a. A Flaperon b. A Low speed Aileron c. A double cambered panel
2. What is the purpose of the VCTU?
a. Disconnects the Outboard Aileron at high air speeds b. Disconnect the outboard flap so the inboard flap can be used in flight to assist the efficiency of the wing c. Connects the slat system to the auto stall system when air speed is < 140 knots
3. What is the purpose of the ACEs?
a. To take any input (manual or auto pilot) send it to the RCM and then send the command signal from the RCM to the REUs b. To supply all commands to the actuators ensuring hydraulic pressure priority over gear c. To signal surface position to EICAS and the DFDR only
4. What controls the surfaces when in the DIRECT Mode?
a. The PMCs b. The Mode Rate Sensors c. The ACEs
5. How can the flight control mode be reset?
a. By cycling the P5 PFC switch to DISC and the AUTO b. By cycling the fuel levers to CUTOFF and then back to RUN c. By performing a FCE test and resetting any present leg faults
6. When operating the flight control system on the
ground, what maintenance precaution must be used? a. Monitor the Hydraulic temperature when performing STAB Speed checks b. Monitor the Battery discharge when performing Flaperon angle inspections c. Monitor the ECMU Temperature on page 2 of the flight control maintenance page
7. How do the force transducers operate on each control column?
a. Cartridges acting against nitrogen pressure b. Rollers acting against a spring c. Adjustable springs repositioned by an electric actuator
1 8. How many maintenance pages are available for flight control? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4
9. Which of the following statements is correct The Outboard
Ailerons? a. Are all speed ailerons that have the ability to drop with Flap position b. Are low speed aileron, Lockout at higher speeds and are manufactured from Composite materials c. Are used as speed brakes when the aircraft is >25,000 feet
10. What are the modes of Aileron system?
a. Primary, Active and Non active b. Damped, Non Damped and Back up c. Active mode, Damped mode and blocked damped mode
11. What is the condition of the aileron actuator, if two PCUs have failed? a. The PCU will lock out in the surface flared position b. The PCU will revert to electrical operations only c. The PCU is considered in the full Bypass mode and will configure to 2 degrees down
12. Where do the aileron PCU LVDTs send their signal to? a. The ACEs and CDN b. The REUs and then onto the ACEs c. The EMCU and directly onto EICAS
13. Why is there a mechanical link with the speedbrake module
and the reverser levers? a. To signal TLA position for spoiler deflection degradation b. To allow for the speed brake to be inhibited when throttles are more than 80% c. To mechanically deploy the Ground spoilers when reverse thrust has been deployed
14. What is the purpose of the Gust Suppression pressure
transducers? a. Monitor static pressure between the two sides of the rudder b. They lock out the pedals during autopilot operations c. They give feedback signals to verify rudder position
2 15. What is the purpose of the rudder pedal dampers? a. They provide feel to the crew as speed increases b. They reduce vibration in the pedals c. They centre the pedals
16. When are STAB TRIM indications on EICAS inhibited?
a. 10 seconds after the gear has been selected to UP b. When the STAB is out of the green band operation c. At high altitudes (> 32,000 feet)
17. How is STAB green band indication calculated?
a. From the MLG strut compression system b. From the NLG Pressure switch c. From Engine speed, parking brake position and AOA sensor position
18. How is secondary Mode indicated on EICAS?
a. Flap indication is shown by a yellow HASHED sign b. Flap indications are not shown c. Flap indication shows 2 indications one for each wing
19. What is indicated with an EICAS message CRUISE FLAP SYS?
a. The VCTU system has failed b. The VCTU load relief has failed only c. When airspeed is above 220 knots and the flaps are not fully up
20. When is the stick shaker system enabled?
a. When airspeed is lower than calculated airspeed b. When flap position is Zero and airspeed is lower than 145 knots c. When pitch > 5 degrees, Air data is valid and speed > 140 knots
ATA 22
21. Which of the following computers calculate control surface
commands? a. ACE b. PFCF c. CDN
22. When selecting LAND2 or above, at what height will the rudder BDAs engage? a. 1500 Feet b. 7000 feet c. 27000 feet
3 23. What are the 2 primary modes of the AFDS? a. Auto flight and Attitude b. Autopilot and Flight Director c. Co-ordinated turn and Yaw damping
24. Which of the following pitch modes are active at 40–60 feet? a. IDLE mode b. ROLLOUT mode c. FLARE mode
25. How is FD command indication shown on the HUD?
a. A Split cue b. A circle in a circle c. An Integrated cue
ATA 49
26. What powers the APU door actuator?
a. The CMCS b. The APU Hot battery Bus c. The PMG
27. How is air supplied to the APU Air/Oil cooler?
a. From a fan on the load compressor b. Exhausted air from the surge control valve c. Using exhaust muscle air through an air ejector
28. When does the APUC controller signal the de prime valve to close? a. At 60% N1 speed b. At 95% N1 speed c. Never, it closes when oil pressure is to low
29. What would be the cause to generate an EICAS ‘APU LIMIT’
message? a. High fuel temperature b. APU on speed but < 92% c. High oil temperature
4 30. How is the APU fuel module powered? a. From the APU Hot Battery Bus or the PMG b. From the APUC c. From the CMCS or the main Battery
31. When are both ignitors energised?
a. When an in-flight start is generated b. After a ‘failed APU start’ has been initiated c. When the inlet air temperature is < 20 C
32. What precaution must be observed to ensure the non-volatile
memory information is retained? a. The Battery and APUC must not be removed at the same time b. The Battery and the fuel module must not be removed at the same time c. The APUC and the fuel module must not be removed at the same time
33. How does the APUC signal an APU normal shutdown?
a. By signalling a low oil pressure signal b. By testing the auto fire shutdown circuits c. By signalling an over speed condition
ATA 34
34. What are the weather radar functions of the ISSPUs?
a. Weather Radar and Earth Reference System b. Weather Radar and Predictive Windshear (PWS) c. Weather Radar and dynamic windshear
35. How many Air Data Modules are there?
a. 2 for Pitot 2 for static b. 4 dual modules for pitot and static and aux c. 3 for Pitot and 3 for Static
36. The Earth Reference System, also known as the Inertial
Reference system, will align without entering position data under which conditions? a. IRS selectors ‘ON’ and valid last position b. IRS selectors ‘ON’ and valid GPS position c. IRS selectors ‘ON’ and valid Ref Airport
5 37. How can I hear the Marker beacon audio? a. Marker beacon audio cannot be heard b. By selecting audio on the approach page of the CDU c. By selecting MKR switch on the ACP
ATA 23
38. The Tuning control Panel DIRECTLY signals which of the
following? a. RDCs b. ACPs c. CCRs
39. What is different in 787 HF couplers compared to earlier Boeing
couplers? a. They can operate at lower temperatures >42,000 feet b. They can store frequencies for faster tuning c. They can couple all antennas at the same time
40. The ground call warning horn shares alerts with which of the following? a. APU fire warnings, Loss of ground cooling and ERS battery power is on b. Any fire or overheat warning and IRS battery operation c. APU fire, Engine Fire, Battery discharge critical
