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Q.3 (CST-7) Energy in Projectile Motion 4. A ball of mass m is projected vertically upwards
1. A ball is projected vertically upwards with speed with speed u. The variation of kinetic energy as a
v0. The variation of speed with time is best function of time is best represented as (g = 10
represented by which of the following graph?
m/s2)
1
(1) KE = m(u – gt )2
2
(1) (2)
1 1
(2) KE = mu 2 – mg 2t 2
2 2
1 1
(3) KE = mu 2 – mgt
2 2
(3) (4)
1
(4) KE = m(u + gt )2
2
2. In Q (1) the variation of gravitational potential Q.4 (CST-7) Projectile Motion
energy with time is best represented by which of
1. A ball is projected at an angle of 37° with the
the following graph?
horizontal, with a speed of 20 m/s. The angle of
velocity of the projectile with the horizontal after 1
(1) (2) s will be
 1
(1) tan–1   (2) tan–1 (8)
8
(3) tan–1 ( 4) (4) tan–1 ( 6)

(3) (4) 2. A ball if projected at an angle of 45° with the

horizontal. After 2 s, the ball is moving at an
angle of 30° with the horizontal. The speed of
3. A ball is dropped from a certain height, neglecting
air resistance, the graph between net mechanical projection of the projectile may be equal to
energy and time is best represented by (1) 66.9 m/s (2) 17.9 m/s
(3) 28 m/s (4) Both (1) and (2)
3. A projectile is projected upwards at an angle of
(1) (2)
53° with the horizontal and with a speed of 20
m/s. The time after projection when the projectile
is moving horizontally is
(1) 2.1 s (2) 1.6 s
(3) (4)
(3) 9.2 s (4) 2.8 s

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4. A projectile is projected at an α with the horizontal 2. We have a ring and a disc of same mass. If
and with a speed of u. The angle β made by moment of inertia of both object is same about
diametrical axis then ratio of their radii will be
velocity vector with horizontal as a function of
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
time is best related as (3) 1: 2 (4) 2 : 3
u sin  + gt u sin  3. In question number (1), if mass and radius of both
(1) tan  = (2) tan  =
u cos  – gt u cos  – gt object are same, then the ratio of radius of
gyration of the objects about its tangential axis
u sin  – gt u sin 
(3) tan  = (4) tan  = will be
u cos  u cos  + gt
2 5
(1) (2)
Q.12 (CST-7) Relation between torque and angular 3 21
acceleration 7
(3) 2 :1 (4)
5
1. A flywheel initially at rest, with moment of inertia I,
4. We have two spheres, one of which is hollow and
is acted upon by a constant torque . The angular other is solid, they have identical mass and
velocity of flywheel after time t will be moment of inertia about its geometrical axis. The
ratio of their radii is given by
 I
(1) t (2) 2 3
I t (1) (2)
3 5
It
(3) (4) It 3 7
 (3) (4)
2 5
2. A flywheel of mass 10 kg is acted upon by a
Q.11 (CST-11) S.H.M
constant torque equal to 20 N m. The angular
1. If two S.H.M of same frequency and amplitude
speed 10 s after starting from rest is equal to 55 are superimposed in same phase on the particle
rad/s. The radius of gyration of flywheel is of mass m. The motion of the particle will be
(1) SHM
2 (2) Oscillatory but not periodic
(1) 2 m (2) m
11 (3) Periodic but not oscillatory
6 (4) Non-periodic
(3) m (4) 19 m 2. The equation of displacement of a particle of
17
mass m is given by y = a cos2t + a sin2t, then
3. Solid sphere of mass 5 kg has a radius of time period of oscillation of particle will be
gyration 2 m. On application of a torque equal to 2 
(1) (2)
20 N m, the angular acceleration produced would  
be  2
(3) (4)
2 3
(1) 2 rad/s2 (2) 4 rad/s2
3. The equation y = a sint + a sin2t is
(3) 1 rad/s2 (4) 6 rad/s2 (1) Periodic but not SHM
4. Ratio of angular accelerations for two bodies with (2) Oscillatory but not periodic
radii of gyration in ratio 1 : 2 and under influence (3) SHM
(4) Non-periodic
of same torque is
4. Two SHMs y1 = A sint and y2 = A cost are
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 superimposed on a particle of mass m. Total
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 1 : 16 mechanical energy of particle is
1
Q.8 (CST-8) Moment of Inertia (1) m2 A2 (2) m2 A2
2
1. We have two spheres, one of which is hollow and 1
(3) Zero (4) m2 A
other is solid If they have same mass and radius. 2
The ratio of their moment of inertia is given by Q.18 (CST-8) Standing wave in organ Pipe
about their geometrical axis well be 1. The ratio of fundamental frequency of a wave
inside an open pipe to the closed pipe will be
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 (consider length of the tubes and velocity of the
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 5 wave inside the tube is same)

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(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2 3. A charge Q is broken in two parts q and (Q–q)

(3) 3 : 5 (4) 3 : 1 and they are placed at a distance R from each
2. A pipe closed at one end produces a note of other. The condition for maximum force of
fundamental frequency 1. When pipe is filled with repulsion between them is:
 1
rd
d 2F d 2F
water upto   of its length. If produces a note (1) =0 (2) 0
3 dq 2 dq 2
1 d 2F d 2F
of frequency 2. The value of is (3) 0 (4) 0
2 dq 2 dq 2
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 9 : 4 4. A charge Q is divided into two parts such that
(3) 3 : 5 (4) 2 : 1 they experience maximum force of repulsion
3. A tuning fork having a frequency of 340 Hz is when placed at fixed distance r. The maximum
vibrated just above a cylindrical tube. The height magnitude of force is
of tube is 120 cm. Water is slowly poured in it. 3kQ 2 kQ 2
(1) (2)
What is the minimum height of water required for 4r 2 4r 2
resonance? (velocity of sound in air = 340 m/s) kQ 2 2kQ 2
(1) 75 cm (2) 25 cm (3) (4)
r2 9r 2
(3) 45 cm (4) 15 cm
Q.44 (CST-8) Combination of Capacitors
Q.1 (CST-8) Fundamental Forces
1. Three identical capacitors of capacitance C are
1. Strong nuclear forces are mediated by the
connected in parallel across the potential
particles
difference V as shown in the figure. Then the
(1) Bosons (2) -mesons
charge on either of the plates of capacitor will be
(3) Photons (4) Electrons
2. Which of the following statements is incorrect for
strong nuclear forces?
(1) These are central forces
(2) These are independent of charge on the
nucleons
(3) They have the infinite range
(4) Both (1) and (3)
3. Mediating particle in electromagnetic force is
(1) Gluon (2) Boson
(3) Gravitation (4) Photon
4. Unification of weak nuclear force and CV
(1) 3 CV (2)
electromagnetic force is given by 3
(1) J.C Bose (2) Lenoir (3) CV (4) 2 CV
(3) R. A millikan (4) Abdus Salam 2. Five metallic plates, each with a surface area A,
Q.20 (CST-8) Coulomb’s Force are placed at a distance d from each other as
shown in the figure. Then the net capacitance
1. A point charge Q is divided into two parts such  A
across point A and B is ( C = 0 )
that the force of repulsion between both part is d
maximum. Then the both parts having the charge.
Q 3Q Q 2Q
(1) and (2) and
4 4 3 3
Q Q Q 4Q (1) 3C (2) 2C
(3) and (4) and 4C
2 2 5 5 (3) (4) 4C
3
q1
2. If q1 + q2 = 5q, then the value of the for which 3. Three metallic plates, each with a surface area A,
q
are placed at a distance d from each other as
the force of repulsion between q1 and q2 is
maximum? shown in the figure. If points A and B is
3 5 connected with a battery of emf V, then the
(1) (2)
2 2 charge on the plate a will be
1 5
(3) (4)
2 4

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CSS-04 Physics

shown in the figure. The net capacitance of

system across points A and B is:

2A0V A0V
(1) (2)
d d
3A0V A0V 4A0 3A0
(3) (4) (1) (2)
d 2d d d
4. Five metallic plates of same surface area A and 2A0 5 A0
(3) (4)
are placed at a distance d from each other as d 3d

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Answer key
Q.3 (CST-7) Energy in Projectile Motion 2. (2)
3. (1)
1. (2)
4. (2)
2. (3)
Q.18 (CST-8) Standing wave in organ Pipe
3. (2)
4. (1) 1. (1)
Q.4 (CST-7) Projectile Motion 2. (1)
3. (3)
1. (1)
Q.1 (CST-8) Fundamental Forces
2. (4)
3. (2) 1. (2)
4. (3) 2. (4)
Q.12 (CST-7) Relation between torque and angular 3. (4)
acceleration 4. (4)
Q.20 (CST-8) Coulomb’s Force
1. (1)
2. (2) 1. (3)
3. (3) 2. (2)
4. (1) 3. (3)
Q.8 (CST-8) Moment of Inertia 4. (2)
Q.44 (CST-8) Combination of Capacitors
1. (1)
2. (3) 1. (3)
3. (2) 2. (4)
4. (2) 3. (2)
Q.11 (CST-11) S.H.M 4. (2)

1. (1)

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[Q.52. (CST-07) (Mole Concept)] [Q.63. (CST-07) (Enthalpy of Neutralisation)]
1. Total number of valence electrons present 1. In which of the following neutralisation
in 6.4 g of S2– ion is reactions, the heat released is maximum?
(1) 3.2 NA (2) 16 NA (1) HCl + NaOH
(3) 1.6 NA (4) 0.8 NA (2) CH3COOH + NaOH
2. Total number of protons in 3.6 g of H2O is (3) HCl + NaOH
(1) NA (2) 2 NA (4) HF + NaOH
(3) 20 NA (4) 10 NA 2. If the enthalpy of neutralisation is
57.1 kJ/mol, then the heat released upon
3. Which of the following has maximum neutralisation of 0.1 mol of NaOH with
number of molecules? 0.2 mol of HCl is
(1) 44.8 L of SO2 at STP (1) 28. 55 kJ (2) 57.1 kJ
(2) 44 g of CO2 (3) 11.42 kJ (4) 5.71 kJ
(3) 6 g of H2 3. If the enthalpy of neutralization of a weak
(4) 28 g of N2 monobasic acid (HX) with NaOH is
– 40 kJ then, the enthalpy of ionization of
4. Number of oxygen atoms present in 45 g HX is
of glucose is
(1) 20.2 kJ (2) 17.1 kJ
(1) 1.5 NA (2) 6 NA
(3) 31.2 kJ (4) 14.2 kJ
(3) NA (4) 15 NA [Q.81. (CST-07) (Molar Conductivity)]
5. Volume of 8 g of O2 at STP is 1. Which of the following aqueous solutions
(1) 11.2 L (2) 2.24 L has the least conductivity of room
temperature?
(3) 5.6 L (4) 22.4 L
(1) 0.1 M HAc (2) 0.01 M KCl
[Q.54. (CST-07) (Quantum Numbers)]
(3) 0.1 M KCl (4) Pure water
1. For a multi-electron atom, the correct
2. Conductivity of electrolytic solution
order of energy of atomic orbitals is
depends upon
(1) 5p > 4d > 5s > 3d > 4p I. Size of ions produced and their solution
(2) 5p > 4d > 5s > 4p > 3d II. Concentration of the electrolyte
(3) 5p = 5s > 4d = 4p > 3d III. Nature of the solvent and its viscosity
(4) 5p > 5s > 4d > 4p > 3d IV. Temperature
2. For which of the following elements, the (1) I and II only
energy of 2s orbital is least? (2) II and III only
(1) H (2) Li (3) I, III and IV only
(3) Na (4) K (4) I, II, III and IV
3. For He+ion, the energy of atomic orbitals 3. Unit of cell constant is
depends upon the value of (1) cm2 (2) cm–1
(1) Principal quantum number (3) cm–2 (4) cm
(2) Azimuthal quantum number 4. The ion which has the maximum value of
limiting molar conductivity at 298 K is
(3) Magnetic quantum number
(1) H+ (2) Na+
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Mg 2+ (2) K+
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5. If the conductivity of 0.1 M solution of KCl Q.74.(CST-08) (Reduction of Carbonyl Compounds)

at 298 K is 0.012 S cm–1, then its molar 1. Major product of the given reaction is
conductivity will be
(1) 120 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 144 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 102 S cm2 mol–1 4) 180 S cm2 mol
Q.56. (CST-08) (Real Gases)
(1) Alkane (2) Alcohol
1. Correct order of van der Waals constant a
of the given gases is (3) Alkene (4) Ketal
(1) NH3 > CO2 > H2 > He 2. Consider the following reaction sequence
(2) CO2 > NH3 > H2 > He
(3) NH3 > CO2 > He > H2 CH3CH2COCl ⎯⎯⎯
H2 /Pd
BaSO4
⎯
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
Zn-Hg
HCl
→B
(4) CO2 > NH3 > He > H2 Major product B is
2. Which among the following gases is most
difficult to compress? (1) CH3CH=CH2
(1) N2 (2) O2 (2) CH3CH2CHO
(3) CH4 (4) CO2 (3) CH3CH2CH3
3. Correct order of critical temperature of the
(4) CH3CH2CH2Cl
given gases is
(1) N2 > O2 > CO2 (2) CO2 > O2 > N2 3. Major product of the given reaction is
(3) O2 > N2 > CO2 (4) CO2 > N2 > O2
Q.77. (CST-08) (Oxidation of Alcohols)
1. Butan-1-ol on reaction with Jones reagent
gives
(1) Butanal (2) Butanoic acid
(3) Ethanoic acid (4) 2-Butene
2. Major product of the given reaction is (1) (2)
CH3CH=CH–CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯→ PCC

(1) CH3–CH=CH–COOH
(2) CH3CH=CH–CHO
(3) CH3CH2CH2–CHO (3) (4)
(4)
Q.68. (CST-08) (Nucleophilic Substitution
3. Which compound on reaction with copper Reaction)
at 573 K gives ketone as major product?
1. The compound which will react at fastest
rate by SN2 mechanism is
(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)
2. Which among the following will react with
4. Which compound on reaction with slowest rate by SN1 mechanism?
I2/NaOH gives iodoform as one of the
product? (1) (Ph)3C–Br (2) (Ph)2CH–Br
(3) PhCH2–Br (4) (CH3)3CCH2Br
3. Correct order of SN2 reactivity of the given
compounds is
(1) (2)
CH3–CH2–Br MeCH2–CH2–Br Me2CH–CH2–Br
(i) (ii) (iii)
(1) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (2) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
(3) (4) (3) (iii) > (i) > (ii) (4) (i) > (iii) > (ii)

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4. Which among the following undergoes

hydrolysis with fastest rate in presence of
aqueous silver nitrate solution? (3) (4)

(1) (2)

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ANSWERS KEY
Q.52. (CST-07) (Mole Concept) Q.56. (CST-08) (Real Gases)

1. (3) 1. (1)

2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (3)
3. (2)
4. (1)
Q.77. (CST-08) (Oxidation of Alcohols)
5. (3)
1. (2)
Q.54. (CST-07) (Quantum Numbers)
2. (2)
1. (2)
3. (3)
2. (4)
4. (1)
3. (1)
Q.74. (CST-08) (Reduction of Carbonyl compounds)
[Q.63. (CST-07) (Enthalpy of Neutralisation)]

1. (4) 1. (1)

2. (4) 2. (3)

3. (2) 3. (2)

[Q.81. (CST-07) (Molar Conductivity)] Q.68.(CST-08) (Nucleophilic substitution

reaction)
1. (4)
1. (2)
2. (4)

3. (2) 2. (4)

4. (1) 3. (2)

5. (1) 4. (3)

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BOTANY

Q.107 (CST-07) [Cell: The Unit of Life: Plasma 2. In lac operon, RNA polymerase binds to which
Membrane or Cell Membrane] region of the transcriptional unit?
1. Select the incorrect statement regarding (1) Operator (2) Promoter
plasma membrane in eukaryotes
(3) Lac z (4) Lac y
(1) Integral proteins cannot be removed easily
3. Lac repressor
(2) Membrane proteins show lateral movement
(1) Prevents the activity of RNA polymerase
within the lipid bilayer
(2) Binds to the operator site when lactose is
(3) Plasma membrane is asymmetrical absent
(4) Glycolipids are the most common type of
(3) Promote the transcription of lac z gene
lipids in it
(4) Both (1) and (2)
2. Flip-flop movement in the cell membrane is
4. Read the statements and select the correct
shown by
option.
(1) Phospholipids
A:- Lac repressor protein is a product of
(2) Proteins
regulator gene.
(3) Both proteins and lipids
B:- Lac repressor is inactivated by interaction of
(4) Neither phospholipids nor proteins
lactose.
3. Proteins do not show flip-flop movement due to
the reason that (1) Both A and B are correct
(1) They have small size (2) Both A and B are incorrect
(2) They are present in very low percent in (3) Only A is correct
plasma membrane (4) Only B is correct
(3) They have large size Q.115 (CST-07) (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering
(4) Both (1) and (2) Plants)
4. Given below are different type of lipids 1. Which of the following cells form egg apparatus
a) Lecithin b) Cephalin in the embryo sac?
c) Cholesterol d) Galactolipids (1) Antipodal cells
Select the correct option w.r.t the type of lipids (2) Two synergids only
found in the cell membrane (3) Antipodal and central cell
(1) a and b only (4) Two synergids and an egg cell
(2) c and d only 2. Which among the following are haploid in
(3) a, b, c and d nature?
(4) Only a a) Egg cell
Q.132 (CST-07) (Molecular basis of Inheritance: b) Secondary nucleus
Gene Regulation-Operon concept) c) Antipodal cells
1. In lac operon, repressor protein binds to _____ d) Synergids
region
(1) All a, b, c and d (2) a and c only
(1) Operator (2) Promoter
(3) a, c and d only (4) b and c only
(3) Lac y gene (4) Lac a gene

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3. Select the haploid, diploid and triploid structures Q.115 (CST-08) (Principles of Inheritance &
respectively from the given below. Variation: Law of Dominance)
(1) Zygote, Egg apparatus, PEN 1. As per the Mendel’s law of dominance
(2) Egg apparatus, Zygote, PEN (1) Genes are found on chromosomes
(3) Zygote, PEN, Egg apparatus (2) Every character is controlled by a gene
(4) PEN, Zygote, Egg apparatus (3) In a dissimilar pair of factors only one is able
Q.133 (CST-07) (Molecular Basis of Inheritance: to express its effect
DNA Fingerprinting – Practical (4) Each trait is expressed by a chromosome
Application) 2. According to the Mendel’s law of segregation
1. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying (1) Every character is expressed by a factor
differences in genetic material of individuals (2) Factors occur in pairs
(1) In DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA (3) A gamete carries only one factor of a
(2) In DNA sequence of non-repetitive DNA character
(3) In a small DNA sequence arranged (4) Dominant factor expresses in heterozygous
randomly condition while recessive expresses in
(4) In base sequences of bulk RNA homozygous condition only
2. Choose the incorrect statement. 3. Mendel’s second law of inheritance is also
(1) Microsatellites show 1-6 base repeats known as
(2) Sequences in microsatellites do not code (1) Law of dominance
for protein (2) Law of independent assortment
(3) Mini-satellites show variable number of (3) Law of segregation
tandem repeats (4) Law of incomplete dominance
(4) VNTRs number are same for all individuals Q.121 (CST-08) (Ecosystem: Ecological
3. All are the practical applications of DNA Succession)
fingerprinting, except 1. Which of the given forms pioneer community in
(1) Paternity disputes can be solved hydrarch succession?
(2) Determine the functions of all the genes in (1) Phytoplankton
human genome (2) Rooted sub-merged plants
(3) Useful in the detection of crime and legal (3) Marsh-meadow stage
pursuits (4) Forest
(4) Solve the problems of evolution 2. Choose the correct sequence of transitional
Q.131 (CST-08) (Plant Kingdom: Algae) communities in hydrarch succession.
1. Which one of the following is a colonial alga? (1) Submerged free-floating plant stage →
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Volovox Rooted submerged plant stage → Reed-
(3) Ulothrix (4) Spirogyra swamp plant stage → Marsh-meadow stage
2. All of the following are fresh water algae, except → Scrub stage
(1) Spirogyra (2) Chara (2) Rooted submerged plant stage →
Submerged free-floating plant stage →
(3) Sargassum (4) Volvox
Reed-Swamp stage → Marsh-meadow
3. Chloroplasts with pyrenoids is the characteristic
stage → Scrub stage
feature of
(3) Marsh-meadow stage → Scrub stage →
(1) Most of the green algae
Rooted submerged plant stage →
(2) All brown algae Submerged free-floating plant stage →
(3) Most of the red algae Reed-Swamp stage
(4) All blue-green algae (4) Reed-Swamp stage → Scrub stage →
4. Oogamous sexual reproduction is not found in Marsh meadow stage → Rooted
(1) Volvox (2) Spirogyra submerged plant stage → Submerged free-
(3) Fucus (4) Polysiphonia floating plant stage

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3. Which of the given constitute climax community 2. Parthenocarpic fruits always lack
in hydrarch succession? (1) Seeds
(1) Marsh-meadow stage (2) Paricarp
(2) Scrub stage (3) Sugar in them
(3) Phytoplankton (4) Mesocarp
(4) Forest 3. Edible part of pomegranate is
Q.104 (CST-08) (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering (1) Seed coat (2) Epicarp
Plants: Apomixis & Polyembryony) (3) Mesocarp (4) Endocarp
1. Parthenocarpy is the formation of 4. Which plant growth regulator induces
(1) Seed without fertilisation parthenocarpy?
(2) Fruit without fertilization (1) Ethylene (2) Auxin
(3) Seed from fertilized ovule (3) GAs (4) ABA
(4) Gametes from megaspore

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Answer Key

Q.107 (Cell: The Unit of Life: Plasma Membrane Q.131 (Plant Kingdom: Algae)
or Cell Membrane) 1. (2)
1. (4) 2. (3)
2. (1) 3. (1)
3. (3) 4. (2)
4. (3) Q.115 (Principles of Inheritance & Variation: Law
Q.132 (Molecular basis of Inheritance: Gene of Dominance)
Regulation-Operon concept) 1. (3)
1. (1) 2. (3)
2. (2) 3. (3)
3. (4) Q.121 (Ecosystem: Ecological Succession)
4. (1)
1. (1)
Q.115 (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants)
2. (2)
1. (4)
3. (4)
2. (3)
Q.104 (Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants:
3. (2) Apomixis & Polyembryony)
Q.133 (Molecular basis of inheritance: DNA
1. (2)
Fingerprinting – Practical application)
2. (1)
1. (1)
3. (1)
2. (4)
4. (2)
3. (2)

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 Based on
CST-07 & 08

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
ZOOLOGY
Q.162 (CST-04) Amino Acids 4. Organ of Corti lies in chamber recognized as
1. Which among the following is an acidic amino (1) Scala tympani (2) Scala media
acid? (3) Scala vestibuli (4) Crista ampullaris
(1) Glutamine (2) Aspartic acid Q.180 (CST-04) Mineralocorticoids
(3) Linoleic acid (4) Phenylalanine 1. Aldosterone is a secretion of
2. Select the odd one w.r.t. aromatic amino acids (1) Zona glomerulosa
(1) Tryptophan (2) Phenylalanine (2) Zona occuludens
(3) Tryosine (4) Serine (3) Zona fasciculata
3. If the ‘R’ group of given amino acid is a hydrogen (4) Zona reticularis
atom, then it will be identified as 2. Function of aldosterone include a role in
(1) Glycine (2) Alanine (1) Stimulating gluconeogenesis
(3) Tryptophan (4) Tyrosine (2) Maintaining body fluid volume
4. The amino acid asparagine is likely a derivative of (3) Inhibiting reabsorption of Na+
amino acid with side chain ‘R’ as/having
(4) Promoting growth of axial hair
(1) Hydroxymethyl group
3. Hormone involved in maintenance of osmotic
(2) Sulphur atoms pressure and blood pressure also plays a role in
(3) Carboxyl group (1) Maintaining electrolyte balance in body
(4) Amino group (2) Attaining puberty faster by promoting growth of
Q.178 (Inner ear-organ of Corti) pubic hair
1. The structure named organ of Corti is situated on (3) Stimulating lipolysis and proteolysis
(1) Tectorial membrane (4) Inhibiting utilization of amino acids
(2) Tympanic membrane 4. The chief mineralocorticoid of human body
(3) Basilar membrane (1) Produces inflammatory reactions
(4) Reissner’s membrane (2) Suppresses the immune response
2. Upon movement of lymphs in the inner ear, the hair (3) Acts mainly at the renal tubules
cells present in rows on the internal side of the (4) Prevents reabsorption of water and
organ of Corti press against elimination of phosphate ions
(1) Reissner’s membrane Q.182 (Evidences of evolution)
(2) Tympanic membrane 1. Which among the following can be considered as
(3) Basilar membrane a vestigial organ?
(4) Tectorial membrane (1) Thorn of Bougainvillea
3. Hair cells present in organ of Corti act as which (2) Tendrils of Cucurbita
type of receptors? (3) Eye of Octopus
(1) Olfactory (2) Gustatory (4) Appendix
(3) Chemoreceptors (4) Auditory

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CSS-04 (Based on CST-07 & 08) Zoology

2. Similarities in the pattern of bones in forelimbs of Q.156 (CST-08)

whales, bats, cheetah and human suggest 1. Which one of the following are bone forming cells?
(1) Analogy among them (1) Osteocytes (2) Chondrocytes
(2) Homology among them (3) Osteoblasts (3) Chondroblasts
(3) Convergent evolution among them 2. Bone digesting cells are __________. Choose the
(4) That they are all vestigial structures option that fills the blank correctly
3. Select the mismatch (1) Osteoclasts (2) Fibroblast
(3) Chondroblasts (4) Chondroclasts
(1) Sweet potato - Result of
3. Read the following statements and choose the
and potato convergent
correct option
evolution
Statement-1 : Bone cells are present in the
(2) Flippers of - Result of divergent spaces called lacunae.
penguins and evolution
Statement-2 : Bone marrow in some bones is the
dolphins
site of production of blood cells.
(3) Eye of Octopus - Examples of (1) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
and of mammals analogous (2) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
structures
(3) Only statement 1 is correct
(4) Vertebrate - Exhibit homology (4) Only statement 2 is correct
hearts or brains and common Q.160 (CST-08) Nucleic acid
ancestry
1. Observe the following given structure and select
Q.178 (CST-08) Chemical Coordination and the correct option w.r.t. it.
Integration : Pineal Gland
1. Which of the following gland is involved in the
regulation of sleep-wake cycle?
(1) Thyroid gland (2) Pineal gland
(3) Adrenal gland (4) Pituitary gland
2. A gland ‘X’ secretes a hormone called ‘Y’. The
concentration of Y is maximum at midnight and (1) Thymine (2) Cytosine
minimum during noon. Select the option that
(3) Uracil (4) Adenine
correctly identifies ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
2. Read the following given statements and choose
(X) (Y)
the correct option w.r.t. the structure of B-DNA.
(1) Parathyroid Parathormone
Statement-A : The rise per base pair would be 3.4
(2) Pituitary gland ACTH
Å.
(3) Pancreas Glucagon
Statement- B : At each step of ascent, the strand
(4) Pineal gland Melatonin turns 36°.
3. All of the given options are functions maintained by (1) Only statement A is correct
pineal gland except
(2) Only statement B are incorrect
(1) Defense capability (2) Pigmentation
(3) Both statements are correct
(3) Diuresis (4) Menstrual cycle
(4) Both statements are incorrect
4. Read the given statements and choose the
3. The pitch of B-DNA would be
incorrect option.
(1) 3.42 Å (2) 0.34 Å
(1) Pineal gland delays puberty by opposing the
action of LH and FSH (3) 34 Å (4) 342.2 Å
(2) Pineal gland is located on the ventral side of 4. Select the correct statement
forebrain (1) Adenine of one strand pairs with guanine of
(3) Melatonin helps in maintaining body other strand with the help of two H-bonds
temperature and metabolism of body (2) Adenine of one strand pairs with cytosine of
(4) Melatonin plays on important role in other strand with the help of three H-bonds
maintaining diurnal rhythm of the body (3) Cytosine of one strand pairs with guanine of
other strand with the help of three H-bonds
(4) Thymine of one strand pairs with adenine of
other strand with the help of three H-bonds

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CSS-04 (Based on CST-07 & 08) Zoology

Q.176 (CST-08) Pituitary gland 3. Choose the correct set of hormones secreted by
1. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t hormone and its pituitary gland
source gland (1) FSH, Adrenaline, ACTH, ADH
(1) Somatotrophin - Pituitary gland (2) Prolactin, FSH, ACTH, Somatotrophin
(2) Somatostatin - Hypothalamus (3) Somatostatin, LH, ADH, Thymosins
(3) Prolactin - Pituitary gland (4) Somatotrophin, TSH, ADH, Adrenaline
(4) Thymosins - Thyroid gland 4. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. hormone
2. Complete the analogy w.r.t. source gland secreted by pituitary gland
Adrenaline : Adrenal medulla : ACTH : _____. (1) GH : Somatotrophin
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Thymus (2) FSH : Follicle stimulating hormone
(3) Pituitary gland (4) Thyroid gland (3) ACTH : Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
(4) TSH : Thyrocalcitonin stimulating hormone

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CSS-04 (Based on CST-07 & 08) Zoology

Based on
CST-07 & 08

Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
ZOOLOGY
ANSWERS

Q. 162 (CST-07) Q.178 (CST-08)

1. (2) 1. (2)
2. (4) 2. (4)
3. (1) 3. (3)
4. (3) 4. (2)
Q.178 (CST-07) Q.156 (CST-08)
1. (3) 1. (3)
2. (4) 2. (1)
3. (4) 3. (2)
4. (2) Q.160 (CST-08)
Q.180 (CST-07) 1. (4)
1. (1) 2. (3)
2. (2) 3. (3)
3. (1) 4. (3)
4. (3) Q.176 (CST-08)
Q.182 (CST-07) 1. (4)
1. (4) 2. (3)
2. (2) 3. (2)
3. (2) 4. (4)

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