the State Governments
Warden to control, manage and have the power to make rules for
maintain all sanctuaries in a state. carrying out the provisions of this Act.
2. The Chief Wild Life Warden is 2. Any person aggrieved may file an
appeal to the High Court of the
appointed by the Central government.
respective state directly.
3. The Act provides for any person to
3. Under the act, the Central Government
voluntarily surrender any captive
has the right to constitute an advisory
animals or animal products to the Chief
committee to advise the government
Wild Life Warden.
with regard to forest conservation.
(d) None (d) None
regard to the Forest (Conservation) Act of regard to the Global Environment Facility:
1980: 1. The Global Environment Facility is the
1. Under the act, prior approval of the largest source of multilateral funding
Central Government is required for the for biodiversity globally and distributes
diversion of forestlands for non-forest more than $1 billion annually.
purposes. 2. It was established ahead of the 1992 Rio
Earth Summit.
2. States have the right to declare
3. It supports the implementation of the
forestlands or wastelands as reserved
Montreal Protocol on Substances that
forests.
Deplete the Ozone Layer.
correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
Page. 9
37. The Earth Summit of 1992 at Rio resulted in 39. Consider the following agreement(s) is/are
the which of following documents? legally binding on the parties under it?
1. Agenda 21 1. Convention on Biological Diversity

2. United Nations Convention to Combat
2. Declaration on the principles of forest
Desertification
management
3. United Nations Framework Convention
3. Rio Declaration
on Climate Change
(d) None (d) None

regard to the Green Climate Fund:
regard to Agenda 21:
1. The Green Climate Fund is a fund
1. It is a legally binding action plan of the
established within the framework of the
United Nations related to sustainable UNEP.
development. 2. Green Climate Fund will help
2. It was adopted at the World Summit on developing countries financially in
Sustainable Development held in adapting mitigation practices to counter
Johannesburg in 2002. climate change.
3. The number 21 refers to an agenda for 3. It is a mechanism to redistribute money

from the developed to the developing
the 21st century.
world.
is/are incorrect?
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(d) None (d) None
Page. 10
41. Consider the following statements: 43. Consider the following pairs:
1. Lead is a carcinogen of the lungs and Groundwater Recorded in
kidneys. Contaminants
2. Tetraethyl lead was added to petrol as 1. Arsenic Assam
an anti-knock agent for the smooth
2. Flouride Rajasthan
running of engines.
3. Uranium Madhya Pradesh
3. Battery scrap contains lead which can
How many of the pair(s) given above is/are
get mixed up with water and create
cumulative poisoning. correct?
How many of the statement(s) given above (a) Only one

is/are correct? (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
1. Arsenic is a naturally occurring trace
element in many minerals found usually
1. Ingestion of mercury is more dangerous
in combination with sulphur.
than inhalation of mercury vapours.
2. Arsenic is emitted from fossil fuel
2. Exposure to mercury, in large amounts
burning.
only, causes health problems.
3. Minamata Disease is caused by 3. Organic arsenic compounds are much
methylmercury poisoning that was first more toxic than inorganic arsenic
described in the inhabitants of compounds.
Minamata Bay, Japan. How many of the statement(s) given above
How many of the statements(s) given above is/are incorrect?
is/are incorrect? (a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
Page. 11
45. Consider the following pairs: 47. Consider the following statements with
Diseases Caused by regard to the Khangchendzonga National

Park:
Contamination of
1. It is the second Mixed World Heritage
1. Itai-Itai Disease Cadmium
site declared by UNESCO in India.
2. Hemochromatos Flouride
2. Lepcha tribes are found inside the park.
is
3. It has temperate broadleaf and mixed
3. Keratosis Arsenic forests.
How many of the pair(s) given above is/are How many of the statement(s) given above
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None

46. Identify the following Natural World regard to the Great Nicobar Biosphere
Heritage Site declared by UNESCO; Reserve:
“Within the Park lies a glacial basin 1. It encompasses more than half of the
island of Car Nicobar.
surrounded by a ring of peaks. It is home to
2. It consists of Campbell Bay National
the Musk Deer, and Bharal or Blue Sheep,
Park in the south and Galathea National
among other animals. It is also a part of the
Park in the north.
World Network of Biosphere Reserves,
3. It is home to the Leatherback Sea turtle,
based on the UNESCO Man and the the largest of all living turtles.
Biosphere (MAB) Programme list.” How many of the statement(s) given above
(a) Khangchendzonga National Park is/are correct?
(b) Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve (a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(c) All three
(d) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
(d) None
Page. 12
49. Consider the following statements with 50. Which of the site is the Asiatic cheetah’s
regard to the Keoladeo National Park, a last-known habitat in India?
UNESCO World Heritage Site: (a) Guru Ghasidas National Park
1. It is an artificial wetland. (b) Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve
2. It is situated at the confluence of two (c) Bandhavgarh National Park
rivers, the Gambhir and Banganga. (d) Achanakmar Tiger Reserve
3. It is one of the regular wintering areas
in India for the Siberian crane.
How many of the statements(s) given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
*******
Page. 13
Page. 2
Explanation:
● Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve is a biosphere reserve located in the Western Himalayas, within Himachal
Pradesh in North India.
● Biosphere reserves are the areas of terrestrial and coastal ecosystems which promote the conservation of
biodiversity with its sustainable use.
● Cold Desert has an area of 7,770 square kilometres (1,920,000 acres).
○ The cold deserts of India are located adjacent to the Himalayan Mountains.
○ They are not affected by the Indian monsoons because they lie in the rain shadow of the Himalayas.
● It includes:
○ Chandra Taal (Statement 1 is correct).
○ Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary
○ Pin Valley National Park (Statement 3 is correct).
○ Sarchu
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Renuka lake is in the Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh in India and it is 672 m
above the sea level.
○ It is the largest lake in Himachal Pradesh, with a circumference of about 3214 m.
○ This lake was named after the goddess Renuka and is designated as Ramsar site since November 2005.
○ It is not a part of Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve.
2. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Simlipal is a tiger reserve in the Mayurbhanj district in the Indian state of Odisha covering 2,750 km2 (1,060 sq
mi).
● It is part of the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve, which includes three protected areas — Simlipal Tiger Reserve,
Hadgarh Wildlife Sanctuary with 191.06 km2 and Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary with 272.75 km2.
● Simlipal Biosphere Reserve derives its name from the abundance of red silk cotton trees growing in the area.
● The park is home to the Bengal tiger, Asian elephant, gaur, and chausingha.
● This protected area is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves since 2009.

Explanation:
A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by human
habitation.
● Norman Myers wrote about the concept in two articles in The Environmentalist in 1988 and 1990.
● Conservation International (CI) adopted Myers’ hotspots and in 1996, the organization made the decision to
undertake a reassessment of the hotspots concept.
● To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot on Myers' 2000 edition of the hotspot map, a region must meet two strict
criteria:
1. it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (more than 0.5% of the world's total) as endemics,
and
2. it must have lost at least 70% of its primary, natural vegetation.
● Globally, 36 zones qualify under this definition.
 There are four major biodiversity hotspots in India:
Copy is ENCRYPTED and for personal use ONLY| www.sunyaias.com |BRAHMASTRA-2024| PRELIMS-2024
Page. 2
1. The Himalayas 3. The Western Ghats
2. Indo-Burma Region 4. Sundaland

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: In Australia and Oceania, following biodiversity hotspots are located:
○ East Melanesian Islands
○ New Caledonia
○ New Zealand
○ Polynesia-Micronesia
○ Eastern Australian temperate forests
○ Southwest Australia
● Biodiversity hotspots are located in tropical as well as temperate countries like Central Asia, USA, Japan etc.
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: India has four biodiversity hotspots, i.e.,
1. Himalayas,
2. Indo-Burma (Entire North-East India excluding Assam),
3. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka,
4. Sundaland (Nicobar Islands).
5. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement A is incorrect:
● Natural Heritage Sites are restricted to those natural areas that provide excellent examples of ongoing ecological
and biological evolutionary processes.
Statement B is correct:
● A "biodiversity cold spot" is a region with a limited number of living things, such as plants, animals, fungi, and
bacteria.
○ These are areas with a low level of biological diversity but a high rate of habitat loss.
○ They are areas where the fitness of at least one of the two species is determined by interactions with the
other.
○ E.g. Montana region in USA
Statement C is incorrect:
● Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high species richness and a high degree of endemism.

Explanation:
● World Heritage site, any of various areas or objects inscribed on the United Nations Educational, Scientific and
Cultural Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage List.
○ The sites are designated as having “outstanding universal value” under the Convention Concerning the
Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage.
● Natural heritage sites are restricted to those natural areas that and Following Criteria’s
(1) Furnish outstanding examples of Earth’s record of life or its geologic processes,
(2) Provide excellent examples of ongoing ecological and biological evolutionary processes,
Page. 1
(3) Contain natural phenomena that are rare, unique, superlative, or of outstanding beauty, or
(4) Furnish habitats for rare or endangered animals or plants or are sites of exceptional biodiversity. Hence All
statements are correct.
7. Answer: (B) Only three statements are correct.
Explanation:
● World Heritage site, any of various areas or objects inscribed on the United Nations Educational, Scientific and
Cultural Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage List.
● Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct:
● Seven Natural World Heritage sites in India are (with the year):
1. Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area (2014)
2. Kaziranga National Park (1985)
3. Keoladeo National Park (1985)
4. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (1985)
5. Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks (1988, 2005)
6. Sundarbans National Park (1987)
7. Western Ghats (2012)
Kanha NP and Jim Corbett NP are not part of UNESCO’s Natural World Heritage sites. Hence Statements 3
and 5 are incorrect.

Explanation:
● The 'Project Tiger' is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and
Climate Change, providing funding support to tiger range States for in-situ conservation of tigers in designated
tiger reserves, and has put the endangered tiger on an assured path of recovery by saving it from extinction.
● This project is administered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
● National Tiger Conservation Authority has recommended setting up a Special Tiger Protection Force under PT
to combat poachers.
● The STPF has been made operational in the States of Karnataka (Bandipur), Maharashtra (Pench, Tadoba-
Andhari, Nawegaon-Nagzira), Rajasthan (Ranthambhore) and Odisha (Similipal), out of 13 initially selected
tiger reserves, with 60% central assistance under the ongoing Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Project Tiger
(CSS-PT).

Explanation:
● The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment,
Forests and Climate Change constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as
amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and functions assigned to it under the said
Act.
● As per the section 38 L, sub-section 2 of WPA, the NTCA consists of the Minister in charge of the Ministry of
Environment, Forests & Climate Change (Chairperson), the Minister of State in the MOEFCC (as Vice-
Chairperson), etc.
Page. 2
● Work of NTCA includes implementing MSTrIPES (Monitoring System for Tigers: Intensive Protection and
Ecological Status) in tiger reserves.
● The “M-STrIPES” is a platform where modern technology is used to assist in effective patrolling, assess
ecological status, and mitigate human-wildlife conflict in and around tiger reserves.
○ The MSTrIPES program uses Global Positioning System (GPS), General Packet Radio Services (GPRS),
and remote sensing, to collect information from the field, create a database using modern Information
Technology (IT) based tools, analyse the information using GIS-and statistical tools to provide inferences
that allow tiger reserve managers to better manage their wildlife resources.

Explanation:
● The tiger reserves of India were set up in 1973 and are governed by Project Tiger, which is administrated by
the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
● Statements 1 and 4 are correct:
Following are the tiger reserves (list not exclusive):
○ Valmiki National Park-Tiger Reserve (set up in 1989-90), Bihar
○ Guru Ghasidas National Park & Tamor Pingla Wild Life Sanctuary (October 2021), Chhattisgarh
○ Periyar National Park, Kerala
○ Simlipal National Park (1973-74), Odisha
○ Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve (June 2021), Rajasthan
■ Ramgarh Vishdhari Sanctuary is India’s 52nd Tiger Reserve
● Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: Following are not tiger reserves:
○ Silent Valley National Park (Kerala), though tigers may be found here.
○ Bhitarkanika National Park, Odisha

Explanation:
● Energy from the Sun is emitted and transported to Earth.
● The Sun emits energy in short, high-energy wavelengths that can pass through the Earth's atmosphere due to
its great heat.
● Approximately 30% of the Sun's energy is reflected back into space by the Earth's atmosphere, clouds, and
surface.
● The Earth's system takes in the Sun's residual energy.
● The atmosphere receives energy from the Earth.
● The energy is released as infrared radiation with longer wavelengths than solar energy because the Earth is
cooler than the Sun.
● The long-wave energy (infrared radiation) emitted by the Earth's surface is largely absorbed by greenhouse
gases in the atmosphere, keeping it from leaving the Earth's system.
Page. 3
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 2 are correct:
● Greenhouse gas (GHG) is a gas that absorbs and emits radiant energy within the thermal infrared range, causing
the greenhouse effect.
● The primary greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are water vapour (H 2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), methane
(CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), and ozone (O3).
○ Without greenhouse gases, the average temperature of Earth's surface would be about −18 °C (0 °F), rather
than the present average of 15 °C (59 °F).
● Nitrogen dioxide, or NO2, is a gaseous air pollutant composed of nitrogen and oxygen and is one of a group of
related gases called nitrogen oxides, or NOx.
● NO2 forms when fossil fuels such as coal, oil, gas, or diesel are burned at high temperatures.
● It is not a greenhouse gas but causes global cooling through the formation of hydroxyl(OH) radicals that
destroy methane molecules, countering the effect of GHGs.

Explanation:
● Chemically, black carbon (BC) is a component of fine particulate matter (PM ≤ 2.5 µm in aerodynamic
diameter).
○ Black carbon consists of pure carbon in several linked forms.
● Statement 1 is correct: It is formed through the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuel, and biomass,
and is one of the main types of particles in both anthropogenic and naturally occurring soot.
○ Approximately 20% of black carbon is emitted from burning biofuels, 40% from fossil fuels, and 40%
from open biomass burning.
● Statement 2 is correct: Forest Fires and Biomass burning emit greater amounts of climate-cooling aerosols
and particulate matter than black carbon, resulting in short-term cooling.
○ However, over the long term, biomass burning may cause net warming when CO2 emissions and
deforestation are considered.
● Statement 3 is correct: The rocket launches release tiny particles called aerosols in the stratosphere and
increase ozone layer loss.
○ It was found that each year, rocket launches could expel 1–10 gigagrams of black carbon at the lower end
to 30–100 gigagrams at the extreme end in the next few decades.
14. Answer: (D) None of the statements are incorrect.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Soot is a mass of impure carbon particles resulting from the incomplete combustion
of hydrocarbons.
○ It is more properly restricted to the product of the gas-phase combustion process.
○ Black carbon (BC) is commonly known as soot.
● Statement 2 is correct: A recent modelling study shows that increasing black carbon emissions leads to a
decrease in low-intensity rainfall in the pre-monsoon season.
● Regionally, black carbon disrupts cloudiness and monsoon rainfall.
● Statement 3 is correct: Black carbon deposits originating from factories, cooking and vehicles are
compounding the effects of climate change to speed up the melting of the Himalayan glaciers.
○ More aggressively curbing black carbon emissions can slow glacier melt and improve the security of water
resources in the region, according to a new World Bank report.
Page. 4
15. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Correct order is:
Gas Global Warming Potential
Carbon dioxide 1
Methane 21
Nitrous Oxide 310
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) 140-11.700
Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6) 23900

Explanation:
● The GHG Protocol guidelines arose from a collaborative effort by governments, industry associations, NGOs,
and corporations and partners with the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council
for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
● It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage
○ GHG Protocol is developing guidelines, techniques, and online training to assist countries, cities, and
organizations in tracking their progress toward their climate commitments.
● The GHG Protocol was established in 1998 to address the need for an international standard that corporations
could use to account for and report GHG emissions.
○ It published its first Corporate Standard in 2001.
● The Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Protocol is the main global standard for public and private sector entities to
measure GHG emissions.
○ Its standards apply to operations, value chains, and climate change mitigation actions.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Due to human-driven increased levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, there is
more CO2 dissolving into the ocean.
● The ocean's average pH is now around 8.1, which is basic (or alkaline), but as the ocean continues to absorb
more CO2, the pH decreases and the ocean becomes more acidic.
● Statement 2 is correct: The warming of Earth is primarily due to the accumulation of heat-trapping greenhouse
gases, and more than 90 per cent of this trapped heat is absorbed by the oceans.
○ As this heat is absorbed, ocean temperatures rise and water expands.
○ This thermal expansion contributes to global sea level rise.
● Statement 3 is correct: As a result of the thawing of snow due to global warming, the amount of arable land
in the high-latitude regions is likely to increase with the reduction of the number of frozen lands.
○ At the same time arable land along the coastlines is bound to be reduced as a result of rising sea levels and
saline water inundations.
18. Answer: B
Explanation:
● A study investigated why glaciers in the Karakoram Range of Central-South Asia have not been as affected
by Climate Change as others.
● They have attributed this phenomenon called Karakoram Anomaly to the recent revival of Western
Disturbances (WDs).
Page. 5
● The ‘Karakoram Anomaly’ is termed as the stability or anomalous growth of glaciers in the central
Karakoram, in contrast to the retreat of glaciers in other nearby mountainous ranges of the Himalayas and
other mountainous ranges the world.
● It is for the first time that a study brought forth the importance that enhanced Western Disturbance (WD)-
precipitation input during the accumulation period plays in modulating regional climatic anomalies.

Explanation:
● The Green Climate Fund was established by 194 countries party to the UN Framework Convention on
Climate Change in 2010.
● It is designed as an operating entity of the Convention’s financial mechanism and is headquartered in the
Republic of Korea.
● The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is an operating entity of the Financial Mechanism to assist developing
countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
● GCF was established under the Cancún Agreements in 2010 as a dedicated financing vehicle for developing
countries within the global climate architecture.
20. Answer: B
Explanation:
● At the COP27 summit concluded at Sharm el-Sheikh, delegates from the United Nations agreed to create a
'Loss and Damage' fund which will compensate the most vulnerable countries for their losses due to climate-
related disasters.
● In the context of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) process, loss and damage
are the harm caused by anthropogenic (human-generated) climate change.
● The fund will support the most vulnerable countries and severely impacted middle-income countries can
apply for aid too.
○ A transitional committee with members from 24 countries will make recommendations for countries to
adopt at the COP28 summit in November 2023.

Explanation:
● Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Ozone-depleting substances are chemicals that destroy the earth’s protective
ozone layer. They include:
○ Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
○ Halons
○ Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4)
○ Methyl chloroform (CH3CCl3)
○ Hydro Bromo fluorocarbons (HBFCs)
○ Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
○ Methyl bromide (CH3Br)
Page. 6
○ Bromochloromethane (CH2BrCl).
● Production and import of these chemicals are controlled by the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete
the Ozone Layer (the Montreal Protocol). There are other ozone-depleting substances, but their ozone-depleting
effects are very small, so they are not controlled by the Montreal Protocol.
● Statement 1 is correct: Nitrogen oxides are primarily produced by thermonuclear weapon explosions,
industrial emissions, and agricultural fertilisers.
○ Nitrous oxide (N2O) is produced from solids by the anaerobic denitrification of nitrates and the aerobic
nitrification of ammonia.
○ This N2O can gradually reach the stratosphere's middle layer, where it is photolytically destroyed to produce
nitric oxide, which destroys ozone.

Explanation
● In 1987, parties to the Vienna Convention agreed to the Montreal Protocol.
○ It makes it easier for people throughout the world to work together to stop the rapid reduction in ozone
concentrations in the atmosphere.
● Countries agreed to gradually reduce the production and use of specific chemicals that degrade the ozone
layer, and their phase-out is mandated by set timelines.
● With 197 parties, the Vienna Convention and its Montreal Protocol are the first and only international
environmental treaties to be universally ratified.
○ The Antarctic ozone hole is steadily closing as a result of the worldwide agreement, and according to climate
estimates, between 2050 and 2070, the ozone layer will reach levels last seen in 1980.
● Negotiators from 197 countries reached an agreement to update the Montreal Protocol in Kigali during the 28th
conference of the Parties to the Montreal Protocol (2016).
○ The parties agreed to nearly halve the production and use of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
● It is a contract containing non-compliance penalties that is legally binding between the signatory parties. It
became effective on January 1st, 2019.

Explanation:
● The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) was established to support adaptation activities
in the States and Union Territories (UTs) of India that are vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change.
● NAFCC is implemented in project mode and to date, 30 projects are sanctioned in 27 States and UTs.
● National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE).
● It funds concrete adaptation projects/programmes aligned with the relevant Missions under National Action
Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) and the State Action Plan on Climate Change (SAPCCs) in various sectors
to address climate change related issues.
● It is a Central Sector Scheme that was set up in the year 2015-16.
Page. 7
Explanation:
● It is launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
○ The Pilot Scheme of Nagar Van Yojana (NVY) envisages developing 400 Nagar Vans and 200 Nagar
Vatikas in the country during the period of 2020-21 to 2024-25 with an objective to significantly enhance
the tree outside forests and green cover, enhancement of biodiversity and ecological benefits to the urban
and peri-urban areas apart from improving quality of life of city dwellers.
● Warje Urban Forest in Pune (Maharashtra) is considered a role model for the Scheme.
● The total estimated cost of Nagar Van Yojana is Rs.895 crores for the period of 2020-21 to 2024-25 for
implementation from the National Funds under Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning
Authority (CAMPA).

Explanation:
● In 2019, the government raised its target of restoration of degraded land from 21 million hectares to 26 million
hectares by 2030 following a commitment made during the UN Convention to Combat Desertification
(COP14).
○ Nearly three years on, the government is nowhere near this target.
● Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Delhi, Gujarat, and Goa have more than 50% of their land area undergoing
desertification or degradation.
● Kerala, Assam, Mizoram, Haryana, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Arunachal Pradesh are states with less
than 10% of land degradation.
● According to the Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas 2021, at least 30% of India’s total geographical
area is under the category of “degraded land”.

Explanation:
● IUCN & the WWF coined the term forest landscape restoration in 2000.
● FLR aims to restore a whole landscape to meet present & future needs & to offer multiple benefits & land uses.
● FLR had received global attention since 2011 when the international community launched the Bonn Challenge.
● The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to bring 150 million hectares of degraded & deforested land into
restoration by 2020 & 350 million hectares by 2030.
● It was launched by the Government of Germany & IUCN in 2011.

Explanation:
● The first National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) was adopted in 1983, based upon the decision taken in the XV
meeting of the Indian Board for Wildlife held in 1982.
● The plan outlined the strategies and action points for wildlife conservation that are still relevant.
● The National Forest Policy was also formulated in 1988, giving primacy to conservation.
Page. 8
● The Union Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) released the third National
Wildlife Action Plan for 2017-2031, outlining the future path for wildlife conservation.
○ The NWAP is made up of five parts, 17 themes, 103 conservation actions, and 250 projects.
○ The plan includes detailed recommendations for implementation in protected areas.
● The third National Wildlife Action Plan is noteworthy in that it is the first time India has acknowledged the
concerns about climate change's impact on wildlife and emphasized the importance of including activities
needed for mitigation and adaptation into wildlife management planning procedures.
● The second National Wildlife Action Plan (2002–2016) of MoEFCC stipulated that state governments should
declare land falling within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries as eco-fragile
zones or ESZs under the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986. (not for the first time)
○ The purpose of the ESZ was to provide more protection to the parks by acting as a shock absorber or
transition zone.

Explanation:
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct:
● The National Afforestation and Eco-Development Board (NAEB), is responsible for promoting afforestation,
tree planting, ecological restoration, and eco-development activities in the country, with special attention to the
degraded forest areas and lands adjoining the forest areas, national parks, sanctuaries, and other protected areas
as well as the ecologically fragile areas like the Western Himalayas, Aravallis, Western Ghats, etc.
● National Afforestation Programme (NAP) is a flagship initiative of the National Afforestation and Eco-
Development Board (NAEB) that offers physical and capacity-building assistance to the implementing
agencies, the Forest Development Agencies (FDAs).
○ Forest Development Agencies (FDAs) are the primary organs responsible for the institutionalization of
Joint Forest Management.
29. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in 2004, constituted the Compensatory
Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) for the purpose of management of money
collected towards compensatory afforestation (CA), net present value (NPV) and any other money recoverable
from the user agencies for utilizing forest land for non-forest purposes under the Forest (Conservation) Act,
1980.
● The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is established under the
Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
● National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India and the State Compensatory
Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state was created.
○ The Supreme Court of India in 2002 (TN Godhavarman Vs Union of India case) had ordered the creation
of a CAMPA fund.
○ CAMPA was established in 2004 to manage the Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF) and it acts as its
custodian.
Page. 9
Explanation:
● Joint Forest Management often abbreviated as JFM is the official and popular term in India for partnerships in
forest movement involving both the state forest departments and local communities.
● The concept was first introduced by the Indian government through the National Forest Policy of 1988.
● Rehabilitating degraded forestlands with the help of Forest Protection Committees is one of the program's
main objectives.
● This co-management initiative seeks to build partnerships between forest fringe communities and the Forest
Department (FD) based on shared respect and duties and responsibilities for the preservation and regeneration
of the forest.
● Village communities are given responsibility for the management and preservation of the surrounding forests
under JFM.
● By speaking with the local population or with the assistance of NGOs active in certain regions, forest
departments take the initiative to establish such committees.

Explanation:
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct:
● The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, provides for protection of listed species of flora and fauna and establishes
a network of ecologically-important protected areas.
○ The Act consists of 60 Sections and VI Schedules- divided into Eight Chapters.
● The Wildlife Protection Act, of 1972 empowers the central and state governments to declare any area a
wildlife sanctuary, national park, or closed area.
○ There is a blanket ban on carrying out any industrial activity inside these protected areas.
● It provides for authorities to administer and implement the Act; regulate the hunting of wild animals; protect
specified plants, sanctuaries, national parks, and closed areas; restrict trade or commerce in wild animals
or animal articles and animal products and trophies; and miscellaneous matters.
● The Act prohibits hunting of animals except with permission of an authorized officer when an animal has
become dangerous to human life or property or as disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery.
● The Wild Life (Protection) Act provides for the establishment of State wildlife advisory boards.
● Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980 deals with the four categories of forests, namely reserved forests, village
forests, protected forests, and private forests.

Explanation:
● The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 regulates the protection of wild animals, birds and plants.
● The Act seeks to increase the species protected under the law, and implement the Convention on International
Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
● Key features of the Act include:
● CITES is an international agreement between governments to ensure that international trade in specimens of
wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
Page. 10
● Under CITES, plant and animal specimens are classified into three categories (Appendices) based on the threat
of their extinction.
● The Convention requires countries to regulate the trade of all listed specimens through permits. It also seeks
to regulate the possession of live animal specimens.
● The Act seeks to implement these provisions of CITES.
● Currently, the Act has six schedules for specially protected plants (one), specially protected animals (four), and
vermin species (one).
● Vermin refers to small animals that carry disease and destroy food.
● The amended Act reduces the total number of schedules to four by
i. reducing the number of schedules for specially protected animals to two (one for greater protection
level),
ii. removing the schedule for vermin species, and
iii. inserting a new schedule for specimens listed in the Appendices under CITES (scheduled specimens).
○ The Act provides for the central government to designate a:
(i) Management Authority, which grants export or import permits for the trade of specimens, and
(ii) Scientific Authority, which gives advice on aspects related to the impact on the survival of the specimens
being traded.

Explanation:
Key features of The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 include:
● The Act entrusts the Chief Wild Life Warden to control, manage and maintain all sanctuaries in a state.
● The Chief Wild Life Warden is appointed by the state government.
○ The Act specifies that the actions of the Chief Warden must be in accordance with the management plans
for the sanctuary.
○ These plans will be prepared as per the guidelines of the central government, and as approved by the Chief
Warden.
● For sanctuaries falling under special areas, the management plan must be prepared after due consultation with
the concerned Gram Sabha.
● Special areas include a Scheduled Area or areas where the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 is applicable.
● Scheduled Areas are economically backward areas with a predominantly tribal population, notified under the
Fifth Schedule to the Constitution.
● The Act provides for any person to voluntarily surrender any captive animals or animal products to the Chief
Wild Life Warden.
○ No compensation will be paid to the person for surrendering such items.
○ The surrendered items become the property of the state government.
Page. 11
34. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Forest Conservation Act of 1980 (FCA, 1980) is an act by the Parliament of India that ensures the
conservation of forests and their resources.
○ The Forest Conservation Act, of 1980 came into force to address deforestation.
○ It prohibits the felling of forests for any “non-forestry” use without prior clearance by the central
government.
● Under the provisions of this Act, prior approval of the Central Government is required for the diversion of
forestlands for non-forest purposes.
● A state may declare forestlands or wastelands as reserved forests and may sell the produce from these
forests.

Explanation:
● Under FCA, The Central Government has the power to make rules for carrying out the provisions of this Act.
● Any person aggrieved may file an appeal to the National Green Tribunal.
● Offences made by Authorities or Government Departments are punishable.
○ Penalty for contravention of the provisions of the Act: The contravention of any of the provisions of the act,
shall be punishable with simple imprisonment for a period which may extend to fifteen days.
● The Central Government may constitute an advisory committee to advise the government with regard to
forest conservation.
36. Answer: (C) All statements are correct.

Explanation:
● The Global Environment Facility (GEF) is a multilateral environmental fund that provides grants and blended
finance for projects related to biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land degradation, persistent
organic pollutants (POPs), mercury, sustainable forest management, food security, and sustainable cities in
developing countries.
● It is the largest source of multilateral funding for biodiversity globally and distributes more than $1 billion
a year on average to address inter-related environmental challenges.
○ The Global Environment Facility is the world’s largest funder of biodiversity protection, nature
restoration, pollution reduction, and climate change response in developing countries.
○ It finances international environmental conventions and country-driven initiatives that generate global
benefits.
● The GEF was established ahead of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit and includes 184 countries in partnership with
international institutions, civil society organizations, and the private sector.
○ It supports country-driven sustainable development initiatives in developing countries that generate global
environmental benefits.
● The GEF also supports the implementation of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone
Layer (MP).
Page. 12
● In addition to funding projects through grants and blended finance, the GEF also serves as a financial
mechanism for the following conventions:
1. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
2. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
3. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
4. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants.
5. Minamata Convention on Mercury.

Explanation:
● The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the 'Earth
Summit', was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.
● The Earth Summit resulted in the following documents:
1. Rio Declaration: principles intended to guide countries in future sustainable development.
2. Agenda 21: non-binding action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development.
3. Forest Principles: Non-legally binding document on Conservation and Sustainable Development of All
Types of Forests.
● The 'Earth Summit' had many great achievements: The Rio Declaration and its 27 universal principles, the
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the Convention on Biological
Diversity, and the Declaration on the principles of forest management.
● The 'Earth Summit' also led to the creation of the Commission on Sustainable Development, the holding of
the first world conference on the sustainable development of small island developing States in 1994, and
negotiations for the establishment of the agreement on straddling stocks and highly migratory fish stocks. Hence
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect:
● Agenda 21 is an action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development. It is not legally
binding.
● It was adopted at the Earth Summit (UN Conference on Environment and Development) held in Rio de Janeiro,
Brazil, in 1992.
● It is an action agenda for the UN, other multilateral organizations, and individual governments around the world
that can be executed at local, national, and global levels.
● The number 21 refers to an agenda for the 21st century. Its aim is to achieve global sustainable development.

Explanation:
● The United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity is a multilateral treaty opened for signature at the Earth
Summit in Rio De Janeiro in 1992.
○ It is a key document regarding sustainable development.
○ It comes under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
● The convention is legally binding on its signatories.
● The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) was established in 1994 to protect and
restore our land and ensure a safer, just, and more sustainable future.
Page. 13
● The UNCCD is the only legally binding framework set up to address desertification and the effects of
drought.
○ There are 197 Parties to the Convention, including 196 country Parties and the European Union.
○ The Convention – based on the principles of participation, partnership, and decentralization – is a
multilateral commitment to mitigate the impact of land degradation, and protect our land so we can provide
food, water, shelter, and economic opportunity to all people.
● UNFCCC is itself not legally binding,
● The UNFCCC does not impose legally binding caps on national greenhouse gas emissions and does not
include any means of enforcing those caps.
○ However, given its protocols would establish the emission targets and legally obligatory enforcements, it
was anticipated that the agreement would be legally binding.
○ The Kyoto Protocol is one such significant protocol that is enforceable.

Explanation:
● The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund established within the framework of the UNFCCC as an operating
entity of the Financial Mechanism to assist developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to
counter climate change.
○ The GCF is based in Incheon, South Korea.
○ It is governed by a Board of 24 members and supported by a Secretariat.
● GCF will help developing countries financially in adapting mitigation practices to counter climate change.
● It is a mechanism to redistribute money from the developed to the developing world.

Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Lead is a cumulative toxicant that affects multiple body systems and is particularly
harmful to young children.
○ It is a carcinogen of the lungs and kidneys.
○ Lead in the body is distributed to the brain, liver, kidney and bones.
○ It is stored in the teeth and bones, where it accumulates over time.
● Statement 2 is correct: Tetraethyl lead (TEL) was added to petrol as an anti-knock agent for the smooth
running of engines.
○ Lead can cause irreversible behavioural disturbances, neurological damage, and other developmental
problems in young children and babies.
● Statement 3 is correct: Battery scrap also contains lead. It can get mixed up with water and food and create
cumulative poisoning.
● Human exposure is usually assessed through the measurement of lead in blood.
○ Lead in bone is released into the blood during pregnancy and becomes a source of exposure to the
developing fetus.
○ Lead enters the atmosphere from automobile exhaust.
Page. 14
42 Answer: (B) Only two statements are incorrect.
Explanation:
● Mercury poisoning is a type of metal poisoning due to exposure to mercury.
● Symptoms may include muscle weakness, poor coordination, numbness in the hands and feet, skin rashes,
anxiety, memory problems, trouble speaking, trouble hearing, or trouble seeing.
● Inhalation of mercury vapours is more dangerous than its ingestion.
● Exposure to mercury, even in small amounts, may cause serious health problems, and is a threat to the
development of the child in utero and early in life.
● Minamata Disease is a disorder caused by methylmercury poisoning that was first described in the inhabitants
of Minamata Bay, Japan.
○ It resulted from eating fish contaminated with mercury from industrial waste.
43. Answer: (B) Only two pairs are correctly matched.

Explanation:
Groundwater Recorded in
Contaminants
Arsenic West Bengal, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Assam and Uttar Pradesh.
Flouride Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Orissa, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
Uranium Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka,
Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, West
Bengal, and Jammu & Kashmir have localised occurrence of Uranium concentration.
Iron Throughout India

Explanation:
● Arsenic is naturally present at high levels in the groundwater of several countries.
● It is a naturally occurring trace element that occurs in many minerals, usually in combination with sulphur
and metals.
● Contaminated water used for drinking, food preparation and irrigation of food crops pose the greatest threat to
public health from arsenic.
● Arsenic is also emitted from fossil fuel burning.
● Liquid effluents from fertilizer plants also contain arsenic.
● Inorganic arsenic compounds (such as those found in water) are highly toxic.
● The organic arsenic compounds (such as those found in seafood) are less harmful to health.
● Long-term exposure to arsenic from drinking water and food can cause cancer and skin lesions.
○ It has also been associated with cardiovascular disease and diabetes.
○ In utero and early childhood, exposure has been linked to negative impacts on cognitive development and
increased deaths in young adults.
Page. 15
45. Answer: (B) Only two pairs are correctly matched.
Explanation:
Diseases Caused by Contamination of
1. Itai-Itai Disease Cadmium
2. Hemochromatosis Iron
3. Keratosis Arsenic
4. Fluorosis Flouride
46. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Nanda Devi National Park or Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, established in 1982 is a national park
situated around the peak of Nanda Devi (7816 m) in Chamoli Garhwal district of Uttarakhand, in northern
India.
○ The entire park lies at an elevation of more than 3,500 m (11,500 ft) above mean sea level.
○ The National Park has inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1988.
○ It was later expanded and renamed as Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks in 2005.
● Within the National Park lies the Nanda Devi Sanctuary, a glacial basin surrounded by a ring of peaks between
6,000 metres (19,700 ft) and 7,500 m (24,600 ft) high, and drained by the Rishi Ganga through the Rishi Ganga
Gorge, a steep almost impassable defile.
● Common larger mammals are Himalayan musk deer, mainland serow, and Himalayan tahr.
○ Himalayan goral is not found within, but in the vicinity of the park.
● Carnivores are represented by snow leopards, Himalayan black bears, and also Himalayan brown bears.
○ Langurs are found within the park, whereas rhesus macaques are known to occur in the neighbouring areas
of the park.

Explanation:
● Khangchendzonga /Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve, is a national park and a biosphere reserve located in
Sikkim, India.
● It was inscribed to the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list in July 2016, becoming the first "Mixed Heritage"
site in India.
● It was included in the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere Programme.
● The park is named after the mountain Kangchenjunga.
Statement 2 is correct: There are a few Lepcha tribal settlements inside the park.
Statement 3 is correct: The vegetation of the park includes temperate broadleaf and mixed forests consisting of
oaks, fir, birch, maple, and willow.
● The vegetation of the park also includes Alpine grasses and shrubs at higher altitudes along with many
medicinal plants and herbs.
Additional Information
● The park contains Tholung Monastery, a gompa located in the park's buffer zone.
○ It is considered one of the most sacred monasteries in Sikkim.
○ Recently Sikkim’s Tholung Monastery revived 233-year-old Khamsel tradition after a gap of 9 years.
○ Khamsel is a triennial exhibition of ancient Buddhist and Tibetan relics dating back to as early as the
7th century AD.
▪ Khamsel, a conjunction of two words Kham meaning drying and Sel meaning airing in Tibetan, is
when clothes and belongings of Lhatsun Chenpo are exhibited.
Page. 16
Explanation:
● The Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve encompasses a large part (some 85%) of the island of Great Nicobar
(and not Car Nicobar), the largest of the Nicobar Islands in the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.
○ The Nicobar Islands lie in the Bay of Bengal, the eastern Indian Ocean, 190 km to the north of the Indonesian
island of Sumatra.
● In the year 2013 it was included in the list of Man and Biosphere Programme of UNESCO to promote
sustainable development based on a local community effort and sound science
● It incorporates two National parks of India, which were gazetted in 1992:
1. The larger Campbell Bay National Park on the northern part of the island, and
2. Galathea National Park in the southern interior.
● It is home to various turtle species like Hawksbill, Olive Ridley, Leatherback, Malayan box, and Giant
leatherback.
● The leatherback sea turtle is the largest of all living turtles and the heaviest non-crocodilian reptile, reaching
lengths of up to 1.8 metres (5 ft 11 in) and weights of 500 kilograms (1,100 lb).

Explanation:
● Keoladeo Ghana National Park is a famous avifauna sanctuary in Bharatpur, Rajasthan, India, that hosts
thousands of birds, especially during the winter season.
● Statement 1 is correct: Keoladeo Ghana National Park is a man-made and man-managed wetland and one
of the national parks of India.
● Statement 2 is correct: It was created at the confluence of two rivers, the Gambhir and Banganga.
○ The reserve protects Bharatpur from frequent floods, provides grazing grounds for village cattle, and earlier
was primarily used as a waterfowl hunting ground.
○ It was declared a protected sanctuary in 1971 and established as a national park on 10 March 1982. It is
also a World Heritage Site.
● Statement 3 is correct: Keoladeo National Park is known as a "bird paradise" since more than 370 bird
species have been recorded in the park.
● It is also the only regular wintering area in India for the Siberian crane.
50. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Sanjay National Park (Guru Ghasidas National Park) is a national park in Koriya district of Chhattisgarh
and Sidhi, Singrauli districts of Madhya Pradesh state, India.
○ It covers an area of 466.657 km2 (180.177 sq mi) and is a part of the Sanjay-Dubri Tiger Reserve.
○ It is located in the Narmada Valley dry deciduous forests ecoregion.
○ The National Park is named after Guru Ghasidas.
● In addition, considering that what used to be Surguja State is now part of Chhattisgarh, and that the state has a
district called 'Koriya', this overall area was the last known territory of the Asiatic cheetah in India.
● Guru Ghasidas National Park is significant as the Asiatic cheetah’s last-known habitat in India.
*******
Page. 17
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)

(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
C
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
penalty.
question.
1. The two most abundant gases in the 1. Soil added with finely crushed silicates
Earth’s atmosphere exert almost no can store carbon for longer periods of
greenhouse effect. time.
2. Ice cores from the cryosphere can be 2. Wildfires enhance the ability of forests
used to analyze Earth’s past climate. to act as carbon sinks.
3. Carbon dioxide can absorb both the 3. Graphene production industry is one of
the biggest carbon dioxide emitters.
infrared part and the ultraviolet part of
the solar radiation.
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three
(d) None
1. Clouds that contain more water droplets
2. Consider the following pairs : are more effective at blocking sunlight
Gas Characteristic than those composed mainly of ice
1. Nitrous Oxide – Ozone depleting crystals.
substance 2. Low, thick clouds reflect a large part of
2. Black Carbon – Long-lived with solar radiation and absorb little heat
high global from the ocean and land.
warming potential
3. A shift in sun-blocking clouds from the
3. Chlorofluoro- – Phased out via the tropics towards the poles would
carbons Montreal Protocol
decrease their power to block sunlight.
How many of the above pair(s) is/are How many of the statement(s) given above
correctly matched? is/are correct?
(a) Only one pair (a) Only one
(b) Only two pairs (b) Only two
(c) All three pairs (c) All three
(d) None of the pairs (d) None
Copy is ENCRYPTED and for personal use ONLY| www.sunyaias.com | PRELIMS-2024 1
5. Consider the following statements : 7. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: 1. The carbon credit system was ratified in
Earth’s vegetated lands have shown significant
conjunction with the Nagoya Protocol.
greening.
Statement II: 2. Carbon credits are traded at a price
Increased concentrations of CO2 in the fixed from time to time by the United
atmosphere increases photosynthesis, spurring
plant growth.. Nations Environment Programme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect 3. Indian Council of Forestry Research
of the above statements?
and Education is an UNFCCC
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct accredited certifier under the Clean
explanation for Statement-I Development Mechanism.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct How many of the statement(s) given above
explanation for Statement-I is/are correct?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect (a) Only one
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (b) Only two
correct
(c) All three
6. Consider the following pairs : (d) None
Type of Description
Carbon
8. Which of the following statements is
1. Green – Carbon credits earned
incorrect?
Carbon through carbon
sequestration (a) Solar geo-engineering is an effective
2. Brown – Carbon released through way to address the root cause of climate
Carbon industrial emissions change.
3. Blue – Carbon stored in freshwater (b) Ocean fertilization is a type of
Carbon environments
technology for carbon dioxide removal
4. Purple – Carbon released through from the ocean.
Carbon biological particles
(c) Increasing ocean alkalinity will
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched? increase its ability to store carbon.
(a) Only one pair (d) Introducing small, reflective particles
(b) Only two pairs
into the upper atmosphere will reduce
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs global warming.
9. With reference to the coal gasification 11. Consider the following Indian laws :
process, consider the following statements : 1. Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974
1. Syngas can be used to produce
2. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
methanol and ammonia. Act, 1981
2. Coal gasification offers a viable 3. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
solution to harness a significant portion How many of the above can be seen as the
of India's ‘unmineable’ coal reserves. outcomes to the 1972 United Nations
Conference on the Human Environment in
3. The coal gasification process stands out Stockholm?
for its exceptional characteristic of not (a) Only one
contaminating groundwater. (b) Only two
How many of the statement(s) given above (c) All three
is/are correct? (d) None
(a) Only one

12. Consider the following:
(b) Only two 1. United Nations Framework Convention on
(c) All three Climate Change
(d) None 2. Declaration on the principles of forest
management
3. Convention on Biological Diversity
10. Consider the following statements regarding 4. Agenda 21
the 1972 United Nations Conference on the How many of the above were the achievements
Human Environment in Stockholm: of the Rio Earth Summit, 1992?
1. It was the first world conference to (a) Only one
(b) Only two
make the environment a major issue.
(c) Only three
2. It led to the creation of the United (d) All four
Nations Environment Programme and
International Union for Conservation of 13. Consider the following statements regarding the
Nature. Rio +10 Summit, 2002 :
3. India was instrumental in the 1. The Johannesburg Declaration on
Sustainable Development was adopted.
recognition of poverty alleviation as a
2. UN-REDD and Global Environment
key for environment conservation. Facility were set up.
How many of the statement(s) given above Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
is/are correct? is/correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
14. With reference to the Rio +20 Summit, 16. Consider the following statements with
2012, consider the following statements : reference to the United Nations Framework
1. The UN Sustainable Development Convention on Climate Change
Goals were not established at this (UNFCCC):
Summit. 1. UNFCCC has never achieved its stated
2. The Sustainable Development Goals goals of reducing the emission of
have to be achieved by 2030. carbon dioxide.
2. Flexible Market Mechanisms under the
3. "The Future We Want", a non-binding
Kyoto Protocol have stimulated green
document, was finalized at the Summit.
investment in developing countries.
3. A big drawback of the Kyoto Protocol
is/are correct?
is that there are no penalties if a country
(a) Only one
misses its targets.
(b) Only two
(c) All three is/are correct?
(b) Only two
15. Consider the following statements regarding (c) All three
the United Nations Framework Convention (d) None
on Climate Change (UNFCCC) :
1. UNFCCC is a legally non-binding 17. Consider the following statements regarding
international environmental treaty. the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism:
2. UNFCCC by itself sets no binding 1. the global tax will be imposed on the
limits on greenhouse gas emissions for movement of carbon-intensive products
individual countries. between any two countries.
3. The first Conferences of the Parties 2. It is designed to ensure that the carbon
(COP) meeting was held in Berlin in price of imports is equivalent to the
1995. carbon price of domestic production
How many of the statement(s) given above Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
is/are correct? correct?
18. Consider the following statements regarding 20. Consider the following :
‘Green Climate Fund’ (GCF) : 1. To reduce Emissions Intensity of its GDP
1. GCF was established during the 2015 by 33-35% by 2030 from 2005 level.
United Nations Climate Change 2. To achieve 500 GW of electric power
Conference in Paris. from non-fossil fuel-based energy
2. It aims to support projects, programmes, resources by 2030.
policies and other activities in developing 3. To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5
countries. to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent
through additional forest and tree cover
3. At least three-fourth of GCF’s adaptation
by 2030.
resources must be invested in the most
4. To achieve carbon-neutrality by 2070.
climate vulnerable countries.
How many of the above are India’s targets in
its updated Nationally Determined
is/are correct?
Contributions under the Paris Agreement?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
19. Which of the following statements is 21. Consider the following statements with regard
incorrect? to the UN Environment Programme (UNEP):
(a) At the Doha Climate Change Conference 1. The World Meteorological Organization
2012, an agreement was reached to and UNEP established the
extend the life of the Kyoto Protocol. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
(b) The term Intended Nationally Change.
Determined Contributions was coined in 2. It is a member of the United Nations
Warsaw Climate Change Conference Development Group.
2013. 3. UN Environment is the sole

implementing agency for the Global
(c) The 2015 Paris Agreement calls for zero
Environment Facility.
net anthropogenic greenhouse gas
Which of the statement(s) given above) is/are
emissions to be reached during the
correct?
second half of the 21st century.
(a) Only one
(d) Climate Neutral Now is an initiative of
(b) Only two
the United Nations Environment
(c) All three
Programme.
(d) None
22. Consider the following statements with 24. Consider the following statements:
regard to the Intergovernmental Panel on 1. A pure carbon cap fixes the price of
Climate Change (IPCC): carbon but allows the number of carbon
1. It is a scientific intergovernmental body emissions to vary.
under the auspices of the United 2. A pure carbon tax places a limit on
Nations. carbon emissions, letting the market
2. The IPCC carries out its own research price of carbon credits vary.
regarding the effects of human-induced
3. A carbon trading program issues a set
climate change.
number of emissions each year.
3. It has won the Noble Peace Prize once.
incorrect?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None

1. Mangroves for the Future initiative is
1. Geoengineering is the deliberate large-
scale intervention in the Earth’s natural co-chaired by the IUCN and UNDP.
systems to counteract climate change. 2. It focuses on ecosystem restoration and
2. It aims to directly remove carbon strengthening the resilience of coastal
dioxide or other greenhouse gases from communities in the Asia-Pacific region.
the atmosphere. 3. It relies on a history of coastal
3. Ocean Fertilization implies the addition management initiatives implemented
of nutrients to the ocean in selected both before and after the 2004 tsunami
locations to increase primary in the Indian Ocean.
production. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
26. Which of the following are causes of ocean 28. Consider the following statements with
acidification? regard to the Kyoto Protocol (COP 3, 1997):
1. Eutrophication 1. Kyoto protocol aimed to cut greenhouse
2. Increase in the concentration of Carbon gas emissions by about 5 per cent by
dioxide in the atmosphere 2012 compared with 1990 levels.
2. The United States, one of the biggest
3. Increase in the concentration of
polluters never ratified the Kyoto
Hydrogen ions in the Water
Protocol.
3. The Protocol is based on the principle
given below:
of common but differentiated
(a) Only one responsibilities.
(b) Only two Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(c) All three correct?
(b) Only two
27. Consider the following pair(s): (c) All three
Summit Held in (d) None
1 World Summit on : Glasgow
.
Sustainable 29. Consider the following statements with
Development regard to the Classification of Parties and
(WSSD) their commitments under the Kyoto
2 UN Conference : Rio de Janeiro Protocol of 1997:
. Environment
on 1. Annex II countries are those who are
and Development required to provide financial and
(UNCED) technical support to developing
3 United Nations : Johannesburg countries to assist them in reducing
.
Conference on their greenhouse gas emissions.
Sustainable 2. Annex B countries are those that have
Development no binding targets to reduce GHG
(UNCSD) emissions.
Which of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
matched? correct?
(a) Only one pair (a) 1 only
(b) Only two pairs (b) 2 only
(c) All three pairs (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
regard to the Convention on the regard to the Central Asian Mammals
Initiative:
Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild
1. It is an initiative of the Bonn
Animals (CMS):
Convention.
1. It is an international treaty under the 2. It aims to conserve migratory mammal
aegis of the United Nations Framework species in Central Asia like Snow
Convention on Climate Change. Leopard and Saiga.
2. It is the only global intergovernmental 3. India and Russia are member countries
of this initiative.
organization established exclusively for
the conservation of migratory species
correct?
throughout their range. (a) Only one
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are (b) Only two
correct? (c) All Three
(a) 1 only (d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 33. Consider the following pairs:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Declaration Adopted Under
1. Gandhinagar Global Tiger
31. Consider the following statement(s) with Declaration Recovery Program
regard to the Raptors MoU: (GTRP)
2. St. Petersburg Convention of
1. It was signed under the aegis of the
Declaration Migratory Species
Bonn Convention.
(CMS)
2. India is a signatory to the Raptor MoU. 3. Bishkek Global Snow
3. It is a legally binding agreement to Declaration Leopard &
protect migratory birds of prey. Ecosystem
Program
(GSLESP)
correct?
Which of the pair(s) given above is/are
(a) Only one incorrectly matched?
(b) Only two (a) Only one pair
(c) All three (b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None
(d) None of the pairs
34. Consider the following statements with 36. In which of the following situations, fly-ash
regard to the Coalition Against Wildlife can be used?
Trafficking (CAWT): 1. In the reclamation of wastelands
1. It was established by the UNEP and the 2. To increase crop yield
CITES as a voluntary coalition of 3. Partial replacement of cement
governments and organizations. Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
2. The South Asia Wildlife Enforcement
(a) Only one
Network was established with the aid of
(b) Only two
CAWT and TRAFFIC.
(c) All three
3. India is a party to the South Asia
(d) None
Wildlife Enforcement Network.
37. Which of the following process(s) produces
incorrect?
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) in the atmosphere?
(a) Only one 1. Burning woods
(b) Only two 2. Volcano eruption
(c) All three 3. Roasting of ores like pyrites
(d) None Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
35. Consider the following statement(s) with (a) Only one
regard to the Global Tiger Forum (GTF): (b) Only two
1. It is an intergovernmental body (c) All three
established with members from the tiger (d) None
range countries.
2. The secretariat of the Global Tiger
regard to the Ramsar Sites in India:
Forum is located in St. Petersburg.
1. There are 52 Ramsar sites in India.
3. It launched the Doubling the Tiger
2. Uttar Pradesh has the maximum number
Population Initiative.
of Ramsar sites in India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? correct?
39. The Ramsar convention on wetlands defines 41. Consider the following statement(s) with
wetlands as an area of the marsh: regard to the Convention on International
1. Which is temporary and formed Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna
naturally
and Flora or CITES:
2. Which includes brackish water only
1. It is a multilateral treaty drafted as a
3. Which includes freshwater only
result of a resolution adopted by the
incorrect? World Wide Fund for Nature.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Although CITES is not legally binding

(b) 2 and 3 only on the Parties, it takes the place of
(c) 1 and 3 only national laws.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
incorrect?
40. Consider the following statements with (a) 1 only
regard to the Ramsar sites: (b) 2 only

1. Bolivia has the largest area under (c) Both 1 and 2
Ramsar protection.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. United Kingdom has the maximum
number of Ramsar sites.
3. Contracting Parties cannot designate 42. The Washington Convention, often heard in
their existing Ramsar Sites as news, is related to which of the following

Transboundary Ramsar Sites on their subjects?
own.
(a) Liberalization of Economy
(b) Freedom of International Trade
correct?
(c) Protect endangered plants and animals
(a) Only one
(b) Only two from the threats of international trade
(c) All three (d) Categorization of threatened species of

(d) None animals and plants under IUCN
43. Consider the following statements: 45. With reference to the Himalayas, consider
1. Carbon sequestration is the process of the following statements:
capturing and storing atmospheric 1. Himalayan Mountains are the third
carbon dioxide. largest deposits of ice and snow in the
world after Antarctica and the Arctic.
2. Geologic carbon sequestration is the
2. Mount K2, the second-highest peak in
process of storing carbon dioxide in
the world, lies in the Karakoram
underground geologic formations like
Mountain range.
rocks.
3. Siachen glacier lies in the Zanskar
3. Biologic carbon sequestration refers to
Range system which is a part of
the storage of atmospheric carbon
Western Himalayas.
inside vegetation, soils, woody
products, and aquatic environments. correct?
Which of the above statement(s) is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) Only one (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) All three
(d) None 46. Consider the following statements:
1. International Solar Alliance (ISA) has
44. Consider the following statements with recently launched a solar facility that
aims at developing efficient and less
regard to biochar:
expensive solar technology.
1. It reduces the acidity of the soil.
2. International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a
2. It helps to prevent fertilizer runoff and
treaty based inter-govern-mental or-
leaching. ganization.
3. It is produced by the direct thermal 3. It is an alliance of 123 countries that lie
decomposition of biomass in the completely between the Tropic of
absence of oxygen. Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
incorrect? correct?
(c) All three (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) None (d) 1 and 3 only
47. Arrange the following type of ecosystems in 49. The Post 2020 Global Biodiversity
increasing order of productivity: Framework is an initiative led by?
1. Lakes and streams (a) The International Union for
2. Estuaries Conservation of Nature
3. Savanna (b) The World Wildlife Fund for Nature
4. Continental Shelf (c) The United Nations Convention on
Select the correct answer using the codes Biological Diversity
given below: (d) The Global Environment Facility.
(a) 1-4-3-2
(b) 4-1-3-2 50. Consider the following statements with
(c) 4-3-1-2 regard to the Environmental DNA:
(d) 1-4-2-3 1. It is the DNA that is directly sampled

from individual organisms.
48. Consider the following statements: 2. It could help in identifying and
1. Biomining is the technique of extracting monitoring endangered species.
metals from ores and other solid 3. This method cannot provide accurate
materials typically using microbes. data for population census.
2. During biomining the organisms secrete Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
different organic compounds that correct?
chelate metals from the environment. (a) Only one
3. Bio-oxidation is the process when the (b) Only two

metal of interest is directly dissolved in (c) All three
the biomining process. (d) None
correct?
******
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)

1. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The two most abundant gases in the atmosphere, nitrogen (comprising 78% of the dry
atmosphere) and oxygen (comprising 21%), exert almost no greenhouse effect. Instead, the greenhouse effect comes
from molecules that are more complex and much less common. Carbon dioxide (CO2), and water vapour are some of
the most important greenhouse gases due to their large amounts in the atmosphere. Methane, nitrous oxide, ozone and
several other gases present in the atmosphere in small amounts also contribute to the greenhouse effect.
In the humid equatorial regions, where there is so much water vapour in the air that the greenhouse effect is very
large, adding a small additional amount of CO2 or water vapour has only a small direct impact on downward infrared
radiation. However, in the cold, dry polar regions, the effect of a small increase in CO 2 or water vapour is much
greater. The same is true for the cold, dry upper atmosphere where a small increase in water vapour has a greater
influence on the greenhouse effect than the same change in water vapour would have near the surface.
In the industrial era, human activities have added greenhouse gases to the atmosphere, primarily through the burning
of fossil fuels and clearing of forests. Adding more of a greenhouse gas, such as CO 2, to the atmosphere intensifies
the greenhouse effect, thus warming Earth’s climate.
● Statement 2 is correct: Ice core (a long column of ice) is extracted by drilling deeply into glaciers and ice
sheets. Ice cores hold a record of what our planet’s climate was like hundreds of thousands of years ago. Ice
sheets and glaciers near poles are formed from years and years of accumulating snowfall. Each layer of ice tells
a story about what Earth was like when that layer of snow fell. The icy layers hold air molecules, GHGs and
aerosols such as dust, ash, pollen, and sea salts of that time. These particles provide evidence of past global
events, such as climate change, major volcanic eruptions, etc.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Carbon dioxide absorbs only the infrared part of the solar radiation (or heat emitted by earth
during nights). It is the water vapour that absorbs not only the long-wave terrestrial radiation (infrared or heat emitted
by earth during nights), but also a part of the incoming short-wave solar radiation (visible and UV radiation).
2. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched: The correct pairs are described below:
● Nitrous oxide - Ozone depleting substance: Nitrous oxide, N2O, is the major source of nitrogen oxides in the
stratosphere, where these oxides play critical roles in ozone layer depletion by itself and moderating ozone layer
depletion by chlorinated chemicals. Thus N2O plays a complex role in the stratosphere. It is long-lived in the
atmosphere.
● Black Carbon - Short-lived with high global warming potential: Unlike CO 2, which can stay in the atmosphere
for years together, black carbon is short-lived and remains in the atmosphere only for days to weeks before it
descends as rain or snow. Black carbon warms the earth by reducing albedo (the ability to reflect sunlight) when
deposited on snow. It is the strongest absorber of sunlight (a lot more than CO2) and heats the air directly. Black
carbon is said to be the second-largest contributor to climate change after CO2.
● Chlorofluorocarbons - Phased out via the Montreal Protocol: CFCs were phased out via the Montreal Protocol
due to their part in ozone depletion. These anthropogenic compounds are also a greenhouse gas, with a much
higher potential to enhance the greenhouse effect than CO2.
3. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Apart from the soil organic carbon, soil can also store carbon as carbonates. Such
carbonates are created over thousands of years when carbon dioxide dissolves in water and percolates the soil,
combining with calcium and magnesium minerals. Carbonates are inorganic and have the ability to store carbon
for more than 70,000 years, while soil organic matter typically stores carbon for several decades. Scientists are
working on ways to accelerate the carbonate forming process by adding finely crushed silicates to the soil in
order to store carbon for longer periods of time.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: About 25 percent of global carbon emissions are captured by plant-rich landscapes
such as forests, grasslands and rangelands. When leaves and branches fall off plants or when plants die, the
carbon stored either releases into the atmosphere or is transferred into the soil. Wildfires and human activities
like deforestation can contribute to the diminishment of forests as a carbon sink.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The use of carbon dioxide as a raw material to produce graphene, a technological
material. Graphene is used to create screens for smartphones and other tech devices. Graphene production is
limited to specific industries but is an example of how carbon dioxide can be used as a resource and a solution
in reducing emissions from the atmosphere.
4. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Clouds that contain more water droplets are “optically thicker” and more effective at
blocking sunlight than those composed mainly of ice crystals (cirrus clouds).
● Statement 2 is correct: Thick, low clouds are “strong coolers” since they reflect a large part of solar radiation
(sunlight) and absorb little heat from the ocean and land. On the other hand, very thin, high clouds such as cirrus
clouds reflect little sunlight, but they are very efficient at absorbing thermal radiation (heat), making them
“strong warmers”.
● Statement 3 is correct: A shift in sun-blocking clouds (due to global warming) from the tropics towards the
poles, where the incoming sunlight is less intense, would decrease their power to block sunlight. Therefore,
clouds that are effective at blocking sunlight in the tropics will have a lesser impact in polar regions due to the
lower solar radiation levels.
5. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement-I is correct: According to a 2016 study published in the journal Nature Climate Change, from a
quarter to half of Earth’s vegetated lands has shown significant greening over the last 35 years largely due to
rising levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide.
● Statement-II is correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I: Increased
concentrations of CO2 increases photosynthesis, spurring plant growth. Green leaves use energy from sunlight
through photosynthesis to chemically combine carbon dioxide drawn in from the air with water and nutrients
tapped from the ground to produce sugars, which are the main source of food, fiber and fuel for life on Earth.
Studies have shown that increased concentrations of carbon dioxide increase photosynthesis, spurring plant
growth. Carbon dioxide fertilization contributes to 70 percent of the greening effect. The second most important
driver is nitrogen, at 9 percent. The rest occurs due to land cover changes, climate change, precipitation, and
sunlight changes.
6. Answer: D
Explanation:
● All pairs are incorrectly matched. The correct pairs are described below:
● Green Carbon - Carbon stored in the plants and soil of natural ecosystems and is a vital part of the global
carbon cycle. It is called ‘green’ because carbon is taken up from the atmosphere by plants through the process
of photosynthesis, which is dependent on the green chlorophyll pigment found in plant leaves. The term green
carbon is used to refer to the carbon sequestered through photosynthesis and stored in natural forests.
● Brown Carbon - Carbon released by incomplete combustion of organic matter. Black carbon is primarily
released by high-temperature combustion and brown carbon is emitted mainly by biomass combustion. Brown
carbon has attracted interest as a possible cause of climate change. It absorbs strongly in the ultraviolet
wavelengths and less significantly into the visible wavelengths. Types of brown carbon include tar materials
from smoldering fires or coal combustion, breakdown products from biomass burning, a mixture of organic
compounds emitted from soil, and volatile organic compounds given off by vegetation.
● Blue Carbon - Carbon captured by the world's ocean and coastal ecosystems. Sea grasses, mangroves, and salt
marshes along the coast "capture and hold" carbon, acting as a carbon sink. These coastal systems, though much
smaller in size than the planet's forests, sequester this carbon at a much faster rate, and can continue to do so for
millions of years.
● Purple Carbon - Carbon captured through the air or industrial emissions. It is processed for use in products
that currently depend on fossil fuel-based inputs.
7. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol. A
carbon credit (often called a carbon offset) is a tradable certificate or permit. One carbon credit is equal to one
tonne of carbon dioxide. The central feature of the Kyoto Protocol is its requirement that countries limit or
reduce their greenhouse gas emissions to set levels. With the setting of such targets, emission reductions took
on economic value.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Carbon credit prices are traded on an exchange. So, their prices are never fixed. For
example, Carbon Trade eXchange (CTX) is the world's first digital carbon offsetting exchange for spot price,
voluntary carbon credit trading. There are two main types of carbon pricing: emissions trading systems and
carbon taxes.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: In 2011, the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) was
accredited as Designated Operational Entity for validation and verification /certification functions under the
UNFCCC Clean Development Mechanism of the Kyoto Protocol. Accredited certifiers assure the quality of the
projects put forward and verify that the emission reductions claimed are true reductions.
In 2014, ICFRE’s status as an accredited certifier expired, therefore it is not an accredited certifier at present.
8. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement (a) is incorrect: Solar geoengineering seeks to reflect a small fraction of sunlight back into space or
increase the amount of solar radiation that escapes back into space to cool the planet. In contrast to carbon
geoengineering (which seeks to directly remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere), solar
geoengineering does not address the root cause of climate change. Solar geo-engineering or Solar Radiation
Management techniques aim to reflect a small proportion of the Sun’s energy back into space, counteracting the
temperature rise caused by increased levels of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere which absorb energy and
raise temperatures.
● Ocean fertilization or ocean nourishment is a type of technology for carbon dioxide removal from the ocean
based on the purposeful introduction of plant nutrients to the upper ocean to increase marine food production
and to remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. Adding nutrients to the ocean in selected locations increases
primary production which draws down carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
● Grinding up, dispersing, and dissolving rocks such as limestone, silicates, or calcium hydroxide in the ocean to
increase its ability to store carbon and directly ameliorate ocean acidification. Ocean alkalinity enhancement is
an approach to carbon removal that involves adding alkaline substances to seawater to accelerate the ocean’s
natural carbon sink. Adding alkalinity to the ocean converts dissolved inorganic CO 2 in seawater into
bicarbonates and carbonates, which are stable forms of carbon with a lifetime of approximately 10,000 years.
The resulting CO2 deficit in surface waters is quickly rebalanced via a net movement of atmospheric CO 2 into
the ocean, to reestablish equilibrium.
● Introducing small, reflective particles into the upper atmosphere reflects some sunlight before it reaches the
surface of the Earth, which will reduce global warming. Injection of sulfate aerosol will increase the albedo of
the atmosphere. Very thin, high clouds such as cirrus clouds reflect little sunlight, they are very efficient at
absorbing thermal radiation (heat), making them “strong warmers”. Cirrus cloud thinning will absorb less
thermal radiation reflected by earth.
9. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Coal Gasification is the partial in-situ combustion of the coal seam to produce ‘syngas’
which primarily consists of carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO 2), hydrogen (H2), methane (CH4) and
small amounts of hydrogen sulfide (H 2S). Syngas can be used as chemical feedstock to produce methanol,
hydrogen, ammonia and other chemical products using the Fischer-Tropsch process.
● Statement 2 is correct: Only a small fraction of Indian coal is mined under-ground with most of the rest mined
through strip-mining. Large reserves of coal are available at depths exceeding 300 meters that are less suitable
for conventional mining technologies. Indian coal which was considered ‘unmineable’ because it was under
pristine forest lands, too deep, low grade or in narrow seams can be harnessed through the coal gasification
process thus increasing coal resource availability enormously.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The underground coal gasification (UCG) process cannot be controlled to the same
extent as surface gasifiers, and therefore poses risk of groundwater contamination due to high temperature and
pressure in the cavity. Some of the coal in UCG may have geologic or hydrologic features that increase
environmental risks to unacceptable levels. Chemical reactions involved in UCG may create an extensive
groundwater depression zone creating flow into rather than away from the combustion zone. Because UCG is a
high-temperature, high-pressure process, the production and transport of toxic organic compounds from the
burn cavity will be a consequence no matter what type of coal is gasified. Deeper UCG locations use higher
pressure and temperature which increases the risk of outward flow to regional groundwater.
10. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The 1972 United Nations Conference on the Human Environment in Stockholm was
the first world conference to make the environment a major issue. The participants adopted a series of principles
for sound management of the environment including the Stockholm Declaration and Action Plan for the Human
Environment and several resolutions. The Stockholm Declaration contained 26 principles which placed
environmental issues at the forefront of international concerns. The Action Plan contained three main categories:
a) Global Environmental Assessment Programme (watch plan); b) Environmental management activities; (c)
International measures to support assessment and management activities carried out at the national and
international levels.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) was created as a result of the
Stockholm Conference. The International Union for Conservation of Nature was founded in 1948, when
representatives of governments and conservation organizations spurred by UNESCO signed a formal act
constituting the International Union for the Protection of Nature.
● Statement 3 is correct: India’s Prime Minister at the time, Indira Gandhi, was the only foreign head of
government out of 113 nations in attendance. Her speech at the conference was ground-breaking in that it linked
environmental conservation with poverty reduction – one of the key principles of the Sustainable Development
Goals, or SDGs. Indira Gandhi in her seminal speech in the conference brought forward the connection between
ecological management and poverty alleviation.
11. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 explicitly mention
the 1972 United Nations Conference on the Human Environment in Stockholm.
● The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 mentions that decisions were taken in the Stockholm
Conference, in which India participated, to take appropriate steps for the preservation of the natural resources
of the earth which, among other things, include the preservation of the quality of air and control of air pollution.
● The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 mentions that decisions were taken in the Stockholm Conference, in
which India participated, to take appropriate steps for the protection and improvement of the human
environment.
● The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 does not mention the Stockholm Conference.
12. Answer: D
Explanation:
● The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the 'Earth
Summit', was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 1992. It was held on the occasion of the 20 th anniversary of
the Stockholm Conference 1972. It brought together political leaders, diplomats, scientists, representatives of
the media and NGOs from 179 countries for a massive effort to focus on the impact of human socio-economic
activities on the environment.
● The 'Earth Summit' had many great achievements:
○ Rio Declaration and its 27 universal principles;
○ United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC);
○ Convention on Biological Diversity;
○ Declaration on the principles of forest management;
○ Agenda 21.
● At Rio it was agreed that an International Negotiating Committee for a third convention, the United Nations
Convention to Combat Desertification, would be set up. This convention was negotiated within two years of
Rio and then open for signature. It became effective in 1996.
● The 'Earth Summit' also led to the creation of the Commission on Sustainable Development, the holding of the
first world conference on the sustainable development of small island developing States in 1994, and
negotiations for the establishment of the agreement on straddling stocks and highly migratory fish stocks.
13. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Rio +10 Summit, 2002, or the Rio Earth Summit 2002, formally known as the
World Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, took place in South Africa. It was convened to discuss
sustainable development organizations, 10 years after the first Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro. (It was therefore
also informally nicknamed "Rio+10".) The adoption of the Johannesburg Declaration on Sustainable
Development was the main outcome of the Summit. The Johannesburg Declaration builds on earlier declarations
made at the Stockholm Conference in 1972, and the Rio Earth Summit in 1992. While committing the nations
of the world to sustainable development, it also includes substantial mention of multilateralism as the path
forward.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: UN-REDD originally referred to "reducing emissions from deforestation in
developing countries", was established in 2008. It was superseded by REDD+ in the Warsaw Framework on
REDD-plus negotiations.
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit. It is an
independently operating financial organization.The GEF provides grants for projects related to biodiversity, REDD+
(Sustainable Forest Management), climate change, land degradation, the ozone layer, persistent organic pollutants,
etc. It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change’.
14. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were formulated in 2015 by the
United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) as part of the Post-2015 Development Agenda, which sought to
create a future global development framework to succeed the Millennium Development Goals, which ended
that year. They were formally articulated and adopted in a UNGA resolution called the 2030 Agenda, known
colloquially as Agenda 2030.
On the other hand, at the Rio +20 Summit, 2012, Member States decided to launch a process to develop a set of
SDGs, building on the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) and converging with the post-2015 development
agenda.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030. The SDGs are
monitored by the UN High-Level Political Forum on Sustainable Development, an annual forum held under the
auspices of the United Nations Economic and Social Council.
● Statement 3 is correct: "The Future We Want", a non-binding document, was finalized at the Summit. It is the
declaration on sustainable development and a green economy. The SDGs build on the principles agreed upon
in the document.
15. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an
international environmental treaty that came into existence in 1992 under the aegis of the UN. The UNFCCC
sets an agreement for international efforts to tackle the challenge posed by climate change.
The treaty is not legally binding, but provides opportunities for updates (protocols) that can be used to set legally
binding emissions limits. For example, the 1997 Kyoto Protocol under the UNFCCC is the world's only legally
binding treaty to reduce greenhouse emissions.
● Statement 2 is correct: UNFCCC by itself sets no binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual
countries. However, the protocols under it can be used to set legally binding emissions limits. For example, the
1997 Kyoto Protocol, in its Annex B, sets binding emission reduction targets for 37 industrialized countries and
economies in transition and the European Union. Overall, these targets add up to an average 5 percent emission
reduction compared to 1990 levels over the five year period 2008–2012 (the first commitment period).
● Statement 3 is correct: The Conferences of the Parties (COP) to UNFCCC is the decision-making body of
UNFCCC. The first COP meeting was held in Berlin, Germany in March 1995. All States that are Parties to the
Convention are represented at the COP. They review the implementation of any legal instruments that the COP
adopts. They promote the effective implementation of the Convention. The parties to the convention met
annually from 1995 till 2019. The 2020 COP was rescheduled to 2021.
16. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Through the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement, countries agreed to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions, but the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has kept rising, heating the Earth
at an alarming rate. UNFCCC has never achieved its stated goals of reducing the emission of carbon dioxide.
This is because of the biggest polluters being outside the net of the targets - US never ratified the Protocol,
Canada withdrew in 2012 after it failed in its commitment, Japan, New Zealand and Russia not taking new
targets in the second commitment period, and China and India not having any binding targets.
● Statement 2 is correct: Flexible Market Mechanisms under the Kyoto Protocol have stimulated green
investment in developing countries. The Kyoto Flexible Market Protocol mechanisms include: Clean
Development Mechanism (CDM), Emission Trading, and Joint Implementation (JI). The CDM allows a country
with an emission-reduction commitment under the Kyoto Protocol (Annex B Party like Australia) to implement
an emission-reduction project in developing countries (like India). Such projects can earn certified emission
reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO2, which can be counted towards meeting Kyoto
targets.In simple terms: Developed countries emit more and lose carbon credits. They provide financial
assistance to developing and least developed countries (Non-Annex) to create clean energy and gain some
carbon credits thereby meeting their Kyoto Quota (Kyoto units) of emissions without violations.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: There are penalties on non-compliance of targets under the Kyoto Protocol. If a
country does not meet the requirements for measurements and reporting, the country loses the privilege of
gaining credit through joint implementation projects. If a country goes above its emissions cap and does not try
to make up the difference through any of the mechanisms available, then said country must make up the
difference plus an additional thirty percent during the next period. The country could also be banned from
participating in the 'cap and trade' program.
17. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a landmark tool designed by
the European Union to put a fair price, called the carbon tax, on the carbon emitted during the production of
carbon intensive goods that are entering the EU, and to encourage cleaner industrial production in non-EU
countries. The gradual introduction of the CBAM is aligned with the phase-out of the allocation of free
allowances under the EU Emissions Trading System (ETS) to support the decarbonisation of EU industry.
● Statement 2 is correct: By confirming that a price has been paid for the embedded carbon emissions generated
in the production of certain goods imported into the EU, the CBAM will ensure the carbon price of imports is
equivalent to the carbon price of domestic production, and that the EU's climate objectives are not undermined.
The CBAM is designed to be compatible with WTO-rules.
18. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund established within the framework of the
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change during the 2010 United Nations Climate Change
Conference in Cancun. It is an operating entity of the Financial Mechanism to assist developing countries in
adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. The Copenhagen Accord, established during the
2009 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP-15) in Copenhagen mentioned the "Copenhagen Green
Climate Fund". The fund was formally established during the 2010 United Nations Climate Change Conference
in Cancun as a fund within the UNFCCC framework.
● Statement 2 is correct: GCF is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices
to counter climate change by supporting their projects, programmes, policies and other activities. GCF is a
critical element of the historic Paris Agreement, and is the world’s largest climate fund, mandated to support
developing countries raise and realize their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) ambitions towards
low-emissions, climate-resilient pathways.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: GCF is mandated to invest 50% of its resources to mitigation and 50% to adaptation
in grant equivalent. At least half of its adaptation resources must be invested in the most climate vulnerable
countries (SIDS, LDCs, and African States). The GCF programming strategy recognizes that we must scale up
both mitigation and adaptation efforts. GCF aims to leverage synergies and minimize potential trade-offs
between adaptation and mitigation.
19. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement (d) is incorrect: The Climate Neutral Now Initiative is one of several initiatives launched by the
UNFCCC secretariat in 2015 to increase climate action by engaging stakeholders such as sub-national
governments, companies, organizations, individuals, which are non-Parties. It is based on a mandate to promote
the voluntary use of carbon market mechanisms recognized under the Convention. The Climate Neutral Now
Initiative encourages and supports organizations to act now in order to achieve a climate neutral world by 2050,
as enshrined in the Paris Agreement.
● At the Doha Climate Change Conference 2012, COP18, an agreement was reached to extend the life of the
Kyoto Protocol, which had been due to expire at the end of 2012, until 2020, and to reify the 2011 Durban
Platform. Wording adopted by the conference incorporated for the first time the concept of "loss and damage",
an agreement in principle that richer nations could be financially responsible to other nations for their failure to
reduce carbon emissions.
● At the United Nations Climate Change Conference, COP19, an agreement was reached that all states would
start cutting emissions as soon as possible, but preferably by the first quarter of 2015. The term Intended
Nationally Determined Contributions was coined in Warsaw upon a proposal from Singapore. The Warsaw
International Mechanism was also proposed.
● The Paris Agreement often referred to as the Paris Accords is an international treaty on climate change adopted
at the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference. The Paris Agreement's long-term temperature goal is
to keep the rise in mean global temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, and preferably limit
the increase to 1.5°C, recognizing that this would substantially reduce the effects of climate change. The
agreement calls for zero net anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions to be reached during the second half of
the 21st century. To stay below 1.5°C of global warming, emissions need to be cut by roughly 50% by 2030.
This is an aggregate of each country's nationally determined contributions. The developed countries reaffirmed
the commitment to mobilize $100 billion a year in climate finance by 2020 and agreed to continue mobilizing
finance at the level of $100 billion a year until 2025.
20. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 3 is correct: Nationally determined contributions (NDCs) are at the heart of the Paris Agreement
and the achievement of its long-term goals. The Paris Agreement (Article 4, paragraph 2) requires each Party
to prepare, communicate and maintain successive NDCs that it intends to achieve. In accordance with the
requirements of the Paris Agreement that each Party shall communicate a NDC every five years, India
communicated an update in 2022 to its first NDC submitted earlier in 2015, for the period up to 2030.
● This update to India’s existing NDC is a step forward towards the long term goal of reaching net-zero by 2070.
To achieve carbon neutrality by 2070 is India’s long term goal, it is not a target under the NDC.
● India’s updated NDC targets are following:
○ To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest
and tree cover by 2030.
○ To reduce Emissions Intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030, from 2005 level.
○ To achieve about 50% cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy
resources by 2030, with the help of transfer of technology and low-cost international finance including from
Green Climate Fund (GCF).
○ To put forward and further propagate a healthy and sustainable way of living based on traditions and values
of conservation and moderation, including through a mass movement for ‘LIFE’– ‘Lifestyle for
Environment’ as a key to combating climate change.
○ To adopt a climate friendly and a cleaner path than the one followed hitherto by others at corresponding
level of economic development.
○ To better adapt to climate change by enhancing investments in development programmes in sectors
vulnerable to climate change, particularly agriculture, water resources, Himalayan region, coastal regions,
health and disaster management.
○ To mobilize domestic and new & additional funds from developed countries to implement the above
mitigation and adaptation actions in view of the resource required and the resource gap.
○ To build capacities, create domestic framework and international architecture for quick diffusion of cutting
edge climate technology in India and for joint collaborative R&D for such future technologies.
21. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Since its inception in 1972, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has been the global
authority that sets the environmental agenda, promotes the coherent implementation of the environmental
dimension of sustainable development within the UN system, and serves as an authoritative advocate for the
global environment.
● The World Meteorological Organization and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
established the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in 1988.
● It is also a member of the United Nations Development Group.
● United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is one of several Implementing Agencies for the Global
Environment Facility (GEF) and the Multilateral Fund for the Implementation of the Montreal Protocol.
○ There are 18 institutions as GEF agencies like the Asian Development Bank, Food and Agriculture
Organization of the United Nations (FAO), etc.
22. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change is an intergovernmental body of the United Nations.
○ Its job is to advance scientific knowledge about climate change caused by human activities.
● The World Meteorological Organization and the United Nations Environment Programme established the
IPCC in 1988.
● The IPCC does not carry out its own original research.
○ Thousands of scientists and other experts contribute on a voluntary basis.
● IPCC reports cover all relevant information to understand the risk of human-induced climate change, its
potential impacts, and options for adaptation and mitigation.
● The 2007 Nobel Peace Prize was shared, in two equal parts, between the IPCC and an American
Environmentalist.
23. Answer: C
Explanation:
All statements are correct:
● The Oxford Geoengineering Programme defines geoengineering as “the deliberate large-scale intervention
in the Earth’s natural systems to counteract climate change”.
● Geoengineering technologies include managing solar radiation, removing carbon dioxide and other
greenhouse gases from the atmosphere.
● Geoengineering techniques aim to directly remove carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases from the
atmosphere.
● Ocean Fertilization implies the addition of nutrients to the ocean in selected locations to increase primary
production.
● Bio-energy with carbon capture and sequestration: Growing biomass, burning it to create energy, and capturing
and sequestering the carbon dioxide created in the process.
24. Answer: B
Explanation:
● A carbon tax is a tax levied on the carbon emissions required to produce goods and services.
● Carbon taxes are intended to make visible the "hidden" social costs of carbon emissions, which are otherwise
felt only in indirect ways like more severe weather events.
● A pure carbon tax fixes the price of carbon but allows the number of carbon emissions to vary.
● A pure carbon cap places a limit on carbon emissions, letting the market price of carbon credits vary.
● A carbon tax directly establishes a price on greenhouse gas emissions. (One has to pay for every ton of
emissions).
● Carbon Trading program issues a set number of emissions “allowances” each year. (One has to pay only
after they exceed their emissions quota).
25. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The MFF initiative is co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP and has numerous institutional and implementing
partners.
○ A Regional Steering Committee (RSC) provides strategic guidance and a National Coordinating Body
(NCB), with representatives from Government, civil society organizations, and the private sector overseeing
implementation in each partner country.
● The Mangroves for the Future (MFF) initiative focuses on ecosystem restoration and livelihood
diversification, promoting sound coastal resource management policies and practices, and strengthening the
resilience of coastal communities in eleven countries throughout the Asia-Pacific region.
● MFF relies on a history of coastal management initiatives implemented both before and after the tsunami that
hit the Indian Ocean in 2004.
26. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Ocean acidification is the process whereby ocean waters increase in acid concentration, and the pH level falls
beyond normal.
● Causes of Ocean Acidification:
○ Raised Carbon dioxide Concentration in the Atmosphere and Ocean:
▪ Sometimes, the harm induced in the atmosphere can spread into the waters. This is when carbon
dioxide is released into the atmosphere through various human activities. This, in turn, contaminates
the water because the carbon gases get to be dissolved in the sea waters, and this lowers the pH of the
water, contributing to acidification.
○ Higher Concentration of Hydrogen ions in the Water:
▪ At the sea beds, there are some chemical reactions that may take place, and they can have negative
impacts on the quality of the ocean water. Such reactions may include the increase in hydrogen ions
which, when combined with other compounds such as nitrogen, and water, among other gases, and their
reactions lead to ocean water acidity.
○ Eutrophication:
▪ It leads to large plankton blooms, and when these blooms collapse and sink to the sea bed the
subsequent respiration of bacteria decomposing the algae leads to a decrease in seawater oxygen and
an increase in carbon dioxide (a decline in pH).
27. Answer: A
Explanation:
Only Pair 2 is correctly matched.
Summit Held in
World Summit on Sustainable Development (WSSD) Johannesburg 2002
UN Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) Rio de Janeiro 1992

United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD) Rio de Janeiro 2012
28. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in Kyoto, Japan, in 1997, commits 37 industrialized countries and the
European Union to the so-called Kyoto target of reducing their greenhouse gas emissions by an average of
5% against 1990 levels, over the 2008-2012 period.
● The Protocol is based on the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities(CBDR).
● Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) is a principle within the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that acknowledges different capabilities and
differing responsibilities of individual countries in addressing climate change.
● The United States, one of the biggest polluters never ratified the Kyoto Protocol.
○ Canada pulled out of Kyoto Protocol citing wealth transfers out of the country due to binding limits.
○ Japan and Russia didn’t sign the second Kyoto term because it would impose restrictions on it not faced
by its main economic competitors, China, India, and Indonesia.
29. Answer: A
Explanation:
Classification of Parties and their commitments under the Kyoto Protocol is below:
● Annex I
○ Developed countries [US, UK, Russia, etc.] + Economies in transition (EIT) [Ukraine, Turkey, some eastern
European countries, etc.]
● Annex II
○ Developed countries (Annex II is a subset of Annex I).
○ They are required to provide financial and technical support to the EITs and developing countries to
assist them in reducing their greenhouse gas emissions.
● Annex B
○ Annex I Parties with first or second-round Kyoto greenhouse gas emissions targets.
○ The first-round targets apply over the years 2008–2012 and the second-round Kyoto targets, apply from
2013–2020.
○ Compulsory binding targets to reduce GHG emissions.
● Non-Annex I
○ Parties to the UNFCCC not listed in Annex I of the Convention (mostly low-income developing countries).
○ No binding targets to reduce GHG emissions.
30. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals, also known as the Convention on
Migratory Species (CMS) or the Bonn Convention, is an international agreement that aims to conserve
migratory species throughout their ranges.
● The agreement was signed under the auspices of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and
is concerned with the conservation of wildlife and habitats on a global scale.
● The CMS is the only global, and United Nations-based, intergovernmental organisation established exclusively
for the conservation and management of terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory species.
○ Signed in 1979 in Bonn, West Germany, the convention entered into force in 1983.
31. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Raptors MoU (Global) is also known as the Memorandum of Understanding on the Conservation of
Migratory Birds of Prey in Africa and Eurasia.
● It is an agreement under the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals
(CMS), also called the Bonn Convention.
Statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect:
● It is an international, legally non-binding agreement to protect migratory birds of prey.
● India is a signatory to Raptors MoU.
● For the conservation of vultures, India has launched a Vulture Action Plan 2020-25.
32. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Through its Central Asian Mammals Initiative, the Bonn Convention (Convention on Migratory Species
(CMS)) aims to conserve 15 migratory mammal species in Central Asia (including Snow Leopard, Saiga and
Bactrian Camel) and their habitats.
● CAMI’s work is approved for 2021-2026, incorporating IUCN Save Our Species’ Central Asia initiative as a
possible funding mechanism for the conservation of key threatened migratory species.
● The Central Asian region harbours the largest intact and still interconnected grasslands worldwide.
○ It is of global importance for many migratory mammals, which rely on the large steppe, desert and mountain
ecosystems that still enable essential long-distance movements and ensure their long-term survival.
● Members of CAMI are five central Asian countries, China, Russia, India, Pakistan, Iran, Afghanistan, Nepal
and Bhutan.
33. Answer: B
Explanation:
Pairs 1 and 2 are not correctly matched.
Declaration Adopted Under
1. Gandhinagar Declaration Convention of Migratory Adopted by all parties to CMS.
Species (CMS) It underscores the importance of migratory
species. It calls for migratory species and the
concept of ‘ecological connectivity’.
2. St. Petersburg Declaration Global Tiger Recovery Doubling the Tiger Population (T*2 Program)
Program (GTRP) Initiative
3. Bishkek Declaration Global Snow Leopard & It wanted the members of Global Snow Leopard
Ecosystem Program & Ecosystem Program (GSLESP) to work
(GSLESP) together to identify & secure at least 20 snow
leopard landscapes across the cat’s range by
2020 or, in short – “Secure 20 by 2020.”
34. Answer: A
Explanation:
● The Coalition Against Wildlife Trafficking (CAWT) was established in 2005 by the U.S. State Department
as a voluntary coalition of governments and organizations that aims to end the illegal trade of wildlife and
wildlife products.
● The South Asia Wildlife Enforcement Network (SAWEN) was established with the aid of CAWT and
TRAFFIC.
● The South Asia Co-operative Environment Programme supported the creation of SAWEN, which the region's
environment ministers decided to do in 2008.
● The nations that makeup SAWEN are: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan,
and Sri Lanka.
35. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Global Tiger Forum is an international intergovernmental body exclusively set up for the conservation of
tigers in the wild in the range countries.
● Out of the 13 tiger range countries, seven are currently members of GTF: Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia,
India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Vietnam besides non-tiger range country U.K.
● The secretariat is based in New Delhi, India.
● St. Petersburg Declaration was adopted for Doubling the Tiger Population (T*2 Program).
● This Initiative is led by Global Tiger Recovery Program (GTRP), not the Global Tiger Forum.
36. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Fly ash can be used in the reclamation of wastelands.
● Abandoned mines can be filled up with fly ash.
● Fly ash can increase crop yield when added to the soil.
○ But if it gets deposited on the leaf, it will reduce photosynthesis.
○ It also enhances the water-holding capacity of the land.
● Fly ash can be used as prime material in many cement-based products, such as poured concrete, concrete block,
and brick.
● One of the most common uses of fly ash is in Portland cement concrete pavement (PCC pavement).
○ Cement can be replaced by fly ash by up to 35%, thus reducing the cost of construction, making roads, etc.
37. Answer: C
Explanation:
All options are correct.
● When wood is burned, the combustion reaction produces heat and emissions in the form of water, organic
vapours, gases, and particulates.
● The emissions of most concern are carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2), sulphur oxides (SOx), and
nitrogen oxides (NOx).
○ Sulphur dioxide (SO2) is a toxic gas with a pungent, irritating smell.
○ It contributes to acid rain.
● It is released naturally by volcanic activity.
● It is abundantly available in the atmosphere of Venus.
● It is also produced by the roasting of sulphide ores such as pyrite, sphalerite, and cinnabar (mercury sulphide)
etc.
38. Answer: D
Explanation:
● India adds 11 more wetlands to the list of Ramsar sites to make a total of 75 Ramsar sites covering an area of
13,26,677 ha in the country in the 75th year of Independence.
● Tamil Nadu has the maximum number of Ramsar sites (14), followed by Uttar Pradesh(10).
39. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Ramsar Convention, signed in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran, is the only global treaty that focuses specifically
on wetlands. Today 170 nations are signatories to the Ramsar Convention. A contracting party agrees to
nominate at least one wetland in its territory to the List of Wetlands of International Importance based on
enumerated criteria.
Statements 2 and 3 are not correct
● The Ramsar convention on wetlands defines wetlands as:
○ as an area of marsh, fen, or peatland,
○ which is temporary or permanent, formed naturally or artificially,
○ this includes fresh, brackish, or salt water,
○ where the depth of marine water at low tide will not exceed six meters in height.
40. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Ramsar Convention, which came into existence in 1971, is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the
framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and
their resources.
● The countries with the most Ramsar Sites are the United Kingdom (175) and Mexico (142).
● As per the Ramsar List, Bolivia has the largest area with 148,000 sq km under the Convention protection.
● Contracting Parties can designate their new and existing Ramsar Sites as Transboundary Ramsar Sites.
○ These are ecologically coherent, shared wetlands extending across national borders, which are managed
collaboratively.
41. Answer: C
Explanation;
● CITES (the shorter name for the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora) is a multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals from the threats of international trade.
● It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the International Union
for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
● The convention was opened for signature in 1973 and CITES entered into force on 1 July 1975.
● Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties, it does not take the place of national laws.
○ Rather it provides a framework respected by each Party, which must adopt its own domestic legislation to
implement CITES at the national level.
42. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Washington Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora,
more commonly known as CITES, aims at regulating the international trade of specimens of endangered
animals and plants, in particular by monitoring their exportation, re-exportation, importation, transit,
transshipment or possession for any ends in the 130 countries that are a party to CITES.
● It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the International Union
for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
○ The convention was opened for signature in 1973 and CITES entered into force on 1 July 1975.
43. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Carbon Sequestration is the long-term storage of carbon in plants, soils, geologic formations, and the ocean,
which can occur both naturally and as a result of anthropogenic activities.
● In short, it is the process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide.
● Geologic carbon sequestration is the process of storing carbon dioxide (CO2) in underground geologic
formations like rocks.
● Biologic carbon sequestration refers to the storage of atmospheric carbon in vegetation, soils, woody
products, and aquatic environments.
● Carbon sequestration occurs both naturally and as a result of anthropogenic activities.
○ Carbon Sequestered can be helpful in achieving Net Zero emissions by 2050 (IPCC report).
44. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Biochar reduces the acidity of the soil, protects the plants from diseases, promotes the growth of friendly
microorganisms, and reduces the loss of micronutrients apart from increasing water retain-ability.
○ Some biochars can increase soil fertility, water-holding capacity, and crop productivity.
○ It increases crop yields, sometimes substantially if the soil is in poor condition.
● It helps to prevent fertilizer runoff and leaching, allowing the use of fewer fertilizers.
○ It retains moisture, helping plants through periods of drought more easily.
○ Most importantly, it replenishes exhausted or marginal soils with organic carbon.
○ It fosters the growth of soil microbes essential for nutrient absorption, particularly mycorrhizal fungi.
● Biochar is a high-carbon, fine-grained residue that is currently produced through modern pyrolysis
processes.
● Pyrolysis is the direct thermal decomposition of biomass in the absence of oxygen (preventing combustion).
○ It produces a mixture of solids (the biochar proper), liquid (bio-oil), and gas (syngas) products.
● Biochar is a stable, carbon-rich form of charcoal that is applied to the soil.
45. Answer: (A)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Himalayan Mountains are the third largest deposits of ice and snow in the world after
Antarctica and the Arctic. Spanning 2,000 Kms and with 600 billion tonnes of ice, the Himalayan glaciers supply
800 million people with water for irrigation, hydropower and drinking.
Statement 2 is correct: Mount K2 also known as Godwin-Austen is taller than Kangchenjunga. It is located in Pak
occupied Kashmir (POK). K2 is only 200m shorter than Everest, is part of the Karakoram Range that straddles the
Pakistan-China border. The Karakorams serve as a watershed for the basins of the Indus and Yarkand rivers. The
formation of river channels, for the most part, occurs in the high-elevation zone, where the melted waters of seasonal
and perpetual snows and glaciers feed the rivers.
Statement 3 is not correct: Siachen glacier, located in the eastern Karakoram Range is one of the five largest
glaciers in the Karakoram, situated at an average altitude of 18,000 ft above sea level. At 78 km long, it is the longest
glacier in the Karakoram and second longest in the world’s non-polar areas.
46. Answer: B
Explanation:
● ISA, in its 5th General Assembly meeting, approved the Solar Facility.
● Solar Facility is a payment guarantee mechanism that is expected to stimulate investments into solar projects
through two financial components – a Solar Payment Guarantee Fund and Solar Insurance Fund.
● Its objective is to attract private capital to flow into “underserved markets” in Africa.
○ The ISA would aim to crowdsource investments from various donors across the globe, and proposed
projects in Africa would be able to purchase payment guarantees or partial insurance premiums from these
funds.
● ISA, also called International Agency for Solar Policy and Application (IASPA), is a treaty-based
intergovernmental organization.
● It is headquartered in Gurugram, India.
● Its objective is to work for efficient consumption of solar energy to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
● It was proposed by PM Narendra Modi and was launched by India and France at the 21st Conference of Parties
(COP-21, Paris) to the UNFCCC held in 2015.
● It is an alliance of 123 countries, most of them being sunshine countries (mostly and not all), which lie either
completely or partly between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
47. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Correct increasing order of productivity:
Continental Shelf < Lakes and Streams < Savanna < Estuaries
● Productivity in the ecosystem can be defined as the rate at which biomass increases per unit area.
● It can be measured in units of biomass per unit volume per unit area.
● Biomass can be defined as dry matter or dry mass. Productivity often depends on the ecosystem.
48. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Biomining is the technique of extracting metals (like copper, uranium, nickel & gold) from ores & other solid
materials typically using prokaryotes, fungi or plants.
● These organisms secrete different organic compounds that chelate metals from the environment.
● Bioleaching: When the metal of interest is directly dissolved in the biomining process.
● Bio-oxidation: Metals that are not dissolved by the microbes. This method uses microbes to break down the
surrounding minerals, making it easier to recover the metal of interest directly from the remaining rock.
● These mining methods are climate-friendly.
○ Traditional methods of mining use explosives, toxic chemicals, and high temperatures.
○ The greatest environmental risks are related to leakage and treatment of the acidic, metal-rich solution
created by the microbes, which is similar to the acid mine drainage from some abandoned mines.
49. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) is a United Nations Convention on Biological
Diversity(UNCBD) led initiative.
● This framework will define targets and pathways for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity for
the next decade and beyond.
● Conference of the Parties (COP 15) of UNCBD for 2022 was scheduled in Kunming, China.
50. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Environmental DNA or eDNA is DNA that is collected from a variety of environmental samples such as soil,
seawater, snow, or air, rather than directly sampled from an individual organism.
● As various organisms interact with the environment, DNA is expelled and accumulates in their surroundings
from various sources.
● Animals shed DNA through their breath, saliva, fur or faeces, mucus, gametes, shed skin, carcasses & hair into
the environment. These samples are called e-DNA.
● Recently, researchers from two teams have independently shown that environmental DNA (e-DNA) can
potentially identify and monitor endangered species.
● It could help understand the composition of animal communities & detect the spread of non-native species.
● In its current form, this method cannot provide accurate data for the population census.
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT – 13
(CA-May'23 & June'23)
(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT – 13 (CA-May'23 & June'23)
C
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
penalty.
question.
1. With reference to the elections to Lok Sabha 3. Consider the following protected areas of
and state legislative assemblies in India, India:
consider the following statements : 1. Valmiki National Park
1. No places of worship can be used as a 2. Dampa Wildlife Sanctuary
forum for election propaganda.
3. Namdapha National Park
2. Ministers are prohibited from engaging
4. Manas National Park
in electioneering activities.
How many of the above-mentioned
3. The promises in the election manifesto
protected areas share a land border with
of political parties cannot be construed
other countries?
as ‘corrupt practice’.
4. As per the Constitution of India, the (a) Only one
term of office of a Rajya Sabha member (b) Only two
is six years, other than a member chosen (c) Only three
to fill a casual vacancy. (d) All four
are correct? 4. With reference to India, consider the
(a) Only one following statements :
(b) Only two
1. Gambling is listed as a subject in the
(c) Only three Concurrent List of the Seventh
(d) All four Schedule of the Constitution of India
2. Online gambling and betting is
2. In the context of economy, the term
regulated as a cyber activity under the
‘waterfall mechanism’ refers to
Information Technology Act, 2000
(a) the process of simultaneous buying and
3. Any puzzle solving competition
selling of an asset from different
offering prize money more than ₹1,000
platforms
are banned
(b) informal trading that takes place outside
the purview of the stock exchanges
are correct?
(c) the process of distributing liquidation
proceeds of a company among (a) Only one
stakeholders in order of priority (b) Only two
(d) an investment strategy of a portfolio (c) All three
manager to balance risk versus reward (d) None
Copy is ENCRYPTED and for personal use ONLY| www.sunyaias.com | PRELIMS - 2024 Page. 1
5. The term ‘bluewashing’ sometimes seen in 7. Consider the following countries :
the news refers to 1. Kenya
(a) Deceptive marketing that overstates a
2. Tanzania
company's commitment to responsible
social practices 3. Rwanda
(b) Conveying a false impression that a 4. Uganda

company’s offshore oil exploration 5. Burundi
practices are ocean-friendly
Lake Victoria is bordered by how many of
(c) Issuance of fraudulent ‘Blue bonds’ in
the above-mentioned countries?
the market that in fact have disastrous
ecological consequences (a) Only two
(d) Non-inclusion of marine and coastal (b) Only three

ecological costs in the Corporate Social (c) Only four
Responsibility projects of a company
(d) All five
6. With reference to the Money Bill and

Finance Bill in the Indian Parliament, 8. With reference to the Paris Club, consider
consider the following statements : the following statements :
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance 1. India recently became a member of the
Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or Paris Club’s South Asia Division
reject the Bill
2. The “G20 Common Framework” was
2. A Financial Bill, which would involve
endorsed by the G20 together with the
expenditure from the Consolidated
Fund of India upon its enactment, may Paris Club
be introduced in either House 3. 2023 Paris Forum was organized by the
3. Some Financial Bills can be introduced Paris Club and the Indian Presidency of
only in Lok Sabha on the the G20
recommendation of the President for its
introduction
are correct?
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
9. With reference to the Indian Parliament, 11. With reference to India, consider the
consider the following statements : following statements :
1. The Central Vista Complex was 1. Ordinances and Proclamations of
designed by architects Edwin Lutyens Emergency issued by the President
and Herbert Baker cease to operate after the expiry of one
2. ‘Sengol’ is a significant historical month after the start of the next session
symbol of Independence that signifies of Parliament
the transfer of power from the British to 2. President cannot issue Ordinance on a
the Indians subject on which Parliament is not
Which of the statements given above is/are competent
correct? 3. President may return the
(a) 1 only recommendation of the Cabinet
(b) 2 only regarding promulgation of an
Ordinance once if he/she feels it
(c) Both 1 and 2
warrants reconsideration
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
are correct?
10. With reference to the civil services in India,
(a) Only one
consider the following statements :
(b) Only two
1. Before 1854, civil servants for the East
(c) All three
India Company were nominated by the
(d) None
Directors of the Company
2. Satyendra Nath Bose was the first
Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil 12. With reference to the Forum for India–
Service examination Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC),
consider the following countries :
3. In 1922, the Indian Civil Service
examination was held for the first time 1. Papua New Guinea
in India in the Allahabad city 2. Micronesia
4. Government of India Act, 1919 3. Kiribati
provided for the establishment of a 4. Solomon Islands
Public Service Commission in India 5. Tonga
How many of the statements given above How many of the above-mentioned
are incorrect? countries are part of the FIPIC?
(a) Only one (a) Only two
(b) Only two (b) Only three
(c) Only three (c) Only four
(d) All four (d) All five
13. With reference to ‘food irradiation’, 15. With reference to the ‘India Stack’, consider
consider the following statements : the following statements :
1. Food irradiation uses heat radiations to 1. India Stack is regulated and maintained
effectively eliminate organisms such as by the Reserve Bank of India
Salmonella and E. coli 2. Application of India Stack to other
countries requires Intellectual Property
2. Food irradiation is used to extend
transfer from the Government of India
product shelf life and inhibit ripening
3. The Open Credit Enablement Network,
3. The ‘Radura’ is the international
which is a part of the India Stack, was
symbol indicating a food product has developed by the National Payments
been irradiated Corporation of India
(d) None (d) None

14. With reference to the Unsponsored
the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of an
Depository Receipts (UDR), consider the
agricultural produce in India :
following statements :
1. Cost of production of an agricultural
1. UDR is a type of Depository Receipt in produce is an important factor in
which foreign firm has no involvement determining MSP
in the issuance 2. Since the 2019-20 crop years, Central
2. Depository receipts can be traded on Government has consistently fixed the
designated stock exchanges, similar to MSPs higher than that recommended by
regular shares the Commission for Agricultural Costs
3. Investors through IFSC, Gift City, can and Prices
avail exemption from securities 3. Farmers can get bonus on some
agricultural commodities which is in
transaction tax and stamp duty
addition to MSP
are correct?
are correct?
(d) None (d) None
17. In context of the Supreme Court of India, 19. Consider the following assets :
consider the following statements : 1. Foreign Currency Assets
1. A majority verdict by a larger bench will
2. Gold
prevail over even a unanimous decision
by a bench of lesser strength 3. Special Drawing Rights
2. The number of judges constituting the 4. Reserve Position in International
majority in the larger bench must be more Monetary Fund
than the number of judges on the smaller 5. Investment in bonds issued by India
bench
Infrastructure Finance Company (UK)
3. The minimum number of Judges
6. Amounts lent under the SAARC
constituting a ‘Constitution Bench’
should be five Currency swap arrangements
4. The Supreme Court can only give a How many of the above-mentioned assets
judgment or express an opinion if form part of India’s foreign exchange
majority of the Judges on the Bench agree reserves?
upon it
(a) Only two
correct? (b) Only three
(b) Only two (d) Only five
(c) Only three
(d) All four 20. With reference to the Kunming-Montreal
Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF),
consider the following statements :
the National Productivity Council (NPC) :
1. The GBF has set four long-term goals
1. NPC is a constituent of the Asian
Productivity Organisation, of which India for 2050, and 23 targets for 2030
is a founding member 2. The GBF includes a monitoring
2. Prime Minister of India acts as the framework comprising of a set of
president of the NPC agreed indicators for tracking progress
3. NPC offers a range of training 3. The GBF requires the Parties to submit
programmes to improve people's
National Biodiversity Strategies and
behavioural, managerial and technical
competencies Action Plans by 2030
incorrect? are incorrect?
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) All four
(d) None
21. With reference to the Competition 23. With reference to the Arab League, consider
Commission of India (CCI), consider the the following statements :
following statements : 1. Only one member of the Arab League
1. CCI has been established as the lies south to the Horn of Africa
regulator and quasi-judicial authority 2. Each member state has one vote in the
2. The penalty imposed by CCI upon the Council of the Arab League, and
erring entity cannot exceed 10 percent decisions are binding only for those
of the average of the turnover of the last states that have voted for them
three financial years 3. Recently, it reinstated the membership
of Iran after more than a decade of
3. The Competition (Amendment) Act
suspension
2023 has curtailed CCI’s hitherto
powers to impose penalties on global
are correct?
turnover of the erring entity
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
are correct?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
1. A sun halo is a ring or light that forms
around the sun as the sunlight refracts
22. Which of the following statements is off ice crystals present in a thin veil of
incorrect? cirrus clouds
(a) The Coriolis effect makes cyclones 2. Sundogs are colored spots of light that
swirl clockwise in the Southern develop due to the refraction of light
hemisphere through ice crystals
(b) High intensity cyclones are relatively 3. Sun Pillars develop as a result of ice
less frequent in the Arabian Sea than in crystals slowly falling through the air,
the Bay of Bengal reflecting the sun’s rays off of them
(c) Tropical cyclones form as a result of How many of the statements given above
significant convective activity, and are are correct?
warm core (a) Only one
(d) Cyclone Mocha was a powerful tropical (b) Only two
cyclone affecting areas majorly in the (c) All three
Arabian Sea region (d) None
25. Laho, Puli Vesham and Gotipua are terms 28. Consider the following statements :
associated with : 1. The United Nations Protocol on
(a) Folk dances Incendiary Weapons has banned the use
(b) Religious festivals of thermobaric weapons against civilian
(c) Clothing and military targets
(d) Bride wealth 2. Thermobaric weapons are unsuitable
for use under water and at high altitudes
reference to credit information bureaus :
correct?
1. They maintain credit information of
small and medium-sized enterprise (a) 1 only
(SME) borrowers (b) 2 only
2. They cannot levy charges on enquiries (c) Both 1 and 2
if they do not have data on the entity (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. They can be penalised by the Reserve
Bank of India for not updating
29. With reference to semiconductors, consider
borrower’s credit profile in a timely
the following statements :
manner
1. Semiconductors in their natural state are
are correct? poor conductors of electricity
(a) Only one 2. The process of adding controlled
(b) Only two impurities to a semiconductor is known
(c) All three as doping
(d) None 3. The ‘Modified Semicon India
Programme’ offers a 50% fiscal
27. Consider the following pairs: incentive to companies setting up
Place Location ‘Semiconductor Fabs’ in India,
1. Kakhovka reservoir Ukraine regardless of the node (technology
2. Blantyre Georgia generation) they use
3. Akhaltsikhe Malawi How many of the statements given above
How many of the above pairs are correctly are incorrect?
matched? (a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
30. With reference to Real Estate Investment 32. National Payments Corporation of India
Trusts (REITs) and Infrastructure (NPCI) developed Unified Payments
Interface (UPI) as a real-time payment
Investment Trusts (InvITs), consider the
system to facilitate inter-bank transactions.
following statements : In this reference consider the following
1. In India, Real Estate Investment Trusts statements:
1. Bangladesh became the first foreign
(REITs) are permitted to issue debt
country to adopt India's Unified
securities Payments Interface (UPI) system.
2. REITs are recognized as borrowers 2. UPI can be used as a payment option by
under the the Securities Contracts retail investors in an Initial Public
Offering (IPO).
(Regulation) Act, 1956
3. Since the launch of UPI, Currency in
3. REITs invest in real estate projects, Circulation (CiC) has declined due to
whereas InvITs invest in infrastructure the increased use of UPI for
transactions.
projects with a long gestation period
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three
(d) None 33. Consider the following regarding CITIIS
2.0:
1. It will help promote a circular economy
31. The Term “Air Defender 3” recently seen in through integrated waste management
the news is related to? at the city level.
2. One of its components focuses on
(a) Drone systems deployed in multiple
providing financial support to develop
conflicts throughout the world. projects
(b) Anti-Missilie system that protects 3. The Programme is a sub-scheme of
against a range of ICBM types. Swatch Bharat Abhiyaan under the
Ministry of Jal Shakti.
(c) An Indian indigenously developed Air How many of the above statements is/are
purifier to be used to counter indoor air correct?
pollution. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(d) An Air Force exercise of multiple
(c) All three
military forces.
(d) None
34. Consider the following regarding Strategic 36. Consider the following statements with
Petroleum Reserves in India: regard to Kavach, Anti-Collision Train
System:
1. The current Indian reserve capacity is
1. It is India’s indigenously developed
covered through 3 locations. automatic train protection system.
2. The Indian Reserves are maintained by 2. It uses Radio Frequency Identification
the Ministry of Power through a Special technology in order to control the train
brakes.
Purpose Vehicle.
3. The Kavach system’s current form
3. All of India’s Storage reserves are
adheres to Safety Integrity Level 4 which
located in Coastal states. is the highest level of safety and
How many of the above statements is/are reliability.
correct? How many of the above statement(s) is/are

correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(d) None (d) None
37. Consider the following facts regarding

35. Consider the following pairs of Terms Manipur:
sometimes seen in the news: 1. Manipur is one of the few Northeastern
1. Biomass Liquid Fertilisers. States which does not have an Inner line
permit regime in place.
torrefaction
2. Parts of Manipur are currently under the
2. Bhabha Kavach Nuclear radiation Armed Forces Special Powers Act
3. CRISPR: Cas9 Gene editing (AFSPA)
How many of the above pairs given above 3. The Social Composition of the State is
mostly Homogenous.
is/are correctly matched?
How many of the above is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(d) None (d) None
38. Which organisation released the “Global 41. Consider the following places in the news
Slavery Index 2023”? and their locations:
(a) Walk Free
1. Kakhovka Dam: Belarus
(b) Amnesty International
2. Borealis Mud Volcano: Bay of Bengal
(c) Doctors Without Borders
(d) Oxfam 3. Thomas Shoal: South China Sea
How many of the above pairs is/are
39. The “75/25” initiative was recently seen in incorrectly matched?
the news in context to?
(a) Only one
(a) To Provide Standard care and treatment
to those suffering from hypertension. (b) Only two
(b) Reduce the 2005 levels of air pollution (c) All three
by 75% by 2025 (d) None
(c) Reduce the Maternal Mortality rates in
the most affected 75 districts of India by
2025 42. Consider the following regarding the
(d) To Ensure standard care in ensuring Atlantic Declaration:
improvement of India’s literacy rates. 1. It has been signed between the US and
European Union targetting the security
instability in Europe.
regard to Organization of the Petroleum
Exporting Countries (OPEC)? 2. One of its major aims is to enable a
1. It is a permanent organisation created at secure supply chain and reduce strategic
the Baghdad Conference by Iran, Qatar, dependencies.
Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.
3. It also involves regular high-level
2. Declaration of Cooperation was
established among the OPEC Members meetings to drive progress over time.
and non-OPEC oil-producing countries. How many of the above statements is/are
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only

43. Consider the following regarding the G7 45. Consider the following statements:
Hiroshima summit: 1. India currently has the highest LEED
1. The Clean Energy Economic Action Green Building projects in the World.
plan was announced during the summit. 2. Maharashtra has the highest number of
LEED certifications in India.
2. India is one of the member nations of
3. LEED certifications are provided by
the G7
GRIHA
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
is/are correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) Only one
(c) 1 and 2 Both (b) Only two
(d) None
the water taxi service: 46. Consider the following statements regarding
1. It is a mode of transportation that Lithium supply:
operates on waterways, similar to 1. The largest reserves of Lithium are
traditional taxis on roads. located in Australia and Chile.
2. The Indian government recently 2. China is the largest producer of Lithium

globally.
launched a water taxi service in the city
3. Lithium is primarily used in the
of Kolkata.
production of smartphones and laptops.
3. The water taxi service is primarily
4. The demand for Lithium is expected to
aimed at promoting tourism as well as
grow significantly due to the increasing
improving ease of travel.
adoption of electric vehicles.
correct?
is/are correct?
47. Consider the following statements: 49. Consider the following statements regarding
ordinance-making power of the President:
1. The High Seas Classification account for
1. He can promulgate an ordinance only
more than 60% of the world’s ocean
when both the Houses of Parliament are
area. not in session or when either of the two
2. The UN High seas treaty is a legally Houses of Parliament is not in session.
2. He can make an ordinance when he
binding treaty.
deems it necessary.
3. The ordinance may cease to operate
is/are correct? anytime after the reassembly of the
(a) 1 only Parliament if both Houses of Parliament

pass resolutions disapproving it.
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 Both is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) All three
48. Consider the following: (d) None
1. Curing sleep disorders
2. Enabling Disabled persons to 50. The Supreme Court declared that the
presidential proclamation establishing
communicate.
President's Rule is open to judicial review in
3. Diagonasing Brain disorders which of the following case?
How many of the following can be possible (a) D.C. Wadhwa Case
applications of the Brain-Computer (b) S.R. Bommai Case

(c) Rameshwar Prasad Case
Interface:
(d) M.C. Mehta Case
(a) Only one
(b) Only two

******
(c) All three
(d) None
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT-13
(CA-May'23 & June'23)
1. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news : Election Commission of India issued advisory to all Star Campaigners, recognized National &
State Political Parties in view of plummeting level of campaign discourse in the general election to Karnataka
Legislative Assembly.
● Statement 1 is correct: As per the Model Code of Conduct issued by the Election Commission of India (ECI),
places of worship such as mosques, churches, temples etc. cannot be used as a forum for election propaganda.
There can be no appeal to caste or communal feelings for securing votes.
The Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines issued by the ECI for the conduct of political parties and
candidates during elections mainly with respect to speeches, polling day, polling booths, portfolios, election
manifestos, processions, and general conduct.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Model Code of Conduct , the Ministers cannot combine their official visit
with electioneering work and cannot also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering
work. In non-official visits, they can work as election campaigners for their political parties. Moreover,
government transport including official air-crafts, vehicles, machinery and personnel cannot be used for
furtherance of the interest of the party in power.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Supreme Court in its judgment dated 5th July 2013 in SLP(C) No. 21455 of 2008
(S. Subramaniam Balaji Vs Govt. of Tamil Nadu and Others) stated that the promises in the election manifesto,
without intent to interfere with electoral right, cannot be construed as ‘corrupt practice’, under the Section 123
of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not mention the term of office of a Rajya Sabha
member. It only states that one-third of its members will retire every second year as per the provisions of law
made in this regard by the Parliament. The term of office of the members of Rajya Sabha is provided by the
Representation of the People Act, 1951, which states that the term of office of a member of Council of States,
other than a member chosen to fill a casual vacancy, shall be six years.
2. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: The Supreme Court endorsed a provision of the Companies Act, 2013, that says workers' dues
will not get preferential payment in case of liquidation under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016,
stating that the waterfall mechanism is based on a structured mathematical formula.
● Option (c) is correct: Section 53 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 deals with the mechanism for
the distribution of assets under the liquidation of a company. This mechanism is laid down under the Code and
is termed the “Waterfall Mechanism”, which puts down a sum of stakeholders in a sequential manner which
designates the priority in which the payment will be distributed from liquidation. In the waterfall mechanism,
after the costs of the insolvency resolution process and liquidation, secured creditors share the highest priority
along with a defined period of dues of the workmen. There are categories and according to their place, priority
will be given. For example, secured creditors are in 2nd place whereas government dues are in 5th place.
3. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: Bangladesh-India transboundary collaboration for tiger conservation - the Bangladesh
environment minister while supporting the creation of the International Big Cats Alliance (IBCA) for protection
and conservation of seven big cats, stressed on the need for strengthening the transboundary collaboration.
● Valmiki National Park: It shares a border with Nepal's Chitwan National Park in the north. River Gandak, known
as ‘Narayani’ in Nepal, forms the western boundary of the Park. The wildlife found here are the Bengal tiger,
Indian rhinoceros, Asiatic Elephant, Asiatic black bear, Indian sloth bear, otter, Indian leopard, wild dog, wild
water buffalo, wild boar, several species of deer. The flora found here are Bhabar – Dun Sal forest; dry Shiwalik
Sal forest; west-gangetic moist mixed deciduous forest; Khair – Sissoo forest; cane brakes; eastern wet alluvial
grassland; Barringtonia swamp forest.
● Dampa Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Kolasib district of Mizoram, the Dampa Wildlife Sanctuary shares
its border with Bangladesh. It is the biggest wildlife sanctuary in Mizoram. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in
1944. The sanctuary is a home to a large number of fauna species. The major fauna consists of Rhesus macaque,
Leaf monkey, Pigtail macaque, Stumptail macaque, Hoolock gibbon, Assamese macaque, Tiger, Leopard,
Indian Elephant, Gaur, Serow, Barking deer, Wild boar, Porcupine, Sloth bear, Python, King Cobra, Monitor
lizard and Hill Tortoise. The avian species found here are Great Hornbill, Oriental Pied Hornbill, Grey Peacock
Pheasant, Red Junglefowl, Crested Serpent Eagle, Emerald Dove and Hill Myna. The sanctuary is rich in flora
such as Dipterocarpus turbinatus, Dipterocarpus macrocarpus, Terminalia myriocarpa, Michelia champaca,
Artorocarpus chaplasha, Sterculia vilosa, Psteropernum personatum, Tonna ciliata, Chukrasia tubularis,
Syzygium cumini, Aedinia caudifolia, etc. and different species of Bamboos Cane and Orchids.
● Namdapha National Park: Namdapha, a National Park and Tiger Reserve, having diverse flora and fauna lies in
the international border between India and Myanmar. Namdapha National Park, located along the Noa-Dihing
river lies in the tropical rainforest. It is the only park in the World to have the four Feline species of big cat
namely the Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard and Clouded Leopard and numbers of Lesser cats. A number of
primate species are seen in the park, such as Assamese macaque, pig-tailed macaque, stump-tailed macaque and
number of the distinctive Hoolock Gibbons, highly endangered and only ‘ape’ species found in India dwells in
this impenetrable virgin forest. Of the many other important animals are the elephants, black bear, Indian Bison,
several species of deers, reptiles and a variety of arboreal animals. There are more than 150 timber species found
here. The Pinus merkusi and Abies delavavi are not found elsewhere in India. One of the rarest and endangered
orchids, the Blue Vanda is found here.
● Manas National Park: Manas National Park is located at the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas. The northern
boundary of the park is contiguous to the international border of Bhutan manifested by the imposing Bhutan
hills. The Manas-Beki system is the major river system flowing through the property and joining the
Brahmaputra river further downstream. On a gentle slope in the foothills of the Himalayas, where wooded hills
give way to alluvial grasslands and tropical forests, the Manas sanctuary is home to a great variety of wildlife,
including many endangered species, such as the tiger, pygmy hog, Indian rhinoceros and Indian elephant.
4. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: The Centre had written to all state governments and UTs to take action against betting and
gambling advertisements in outdoor spaces, including hoardings and banners.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Gambling is listed as a subject in the State List of the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India, therefore the states in India are entitled to formulate their own laws for gambling activities.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: In the Information Technology Act, 2000, there is no specific mention about the
regulation of online gambling being illegal though this act covers many cyber activities. The words gambling
and betting words were therefore left to interpretation by the Courts which have refused to examine the matter.
Online gambling is a banned offence in the state of Maharashtra under the "Bombay Wager Act". Only three
states, Goa, Daman and Sikkim, allow casinos. Online gambling is in its infancy in India. There are no federal
laws that prohibit online betting in India. A few states have recently made explicit laws against online betting.
Ancient regulations like the Public Gambling Act of 1867 are still in place. however there are not any cases on
record of Indian players being prosecuted for online betting.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Prize Competition Act was passed by Parliament in 1955 to restrict gambling
activities that awarded prizes as winnings. According to the Prize Competition Act, any prize competition where
a prize is offered on solving a puzzle, number, alphabet, crossword, missing word, or picture prize competitions,
where the winnings more than ₹1,000 are banned.
5. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: Multiple groups of US lawmakers are scrutinizing some of the world's largest brands such as
Adidas and Nike regarding forced labour allegations and the origin of their cotton-based products.
● Option (a) is correct: Bluewashing (a word with similar connotations to "whitewash" and "greenwash") is a
term used to describe deceptive marketing that overstates a company's commitment to responsible social
practices. It can be used interchangeably with the term greenwashing but has a greater focus on economic and
community factors.
It is marketing by companies that deliberately uses the UN Sustainable Development Goals to promote selected
responsible practices that are at odds with the reality of their core operations. The term bluewashing was first used
to refer to companies who signed the United Nations Global Compact and its principles but did not make any actual
policy reforms.
Like greenwashing, bluewashing is marketing designed to signal a firm’s green credentials to the market without
any real substantive change in their environmental or ethical performance.
For example, it is misleading for a food manufacturer to claim that they are contributing to SDG 2 just because they
produce food. It is virtually impossible to know the net effect of the company’s production methods on world hunger
– there are too many variables between the cause (firm activity) and effect (zero hunger). It may be that the
company’s production methods actually increase hunger.
6. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: India’s new Parliament building was recently inaugurated.
● Statement 1 is correct: Financial Bills, other than Money Bills, are covered under Article 117 of the
Constitution of India. Financial Bills which contain provisions on matters listed exclusively under Article 110
of the Constitution are called Money Bills. The Rajya Sabha has full power to reject or amend financial Bills as
in the case of ordinary Bills. Money Bills can only originate in Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha can only make
recommendations regarding any amendment, which can be accepted or rejected by Lok Sabha.
● Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 117 (3) of the Constitution, financial Bills which, if enacted and brought
into operation, would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, may be introduced in either
House. It cannot, however, be passed by either House unless the President has recommended to that House the
consideration thereof.
● Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 117 (1) of the Constitution, financial Bills which make provision for any
of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f) of clause (1) of Article 110, i.e. Bills which make provision for
any of the matters which come within the definition of a Money Bill but do not consist solely of these matters,
can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President and moreover, such a Bill cannot be introduced
in the Rajya Sabha.
7. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Due to pollution and frequent algal blooms in the waters of Lake Victoria, a number of small
towns lining its shores are facing freshwater crises despite their close proximity to the world’s second largest
freshwater lake (by area).
● Lake Victoria is bordered by Kenya, Uganda and Tanzania. It is one of the African Great Lakes, others being
Lake Malawi and Lake Tanganyika. The White Nile river begins at Lake Victoria in Tanzania and flows north
until it reaches Khartoum, Sudan, where it converges with the Blue Nile to constitute the Nile river.
● Between 2010 and 2022 the surface area of Lake Victoria increased by 15%, flooding lakeside communities.
The lake exhibits eutrophic conditions, owing to successive burning within its basin, soot and ash which has
deposited over the lake's wide area, increased nutrient inflows via rivers, and increased pollution associated
with settlement along its shores.
● Many mammal species such as the hippopotamus, African clawless otter, spotted-necked otter, marsh
mongoose, sitatunga, bohor reedbuck, defassa waterbuck, cane rats, and giant otter shrew live in the region of
Lake Victoria. The lake is home to many species of fish which live nowhere else, especially cichlids which are
endemic to this Lake.
● A number of environmental
issues are associated with
Lake Victoria, such as
invasive fishes, water hyacinth
invasion and pollution. The
complete disappearance of
many endemic cichlid species
has been called the "most
dramatic example of human-
caused extinctions within an
ecosystem".
8. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Paris Club
recently stated that it is
committed to negotiate with
the Republic of Ghana on
terms of a restructuring of
their debt, since Ghana is struggling through its worst economic crisis in a generation, defaulting on most of
its international debt.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: India is not a member of the Paris Club. The Paris Club, formed in 1956, is an
informal group of major creditor countries whose role is to find coordinated and sustainable solutions to the
payment difficulties experienced by debtor countries. As debtor countries undertake reforms to stabilize and
restore their macroeconomic and financial situation, Paris Club creditors provide an appropriate debt treatment.
Paris Club creditors provide debt treatments to debtor countries in the form of rescheduling, which is debt relief
by postponement or, in the case of concessional rescheduling, reduction in debt service obligations during a
defined period (flow treatment) or as of a set date (stock treatment).
● Statement 2 is correct: The “G20 Common Framework” for debt treatment is an initiative endorsed by the
G20, together with the Paris Club to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable
debt. The idea is that the debt treatment under the Common Framework should be accompanied by reforms
ensuring the future sustainability of public debt, and consistent with the parameters of the IMF. The Common
Framework represents a step change for official creditors, bringing together the Paris Club and G20 official
bilateral creditors in a coordinated process, which allows to address solvency challenges with a long-term
perspective, ensuring the participation of private sector creditors and of other official creditors through the
comparability of treatment clause included in the multilateral agreement, which implies that they provide debt
treatments on terms as least as favourable.
● Statement 3 is correct: 2023 Paris Forum, held in June 2023 in Paris, was organized by the Paris Club and the
Indian Presidency of the G20. It was dedicated to "coordinating sovereign debt restructurings in a complex
environment". The Forum aims to facilitate open and transparent discussions on debt challenges and share
potential solutions to prevent and address debt crises in developing countries.
9. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: A historical sceptre called ‘Sengol’ was installed in the newly constructed Parliament's Lok
Sabha chamber - placed next to the Speaker's chair - by PM Modi.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Central Vista complex, originally inaugurated in 1931, is the center of
administration for the Government of India and houses all facilities needed for the efficient functioning of the
Government of India. The Central Vista was first designed by architect Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker, when
the capital of the British Raj was moved from Calcutta to Delhi.
Central Vista Redevelopment Project refers to the ongoing redevelopment to revamp the Central Vista. It
includes a revamped ‘Kartavya Path between Rashtrapati Bhavan and India Gate, conversion of North and South
Blocks into publicly accessible museums by creating a new common Central Secretariat to house all ministries,
a new Parliament building near the present one with increased seating capacity for future expansion, new
residence and office for the Vice-President and the Prime Minister near the North Block and South Block and
convert some of the older structures into museums.
● Statement 2 is correct: Sengol is a gold-plated silver sceptre, installed in India's New Parliament House by
Prime Minister Modi in 2023. It was originally gifted to Jawaharlal Nehru, the first prime minister of India on
the eve of Independence, 14 August 1947, by a delegation of holy men from the Adheenam monastery, as a
symbol of the shift of power from Britishers to the people of India. The sceptre is five feet in length and has a
Nandi, Lord Shiva’s sacred bull, on the top, symbolizing justice.
10. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: Eminent educationist Manoj Soni recently took oath as the chairman of the Union Public Service
Commission.
● Statement 1 is correct: Before 1854, civil servants for the East India Company used to be nominated by the
Directors of the Company and thereafter trained at Haileybury College in London and then sent to India.
Following Lord Macaulay’s Report of the Select Committee of British Parliament, the concept of a merit based
modern Civil Service in India was introduced in 1854. The Report recommended that the patronage based
system of East India Company should be replaced by a permanent Civil Service based on a merit based system
with entry through competitive examinations. For this purpose, a Civil Service Commission was set up in 1854
in London and competitive examinations were started in 1855.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: In 1864 Satyendranath Tagore, brother of Rabindaranath Tagore, became the first
India to succeed in the Indian Civil Service examination. Three years later 4 other Indians succeeded. This was
despite the extreme difficulty for Indian candidates, such as initially the examinations for Indian Civil Service
were conducted only in London, maximum age was 23 years, and the syllabus was designed such that European
Classics had a predominant share of marks.
● Statement 3 is correct: It was only after the First World War and the Montagu Chelmsford reforms that it was
agreed upon by the British to hold simultaneous examinations for the Indian Civil Service to be held in India,
after nearly 50 years of petitions. From 1922 onwards the Indian Civil Service Examination began to be held in
India also, first in Allahabad and later in Delhi with the setting up of the Federal Public Service Commission.
The Examination in London continued to be conducted by the Civil Service Commission.
● Statement 4 is correct: The concept of a body intended to be charged primarily with the regulation of service
matters, found a somewhat practical shape in the Government of India Act, 1919. Section 96(C) of the Act
provided for the establishment in India of a Public Service Commission which should “discharge, in regard to
recruitment and control of the Public Services in India, such functions as may be assigned thereto by rules made
by the Secretary of State in Council”. However, it was only in 1926, after strong recommendations of the Lee
Commission, that the Public Service Commission was set up in India for the first time. It consisted of four
Members in addition to the Chairman. Sir Ross Barker, a member of the Home Civil Service of the United
Kingdom was the first Chairman of the Commission.
11. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: The central government recently promulgated an Ordinance that has led to friction between the
Aam Aadmi Party-led Delhi Government and Centre.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 123 (2) of the Constitution of India, an Ordinance promulgated by the
President shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, or before it if
both Houses pass resolutions disapproving it. On the other hand, as per Article 352 (4), a Proclamation of
Emergency shall cease to operate at the expiration of one month unless before the expiration of that period it
has been approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
● Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 123 (3) of the Constitution of India, an Ordinance which makes any
provision which the Parliament is not competent to enact as per the Constitution, such an Ordinance would be
void.
● Statement 3 is correct: Since the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers which is stated in the
Article 74 (1) of the Constitution, it is in effect the government that decides to bring the Ordinance. The
President may return the recommendation of the Cabinet once if she feels it warrants reconsideration; if it is
sent back (with or without reconsideration), she has to promulgate it.
12. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: The 3rd Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) Summit was held in Port Moresby,
Papua New Guinea in May 2023. It was co-chaired by Indian and Papua New Guinea's Prime Minister and
attended by 14 Pacific Island Countries (PICs).
● FIPIC is a multinational grouping developed for cooperation between India and 14 PICs, namely Cook Islands,
Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Samoa, Solomon Islands,
Tonga, Tuvalu and Vanuatu. FIPIC was launched during PM Modi’s visit to Fiji in November 2014.
● Despite their relatively small size and considerable distance from India, many of these islands have large exclusive
economic zones (EEZs). EEZs is the distance up to which a coastal nation has jurisdiction over the ocean, including
both living and non-living resources. It generally goes to 200 nautical miles beyond a nation’s territorial sea.
● India’s larger focus is on the Indian Ocean where it has sought to play a major role and protect its strategic and
commercial interests. The FIPIC initiative then marks a serious effort to expand India’s engagement in the
Pacific region as well.
● Based on 2021-22 data, the total annual trade between India and Pacific Island countries is valued at $570
million, in commodities such as plastics, pharmaceuticals, sugar, mineral fuel and ores. Among them, Papua
New Guinea is the biggest trade partner in terms of value.
● At the recent Summit, India promised to establish a super-specialty cardiology hospital in Fiji; sea ambulances
and desalination units for all the 14 PICs.
13. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) recently flagged fresh cases of
misleading ads and claims by food business operators.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Food irradiation can be used to effectively eliminate organisms that cause foodborne
illness, such as Salmonella and Escherichia coli (E. coli). It is considered a “cold” method, meaning it does not
use heat to kill germs.
Food irradiation (the application of ionizing radiation to food) is a technology that improves the safety and extends
the shelf life of foods by reducing or eliminating microorganisms and insects. Like pasteurizing milk and canning
fruits and vegetables, irradiation can make food safer for the consumer.
Irradiation does not make foods radioactive, compromise nutritional quality, or noticeably change the taste, texture,
or appearance of food.
● Statement 2 is correct: Food irradiation can be used to destroy or inactivate organisms that cause spoilage and
decomposition and extend the shelf life of foods. It can also be used to inhibit sprouting (for example, potatoes)
and delay ripening of fruit to increase longevity.
Irradiation can be used to sterilize foods, which can then be stored for years without refrigeration. Sterilized foods
are useful in hospitals for patients with severely impaired immune systems, such as patients with AIDS or
undergoing chemotherapy. Foods that are sterilized by irradiation are exposed to substantially higher levels of
treatment than those approved for general use.
● Statement 3 is correct: The ‘Radura’ is the international symbol indicating a food product has been irradiated.
The Radura is usually green and resembles a plant in a circle.
According to the Food Safety & Standards Authority of India, all food products that have undergone irradiation
must carry the ‘Radura’ mark along with the tag ‘treated with radiation’ or ‘treated by irradiation.’
14. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: The International Financial Services Centre Authority (IFSCA), the regulatory body overseeing
GIFT City’s international financial services center, is considering permitting unsponsored depository receipts
(UDRs) for Indian shares.
● Statement 1 is correct: Unsponsored Depository Receipts (UDR) is a type of Depository Receipt in which
foreign firm has no involvement in the issuance. A custodian buys shares from investors (and not the company)
in the local market, creates a pool and facilitates trading of these shares abroad. Investor does not have any
voting rights and is retained by the depository.
Sponsored depository receipts are initiated by companies themselves, while third parties introduce unsponsored
depository receipts.
● Statement 2 is correct: Depository receipts allow investors exposure to equities of foreign companies, with
custodian banks facilitating the transactions by purchasing shares and issuing receipts. These receipts can be
traded on designated stock exchanges, similar to regular shares. The availability of Indian UDRs would offer
investors the opportunity to invest in Indian stocks and avail of tax benefits.
● Statement 3 is correct: Currently, investors through IFSC, Gift City, can avail of a number of tax benefits,
including exemption from securities transaction tax and stamp duty. Foreign funds can also avail of lower tax
rates on capital gains at Gift City.
15. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: IT and Telecom Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw recently met Google CEO Sundar Pichai at the
Google headquarters in California where they discussed ‘India Stack’ and 'Make in India'.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: India Stack is the name used to describe a collection of disparate technology products
and frameworks. The components of this collection are owned and maintained by different agencies. Aadhaar
products such as e-auth and e-KYC are owned by the Unique ID Authority of India. eSign is a technology
specification which is maintained by the Ministry of Communications and Information Technology. Digilocker
is owned by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. UPI is owned by the National Payments
Corporation of India. The Account Aggregator framework is regulated by RBI and its technology standards and
owned by Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt. Ltd. (ReBIT is RBI's subsidiary for Enterprise
Technology and Allied Services).
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The principles, technologies, and functionality of India Stack can be applied in any
country. None of the systems which comprise India Stack require any proprietary technology or intellectual
property which would preclude their implementation in any other country.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN) is an open network which codifies
the flow of credit between borrowers, lenders, and credit distributors under a common set of standards. It was
created by iSPIRT, a non-profit think tank that was key in implementing public digital infrastructure such as
Aadhar and UPI.
By allowing platforms and marketplaces to connect with banks and non-banking lenders to digitize the process of
originating, underwriting and servicing a loan, OCEN aims to democratize credit access to small business and
vendors.
If implemented well, OCEN will disrupt the credit market in India by providing the financing that will help MSMEs
grow into SMEs or large corporations. The growth of these micro-enterprises will in turn lead to sustainable job
creation and boost growth in the broader Indian economy.
16. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Food Corporation of India, along with other agencies, recently undertook the procurement of
paddy under the price support scheme at Minimum Support Price. This procured paddy is then milled to make
rice and distributed to the public under various food security schemes.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends the Minimum
Support Price (MSP) of an agricultural produce on the basis of following determinants:
○ demand and supply;
○ cost of production;
○ price trends in the market, both domestic and international;
○ inter-crop price parity;
○ terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture;
○ a minimum of 50 percent as the margin over cost of production; and
○ likely implications of MSP on consumers of that product.
It can be seen that cost of production is an important factor that goes as an input in determining MSP, but it is
certainly not the only factor that determines MSP.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Since the 2019-20 crop years, the Central Government has fixed the MSPs same as
that recommended by the CACP. However, it must be noted that the MSPs for all of the 22 commodities have
risen every crop year. (Latest MSP:
https://cacp.dacnet.nic.in/ViewContents.aspx?Input=1&PageId=36&KeyId=0 )
● Statement 3 is correct: Farmers can get bonus on some agricultural commodities which is in addition to MSP.
Earlier, many state governments used to give such bonuses, however these bonuses had the tendency to distort
the market and cultivation patterns while increasing the subsidy burden.
17. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently Andhra Pradesh High Court Chief Justice Prashant Kumar Mishra and senior advocate
KV Viswanathan took oath as Supreme Court Judges.
● Statement 1 is correct: In a ruling in the Delhi Sales Tax Act, 2022, the Supreme Court of India ruled that a
majority verdict by a larger bench will prevail over even a unanimous decision by a bench of lesser strength.
What this means is that a 4:3 ruling by the court will prevail over a unanimous five-judge bench verdict.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: In the above case, SC also ruled that the number of judges constituting the majority
in the larger bench may be less than or equal to the number of judges on the smaller bench. What this means is
that a 4:3 ruling by the court will prevail over a unanimous five-judge bench verdict.
In view of Article 145(5) of the Constitution, concurrence of a majority of the judges at the hearing will be
considered as a judgment or opinion of the court. SC ruled that the majority decision of a Bench of larger
strength would prevail over the decision of a Bench of lesser strength, irrespective of the number of judges
constituting the majority.
● Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 145(3) of the Constitution, the minimum number of Judges who are to
sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this
Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 (Power of President to consult
Supreme Court) shall be five. Such a bench is known as the ‘Constitution Bench’ of the Supreme Court.
● Statement 4 is correct: As per Article 145(5) of the Constitution, the Supreme Court can only give a judgment
or express an opinion if majority of the Judges on the Bench agree upon it. However, this doesn't mean that a
Judge who disagrees cannot share their own opinion. They have the right to provide a dissenting judgment or
opinion, even if they don't agree with the majority.
18. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) in India is being supported by seven
major field studies conducted by the National Productivity Council (NPC).
● Statement 1 is correct: National Productivity Council of India (NPC) is a constituent of the Tokyo-based Asian
Productivity Organisation (APO), an Inter-Governmental Body of which India is a founding member.
Established in the year 1958, NPC is an autonomous organization under the Department for Promotion of
Industry & Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Besides undertaking research in the area of productivity, NPC has been providing consultancy and training services
in areas of Industrial Engineering, Agri-Business, Economic Services, Quality Management, Human Resources
Management, Information Technology, Technology Management, Energy Management, Environmental
Management etc., to the Government and Public & Private sector organizations.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: NPC is headed by the Minister of Commerce and Industry, who acts as the president.
The Secretary, DPIIT acts as Chairman of NPC.
● Statement 3 is correct: NPC offers a range of training programmes to improve people's behavioural,
managerial and technical competencies, especially aimed at making people realize their full potential. Some of
them are:
○ Energy Efficiency for Energy Auditing Professionals;
○ Digital Workplace: Essentials for non-IT Executives;
○ Advance Course on RTI Act 2005 and Modern HR Practices;
○ Preventive Vigilance, Disciplinary Action, Enquiry, Good Governance, RTI;
○ Stress Management and Strategic Financial Planning for Organizational Excellence, etc.
19. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently India's forex reserves rose to an 11-month high of $595.98 billion on 5th May 2023, as
per the data from RBI .
● Foreign exchange reserves act as the first line of defense for India in case of economic slowdown, but acquisition
of reserves has its own costs. Foreign exchange reserves facilitate external trade and payment and promote
orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.
● India’s foreign exchange reserves consist of:
○ Foreign Currency Assets, excluding (a) the investment in bonds issued by India Infrastructure Finance
Company (UK); and (b) amounts lent under the SAARC Currency swap arrangements
○ Gold
○ Special Drawing Rights
○ Reserve Position in International Monetary Fund
● Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 and the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 set the legal provisions for
governing the foreign exchange reserves. RBI accumulates foreign currency reserves by purchasing from
authorized dealers in open market operations. Foreign exchange reserves of India act as a cushion against rupee
volatility once global interest rates start rising.
20. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently the NBSAP Forum 2.0 was launched to offer a dedicated community of practice for
biodiversity practitioners across the globe working on the goals and targets of the Kunming-Montreal Global
Biodiversity Framework that were agreed in Montreal at the end of 2022.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) was adopted during
the fifteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP 15) to the Convention of Biological Diversity
following a four year consultation and negotiation process. Among the Framework’s key elements are 4 goals
for 2050 and 23 targets for 2030.
● Statement 2 is correct: The implementation of the GBF will be guided and supported through a comprehensive
package of decisions also adopted at COP 15. This package includes a monitoring framework for the GBF
comprising of a set of agreed indicators for tracking progress, an enhanced mechanism for planning, monitoring,
reporting and reviewing implementation, the necessary financial resources for implementation, strategic
frameworks for capacity development and technical and scientific cooperation, as well as an agreement on
digital sequence information on genetic resources.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: In a decision on mechanisms for planning, monitoring, reporting and review, Parties
are required to submit revised or updated National Biodiversity Strategies and Action Plans (NBSAP) by the
next COP-16 in Turkiye, following the guidance, aligned with the goals and targets of the GBF. Parties not in a
position to do so can communicate their national targets reflecting the goals and targets of the GBF, as a
standalone submission, by COP-16, in advance of submission of their full NBSAP.
21. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Google recently said its Google Play's payments policy is compliant with the anti-trust watchdog
CCI's order and it is pushing ahead with plans to enforce the policy in the country. In October 2022, the
Competition Commission of India (CCI), fined Google $275 million in two cases, which involved abusing its
dominant position in the Android operating system market and pushing developers to use its in-app payment
system.
● Statement 1 is correct: Competition Commission of India (CCI) has been established as the regulator and
quasi-judicial authority under the Competition Act, 2002, to attain the objects as enumerated under the Act. It
is the duty of the Commission to eliminate practices having adverse effects on competition, promote and sustain
competition, protect the interests of consumers and ensure freedom of trade in the markets of India.
● Statement 2 is correct: As per Section 27 (b) of the Competition Act, 2002, CCI is empowered to impose
penalty upon the erring person or enterprises, quantum of which cannot exceed 10 percent of the average of the
turnover of the last three financial years. As per the provision, CCI has a discretion to impose a penalty with a
quantum anywhere between 0-10 percent of the turnover. Wherein a cap of 10 percent has been imposed to keep
a check on the powers of the CCI as well.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Competition (Amendment) Act 2023 has empowered CCI to impose penalties
on global turnover basis derived from all products and services. It has now defined “turnover” as global turnover
derived from all the products and services by a person or an enterprise.
Reading turnover in terms of global turnover, one that is derived from all the products and services by an enterprise
instead of domestic turnover. This shift is expected to have massive impact specially on digital enterprises as these
entities operate beyond territorial bounds and now upon any violation, their entire turnover is expected to be
considered for penalty imposition.
22. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: Cyclone Mocha, a very severe cyclonic storm that formed in the Bay of Bengal, hit the coastlines
of Bangladesh and Myanmar after intensifying into the equivalent of a category-five storm.
● Option (d) is incorrect: ‘Extremely Severe’ Cyclonic Storm Mocha was a powerful and deadly tropical cyclone
in the North Indian Ocean majorly in the Bay of Bengal region which affected Myanmar and parts of Bangladesh
in May 2023.
● The Coriolis effect makes storms swirl clockwise in the Southern hemisphere and counterclockwise in the
Northern Hemisphere. The Coriolis Effect is caused by the Earth’s rotation. As the Earth rotates, air currents in
the atmosphere are affected. The Coriolis Effect causes air currents in the Northern hemisphere to rotate in a
counter-clockwise direction, and air currents in the Southern hemisphere to rotate in a clockwise direction.
● The Bay of Bengal is warmer than the Arabian Sea, so the waters form a natural hotspot for cyclones. High
intensity cyclones are relatively less frequent in the Arabian Sea than in the Bay of Bengal because of lower sea
surface temperature (SST) and unfavorable wind shear. But the Arabian Sea has been heating faster, partly due
to global warming, which is leading to an increase in the frequency and intensity of cyclones in the Arabian Sea
region. The increase in severe cyclones in the Arabian Sea is consistent with the increasing trend in SST.
● A tropical cyclone is a warm-core low pressure system with significant convective activity, without any "front"
attached, that develops over the tropical or subtropical waters and has an organized circulation. There are several
favorable environmental conditions that must be in place before a tropical cyclone can form. They are:
○ Warm ocean waters (at least 80°F / 27°C)
○ An atmosphere which cools fast enough with height such that it is potentially unstable to moist convection
○ Relatively moist air near the mid-level of the troposphere
○ Generally, a minimum distance of at least 480 km from the equator
○ A pre-existing near-surface disturbance
○ Low values (less than about 37 km/h) of vertical wind shear between the surface and the upper troposphere.
Vertical wind shear is the change in wind speed with height
● Given that sea surface temperatures need to be at least 80°F (27°C) for tropical cyclones to form, it is unsurprising
that they form near the equator. However, with only the rarest exceptions, these storms do not form within 5° latitude
of the equator. This is due to the lack of sufficient Coriolis force, the force that causes the cyclone to spin.
23. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Arab League recently reinstated Syria’s membership in the influential league, more than a decade
after being thrown out for its brutal repression of protests, which led to the Syrian civil war.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Arab League is a regional organization in the Arab world, which is located in
Northern Africa, Western Africa, Eastern Africa, and Western Asia. Comoros, a country that is situated between
Madagascar and Mozambique, is the only member of the Arab League that lies south to the Horn of Africa.
● Statement 2 is correct: As per Article III of the Charter or the Arab League, each member state has one vote
in the Council of the Arab League. As per Article VII of the Charter, the unanimous decisions of the Council
shall be binding upon all member-states of the League, while the decisions decided by majority shall be binding
only upon those states which have accepted them.
In either case the decisions of the Council shall be enforced in each member-state according to its respective laws.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Arab League, in May 2023, voted to reinstate Syria’s membership (not Iran)
after its suspension in 2011 in the aftermath of the outbreak of the Syrian Civil War. The decision to reinstate
Syria was taken at the meeting of the Council of the Arab League held in Cairo, Egypt.
24. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: Residents in Delhi-NCR recently witnessed a rare celestial phenomenon after the rains, called
'Sun Halo'-a bright rainbow-coloured ring around the Sun-was also witnessed in neighboring states like
Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
● In the atmosphere, under certain conditions, water drops and ice crystals can act as a prism, allowing us to see
the various colors that make up visible light. It's because of these properties that we get the various atmospheric
optical effects.
● Statement 1 is correct: A sun halo is a ring or light that forms around the sun as the sunlight refracts off ice
crystals present in a thin veil of cirrus clouds.The halo is usually seen as a bright, white ring although sometimes
it can have color.
● Statement 2 is correct: Sundogs are colored spots of light that develop due to the refraction of light through
ice crystals. They are located approximately 22 degrees either left, right, or both, from the sun, depending on
where the ice crystals are present. The colors usually go from red closest to the sun, out to blue on the outside
of the sundog. Sundogs are also known as mock suns or parhelia, which means "with the sun".
● Statement 3 is correct: Sun Pillars appear as a shaft of light extending vertically above the sun, most often at
sunrise or sundown. They develop as a result of ice crystals slowly falling through the air, reflecting the sun’s
rays off of them. Look for sun pillars when the sun is low on the horizon, and cirrus clouds are present.
● Refraction: Refraction is the change in direction of a wave (in this case light) due to a change in its speed. So,
when light is refracted inside an ice crystal or water droplet in the air, it's broken into its component colors. This
creates the rainbow effect.
● Reflection: Reflection of light occurs when the waves encounter a surface or other boundary that does not
absorb the energy of the radiation and bounces the waves away from the surface. The light is not separated into
its component colors because it is not being "bent" (or refracted), and all wavelengths are being reflected at
equal angles.
25. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently the World Dance Day celebrations took place in Trichy, where over 100 artistes came
together to perform a variety of dances.
● Option (a) is correct: Laho, Puli Vesham and Gotipua are some of the lesser-known folk dances of India.
● Laho: Laho hails from Meghalaya’s Jaintia hill region. It is an integral part of the Behdienkhlam festival, which
is held annually to invoke divine blessings and to get rid of bad spirits. It is famous among the Pnar tribal
community in Meghalaya.
Instead of musical instruments, a man recites couplets during the performance. Both men and women take part in
the dance and wear colourful costumes and jewellery. This folk dance is also popular among the Harp tribe of the
state but is called a different name, Wangala Dance.
● Puli Vesham: Puli Vesham or Tiger Dance is performed in the Andhra region during Dussehra and Muharram
festivals.
It is a one-man dance where the performer wears a narrow strip of cloth around the waist, and has the whole body
painted with stripes, sporting a long tail, dancing vigorously in tiger-like strides and jumps. The rhythm is provided
by a Dappu or Mridangam.
● Gotipua: This dance from Orissa is one of the precursors of modern-day Odissi which was recast in the middle
decades of the last century by a triumvirate of Gurus who merged diverse local dance traditions into a single
mono-aesthetic.
The dance is executed by a group of boys who perform acrobatic figures inspired by the life of Radha and Krishna.
The historic village of Raghurajpur in Odisha is known for its Gotipua dance troupes.
26. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently RBI imposed monetary penalty on all four credit information firms for their failure to
comply with the provisions of the CIC (R) Act read with the CIC Rules, in which they failed to timely update
credit profiles of borrowers.
● Statement 1 is correct: Credit information bureaus or Credit Information Companies (CICs) maintain credit
information of borrowers (including individuals, corporate, SMEs) which can be accessed by banks and other lending
institutions. They collect information from a variety of credit providers including banks, credit card companies and non-
bank financial institutions. They rate the borrowers on a scale of 300-900 with 900 being the highest rating. Banks and
finance companies normally take decisions on the rating given by the credit bureaus.
If the borrower has a rating of over 800, (s)he has a good chance to get a loan or credit card easily and at a lower
interest rate. If a borrower defaults, his/her rating will come down. When the rating declines below 500, chances of
getting low interest rates and even loans or cards also decline accordingly.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: CICs levy charges on enquiries even if they have no data on the entity. Banks mandate
the usage of credit information report (CIR) in their credit appraisal process.
● Statement 3 is correct: They can be penalised by the Reserve Bank of India for not updating the borrower's
credit profile in a timely manner; for non-compliance with provisions of the ‘Credit Information Companies
(Regulation) Act, 2005’ [CIC (R) Act] read with the ‘Credit Information Companies Rules, 2006’ [CIC Rules].
As a result of an untimely update of credit profiles, customers may not be able to get loans or credit cards as banks
access the database of CICs and the rating given by them while taking decisions on loan and card sanctions. CICs
and banks are supposed to keep the credit information collected/ maintained by them, updated regularly on a monthly
basis or at such shorter intervals as may be mutually agreed upon between the banks and the CICs.
27. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: The recent collapse of Ukraine’s Kakhovka dam marks an escalation in its war with Russia;
Recently Malawi and Mozambique were affected heavily due to the tropical cyclone ‘Freddy’; The European
Union wants to import green electricity from Georgia as part of a move to make the country less dependent on
Russia and help the bloc meet its climate targets.
● Only Pair 1 is correctly matched. The correct pairs are described below:
● Kakhovka reservoir - Ukraine: The collapse of Ukraine’s Kakhovka dam marks an escalation in its war with
Russia. Kakhovka reservoir has now largely drained which shows the Kakhovka reservoir riverbed that has
become steppe in large parts. The damage to a hydroelectric power plant is not only a blow to a renewable
energy resource but also adds to the already strained power generation capacity of Ukraine.
● Blantyre - Malawi: Recently Malawi and Mozambique were affected heavily due to the tropical cyclone
‘Freddy’. Blantyre (Malawi's center of finance and commerce, and its second largest city) was reported to have
the highest number of deaths in Malawi.
● Akhaltsikhe - Georgia: The European Union wants to import green electricity from Georgia as part of a move
to make the country less dependent on Russia and help the bloc meet its climate targets. A power substation has
been built in Akhaltsikhe of Georgia, near the border with Turkey that can tap into Georgian electricity and
transmit up to 700 MW of electricity into the Turkish-European grid.
The new planned capacities would transform Georgia from a net electricity importer to an exporter providing green
electricity for Europe. Georgia aside, offshore wind farms in Azerbaijan’s Caspian Sea could also play a role in
delivering green power to the West. To make this vision a reality, the EU and Georgia are pursuing the idea of
running a power line through the Black Sea.
28. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Thermobaric weapons were used by Russia against Ukraine.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The United Nations Protocol on Incendiary Weapons has banned the use of
thermobaric weapons against civilian populations or infrastructure. Incendiary weapons as a category does not
include thermobaric weapons, and international law does not appear to prohibit the use of thermobaric
munitions, fuel-air explosive devices, or vacuum bombs against military targets. They have been used earlier
by the USA, Soviet Union, Russia, United Kingdom and Syria etc. at multiple occasions.
A thermobaric weapon, also called an aerosol bomb, or a vacuum bomb, is a type of explosive that uses oxygen
from the surrounding air to generate a high-temperature explosion. The fuel–air explosive is one of the best-known
types of thermobaric weapons. Thermobaric weapons are almost 100% fuel and as a result are significantly more
energetic than conventional explosives of equal weight.
● Statement 2 is correct: Thermobaric weapons consist only of fuel and use oxygen from the surrounding air to
generate a high-temperature explosion. Therefore, they are dependent on the surroundings for oxygen in order
to detonate. This reliance on atmospheric oxygen makes them unsuitable for use under water, at high altitude,
and in adverse weather. They are, however, considerably more effective when used in enclosed spaces such as
tunnels, buildings, and non-airtight sealed field fortifications such as foxholes, covered slit trenches and
bunkers.
29. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: Micron Technology (a US company), a global leader in innovative memory and storage solution, with
support from Indian National Semiconductor mission announced an investment of more than $800 million that
together with additional financial support from the Indian authorities, will be used to set up a $2.75 billion
semiconductor assembly and test facility in India.
● Statement 1 is correct: Semiconductors in their natural state are poor conductors of electricity because a current
requires the flow of electrons, and in semiconductors, valence band and conduction band are separated by a forbidden
energy gap of sufficient width.
(Simple explanation: Elements have a valence band and a conduction band, and current flows through the element when
electrons can jump between the valence band and conduction band. Metals, semiconductors and insulators are
distinguished from each other by their band structures. In metals, the conduction band and the valence band are very close
to each other and therefore electrons that can move freely and so can always carry current. Such electrons are known as
free electrons which are responsible for current that flows through a metal.
In semiconductors, the valence band and conduction band are separated by a forbidden energy gap of sufficient width.
To get to the conduction band, the electron has to gain enough energy to jump the band gap. Once this is done, it can
conduct. A significant improvement can be made to their current carrying capacity by raising temperature or mixing small
amounts of impurities, usually another metallic substance such as arsenic or gallium. This lowers the energy gap and the
semiconductor then is able to carry the current.
In insulators, the band gap is very large so very few electrons can jump the gap. Therefore, current does not flow easily
in insulators. The difference between insulators and semiconductors is the size of the band gap energy.)
A semiconductor is a physical substance designed to manage and control the flow of current in electronic devices and
equipment. It does not allow the free flow of electric current and neither does it repel it completely. Thus, it fits between
a conductor and an insulator.
● Statement 2 is correct: The process of adding controlled impurities (atoms of some elements) to a semiconductor is
known as doping. The conductivity of semiconductors can be increased by adding a small amount of atoms such as
antimony, phosphorus, arsenic, boron, gallium, indium atoms. The resulting semiconductors are known as doped or
extrinsic semiconductors. Apart from doping, the conductivity of a semiconductor can be improved by increasing its
temperature. This is contrary to the behavior of a metal, in which conductivity decreases with an increase in
temperature.
Doping controls the conductance or inductance of the element based on the type and intensity of the added impurities.
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor device can be controlled over a wide range, either permanently or
dynamically, making it highly versatile for various applications. To start with, essential electronic components such as
diodes, transistors, and photovoltaic cells contain semiconductors. These are also used in the development of electronic
chips, computing components and devices and integrated circuits.
● Statement 3 is correct: Under the ‘Modified Semicon India Programme’, a fiscal incentive of 50% of the project
cost is available to companies/consortia/joint ventures for setting up of ‘Semiconductor Fabs’ in India of any node
(technology generation), including mature nodes. Fiscal incentive of 50%t of the project cost is also available for
setting up of Display Fabs of specified technologies in India.
Government had launched the Semicon India Programme in December 2021 with an outlay of INR 76,000 crore for the
development of semiconductors and display manufacturing ecosystem in India.
Fig.: Energy Gap Diagram for Metal, Semiconductor and Insulator

30. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently the NSE Indices Ltd, an arm of the National Stock Exchange (NSE) launched the
country’s first-ever Real Estate Investment Trusts and Infrastructure Investment Trusts index — Nifty REITs
and InvITs Index. The index aims to track the performance of REITs and InvITs that are publicly listed and
traded on the NSE.
● Statement 1 is correct: In 2018, through notification of the SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) Regulations,
2014 (“REIT Regulations”), and SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014
(“InvITRegulations”) REITs and InvITs were permitted by SEBI to issue debt securities.
● Statement 2 is correct: In 2021, the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, was amended to recognise
lending to REITs and InvITs, hence recognizing them as “borrowers” and the Finance Act also recognizes
REITs as “borrowers” for enforcement of security and recovery of debt under the Securitisation and
Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 and Recovery of Debts Due
to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993, respectively.
● Statement 3 is correct: A Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT) or an Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT)
is an investment vehicle that owns revenue-generating real estate or infrastructure assets. REITs invest in real
estate projects, whereas InvITs invest in infrastructure projects with a long gestation period.
● REITs and InvITs are recognised as strong alternative financial instruments to raise funds against the cash-
generating infrastructure and real estate projects. For investors, these instruments provide exposure to real estate
or infrastructure assets and offer diversification of risk from regular asset classes like equity, debt and gold and
generate regular income.
31. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is correct: The exercise Air Defender 23 is the largest deployment exercise of air forces in NATO's history
and demonstrates transatlantic solidarity. From June 12-23, up to 10.000 exercise participants from 25 nations with 250
aircraft will train air operations in European airspace under the command of the German Air Force.
32. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is an instant real-time payment system, allowing
users to transfer money on a real-time basis, across multiple bank accounts without revealing details of one’s
bank account to the other party. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has announced that the
neighbouring country of Nepal will be the first foreign country to adopt India’s UPI system. Bhutan recently
became the first country to adopt UPI standards for its QR code. It is also the second country after Singapore to
have BHIM-UPI acceptance at merchant locations.
● Statement 2 is correct: UPI as a payment option in an Initial Public Offering (IPO) was introduced as a new
payment channel to retail investors by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 2018. IPO is the
selling of securities to the public in the primary market.
● Statement 3 is not correct: The pilot launch of Unified Payments Interface (UPI) was on 11th April 2016 by
Dr Raghuram G Rajan, Governor, RBI at Mumbai. In the fiscal year 2021, the share of currency in circulation
(CIC) to the gross domestic product in India was nearly 15 per cent. Since the demonetization in 2017, the CIC
ratio had considerably grown again. India witnessed high ratios of CIC to GDP in times of high economic
growth.
33. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: CITIIS 2.0 aims to provide support to selected projects that promote circular economy
practices, particularly focusing on integrated waste management at the city level. It also aims to implement
climate-oriented reform actions at the state level and strengthen institutions and disseminate knowledge at the
national level.
● Statement 2 is correct: CITIIS 2.0, following the CITIIS 1.0 model, consists of three main components:
a. Component 1: Providing financial and technical support to develop projects that focus on enhancing climate
resilience, adaptation, and mitigation in up to 18 smart cities. These projects will be selected through a competitive
process and will promote a circular economy, with a specific emphasis on integrated waste management.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: his program, developed by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), in
collaboration with the French Development Agency (AFD), Kreditanstalt für Wiederaufbau (KfW), the European
Union (EU), and the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA), will be implemented from 2023 to 2027.
34. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Strategic crude oil storages are at three underground locations in Mangalore,
Visakhapatnam and Padur (Udupi, Karnataka). All these are located on the east and west coasts of India which
are readily accessible to the refineries. 2 more sites have been proposed in Odisha and Padur in Karnataka.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Reserves are maintained by Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited which
is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Oil Industry development board under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural
gas.
● Statement 3 is correct: All the existing reserves are in the coastal states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh,
while the proposed ones are also in the coastal states of Odisha and Karnataka.
35. Answer: A
Explanation:
1. Biomass torrefaction: Solid biofuels
2. Bhabha Kavach: Bulletproof jacket
3. CRISPR — Cas9: Gene editing
36. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Kavach, Anti-Collision Train System, is India’s indigenously developed automatic train protection system.
● It was under the name Train Collision Avoidance System, which got rechristened to the name Kavach.
● It is a set of electronic devices as well as Radio Frequency Identification devices installed in train
locomotives, in the signalling system and rail tracks, that talk to each other utilizing ultra-high radio
frequencies in order to control the train brakes and also alert drivers, based on the logic programmed
into the system.
● One of the main features of Kavach is that by continuously refreshing a train’s movement information,
it is able to send out triggers when a loco pilot jumps signal, known as Signal Passed at Danger, a
grave offence that leads to accidents like a collision.
● Also, the devices relay the signals continuously ahead to the loco, making it useful for locomotive
pilots in low visibility, especially when there is dense fog.
● The Kavach system’s current form adheres to Safety Integrity Level 4 which is the highest level of
safety and reliability standard.
37. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland, Manipur, Lakshadweep, and Himachal
Pradesh have Inner Line Permits. An Inner Line Permit (ILP) is a legal document issued by the concerned state
government that allows an Indian citizen to enter a protected area for a limited time.
● Statement 2 is correct: AFSPA is current in force in many parts of Maipur however, taking an important step
by the central government, 15 police station areas of 6 districts were taken out of the disturbed area notification
from April 2022. Now, from April 2023, the disturbed area notification under AFSPA is being withdrawn from
4 other police stations. Thus, 19 police stations in 7 districts of Manipur have been removed from the disturbed
area notification under AFSPA.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: It is not homogenous as Manipur is inhabited by three major ethnic groups in
Manipur, the Meitei s in the valley, the Nagas and the kuki-chin tribes in the hills. The Meitei pagans(Meitei-
Muslims) are from a minority community.
38. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: The index is created by Walk Free, a human rights organization, and is based on data
from the Global Estimates of Modern Slavery, produced by the International Labour Organization (ILO), Walk
Free, and International Organization for Migration (IOM).
● India’s Ranking: India has a prevalence of 8. (Estimated proportion of the population living in modern slavery
per thousand people).
39. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: The Union Health Ministry has launched a bold initiative to screen and provide standard
care to 75 million individuals suffering from hypertension and diabetes by 2025. This significant announcement
was made during the G20 co-branded event called “Accelerating the Prevention and Management of
Hypertension and Diabetes,” which was organized by the Union Health Ministry and the World Health
Organization (WHO).
40. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a
permanent, intergovernmental Organization, created at the Baghdad Conference on September 10–
14, 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela. The five Founding Members were later
joined by: Qatar (1961) terminated its membership in January 2019. PEC's objective is to co-ordinate
and unify petroleum policies among Member Countries, in order to secure fair and stable prices for
petroleum producers; an efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to consuming nations;
and a fair return on capital to those investing in the industry.
● Statement 2 is correct: Market conditions led to the emergence of the unprecedented Declaration
of Cooperation in December 2016, with OPEC Members and 10 non-OPEC oil-producing countries
coming together to help rebalance the market, bring down inventory levels and support oil market
stability. In 2019, the Charter of Cooperation, a long-term platform dedicated to cooperation and the
exchange of views and information was established.
41. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is incorrect: The Kakhovka Dam in Ukraine was breached in the early hours of 6 June 2023, causing
extensive flooding along the lower Dnieper river, also called the Dnipro, in Kherson Oblast. The dam was under
the control of the Russian military, which had seized it in the early days of the Russian invasion of Ukraine.
● Pair 2 is incorrect: Geologists have discovered a never-before-seen volcano at the bottom of the Barents Sea
off the coast of Norway, which is erupting with mud, fluids, and gas from the planet's interior. The volcano has
been named The Borealis Mud Volcano.
● Pair 3 is correct: Second Thomas Shoal, also known as Ayungin Shoal, is an atoll in the Spratly Islands of the
South China Sea, 105 nautical miles west of Palawan, Philippines. Claimed by several nations, the atoll is
currently militarily occupied by the Philippines.
42. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The United States and the United Kingdom have announced the Atlantic Declaration
for a Twenty-First Century U.S.-UK Economic Partnership. This declaration aims to adapt, reinforce, and
reimagine the longstanding alliance between the two nations to effectively address the challenges of the current
era.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Atlantic Declaration is focused on building a resilient, diversified, and secure
supply chain, reducing strategic dependencies. The partnership aims to leverage the energy transition and
technological breakthroughs to drive shared growth, create employment opportunities, and uplift communities.
● Statement 3 is correct: The plan encompasses five key pillars and involves regular high-level meetings to drive
progress and increase ambition over time.
43. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The G7 has released a clean energy economy action plan outlining the actions needed
for the world to reach net-zero emissions by 2050 and to limit global temperature rise to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not part of the G7, The G7 is an informal grouping of seven of the world's
advanced economies, including Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United
States, as well as the European Union.
44. Answer: B
Explanation:
A water taxi service operates on waterways, similar to traditional taxis on roads.
Statement 2 is not correct:
The long-awaited water taxi services connecting the twin cities, Mumbai and Navi Mumbai, first of its kind in India,
was flagged off by Union Shipping Minister Sarbananda Sonowal.
The services will commence at the Domestic Cruise Terminal (DCT) and will connect the nearby locations at Nerul,
Belapur, Elephanta island and Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT).
● The water taxi services promise a comfortable, stress-free journey which is time-saving and eco-friendly. The
services are also expected to give a major boost to the tourism sector, especially the travel to the historic
Elephanta Caves from Navi Mumbai.
● The newly constructed Belapur Jetty, built at a cost of Rs. 8.37 crore, was funded in the 50-50 model under
the Sagarmala scheme of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. The jetty will enable movement of
vessels to locations such as Bhaucha Dhakka, Mandwa, Elephanta and Karanja.
45. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: India has emerged as a top country with LEED Zero green building projects, outperforming
the United States of America and China. The United States and China have the second and third most LEED Zero
certifications, with 47 (30%) and 15 (10%) certifications respectively.
Statement 2 is correct: According to the GBCI’s findings, out of 150 LEED Zero certified projects, India has 45%
or 73 such projects, with Haryana and Tamil Nadu leading the race in certifications.
Statement 3 is incorrect : LEED certifications are provided by India Green Building Council under the ausprices
of the US Green Building Council (USGBC) and Green Business Certification Inc (GBCI).
46. Answer: B
● Recently, lithium resources were found in Jammu & Kashmir by the geological survey of India.
● Lithium is considered a crucial component for the production of rechargeable batteries, which are used
in a variety of electronic devices, including smartphones, laptops, and electric vehicles. Read here to know
more about the element and significance of the discovery.
Statement 1 is correct. According to the US Geological Survey, Australia and Chile have the largest reserves of
Lithium in the world.
● Chile, Australia, Argentina, China, US are a few of the countries in the world with the largest overall lithium
reserves, regardless of their stage of development.
● Argentina, Bolivia, and Chile make up the “lithium triangle.” The three countries, along with Peru, contain
about 67% of proven lithium reserves and produce about half of the global supply, according to the U.S.
Geological Survey.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As per the same US Geological Survey report, Australia is the largest producer of
Lithium in the world, followed by Chile.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While Lithium-ion batteries are used in smartphones and laptops, the primary use of
Lithium is in the production of electric vehicle batteries.
Statement 4 is correct. The increasing adoption of electric vehicles is expected to drive up the demand for Lithium
significantly in the coming years.
47. Answer: C
High seas, in maritime law, all parts of the mass of saltwater surrounding the globe that are not part of the
territorial sea or internal waters of a state. The high seas account for more than 60% of the world's ocean area
or half of the Earth's surface, which makes them a hub of marine life.
● Statement 2 is correct: The United Nations High Seas Treaty is a legally binding instrument for the
conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction.
48. Answer: C
● The applications of Brain Machine Interface spreads across multiple and diverse fields and are not limited to
the medical field alone. Applications include, but are not limited to, neuroergonomics, medical, smart
environment, education and self-regulation, games and entertainment, neuromarketing and advertisement. In
the field of healthcare alone, Brain Machine Interface can be employed to prevent, detect and diagnose, and
rehabilitate and restore from a sickness.
● Mental state monitoring function of BCI systems has also contributed in forecasting and detecting health issues
such as abnormal brain structure (such as brain tumor), Seizure disorder (such as epilepsy), Sleep disorder (such
as narcolepsy), and brain swelling (such as encephalitis).
49. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The ordinance-making power is the most important legislative power of the President. It has been vested in him
to deal with unforeseen or urgent matters U/A123. But, the exercises of this power are subject to the following
four limitations:
● He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of
the two Houses of Parliament is not in session. An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in
session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.
● An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is void. Thus, the power of the President to legislate
by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation.
● He can make an ordinance only when he is satisfied that the circumstances exist that render it necessary for him
to take immediate action.
● His ordinance-making power is coextensive as regards all matters except duration, with the law-making powers
of the Parliament.
● Every ordinance issued by the President during the recess of Parliament must be laid before both Houses of
● Parliament when it reassembles. If the ordinance is approved by both the Houses, it becomes an act. If
Parliament takes no action at all, the ordinance ceases to operate on the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly
of Parliament.
● The ordinance may also cease to operate even earlier than the prescribed six weeks if both the Houses of
Parliament pass resolutions disapproving it. If the Houses of Parliament are summoned to reassemble on
different dates, the period of six weeks is calculated from the later of those dates. This means that the maximum
life of an ordinance can be six months and six weeks, in case of non-approval by the Parliament (six months
being the maximum gap between the two sessions of Parliament).
● If an ordinance is allowed to lapse without being placed before Parliament, then the acts done and completed
under it, before it ceases to operate, remain fully valid and effective.
50. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Supreme Court declared in D. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986), that it is unconstitutional to
repromulgate ordinances (in certain conditions).
● The case of M.C. Mehta v. Union of India originated in the aftermath of oleum gas leak from Shriram Food and
Fertilisers Ltd. complex at Delhi. Rameshwar Prasad case was related to dissolution of Bihar Assembly.
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT-14 (GEOGRAPHY 1.0)
(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT-14 (GEOGRAPHY 1.0) A
Time Allowed: 1 Hours Maximum Marks: 50
INSTRUCTIONS
BOOKLET.
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response you want to mark on the Answer sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
penalty.
question.
1. Regarding the ‘Earth’s Seismic Noise’, 3. How many of the following landforms are
consider the following statements: formed by the erosional activity of
1. It refers to the relatively persistent glaciers?
vibration of the ground. 1. Aretes
2. This noise does not include vibrations 2. Drumlins

caused due to human activity. 3. Eskers
3. Due to lower seismic noise, the 4. Bergschrund
scientists can detect smaller Select the correct option using the codes
earthquakes and tremors. given below:
(a) Only one (c) Only three
(b) Only two (d) All four
(c) All three
(d) None 4. With reference to different types of
metamorphism, consider the following
2. Consider the following statements statements:
regarding earthquake waves: 1. Recrystallization due to tectonic
1. The direction of vibrations of S-waves shearing of rocks is called regional
is perpendicular to the wave direction metamorphism.
in the vertical plane. 2. Chemical changes upon reorganization
2. Surface waves are the last to report on occur in thermal metamorphism but
not in dynamic metamorphism.
seismograph during an earthquake
event. Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Copy is ENCRYPTED and for personal use ONLY| www.sunyaias.com | PRLEIMS-2024 Page. 1
5. Consider the following statements 7. With reference to Karst regions, How many
regarding mass movement: of the following statements are correct?
1. No geomorphic agent participates in 1. Absence of surface drainage in
the process of mass movement. dolomite regions makes vegetation
2. Slumping occurs when the soil is growth difficult.
completely saturated with water. 2. Lead is the only important mineral
3. Solifluction does not occur in found in association with limestone.
temperate and tundra regions. 3. Limestone regions all over the world
How many of the above statement(s) is/are support high growths of vegetation.
correct? Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) None
6. With reference to ‘Intrusive Volcanic
Landforms’, consider the following
8. Which of the following statement is
statements:
incorrect regarding Monadnock?
1. Sills are the near horizontal bodies of
(a) It is an isolated hill of bedrock which
the intrusive igneous rocks.
stands above the general level of the
2. Lacoliths are saucer shaped intrusive
surrounding area.
bodies that are located at deeper
(b) It is formed in humid, temperate
depths.
regions.
(c) It remains as a conspicuous, solitary
correct?
landform because it is made up of
(a) 1 only
sedimentary rocks.
(b) 2 only
(d) It is known as inselberg as a rocky
(c) Both 1 and 2
ridge that is resistant to erosion and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
often surrounded by flat land.
9. Consider the following pairs: 11. Fjords are referred to as:
1. Cirque - It is a single pyramidal peak (a) It is a flat-bottom depression found in
interior desert basins and adjacent to
which is formed when the summit is
coasts within arid and semiarid
eroded by cirque basins on all sides.
regions.
2. Horns - It is a bowl-shaped eroded,
(b) It is a natural, low, linear and parallel
depressions near-mountain top ridges
ridge of coarse deposits along the
where snow accumulates and forms the
banks of rivers which is quite often cut
head of an alpine glacier. into individual mounds.
3. Serrated Ridge- It is a thin, crest of (c) It is ridge made of sands and gravels,
rock formed after two adjacent glaciers deposited by glacial meltwater flowing
have worn a steep ridge into the rock. through tunnels within and underneath
How many of the pair(s) given above is/are glaciers, or through meltwater channels
correctly matched? on top of glaciers.
(a) Only one pair (d) It is a long, deep, narrow body of water
that reaches far inland and is often set
(b) Only two pairs
in a U-shaped valley with steep walls
(c) All three pairs
of rock on either side.

10. It is a material on the surface of a glacier. 1. Running Water
They are made up of rocks and earth that 2. Glaciers
have fallen on the glacier from the 3. Waves
surrounding landscape. Dust and dirt left 4. Currents
by wind and rain become part of this 5. Wind
moraines. If a glacier melts, this moraine is 6. Groundwater
evenly distributed across a valley. How many of the above-given mediums are
Which of the following type of moraine is considered as agents of Geomorphic
described in the above passage? Process?
(a) Medial Moraines (a) Only three
(b) Lateral Moraines (b) Only four
(c) Ground Moraines (c) Only five
(d) Supraglacial Moraine (d) All six
13. Match the following: 15. Which of the following are the evidences
1. Normal A. It is caused by for Seafloor Spreading?
Fault compressional 1. Rocks on either side of the crest of
oceanic ridges having equidistant
forces in which the
locations have similar properties.
block above the
2. The rocks of the oceanic crust near the
fault moves up oceanic ridges are much younger than
relative to the block the rocks of the continental crust.
below the fault. Select the correct answer using the codes
2. Reverse B. It is formed when given below:
Fault rocks are sliding (a) 1 only
past each other in (b) 2 only
horizontal direction (c) Both 1 and 2
with little or no (d) Neither 1 nor 2
vertical movement.
16. The Earth’s atmosphere is mainly heated
3. Strike-slip C. It is caused by
by:
faults tensional forces in
(a) Long-wave terrestrial radiation
which the block (b) Short-wave terrestrial radiation
above the fault has (c) Long-wave solar insolation
moved downward (d) Short-wave solar insolation
relative to the block
below. 17. Consider the following statements about
Select the correct answer using the codes the Coriolis force:
given below: 1. It deflects the winds to the right
direction in the northern hemisphere
(a) 1-C, 2- A, 3-B
and to the left in the southern
(b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A hemisphere.
(c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C 2. The deflection is less when wind
(d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C velocity is high.
3. It is maximum at poles and is absent at
equators.
14. Barysphere includes which of the following
regions of the Earth?
is/are correct?
(a) Inner Core and Outer Core (a) Only one
(b) Mantle and Outer Core (b) Only two
(c) Asthenosphere and Lithosphere (c) All three
(d) Asthenosphere and Mantle (d) None
18. Which of the following best describes the 21. Consider the following statements:
geostrophic wind? 1. Jet streams occur in the Northern
Hemisphere only.
(a) Wind circulation around a low pressure
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
(b) When isobars are straight and when 3. The temperature inside the eye of a
there is no friction cyclone is nearly 10 degree Celsius lesser
(c) Wind circulation around high pressure than that of the surroundings.
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
19. What is the pattern of cyclonic circulation (b) Only two
in northern hemisphere? (c) All three
(d) None
(a) Clockwise
(b) Anti clockwise
22. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy
(c) Perpendicular to isobars night?
(d) Parallel to isobars (a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from
the Earth's surface.
(b) Clouds reflect the Earth's radiation.
20. Consider the following condition for (c) The Earth's surface would have low
favourable formation and intensification of temperatures on cloudy nights.
tropical cyclone: (d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to
ground level
1. Large Sea surfaces with temperatures
lesser than 20-degree Celsius
2. Presence of Coriolis force 1. Cirrus clouds cotton-wool like
3. Small variations in vertical wind speed 2. Stratus layered clouds
4. A pre-existing weak low-pressure area clouds
3. Nimbus feathery
5. Upper divergence above the sea level
clouds appearance
system 4. Cumulus black and dark
How many of the above statements are clouds grey
correct? How many of the above pair(s) is/are
incorrectly matched?
(a) Only two
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only three
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only four (c) Only three pairs
(d) All five (d) All the four pairs
24. Consider the following statements: 26. "The air on being heated, becomes light
1. The excess moisture is deposited in the and rises up. As it rises, it expands and
loses heat and consequently condensation
form of minute ice crystals in case of
takes place and cumulus clouds are formed.
frost.
With thunder and lightning, heavy rainfall
2. For the formation of frost it is takes place but this does not last long. Such
necessary that the temperature is above rain is common in the summer or in the
the freezing point. hotter part of the day."
What type of rainfall is being talked about
in the above lines?
correct?
(a) Cyclonic Rainfall
(a) 1 only
(b) Convectional Rainfall
(b) 2 only (c) Orographic rainfall
(c) 1 and 2 Both (d) Montane Rainfall
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. The Mid-oceanic ridges form the
largest mountain systems on earth.
1. Surface heating
2. The flat-topped mountains rising from
2. Orographic barriers the seafloor and not reaching the
3. Fronts surface of the ocean are known as
guyots.
4. Convergence
3. Submarine canyons are generally
5. Turbulence
smaller in scale compared to those that
How many of the above contributes occur on land.
to/affects cloud formation? Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(a) Only two correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only three
(b) Only two
(c) Only four
(c) All three
(d) All five
(d) None
28. How many of the following factors control 30. These are low islands found in the tropical
the nature and magnitude of Tides? oceans consisting of coral reefs
surrounding a central depression. It may be
1. The movement of the moon in relation
a part of the lagoon or sometimes form
to the earth enclosing a body of fresh, brackish or
2. Uneven distribution of water over the highly saline water. These islands are
globe. known as:
(a) Seamount
3. Irregularities in the configuration of
(b) Canyon
the oceans
(c) Mid Oceanic Ridge
Select the correct answer using the codes (d) Atoll
given below:
(a) Only one 31. With respect to diastrophism, consider the
(b) Only two following statements-
1. Epeirogenic movements are also called
(c) All three
radial movements whereas orogenic
(d) None movements act tangentially to the
Earth’s surface.
29. Consider the following about the 2. Orogeny is a continental building
process whereas epeirogeny is a
temperature distribution of oceans :
mountain building process.
1. The temperature of surface water Which of the above statements is/are
decreases from the equator towards the correct?
poles. (a) 1 only
2. The oceans in the northern hemisphere (b) 2 only
receive less heat due to their contact (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
with a larger extent of land than the
oceans in the southern hemisphere.
3. Enclosed seas in the high latitudes the denudation processes :
have lower temperatures than open 1. Mass Movements: Kinetic Energy
seas at the same latitude. 2. Erosion/ Transportation/ Deposition:
How many of the statements given above Gravitational Force.
is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
33. Weathering is the action of elements of 35. Consider the following statements:
weather and climate over earth materials. 1. The core of the Earth is broken into
tectonic plates and this tectonic plate
In this regard consider the following
movement causes large-scale changes
statements:
in the Earth’s geological structure.
1. Weathering is defined as only the 2. The highly viscous, dense,
mechanical disintegration of rocks mechanically weak and ductile nature
through the actions of various elements of the asthenosphere aid in plate
tectonic movement and isostatic
of weather and climate.
adjustments.
2. Weathering is both an in-situ and also 3. The outer core is the main source of
an ex-situ process. magma that finds its way to the surface
Which of the above statement(s) is/are during volcanic eruptions.
incorrect?
incorrect?
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 and 2
36. How many of the following pairs is/are

34. Consider the following statements about correctly matched?
the various exogenic processes: Discontinuities Location
1. Both mass movement and weathering Inside the
Earth
involve the movement of materials
1. Mohorovicic Between the lower
from one place to another Discontinuity crust and upper
2. Weathering is not a prerequisite for mantle
mass movements. 2. Gutenburg Between the upper
Discontinuity and lower mantle
3. Solifluction is very much common in
3. Lehmann Between the outer
moist temperate areas. Discontinuity and inner core
How many of the statement(s) is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three (c) All the pairs
(d) None (d) None of the pairs
37. Consider the following statements: 39. How many of the following pair(s) is/are
1. The huge temperature difference correctly matched?
between the inner layers and the outer
layers of the earth is due to the Volcano Type
differential amount of radioactivity. 1. Mount Composite Type
2. This temperature difference gives rise
to convectional currents in the mantle. Vesuvius Volcano
3. Volcanism may occur at the divergent 2. Mauna Kea Shield Type Volcano
boundary as well as at the convergent
boundary. 3. Mount Fuji Caldera
How many of the above statement(s) is/are Select the correct answer using the codes
correct?
given below:
(a) Only one
(d) None
(c) All the pairs
38. How many of the following pairs is/are (d) None of the pairs
correctly matched?
Intrusive Features
Volcanic 40. With reference to the Temperate grassland,
Landforms
1. Batholiths Large granitic rock
bodies formed due to 1. Most temperate grasslands are located
solidification of hot in the heart of the continents, hence
magma inside the
earth experiencing continental climate with
2. Sills Large dome-shaped extremes of temperature.
intrusive bodies
2. In the southern hemisphere the climate
connected by a pipe-
like conduit from of temperate grasslands remains mild
below.
when compared to that of the north
3. Dykes Near horizontal
bodies of the hemisphere.
intrusive igneous Which of the statement(s) given above
rocks.
Select the correct answer using the codes is/are correct?
given below: (a) 1 only
(a) Only one pair
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All the pairs (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the pairs (d) Neither 1 nor 2
41. Consider following statements about 43. Which of the following statements are
British type climate: correct about coniferous forest?
1. There is no annual replacement of
1. The natural vegetation of this climatic
leaves, the same leaves remain on trees
type is montane forest.
for as long as five years.
2. Unlike equatorial forest deciduous 2. Food is stored in leaves and bark is
forest here are pure stands of tree thick to protect from cold.
which are good for lumbering. Select the correct answers using the code
Which of the statement(s) given above given below:

(a) 1 only
is/are correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 44. Consider following statements about the

tribes of the deserts:
1. Bushmen and the Bindubus are
42. Consider following statements:
primitive tribes who are nomadic
1. Cheviot, Black Welsh and Romney
hunters and food gatherers.
Marsh are varieties of wine in Europe. 2. While the Bushmen are tribes of
2. Netherlands has a developed Australian desert the Bindibus are
horticulture industries. tribes of Namib desert.
3. The dwelling of Bushman is called
3. Potatoes form a source of industrial
sherms while that of Bindubus is called
alcohol.
wurlies.

(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
45. Consider the following statements: 47. Consider the following statements with
1. Solution weathering occurs when the regard to the groundwater:
solvent is a basic or alkaline solution 1. In areas of tilted strata, where
permeable and impermeable rocks
rather than simple water.
alternate, water may percolate
2. Carbonation weathering is a process in downwards until it reaches a joint
which atmospheric carbon dioxide which emerges at the surface.
leads to weathering. 2. In well-jointed rocks, the water
3. In natural dissolution, naturally soluble emerges at the base of the permeable
layers.
minerals are easily leached out and
3. Where a dyke or sill of impermeable
accumulate in dry regions.
rock is intruded through permeable
How many of the above statement(s) is/are rocks, it causes the water table to reach
correct? the surface in the form of spring.
(a) Only one How many of the above statement(s) is/are
not correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None
1. Weathering is the first step in the 48. Consider the following statements with
regard to the River Valley Formation at the
formation of soil from rocks.
young stage:
2. Weathering leads to mineral
1. At a young stage, the valley is deep,
enrichment of certain ores by leaching and narrow with steep wall-like sides
unwanted minerals leaving behind and a convex slope.
valuable ones. 2. The erosional action here is
3. Even living organisms contribute to characterized by predominantly
vertical erosion nature
both mechanical and chemical
3. A deep and narrow V-shaped valley is
weathering.
also referred to as a gorge.
correct? correct?
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
49. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. If the rocks are composed of (d) Neither 1 nor 2
homogeneous beds of uniform 50. Consider the following tectonic plates:
resistance to erosion, then dendritic 1. Pacific plate
drainage evolves. 2. Nazca plate
2. If the rocks are made up of alternate 3. India-Australia plate
layers of hard and soft rocks, the 4. Arabian plate
tributaries will join them at right angles
5. Antarctica Plate
as subsequent streams, leading to
How many of the above plates are the
trellised drainage.
major tectonic plates?
(a) Only two
correct?
(b) Only three
(a) 1 only
(c) Only four
(b) 2 only
(d) All five
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)

SOLUTIONS & EXPLANATIONS
1. Answer. B
Explanation
Earth’s Seismic Noise
● Statement 1 is correct: In geology (study of rocks), seismic noise refers to the relatively persistent vibration
of the ground due to a multitude of causes.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: This noise includes vibrations caused due to human activity, such as transport and
manufacturing.
● Statement 3 is correct: Due to lower seismic noise the scientists can detect smaller earthquakes and tremors
2. Answer. C
Explanation:
Earthquake Waves
● Earthquake waves are of two types — body waves and surface waves.
● Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling
through the body of the earth.
● Body waves are further classified into two types: P and S-waves.
● P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’.
● The P-waves are similar to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials.
● P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the material in the direction of
the propagation.
● As a result, it creates density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of the material.
● S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag.
● These are called secondary waves and can travel only through solid materials.
● Statement 1 is correct: The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the
vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass.
● Statement 2 is correct: The surface waves are the last to report on a seismograph. These waves are more
destructive. They cause displacement of rocks, and hence, the collapse of structures occurs.
3. Answer: B
Explanation
Glacier Landforms
● The depositional landforms formed by glacier activity include:
o Moraines are long ridges of deposits of glacial till.
o Terminal moraines are long ridges of debris deposited at the end of the glaciers.
o Lateral moraines form along the sides parallel to the glacial valleys.
o Eskers are long, narrow sinuous ridges composed of sand and gravel which mark the sites of the former
sub-glacial meltwater streams.
o Drumlins are oval, elongated low hills formed in the direction of ice flow. They are commonly described
as having a ‘basket of eggs’ topography’.
o Glacial till is an unsorted glacial deposit comprising a range of eroded material forming gently undulating
drift plains.
● Erosional landforms formed by glacier activity include:
o Cirque is a deep, long and wide troughs with very steep concave to vertically dropping high walls at its
head as well as sides. These are found at the heads of glacial valleys.
o Aretes are pyramidal peaks formed when 2 cirques cut back on the opposite side of the mountain forming
a knife-edged ridge.
o Bergschrund is a deep vertical crack formed at the head of the glacier when it begins to leave the
snowfield of a cirque.
4. Answer. C
Explanation
Metamorphism
● The word metamorphic means ‘change of form’. These rocks form under the action of pressure, volume and
temperature (PVT) changes.
● Metamorphism occurs when rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten
magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks or the underlying rocks are subjected
to great amounts of pressure by overlying rocks.
● Metamorphism is a process by which already consolidated rocks undergo recrystallization and reorganization
of materials within original rocks.
● Mechanical disruption and reorganization of the original minerals within rocks due to breaking and crushing
without any appreciable chemical changes is called dynamic metamorphism.
● Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The materials of rocks chemically alter and recrystallize due to thermal
metamorphism. There are two types of thermal metamorphism — contact metamorphism and regional
metamorphism.
o In contact metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding magma and lava and the rock
materials recrystallize under high temperatures. Quite often new materials form out of magma or lava are
added to the rocks.
o In regional metamorphism, rocks undergo recrystallization due to deformation caused by tectonic shearing
together with high temperature or pressure or both.
● In the process of metamorphism in some rocks grains or minerals get arranged in layers or lines. Such an arrangement
of minerals or grains in metamorphic rocks is called foliation or lineation. Sometimes minerals or materials of
different groups are arranged into alternating thin to thick layers appearing in light and dark shades. Such a structure in
metamorphic rocks is called banding and rocks displaying banding are called banded rocks.
● Gneissoid, granite, syenite, slate, schist, marble, quartzite etc. are some examples of metamorphic rocks.
5. Answer. A
Explanation
Mass Movements
● Mass movement is the movement of weathered materials down the slope due to gravitational forces.
● The movement may be gradual or sudden, depending on the gradient of slope, the weight of weathered debris,
presence of lubricating moisture etc.
● Statement 1 is correct: Mass movements are aided by gravity and no geomorphic agent like running water,
glaciers, wind, waves and currents participate in the process of mass movements.
● Several kinds of mass movements are:
o Soil Creep: This is slow, gradual but continuous movement of soil down the hill slope. It is not very
noticeable especially when the slope is gentle or the soil is covered with vegetation. It is most common in
damp soils where water act as lubricant.
o Statement 3 is incorrect: Soil Flow/Solifluction: When the soil is completely saturated with water, the
individual particles are completely suspended in water and move easily over one another and over the
underlying rocks. The soil acts like a liquid and soil flow or a mud-flow occurs. In arid regions, a mantle
of weathered materials may become saturated after a storm and flow downslope as a semi-solid mass. In
temperate and tundra regions, soil flow occurs when the surface layers of frozen ground thaw in spring.
o Statement 2 is incorrect: Landslides (Slumping/Sliding): These are very rapid kind of movements and
occur when a large mass of soil or rock fall suddenly. They usually occur in steep slopes such as in
mountain or a cliff. Earthquakes, volcanic disturbances, manmade steepening can all result in
landslides. Slumping occurs where permeable rock layers overlie impermeable strata like clay. Water
percolates through the permeable layers and is halted by clay which acts as slippery surface over which
the upper layers slide.
6. Answer. A
Explanation:
Intrusive Volcanic Landforms
● Intrusive landforms are formed by plutonic rocks when the lava cools inside the earth’s crust.
● The following are the different types of intrusive landforms:
o Statement 2 is incorrect: Lacoliths are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base and
connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. It resembles the surface volcanic domes of the composite
volcano, only these are located at deeper depths.
o Lapoliths are formed when lava develops into a saucer shape, concave to the sky body.
o Statement 1 is correct: The near horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks are called sill or sheet.
o Dykes are intrusive landforms formed when the lava makes its way through cracks and it solidifies almost
perpendicular to the ground. These are the most commonly found intrusive forms in the western
Maharashtra area.
o Batholiths are a large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper depth of the crust and develops
in the form of large domes. They appear on the surface only after the denudational processes remove the
overlying materials. Batholiths are the cooled portion of magma chambers.
7. Answer. C
Explanation
Karst Regions
● Karst regions are often barren and at best carry a thin layer of soil.
● Statement 1 is correct: The porosity of the rocks and the absence of surface drainage make vegetative growth
difficult, so that limestone can usually support only poor grass and short turf; some sheep grazing is possible.
● Statement 3 is correct: Limestone vegetation in tropical regions, is luxuriant because of the heavy rainfall all
the year round.
● Settlements are scattered and the population is often sparse.
● Statement 2 is correct: The only mineral of importance is lead which occurs in veins in association with
limestone.
● Besides this, good quality limestones are often used as building materials or quarried for the cement industry.
8. Answer. C
Explanation
Monadnock
● A monadnock is an isolated hill, typically found in temperate regions, that stands above a lower-lying
plain.
● Monadnocks are left as erosional remnants because of their more resistant rock composition; commonly
they consist of quartzite or less jointed massive volcanic rocks.
● A monadnock, also known as an inselberg, is an isolated, rocky ridge that is resistant to erosion and often
surrounded by flat land.
Formation of an Inselberg
● An inselberg is one of the landforms resulting from erosional processes. For an inselberg to form, there
has to be pronounced variations in the level of weathering of the land surface.
● Inselbergs arise from rocks which erode at a slower rate than that of the surrounding rocks. The landform
consists of an erosion-resistant rock which protects a softer rock such as limestone. The resistant rock
remains isolated as ongoing erosion erodes the less resistant rock around it.
● Volcanic processes are responsible for the rising of the resistant rock above the surrounding area. The
resistant rock is able to resist erosion due to its tight joints. Once formed, inselbergs appear steep sided.
● Over time, inselbergs may be destroyed through the marginal collapse of exfoliation sheets and joint
blocks.
9. Answer. A
Explanation
Glacial landforms
● Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Cirque – It is a bowl-shaped eroded, depressions near-mountain top ridges
where snow accumulates and forms the head of an alpine glacier.
● Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Horns – It is a single pyramidal peak which is formed when the summit is
eroded by cirque basins on all sides.
● Glacial cirques, known locally as corries or coires (Scotland) and cwms (Wales) are large-scale erosional
features common to many mountainous regions.
● Classic cirques take the form of armchair-shaped hollows, with a steep headwall (which often culminates in a
sharp ridge or arête) and a gently-sloping or over-deepened valley floor.
● In actively glacierized terrain, cirques are important basins for the accumulation of snow. They may host
small cirque glaciers that are confined to their bedrock hollows, or act as the source area for larger valley
glaciers.
● Pair 3 is correctly matched: An arête (Serrated Ridge) is a thin, crest of rock left after two adjacent glaciers
have worn a steep ridge into the rock.
● Horns are a single pyramidal peak formed when the summit is eroded by cirque basins on all sides.
10. Answer. D
Explanation:
Supraglacial Moraine
● A supraglacial moraine is material on the surface of a glacier.
● Lateral and medial moraines can be supraglacial moraines.
● Supraglacial moraines are made up of rocks and earth that have fallen on the glacier from the surrounding
landscape. Dust and dirt left by wind and rain become part of supraglacial moraines.
● If a glacier melts, supraglacial moraine is evenly distributed across a valley.
11. Answer. D
Explanation
Fjords
● A fjord is a long, deep, narrow body of water that reaches far inland. Fjords are often set in a U-shaped valley
with steep walls of rock on either side.
● Fjords are found mainly in Norway, Chile, New Zealand, Canada, Greenland, and the U.S. state of Alaska.
● Fjords are usually deepest farther inland, where the glacial force was strongest.
● Some features of fjords include coral reefs and rocky islands called skerries.
Playas – It is a flat-bottom depression found in interior desert basins and adjacent to coasts within arid and
semiarid regions.
Natural Levees – It is a natural, low, linear and parallel ridge of coarse deposits along the banks of rivers which is
quite often cut into individual mounds.
Eskers – It is ridge made of sands and gravels, deposited by glacial meltwater flowing through tunnels within and
underneath glaciers, or through meltwater channels on top of glaciers.
12. Answer. D
Explanation
Agents of Geomorphic Process
● The geomorphic agents are those which are responsible for creating certain reliefs.
● These agents may be running water, groundwater, glaciers, wind, waves and currents, etc.
● The geomorphic processes are those which shape the earth by creating certain landforms with the help of these
agents.
● The endogenic and exogenic forces causing physical stresses and chemical actions on earth materials and
bringing about changes in the configuration of the surface of the earth are known as geomorphic processes.
● Gravity besides being a directional force activating all downslope movements of matter also causes stresses on
the earth’s materials.
● Indirect gravitational stresses activate wave and tide induced currents and winds.
● Without gravity and gradients there would be no mobility and hence no erosion, transportation and deposition
are possible. So, gravitational stresses are as important as the other geomorphic processes.
● All the movements either within the earth or on the surface of the earth occur due to gradients i.e. from higher
levels to lower levels, from high pressure to low pressure areas etc.
13. Answer. A
Explanation
Fault
● A fault is a fracture or zone of fractures between two blocks of rock. Faults allow the blocks to move relative
to each other.
● This movement may occur rapidly, in the form of an earthquake or may occur slowly, in the form of creep.
Faults may range in length from a few millimeters to thousands of kilometers.
● Faults which move along the direction of the dip plane are dip-slip faults and described as either normal or
reverse (thrust), depending on their motion.
● Faults which move horizontally are known as strike-slip faults and are classified as either right-lateral or left-
lateral.
● Faults which show both dip-slip and strike-slip motion are known as oblique-slip faults.
● Normal Fault – It is a dip-slip fault in which the block above the fault has moved downward relative to the
block below. This type of faulting occurs in response to extension and is often observed in the Western United
States Basin and Range Province and along oceanic ridge systems.
● Reverse Fault – It is a dip-slip fault in which the upper block, above the fault plane, moves up and over the
lower block. This type of faulting is common in areas of compression, such as regions where one plate is
being subducted under another as in Japan. When the dip angle is shallow, a reverse fault is often described as
a thrust fault.
● Strike-slip Fault – It is a fault on which the two blocks slide past one another. It is also known as Trans current
Fault. The San Andreas Fault is an example of a right lateral fault.
● A left-lateral strike-slip fault is one on which the displacement of the far block is to the left when viewed from
either side.
● A right-lateral strike-slip fault is one on which the displacement of the far block is to the right when viewed
from either side.
14. Answer. A
Explanation
Parts of Earth
● The Earth consists of three parts as follows:
● Barysphere: it is the central core of the earth. It is filled with molten magma with a large quantity of iron and
nickel. Barysphere has two zones: the inner core region (~800 miles radius) and the outer core region
(~1400miles radius).
● Pyrosphere: it is the middle part of the earth, also known as mantle. It is ~1800 miles in thickness and mainly
consists of silica, manganese, and magnesium.
● Lithosphere: it is the outermost region of the earth, also known as crust. It is 20-25 miles in thickness and
mainly has silica and aluminum.
15. Answer. C
Explanation
Sea Floor Spreading
● Seafloor spreading is a geologic process in which tectonic plates—large slabs of Earth's lithosphere—split
apart from each other.
● Seafloor spreading and other tectonic activity processes are the result of mantle convection. Mantle convection is the
slow, churning motion of Earth’s mantle. Convection currents carry heat from the lower mantle and core to the
lithosphere. Convection currents also “recycle” lithospheric materials back to the mantle.
● Seafloor spreading occurs at divergent plate boundaries. As tectonic plates slowly move away from each
other, heat from the mantle’s convection currents makes the crust more plastic and less dense. The less-dense
material rises, often forming a mountain or elevated area of the seafloor.
● Eventually, the crust cracks. Hot magma fueled by mantle convection bubbles up to fill these fractures and
spills onto the crust.
● This bubbled-up magma is cooled by frigid seawater to form igneous rock. This rock (basalt) becomes a new
part of Earth’s crust.
Evidence for Seafloor Spreading
● Statement 1 is correct: Rocks on either side of the crest of oceanic ridges having equidistant locations from
the crest were found to have similarities both in terms of their constituents, their age and magnetic orientation.
● Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity and are the youngest and the age of the rocks
increases as one move away from the crest (ridge).
● Statement 2 is correct: The rocks of the oceanic crust near the oceanic ridges are much younger than the
rocks of the continental crust.
16. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Of the total insolation, 35% of the incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space without even
reaching the earth's surface.
o Rest 65% is absorbed (51% by the earth and 14% by the atmosphere).
● Hence, the atmosphere is not heated primarily by insolation (Short-wave solar radiation). It is the long-
wave terrestrial radiation that is responsible for heating up the atmosphere from the lower to the
upper layer through conduction, convection, and advection.
o Due to this reason, mountain tops are cooler than places near sea level.
17. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The wind is deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and left in the
southern hemisphere due to the Coriolis force.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The deflection due to the Coriolis force is directly proportional to wind
velocity. Therefore deflection is more when wind velocity is high.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of the latitude and
hence maximum at the poles while absent at the equator.
18. Answer: B
Explanation:
Geostrophic wind is the wind that blows parallel to the isobars. It is the result of when isobars are straight and
there is no friction. So the pressure gradient force is balanced by Coriolis force and the resultant wind blows
parallel to the isobar.
When wind circulation is around a low pressure it is called a cyclonic circulation.
When wind circulation is around a high pressure it is called anti cyclonic circulation.
19. Answer: B
Explanation:
The main parts of a tropical cyclone are the rainbands, the eye, and the eyewall. Air spirals in toward the
center in a counter-clockwise pattern in the northern hemisphere (clockwise in the southern hemisphere).
20. Answer: C
Explanation:
The conditions favorable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are:
● Large sea surfaces with a temperature higher than 27° C;(Statement 1 is incorrect)
● Presence of the Coriolis force
● Small variations in the vertical wind speed: (strong vertical wind shear inhibits convective cyclone
formation)
● A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level cyclonic circulation
● Upper divergence above the sea level system: A well-developed divergence in the upper atmosphere is
required so that the rising air currents within the cyclone continue to be pumped out and the low pressure
maintained at the center
21. Answer : A
Explanation:
● Jet streams are high-altitude westerly wind system that blows at a height of 6 to 14 km, with very high
speeds up to 450 km/hr in wavy form at both the northern and the southern hemispheres.
● Extra-tropical cyclones may not always have an eye whereas most mature storms have well developed
eye.
o Centre of the cyclone is called Eye.
o The eye is a calm region with no rainfall and experiences highest temperature and lowest pressure
within the cyclonic system.
● The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is higher (not lesser) than the surrounding. This warm air is
the main driving force for the cyclone development.
22. Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloudy skies will reflect and absorb while re-emitting longwave radiation back to the surface thereby
preventing as much cooling from occurring.
● Clear skies allow for the maximum release of longwave radiation to space.
● The favorable weather elements for dew include clear skies, light wind, and decent soil moisture. For the
formation of dew , it is necessary that the dew point is above the freezing point.
So (b) is the most appropriate reason.
23. Answer : C
Explanation:
(i) Cirrus Clouds are formed at high altitudes(8000-12000m). They are thin and detached clouds having a
feathery appearance. They are always white in colour.
(ii) Stratus Clouds are layered clouds covering a large portion of the sky. These clouds are generally formed
either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures.
(iii) Nimbus clouds are black or dark grey. They form at middle levels or very near to the surface of the
earth. These are extremely dense and opaque to the rays of the sun.
(iv) Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed at a height of 4000-7000m. They exist
in patches and can be seen scattered here and there.
24. Answer : A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct:
When the moisture is deposited in the form of minute ice crystals instead of water droplets, it is called frost.
The ideal conditions for dew formation are clear skies, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long
nights and the air temperature must be at or below the freezing point.
25. Answer : D
Explanation:
1. Surface heating – This happens when the ground is heated by the sun which heats the air in contact with
it causing it to rise. The rising columns are often called thermals. Surface heating tends to produce
cumulus clouds.
2. Topography or orographic forcing – The topography – or shape and features of the area – can cause
clouds to be formed. When air is forced to rise over a barrier of mountains or hills it cools as it rises.
Layered clouds are often produced this way.
3. Frontal – Clouds are formed when a mass of warm air rises up over a mass of cold, dense air over large
areas along fronts. A ‘front’ is the boundary between warm, moist air and cooler, drier air.
4. Convergence – Streams of air flowing from different directions are forced to rise where they flow
together or converge. This can cause cumulus clouds and showery conditions.
5. Turbulence – Turbulence effects may play an important role
in the transition between cloud types. This may be especially
true for clouds moving from land based to sea based
environments, during which the population of aerosols also
changes.
26. Answer: B
Explanation:
The, air on being heated, becomes light and rises up in
convection currents. As it rises, it expands and loses heat and
consequently, condensation takes place and cumulous clouds are
formed. This process releases latent heat of condensation which
further heats the air and forces the air to go further up.
Convectional precipitation is heavy but of short duration, highly
localized and is associated with a minimum amount of
cloudiness.
It occurs mainly during summer and is common over equatorial
doldrums in the Congo basin, the Amazon basin and the islands
of south-east Asia.
27. Answer: B
Explanation:
● A mid-oceanic ridge is composed of two chains of mountains separated by a large depression (divergent
boundary).
● The mountain ranges can have peaks as high as 2,500 m and some even reach above the ocean’s surface.
● Running for a total length of 65,000 km nearly these ridges form the largest mountain systems on earth.
● Seamounts are mountains with pointed summits, rising from the seafloor that does not reach the surface
of the ocean.
○ They are volcanic in origin. These can be 3,000-4,500 m tall.
○ The Emperor seamount, an extension of the Hawaiian Islands in the Pacific Ocean, is a good example.
● Guyots: The flat-topped mountains (seamounts) are known as guyots.
● Submarine canyons are deep valleys often extending from the mouths of the rivers to the abyssal plains.
● They are formed due to erosion by sediments brought down by rivers that cut across continental shelves,
slopes and rises. The sediments are deposited on the abyssal plains.
● Submarine canyons can be far higher in scale compared to those that occur on land.
28. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to the attraction of the sun and the
moon, is called a tide.
● The study of tides is very complex, spatially and temporally, as it has great variations in frequency, magnitude
and height.
● The moon’s gravitational pull to a great extent and to a lesser extent the sun’s gravitational pull, are the major
causes for the occurrence of tides.
● Factors controlling the nature and magnitude of tides:
○ The movement of the moon in relation to the earth.
○ Changes in position of the sun and moon in relation to the earth.
○ Uneven distribution of water over the globe.
○ Irregularities in the configuration of the oceans.
29. Answer : B
Explanation
● The average temperature of the ocean water surface gradually decreases from the equator towards the
poles.
● The oceans in the northern hemisphere receive more heat due to contact with a larger extent of land than the
oceans in the southern hemisphere.
● Enclosed seas at higher latitudes have lower temperatures than open seas at the same latitudes because open
water undergoes a thermal mixing due to currents, winds,etc.
● On the other hand, closed seas do not undergo mixing and hence are colder at higher latitudes.
{Hint: Eliminate option 2}
30. Answer: D
Explanation: The question is self-explanatory. Atolls of the Maldives, the Marshall Islands, the Lakshadweep etc.
31. Answer: A
Explanation:
Diastrophism includes all processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust. It includes:
I) Orogenic processes
II) Epeirogenic processes
III) Earthquakes
IV) Plate tectonics etc.
Statement 1 is correct: Orogenic or the mountain forming movements act tangentially to the earth’s surface, as in
plate tectonics. Epeirogenic or continent forming movements act along the radius of the earth, therefore, they
are also called radial movements.
● Orogenic processes involve mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of
the earth’s crust.
● Epeirogenic processes involve continental building through the uplift or warping of large parts of the
earth’s crust.
32. Answer: D
Explanation
All the exogenic processes are covered under the general term ‘denudation’. The word ‘denude’ means to strife
off or uncover. Weathering, mass movements, erosion, and deposition are included in denudation.
● For erosion/transportation the driving force is the kinetic energy brought about by the wind, running water,
glaciers, waves, and groundwater.
● For mass wasting/movements the driving force is the gravitational force.
o In mass movements like heave, flow, or slide, the transfer of materials down the slopes takes place under
the direct influence of gravity.
33. Answer: C
Explanation
There are 3 major groups of weathering processes:
I) Chemical;
II) Physical or Mechanical; and
III) Biological
● Weathering is the breakdown of rocks in situ or on-site process. The weathered material is carried farther away by
erosion.
34. Answer: B
Explanation:
● In mass movements and erosion, there is a transfer of materials.
● In weathering, the rocks are changed or broken but stay where it is.
● Weathering merely aids in the disintegration of rocks at the surface.
● Gravity exerts force equally on both bedrock and weathered rocks. Hence, weathering is not a prerequisite for
mass movements.
Statement 3 is correct: solifluction is an example of slow mass movement . it involves slow down slope
flowing soil mass. It is quite common in moist temperate areas where surface melting of deeply frozen
ground and long-continued rain, occur frequently.
35. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The lithosphere is the rigid outer part of the earth with thickness varying between 10-200 km.
● It includes the crust and the upper part of the mantle.
● The lithosphere is broken into tectonic plates (lithospheric plates), and the movement of these tectonic
plates causes large-scale changes in the earth’s geological structure (folding, faulting).
● The upper portion of the mantle is called as asthenosphere (‘astheno’ means weak).
○ It lies just below the lithosphere extending up to 80-200 km.
● It is highly viscous, mechanically weak and ductile and its density is higher than that of the crust. These
properties of the asthenosphere aid in plate tectonic movement and isostatic adjustments.
● The Asthenosphere is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions.
36. Answer: B
Explanation:
Discontinuities Inside the Location
Earth
Mohorovicic Discontinuity Between the lower crust and upper mantle
Repiti Discontinuity Between the upper and lower mantle
Gutenburg Discontinuity Between the lower mantle and outer core
Lehmann Discontinuity Between the outer and inner core
37. Answer: C
Explanation:
● There is a huge temperature difference between the inner layers and the outer layers of the earth due to the
differential amount of radioactivity.
○ The source of heat that drives plate tectonics is the primordial heat left over from the planet’s formation
as well as the radioactive decay of uranium, thorium, and potassium in Earth’s crust and mantle.
● This temperature difference gives rise to convectional currents in the mantle.
● The convection currents in the mantle create convergent and divergent boundaries (weak zones).
● At the divergent boundary, molten, semi-molten and sometimes gaseous material appears on earth at the first
available opportunity.
● The earthquakes here may expose fault zones through which magma may escape (fissure-type volcano).
● At the convergent boundary, the subduction of the denser plate creates magma at high pressure which will
escape to the surface in the form of violent eruptions.
38. Answer: A
Explanation:
Only Pair 1 is correctly matched.
Intrusive Volcanic Landforms Features
Batholiths Large granitic rock bodies formed due to the solidification of hot magma
inside the earth
Laccoliths Large dome-shaped intrusive bodies that are connected by a pipe-like
conduit from below.
Sills Near horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks.
Dykes When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in
the land, it solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground.
It gets cooled in the same position to develop a wall-like structure. Such
structures are called dykes
39. Answer: B
Explanation:
Volcano Type
Mount Vesuvius, Mount Fuji, Mount Stromboli Composite Type Volcano
Mauna Kea, Mauna Loa Shield Type Volcano
Lake Toba (Indonesia) Caldera
Siberian Traps, Deccan Traps, Snake Basin, Icelandic Lava Plateaus
Shield, Canadian Shield.
● In November 2022, the Mauna Loa volcano in Hawaii erupted for the first time in 38 years.
40. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Temperate grasslands are areas of open grassy plains that are sparsely populated with
trees. These grasslands are located in various regions north and south of the equator, including Argentina,
Australia, and central North America. Most temperate grasslands are located in the heart of the continents, far
from the moderating influence of the oceans. As a result, they experience a continental climate with extremes
of temperature. Summers are often hot and dry, while winters can be bitterly cold.
● Statement 2 is correct: In the northern hemisphere, temperate grasslands can be found in the Great Plains of
North America and the Eurasian Steppe. The Great Plains of North America span across the United States and
into Canada, while the Eurasian Steppe stretches across much of eastern Europe and Asia. In the southern
hemisphere, temperate grasslands are found in places like Argentina, Uruguay, and southern Brazil. In these
regions, the climate is generally mild, with less extreme temperature fluctuations than those found in the
northern hemisphere.
41. Answer-B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The natural vegetation of this climatic type is deciduous forest.
● Statement 2 is correct: Unlike equatorial forest, deciduous forest here are pure stands of trees which are
good for lumbering. Unlike the equatorial forests, the deciduous trees occur in pure stands and have greater
lumbering value. The open nature of the forests with sparse undergrowth is useful in logging operations. Easy
penetration means much cost can be saved in the movement of the logs. The deciduous hardwoods are
excellent for both fuel and industrial purposes.
42. Answer- B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect as Cheviot, Black Welsh, and Romney Marsh are varieties of sheep, not wine, that
are found in Europe. These sheep are known for their meat and wool production.
● Statement 2 is correct as the Netherlands is known for its developed horticulture industry. The country has
favorable climate conditions and innovative technologies, which help it to produce a variety of crops such as
fruits, vegetables, and flowers. The Netherlands is the second-largest exporter of agricultural products in the
world, and its horticulture industry plays a significant role in its economy.
● Statement 3 is also correct as potatoes are a source of industrial alcohol. Industrial alcohol is primarily used
as a solvent, fuel, and as a raw material in the production of various chemicals such as acetone, glycerol, and
ethylene. Potatoes are a significant source of starch, which can be fermented to produce alcohol.
43. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct as coniferous trees have leaves that can remain on the tree for several years, typically
up to five years. Unlike deciduous trees, which lose their leaves annually, coniferous trees do not shed their
leaves but instead retain them to maximize their ability to photosynthesize and produce food.
● Statement 2 is correct as coniferous trees store food in their leaves, and their bark is thick to protect them
from the cold. The thick bark helps to insulate the tree and prevent it from freezing during the winter months.
Additionally, the needles or scales on coniferous trees help to reduce water loss and protect the tree from
drying out in arid or windy conditions.
44. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Bushmen and Bindibus are both indigenous tribes that have lived in deserts for thousands of years. They
are known for their unique way of life and adaptation to the harsh desert environment.
● The Bushmen are also known as San people, and they live in the Kalahari Desert, which is located in southern
Africa. They are nomadic hunters and gatherers, who rely on their hunting and gathering skills to survive.
They have a deep knowledge of the local flora and fauna, and they use this knowledge to find food and water
in the desert. They live in small, open structures made of branches and grass called "sherm".
● The Bindibus, on the other hand, are a tribe that inhabits the Australian desert, also known as the Outback.
They are also nomadic hunters and gatherers, who have a deep understanding of the environment they live in.
They live in simple shelters called "wurlies" made of branches and grass.
● Statement 1 is correct: Regarding the lifestyle of Bushmen and Bindibus as nomadic hunters and gatherers,
● Statement 2 is incorrect: As the Bushmen are not a tribe of the Namib Desert, but rather the Kalahari Desert.
● Statement 3 is correct : The dwelling of Bushman is called sherms while that of Bindubus is called wurlies.
45. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Solution weathering occurs when the solvent is an acidic solution rather than simple water.
● Acids produced by microbial and plant-root metabolism, water and air (oxygen and carbon dioxide) along
with heat speed up all chemical reactions.
● Carbonation refers to reactions of carbon dioxide to give carbonates, bicarbonates, and carbonic acid.
● Carbonation weathering is a process in which atmospheric carbon dioxide leads to solution weathering.
● As rain falls, it dissolves small amounts of carbon dioxide from the air, forming a weak acid that can dissolve
some minerals like limestone(calcium carbonate)
● Some minerals, due to their natural solubility (like nitrates, sulphates, and potassium), and oxidation
potential (iron-rich minerals) will weather naturally through dissolution.
● These minerals are easily leached out without leaving any residue and accumulate in dry regions.
46. Answer: C
Explanation:
Statements 1 is correct:
● Weathering is the first step in the formation of soil from rocks.
● Weathering weakens soil and rocks and makes it easy to exploit natural resources.
● Weathering leads to natural soil enrichment.
● Weathering leads to mineral enrichment of certain ores by leaching unwanted minerals leaving behind
valuable ones.
● Biological weathering is the removal of minerals from the environment due to the growth or movement of
organisms.
● Living organisms contribute to both mechanical and chemical weathering.
● Lichens and mosses grow on essentially bare rock surfaces and create a more humid chemical
microenvironment.
● On a larger scale, seedlings (sprouting in a crevice) and plant roots exert physical pressure and provide a
pathway for water and chemical infiltration.
47. Answer: B
Explanation:
● In areas of tilted strata, where permeable and impermeable rocks alternate, the water emerges at the base of
the permeable layers.
● In well-jointed rocks water may percolate downwards until it reaches a joint which emerges at the
surface. The water may come to the surface through the joint.
● Where a dyke or sill of impermeable rock is intruded through permeable rocks, it causes the water table to
reach the surface as a spring.
Additional Information:
● In limestone or chalk escarpments, where the permeable rock lies between impermeable strata, water issues at
the foot of the scarp as a scarp-foot spring, or near the foot of the dip-slope as a dip-slope spring.
● In karst regions rivers often disappear under the ground. They then flow through passages worn in the rock
by solution and may re-emerge when limestone gives place to some impermeable rock.
○ This kind of spring is sometimes called a vauclusian spring but is better referred to as a resurgence.
48. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The extended depression on the ground through which a stream flows is called a river valley.
● At different stages of the erosional cycle, the valley acquires different profiles.
● At a young stage, the valley is deep, and narrow with steep wall-like sides and a convex slope.
Down cutting takes place so rapidly that lateral corrosion can not keep pace.
● The erosional action here is characterized by a predominantly vertical downcutting nature.
● The profile of the valley here is typically ‘V-shaped’.
● A deep and narrow ‘V-shaped’ valley is also referred to as a gorge and may result due to downcutting
erosion or because of the recession of a waterfall (the position of the waterfall receding due to erosive action).
● Most Himalayan rivers pass through deep gorges.
● A tributary valley lies above the main valley and is separated from it by a steep slope down which the stream
may flow as a waterfall or a series of rapids.
● As the cycle attains maturity, the lateral erosion (erosion of the walls of a stream) becomes prominent and the
valley floor flattens out (attains a ‘V’ to ‘U’ shape).
49. Answer: A
Explanation:
● If the rocks are composed of homogeneous beds of uniform resistance to erosion, the tributaries will join the
main valley obliquely as insequent streams.
● The drainage pattern so evolved will be tree-like in appearance, and is therefore described as dendritic
drainage.
● On the other hand, if the rocks are made up of alternate layers of hard and soft rocks, the tributaries tend to
follow the pattern of the rock structure (of whatever shape it will be, not necessarily at right angles).
If the outcrops of the rocks occur at right angles to the main valley, the tributaries will join it at right angles as
subsequent streams. The drainage pattern so developed will be rectangular in shape and is called trellised
drainage.
50. Answer: B
Explanation:
● In 1967, McKenzie and Parker suggested the theory of plate tectonics. Morgan later outlined the theory in
1968.
● According to the theory of plate tectonics, the earth’s lithosphere is broken into distinct plates which are
floating on a ductile layer called asthenosphere (upper part of the mantle).
● Plates move horizontally over the asthenosphere as rigid units.
● The lithosphere includes the crust and top mantle with its thickness range varying between 5-100 km in
oceanic parts and about 200 km in the continental areas.
● Major tectonic plates
1. Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate
2. North American plate
3. South American plate
4. Pacific plate
5. India-Australia-New Zealand plate
6. Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate
7. Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate
● Nazca plate (Between South America and the Pacific plate) and the Arabian plate (Mostly the Saudi Arabian
landmass) are the minor tectonic plates.
Important minor plates include:
o Juan De Fuca plate: South-East of North American Plate
o Cocos plate: Between Central America and the Pacific plate
o Nazca plate: Between South America and the Pacific plate
o Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
o Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate
o Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plates (North of New Guinea)
o Fuji plate: North-east of Australia
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
B
Time Allowed: 1 Hours Maximum Marks : 50
INSTRUCTIONS
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
penalty.
question.
PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2024| pPLT-15
1. Consider the following statements about the 3. Consider the following statements about the
extent of India: physiography of India
1. The latitudinal and longitudinal extent
1. The Eight-degree channel separates the
of India is roughly 50 degrees each.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. The distance between the northernmost
and southern most point of mainland 2. The entire Lakshadweep Island is built
India is shorter than the distance on coral deposits.
between the eastern most and western 3. Mount Koyob is located in South
most point of mainland India.
Andaman.
3. Distance between two longitudes
decreases towards the poles whereas the How many of the above statement(s) is/are
distance between two latitudes is correct?
always the same. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
correct?
(c) All three
(d) None 4. With respect to the coastal plains of India
2. With respect to the northern plains of India
1. The eastern coastal plain is an example
1. These are formed by the gradual filling of a submerged coastal plain.
of sediments on geo-synclinal 2. The western coast provides natural
depression. conditions for the development of ports
2. Most of the rivers of these plains are
and harbors.
ephemeral.
3. The Western Coastal Plains are narrow
3. Sand bars, meanders, oxbow lakes, and
braided channels are common in the middle part.
landforms. How many of the above statement(s) is/are
How many of the statement(s) given above incorrect?
is/ are incorrect?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(d) None (d) None
5. Consider the following statements: 7. Consider the following statements about
1. Karewa formations takes place in the Peninsular drainage systems:
Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas. 1. Antecedent
2. Pangong Tso is a freshwater lake. 2. Narrow gradient
3. Steep valley
3. Shiwaliks are absent in Sikkim
4. Mostly dendritic pattern
Himalayas. 5. Old rivers and graded profile
4. The Nyishi is a tribal community 6. Ephemeral
inhabiting in the Arunachal Himalayas. How many of the above is/are the features
How many of the above statement(s) is/are of a peninsular drainage system?
correct? (a) Only three
(a) Only one (b) Only four

(b) Only two (c) Only five
(c) Only three (d) All six
(d) All four

1. Subsidence of the western flank of the
Himalayas:
1. Himalayas are the longest mountain peninsula.
ranges in the world. 2. Upheaval of the Himalayas.
2. Western Himalayas have denser 3. Tilting of the peninsular block.
vegetation than the eastern Himalayas.
How many of the above contributed to the
3. The northern slope of the Himalayas are
evolution of the peninsular drainage system
steeper than the southern slope.
of India?
How many of the statements above is/are
(a) Only one
incorrect?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three
(d) None
9. Consider the following statements about the 12. Consider the following statements:
river Indus:
1. The amount of annual rainfall in the
1. It flows through only one state in India.
2. It flows between the Ladakh Range and the Northern plains decreases from east to
Karakoram range. west.
3. It originates from Rakshas Tal near 2. The temporal extent of the monsoon in
Mansarovar.
India increases from south to north.
4. The Viboa River is one of its Himalayan
Tributaries. 3 The retreating monsoon is associated
Which of the above statement(s) is/are with rain in the state of Tamil Nadu.
incorrect? How many of the statement(s) given above
(a) Only one
is/are incorrect?
(b) Only two
(c) Only three (a) Only one
(d) All four (b) Only two
(c) All three
Places River (d) None
1. Hampi Tamsa
2. Tiruchirappalli Cauvery 13. Consider the following statements with
3. Pandharpur Chandrabhaga
respect to the season of retreating monsoon:
4. Rajkot Bedti
How many of the above pair(s) is/are correctly
1. The low-pressure trough of the Ganga
matched? plain starts moving northward during
(a) Only one pair the season.
(b) Only two pairs
2. During the season, the cyclonic activity
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All the four pairs in the Bay of Bengal decreases
drastically.
11. Consider the pairs given below: 3. The combination of clear skies, high
Local Storms State
temperature, and moist land brings
1. Loo Haryana
about October heat in northern India.
2. Mango shower Kerala
3. Bardoisila Gujarat How many of the statement(s) given above
Which of the above pair(s) is/are incorrectly is/are incorrect?
matched? (a) Only one
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All of the pairs (c) All three
(d) None of the pairs (d) None
14. Consider the following pairs: 16. Consider the following states:
1 Tropical Evergreen Sandalwood 1. Assam
. Forest 2. Jharkhand
2 Littoral and swamp Acacia 3. Madhya Pradesh
. Forest 4. Karnataka
3 Tropical Deciduous Sal and teak
In How many of the above states do tropical
. Forest
evergreen forests occur?
4 Tropical Thorn Forest Shola Forest
(a) Only one
.
(b) Only two
How many pair(s) is/are incorrectly
(c) Only three
matched?
(d) All four
(a) Only one pair
(b) All the four pairs
17. Consider the following about the India State
of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021:
1. It is published by the Geological Survey
of India which comes under the
MoEFCC.
tropical evergreen forest:
2. As compared to ISFR-2019, the forest
1. Annual precipitation is between 50 to
and tree cover has increased in ISFR-
80 cm.
2021.
2. Stratified levels of vegetation.
3. There is increase in the carbon stock of
3. In India these are found in Andaman
and Nicobar only. the country as compared to the last
report.
4. No definite time for trees to shed leaves.
incorrect? incorrect?
18. Which one of the following is not essentially 21. Alluvial Soils are found in how many of the
a species of Cold Himalayan vegetation? following places:
1. Andhra Pradesh
(a) Deodar
2. Tamil Nadu
(b) Aini
3. West Bengal
(c) Walnut
4. Rajasthan
(d) Blue Pine 5. Gujarat
Select the correct answer from the codes given
19. With reference to the ‘Soil Profile’, consider below:
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
1. Horizon A is the topmost zone, where
(c) Only four
organic materials have got incorporated
(d) All five
with the mineral matter, nutrients, and
water. 22. Which of the following soils show the
2. Horizon C is composed of the loose property of ‘self-ploughing’?
parent material. (a) Usara Soil
(b) Peaty Soil
3. The bedrock is contained in Horizon B.
(c) Regur Soil
(d) Bhangar Soil
correct?
(a) Only one 23. Consider the following statement with
(b) Only two reference to the Foot-loose industry:
(c) All three 1. It is not tied to any particular location or
country and can relocate to another place
(d) None
without effect from factors of production.
2. Diamonds and Electronics industries are
20. Which of the following soils have the some examples of footloose industries.
maximum percentage coverage in India? How many of the statement(s) given above
(a) Inceptisols is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) Entisols
(b) 2 only
(c) Alfisols
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Vertisols (d) Neither 1 nor 2
24. Consider the following statement: 26. In recent years, there is a tendency for the
“These are exclusively concerned with the sugar mills to shift and concentrate in
southern and western states. What are the
transportation of passengers and mail across
reasons for that shift?
water bodies covering short distances.
1. Cane produced here has a high sucrose
These stations occur in pairs located in such
content
a way that they face each other across the
2. Moderate climate ensures a longer
water body”
crushing season
Above statement refers to which one of the
3. Limited role of Cooperatives in these
following types of ports? states
(a) Ports of call 4. Sugar consumption is more here.
(b) Entrepot Ports Choose the correct answer using the codes
(c) Packet stations given below:
(d) None of the above (a) Only one
(b) Only two
25. Consider the following statements with (c) Only three
reference to the iron and steel industry in (d) All four
India:
1. In India, there is a crescent-shaped
region comprising parts of 27. How many of the following statements
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, and is/are correct with reference to Darjeeling
West Bengal, which is extremely rich in and Sikkim Himalayas?
high-grade iron ore. 1. The higher regions of Darjeeling and
Sikkim Himalayas is inhabited by
2. The proximity of coal fields to iron and
Lepcha Tribes.
steel factories plays a significant role in
2. They are flanked by the Bhutan
determining their location.
Himalayas in the east.
3. Manganese is used as a raw material in
3. Kanchenjunga mountain peak is in the
iron and steel industry.
Sikkim Himalayas.
is/are correct?
given below:
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None
28. Consider the following statements regarding 30. Which among the following pairs is/are
urbanization in India: correctly matched as per the functional
1. Currently. more than 60% of India’s classification of Indian cities?
population lives in urban areas whereas
Cities Functions
it was less than 20% in the pre-
performed
independence period.
2. The decennial growth in urbanization in 1. Singrauli Industrial town
India is consistently increasing from the 2. Pushkar Tourist town
last three decades. 3. Modinagar Industrial town
3. The number of Census towns in India
4. Mount Abu Religious town
increased almost 3.5 times since the
Independence.
given below:
is/are incorrect? (a) Only one pair
(a) Only one (b) Only two pairs
(b) Only two (c) Only three pairs
(c) All three (d) None of the above pairs
(d) None
31. Consider the following states:

Indian cities: 1. Assam
1. The Class-1 towns have a population of 2. Karnataka

more than one lakh. 3. Kerala
2. The United Nations consider cities with 4. Goa
a population of more than one crore as
5. Odisha
a megacity.
How many of the above are generally
3. There are eight Tier-1 cities in India.
How many of the statement(s) given above known as rubber-producing states?
is/are correct? (a) Only two

(a) Only one (b) Only three
(b) Only two
(c) Only four
(c) All three
(d) None (d) All five
32. With respect to earthquakes in India 34. Consider the following pairs:
consider the following statements: Type of State in which
1. The Bureau of Indian Standards has grasslands they are found

1 Vidi Grassland Manipur
classified India into four seismic zones.
.
2. The most seismically active zone is
2 Bugyal Ladakh
Zone V.
Grassland
.
3. More than 50% of India's land is prone 3 Ukhrul Gujarat
to earthquakes. Grassland
.
4. There are guidelines for retrofitting How many of the above pair(s) is/are
deficient buildings and structures. matched incorrectly?
(a) Only one pair
is/are correct? (b) Only two pairs
(a) Only one (c) All of the pairs
(b) Only two (d) None of the pairs
(c) Only three

(d) All four
regard to the ports in India:
1. Mumbai Port is a natural harbour
33. Identify the following type of whereas Chennai is an artificial port.
forests/grasslands in India: “They are 2. Kandla is a tidal port situated on the
tropical Montane forests found in the valleys coast of the Gulf of Khambat.
separated by rolling grasslands and only in 3. At Vishakhapatnam port, The Dolphin's
the higher elevations. They occur only in the Nose Hill to the north of the entrance
channel protects the harbour from
valleys where there is the least reach of the
cyclones that strike the east coast.
fog and mist. It is located near the Sigur
Plateau.”
correct?
(a) Banni Grasslands (a) Only one
(b) Terai Grasslands (b) Only two
(c) Shola Grasslands (c) All three
(d) Bugyal Grasslands (d) None
36. Consider the following lakes located in India: 39. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Kabar Taal Lake the Iron and Steel Industry
2. Deepor Beel
1. India is currently the second-largest
3. Vynthala Lake
steel-producing country.
How many of the above lakes are oxbow lakes?
(a) Only one 2. It is footloose industry because it
(b) Only two provides raw material for other
(c) All three industries such as machine tools used
(d) None
for further production
Which of the above is/are correct?
Dairy Farming in India: (a) 1 only
1. It is a highly capital-intensive industry. (b) 2 only
2. Around 80% of production is by small-
(c) Both 1 and 2
scale farmers.
How many of the above is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 40. Which of the following statement is correct
(c) 1 and 2 Both
about inland waterway?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) The development of inland waterways
38. Consider the following statements regarding the is dependent on the navigability width
Foot Loose Industries: and depth of the channel, and transport
1. These are less dependent on specific raw technology in use.
materials, especially weight-losing ones.
(b) Making laws on shipping and
2. It does not need skilled workers as the
industrial process is primitive navigation on inland waterways comes
3. These are environment-friendly industries under State List.
as the process involved in these industries
(c) Inland waterways is costlier mode of
have a negligible carbon footprint.
transportation as compared to roadways
(a) Only one and Railways.
(b) Only two (d) Inland Water Transport (IWT) carries
(c) All three less than 1 per cent of India’s organized
(d) None freight traffic
41. Consider the following statements regarding 43. Consider the following statements about
the Critical Minerals: Indian Monsoon:
1. Critical minerals are elements that are
1. The Bay of Bengal branch of Southwest
the building blocks of essential modern-
Monsoon enters West Bengal and
day technologies and do not have any
viable substitution Bangladesh from the south and
2. Graphite, Silicon, Cobalt, Aluminium southeast direction.

and Lithium are examples of Critical 2. The southern movement of Inter
minerals Tropical Convergence zone (ITCZ)
3. Australia has dominance in the world
invites the monsoon toward South and
with respect to reserves of critical
South-East Asia.
minerals
How many of the following above is/are Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct? incorrect?
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. How many among the following are the

reasons for westward flow of Narmada 44. Consider the following statements:
among Peninsular rivers?
1. The Tibetan plateau
1. It flows between the Vindhyas and the
2. El Nino
Harischandra Range
2. The land slopes to the east from Central 3. Mascarene High
India. 4. Somali Jet Stream

3. It flows through a rift valley. How many of the above contribute/s to the
Select the correct answer using the codes Indian Monsoon?
given below:
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) All three
45. Consider the following statements with 47. Identify the following type of soil found in
regard to the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD): India: “The main parent rocks are
1. Indian Ocean Dipole is a Sea Surface crystalline and metamorphic rocks like acid
Temperature Anomaly that occurs granites, gneisses and quartzites. The
occasionally in the Northern or texture of these soils can vary from sand to
Equatorial Indian Ocean Region (IOR). clay, the majority being loams. They are
2. IOD develops in the equatorial region fairly rich in potash and potassium.”
of the Indian Ocean from April to May (a) Laterite Soil
and peaks in October. (b) Arid Soil
3. During positive IOD, winds over the
(c) Red Soil
Indian Ocean blow from west to east
(d) Alluvial Soil
from the Bay of Bengal towards the
Arabian Sea.
regard to the formation of the Himalayas:
correct?
1. The summit of Mount Everest is made
(a) Only one
of marine limestone from the ancient
(b) Only two
Tethys Sea.
(c) All three
2. The Dras arc is recognized as a volcanic
(d) None
arc system in the eastern part of the
Indus suture zone.
46. The trees like Sundri, Agar, and Rhizophora
are the characteristic trees of which type of
incorrect?
climatic division?
(a) 1 only
(a) Tropical Moist Deciduous
(b) 2 only
(b) Tropical Semi-Evergreen
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Tropical Wet Evergreen
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Littoral and Swamp Forests
49. Consider the following statements with 50. Consider the following statements:
regard to the Indian Monsoon: 1. It is grown under shade in highly humid
1. The formation of Tropical Easterly Jet conditions
(TEJ) results in the reversal of upper air 2. It requires a warm, wet climate and a
circulation patterns and leads to the well-drained loamy soil
quick onset of monsoons. 3. It is grown as a plantation crop in
2. Any year of thick and widespread snow tropical regions of the world
over Tibet will be followed by a year of Which of the following crops the above
strong monsoons and heavy rainfall. statements have described?
3. The Somali Jet stream weakens the (a) Sugarcane
permanent high pressure near (b) Jute
Madagascar and helps to drive S-W (c) Coffee
monsoons towards India at a greater
(d) Cotton
pace and intensity.
incorrect?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
*******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)

1. Answer: A
Explanation:
● The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India is roughly about 30 degrees.
● The distance measured from north to south extremity is 3214 km and that from east to west is 2933 km
● Due to this, latitudes are also called lines of parallels.
2. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Due to the convergence of the Indian plate and the Eurasian plate, and the subsequent subduction of the
Indian plate a geo-synclinal depression was formed.
● These depressions got filled with sediments brought by the Himalayan rivers giving rise to the northern plains
of India.
● Most of these rivers are perennial (not ephemeral) that is, they maintain a good amount of flow throughout
the year.
o These rivers are fed by the Himalayan glaciers.
o E.g. Gangotri glacier – Ganga, Yamunotri glacier – Yamuna
● These plains have characteristic features of the mature stage of fluvial erosion with depositional landforms
such as sand bars, meanders, ox-bow lakes, and braided channels.
3. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal.
● The maritime boundary between the Maldives and India runs through the Eight Degree Channel.
o It separates the islands of Minicoy(Lakshadweep) and Maldives.
● The entire Lakshadweep Island is made of coral deposits.
● Corals are skeletons of tiny marine animals called polyps.
o When they die their skeletal remains accumulate on the seabed which grows to form coral islands.
Statement 3 is correct: Mount Koyob is located in the South Andaman and its height is 460m.
4. Answer: A
Explanation:
● The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plains whereas the eastern coastal plains are
an example of emergent coastal plains.
Page. 2
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● Due to this submergence it provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours.
o Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin etc. are some of the important natural ports
located along the western coast.
Statement 3 is correct: the western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and south.
5. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formation, which is useful for the cultivation of Saffron.
o Pampore Saffron Heritage of Kashmir is one of the Globally Important Agricultural Heritage systems
(GIAHS) recognized sites in India by the FAO.
● Karewa are thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.
● Pangong Tso Lake, situated at a height of almost 4350m, is the world’s highest saltwater lake.
● Its water, which seems to be dyed in blue, stands in stark contrast to the arid mountains surrounding it.
● Shiwalik formations are absent in Sikkim and Arunachal Himalayas.
o In this region the "duar" formations are predominant.
o These are developed as tea gardens.
Statement 4 is correct: some of the prominent ethnic tribal communities inhabiting in the Arunachal Himalayas
from west to east are the Monpa, Abor, Mishmi, Nyishi and the Nagas.
6. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Himalayas are the highest (not longest) mountain range in the world.
● The longest mountain range in the world (on land) are Andes Mountains (about 7000 km) of South America.
● The eastern Himalayas receive more rainfall than the western Himalayas.
● That's why they have thicker vegetation when compared to the western Himalayas.
● Western Himalayas have thick coniferous forests while Eastern Himalayas are covered with evergreen
forests
● The southern slope of the Himalayas which falls on the Indian side is steeper whereas on the northern side it
falls on the Tibetan plateau
7. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Peninsular rivers have narrow gradients, unlike the Himalayan rivers which have steep gradients.
● They are old rivers having a graded profile.
● The peninsular river is ephemeral (or seasonal) unlike the Himalayan rivers which are perennial (i.e., they
receive water from the glaciers throughout the year).
● The type of drainage pattern of Peninsular rivers are mostly trellis, radial, and rectangular pattern.
o The Himalayan rivers are antecedent and follow a dendritic pattern of flow. Besides deep gorges , these
rivers also form V-Shaped valleys, rapids and waterfalls in their upper course.
Page. 3
8. Answer: C
Explanation:
All the above statements are correct.
Three major geological events in the distant past have shaped the present drainage pattern of the Peninsular India.
1. Subsidence of the western flank of the peninsula leading to its submergence below the sea during the early
Tertiary period.
2. Upheaval of the Himalayas when the northern flank of the peninsular block was subjected to subsidence and
the consequent trough faulting. The Narmada and Tapi flow in these trough faults. There is a lack of alluvial
and deltaic deposits in these rivers.
3. Slight tilting of the peninsular block from the northwest to the southeastern direction giving an eastward
orientation to the entire drainage system towards the Bay of Bengal.
9. Answer: D
Explanation:
None of the statements are correct.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It flows through the Union Territories of J&K, and Ladakh in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: After entering India it passes between the Ladakh range and Zaskar range.
● River Indus originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu in the Kailash Mountain Range near Mansarovar
Lake .
o Sutlej River originates from Rakshas Tal near Mansarovar
Statement 4 is not correct: Khurram, Tochi, Gomal, Viboa etc. are its tributaries which originate in the Sulaiman
Ranges.
10. Answer: B
Explanation:
Place River
Hampi Tungabhadra River
Tiruchirappalli Cauvery River
Pandharpur Chandrabhaga River
The Bedti is a river in Karnataka , also known as Gangavali in the estuary region , was in news due to river linking
project with the Varda , a tributary of the Tungabhadra River,
11. Answer: A
Explanation:
Only Pair 3 is incorrectly matched
Local Storms Regions
Mango Shower Kerala and coastal Karnataka
Blossom Shower Kerala and nearby areas
Kalbaisakhi Bengal
Bardoisila Assam
Loo Northern plains (Punjab to Bihar)
12. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The amount of rainfall in Indo-Gangetic plains decreases from east to west owing to the progressive decrease
in the humidity of the winds.
Page. 4
● The temporal extent of the monsoon in India decreases from south to north.
o Southern part of India, being near to the sea, gets rainfall early and for a longer duration than in the
northern part.
Statement 3 is correct: Retreating monsoon is associated with rain in the eastern part of the peninsular India.
October and November are the rainiest months of the year for this region.
13. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons, also known as North-East
Monsoons.
● By the end of September, the southwest monsoon becomes weak as the low-pressure trough of the Ganga plain
starts moving southward in response to the southward march of the sun.
o Unlike the sudden burst of the advancing monsoons, the withdrawal is rather gradual and takes about three
months.
● The cyclonic activity in the Bay of Bengal increases due to the passage of cyclonic depressions which originate
over the Andaman Sea and cross towards Peninsular India.
o The bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel Coast is derived from these depressions and cyclones.
o Such cyclonic storms are less frequent in the Arabian Sea.
● The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and a rise in temperature. The land remains
moist.
● Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is
commonly known as the ‘October heat’.
14. Answer: C
Explanation:
Pairs 1,2 and 4 are incorrectly matched.
(i) Pair 1 is incorrectly matched:
● Sandalwood is a vegetation of the Tropical deciduous forest. It is native to China, India, Indonesia, Australia,
and the Philippines.
(ii) Pair 2 is incorrectly matched:
● Acacias are native to tropical and subtropical regions of the world, particularly Australia (where they are called
wattles) and Africa, where they are well-known landmarks on the veld and savanna.
(iii) Pair 3 is correctly matched:
● Sal and teak are found in Tropical deciduous forests.
(iv) Pair 4 is incorrectly matched:
● Sholas are the local name for patches of stunted tropical montane forest found in valleys amid rolling grassland
in the higher montane regions of South India, largely in Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. These patches of
shola forest are found mainly in the valleys and are usually separated from one another by undulating montane
grassland. The shola and grassland together form the shola-grassland complex or mosaic
\15. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Average annual rainfall in tropical rainforests is not between 50 to 80 cm. It usually
is over 200cm.
Page. 5
● Statement 2 is correct: Tropical rainforests are well stratified with layers closer to the ground covered with
shrubs and creepers; followed by short, structured trees ; further followed by taller trees.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Tropical rainforests of India are found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the
Western slope of Western Ghats, the coastline of peninsular India, and the hills of the northeast.
● Statement 4 is correct: these forests appear green all the year round because there is no definite time for trees
to shed their leaves, flowering and fruition.
16. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Tropical wet evergreen forests are not typical vegetation of Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh, since it does not
receive that much amount of rainfall.
● Tropical rainforests of India are found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Western Ghats, and the greater
Assam region in the northeast.
17. Answer: C
Explanation:
● India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is a biennial publication of the Forest Survey of India (FSI), an
organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change.
● The first survey was published in 1987. ISFR 2021 is the 17th edition.
● As per ISFR-2021, the forest and tree cover in the country continues to increase.
Major Findings of ISFR 2021

Forest and Tree Cover
● The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.9 million hectares which is 24.62 percent of the geographical
area of the country.
● Increase in Forest & Tree Cover: As compared to the assessment of 2019, there is an increase of 2,261 sq
km in the total forest and tree cover of the country
o Forest Cover: 1,540 sq km
o Tree Cover: 721 sq km.
● Top Three States Showing Increase in Forest Cover: Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km) > Telangana (632 sq km)
> Odisha (537 sq km).
● Area-wise Largest Forest Cover: Madhya Pradesh ( largest forest cover in the country ) > Arunachal
Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha > Maharashtra.
● Forest Cover as Percentage of Total Geographical Area: The top five States are Mizoram (84.53%),
Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%), and Nagaland (73.90%).
Page. 6
● 17 states/UTs have above 33 Percent of the Geographical Area Under Forest Cover:
o More than 75 percent forest cover: Five states/UTs namely Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Andaman & Nicobar
Islands, Arunachal Pradesh, and Meghalaya.
o Forest cover between 33 percent and 75 percent: 12 states/UTs namely Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Goa,
Kerala, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman & Diu, Assam, and Odisha
● Mangrove Cover
o Total mangrove cover in the country is 4,992 sq km.
o An increase of 17 sq Km in mangrove cover has been observed as compared to the previous assessment of 2019.
o Top three states showing mangrove cover increase are Odisha (8 sq km) > Maharashtra (4 sq km) >
Karnataka (3 sq km).
● Statement 3 is correct :Carbon Stock
o Total carbon stock in the country’s forest is estimated to be 7,204 million tonnes and there is an increase of
79.4 million tonnes in the carbon stock of the country as compared to the last assessment of 2019.
o The annual increase in carbon stock is 39.7 million tonnes.
The carbon stock refers to the amount of carbon stored in forests in the form of biomass, soil, deadwood,
and litter. More the carbon stock, the higher would be the forest's capacity to absorb and sequester carbon
dioxide (CO2), the main greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, through photosynthesis.
Forest Category & Cover

● Very Dense Forest: All lands with tree canopy density of 70 percent and above.
● Moderately Dense Forest: All lands with tree canopy density of 40 percent and more but less than 70
percent.
● Open Forest: All lands with tree canopy density of 10 percent and more but less than 40 percent.
● Scrub: Forest lands with a canopy density of less than 10 percent.
● Non-forest: Lands not included in any of the above classes (including water).
18. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Aini is a species of tropical rainforests but not of the Cold Himalayan Vegetation.
● Deodar, Walnut and Blue Pine is vegetation of the Cold Himalayan ecosystem
19. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The arrangement of different layers of soil is known as the Soil Profile.
● It consists of –
o Horizon A contains matter necessary for plant growth.
o Horizon B is a transition zone between A and C
o Horizon C is the first layer in the soil formation process.
● Underneath these three horizons is the rock which is known as the parent rock or the bedrock. (Statement 3 is
incorrect)
20. Answer: A
Explanation: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has classified the Indian soils on the basis
of their nature and character as per the United States Department of Agriculture soil Taxonomy.
● Inceptisols are the most common soils found in the world and in India.
Page. 7
Inceptisols 39.74%
Entisols 28.08%
Alfisols 13.55 %
Vertisols 8.52%.
21. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Alluvial Soils are widespread in the northern plains and river valleys.
o They are found mostly around the Indo – Gangetic plains. Hence, UP, MP, Bihar , West Bengal have
alluvial soils.
o These soils cover about 40 percent of the total area of the country.
o They are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers and streams.
● Further, these types of soils extend to the plains of Gujarat through a narrow corridor in Rajasthan.
● Alluvial soils are also found in the deltas of the east coast and river valleys in the Peninsular region.so,
Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh have alluvial soils.
22. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Black Soil or the ‘Regur Soil’ is generally clayey, deep, and impermeable.
o Due to their clayey nature, they swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried.
o So, during the dry season, these soils develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self-ploughing’.
● Black Soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which include parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat,
Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu.
23. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The foot-loose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without
effect of factors of location such as land, labour, climate and capital.
● Some prominent examples of the footloose industry are watch-making, diamond cutting, precision
electronics, Computer chips, mobile manufacturing etc. The key characteristics of a footloose industry are:
● These are less dependent on specific raw material, Most of the raw materials are small and light and can be
transported easily.
24. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Packet Station:
o A packet station is the base of operations for transporting in areas that do not allow for other forms of
transportation, either due to difficult access or restrictions.
o These are also known as ferry ports. These packet stations are exclusively concerned with the transportation
of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short distances.
o These stations occur in pairs located in such a way that they face each other across the water body, e.g.
Dover in England and Calais in France across the English Channel.
● Ports of call:
o An intermediate port where ships customarily stop for supplies, repairs, or transhipment of cargo
● Entrepot Port:
o An entrepot or transhipment port is a port, city, or trading post where merchandise may be imported, stored,
or traded, usually to be exported again.
Page. 8
25. Answer: C
Explanation:
● In India there exists a Crescent shaped location comprising parts of Chhattisgarh, northern Odisha, Jharkhand,
and western West Bengal which is very wealthy in high grade iron ore, excellent quality coking coal, and other
supplement raw materials.
● The iron and steel industry is primarily dependent on the availability of raw materials. Coal and iron ore are
two basic raw materials utilized by this industry. Hence, the proximity of coal fields to iron and steel factories
plays a significant role in determining their location.
Statement 3 is correct: The other raw materials apart from iron ore and coking coal, fundamental for the iron and
steel industry are limestone, dolomite, manganese, and fire clay.
o These raw materials are weight losing and hence the industrial location is close to the raw material source.
26. Answer: B
Explanation:
● In recent years, there is a tendency for the mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and western states of
India, especially in Maharashtra.
● This is because the cane produced here has a higher sucrose content.
● The moderate climate (no extremes) ensures a longer crushing season.
● Along with Maharashtra, the other important sugar producers of South India are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka
and Tamil Nadu.
27. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The higher reaches of Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas are inhabited by Lepcha tribes while the southern part,
particularly the Darjeeling Himalayas, has a mixed population of Nepalis, Bengalis, and tribes from central
India.
● They are flanked by the Bhutan Himalayas in the east and Nepal Himalayas in the west.
● It is a relatively small but significant part of the Himalayas known for its fast-flowing rivers such as Teesta.
● It is a region of high mountain peaks like Kanchenjunga and deep valleys.
28. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Today, ~35% of India’s population (2022) lives in urban
areas whereas it was less than 20% in the pre-
independence period.
● Decennial growth in urbanization in India is increasing
in the last few Census, but growth rate is not increasing
consistently.
● Number of Census towns in India increased almost 3.5
times since the Independence.
Page. 9
29. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Census towns are classified class-wise (Refer Fig.).
● As per the UN classification, a mega city has a
population of more than 10 million(1 crore)
● Thus, India has 4 mega cities while metropolitan
cities have a population more than 10 million.
● Tier-wise classification is based on the development of cities.
● Tier 1 has the 8 biggest cities in India which also has a population of more than 5 million.
o They are Mumbai, Delhi, Bengaluru, Ahmedabad, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, and Hyderabad.
● Tier 2 has 101 cities and the rest of the cities are classified as Tier 3
30. Answer: A
Explanation:
Only Pair 3 is correctly matched:
Cities Functions performed
Singrauli Mining town (coal mining and thermal Power plants) and not industrial town
Pushkar Religious town (Pushkar kund, only temple of god Brahma etc )
Modinagar Industrial town in Western UP
Mount Abu Tourist town (hill station of Rajasthan)
31. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option (d) is correct: Natural rubber is cultivated in 16 states
in India. With over 600,000 hectares, Kerala tops rubber
cultivation, followed by Tripura with over 85,038 hectares under
plantation. Other major natural rubber producers are
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Assam and other north-eastern states.
Goa, Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh
are also some of rubber-producing states of India.
32. Answer D
Explanation:
● The Bureau of Indian Standards has classified India into four
seismic zones. (Refer to map)
● The most seismically active zone is Zone V and the least seismically active is zone II.
● As per Ministry of Home Affairs data 58.6 percent of the landmass of India is prone to earthquakes of moderate
to very high intensity.
o zone V - 11% of geographical area
o zone IV - 18%
o zone III - 30%
o zone II - 41%.
Statement 4 is correct : NDMA has issued the guidelines for seismic Retrofitting of Deficient Buildings and structures
for the management of disaster risks due to earthquakes and to minimize the damage due to earthquakes of high intensity.
Page. 10
33. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Sholas are a mosaic of montane evergreen forests and grasslands.
● They are found only in high altitude (>1500 meters) regions within the tropics like Nilgiri Hills and are limited
to the southern part of the Western Ghats.
● Sigur Plateau is located in the Nilgiri Hills.
● They are characterized by undulating grassland patches, interspersed with thickets of stunted evergreen tree
species, and are home to a host of endemic and endangered plants and animals.
○ The satellite images reveal that 60% of the shola-grassland landscape has changed.
○ Almost 40% (516 km2) of native high-elevation grasslands have disappeared primarily due to exotic
invasive trees, such as pine, acacia, and eucalyptus.
34. Answer: C
Explanation:
Type of grasslands State in which they are found
Banni and Vidi Grassland Gujarat
Bugyal Grassland Uttarakhand
Marg grassland Kashmir
Ukhrul Grassland Manipur
Khajjiar Grassland Himachal Pradesh
Saramati grassland Nagaland
35. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Mumbai Port:
○ It is the largest port in India.
○ It is a natural harbour.
○ It is a fully integrated multi-purpose Port handling container, dry, liquid bulk and breaks bulk cargo.
○ Prince, Victoria & Indira Dock are 3 wet enclosed docks.
○ Initially, this location was used by the navies of Shivaji.
● Chennai Port, formerly known as Madras Port, is the second largest container port of India, behind Mumbai's
Nhava Sheva.
○ The port is the largest one in the Bay of Bengal.
○ It is an artificial & all-weather port with wet docks.
● Kandla Port/ Deendayal Port is situated in the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat.
○ It is located in Kandla creek thereby deriving its name from there.
○ It is a tidal port.
○ A free trade zone has been set up there.
● Vishakhapatnam Port:
○ It is the only major port of Andhra Pradesh.
○ It is located midway between the Chennai and Kolkata Ports on the Bay of Bengal.
○ The Dolphin's Nose Hill to the north of the entrance channel protects the harbour from cyclones that strike
the east coast.
Page. 11
36. Answer: C
Explanation:
All options are correct:
● The Kanwar Taal, also known as Kabar Taal Lake or Kabartal Wetland, is Asia's biggest freshwater oxbow
lake, located in the Begusarai region of Bihar, India.
○ It is a relict oxbow lake produced by the geological meandering of the Gandak river, a Ganga tributary.
{The term "meandering" refers to the natural process of river movement.}
● Vynthala Lake was produced by a "cutoff" of the Chalakudy River in Kerala, which runs nearby.
○ The lake is the only naturally created Oxbow lake in the entire state of Kerala.
○ The rivers that flow down from the mountains diverge and take on the shape of the letter "U" in various
areas of the plane.
● Deepor Beel is an oxbow lake located 10 km southwest of Guwahati city.
○ It is Assam’s only Ramsar site.
37. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct. Dairy is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals. It is highly
capital intensive. Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching machines add to the cost of
dairy farming.
● It is highly labour intensive as it involves rigorous care in feeding and milching. There is no off season during
the year as in the case of crop raising.
● Statement 2 is correct. As the Indian dairy sector is highly fragmented, so called backward integration by
increasing the supply after the takeover of dairy companies, is not a simple matter. A large part of the country’s
dairy sector consists of small scale farms with two to eight cows. This farm category accounts for well over
80% of the national milk production.
38. Answer: B
Explanation:
Footloose industry
● Footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect
from factors of production such as resources, land, labour, and capital.
● These industries often have spatially fixed costs, which means that the costs of the products do not change
despite where the product is assembled. Diamonds, computer chips, and mobile manufacturing are some
examples of footloose industries. These are generally non- polluting industries.
● Non-footloose industries generally require raw material availability within a time limit to make products. The
sugar industry, jute industry, and tea industry are examples of non- footloose industries.
● Footloose industries can also refer to the processing of products that are neither weight- gaining, nor weight-
losing, and face significant transportation costs. An example of the footloose processing industry is honey. The
weight of the raw honey and wax is the same as the finishing product. So, whether the honey is processed near
the source of the raw materials or at the location of the final product demand, the transportation costs are the
same.
The key characteristics of a footloose industry are:

● These industries require small plant size compared to heavy and small industries.
● Statement 1 is correct. These are less dependent on specific raw material, especially weight losing ones. Most
of the raw materials are small and light and can be transported easily.
● Statement 2 is incorrect. It needs skilled workers as the industrial process is advanced
Page. 12
● and major work needs high- quality precision. Like the inputs, the output is lightweight and can be easily
transported to the markets. Most of the footloose industries produce low volume and high-value outputs.
● Statement 3 is correct. These are environment- friendly industries as the process involved in these industries
have a negligible carbon footprint.
a. It prefers location which is peaceful and cost friendly as to attract the human capital.
b. Also, location with a good connectivity of roads, railways, telecommunication, airways etc. are preferred to
facilitate quick movement of skilled workers and high-value outputs.
39. Answer: A
Iron and Steel Industry
● Statement 1 is correct. India surpassed Japan to become the second-largest producer of steel in the world in
2019 and continues to expand the capacity, efficiency, and modernization of its steel industry.
● Statement 2 is incorrect. It is a heavy industry because it uses large quantities of bulky raw materials and its
products are also heavy.
40. Answer: A
Explanation:
The development of inland waterways is dependent on the navigability width and depth of the channel,
continuity in the water flow, and transport technology in use. Inland Water Transport (IWT) in India:
● It carries less than 2 per cent of India’s organized freight traffic and negligible passenger traffic.
● The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is mandated to develop and maintain infrastructure for
fairway, navigational aids and terminals.
● The IWAI also provides an enabling environment for private investment in cargo vessels and operational
services.
● According to the RITES Report (2014) on “Integrated National Waterways Transportation Grid”, a comparative
intermodal cost has been computed per tonne-km across Railways, Highways, and IWT, which has determined
IWT to be the cheapest mode of cargo transportation at Rs. 1.06 relative to Rs. 1.41 and Rs. 2.58 as post-service
tax freight charges for Railways and Highways respectively.
● Under Entry 24 of the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, the central government can make laws
on shipping and navigation on inland waterways which are classified as national waterways by Parliament by law.
41. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct. Critical minerals are elements that are the building blocks of essential modern-day
technologies. Generally, these minerals have important uses and no viable substitutes, and are at risk of supply
chain disruptions. These minerals are now used everywhere from making mobile phones, computers to batteries,
electric vehicles and green technologies like solar panels and wind turbines. Aerospace, communications and
defence industries also rely on several such minerals as they are used in manufacturing fighter jets, drones, radio
sets and other critical equipment.
● Statement 2 is incorrect. Aluminium does not fall in the category of critical minerals. Most Common Critical
Minerals ➔
● Graphite, lithium and cobalt → To make EV batteries
● Rare earths → To make magnets
● Silicon → To make computer chips and solar panels.
● Statement 3 is incorrect. Recently, India and Australia are expanding their strategic ties to critical minerals in
a bid to create a bulwark against China’s dominance over raw materials ubiquitous in military and commercial
applications. It is China and not Australia which has the largest amount of critical mineral reserves in the world.
Page. 13
42. Answer: A
Explanation:
Narmada is the largest west-flowing river in peninsular India.
● It flows between the Vindhya Range on the north and the Satpura Range on the south.
● The hilly regions are in the upper part of the basin, and lower middle reaches are broad and fertile areas well
suited for cultivation.
● The land slopes to the west from Central India.
o The river slopes down near Jabalpur where it cascades (a small waterfall, especially one in a series) into a
gorge to form the Dhuan Dhar (Cloud of Mist) falls.
● Narmada flows westwards through a rift valley.
43. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon strikes the coast of Myanmar and part of southeast
Bangladesh.
● But the Arakan Hills along the coast of Myanmar deflect a big portion of this branch towards the Indian
subcontinent.
● The monsoon therefore enters West Bengal and Bangladesh from south and southeast instead of from the south-
westerly direction.
● The northern (not southern) movement of Inter Tropical Convergence zone (ITCZ) invites the monsoon towards
South and South-East Asia.
● The southern movement of ITCZ indicates withdrawal of the monsoon from the Indian subcontinent.
44. Answer: D
Explanation:
● The Tibetan Plateau gets heated during the month of May and June thereby creating an extreme low pressure
over it.
● El Nino refers to the large-scale ocean-atmosphere climate interaction linked to periodic warming in sea surface
temperatures across the central and east-central Equatorial Pacific.
o It is associated with high pressure in the western Pacific.
o El Nino adversely impacts the Indian monsoons.
● Mascarene High is a high-pressure region located between 25°S-35°S and 40°E-90°E near the Mascarene
Islands in the southern Indian Ocean.
o It impacts the weather pattern in India is as follows:
i. A stronger high pressure will produce stronger winds or monsoon currents.
ii. If there is a delay in the formation of Mascarene High, there is also the possibility of a delay in the
onset of monsoon in India.
● The progress of the southwest monsoon towards India is greatly aided by the onset of the Somali jet stream
that transits Kenya, Somalia and the Sahel.
o It energizes the moisture-laden south-west monsoon winds towards India
o It is also called Fiendlater and is deflected towards India by the Ethiopian Highlands.
Page. 14
45. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Indian Ocean Dipole is a recently discovered phenomenon that has a significant influence on Indian monsoons.
● Indian Ocean Dipole is an SST anomaly (Sea Surface Temperature Anomaly – different from normal) that
occurs occasionally in the Northern or Equatorial Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
● The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is defined by the difference in sea surface temperature between two areas (or
poles, hence a dipole) – a western pole in the Arabian Sea (western Indian Ocean) and an eastern pole in the
eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia.
● IOD develops in the equatorial region of the Indian Ocean from April to May peaking in October.
● During positive IOD winds over the Indian Ocean blow from east to west (from the Bay of Bengal towards
the Arabian Sea).
● This results in the Arabian Sea (the western Indian Ocean near the African Coast) being much warmer and the
eastern Indian Ocean around Indonesia becoming colder and dry.
● In the negative dipole year, the reverse happens to make Indonesia much warmer and rainier.
● Positive IOD is good for Indian Monsoons as more evaporation occurs in warm water.
46. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Littoral and Swamp Forests
○ They can survive and grow both in fresh as well as brackish water (The mixture of seawater and fresh
water in estuaries is called brackish water, and its salinity can range from 0.5 to 35 ppt).
○ They occur in and around the deltas, estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influences. (delta or tidal forests).
○ Littoral (relating to or on the shore of the sea or a lake) forests occur at several places along the coast.
○ Swamp forests are confined to the deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Godavari (Coringa Wildlife
Sanctuary), the Krishna and the Cauvery.
○ The most pronounced and the densest in the Sundarbans in the Ganga delta where the predominant species
is Sundri (Heriteera).
○ It provides hard and durable timber which is used for construction, building purposes and making boats.
○ The important species found in these forests are Sundri, Agar, Rhizophora, etc.
47. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Red soils along with its minor groups form one of the largest soil groups of India.
● The main parent rocks are crystalline and metamorphic rocks like acid granites, gneisses and quartzites.
● Characteristics of Red Soils:
○ The texture of these soils can vary from sand to clay, the majority being loams.
○ On the uplands, the red soils are poor, gravelly, and porous. But in the lower areas, they are rich, deep dark
and fertile.
○ Chemical Composition of Red Soils:
■ They are acidic mainly due to the nature of the parent rocks. The alkali content is fair.
■ They are poor in lime, magnesia, phosphates, nitrogen and humus.
■ They are fairly rich in potash and potassium.
○ The red colour is due to the presence of iron oxide.
■ The colour is more due to the wide diffusion rather than the high percentage of iron oxide content.
Page. 15
48. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Himalayas are the youngest fold mountain chain in the world. Himalayan mountains have come out of a
great geosyncline called the Tethys Sea and that the uplift has taken place in different phases.
● There were many rivers which were flowing into the Tethys Sea (some of the Himalayan rivers were older
than the Himalayas themselves).
● Sediments were brought by these rivers and were deposited on the floor of the Tethys Sea.
● These sediments were subjected to powerful compression due to the northward movement of the Indian Plate.
This resulted in the folding of sediments.
● An often-cited fact used to illustrate this process is that the summit of Mount Everest is made of marine
limestone from the Tethys Sea.
● The Dras arc is recognized as a volcanic arc system in the western part of the Indus suture zone and it
constitutes the link between the Ladakh batholith and the Kohistan arc.
49. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The TEJ is a unique and dominant feature of the northern hemispheric summer over southern Asia and northern
Africa. The TEJ is found between 5° and 20°N.
● TEJ comes into existence quickly after the STJ has shifted to the north of the Himalayas (Early June).
● TEJ flows from east to west over peninsular India at 6 – 9 km and over the Northern African region.
● The formation of TEJ results in the reversal of upper air circulation patterns (High-pressure switches to low-
pressure) and leads to the quick onset of monsoons.
● Recent observations have revealed that the intensity and duration of heating of the Tibetan Plateau has a direct
bearing on the amount of rainfall in India by the monsoons.
● When the summer temperature of the air over Tibet remains high for a sufficiently long time, it helps in
strengthening the easterly jet and results in heavy rainfall in India.
● The easterly jet does not come into existence if the snow over the Tibet Plateau does not melt. This hampers the
occurrence of rainfall in India.
● Therefore, any year of thick and widespread snow over Tibet will be followed by a year of weak monsoons and
less rainfall.
● The progress of the southwest monsoon towards India is greatly aided by the onset of the Somali jet that transits
Kenya, Somalia and the Sahel.
● It was observed to flow from Mauritius and the northern part of the island of Madagascar before reaching the
coast of Kenya at about 3º S.
● It strengthens the permanent high pressure near Madagascar (Mascarene High) and also helps to drive S-W
monsoons towards India at a greater pace and intensity (it intensifies the monsoon cell).
50. Answer: C
Explanation:
Coffee:
● It is second most important beverage of India after tea.
● It is indigenous to Abyssinia Plateau (Ethiopia).
Page. 16
● It was brought to India by Baba Budan in the 17th century from Arabia and was raised in the Baba Budan Hills
of Karnataka.
● British planters established large coffee estates near
○ Chikmagalur (Karnataka) in 1826.
○ Manantody (Wayanad) and Shevoroys in 1830.
○ Nilgiris in 1839.
● The shallow soils (sandy loam) on steep mountain slopes or almost level ground, with adequate organic matter
content, are ideal for coffee production.
● Coffee needs a hot and humid climate with temperatures varying between 15-20 degrees Celsius.
● It is grown under shady trees.
● Coffee is grown as a plantation crop in tropical regions of the world.
******
Page. 17
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)

(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT-16 (GEOGRAPHY 3.0) C
INSTRUCTIONS
BOOKLET.
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
penalty.
question.
1. Consider the following mountain ranges 4. Consider the following statement(s) with
and their highest peak: regard to the Thar Desert:
Mountain Range Highest Peak 1. The Luni River originates in the
1. Vindhya Range Dhoopgarh Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range.
2. Lushai Hills Blue Mountain 2. River Ghaggar and River Luni flows
3. Khasi Hills Nokrek Peak into the Thar Desert and gets lost in the
How many of the above pair(s) is/are not sand.
correctly matched? Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following Islands and their
locations: 5. Where is Ladakh Cold Desert located?
Islands Location 1. West of Karakoram Range
1. Agatti Island Lakshadweep 2. North of Zanskar Range
2. Aaliya Bet Delta of Tapti River
3. East of Kashmir Valley
3. Salsette Gulf of Kutch
Islands
given below:
How many of the above pair(s) is/are
INCORRECT? (a) Only one
(d) None
6. Consider the following statement(s) with
3. Consider the following statements with regard to the Narmada River:
regard to the Indian Islands: 1. Narmada is the largest west-flowing
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are the river in the peninsular region.
southward extension of the Arakan 2. It flows through a rift valley between
Yoma range of Myanmar. the Satpura Range on the north and the
2. Lakshadweep Islands are a part Western ghats on the south.
Reunion Hotspot volcanic chain. 3. The river forms the Dhuan Dhar Falls
3. The Duncan passage separates Little near Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh.
Andaman from South Andaman. How many of the above statement(s) is/are
How many of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None
7. Which of the following rivers is/are the 10. Consider the following pairs of rivers and
tributaries of the Narmada River? waterfalls made by them:
1. Karam Waterfall River
2. Hiran 1. Jog Fall Sharavati
3. Hasdeo 2. Sivasamundram Fall Godavari
4. Orsang 3. Chitrakot Waterfall Betwa
5. Ong
Which of the above pair(s) is/are
INCORRECTLY matched?
given below:
(a) Only one pair
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three (c) All of the pairs
(d) All four (d) None of the pairs
8. Consider the following statements with 11. How many of the following sites is/are
regard to the Tungabhadra River: home to mangrove forests?
1. It is the largest tributary of the river 1. Gulf of Kutch
Godavari. 2. Vedaranyam
2. The tributaries of the river 3. Pichavaram
Tungabhadra include river Varada,
4. Aaliya Bet
river Vedavati and river Bedti.
3. The famous Hampi, a UNESCO World 5. Bhitarkarnika
Heritage site lies on the river Select the correct answer using the codes
Tungabhadra. given below:
How many of the above statement(s) is/are (a) Only two
correct? (b) Only three
(b) Only two (d) All five
(c) All three
(d) None 12. Identify the following creek located in
India:
9. Identify the following river:
“It is a tidal creek in the Kutch region of
“The origin of the river lies in the Western
Gujarat. It lies just to the west of the Great
Ghats in Banagrabalike forest valley and it
Rann of the Kutch area of India. This
flows into the Arabian Sea. The river flows
through the Dharmasthala which is a region is the easternmost part of the Indus
famous pilgrimage. The city of Mangaluru River Delta. It is home to the mangrove
is situated on the bank of this river.” forest.”
(a) River Sharavati (a) Sir Creek
(b) River Shimsha (b) Padala Creek
(c) River Netravati (c) Kori Creek
(d) River Ghataprabha (d) Kajhar Creek
13. Which of the following is the southernmost 16. Consider the following Indian cities and
city in India? rivers on the bank of which they are
situated:
(a) Chittor
City River
(b) Bengaluru 1. Jammu River Chenab
(c) Tiruvallur 2. Bengaluru River Vrishabhavathi
3. Kohima River Zarü
(d) Chennai
INCORRECTLY matched?
14. The IST (Indian Standard time) meridian (a) Only one pair
passes through how many of the following (b) Only two pairs
Indian cities? (c) All of the pairs
1. Mirzapur, Uttar Pradesh
2. Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh 17. Identify the following Indian city/town:
3. Junagarh, Odisha “It is situated on the banks of the river
named after it. It is the home to the second
4. Kakinada, Andhra Pradesh
biggest Tibetan Buddhist monastery, just
Select the correct answer using the codes after Lhasa. The sixth Dalai Lama was born
given below: here. This town is inhabited by the Monpa
people.”
(a) Only one
(a) Dharamshala
(b) Only two (b) Leh
(c) Only three (c) Tawang
(d) All four (d) Spiti

15. Arrange the following cities in the North- regard to the Galwan River Valley:
South direction: 1. The Galwan River originates from the
Aksai Chin region of India occupied by
1. Mumbai
China.
2. Raipur 2. The Galwan River flows west to join
3. Bhubaneshwar the Indus River near the Leh.
3. Daulat Beg Oldi is situated on the
banks of the Galwan River.
given below: How many of the above statement(s) is/are
(a) 1-2-3 correct?
(b) 2-1-3 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) 2-3-1
(c) All three
(d) 3-2-1 (d) None
19. How many of the following projects is/are 22. Arrange the following passes from North to
situated on the Narmada River? South:
1. Sardar Sarovar Project (SSP) 1. Baralacha La
2. Maheshwar dam 2. Khardung La
3. Gandhi Sagar Dam 3. Chang La
4. Omkareshwar Project 4. Rohtang La
Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: given below:
(a) Only one (a) 1-3-2-4
(b) 2-3-1-4
(b) Only two
(c) 2-3-4-1
(c) Only three
(d) 3-2-1-4
(d) All four
23. Consider the following coal mines of India

20. Consider the following statements with and the states in which they are situated:
regard to Modhera in Gujarat: Coal mines State
1. Modhera Sun Temple was made by 1. Korba coalfield Jharkhand
King Bhima I of the Solanki dynasty. 2. Singrauli Chhattisgarh
2. It is located on the bank of River 3. Kamptee coalfields Maharashtra
Pushpavati. How many of the above pair(s) is/are
3. India’s first 24×7 solar-powered INCORRECTLY matched?
village. (a) Only one
How many of the above statement(s) is/are (b) Only two
correct? (c) All three
(b) Only two
24. Where is Chushul sometimes seen in the
(c) All three
news located?
(d) None
1. North of Pangong Tso Lake
2. South-East of Leh
21. Puthimari, Champamati, Dudhnai and 3. North of Tso Morari Lake
Krishnai rivers are tributaries of which Select the correct answer using the codes
river? given below:
(a) Krishna (a) Only one
(b) Godavari (b) Only two
(c) Kaveri (c) All three
(d) Brahmaputra (d) None
25. The following sites are often in the news. 28. Consider the following statements with
Arrange them in the North-South Order: regard to the Kopili Fault located in Kopili
1. Demchok River Valley:
2. Depsang Plain 1. The Kopili fault zone extends from the
3. Darbuk western part of Manipur up to the tri-
Select the correct answer using the codes junction of Bhutan, Arunachal Pradesh
given below: and Assam.
(a) 1-3-2 2. Kopili river is a south-bank tributary of
(b) 3-2-1 the Brahmaputra in Assam.
(c) 2-1-3 3. The Kopili fault zone is a convergent
(d) 2-3-1 tectonic boundary where the Indian
Plate is subducting beneath the
26. Identify the following river: Eurasian Plate.
“This river rises in the Pauhunri Mountain How many of the above statement(s) is/are
of eastern Himalaya. It was a tributary of correct?
the Ganga River prior to the floods of 1787 (a) Only one
after which it diverted its course eastwards (b) Only two
to join the Brahmaputra. Darjeeling is (c) All three
situated on the bank of this river.” (d) None
Code:
(a) Jaldhaka 29. Consider the following gold mines of India
(b) Raidak and states in which they are situated:
(c) Teesta Gold Mines States
(d) Surma 1. Hutti Field Karnataka
2. Kundarkocha Jharkhand
27. The Boha Geoglyphs, which show linear 3. Ramagiri Odisha
features resembling geoglyphs, have been
identified in India. Where is it located?
correctly matched?
(a) Ladakh Cold Desert
(a) Only one pair
(b) Thar Desert
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Rann of Kuchh
(c) All of the pairs
(d) Telangana Plateau
30. Consider the following statements with 33. Sukapaika River, which stopped flowing 70
regard to the Pensilungpa Glacier: years ago, is set to be rejuvenated on the
1. It is located at the north-western corner direction of the National Green Tribunal
of Zanskar valley in Ladakh. (NGT). It is related to which one of the
following rivers?
2. From the snout of this glacier River
Suru originated. (a) River Indravati
(b) River Brahmani
3. The eastern part of Zanskar Range is
known as Rupshu. (c) River Mahanadi
(d) River Damodar
INCORRECTLY?
34. How many of the following rivers is/are the
(a) Only one
right-bank tributary of River Ganga?
(b) Only two
1. Karmanasa
(c) All three
2. Punpun
(d) None
3. Phalgu
31. Consider the following glaciers and given below:
mountain ranges in which they are located: (a) Only one
Glaciers Mountain (b) Only two
Ranges (c) All three
1. Sonapani Glacier PirPanjal Range (d) None
2. Gangotri Glacier Garhwal
Himalayas 35. Consider the following statements with
3. Siachen Glacier Zanskar Range regard to the Pangong Tso Lake:
How many of the above pair(s) is/are 1. It is an endorheic saline lake situated at
correctly matched? a height of about 14,000 ft in the
(a) Only one pair Ladakh Himalayas.
(b) Only two pairs 2. It has been designated as Wetlands of
International Importance under Ramsar
Convention.
3. The brackish water lake freezes over in
winter, and becomes ideal for ice
32. Natural Arch is a notified National Geo- skating and polo.
heritage Monument, is located in which of How many of the above statement(s) is/are
these states? correct?
(a) Karnataka (a) Only one
(b) Andhra Pradesh (b) Only two
(c) Rajasthan (c) All three
(d) Gujarat (d) None
36. Where are the Cardamom Hills located? 39. Identify the following valley located in
1. North of Periyar Tiger Reserve India:
“It is located on the Manipur-Nagaland
2. South of Munnar high ranges border and was in news due to a huge
3. East of Idukki Reserve Forest wildfire. Situated behind the Japfu
mountain range, this valley is also
4. South-East of Mathikettan Shola
popularly known as the valley of flowers
National Park locally. It is home to the Angami people.”
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) Ziro Valley
given below: (b) Barak Valley
(c) Dzukou Valley
(a) Only one
(d) Talle Valley
(b) Only two
(c) Only three 40. Consider the following statements with
(d) All four regard to the Chotanagpur Plateau:
1. This plateau is composed mainly of
Gondwana rocks.
37. Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar, the 2. The plateau presents a radial drainage
freshwater artificial lakes recently in news pattern of rivers.
is located in which city? 3. The Damodar River flows through the
middle of this region in a rift valley
(a) Aurangabad from west to east.
(b) Mysore How many of the above statement(s) is/are
correct?
(c) Hyderabad
(a) Only one
(d) Bhopal (b) Only two
(c) All three
38. How many of the following sites is/are (d) None
known for the Uranium Deposits?
1. Cuddapah in Andhra Pradesh
Islands in news Countries
2. Udaipur in Rajasthan 1. Galapagos Islands Brazil
3. Mahadek Basin of Meghalaya 2. Falkland Islands France
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. Sulawesi Islands Indonesia
4. Bhashan Char Island Bangladesh
given below:
How many pairs given above is/are
(a) Only one correctly matched?
(d) None
(d) All four pairs
42. With reference to 'South China Sea', 44. Consider the following countries:
consider the following statements: 1. Sweden
1. Both China and the Philippines are 2. Norway
bordered by the South China Sea. 3. Denmark
2. It is connected to the East China Sea 4. Iceland
through the Strait of Malacca. How many of the countries given above are
3. The nine-dash line lies in the South Nordic countries?
China Sea. (a) Only one
is/are correct? (c) Only three
(a) Only one (d) All four
(b) Only two
(c) All three 45. Arrange the following African countries in
(d) None North-South order:
1. Chad
43. Consider the following pairs: 2. Ethiopia
Strait Connects 3. Zambia
1. Bering strait Atlantic Ocean and 4. Tanzania
Pacific Ocean Select the correct answer using the code
2. Torres Strait Arafura Sea and given below:
Coral Sea (a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
3. Bab -al Mandab Red Sea with the (b) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
Gulf of Aden
(c) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
4. Strait of Atlantic Ocean to
(d) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
Gibraltar the Mediterranean
Sea
46. Which one of the following is the reason for
How many pairs given above is/are
very low Salinity of the Black Sea?
correctly matched?
(a) Precipitation exceeds evaporation
(a) Only one pair
(b) Low temperature of the region
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Enormous fresh water influx by rivers
(d) High depth of sea
(d) All four pairs
47. Consider the following pairs: 49. How many of the following countries
Deep-sea trenches Associated borders Mediterranean Sea?
Oceans 1. Lebanon
1. Challenger Deep Pacific Ocean 2. Austria
2. Milwaukee Deep Atlantic Ocean 3. Montenegro
3. Java Trench Indian Ocean 4. Bulgaria
How many statements given above is/are 5. Croatia
correctly matched? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Only one pair given below.
(b) Only two pairs (a) Only two
(c) Only three pairs (b) Only three
(d) All three pairs (c) Only four
(d) All five
48. With reference to Drake Passage, consider
the following statements: 50. Consider the following pairs:
1. It is located between Cape Horn at the Desert Country
tip of South America and the Antarctic 1. Polond Jordan
Peninsula. 2. Negev Syria
2. It is considered one of the calmest 3. Lut Desert Iran
waterways in the world. How many pairs given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECTLY matched?
correct? (a) None of the above
(a) 1 only (b) Only one pair
(b) 2 only (c) Only two pairs
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) All three pairs
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)

1. Answer: B
Explanation:
Mountain Range Highest Peak
Vindhya Range Sadbhawna Shikhar (Goodwill Peak)
Satpura Range Dhoopgarh
Lushai Hills Blue Mountain
Khasi Hills Lum Shyllong
Garo Hills Nokrek
2. Answer: B
Explanation:
Islands Location
● Agatti Island is a 7.6 km long island, situated on a coral atoll
called Agatti atoll in the Union Territory of Lakshadweep,
India.
1. Agatti Island Lakshadweep
● It is at a distance of 459 km from Kochi (Kerala) and is
located to the west of Kavaratti Island (capital of
Lakshadweep).
Delta of ● Aaliya Bet Island is located in Gujarat and it is basically a
2. Aaliya Bet Narmada river island in the delta of River Narmada.
River ● It is situated near the Gulf of Khambhat.
● Salsette Island is an island in the Konkan division of the state
of Maharashtra on India's west coast.
Salsette Islands
3. Arabian Sea
It is administratively known as Greater Mumbai.
3. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Andaman and Nicobar Islands were formed due to the collision between Indian Plate and Burma Minor Plate
(part of Eurasian Plate) (Similar to the formation of Himalayas).
● Andaman and Nicobar Islands are the southward extension of the Arakan Yoma range (Myanmar) (Arakan
Yoma in itself is an extension of Purvanchal Hills).
● Lakshadweep Islands are coral islands.
● These islands are a part Reunion Hotspot volcanic chain.

Page. 1
● The Andaman Islands are divided into three main islands, i.e. North, Middle and South.
● The Duncan passage separates Little Andaman from South Andaman.
● The Great Andaman group of islands in the north is separated by the Ten Degree Channel from the Nicobar
group in the south
4. Answer: A
Explanation:
● The Thar Desert is located partly in Rajasthan state, northwestern India, and partly in Punjab and Sindh
provinces, eastern Pakistan. About the Area:
● The Thar Desert is an arid region that covers over 2,00,000 sq km. It forms a natural boundary along the
border between India and Pakistan.
● The surface consists of aeolian (wind-deposited) sand that has accumulated over the past 1.8 million years.
● The Luni is the largest river in the Thar Desert of northwest India.
● It originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer, passes through the southeastern
portion of the Thar Desert.
● The Luni River ends in the marshy lands of Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, after travelling a distance of 495 km
(308 mi).
● The Ghaggar-Hakra River is an intermittent river in India and Pakistan that flows only during the monsoon
season.
● The river is known as Ghaggar in India, before the Ottu barrage, and as the Hakra in Pakistan, downstream of
the barrage, ending in the Thar Desert.
5. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Ladakh is a cold desert lying in the Great Himalayas, on the eastern side of Jammu and Kashmir.
● The Karakoram Range in the north and the Zanskar mountains in the south enclose it.
● Several rivers flow through Ladakh, Indus being the most important among them. The rivers form deep
valleys and gorges.
● Several glaciers are found in Ladakh, for example, the Gangotri glacier.

Page. 2
6. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Narmada is the largestwest-flowing river of the peninsular region flowing through a rift valley between the
Vindhya Range on the north and the Satpura Range on the south.
● Source: It rises from the Maikalarange near Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh.
● Drainage: It drains a large area in Madhya Pradesh besides some areas in the states of Maharashtra and
Gujarat.
● The river near Jabalpur (Madhya Pradesh) forms the DhuanDhar Falls.
● There are several islands in the estuary of Narmada of which Aliabet is the largest.
7. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Recently, the outer part of the “Karam Dam”, which is being built on the Karam river, a tributary of the
Narmada, collapsed.
● Major Tributaries of the Narmada River include Hiran, Orsang, Barna, and the Kolar.
● River Hasdeo and river Ong are the tributaries of River Mahanadi.
8. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Tungabhadra is the largest tributary of the river
Krishna. It is formed by the confluence of river Tunga
and river Bhadra.
● The river Tunga and Bhadra originate at Gangamula in
the Chikmagalur district in Karnataka.
● The tributaries of the river Tungabhadra:
Left bank: Tunga, Varada.
Right bank: Bhadra, Vedavati, Hindri.
● Recently, the Bedti-Varada project was in news.
● The project was envisaged in 1992 as one to supply drinking water by the then government.
● The plan aims to link the Bedti, a river flowing west into the Arabian Sea, with the Varada, a tributary of the
Tungabhadra River, which flows into the Krishna, which in turn flows into the Bay of Bengal.
● The famous Hampi site (UNESCO World Heritage site) lies on the river Tungabhadra.
● The famous Virupakshatemple also is on the banks of river Tungabhadra.
9. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Netravati River flows through Mangaluru.
● The river has its origins at Gangamoola and flows through Mangalore city after which it joins the
Kumaradhara River and flows into the Arabian Sea.

Page. 3
● The river flows through the Dharmasthala which is a famous pilgrimage.
● The origin of the river lies in the Western Ghats in Banagrabalike forest valley in the Karnataka state.
● Netravati River is also known as the Bantwal River.
10. Answer: B
Explanation:
Pairs 2 and 3 are incorrectly matched.
Waterfall River
Jog Fall Sharavati
Sivasamundram Fall Kaveri
Chitrakot Waterfall Indravati
Yena Waterfall, Kapildhara and Dhuandhar fall Narmada
11. Answer: D
Explanation:
● The mangroves of Sundarbans
are the largest single block of tidal
halophytic mangroves in the
world. This mangrove forest is
famous for the Royal Bengal Tiger
and crocodiles. Mangrove areas
here are being cleared for
agricultural use.
● The mangroves of Bhitarkanika
(Orissa), which is the second
largest in the Indian sub-
continent, harboura high
concentration of typical mangrove
species and high genetic diversity.
● Mangrove swamps occur in
profusion in the intertidal mudflats
on both sides of the creeks in the
Godavari-Krishna deltaic regions
of Andhra Pradesh.
● Mangroves of Pichavaram and
Vedaranyam are degraded mainly
due to the construction of
aquaculture ponds and salt pans.
● In Gujarat (north-west coast)
mangroves Avicennia marina,
Avicennia officinalis, and
Rhizophoramucronata are found
mainly in the Gulf of Kutch and
the Kori creek.
● Aaliya Bet is a small island
located in Gujrat and is with some
Mangrove forests.

Page. 4
12. Answer: C
Explanation:
● On the border of India and Pakistan in Gujarat at the mouth of the Indus
River, the Kori Creek is one of the six main creeks on the Indian side.
● All other five are to the west of it, namely
○ Sir Creek – the westernmost creek
○ Vian Wari Creek (Vianbari and Viyanbari)
○ Pir Sanai Creek
○ Pabevari Creek
○ Padala Creek
• All of these creeks are within the undisputed territory of India, except for the westernmost creek, namely the
Sir Creek, which is claimed by both India and Pakistan.
● Kajhar Creek is a tidal creek in Sindh, Pakistan.
● Ever shifting creeks exit Indian territory, enter Pakistan, reenter India and vice versa, thus creating a hard-to-
patrol snake and scorpioninfested marshy wetland border with no physical barrier or fencing.
13. Answer: B
Explanation:
City Latitude
Chittoor 13.2172° N
Bengaluru 12.9716° N
Tiruvallur 13.1231° N
Chennai 13.0827° N
14. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The IST meridian passes through Mirzapur, UP and Junagarh, Odisha.

Page. 5
15. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The latitude of Mumbai, Maharashtra, India is 19.07° N
● The latitude of Raipur, Chhattisgarh, India is 21.25° N
● The Latitude of Bhubaneshwar, Odisha, India is 20.29° N
16. Answer: A
Explanation:
Pair 1 is not correctly matched.
City River
Jammu River Tawi
Bengaluru River Vrishabhavathi
Kohima River Zarü
Vijaywada River Krishna
17. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Tawang Chu (Chu means river) is the main river of the Tawang district in Arunachal Pradesh, India.
o Tawang Chu river is a tributary of the Manas River.
● Tawang is inhabited by the Monpa people.
● The Tawang Monastery was founded by the Merak Lama Lodre Gyatso in 1681 in accordance with the
wishes of the 5th Dalai Lama, Ngawang Lobsang Gyatso.
● It is the biggest Tibetan Buddhist monastery in the world outside of Lhasa, Tibet.
● It is a major holy site for Tibetan Buddhists as it was the birthplace of the sixth Dalai Lama.
● The 14th Dalai Lama, known as Gyalwa Rinpoche to the Tibetan people, is the current Dalai Lama.
18. Answer: A
Explanation:
● The Galwan River flows from the disputed Aksai Chin region
administered by China to the Ladakh region of India.
● It originates near the caravan campsite Samzungling on the eastern
side of the Karakoram range and flows west to join the Shyok
River.
● The point of confluence is 102 km south of Daulat Beg Oldi.
● Shyok River itself is a tributary of the Indus River, making Galwan a
part of the Indus River system.
● The narrow valley of the Galwan River as it flows through the
Karakoram mountains has been a flashpoint between China and India
in their border dispute.
19. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Narmada River is the largest west-flowing river in Peninsular India.
● It flows westwards through a rift valley between the Vindhyan Range on the north and the Satpura Range on
the south.
Page. 6
● Though the river is flowing through an area which is not sloping towards the west, yet it is flowing west
because of the rift valley.
● Hydro Electric Projects in Narmada Basin:(Name, District, State)
○ Indira Sagar Hydroelectric Project, Khandwa, Madhya Pradesh
○ Maheshwar Hydroelectric Project, Khargon& Khandwa, Madhya Pradesh
○ Omkareshwar Hydroelectric Project, Khandwa, Madhya Pradesh
○ Rani Avanti Bai Sagar (Bargi) Hydroelectric. Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh
○ Sardar Sarovar Hydroelectric Project, Panchmahal, Gujarat and MP.
● Gandhisagar Dam is situated at a distance of 168 Km from the District headquarter of Mandsaur. The Dam is
constructed on the Chambal River.
20. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Modhera Sun Temple was made by King Bhima I of the Chalukya dynasty in the early 11th century.
Statements 2 is correct:
● It is located on the bank of River Pushpavati.
● It was built in the Maru-Gurjara style (Chalukya style) of architecture.
● It enjoys the same significance as the other two well-known sun temples – Martand Sun Temple, Kashmir
and Konark Sun Temple, Odisha.
● Recently, Modhera in Gujarat’s Mehsana district is declared as India’s first 24×7 solar-powered village.
21. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is correct: Puthimari, Champamati, Dudhnai, Krishnai, Pagladiya, Jiadhal, Kopili, Aie, Dikhow are
some of the tributaries of Brahmaputra, apart from its major tributaries such as Manas, Subansiri, Dhansiri,
Dibang, Sankosh etc.
22. Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct order is: Khardung La > Chang La >Baralacha La >Rohtang La (look at the map).

Page. 7
23. Answer: B
Explanation:
Coal mines State
Korba coalfield, Hasdo-Arand, Chirmiri, Jhimli, Johilla Chhattisgarh
Singrauli, Jhingurda, Kanhan field Madhya Pradesh
Kamptee coalfields, Wardha valley Maharashtra
Talcher coalfield, Rampur-Himgir and Ib river Odisha
24. Answer: B
Explanation:
In news
● India and China have held the various round of Corps
Commanders talks at Chushul.
Where is it located?
● Chushul is located;
o South of Pangong Tso Lake
o South-East of Leh
o North of Tso Moriri Lake
● Chushul is a village in the Leh district of Ladakh,
India. It is located in the Durbuk tehsil, in the area
known as “Chushul valley”.
● It is close to Rezang La and Pangong Lake at a height
of 4,360 metres.
What is unique about it?
● Chushul is one of the five officially agreed Border Personnel Meeting points between the Indian Army and
the People's Liberation Army of China for regular consultations and interactions between the two armies to
improve relations.
● This place is famous for the Indian Army who fought to the 'last man, last round' at RezangLa (Chushul) on
November 18, 1962. Without this crucial victory, the territory might have been captured by China.
25. Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct order is: Depsang Plain >Darbuk> Demchok.

Page. 8
26. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Bangladesh reiterated its long-pending request for concluding the interim agreement on the sharing of the
waters of the Teesta river.
● The Teesta River flows through India (Sikkim and West Bengal) and Bangladesh.
● It was a tributary of the Padma River (the main channel of Ganga in Bangladesh) prior to the floods of 1787
after which it diverted its course eastwards to join the Brahmaputra (known as Jamuna in Bangladesh).
● Sharing the waters of the Teesta river remain a contentious issue between India and Bangladesh.
● Bangladesh has sought an “equitable” distribution on the lines of the Ganga Water Treaty of 1996 (sharing of
surface waters at the Farakka Barrage near their mutual border).
● However, due to resistance from the states (especially West Bengal), the agreement was never finalised.
● This arrangement remains a thorn in Indo-Bangladesh relations.
27. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Researchers from France have identified 8 sites around Jaisalmer in the Thar Desert, that show linear features
resembling geoglyphs.
● Geoglyphs are largely man-made, unexplained geometrical patterns on land.
● It is a large design or motif (generally longer than 4 metres) produced on the ground & typically formed by
clastic rocks.
● These figures can also be formed naturally but degraded over time due to both natural & anthropogenic causes.
28. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Kopili fault zone is a 300 km long & 50 km wide faultline extending from the western part of Manipur
up to the tri-junction of Bhutan, Arunachal Pradesh & Assam.
● It is a tectonic depression filled up by the alluvium of the Kopili river & its tributaries.
● Kopili River is an interstate river flowing through the states of Meghalaya & Assam.
● It is a south-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra in Assam.
● This fault is closer to Himalayan Frontal Thrust (Main Frontal Thrust (MFT).
● Himalayan Thrust Fault is a thrust faultline that defines the boundary between the Indian & Eurasian Plates.
● This is a seismically active area falling in the highest Seismic Hazard Zone V.
● It is a convergent tectonic boundary where the Indian Plate is subducting beneath the Eurasian Plate.
○ Subduction is a geological process in which one crustal plate is forced below the edge of another.
○ The fault zone has witnessed many seismic activities including the 1869 earthquake (7.8 magnitudes) &
the 1943 earthquake (7.3 magnitudes).
29. Answer: B
Explanation:
Gold Mines States
Hutti Field, Kolar Field Karnataka
PunnaPuzha and the ChabiyarPuzha Valley Kerala
Kundarkocha Jharkhand
Ramagiri Andhra Pradesh
Page. 9
30. Answer: D
Explanation:
● The Pensilungpa Glacier located in Ladakh’s ZanskarRange
is retreating due to increase in temperature and decrease in
precipitation during winters, a recent study has found.
● It is located at the north-western corner of Zanskar valley
(Ladakh).
● Major part of the ablation zone of the glacier is debris covered.
● From the snout of this glacier River Suru originated
● The Zanskar Range is a mountain range in the union territory
of Ladakh that separates Zanskar from Ladakh.
● It also separates Kinnaur from Spiti in Himachal Pradesh.
● Geologically, the Zanskar Range is part of the Tethys Himalaya.

● This range, is a branch of the Great Himalayan range of mountains.
● The average height of the Zanskar Range is about 6,000 m.
● Its eastern part is known as Rupshu.
● 23000 feet high peak Nunkun is within this range
31. Answer: B
Explanation:
Glaciers Mountain Ranges
Sonapani Glacier PirPanjal Range
Gangotri Glacier Garhwal Himalayas
Siachen Glacier Karakoram Range
Kanchenjunga Glacier Greater Himalayas
32. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Natural Arch, Tirumala hills, a notified National Geo-
heritage Monument, is a distinctive geological feature
1 km (0.6 mi) north of the Tirumala hills temple, near
the Chakra Teertham in Tirupati district in the state of
Andhra Pradesh, India.
● The arch is also called Silathoranam in the local
language (Telugu language: ‘sila’ means ‘rock’ and
‘thoranam’ means a garland strung over a threshold,
connecting two vertical columns or an ‘arch’ as in this
case).
● The arch measures 8 m (26.2 ft) in width and 3 m (9.8
ft) in height, and is naturally formed in the quartzites of
Cuddapah Supergroup of Middle to Upper
Proterozoic Era, due to natural erosive forces.

Page. 10
33. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Sukapaika River, which stopped flowing 70 years ago, is set to be rejuvenated by the Odisha government
following the direction of the National Green Tribunal (NGT).
● Sukapaika River is a distributary of the Mahanadi River in Odisha.
○ It branches away from the Mahanadi in the Cuttack district and then rejoins its parent river in the same
district.
○ In the 1950s, the Sukapaika river’s mouth was closed to develop the TaladandaCanal System of Odisha.
Now the river mouth will be opened, and Mahanadi water will flow into Sukapaika again.
34. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Karmanasa (Karamnasa) and Punpun are the right-bank tributaries of River Ganga and join it in Bihar.
● Gayaji Dam on Falgu (Phalgu) River, India’s longest rubber dam was recently inaugurated.
● Falgu River originates near Gaya. It joins Punpun River. It is a sacred river for Hindus and Buddhists.
● Lord Vishnu's Temple Vishnupad Mandir is situated on its bank.
35. Answer: B
Explanation:
● In the news: China is constructing a bridge in Eastern Ladakh connecting the North and South Banks of
Pangong Tso which would significantly bring down the time for People’s Liberation Army (PLA) to move
troops and equipment between the two sectors
● In the Ladakhi language, Pangong means extensive concavity, and Tso is lake in Tibetan.
● Pangong Tso is a long narrow, deep, endorheic (landlocked) saline lake situated at a height of more than
14,000 ft in the Ladakh Himalayas.
● The western end of Tso lies 54 km to the southeast of Leh.
● The 135 km-long lake sprawls over 604 sq km in the shape of a boomerang and is 6 km wide at its broadest
point.
● 1/3rd of the water body, its 45 km stretch, is in Indian control while the rest of the 90 km is under Chinese
control.
● Pangong Tso has not been declared a Ramsar Site under Ramsar Convention till now.
● The brackish water lake freezes over in winter and becomes ideal for ice skating and polo.

Page. 11
36. Answer: D
Explanation:
● The Cardamom Hills/Yela Mala are mountain ranges of
southern India & part of the southern Western Ghats located in
the Idukki district, Kerala.
● The name comes from the cardamom spice grown in much of the
hills' cool elevation, which also supports pepper and coffee.
● The Cardamom Hills is situated:
○ North of Periyar Tiger Reserve
○ South of Munnar high ranges
○ East of Idukki Reserve forest
○ Southeast of Mathikettan Shola National Park
What is unique here?
● This region is known for evergreen forests with natural undergrowth of wild cardamom.
● Cardamom is not a sun-loving crop. So, in the cardamom cultivations, the forest canopy is maintained for
providing shade while all other undergrowth is removed and replaced by cardamom giving the estates an
appearance of evergreen forest.
37. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Environmentalists and activists are criticizing the Telangana government for withdrawing an over 25-year-old
government order protecting the historic Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar reservoirs in Hyderabad, which
they say will destroy the fragile surrounding ecosystem.
● Himyat Sagar: Himayat Sagar is an artificial lake about 20 kilometres (12 mi) from Hyderabad in
Telangana.
● It lies parallel to a larger artificial lake Osman Sagar.
● Osman Sagar: The Osman Sagar Lake as affectionately called 'Gandipet'.
● The reservoirs were created by building dams on the Musi (also known as Moosa or Muchkunda) river, a
major tributary of the Krishna, to protect Hyderabad from floods.
38. Answer: C
Explanation:
All options are correct:
● Uranium is a silvery-grey metallic radioactive chemical element. It is only naturally formed in supernova
explosions.
● Uranium, thorium, and potassium are the main elements contributing to natural terrestrial radioactivity.
● Monazite sands comprises the largest source of uranium. Monazite sands occur on east and west coasts and
in some places in Bihar.
○ But the largest concentration of monazite sand is on the Kerala coast.
○ Over 15,200 tonnes of uranium is estimated to be contained in monazite.
● Some uranium is found in the copper mines of Udaipur in Rajasthan.
● Uranium deposits occur in Jadugudain Singhbhum Thrust Belt and Hazaribagh districts of Jharkhand,
Gaya district of Bihar, Cuddapah basin of Andhra Pradesh, Aravallis, & Mahadek basin of Meghalaya.
● Singhbhum Copper belt is known for a number of copper deposits with associated nickel, molybdenum,
bismuth, gold, silver etc.
● The state of Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of uranium in India.
○ Tummalapalle village located in the Kadapa (Cuddapah) district of Andhra Pradesh is considered as one
of the largest uranium reserves in India

Page. 12
39. Answer: C
Explanation:
In news
● A huge wildfire in Dzukou valley located on the Manipur-Nagaland border caused severe damage to the
environment.
Where is it located?
● This valley, also popularly known as the ‘Valley of Flowers', is located at the borders of Nagaland and
Manipur.
● Situated at an altitude of 2,438 metres behind the Japfu mountain range, it is one of the most popular trekking
spots in the North East.
● Dzukou valley and Japfu peak are located adjacent to the Pulie Badze Wildlife Sanctuary (Kohima,
Nagaland).
What is unique about it?
● There are no human habitations within the forests, but they are home to rare and ‘vulnerable’ (as per the
IUCN Red List) birds – Blyth’s Tragopan (Nagaland’s state bird), the Rufous-necked Hornbill and the
Dark-rumped Swift, among many others.
● Also found in the forests are endangered Western Hoolock Gibbons. It is famous for its wide range of
flowers in every season.
● Rare Dzükou Lily is found only in this valley.
● It is home to the Angami people.
40. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Chotanagpur plateau represents the north-eastern projection of the Indian Peninsula.
● Mostly in Jharkhand, the northern part of Chhattisgarh and the Purulia district of West Bengal.
● The Son River flows northwest of the plateau and joins the Ganga.
● The average elevation of the plateau is 700 m above sea level.
● This plateau is composed mainly of Gondwana rocks.
● The plateau is drained by numerous rivers and streams in different directions and presents a radial drainage
pattern.
● Rivers like the Damodar, the Subarnarekha, the North Koel, the South Koel and the Barkar have developed
extensive drainage basins.
● The Damodar River flows through the middle of this region in a rift valley from west to east.
● Gondwana coal fields which provide the bulk of coal in India are situated here.
41. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The Galapagos Islands, part of the Republic of Ecuador, are an
archipelago of volcanic islands distributed on either side of the equator in the Pacific Ocean surrounding the
centre of the Western Hemisphere. Located 906 km west of continental Ecuador, the islands are known for
their large number of endemic species that were studied by Charles Darwin during his voyage.
● Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Falkland Islands are an overseas territory of the United Kingdom
located to the southwest Atlantic Ocean at the southernmost point of South America. They are positioned
both in the southern and western hemispheres of the Earth. They are also called Malvinas Islands.

Page. 13
● Pair 3 is correctly matched: Sulawesi Islands is situated to the east of Indonesia’s capital Jakarta. The
equator runs and splits the island of Sumatra, Kalimantan, Sulawesi, and Maluku.
● Pair 4 is correctly matched: Bhashan Char Island is the Island of Bangladesh, located in the Bay of
Bengal. Bhashan Char Island is an island formed by sedimentation (char is Bengali for sediment) close to
the coast.
42. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The South China Sea, which lies between China, Taiwan, the Philippines, Brunei,
Malaysia, Indonesia and Vietnam, is of great economic importance globally.
● Statement 2 is not correct: It is bounded in the north by the shores of South China, in the west by the
Indochinese Peninsula, in the east by the islands of Taiwan and the north-western Philippines, and in the south
by Borneo, eastern Sumatra, and the Bangka Belitung Islands, encompassing an area of around 3,500,000
km2. It is connected with the East China Sea via the Taiwan Strait, the Philippine Sea via the Luzon
Strait.
● Statement 3 is correct: The nine-dash line encompasses approximately 90 per cent of the three million
square kilometre South China Sea. Within this area, China makes sovereignty and maritime claims. Some
Chinese analysts view the nine-dash line as a maritime border, reflected in the use of dashes rather than a
continuous line.
43. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The Bering Strait is a strait between the Pacific Ocean and the Arctic
Ocean, separating the Chukchi Peninsula of the Russian Far East from the Seward Peninsula of Alaska. The
International Date Line passes through this strait. It is the only marine gateway between the icy Arctic and the
Pacific Ocean. At its narrowest point, the strait is only 55 miles wide. Each spring, one of the largest wildlife
migrations on Earth passes through this narrow gateway to reach the Arctic’s incredibly nutrient-rich and
productive waters.
● Pair 2 is correctly matched: Torres Strait separates Australia from Papua New Guinea and connects
the Arafura Sea to the Coral Sea in the Pacific Ocean.
● Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Bab-el-Mandeb is a strait between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula, and
Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Africa. It connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden.
● Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to
the Mediterranean Sea and separates the Iberian Peninsula in Europe from Morocco in Africa.
44. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option (c) is correct: Iceland, Norway, Sweden, Finland, and Denmark are all Nordic countries. The
French invented the term le pays Nordiques or "Nordic Countries. " This has become a common term to bring
together all five of the northern European countries under the same umbrella and is accepted by all five
countries.
● Here is another term for the grouping of north European countries, i. e. Scandinavian countries.
Geographically speaking, Scandinavia is a peninsula shared by Norway, Sweden, and a part of northern
Finland.
● Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania are commonly known as the Baltic countries.
45. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option (b) is correct: Correct North-south order is: Chad – Ethiopia – Tanzania – Zambia.

Page. 14
46. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option (c) is correct: All waters in nature, whether rain water or ocean water, contain dissolved mineral salts.
Salinity is the term used to define the total content of dissolved salts in sea water. Factors affecting ocean
salinity are:
o The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and precipitation.
o Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from rivers, and in polar
regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice.
o Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.
o The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and density of water are
interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of water in an area.
● The Black Sea is a marginal mediterranean sea of the Atlantic Ocean lying between Europe and Asia, east of
the Balkans, south of the East European Plain, west of the Caucasus, and north of Anatolia. It is bounded by
Bulgaria, Georgia, Romania, Russia, Turkey, and Ukraine. Some of Europe's longest and largest rivers flow
into the Black Sea, including the Danube, the largest tributary, as well as the Dnieper, Southern Bug,
Dniester and Don. It is connected to the Mediterranean Sea by the Bosporus and the Sea of Marmara, and to
the Sea of Azov by the Strait of Kerch. Salinity of Black Sea is very low due to enormous fresh water
influx by rivers.
47. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Challenger Deep is the deepest known point in the Earth's seabed
hydrosphere. It is located in the Pacific Ocean, at the southern end of the Mariana Trench near the Mariana
Islands group.
● Pair 2 is correctly matched: Milwaukee Deep, also known as The Milwaukee Depth, is the deepest part of
the Atlantic Ocean and is part of the Puerto Rico Trench.
● Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Sunda Trench, also known as Java Trench, is an oceanic trench located
in the Indian Ocean near Sumatra. It is formed where the Australian-Capricorn plates subduct under a part of
the Eurasian Plate.
48. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Drake Passage is located between Cape Horn at the tip of South America
and the Antarctic Peninsula. The passage is named after Sir Francis Drake, who was the first Englishman to
circumnavigate the globe. It is also the narrowest stretch in the Southern Ocean and spans approximately 800
km between the southern tip of South America and the northern tip of the West Antarctic Peninsula.
● Statement 2 is not correct: The Drake Passage is considered one of the roughest waterways in the world
because here, layers of cold seawater from the south and warm seawater from the north collide to form
powerful eddies. These eddies when combined with strong winds and storms can be treacherous for those
attempting to navigate it.
49. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option (b) is correct: The region enclosing the Mediterranean Sea encompasses portions of three
continents: Europe and its southern peninsulas to the north, south-western Asia to the east, and the Maghreb
region of northern Africa to the south. Overall, it is a densely populated region with an intricate political
history involving many different ethnic groups. This has led to a complex and patchy political map. Today 21
countries, with surface areas from 2 km2 to 2. 4 million km2, have coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea. They
are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy,

Page. 15
Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey.
Bulgaria and Austria doesn’t touches Mediterranean Sea.
50. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Polond Desert, also known as the Mozaffari Desert, is a desert located
in Iran.
● Pair 2 is not correctly matched: The Negev or Negeb is a desert and semidesert region of southern Israel.
The Negev covers more than half of Israel, over some 13,000 km2 or at least 55% of the country's land area.
● Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Lut Desert, widely referred to as the Dasht-e Lut, is a large salt desert
located in the provinces of Kerman and Sistan, and Baluchestan, Iran.
******

Page. 16
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT-17
(ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL HISTORY)
(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT-17 (ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL HISTORY) A
INSTRUCTIONS
BOOKLET.
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
penalty.
question.
PRELIMS TEST SERIES -2024 | pPLT-17
1. With reference to Buddhist disciples, 3. With reference to Mauryan Administration,
consider the following. consider the following statements:
1. Sariputta 1. Samaharta were was appointed by
Ashoka in order to monitor his policy
2. Mogallana
of Dhamma.
3. Khema 2. Amatya was an umbrella term which
4. Uppalavanna included all the high-ranking officers
How many of the above-mentioned are the and executive heads of the department.
female disciples of Buddha? 3. The Mauryan King Ashoka had
exempted the Lumbini village from the
(a) Only one
payment of Bali.
(b) Only two 4. According to Megasthenes, the artisans
(c) Only three were the largest of all the groups
(d) All four during the Maurya period.
are correct?
2. With reference to the ‘Harappan
(a) Only one
civilization’, How many of the following
(b) Only two
are the correct features of its cities and (c) Only three
architecture? (d) All four
1. The people used standardised burnt
mud bricks as a building material. 4. With reference of Kanishka, consider the
2. The houses had private wells and following statements.
1. Kushana coins were of the highest
bathrooms.
quality and conformed to the weight
3. The big temples were built in between
standards of Roman coins.
the cities. 2. Kanishka was the patron of Buddhist
4. The cities had a rectangular grid philosophers such as Asvaghosha,
pattern of layout. Parsva and Vasumitra, as well as the
Select the correct answer using the codes great Buddhist teacher Nagarjuna.
Which of the above-mentioned statements
given below:
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
5. Consider the following statements 7. Consider the following statements with
regarding the foreign traveller, Fa Hien: regard to Harshavardhana:
1. Faxian wrote Si-yu-ki which chronicles
1. Fa-Hien had written a book called Fo-
the strict punishments given by Harsha
kwo-ki. to the criminals during his reign.
2. He gave an account of the prevalence 2. Harshavardhana was a devotee of Lord
of untouchability in India during his Shiva and Surya
visit. 3. Under the influence of Hiuen Tsang,
he accepted Hinayana Buddhism.
3. One of the purposes of his visit was to
search for the authentic copies of is/are not correct?
Buddhist scriptures. (a) Only one
is/are correct? (c) All three
(b) Only two

8. How many of the following statements
(c) All three regarding Delhi Sultanate Architecture are
(d) None correct?
1. The Qutub Minar is the tallest brick
minaret in the world, which started
getting built during the reign of Sultan
regard to Harshavardhana: Qutub-ud-Din Aibak.
1. He was the founder of the Vardhana 2. The Alai Darwaza is an example of
Dynasty during the 7th century A.(D) Indo-Islamic architecture, featuring
intricate geometric patterns and
2. Fa-Hien, a famous Chinese traveller
calligraphic inscriptions.
visited India during his reign. 3. The Hauz Khas complex was built by
3. He defeated the Chalukya king, Sultan Firoz Shah Tughlaq and served
Pulakesin II, and extended his kingdom as a center to teach dance and music.
beyond the Narmada River. 4. The Tomb of Ghiyas-ud-Din Tughlaq
is an early example of the use of true
How many of the statements given above arch in Delhi Sultanate architecture.
is/are correct? Choose the correct answer:
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) All four
(d) None
I. Statement: The Chishtis led a simple, 12. Consider the following Assertion and
austere life and conversed with people Reasoning:
in Hindawi, their local dialect. Assertion: Alauddin Khalji took away all
II. Explanation: The Chishti Silsila was landed properties of his courtiers and
nobles and cancelled revenue assignments
proselytising in Nature and they
which were henceforth controlled by the
wanted to convert people
central authorities.
Choose the correct option
Reason: Khalji wanted to make the
(a) Both are correct and the explanation is courtiers and rural chiefs less powerful so
the right reason for the statement. as to reduce chances of a rebellion.
(b) Both are correct but the explanation is Choose the correct answer:
NOT the right reason for the statement. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct
(c) Statement is correct, the explanation is and Reason is the correct explanation.
wrong. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct
and Reason is not the correct
(d) Explanation is correct, Statement is
explanation.
wrong.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is
incorrect.
10. Why did Balban introduce Navroz as a (d) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is
festival in India? incorrect.
(a) To gain favour with the Chalisa
(b) To impress the nobles and people with 13. Consider the following statements about a
his wealth and power personality
(c) To establish his secular credentials 1. He was a slave who rose to power in
Medieval India.
(d) To celebrate the birth of his spiritual
2. He served as a general under the Khilji
leader.
dynasty.
3. He led successful military campaigns
11. Which Indian Kingdom has been referred against southern Indian kingdoms.
to as "The Kingdom of Narasinga" by 4. He was known for his role in
European Historians? defending the Mongol Invasion.
(a) Pallavas The above statements are describing which
(b) Rashtrakutas historical personality?
(c) Cholas (a) Malik Ambar
(d) Vijaynagar (b) Malik Kafur
(c) Gyasuddin Balban
(d) Jai Singh II
14. The transition from the Palaeolithic age to 17. Consider the following statements with
the Neolithic age led to- regard to the Mughals:
(a) An improvement in the status of 1. Arrival of Babur in India led to the
women as society became more establishment of the Timurid dynasty
hierarchical
in India.
(b) A decline in the status of women as
2. After defeating Ibrahim Lodhi in the
society became more hierarchical
Battle of Panipat-I, Babur assumed the
(c) An improvement in the status of
title of Ghazi.
women as society became more
inclusive 3. In the Battle of Khanwa, Babur
(d) A decline in the status of women as defeated Rana Sanga of Mewar.
society became more cultured How many of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
15. Match the following pairs: (a) Only one
Period Tools Used (b) Only two
A. Palaeolithic 1. Flaked stone tools
(c) All three
B. Neolithic 2. Backed blade
(d) None
tools
C. Mesolithic 3. Ground stone
tools 18. Consider the following statements with
D. Upper 4. Microlithic tools regard to Babur:
Palaeolithic 1. Persian was the mother tongue of
Select the correct answer using the codes Babur.
given below: 2. He wrote his memoir, Tuzuk-i-Baburi
(a) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2 which provides a vivid account of
(b) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 India.
(c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 3. Babur is known to have written a
(d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
didactic work called Mathnawi.
16. Which of the following culture(s) is/are
is/are correct?
related to the Chalcolithic culture in India?
(a) Only one
(a) Prabhas culture
(b) Savalda culture (b) Only two
(c) Rangpur culture (c) All three

(d) All of the above (d) None
19. Arrange the following events in 21. Consider the following statements
chronological order:
regarding the excavation at Jagadhri:
1. Battle of Chausa
2. Battle of Gogra 1. Gold coins were found during the
3. Battle of Bilgram excavation of Jagadhri.

Select the correct answer using the codes 2. The excavated gold coins pertain to
given below:
Samudragupta.
(a) 1-3-2
(b) 2-3-1 3. Jagadhri is known as the Brass City of
(c) 1-2-3 India.
(d) 2-1-3
20. Consider the following pair(s): is/are correct?

Term of Meaning (a) Only one
Mughal
army (b) Only two
1. Ahadis They were the (c) All three
emperor’s personal
(d) None
soldiers who are
compensated by the
imperial treasury and
22. Match List I with List II
owed allegiance to the
emperor List I – Kings List II - Titles
2. Shehbandis A type of militia that 1. Chandragupta I (A) Vikramaditya
maintained law and
2. Samudragupta (B) Maharajadhiraja
order and apprehended
dacoits 3. Chandragupta II (C) Adiraja
3. Bargir Soldiers receiving 4. Srigupta (D) Parakramank
horses, arms, dresses,
Select the correct answers using the code
etc. from the state
How many of the pair(s) given above is/are given below:
correctly matched? (a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(a) Only one pair
(b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All of the pairs (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
(d) None of the pairs (d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
regarding the Gupta rule: regarding Mauryan administration:
1. The Poona Copper Plate inscription of 1. Mauryan administration was highly
Prabhavati Gupta described decentralized.
Samudragupta as the Adiraja of the 2. It was managed by a systematic and
Gupta dynasty. highly organized bureaucracy.
2. Chandragupta I was the first Gupta Which of the statements given above is/are
king whose name got mentioned in the correct?
Allahabad Pillar inscription. (a) 1 only
3. Navratnas were the poets, scholars and
(b) 2 only
intellectuals patronized by
(c) Both 1 and 2
Samudragupta.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are not correct?
(a) Only one
regarding the Mauryan administration:
(b) Only two
1. The Rajukas were in charge of the
(c) All three
district and correspond to the District
(d) None
Magistrates of the present day.
2. Samaharta is the Chief treasury while
Sannidhata is the Collector general of
1. Sanskrit
revenue.
2. Telugu
3. The provinces were divided into
3. Kannada
districts called Janpadas
4. Tamil
How many of the following languages
is/are correct?
flourished under Vijaynagar Empire?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) Only three
(d) None
(d) All four
1. Ashokavadana is a Pali text that 1. The Haryanka dynasty ruled Magadha
chronicles the reign of Emperor when Alexander invaded India.

Ashoka. 2. The earliest capital of the Magadha
2. Upagupta was a Sarvastivadin monk kingdom was Vaishali.
and believed to be the spiritual guru of 3. Champa was the capital of Anga
Emperor Ashoka Mahajanapada.
3. In South East Asian countries he is How many of the statement(s) given above
known as Shin Upagutta, a protective
is/are correct?
figure endowed with magical powers.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
is/are correct?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None 30. Match the following:
List I List II
28. Consider the following statements: Kingdom Capital
1. Satavahanas granted tax-free villages 1. Lichchavi A. Varanasi
only to the Brahmanas. 2. Vatsa B. Vaishali
2. The earliest epigraphic grant of land is Mahajanapada
found in the Nasik Inscription of
3. Matsya C. Viratnagar
Naganika.
Mahajanapada
3. These villages were under the
4. Kashi D. Kausambi
complete control of the Satavahana
Mahajanapada
kingdom.
given below:
is/are not correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 A, 2 B, 3 C, 4 D
(b) Only two (b) 1 B, 2 D, 3 C, 4 A
(c) All three (c) 1 C, 2 A, 3 B, 4 D

(d) None (d) 1 D, 2 C, 3 A, 4 B
31. Consider the following statements: 33. Consider the following statements
1. Naneghat inscription provides regarding Ashvaghosha:
information about the rituals performed 1. Ashvaghosha was the court poet and
scholar in the court of Kanishka who
by the Satvahana King.
headed the fourth Buddhist Council.
2. Gautamiputra Satakarni was the
2. Ashvaghosa had written Buddhacharita
founder of the Satavahana dynasty. and is regarded to be the first dramatist
3. The Satavahanas were the first native in Sanskrit.
Indian kings to have issued their own 3. Ashvaghosha had written
coins which had the rulers' portraits on Sundarananda, which contains the
them. important precepts of the Sunyata
School of Philosophy of Hinayana
Buddhism.
is/are correct?
(d) None

regarding the Kavya style:
1. The revenue system of Shivaji was
1. Kavya style is an artificial Prakrit
based on that of Malik Amber of
literary style that was employed in the Ahmadnagar.
court epics of India. 2. Shivaji abolished the Jagirdari System
2. The specimen of the Kavya style is and replaced with Ryotwari System.
found in the Junagarh inscription of 3. Shivaji gave the powers of collecting
Rudradaman. taxes to hereditary revenue officials
called Deshmukhs and Kulkarni.
correct?
given below:
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
35. Consider the following statements: 38. What were the Mutasaddi and the
1. Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were the only Shahbandar during the Mughal rule?
taxes collected in the Maratha
(a) Judges responsible for civil justice at
confederacy.
the Pargana level
2. Chauth was a levy of ten per cent on those
lands where the Marathas claimed (b) Head of the village and district level
hereditary rights. administration
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are (c) Governor and officers related to ports
correct? under Mughals
(a) 1 only
(d) Spies and ambassadors during the
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Mughal reign
36. How many of the following sites of the Indus regard to Shah Jahan:
Valley Civilization is located in present-day 1. He launched a successful campaign in
India?
the northwest frontier to recover
1. Pirak
Kandahar and other ancestral lands.
2. Chapuwala
3. Surkotada 2. He carved out four Mughal provinces
4. Desalpur in the Deccan which were put under
5. Siswal the control of his son Aurangzeb.
Choose the correct answers from the codes Which of the statement(s) given above
given below: is/are correct?
(a) Only two (a) 1 only
(b) Only three
(b) 2 only
(c) Only four
(d) All five (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. With reference to ‘Bhakti Literature’, consider the
40. Which of the following foreign travellers
1. The Devaram composed by Alvars is the first
seven volumes of Tirumurai. visited during the reign of Shah Jahan?
2. The Nalayra Divya Prabandam composed by 1. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
Nayanars is one of the major anthologies.
2. Niccolo Manucci
3. It represents the religious literature of the
Pallava period. 3. François Bernier
How many of the given above statements is/are Select the correct answer using the codes
correct? given below:
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(d) None
41. Consider the following statements with 43. Identify the following ancient Tamil text:
regard to the Early Chola Kingdom: ‘It is written by poet Satthanar, who was a
1. Karikala Chola was the founder of the grain merchant at Madurai. This work
Sangam Chola Kingdom.
belongs to the Buddhist tradition and gives
2. The capital of Early Cholas was first
us very useful information about the
located in Puhar but was later relocated
to Uraiyur. political, social, economic, and religious
3. Karikala Chola vanquished the conditions of people at that time. It

powerful confederacy of the Cheras, continues the story in which Manimekalai
Pandyas, and eleven smaller chieftains is the daughter of Madhavi and Kovalan.’
at the Battle of Venni. (a) Silappadikaram
(b) Manimekalai
is/are not correct?
(c) Purananuru
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (d) Ettuttogai
(c) All three
(d) None 44. Consider the following statements
1. When Mohammed Bin Tughlaq shifted
42. Consider the following statements with capital to Daulatabad , many people
regard to the Sangam Cheras:
stayed in Deccan and established the
1. Their capital was located at Vanji in
Bahmani empire.
Malabar.
2. Senguttuvan was the most important 2. Kalaburgi was the capital of the early
ruler who established the Kannagi Bahmani Sultanate.
Cult. 3. The chishti Sufi Saints legitimised the
3. Karur and Mujirispattanam were establishment of the Bahmani
important centres of international trade Kingdom
under the Cheras.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
is/are incorrect?
(d) None (d) None
45. Consider the following statements 47. Which of the following is/are the features
1. Deccan sultanates were four late- of Sufi saints?
medieval Indian kingdoms—on the 1. Spiritual dance and music
Deccan Plateau between the Krishna
2. Meditation and breath control
River and the Vindhya Range—that
3. Chanting of a name or sacred formula
were ruled by Muslim dynasties:
namely Ahmadnagar, Berar, Bijapur, Select the correct answer using the codes
and Golconda. given below:
2. In all these Sultanates, there existed a (a) Only one
shared identity group of Indian
(b) Only two
Muslims that was most associated with
(c) All three
and committed to the political system
of the Deccanis. (d) None
Choose the correct statement(s)

(a) 1 only 48. Consider the following statements with
(b) Both 1 and 2 regards to Buddhism:
(c) 2 only 1. Buddha discourages people from
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
holding onto anything, including his
teachings.
2. Anekāntavāda is one of the pillars of
Institutions Meaning
Buddhism
1. Khanqah Graves of Sufi saints
3. Buddha emphasises on the eightfold
2. Urs Death anniversary of a
Sufi Saint path to attain Nirvana.
3. Dargahs Abode of Sufi Saints How many of the above statements is/are
How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correct?
not correctly matched? (a) Only one
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three
(d) None
regards to Nibbana: regards to Jainism:
1. Nibbana, also known as Nirvana, is 1. Attainment of liberation in Jainism is
originally a Sanskrit word. attained through Triratna.
2. According to Buddhist philosophies, 2. According to the Jain philosophies
Nibbana can be attained during the life god exists one as a creator of the
of an individual as well. universe.
Which of the above statements is/are 3. Monks belonging to the Svetambara
correct? sect of Jainism do not wear clothes.
(a) 1 only How many of the above statements is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) 1 and 2 both (a) Only one
(d) None of the above (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT-17
(ANCIENT & MEDIEVAL HISTORY)
1. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Sariputta was one of two chief male disciples of Gautama Buddha along with Moggallana, counterparts to
the bhikkhun is Khema and Uppalavanna, his two chief female disciples. They were to maintain the order
of monks and nuns.
● The conversion of Khema was one of the rare cases where the Buddha used his psychic powers to make a
change in the heart of another.
● Moggallana attained enlightenment shortly after joining the Sangha. As a teacher, he became known for his
psychic powers, which he used extensively in his teaching methods.
● Kings like Prasenajit of Kosala and Bimbisara and Ajatasatru of Magadha too accepted the doctrines of the
Buddha and became his disciples.
2. Answer: C
Explanation:
Main features of Harappan Civilization
● Some of the important settlements were excavated on the banks of the river Indus particularly at the bends that
provided water, easy means of transportation and protection from river barriers.
● All the sites consisted of walled cities which provided security to the people. The cities had a rectangular grid
pattern of layout with roads that cut each other at right angles.
● The Indus Valley people used standardized burnt mud-bricks as building material. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
● There is evidence of building of big dimensions which perhaps were public buildings, administrative or
business centres, pillared halls and courtyards.
● There is no evidence of temples. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
● Public buildings include granaries which were used to store grains which give an idea of an organised
collection and distribution system.
● Along with large public buildings, there is evidence of small one roomed construction that appear to be
working people's quarters.
● The public bath that was discovered at Mohenjodaro. The ‘Great Bath' as it is called, is still functional and
there is no leakage or cracks in the construction.
● Most of the houses had private wells and bathrooms. Hence statement 2 is correct
● At some sites a dominant citadel was excavated in the western part containing the public buildings including
the granaries. This can perhaps be treated as evidence of some kind of political authority ruling over the
cities.
● There is evidence also of fortifications with gateways enclosing the walled cities which shows that there may
have been a fear of being attacked.
● Lothal, a site in Gujarat also has the remains of a dockyard proving that trade flourished in those times by sea.
● The existence of a well-planned drainage system in the residential parts of the city. Small drains from the
houses were connected to larger ones along the sides of the main roads. The drains were covered and loose
covers were provided for the purpose of cleaning them.
● The excavation site at Dholavira suggests that river water was stored in gigantic reservoirs around the city
walls. Sixteen reservoirs have been discovered at Dholavira, seven of which are still intact and can be entered
via brick stairs along the walls.
● Evidence of stairs shows houses were often double storied. Doors were in the side lanes to prevent dust from
entering the houses.
● The most important features of Harrapan architecture are their superior town planning skills and cities that
have been built on a clear geometric pattern or grid layout. Roads cut each other at right angles and were
very well laid out. Hence statement 4 is correct.
● The layers upon layers of settlements and buildings were found during the excavations. The decline and final
destruction of the Indus Valley Civilization, sometime around the second millennium BC remains a mystery
to this day.
3. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: Dharmamahamatras were appointed by Ashoka in order to monitor his
policy of Dhamma. Ashoka had mandated each Mahamatras (high ranking minister) to take a tour of the
empire once in five years. This not only promoted the efficiency of the administration but also promoted the
policy of Dhamma. The function of Dhammamahamatras was to organise these tours. Samaharta was tax
collector whereas the Sannidhata was the Chief Treasury officer.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Arthashastra mentions a special kind of official called Amatyas. In the Mauryan
administration, ‘Amatya’ was an umbrella term that included all the high-ranking officials, counsellors,
and executive heads of the department.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Lumbini edict of Ashoka says that during his visit to the birthplace of the
Buddha, he exempted the village from the payment of bali and reduced the payment of bhaga to 1/8th.
● Statement 4 is not correct: Megasthenes was the Greek ambassador in the court of Chandragupta
Maurya. He has given his observations about the contemporary socio-political developments in his book
'Indica'. He has divided Indian society into seven groups. This includes Philosophers, cultivators, hunters and
herdsmen, artisans, soldiers, overseers (spies or inspectors), king’s counsellors. Out of these sections,
Megasthenes describes that the cultivators (not artisans) were the most numerous of all groups.
4. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The best known of the Kushana kings was Kanishka, who is thought to have ruled from 78 CE till 101 or
102 CE. Ironically, 78 CE is held to be the beginning of the “Saka era” in the Indian calendar. Historians are,
hence, divided about Kanishka’s period.
● His rule is said to have started anywhere between 78 and 144 CE. Kanishka was an ardent follower of
Buddhism and hosted the fourth Buddhist mahasangha or council (the third council had been held in
Pataliputra during Asoka’s reign).
● By now Mahayana Buddhism had become the dominant sect, and Kanishka supported the missions sent to
China to preach Buddhism.
● Statement II is correct: Asvagosha and Nagarjuna were other important scholars patronized by him.
● Statement I is correct: Kushana coins were of the highest quality and conformed to the weight standards of
Roman coins. In the coins, Kushana rulers are referred to as “king of kings”, “Caesar”, “lord of all lands” and
by other such titles. Unfortunately, the titles did not leave much room on the coins for the actual name of the
ruler.
● Hence our information on the Kushana kings tends to be very uncertain. Kanishka’s coins as well as his statue
found near Mathura show him dressed in a belted tunic along with overcoat and wearing boots, testifying to
his Central Asian origins.
5. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Fa-Hien was a Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II on a religious
mission.
● He traveled by foot from China to India and returned by sea route.
● Fa-Hien was the first Chinese pilgrim to visit India.
● His travelogue is called ‘A Record of Buddhist kingdoms or Fo-kwo-ki.
● The Chinese pilgrim, Fa Hien, noticed the plight of those who were treated as untouchables or chandals by
the society in India.
● Fa- Hien was accompanied by 4 others on a mission to visit the land of the Buddha and search for Buddhist texts.
6. Answer: D
Explanation:
All statements are incorrect:
● Vardhana dynasty or Pushyabhuti dynasty was founded by Pushyabhuti.
● Harshacarita, a poem by Banabhatta, his court poet, and Si-Yu-Ki, a travelogue by Hiuen Tsang, a Chinese
Buddhist pilgrim who visited India between AD 629 and 644, provide accounts of Harshavardhana’s reign.
● On the banks of the Narmada River, Pulakesin II, the Chalukya king, defeated Harshavardhan.
● Thus, the river became his kingdom's southern border.
7. Answer: B
Explanation:
● During the tenure of Harshavardhana, the famous Buddhist traveler Hiuen Tsang (Xhuang Xiang) came to India.
● He wrote his experience of Harshavardhana's court in his book 'Si-yu-ki'.
● He wrote that there was a very strict provision of the punishment even for the pettiest of crimes in
Kannauj.
● He further added that even in this situation, the streets of Kannauj were not free from robbers.
● Harshavardhana was the devotee of Lord Shiva and The Sun God.
● Under the influence of Hiuen Tsang, in the later part of his reign, it is believed that Harsha became a follower
of Mahayana Buddhism.
○ To show his support towards Mahayana Buddhism, he convened two councils at Prayag and Kannauj.
8. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is Correct: The Qutub Minar is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and stands at a height of 73
meters. It was built during the reign of Sultan Qutub-ud-Din Aibak and completed by his successor, Iltutmish.
The tower is made of red sandstone and marble, and features intricate carvings and inscriptions.
● Statement 2 is Correct: The Alai Darwaza is a gateway built by Sultan Alauddin Khilji in the 14th century.
It is an example of Indo-Islamic architecture, which combines elements of Indian and Islamic styles. The
gateway features intricate geometric patterns and calligraphic inscriptions in Persian, and is made of red
sandstone and white marble.
● Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Hauz Khas complex was built by Sultan Firoz Shah Tughlaq in the 14th
century, but it was primarily a reservoir and later on a center of Islamic learning and culture. The complex
also includes a madrasa and a tomb, but its main function was to provide water to the nearby city of Siri.
● Statement 4 is incorrect:
● The tomb of Ghiyasud din Balban is located in Mehrauli, New Delhi, India built in circa 1287 C.E. Ghiyas-
ud-din Balban, one of the most powerful slave sultans after Iltutmish, is buried within the archaeological park,
in a building once built by the Sultan himself called the Dar-ul-Amaan (Haven of Safety). Though in ruins and
devoid of decorations, the tomb of Balban is unique for its architecture as it was the first building to be
constructed using true arches. Unlike the corbelled arches of Qutub Complex, the true arches of Balban’s
tomb have the keystone placed at the centre, which evenly distributes the weight of the superstructure. From
here on, true arches become a common feature of the Indo-Islamic architecture of Delhi.
9. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Chisti Sufi saints were known for their simple and austere way of life. They communicated with people in
their local dialect, Hindawi, and were not particularly interested in converting others to their faith. However,
many families and groups claimed to have converted to Islam due to the blessings of these saints. So,
statement is correct, but the explanation is wrong.
● The Chisti order was established in India by KhwajaMuin-ud-din Chisti (also known as Gharib Nawaz)
around c.1192 CE. Qutubud din Bhakhtiyar Kaki established the Chisti presence in Delhi under the patronage
of Sultanate ruler Iltutmish.
10. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Balban, a Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate, introduced Navroz also known as the Persian New Year, as a festival
in India to reinforce the Persian influence on the culture and administration of the Sultanate. Balban
introduced the famous Persian festival of Nowruz in India to impress the nobles and people with his wealth
and power. The festival is a New Year celebration of Spring Equinox.
11. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Vijaynagar was ruled by Narasingha Raya when the Portuguese first arrived in India. He was not an important
monarch in the history of Vijayanagar, but his name stuck and Europeans continued to mark it on their maps
long after he and his empire were gone. One of the most remarkable remains of that era is that of Ugra
Narasingha or Narasimha - a gigantic sculpture of Lord Vishnu as half-lion and half-man.
12. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Alauddin Khalji had taken the following steps:
o He completely weakened Hindu and Muslim nobles so they could not rebel against him.
o He forbade his nobles to socialize to the point where alcohol was prohibited in Delhi and nobles couldn’t
form marital alliances with other nobles without Alauddin’s permission.
o He wanted all his nobles to not be able to foster too much wealth because wealth fosters rebellion.
o He took away all landed properties of his courtiers and nobles and cancelled revenue assignments and
brought them under his central control.
o He took away the cut that rural Hindu tax collectors had traditionally taken, slashing away more of
their wealth – all of this so they would be busy surviving and not rebelling.
o His taxation reforms were so ingenious they were actually used by Sher Shah, and Akbar and even until
the 18 and 19th centuries in India.
13. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Malik Kafur (died 1316), also known as Taj al-Din Izz al-Dawla, was a prominent slave general of the Delhi
Sultanate ruler AlauddinKhalji. He was captured by Alauddin's general Nusrat Khan during the 1299 invasion
of Gujarat and rose to prominence in the 1300s.
● As a commander of Alauddin's forces, Kafur defeated the Mongol invaders in 1306. Subsequently, he led a
series of expeditions in the southern part of India, against the Yadavas (1308), the Kakatiyas (1310), the
Hoysalas (1311), and the Pandyas (1311). From these campaigns, he brought back many treasures, and many
elephants and horses for the Delhi Sultanate.
● From 1313 to 1315, Kafur served as Alauddin's governor of Devagiri. When Alauddin fell seriously ill in
1315, Kafur was recalled to Delhi, where he exercised power as Na'ib (viceroy).
14. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement B is correct: This period led to an increase in food supply, population and trade. Work done
outside the home – such as herding – was typically performed by men and began to be valued more highly
than work done by women inside their homes, leading to rise in gender inequality.
15. Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Palaeolithic 1. Flaked stone tools
B. Neolithic 2. Ground stone tools
C. Mesolithic 3. Microlithic tools
D. Upper Palaeolithic 4. Backed blade tools
16. Answer: D
Explanation:
● The discovery of the Chalcolithic culture at Jorwe in 1950 opened a new phase in the prehistory of Deccan.
● Most of these Chalcolithic cultures flourished in the semi-arid regions of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat,
and Maharashtra.
● The important Chalcolithic cultures are Kayatha, Jorwe, Malwa, Ahar, Prabhas, Savalda, and Rangpur which
were known for the distinguished features of their artifacts.
17. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Babur was related to Timur from his father’s side and to Chengiz Khan through his mother side.
● Arrival of Babur in India led to the establishment of the Timurid dynasty in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct:
● He defeated Ibrahim Lodhi in 1526 in the first Battle of Panipat.
● Rana Sangha of Mewar was a great Rajput warrior.
○ He was defeated in the Battle of Khanwa (near Agra) held in 1527.
○ Babur assumed the title Ghazi after this battle.
18. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Babur was a great statesman and a man of solid achievements. He was also a great scholar in Arabic and
Persian languages.
● But, Chatghai Turki was his mother tongue.
● He wrote his memoirs, Tuzuk-i-Baburi (Baburnama) in the Turki language.
○ It provides a vivid account of India.
● Babur is also known to have written a didactic work called Mathnawi (Masnavi).
19. Answer: D
Explanation:
● The Battle of Gogra (Ghaghra), fought in 1529, was a great battle for the conquest of India by the Mughal
Empire.
○ Babur defeated the Afghans in the Battle of Gogra in Bihar.
● The Battle of Chausa (1539) was fought between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri.
○ Sher Shah defeated Humayun in the Battle of Chausa in 1539.
● The Battle of Bilgram (1540) took place between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri.
○ Sher Shah Suri defeated Humayun in the Battle of Bilgram (Kannauj).
20. Answer: C
Explanation:
Pairs 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
Term Meaning
Ahadis Gentleman troopers or individuals who owed allegiance to the emperor
Shehbandis A type of militia that maintained law and order and apprehended dacoits
Bargir Soldiers receiving horses, arms, dresses etc. from the state
Shiledar Soldiers who brought their own horses and arms
Banduqchis Matchlock-men
Baraq-Andaz Skilled musketeers
21. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Gold coins were found during the excavation of Jagadhri along with other ancient artifacts.
● The gold coins obtained from Jagadhri pertain to Samudragupta.
o He is also called Napoleon of India.
o The gold coins of his period and the inscriptions suggest that he was a poet and a musician.
o The gold coins depicted Samudragupta playing the veena.
● Jagadhri is in the Yamunanagar district of Uttar Pradesh.
● This town is known as the Brass city of India.
● Excavations here have found many gold coins from many dynasties, from Indo-Greeks to the Tomara dynasty.
22. Answer: B
Explanation:
SN List I – Kings List II - Titles
1 Chandragupta I Maharajadhiraja
2 Samudragupta Parakramank
3 Chandragupta II Vikramaditya
4 Srigupta Adiraja
23. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Poona Copper Plate inscription of Prabhavati Gupta described Srigupta as the Adiraja of the Gupta
dynasty.
● Srigupta founded the Gupta dynasty in the 3rd century AD.
● Srigupta was the first Gupta king whose name got mentioned in the Allahabad Pillar inscription.
o He took the title of Maharaja.
● Chandragupta II patronized many poets and scholars.
● The Navratnas - Kalidasa, Dhanvantri, Amasimha, Varahmihir, Vararuchi, Shanku, Kshapanak, and
Ghapkarpar were in his court.
● Chandragupta II is known as Vikramaditya.
● He conquered and merged Gujarat, the north of Bombay, Saurashtra in the west, and Malwa.
24. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Different languages such as Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada and Tamil flourished in the regions. There was a great
development in Sanskrit and Telugu literature.
● The peak of literary achievement was reached during the reign of Krishna Deva Raya. He himself was a
scholar in Sanskrit and Telugu.
● His famous court poet AllasaniPeddanna was distinguished in Telugu literature. Thus the cultural
contributions of the Vijayanagar rulers were many-sided and remarkable.
25. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Mauryan administration was highly centralized and it had possessed successful successors like King
Ashoka.
● Although the ruler had a council of advisors, the final authority rested with the Emperor.
● The Mauryan administration was monarchical and Efficient.
● The detailed work of administration was divided among various departments, and managed by a systematic
and highly organized bureaucracy.
26. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Rajukas were in charge of the district and corresponded to the District Magistrates of the present day.
o They managed the state property and kept law and order in the districts.
● The important officials in the revenue department are
o Sannidhata - Chief treasury
o Samaharta - Collector general of revenue
● The provinces were divided into districts called Janpadas.
o Their administration was looked after by 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka', and ‘Yukta’.
Officers of the Mauryan Empire
Name Function
Samaharta Revenue collector
Sannidhata Chief treasury
Yukta Subordinate revenue officer
Shulkadhyaksha Officer-in-charge of royal income
Prashasti Prison head
Samsthaadhyaksha superintendents
Akaradhyaksha Superintendent of mines
Sthaaniks Tax collectors working under Pradeshikas
27. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Ashokavadana is a Sanskrit text that chronicles the reign of Emperor Ashoka. It is a part of Divyadana.
● Upagupta was a Sarvāstivādin monk and believed to be the spiritual guru of the Mauryan Emperor
Ashoka.
● In South East Asian countries and Bangladesh Upagupta is a great cult figure.
● In Myanmar he is known as Shin Upagutta, a protective figure endowed with magical powers.
28. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Brahmanas and the Buddhist monks were given tax-free villages by the rulers of the Satavahanas
dynasty.
● The importance of land revenue for the king can be judged from the elaborate procedure that was used to
record donations of land.
● The epigraphic grant of land is found in the Naneghat Inscription of Naganika, who bestowed villages
(grama) on priests for officiating at Vedic sacrifices. She also made donations to Buddhist Monks.
● These agricultural fields and villages were made free from the intrusion of soldiers and other royal
officials.
● Hence these areas became small independent blocks within the Satavahana kingdom.
29. Answer: A
Explanation:
● The Nanda dynasty were the rulers of Magadha when Alexander the Great invaded India in 327 BC.
o Dhana Nanda was the ruler of Magadha then.
o Nanda dynasty was the last dynasty of the Magadha Empire.
o The Nandas overthrew the Shishunaga dynasty in the Magadha region of eastern India and expanded their
empire to include a larger part of northern India.
● Rajagriha was the first capital of the ancient kingdom of Magadha.
● It was later shifted to Pataliputra.
● It was also a major Buddhist centre during the reign of King Bimbisara and his son King Ajatashatru.
● Magadha was a powerful kingdom and for several years its capital was Rajagriha, present-day Rajgir in
Bihar.
● The founder of the Anga dynasty was King Anga.
● Champa was its capital.
● Anga was one of the 16 Mahajanapadas of old India.
● Now, the Anga kingdom is situated in Bhagalpur, Bihar.
● Anga was ruled by rulers that belonged to non-Vedic houses.
30. Answer: B
S. No List I - Kingdom List II – Capital
1 Lichchavi A.Vaishali
2 Vatsa Mahajanapada B. Kausambi
3 Matsya Mahajanapada C. Viratnagar
4 Kashi Mahajanapada D. Varanasi
31. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Naneghat inscription talks about the rulers in the Satavahana dynasty.
● King Satakarni I’s wife had described about the rituals like Ashwamedha performed by the King in this
inscription.
o Simuka is specified as the primary lord in a list of royals in a Satavahana inscription at Naneghat.
● In the Puranas, the Satavahanas have been called Andhras.
● Simuka was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty.
o He and his successors established their authority from the mouth of the Krishna to the entire Deccan
plateau.
● The Satavahanas were the first native Indian kings to have issued their own coins which had the rulers'
portraits on them.
o Gautamiputra Satakarni is believed to have started this practice which he imbibed from the Western
Satraps after vanquishing them.
o The different Puranas state that the primary ruler of the line specifies his title differently as Sishuka,
Sindhuka, Chhismaka, Shipraka, etc.
o Gautamiputra Satakarni and other Satavahana rulers were known as lords of the Dakshinapatha.
o Dakshinapatha was the route leading to the south, which was also used as a name for the entire southern region.
32. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Kavya style is a highly artificial Sanskrit literary style that was employed in the court epics of India.
o It evolved an elaborate poetics of figures of speech, among which metaphor and simile styles are the
dominant ones.
● The earliest specimen of the kavya style is found in the Junagarh inscription of Rudradaman in
Kathiawar in about 150A. D.
o It is written in pure Sanskrit language.
o It is famously known as the Junagarh rock inscription of Rudradaman or Girnar Rock inscription of
Rudradaman.
o It was inscribed by the Western Kshatrap King, Rudradaman I.
o It dates back to 150CE and is located in Girnar near Junagadh, Gujarat, India.
33. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Some of the scholars in the Court of Kanishka were Parsva, Vasumitra, Ashvaghosa, Nagarjuna, Charaka,
and Mathara.
● Ashvaghosha was a Buddhist philosopher, dramatist, poet and orator from India while Vasumitra was a
scholar in his court who headed the 4th Buddhist Council and Ashvaghosha was his deputy.
● Ashvaghosa wrote Buddhacharita which is the biography of Buddha.
● He is regarded to be the first dramatist in Sanskrit
● Ashvaghosa had written Sundarnanda, the Sanskrit epic on the Buddhist theme of Moksha and Nirvana.
● It was not related to Sunyata Philosophy or Hinyana Buddhism.
34. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The revenue system of Shivaji was based on that of Kathi system of Malik Amber of Ahmadnagar.
● Lands were measured by using the measuring rod called kathi.
● Lands were also classified into three categories, paddy fields, garden lands and hilly tracks.
● Shivaji abolished the Jagirdari System and replaced with Ryotwari System, and made changes in the
position of hereditary revenue officials which was popularly known as Deshmukhs, Deshpande, Patils and
Kulkarnis (curbing their powers).
● He appointed his own revenue officials called Karkuns.
● Shivaji strictly supervised the Mirasdars who had hereditary rights in land.
● Shivaji entrusted the task of systematic assessment to Annaji Datto in 1678.
35. Answer: D
Explanation:
● The revenue system of Shivaji was patterned on the Kathi system of Malik Amber.
● According to this system, every piece of land was measured by Rod or Kathi.
● Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were other sources of income.
● Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were the taxes collected not in the Maratha kingdom but in the neighbouring
territories of the Mughal Empire or Deccan sultanates.
● Chauth was one-fourth of the land revenue paid to the Marathas in order to avoid the Maratha raids.
● Sardeshmukhi was an additional levy of ten per cent on those lands on which the Marathas claimed
hereditary rights.
36. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Pirak is in Baluchistan, in the late Harappan phase, there was diversification of agriculture. Chapuwala is
located in Punjab province of Pakistan.
● Desalpur (massive stone fortification) and Surkotada (remains of Bones of a Horse) are located in Gujarat.
● Siswal is located in Haryana and is known for Siswal pottery.
37. Answer: A
Explanation:
● The Nayanars and Alwars composed religious hymns in Tamil. Alvars (literally, those who are —immersed
in devotion to Vishnu) and Nayanars (literally, leaders who were devotees of Shiva) travelled from place-to-
place singing hymns in Tamil in praise of their gods.
● During their travels the Alvars and Nayanars identified certain shrines as abodes of their chosen deities. Very often
large temples were later built at these sacred places. These developed as centres of pilgrimage. Singing
compositions of these poet-saints became part of temple rituals in these shrines, as did worship of the saints ‘images.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Devaram denotes the first seven volumes of the Tirumurai, the twelve-
volume collection of Saiva devotional poetry.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Nalayira Divya Prabandham compiled in its present form by Nathamuni
during the 9th -10th centuries. Nalayira Divya Prabandham is one of the major anthologies of compositions by
the Alvars. It was frequently described as the Tamil Veda, thus claiming that the text was as significant as the
four Vedas in Sanskrit that were cherished by the Brahmanas.
● Perundevanar was patronized by Nandivarman II and he translated the Mahabharata as Bharathavenba
in Tamil.
● NandikKalam Bagam was another important work but the name of the author of this work is not known.
38. Answer: C
Explanation:
● During Mughal’s reign, the port administration was independent of the provincial authority.
● The governor of the ports was called Mutasaddi.
○ He was directly appointed by the emperor.
○ The Mutasaddi collected taxes on merchandise and maintained a custom - house.
○ He also supervised the mint house at the port.
● Shahbandar was Subordinate to Mutasaddi.
○ He was mainly concerned with the custom house.
39. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Shah Jahan launched a prolonged campaign in the northwest frontier to recover Kandahar and other ancestral
lands.
○ However, it was a futile policy leading to the loss of lives and resources. He had to finally abandon this policy.
● His Deccan policy was more successful.
● He was able to annex Ahmadnagar in 1636. Both Bijapur and Golconda signed a treaty with the emperor.
● Shah Jahan carved out four Mughal provinces in the Deccan: Khandesh, Berar, Telangana, and Daulatabad.
○ These provinces were put under the control of his son Aurangzeb.
● The last years of Shah Jahan’s reign were clouded by a bitter war of succession among his four sons: Dara
Shikoh (crown prince), Shuja (governor of Bengal), Aurangzeb (governor of Deccan) and Murad Baksh
(governor of Malwa and. Gujarat).
40. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Shahjahan's reign is described by French travellers Bernier and Tavernier, and the Italian traveller Niccolo
Manucci.
○ Peter Mundi described the famine that occurred during Shahjahan's time.
● Francois Bernier, a French physician who was closely associated with the Mughal Court.
● Niccolo Manucci was a contemporary of Bernier.
41. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Karikala often referred to as Karikala the Great was a Tamil Emperor of the Early Cholas of the Chola
dynasty who ruled Southern India.
○ He is credited with the construction of the flood banks of the river Kaveri.
○ He is recognized as the greatest of the Early Cholas.
● Karikala Chola was not the founder of the Sangam Chola Empire.
● Early Chola Kings are mentioned in the Sangam Literature but they are not mentioned in any chronological
order, due to which, we do not know which ruler ruled at what time.
● Their capital was first located in Uraiyur but was later relocated to Puhar.
● Pattinappalai depicts Karikala’s childhood and military triumphs.
● He founded the port city of Puhar.
● He vanquished the powerful confederacy of the Cheras, Pandyas, and eleven smaller chieftains at the Battle
of Venni.
42. Answer: D
Explanation:
● The Chera dynasty was one of the dynasties in and after the Sangam period history of the state of Kerala and
Kongu Nadu region of Western Tamil Nadu in southern India.
○ They are credited as the creators of the land of Kerala as they have unified various regions of the
western coast to form the early Kerala empire.
● Their Capital was at Vanji (Malabar).
● Senguttuvan (Red Chera) was the most important ruler and he established the Kannagi or Pattini Cult.
○ He was the first King from South India to send an ambassador to China.
● Karur and Mujirispattanam/Muchiri Pattanam were important centers of international trade.
43. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Manimekalai is one of the twin Epics, written by poet Satthanar otherwise called Koolavanikan
Satthanar. He was a grain merchant at Madurai.
● This work belongs to the Buddhist work and gives us very useful information about the political, social,
economic, and religious conditions of people at that time.
● It emphasizes more on the life of the renunciation. This work takes the next rank to Silappadikaram.
● It continues the story of Silappadikaram in the next generation in which Manimekalai is the daughter of
Madhavi and Kovalan.
44. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Zafar Khan stayed back in Daulatabad and became a powerful political chief. He was
rewarded with an Iqta for taking part in the conquest of Kampili. He made various raids against neighboring
states.
● Statement 2 is correct: Bahman Shah established an independent state in the Deccan within the Delhi
Sultanate's southern provinces with its headquarters at Hasanabad (Gulbarga) and all his coins were minted at
Hasanabad. This place is known as Kalaburgi today.
● Statement 3 is correct: With the support of the influential North Indian Chishti Sufi Shaikhs, Bahman Shah
was crowned the founder of the Bahmani kingdom. These Sufis legitimized the transplantation of Indo-
Muslim rulership from one region in South Asia to another, converting the land of the Bahmanids into being
recognized as Dar ul-Islam, while it was previously considered Dar ul-Harb.
45. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Deccan sultanates were five late-medieval Indian kingdoms—on the Deccan
Plateau between the Krishna River and the Vindhya Range—that were ruled by Muslim dynasties: namely
Ahmadnagar, Berar, Bidar, Bijapur, and Golconda.
● Statement 2 is correct: In all five Sultanates, there existed a shared identity group of Indian Muslims that
was most associated with and committed to the political system of the Deccan Sultanates, known in Persian
historiography as the Deccanis, or the Deccani ethnic group of Indian Muslims.
46. Answer: B
Explanation:
Pairs 1 and 3 are not correctly matched.
Institutions Meaning
1. Khanqah Abode of Sufi saints
2. Urs Death anniversary of a Sufi Saint
3. Dargahs Graves of Sufi saints
47. Answer: C
Explanation:
● While the orthodox Muslims depend upon external conduct and blind observance of religious rituals, the Sufi
saints seek inner purity.
● They were critical of the dogmatic definitions and scholastic methods of interpreting the Qur’an and Sunna
(traditions of the Prophet) adopted by theologians.
● They preached the unity of God and self-surrender unto Him probably out of interaction with the Nirguna
Bhakti movement.
● Music attracts everybody, irrespective of language. Slowly such music attracted the Hindus who started
visiting the dargahs in large numbers.
● The Hindu impact on Sufism also became visible in the form of Siddhas and yogic postures.
● It included meditation and breath control measures apart from severe ascetic exercises in lonely places.
● Murid (a novice on the path of spiritual enlightenment) took the training using zikr (chanting of a name or
sacred formula), contemplation, sama (music: and singing) to rouse a state of ecstasy, rags (dancing),
discussion of parables, breath control, etc. under the guidance of a master or pir.
48. Answer - B
Explanations
● Statement 1 is correct: One of the core philosophies of Buddha’s teaching is to not cling to anything. He also
states that his teachings are only Upara (tools) and not a dogma.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Anekāntavāda, which means non-absolutism, is one of the three key pillars of
Jainism. Ahimsa (Non-Violence) and Aparigraha (asceticism).
● The three main pillars of Buddhism are Buddha, Dhamma and Sangha.
● Statement 3 is correct: Buddha has emphasised that if a person follows the eightfold path, then he will reach
Nirvana without the involvement of the monks/nuns.
49. Answer - (b)
Explanations
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Nibbana is a Pali word. ‘Ni’ means negative and ‘Vanna’ means to crave. Nibbana,
therefore, is departure or detachment from lust. According to Buddhist philosophy, Nibbana signifies the
dying out of feelings of hate, ignorance, greed, etc.
● Statement 2 is correct: Nibbana, as a concept is different for Buddhists and non-Buddhists. The major
difference is the fact that for Buddhists Nibbana can be attained in the lifetime of an individual, whereas for a
non-Buddhist eternal heaven is realised only after death or union with God.
50. Answer - A
Explanations
● Statement 1 is correct: In Jainism, the attainment of liberation does not require any ritual. It can be attained
by following the three basic principles which are also referred to as ‘Three Jewels’, or Triratna.
● The three principles are: Samyakdarshana, Samyakjnana, and Samyakcharita.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Jainism believes that the universe and all of its substances are eternal and do not
need any power to create or manage it.
● Hence Jainism does not believe in God as a creator, or destroyer. However, the ideology of Jainism believes
that every human being has the ability to become a perfect being.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Jain order has been divided into two major sects, namely Digambara and
Svetamabara. Monks who believe in complete nudity are from the Digambara sect. Those belonging to the
Svetambara sect wear white clothes.
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT-18 (Art & Culture)

(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
pPLT-18 (Art & Culture) B
INSTRUCTIONS
BOOKLET.
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
penalty.
question.
1. Consider the following statements: 3. Consider the following pairs:
1. Ancient Indian University Takshashila Site of Ashoka’s Location in the
is described in Buddhist Jātaka tales major rock edicts State of

1. Dhauli Odisha
2. The Lingaraja temple is a prime
2. Erragudi Andhra Pradesh
example of the Pala School of
3. Jaugada Madhya Pradesh
Architecture prominent in Eastern
4. Kalsi Karnataka
India.
How many pair(s) given above is/are
3. North Indian Temples are notable for correctly matched?
their absence of “Gopurams” (a) Only one pair
How many of the statement(s) given above (b) Only two pairs
is/are correct? (c) Only three pairs
(a) Only one (d) All four pairs
(b) Only two
(c) All three 4. Consider the following statements:
(d) None 1. The dance form has themes related to
Shaivism, regional deities and
Shaktism.
2. Consider the following pairs of Caves and
2. It is performed as a dance-drama, and
the paintings found within them:
its frequent themes are the love stories
1. Painting of Persian Ajanta Caves
of Krishna and Radha.
Ambassador
3. Rabindranath Tagore has been credited
2. Carpenter’s Cave Ellora Caves
to revive this dance form in
3. Trimurti Sadashiva Elephanta Caves
contemporary times.
How many of the pairs given above is/are
Which Indian Dance form is being
correctly matched?
described above?
(a) Only one pair
(a) Kuchipudi
(b) Only two pairs
(b) Odissi
(c) All three pairs (c) Manipuri
(d) None of the above (d) Mohiniattam
5. Consider the following statements with 7. Consider the following pairs
respect to the Dhyan Mudra of Buddha. Embroidery From
1. Pipili Odisha
1. It is the mudra that represents
2. Phulkari Punjab
‘Samadhi’ or ‘Yogamudra’. 3. Gota Bihar
2. It signifies calling the earth to witness How many of the pair(s) given above is/are
the truth and represents the Buddha correctly matched?
attaining enlightenment. (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
3. It symbolizes the Buddha's
(c) All three pairs
enlightenment under the Bodhi tree (d) None of the pairs
4. It was assumed by the Buddha before
attaining Enlightenment under the 8. With reference to the Pala School of Art,
Bodhi tree. consider the following statements:
1. They were mostly miniature paintings.
2. The paintings are in the form of
is/are correct? manuscripts on palm leaves.
(a) Only one 3. It mostly belongs to the Vajrayana
(b) Only two School of Buddhism.
(c) Only three
correct?
(d) All Four (a) Only one
(b) Only two
6. Consider the following with respect to the (c) All three
Somnath Temple in Gujarat: (d) None
1. The current temple's reconstruction

9. Consider the following regarding the Indus
was started under the orders of Indira Valley Civilisation:
Gandhi in 1980. 1. Urban Architecture was traditionally
2. The present Somnath temple was divided into parts citadel and lower town.
reconstructed in the Māru-Gurjara style 2. A notable feature of Indus Valley sites
has been the presence of multiple
of Temple Architecture temples throughout the towns.
3. Amongst its many destructions, it was 3. The civilisation also features a
also destroyed by Alaudin Khalji. primitive form of alphabetic script
which has not been deciphered yet.
(d) None (d) None
10. Consider the following statements: 12. Consider the following statements about
1. This school of painting featured the Odisha temple architecture:
miniatures through the work of artist 1. The temples of Odisha constitute a
Devadasi. distinct substyle within the Dravidian
2. A prominent work within this school temple architecture order.
has been the series of paintings on the
2. The main architectural features of
Gita Govinda
Odisha temples are classified in three
3. There is also a use of beetles wings for
orders, i.e., rekhapida, pidhadeul and
showing diamonds in ornaments.
khakra.
Which school of Indian Painting is being
3. The exterior of the temples are lavishly
described above?
carved, their interiors generally quite
(a) Bundi School of Painting
bare.
(b) Basohli School of Painting
(c) Deccani School of Painting
is/are INCORRECT?
(d) Kalighat School of Painting
(a) Only one
1. Kalyana Mandapa meant to celebrate (c) All three

divine weddings was a unique (d) None
sculptural feature of King
Krishnadevarya. 13. Consider the following pairs with reference
2. Rulers of Vijayanagara innovated the to themes of sculptures and rock-cut caves
idea of displaying the Royal portrait in which they have been carved:
sculpture in temples and shrines.
Theme Cave
3. Hazara Rama Temple was a private
1. Andhakasuravadha Elephanta caves
temple of the Vijayanagara empire 2. Ardhanarishwara Ellora caves
meant to be used only for kings and 3. Mara Vijaya Ajanta
their families.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
How many of the statement(s) given above matched?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) 3 only
(c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
14. The temples are surrounded by high 16. The well known mural fresco paintings of
boundary walls. The crowning element is “Flying Apsara” and “Dying Princess”
belongs to the:
shaped in the form of an octagon and is
(a) Bagh painting
known as shikhara. The entrance of the (b) Sittanavasal Painting
garbhagriha had sculptures of Dwaarpal, (c) Lepakshi temple painting
mithun and yaksha. Water tank inside the (d) Ajantha Painting
temple is a unique feature of this style."
17. Consider the following statement about
Which temple architecture style/school has Ajanta cave paintings:
been described in the above paragraph? 1. Ajanta is the only surviving example of
painting of the first century BCE and
(a) Maru- Gurjara school
the fifth century CE.
(b) Vesara school 2. The images of Padmapani and
(c) Dravidian school Vajrapani are very common in Ajanta
paintings
(d) Nagara school
3. The painting techniques at Ajanta are
similar to European fresco techniques.
15. Consider the following statements How many of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
regarding temple architecture in India:
(a) Only one
1. In Khajuraho school both the interior (b) Only two
and exterior walls were lavishly (c) All three
decorated with carvings and are mostly (d) None
made up of sandstone
18. With reference to folk paintings in India,
2. In Solanki school the walls are devoid which of the following statements is
of any carving and they used a variety incorrect?
(a) Madhubani paintings are two-
of material to make temples.
dimensional paintings themed on
3. The Nayaka school of architecture, religious motifs.
also known as Madurai school, has an (b) Thangka paintings belong to Himachal
Pradesh and are based on Buddhist
Islamic influence.
ideals.
How many of the statement(s) given above (c) Warli paintings are drawn on walls
is/are correct? using triangles, circles and squares.
(d) Pithora paintings are drawn by
(a) Only one
brahmin communities in Punjab and
(b) Only two Haryana region and depiction of
(c) All three animals is a common theme.
(d) None
reference to Mughal Era paintings: respect to classical dance forms of India:
1. Mughals brought the technique of 1. At present, there are 8 classical dance
foreshortening to India. forms recognised by Sangeet Natak
Akademi.
2. The defining features of paintings in
2. ‘Fire Dance‘ is another name of
Akbar’s period are the use of 3
Sattriya dance form.
dimensional figures.
3. Mangalacharan is the opening ritual of
3. During the reign of Shahjahan, the
Odissi dance form.
practice of decorated margins around
the paintings was developed.
is/are correct?
(c) All three
(d) None 22. With reference to a cave painting, consider
the following:
20. With reference to Kalbelia dance of India, 1. The unique feature of the paintings is
that each female figure has a unique
Consider the following statement.
hairstyle.
1. It is a UNESCO Intangible heritage
2. The common themes of these paintings
sensual dance form performed by
range from Jataka stories to the life of
Kalbelia tribes from Rajasthan.
Buddha
2. In Kalbelia dance, Men perform the 3. The walls of the caves have both
swirls replicating the movement of murals and fresco paintings.
snakes while dancing 4. The outline of the figures is red ochre,
3. Kalbelia tribes use only pungi (Been) with contours of brown, black or deep
as musical instruments. red.
How many of the statement(s) given above Identify the cave painting from the options
is/are INCORRECT? given below:
(a) Only one (a) Ellora Cave Painting
(b) Only two (b) Bagh Cave Painting

(c) Ajanta Cave Painting
(c) All three
(d) Ravan Chhaya Rock Shelter
(d) None
23. Ragas and Rasas are two important 25. With reference to Dhrupad Music, consider
components of the Indian Classical music. the following statements:
1. It is one of the oldest forms of Carnatic
Which of the following best describes the
music and also mentioned in
difference between the two? Natyashastra.
(a) Raga is the base of the musical rhythm 2. Swami Haridas and Tansen are
and Rasa is the basis of melody associated with the Dhrupad music and
contemporary of Akbar.
(b) Raga is an emotional response to the
3. Dhrupad starts with Alap and Dhrupad
melodic composition called Rasa compositions have four parts or
(c) Both Raga and Rasa are same and only stanzas.
differ when used with different Talas.
is/are correct?
(d) Raga is a subtle and aesthetic melodic (a) Only one
form while Rasa is emotions which are (b) Only two
evoked through it. (c) All three
(d) None

26. With reference to the cultural history of
regarding Indian Puppetry: India, consider the following statements:
1. The origin of puppetry can be found in 1. Purandar Dasa is widely referred to as
“Pitamaha or father/grandfather of
Harappan in North as well as Sangam
Carnatic Music”
culture in South India.
2. Purandar Dasa was a contemporary of
2. Kathputli is a form of Shadow Annamacharya.
puppetry while Yampuri is a Rod 3. Purandar Dasa composed sankeertanas
in praise of Lord Shiva.
puppetry.
4. Annamacharya composed the famous
Which of the following statement(s) given composition Dasa Sahithya.
above is/are INCORRECT? Select the correct answer by using the
(a) 1 only codes given below:
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All four
27. The terms 'Rupabheda', 'Varnikabhanga' 30. Consider the following statements
and 'Sadrisyam' are related to which of the regarding art forms of the Indus Valley
following? Civilization:
(a) Components of Indian classical drama 1. The statue of "Dancing Girl" is an
as enumerated in Natya Shastra example of a Terracotta art form.
(b) Components of Indian folk dance 2. Seals have commercial as well as
spiritual significance.
(c) Literary devices used in Sangam
3. Northern Black Polished Ware pottery
literature
were important component of Harappa
(d) Principles of ancient Indian paintings
art form.
28. Consider the following excerpt. “A number is/are INCORRECT?
of stupas were built after the death of Lord (a) Only one
Buddha to preserve his relics. Mauryan (b) Only two
King Ashoka opened up most of them and (c) All three
redistributed the relics in thousands of (d) None
newly built stupas.” Which of the
following remains the only undisturbed 31. With reference to the Differences between
original stupa containing the relics of Lord the Nagara Style and the Dravidian Style of
Buddha? Temple Architecture, consider the
(a) Kushinagar following statements:
(b) Vaishali 1. Unlike the Dravida temple, the Nagara
(c) Ramagrama temple is enclosed within a compound
(d) Rajagriha wall.
2. The vimana in the Dravidian style is
like a stepped pyramid that rises up
geometrically rather than the curving
1. Both Gandhara and Mathura schools of shikhara of the Nagara style.
architecture were heavily influenced by 3. The entrance to the nagara style
all three major religions of the time. temple’s Garbhagriha, has images such
2. Unlike the Mathura School of as mithunas and the river goddesses,
Architecture, the Amaravati school and in the Dravida style, generally
primarily used Red Spotted Sandstone sculptures of fierce Dvarapalas or the
for making Buddhist sculptures. door-keepers guarding the temple.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are How many of the statement(s) given above
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
32. With reference to Indian history, consider 34. Consider the following pairs with reference
to themes of sculptures and rock-cut caves
the following monuments/temple:
in which they have been carved
1. Sonagiri Temple 1. Andhakasuravadha - Elephanta caves
2. Shikharji Temple 2. Ardhanarishwara - Ellora caves
3. Mara Vijaya – Ajanta
3. Dharmanath Temple
How many of the Pair(s) given above is/are
4. Kulpakji Temple correctly matched?
How many of the above is a Jain (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pair
monument/ temple?
(c) All three pair
(b) Only two
35. Which of the following edicts describes
(c) Only three Emperor Ashoka’s visit to the birthplace of
(d) All four Lord Buddha?
(a) Maski
(b) Sannati
33. With reference to the Khajuraho School, (c) Rumminidei
consider the following statements: (d) Kalsi
1. The Kalinga rulers developed this style

36. With reference to Hoysala temple
of temple. Architecture, consider the following
statements:
2. The temples were made of sandstone.
1. This style of architecture flourished
3. Panchayatana style of temple making between the 4th and 5th Century AD
was followed. when the Hoysala influence was at its
peak.
4. The temple had two chambers
2. These temples were constructed in the
garbhagriha and mandapa. Vesara Style of Architecture and are
known for their stellate or star-like
pattern.
is/are correct? Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(a) Only one INCORRECT?
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
37. In the context of Medieval art and culture, 40. They are a group of 24 Buddhist caves, also
which of the following phrases describes known as “PandavLeni”. They were carved
“Parchinkari” ?
between 1st century BC and 3rd century
(a) Songs sung by Hindu priests
(b) Decorational element in Indo-Islamic AD and belong to the Hinayana period.
Architecture However, later, the influence of Mahayana
(c) Writing style adopted by Historians of sect can also be found in these caves.
Mughal Court
(d) A form of embroidery during the Lodi Under the Hinayana sect, Buddha’s
Era presence is indicated through the use of
motifs and symbols like throne and
38. The Lion capital at Sarnath was built to
footprints.”
commemorate the first ever sermon of
Buddha, what do the four lions on the Which of the following caves are described
Sarnath pillar symbolise? in the above paragraph?
(a) It symbolises the victory of non-
(a) Nasik Caves
violence (Ahimsa) over violence.
(b) It symbolises the Strength of Dhamma (b) Udayagiri and Khandagiri Caves
over all the evils in human life (c) Barabar and Nagarjuni caves
(c) It depicts the zodiac sign of Leo, the
month in which Buddha was born (d) None of the above
(d) It symbolises Buddha spreading
Dhamma 41. With reference to the Harappan Civilisation
Seals, consider the following statements:
39. The following characteristic features of art
and architecture are during the Mauryan 1. Steatite, a soft stone found in the river
times. beds, was the most commonly used
1. It was heavily influenced by the
material to make seals.
Achaemenid architecture.
2. It saw the emergence of rock-cut cave 2. The script on the seal was pictographic
architecture and these caves had a and written generally from left to right.
simple finish and primitive gateways.
3. The Pashupati Seal was discovered at
3. Mauryan pottery was painted black and
had a simple earthen finish. Mohenjo-Daro.
How many of the statements given above How many of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct with respect to characteristic
is/are correct?
features of art and architecture are during
the Mauryan times. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None
42. Consider the following statements about 44. Consider the following statements
“Mughal coinage" regarding cultural institutions of India:
1. Shahjahan issued gold coins called 1. The Archaeological Survey of India
‘Ilahi coins’ to propagate his new
(ASI) was founded in 1861, which
religious creed ‘Din-i-Illahi’
serves as an attached office of the
2. Sher Shah Suri, a 16th century ruler of
Ministry of Culture.
Afghan lineage introduced the Rupiya,
2. The Centre for Cultural Resources and
a silver currency.
Training (CCRT) was established by
3. The standard gold coin of the Mughals
was the Mohur. the Ministry of Culture to combine
How many of the statement(s) given above education and culture.

is/are INCORRECT? 3. Indian council for cultural education
(a) Only one was founded in 1950 by
(b) Only two MaulanaAbulKalam Azad to develop
(c) All three strong cultural contact with different
(d) None countries.
43. Consider the following statements related given below:
to Yakshagana traditional theatre:
(a) Only one
1. It is a traditional theatre form of
(b) Only two
Tamilnadu.
(c) All three
2. It is based on mythological stories and
Puranas. (d) None
3. It was performed by a community
known as JakkulaVaru in the royal 45. Who among the following was the first to
courts of the Vijayanagar dynasty. introduce the essence of conflict in his
How many of the statement(s) given above Drama?
is/are correct?
(a) Ashvaghosha
(a) Only one
(b) Bhasha
(b) Only two
(c) Sudraka
(c) All three
(d) None (d) Kalidasa
46. Which of the following statements with 48. Consider the following statements
reference to Indian theatres is INCORRECT? regarding Buddhist literature:
(a) AnkiaNaat is a traditional one-act play 1. Jatakas are folklore literature which
of Assam depicting incidents from the contains the teachings (dhamma) and
sermons of Lord Buddha
life of Lord Krishna.
2. Dipavamsa is written in Prakrit
(b) Daskathia is a form of folk theatre
languages and deals with Bodhi Tree's
from Odisha, themes of which revolve
arrival in Sri Lanka
around Lord Shiva.
3. Lalitavistara is a Sanskrit text that
(c) Tamasha is a folk theatre from deals with the tales of previous births
Maharashtra, known for its humour of Buddha in poems
and erotic content. How many of the statement(s) given above
(d) Bhaona is a folk theatre of Jharkhand, is/are INCORRECT?
mainly depicting Vaishnavite themes. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
47. Consider the following statements (c) All three
regarding the Sufi movement in India: (d) None
1. The Chisti Order was established in

49. Regarding the cultural contribution of the
India by KhwajaMuinuddin Chishti
Vijayanagar Kingdom, consider the
who moved to India after the invasion
of Babar.
1. The reign of Krishna Deva Raya in
2. The Chisti silsilah believed in the use Vijayanagara Empire is known as the
of simple language and they accepted Golden Age of Telugu Literature.
grants for their maintenance from the 2. Nine learned literary persons were
Sultans. attached to Krishna Deva Raya’s court
3. The Naqshbandi Silsilah opposed and they were called Navaratnas, the
listening to religious music and the most important one being
AllasaniPeddana.
practice of pilgrimage to the tombs of
3. Krishna deva raya, wrote
saints.
Amuktamalyada and Jambavatikalyana
is/are correct?
is/are correct?
(d) None (d) None
50. With reference to a dance form, consider Identify the dance form from the options
the following statements: given below:
1. It is the traditional dance form of Uttar (a) Kathak
Pradesh. (b) Sattriya
2. Jugalbandi is the main attraction of its (c) Raslila
recital which shows a competitive play (d) Mohiniattam
between the dancer and the table
player.
3. It is generally accompanied by with
dhrupad music.
******
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT-18 (Art & Culture)

1. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Takshashila is described in some detail in later Jātaka tales, written in Sri Lanka around the 5th century CE.
● The Lingaraja temple dedicated to Lord Harihara was built in the Kalinga school of temple The Kaḷinga
architectural style is a style of Hindu architecture which flourished in the ancient Kalinga previously known as
Utkal and in the present eastern Indian state of Odisha. The style consists of three distinct types of temples:
Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula and Khakhara Deula.
In the North Indian Nagara style, the Shikhara remains the most prominent element of the temple and the gateway
is usually modest or even absent.
2. Answer: C
Explanation
Pair 1 is correct.
● A ceiling painting in cave number 1 of Ajanta Caves is related to Persian Ambassador.
● It explains the importance of Persian culture in ancient India.
Pair 2 is correct.
● In Ellora caves, Cave 10 is a chaitya worship hall called the Vishvakarma cave built in 7th century.
● It is also called as Carpenter’s cave because the rock has been given a finish that has the appearance of
wooden beams.
Pair 3 is correct.
● In the first cave of the Elephanta group of caves, a 20-foot-high Trimurti Sadashiva sculpture is one of the
main attractions.
3. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Dhauli: The Dhauli Major Rock Inscription of Ashoka. The front is shaped like an elephant. Dhauli, Khordha
district of Odisha, India.
● Erragudi: Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has geared up for protecting the Ashoka rock edict site near
Erragudi on Gooty-Pathikonda road in the Kurnool district. The inscriptions were one of the important
treasures of Mauryan king Ashoka (269-231 BCE) falling under major and minor rock inscriptions.
● Jaugada: Jaugada is an ancient fort that served as a Mauryan fortified capital of the Kalinga province.
Jaugada is located in Odisha.
● Kalsi: Kalsi (Kālsī) is a town in Dehradun District, Uttarakhand. It is known for the Rock Edicts of Kalsi, a
group of major inscriptions by emperor Ashoka. The Kalsi rock contains the Major Rock Edicts 1 to 14.
4. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Most of the themes are influenced by the Vaishnava theme of Hinduism. There are also themes related to
Shaivism, regional deities and Shaktism. In the Tandava style, Krishna, Shakti or Shiva are portrayed as
warriors.
● Manipuri dance, one of the Indian classical dance forms, named after the region of its origin – Manipur, a
state in northeastern India, is particularly known for its Hindu Vaishnava themes, and exquisite performances
of Raslila, love-inspired dance drama of Radha-Krishna.
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● In order to regain his renown, Rabindranath Tagore brought the Manipuri dance to Santiniketan. Rabindranath
Tagore made the decision to incorporate Manipuri dance into the Santiniketan curriculum in 1919. After seeing a
dancing performance in Sylhet, he made this choice.
5. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The Dhyana mudra is the mudra of meditation, of concentration on the Good law, and of the attainment of
spiritual perfection.
● It is the mudra that represents ‘Samadhi’ or ‘Yogamudra’.
● It shows Buddha with both hands in the lap, the back of the right hand resting on the palm of the left hand
with fingers extended.
● Dhyan mudra signifies the attainment of spiritual perfection, whereas Bhumisparsha mudra signifies
calling the earth to witness the truth and represents the Buddha attaining enlightenment
● Bhumisparsha mudra, formed with all five fingers of the right hand extended to touch the ground, symbolizes
the Buddha's enlightenment under the bodhi tree, when he summoned the earth goddess, Sthavara, to bear
witness to his attainment of enlightenment.
● According to tradition, Dhyana mudra was assumed by the Buddha when meditating under the pipal tree
before his Enlightenment.
o The Bodhi Tree also known as Mahabodhi tree, Bodi Tree or the tree of awakening is a large sacred
(pipal) tree under which Buddha said to have achieved enlightenment.
o It is located near the bank of Niranjna River in Bodh Gaya, Bihar.
o The Buddha is often depicted as practicing dhyana mudra whilst in meditation, and its triangular shape is
said to represent the three jewels of Buddhism: Buddha, sangha (community) and dharma (teachings).
o The connection of the thumbs is also believed to symbolize the union of male and female principles that
are present in every human being.
6. Answer: B
Explanation
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The contemporary Somnath temple's reconstruction was started under the orders of
the first Deputy Prime Minister of India Vallabhbhai Patel after receiving approval for reconstruction from
Mahatma Gandhi. The reconstruction was completed in May 1951 after his death.
● Statement 2 is correct: After India's independence, those ruins were demolished and the present Somnath
temple was reconstructed in the Māru-Gurjara style of Hindu temple architecture.
● Statement 3 is correct: During its 1299 invasion of Gujarat, Alauddin Khalji's army, led by Ulugh Khan,
defeated the Vaghela king Karna, and sacked the Somnath temple
7. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is correct: Embroidery art like Applique or Pipili work is practiced in Pipli village in Odisha. It is also
known as Chandua. The appliqué craft reached its peak in the 11th century AD, under the patronage of the
king and nobility. A craft that originated as a temple art now finds its application in a wide range of
household, decorative and ceremonial products.
● Pair 2 is correct: Phulkari, which literally means ‘making flowers’.

Page. 3
Phulkari embroidery first began in Punjab in the 15th century by the women of Punjab. It is the rural handmade
embroidery tradition of Punjab and is also known as the folk embroidery of Punjab. Even though Phulkari means
floral work, the designs in this embroidery comprised not only flowers but also included various motifs and
geometrical patterns and shapes.
The Phulkari embroidery is overall very bright, and vibrant and it brings colour to people’s lives.
It is prevalent in Punjab, Haryana, and Delhi.
● Pair 3 is incorrect: Gota Work (also known as Gota Patti Work, Gota-Kinari work or Lappe ka Kaam) is
a type of metal embroidery that originated in Rajasthan, India. The cities of Jaipur, Bikaner, Ajmer, Udaipur
and Kota are the epicentre of uniquely styled Gota work. Elaborate patterns are created
using applique techniques with metals like gold, silver, copper etc.
8. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Pala School represents one of the earliest examples of miniature painting in India.
The Buddhist monasteries (maha viharas) of Nalanda, Odantapuri, Vikramsila, and Somarupa were great
centers of Buddhist learning and art.
● Statement 2 is correct: The paintings are in the form of manuscripts on palm-leaf relating to Buddhist
themes. The images of Buddhist deities at these centers which also had workshops for the casting of bronze
images. Students and pilgrims from all over South-East Asia gathered there for education and religious
instruction. The extant illustrated manuscripts of the Pala Empire mostly belong to the Vajraya School of
Buddhism.
● Statement 3 is correct: The surviving examples of the Pala illustrated manuscripts mostly belong to the
Vajrayana School of Buddhism. The Buddhist monasteries (maha viharas) of Nalanda, Odantapuri,
Vikramsila and Somarupa were great centres of Buddhist learning and art. Students and pilgrims from all over
South-East Asia gathered there for education and religious instruction. They took back to their countries
examples of Pala Buddhist art, in the form of bronzes and manuscripts which helped to carry the Pala style to
Nepal, Tibet, Burma, Sri Lanka, Java, etc.
9. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Towns were divided into parts namely citadel and lower town. Citadels were
occupied by members of the ruling class and the lower town was inhabited by the common people.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: In contrast to Egyptian and Mesopotamian civilizations, the Indus Valley
Civilization seems to have lacked any temples or palaces that would give clear evidence of religious rites or
specific deities.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: More than 4000 specimens of scripts were found in excavations. The script,
however, is not alphabetical but pictographic and it has not been deciphered yet.
10. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Raja Kripal Pal was a patron of this school of Pahari art.
● In 1694 A.D., a miniature artist by the name of Devidasa created the Rasamanjari drawings.
● Another well-known illustration from this school of painting dates to 1730 AD and is taken from a
series of paintings by Manaku of the Gita Govinda.
● The facial type changes, becoming a little heavier, while the tree forms take on a more naturalistic appearance,
possibly as a result of the Mughal painting's influence.
● This miniature can be recognised by its use of strong, contrasting colours, monochromatic background, big
eyes, bold drawing, use of beetle wings to show diamonds in jewels, narrow sky, and red border.

Page. 4
11. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Kalyana Mandapa is an open pavilion meant for ceremonies involving the symbolic
marriage of the temple's divinity to his consort. Its interior, surrounded by impressive columns containing a
platform in the centre for the performance of sacred dances, was a unique sculptural feature of King
Krishnadevarya.
● Statement 2 is correct: Rulers of Vijayanagara innovated and developed the tradition of displaying the Royal
portrait sculpture in temples, and King’s Visit to temples were treated as important state occasions on which
the King was accompanied by the important nayakas of the empire.
● Statement 3 is correct: Hazara Rama Temple was built in the early part of the 15th century by the then king
of Vijayanagara, Devaraya II. The temple is dedicated to Lord Rama, a hindu deity. It was once the private
temple of the kings and the royal family of Vijayanagara. The temple is famous for the relics and panels
depicting the story of the epic Ramayana.
12. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The temples of Odisha constitute a distinct substyle within the nagara order. In
general, here the shikhara, called deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top when it suddenly curves
sharply inwards. Deuls are preceded, as usual, by mandapas called jagamohana in Odisha. The ground plan of
the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in
the crowning mastaka.
● Statement 2 and 3 are correct: The main architectural features of Odisha temples are classified in three
orders, i.e., rekhapida, pidhadeul and khakra. Most of the main temple sites are located in ancient Kalinga—
modern Puri District, including Bhubaneswar or ancient Tribhuvanesvara, Puri and Konark. Compartments
and niches are generally square, the exterior of the temples are lavishly carved, their interiors generally quite
bare. Odisha temples usually have boundary walls.
13. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is incorrect: The theme of Andhakasuravadha is sculpted at the Kailash temple in Ellora caves. It
shows Shiva as the destroyer of the asura Andhaka who had abducted Parvati. In Kailash temple, the
Andhakasuravadha finds place separately as well as with the story of Gajantaka (slayer of the elephant demon,
Gajasura) four times.

Page. 5
● Pair 2 is incorrect: The theme of Ardhanarishwara is sculpted in the caves of Elephanta. Ardhanarishvara,
literally translates into the god (Siva) half female, which represents a composite androgynous form of the
Hindu god Shiva on right and his consort Parvathi on left half, split down the middle. It represents the
synthesis of masculine and feminine energies of the universe and illustrates how Shakti (represented as
Parvati), the female principle of God, is inseparable from Shiva, the male principle of God.
● Pair 3 is correct: The theme of Mara Vijaya has been sculpted in the caves of Ajanta. It shows the image of
the Buddha in the centre surrounded by Mara’s army along with his daughter. The event is part of the
enlightenment. It is a personification of the commotion of mind which the Buddha went through at the time of
enlightenment. Mara represents desire. According to the narrative, there is a dialogue between the Buddha and
Mara, and the Buddha is shown with his right hand pointing towards earth as a witness to his generosity.
14. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option C is correct: After the decline of the Pallava dynasty, temple architecture acquired a new style under
the Chola kingdom, known as the Dravidian style of temple architecture. This marked a new era in the
development of temples in South India. It was a continuation of the previous Pallava architecture, with some
variations. This is what came to be known as the Dravidian style of temple architecture. Brihadeeswara
Temple at Thanjavur (built by Raja Raja I in 1011 AD), Gangaikondacholapuram Temple (built by Rajendra I
to commemorate his victory in the Gangetic delta), etc. are examples of Dravidian style of temple architecture.
The features of the Dravidian style:
⮚ Unlike the Nagara temples, the Dravidian temples were surrounded by high boundary walls.
⮚ The front wall had a high entrance gateway known as gopuram.
⮚ The temple premise was laid out in panchayatan style with a principal temple and four subsidiary shrines.
⮚ Under Dravidian style, the spire is in the form of a stepped pyramid that rises up linearly rather than
curved. It is known as vimana.
⮚ The crowning element is shaped in the form of an octagon and is known as shikhara. It is similar to the
kalash of the Nagara temple, but not spherical.
⮚ There is only one vimana in the Dravidian architecture on top of the main temple. The subsidiary shrines
do not have vimanas, unlike Nagara architecture.
⮚ The assembly hall was connected with the garbhagriha by a vestibular tunnel known as antarala.
⮚ The entrance of the garbhagriha had sculptures of Dwaarpal, mithun and yaksha.
⮚ The presence of a water tank inside the temple enclosure was a unique feature of the Dravidian style.
15. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Khajuraho School or Chandel School: In the central part of India, the Chandela rulers
developed a distinct style of temple making of their own known as Khajuraho School or Chandel School. The
features of the temples here include: Both the interior and exterior walls were lavishly decorated with carvings
mostly made up of sandstone .The sculptures were generally erotic in their theme . The temples had three
chambers garbhagriha, 23 mandapa, and Ardha-mandapa. Some temples had a vestibular entrance to the
garbhagriha known as antarala.The temples were generally north or east facing . Panchayatan style of temple
making was followed . Subsidiary shrines also had a Rekha prasad shikharas that created an impression of a
mountain range. The temples were built on a relatively high platform. The temples belong to both Hindu as
well as Jain religion can be found . Examples of Khajuraho school are Kandariya Mahadeva Temple,
Lakshman Temple at Khajuraho, etc.
● Statement 2 is correct: Solanki School: (Also Known As Maru-Gurjara Style) In the northwestern parts of
India including Gujarat and Rajasthan, this school developed under the patronage of the Solanki rulers. The
features of this school are: Devoid of any carvings and used a variety of material to make temples including
sandstone, black basalt, and soft marble. Most of the temples are east-facing and designed such that every

Page. 6
year, during the equinoxes, the sun rays fall directly into the central shrine. A unique feature of this school is
the presence of steptank, known as Surya-kund in the proximity of the temple , the steps of the tank are full of
small temples.
● Statement 3 is correct: Nayaka School or Madurai school: The Nayaka school of architecture flourished
under the Nayaka rulers in the period between 16th centuries and 18th centuries A.D. It was architecturally
similar to the Dravidian style but much larger in scope. It also has an Islamic influence. Some of the unique
features are: Presence of Prakarms or huge corridors in the portico, around the garbhagriha, along with roofed
ambulatory passageways , Largest gopurams ( Example- The Meenakshi temple in Madurai has the tallest
gopuram) . The art of gopuram reached its climax in the Nayaka style and temple structure was filled with
intricate carvings.
16. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is correct: Ajantha paintings are a unique example of the presence of both murals and fresco
paintings. The figures in these caves were done using fresco painting. The outlines of the paintings were done
in red colour. One of the striking features is the absence of blue colour in the paintings.The paintings are
generally themed around Buddhism – the life of Buddha and Jataka stories. Some of the famous paintings -
Flying Apsara, Padmapani Bodhisattva, Dying Princess, Vajrapani Bodhisattva etc.
17. Answer: C
Explanation:
● The Ajanta caves are situated at a distance of about 100 km north of Aurangabad in Maharashtra. Ajanta has
twenty-nine caves. It has four chaitya caves datable to the earlier phase, i.e., the second and the first century
BCE (Cave Nos. 10 and 9) and the later phase, i.e., the fifth century CE (Cave Nos. 19 and 26). It has large
chaitya viharas and is decorated with sculptures and paintings. Ajanta is the only surviving example of a
painting of the first century BCE and the fifth century CE.
● Statement 1 is correct: The themes of the paintings are the events from the life of the Buddha, the Jatakas
and the Avadanas.paintings such as Simhala Avadana, Mahajanaka Jataka and Vidhurpundita Jataka cover the
entire wall of the cave. Paintings of two archetypal bodhisattva figures are found in the Ajanta Caves in
Maharashta, India. These figures flank a statue of the Buddha. The one on the left is named Padmapani, and
the one to the right is named Vajrapani.
● Statement 2 is correct: Fresco is a technique of mural painting executed upon freshly laid ("wet") lime
plaster. Water is used as the vehicle for the dry-powder pigment to merge with the plaster, and with the setting
of the plaster, the painting becomes an integral part of the wall.
● Statement 3 is correct: The painting techniques at Ajanta are similar to European fresco technique. The
primary difference is that the layer of plaster was dry when it was painted. First, a rough plaster of clay, cow
dung, and rice husks were pressed on to the rough cave walls. This was then coated with lime paste in order to
create a smooth working surface. The dark outlines of the figures were then added followed by a pallete of
only 6 colors. The pigments the artists used came from natural resources: red and yellow ocher, crushed green
malachite, blue lapis lazuli, etc.
18. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: Madhubani Paintings are traditionally done by the women of villages around Madhubani
town (Bihar), it is also called Mithila Paintings. The paintings have a common theme and are usually drawn
from religious motifs of the Hindus, including Krishna, Rama, Durga, Lakshmi and Shiva. The figures in the
painting are symbolic, for example, fish depicts good luck and fertility. 30 There is no shading and the
paintings are twodimensional.
● Option B is correct: Thangka paintings belong to Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh, Ladakh region and Arunachal
Pradesh. These paintings were originally used as a medium of reverence that evoked the highest ideals of
Page. 7
Buddhism. Traditionally made by Buddhist monks and particular ethnic groups, the skill of these paintings has
been passed from one generation to the other.
● Option C is correct: The tradition of Warli paintings goes back to 2500-3000 BC. These paintings are drawn
by Warli, indigenous people of Gujarat-Maharashtra border. These paintings have close resemblance to the
mural paintings of Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh. Traditionally, the paintings are done on walls using basic
graphic vocabulary, including a triangle, a circle and a square. To represent a human or animal, two triangles
are joined at the tip, with circles acting like their head.
● Option D is incorrect: Pithora paintings are done by some tribal communities of Gujarat and Madhya
Pradesh and are said to serve religious and spiritual purposes. They are painted in the walls of the houses to
bring peace and prosperity. They are drawn on special family occasions as a ritual. Depictions of animals are
common, especially horses.
19. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Mughals made miniature paintings but the illustrations in paintings are considered amongst the most unique
paintings in the world. These paintings were considered unique because of the use of brilliant colours. The
painters were supposed to concentrate on ensuring the accuracy of line drawing. Except for religious
paintings, the Mughals were known for their diverse themes.
● Statement 1 is correct: Mughals brought the technique of foreshortening to the Indian painter’s repertoire.
Under this technique, “objects were drawn in a way that they look closer and smaller than they really are.”
● Statement 2 is correct: Akbar also recognised the beauty of those Indian artists who had worked for previous
rulers and invited them to work in his tasvir khana. Hence, the ‘Indian influence’ started in the Mughal
paintings. The defining features of paintings in Akbar’s period are the use of 3 dimensional figures and the
continued use of foreshortening. 31
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The practice of decorated margins around the paintings developed during the reign
of Jahangir, which were sometimes as elaborate as the paintings themselves.
20. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Kalbelia is a dance form that is associated with a Rajasthani tribe of the same name
kalbelia. The dance form consists of swirling and graceful movements that make this dance a treat to behold. Kalbelia
dance is included in UNESCO’s list of the Cultural 33 Heritage of Humanity from the year 2010.
● Statement 2 is Incorrect: The dancers are women in flowing black skirts who dance and swirl, replicating
the movements of a serpent. The clothes are mixed in red and black hues and embroidered in unique patterns.
● Statement 3 is Incorrect: Kalbelia dance has a traditional musical instrument which is Poongi also called
been. Other traditional musical instruments used by the Kalbelia tribe in Kalbelia dance are Dufli, Morchang,
Dholak, Khanjari and Khuralio.
Performed By: Women from Kalbelia community. Performance Occasions: Kalbelia songs are based on stories
taken from folklore and mythology and special dances are performed during Holi
21. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Presently there are eight classical dances that are recognised by Sangeet Natak
Akademi along with the Union Ministry of Culture. These are: o Bharatanatyam from Tamil Nadu o
Kuchipudi from Andhra Pradesh o Kathakali from Kerala o Mohiniattam from Kerala o Odissi from Odisha o
Manipuri from Manipur o Kathak from Uttar Pradesh o Sattriya from Assam
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It is Bharatnatyam and not Sattriya dance that is referred to as ‘fire dance’. It is
called so because it is considered as the manifestation of fire in the human body. Most of the movements in
Bharatanatyam resemble that of a dancing flame.

Page. 8
● Statement 3 is correct: The opening item is Mangalacharan where the dancer slowly enters the stage with
flowers in her hands and makes an offering to mother earth. This is followed by an invocation to the deity of
the dancer's choice. Generally, Ganesha is called upon to grant an auspicious beginning. The item ends with a
nritta sequence with salutations to God, the Guru and the audience.
22. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option C is Correct: One of the oldest surviving murals of the Indian subcontinent, Ajanta caves were
carved in the 4th century AD out of volcanic rocks. There are a total of 29 caves (all buddhist) of which 25
were used as Viharas or residential caves while 4 were used as Chaitya or prayer halls. These caves are quite
popular for their exquisite mural paintings that took around four to five centuries to complete under the reign
of the Mauryan Empire. Murals in cave no. 9 and 10 belong to the Sunga period, while the rest belong to the
Gupta period. The paintings in cave no. 1 and 2 are the most recent of the caves in Ajanta. Ajanta is a series of
rock-cut caves in the Sahyadri ranges (Western Ghats) on Waghora river near Aurangabad in Maharashtra.
● The walls of the caves have both murals and fresco paintings (painted on wet plaster). They use tempera style,
i.e. use of pigments. The paintings portray human values and social fabric along with styles, costumes and
ornaments of that period. The emotions are expressed through hand gestures. The unique feature of the
paintings is that each female figure has a unique hairstyle. Even animals and birds are shown with emotions.
The common themes of these paintings range from Jataka stories to the life of Buddha to elaborate decorative
patterns of flora and fauna. Graceful poses of humans and animals adorn the walls of the caves. The medium
of painting was vegetable and mineral dyes. The outline of the figures is red ochre, with contours of brown,
black or deep red. Scenes from the Jataka stories of the Buddha’s former lives as a bodhisattva, the life of the
Gautama Buddha, etc
23. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is correct: Raga: The word ‘raga’ comes from the Sanskrit word ‘Ranj’, which literally means to
delight or to be happy and satisfy a person. The ragas form the basis of melody, while the tala becomes the
basis of the rhythm. Each melodic structure of the raga has something similar to a distinct personality, subject
and a mood evoked by the sounds. The basic element necessary for the working of a raga is the note on which
they are based.
● Rasa: The reason behind the creation of ragas was to evoke emotional responses in the performer and the
audience. These emotions, which are evoked through the singing and playing of instruments are called Rasas.
The rasas have also been called the ‘aesthetic delight’ as they are consciously made to feel an emotion through
someone else’s art, even though they are free from the limitations of personal feelings. Initially, there were
eight rasas, but later another rasa called the ‘shanta’ rasa was added to make nine rasas or ‘Nauras’.
24. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Puppets with sockets have been discovered in the Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro
excavation sites, indicating that puppetry was a popular art form in those days. Around 500 BC, several
allusions to marionette theater have been discovered. Puppetry is mentioned in the Tamil classic
Silappadikaram, written during the first and second centuries BC which is prominent Sangam literature, as
well as in the Mahabharata.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Kathputli, Rajasthan's traditional string puppets, gets its name from the words
"Kath" and "putli," which mean "wood" and "doll," respectively.The puppets are dressed in vibrant Rajasthani
traditional attire. A dramatic folk music score is used to accompany the show while the puppeteer's finger is
linked to the strings.The puppets' lack of legs is a distinguishing trait. Yampuri is Bihar's traditional rod
puppet. The puppets employed in this art form are made of wood and manipulated by strings. Unlike the
puppets of kathi kundhei nacha and daanger putul – forms of rod-puppetry from Odisha and West Bengal

Page. 9
respectively – the puppets used in yampuri do not have joints. They are carved from a single piece of wood,
then painted and clothed in vibrant colors.
● ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: Yampuri derives its name from its central theme – the depiction of Yama,
the Hindu god of death, and the concepts of heaven and hell in the Hindu religious tradition. The
performances were meant to be morally instructive and inspire a fear of the afterlife in the audience.
25. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Dhrupad is one of the oldest and grandest forms of Hindustani classical music and
finds its mention even in Natyashastra (200 BC–200 AD). It is said that Dhrupad owes its roots to older forms
like Prabhanda and Dhruvapada. The name is derived from ‘dhruva’ and ‘pada,’ which means that it denotes
both verse form of the poetry and the style in which it is sung. Dhrupad consolidated its position as a classical
form of music in the 13th century and reached its zenith in the court of emperor Akbar.
● Statement 2 is correct: Akbar employed and patronised musical masters like Baba Gopal Das, Swami
Haridas and Tansen, who was considered to be one of the Navaratna or nine gems of the Mughal court. It is
also speculated that Baiju Bawra sang at the court of Akbar. We find evidence of singers who mastered
Dhrupad in the court of Raja Man Singh Tomar in Gwalior. Dhrupad became the major form of singing in the
medieval period but fell in a state of decline in the 18th century.
● Statement 3 is correct: Dhrupad is essentially a poetic form that is incorporated into an extended
presentation style that is marked by precise and overt elaboration of a raga. Dhrupad starts with Alap which is
sung without words. The tempo rises gradually, and it is the major part of the performance. The alap evokes a
mood in the audience that coincides with the mood of the raga that is chosen. Alap is pure music without the
distraction of words.Then after some time, Dhrupad begins and Pakhawaj is played. Dhrupad includes use of
sanskrit syllables and is of temple origin. Dhrupad compositions usually have four Stanzas and are performed
by a duo. Generally two male vocalists perform Dhrupad style of performances. Dagari Gharana, Darbhanga
Gharana, Bettiah Gharana, Talwandi Gharana.
26. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is Correct: Purandara Dasa - (1484- 1564) is one of the earliest founding proponents of Carnatic
music. Hence, he was also widely referred to as “Pitamaha or father/grandfather of Carnatic Music”.
● Statement 2 is Correct: Purandara Dasa (1484- 1564) and Annamacharya— (1408-1503) as evident were
contemporaries. Annamacharya is also the first known composer of Carnatic Music:
● Statement 3 is Incorrect: Purandar Dasa was a devotee of Lord Krishna and his many compositions were
devoted to Lord Krishna. Annamacharya, on the other hand, composed sankeertanas in praise of Lord
Venkateswara, a form of Lord Vishnu.
● Statement 4 is Incorrect: Dasa Sahithya is a famous composition of Purandar Dasa and not Annamacharya.
Purandar Dasa is also believed to be an avatar or incarnation of sage Narada.
27. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is correct: In the 3rd century AD, Vatsyayana in his book Kamasutra enumerated about six main
principles/limbs or Shadanga of paintings.
They are:
⮚ Rupabheda- Variety of form
⮚ Pramanam- Proportion of the object or subject
⮚ Bhava- Creation of luster and gleam with the colours
⮚ Lavanya Yojanam- Immersion of emotions
⮚ Sadrisyam- Portrayal of likeliness of the subject
⮚ Varnikabhanga- Mixing of colours to resemble the effects of modeling.
Page. 10
28. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option C is correct: Stupas were burial mounds prevalent in India from the Vedic period. It is a conventional
representation of a funeral cumulus in which 3 relics and ashes of the dead were kept. · The locations of the 9
stupas built after the death of Buddha are Rajagriha, Vaishali, Kapilavastu, Allakappa, Ramagrama,
Vethapida, Pava, Kushinagar and Pippalivana. After his Death, Mauryan Emperor Ashoka decided to open up
all the great stupas that had been built to preserve the bodily remains of the Buddha and distribute them
among a much larger number of Stupas. According to Buddhist Texts, he built over 84000 new stupas with
these relics. o Of all the Stupas built on the remains of the Buddha, the only one he did not open was the
Ramagrama stupa (NEPAL), also known as the stupa of the Nagas.
29. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The combination of these Greco-Roman and Indian ideas along with the influence
of other foreign traditions such as from China and Iran resulted in the formation of a distinct style known as
the Gandhara School of art. This style of art was closely associated with Mahayana Buddhism and hence the
main theme of this art was Lord Buddha and Bodhisattvas. There was little to no influence of Jainism and
Hinduism in Gandhara school .The Gandhara school of Art was based on Greco-Roman norms adopting
foreign techniques while the Mathura school of Art was totally Indian. It was the outcome of the religious zeal
of Brahmanism, Buddhism and Jainism. The images were modelled on the earlier Yaksha images found
during the Mauryan period.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The sculptures of Amaravati School were made using white marbles. The
sculptures of Mathura School were made using spotted red sandstone, available locally in the Yamuna Valley.
On the other hand, the Early Gandhara school used bluish-grey sandstone while the later period saw the use of
mud and stucco.
30. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Dancing Girl is a bronze statuette created over 4,500 years ago and is a rare
and unique masterpiece. It was found in the ancient Mohenjo-Daro site in 1926. The bronze girl was made
using the lost-wax casting technique and shows the expertise of the people in making bronze works during
that time. Hence Dancing Girl is a bronze art rather than a terracotta art.
● Statement 2 is correct: Thousands of seals have been discovered by archaeologists from the Harappan sites.
⮚ Most of the seals were made of steatite, which is a kind of soft stone. A few of them were also made of
terracotta, gold, agate, chert, ivory and faience.
⮚ It is believed that the seals were used for commercial purposes. Seals were also carried as amulets,
perhaps as a kind of identity card.
⮚ The most remarkable seal is the one depicted with a figure in the center and animal surrounds.
⮚ This seal is generally identified as the Pashupati Seal. Some scholars identify it as a female deity. Hence it
shows its spiritual significance as well.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Pottery traditions that existed during Indus Valley period include Polished Ware
Pottery with rough surface, Burial Pottery of Harappa, Ochre colored pottery (OCP), Black-gray burnished
ware, Black-on-red ware, Gray-ware and Painted gray-ware . Northern Black Polished Ware is an urban Iron
Age Indian Culture of the Indian Subcontinent, lasting c. 700–200 BCE (proto NBPW between 1200 and 700
BCE). It developed beginning around 700 BCE, in the late Vedic period, and peaked from c. 500–300 BCE,
coinciding with the emergence of 16 great states or Mahajanapada in Northern India, and the subsequent rise
of the Mauryan Empire.

Page. 11
31. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike the nagara temple, the dravida temple is enclosed within a compound wall.
The front wall has an entrance gateway in its centre, which is known as a gopuram.
● Statement 2 is correct: The shape of the main temple tower known as vimana in Tamil Nadu is like a stepped
pyramid that rises up geometrically rather than the curving shikhara of North India. In the South Indian
temple, the word ‘shikhara’ is used only for the crowning element at the top of the temple which is usually
shaped like a small stupika or an octagonal cupolathis is equivalent to the amlak and kalasha of North Indian
temples.
● Statement 3 is correct:Whereas at the entrance to the North Indian temple’s garbhagriha, it would be usual to
find images such as mithunas and the river goddesses, Ganga and Yamuna, in the south you will generally
find sculptures of fierce dvarapalas or the door-keepers guarding the temple.
32. Answer: D
Explanation:
All the temples given above belong to Jaina monuments and architecture.
● Sonagiri Temple: The Sonagiri Temple is about 60 km from Gwalior, has scores of Jain temples dating from
the 9th century onwards. According to Jain texts, since the time of Chandraprabhu (the 8th Teerthankar), five
and half crores of ascetic saints have achieved moksha (liberation) at Sonagiri Temple. The place is
considered sacred by devotees. There is a 3 meters (9.8 ft) rock cut image of 6 Chandraprabhu dating back to
5th to 6th century.
● Shikharji Temple: Shikharji Temple in Jharkhand is considered as one of the Holiest of all Jain Tirths.
Shikharji Temple in Jharkhand is one of the most visited Jain pilgrimage places. The temple is perched atop
Parasnath Mountain, the highest among the Parasnath Range. This temple is popular among the Jain followers
as this is the place where twenty out of twenty-four Tirthankaras attained Moksha or Freedom from the Cycle
of Rebirth. The name of the temple Shikharji has been given due to its location. Shikharji means the highest or
venerable peak. The temple also gained a name as SammedShikhar or zenith of concentration.
● Dharmanath Temple: Dedicated to the 15th Tirthankara of Jains, is the Dharmanath Temple at Mattancherry
in Kochi, Kerala. The temple is believed to be about 100 years old, and is one of the famous Jain temples with
beautiful marblecut architecture. It was built by King Bhanu Raja and his wife, Queen Suvrata Rani.
Dharmanath was born to King Bhanu Raja and Queen Suvrata Rani at Ratnapuri in the Ikshvaku dynasty.
● Kulpakji Temple: Kulpakji also Kolanupaka Temple is a 2,000 year-old Jain temple in Telangana, India. The
temple houses three idols: one each of Lord Rishabhanatha, Lord Neminatha, and Lord Mahavira. The image
of Lord Rishabhanatha, carved of a green stone, has been historically famous as "Manikyaswami" and
Jivantasvami. The interior of the temple is made of red sandstone and white marble.
33. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chandela rulers developed a distinct style of temple making of their own,
known as Khajuraho School or Chandel School. The temple is built under the Nagara School of temple
architecture. It is located in Central India’s Vindhya Mountain range in Chhatarpur, Madhya Pradesh. They
were built between the tenth and eleventh centuries.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Khajuraho temples were made of sandstone, with a nearly buried granite base.
They are generally north or east facing. They were built on relatively high platforms. The Vaishnavism School
of Hinduism, Shaivism School of Hinduism and Jainism all have temples in Khajuraho. The sculptures were
generally erotic in their themes and drew inspiration from Vatsyayaana’s Kamasutra.
● Statement 3 is correct:Panchayatana Style of temple making was followed. Even the subsidiary shrines had
rekha-prasadshikharas. This created an impression of a mountain range. Panchayatana Style of temple making
consisted of subsidiary shrines laid out in a crucified ground plan with respect to the principal shrine. It is an

Page. 12
architectural style where the main shrine is built on a rectangular plinth with four smaller subsidiary shrines at
the four corners and making it a total of five shrines – i.e., Pancha.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: The temple had three chambers- garbhagriha, mandapa and ardhamandapa. Some
temples had a vestibular entrance to the garbhagriha known as antarala. In these temples, both the interior and
exterior walls were lavishly decorated with carvings. Example: KandariyaMahadeva temple, Lakshman
temple, Viswanath temple, etc
34. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Pair 1 is incorrect: The theme of Andhakasuravadha is sculpted at the Kailash temple in Ellora caves. It
shows Shiva as the destroyer of the asuraAndhaka who had abducted Parvati. In Kailash temple, the
Andhakasuravadha finds place separately as well as with the story of Gajantaka (slayer of the elephant demon,
Gajasura) four times.
● Pair 2 is incorrect: The theme of Ardhanarishwara is sculpted in the caves of Elephanta. Ardhanarishvara,
literally translates into the god (Siva) half female, which represents a composite androgynous form of the
Hindu god Shiva on right and his consort Parvathi on left half, split down the middle. It represents the
synthesis of masculine and feminine energies of the universe and illustrates how Shakti (represented as
Parvati), the female principle of God, is inseparable from Shiva, the male principle of God.
● Pair 3 is correct: The theme of Mara Vijaya has been sculpted in the caves of Ajanta. It shows the image of
the Buddha in the centre surrounded by Mara’s army along with his daughter. The event is part of the
enlightenment. It is a personification of the commotion of mind which the Buddha went through at the time of
enlightenment. Mara represents desire. According to the narrative, there is a dialogue between the Buddha and
Mara, and the Buddha is shown with his right hand pointing towards earth as a witness to his generosity.
35. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option C is correct: Rummindei Pillar Edicts (NEPAL): The inscriptions mention Ashoka’s visit to Lumbini
(Rummindei), Rupandehi district, Nepal, the birthplace of Lord Buddha. Ashoka exempted Lumbini from
paying tax, and fixed its contribution of grain at one – eighth. The inscriptions are written in the Brahmi
script.
36. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Hoysala dynasty ruled in Deccan India about 1006 to about 1346 CE. The capital of
the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur but was later moved to Halebidu. Hoysala architecture developed
under the rule of the Hoysala Empire between the 11th and 14th centuries, in the region known today as
Karnataka, a state of India. Hoysala influence was at its peak in the 13th century, when it dominated the

Page. 13
Southern Deccan Plateau region. Examples of the Hoysala architectural style, including the Chennakesava
Temple at Belur, the Hoysaleswara Temple at Halebidu, and the Kesava Temple at Somanathapura.
● Statement 2 is correct: Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or vesara as their unique style seems
neither completely Dravida nor Nagara, but somewhere in between. o The plan (top view) of these temples
was similar to a star and is known as a stellate plan.
37. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option B is correct:Parchinkari meaning Pietra Dura. Pietradura in the Indian Subcontinent, is a term for the
inlay technique of using cut and fitted, highly polished colored stones to create images. It is considered a
decorative art. The stonework, after the work is assembled loosely, is glued stone-by-stone to a substrate. o
Moti Masjid or Pearl Fort, Diwan-i-aam, Diwan-i-khas, Jami Masjid in New Delhi, Mausoleum built by
Jahangir are some of the other examples where this style can be found. o The particular method of decoration
became more popular under Shah Jahan who used this technique while constructing the Taj Mahal.
38. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is correct:In the abacus of the Sarnath pillar, four animals are shown representing four directions:
A galloping horse (west), an elephant (east), a bull (south) and a lion (north). The animals seem to follow each
other turning the wheel of existence till eternity. The Elephant depicts the dream of Queen Maya, where a
white elephant enters her womb. The Bull depicts the zodiac sign of Taurus, the month in which Buddha was

Page. 14
born. The Horse represents the horse Kanthaka, which Buddha is said to have used for going away from
princely ife. The Lion shows the attainment of enlightenment. The Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the
Law (Dharma Chakra). The four Lions symbolise Buddha spreading Dhamma in all directions. It was built in
commemoration of the first sermon by Buddha known as Dhammachakrapravartana.
39. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct:Achaemenid influence is evident from the design of the Chandragupta Maurya's
palace and Ashokan pillars. The architecture was inspired by Achaemenid palaces at Persepolis in Iran.
Megasthenes described the palace as one of the greatest creations of mankind.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: This period saw the emergence of rock-cut cave architectures. During the Mauryan
period, these caves were generally used as viharas, ie. living quarters, by the Jain and Buddhist monks. While
the early caves were used by the ajivika sect, later, it became popular as Buddhist monasteries. The caves
during the Mauryan period were marked by a highly polished finish of the interior walls and decorative
gateways. For instance, Barabar and Nagarjuni caves in Bihar.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Pottery of the Mauryan period is generally referred to as Northern Black Polished
Ware (NBPW). They were characterised by the black paint and highly lustrous finish and were generally used
as luxury items. They have been often referred to as the highest level of pottery.
40. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option 1 is correct: Nasik Caves It is a
group of 24 Buddhist caves, also known
as “PandavLeni”. They were carved
between 1st century BC and 3rd century
AD and belong to the Hinayana period.
However, later, the influence of
Mahayana sect can also be found in these
caves. Under Hinayana sect, Buddha’s
presence is indicated through the use of
motifs and symbols like throne and
footprints. And later, the idols of Buddha
were also carved inside these caves
representing the influence of 19
Mahayana Buddhism. The site also
depicts an excellent system of water
management indicated through presence
of water tanks carved out of solid rocks.
● Option 2 is incorrect: Udayagiri and
Khandagiri Caves, Odisha They were
made under the Kalinga King Kharavela
in 1st-2nd century BC near modern-day
Bhubaneswar. The cave complex has
both artificial and natural caves. They
were possibly carved out as residence of Jain monks. There are 18 caves in Udayagiri and 15 in Khandagiri.
Udayagiri caves are famous for the Hathigumpha inscription which is carved out in Brahmi script.
● Option 3 is incorrect: Barabar and Nagarjuni caves in Bihar were formed during the time of Ashoka and his
grandson Dasharatha and dates back to 3rd century BC.Barabar caves are a set of 7 rock-cutcaves dating back
to the third century BC. These are located on the twin hills of Barabar and Nagarjuni. These are also known as
Lomas Rishi Cave, Sudama Cave and Vishwamitra Cave among the locals.

Page. 15
41. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Archaeologists have found numerous seals of different shapes and sizes all across the
excavation sites. While most seals are square, it was found that triangular, rectangular and circular seals were
also used. Steatite, a soft stone found in the river beds, was most commonly used material to make seals but
agate, chert, copper, faience and terracotta were also used. Some instances of copper, gold and ivory seals
have also 21 been found.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The script on the seal was written from right to left. Most seals have inscriptions in
a pictographic script. Animal impressions were also there, generally five, which were carved intaglio on the
surface. The common animal motifs were unicorn, humped bull, rhinoceros, tiger, elephant, buffalo, bison,
goat, etc. However, no evidence of cows has been found in any seal. Generally, the seals had an animal or
human figure on one side and an inscription on the opposite side or inscriptions on both the sides. Some seals
had inscriptions on the third side as well.
● Statement 3 is correct: Pashupati Seal was discovered at Mohenjo-daro. It is a steatite seal that depicts a
human figure or a deity sitting cross-legged. The figure, referred to as Pashupati, wears a threehorned
headgear and is surrounded by animals. An elephant and a tiger are there on the right side of the figure while a
rhinoceros and a buffalo are seen on the left side.
42. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Akbar issued both round and square coins. In 1579, Akbar issued gold coins called
‘Ilahi coins’ to propagate his new religious creed ‘Din-i-Illahi’. On this coin, it was written ‘God is great, may
his glory be glorified’. The value of an ilahi coin was equal to 10 rupees. Sahansah was the largest gold coin.
These coins bore the names of the persian solar months.
● Statement 2 is correct: Sher Shah Suri, a 16th century ruler of Afghan lineage introduced the Rupiya. It was
a silver currency. At that moment one rupee was equal to four coins made of copper. The Indian currency is
still called Rupee. Rupya was made of silver which weighed almost 11.34 grams during that period.
● Statement 3 is correct: The standard gold coin of the Mughals was the Mohur of about 170 to 175
grains.AbulFazl in his ‘Ain-i-Akbari’ indicated that a Mohur was equivalent to nine rupees. Half and quarter
mohurs are also known. The silver rupee which was an adoption from Sher Shah’s currency, was the most
famous of all Mughal coins. The Mughal copper coin was adopted from Sher Shah’s dam which weighed 320
to 330 grains.
43. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of Karnataka and Kasaragod district of
Kerala. It combines dance, music, dialogue, costume, make-up, and stage techniques in a unique style and
form.TheYakshagana's performance is based on the Ghandharvagrama musical system, which is one of the
oldest kinds of music.Yakshagana is currently thought to be a dance form that is completely influenced by
Vaishnava Bhakti movements.
● Statement 2 is correct: It is based on mythological stories and Puranas. The most popular episodes are from
the Mahabharata i.e. Draupadiswayamvar, Subhadra vivah, etc. and from Ramayana i.e. Rajyabhishek, Lav-
Kush yuddh, etc. It is performed with massive headgears, elaborate facial make-up and vibrant costumes and
ornaments.
● Statement 3 is correct: It was performed by a community known as JakkulaVaru in the royal courts of the
Vijayanagar dynasty. Usually recited in Kannada, it is also performed in Malayalam as well as Tulu (the
dialect of south Karnataka).

Page. 16
44. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: In 1861, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) was founded, which serves as an
attached office of the Ministry of Culture.It was founded by Alexander Cunningham who also became its first
Director-General.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT) was established by the
Ministry of Culture to combine education and culture. It was founded in 1979 at the request of
DrKapilaVatsyayan and Smt. Kamala Devi Chattopadhyay .Also to assist the wider diffusion of Indian art and
culture, the CCRT has its headquarters in New Delhi and three Regional Centres in Udaipur in the west,
Hyderabad in the south, and Guwahati in the north-east.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) was founded under the Ministry of
Culture's auspices to carry out programs that promote Indian culture on a global scale. It was founded in 1950
by MaulanaAbulKalam Azad, who believed strongly in developing cultural contacts with different countries
and civilizations.
45. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Option C is correct: Sudraka was the first to introduce the essence of conflict in his drama Mricchakatika
(The Little Clay Cart), which is an extended version of Bhasa’s incomplete play Charudattam (Charudatta).
This drama introduces an opponent for the first time, in addition to a hero and heroine. Conflict is the essence
of dramatic storytelling which usually involves the protagonist and the antagonist. In fiction, it is helpful to
include a strong bad guy who offers opposition to the main character's drive.This creates suspense as we
wonder who will triumph, and how. Sudraka, literally translated as the little servant, was a poet-king who
lived in Ujjain in the 2nd CE. Kalidasa wrote Malavikagnimitram, Vikramorvashi, and Shakuntalam, best
ancient sanskrit dramas. Ashvaghosha wrote Sariputraparkarna and Buddhacharita.Bhasa wrote 13 plays
during the 3rd-4th century AD.
46. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option A is correct: AnkiaNaat is a traditional one-act play of Assam. It was started by the famous
Vaishnava Saint Sankaradeva and his disciple Madhavdev in the 15th -16th century AD. It is performed in the
style of an opera and depicts incidents from the life of Lord Krishna.
● Option B is correct:Daskathia is a form of folk theatre popular in Odisha. In this form, there are two
narrators - Gayaka, who is the chief singer and Palia, who is the co-narrator. The narration is accompanied by
dramatic music composed using a wooden musical instrument called kathia. The theme mainly revolves
around Lord Shiva. A close variant of this form is the ChhaitiGhoda, which uses two musical instruments –
dhol and mohuri – and three narrators.
● Option C is correct: Tamasha is form of folk theatre in the region of Maharashtra, known for its humour and
erotic content. The unique feature of Tamasha is the presence of female actors, who play even the male roles.
The Tamasha performances are generally accompanied by Lavani songs.
● Option D is incorrect: It is a folk theatre of Assam, especially the Majuli Island. The idea is to spread
religious and moral messages to people through entertainment and drama. It is a presentation of AnkiaNaat
and Vaishnavite themes are common. Sutradhar (Narrator) narrates the play and sings verses from holy texts.
Songs and music are also a part of it. This folk theatre was created by Sankardeva in the early 16th century.
47. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chisti Order was established in India by KhwajaMuinuddin Chishti, who
probably moved to India after the invasion of Muizzuddin Muhammad Ghori, and settled in Ajmer around
c.1206 CE. Muinuddin Chishti argued that the highest form of devotion to God was to redress the misery of
those in distress, fulfilling the need of the helpless, and to feed the hungry.
Page. 17
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chistis believed in:(a)Simplicity of life, humility, and selfless devotion to God.
The renunciation of worldly possessions was regarded by them as significant for the control of the senses that
was necessary to maintain a spiritual life.(b)Love as the bond between god and the individual soul, and
adopting an attitude of benevolence towards all.(c)The tolerance between people of different faiths, and
acceptance of disciples irrespective of their religious beliefs.(d)Use of simple language and the refusal to
accept any grant for their maintenance from the Sultans.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Naqshbandi Silsilah - This order was established in India by KhwajaBahauddin
Naqshbandi, and later on, propagated by his successors, Sheikh BaqiBillah and Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. The mystics
of this order stressed on:(a) They attempted to purge Islam from all liberal, and according to them, ‘unIslamic’
practices.(b) They opposed the listening of sama (religious music) and the practice of pilgrimage to the tombs of
saints, and strongly opposed interaction with Hindus and Shias. In fact, it was Baba Farid, the famous Sufi Saint, who
maintained that devotional music was one way of coming close to God.(c) They criticised the liberal policies of Akbar
such as the high status accorded by Akbar to many non-Muslims, the withdrawal of the jizya, and the ban on cow
slaughter.(d) Contrary to the Chistis, they maintained that the relationship between man and God was that of the slave
and the master and not of the relation of a lover and beloved.
48. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Jatakas are very much close to folklore literature and they contain the tales of
previous births of Buddha in poems. The SuttaPitaka consists of the main teaching or Dhamma of Buddha.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Dipavamsa is one of the most important works in Pali Literature. It details the tooth
relic and Bodhi Tree's arrival in Sri Lanka. It also deals with the arrival of Buddha's teaching and preachers in
Sri Lanka. It mentions that Buddha visited Kelaniya and Deegavapi in Sri Lanka.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Lalitavistara is a text that deals with the biography of Buddha.
49. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Krishnadevaraya was an emperor of the Vijayanagara Empire, who reigned from
1509 to 1529. He was the third monarch of the Tuluva dynasty, and is considered to be one of the greatest
rulers in Indian history.He was a scholar and patron of many languages which included Telugu, Kannada,
Tamil and Sanskrit.The reign of Krishna Deva Raya in Vijayanagara Empire is known as the Golden Age of
Telugu Literature. He earned the title called Andhra Bhoja (lit. "Scholar of Andhra")The rule of Krishna Deva
Raya was an age of prolific literature in many languages, although it is particularly known as a golden age of
Telugu literature. Many Telugu, Kannada, Sanskrit, and Tamil poets enjoyed the patronage of the emperor
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Eight learned literary persons were attached to Krishna deva raya’s court and they
were called ashtadiggajas, the most important one being AllasaniPeddana.Eight Telugu poets were regarded as
eight pillars of his literary assembly and known as Ashtadiggajas.Navratnas of Akbar were a group of nine
intellectual people from various backgrounds who beautified the court of Mughal Emperor Akbar.
● Statement 3 is correct: Krishna deva raya , while travelling via Vijayawada during his Kalinga campaign,
himself wrote Amuktamalyada which is a treatise stating the instance of Lord Vishnu in his dream. He also
wrote treatise in Sanskrit which includes MadalasaCharita, SatyavaduParinaya and Rasamanjari and
Jambavati Kalyana.
50. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option A is correct:Tracing its origins from the RasLeela of Brajbhoomi, Kathak is the traditional dance
form of Uttar Pradesh. Kathak derived its name from the ‘Kathika’ or the storytellers who recited verses from
the epics, with 38 gestures and music. It is characterised by the use of intricate footworks and pirouettes. The
elements of a Kathak recital are as follows: o Ananda or the introductory item through which the dancer enters
the stage.
Page. 18
● Thaat comprises soft and varied movements. Todas and Tukdas are small pieces of fast rhythm. Jugalbandi is
the main attraction of a kathak recital which shows a competitive play between the dancer and the table
player.
● Padhant is a special feature in which the dancer recites complicated bols and demonstrates them. Tarana is
similar to thillana, which consists of pure rhythmic movements before the end.
● Kramalaya is the concluding piece consisting of intricate and fast footwork. Gat bhaav is dance without any
music or chanting. This is used to outline different mythological episodes.
● Kathak is generally accompanied with dhrupad music. Taranas, thumris and ghazals were also introduced
during the Mughal period.
*******

Page. 19
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT – 19
(CA-July'23 & August'23)
(QUESTION PAPER)
TEST BOOKLET
CURRENT AFFAIRS
pPLT – 19 (July'23 & August'23) D
INSTRUCTIONS
BOOKLET.
Answer Sheet.
Certificate.
penalty.
question.
1. With reference to the ‘Green Credit 3. Consider the following initiatives :
Programme’, consider the following 1. International Solar Alliance
statements :
2. Coalition for Disaster Resilient
1. It is a market-based mechanism
launched to promote the LiFE Infrastructure
movement. 3. Lifestyle for Environment
2. The programme will enable trading of
‘Green Credits’ on a domestic market 4. LeadIT Group
platform. How many of the above are India’s
3. Under the programme. ‘Green Credit’
initiatives at the international stage?
can be earned through water-based
conservation practices as well. (a) Only one
How many of the statement(s) given above (b) Only two
is/are correct?
(a) Only one (c) Only three
(b) Only two (d) All four
(c) All three
(d) None
2. With reference to Sustainable Development 1. India's strategic oil reserves are mostly
Goals (SDGs), consider the following
statements : made up of salt cavern-based storage.
1. The United Nations SDGs were 2. Salt cavern-based storage is considered
formulated and adopted at the United
expensive and more labour-intensive
Nations Rio+20 Conference.
2. The National Indicator Framework for than rock caverns.
SGDs has been launched by the NITI 3. India’s current strategic petroleum
Aayog to facilitate the monitoring of
17 SDGs at the national level. reserves capacity can meet around 9.5
3. SDG India Index ranks the progress days of demand.
made by States and Union Territories
towards achieving the SDGs.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(d) None
(d) None
5. With reference to the PM-KISAN Scheme, 7. Consider the following statements :
consider the following statements: 1. Five Indian states share a land-border
1. All small and marginal landholder with Myanmar.
farmer families with total cultivable
holding only upto 2 hectares are eligible 2. Zorinpui International border crossing
for benefit under the scheme. in Mizoram is an authorised
2. The entire responsibility of identification immigration check post for travel of
of beneficiary farmer families rests with
passengers between India and
the State/Union territory Governments.
Myanmar.
3. It has become the first government
scheme to do e-KYC through facial 3. The ‘Free Movement Regime’ between
authentication mobile app. India and Myanmar allows tribes living
4. Under the scheme, beneficiaries receive
along the border on either side to travel
Rs 10,000 per year through Direct
Benefit Transfer mode. up to 16 km inside the other country
How many of the statement(s) given above without a visa.
(a) Only one
is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(a) Only one
(d) All four (b) Only two
(c) All three
6. With reference to India, consider the
(d) None
1. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) are 8. Consider the following statements :
released by the National Statistical
1. ‘Delisting’ of securities means
Office.
2. If food prices go up sharply, it will bump permanent removal of securities of a
up the retail inflation rate far more than listed company from a stock exchange.
it would spike the wholesale inflation 2. If a company wants to delist its
rate.
securities, it needs to buy back 50
3. If services such as transport and
education get significantly costlier, then percent of the total issued shares.
retail inflation will rise but there will be Which of the statement(s) given above
no impact on wholesale price inflation. is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None
9. With reference to the ‘no-confidence’ 11. Consider the following statements :
motion in the Lok Sabha, consider the 1. Desiccation-tolerant vascular (DT)
following statements : plants can withstand extreme
1. Any Lok Sabha member who can dehydration, losing up to 95 percent of
garner the support of 50 colleagues, their water content.
can introduce a motion of no- 2. In India, DT plants are commonly
confidence in the House. found on rock outcrops in the Western
2. The first no-confidence motion in Lok Ghats.
Sabha that led to the falling of a Which of the statement(s) given above
government took place in 1979. is/are incorrect?
3. Before 2023, the last discussion on a (a) 1 only
motion of no-confidence took place in (b) 2 only
Lok Sabha in 2003. (c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the statement(s) given above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correct?
(a) Only one 12. Consider the following pairs :
(b) Only two Place Country
1. Niamey – Nigeria
(c) All three
2. Kreminna – Russia
(d) None
3. Dar es Salam – Ghana
4. Bab al-Salam – Syria
10. With reference to the ‘sickle cell disease’
How many of the pair(s) given above is/are
in India, consider the following statements:
correctly matched?
1. It is more common in the tribal
(a) Only one
population of India due to an
(b) Only two
evolutionary trait.
(c) Only three
2. India is committed to eliminate the
(d) All four
disease before 2030.
3. Sickle cell disease causes a significant
13. ‘Batagaika Crater’, sometimes seen in the
reduction in life expectancy.
news due to it showing glaring effects of
the impacts of global warming, is located
is/are correct? in:
(a) Only one (a) Norway
(b) Only two (b) Denmark
(c) All three (c) Iceland
(d) None (d) Russia
14. Consider the following statements : 16. Consider the following statements with
1. Green Hydrogen can be produced from reference to India :
biomass through thermochemical and 1. If the “adjournment motion” is
biochemical routes. accepted by the Lok Sabha Speaker, it
2. The Government of India has granted sets aside the scheduled business of the
House “to discuss a definite matter of
waiver of inter-state transmission
urgent public importance”.
charges for a period of 25 years to the
2. The “adjournment motion” mechanism
local producers of Green Hydrogen
is available in Rajya Sabha only when
and Green Ammonia for the projects
the Rajya Sabha passes the motion
commissioned before 31st December with a special majority.
2030.
3. Rule 267 of the Rules of Procedure and
3. Strategic Interventions for Green Conduct of Business in the Rajya
Hydrogen Transition programme aims Sabha can be used only to suspend a
to support domestic manufacturing of Rule, only to take up matters that are
electrolysers. already on the list of business.
(d) None
(d) None

1. In India, ‘heat wave’ is considered if
1. The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi- the maximum temperature of a station
Sectoral Technical and Economic reaches at least 40oC or more for
Cooperation (BIMSTEC) countries plains and hilly regions.
combined are home to nearly 50% of 2. Heat domes, if they last for a long
the world’s population. period, may cause deadly heat waves.
2. The Belt and Road Initiative 3. Absence of moisture in the upper
infrastructure is present in all atmosphere is a favorable condition for
BIMSTEC countries, except India. formation of heat waves.
Which of the statement(s) given above How many of the statement(s) given above
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. Which of the following best describes the 20. Consider the following statements with
term ‘Zero FIR’? reference to the Integrated Election
Expenditure Monitoring System (IEMS) :
(a) An FIR that is registered in a police
1. Registered political parties are required
station whose jurisdiction is different
to submit annual contribution reports
from the area where the offence is
of all donations over Rs 20,000 each.
committed. 2. Political parties can file their Annual
(b) An FIR that is not filed on any Audited Accounts on IEMS.
financial theft or recovery basis for the 3. The political parties that do not wish to
victim. file the reports through IEMS can
continue with the manual physical
(c) An FIR that is filed on suo moto basis
mode.
by a person who is not the victim.
(d) A FIR filed by a victim with no is/are correct?
intention of pursuing legal action. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
19. Consider the following statements : (c) All three
1. The Attorney General of India and the (d) None
Solicitor General of India are the only

21. Consider the following pairs :
officers of the Government who are
Mobile App Description
allowed to participate in the meetings Name
of the Parliament of India. 1. eSARAS – Supervision of
2. The Attorney General of India can take migratory birds in
India
part in the proceedings of any joint
2. PM – To provide paperless
sitting of the Houses of Parliament of
SVANidhi microfinance credit to
India of which he may be named a farmers
member. 3. MANI – To resolve tax-related
queries
is/are correct?
correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
22. Consider the following statements : 24. With reference to the ‘SAMARTH’
1. U20 is an Engagement Group under programme, consider the following
statements :
the G20 in which each Participating
1. ‘SAMARTH’ is a demand driven and
City is represented by its Mayor and a placement-oriented umbrella skilling
‘City Sherpa’. programme of the Ministry of Labour
2. U20 establishes a platform for cities to & Employment.
2. The programme has been formulated
collectively inform G20 negotiations
with Aadhaar Enabled Biometric
with respect to urban priorities. Attendance System, CCTV recording
3. Participating Cities of U20 are of training programme, on-line
important economic or population monitoring of the training process etc.
hubs, made up of major C40 and Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are incorrect?
United Cities and Local Governments
(a) 1 only
member cities. (b) 2 only
How many of the statement(s) given above (c) Both 1 and 2
is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one
25. Consider the following pairs :
(b) Only two
Mission Achievement
(c) All three 1. Chandrayaan-1 – First mission in
(d) None the world to
discover water
molecules on the
23. Consider the following countries : Moon
1. Brazil 2. Chandrayaan-2 – First mission to
2. Chile successfully land
on Moon’s South
3. Mexico
Pole
4. Panama 3. Mangalyaan – First mission in
With how many of the above countries, has the world to
the Election Commission of India signed reach the Martian
orbit on its
Memorandum of Understandings on maiden attempt
electoral cooperation under its How many of the statement(s) given above
‘International Cooperation Programme’? is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) All four
26. With reference to Multidimensional 28. With reference to India, consider the
Poverty Index (MPI), consider the following statements :
1. The Cooperative Societies with objects
1. The Global MPI Report is jointly
not confined to one State are governed
published by the Oxford Poverty and
by the Union List of the Constitution.
Human Development Initiative and the
United Nations Development 2. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
Programme. are outside the purview of the Banking
2. India’s MPI is based on fewer Regulation Act, 1949.
indicators than the Global MPI. 3. The short-term co-operative credit
3. Dadabhai Naoroji’s approach to structure operates with a three-tier
measuring poverty in India was based
system.
on ‘subsistence diet’.
(d) None
(d) None

29. Which of the following statements best
1. India is a member of ‘Mineral Security
Partnership’ and ‘Intergovernmental reflects the issue with Triton Island,
Forum on Mining, Minerals, Metals sometimes seen in the news?
and Sustainable Development’. (a) China, Taiwan and Vietnam engage in
2. India has signed the ‘Critical Minerals maritime disputes over this island in
Investment Partnership’ with Australia. the South China Sea.
3. Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. is a public-
(b) It is one of the Spratly group islands
private joint venture with the objective
to identify and acquire overseas on which China is creating military
mineral assets of critical & strategic infrastructure.
nature. (c) A permanent American military base
How many of the statement(s) given above has been set up there to help Taiwan to
is/are correct? increase its defence capabilities
(a) Only one (d) Though the International Court of
(b) Only two
Justice declared it as a no man’s land,
(c) All three
some South-East Asian countries claim
(d) None
them.
30. Consider the following pairs : 32. With reference to the National Medical
Commission (NMC), consider the following
Term often seen in Country statements
the news 1. NMC regulates medical education and
medical professionals in India.
1. Odessa – Russia
2. As per NMC’s guidelines, the doctors
2. Port of Sulina – Ukraine have been asked to prescribe only generic
medicines, except for some specific cases.
3. Constanta – Italy 3. NMC also advises the Medical Council of
How many of the pair(s) given above is/are India in its regulatory functions.
correctly matched? is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
33. With reference to India, consider the following
statements :
Statement-I:
In India, the parliamentary privileges are a mix
1. Babur was the first to refer to Delhi as of provisions in the Constitution, statutes,
House procedures and conventions, since the
the ‘capital of all Hindustan’.
Parliament is yet to enact a law for the same.
2. Under Shah Jahan, Delhi became the Statement-II:
The Constitution of India provides that until
Mughal capital once again with the
the Parliament enacts a law, the parliamentary
establishment of Shahjahanabad. privileges would be those enjoyed by the
House of Commons (the lower House of the
3. The joint trial of Shah Nawaz Khan,
United Kingdom’s Parliament).
Prem Sahgal and Gurbaksh Singh Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
Dhillon took place at the Red Fort.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
How many of the statement(s) given above correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
is/are correct?
(a) Only one correct and Statement-II is not the correct
(b) Only two
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(c) All three incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(d) None
correct
34. Consider the following statements : 36. With which of the following countries does
Statement-I: India conduct exercise ‘Zayed Talwar’?
By using urea fortified with sulphur, the
(a) U.S.A
plants stay greener for a longer time.
Statement-II: (b) Saudi Arabia
Coating of sulphur over urea ensures a (c) South Africa

more gradual release of nitrogen. (d) UAE
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 37. Consider the following statements with
correct and Statement-II is the correct respect to ‘River Devika Rejuvenation
Project’:
1. This project was launched under the
correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I National River Conservation Plan
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (NRCP).
is incorrect
2. Devika River originates from the hilly
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
Suddha Mahadev temple in the
II is correct
Udhampur district of Jammu and
35. Consider the following : Kashmir.

1. Rainwater is captured and can be 3. The river holds religious significance
reused.
as it is revered by Hindus as the sister
2. Reduces urban heat island intensity.
of the river Chambal.
3. Can handle nearly unlimited amounts
of rain on a daily basis. How many of the above statement(s) is/are
4. Reduced methane production. incorrect?
How many of the above are advantages of
(a) Only one
the ‘sponge city’ model?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(d) All four
Sagar Setu Portal Meri Mati Mera Desh Campaign
1. It is a single window platform that 1. The campaign is envisaged as a
provides end-to-end logistics solutions culminating event of the ‘Azadi Ka
to help exporters, importers, and Amrit Mahotsav’ celebration of 75
service providers. years of Indian Independence.
2. The Port Health Organisation (PHO) 2. Amrit Vatika and Vasudha Vandhan
works under the aegis of the Sagar are the programmes that will be
Setu. organised across the country in the
memory of immortal martyrs.
Choose the correct statement/s:
Choose the correct statement/s:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
39. Consider the following statements about 42. In India, other than ensuring that public
Himalayan vulture funds are used efficiently and for their
1. Himalayan vultures are indigenous to intended purpose, what is the importance of
the uplands of central Asia. the office of the Comptroller and Auditor
2. They are a common winter migrant to General (CAG)?
the Indian plains. 1. CAG exercises exchequer control on
3. It is listed as Near Threatened by the behalf of the Parliament when the
IUCN Red List. President of India declares a national
emergency/financial emergency.
is/are correct? 2. CAG reports on the execution of
projects or programs by the ministers
(a) Only one
are discussed by the Public Accounts
(b) Only two Committee.
(c) All Three 3. Information from CAG reports can be
(d) None used by investigating agencies to press
charges against those who have
40. The term “Rajmargyatra”, recently seen in violated the law while managing public
news is related to? finances.
(a) Initiative of Ministry of Home Affairs 4. While dealing with the audit and
to control Human trafficking accounting of government companies,
CAG has certain judicial powers for
(b) Initiative of Ministry of Tourism to
prosecuting those who violate the law.
prioritize the safety of Mountain
Trekkers.
is/are correct?
(c) Infrastructure initiative of Delhi
(a) Only one
Government.
(b) Only two
(d) Unified Mobile Application for
(c) Only three
National Highway Users
(d) All four
reference to Starlink: reference to the Vaquita porpoise
1. Starlink is a satellite constellation that 1. It is the world’s rarest and the smallest
comprises thousands of small satellites carnivore plant.
in low-Earth orbit.
2. It is found only in the northern Gulf of
2. Unlike traditional internet providers,
California in Mexico.
Starlink doesn’t require any ground
3. It is categorized as Critically
infrastructure.
Endangered in IUCN Red List.
3. Starlink has made drone warfare much
easier. How many of the above statement(s) is/ are
How many of the statement(s) given above correct?

is/ are correct? (a) Only one
(d) None
46. What are the benefits of Canister-based
44. Consider the following statements with launch system of missiles?
reference to APEDA
1. It serves as a shipping container while
1. It is a statutory body that functions
transportation.
under the Ministry of Commerce and
2. It acts as a shelter while storage aboard
Industry.
a ship
2. It aims to develop and promote the
import of scheduled products 3. It reduces the time required to launch
mentioned in APEDA act, 1985. the missile.
3. It provides financial assistance, 4. It can be launched from rail and road
information, and guidelines for the from any part of country.
development of scheduled products. How many of the above statement(s) is/are
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) All four
(d) None
47. Consider the following pairs: 49. Consider the followings with regard to
National Supercomputing Mission:
Features Located
1. It is implemented by the Centre for
on/belongs to Development of Advanced Computing
1. Crater Jezero Moon (C-DAC), Pune and the Indian Institute
of Science (IISc), Bangalore.
2. Olympus Mons Mars 2. Supercomputer PARAM 8000
3. Europa Satellite Jupiter launched in 1991 is considered India's
first supercomputer.
How many of the above pair(s) is correctly 3. Param Shivay is the National
matched? Supercomputing Mission's first
indigenously build supercomputer.
(a) Only one pair
Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) Only two pairs (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only three pairs (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All four pairs (d) 1, 2 and 3

48. Which of the following diseases is/are
regard to INS Arihant:
caused by Aedes Aegypti Mosquito? 1. It is India’s first indigenous nuclear-
1. Dengue powered ballistic missile capable
submarine.
2. Malaria 2. It is armed with a K-15 or Sagarika
3. Filariasis Submarine Launched Ballistic Missile.
3. After its commission in Indian Navy,
4. Chikungunya India declared its nuclear triad
5. Zika Virus capability being completed.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
given below: (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Only two (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only three
(c) Only four

******
(d) All five
PRELIMS
TEST SERIES 2024
(GENERAL STUDIES)
pPLT-19
(CA-July'23 & August'23)
1. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently notified the Green Credit
Programme Implementation Rules, 2023.
● Statement 1 is correct: Introduced by the Government of India, ‘LiFE’– ‘Lifestyle for Environment’, is a
grassroot, mass movement for combating climate change, enhancing environment actions to propagate a healthy
and sustainable way of living based on traditions and values of conservation and moderation, and for sustainable
and environment-friendly development.
The Green Credit Programme (GCP) is an innovative market-based mechanism to promote the LiFE movement
which aims at encouraging sustainable lifestyles by driving consumer/community towards behavioural changes to
incentivize environment friendly practices.
● Statement 2 is correct: The GCP provides incentives in the form of ‘Green Credits’ to individuals, Farmer
Producer Organisations, cooperatives, forestry enterprises, sustainable agriculture enterprises, Urban and Rural
Local Bodies, private sectors, industries and organizations for environment positive actions.
Green Credits will be tradable outcomes and will act as incentives. They will be made available for trading on
a domestic market platform. An activity generating Green Credits under the GCP may also get ‘Carbon Credits’
from the same activity under the carbon market.
● Statement 3 is correct: As per the Rules, ‘Green Credit’ are defined as a singular unit of an incentive provided
for a specified activity, delivering a positive impact on the environment. The credits can be earned through:
○ Tree Plantation-based Green Credit: Activities increasing the green cover through tree plantation and
related activities.
○ Water-based Green Credit: Water conservation, water harvesting and water use efficiency/savings,
including treatment and reuse of wastewater.
○ Sustainable Agriculture based Green Credit: Natural and regenerative agricultural practices and land
restoration to improve productivity, soil health and nutritional value of food produced.
○ Waste Management based Green Credit: Sustainable and improved practices for waste management,
including collection, segregation and treatment.
○ Air Pollution Reduction based Green Credit: Measures for reducing air pollution and other pollution
abatement activities.
○ Mangrove Conservation and Restoration based Green Credit: Measures for conservation and restoration of
mangroves.
○ Ecomark based Green Credit: Obtaining Ecomark label for goods and services.
○ Sustainable building and infrastructure based Green Credit: Construction of buildings and other
infrastructure using sustainable technologies and materials.
2. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently organized 3rd G20 Sherpa meeting under India's presidency focuses on Sustainable
Development Goals.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, also known as Global Goals,
are a collection of seventeen interlinked objectives designed to serve as a "shared blueprint for peace and
prosperity for people and the planet, now and into the future." The 17 SDGs of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable
Development were adopted by world leaders in September 2015 at an historic UN Summit in New York. and
officially came into force in January 2016.
The Rio+20 Conference, also known as the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development, held in 2012
in Rio de Janeiro, was the third international conference on sustainable development aimed at reconciling the
economic and environmental goals of the global community. It resulted in a focused political outcome document
called ‘The Future We Want’ which contains clear and practical measures for implementing sustainable
development.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The National Indicator Framework for SGDs has been launched by the Ministry of Statistics
and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), in sync with Global Indicator Framework (GIF) for SDGs, along with
identified data sources and periodicity for facilitating the monitoring of 17 SDGs at the national level. The NIF has been
developed in consultation with concerned Ministries/ Departments, UN Agencies and other stakeholders. The present
version of SDGs-NIF, 2022 comprises of 286 national indicators
● Statement 3 is correct: Since its inaugural launch in 2018, the SDG India Index has been comprehensively
documenting and ranking the progress made by States and Union Territories towards achieving the Sustainable
Development Goals. The index has become the primary tool for monitoring progress on the SDGs in the country
and has simultaneously fostered competition among the States and Union Territories.
The SDG India Index, developed in collaboration with the United Nations in India, tracks progress of all States and
UTs on indicators that are aligned to MoSPI’s National Indicator Framework (NIF). The SDG India Index computes
goal-wise scores on the SDGs for each State and Union Territory. Overall State and UT scores are generated from
goal-wise scores to measure aggregate performance of the sub-national unit based on its performance across the
SDGs. NITI Aayog has the mandate for coordinating the adoption and monitoring of SDGs at the national and sub-
national levels. The SDG India Index and Dashboard represents NITI Aayog’s efforts in encouraging evidence-
based policymaking by supporting States and UTs to benchmark their progress, identify the priority areas and share
good practices.
3. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) received nearly 50 Expression of
Interest (EoI) for its first ‘Call for Proposals’ for Infrastructure Resilient Island States (IRIS).
● All given initiatives are India’s initiatives at the international stage. They are explained below:
● International Solar Alliance: In November 2021, India launched the joint ‘Green Grids Initiative - One Sun One
World One Grid’ at the World Leaders’ Summit in Glasgow. It aims to create a globally interconnected green
grid, building upon existing regional grid infrastructure, which will enable solar energy generation in regions
with high potential and its evacuation to demand centers.
● Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure: India’s call for promoting disaster resilience of infrastructure
through the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) has been receiving global attention. Since
CDRI’s launch in September 2019, its membership has expanded to 31 national governments and eight
organizations, with several member countries committing to provide technical assistance and financial
resources. In addition to India’s seed funding of USD 70 million, the United Kingdom, United States and the
Netherlands have pledged GBP 1 million, USD 9.2 million and 100,000 Euro respectively for CDRI’s
programmes and projects.
● Lifestyle for Environment: In November 2021, India proposed a One-Word Movement in the context of climate:
LIFE - Lifestyle for Environment, at the COP 26 in Glasgow. This movement calls for coming together with
collective participation, to take lifestyle for the environment forward as a campaign and as a mass movement
for environmentally conscious lifestyle.
● Leadership Group for Industry Transition (LeadIT Group): LeadIT was launched by India and Sweden, with
the support of the World Economic Forum at the UN Climate Action Summit in New York in September 2019,
as one of the nine action tracks identified by the UN Secretary-General to boost climate ambitions and actions
to implement the Paris Agreement.
4. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: India is exploring building strategic natural gas storage facilities in the country on the lines of
strategic crude oil reserves that can be utilized in emergencies and supply disruptions.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s strategic oil reserves are part of the effort to build sufficient emergency
stockpiles on the lines of the reserves that the US and its Western allies set up after the first oil crisis of the
1970s. The country’s three existing strategic oil storage facilities – at Mangalore and Padur in Karnataka, and
Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh – are made up of excavated rock caverns.
Countries build strategic crude oil reserves to mitigate major supply disruptions in the global supply chain.
Government-owned engineering consultancy firm Engineers India (EIL) is studying the prospects and feasibility of
developing salt cavern-based strategic oil reserves in Rajasthan. If the idea comes to fruition, India could get its first
salt cavern-based oil storage facility.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Salt cavern-based storage is considered cheaper and less labour- and cost-intensive
than rock caverns.
Unlike underground rock caverns, which are developed through excavation, salt caverns are developed by the
process of solution mining, which involves pumping water into geological formations with large salt deposits to
dissolve the salt. After the brine (water with dissolved salt) is pumped out of the formation, the space can be used
to store crude oil. The process is simpler, faster, and less cost-intensive than developing excavated rock caverns.
Salt cavern-based oil storage facilities are also naturally well-sealed, and engineered for rapid injection and
extraction of oil. The salt that lines the inside of these caverns has extremely low oil absorbency, which creates a
natural impermeable barrier against liquid and gaseous hydrocarbons, making the caverns apt for storage. Also,
unlike rock caverns, salt cavern-based storages can be created and operated almost entirely from the surface. This
makes them a more attractive option than storing oil in other geological formations.
● Statement 3 is correct: India currently has strategic petroleum reserves (SPR) capacity of 5.33 million tonnes,
or around 39 million barrels of crude, that can meet around 9.5 days of demand. The country is in the process
of expanding its SPR capacity by a cumulative 6.5 million tonnes at two locations – Chandikhol in Odisha (4
million tonnes) and Padur (2.5 million tonnes). India’s strategic oil reserves come under the Petroleum
Ministry’s special purpose vehicle Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserve (ISPRL).
● Rajasthan, which has the bulk of requisite salt formations in India, is seen as the most conducive for developing
salt cavern-based strategic storage facilities.
● Crude oil from the reserves are to be released by an empowered committee set up by the government, in the
event of supply disruptions due to a natural calamity or an unforeseen global event leading to an abnormal
increase in prices.
● The International Energy Agency recommends that all countries should hold an emergency oil stockpile
sufficient to provide 90 days of import protection.
● In India, apart from the SPR that is sufficient to meet 9.5 days of oil requirement, the oil marketing companies
have storage facilities for crude oil and petroleum products for 64.5 days – which means there is sufficient
storage to meet around 74 days of the country’s petroleum demand.
● India has also decided to commercialise its strategic petroleum reserves, as part of which the Abu Dhabi
National Oil Company stored about 0.8 million tonnes of crude oil in the Mangaluru strategic reserve.
5. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently the PM Kisan Scheme 14th installment was released to more than 8.5 crore farmers.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: With a view to augment the income of the farmer families, Central Government, in
2018, implemented a central sector scheme (i.e. 100% funding from Government of India), called the "Pradhan
Mantri KIsan SAmman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)". The scheme aims to supplement the financial needs of the farmers
in procuring various inputs to ensure proper crop health and appropriate yields, commensurate with the
anticipated farm income.
In May 2019, the benefit of the scheme was extended to all land holding eligible farmer families (subject to the
prevalent exclusion criteria such as Institutional Land holders, former/present holders of constitutional posts,
former/present MPs/MLAs/Mayors etc). Earlier, financial benefit was provided to all small and marginal landholder
farmer families with total cultivable holding upto 2 hectares.
● Statement 2 is correct: Responsibility of identifying the landholder farmer family eligible for benefit under
the scheme entirely lies with the State/Union territory Governments. The States have to prepare database of
eligible beneficiary landholder farmer families in the villages capturing the Name, Age, Gender,
Category(SC/ST), Aadhaar Number (or Aadhaar Enrollment Number along with Driving Licence/ Voters’ ID
Card/NREGA Job Card etc.), Bank Account Number and the Mobile Number of the beneficiaries.
● Statement 3 is correct: In a first for any central welfare scheme, face authentication feature was rolled out in
the PM-Kisan app, which enables beneficiary farmers to complete their e-KYC process by just scanning their
face on mobile phones instead of using one-time password or fingerprints. This will prove useful for the farmers
who are aged and their mobile number is also not linked with their Aadhaar.
Until now, e-KYC of beneficiaries was done through either biometrics at a designated centre or one-time passwords
sent to mobile phone numbers linked with Aadhaar. This process faced issues when mobile numbers were not linked
with Aadhaar, or issue of non-matching of fingerprints in older farmers.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: Under the scheme, an income support of Rs.6000/- per year is provided to all farmer
families across the country in three equal installments of Rs.2000/- each every four months, which is transferred
to the bank accounts of eligible farmers’ families across the country through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)
mode.
6. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: According to the data released recently, deflation in wholesale prices continued for the third
month in a row in June, with the relevant index falling to a nearly eight-year low owing to a steep fall in prices
of fuel, power, food, base metals and the high base of last year.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Consumer Price Index (CPI), called the retail inflation rate, measures the change in
prices paid by the ultimate consumers in the retail market. The base year for CPI is taken as 2011-12 and is
published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO) for all India as well as States and Union Territories.
Wholesale Price Index (WPI), called the wholesale inflation rate, measures the change in prices in the wholesale
market, where goods are traded in bulk. It is published monthly by the Office of Economic Advisor, Department
for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
CPI and WPI represent two different baskets of goods and services. The government assigns different weights to
different goods and services based on what is relevant for those two types of consumers.
● Statement 2 is correct: ‘Food and beverages’ have the highest weight of 45.86% in CPI, while the WPI is
dominated by the prices of manufactured goods (64.23%). Hence any fluctuation in food items impacts the CPI
in a major way. Therefore, if food prices go up sharply, it will bump up the retail inflation rate far more than it
would spike the wholesale inflation rate. The reverse will happen when prices of manufactured products (such
as TVs and cars) rise sharply.
● Statement 3 is correct: A key difference between WPI and CPI that must not be missed is that the WPI does
not take into account the change in prices of services. WPI includes the price change of goods only and not
services because services are not traded in wholesale markets, while the services account for 28.32% weightage
in CPI. Therefore, if services such as transport, education, recreation and amusement, personal care etc. get
significantly costlier, then retail inflation will rise but there will be no impact on wholesale price inflation.
7. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: The issue of illegal migration of tribes along the India-Myanmar border during the ongoing
ethnic conflict in Manipur has raised questions on the ‘Free Movement Regime’.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The India–Myanmar international land border is 1,643 km in length and runs from
the tripoint with China in the north to the tripoint with Bangladesh in the south. Four Indian states share the
border with Myanmar – Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Manipur.
● Statement 2 is correct: Zorinpui land check post situated in Mizoram is an authorised immigration check post
for entry into or exit from India with valid travel documents for all classes of passengers to or from Myanmar.
Kawrpuichhuah land check post situated in Mizoram is an authorised immigration check post for entry into or exit
from India with valid travel documents for all classes of passengers to or from Bangladesh.
● Statement 3 is correct: The ‘Free Movement Regime’ is a mutually agreed arrangement between the two
countries that allows tribes living along the border on either side to travel up to 16 km inside the other country
without a visa.
The FMR was implemented in 2018 as part of the Act East policy at a time when diplomatic relations between India
and Myanmar were on the upswing. Apart from facilitating people-to-people contact, the FMR was supposed to
provide impetus to local trade and business.
Additional Information: Although beneficial to local people and helpful in improving Indo-Myanmar ties, the
FMR has been criticised for unintentionally aiding illegal immigration, drug trafficking, and gun running. The Indo-
Myanmar border runs through forested and undulating terrain, is almost entirely unfenced, and difficult to monitor.
In Manipur, less than 6 km of the border is fenced. The regime has been reviewed from time to time, and most
experts agree that the FMR needs better regulation. As the crisis in Myanmar escalated and the influx of refugees
increased, India suspended the FMR in September 2022.
8. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: SEBI is reviewing delisting regulations for listed companies in an attempt to rein in the
manipulation of shares of a company that has opted for delisting from the stock exchanges.
● Statement 1 is correct: The term "delisting" of securities means permanent removal of securities of a listed
company from a stock exchange. As a consequence of delisting, the securities of that company would no longer
be traded at that stock exchange.
Delisting can be either voluntary or compulsory. In voluntary delisting, a company decides on its own to remove its
securities from a stock exchange; in compulsory delisting, they are removed as a penal measure for the company
not making submissions or complying with requirements set out in the listing agreement within the prescribed
timeframes.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: If a company wants to delist its securities, it needs to buy back 90 percent of the total
issued shares. Presently, reverse book-building is the process used for price discovery of listed securities. During
the period for which the reverse book-building is open, offers are collected from shareholders at various prices,
which are above or equal to the floor price. The buyback price is determined after the offer closing price.
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is reviewing the price discovery method in delisting regulations
for listed companies in an attempt to rein in the manipulation of shares of a company that has opted for delisting
from the stock exchanges. Certain constituents in the market, in anticipation of the delisting, acquire shares and jack
up the price of shares to unsustainable levels.
9. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently the Lok Sabha Speaker accepted the no-confidence motion moved by the Opposition
against the Modi government.
● Statement 1 is correct: In a parliamentary democracy, a government can be in power only if it commands a
majority in the directly elected House. Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution embodies this rule by specifying
that the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha. The rules of Lok Sabha provide a
mechanism for testing this collective responsibility. They allow any Lok Sabha MP who can garner the support
of 50 colleagues, to introduce a motion of ‘no-confidence’ against the Council of Ministers. Thereafter, a
discussion on the motion takes place. MPs who support the motion highlight the government’s shortcomings,
and the Treasury Benches respond to the issues they raise.
● Statement 2 is correct: The first no-confidence motion that led to the falling of a government was moved by
Y B Chavan in 1979 against the government of Prime Minister Morarji Desai. After a nine-hour debate spread
over two days, Desai resigned before the motion could be put to vote.
Since then, every Prime Minister has been able to defeat a no-confidence motion. After 1979, the Prime Ministers
who faced and defeated the no-confidence motions are Indira Gandhi, Rajiv Gandhi and P V Narasimha Rao.
However, at least thrice governments have fallen during vote on a "motion of confidence", which is a motion brought
by the government to prove its strength. They are – the V P Singh government in 1990, H D Deve Gowda
government in 1997 and the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government in 1999.
● Statement 3 is correct: Before the 2023 no-confidence motion that has been adopted in the Lok Sabha, it has
been 15 years since a discussion on a motion of no-confidence took place. The last discussion on a motion of
no-confidence was in 2003 when Prime Minister Vajpayee defeated a no-confidence motion moved by Sonia
Gandhi. The 2023 no-confidence motion discussion in Lok Sabha will be the 27th no-confidence motion in
India’s Parliamentary history.
10. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently the Prime Minister launched the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission
from Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh.
● Statement 1 is correct: Sickle cell disease (SCD) is a chronic single gene disorder causing a debilitating
systemic syndrome characterized by chronic anemia, acute painful episodes, organ infarction and chronic organ
damage. It is a genetic blood disease which affects the whole life of a patient. It is more common in the tribal
population of India, but occurs in non-tribals too.
Tribal populations are most susceptible to SCD. There is a high prevalence of malaria in these geographies. The tribal areas
were endemic to malaria for many years leading to many deaths, thus, as an evolutionary trait, their red blood cells were
becoming sickle-shaped. This led to their high susceptibility to SCD. The protective mechanism to prevent malaria led to
the incidence of SCD and it passed through generations, becoming a hereditary disease.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Program, introduced in the Union Budget
2023, aims to eliminate sickle cell genetic transmission by the year 2047, showing a long-term commitment to
eradicating the disease. The program is executed in a mission mode as part of the National Health Mission.
● Statement 3 is correct: Sickle cell disease causes a significant reduction in life expectancy. In people with
SCD, their red blood cells are shaped like a crescent instead of the normal round shape. The disease causes a
constant shortage of red blood cells leading to serious health issues such as infection, acute chest syndrome, and
even stroke. A recent study estimated the life expectancy of adults with SCD to be 54 years, approximately 20
years shorter than that of adults without SCD.
11. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: Over 60 species of plants that can survive extreme dehydration found in Western Ghats.
● Statement 1 is correct: Desiccation-tolerant (DT) vascular plants are able to withstand extreme dehydration,
losing up to 95% of their water content, and they revive themselves once water is available again. This unique
ability allows them to survive in harsh, arid environments that would be uninhabitable for most other plants.
Some species have been found to survive at increasing temperatures, making such properties crucial from the
perspective of the warming planet. DT plants have been studied for their possible applications in agriculture,
particularly in areas with limited water resources.
● Statement 2 is correct: In tropical regions, they are the predominant occupants of rock outcrops. In India, DT
plants are commonly found on outcrops in the Western Ghats (WG). In the recently found inventory of 62
species of DT plants in India, 16 are Indian endemic, and 12 are exclusive to the Western Ghats outcrops,
highlighting WG’s importance as a global DT hotspot. In addition to rock outcrops, tree trunks in the partially
shaded forests were also found to be crucial habitats for DT species, as per the study. The global population of
these species ranges between 300 and 1,500.
12. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recent coup in Niger; Russia-Ukraine conflict; APSEZ deal on Tanzania’s Dar es Salam port;
Syria permitted UN humanitarian aid through Bab al-Salam.
● Only Pair 4 is correctly matched. The correct pairs are described below.
● Niamey – Niger : In July 2023, a coup d'état occurred in Niger when the country's presidential guard detained
the President in the Presidential Palace in the capital, Niamey, and the presidential guard commander general
proclaimed himself the leader of a new military junta. Presidential guard forces closed the country's borders,
suspended state institutions, and declared a curfew.
● Kreminna – Ukraine : Russia recently launched a multi-pronged assault along the territories from just west of
Russian-occupied Svatove south to the outskirts of occupied Kreminna, in northeastern Ukraine. Kreminna is
one of the territories in Ukraine that has been occupied since the start of the Russia-Ukraine conflict. Occupied
parts are Donetsk, Kherson, Luhansk, Mykolayiv, and Zaporizhzhya Oblasts.
● Dar es Salam – Tanzania: Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd (APSEZ) is reportedly on the verge of
securing the rights to develop and operate cargo berths at Tanzania's main port Dar es Salaam. APSEZ's
collaboration with the Abu Dhabi Ports Group will support local employment and promote economic growth in
Tanzania and other East African countries. It represents the third global acquisition by APSEZ's port unit in
recent years.
● Bab al-Salam – Syria : Syrian government recently extended permission for the United Nations to deliver
humanitarian aid via the Bab al-Salam and Al Ra'ee border crossings for the next three months.
13. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: The Batagaika crater, the world's largest permafrost crater, is expanding at an alarming rate due
to the thawing of the permafrost.
● The Batagaika crater, located in Russia, is the biggest permafrost crater in the world. It is expanding at a baffling
rate due to the thawing of the permafrost. This has been exacerbated by global warming. The Batagaika crater
in Russia has now become a very glaring symbol of the impacts of global warming today.
Russia is warming about 2.5 times faster than the rest of the world. As a consequence, the long-frozen tundra that
covers 65 percent of the country’s landmass is melting. This is releasing greenhouse gases like methane stored in
the thawed soil which is 25 times more potent than carbon dioxide.
The expansion of the Batagaika crater is a sign of danger: with increasing temperatures and anthropogenic pressure
more and more of similar mega-slumps are likely to be formed in the future, and also the soil beneath the slump,
which is about 100 meter deep in some areas, contains organic carbon stores that will release into the atmosphere
as the permafrost thaws, further fuelling the planet's warming.
14. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: A 3-Day International Conference on Green Hydrogen began in New Delhi in July 2023.
● Statement 1 is correct: Green Hydrogen can be produced through electrolysis of water using renewable
electricity, and from biomass through thermochemical and biochemical routes.
In the thermochemical process, biomass is first converted into syngas (a hydrogen-rich fuel gas mixture) using
oxygen and steam, and then pure hydrogen is separated from syngas.
In the biochemical process, the Green Hydrogen is also called Biohydrogen. Microalgae biomass is frequently
utilized to generate various types of bioenergy, with biohydrogen being one of the most promising categories of
bioenergy that can be generated from microalgae. Biohydrogen can be generated from microalgae using two
alternative processes: i) direct production of biohydrogen by microalgae, and ii) microalgal biomass utilisation as a
fermentation substrate by other microbes.
● Statement 2 is correct: Apart from the National Green Hydrogen Mission, the Government of India is taking
various measures to turn India into a global hub for the production, use and export of Green Hydrogen, including
inter-alia:
○ Waiver of inter-state transmission charges has been granted for a period of 25 years to the producers of
Green Hydrogen and Green Ammonia for the projects commissioned before 31st December 2030.
○ The Electricity (Promoting Renewable Energy through Green Energy Open Access) Rules, 2022, notified
in June 2022 have specified provisions for facilitating supply of renewable energy through Open Access for
Green Hydrogen production.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme under
the National Green Hydrogen Mission is a major financial measure with an outlay of ₹ 17,490 crore. The
programme comprises two distinct financial incentive mechanisms to support domestic manufacturing of
electrolysers and production of Green Hydrogen. It will be implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy through Solar Energy Corporation of India Ltd. (SECI) as the implementing agency.
15. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: The first-ever Foreign Ministers’ meeting of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral
Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) began in Bangkok, Thailand, on July 17, 2023.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
(BIMSTEC) that was established in 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration. Initially known as BIST-
EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation), the organization is now known as
BIMSTEC and comprises seven members, with Myanmar joining towards the end of 1997, and Bhutan and
Nepal in 2004.
Around 22% of the world’s population live in the seven countries around the Bay of Bengal, with a combined GDP
close to $2.7 trillion. All seven countries have sustained average annual rates of growth between 3.4% and 7.5%
from 2012 to 2016. A fourth of the world’s traded goods cross the bay every year.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: China’s massive drive to build finance and build infrastructure in South and Southeast
Asia through the Belt and Road Initiative is present in almost all BIMSTEC countries, except Bhutan and India
(excluding the disputed CPEC project).
BIMSTEC could allow India to push a constructive agenda to counter Chinese investments, and instead follow best
practices for connectivity projects based on recognised international norms. The Chinese projects are widely seen
as violating these norms.
16. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: An adjournment motion was moved by Congress MPs in the Monsoon Session of Parliament.
● Statement 1 is correct: To raise matters in the House, members (including the Government) must inform the
presiding officers (the Chairman of Rajya Sabha and the Speaker of Lok Sabha) in advance. This requirement
ensures that the members and government can collect information to prepare themselves for the debate. The
secretariat of each House compiles the notices from the government and individual MPs into a list of business
for a day in Parliament. And MPs can only discuss a matter that is on the day’s business.
However, the scheduled business can be set aside by a procedural mechanism called the “adjournment motion”.
This Rule in Lok Sabha allows a member to urge the Speaker to adjourn the House’s business “to discuss a definite
matter of urgent public importance”. The Speaker has to decide whether to allow the member to move the motion.
It results in the House dropping its scheduled list of business to discuss this urgent matter.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The “adjournment motion” mechanism is not available in Rajya Sabha, on the ground
that the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha alone under Article 75(3) of the Constitution.
● Statement 3 is correct: In the absence of the ‘adjournment motion’ mechanism in the Rajya Sabha, its members
have used Rule 267 of the ‘Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Rajya Sabha’ to suspend Question
Hour in the House to raise urgent matters. Rule 267 can be used only to suspend a Rule, only to take up matters
that are already on the list of business.
In 2000, the Rules Committee of Rajya Sabha observed that members were using Rule 267 to “seek discussion
either on a matter not listed in the agenda for the particular day or on a subject that has not yet been admitted”. As
per its recommendation which was accepted, now Rule 267 can be used only to suspend a Rule, only to take up
matters that are already on the list of business. It also added a proviso that if an existing procedure allowed
suspending Rules (like suspension of Question Hour), an MP could not use Rule 267.
17. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Heat waves in back-to-back weeks grips the Mediterranean region while fires hit Spain,
Switzerland and Greece.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the India Meteorological Department, heat wave is considered if the maximum
temperature of a station reaches at least 40oC or more for plains and at least 30oC or more for hilly regions.
Qualitatively, heat wave is a condition of air temperature which becomes fatal to the human body when exposed.
Quantitatively, it is defined based on the temperature thresholds over a region in terms of actual temperature or
its departure from normal.
● Statement 2 is correct: A heat dome occurs when an area of high-pressure stays over a region for days and
weeks. It traps warm air, just like a lid on a pot, for an extended period. The longer that air remains trapped, the
more the sun works to heat the air, producing warmer conditions with every passing day. Heat domes, if they
last for a long period, may cause deadly heat waves. Heat domes are like blankets of hot air that can cover an
area for a while. Prolonged heat domes can lead to heat waves.
● Statement 3 is correct: Absence of moisture in the upper atmosphere, as the presence of moisture restricts the
temperature rise. Without moisture, there's nothing to cool down the air, so it gets hotter and hotter near the
ground. This lack of moisture in the upper atmosphere makes it easier for heat waves to form and make the
weather really hot.
18. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: A Zero FIR was filed in connection to the May 4 incident in Manipur, in which two women were
stripped and paraded in the state’s Thoubal district.
● Zero FIR: When a police station receives a complaint regarding an alleged offence that has been committed in
the jurisdiction of another police station, it registers an FIR and then transfers it to the relevant police station
for further investigation. This is called a Zero FIR. No regular FIR number is given. After receiving the Zero
FIR, the revenant police station registers a fresh FIR and starts the investigation.
● Purpose of a Zero FIR: The objective of a Zero FIR is to ensure the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to
post to get a police complaint registered. The provision is meant to provide speedy redressal to the victim so
that timely action can be taken after the filing of the FIR. A Zero FIR can be filed in any Police Station by the
victim, irrespective of their residence or the place of occurrence of crime.
19. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Tushar Mehta, the incumbent Solicitor General of India, was reappointed for a three-year term
by the Appointments Committee of Cabinet.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Attorney General of India is the only officer of the Government of India who is
allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. This provision is provided by Article 88 of the
Constitution.
● Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 88 of the Constitution, the Attorney-General of India shall have the right
to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and
any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member. However, he is not entitled to vote.
20. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: The Election Commission of India (ECI) recently announced an initiative to improve
transparency of the finances of political parties by launching a portal for the parties to submit the required
annual reports.
● Statement 1 is correct: Political parties registered with the Election Commission of India (ECI) are required
to submit annual audit reports, annual contribution reports of all donations over Rs 20,000 each, and expenditure
reports after every election. Before the launch of Integrated Election Expenditure Monitoring System (IEMS),
manual filing of required reports was done by physically submitting the documents.
● Statement 2 is correct: IEMS, a web based software, has been developed by the Election Commission of India to assist
the political parties in their compliances work. Political parties can file their Annual Audited Accounts, Contribution
Report & both Part and Full Election Expenditure Statements through the IEMS online portal.
● Statement 3 is correct: The political parties that do not wish to file the reports through the IEMS portal can
continue with the manual physical mode will have to convey the reasons for the same. The ECI would then
publish their reports on the portal, along with the letter of justification given by the party for not filing online.
21. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: DAY-NRLM recently launched the eSARAS mobile app to market products made by women of
Self-help Groups.
● None of the pairs are correctly matched: The correct pairs are described below.
● eSARAS Mobile App: To strengthen marketing support for products made by women of Self-help Groups
(SHGs), Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) launched
eSARAS mobile App which will add to eCommerce initiatives for products made by the SHGs.
● PM SVANidhi Mobile App: It was launched to bring microcredit facility for street vendors at their door steps. It
aims to provide a user-friendly digital interface for Lending Institutions (LIs) and their field functionaries for
sourcing and processing loan applications of street vendors under the PM SVANidhi Scheme.
● MANI (Mobile Aided Note Identifier) Mobile App: It will aid the visually impaired to identify the denomination
of Indian banknotes of Mahatma Gandhi Series and Mahatma Gandhi (New) series by capturing the image of
the notes placed in front of the rear mobile camera. The application will generate audio and non-sonic
notification intimating the currency note denomination to the user.
22. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently the U20 Engagement Group of G20 met in July 2023 for the Mayoral Summit in the
twin cities of Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
● Statement 1 is correct: U20 is an Engagement Group under the G20 in which each Participating City is
represented by its Mayor and a ‘City Sherpa’. U20 runs parallel to the G20 process, and coordinates a joint
position to inform the discussions of national leaders. Contributions from the U20 are shared with the G20
Presidency and Heads of State, enhancing the role of cities as global economic and political leaders.
● Statement 2 is correct: By facilitating discussions among cities from the G20 countries, the U20 establishes a
platform for cities to collectively inform G20 negotiations with respect to urban priorities. The U20 focuses on
climate change and sustainable development, including socio-economic issues at the nexus of the Sustainable
Development Goals; and cities’ cross-cutting challenge of access to finance.
● Statement 3 is correct: The U20 brings together a group of Participating Cities. These cities are important
economic or population hubs, made up of major C40 cities (C40 Cities is a global network of nearly 100 mayors
of the world's leading cities that are united in action to confront the climate crisis) and United Cities and Local
Governments (UCLG is an umbrella international organization for cities, local and regional governments, and
municipal associations throughout the world that is concerned with representing and defending the interests of
local governments on the world stage.) member cities from G20 countries.
During the process, each Participating City is represented by its Mayor and a ‘City Sherpa’). The U20 also invites
G20 and non-G20 capital cities and intermediary cities as Observer Cities represented by their Mayors, and works
with other organizations as U20 partners.
23. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: The Election Commission of India and Electoral Tribunal of Panama recently signed a
Memorandum of Understanding on electoral cooperation in Panama City.
● The Election Commission of India has been expanding its links and cooperation with foreign Election
Management Bodies (EMBs) through its ‘International Cooperation Programme’. Under the programme, the
Election Commission of India has been making incremental efforts to promote inter-institutional contacts, and
to provide technical support and user-friendly resources and advice to Election authorities elsewhere, on request.
In the process, the Election Commission of India has also acquired valuable learnings from its counterparts in
other countries. This international cooperation outreach has been made in conjunction with India’s foreign
policy objectives, to promote democracy and strengthen election administration world-wide.
● Among the Latin Americas region, the Election Commission of India has signed MoUs with Mexico, Brazil,
Chile and Panama; with an overall 31 MoUs with EMBs and international organizations across the world.
● The Election Commission of India is a member of the Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB). The A-
WEB is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide with 119 EMBs as Members
& 20 Regional Associations/Organisations as Associate Members.
24. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: In a recent meeting of the Empowered Committee for SAMARTH scheme, 43 new implementing
partners were added to the panel and an additional target of training around 75,000 beneficiaries was allocated
to the training partners to enable imparting of skill to the workforce.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: ‘SAMARTH’ (Scheme for Capacity Building in Textiles Sector) is a demand driven
and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme of the Ministry of Textiles.
SAMARTH aims to incentivize and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in the organized textile
and related sectors, covering the entire value chain of textiles, excluding Spinning and Weaving. The training
programme and course curriculum have been rationalized keeping in view the technological and market demand of
the domestic and international economies.
In addition to the entry level skilling, a special provision for upskilling/reskilling programmes has also been
operationalized under the scheme towards improving the productivity of the existing workers in Apparel &
Garmenting segments. SAMARTH also caters to the upskilling/ reskilling requirement of traditional textile sectors
such as handloom, handicraft, silk and jute.
● Statement 2 is correct: SAMARTH has been formulated with advanced features such as Aadhaar Enabled
Biometric Attendance System, Training of Trainers, CCTV recording of training programme, dedicated call
centre with helpline number, mobile app, Web based Management Information System, on-line monitoring of
the training process etc. The State, District, Training Centre-wise information/ data in the dashboard available
in public domain.
The major processes/procedures adopted in the implementation of scheme are: Training Centers proposed by the
implementing partners are to be physically verified through dedicated Government agencies for ensuring adequacy
of requisite infrastructure as per the protocol adopted for each course under the scheme.
Furthermore, a total of 184 courses aligned with the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF) have been
adopted under the scheme across various textile segments covering traditional sectors like Handloom/ Handicrafts
to conventional sectors like Garmenting to advanced sectors like Technical Textiles.
25. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: ISRO’s third lunar mission, the Chandrayaan-3 spacecraft was successfully launched onboard
LVM-3 on 14th July, 2023 at 14:35 hrs from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
● Pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched: The correct pairs are described below :
● Chandrayaan-1 - First mission in the world to discover water molecules on the Moon. Launched in October
2008, Chandrayaan-1 was India's first deep space mission.
Other key achievements of Chandrayaan-1 are:
○ Chandrayaan's NASA Instrument Moon Mineralogy Mapper has confirmed the magma ocean hypothesis,
meaning that the Moon was once completely molten.
○ It recorded images of the landing site of U.S. spacecraft Apollo 15.
○ Past tectonic activity on the lunar surface.
○ Imaged a lunar rille, formed by an ancient lunar lava flow, with an uncollapsed segment indicating the
presence of a lunar lava tube, a type of large cave below the lunar surface.
● Chandrayaan-2 - First ever global map for lunar sodium, chromium and manganese through remote sensing,
enhancing knowledge on crater size distribution and unambiguous detection of lunar surface water ice.
Chandrayaan-2, launched in July 2019, consisted of a lunar orbiter, a lander, and the Pragyan rover, all of which
were developed in India. The lander and the rover were scheduled to land on the south polar region of the Moon.
However, the lander crashed when it deviated from its intended trajectory while attempting to land due to a software
glitch.
ISRO is re-attempting a landing with Chandrayaan-3 which was launched on 14 July 2023 and is expected to land
near the lunar south pole region on 23 August 2023.
● Mangalyaan - First mission in the world to reach the Martian orbit on its maiden attempt. Mangalyaan (Mars
Orbiter Mission) was a space probe orbiting Mars. It was launched in November 2013 by ISRO. It was India's
first interplanetary mission and it made ISRO the fourth space agency to achieve Mars orbit, after Roscosmos,
NASA, and the European Space Agency. It made India the first Asian nation to reach the Martian orbit and the
first nation in the world to do so on its maiden attempt.
26. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently the second National Multidimensional Poverty Index report was published by Niti Aayog.
● Statement 1 is correct: The annual global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report has been jointly
published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human
Development Initiative (OPHI) since 2010. It measures interlinked deprivations in health, education and
standard of living that directly affect a person’s life and wellbeing. The global MPI is the only counting-based
index that measures overlapping deprivations for more than 100 countries and 1,200 subnational regions and
offers a key perspective on SDG 1, while encompassing indicators related to other SDGs. The global MPI can
be pictured as a stack of blocks, each of which represents a deprivation of a poor person. The goal is to eliminate
deprivations so the height of the stack declines.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s MPI, published by the NITI Aayog, is based on the methodology used by the
OPHI and UNDP to construct the Global MPI. The national MPI model retains the ten indicators of the global
MPI model, staying closely aligned to the global methodology. It also adds two indicators, viz., Maternal Health
and Bank Accounts in line with national priorities. Therefore, India’s MPI has 12 variables, while the Global
MPI has 10. The two additional variables in India’s MPI are maternal health and bank account. IT uses data
from the latest round of the National Family Health Survey, which is conducted by the International Institute
for Population Sciences under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India.
The indicators used in India’s MPI are given below :
● Statement 3 is correct: Dadabhai Naoroji, in his book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’ (1901), made
the earliest estimation of the poverty line in India. The poverty line proposed by him was based on the cost of a
subsistence or minimum basic diet (rice or flour, dal, mutton, vegetables, ghee, vegetable oil, and salt).
27. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently India has been inducted into the Mineral Security Partnership.
● Statement 1 is correct: India was recently inducted into the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP). India is
already a member of the Intergovernmental Forum on Mining, Minerals, Metals and Sustainable Development,
which supports the advancement of good mining governance.
MSP is a US-led collaboration of 14 countries that aims to catalyze public and private investment in critical mineral
supply chains globally. India’s inclusion as the newest partner in the MSP, will accelerate the development of
diverse and sustainable critical energy minerals supply chains globally while agreeing to the principles of the MSP
including environmental, social, and governance standards.
The inclusion of India in MSP becomes important in light of the fact that a major component of New Delhi’s growth plan
is driven by an ambitious shift in the mobility sector that involves the conversion of a sizable portion of both public and
private transportation to electric cars. The focus is on supply chains for minerals including cobalt, nickel, lithium, and the
17 “rare earth” minerals. While cobalt, nickel, and lithium are necessary for electric car batteries, rare earth minerals are
essential in tiny amounts for producing semiconductors and high-end electronics.
● Statement 2 is correct: India and Australia had signed the ‘Critical Minerals Investment Partnership’, which
is a major milestone in working towards investment in critical minerals projects to develop supply chains
between the two countries. The Partnership's investments will aim to create new supply chains supported by
essential minerals processed in Australia, which will support India's efforts to reduce emissions from its energy
network and establish itself as a hub of manufacturing, including for electric vehicles.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) is a joint venture company incorporated with the
equity contribution from three Central Public Sector Enterprises namely, National Aluminium Company Ltd,
Hindustan Copper Ltd and Mineral Exploration Company Ltd with the objective to identify and acquire overseas
mineral assets of critical & strategic nature such as Lithium, Cobalt & others so as to ensure supply side
assurance. KABIL has engagements with countries like Argentina, Australia etc. to acquire critical & strategic
minerals assets.
28. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: Ministry of Cooperation is developing a comprehensive National Cooperative Database in a
phased manner.
● Statement 1 is correct: As per statutory provisions, the Cooperative Societies with objects not confined to one
State are governed by Entry 44 of Union List of the Constitution and are centrally administered by Central
Registrar of Cooperative Societies (CRCS) under provisions of Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002.
The Cooperative Societies with objects confined to one State are governed by Entry 32 of State List of the
Constitution and are administered by the concerned State Registrar of Cooperative Societies (RCS) as per provisions
of respective State Cooperative Societies Act.
● Statement 2 is correct: As per Section 3 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, Primary Agricultural Credit
Societies (PACS) are outside its purview, i.e., the said regulations do not apply to PACS. Therefore, they are
not regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
● Statement 3 is correct: The rural co-operative credit system in India is primarily mandated to ensure flow of
credit to the agriculture sector. It comprises short-term and long-term co-operative credit structures. The short-
term co-operative credit structure operates with a three-tier system - Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
(PACS) at the village level, Central Cooperative Banks (CCBs) at the district level (DCCBs) and State
Cooperative Banks (StCBs) at the State level. StCBs/DCCBs are registered under the provisions of State
Cooperative Societies Act of the State concerned and are regulated by the Reserve Bank. Powers have been
delegated to National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) under Sec 35 (6) of the
Banking Regulation Act (As Applicable to Cooperative Societies) to conduct inspection of State and Central
Cooperative Banks.
29. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: China appears to be constructing an airstrip on the disputed Triton Island in the South China
Sea, according to satellite photos analyzed by The Associated Press.
● Triton Island is the westernmost and southernmost of the Paracel Islands in the South China Sea. It is also
claimed by Vietnam and Taiwan. Triton is one of the major islands in the Paracel group, which is roughly
equidistant from the coast of Vietnam and China’s island province of Hainan. The work on Triton island in the
Paracel group mirrors construction on seven human-made islands in the Spratly group to the east which have
been equipped with airstrips, docks and military systems, although it currently appears to be somewhat more
modest in scale.
● China claims virtually the entire South China Sea as its own, denying the claims of others and defying an
international ruling invalidating its assertion.
30. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Why in news: Ukraine's two biggest port cities, Odessa and Mykolaiv, were recently bombed in the wake of
Moscow's withdrawal from a U.N.-brokered deal to let Ukraine export grain; Emergence of Sulina Channel as
an alternative to export Ukraine’s grains through Romania’s biggest port - Constanta.
● None of the pairs correctly matched. The correct pairs are described below.
● Odessa: It is a major city in Ukraine and a major seaport and transport hub located in the south-west of the
country, on the northwestern shore of the Black Sea. In January 2023, its historic city centre was declared a
World Heritage Site and added to the ‘List of World Heritage in Danger’ by the UNESCO World Heritage
Committee in recognition of its influence on cinema, literature, and the arts. The declaration was made in
response to the bombing of Odessa during the 2022 Russian invasion of Ukraine, which has damaged or
destroyed buildings across the city.
● Port of Sulina: It is a Romanian port situated on the Black Sea, close to the northern border with Ukraine.
Located in Sulina, it is the last city through which the Danube flows before entering the Black Sea. The Sulina
Channel – a 63 km long distributary of the Danube, connecting major Ukrainian ports on the river to the Black
Sea, lies completely within the borders of Romania, a NATO member, and has emerged as an important
alternative trade route for Ukraine.
● Constanta: It is a major city in Romania and a principal port on the western coast of the Black Sea, and near the
Sulina Branch, through which the Danube river flows into the sea.
31. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Why in news: Prime Minister hoisted the tricolor and addressed the nation from the Red Fort in Delhi, early
morning on August 15, on the occasion of India’s 77th Independence Day.
● Statement 1 is correct: Babur (1483-1530), the founder of the Mughal dynasty, was the first to refer to Delhi
as the ‘capital of all Hindustan’ in the 16th century, and after conquering Delhi, Babur announced himself as
“Emperor of Hindustan”.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Mughals, under Akbar (1542-1605), shifted their capital to Agra for some time,
though they continued to be seen as the rulers of Delhi. Finally, under Shah Jahan (1592-1666), Delhi became
the Mughal capital once again with the establishment of Shahjahanabad in 1648 (known today as Old Delhi).
The Mughals would continue to rule from the fortified citadel of Shahjahanabad – more popularly known as the
Red Fort – till 1857.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Indian National Army trials (also known as the INA trials and the Red Fort trials)
was the British Indian trial by court-martial of a number of officers of the Indian National Army (INA) between
November 1945 and May 1946, on various charges of treason, torture, murder and abetment to murder, during
the Second World War.
The number of INA troops captured made it necessary to take a selective policy to charge those accused of the worst
allegations. The first of these was the joint trial of Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Sahgal and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon,
followed by several other commissioned officers of the INA. The decision was made to hold a public trial, as
opposed to the earlier trials, and given the political importance and significance of the trials, the decision was made
to hold these at the Red Fort.
32. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: The ethics and medical registration board under India’s apex regulator National Medical
Commission (NMC) recently notified guidelines for the professional conduct of registered doctors of modern
medicine.
● Statement 1 is correct: National Medical Commission (NMC) is an Indian regulatory body which regulates
medical education and medical professionals. The Commission grants recognition of medical qualifications,
gives accreditation to medical schools, grants registration to medical practitioners, and monitors medical
practice and assesses the medical infrastructure in India.
● Statement 2 is correct: As per the recent guidelines for the professional conduct of registered doctors of
modern medicine notified by the ethics and medical registration board under NMC, the doctors have been asked
to prescribe only generic medicines, except for cases where medicines have a narrow therapeutic index – drugs
where a small difference in dosage may lead to adverse outcomes – and other exceptional cases.
The guidelines also urge judicious use of fixed-dose combinations, with doctors being asked to prescribe only the
approved, rational combinations. They further ask doctors to educate people on generics being equivalent to branded
medicines, urge pharmacies to stock them, and encourage people to purchase drugs from Jan Aushadhi Kendras and
other generic drug outlets.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: In 2019, the National Medical Commission (NMC) replaced the Medical Council of
India through the NMC Act, 2019. The NITI Aayog had earlier recommended the replacement of the Medical
Council of India with the NMC.
33. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Parliamentary Privileges Committee is examining the suspension of various Members of Parliament for their
unruly conduct and breach of privileges.
● Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect: Parliament and its Members (MPs) have certain rights
and immunities that enable them to function effectively in their legislative roles. These are called parliamentary
privileges.
● Statement-II is incorrect: When the Constitution framers made our founding document, it provided that
parliamentary privileges would be those specified in a law made by Parliament. And until the national legislature
made such a law, privileges would be those enjoyed by the House of Commons, the lower House of the United
Kingdom’s Parliament. In 1978, Parliament deleted the reference to the House of Commons by a constitutional
amendment. And it is yet to make any law specifying these privileges.
● Statement-I is correct: Parliamentary privileges are, therefore, a mix of provisions in the Constitution, statutes,
House procedures and conventions. For example, the Constitution specifies that MPs have freedom of speech
and immunity from judicial proceedings against anything they say or votes they cast in Parliament.
Also, the Code of Civil Procedure protects them from arrest and detention under civil cases during a parliamentary
session, and for a specified period before it begins and after it ends. Parliamentary rules specify that authorities
should immediately inform the Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha about MPs’ arrests, releases
and convictions.
34. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Why in news: Recently the Prime Minister Narendra officially launched ‘Urea Gold’ fertilizer. Developed by
the state-owned Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Ltd (RCF), it is basically urea fortified with sulphur.
● Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-
I: Urea fortified with sulphur has a coating of sulphur over urea, which ensures a more gradual release of
nitrogen. By prolonging the urea action, the plants stay greener for a longer time. This is a method of improving
the nitrogen use efficiency of urea. Farmers tend to apply urea when they notice the leaves turning yellowish.
If the crop retains greenness for an extended period, they would reduce the frequency of application and use,
say, only two bags, as against three, for an acre of paddy or wheat.
● Urea Gold, developed by the state-owned Rashtriya Chemicals and Fertilizers Ltd (RCF), is basically urea
fortified with sulphur. Normal urea contains 46% of a single plant nutrient: Nitrogen or N. Urea Gold has 37%
N plus 17% sulphur or S and aims at two things. The first is to deliver S along with N. Indian soils are deficient
in S, which oilseeds and pulses – the country is significantly import-dependent in both – particularly require.
● Urea is India’s most widely used fertilizer, with its consumption/sales rising from 26.7 million tonnes (mt) to
35.7 mt between 2009-10 and 2022-23. Barely 35% of the N applied through urea in India is actually utilized
by crops to produce harvested yields. The balance 65% N is unavailable to the plants, much of it “lost” through
release into the atmosphere as ammonia gas or leaching below the ground after conversion into nitrate.
Declining NUE, from an estimated 48% in the early 1960s, has resulted in farmers applying more and more
fertilizer for the same yield.
35. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Why in news: China has been hit by devastating floods in recent weeks, inundating cities and causing deaths
and infrastructural damage, as well as raising questions about the effectiveness of its 2015 “sponge city”
initiative aimed at reducing urban flood risks.
● 1 (Rainwater is captured and can be reused) and 2 (Reduces urban heat island intensity) are advantages
of the ‘sponge city’ model.
● The term “sponge cities” is used to describe urban areas with abundant natural areas such as trees, lakes and
parks or other good design intended to absorb rain and prevent flooding. It is a new urban construction model
for flood management, strengthening ecological infrastructure and drainage systems, proposed by Chinese
researchers in early 2000.
● It includes the use of permeable asphalt, the construction of new canals and ponds and also the restoration of
wetlands, which would not only ease waterlogging, but also improve the urban environment.
● Breakneck urbanisation has encased vast stretches of land in impermeable concrete, often along banks of major
rivers that traditionally served as flood plains. With wetlands paved over and nowhere for surplus water to settle,
waterlogging and flooding was commonplace.
● The features of ‘sponge city’ model such as increased greenery, cool roofing and pavements, permeable
surfaces, water storage features, natural ventilation, reduced energy consumption, resilience to heatwaves etc.
has the following advantage :
○ Improves overall water quality.
○ Rainwater is captured and can be reused.
○ Reduces chance of flooding.
○ Reduces the railway problems.
○ Reduces urban heat island intensity.
○ Can shorten instances of flash flooding by leading rainwater to a canal.
○ Can deal with prolonged periods of rain.
● The model does not have the advantage of handling nearly unlimited amounts of rain on a daily basis, as evident
from Zhengzhou in China, which was one of the most enthusiastic pioneers of sponge city construction,
allocating nearly 60 billion yuan to the programme from 2016 to 2021. But it was unable to deal with its heaviest
rainfall in history in 2021. Experts believe sponge city infrastructure can only handle no more than 200
millimeters (7.9 inches) of rain per day.
● The model also does not have direct relation to reducing methane, as in some cases it can actually lead to
methane production such as increased wetlands and water storages.
36. Answer: D
Explanation
● Option D is correct: Recently, two ships of the Indian Navy - INS Visakhapatnam, and INS Trikand - visited
Port Rashid, Dubai, UAE to conduct bilateral exercise ‘Zayed Talwar’. The exercise envisages to boost the
maritime partnership between the two navies and foster a common understanding of the security challenges in
the region. Other bilateral exercises between the two countries include: In-UAE BILAT (bilateral naval
exercise), Desert Eagle-II (bilateral air force exercise) and Exercise Desert Flag-VI.
37. Answer: A
Explanation
● Statement 1 is correct: ‘River Devika Rejuvenation Project’ was launched under the National River
Conservation Plan (NRCP). Recently, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Science & Technology
sheds light on the progress of the River Rejuvenation Project, Devika. The Devika Rejuvenation Project is
nearing completion as of August 2023, with substantial progress achieved in restoring the Devika River's
ecological and cultural vitality.This initiative, inspired by the Namami Ganga campaign, aims to safeguard the
sacred Devika River's purity and health.
● Statement 2 is correct: Devika River originates from the hilly Suddha Mahadev temple in the Udhampur
district of Jammu and Kashmir and flows down towards western Punjab (now in Pakistan) where it merges with
the Ravi River.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The river holds religious significance as it is revered by Hindus as the sister of the
river Ganga. It is believed that Devika River is a manifestation of the Goddess Parwati herself to benefit the
people of Mader Desha that covers areas between river Ravi and Chenab.
38. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Sagar Setu is a national maritime single window platform that provides end-to-end
logistics solutions to help exporters, importers, and service providers. It is an “open platform” that allows
coexistence of multiple service providers to provide EXIM related services independently or by using
connectivity options. It will facilitate real-time information of activities that are generally not in reach of the
importer, exporter and customs broker. It also enables digital transactions for payments required for the
clearance process of import and export like CFS charges, shipping line charges, transportation charges, etc. It
also includes a single-window certification device to approve transactions, as well as the integration of an online
payment service. All services and documents generated will be in line with global best practices and standards.
● Statement 2 is correct: Port Health Organisation (PHO) was recently launched under Sagar Setu. PHO enables
Sagar Setu to be faster & simpler ecosystem to promote Ease of Doing Business. PHO will conduct disease
surveillance, health inspection, and quarantine measures to safeguard citizens and port workers. This module
has been envisaged as a part of ‘Ease of Doing business’ by covering features like request for PHO clearance
certificates, approval by PHO, etc.
39. Answer: C
Explanation:
● All Statements are Correct: The Himalayan vulture (Gyps himalayensis ) or Himalayan griffon vulture is an
Old World vulture. It is one of the two largest Old World vultures and true raptors. The Himalayan vulture is a
common winter migrant to the Indian plains and a resident of the high Himalayas. Himalayan vultures are
indigenous to the uplands of central Asia, ranging from Kazakhstan and Afghanistan in the west to western
China and Mongolia in the east. This species predominately inhabits the mountainous terrain of the Tibetan
plateau with migration usually only occurring attitudinally.
⮚ Breeding typically occurs at elevations between 600 and 4,500 m.
⮚ These birds generally mate at the nest site, but never on the ground.
⮚ Conservation status – IUCN: Near Threatened
40. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is Correct: Rajmargyatra is a citizen-centric unified mobile application for National Highway Users.
It aims to create a seamless, user-friendly experience for highway users, fostering a safer and more enjoyable
journey on Indian National Highways. The app is available on both Google Play Store and iOS App Store. The
app is launched by National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
The key features of the app includes:
⮚ Comprehensive Highway Information
⮚ Hassle-Free Complaint Redressal
⮚ Seamless FASTag Services
⮚ Over-speeding notifications and voice-assistance
41. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The campaign is envisaged as a culminating event of the ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav’
celebration of 75 years of Indian Independence. Aim of the campaign is to honour the memory of brave men
and women who laid down their lives for the country. The campaign will be launched in the run-up to
Independence Day, with special inscriptions to be installed in panchayats in their memory.
● Statement 2 is correct: Under this campaign, several programmes will be organised across the country in the memory
of immortal martyrs. Amrit Kalash Yatra – 7,500 pots carrying soil from different corners of the country will be brought
to the national capital along with saplings. Amrit Vatika – It is a unique garden built by fusing the soil and saplings that
would arrive in 7500 urns. It will be built near the National War Memorial and will become a grand symbol of ‘Ek
Bharat Shresth Bharat’. Vasudha Vandhan – It envisages every gram panchayat or village renewing Mother Earth by
planting 75 saplings of indigenous species and developing an Amrit Vatika.
42. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 148 of the Constitution of India provides for a Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG) to be appointed by the President. During the Financial Proclamation is in operation, the
executive authority of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to any State to observe such canons of
financial propriety as may be specified in the directions, and to the giving of such other directions as the
President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose.
● Statement 2 and statement 3 are correct: The Public Account Committee carries out the examination of the
Appropriation Accounts relating to the Railways, Defence Services, P&T Department and other Civil Ministries
of the Government of India and Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. The Comptroller and
Auditor General acts “friend, philosopher and guide” of the PAC. Information from CAG reports can be used
by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public
finances.
● Statement 4 is incorrect: While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG does
not have certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law. CAG is only an advisory body and
has some quasi-judicial powers.
43. Answer: C
Explanation:
● All Statements are correct: Starlink is a satellite constellation that comprises thousands of small satellites in
low-Earth orbit. Unlike traditional internet providers, Starlink doesn’t require any ground infrastructure.
Starlink has made drone warfare much easier. The company also has a mobile application for Android and iOS
that uses augmented reality to help customers choose the ideal location and position for their receivers. The
satellites of Starlink work only for five years and once they are dysfunctional, they remain in space and
contribute to space debris.
44. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: APEDA was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and
Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act of 1985. It works under the Ministry of Commerce
and Industry.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It’s Objective is to develop and promote the export of scheduled products. The
products specified under the APEDA ACT are called scheduled products, and exporters of such scheduled
products are required to register under APEDA.
● Statement 3 is correct: It provides financial assistance, information, and guidelines for the development of
scheduled products. Headquarters is in New Delhi. The general function also includes:
⮚ Registration of persons as exporters of the scheduled products on payment of such fees as may be
prescribed.
⮚ Fixing standards and specifications for the scheduled products for the purpose of exports;
⮚ Carrying out inspection of meat and meat products in slaughterhouses, processing plants, storage premises,
conveyances, or other places
⮚ Improving packaging of the Scheduled products;
⮚ Improving marketing of the Scheduled products outside India.
⮚ Promotion of export-oriented production and development of the Scheduled products.
45. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Vaquita porpoise is the world’s rarest and the smallest marine mammal. It is also
known as the panda of the sea for the distinctive black circles around its eyes.
● Statement 2 is correct: It is found only in the northern Gulf of California (Sea of Cortez) in Mexico. They are
found most commonly seen in shallow waters up to 50 metres deep.
Threats – They are caught and drowned in gillnets set up by poachers to catch totoaba, an endangered species of
marine fish sought by Chinese buyers on the black market for its prized swim bladders.
● Statement 3 is correct: This species die more each year in fishing nets than are being born. IUCN Status –
Critically Endangered.
46. Answer: D
Explanation:
● A canister for a missile serves a duel function which provides an environmental container and a launching tube.
● A canister launch system can be either hot launch, where the missile ignites in the cell, or cold launch, where
the missile is expelled by gas produced by a gas generator which is not part of the missile itself, and then the
missile ignites.
● In case of hot launches the problem is the heat produced by the missile at the time of launch.
● The hot launch is better for small missiles as the ejection part itself will be done by using missiles own engine.
● Agni P is a canister based missile. Canisterisation of missiles reduces the time required to launch the missile
while improving its storage and mobility.
● Canisterisation lessens the time required for launch and improves storage and mobility.
● This means that it can be launched from rail and road and stored for a longer period. It can also be transported
across the length and breadth of the country.
47. Answer: B
Explanation:
Features Located
on/belongs to
Crater Mars Jezero is a crater on Mars in the Syrtis Major quadrangle, about 45.0 km
Jezero in diameter. Thought to have once been flooded with water, the crater
contains a fan-delta deposit rich in clays. The lake in the crater was
present when valley networks were forming on Mars.
Olympus Mars It is the largest volcano on Mars. It is also the solar system's tallest
Mons mountain. Measuring 374 miles in diameter, it covers about the same
amount of land as the state of Arizona. Olympus Mons is located near
three other volcanoes known as the Tharsis Montes.
Europa Jupiter Europa, or Jupiter II, is the smallest of the four Galilean moons orbiting
Jupiter, and the sixth-closest to the planet of all the 92 known moons of
Jupiter. It is also the sixth-largest moon in the Solar System.
48. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Aedes aegypti, the yellow fever mosquito, is a mosquito that can spread dengue fever, chikungunya, Zika
fever, Mayaro and yellow fever viruses, and other disease agents.
● The mosquito can be recognized by black and white markings on its legs and a marking in the form of a lyre on
the upper surface of its thorax. This mosquito originated in Africa, but is now found in tropical, subtropical and
temperate regions throughout the world.
Option (2) is incorrect:
● Usually, people get malaria by being bitten by an infective female Anopheles mosquito. Only Anopheles
mosquitoes can transmit malaria and they must have been infected through a previous blood meal taken from
an infected person.
Option (3) is incorrect:
● Lymphatic filariasis, considered globally as a neglected tropical disease (NTD), is a parasitic disease caused
by microscopic, thread-like worms. The adult worms only live in the human lymph system. The lymph system
maintains the body's fluid balance and fights infections.
49. Answer: D
Explanation:
● National Supercomputing Mission was set up to provide the country with supercomputing infrastructure to meet
the increasing computational demands by manufacturing supercomputers indigenously in India.
● The National Super Computing Mission is steered jointly by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and
Department of Science and Technology (DST).
● It is implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune and the Indian
Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore.
● The target of the mission was set to establish a network of supercomputers ranging from a few Tera Flops to
greater than or equal to 3 Peta Flops (PF) in institutions of National importance across the country.
● This network of Supercomputers envisaging a total of 15-20 PF was approved in 2015 and was later revised to
a total of 45 PF (45000 TFs).
● Supercomputer PARAM 8000 (Indigenously build by C-DAC) launched in 1991 is considered India's first
supercomputer.
● National Supercomputing Mission's 1st indigenously build supercomputer is called ‘Param Shivay’.
● Param Shivay was followed by Param Shakti and Param Brahma supercomputers
50. Answer: D
Explanation:
● INS Arihant (SSBN 80) (Sanskrit: Vanquisher of Enemies), designated S2 Strategic Strike Nuclear Submarine,
is the lead ship of India's Arihant class of nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarines.
● The 6,000-tonne vessel was built under the Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) project at the Ship Building
Centre in the port city of Visakhapatnam.
● Arihant has four vertical launch tubes, which can carry 12 (three per launch tube) smaller K-15 missiles or four
larger K-4 missiles.
● It can stay underwater, undetected for longer periods than conventional submarines.
● It is presently armed with a K-15 or Sagarika Submarine Launched Ballistic Missile.
● India declared its nuclear triad capability after its first indigenous nuclear-powered submarine INS Arihant
conducted its first deterrence patrol in 2016 (commissioned in the Navy).
*******

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FOR PRELIMS

pPLT-1 (Polity 1.0)

(a) Nehruvian Socialism Provision Source

(b) Democratic Socialism 1. Ideals of Liberty, Soviet Union

(c) Radical Socialism Equality

(d) Communitarian Socialism 2. Fundamental Duties France

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Government of India Act, 1935

(a) Only one provide adequate facilities for instruction in

24. Consider the following elements is/are the correct?

2. Periodic elections 2. It means vesting of political

3. Rule of Law sovereignty in the people.

4. Independence of judiciary 3. Absence of any privileged class.

35. Consider the following statements.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

49. With reference to Right to Constitutional

pPLT-1 (Polity 1.0)

2. Answer: (C) All three Statements are correct.

3. Answer: (A) Only one statement is correct.

7. Answer: (C) All three Statements are correct.

8. Answer: (A) Only one pair is correctly matched.

9. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

10. Answer: (C) Only three Statements are incorrect.

14. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

16. Answer: (D) All four Statements are correct.

17. Answer: (D) None of the Above Statements are correct.

18. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are incorrect.

19. Answer: (C) Only three Statements are correct.

23. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

24. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

28. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

29. Answer: (A) Only one Statement is correct.

30. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

32. Answer: (D) All four Statements are correct.

34. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

35. Answer: (C) All three Statements are correct.

38. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

40. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

41. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

44. Answer: (C) All three Statements/pairs are correct.

46. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

47. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are incorrect.

48. Answer: (A) Only one Statement is correct.

49. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

pPLT-2 (Polity 2.0)

2. Consider the following statements: 4. Consider the following statements:

2. No ground has been mentioned in the preview of Consolidated Fund of India.

constitution for his removal. 3. Expenditures from Public Account of

3. Money Bill can be introduced by a obstructing the business of the house.

minister and a private member. 2. The power to suspend an MP is vested

(a) Only one (a) 1 only

(b) Only two (b) 2 only

(c) All three (c) Both 1 & 2

33. Consider the following statements with

44. What is the primary objective of including

(c) Both 1 and 2

pPLT-2 (Polity 2.0)

3. Answer: (C) All three Statements are incorrect.

6. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.

7. Answer: (B) Only two Statements are correct.