CLASS XII QUESTION BANK Biology

CHAPTER 2 - SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
SECTION A (1 mark each)
Multiple Choice Questions: (Choose the correct option)
1. Which of the following cells secrete enzyme to dissolve the nucellus and create an entry for
the male germ cells?
i) Synergids ii) Egg cell iii) Both a and b iv) None
2. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and female plant is tetraploid, the ploidy of
endosperm is?
i) Tetraploid ii) Pentaploid iii) Haploid iv) Triploid
3. Which of the following plant is not pollinated by water?

i) Vallisneria ii) Water Hyacinth iii) Hydrilla iv) Zostera
4. Which one undergoes meiosis?

i) PMC ii) Root tip iii) Pollen Grain iv) Antipodal
5. Apomixis means:
i) Sexual reproduction ii) Formation of seed without fusion of gametes
iii) Vegetative propagation iv) Formation of Seedless Fruit
6. How many microspores and megaspores would be required respectively to produce 200
embryos?
i) 200, 200 ii) 100, 200 iii) 50, 200 iv) 50, 100
7. Identify the type of pollination shown by Viola -

i) Autogamy ii) only Cleistogamy iii) Geitonogamy iv) Xenogamy
8. Which of the following is the only type of pollination which during pollination brings
genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?
i) Geitonogamy ii) Xenogamy iii) Autogamy iv) Cleistogamy
9. Which of the following does not have an albuminous seed?

i) coconut ii) barley iii) pea iv) castor
10. Which of the following is different with respect to ploidy?

i) Tapetum ii) Nucellus iii) Cotyledon iv) Endosperm
11. Which of the following do not have two types of flowers – chasmogamous and
cleistogamous?
i) cucurbits ii) pansy iii) Viola iv) Commelina
12. Which of the following has one ovule in one ovary?

i) papaya ii) paddy iii) water melon iv) orchids
13. Which of the following has many ovules in one ovary?

i) wheat ii) paddy iii) papaya iv) mango
14. Which of these is a dry fruit?

i) groundnut ii) guava iii) orange iv) mango
15. Scutellum is another name for:

i) Micropyle ii) Cotyledon iii) Coleoptile iv) Coleorrhiza
SECTION B (2 marks each)
Q 1. i) Write the difference between the tender coconut water and the thick, white
kernel of a mature coconut and their ploidy.
ii) Why is tender coconut considered healthy source of nutrition?
Q 2. Which parts of flower develop into perisperm and pericarp?
Q 3. Banana fruit is said to be parthenocarpic whereas turkey is said to be

parthenogenetic. Why?
Q 4. How does the tallest flower of Amorphophallus get pollinated? State another example of
similar kind.
Q 5. Differentiate between the seeds of wheat and groundnut on the basis of endosperm. Also
name these seeds.
Q 6. Angiosperms bearing unisexual flowers are said to be either monoecious or dioecious.

Explain with the help of one example each.
Q 7. Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set even in the absence of pollinators. How?
Q 8. State four characteristic features of wind pollinated flowers.
Q 9. State two characteristics of pollen of submerged water plants like sea grass, Zostera.
Q 10. Some flowers, selected for artificial hybridization, do not require emasculation but
bagging is essential for them. Give a reason.
Q 11. A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed and dithecous. Explain.
Q 12. Complete autogamy is rather rare. State two conditions essential for autogamy.
Q 13. Justify giving reasons:

i) Distribution of some bryophytes and pteridophytes is limited.
ii) Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
Q 14. State one difference each in the pollination of aquatic plants:
i) Water lily and Hydrilla ii) Vallisneria and Zostera.
Q 15. i) Who are pollen / nectar robbers?

ii) Pollination alone does not always ensure pollen germination.
Justify.
Q 16. This picture shows the gynoecium of (A) Papaver and (B)
Michellia
flowers. Write the difference in the structure of their ovaries.
Q 17. Differentiate between coleoptile and coleorrhiza.
Q 18. Arrange the following terms in the correct developmental sequence. Pollen grain,
Sporogenous tissue, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell, male gametes.
Q 19. Justify the following:

i) A malfunctioning tapetum fails to produce viable male gametophytes.
ii) Hybrid seeds need to be produced every year.
Q 20. Name:
i) The plant that came into India as contaminant with imported wheat and is responsible
for causing pollen allergy.
ii) One seed that has retained viability for thousands of years.
iii) Two animals which are pollinating agents.
Q 21. State two features of seeds that make them suitable for storage
Q 22. List the post - fertilisation events in

angiosperms.
Q 23. Differentiate between autogamy and

geitonogamy.
Q 24. In the section of apple, label ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’

and ‘d’
Q 25. State the origin, characteristics and fate of a megaspore mother cell.
SECTION C (3 marks each)
Q 1. (a) How does a farmer use the dormancy of seeds to his advantage?
(b) What advantages a seed provides to a plant?
Q 2. Why do hermaphrodite angiosperms develop out breeding devices? Explain any two such
devices with the help of examples.
Q 3. Define geitonogamy. State its one similarity each with autogamy and xenogamy.
Q 4. Describe the structure of a mature pollen grain.
Q 5. What are floral rewards? State their significance.

Q 6. Draw a diagram of L.S. of an embryo of grass and label any six parts.
Q 7. i) Why are pollen preserved as fossils?

ii) How are pollen preserved in pollen banks?
Q 8. i) Explain Double Fertilisation.

ii) State its significance.
Q 9. State the location and functions of the following:

i) Filliform Apparatus ii) Coleorhiza iii) PEN
Q 10. i) State two devices that prevent autogamy.

ii) How can both autogamy and geitonogamy be prevented?
Q 11. i) Mention the pollinating agent of an inflorescence of small, dull colored flowers with
well exposed stamens and large feathery stigma.
ii) State any one characteristic of pollen grains produced by these flowers.
iii) Name the part of flower which the tassels of corn - cob represent.
Q 12. Differentiate between parthenogenesis and parthenocarpy.
Q 13. i) Identify the given figure.

ii) Name the initial cell from which this structure has developed.
iii) Draw the next mature stage and label the parts.
Q 14. Explain pollination in sea grass, Zostera.
Q15. Explain pollination in Vallisneria.
Q 16. Differentiate between Microsporogenesis and Megasporogenesis.
Q 17. How does an embryo of grass differ from the embryo of bean?
Q16. Differentiate between:

i) Hypocotyl and Epicotyl ii) Integument and Testa
Q 17. Endosperm and Perisperm are two nutritive tissues. With the help of one example each,
explain how they are different from each other?
Q 18. Differentiate an embryo with endosperm with respect to origin, ploidy and fate.
Q 19. State any three significances of fruit formation.
SECTION D (3 marks each)
Q 1. A researcher attempts making apomictics of hybrid seeds.

i) What are the advantages of this attempt?
ii) How does it occur naturally in mango?
iii) How do you think this experiment will help the farmer?
Q 2. Pollens from flowers are of ecological as well economic value for humans.
i) How are they economically beneficial for us?
ii) How can pollen grains be harmful for humans?
.
Q 3. i) Brinjal flower is chasmogamous while pea flower is cleistogamous. How are the two
flowers different from each other?
ii) State the pollinating agents of the following: water hyacinth, grass, sunflower, Hydrilla..
Q 4. A farmer has set up bee hives near his maize fields. Do you think that this will help to
increase the yield? Justify.
Q 5. Explain the steps of artificial hybridisation in bisexual and unisexual flowers.
Q 6. i) The wind and water pollinated flowers produce enormous amount of pollen when
compared to the number of ovules available for pollination. Justify.
ii) Give two examples each of wind and water pollinated flowers.
Q 7. Mango is a true fruit, apple is a false fruit while banana is a Parthenocarpic fruit. How are
they different from each other?
Q 8. i) State an example of a fruit in which induced parthenocarpy would be very beneficial.
ii) Banana is a Parthenocarpic fruit while orange exhibits Polyembryony. How are they
different with reference to their seeds?
Q 9. List any three advantages that seeds offer to angiosperms.
Q 10. i) Plan an experiment and prepare a flow chart of steps that you would follow to ensure
that seeds are formed only from the desired set of pollen grain. Name the type of
experiment that you carried out.
ii) Write the importance of such experiments.
Q 11. Cultivation of hybrid varieties of crops is known to increase productivity. Still many
farmers are not adopting them due to some problems.
i) Explain any two problems faced by the farmers.
ii) Suggest a method to overcome these problems.
SECTION E (5 marks each)
Q 1. Draw a fertilized embryo sac. Describe its development into a dicot embryo.
Q 2. A flower of tomato plant produced 400 viable seeds. Answer the following questions giving
reasons:
i) How many ovules are minimally involved?
ii) How many microspore mother cells are involved?
iii) How many megaspore mother cells are involved?
iv) What is the minimum number of pollen grains that must land on the stigma for
pollination?
v) How many male gametes are involved in the process?
Q 3. i) In the Figure 4 of fertilized embryo – sac, identify ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’.
ii) State the fate of ‘a’ and ‘b’.
iii) State the fate of antipodal cells and synergids after fertilisation.
iv) How would the knowledge of pollen – pistil interaction help a
plant breeder?
Q 4. What do you mean by monosporic development of female

gametophyte? With a neat diagram explain the 7-celled, 8 nucleate
nature of female gametophyte.
Q 6. i) Describe in sequence the process of development of female

gametophyte from megaspore mother cell in angiosperms.
ii) Draw a labelled diagram of the final structure formed.
Q 5. In the diagram of a part of T. S. of anther, identify ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’,

‘e’
and state their functions.
Q 7. i) Define Apomixis?
ii) State its advantages.
iii) How does it occur?
iv) How is it different from parthenocarpy?
Q 8. Explain the post pollination events up to double fertilisation, that occur in an angiosperm.
Q 9. With the help of diagrams, trace the development of male gametophyte from microspore
mother cell.
Q 10. Majority of the angiosperm pollen are shed at 2 –celled stage.

i) Differentiate between the two cells.
ii) Differentiate between the two protective layers of the pollen.
iii) Why are pollen preserved as fossils?
Q 11. i) Draw L. S. of an anatropous ovule and label micropyle, funiculus, integuments,

embryo sac and chalaza.
ii) State the functions of micropyle, funiculus and integuments.
Q 12. Diagrammatically differentiate between a mature embryo sac and a fertilized

embryo sac.
CHAPTER 3 - HUMAN REPRODUCTION
1. Which of the following group of hormones are produced from placenta?

i) Estrogen, hPL, FSH ii) hCG, hPL, Progesterone
iii) Progesterone, hPL, LH iv) hCG, hPL, ICSH
2. Which of the following groups of cells in male gonad represent the haploid cells?
i) Spermatogonia ii) Germinal Epithelial Cells
iii) Secondary Spermatocytes iv) Primary Spermatocytes
3. In early stages of Vertebrate cleavage, successive blastomeres:

i) Are equal in size to that of the original zygote ii) Become smaller and smaller
iii) Grow larger and larger iv) Migrate to positions of future development
4. The _________________ are the first haploid cells during oogenesis:

i) Oogonia ii) Primary Oocyte iii) Secondary Oocyte iv) Ovum
5. During the ____________________ phase of menstruation, the lining of uterus starts to

rebuilt:
i) Menstrual ii) Proliferate iii) Secretory iv) The lining of uterus rebuilds
continuously
6. Which of the following do not have a cavity?
a) Human egg b) blastocyst c) Graafian follicle d) morula
i) a) only ii) b) and c) iii) a) and d) iv) d) only
7. Androgens are synthesized by:

i) Sertoli Cells ii) Leydig cells iii) Seminal vesicles iv) Bulbourethral
gland
8. The doctors inject --------------------- to induce delivery.

i) Relaxin ii) Oxytocin iii) hCG iv) Prolactin
9. Humans are sexually reproducing and ---------------------.

i) Unisexual, viviparous ii) Unisexual, oviparous
iii) Bisexual, viviparous iv) Bisexual, oviparous
Q 1. The testes are situated outside the

abdominal cavity within a pouch called
scrotum. State the function of scrotum.
Q 2. State the functions of testis and

ovaries.
Q 3. Identify the events that occur in the

labelled sites in the given figure.
Q 4. In the figure depicting a pregnant woman and assuming the

developing foetus to be a female, name the cells that would be present in
the foetus ovary.
Also state the relationship of X with the pregnant woman.
Q 5. In the given figure,

i) Name the space marked ‘a’ outside egg membrane and
extra
egg membranes, ‘b’ and ‘c’.
ii) The stage has been released from the ovary and is
present in the
fallopian tube. Name the stage of egg development.
Q 6. Differentiate between extra egg membranes, zona pellucida and

corona radiata.
Q 7. Differentiate between menarche and menopause.
Q 8. Name and define the event being depicted in the figure.

Where is it occuring?
Q 9. Identify the stage shown in the figure. Describe its

structure briefly.Name its next stage.
Q 10. Differentiate between Sertoli cell and Leydig cell.
Q 11. What happens to corpus luteum in human

female if
the ovum is (i) fertilized, (ii) not fertilized?
Q 12. Identify the events ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ to ‘F’ and ‘H’ in
the
development of embryo.
Q 13. Why is breast-feeding recommended during

the
initial period of an infant’s growth? Give
three
reasons.
Q 14. How many eggs are released by a human ovary

in a
month? How many eggs do you think would have
been
released if the mother gave birth to identical
twins?
Would your answer change if the twins born
were
fraternal?
How many eggs do you think were released by
the
ovary of a female dog which gave birth to 6
puppies?
Q 15 During oogenesis, primary oocyte divides by meiosis
unequally into a large haploid secondary oocyte and a
tiny
first polar body. The secondary oocyte retains bulk of
the
nutrient rich cytoplasm of the primary oocyte.
What is the advantage for this?
Q16 Why is parturition called a neuroendocrine mechanism
.
Q 1. i) Identify the parts ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.

ii) State the number of ‘d’ in each testis.
iii) What is located in ‘d’?
Q 2. Trace the path of spermatozoa from seminiferous tubule

to
exterior.
3. In the given figure, label the male accessory glands and state their functions.
Q 4. In the diagram showing a part of the human female

reproductive system,
i) Name the uterine layers marked ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’.
ii) State the functions of ‘a’ and ‘b’.
iii) State the shape of uterus.
Q 5. i) In the pictorial representation of

spermatogenesis,
label the processes A, B and C.
iii) When does the process begin in human males
and under the influence of which hormone?
iii) Where do sperms get nutrition from?
Q 6. i) Draw a Graafian follicle and label antrum and

secondary oocyte.
ii) Name the protective layers present.
iv) Name the structure Graafian follicle gets
transformed into.
Q 7. Differentiate between follicular phase and luteal phase of menstrual cycle.

Q 8. Draw a well –labelled diagram of human sperm.
Q 9. Explain the role of pituitary and sex hormones in the process of spermatogenesis.
Q 10. Given figures depict a sequence of development stages that a zygote ‘a’ undergoes.
i) Name the divisions that result in the formation of ‘c’.
ii) How are these divisions different from normal division?
iii) Name the cells ‘X’.
iv)Where are these stages occuring?
v) Name ‘Y’ and explain its significance.
Q 11. i) Identify the developmental stage depicted in the figure.
ii) Label (i) and (ii) and state their functions.
iii) What is the fate of this stage?
Q 12. Identify the labels ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’ in the figure.
Why is ‘C’ rudimentary in humans?
Q 13. i) What is the fate of inner cell mass immediately

after
implantation?
ii) What are stem cells?
Q 14. Answer the following with reference to the figure given below:
i) Identify and differentiate between ‘e’ and ‘g’.

ii) Name the event occurring in ‘f’. Name the hormones responsible for it.
iii) Describe the simultaneous events occurring in the uterus from ‘g’ to ‘i’.
Q 1. About 300 million spermatozoa may be present in a human male ejaculation at one time.
Calculate how many:
i) spermatogonia will be involved to produce this number of spermatozoa?
ii) Secondary spermatocytes will be formed?
iii) Define Spermiation.
Q 2. Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis
Q 3. In the flow chart depicting hormonal control of spermatogenesis, identify ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’
‘e’
and ‘f’.
Q 4. i) Draw a sectional view of seminiferous tubules of human. Label Sertoli cells,
spermatagonia
and Leydig cells on it and write their functions.
Q 5. Explain with reason:

i) Not all copulations lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.
ii) Only one sperm can fertilise an ovum. (Or how can polyspermy be prevented?)
iii) The sex of the baby has been decided at zygote stage itself.
Q 6. The given picture depicts kit for detection of

pregnancy.
What is the principle behind this kit?
Q 7. i) A woman misses menstruation and goes to the

doctor to
find out if she is pregnant after a month. How will
the
doctor find out?
ii) It is advised to a pregnant woman to be careful and
not get
undue exposure to radiations or chemicals, especially
during the first three months of pregnancy / first
trimester.
Why?
iv) On confirmation of pregnancy by the doctor, when
will
the pregnant woman first feel the baby?
Q 1. How many cells are located inside testis?

Name them and state their functions
respectively.
Q 2. In the figure depicting human female

reproductive system, label the parts – ‘a’, ‘b’,
‘c’,
‘d’, ‘e’, ‘f’ and ‘g’.
State the functions of ‘b’ and ‘f’.
Q 3. In the schematic diagram of a part of testis,
i) Name the processes ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
ii) Name the different cells form a → e.
iii) State the ploidy of cells a, b and c.
Q 4. i) In the given diagram of human

sperm,
label ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’ and state their
functions.
ii) State the conditions necessary

regarding sperm number and structure
for fertility.
Q 5. i) In the figure depicting a section of human

ovary, identify ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.
ii) Name the stage of oogenesis found in ‘a’,
‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.
iii) When will ‘a’ be formed? State the
number of ‘a’.
v) Which of the following stages will show
meiosis I? Name the resulting daughter
cells.
Q 6. Explain the events in a normal woman during her menstrual cycle on the following days.
i) Ovarian events from 3-12 days
ii) Ovarian events from 13-15 days
iii) Ovarian events from 16 to 23 days
iv) Ovarian hormones level from 3-12 days
v) Ovarian hormones level from 16 to 23 days
Q 7. Explain the events in a normal woman during her menstrual cycle on the following days.
i) Uterine events from 3-12 days
ii) Uterine events from 16 to 23 days
iii) Uterine events from 24 to 29 days.
iv) Pituitary hormones level from 3-12 days
v) Pituitary hormones level from 13 to 15 days
Q 8. The graph given below shows the variation in the levels of ovarian hormones during
various
phases of menstrual cycle:
i) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.
ii) Specify the source of
the hormone marked
in the diagram.
iii) Reason out why A
peaks before B.
iv) Compare the roles of A and B.
v) Under which condition will the level of B continue to remain high on the 28th day?
Q 9. Describe the steps of spermatogenesis.
Q 10. Explain Oogenesis.
Q 11. Briefly explain the events of fertilization, cleavage and implantation in an adult human
female.
Q 12. Explain the main events of menstrual cycle in a human female.
Q 13. After implantation inter -digitation of maternal and foetal tissues takes place. Identify
the
tissues involved. Name the structure formed and state its functions.
Q 14. Define gestation and parturition? Mention how it is induced.

CHAPTER 4 - Reproductive Health
1. Which of the following is not a copper releasing IUDs?

i) CuT ii) Cu7 iii) Multiload 375 iv) Lippes loop
2. Which of the following was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute
(CDRI)
in Lucknow, India?
i) Nirodh ii) Saheli iii) 72 – hour pill iv) Mala –D
3. Which of the following is a terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies?

i) Vasectomy ii) Periodic abstinence iii) IUDs iv) Implants
4. Which of the following is transmitted just like AIDS?

i) Gonorrhoea ii) chlamydiasis iii) trichomoniasis iv) hepatitis-B
5. In test tube baby programme, where is the embryo with more than 8 blastomeres
transferred?
i) fallopian tube ii) Uterus iii) Cervix iv) Ovary
6. A procedure that finds use in testing for genetic disorders, but is also misused for foeticide
is:
i) Lactational amenorrhea ii) Amniocentesis iii) Artificial insemination iv) Parturition
7) ‘Family planning’ programmes were initiated in –

i) 1951 ii) 1952 iii) 1961 iv) 1962
8) Government of India legalised MTP in –

i) 1961 ii) 1971 iii) 1981 iv) 1991
Q 1. Define reproductive health according to WHO. Which society will be called a

reproductively
healthy society?
Q 2. Expand RCH programmes. State the aim of these programmes.
Q 3. Govt. of India has raised the marriageable age of female to 18 yrs. and of males to 21 yrs.
Suggest any two more measures adopted by Government for the purpose.
Q 4. A childless couple has agreed for a test tube baby programme. List only the basic steps the
procedure would involve to conceive the baby.
Q 5. Expand ICSI. Under what conditions will the doctor advice it?
Q 6. i) In case of an infertile couple, the male partner can inseminate normally but the mobility
of
sperms is below 40 percent. Which kind of ART is suitable in this situation to form an
embryo in the laboratory conditions, without involving a donor?
ii) In another case of an infertile couple, the female who cannot produce egg but can
provide
suitable environment for fertilisation and further development. Which ART would the
doctor suggest to such a couple?
Q 7. A large number of married couples the world over are childless. State any two reasons
responsible for the cause of infertility.
Q 8. State the composition in pills and implants. Why are implants more effective as a
contraceptive in human females?
Q 9. How can a possible pregnancy due to rape or casual unprotected intercourse avoided?
Q 10. Name three common barrier methods for females. State their major advantage.
Q 11. After a successful in vitro fertilization, the fertilized egg

begins
to divide. Where is this egg transferred before it reaches the
8–
celled stage and what is the technique termed?
Q 12. Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive

option. Justify.
Q 13. In the given picture only one contraceptive pill is shown.

Comment on the application of this pill.
Q 1. Explain amniocentesis? State one advantage and one disadvantage of the technique.
Q 2. i) List any four characteristics of an ideal contraceptive.
ii) Name two intrauterine contraceptive devices that affect the motility of sperms.
Q 3. Write the characteristics of “Saheli” pill.

Q 4. i) Expand STDs?
ii) State 3 common symptoms of STDs?
Q 5. Give three simple principles to prevent STD infections.
Q 6. A childless couple has agreed for a test tube baby programme. List only the basic steps the
procedure would involve to conceive the baby.
Q 7. (i) ZIFT and IUT are part of test tube baby programme. How are they different from each
other?
ii) Differentiate between GIFT and ZIFT.
Q 1. Reproductive and Child Healthcare (RCH) programmes are currently in operation. One
of
the major tasks of these programmes is to create awareness amongst people about the
wide
range of reproduction related aspects as this is important and essential for building a
reproductively healthy society.
i) “Providing sex education in schools is one of the ways to meet this goal.” Give four points
in support of your opinion regarding this statement.
ii) List any two ‘indicators’ that indicate a reproductively healthy society.
Q 2. List three reasons for increase in India’s population.
Q 3. The alarming population growth is leading to scarcity of basic requirements. Suggest with
reasons, any three population control measures other than contraception to address the
situation.
Q 4. Mrs. Sarita was eager to know the sex of foetus which her daughter-in-law was carrying.
She
was so anxious that she could pay any amount for that. The doctor refused to disclose the
result of the test as it is banned in the country.
i) How can one know the sex of the foetus? How is it done?
ii) Why is disclosing the sex of the foetus banned in our country?
Q 5. ‘Nirodh’ is a popular brand of condom for the male. Use of condoms has increased in
recent
years. Justify two main benefits of male condoms
Q 6. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) or induced abortion has a significant role in

decreasing the population though it is not meant for that purpose. Government of India
legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse. Under what
circumstances can MTP be conducted by a medical practitioner?
Q 7. Suggest three techniques that can help the couple to have a child where the problem is
with
the male partner.
.
Q 1. Expand the following:

i) IVF ii) ZIFT iii) IUT iv) MTP v) GIFT
Q 2. A village health worker was taking a session with women. She tells the women that one has
to
be very careful while using oral pills as method of birth control. Wrong usage can actually
promote conception.
i) Analyse the statement and compare the merits and demerits of using oral pills and
surgical methods of birth control.
ii) Village women were confused as to how a thin metallic Copper loop can provide
protection against pregnancy. Justify the use explaining the mode of action of IUDs.
Q 3. i) How do pills act? Give three reasons.

ii) State two advantages of using pills.
Q 4. i) Name a terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies.

ii) State the principle behind it.
ii) Describe how it is carried out in males and females respectively.
iii) State its major drawback.
Q 5. i) Name ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space
their
children. How are they used?
ii) How many different types are used? State one example of each.
iii) How do these act?
Q 6. State the main principle behind the following:

i) Periodic abstinence ii) Coitus interruptus
iii) Lactational amenorrhea iv) Barrier methods v) Pills.
Q 7. Identify the following contraceptive devices / method.
i) ii) iii) iv) v)

UNIT VII
GENETICS AND EVOLUTION
Chapter 5
Principles of Inheritance
And Variation
Chapter 6
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Chapter 7
Evolution
CHAPTER 5 -PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
1. Conditions of a karyotype 2n ± 1 and 2n ± 2 are called:

i) Aneuploidy ii) Polyploidy iii) Allopolyploidy iv) Monosomy
2. Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows:

i) a direct relationship ii) an inverse relationship
iii) a parallel relationship iv) no relationship
3. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only
some of the male progeny, the disease is:
i) Autosomal dominant ii) Autosomal recessive
iii) Sex-linked dominant iv) Sex-linked recessive
4. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets
codes for valine?
i) G G G ii) A A G iii) G A A iv) G U G
5. Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of:
i) Pleiotropy ii) Co-dominance iii) Segregation iv) Incomplete dominance
6. The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations among humans is studied by the pedigree
analysis. Character studied in the pedigree analysis is equivalent to:
i) quantitative trait ii) Mendelian trait iii) polygenic trait iv) maternal trait
7. It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and
independent. This proposition was based on the:
i) results of F3 generation of a cross.
ii) observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting
characters
shows only one character without any blending.
iii) self - pollination of F1 offsprings
iv) cross-pollination of parental generations
8. Two genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are linked. In a dihybrid cross involving these two genes, the F1
heterozygote is crossed with the homozygous recessive parental type (aa bb). What would be
the ratio of offspring in the next generation?
i) 1 : 1 : 1: 1 ii) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 iii) 3 : 1 iv) 1 : 1
9. In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes
are:
i) phenotypes - 4; genotypes - 16 ii) phenotypes - 9; genotypes – 4
iii) phenotypes - 4; genotypes - 8 iv) phenotypes - 4; genotypes -9
Q 1. A cross was carried out between two pea plants showing the contrasting traits of the
height of
the plants. The result of the cross showed 50 % parental characters.
i) Work out the cross with the help of a Punnett square.
ii) Name the type of cross carried out.
Q 2. In a cross between two tall pea plants, some of the offsprings produced were dwarf. Show
with the help of Punnett square how this is possible.
Q 3. The Tallness of pea plant is a dominant trait, while dwarfness is the alternate recessive
trait.
When a pure-line tall is crossed with the pure-line dwarf, what fraction of tall plant in F2
shall be heterozygous? Give reasons.
Q 4. How does a test-cross help in identifying the genotype of the organism? Explain.
Q 5. The Inheritance pattern of ABO blood groups in humans shows dominance, co-
dominance,
and multiple allelism. Explain each concept with the help of blood group genotypes.
Q 6. Write the scientific name of the fruit fly. Why did Morgan prefer to work with fruit-flies
for
his experiments? State any three reasons
Q 7. In a dihybrid cross white-eyed, yellow bodied female Drosophila crossed with red-eyed,
brown bodied male Drosophila produced in F2 generation 1.3 percent recombinants and
98.7
percent progeny with parental type combinations. This observation of Morgan deviated
from
the Mendelian F2 phenotypic dihybrid ratio. Explain, giving reasons, Morgan’s
observations.
Q 8. Write the types of sex-determination mechanisms the following crosses show. Give an
example of each type.
i) Female XX with male XO ii) Female ZW with male ZZ.
Q 9. Name a blood-related autosomal Mendelian disorder. Why is it called Mendelian

disorder?
How is the disorder transmitted from parents to offsprings?
Q10. i)Name the genetic disorder in a human female having 44 + XO karyotype. Mention the
diagnostic features of the disorder.
iii) Explain the cause of such chromosomal disorder.
Q11 How multiple allelism is different from pleiotropy explain with the help of example.
Q 1. i) Write the conclusions Mendel derived on dominance of traits on the basis of

monohybrid
Crosses that he carried out in pea plants.
ii) Explain why a recessive allele is unable to express itself in a heterozygous state?
Q 2. Explain polygenic inheritance with the help of a suitable example. How is polygenic
inheritance different from pleiotropy?
Q 3. In pea plants, the colour of the flower is either violet or white whereas human skin colour
shows many gradations. Explain with reasons how is it possible?
Q 4. Work out a monohybrid cross up to F2 generation between two pea plants and two
Antirrhinum plants both having contrasting traits with respect to colour of flower.
Comment on the pattern of inheritance in the crosses carried out in above cases.
Q 5. Pea seeds with ‘BB’ alleles have round seeds and large starch grains, while seeds with ‘bb’
alleles have wrinkled seeds with small starch grains. Work out the cross between these two
parents. Explain the phenotypic ratio of the progeny with respect to seed shape and the
starch
grain size of the progeny produced.
Q 6.Given below is a table showing the genotypes and the phenotypes of blood groups in the
human population:
i) Identify the genotypes (W) and (X) and the
S.No Genotype Phenotype
phenotypes (Y) and (Z).
ii) How is co-dominance different from incomplete 1 (W) A
dominance and dominance? 2 B
I I O (Y)
iii) Name the pattern of inheritance exhibited by the 3 A
I I B (Z)
phenotypes (Y) and (Z) in the table.
4 (X) O
Q 7. Study the two crosses given below and answer the question.
Identify in which of the given crosses, the strength of linkage between the genes is higher. Give
reasons in support of your answer.
Q 8. During the studies on genes in Drosophila that were sex-linked, T.H. Morgan found F2
population phenotypic ratios deviated from expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio. Explain the
conclusion
he derived from it.
Q 9. i) Explain the mechanism of sex- determination in humans.

ii) How does it differ from sex determination in birds and honey bees?
iii) Differentiate between male heterogamety and female heterogamety with the help of one
example of each.
Q 1. A relevant portion of β - chain of haemoglobin of a normal human is given below:
The codon for sixth amino acid is GAG. The sixth codon GAG mutates to GAA as a result
of mutation ‘A’ and into GUG as a result of mutation ‘B’. Haemoglobin structure did not
change as a result of mutation ‘A’ whereas haemoglobin structure changed because of
mutation ‘B’ leading to sickle shaped RBCs. Explain giving reasons how could mutation
‘B’ change the haemoglobin structure and not mutation ‘A’?
Q 2. Identify ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’,‘d’, ‘e’ and ‘f ’ in the table given below.
Characteristics of affected
No. Syndrome Cause sex male/ female/ both
individuals
‘a’
Trisomy
1. Down’s (i) ‘b’
of 21
(ii)
2. ‘c’ XXY Overall masculine development ‘d’
‘e’
45 with
3. Turner’s (i), ‘f ’
XO
(ii)
Q 3.Given below is the representation of an amino acid composition of the relevant translated
portion of β-chain of haemoglobin, related to the shape of human red blood cells.
i) Is this representation indicating a normal human or a sufferer from certain related genetic
disease? Give reason in support of your answer.
iv) What difference would be noticed in the phenotype of the normal and the sufferer related to
this gene?
v) Who are likely to suffer more from the defect related to the gene represented the males, the
females or both males and females equally? Why?
Q 1. i) List the three different allelic forms of gene ‘I’ in humans. Explain the different
phenotypic
expressions, controlled by these three forms.
ii) A woman with blood group ‘A’ marries a man with blood group ‘O’. Discuss the
possibilities of the inheritance of the blood groups in the following starting with “yes” or
“no” for each:
a) They produce children with blood group “A” only.
b) They produce children some with “O” blood group and some with “A” blood group.
Q 2. i) Dihybrid cross between two garden pea plants, one homozygous tall with round seeds,
and
the other dwarf with wrinkled seeds was carried out.
a) Write the genotype and phenotype of the F1 progeny obtained from this cross.
b) Give the different types of gametes of the F1 progeny.
c) Write the phenotypes and its ratios of the F2 generation obtained in this cross along
with the explanation provided by Mendel.
ii) How were the observations of F2 progeny of dihybrid crosses in Drosophila by Morgan
different from that of Mendel carried in pea plants? Explain giving reasons.
Q 3. Let ‘Y’ be the genotypic symbol for dominant yellow seed colour, symbol ‘y’ for recessive
green seed colour, symbol ‘R’ for the dominant round shape of seed and symbol ‘r’ for
recessive wrinkled seed shape in garden pea. Using these symbols explain Mendel’s law of
independent assortment.
Q 4. i) Why are colour blindness and thalassemia categorised as Mendelian disorders? Write
the
symptoms of these diseases seen in people suffering from them.
ii) About 8% of the human male population suffers from colour blindness whereas only
about
0.4% of the human female population suffers from this disease. Write an explanation to
show how it is possible.
Q 5. A child suffering from thalassemia is born to a normal couple. But the mother is being
blamed by the family for delivering a sick baby.
i) What is thalassemia?
ii) How would you counsel the family not to blame the mother for delivering a child
suffering from this disease? Explain.
iii) List the values your counselling can propagate in the families.
CHAPTER 6 - MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
1. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at:
i) 3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
ii) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
iii) the 5' (upstream) end
iv) the 3' (downstream) end
2. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia?
i) It cannot be treated with iron supplements ii) It is a molecular disease
iii) It confers resistance to acquiring malaria iv) All of the above
3. One of the following is true with respect to AUG

i) It codes for methionine only ii) It is also an initiation codon
iii) It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes iv) All of the above
4. The first genetic material could be:

i) protein ii) carbohydrates
iii) DNA iv) RNA
5. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes:

i) exons and introns do not appear in the mature RNA
ii) exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature RNA
iii) introns appear but exons do not appear in the mature RNA
iv) both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA
6. The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are
respectively:
i) Chromosome 21 and Y ii) Chromosome 1 and X
iii) Chromosome 1 and Y iv) Chromosome X and Y
7. Which of the following was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced?
i) Chromosome 1 ii) Chromosome 11
iii) Chromosome 21 iv) Chromosome x
8. Which of the following are the functions of RNA?

i) It is a carrier of genetic information from DNA to ribosomes synthesizing polypeptides.
ii) It carries amino acids to ribosomes.
iii) It is a constituent component of ribosomes.
iv) All of the above.
9. While analysing the DNA of an organism a total number of 5386 nucleotides were found out
of which the proportion of different bases were: Adenine = 29%, Guanine = 17%, Cytosine =
32%, Thymine = 17%. Considering the Chargaff’s rule it can be concluded that:
i) it is a double stranded circular DNA ii) It is single stranded DNA
iii) It is a double stranded linear DNA iv) No conclusion can be draw
10. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at which end?

i) 5' - end ii) 3' - end iii) Anti - codon site iv) DHU loop
Q 1. Answer the following questions based on the dinucleotide shown below
i) Name the type of sugar guanine base is attached to.

ii) Name the linkage connecting the two nucleotides.
iii) Identify the 3’ end of the dinucleotide.
Q 2. Look at the sequence shown and mention the events A, B and C.
What does central dogma state in molecular biology? How does it differ in some viruses?
Q 3. i) Why is DNA a better genetic material when compared to RNA?

ii) List any four properties of a molecule to be able to act as a genetic material.
Q 4. It is established that RNA is the first genetic material. Explain giving three reasons.
Q 5. i) Name the source of energy for the replication of DNA.

ii) Why is it not possible for an alien DNA to become part of chromosome anywhere along
its length and replicate normally?
Q 6. Mention the polarity of the DNA strands a → b and c → d shown in

the given replicating fork .
Q 7. i) State the dual roles of deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates during DNA replication.
ii) State the difference between the structural genes in a transcription unit of prokaryotes
and eukaryotes.
Q 8. A template strand is given below. Write down the corresponding coding strand and the
m-RNA strand that can be formed, along with their polarity.
3’ ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC 5’
Q 9. Following are the features of genetic codes. What does each one indicate?
i) Stop codon; ii)Unambiguous codon;
iii) degenerate codon; iv)Universal codon.
Q 10. i) Name the scientist who suggested that the genetic code should be made of a
combination of three nucleotides.
ii) Explain the basis on which he arrived at this conclusion.
Q 11. i) Explain the structure of a tRNA and state why it is known as an adaptor molecule.
ii) Differentiate between ‘unambiguous’ and ‘degenerate’ codons.
iii) Write two functions of the codon AUG.
Q 12. What is aminoacylation? State its significance.
Q 13. State the functions of ribozyme and release factor in protein synthesis respectively.
Q 14.Where does peptide bond formation occur in a bacterial ribosome and how?
Q 15. What would happen if histones were to be mutated and made rich in amino acids
aspartic acid and glutamic acid in place of basic amino acids such as lysine and arginine?
Q 16. Recall the experiment done by Frederick Griffith. If RNA, instead of DNA was the
genetic material, would the heat killed strain of Streptococcus have transformed the R-
strain into virulent strain? Explain your answer
Q 17. What are the functions of (i) methylated guanasine cap, (ii) poly-A “tail” in a mature on
RNA?
Q 1. i) A DNA segment has a total of 2,000 nucleotides, out of which 520 are adenine containing
nucleotides. How many purine bases this DNA segment possesses?
ii) Draw a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of DNA segment to support your answer
Q 2. The base sequence in one of the strands of DNA is TAGCATGAT.

i) Give the base sequence of its complementary strand.
ii) How are these base pairs held together in a DNA molecule?
iii) Explain the base complementarity rules. Name the scientist who framed this rule.
Q 3. i) What is this diagram representing for ?

ii) Name the parts a, b and c.
ii) In the eukaryotes the DNA molecules are organized within the
nucleus.
iii) How is the DNA molecule organised in a bacterial cell in
absence
of nucleus?
Q 4. i) How are the following formed and involved in DNA packaging in a nucleus of a cell?
Histone octamer, Nucleosome, Chromatin
ii) Differentiate between euchromatin and heterochromatin.
Q 5. i) Explain the chemical structure of a single stranded polynucleotide chain.

ii) Describe the salient features of the double- helix structure of DNA molecule.
Q 6. i) Mention the contributions of the following scientists:

a) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
b) Erwin Chargaff
ii) Draw a double-stranded dinucleotide chain with all the four nitrogen bases.
Label the polarity and the components of the dinucleotide
Q 7. Answer the following questions based on Hershey and Chase experiments:

i) Name the kind of virus they worked with and why?
ii) Why did they use two types of culture media to grow viruses in? Explain.
iii) What was the need for using a blender and later a centrifuge during their experiments?
iv) State the conclusion drawn by them after the experiments.
Q 8. Write the help of a schematic diagram, explain the location and the role of the following in
a transcription unit:
Promoter, Structural gene, Terminator.
Q 9. i) What are the transcriptional products of RNA polymerase III?

ii) Differentiate between ‘Capping’ and ‘Tailing’.
iii) Expand hnRNA.
Q 10. i) Construct a complete transcription unit with promotor and terminator on the basis of
the hypothetical template strand given below:
A T G C A T G C A T A C
ii) Write the RNA strand transcribed from the above transcription unit along with its
polarity.
Q 11.Given below is a part of the template strand of a structural gene:

TAC CAT TAG GAT
i) Write its transcribed mRNA strand with its polarity.
ii) Explain the mechanism involved in initiation of transcription of this strand
Q 12.(a) Name the enzyme responsible for the transcription of tRNA and the amino acid the
initiator tRNA gets linked with.
(b) Explain the role of initiator tRNA in initiation of protein synthesis.
13. Unambiguous, universal and degenerate are some of the terms used for the genetic code.
Explain the salient features of each one of them.
14.(a) Name the scientist who called tRNA as an adaptor molecule.

(b)Draw a clover leaf structure of tRNA showing the following:
Tyrosine attached to its amino acid site. Anticodon for this amino acid in its correct
site (codon for tyrosine is UAC).
15. Study the mRNA segment given above which is complete to be translated into a polypeptide
chain.
(a)Write the codons ‘a’ and ‘b’.

(b)What do they code for?
(c)How is peptide bond formed between two amino acids in the ribosome?
16.(a)List the two methodologies which were involved in human genome project. Mention how
they were used.
(b)Expand YAC and BAC and mention what was it used in HGP.
17.(a)Expand ‘SNPs’. What is its significance in HGP?
(b)Expand VNTR. How VNTR is different from ‘probe’?
18.Compare the transcriptions in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
1.(a) Write the conclusion drawn by Griffith at the end of his experiment with Streptococcus
pneumoniae.
(b)How did O. Avery, C. MacLeod and M. McCarty prove that DNA was the genetic
material? Explain.
2. How did Hershey and Chase prove that DNA is the hereditary material? Explain their
experiment with suitable diagrams.
3. (a) What did Meselson and Stahl observe when they cultured E. coli in a medium containing
15NH4CI for a few generations and centrifuged the content?
(b)When they transferred one such bacterium to the normal medium of NH4CI and cultured
for 2 generations?
4. What did Meselson and Stahl conclude from this experiment? Explain with the help of
diagrams.
5. (a) Explain the process of DNA replication with the help of a schematic diagram.
(b) In which phase of the cell cycle does replication occur in eukaryotes? What would
happen if cell-division is not followed after DNA replication?
6.(a) Describe the process of transcription in bacteria.
(b) Explain the processing the hnRNA needs to undergo before becoming functional mRNA of
eukaryotes.
7.(a)Explain the process of Protein synthesis in prokaryotes?
(b).How the Protein synthesis in prokaryotes are different from eukaryotes.
8. Which methodology is used while sequencing the total DNA from a cell? Explain it in detail
9. Write the different component of a lac –operon in E. coli .Explain its expression in presence
and absence of lactose.
10.a)How is DNA fingerprinting done? Name any two types of human samples which can be
used for DNA fingerprinting. Explain the process sequentially?
b) Mention any two situation when the technique is useful.
11. Observe the representation of genes involved in the lac operon given below -
(a) Identify the region where the repressor protein will attach normally.
(b) Under certain conditions repressor is unable to attach at this site. Explain.
(c) If repressor fails to attach to the said site what products will be formed by z, y and a?
(d) Analyze why this kind of regulation is called negative regulation.
Chapter-7
Evolution
1.The theory of spontaneous generation stated that:
i. life arose from living forms only ii. life can arise from both living and non-living
iii. life can arise from non-living things only.
iv. life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living
2. Palaentological evidences for evolution refer to the:
i. development of embryo ii. homologous organs
iii. fossils iv. analogous organs.
3. Analogous organs arise due to:
i. divergent evolution ii. artificial selection
iii. genetic drift iv.convergent evolution
4. (p+q)2 = p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 represents an equation used in:
i. population genetics ii. mendelian genetics
iii. biometrics iv. molecular genetics
5. Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of:
i. adaptive radiation ii. transduction
iii. pre-existing variation in the population iv. divergent evolution
\6. Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of moving from:
i. land to water ii. dryland to wet land
iii. fresh water to sea water iv. water to land

7. Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because:
i. the young ones are left on their own
ii. the young ones are protected by a thick shell
iii. the young ones are protected inside the mother's body and are looked after they are born leading
to more chances of survival
iv. the embryo takes a long time to develop
8. Fossils are generally found in:
i. Sedimentary rocks ii. Igneous rocks
iii. Metamorphic rocks iv. Any type of rock
9. For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3,
respectively. The expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing organisms is likely to be
i. 42% ii. 49% iii.9% iv.58%
10. Which type of selection is industrial melanism, observed in moth Biston bitularia:
i. Stabilising ii. Directional
iii. Disruptive iv. Artificial
11. The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is:
i. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → homo habilis
ii. Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
iii. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
iv. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens.
12. Which of the following is an example for link species?
i. Lobe fish ii. Dodo bird
iii. Sea weed iv. Tyrannosaurus rex
Q1. State the reason for the increased population of dark coloured moth with the loss of lichens
during industrialization period in England.
Q2. Sweet potato tubers and potato tubers are the result of convergent evolution .Justify the
statement.
Q3. What is the significance of biochemical similarity amongst diverse organism in evolution.
Q4.What is Chance mutation? Explain the phenomenon using application of DDT as an
example.
Q5. Give two examples of bio geographical evidences in favour of evolution.
Q 6. A chimpanzee can hold objects by its hand & an elephant by trunk. Are these organs
Analogous or they are homologous?
Q7. Differentiate between convergent & divergent evolution?
Q8. Bring out differences between De Vries mutations and Darwinian Variations?
Q9. What is the study of fossils called? Mention any three points how the fossils throw light on
past life?
Q10. If you discovered a fossil bird with scales on the body & teeth in the beak.
What would you conclude about its position in the animal kingdom?
Q11. What is speciation? List any two events that lead to speciation?
Q12. Would you consider wings of butterfly &and wings of a bat as homologous or Analogous
organs and why?
Q13. Define natural selection? Who else along with Charles Darwin proposed it as the
mechanism of evolution?
Q14. Why has natural selection not eliminated sickle – cell anaemia?
Q15. Life originated from the earth’s inorganic atmosphere in the past, but this can no longer
happen today. Give two reasons?
Q16. Can we call human evolution as adaptive radiation? State the reason for your answer.
Q1. By taking industrial melanism as an example, explain the concept of natural selection by
evolution?
Q2. Who were the two scientists that conducted an experiment to synthesize organic molecule
abiotically? How did they provide the probable condition of the primitive earth in this
experiment?
Q3. What is Biogenetic law? How does comparative embryology provide evidence for
evolution?
Q4. Chemical Insecticides remain useful only for a limited time. Explain with reference to
evolution with a suitable example.
Q5. How do Darwin’s finches illustrate adaptive radiation? Explain.
Q6. Explain the salient features of Hugo de Vries theory of mutation.
Q7. What are the facts that support Darwin’s theory of Natural selection?
Q8. Explain the increase in the numbers of melanic moths in the urban areas of post
industrialization period in England.
Q9. Trace the important events or stages of human development?

Q10. What are the three different ways in which selection may occur?
Q 11. State in what ways Stanley miller simulated the condition of :-
i) The Primitive atmosphere on earth.
ii) Energy source at the time of origin of life.
iii) Formation of organic molecule of life.
Q12. Explain antibiotic resistance observed in bacteria in light of Darwinian selection theory.
Q13. What is Biogeography? How Darwin’s finches provide bio-geographical evidence in

favour of evolution?
Q14. Birds have evolved from reptiles. How does paleontology provide evidence in support of
the above statement?
Q15. How did Louis Pasteur successfully demolish the popular theory of spontaneous
generation?
Q16. Discovery of lobefins is considered very significant by evolutionary biologists. Explain.
Q1 .(a)Select the homologous and analogous structure from the combination given below:
(i)The Forelimb of whale and bat
(ii)The Tuber of potato and sweet potato
(iii)Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
(iv) Eyes of octopus and eyes of mammals
(b) State the kind of evolution they represent.
Q2 . A student was simulating Urey and Miller’s experiment to prove the origin of life. The set
up used by the student is given –
(a) Find out the reasons why he could not get the desired results.
(b) What conclusion was drawn by Urey and Miller through this experiment?
(c) Compare the conclusion drawn with the theory of spontaneous generation
Q3 .Refer to the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Explain the process by which the Tasmanian wolf evolved.
(b) Name the process that has resulted in evolution of wolf and the Tasmanian wolf.
(c) Compare and contrast the two animals shown above?
Q1. What does Oparin – Haldane hypothesis about origin of life suggests?
Q 2. What does Hardy Weinberg’s principle states? What are the factors which affects Hardy
Weinberg’s equilibrium?
Q3. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature. Explain with
suitable example.
Q4. Trace the origin and evolution of man.

UNIT VIIi
BIOLOGY IN HUMAN
WELFARE
Chapter 8
Human Health and Disease
Chapter 9
Strategies for Enhancement in
Food Production
Chapter 10
Microbes in Human Welfare
CHAPTER 8 - HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE
1. Transplantation of tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of such
tissues/organs in the patient’s body. Which type of immune response is responsible for such
rejection?
i) auto-immune response ii) humoral immune response
iii) physiological immune response iv) cell-mediated immune response
2. Which of the following are the correct reasons for Rheumatoid arthritis?
a) Lymphocytes become more active b) Body attacks self -cells
c) More antibodies are produced in the body
d) The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self -cells is lost
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
i) a and b ii) c and d iii) a and c iv) b and d
3. Blood circulation was discovered by:

i) Robert Koch ii) William Harvey iii) Edward Jenner iv) Alexander Fleming
5. The use of vaccines and immunisation programmes has enabled the complete eradication of
which of the following deadly disease?
i) T. B. ii) Chicken pox iii) Smallpox. iv) Measles
6. Which of the following is not an infectious disease?

i) Cancer ii) polio iii) diphtheria iv) tetanus
7. Which of the following is not an antibody?

i) IgA ii) IgC iii) IgE iv) IgG
8. The antibodies produced against allergens are of type:

i) IgE ii) IgA iii) IgG iv) IgM
9. AIDS was first reported in –

i) 1980 ii) 1981 iii) 1982 iv) 1983
10. Which of the following is an opioid?

i) marijuana ii) smack iii) hashish iv) charas
11. Which among the following drugs cause hallucinations?

i) Heroin ii) morphine iii) cocaine iv) charas
12. Which of the following is a very effective sedative and painkiller, and is very useful in
patients who have undergone surgery?
13. Which of the following is a depressant and slows down body functions?
14. Marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja belong to which of the following drug categories?
i) Opioids ii) Cannabinoids iii) Coca alkaloid iv) Barbiturates
Q 1 Define health. State benefits of good health.
Q 2. Name one fatal infectious disease and one fatal non-infectious disease.
Q 3. Parasites are all, by default pathogens. Justify.
Q 4. State two roles of female Anopheles in malaria.
Q 5. i) Chill and high fever recurring every three to four days are the symptoms of malaria.
How do these arise?
ii) Name one biocontrol agent for malaria.
Q 6. Name two pathogenic species of filarial worm.
Q 7. Name two diseases spread by Aedes mosquitoes.
Q 8. A disease like chicken pox rarely attacks our body twice. Justify.
Q 9. Explain the terms antigen and antibody.
Q 10. State the two main ways by which active immunity can be induced.
Q 11. A new- born baby needs to fight attacks of microorganisms . How does it gets immunity
against such attacks.
Q 12. How is the cause of allergy determined?
Q 13. More and more children in metro cities of India have been found to suffer from allergies
and asthma. What could be a probable reason for this?
Q 14. Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many people in our society is an auto-immune
disease. Explain auto-immune disease.
Q 15. State the functions of human immune system.
Q 16. State the main components of human immune system.
Q 17. State the functions of lymphoid organs as part of human immune system.
Q 18. Expand AIDS. Explain the meaning.
Q 19. State the category of people who are at high risk of acquiring AIDS.
Q 20. Define incubation period. What is the incubation period for Malarial parasite.
Q 21. HIV infected usually die not due to AIDS but some other infection. Explain.
Q 22. Name two cells attacked by HIV.
Q 23. Expand NACO. What is its main aim?
Q 24. Explain contact inhibition and metastasis.
Q 25. What are proto oncogenes?
Q 26. How do radiations cause cancer?
Q 27. i) Drugs like barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines, lysergic acid diethyl amides
(LSD), and other similar drugs are often abused. State their significance in medicine.
ii) What is drug abuse?
Q 28. Identify the drugs whose chemical structures are given below:
Q 29. Differentiate between viral oncogenes and proto – oncogenes.
Q 30. What does a ‘suitable gene’ mean in the context of DNA vaccines?
Q31 How do monocytes act as a cellular barrier in humans to provide innate immunity ?
Q32 Why is the structure of an antibody molecule represented as H2L2 ? Name any two types
of antibodies produced in a human body.
.
Q 1. State three main factors that affect health.
Q 2. State three important factors that help to maintain good health.
Q 3. Explain the term disease. Classify diseases based on transmission.
Q 4. Define pathogens. Name five groups of organisms to which pathogens belong.
Q 5. Name the pathogen, mode of transmission, common symptoms and diagnostic method of
typhoid.
Q 6. Name the pathogen, mode of transmission and common symptoms of pneumonia.
Q 7. Name the pathogen, mode of transmission and common symptoms of common cold.
Q 8. Name the pathogen, mode of transmission and common symptoms of Malaria.
Q 9. Describe the life cycle of malarial parasite, Plasmodium in mosquito.
Q 10. Name the pathogen, mode of transmission and common symptoms of Amoebiasis
(amoebic dysentery).
Q 11. Name the pathogen, mode of transmission and common symptoms of Ascariasis.
Q 12. Name the pathogen, mode of transmission and common symptoms of Elephantiasis
or filariasis.
Q 13. Name the pathogen, mode of transmission and common symptoms of Ringworms.
Q 14. Differentiate between primary immune response and secondary immune response.
Q 15. Name and classify two cells responsible for carrying out the primary and secondary
immune responses.
Q 16. Differentiate between two types of immune responses on the basis of the mechanism.
Q 17. i) Define allergy and allergens.

ii) Give two examples of common allergens.
Q 18. Classify lymphoid organs. State their main functions.
Q 19. In the given figure, identify the primary lymphoid organs ‘a’
and ‘b’. Mention one unique feature of ‘a’.
State their common function.
Q 20. Expand MALT. Where is it located? Give two examples.
Q 21. Briefly describe the structure of HIV.
Q 22. Differentiate between normal cells and cancer cells.
Q 23. Pneumonia and common cold are both air – borne diseases. How are they different?
Q 24. Explain with reason:

i) A ten year old boy is infected with chicken pox. He is not expected to have the disease
again in his lifetime.
ii) A child is vaccinated for polio. He will not suffer from polio
iii) Breast fed babies are more healthy than bottle fed ones.
Q 25. Differentiate between auto immune diseases and immune deficiency diseases with
examples.
Q 1. State some general measures to control many infectious diseases where the infecting
agents are transmitted through food and water. Name two diseases that can be controlled
by these measures.
Q 2. State some special measures to control many air-borne diseases where the infectious
agents are transmitted through air. Name two diseases that can be controlled by these
measures.
Q 3. Very often, when some human organs like heart, eye, liver or kidney fail to function
satisfactorily, transplantation is the only remedy to enable the patient to live a normal life.
Then a search begins – to find a suitable donor.
Why is it that the organs cannot be taken from just anybody? What is it that the doctors
check?
Q 4. How has recombinant DNA technology helped in the field of vaccination? Give one
example of a vaccine produced using this technology.
Q 5.The HIV/AIDS infected persons are usually isolated from family and society. This is not
good for their physical and psychological well-being. As a student of biology, what will be
your explanation to the members of family and society?
Q 6. Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs is only partially effective. They can only
prolong the life of the patient but cannot prevent death, which is inevitable. As AIDS has
no cure, prevention is the best option. List some of the preventive measures for AIDS.
Q 7. List some awareness programmes undertaken by WHO for AIDS.
Q 8. How are techniques of molecular biology helpful in preventing cancer? Explain with an
example.
Q 9.What are the treatments available for cancer?
Q 10. i) Why are cancer patients administered ã-interferon?

ii) Mention one latest technique for detection of cancer.
Q 11. Prior to a sports event blood & urine samples of sportspersons are collected.
(i) Why is there a need to conduct such tests?
(ii) Name the drugs the authorities usually look for.
(iii) Write the generic names of two plants from which these drugs are obtained.
Q 12. “When one buys packets of cigarettes one cannot miss the statutory warning that is
present on the packing which warns against smoking and says how it is injurious to
health”. State three ways by which smoking can harm the human body.
Q 13. Peer pressure plays a negative role in triggering smoking habits in adolescents. As a
school captain list any two activities you would like to organize with the help of senior
students of your school and any other two activities you would like your school
authorities to organize for the students to tackle this problem. Explain how these
activities will help in doing so.
Q 14. Identify the plants ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’. Name one drug each produced by these.
Q 15. State the long-term effects of use of alcohol during adolescence.
Q 16. What are the immediate adverse ill effects of drugs and alcohol at home?
Q 17. State some far-reaching implications of drug/alcohol abuse.
Q 18. Define addiction, dependence and withdrawal symptoms with reference to drug/alcohol
abuse. How are related to each other?
Q 1. State factors that help to achieve good health. Name an ancient Indian practice to achieve
physical and mental health.
Q 2. Name the following with respect to disease malaria:

i) Three species of the vector.
ii) The species that causes malignant malaria.
iii) The two hosts.
iv) The infective stage for humans and mosquito respectively.
v) Two cells attacked by the pathogen in humans.
Q 3. Describe the life cycle of malarial parasite, Plasmodium in humans.
Q 4. Name the pathogen, mode of transmission, common symptoms and diagnostic method of
AIDS.
Q 5. State some special measures to control many vector-borne diseases where the infectious
agents are transmitted through vectors. Name two diseases that can be controlled by these
measures.
Q 6. Define immunity. Classify and differentiate between two common types of immunity.
Q 7. Explain the four different barriers of innate immunity.
Q 8. Describe with the help of a well – labelled diagram, the structure of a typical antibody
molecule.
Q 9. Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity with examples.
Q 10. Define carcinogens. State their different categories.
Q 11. Give a brief account of five main detection techniques for cancer.
Q 12. Adolescence is a vulnerable phase of mental and psychological development of an

individual. Drug and alcohol abuse is very common among adolescents.Mention the
causes that motivate youngsters towards drugs and alcohol.
Q 13. Mention five measures for prevention and control of drugs and alcohol among
adolescents.
Q 14. A teacher suspects an adolescent boy of her class is suffering from drug abuse. State
some warning signs that can be observed in him.
Q 15. i) Why do some sportspersons use narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics and
certain hormones in sports?
ii) State the side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females.
Q 16. State the side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in males.
Q 17. Justify with reason:

i) Symptoms of malaria do not show immediately after the entry of sporozoite in the human
body.
ii) Lower limbs of patients suffering from elephantiasis are swollen.
iii) A patient complained of stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite to the
doctor. The doctor performed a test and confirmed that it was tyhoid and not amoebiasis.
Name the test.
iv) Indiscriminate use of X –rays should be avoided.
v) Retroviruses have no DNA, yet viral DNA is found in the host cell.
Q 18. The following figure represents the life cycle of malarial parasite
in a host.
i) Identify ‘A’ and mention its roles in the life cycle of malarial
parasite.
ii) Identify the stage ‘B’ taken up by ‘A’.
iii) Identify the process ‘C’. Where is it occuring?
iv) Identify the organ ‘D’.
v) Identify the stage ‘E’.
Q 23. The following figure represents the life cycle of malarial

parasite in a host.
i) Identify stage ‘A’ being injected by a vector. Name the
vector.
ii) Identify the organ ‘B’.
iii) Identify the cells ‘C’. Name the type of reproduction
being depicted.
iv) Identify the cells ‘D’. Explain the events occuring in the
cells.
v) Identify stage ‘E’. What is its fate?
Q 24. Answer the following questions based on the
life cycle of HIV:
i) Write the chemical nature of ‘A’.
ii) Name the enzyme ‘B’ acting on ‘X’ to
produce molecule ‘C’. Name ‘C’ and ‘X’.
iii) Name the host cell ‘D’ that the HIV
attacks when it first enters the human body.
What are these commonly called?
iv) Name the cell ‘E’ that the new viruses can
attack.
v) Name the broader group to which this
virus belongs.
vi) How can the host cell protect other cells?
Q 25. Answer the following questions based on the

structure of an antibody molecule:
i) Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’.
ii) Mention the chemical nature of the molecule.
iii) Why is it called H2L2?
iv) Name the cells that produce these molecules.
v) Mention the type of immune response provided by
these molecules.
vi) Name the antibody present in mother’s milk.
vii) Name the antibody produced in allergic reactions.
CHAPTER 9 - STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD
PRODUCTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. Which among the following is an improved breed of chicken?

i) Jersey ii) Hisardale iii) Leghorn iv) Hilsa
2. Which of the following is a marine fish?

i) Catla ii) Rohu iii) Common carp iv) Sardines
3. Sonalika and Kalyan sona are high yielding varieties of …..

i) Wheat ii) Rice iii) Suagarcane iv) Millets
4. Pest resistant variety of Okra is ……………….

i) Pusa Sawani ii) Pusa Gaurav iii) Pusa Sadabahar iv) Pusa Komal
5. What is the special feature of Atlas 66?

i) It is enriched with Vitamin A ii) It has high protein content
iii) It is fortified with iron iv) It is enriched with vitamin C
6. Which part of the plant with disease can be used to grow healthy plants through tissue
culture?
i) Leaves ii) Root iii) Apical Meristem iv) Lateral meristem
7. Continued inbreeding usually reduces fertility and even productivity. This is known
as……………
i) Mutational Breeding ii) Interspecific hybridisation
iii) Inbreeding depression iv) Artificial insemination
8. The ability to generate a whole plant from any cell or explant is called as….
i) Somatic hybridisation ii) Biofortification
iii) Micropropagation iv) Totipotency
9. Which of the following are required for preparation of medium for tissue culture?
i) Sucrose ii) Auxin iii) Inorganic salts iv) All of the above
10. Select the incorrect statement among the following.

i) Spirulina can be grown in waste water from potato processing plants
ii) Jaya and Ratna are semi dwarf variety of rice
iii) Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab.
iv) MOET is a mutational breeding in animals.
Q1. How are the following varieties of sugarcane different from each other?
i) Saccharum barberi ii) Sachharum officinarum
Q2. Differentiate between inbreeding and outbreeding.
Q3. State any four points to be kept in mind for successful bee-keeping.
Q4.What are the steps involved in classical breeding experiments?
Q5.List any two traits that the breeders have to incorporate into crop plants.
Q6.What are the characteristics in maize variety resistant to maize stem borers?
Q7.What are the four objectives of breeding for improved nutritional quality?
Q8. What will be the advantage of keeping beehives in crop field during flowering period?
Give two examples of crops where this method can be practiced.
Q9.Why are the plants produced by micropropagation known as somaclones?
Q10. Name the following

i) One inter-specific hybrid mammal
ii) Most common variety of honey bee used for apiculture.

Q1. MOET programme has helped in increasing the herd size of the desired variety of
cattle. List the steps involved in this method.
Q2.Enlist the steps involved in inbreeding of cattle. Mention two disadvantage of this
method.
Q3. State the economic importance of:

i) Spirulina ii) Methylphilus methylotrophus iii) Mushroom
Q4.Explain Out-breeding and cross-breeding in animal husbandry.
Q5. What are the morphological/ biochemical/ physiological characteristics of the following
crops that make them pest resistant.
i) Cotton ii) Wheat iii) Maize
Q6 Why are microbes like Spirulina being produced on a commercial scale ? Mention its
two advantages.
Q7 What is biofortification ? Mention the contribution of Indian Agricultural Research

Institute towards it with the help of any two examples.
Q 8 a) What is mutation breeding? Give an example of a crop and disease to which

resistance was induced by mutation.
b.) Differentiate between pisci culture and aquaculture.
Q1. Scientists have developed a method of obtaining healthy plants from diseased one.
i) Name the part of the plant used by scientist as explant.
ii) Name this technology used in crop improvement.
iii) Name any two varieties of plants grown by this method.
Q2. A wide range of fungal, bacterial and viral pathogens, affect the yield of cultivated crop
species, especially in tropical climates.
i) Name a fungal disease of wheat crop.
ii) Name the variety of cow pea resistant to bacterial blight.
iii) Parbhani kranti is an improved variety of which crop plant.
Q3. Complete the table

Crop Variety Insect Pests
Brassica a………………. Aphids
Okra Pusa Sawani b…………….
c………………… Pusa Sem 2 Jassids, aphids and fruit borer.
Q4. Biofortification is breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins, minerals or higher
protein and healthier fats.
i) Name the amino acids found twice the amount in maize hybrid.
ii) Name the mineral fortified in rice with five times higher concentration of mineral than
other commercial varieties.
iii) Name the institute that developed vitamin A rich spinach and pumpkin.
Q5. Controlled breeding experiments are carried out using artificial insemination.
i) What is the advantage of frozen semen in breeding experiments?
ii) How breeders use stored semen for experiments?
iii) List one disadvantage of artificial insemination.
Q1. Plant breeding programmes are carried out in a systematic way worldwide in
government institutions and commercial companies. Explain the main steps in breeding
a new genetic variety of a crop.
Q2. Dairy is the management of animals for milk and its products for human consumption.
i) On what factor milk yield in a farm is dependent?
ii) Name two desired characteristics to be present in a farm animal.
iii) How the chances of contact of the dairy product with the handler are minimized?
iv) How one can identify and rectify problem in a farm?
CHAPTER 10 - MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
1. Proteinacious infectious agents are called:

i) viruses ii) viroids iii) prions iv) bacteria
2. Choose the correct combination of gases produced in anaerobic sludge digesters—

i) Methane, Hydrogen & O2 ii) Hydrogen Sulphide & CO2
iii) Methane & CO2 only iv) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide & CO2
3. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that—

i) Consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
ii) Water is pure iii) Water is highly polluted iii) Water is less polluted
4. The guts of cow & buffalo possess-

i) Cyanobacteria ii) Fucus sp. iii) Chlorella sp. iv) Methanogens
5. Probiotics are -
i) cancer inducing microbes ii) new kind of food allergens
iii) live microbial food supplements iv) safe antibiotics
6. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yield of rice by using which of the following is
biofertilizers?
i)Bacillus thuringiensis ii) Legume- Rhizobium Symbiosis
iii) mycorrhiza iv) Azolla pinnata
7. The masses of bacteria held together by slime and fungal filaments to form mesh - like
structure
are called as:
i) Primary sludge ii) Flocs iii) activated sludge iv) anaerobic sludge
8. Which of the following is a mismatch with respect to the organisms and the acid produced by
it?
i) Clostridium butylicum - Gluconic acid
ii) Lactobacillus acidophilus - Lactic acid
iii) Aspergillus niger - Citric acid
iv) Acetobacter aceti - Acetic acid
9. A microbial biocontrol agent that can be used to control butterfly caterpillar is

i) Trichoderma polysporum ii) Bacillus thuringiensis
iii) Streptococcus iv) Mycorrhiza
10. In the sewage treatment bacterial flocs are allowed to sediment in a settling tank. This
sediment is called as -
i) Inactivated sludge ii) Activated sludge iii) Primary sludge iv) Physical sludge
11. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding mycorrhiza?

i) It helps in absorption of phosphorus from the soil.
ii) It is a symbiotic association of fungi with the roots of higher plants.
iii) It helps the plant in developing resistance to root-borne pathogens
iv) It helps in absorption of calcium from the soil.
12. Baculovirus (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show

i) Host specificity ii) narrow spectrum application
iii) effects on non - target pathogens iv) utility in IPM programme
13. Statin used for lowering blood cholesterol level are extracted from -
i) algae ii) Bacteria iii) viruses iv) yeasts
14. Match different organisms in column – I with their uses in column – II and select the
correct answer from codes given below.
column – I column – II
A Lactobacilius acidophilus (i) Formation of dough
B Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ii) Single cell protein
C Propionibacterium sharmanii (iii) Conversion of milk into curd
D Spirulina (iv) Formation of swiss cheese
i) A -(iii), B -(i), C -(ii), D - (iv) ii) A -(iii), B -(i), C -(iv), D - (ii)
iii) A -(i), B -(iii), C -(iv), D - (ii) iv) A -(i), B -(iii), C -(ii), D - (iv)
15. Match the column –I with column –II & select the correct option using the codes given
below-
Column -I Column –II

(a) Citric Acid (i) TrIchoderma
(b) Cyclosporin -A (ii) Clostridium
(c) Statins (iii) Aspergillus
(d) Butyric acid (iv) Monascus
i) (a)—i; (b)—iv; (c)—ii; (d)—iii ii) (a)—iii; (b)—iv; (c)—i; (d)—ii
iii) (a)—iii; (b)—i; (c)—ii; (d)—iv iv) (a)—iii; (b)—i; (c)—iv; (d)—ii
Q 1. Microorganisms cannot be seen with naked

eye.
How is it possible to study them?
Q 2. How is curd produced?What is the role of

LAB?
Q 3. Identify the industrial setup shown in the

figure.
Name one industry that uses this setup.
Q 4. Microorganism, yeast Saccharomyces

cerevisiae,
is very important in two industries. Name
them.
Q 5. Identify the equipment shown in the figure. Where

are
these used?
Q 6. How is alcohol produced on a large scale?
Q 7. Classify alcoholic drinks depending on the type of

processing.
Q 8. Full potential of penicillin as an effective antibiotic was established much later and it was
extensively used to treat American soldiers wounded in World War II. Name the scientists
who established this role of penicillin and received Nobel Prize along with Fleming.
Q 9. Name four antibiotics other than penicillin and their sources?
Q 10. Name four deadly diseases that can now be effectively treated by antibiotics.
Q 11. Name the organisms used for production of organic acids – citric, acetic, butyric and
lactic.
Q 12. Name a blood cholesterol inhibiting agent. How does it act?
Q 13. Define bioactive molecule. Give one example.
Q 14. Differentiate between Primary sludge and Secondary or anaerobic sludge.
Q 15. How is biogas generated in a sewage treatment plant?
Q 16. How can Bacterium – Bacillus thuringiensis be used as an effective biocontrol agent
against
butterfly caterpillars?
Q 17. Name one biofertiliser that can be effectively used in paddy fields. State one additional
benefit of the same.
Q 18. Name any two species of fungi, which are used in the production of the antibiotics.
Q 19. Bacteria cannot be seen with the naked eyes, but these can be seen with the help of a
microscope. If you have to carry a sample from your home to your biology laboratory to
demonstrate the presence of microbes under a microscope, which sample would you
carry
and why?
Q 20. Arrange the following in the decreasing order (most important first) of their importance,
for
the welfare of human society. Give reasons for your answer.
Biogas, Citric acid, Penicillin and Curd
Q 1. Curd is better than milk. Justify with three reasons.
Q 2. Define BOD. What does it measure? How does it help in assessing pollution?
Q 3. Differentiate between Primary and Secondary treatments in Sewage Treatment Plant.
Q 4. What is biogas? How is it produced?
Q 5. i) Where are methanogens found?

ii) Why is dung water added to biogas plant?
iii) Why is biogas plant also called gobar gas plant?
Q 6. How can the following be used as biocontrol agents?

Ladybird, Dragon flies, fungus - Trichoderma.
Q 7. Why are baculoviruses effective biocontrol agents? State two conditions when they are
desirable.
Q 8. Explain the advantages of symbiotic relationship between fungus Glomus and roots of
higher
plants.
Q 9.In the diagrammatic representation of a sewage treatment plant,

i) identify the steps ‘A’ that raw sewage undergoes in primary treatment,
ii) identify ‘B’. What happens here?
iii) identify ‘C’. What happens here?
. SECTION D (3 marks each)
Q 1. i) The puffed-up appearance of dough used for making foods such as dosa and idli is due
to
the production of CO2 gas. Name the metabolic pathway which is taking place resulting
in
the formation of CO2?
ii) Name the organism that is responsible. Where does it come from?
iii) Name the organism used in making bread.
iv) State the products of fermentation.
Q 2. How are ‘Swiss cheese’ and ‘Roquefort cheese’ produced?
Q 3. i) Define antibiotics.
ii) Name the first antibiotic to be discovered. How was it discovered?
Q 4. Large quantities of sewage is generated every day in cities and towns. Define sewage. Why
is
it important to remove it from water before discharging it into rivers?
Q 5. Name two initiatives taken by the government to save major rivers of our country from
pollution. State the main aim of these initiatives.
Q 6. Three water samples, namely, river water, untreated sewage water and secondary effluent
discharged from a sewage treatment plant were subjected to BOD test. The samples were
labelled A, B and C, but the laboratory attendant did not note which was which. The BOD
values of three samples A, B and C were recorded as 20 mg/L, 8 mg/L and 400 mg/L
respectively. Which sample of the water is most polluted?
Can you assign the correct label to each, assuming the river water is relatively clean?
Q 7. Why are biogas plants more often build in rural areas? Name the agencies that developed
the
technology of biogas production.
Q 8 i) Microbes produce different types of gaseous end-products during growth and

metabolism.
Justify with examples.
ii) Name two gases produced by microbes that have commercial applications?
Q 9. Name ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in the following reactions.
i)
ii)
iii)
.
Q 1. Give reasons for the following:

i) Detergent formulations claim to effectively remove oily stains.
ii) Bottled fruit juices bought from the market are clearer as compared to those made at
home.
iii) Microorganisms can help patients who have undergone myocardial infraction leading to
heart attack.
iv) Microorganisms can help patients who have undergone organ-transplant.
v) Microorganisms can help people with high cholesterol levels.
Q 2. Explain the basic steps of a sewage treatment plant.
Q 3. In the figure depicting a typical biogas plant,

identify
‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’.
Describe the sequence of events occuring in a biogas
plant.
Q 4. Why is chemical control of pests not advisable in agriculture?

What is biocontrol? Where is it used?
Q 5. The use of the chemical fertilisers to meet the ever-increasing demand of agricultural
produce
has contributed significantly to environmental pollution. There are problems associated
with
the overuse of chemical fertilisers and there is a large pressure to switch to organic
farming –
to use of bio-fertilisers. What are bio-fertilisers? State broad categories with examples.
UNIT IX
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Chapter 11
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
Chapter 12
Biotechnology and Its Applications

Chapter-11
BIOTECHNOLOGY:PRINCIPLES AND PROCESS
Q1. Which of the following is a molecular scissors?
(i).EcoRI (ii). pBR322

(iii). Polymerase (iv). Ti Plasmid
Q2. Which among the following is a plasmid?
(i).BamHI (ii). EcoRI

(iii). pBR322 (iv). HindII
Q3.The Ti plasmid is often used for making transgenic plants. The plasmid is found in
(i). Azotobacter (ii). Rhizobium

(iii). Agrobacterium (iv). Yeast
Q4. Which of the following combination is used for gene gun method?
(i). Iron or Platinum (ii). Gold or Tungsten

(iii). Silver or Gold (iv). Zinc or Platinum
Q5. In respect to pBR 322 which of the following is correctly matched?
(i) rop- codes for proteins involved in the replication of plasmid.

(ii) Ori- original restriction enzyme.
(iii) ampR– restriction enzyme
(iv HindII- selectable marker
Q6. Name the dye that is used in staining the DNA in gel electrophoresis.
(i) Ethylene blue (ii) Ethidium bromide

(iii) Fluorescein (iv) Iodine bromide
Q7. Which of the following is not a step of downstreaming processing?
(i). Separation and Purification (ii). Addition of preservatives

(iii.) Clinical trials (iv). Direct test/use on humans
Q8. Plasmid used to construct first recombinant DNA was isolated from which of the following
bacterium?
(i). E. coli (ii). Salmonella typhimurium

(iii). Thermus aquaticus (iv).Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Q9. Choose the correct sequence of gel electrophoresis?
a. The cutting of DNA by restriction enzymes

b. Staining by Ethidium bromide
c. Exposure of UV rays
d. Separation of DNA fragments under the influence of electric field in agarose gel.
(i). a,b,c,d (ii). b,c,a,d (iii). a,d,b,c (iv). d,c,b,a

Q10. What is the correct sequence of PCR?
(i). Denaturation, Annealing and Extension

(ii).Extension, Annealing and Denaturation
(iii)Annealing, Denaturation and Extension
(iv).Denaturation, Extension and Annealing
Q1. Name the source of the DNA polymerase used in the PCR technique. Mention why it is
used?
Q2. Name the enzymes that are used for isolating DNA from bacterial and fungal cells for
recombinant DNA technology.
Q3. Name two commonly used bioreactors. State the importance of using a bioreactor.
Q4. Mention the role of ‘ori’ and restriction site in a cloning vector pBR322.
Q5. Mention the number of primers required in each cycle of PCR. Write the role of
primers and DNA polymerase used in PCR.
Q6. Mention the role of vectors in rDNA technology. Give two examples.
Q7. Write any two ways to introduce the desired DNA segment into a bacterial cell in a
recombinant technology experiment.
Q8. What are recombinant proteins? How do bioreactors help in their production?
Q9. How are ‘sticky ends’ formed on a DNA strand? Why are they so-called?
Q10. How has the development of bioreactor helped in biotechnology?
Q11. Why is it not possible for an alien DNA to become part of a chromosome anywhere
along its length and replicate normally?
Q1. Give reasons
a. Agrobacterium tumefaciens a good cloning vector

b. Enzyme cellulase is not used for isolating genetic material from an animal cell.
c. DNA fragments move towards anode under the electric field.
Q2. How each of the following method is used for introduction of an alien DNA into host
cells?
a. Microinjection
b. Gene gun method
c. Treatment with divalent cation
Q3.What are the three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism?
Q4. Which enzyme would you use to remove the cell wall of following organisms to isolate
its DNA
a. Bacterial cell b. Fungal cell c. Plant cell.

Q5. How RNA and protein part is removed to get the desired DNA? And how is isolated DNA
precipitated?
Q6. Draw a labelled diagram of plasmid pBR322.
Q7. What is ‘insertional inactivation’? Explain using an example.
Q8. Draw a labelled diagram of a sparged stirred-tank bioreactor.
SECTION D ( 3 marks each)
Q1. a. Name the technique used for separation of DNA fragments.
b. Write the type of matrix used in this technique.
c. How is the separated DNA visualised and extracted for use in recombinant technology?
Q2. Complete the following in respect to naming restriction enzymes
First letter of the name i……………….
ii……………….. Species if the prokaryotic cell
Roman number following the name iii.
Q3. a. Name a pathogen of several dicot plants that can transform normal plants cells into
tumor cells.
b. In case of animals name the organism that perform the same function as above.
c. State one use of such organism.

Q4. In the given figure
a. Identify A
b. Name the enzymes involved
in steps 1 and 2.
c. Name the step numbered as
3
d. Which process or method is
being shown here?
Q5. The given diagram display an important process/method that is used in rDNA technology.
a. Name the process/method shown here.

b. Label the steps 1,2,3
c. Name the enzyme A used in the process/method.
Q6. a. Name the structure shown alongside.
b. Name the part labelled as A. What role does it play?

c. What is B? Write its function.
SECTION E (5 mark each)

Q 1 . For selection of recombinants, insertional inactivation of antibiotic marker has been
superceded by insertional inactivation of a marker gene coding for a chormogenic
substrate. Give reasons.
Q 2. Describe the role of Agrobacterium tumefaciens in transforming a plant cell.
Q 3. Illustrate the design of a bioreactor. Highlight the difference between a flask in your
laboratory and a bioreactor which allows cells to grow in a continuous culture system.
Q4. (i) Describe the characteristics a cloning vector must possess.

(ii) Why DNA cannot pass through the cell membrane? Explain. How is a bacterial cell
made competent to take up recombinant DNA from the medium?
Q5. (i) Why are engineered vectors preferred by biotechnologists for transferring the
desired genes into another organism?
(ii) Explain, how do ori, selectable marker and cloning sites facilitate cloning into a
vector?
Q6 Read the following base sequence of a certain DNA strand and answer the questions
that follow:
a. What is called a palindromic sequence in a DNA?
b. Write the palindromic nucleotide sequence shown in the DNA strand given and
mention the enzyme that will recognise such a sequenceto cut it.
c. State the significance of enzymes that identify palindromic nucleotide sequences.

Chapter-12
BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
Q1. Which of the following is a microbial insecticide?
(i.) B.thuringiensis (ii) Salmonella typhimurium (iii) E.coli (iv) Rhizobium

Q2. Humulin is
(i)Human insulin (ii )Isoenzyme (iii)Hydrolytic enzyme (iv)Antibiotic

Q3. RNAi is used for making tobacco plant resistant to….
(i)Cotton bollworm (ii) Nematodes (iii)Bacterial blights (iv)Stem borer

Q4. Which of the following peptide chain is absent in mature insulin?
(i)A peptide (ii)B peptide (iii)C peptide (iv)A and B peptide

Q5. Who produced Humulin?
(i)GEAC (ii)Eli lily (iii)EFB (iv)None of these.

Q6. Early detection of a disease is possible by
(i)Gene therapy (ii)PCR (iii) rDNA technology and Elisa (iv) both (ii) and (iii)
Q7. Biopiracy is related to.
(i)Use of traditional resources

(ii)Use of bio-resources by multinational companies without proper authorisation
(iii)Use of rDNA products.
(iv)All of these.
Q8. Which protein is found in milk of Rosie cow?
(i)Alpha-lactalbumin (ii)Alpha-1 antitrypsin (iii)Renin (iv) Hirudin

Q9. Which variety of rice is enriched with vitamin A?
(i)Pusa Gaurav (ii)Golden rice (iii)Silver rice (iv)Jaya and Ratna

Q10. Which of the following genes were introduced in cotton to protect it from cotton
bollworms?
(i) cryIAc (ii)cryII Ab (iii) cryIAc and cryIIAb (iv) cryIA

Q1. a. Name the nematode that infests and damages tobacco roots.
b. How tobacco plant is made resistant to the attack of a nematode?
Q2. Name the source from which insulin was extracted earlier. Why is this insulin no more in
use by diabetic patients?
Q3. a. Name the deficiency for which the first clinical gene therapy was given.
b. Mention the cause of this disease.
Q4. a. Mention the chemical change that pro insulin undergoes, to be able to act as mature
insulin.
b. How insulin prepared by Eli lily was different from that produced in the human body?
Q5. What are the two limitations of agrochemical based farming?
Q6. Why does Bt toxin not kill the bacterium that produces it, but kill insects that ingest it?
Q7. Explain RNAi.
Q8. State the principle on which ELISA technique is based. How does it help in early detection of a
disease?
Q 9 Transgenic animals are developed to obtain biological products. Name any two such
products.
Q10. With one example of each give one difference between therapeutic and diagnostic.
Q1. List three critical research areas of biotechnology.
Q2.In the year 1983 Eli lily first prepared human insulin synthetically using biotechnology.
Explain the process used by them to get human insulin.
Q3. What are the main advantages of producing genetically engineered insulin?
Q4. A multinational company outside tried to sell new varieties of turmeric without proper patent
rights. What is such an act referred to? Define it. State the initiative taken by the Indian
Parliament against it.
Q5.What are responsibilities GEAC, set up by the Indian Government?
Q6. What is a GMO? List five ways in which GM plants have been useful.
Q7. What are transgenic animals? What are the reasons for which these animals produced?
Explain with examples.
Q8. ‘Plasmid is a boon to biotechnology’. Justify this statement quoting the production at least
two products of human use .
Q9. (a) Name the deficiency for which first clinical gene therapy was given.
(b) Mention the causes of and one cure for the deficiency of insulin .
Q10. Name the genes responsible for making Bt cotton plants resistant to bollworm attack.
How do such plants attain resistance against bollworm attacks? Explain.
SECTION D
Q1. A method to present infestation of a nematode Meloidegyne incognitia on roots of

tobacco is silencing the specific mRNA. What is the scientific name of the
technique? How is this performed by ds- RNA?
Q2. A two years old baby is deficient in his immune system since birth. His father was
told that this was due to an enzyme deficiency which is crucial for the immune system to
function.
a) Name the enzyme
b) The cause of its deficiency
c) The cure of the disease?
Q3. (a) Why are transgenic animals so called?

(b) Explain the role of transgenic animals in (i) Vaccine safety and (ii) Biological products
with the help of an example each.
Q1.a.What is the difference between cry and Cry?

b. Which gene of B.thuringiensis will be used against cotton bollworms?
c. Which insect would be killed by a plant with a cry IAb gene?
Q2.a. Expand ELISA

b. What is its principle?
c. Name a disease for which this technique can be used.
Q3. a. What is meant by ADA deficiency?

b. How is gene therapy a solution to this problem?
c. Why is it not a permanent cure?
Q4. a. Name two conventional methods of diagnosis.
b. What is the limitation of such methods?
c. How one can detect the presence of pathogens present in a very low amount?
Q5. Name the following
a. The human protein used to treat emphysema.
b. First transgenic cow.
c. The vaccine developed using transgenic mice.
d. What is a recombinant DNA vaccine? Give two examples.
Q6.Two of the steps involved in producing nematode resistance tobacco plants based on the
process of RNAi are mentioned below. Write the missing steps in its proper sequence.
Q7. One of the main objectives of biotechnology is to minimise the use of insecticides on
cultivated crops. Explain with the help of a suitable example how insect resistant crops
have been developed using techniques of biotechnology.
UNIT- X
ECOLOGY
Chapter 13
Organisms and Populations
Chapter 14
Ecosystem
Chapter 15
Biodiversity and Conservation
Chapter 16
Environmental Issue
CHAPTER 13 –Organisms and populations
Q1. Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of biological organization, which of the
following is not correct?
(i) Organisms (ii) Population

(iii) Ecosystem (iv) Biomes
Q2. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(i) Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs.
(ii) Some snails and fish go into aestivation to avoid winter-related problems.
(iii) Desert plants have thick cuticles on their leaf surfaces to minimize water loss.
(iv) pH, mineral composition, and topography determine to a large extent the vegetation
in any area.
Q3. …………..refers to the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
(i) Natality (ii)

Mortality (iii) Immigration
(iv) Emigration
Q4. Which of the following habitat has an average temperature above 100-degree Celcius?
(i)Thermal springs (ii) Desert

(iii) Rain forest (iv)Temperate forest
Q5.The intrinsic rate of natural increase(r) is….
(i) the measure of the inherent potential of a population to grow.

(ii) the maximum number of the individual that an ecosystem can support.
(iii) the growth pattern of the population.
(iv) the number of individuals that are added in a population in a given period.
Q6. The two intermediate hosts of human liver fluke are…
(i) Mosquito and Human (ii) Snail and Goat

(iii) Snail and Fish (iv) Pig and fish
Q7. Laying of eggs by a bird in the nest of other bird is an example of which kind of interaction
(i) Commensalism (ii) Brood parasitism

(iii) Mutualism (iv) Predation
Q8. Organisms that can tolerate a wide range of temperatures are termed as…
(i) Eurythermal (ii) Stenothermal

(iii) Homeothermal (iv) Hypothermal
Q9. Which of the following is not an example of commensalism?
(i) Orchid growing on a mango branch (ii) Sea anemone and clownfish
(iii) Egret bird and cattle (iv) Fungus and roots of higher plants.
Q10. Which of the following is not an example of an ectoparasite?
(i) Copepods (ii) Ticks

(iii) Lice (iv) Ascaris
Q1. Name the interaction in each of the following
a. Cuscuta growing on a shoe-flower plant.
b. Phytophagous insects feeding on plant sap.
Q2. List any two adaptive features evolved in parasite enabling them to live successfully on
their hosts.
Q3. Mention the situation in which population growth curve a and b can be seen.
Q4. If a population growing exponentially double in size in 3 years, what is the intrinsic rate of
increase (r) of the population?
Q5. List two adaptations of Kangaroo rat in North American deserts.

Q6. Define the term niche.
Q7. State the significance of temperature to living organisms and their geographical
distribution.
Q8. Write the salt concentration range of following water bodies.
a. Hyper saline lagoons b. Inland water bodies
Q9. Give reasons for the following
a. Many species of herbs and shrubs are adapted to photosynthesize optimally under very
low light conditions.
b. We start to shiver at low temperatures in winters.
Q10. Give one example each of morphological and behavioral adaptations.
Q11. Certain species of wasps are seen to frequently visit flowering fig trees. What type of
interaction is seen between them and why?
Q12. The ‘clown’ fish lives among the tentacles of sea anemone. What is this interaction
between them called and why?
Q1. Explain any three different ways the population density can be measured, with the help of
an example of each.
Q2. Represent diagrammatically three kinds of age-pyramids for the human population.
Q3. Define the following terms
a. Allen’s rule
b. Brood parasitism
c. Resource portioning
Q4. Why predators are prudent in nature? Support your answer with an example.
Q5. State Gause’s ‘Competition Exclusion Principle’. Species facing competition might evolve a
mechanism that promotes coexistence rather than exclusion. Justify this statement in light
of Gause’s competitive exclusion principle, by citing a suitable example.
Q6. How snails, seeds, bears, zooplanktons, fungi, and bacteria adapt to condition
unfavourable for their survival?
Q7. (a) Write the importance of measuring the size of a population in a habitat or an
ecosystem.
(b) Explain with the help of an example how the percentage cover is a more meaningful
measure of population size than mere numbers?
Q8. What is mutualism? Mention any two examples where the organisms involved are
commercially exploited in agriculture.
Q9. “It is possible that a species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem
at the same time.” Explain with the help of two examples.
Q10. Define the term Diapause. How is it different from hibernation?
Q1. Write suitable terms for the following
a. Organisms those are tolerant of a wide range of salinities.

b. The ability of an organism to maintain its internal environment.
c. An attribute of the organism that enables the organism to survive and reproduce in
its habitat.
Q2. Observe the given diagram

representing the response of organisms
to the external environment and answer
the questions based on it
a. Why the line representing regulators is

parallel to the X-axis?
b. Which of the organism show variation
in internal examination with the change
in surroundings?
c. Give an example of regulators and
partial regulators
Q3.Complete the table
Species A Species B Name of the interaction

+ + i……………………
- - ii…………………….
+ 0 iii……………………..
Q4. Given below is representation of age pyramids of human population.
i. What are the age pyramids?

ii. What kind of population is represented by a and b age pyramids?
iii. Which of these age pyramid will have highest birth rate?
Q5.i. In the given flow chart what are A and B?
ii. Write the relation between all the components shown here with that of population density
at time‘t+1’
iii. Which of these contribute to temporary change in the population?
Q6.a. If in a pond there were 20 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 6 new plants
are added, taking the current population to 26. Calculate the birth rate for plant population in
this case.
b. If in a population of 44 fruit flies 6 died during a week. Find the death rate of the
population during that week.
c. If in a population of rabbits initially there were 26 rabbits in their colony. 12 are born in
a year and 5 killed by their predators during a season. Find their new population and
growth rate of the population.
Q7. a. State the principle of biological control method adopted in agriculture.
b. When in a field experiment if all starfish Pisaster were removed from an enclosed
intertidal area, more than 10 species of invertebrates became extinct. Why?
c. When exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become invasive
and start spreading fast. Why?
Q1. What is altitude sickness? What are its causes and symptoms? How does the human body
try to overcome altitude sickness?
Q2. Give the reason for the following situations.
a. Cattle do not browse on Calotropis.

b. The monarch butterfly is distasteful to its predator.
c. Very small animals are rarely found in Polar Regions.
d. In polar areas, aquatic mammals have a thick layer of blubber under their skin.
e. Some species of frogs and insects are cryptically coloured.
Q3. a. Certain species of wasps are seen to frequently visit flowering fig tree. What type of
interaction is seen between them? Why?
b.What is the association between the bumble bee and its favourite orchid Ophyrus? How
would extinction or change of one affect the other?
c. What do phytophagous insects feed on?
Q4. i. Differentiate between the following interspecific interactions in a population.

a. Mutualism and Competition
b. Commensalism and Amensalism
ii. What was Connell’s elegant field experiment?
Q5. Differentiate between Exponential and Logistic growth. Draw graph and mathematical
interpretations.
CHAPTER 14–ECOSYSTEM
Q1. Mass of living material at each trophic level at a particular time is known as…
(i)Standing crop (ii) Standing state

(iii)Biomass (iv) Gross Primary Productivity
Q2. Which of the following ecological pyramid can never be inverted?
(i)Pyramid of biomass (ii) Pyramid of number

(iii)Pyramid of energy (iv) All
Q3. Which of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?
(i) It begins on a bare rock.

(ii) It occurs on a newly developed area.
(iii) It follows primary succession.
(iv) It is similar to primary succession, but has a relatively fast pace.
Q4. Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem-

(i) Productivity (ii) Stratification (iii) Energy flow (iv) Decomposition
Q5. The reservoir for the gaseous type of biogeochemical cycle exists in:-
(i) Stratosphere (ii) Atmosphere (iii) Ionosphere (iv) lithosphere
Q6. The second trophic level in a lake is
(i) Phytoplankton (ii) Zooplankton (iii) Benthos (iv) Fishes
Q7. Which of the following represents the sedimentary type of nutrient cycle?
(i)Nitrogen cycle (ii) Carbon cycle (iii) Phosphorus cycle (iv)Oxygen cycle
Q8. In a pond ecosystem, the food chain starts with

(i)Zooplanktons. (ii)Small insects (iii) Phytoplanktons (iv) Small fishes
Q9.The last stable community in succession that is in equilibrium with the environment, is
called
(i) Seral community (ii) pioneer community (iii) Climax community (iv) all of these
Q10. Which of the following is a pioneer species in xerarch succession?

(i) Phytoplanktons (ii) Lichens (iii)Bryophytes (iv) Sedges
Q1. State what does ‘standing crop’ and ‘standing state’ of a trophic level represent.
Q2. What is the role of first trophic level in a food chain?
Q3. Name the type of food chain responsible for the flow of a larger fraction of energy in an
aquatic and a terrestrial ecosystem respectively. Mention one difference between the two food
chains.
Q4. What is stratification? Give an example.
Q5. List the factors on which primary productivity depends.
Q6. Give an example each of
a. Terrestrial and Aquatic ecosystem b. Natural and man-made ecosystem
Q7. What controls the rate of decomposition? Explain with an example.
Q8. Define trophic levels with the help of food chain.
Q9. What are two possible shapes of ecological pyramid of biomass? Support your answer with
an example.
Q10. Which form of ecological succession will be observed in following situation?
a) Land that have been flooded b)Barren rock
c) Newly formed water body d)Burned forest
Q11. Construct a grazing food chain and detritus food chain using the following, with 5 links
each: Earthworm, bird, snake, vulture, grass, grasshopper, frog, decaying plant matter.
Q1. List three limitations of ecological pyramids.
Q2. Construct a pyramid of biomass starting with phytoplankton. Label 3 trophic levels. Is this
pyramid upright or inverted? Why?
Q3. Define productivity. Name two forms of productivity. How are they related?
Q4. ‘Energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional’ Justify the statement.
Q5. What is biogeochemical cycles? Name its two types and one example of each.
Q6. Healthy ecosystems are the base of wide range of Ecosystem services. Justify
Q7. Construct an ideal pyramid of energy when 2,000,000 joules of sunlight is available. Label
all its trophic level and also write their energy content.
Q8. Draw carbon cycle in a biosphere.

Q9. How carbon cycle is different from phosphorus cycle? Also mention their reservoir on
earth.
Q10. Give an account of factors affecting the rate of decomposition.
Q11. Name the pioneer species on a bare rock. How do they help in establishing the next type
of vegetation? Mention the type of climax community that will ultimately get established.
Q1. a. Name the biogeochemical cycle.
b. Name the activity of living organisms not depicted in

the cycle by which this nutrient is returned to the atmosphere.
c. How would the flow of nutrients in the cycle be affected due

to large scale deforestation? Give reason
Q2. i. Identify the nutrient cycle represented in the given flow

chart.
ii. Label parts A and B
iii. What is the process C shown here?
Q3. In respect of hydrarch succession answer the following.
a. Name the pioneer species.

b. Which stage precede and succeed reed-swamp stage?
c. Name last two stages in hydrarch succession.
Q4. Write the percentage of following ecosystem services.

a. Soil formation
b. Recreation and nutrient cycling
c. Climate regulation
Q5. Here is a list of some organisms
Grass, Grasshopper, frog, snake, eagle, peacock, lizard, birds
a. Create a food chain using these organisms and it should have five trophic levels.
b. Which member of food chain will have highest energy content? Why?
c. If chemical enters in a food chain then which trophic level will have highest
concentration of these chemicals? Why?
Q6. i. What are two different ways in which standing crop of a trophic level can be measured?
ii. Which of these two methods is better?
iii. Give reason for your choice in part ii.
Q7. i. Arrange following in a sequence to obtain correct order of the process decomposition.
Leaching, fragmentation, humification, mineralization, catabolism
ii. What is the product of humification? Define it.
iii. Name the process by which water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil
horizon.
Q1. Describe the process of decomposition of detritus under the following heads fragmentation,
leaching, catabolism, humification and mineralization.
Q2. Explain how does a primary succession starts on a bare rock and reach climax
community?
Q3. Taking an example of a Pond ecosystem, explain how all the four components of an
ecosystem function as a unit.
Q4 a) What is Resource partitioning?

b) What is 10% law in ecology terms?
c) What is ‘Standing State’ the term used in nutrient cycling?
d) What do you mean by Pioneer species?
e) What is a climax community?
Q5. (a) Differentiate between primary and secondary ecological successions.

(b) Explain the different steps of xerarch succession occurring in nature.
CHAPTER 15 –Biodiversity and conservation
Q1. Who gave ‘rivet popper hypothesis’?

(i) Paul Ehrlich (ii) Alexander von Humboldt
(iii)Robert May (iv) Edward Wilson
Q2. ‘India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice.’ Which kind of biological
diversity is represented by this?
(i)Genetic diversity (ii) Species diversity
(iii)Ecological diversity (iv) Latitudinal diversity
Q3. How many mega diversity countries are there in world?
(i) 15 (ii) 20
(iii) 170 (iv) 12
Q4. Which of the following is incorrect match in context of recent extinctions?
(i)Dodo--- Mauritius (ii) Sea cow---- Russia
(iii) Thylacine----Australia (iv)Stellar’s Sea cow--- China
Q5. What is the value regression coefficient for frugivorous birds and mammals in the tropical
forests of different contents?
(i) 0.6 (ii)1.15 (iii) 1.2 (iv)0.1
Q6. What is bioprospecting?
(i) Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for products of economic
importance
(ii) Conservation of alien species
(iii) Lowered resistance to environmental perturbations.
(iv) Over-exploitation of natural resources.
Q7. Which of the following is not In situ conservation?
(i) National parks (ii) Wildlife sanctuaries
(iii) Biosphere reserve (iv) Seed bank
Q8. Where was ‘The Earth Summit’ held in the year 1992?
(i) Johansberg (ii) Rio de Janerio
(iii) New Delhi (iv) Beijing
Q9. Which of the following is correct combination of extinctions according to the Red List
2004?
(i) 369 Invertebrates (ii) 338 Vertebrates
(iii) 89 Plants (iv) 778 species of all together
Q10. Which of the following has maximum number of species in vertebrates?

(i) Mammals (ii) Fishes
(iii) Reptiles (iv) Amphibians
Q1. Why should we conserve biodiversity? How can we do it?
Q2. Why sacred grooves are highly protected?
Q3. List two examples of loss of biodiversity due to alien species invasion.
Q4. State ‘rivet popper hypothesis’
Q5. What is the result obtained when we compare the relationship between species richness
and area for wide variety of taxa? Also draw it.
Q6. Give two examples of co-extinctions one each of plants and animals.
Q7. What is the meaning of term endemism?
Q8. Write the conclusion of David Tilman’s long-term ecosystem experiments.
Q9. How conservation of species in wildlife sanctuaries is different from in zoological parks?
Q10. What made India one of the 12 mega-diversity countries of the world?

Q1. Write the relation between species richness and area explored. What is the shape of graph
plotted between species richness and area explored? How can we find out the slope of such
relation?
Q2. What are three reasons for conserving biodiversity?
Q3. The biodiversity is greater at tropics. What are three hypothesis proposed by ecologists
and evolutionary biologist to justify it?
Q4. Write three impact of loss of biodiversity in a region.
Q5. List three important features that make a stable biological community.
Q6. What are three different types of biological diversity? Give an example of each.
Q7. Alien species are highly invasive and are a threat to indigenous species. Substantiate
this statement with any two examples.
Q8 Differentiate between In situ conservation and Ex situ conservation.
Q9. What role has the Government played to preserve and conserve biodiversity?
Q1. In the given pie chart represents the relative

abundance of different species of invertebrates
a)Identify invertebrates numbered 1 and 2
b)What percentage of total animals is made by
group 3? Also name taxonomic group of 3.
c)What would be the number of group 3 animals if
total number of animals in an area is 750?
Q2. In given pie chart number of vertebrates are shown
i)Write the name of the section represented as ‘a’

and ‘b’
ii)Which section has its number eactly equals to

amphibians?
iii)Other than amphibians which other two groups

are oviparous
Q3. Answer the question with the help of given pie chart.
i. Label section a and b of pie chart.

ii. Which of the following is more than the combined of amphibians,mammals,birds
and reptiles?
iii. Which taxonomic group is not placed in such pie charts depicting global
biodiversity?
Q4. What kind of biodiversity is the following case?

a. There are 1000 varieties of mango in India
b. India has desert, mangroves, wetlands, estuaries etc in terms of ecosystem
c. Western ghats have greater amphibian species diversity than eastern ghats.
Q1(a).Name the sobriquet used to describe four major causes of biodiversity losses.
(b). Name the category of following biodiversity loss.
i. Use of African catfish for aquaculture purposes is posing threat to our indigenous
species.
ii. Extinction of passenger pigeon in the past 500 years.
iii. Conversion of grasslands for raising beef cattle.
Q2. (a) Why certain regions have been declared as biodiversity hot spots by environmentalists
of the world? Name any two hot spot regions of India.
(b) How can we conserve biodiversity.
Q3. (a)The Amazon rainforest is referred to as “lungs of the planet”. Mention any one human
activity which causes loss of biodiversity in this reason.
(b) Why is genetic variation important in the plant Rauwolfia vomitoria?
(c) Name ant two sub-species of tiger which experienced recent extinction.
(d) How does pattern of Biodiversity change with latitudinal gradient? Give an example.
CHAPTER 16 –Environmental issues
Q1. According to CPCB what is the particle size that causes greatest harm to human health?
(i) 2.5micrometre or less (ii) 3.5 micrometre

(iii) 4 micrometre (iv) 10 micrometre
Q2. Which of the following metal is found in catalytic converters?
(i) Copper (ii) Silver

(iii)Rhodium (iv) Lead
Q3. When was Water (Prevention and Control of pollution) Act passed?
(i) 1983 (ii)1986

(iii)1974 (iv)1976
Q4. ……….is unit to measure the thickness of ozone layer.
(i)Morgan (ii) Dobson

(iii)Newton/sq. m (iv) Kg/m2
Q5. Which among the following contribute second highest percentage in green house gases?
(i) Methane (ii) CFCs

(iii) Carbon dioxide (iv) Oxides of nitrogen
Q6. Who among the following is known for producing polyblend?
(i)Ramesh Chandra Dagar (ii) M.S. Swaminathan

(iii)Ahmed Khan (iv) J.C.Bose
Q7. Jhum cultivation refers to
(i)Cultivation of Jamun tree (ii) Cultivation of medicinal plants by tribes
(iii)Slash and burn in agriculture. (iv) Cultivation of terraces.
Q8. Which among the following is known as ‘Terror of Bengal’?
(i) Lantana (ii) E.crassipes

(iii) Parthenium (iv) Chenopodium
Q9. Which of the following do not form the dissolved material in waste water?
(i) Nitrate (ii) Ammonia

(iii) Phosphate (iv) Clay
Q10. Which of the following activity is not associated with people participation in conservation
of forest?
(i) Chipko Movement

(ii) Introduction to Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.
(iii) Joint Forest Management
(iv) Jhum Cultivation

Q1. Define BOD.
Q2. What do you understand by the term biological magnification?
Q3. Give two examples where there is degradation of natural resources by improper resource
utilization and maintenance.
Q4.What is Ecological Sanitation? Support your answer with an example.
Q5. What harm do thermal plants pose to environment? Mention any two of them.
Q6. Now the public transport of Delhi switched over to a new fuel. Name the fuel. Why is this
fuel considered better?
Q7. What would be the effect if the electric precipitator of a thermal plant fails to function
properly?
Q8. How does electrostatic precipitator work?
Q9. Why particulate size 2.5 micrometers or less in diameter are responsible for causing the
greatest harm to human health?
Q10. Mention two ways in which we can replenish ground water.

Q1. In the given figure write the composition of 1% components.
Q2. How did a citizen group of FOAM, California USA help to improve the water quality of
the marshland using integrated Waste Water Treatment?
Q3. A factory drains its wastewater into a nearby lake. It has caused algal bloom.
a. How was the algal bloom caused?
b. What would be the consequences?
c. Name the phenomenon that caused it.
Q4. What is integrated organic farming? State its significance. Name the farmer who is famous
for using this method and trained 5000 farmers for it.
Q5.Name the innovation that leads to the judicial use of the plastic bags. Who developed this
innovative method? List its advantage.
Q6.Mention the six harmful effects of noise on human health.
Q7. Explain accelerated eutrophication. Mention any two consequences of this phenomenon.
Q8. DDT content in the water of a lake that supplies drinking water to the nearby villages is
found to be 0.004ppm. The kingfishers of that area were reported to have 1.98ppm of DDT.
Why has the concentration increased in these birds? What harm will this cause to the bird
population? Name the phenomenon.
Q9. Discuss the role of women and communities in protection and conservation of forests.
Q10. What are the various constituents of domestic sewage? What would be the effect on water
if it is discharged directly into rivers without any kind of treatment?
Q1. a. Why are catalytic converters recommended for vehicles?
b. Why such vehicles should use unleaded petrol?
c. Why CNG is preferred to diesel as a fuel in vehicles?
Q2.Study the graph given below and answer the following questions.
a. What is represented by A and B?
b. Which physical quantity one will use to estimate amount of organic matter in sewage
water?
c. For a sample X value of A is 20 and for sample Y it is 10.Which is more polluted and
why?
Q3. Study the given pie-chart showing relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to
total global warming and answer the following.
a. Which gas has highest and lowest contribution?

b. Name any two sources by which gas with percentage 14% is released in atmosphere.
c. What would be the effect of these gases on environment?
Q4. i. What is ozone hole?
ii. Name the unit for measuring thickness of ozone.
iii. When does ozone hole develop each year?
Q5. a. What are three categories in which waste can be categorized?
b. Who can help us in segregation of these wastes at community level?
c. Why there is new trend of eco-friendly packaging?
Q1. What is global warming? List four strategies for reducing global warming.
Q2. Write two limitations of use of the nuclear energy? Why nuclear waste has to be dealt with
utmost caution? What is the recommended way of disposing nuclear waste?
Q3. a. Why hospital waste is hazardous? How can we dispose it?
d. Why e-waste is exported to developing countries? Mention the only solution to the e-
waste problem.
Q4. a) Explain how Biologists of Humboldt University designed Integrated waste water
treatment process in a natural system.
b) Draw a pie-chart showing relative contribution of different greenhouse gases to total
global warming.
Q5. (a) Write a short note on electronic waste. List the various sources of e- wastes and the
problems associated with the disposal of e-waste.
(b) Compare the benefits of using CNG in public vehicles over conventional fuel.
As Per Revised
CBSE Curriculum
2023-24
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CLASS XII QUESTION BANK Biology

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CHAPTER 2 - SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

SECTION A (1 mark each)

Multiple Choice Questions: (Choose the correct option)

3. Which of the following plant is not pollinated by water?

4. Which one undergoes meiosis?

7. Identify the type of pollination shown by Viola -

9. Which of the following does not have an albuminous seed?

10. Which of the following is different with respect to ploidy?

12. Which of the following has one ovule in one ovary?

13. Which of the following has many ovules in one ovary?

14. Which of these is a dry fruit?

15. Scutellum is another name for:

SECTION B (2 marks each)

Q 2. Which parts of flower develop into perisperm and pericarp?

Q 3. Banana fruit is said to be parthenocarpic whereas turkey is said to be

Q 6. Angiosperms bearing unisexual flowers are said to be either monoecious or dioecious.

Q 8. State four characteristic features of wind pollinated flowers.

Q 11. A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed and dithecous. Explain.

Q 13. Justify giving reasons:

Q 15. i) Who are pollen / nectar robbers?

Q 17. Differentiate between coleoptile and coleorrhiza.

Q 19. Justify the following:

Q 22. List the post - fertilisation events in

Q 23. Differentiate between autogamy and

Q 24. In the section of apple, label ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’

SECTION C (3 marks each)

Q 4. Describe the structure of a mature pollen grain.

Q 5. What are floral rewards? State their significance.

Q 7. i) Why are pollen preserved as fossils?

Q 8. i) Explain Double Fertilisation.

Q 9. State the location and functions of the following:

Q 10. i) State two devices that prevent autogamy.

Q 12. Differentiate between parthenogenesis and parthenocarpy.

Q 13. i) Identify the given figure.

Q 14. Explain pollination in sea grass, Zostera.

Q15. Explain pollination in Vallisneria.

Q 16. Differentiate between Microsporogenesis and Megasporogenesis.

Q16. Differentiate between:

Q 19. State any three significances of fruit formation.

SECTION D (3 marks each)

Q 1. A researcher attempts making apomictics of hybrid seeds.

Q 5. Explain the steps of artificial hybridisation in bisexual and unisexual flowers.

Q 8. i) State an example of a fruit in which induced parthenocarpy would be very beneficial.

Q 9. List any three advantages that seeds offer to angiosperms.

ii) Write the importance of such experiments.

SECTION E (5 marks each)

Q 4. What do you mean by monosporic development of female

Q 6. i) Describe in sequence the process of development of female

Q 5. In the diagram of a part of T. S. of anther, identify ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’, ‘d’,

Q 10. Majority of the angiosperm pollen are shed at 2 –celled stage.

Q 11. i) Draw L. S. of an anatropous ovule and label micropyle, funiculus, integuments,

Q 12. Diagrammatically differentiate between a mature embryo sac and a fertilized

SECTION A (1 mark each)

Multiple Choice Questions: (Choose the correct option)

1. Which of the following group of hormones are produced from placenta?

3. In early stages of Vertebrate cleavage, successive blastomeres:

4. The _________________ are the first haploid cells during oogenesis:

5. During the ____________________ phase of menstruation, the lining of uterus starts to

i) a) only ii) b) and c) iii) a) and d) iv) d) only

7. Androgens are synthesized by: