DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C: P–SIA–D–UPGI PRESTORMINGTM TEST BOOKLET

Serial: 848303 CSAT

A
TEST - 3

Time Allowed: Two hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C or D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box.
Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions
in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.83) of the marks assigned to
that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty
for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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 S.(1) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
As neighbours, it is natural for China and India to have some differences but the focus
should be to seek common ground for development while resolving the pending issues
through dialogue, outgoing Chinese Ambassador to India Sun Weidong said on Tuesday.

1. What is the main thrust of the passage?

(a) Diplomacy and Development are important between India and China.
(b) Both countries should move ahead focusing on issues like trade while keeping
issues like border disputes pending for talks.
(c) Natural to have differences as neighbours.
(d) China is interested now in dialogue rather than confrontation.
SOLUTION:
(b) Option (b) gets the gist.

S.(2-5) Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
Economic science has dominated public policy since the 20th century. Debates have raged
between “Keynesian” economists and “Friedman” economists: between “welfarists” who see
the need for a government hand in the economy and “monetarists” who want governments
out of the way to let private entrepreneurs loose and let an “invisible hand” produce good
outcomes for all. Both sides agree that growth in GDP – the size of the economy measured
in money terms – is essential.
Far-sighted systems thinkers in the Club of Rome gave a wake-up call in 1972. They
showed that pursuit of GDP growth was destroying the earth’s capacity to renew itself and
provide resources for unbridled economic growth. They introduced the health of the planet
into calculations of profit and growth. Meanwhile, economists continue to treat the natural
environment as external to the economy. Pleas by communities to protect it are dismissed
as impediments to “ease of doing business” and GDP growth.
By the millennium’s end, advocates of unbridled private enterprise had prevailed. Needs of
citizens who earn their livelihoods by work, not investments of money, were relegated in
national economic policies wherever the “Thatcher-Reagan-Chicago” model of neo-liberal
economics prevailed. The 2008 global financial crisis revealed the fragility of insufficiently
regulated markets. Governments of the G7 (later G20) collaborated to stabilize the financial
system. They bailed out the “too large to fail” institutions while millions of common citizens,

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 who lost homes and livelihoods, were barely compensated. In fact, some solutions to
stabilize the the global financial system, such as the austerity package imposed on Greece,
harmed common citizens even further.
While the ideology of “minimum government”, with balanced budgets and low inflation has
continued, waves of protest have erupted around the world. Citizens complain that the
global financial system is unfair. It protects the interests of large corporations and the
wealthiest people while common citizens fall further behind. Demands to include the needs
of ‘People’ in economic policy are becoming louder. The “3P” slogan – People, Planet, and
Profit – demands a paradigm shift in economics.

2. As per the above passage what were not the consequences of 2008 global financial crisis?
I. Bailing out ‘too large to fail’ institutions by governments.
II. Millions of common citizens who lost homes and livelihoods were compensated.
III. Neo-liberal economics continued to prevail.
IV. Global financial systems became fair.
Select the correct answer giving the code below.
(a) I, II, III and IV only
(b) I, III and IV only
(c) III and IV only
(d) II and IV only
SOLUTION:
(d) The passage highlights the follow up of the crisis. Statements II and IV did not happen
and hence Option (d) is correct.

3. The wake up call given in the club of Rome in 1972 warns of which of the following issues
in the above passage?
I. Size of the economy measured in money terms alone.
II. Ease of doing business and GDP growth is the focus.
III. “Thatcher – Reagan – Chicago” model of economics.
IV. Minimum governance and unbridled private enterprise.
Select the right answer using the code below :
(a) All of the above
(b) None of the above
(c) I, II and IV only
(d) III and IV only
SOLUTION:
(a) All statements are warned of in the passage by the wake up call.

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4. The ‘invisible hand’ mentioned in the above passage does not support which of the
following?
(a) ‘Welfarists’
(b) Minimum governance.
(c) ‘Monetarists’
(d) Unbridled private enterprise.
SOLUTION:
(a) ‘Invisible hand’ supports option (b) (c) and (d) and hence (a) is the only option not
supported.

5. The author of the passage tends to support which of the following statements?
I. People are not just numbers nor merely resources for economy.
II. The 3 P slogan of People, Planets and Profit.
III. Needs of citizens who earn their livelihoods by work not investments of money.
IV. Free market capitalism.
Select the right answer using the code below:
(a) All the above
(b) IV only
(c) I and II only
(d) I, II and III only
SOLUTION:
(d) Except for statement IV the author tends to support the other statements.

Directions for Questions 6 to 9: Study the information given below to answer these
questions
For the purpose of admission, most colleges prescribe an admission test. There is no
uniformity in the nature of these tests. However, Prateek, Qadir, Rhythm, Sanjana and
Tamanna, all aspirants for higher education, appeared in entrance tests in different
colleges, La Martiniere College, St. Francis Convent, Don Bosco, Ryan International’s test,
Delhi Public College not necessarily in the given order. The number of questions in all these
tests happened to be different. Qadir wrote an entrance test containing exactly twice as
many questions as the test that Rhythm wrote, Tamanna wrote a test that contained 160
questions but it was neither for admission into La Martiniere College nor for St. Francis
Convent. Delhi Public College test contained 200 questions but neither Rhythm nor
Sanjana wrote this test. La Martiniere College test had 120 questions but it was not written
by Rhythm. The test that Sanjana wrote had 25% less questions than the test Qadir wrote
but it was not for La Martiniere College and St. Francis Convent. Prateek did not write Don

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 Bosco’s or Ryan International’s test. When all the tests are compared with regard to number
of questions in them, Ryan International falls exactly in the middle of the list. Each of the
five students wrote exactly one of the tests – the longest one of which contained 200
questions. There was no negative marking. Rhythm has written exam for 100 questions.

6. Prateek wrote the test for admission into which college?

(a) St. Francis Convent
(b) Don Bosco
(c) La Martiniere College
(d) Delhi Public College

7. If Qadir secured only 50 per cent marks in the test, each question carrying one mark, how
many marks did he secure in this test?
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 100
(d) None of these

8. Which college Tamanna aspired for

(a) La Martiniere College
(b) St. Francis Convent
(c) Don Bosco
(d) Ryan International’s test

9. Which of the following combinations is true?

(a) Prateek – La Martiniere College – 180 Questions
(b) Qadir – Don Bosco – 160 Questions
(c) Rhythm – St. Francis Convent – 100 Questions
(d) Sanjana – St. Francis Convent – 150 Questions
SOLUTION:
Questions 6 to 9:
R 100 St. Francis
T 160 Don Bosco
Q 200 DPC
P 120 LMC
S 150 Ryan Intl.

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 S.(10) Directions for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
It is never a good idea to fight with the past, no matter how old it is. Maturity lies in
learning to live with the past, not in it – under the illusion that it can be changed. The past
is the past, therefore inaccessible for human intervention. To study it with curiosity is a
preferable option to quarrelling with it or harming the few tangible relics it has left behind.
Colonised societies suffered similar consequences, such as drainage of wealth and the
emergence of a state apparatus that the common people found difficult to identify with.
Their fear of the state and the state’s distrust of the citizen ought to be the prime agenda for
anyone pursuing de-colonisation.

10. What is the most important and critical message of the above passage?
(a) Maturity lies in learning to live with the past not under the illusion that it can be
changed.
(b) Bridging the chasm between the rulers and ruled would be a big win in unshackling
the fetters of the past.
(c) Make efforts to get back the wealth drained due to colonisation
(d) It is never a good idea to fight with the past except against colonization footprints.
SOLUTION:
(b) The passage clearly mentions what should be the prime agenda which is Option (b).

S.(11-12) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passages and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
The recent order of India’s competition regulator against Google for abusing its dominant
position in the Android mobile device ecosystem is significant not just for the amount of
penalty imposed but also for the drastic changes in business practices that it requires the
IT giant to undertake. On Thursday, the Competition Commission of India imposed a
penalty of about 1,337 crore, said to be a provisional amount, on Google, while coming
down heavily on it for having such restrictive clauses in its agreements with original
equipment manufacturers (who use its Android platform) that it can keep competition at
bay. And because of such agreements, the order said, “Google ensured that users continue
to use its search services on mobile devices which facilitated un-interrupted growth of
advertisement revenue for Google.” It, therefore, concluded that the whole idea of Google
imposing such restrictions on its device partners was to “protect and strengthen its

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 dominant position in general search services and thus, its revenues via search
advertisements”. This decision, both the penalty and the regulator’s direction Google “to
modify its conduct”, will be welcomed by anyone who realizes the power of the big IT
platforms to shut out competition and, therefore, choice for the users.

11. From the above passage what are/is not the significant fallout(s) of the recent order of
Competition Commission of India?
(a) Hiccups in the advertisement revenue flow to Google.
(b) Reign of Google in search services challenged.
(c) Increased competition of users of big IT platforms.
(d) Google will have to tweak its business model in India.
SOLUTION:
(c) The passage states that users will have more choices not competition in the last
sentence.

12. The followings assumptions are drawn from the above passage:
I. Google India due to the recent orders of Competition Commission of India will pull out
of India.
II. Due to its dominant position Google India will not modify its behaviour.
Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
(d) Since India is a big growing market Google is unlikely to pull out of India but likely to
modify its business practices.

13. If 4a2 + 4ab + b2 = 256, then what is the value of 2a + b?

(a) 16
(b) -256
(c) 256
(d) 128
SOLUTION:
4a2 + 4ab + b2 = 256 ➔ (2a + b)2 = 256 ➔ 2a + b = 16 or -16

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14. If a ≥ 0 and 13a + 15 ≤ 41, then how many integer values can a have?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
SOLUTION:
13a + 15 ≤ 41 ➔ 13a ≤ 26 ➔ a ≤ 2 ➔ a = (0, 1, 2) i.e., 3 values

15. What is the difference between the angles made by the minute and hour hands of a clock
when the time is 3:12 pm and 7:12 pm?
(a) 80
(b) 100
(c) 120
(d) 140
SOLUTION:
At 3:12 pm, the angle ➔ Hour hand = 3*30 + 12/2 = 90 + 6 = 96;
Minute hand = 6*12 = 72
 Angle = 96 – 72 = 24
At 7:12 pm, the angle ➔ Hour hand = 7*30 + 12/2 = 210 + 6 = 216;
Minute hand = 6*12 = 72
 Angle = 216 – 72 = 144
 Difference = 144 – 24 = 120

S.(16) Directions for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
During the COVID-19 lockdown, many countries observed historic improvements in
ambient air quality. Our study shows that despite the historic improvements in ambient air
quality, PM2.5 exposures increased for 65% of Indians and a third of the global population
during the lockdown, largely attributed to biomass cooking activity.

16. What is the most rational and logical conclusion of the above passage?
(a) Need to slow down unbridled development to have better ambient air quality like during
COVID-19 lockdown.
(b) People be encouraged to be outdoors or have good ventilations in their houses to reduce
exposure to biomass cookstoves.

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 (c) Biomass cooking needs to be prohibited and alternates be provided.
(d) Need for organizational support to provide affordable and sustainable cleaner
cooking initiatives/alternates to replace biomass cooking.
SOLUTION:
(d) Most suitable option is (d)

S.(17) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
Booster shots against current SARS-CoV-2 variants seem to help the human immune
system to fight variants that do not exist yet. This is the implication of two new preprint
studies analyzing how a booster shot or breakthrough infection affects antibody-producing
cells in humans. Some of these cells evolve over time to exclusively create new antibodies
that target new strains in the body, whereas others produce antibodies against both new
and old strains of SARV-CoV-2.

17. The following assumptions have been drawn from the above passage :
I. Booster shots against SARS-CoV-2 will help human system to fight against all viruses.
II. Further research on SARS-CoV-2 is unnecessary.
Which of the above assumptions are / is valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
(d) Assumption I talks about all viruses while the passage is about variants. Assumption II
is unscientific. Hence both assumptions are invalid.

S.(18) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 3
Grazing ecosystems, such as grasslands, shrublands, and steppes savannahs cover about
10% of India and about 40% of the world. Historically, these ecosystem support nearly all
megafauna around the world and are home to reptiles, birds, amphibians.
Such “drylands” have been threatened by alternate land use. “Drylands seem to lack a
legitimate standing in our policy due to the unfortunate ‘wasteland’ tag which originated

9
 during our colonial past that was enamored by forests. Many Indian ecologists, including
my colleagues, are trying to change this mindset.”
“Grazing ecosystems store carbon in the soil and therefore decarbonize the atmosphere.
Large mammals are crucial for all this. Unfortunately, wild mammals are confined to a few
parks and reserves. Elsewhere wildlife has long been replaced by domestic livestock.”

18. What is the most important inference from the above passage?
(a) Grazing ecosystems historically support nearly all mega fauna around the world and are
home to reptiles, birds and amphibians.
(b) Grazing ‘drylands’ have been threatened by alternated land use
(c) Grazing ‘drylands’ have to be officially upgraded to prevent misuse and be
included in areas reserved for wild large mammals.
(d) Grazing ecosystems store carbon in soil and large mammals are crucial in the process.
SOLUTION:
(c) Option (c) encompasses all the critical issues raised.

19. If X + Y means X is the brother of Y; X - Y means X is the sister of Y and X * Y means X is

the father of Y. Which of the following means that J is the son of K?
(a) K - N * J + F
(b) F - J + N * K
(c) N + K - F * J
(d) K * N - J + F
SOLUTION:
K * N ➔ K is the father of N ; N – J ➔ N is the sister of J ; J + F ➔ J is the brother of F

20. Pointing to a man in a photo album, a woman said, "He is the son of the daughter of my
uncle’s father." How is the man in the photo album related to the woman?
(a) Brother
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Son-in-law
SOLUTION:
Father of Uncle

Uncle ------- Uncle’s Sister

Son (Man) ---- Woman (Sister of the man)

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21. E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting in a row, waiting to be photographed. I and J are in the
centre. E and F are at the ends. G is sitting to the left of E. Who is to the right of F?
(a) E
(b) H
(c) I
(d) J
SOLUTION:
F H I/J J/I G E

22. The ratio of giraffes to monkeys at a certain zoo is 4:7. How many giraffes are there if the
difference between both the animals is 63?
(a) 147
(b) 84
(c) 21
(d) 42
SOLUTION:
Let giraffes = 4x and monkeys = 7x ➔ 7x – 4x = 63
 3x = 63 ➔ x = 21
 Giraffes = 4x = 4*21 = 84

S.(23-24) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passages and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passages
only.
PASSAGE 1
The pleasure doctrine is a concept derived from English common law, under which the
crown can dispense with the services of anyone in its employ at any time. In India, Article
310 of the Constitution says every person in the defence or civil service of the Union holds
office during the pleasure of the President, and every member of the civil service in the
states holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. However, Article 311 imposes
restrictions on the removal of a civil servant. It provides for civil servants being given a
reasonable opportunity for a hearing on the charges against them. There is also a provision
to dispense with the inquiry if it is not practicable to hold one, or if it is not expedient to do
so in the interest of national security. In practical terms, the pleasure of the President
referred to here is that of the Union government, and the Governor’s pleasure is that of the
State government. Under Article 164, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor; and
the other Ministers are appointed by the Governor on the CM’s advice. It adds that
Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. In a constitutional scheme in
which they are appointed solely on the CM’s advice, the ‘pleasure’ referred to is also taken
to mean the right of the Chief Minister to dismiss a Minister, and not that of the Governor.

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23. From the above passage which of the following statements do not pertain to ‘Doctrine of
Pleasure’?
I. Article 310 of the Constitution.
II. Article 164 of the Constitution.
III. Article 311 of the Constitution.
IV. English Common Law.
Select the correct answer using the code below :
(a) All of the above
(b) None of the above
(c) III and IV only
(d) IV only
SOLUTION:
(b) All the statements pertain to the ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’, Hence Option (b).

24. The following implications have been drawn from the above passage:
I. According to Article 164 a Governor can dismiss a Minister without concurrence of a
Chief Minister.
II. ‘Pleasure’ in Article 164 refers to the right of the Chief Minister in the constitutional
setting.
Which of the above implications are / is false?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
(a) Statement I is false while statement II is true. Hence Option (a)

S.(25-28) Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
The Supreme Court of India has now posted the 232 petitions challenging the Citizenship
(Amendment) Act (CAA) to be heard on December 6, 2022. However, there is another issue
linked to the subject, i.e., the unresolved status of Indian-origin Tamils who repatriated
from Sri Lanka. For over four decades, nearly 30,000 Indian-origin Tamils have been
classified as stateless persons, based on technicalities.
Under the British colonial government, Indian-origin Tamils were brought in as indentured
labourers to work in plantations. They remained mostly legally undocumented and socially

12
 isolated from the native Sri lankan Tamil and Sinhalese communities due to the policies of
the British. After 1947, Sri Lanka witnessed rising Sinhalese nationalism, leaving no room
for their political and civil participation. They were denied citizenship rights and existed as
a ‘stateless’ population, numbering close to 10 lakh by 1960. As an ethno-linguistic
minority without voting rights, this resulted in a double disadvantage till the two national
governments addressed this issue.
Subsequently, under the bilateral Sirimavo-Shastri Pact (1964) and the Sirimavo-Gandhi
pact (1974), six lakh people along with their natural increase would be granted Indian
citizenship upon their repatriation. Thus, the process of granting Indian-origin Tamils (who
returned to India till around 1982) began. However, the Sri Lankan civil war resulted in a
spike in Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian-origin Tamils together seeking asylum in India. This
resulted in a Union Ministry of Home Affairs directive to stop the grant of citizenship to
those who arrived in India after July 1983.
Furthermore, the focus of the Indian and Tamilnadu governments shifted to refugee welfare
and rehabilitation. Over the next 40 years, the legal destiny of Indian-origin Tamils has
been largely intertwined with that of Sri Lankan Tamil refugees, and both cohorts have been
relegated to ‘refugee’ status. This is because Indian-origin Tamils who arrived after 1983
came though unauthorized channels or without proper documentation, and came to be
classified as ‘illegal migrants’ as per the CAA 2003. This classification has resulted in their
statelessness and blocking of potential legal pathways to citizenship.

25. From the passage what are not the reasons why Sri Lankan Tamils of Indian origin
remained ‘stateless’?
I. British policies.
II. Lack of legal document.
III. Sinhalese nationalism.
IV. Non interference by Indian Government.
Select the correct answer using the following code :
(a) All of the above
(b) I, II and IV only
(c) IV only
(d) I and II only
SOLUTION:
(c) Except for IV, all other statements are some of the reasons for being ‘stateless’. Hence
Option (c).

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26. What is the most critical message implied by the above passage regarding ‘stateless’ Indian
origin Tamils?
(a) The Supreme Court to consider providing citizenship to them under CAA.
(b) The Sri Lankan government should give them Citizenship.
(c) Tamil Nadu government is to enhance the welfare measures being provided to them.
(d) The Indian government to take necessary steps to accord legal citizenship rights
to them.
SOLUTION:
(d) The most appropriate implication is option (d).

27. Why did the Union Home Ministry, according to the above passage, stop the grant of
citizenship to Indian origin Tamils who were repatriated to India based on Indo-Sri Lanka
pacts of 1964 and 1974?
(a) After the Civil War their status was changed to ‘refugees’.
(b) The legal destiny of Indian origin Tamils got intertwined with that of Sri Lankan Tamils.
(c) There was a sudden increase in Tamils, irrespective of origin, seeking asylum as a
consequence of the civil war.
(d) Indian origin Tamils who arrived after 1983 came through unauthorized channels or
without proper documents and came to be classified as ‘illegal migrants’.
SOLUTION:
(c) The passage clearly states Option (c) as the reason.

28. With references to the above passage the following assumptions have been made :
I. The Supreme Court being aware of the distinction between Indian origin Tamils and Sri
Lankan Tamils may consider the long period of statelessness of Indian origin Tamils
favorably.
II. Since Indian origin Tamils have lived in Sri Lanka for generations, Indian government
is likely to repatriate them back to Sri Lanka.
Which of the above assumptions is / are valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
(a) Option I is valid, not Option II.

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 Directions for Questions 29 to 31: Study the information given below to answer these
questions
In a certain team, there are 15 basketball players and 25 baseball players. The total
number of players is 32 and everyone plays at least one sport.

29. How many players play only one sport?

(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 17
(d) 24

30. How many players play only basketball?

(a) 17
(b) 7
(c) 24
(d) 8

31. How many players play both basketball and baseball?

(a) 24
(b) 8
(c) 17
(d) 7
SOLUTION:

Total = 15 + 25 – a + 0 ➔ 32 = 40 – a ➔ a = 8

32. If Jaideep is ranked 15th from the top in his class, then what is his rank from the bottom if
there are 55 students in the class?
(a) 39th
(b) 40th
(c) 41st
(d) 42nd

15
SOLUTION:
14 ---- Jaideep ---- 40
Since there are 40 students after Jaideep, his rank is 41 st from the back.

S.(33-36) Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s recent observations at a conclave of State Home Ministers
contained a possibly unintended explanation for why academicians, students and lawyers
are languishing in prison on terrorism charges. He called for the elimination of all forms of
naxalism, be it of the gun-wielding variety or the kind that uses the pen “to raise
international support” and “to mislead the youth”. The remarks came alongside his
emphasis on how the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act had given an impetus to
combating terrorism. In effect, he has conveyed a disconcerting message that the police
would treat armed militants and intellectuals alike, if the Government suspects a
concordance in their outlook. Considering that the UAPA has been frequently and even
unfairly invoked in cases that appear to have no nexus with terrorism, Mr.Modi’s views
raise a question whether his comments are a justification of sorts for the continued
incarceration of many who do not seem to have indulged in any particular extremist act.
Incitement to violence, especially mobilizing support for armed insurgency, is indeed a grave
offence, but unless there is a proven connection between the nature of the support given
and an actual act of terror or a plot to commit one, it is difficult to treat the two things as
one. Recent judicial orders declining bail to activist Umar Khalid in the Delhi riots case,
and Jyoti Jagtap of the Kabir Kala Manch in the Elgar Parishad case are good examples of
how the police straddle the huge gulf between the nature of their participation in a protest
or an event and an actual act of violence by invoking UAPA, and thus eliminating the need
to have concrete evidence to show their involvement in a communal or Maoist plot. While
this may highlight the potential for misuse of UAPA and the impediments to liberty found
both in the law and in its judicial interpretation, it also has a distinct side-effect: the
manipulation of political discourse in such a way that those who question the actions,
methods and processes of the state that cause mass resentment are criminalized. It is in
such a backdrop that the use of political catchwords such as ‘Urban Naxals’, a term that
even Mr.Modi has used recently, should be seen. Far from being linked to any terrorist or
Maoist conspiracy, the term is merely used to tarnish those with an alternative point of
view. The Government arming itself with more stringent laws is only part of the solution to
the threat posed by violent extremism. Looking for remedies to the underlying causes is
more important than conjuring up conspiracies in the name of dismantling its support
structures.

16
33. From the above passage the ‘unintended explanation’ contained in Prime Minister’s recent
observation refers to which one of the following?
(a) How UAPA had given an impetus to combating terrorism.
(b) Eliminating all forms of Naxalism.
(c) Using the pen to ‘raise international support’ and to ‘mislead the youth’.
(d) Why people are in jail for long on charges of terrorism.
SOLUTION:
(d) First sentence in the passage clearly indicates Option (d).

34. What is the most rational and logical conclusion of the above passage?
(a) Stringent laws like UAPA are the solution to threats of terrorism
(b) UAPA has been frequently and even unfairly invoked.
(c) Root cause analysis and remedial measures are more important, than creating a
narrative to support harsh laws.
(d) Pen wielding activists should be treated the same way as gun wielding terrorists.
SOLUTION:
(c) The last sentence of the passage is the logical conclusion which is Option (c).

35. With reference to the above passage following assumptions have been made :
I. Incarceration of activists/dissenters without concrete evidence will ensure terrorism
does not thwart the progress of a democratic nation.
II. Treating armed militants and intellectuals alike if government suspects a concordance
in their outlook is the sign of a civilized state.
Which of the above assumption are / is valid :
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
(d) Based on the passage both assumptions are invalid and hence Option (d).

36. According to the passage the term ‘Urban Naxal’ is now used to :
(a) Indict terrorists under UAPA.
(b) Address Maoist conspirators.
(c) Categories terrorists from cities.
(d) Spoil the reputation of people with a different view point from the government.
SOLUTION:
(d) The third sentence from the bottom of the passage clarifies that Option (d) is correct.

17
 S.(37) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
No one fully understands what determines the investment rate. It has many drivers.
Monetary policy matters, as does fiscal policy. In addition, how much people invest depends
on social and political factors. It is arguable that trust is a major driver of investment. As
the level of trust erodes in a society, investment tends to fall. We will need more research to
know what is causing India’s investment rate to fall. However, given the rise of political
polarization and the policy of divide and rule, it is likely that societal trust is eroding and
this is reducing the investment rate. In turn, the falling investment rate is adversely
impacting growth and hurting job creation.

37. What is the most logical and rational conclusion of the above passage?
(a) No one fully understands what determines the investment rate.
(b) Increase in social amity and trust is likely to increase investment rate, job
creation and growth.
(c) Monetary and fiscal policies determine investment rate.
(d) We need more research to know, what is causing India’s investment rate to fall.
SOLUTION:
(b) The passage highlights the linkage between investment and trust and hence Option (b) is
the most apt conclusion.

38. What will be the next term in the following series: A4, Y7, W11, ____?
(a) V13
(b) U16
(c) E16
(d) U15
SOLUTION:
Skip one letter and move back and increase the gap between the numbers by 1 for each
successive term.

39. The length of a rectangle is 3 times its width. What will be the ratio of its area to its length,
if the width of the rectangle is a?
(a) 1 : a
(b) 2 : a
(c) a : 1
(d) a2 : 1

18
 SOLUTION:
W = a ➔ L = 3a ➔ Area = W * L = a * 3a = 3a2
 Area : Length = 3a2 : 3a = a : 1

40. In the following parallelogram ABCD, the area of triangle ABC is 44 cm 2. What will be the
area of triangle ACD?

(a) 22 cm2
(b) 33 cm2
(c) 44 cm2
(d) 55 cm2
SOLUTION:
Since the triangles are congruent, the areas will be equal.

41. Sanjay runs at a speed of 15 m/s, while Ajay runs at a speed of 13 m/s in a middle-
distance race. If both of them start running at the same time and Sanjay completes the race
in exactly 2 minutes and 10 seconds, then how much extra time will Ajay need to run the
remaining distance?
(a) 20 seconds
(b) 25 seconds
(c) 15 seconds
(d) 30 seconds
SOLUTION:
Gap = (15 – 13) * 130 = 260 m
Time (Ajay) = 260/13 = 20 s

42. Rahul starts walking clock-wise around an arc and stops after walking 5π metres, at which
point he has walked 1/4th of a circle. What is the shortest distance between Rahul’s starting
and ending points?
(a) 10 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 10√2 m
(d) 20√3 m

19
 SOLUTION:

2πr/4 = 5π ➔ r = 10 m ➔ Ratio of sides (45 : 45 : 90 triangle) = a : a : a√2

 Distance = 10√2 m

43. What is the value of the 43rd number after the decimal point when 9 is divided by 11?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 8
(d) 9
SOLUTION:
9/11 = 0.8181818181…… ➔ 43rd number (odd) = 8

S.(44-45) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
On the brand front, Indian coffee is still facing an identity crisis in global markets, although
the country started exporting coffee actively before the 19th century. Indian coffee is highly
rated and commands premium prices in the global coffee markets. But a global buyer of
Indian coffee may not know about the brew’s India connection as they would have bought it
from a coffee roaster. The fact that India sells Robusta and Arabic at a price higher than the
hugely advertised Colombia is an indication of the brand building done by the Indian
exporter and the quality of Indian coffee. Yet, Indian coffee does not have an individual
brand identity in the international markets, say growers and exporters. “Indian coffee was
never considered a separate origin coffee. It was always used as filler,”.

44. What is the most critical message of the above passage?

(a) Indian coffee is highly rated and commands premium prices in the global coffee
markets.
(b) India needs to facilitate more growth of Robusta and Arabic coffee.
(c) Indian coffee brand needs to be developed as a separate origin coffee in the
international market.
(d) Coffee needs government support like tea gets in India
SOLUTION:
(c) The passage highlights Option (c) as most critical.

20
45. “Indian coffee was never considered a separate origin coffee. It was always used as a filler”.
The quote from above passage means :
(a) Indian coffee is mixed with other coffee brands in the international market.
(b) Indian Robusta and Arabic coffee beans are mixed with Columbia coffee beans for taste
and cost.
(c) Indian coffee fills the gap in demand and supply in the international coffee market.
(d) Indian coffee gives a feeling of fullness when mixed with other brands.
SOLUTION:
(a) Self-explanatory.

S.(46-47) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
DNA tests occupy a grey area in the quest for justice, vacillating between the dangers of
slipping into self-incrimination and encroachment on individual privacy and the “eminent
need” to unearth the truth. They can be of help as evidence in a criminal case or in proving
a claim of marital infidelity or paternity.
More and more complainants are seeking DNA tests – a senior official associated with a
government laboratory estimates such requests increasing by around 20% each year. The
Supreme Court recently held – in a case concerning a woman known only as ‘XX’ to protect
her identity – that compelling an unwilling person to undergo a DNA test would be a
violation of personal liberty and right to privacy, turning the spotlight on a technology that
aids the cause of justice but violates privacy.

46. What is the most important and logical conclusion of the above passage?
(a) DNA tests occupy a grey area in the guest to know the truth.
(b) DNA tests can be of help as evidence in a criminal case or in proving a claim of marital
infidelity or paternity.
(c) The requests for DNA tests are on the rise as relationship trust decreases.
(d) Technology should be used based on merits of each case and future consequences
on the warring parties.
SOLUTION:
(d) Technology aid needs to be used balancing between finding the truth and individual
privacy rights as per the passage.

21
47. With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made :
I. Use of technology to find the truth even though it may violate individual privacy rights
is key to rendering justice irrespective of the merits of the case.
II. Depending solely on technology may make jurisprudence redundant.
Which of the above assumption is/are valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
SOLUTION:
(b) From the passage only assumption II seems sound.

S.(48) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 3
The curriculum is keeping pace with some of the structural shifts in the marketplace…
Historically, too, engineering had evolved into various disciplines, and this is just another
such evolution, an educator says “I would probably see some of these to be a natural
evolution purely based on structural shifts in the marketplace. But what is important is to
ensure that these are adjacencies rather than… something very disjointed. That is the
broad philosophy”.
“What is important is the adjacencies are relevant so that the students get the foundational
knowledge and also choose some of these newer programmes as electives… If these are
natural extensions or disciplines that are adjacent to the core programmes, then I think it
is a very welcome change. That is where the market is,” he explains.

48. With which of the following statements the author of the above passage will not agree?
(a) Engineering curriculum is keeping pace with structural shifts in marketplace.
(b) Over the ages engineering has evolved into various disciplines.
(c) Most of these disciplines are probably natural evolution purely based on structural
shifts in the marketplace.
(d) It is important that new disciplines are adjacencies and relevant.
SOLUTION:
(c) The author states some of the disciplines and not most.

22
 S.(49) Directions for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer
the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 4
LIFE, or Lifestyle for Environment, announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at COP26
in November 2021, brings a fresh and much needed perspective. Rather than framing
climate change as a ‘larger than life’ challenge, LIFE recognizes that small individual
actions can tip the balance in the planet’s favour. But we need guiding frameworks,
information sharing and the scale of a global movement. Mindful choices cultivated by LIFE
animate this spirit – actions such as saving energy at home; cycling and using public
transport instead of driving; eating more plant-based foods and wasting less; and leveraging
our position as customers and employees to demand climate-friendly choices.

49. Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be
made from the above passage?
(a) Small changes in individual lifestyles can have big positive climate change impact
(b) Mindful choices to control carbon emissions like cycling, eating plant-based foods etc.
(c) Customers and employees to demand climate friendly choices.
(d) Small individual actions across the globe with suitable guidance and data collation
would have the needed impact against climate change.
SOLUTION:
(d) The passage clearly states the impact of Option (d).

Directions for Questions 50 to 53: Study the information given below to answer these
questions
Aman, Bhuvan, Chandan, Divya, Esha, Falguni, Gautam and Harini are sitting round the
circle and are facing the centre. We also know that Aman is second to the right of Esha who
is the neighbour of Chandan and Gautam. Divya is not the neighbour of Aman. Gautam is
the neighbour of Falguni. Bhuvan is not between Divya and Harini. Harini is not between
Falguni and Divya.

50. Which two of the following are not neighbours?

(a) Chandan - Gautam
(b) Falguni - Gautam
(c) Chandan – Aman
(d) Bhuvan - Harini

23
51. Which one is immediate right to Gautam?
(a) Aman
(b) Falguni
(c) Chandan
(d) Esha

52. Which of the following is correct?

(a) Aman is to the immediate right of Bhuvan
(b) Chandan is between Falguni and Gautam
(c) Bhuvan is to the immediate left of Harini
(d) Falguni is between Harini and Divya

53. What is the position of Divya?

(a) Between Falguni and Gautam
(b) Second to the right of Aman
(c) To the immediate right of Harini
(d) Insufficient information
SOLUTION:

54. In an examination, 50% of the candidates failed in English, 40% failed in Hindi and 15%
failed in both the subjects. The percentage of candidates who passed in both English and
Hindi is
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 60%
(d) 75%

24
 Solution:

Total = No. of students who failed (atleast one subject) + No. of student who passed
in both subjects.
No. of students who failed (atleast one subject) i.e. (AUB) = 50 + 40 – 15 = 75%.
Total = AUB + No. of student who passed in both subjects.
100% = 75% + No. of student who passed in both subjects.
No. of student who passed in both subjects = 100% - 75% = 25%.

55. P, Q, R and S are four males. P is the eldest in the group but he is not the poorest, R is the
richest but not the eldest, Q is elder than S but he is not elder than P or R, P is richer than
Q but he is not richer than S. How the four persons can be arranged in decreasing order of
their age and money?

(a) PQRS, RPSQ

(b) PRQS, RSPQ

(c) PRQS, RSQP

(d) PRSQ, RSPQ

SOLUTION:

Decreasing order (agewise)

P> R> Q> S

Decreasing order (moneywise)

R>S>P>Q

25
56. If there are 51 marbles in a jar wherein there are 50 white marbles and 1 black marble,
then in how many ways can two marbles be selected at random so that at least one of the
marbles is white?
(a) 2550
(b) 1275
(c) 1000
(d) 1200
SOLUTION:
Only one white marble and other one is black = 50C1*1c1=50
Both of the marbles are white = 50C2=1225
So, Atleast one white marble = 50 + 1225 = 1275

57. 20 people go for a corporate lunch and pay a bill of Rs. 22,400 including 12% GST. What
was the total bill amount without GST?
(a) Rs. 18,000
(b) Rs. 20,000
(c) Rs. 21,000
(d) Rs. 22,000
SOLUTION:
Let the bill without GST = x ➔ x * 112/100 = 22400 ➔ x = Rs. 20,000

58. If there is a 50% chance of rain and a 50% chance of having a sunny day on every day from
Monday to Friday, then what is the probability that it rains on exactly 3 days?
(a) 5/16
(b) 5/8
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/32
SOLUTION:
P (Rain on 3 days) = 5C3/25 = [5!/(3!*2!)]/32 = 10/32 = 5/16

S.(59-60) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
The 11th volume of the Report of the Official Language Committee submitted to the
President of India on September 9, 2022, did not seem to evoke much interest in the media.
Except the Chief Ministers of Tamil Nadu and Kerala, no other political leader reacted to the
recommendations made.

26
The main recommendations, as reported in a section of the print media, are that Hindi
should replace English as the language of examinations for recruitment to the government;

Hindi should be the only medium of instruction in Kendriya Vidyalayas, Indian Institutes of

Technology (IITs), Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs) and central universities; it should

be constitutionally binding on State governments to propagate Hindi, etc. The official

language committee is a statutory committee constituted under Section 4 in the Official

Language Act, 1963. Its duty is to review the progress made in the use of Hindi for the

official purposes of the Union and submit a report to the President. The Act makes it
obligatory for the President to issue directions “in accordance with the whole or any part of

the report” (Section 4(4)). It can thus be seen that the committee’s recommendations are

required to be acted upon.

It is the special status of this committee’s recommendations which is crucial to the

understanding of the official language policy in India. The recommendations have a

mandatory character as is clear from the words “in accordance with” (Section 4(4)).

The chapter on ‘Official language’ in the Constitution took final shape as a result of

compromises made by the protagonists of diverse opinions. Finally, Hindi was declared the

official language of the Union and it was also provided that the English language will
continue for 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution. It was further provided

that, if needed, Parliament may provide by law that English will continue even after the

period of 15 years. Accordingly, Parliament enacted the official languages Act in 1963,

providing for the continuance of English indefinitely as official language along with Hindi for
the official purposes of the Union and for transaction of business in Parliament.

The reported recommendations of the official language committee pose a problem for the
President in as much as the committee says that Hindi should totally replace English as

medium of instruction in central universities, IIMs, IITs, etc. The remit of the committee is

to review the progress made in the use of Hindi for the official purposes of the Union and

report to the President there on. Obviously, the committee is not mandated to recommend
the medium of instruction in universities and professional institutions. Further, since
Parliament has declared by law that English shall continue along with Hindi, a statutory

committee constituted under that very Act has no mandate to recommend the

discontinuation of English.

27
59. According to the passage what is the most critical message?
(a) Since Parliament has declared by law that English shall continue with Hindi
as Official Language under the Official Languages Act 1963, a statutory
committee constituted under the very act has no mandate to recommend the
discontinuation of English.
(b) Other Chief Ministers of Non- Hindi speaking states should react strongly like
Chief Ministers of Tamil Nadu and Kerala against the Report of the Official Language
Committee submitted to the President of India.
(c) The recommendations of the said Report is mandatory and hence important to debate
further.
(d) The Committee went beyond its scope to review the progress of use of Hindi and instead
recommended that Hindi should totally replace English as medium of instruction in
Central Universities, IIMs, IITs etc.
SOLUTION:
(a) The passage concludes with that message which is the most critical.

60. With reference to the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
1. Once Hindi replaces English as recommended by the Committee, the language used in
the examination for recruitment to the all-India Services will be Hindi alone.
2. Once English loses its importance in India the vast employment opportunities that have
been existing all these years in the English-speaking world will dwindle drastically.
Which of the above assumptions are/ is valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
SOLUTION:
(c) Both assumptions are sound and valid and hence Option (c).

61. For a Formula 1 race, Ferrari mixes 94% purity jet fuel with 98% purity jet fuel in order to
get a mixture of 97% purity jet fuel for their race car. In what ratio did they mix the 94%
and 98% jet fuels?
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 4 : 1
SOLUTION:
0.94a + 0.98b = 0.97 (a + b) ➔ 0.94a + 0.98b = 0.97a + 0.97b ➔ 0.1b = 0.3a
➔ b = 3a ➔ a/b = 1/3

28
62. Manikandan buys goods worth Rs. 10,000 and puts a certain mark up on them. What was
the marked price of the goods if he made a 20% profit after giving 40% discount to his
customers?
(a) Rs. 18,000
(b) Rs. 20,000
(c) Rs. 22,000
(d) Rs. 24,000
SOLUTION:
SP = (120/100) * 10000 = Rs. 12,000
MP * 60/100 = SP ➔ MP = 12000 * 100/60 = Rs. 20,000

63. John invests Rs. 5,000 with Dena Bank at 20% compound interest per annum compounded
half-yearly. How much interest will he earn in two years?
(a) Rs.2,000
(b) Rs. 2120
(c) Rs. 2200.50
(d) Rs. 2320.50
SOLUTION:
5000 * (110/100)4 = 5000 * 1.14 = 5000 * 1.4641 = 7320.5
Interest = 7320.5 – 5000 = Rs. 2320.5

64. If the price of chicken increased by 50%, then by what percentage must a bodybuilder
change his consumption if he increases his budget for buying chicken by 25%?
(a) - 20%
(b) + 25%
(c) – 33.33%
(d) – 16.67%
SOLUTION:
Let the original price = Rs. 100 & original budget = Rs. 100
New price = 100*150/100 = Rs. 150 * new budget = 100*125/100 = Rs. 125
Shortfall = 150 – 125 = Rs. 25
 Reduction in consumption = (25/150)*100 = 16.67%

65. The minute hand of a clock faces east at 3:00 pm. If the clock is rotated 90 clock-wise,
then in what direction will the minute hand be when the time is 6:00 pm?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West

29
 SOLUTION:

If this clock is rotated 90 degrees clockwise, then at 6:00 pm, the minute hand will face the
north direction.

66. In how many ways can the letters of the word BOTTLE be re-arranged?
(a) 120
(b) 720
(c) 360
(d) 180
SOLUTION:
BOTTLE = 6!/2! = 6*5*4*3 = 360

67. If ab < 0, then which of the following must be true?

(a) a < 0
(b) b > 0
(c) a/b < 0
(d) a/b > 0
SOLUTION:
Either a < 0 and b > 0 or a > 0 and b < 0 ➔ a/b < 0

68. A golden box is melted and the contents are poured into a right-circular cylinder of radius 4
cm and height 12 cm. If the cylinder is half-full after pouring all the gold, then what was
the height of the box if its length and width were 4 cm each?
(a) 6π cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 24π cm

30
 SOLUTION:
Volume of gold = πr2h/2 = π*16*12/2 = 96π cm2
 l*b*h = 96π ➔ 4*4*h = 96π ➔ h = 6π cm

69. Ram walks from his home to his school at an average speed of 8 km/hr and returns along
the same route at an average speed of 12 km/hr. What is his average speed for the entire
round-trip?
(a) 10 km/hr
(b) 11 km/ hr
(c) 9 km/hr
(d) 9.6 km/hr
SOLUTION:
Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time; Let one-way distance = d km
2𝑑 2𝑑 24
 S= 𝑑 𝑑 = 5𝑑 = 2𝑑 ∗ = 9.6 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
+ 5𝑑
8 12 24

70. Sam and Pam can finish a piece of work in 4 days when they work together. If Sam alone
can finish the piece of work in 6 days, then how many days will it take Pam to finish it
alone?
(a) 8 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 12 days
(d) 14 days
SOLUTION:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Let the no. of days taken by Pam = P ➔ = + ➔ 𝑃 = 4 − 6 ➔ 𝑃 = 12 ➔ P = 12 days
4 6 𝑃

71. The average age of 25 students is 25 years. If the average age increases by 0.5 years by the
addition of one extra student, then what is the age of the new student?
(a) 36 years
(b) 37 years
(c) 38 years
(d) 39 years
SOLUTION:
Addition to everyone’s average age = 0.5*25 = 12.5
& New student’s own average age = 25.5 ➔ New student’s actual age = 12.5 + 25.5 = 38
years

31
72. What is the difference between the interest earned by Ram and Shyam if Ram gets 10% p.a.
simple interest on Rs. 2,000 for 2 years, while Shyam gets 10% p.a. compound interest on
the same amount for the same duration compounded annually?
(a) Rs. 10
(b) Rs. 20
(c) Rs. 30
(d) Rs. 40
SOLUTION:
SI = 2000*(10/100)*2 = Rs. 400
CI ➔ A = 2000 *(110/100)2 = 2000 * 1.21 = Rs. 2420 ➔ CI = 2420 – 2000 = Rs. 420
 Difference = 420 – 400 = Rs. 20

73. If goods worth Rs. 2,000 are sold for Rs. 2,400, then what is the profit as a percentage of
sales?
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 24%
(d) 16.67%
SOLUTION:
CP = 2000 ; SP = 2400 ➔ Profit = 2400 = 2000 = Rs. 400
 Profit as a % of sales = (400/2400)*100 = 16.67%

74. A bag has 10 bats and 3 balls, how many bats must be added to make the ratio of bats to
balls equal to 4 : 1?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
SOLUTION:
Let the number of new bats = x
10+𝑥 4
 = ➔ 10 + x = 12 ➔ x = 2
3 1

75. What will be the next term in the following series: 9, 13.5, 20.25, _____?
(a) 25.5
(b) 30.25
(c) 26.75
(d) 30.375
SOLUTION:
Each successive term = (Previous term * 3) / 2

32
76. What will be the next term in the following series: 1, 3, 1, 1, -1, -3, ____?
(a) 7
(b) -7
(c) 3
(d) -3
SOLUTION:
An = An-1 + An-2 -3
Each term is equal to the sum of the previous two terms minus three.

Directions for Questions 77 to 78: In each of the following questions two statements are
given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). You have to
take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Select :
(a) if only conclusion I follows
(b) if only conclusion II follows
(c) if both follow
(d) if neither I nor II follows

77. Statements: (A) All bricks are cement.

(B) All cement are hard.
Conclusions: I. All bricks are hard.
II. All hard are cement.

78. Statements: (A) Some pads are mats.

(B) Some mouse are pads.
Conclusions: I. Some mats are pads.
II. Some mouse are mats.

33
 SOLUTION :
POSSIBILITY I : POSSIBILITY II:

79. In an ancient language:

'clay samat chao' means 'red and ripe';
'soi chao kapat' means 'papaya is red' and
'plu clay kapat' means 'fruit is ripe'.
Which of the following means 'papaya is ripe' in that code?
(a) clay samat kapat
(b) soi kapat chao
(c) kapat clay soi
(d) None of these
SOLUTION:
“clay” stands for “ripe” and “kapat” stands for “is.” There is no option that includes both the
codes. “chao” stands for “red,” which means that “soi” must mean “papaya.” Therefore,
“papaya is ripe” must have the words clay, kapat and soi.

80. Which of the following figures will correctly fit into the pattern on the left?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
SOLUTION:
The 4th figure completes the square and the rhombus.

34